Cambridge IGCSE™

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH 0500/11

Paper 1 Reading May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 80

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

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Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

 the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
 the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
 the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

 marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
 marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
 marks are not deducted for errors
 marks are not deducted for omissions
 answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

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English & Media subject specific general marking principles

(To be read in conjunction with the Generic Marking Principles (and requiring further guidance
on how to place marks within levels))

Components using level descriptors:

 We use level descriptors as a guide to broad understanding of the qualities normally expected
of, or typical of, work in a level.
 Level descriptors are a means of general guidance, and should not be interpreted as hurdle
statements.
 Where indicative content notes are supplied for a question, these are not a prescription of
required content, and must not be treated as such. Alternative correct points and unexpected
answers in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the knowledge and skills
demonstrated.
 While we may have legitimate expectations as to the ground most answers may occupy, we
must at all times be prepared to meet candidates on their chosen ground, provided it is relevant
ground (e.g. clearly related to and derived from a relevant passage/text and meeting the mark
scheme requirements for the question).

Components using point-based marking:

Point marking is often used to reward knowledge, understanding and application of skills. We give
credit where the candidate’s answer shows relevant knowledge, understanding and application of
skills in answering the question. We do not give credit where the answer shows confusion.

From this it follows that we:

a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey
the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term).
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are
correct.
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check
for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.).
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities.
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited
unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e.
polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However, spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with
which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion).

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Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.

Question 1

This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):

R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings

R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R5 select and use information for specific purposes

and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):

W2 organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect

W3 use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context
W5 make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar.

Overview of items for Question 1

Item Assessment objectives tested Marks for assessment objectives
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
1(f) R1, R2 and R5 10
W2, W3 and W5 5
Total 30

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Question Answer Marks

1(a) Give the two examples of types of endurance events, other than ultra- 1
marathons, according to the text.

Award 1 mark for two correct responses.

 triathlon(s) / Ironman
 adventure race(s) / Tough Mudder

1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘challenge the limits’ (line 3):

Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands).

Award 1 mark for partial explanation.

Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase.

 test (your) / push (yourself) to / force(d) / prove (to themselves)
 extremes (of abilities) / the most you can do / boundaries (of what you can do) /
beyond comfort zone / what is possible

1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘mythical beast’ (line 4):

Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands).

Award 1 mark for partial explanation.

Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase

 imaginary / fictitious / not real / of legends / legendary
 creature / animal (allow non-human) / monster

1(c) Re-read paragraph 3 (‘Somewhere … you?’). 2

Identify two ways in which Tough Mudder always differs from other extreme
events.

 short(er)
 involves getting hurt / more dangerous / fire / electric shock

Award 1 mark for each idea, up to a maximum of 2.

Do not credit ‘dangerous’.

1(d)(i) Re-read paragraphs 4 and 5 (‘I’ve no idea … with life.’). 2

Give two reasons why the writer decided to drop their ‘habitual laziness’ and
take up
running.

 large belly / became overweight / to lose weight

 was unfit / got out of breath easily / to get fit

Award 1 mark for each idea, up to a maximum of 2.

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Question Answer Marks

1(d)(ii) Re-read paragraphs 4 and 5 (‘I’ve no idea … with life.’). 3

Explain why extreme sports are growing in popularity according to the text.

 life has become sterile / life is too safe / lack of risk

 no adrenaline rush (in workplace) / crave excitement / boring
 tired of rat-race / fed up with 9–5 routine / pressure to keep doing the same thing
 looking for a way to re-engage with life / doing something fulfilling / feeling alive

Award 1 mark for each idea, up to a maximum of 3.

1(e) Re-read paragraph 6 (‘After completing … achievement.’). 3

Using your own words, explain why some Ironman competitors might still like
to compete in marathons.

Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.

 less flashy / quieter

 true sporting challenge / classic race / sense of nostalgia / (for) real athletes
 equal buzz / same thrill
 (inner) sense of achievement

Award 1 mark for each idea, predominantly in own words, up to a maximum of 3.

Do not credit ‘ultimate thrill’.

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Question Answer Marks

1(f) According to Text B, why did Jayden Dee want to take part in this particular 15
event?

You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as
far as possible.

Your summary should not be more than 120 words.

Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks
for the quality of your writing.

Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).

INDICATIVE READING CONTENT

Candidates may refer to any of the points below:

1 likes to be seen as hardworking / wanted to show his dedication

2 going to be on national television / likes attention / keen for fame
3 competitive nature
4 different from other endurance events / bigger challenge / most insane race
5 the (big) cash prize
6 social media
7 besotted with last year’s event / had become hooked through watching last
year’s event on TV / obsessed with idea of the race / caught bug again through
Ironman
8 timing was right / in good shape (at the time / now)
9 wants to win it / thinks he can win it
10 people he admires are competing in it
11 represent his region / represent Redmond / the man from Redmond
12 be an inspiration (to young people)

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Marking criteria for Question 1(f)

Table A, Reading

Use the following table to give a mark out of 10 for Reading

Level Marks Description

5 9–10  A very effective response that demonstrates a thorough understanding of the

requirements of the task.
 Demonstrates understanding of a wide range of relevant ideas and is consistently
well-focused.
 Points are skilfully selected to demonstrate an overview.

4 7–8  An effective response that demonstrates a competent understanding of the

requirements of the task.
 Demonstrates understanding of a good range of relevant ideas and is mostly
focused.
 Points are carefully selected and there is some evidence of an overview.

3 5–6  A partially effective response that demonstrates a reasonable understanding of

the requirements of the task.
 Demonstrates understanding of ideas with occasional loss of focus.
 Some evidence of selection of relevant ideas but may include excess material.

2 3–4  A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of

the task.
 Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes
focused.
 There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.

1 1–2  A response that demonstrates a limited understanding of the task.

 The response may be a simple list of unconnected ideas or show limited focus.
 There is limited evidence of selection.

0 0  No creditable content.

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Table B, Writing

Use the following table to give a mark out of 5 for Writing.

Level Marks Description

3 4–5  A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
 The response is well organised.
 The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.

