FIITJEE – INTERNAL Phase Test

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

QP CODE: 100889 RIT – 9
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
BATCHES – Two Year CRP – 2325

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A & B of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) PART–A (01–03) contains (3) Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: − 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result
in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(ii) Part-A (04-07) – Contains Four (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(iii) Part-A (08-11) – This section contains Four (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice
Question. Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II
has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based
on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple
Choice Question. Each question carries +3 Marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(iii) Part-B (01-06) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER. For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer. Each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate: ____________________________________________

Batch: ____________________ Date of Examination: ___________________

Enrolment Number: _______________________________________________

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 2 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II:: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. Laws of reflection are valid for

(A) plane surface (B) curved surface
(C) zigzag surface (D) none of these

2. A thin film of thickness t and index of refraction 1.33 coats a glass with index of refraction
1.50. Which of the following thickness t will not reflect normally incident light (from air to film)
with wavelength 640 nm in air?
(A) 120 nm (B) 240 nm
(C) 360 nm (D) 600 nm

3. A ball is projected with initial speed v at a f = –30 cm

distance 20 cm from pole of a concave mirror
as shown in the figure. Speed of image can be V
(A) 2V 
P
(B) 3 V 20 cm

(C) 5 V
(D) 10 V

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3
4. When a thin transparent sheet of refractive index  = is placed near one the slits in
2
Young’s double slits experiment, the intensity at the centre of the screen reduces to half of
the maximum intensity. The minimum thickness of the sheet should be
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 2 3

5. As situation shown in figure, the angle of

deviation of the ray when the ray is moving away Incident ray
from the mirror Spherical mirror of radius R
3
R
(A) 120° 2
P Principal axis
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) none of these

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 3 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

6. The maximum intensity in Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is
d = 5, where  is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. What will
be the intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen at a distance D = 10 d?
(Assuming D >>d)
I 3 I
(A) 0 (B) I0 (C) I0 (D) 0
2 4 4

7. A ray parallel to the principal axis is incident at 30° with the normal on a convex spherical
mirror having radius of curvature R. The distance from the pole to the point where the line of
reflected ray intersects the principal axis.
R R
(A) (B)
2 3
 1   1 
(C) R  1 −  (D) R  1 − 
 2  3

(Matching List Sets)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. For a real point object placed in front of a mirror, magnification m is given in List-I, List-II
gives the possible nature of the mirror or that of image. Match appropriately.

List-I List-II
(P) 1 (1) Concave mirror
m=
4
(Q) m = –1 (2) Convex mirror
(R) m=2 (3) Plane mirror
(S) m=1 (4) Real
(5) Virtual
The correct option is:
(A) P → 1,4 ; Q → 3,5 ; R → 2 ; S → 3,4 (B) P → 2,4 ; Q → 1,5 ; R → 2 ; S → 1,5
(C) P → 2,5 ; Q → 1,4 ; R → 1,5 ; S → 3,5 (D) P → 2,5 ; Q → 1,4 ; R → 2,3 ; S → 1
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 4 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

9.
List-I List-II
(P) Observed on screen (1) virtual image of a real object.
(Q) Observed by naked eye (2) virtual image of a virtual object.
(R) Still photographed by a camera (3) real image of a real object.
(S) Recording by video camera (4) real image of a virtual object
(5) a real object is placed at the focus of
concave lens.
The correct option is:
(A) P → 3,4 ; Q → 1,2,3,4,5 ; R → 1,2,3,4,5 ; S → 1,2,3,4,5
(B) P → 2,4 ; Q → 1,2,3,4,5 ; R → 1,2,3,4 ; S → 1,2,3
(C) P → 1,2,3,4,5 ; Q → 3,4,5 ; R → 1,2 ; S → 1,2,3,4,5
(D) P → 1,2 ; Q → 1,2,3,4,5 ; R → 2,4,5 ; S → 1,3,4,5