2 3–2  A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
 There may be some lapses in organisation.
 The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
 Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.

1 1  A relevant response that lacks clarity and concision.

 There may be excessively long explanations or the response may be very
brief.
 The response may include lifted sections.
 Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar, which occasionally
impede communication.

0 0  No creditable content.

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Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.

Question 2

This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):

R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings

R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R4 demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers.

Overview of items for Question 2

Item Reading assessment Marks for reading

objectives tested assessment
objectives

2(a)(i) R1 1

2(a)(ii) R2 1

2(a)(iii) R1 1

2(a)(iv) R1 1

2(b)(i) R2 1

2(b)(ii) R2 1

2(b)(iii) R1 1

2(c) R2 and R4 3

2(d) R1, R2 and R4 15

Total 25

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Question Answer Marks

2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:

The writer was slightly unsure that it was a good idea to publish their blog entry.

(a) little hesitant (line 1)

2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:

Her husband’s training had little effect on the daily life of the family to begin
with.

(Initially it) didn’t really impact (our lives too much) (line 8)

2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:

Fitting in bike rides to the family’s weekend schedule was perfectly manageable.

totally do-able (line 12)

2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:

The writer accepted grumpily that they hadn’t changed their mind about Sam
competing in the Ironman.

(I) agreed sullenly (line 15)

2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:

June was all about Ironman. Endless weekends with Sam gone until 5pm each
day. After exercise he would need to sleep for an hour or so, thus he was
technically gone for longer. I was desperate for us to go away and have a break
from it.

Endless: interminable / (weekend) seemed to last forever / continuous / going on

weekend after weekend / infinite

2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:

technically: strictly speaking / in reality (that meant) / in literal terms / to be exact /

taking account of detail(s) / actually / as a matter of fact / realistically / basically

Do not credit ‘practically’.

2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:

desperate: longing (for) / badly wanted / strongly desired / unable to cope without
having / needed

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Question Answer Marks

2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests their 3
feelings about Sam’s approach to training for the Ironman event.

Use your own words in your explanation.

There was so much laundry (‘different road conditions’) so much extra food
(‘fuel’) and so much gear (multiple pairs of goggles with different tints ‘because
you never know…’)! Smiling understandingly, Sam assured me the next one will
be cheaper. Next one?

Award 3 marks for an appropriate example with a comprehensive explanation which

shows understanding of how the writer suggests their feelings about Sam’s approach
to training
Award 2 marks for an appropriate example and attempt at an explanation which shows
some understanding of how the writer suggests some of their feelings about Sam’s
approach to training
Award 1 mark for an example with an attempt at an explanation which shows
awareness of their feelings. The explanation may be partial.
The explanation must be predominantly in the candidate’s own words.

Responses might use the following:

 so much … so much … so much …: suggests the build-up and increasing
tension (‘.’) use of parenthesis / quotation marks to suggest her frustration with his
reasons / excuses; she feels their arguments and her frustration has been building
up.
 (‘different road conditions’): appears to be accepting his defence here though
understatement may suggest she is unimpressed by the state and scope of the
laundry, resents having to do it.
 (‘fuel’): suggests she is mocking his ‘scientific’ defence here, feels he is
consuming /burning it up at an immense rate.
 (Multiple pairs of goggles with different tints ‘because you never know.’):
suggests she does not feel such extensive range is required, feels it is excessive
and wasteful / he feels that he is being careful.
 Smiling understandingly: suggests she has been getting angry or impassioned,
(slightly) annoyed by his patronising reaction / lack of sensitivity to effect or cost.
 Sam assured me the next one will be cheaper. Next one?: suggests shock and
some dismay that he might be planning to do this again.

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Question Answer Marks

2(d) Re-read paragraphs 10 and 12. 15

 Paragraph 10 begins ‘Because it’s there …’ and is about the writer’s

reactions to other people’s views.
 Paragraph 12 begins ‘Having said all that …’ and is about the writer’s
feelings at the end of the race.

Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect in
these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each
paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include the use of
imagery.

Write about 200 to 300 words.

Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer.

Use the Marking Criteria for Question 2(d)

(Table A, Reading)

Notes on task

This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for an
understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect responses to provide
words / phrases that carry connotations additional to general meaning.

Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words
chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a range of choices
to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and that this should include
the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts marks. Do not
deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.

The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.

Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are relevant to
the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some validity.
Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on effects
created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and punctuation
devices. These must be additional to comments on vocabulary.

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Question Answer Marks

2(d) Responses might use the following: 15

Paragraph 10 begins ‘Because it’s there …’ and is about the writer’s reactions to
other people’s views.

Overview: fiercely protective; over-reactions

snarl: answer back fiercely; reminiscent of a wild creature’s aggressive growl with
bared teeth, defending / threatening attack, instinctive reaction, protecting her own
dared: had the courage to ask or challenge; (assumed) outrage
any sane mortal: human thinking rationally, strongly questioning thinking; vulnerability
/ might be badly injured or die
tackle: take on, attempt, grapple with; combat and determined effort in face of a
potentially insurmountable challenge
enjoyed mercilessly shaming: taking pleasure in chiding, was unrelenting in
attempts to make him feel bad; punishment, no remorse, irony of her reaction
potentially boundless benefits: could be no limits to positive effects on business;
may have been over-stated / exaggerated claims
adventure: presented as quest, new and difficult but positive experience, exciting /
childlike enthusiasm
fledgling: immature, new, like a young bird just able to fly; needs attention
flurry: a number arriving together from different directions; excitement and dynamism /
snowflakes that will not last / huge and sudden interest
beam with immeasurable pride: wide smile, radiating pleasure, immense
satisfaction, no bounds to (apparent) joy

2(d) Paragraph 12 begins ‘Having said all that …’ and is about the writer’s feelings at 15
the end of the race.

Overview: revelling in the sense of power and achievement

emerge god-like from the water: dramatic and powerful exit from the water, suggests
strength and conquering hero; achieved more than a mere ‘mortal’, transformed, in
awe of him
power past us: forceful, full of strength and energy even at the end of the race
rocket (down the finishing chute) : incredible speed, as if fuelled / propelled
head held high: looking up towards finish, pleasure in his own achievement, boosted
self-esteem
utterly incredible: amazing, unbelievable
intoxicating: dizzying, takes over senses, addicted
rare pinnacles of perfection: few instances, particularly special and memorable
moment of achievement, reminiscent of arriving at the highest point of a mountain,
unlikely to be replicated
epic journey: the shared experience of training and the race had been really hard and
long for the whole family, heroic adventure, amazing tale coming to its successful
conclusion
And next year? Well yes, it’s my turn … : time for the focus to be on her, would do
the whole thing again, acknowledges a shift in perspective, more balanced
conclusions and a sense of more of their story to come / defiant / determined

Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to choices.

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Marking Criteria for Question 2(d)

Table A, Reading: Analysing how writers achieve effects

Use the following table to give a mark out of 15 for Reading.

Level Marks Description

5 13–15  Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of
the text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
 Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
 There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.

4 10–12  Explanations are given of carefully selected words and phrases.

 Explanations of meanings within the context of the text are secure and effects are
identified in both parts of the text.
 Images are recognised as such and the response goes some way to explaining
them.
 There is some evidence that the candidate understands how language works.

3 7–9  A satisfactory attempt is made to select appropriate words and phrases.

 The response mostly gives meanings of words and any attempt to suggest and
explain effects is basic or very general.
 One half of the text may be better addressed than the other.

2 4–6  The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
 The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are
used.
 Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
 They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.

1 1–3  The choice of words is sparse or rarely relevant.

 Any comments are inappropriate and the response is very thin.

0 0  The response does not relate to the question.

 Inappropriate words and phrases are chosen or none are selected.

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Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.

Question 3

This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):

R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings

R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R3 analyse evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text

and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):

W1 articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined

W2 organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect
W3 use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context
W4 use register appropriate to context
W5 make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar.

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Question Answer Marks

3 You are Sam. After completing the race you are interviewed for a podcast about 25
your experience and the advice you would offer to anyone thinking of entering an
Ironman.

The interviewer asks you three questions only:

 How exactly do you need to prepare for a challenge like Ironman and why is
each aspect of that preparation important?
 How do you think preparing for Ironman affected other areas of your life and
what advice would you offer anyone considering entering an Ironman for the
first time?
 What were the rewards of completing an Ironman for you and your family?

Write the words of the interview.

Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your
own words. Address each of the three bullets.

Begin your interview with the first question.

Write about 250 to 350 words.

Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 10 marks for
the quality of your writing.

Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)

Notes on task

Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them relevantly,
supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an appropriate register for
the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers the three areas of the
question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to how exactly you need to prepare for a challenge like
Ironman and why each aspect of that preparation.
Annotate A2 for references to how Sam thinks preparing for Ironman affected other
areas of his life and what advice he would offer anyone considering entering an Ironman
for the first time.
Annotate A3 for references to the rewards of completing an Ironman for Sam and his
family.

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Question Answer Marks

3 A1: How exactly do you need to prepare for a challenge like Ironman and why is
each aspect of that preparation important?

 dedicating time to training (det. started January, six months before event) [dev.
there is a lot to do, need time to make progress]
 get a coach (det. expert) [dev. help avoid costly mistakes of an amateur]
 plan targets (det. monthly training plans) [dev. build up strength and fitness / reason
it gets progressively harder / help to remain focused]
 bike rides (det. 1-3 hour rides initially) [dev. significant part of the race / don’t want
to fail at one or more of the disciplines]
 swims (det. visits to local pool / own pool) [dev. need to ensure you are practising
the other disciplines not just the easiest / could be difficult if no water resource easily
accessible locally]
 kit (det. special goggles) [dev. keep you safe / want to look good ]
 focus on health (det. food as fuel, sleep for an hour) [dev. recovering / for energy]

A2: How do you think preparing for Ironman affected other areas of your life and
what advice would you offer anyone considering entering an Ironman for the first
time?

 holidays / excursions (det. no camping for the kids; no family hiking) [dev. sacrifice
you have to make]
 relationship with wife (det. fed up, initially bonding experience) [dev. try to build in
training together for as long as you can / annoying having to justify / unfair on her]
 problems at work / negative reactions of others (det. less than supportive
business partner, others questioning decision) [dev. difficult to balance everything /
talk through (potential) issues]
 restricted social life / limited leisure time (det. no time at weekends, not being
able to say yes to invitations) [dev. don’t be put off]
 family / relationship with children / responsibilities as a parent (det. childcare,
tears from son after he had gone) [dev. plan for extra help in advance / wasn’t aware
of the effect on them]
 finance (det. cost of all the extras) [dev. be realistic / consider whether you really
need as much / budget in advance]

A3: What were the rewards of completing an Ironman for you and your family?

 excitement of the finish (det. crowd) [dev. lifted by the sense of occasion, special
memory to cherish]
 own sense of achievement (det. head held high) [dev. feeling mentally stronger /
more powerful mentally / belief in self / all worth it ]
 proud reaction of family (det. children cheering him on) [dev. team effort / bonding
as a family]
 inspiration for others (det. wife planning to enter next year) [dev. role model for
children]
 publicity (for the travel company / personal) (det. interview / podcast / articles)
[dev. may offer new/increased opportunities, proving doubters wrong / buoyed by the
articles]

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0500/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Marking Criteria for Question 3

Table A, Reading

Use the following table to give a mark out of 15 for Reading.

Level Marks Description

5 13–15  The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
 Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
 A wide range of ideas is applied.
 There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
 All three bullets are well covered.
 A consistent and convincing voice is used.

4 10–12  The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
 A good range of ideas is evident.
 Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
 There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
 All three bullets are covered.
 An appropriate voice is used.

3 7–9  The text has been read reasonably well.

 A range of straightforward ideas is offered.
 Opportunities for development are rarely taken.
 Supporting detail is present but there may be some mechanical use of the
text.
 There is uneven focus on the bullets.
 The voice is plain.