10. A light wave is moving in air and incident at the surface of the water then match the lists.
List-I List-II
(P) The phase difference between transmitted wave (1) O
(in water) and incoming wave (in air).
(Q) The phase difference between reflected wave and (2) 
incoming wave.
(R) The change of phase if the sound wave travelled in air (3) 
for half of the time period. 2
(S) The change of phase if the sound wave travelled in (4) 2
water for half of the time period.
(5) 
6
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2 ; Q → 2 ; R → 3 ; S → 1 (B) P → 1 ; Q → 1 ; R → 2 ; S → 2
(C) P → 5 ; Q → 3 ; R → 2 ; S → 1 (D) P → 4 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 2

11. List-I shows four situations of standard young’s double slit arrangement with screen placed
far away from the slits S1 and S2. Match each situation given in List-I with the statement(s) in
List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) If sodium light is replaced by red light of same (1) All fringes are coloured
intensity. except central fringe.
(Q) Monochromatic light is replaced by white light. (2) Fringe width will become
quadrupled.
(R) Distance between slits and screen is doubled and (3) The bright fringe will
the distance between slits is halved. become less bright.
(S) If one of the slits is covered by cellophane paper. (4) The fringe width will
increases.
(5) The fringe width will
remains same.
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4 ; Q → 1 ; R → 3 ; S → 5 (B) P → 4 ; Q → 1 ; R → 2 ; S → 3
(C) P → 3 ; Q → 2 ; R → 1 ; S → 5 (D) P → 2 ; Q → 1 ; R → 4 ; S → 5

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 5 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

V1 Y( ˆj)
1. The mirror moves along x-axis with velocity
V1 = 2 m/s and object moves parallel to y-axis
with velocity V2 = 3 m/s as shown in figure. V2
The magnitude of velocity of the image is
ˆ
X(i)

2. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index
1.5. The distance of virtual image from the surface (in cm) will be

3. The intensity of the light coming from one of the slits in a Young's double slit experiment is
four times the intensity from the other slit. Find the ratio of the maximum intensity to the
minimum intensity in the interference fringe pattern observed.

4. Monochromatic light of wavelength1 of 600 nm is used in a YDSE. One of the slits is

covered by a transparent sheet of thickness 0.9 x 10-5 m made of a material of refractive
index 1.6. How many fringes will shift due to the introduction of the sheet?

5. An insect moves along the dotted line (1). It’s

image moves along the line 4

1 5 2

6. A ray of light is incident with an angle of incidence 60° on one face of prism, which has an
angle of 30°. The ray emerging out of the prism makes an angle of 30° with the incident ray.
Then angle of emergence will be
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 6 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII:: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. An hcp and a ccp structure for a given element would be expected to have
(A) the same coordination number (B) the same density
(C) the same packing fraction (D) all of these

2. A mixture of two salts is used to prepare a solution ‘s’ which gives the following results
White ppt ( s ) only ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dil NaOH
⎯ s ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Dil.HCl
→ White ppt ( s ) only
(aq.
the salts )
Room temp Room temp sol of

The correct option(s) for the salt mixture is(are)

(A) Pb(NO3)2 and Zn(NO3)2 (B) Pb(NO3)2 and Bi(NO3)2
(C) AgNO3 and Bi(NO3)2 (D) PbNO3 and Hg(NO3)2

3. Consider the following solutions

I. 1 M sucrose II. 1 M KCl
III. 1 M benzoic acid in benzene IV. 1 M(NH4)3PO4
Which of the following is/are true?
[Assume 100% dissociation on salts]
(A) All solutions are isotonic (B) III is hypotonic of I, II and IV
(C) I, II and III are hypertonic of IV (D) IV is hypertonic of I, II and III

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. The incorrect statement(s) about surface properties is(are)

(A) Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in enthalpy and decrease in entropy of the
system.
(B) The critical temperatures of ethane and nitrogen are 563 K and 126 K, respectively. The
adsorption of ethane will be more than that of nitrogen on same amount of activated
charcoal at a given temperature.
(C) Cloud is an emulsion type of colloid in which liquid is dispersed phase and gas is
dispersion medium.
(D) Brownian motion of colloidal particles does not depend on the size of the particles but
depends on viscosity of the solution.