2 4–6  There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas,

although the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the
question.
 Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
 There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
 One of the bullets may not be addressed.
 The voice might be inappropriate.

1 1–3  The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
 Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
 There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.

0 0  There is very little or no relevance to the question or to the text.

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0500/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Table B, Writing: Structure and order, style of language

Use the following table to give a mark out of 10 for Writing.

Level Marks Description

5 9–10  Effective register for audience and purpose.

 The language of the response sounds convincing and consistently
appropriate.
 Ideas are firmly expressed in a wide range of effective and/or interesting
language.
 Structure and sequence are sound throughout.
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar almost always accurate.

4 7–8  Some awareness of an appropriate register for audience and purpose.

 Language is mostly fluent and there is clarity of expression.
 There is a sufficient range of vocabulary to express ideas with subtlety and
precision.
 The response is mainly well structured and well sequenced.
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar generally accurate.

3 5–6  Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
 Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
 Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
 Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar

2 3–4  There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of

style.
 Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
 There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
 Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.

1 1–2  Expression and structure lack clarity.

 Language is weak and undeveloped.
 There is very little attempt to explain ideas.
 There may be frequent copying from the original.
 Persistent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar impede
communication.

0 0  The response cannot be understood.

© UCLES 2022 Page 20 of 20

 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH (ORAL

ENDORSEMENT)

Paper 0500/11
Reading 11

Key messages

Candidates did well when they:

• worked through the three texts and questions in the order set, attempting all parts of all questions
• had planned their responses for higher tariff tasks in advance of writing – considering both the ideas to
be used and a logical route through their answer
• after reading questions, returned to the text to clarify or check their understanding of key details and the
main ideas in the material
• followed task instructions and references carefully, responding appropriately to the command words in
the question to base their answers on the correct text and/or section of text
• used only the material and ideas most appropriate to the task as set
• focused on the particular evidence of skills and understanding they needed to demonstrate for each of
the three extended response questions
• considered the marks allocated to each question and targeted their response time accordingly
• paid attention to the guidance offered in tasks – for example, explaining three examples from each of
the two paragraphs identified in 2(d), indicating clearly the one example from the text extract they were
using in 2(c) and identifying a word/phrase (not a sentence) in each part of 2(a)
• identified and used relevant ideas, opinions and details from the text in the response to reading task
rather than inventing untethered material
• used their own words where instructed to do so, avoiding unselective copying and/or lifting from the text
• avoided repetition
• checked and edited their responses to correct any incomplete ideas or unclear points.

General comments

Candidates’ responses indicated familiarity with the format of the Reading paper and understanding of the
general demands of the three tasks, though there were still some candidates who did not pay attention to the
guidance in the task instructions and missed opportunities to evidence skills and understanding as a
consequence. Instances where whole tasks had not been attempted were rare, though there were occasions
where responses to part questions were incomplete or missing, limiting opportunities to score higher marks.

Responses to the questions set indicated that candidates had found all three texts equally accessible and
engaging. Occasionally, a failure to complete all aspects of a task and/or a loss of focus on the rubric limited
the evidence of understanding and skills offered or resulted in redundant material. For example, a few
candidates attempted to choose and explain three choices from paragraphs other than the two identified in
Question 2(d) whilst others selected from only one. Similarly, there were some less well-focused responses
to higher tariff tasks from candidates who had scored well in smaller sub questions – for example, some
candidates wrote more than the maximum 120 words advised for the selective summary Question 1(f).

In Question 1, candidates scoring highly had worked through the tasks in the order presented and usually
made efficient use of their time, for example by paying attention in Questions 1 (a)–(e) to the marks and
space available as a helpful indicator of the length and detail they needed to offer in each response. They
did not add further unnecessary material and focused on answering each question as set. Most candidates
followed the line or paragraph references in the questions carefully to help them to move down Text A in
order and to direct their attention. Almost all remembered that in a test of comprehension their responses to

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

these initial short answer questions needed to be derived from the text in order to evidence their Reading
skills and are not based on personal opinion or experience.

Less successful responses sometimes offered circular answers, repeating the language of the question
where own words were specified as being required; such responses provided no evidence of understanding
as a consequence – for example, in 1(b)(i) suggesting that ‘this means their limits were challenged’. In
Question 1(f) a few candidates relied heavily on the language of the text and/or copied whole sections of
text, limiting the available evidence of their own skills and understanding as a result.

In Question 2 candidates needed first to identify (2(a)) and explain (2(b)) words and phrases from the final
text, moving towards an explanation of how language was being used by the writer via Question 2(c) and on
to the language task, Question 2(d). Stronger answers were careful to refer back to Text C to locate specific
relevant choices and consider meaning in context. Opportunities for marks were missed by some candidates
in Question 2(c) who did not clearly identify one example from the text extract to explain and in Question
2(a) by those who copied out whole sentences from the text rather than identifying the exact word/phrase
that matched the sense of just the underlined word/phrase in the question. To aim for higher levels in
Question 2(d), candidates should ensure that they explore and explain the meaning of each of the words
chosen in some detail before moving on to consider associations and connotations or suggest effects. Most
were able to suggest six potentially useful examples for analysis – three in each half – for the 2(d) task and
offer basic effect/meaning in context, though a number of candidates were not sufficiently clear, careful or
detailed in the examination of their choices. In less successful responses, generalised comment, repetition of
the language of the text or labelling of devices without explanation of how these were working meant
opportunities to target higher levels were missed. A small number of candidates offered few or no choices in
Question 2(d).

In Question 3 responses for the most part had attempted to include ideas relevant to all three bullets of the
task, though a few lost sight of the text – for example, writing creatively about their own experience of sports
training or trying to include details related to Tough Mudder (Text B) which were not relevant. Most
candidates had remembered to write from Sam’s perspective, with the best focused on interpreting the
evidence in the text throughout. Less successful responses either offered only brief reference to the
passage, included evidence of misreading and/or repeated sections from the text with minimal modification.
Along with unselective copying, reliance on the language of the text to communicate ideas is an indicator of
less secure understanding and to be avoided.

Paper 1 is primarily a test of Reading, though 15 of the 80 marks available are for Writing – divided between
Question 1(f) and Question 3. In these questions, it is important that candidates consider the clarity and
register of their writing. It is advisable to plan and review responses to avoid inconsistencies of style, serious
errors that impede communication of ideas and awkward expression. Candidates should be aware that
unclear writing is likely to limit their achievement, as will over-reliance on the language of the passages.
Leaving sufficient time to edit and correct responses is advisable.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1 Comprehension and summary task

Questions 1 (a)–(e)

Short answer Questions 1(a)–(e) required candidates to read and respond to Text A. Strong responses paid
careful attention to the command words and paragraph references in the instructions to demonstrate
effectively and efficiently the evidence of understanding required. Some mid-range responses missed
opportunities to target higher marks, for example through overlong explanations, striving to offer own word
answers where these were not needed and/or repeating language of the text where own words were
required. Candidates should note that where use of own words is necessary to evidence understanding task
guidance makes that clear. Less well focused answers on occasion clouded the evidence of understanding
by including additional unnecessary material and/or extra guesses – an inefficient use of examination time.

Successful responses provided evidence that candidates had understood the need to interpret and use
details in the text carefully to answer each of the comprehension questions to show what they could do and
understand. They followed the order of the sub questions to work through the text from the beginning.

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(a) Give the two examples of types of endurance events, other than ultra-marathons, according
to the text.

In Question 1(a), almost all candidates had identified from the beginning of the text the two examples of
endurance events ‘other than ultra-marathons’ (triathlons and adventure races) though a very small number
tried to offer ultra-marathons as one of their examples. Some candidates made use of the question stem to
help focus their answer, whilst others simply wrote the key words of their answer alongside each bullet –
either approach was acceptable. Some candidates added extra unnecessary challenge to this one-mark
selection task by deciding to answer this question using material from later in the text – offering the specific
examples of Ironman and Tough Mudder.

(b) Using your own words, explain what the text means by:
(i) ‘challenge the limits’ (line 3):
(ii) ‘mythical beast’ (line 4):

In Question 1(b) task guidance made it clear that use of own words was required to evidence
understanding. Where answers failed to score both marks it was sometimes the result of having explained
just one aspect of the phrase, for example in Question 1(b)(i) attempting to explain ‘limits’ only and
repeating the word challenge/challeng[ing]. More effective answers were able to indicate that they had
securely understood the meaning of both aspects of the question in the context of the text – for example, in
1(b)(i) that ‘challenge the limits’ meant competitors pushing themselves/being pushed to the extremes of
their abilities.

(c) Re-read paragraph 3 (‘Somewhere … you?’).

Identify two ways in which Tough Mudder always differs from other extreme events.

In Question 1(c) most candidates were able to identify two distinct ways in which Tough Mudder always
differs – that it is short/shorter and involves getting hurt. A few candidates had not read closely and based
their answer solely on the examples of how competitors might sometimes get hurt.

(d) Re-read paragraphs 4 and 5 (‘I’ve no idea … with life.’).

(i) Give two reasons why the writer decided to drop their ‘habitual laziness’ and take up
running.
(ii) Explain why extreme sports are growing in popularity according to the text.

Candidates who paid attention to command/key words in the question were best placed to offer creditworthy
responses and make efficient use of their time. For example, in part (i) they were careful to offer the two
reasons the writer cited as prompting them personally to take up running as distinct from the reasons they
suggested for the general growth in popularity of extreme sports. Candidates who were less focused on the
details of the task sometimes missed opportunities to target both marks in part (i) for example, by going past
the remit of the question to talk about the writer’s experience once they had already taken up running and
how their ‘obsession escalated’. Similarly, in part (ii) a few candidates did not remain focused on paragraphs
4 and 5, moving on instead to offer ideas about the appeal of pop music and crowds (attempting to base
their answer on paragraph 6). Many successful answers to part (ii) tended to centre around the growth in
popularity of extreme sports as a consequence of people seeking excitement/fulfilment to escape
monotonous daily routines and/or risk-averse lifestyles.

(e) Re-read paragraph 6 (‘After completing … achievement.’).

Using your own words, explain why some Ironman competitors might still like to compete in
marathons.

In Question 1(e) the most successful explanations showed that candidates were able to derive three distinct
reasons of the four available in the specified paragraph. Candidates who recast the relevant information
using their own words as instructed were best able to demonstrate that they had teased out and understood
the implied reasons marathons may still appeal to Ironman competitors – with many offering all four ideas by
considering both the similarities between the two types of races (equal thrill, same sense of achievement)
and the differences (nostalgia/quieter and calmer experience). Occasionally, less focused responses did not
distinguish between the two types of events and suggested incorrectly that marathons appealed because of
the music, lights and crowds at the finish.

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

(f) According to Text B, why did Jayden Dee want to take part in this particular event?

You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as far as possible.
Your summary should not be more than 120 words.

In their responses to Question 1(f) most candidates were able to demonstrate at least a general
understanding of some relevant ideas from Text B and some understanding of the requirements of the task.
There were fewer examples of wholesale copying or lifting than in previous sessions. All points on the mark
scheme were covered over the range of answers seen, though repetition of the same idea and/or misreading
of details meant opportunities were missed by many candidates to target higher marks.

Where responses were most effective, candidates had made a consistent attempt to use their own words
and to keep their explanations concise. Many had recognised the opportunity to demonstrate their writing
skills by adapting the relaxed, informal register of Dee’s responses to the reporter’s questions to a more
formal style suitable for a written summary, whereas less assured responses had often missed this chance –
for example echoing the text with reference to ‘kids’ or the ‘Redmond Guy’. Some mid-range answers did not
immediately direct their response towards the focus of the task, offering a redundant introduction to their
response to set the scene (often referencing Jayden Dee’s age and career).