5. Which of the following solutions has minimum freezing point?

(A) 0.01 M NaCl (B) 0.005 M C2H5OH
(C) 0.005 M MgCl2 (D) 0.005 MgSO4
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 7 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

6. Which is not a molecular solid?

(A) Ice (B) Iodine
(C) Dry ice (D) Diamond

7. PCl5 + H2O ⎯⎯→ X + HCl

PCl3 + H2O ⎯⎯→ Y + HCl
(X) and (Y) are respectively
(A) H3PO4 and H3PO3 (B) POCl3 and POCl
(C) POCl3 and H3PO3 (D) H3PO4 and POCl

(Matching List Sets)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. Match the anions mentioned in list-I with their reactions mentioned in list-II.
List – I List– II
(salts with degree of dissociation) (Van’t Hoff factor)
(P) KNO3( = 0.8) (1) 4.6
(Q) CaCl2( = 0.6) (2) 5.8
(R) K4[Fe(CN)6] ( = 0.9) (3) 2.2
(S) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 ( = 0.8) (4) 1.8
(5) 3.6
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4 (B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4 (D) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1

9. Match the lists.

List – I List– II
(Basic radicals) (Properties)
(P) Ca2+ (1) When the acetate salt of the metal ion
reacts with K2CrO4 a yellow ppt. in
soluble in acidic medium is formed
(Q) Al3+ (2) Forms white ppt. with both NaOH and
NH4OH
(R) Pb2+ (3) Forms a white precipitate with Na2C2O4.
The ppt. is soluble in dil. acid
(S) Ba2+ (4) Forms a white ppt. with Na2SO3. The
ppt. is soluble in dil. acids when freshly
prepared. When the ppt. is exposed to
atmosphere, it becomes insoluble in
dil.acids
(5) Forms a white precipitate with KCN
(A) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2 (B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
(C) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 2 (D) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4
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 8 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

10. Match the lists.

List – I List– II
(Ionic solids) (Coordination number)
(P) NaCl (1) 8
(Q) CsCl (2) 6
(R) ZnS (3) 4
(S) CaF2 (4) 4 and 8
(5) 3 and 6
(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1 (B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
(C) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 5 (D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4
11. Match the lists.
List – I List– II
(Interhalogen compounds) (Hybridization of central atom)
(P) BrCl (1) sp3d3
(Q) ClF3 (2) sp3d2
(R) IF5 (3) sp3d
(S) IF7 (4) sp3
(5) sp2
(A) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4 (B) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1 (D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

1. The nitrate of a 3d-series metal ‘M’ forms a single white zelatinous precipitate(P) with NaOH.
(P) is soluble in dil. HCl as well as in NaOH solution. It can also form the same precipitate
with ammonia solution and the precipitate is readily soluble in excess of the reagent due to
formation of a complex of M2+. How many maximum number of electrons with  = 2 and
s = +½ are present in metal(M?)
2. The sodium salt of the monocarboxylic acid(P) forms a white precipitate(Q) when treated
with mercuric chloride. This precipitate turns grey when excess of (P) is added. How many
carbon atom(s) is/are present in the acid(P)?
3. The formula of the spinel is MgAl2O4. If the oxide ions are replaced with carbide ions(C4–),
how many anionic vacancy will be created per unit cell?
4. Two ions A+ and B– have ionic radii 88 and 200 pm respectively. In the close-packed crystal
of compound AB, predict the coordination number of A+.
5. Among PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag2S, NiS, CoS, CdS, the total number of black coloured
sulphides is
6. 0.1 mole of glycol was added to 500 g of water at 1 atm pressure. The aqueous solution was
cooled to -XoC, in order to produce 65 g of ice, what is the value of 10X?
[Kf or H2O = 1.86 K Kg mol–1]
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 9 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. If A 2 + A + I = 0, then
(A) A is nonsingular (B) A  0
(C) A is singular (D) A −1 = − ( A + I)

 dy  x
2. If y = f ( x ) is solution of the differential equation  − 1 e − e− x + y ex + e− x = 0 then
 dx 
( ) ( )
(A) maximum value of f ( x ) is 1 (B) minimum value of f ( x ) is –1
(C) range of f ( x ) is (–1, 1) (D) equation f ( x ) = x has exactly one solution