Overview was evidenced in some of the most successful answers where relevant ideas had been carefully
selected from different parts of the text and then re-organised more efficiently for their reader. Less well-
focused responses copied from the text, with minimal or no rewording or reorganisation of the original, often
resulting in redundancy. Whilst candidates are not expected to change all key words or terms in their prose
response, they should not rely on lifting whole phrases and/or sentences from the text. Indiscriminate
copying of the passage, repetition and adding comment or example should all be avoided as these do not
allow candidates to successfully address the selective summary task.

The strongest responses to the selective summary task showed evidence of candidates having planned a
route through the content of their answer before writing their response. There were some extremely effective
and well-crafted responses that focused specifically on the appeal of Dee’s reasons for wanting to take part
in Tough Mudder as presented by Text B, demonstrating both concision and precise understanding of a wide
range of relevant ideas.

Most candidates appeared to be aware of the need to try to use their own vocabulary where feasible without
changing or blurring the original idea and to organise points helpfully for their reader. On occasion,
candidates overlooked the need for concision in a selective summary task and significant excess arose as a
result of lengthy explanation, with some candidates continuing to write far more than the maximum of 120
words advised in the task guidance. Others adhered to the advised length of the response but took far too
long to explain just a few ideas. Candidates producing effective answers were able to demonstrate that they
had understood a fairly wide range of relevant ideas, communicating these accurately and concisely in their
own words.

The majority of candidates showed at least some awareness of the need to avoid excess, though not all
were able to select ideas efficiently to navigate around more obviously redundant material – for example,
Dee’s references to being in Hawaii and needing a break (both more likely to be reasons why he would not
want, or be able, to compete in Tough Mudder).

More effective responses were not dependant on the structure or language of Text B to communicate their
ideas and were able to offer more concise explanations as a result. Less effective responses sometimes
relied on trying to offer a précis of the whole text in the order it was presented. Many of these answers simply
tracked through and replayed the text, substituting occasional own words – an approach that diluted
evidence that the text and/or task had been understood. For example, less focused responses spent time
unwisely citing long lists of various obstacles and challenges involved in Tough Mudder. Many of these least
effective responses also tended to have misread key details – for example, some suggested that Dee had
become seriously ill after Ironman (a misreading of ‘got the bug again’).

Length was often an indicator of the relative success of a response. Some responses were far too short with
only a small number of relevant ideas identified, and others very long and wordy due to the inclusion of
unnecessary information, comments or quotations. The least effective responses were overly-reliant on the
language of the original. Candidates are reminded that lifting sections of text and splicing them together is
unlikely to evidence understanding of either the ideas in the passage or requirements of the task.

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Advice to candidates on Question 1(f):

• after reading the task instructions, re-read the text to identify only those potentially relevant ideas you
can use in your answer
• identify and discard any ideas or extra details which are not relevant to the focus of the question – for
example, where a question asks you to focus only on the ‘reasons why’, you should not include ‘reasons
why not’
• reflect on the ideas you have highlighted in your plan, checking that they are distinct and complete – for
example, whether there are repeated ideas which could be combined or ideas which might need further
explanation
• return to the text to ‘sense check’ any ideas you are unsure of before you try to use them
• plan the ideas you are going to include ahead of writing your response – draw a neat line through your
planning afterwards
• organise and sequence your ideas to make them clear to your reader – do not rely on repeating ideas in
the order of the original text
• explain ideas in a way that someone who had not read the text themselves would understand
• write informatively and accurately in your own words, avoiding errors which affect meaning
• do not add details, examples or comment to the content of the passage
• check back to ensure that you have included all of the ideas you planned to
• though it is not necessary to count every word, you should keep in mind the guidance to write ‘no more
than 120 words’ and aim for concision.

Question 2

(a) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words
underlined:
(ii) The writer was slightly unsure that it was a good idea to publish their blog entry.
(iii) Her husband’s training had little effect on the daily life of the family to begin with.
(iv) Fitting in bike rides to the family’s weekend schedule was perfectly manageable.
(v) The writer accepted grumpily that they hadn’t changed their mind about Sam
competing in the Ironman

Focused responses to Question 2(a) clearly identified in each part the correct word or phrase from Text C to
correspond with the meaning of the underlined example – simply and efficiently just giving the word or
phrase as their answer. Other responses added unnecessary time pressure by copying out the entire
sentence in each case, substituting the word or phrase and then bracketing or underlining their answer.
Marks were sometimes missed where answers were incomplete (for example, giving ‘hesitant’ without ‘little’).
Others lacked focus (for example, copying out whole sentences, extra words or longer sections of text that
went beyond the sense of the underlined word(s)) or suggested misreading (for example, writing agreed
‘suddenly’ rather than ‘sullenly’).

(b) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by the words underlined:
(i) Endless
(ii) technically
(iii) desperate

In Question 2(b), successful answers had considered carefully the precise meaning in the context of each of
the words underlined. Less successful responses simply repeated the word in their explanation – for
example, ‘endless means they do not end’ – or did not offer sufficiently precise explanation for understanding
of the individual word specified to be credited – for example, ‘wanted’ on its own suggested none of the
urgency/extreme nature of the feeling being described by the word ‘desperate’.

(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests their feelings about
Sam’s approach to training for the Ironman event.

There was so much laundry (‘different road conditions’) so much extra food (‘fuel’) and so
much gear (multiple pairs of goggles with different tints ‘because you never know…’)!
Smiling understandingly, Sam assured me the next one will be cheaper. Next one?

In Question 2(c), where candidates had focused clearly on using just one example taken from the text
extract they were best placed to demonstrate their understanding – often beginning with an explanation of
meaning in context, ahead of going on to explain what that suggested in relation to the writer’s feelings.
Those making efficient use of time often identified their example, by underlining it in the text of the question

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

or simply used it as a subheading for their answer. Successful responses often centred around one of Sam’s
reported explanations and were able to exploit their chosen example to good effect to suggest something of
the implied (for example, unimpressed/dismayed) tone of the writer. Other strong responses focused on the
repetition of ‘so much’ as indicating a build-up of frustration/tension, whilst many chose the short question
‘Next one?’ in reactions to Sam’s assurance that the next Ironman would be cheaper and were able to
comment usefully on the shock/dismay this suggested.

Most successful responses had carefully noted the number of marks available and focused their response to
make three distinct points in relation to their one chosen example. Less successful responses often
attempted to discuss more than one example – time that might have been more profitably spent in Question
2(d) where there were up to 15 marks available. Some weaker responses did not pay careful attention to the
instruction to select from the given extract and attempted unwisely to paraphrase the whole extract and/or
discuss it in very general terms. On occasion, opportunities were missed due to the misreading of details/
implied meaning not being carefully considered – for example, a few candidates assumed incorrectly that it
was the writer who was ‘smiling understandingly’ and/or that Sam’s assurance meant only that the next pair
of goggles would be cheaper.

(d) Re-read paragraphs 10 and 12.

• Paragraph 10 begins ‘Because it’s there …’ and is about the writer’s reactions to other
people’s views.
• Paragraph 12 begins ‘Having said all that …’ and is about the writer’s feelings at the
end of the race.

Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect in these
paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each paragraph to support
your answer. Your choices should include the use of imagery.

Successful responses to Question 2(d) offered clear analysis of six relevant selections – three from each
paragraph – often starting by explaining literal meaning in context and then moving on to consider effect (for
example, discussing connotations and suggesting the impacts created by the writer’s language choices).
Such responses demonstrated understanding of how the writer was using language in each case through
detailed discussion of sharply focused choices. Where candidates considered all of the key words in slightly
longer choices they were able to avoid those more generalised comments of less effective responses.
Candidates responding in note form and/or relying on repeating the language of the text within their
explanation were less well placed to demonstrate understanding fully and often offered only partially effective
or thin explanation as a result. The strongest responses considered words within their choices individually,
as well as suggesting how they worked within the longer phrase and/or in the context of the description as a
whole. Rather than selecting the first three choices in each half they came across, or the most ‘obvious’
literary devices, successful responses often set out to identify those relevant selections that they felt best
able to explain. Some of the strongest responses explored how their judiciously selected choices worked
both individually and together to influence the reader’s impression, building to an overview. Responses at
level 5 frequently showed imagination and precision when discussing images, for example in relation to the
writer ‘snarl[ing]’ at anyone questioning the decision to take on an Ironman and Sam ‘emerging god-like from
the water’.

When dealing with paragraph 10, many answers had identified ‘beam with immeasurable pride’ as a
potentially interesting example to discuss, with most able to offer at least a basic explanation of the extent of
the emotion it indicated, though not all taking the opportunity to target higher marks by finding their own
words to explain ‘pride’ and/or consider what ‘beam’ added to the image. Some mid-range answers offered
more careful selection and explanation in one half of the answer than the other – often failing to target higher
levels by repeating words such as ‘power’(ful) and ‘perfect(ion)’ when discussing paragraph 12 rather than
finding synonyms to evidence understanding of meaning. Some candidates who wrote more general
comments around the feelings of euphoria once the race was completed missed opportunities to consider
the distinct meanings of each word in ‘rare pinnacles of perfection’ and ‘utterly incredible and intoxicating’
which might have resulted in higher marks. Many candidates offered basic effects – for example, suggesting
that ‘rocket’ exaggerated the speed at which Sam was travelling, whilst those offering evidence of
understanding at higher levels were often able to go on to consider how the image of a rocket in particular
might add to the sense of his superhuman achievement and/or focused approach.

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Some candidates had misread details of the text and their explanations were limited as a result – for
example some suggested that it was the children who had their ‘head(s) held high’, some that the writer
snarled at Sam. The least successful answers to Question 2(d) offered inappropriate comments such as
‘The writer uses images that make us imagine what it was like to be there.’ – such empty, generic comments
are unlikely to be a useful starting point for discussion of how language is working. Candidates working at
higher levels were often able to visualise images, using explanation of precise meaning/what you could
‘see/hear happening’ in context as the starting point for their explanation of effect.

In Question 2(d), answers which simply list literary devices used and/or copy from each paragraph without
careful consideration of the examples to be discussed are not likely to evidence the skills and understanding
necessary to target higher marks. It is the quality of the analysis which attracts marks in a language question.
Selections in Question 2(d) need to be clear and deliberate, helping to focus the analysis which follows.
Long quotations with only the first and last words identified are less likely to be useful and often result in very
thin general comments at best. Opportunities were missed in some answers where choices were from one
paragraph only. Some of the least successful answers to Question 2(d) appeared to have been answered
last and were very brief, generalised and/or incomplete. The most successful answers were often able to
‘talk their reader through’ their understanding of words within relevant choices, considering different
possibilities of meaning, associations and connotations, ahead of arriving at an understanding of how and
why these particular words might have been used by the writer in this context.

Advice to candidates on Question 2:

• make sure that the quotations you select from the text are precise and accurate – do not copy out lines
or chunks of text, miss out key words or include only part of the choice
• in each part of 2(a) make sure that your selection from the text is clearly identified – remember you are
looking for a word or phrase, not a whole sentence
• in 2(b) be careful not to include extra incorrect guesses that might detract from the evidence that you
understand the meaning of the word you are explaining
• in 2(c) clearly identify the one example from the text excerpt you are going to explain
• in 2(d), choose three examples from each of the two specified paragraphs (six choices in total)
• where you are trying to explain meaning check that your explanation makes sense
• when explaining how language is working avoid empty comments such as saying that ‘the writer helps
us to imagine the scene’ – you need to say how your chosen example does this to show understanding
• make sure your explanations deal with each of the key words within an identified choice separately as
well as how they work together
• when you are trying to suggest effect and are unsure, start by explaining the precise meaning in context
of the word(s) in the choice
• when you are trying to explore and explain images, consider the connotations and associations of the
words within choices to help you to suggest the effect the writer might have wanted to create
• allow time to edit your answers – for example, to add in further detail and/or correct errors to help show
you have read carefully and understood.

Question 3

You are Sam. After completing the race you are interviewed for a podcast about your experience and
the advice you would offer to anyone thinking of entering an Ironman.