3. If the area bounded by y = f ( x ) , y – axis and line 2y =  ( x + 1) , where

 1 
f ( x ) = sin−1 x + cos−1 x + tan−1 x + tan−1   is , then k is not equal to
x k
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. If A is order 3 square matrix such that A = 2, then adj ( adj ( adj A ) ) is

(A) 512 (B) 256
(C) 64 (D) none of these

5. Let A and B be 2 × 2 matrices with real entries satisfying (AB – BA)n = I2 for some positive
integer n, then n is
(A) even (B) odd
(C) prime (D) any integer
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 10 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)


1 y2   
 x
2
1
6. Solution of the differential equation  − 2
dx +  −  dy = 0 is
( ) ( )
2


x x − y 
 
 x − y y 

x xy xy
(A) ln + =c (B) ln xy + =c
y (x − y) (x − y)
xy xy
(C) = ce x/ y (D) = cexy
(x − y) ( x − y)
(where c is an arbitrary constant)

x y
7. The area enclosed by the graph of + = 1 is
5 3
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40

(Matching List Sets)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. Match the expression in List – I with the appropriate value in List – II

List – I List – II
(P) sin ( x +  ) sin ( x +  ) sin ( x +  ) (1) –1
f ( x ) = cos ( x +  ) cos ( x +  ) cos ( x +  ) and f ( 0 ) = 0,
sin (  +  ) sin (  +  ) sin (  +  )
5
then  f ( j)
j =−5
equals

(Q) 0 cos x − sin x

2 (2) 0
If sin2x = 1, then f ( x ) = sin x 0 cos x equals
cos x sin x 0
(R) sin x sec x x 2 − 1 (3) 2
 /3
If f ( x ) = cos ec x x sin x cos x then  f ( x ) dx
tan x x tan x x 2 + 1 − /3

equals
(S) Maximum value of the determinant (4) 3
1 + sin x
2 2
cos x sin 2x
2
sin x 1 + cos x
2
sin 2x
2
sin x 2
cos x 1 + sin 2x
(5) 1
(A) P → 2, Q →2, R →4, S →1 (B) P → 2, Q →2, R →2, S →4
(C) P → 2, Q →1, R →2, S →5 (D) P → 5, Q →2, R →2, S →1
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 11 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

9.
List – I List – II
(P) 1 2 a
n
 1 18 2007  (1) 225
  
If 0 1 4  = 0 1 
36  , then (n + a ) =
0 0 1 0 0 1 
(Q) If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that (2) 200
A = a,B = adj ( A ) and B = b, then
( ab 2
)
+ a2b + 1  = _______
1 a a 2 a3
(where  = + 3 + 5 + ... upto  and a = 3 )
2 b b b
(R) a b c  (3) 16
Let A = p q r  and B = A2 . If
 1 1 1

(a − b) + (p − q) = 25, (b − c ) + ( q − r ) = 36
2 2 2 2
and
B
(c − a) + (r − p ) = 49 , then det   equals
2 2

2
(S) If A and B are square matrices of odd order and (4) 108
( A + B ) = A 2 + B2 , if det ( A ) = 2, then det (B ) equals
2