The interviewer asks you three questions only:

• How exactly do you need to prepare for a challenge like Ironman and why is each aspect of that
preparation important?
• How do you think preparing for Ironman affected other areas of your life and what advice would
you offer anyone considering entering an Ironman for the first time?
• What were the rewards of completing an Ironman for you and your family?

Having worked through Question 2 and already familiarised themselves with Text C, candidates following
the order of tasks as set were best placed to think their way into the attitude, opinions and memories of Sam,
as distinct from those of the narrator. Where candidates had chosen to attempt tasks out of order and begun
with task 3, there were some examples of misreading – for example, that Sam was the narrator and/or that
Sam was married to his business partner. A few candidates who appeared unwisely to have left Question 2
until last tried to include details from Text B and/or based most of their Question 3 answer on Text B, limiting
the evidence of understanding and skills they could offer.

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

Almost all candidates chose to answer the interviewer’s questions in the order set. Most kept in mind the
advice that these were the only questions the interviewer had asked and did not risk losing focus on key
ideas by introducing other questions that might offer fewer opportunities to evidence close reading. Some
successful answers did begin by dealing with the third bullet first – adding expressions of amazement from
the interviewer on behalf of their audience (who might be wondering why anyone ‘sane’ should want to take
on such a challenge). Where candidates had kept in mind that this task was a test of their Reading and
woven in useful details from the passage in any extra speech from the interviewer this did work well, but
there were other less successful responses that drifted too far from Text C as a consequence of building the
interviewer’s role.

The first bullet of the question invited candidates to revisit details in the text related to Sam’s training and
most candidates were able to offer a number of relevant explicit ideas, with answers aiming at higher marks
dealing successfully with both parts of the interviewer’s question to offer relevant development. Almost all
mentioned more straightforward explicit ideas – the time required to dedicate to training, the need for an
expert coach and for monthly training plans. Many explained the need to train for all three aspects of the race
– running, riding and swimming – though fewer reworked the details of all the kit, food and sleep required to
extend the range of Sam’s advice further. The very best answers often evidenced close reading by creating a
consistent and convincing voice for Sam – weaving in and extending some of his excuses (as presented by
the writer) to become explanations/justifications (developments of his implied perspective) for example the
different road conditions that meant special goggles were necessary to keep you safe. Candidates who had
planned their response beforehand – identifying details and ideas from the passage that they could use for
each bullet – were best able to exploit the opportunities offered by bullet one and there were some excellent
answers offering a variety of different (equally relevant) versions of Sam’s persona based on details, hints
and suggestions in the text.

Most answers to bullet two presented a sympathetic interpretation of Sam – aware (now) of the strain his
training had put on family life and appreciative of the support afforded him throughout. Some chose a less
self-aware version of Sam which worked equally well, especially where details had been carefully integrated.
Mid-range and better answers had often dealt with some of the detail of the impact of training on others –
citing for example the effect on family holidays and leisure time. Fewer answers included reference to the
implied upset of Sam’s business partner and/or picked up on the negative reactions of those questioning his
decision to take part in an Ironman. However, answers operating at higher levels often included these and
other implicit ideas such as the financial impact of preparing for the race. In the weakest responses, ideas
relevant to bullet two were often only hit upon in passing – with sections of text replayed or even copied –
limiting the evidence of skills and understanding.

Almost all answers to bullet three expressed Sam’s own pride at his achievement and/or referenced that of
his family, with better answers looking to offer a full response to this final question. Many candidates who
missed the problems at work/negative reactions of others beforehand were able nevertheless to include
reference to the benefits for Sam’s business because of the publicity the race offered. Some losing focus on
Text C suggested Sam had won a substantial cash prize and was now going on holiday (for example to
Hawaii) though answers in the mid-range or better were often able to make use of the writer’s suggestions
they might be participating next year and/or that Sam offered a positive role model for his son/children.

On occasion, having returned to the text to find useful details, some candidates then undermined their own
efforts by reading less carefully than they needed to – for example, suggesting that Sam had bought his son
an Ironman toy (at odds with the detail of the text) or that Sam missed his father (Dad) at weekends. Other
candidates during planning had apparently made use of strategies such as simple diagrams to establish
clearly the relationships between events and /or personas and had put these to good use to help them offer
a consistent and accurate perspective.

On the whole, candidates seemed familiar with the requirements of an interview, and many were able to use
an appropriate register, drawing on a range of suitable vocabulary to express their ideas. Where candidates
relied too heavily on the structure and/or language of the original text to communicate, expression often
became awkward and/or lost clarity. Simple paraphrasing of the text sometimes also meant opportunities to
develop were limited since the text was not written from Sam’s point of view. Some candidates producing
answers in the mid-range showed some awareness of appropriate register though would have benefitted
from checking back through their work to ensure that their meaning was clear throughout in order to offer
more secure evidence of their Writing and Reading skills.

The least successful responses to Question 3 copied sections of text with minimal modification and rarely
adequately addressed bullets two and/or three. A few of the weakest answers had attempted to answer
question 3 without reference to Text C – writing for example about their own experience training for an event

© 2022
 Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0500 First Language English (Oral Endorsement) June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers

or getting fit and/or attempting to use Text B. The most convincing answers had recognised the evidently
more positive attitude of the narrator by the end of the piece and had clearly revisited the passage to
examine carefully the details of the narrator’s account of events leading up to that change.

Advice to candidates on Question 3:

• remember to base your answer on the ideas and details you find in Text C
• keep the audience and purpose for your response in mind throughout your answer
• decide on the voice and style you want to create and maintain that in your answer
• do not invent information and details beyond the scope of the passage; look for the clues and evidence
in the text to help you make judgements about characters and situations
• give equal attention to each of the three bullet points: the bullet points are designed to help you to
identify a wide range of relevant ideas you can use in your answer so make sure you have covered all
aspects of each bullet
• do not copy directly from the text: use your own words as far as you can to express ideas
• try to do more than just repeat details of what happened: developing ideas allows you to better show
your understanding, for example by explaining feelings or commenting from the point of view of the
character you are writing as
• leave sufficient time to edit and correct your response.

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