(5) 0
(A) P → 5, Q →1, R →4, S →2 (B) P → 2, Q →1, R →4, S →5
(C) P → 5, Q →1, R →3, S →5 (D) P → 1, Q →2, R →5, S →3
10. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
List – I List – II
(P) The area bounded by y = 3 x and y = x 2 (1) 2
3
(Q) The area bounded by x = 4 − y 2 and the y-axis (2) 17
12
(R) The area in square units of the region bounded by the (3) 32
curve x2 = 4 y on the line x = 2 and the x-axis is 3
(S) The area bounded by y = x3 , y = x 2 and x = 1, x = 2 (4) 32
9
(5) 9
2
Which is correct option?
(A) P→ 5, Q→ 3, R→ 1, S→ 2 (B) P→ 2, Q→ 1, R→ 3, S→ 5
(C) P→ 4, Q→ 3, R→ 2, S→ 1 (D) P→ 2, Q→ 3, R→ 5, S→ 2
Space For Rough Work

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 12 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

11. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists

List – I List – II
(P) 1 0 −1 (1) –3
If matrix A = 3
 4 5  and its inverse

0 6 7 
 a11 a12 a13 
A =  a21 a22
−1
a23  , then the value of a23 is
 a31 a32 a33 
(Q)  cos xsin x  1 0  (2) 1
If A =   and A ( adj. A) = k   then
− sin x
cos x  0 1 
the value of k is
(R)  1 logb a  (3) 0
A=
1 
then | A | is equal to
log a b
(S) a b  (4) 4
If A =   is nth root of 4 I 2 , then the value of a n is
0 a 
(5) 2
5
Which is correct option?
(A) P→ 5, Q→ 2, R→ 3, S→ 4 (B) P→ 2, Q→ 1, R→ 3, S→ 5
(C) P→ 4, Q→ 3, R→ 2, S→ 1 (D) P→ 2, Q→ 3, R→ 5, S→ 2

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

1 + a2 + a 4 1 + ab + a2b2 1 + ac + a 2c 2
1. If A = 1 + ab + a2b2 1 + b2 + b 4 1 + bc + b2c 2 , a,b,c  R and A = 4I (where I is identity
1 + ac + a2c 2 1 + bc + b 2c 2 1 + c 2 + c 4
k
matrix and if k = ( a − b ) + (b − c ) + ( c − a ) then
3 3 3
=
6
Space For Rough Work

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 13 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

x f (x)
2. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying the condition f   = ( y  0, f ( y )  0 )
 y  f (y)
 x, y  R and f ' (1) = 2 . If the smaller area enclosed by y = f ( x ), x2 + y2 = 2 is A, then find
[A], where [.] represents the greatest integer function.

3. If the system of linear equations

( cos ) x + ( sin  ) y + cos  = 0
( sin ) x + ( cos ) y + sin  = 0
( cos ) x + ( sin  ) y − cos  = 0 is consistent, then find the number of possible values of
  0, 2

4. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 whose elements are real numbers and
16 0 −3 
adj. ( adj. ( adj.A ) ) =  0 4 0  then find absolute value of Tr A −1 ( )
 0 3 4 
[Note : adj. (P ) and Tr (P ) denote adjoint matrix and trace of matrix P respectively.]

5. If the x – axis divide the area of the region bounded by the parabolas y = 4x − x 2
ab
and y = x2 − x in the ratio of a : b then is equal to
121

6. Let f ( x ) be a differentiable function satisfying f ' ( x ) = f ( x ) with f ( 0 ) = 1 and g ( x )

1

satisfies f ( x ) + g ( x ) = ex ( x + 1) . If  f ( x ) g ( x ) dx = ae + b, then the value of ( a + b ) is

2 2

Space For Rough Work

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 14 IIT-2025 (RIT-9) (PCM)

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCHES: Two Year CRP325
RIT – 9
Code: 100889
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEYS
Physics
PART – A
1. ABC 2. ACD 3. BC 4. C
5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C
9. A 10. B 11. B
PART – B
1. 5 2. 6 3. 9 4. 9
5. 2 6. 0

Chemistry
PART – A
1. AC 2. ABC 3. BD 4. D
5. A 6. D 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. C
PART – B
1. 5 2. 1 3. 2 4. 6
5. 6 6. 4

Mathematics
PART – A
1. ABD 2. ABCD 3. ACD 4. B
5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. A 11. A
PART – B
1. 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3
5. 4 6. 1

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