Introduction

The SAT (Scholastic Assessment Test) stands as one of the most critical components in the college admissions
process, holding significant weight in helping institutions assess a student’s academic capabilities. For many
decades, it has been recognized as a reliable, standardized measure of a student’s readiness for higher education,
offering colleges and universities an objective means of evaluating applicants across diverse academic backgrounds.
Whether applying to a state university or a prestigious Ivy League institution, the SAT has remained a cornerstone
in determining whether students possess the necessary academic foundation to succeed in the challenging
environment of college-level courses.
At its core, the SAT is designed to evaluate the fundamental academic skills necessary for success in higher
education: reading, writing, and mathematics. These three areas are considered to be key predictors of how well a
student will perform in college courses, and as such, the SAT is structured to test proficiency in these skills. The test
not only assesses what a student has learned in high school but also measures their ability to apply those skills to
complex tasks that reflect the kind of work they’ll face in college. Though the SAT is just one aspect of the college
application process, it plays a central role in the decision-making process, particularly in highly competitive schools
where many applicants may have similar high school GPAs or extracurricular profiles.
The SAT provides an objective and standardized measure of a student's academic strengths, serving as an equalizer
among applicants from different high schools, districts, and states, where grading systems can vary significantly.
Without such a standardized measure, it would be difficult for admissions officers to compare students from vastly
different educational environments. The SAT helps mitigate these differences, offering a reliable means of assessing
a student’s potential to thrive in college courses, irrespective of their high school’s grading policies or resources.
The test is typically taken by high school juniors, although seniors who wish to improve their scores or who missed
the exam in their junior year may also take the test. Students are permitted to take the SAT multiple times, and
most do so in order to improve their scores and increase their chances of acceptance into the colleges of their
choice. The College Board, the organization responsible for administering the SAT, offers the exam seven times a
year, giving students ample opportunities to take the test and improve their scores. Most test dates are scheduled
on the first Saturday of each month, with the exception of August, which does not feature an official SAT test. For
students taking the digital version of the test, this format brings a number of advantages that will be discussed in
more detail later.
For many years, the SAT was offered in a paper-and-pencil format, but recent innovations in educational testing
have shifted the exam to a digital format, marking a significant change in how the test is experienced. The new
digital SAT format, introduced in 2024, has a number of key differences from its predecessor, notably its adaptive
testing structure, which tailors the difficulty of the test to match the student’s abilities. The digital SAT divides the
test into two main sections—Math and Evidence-Based Reading and Writing (ERW)—each of which is further
divided into two modules. Based on performance in the first module, the second module will feature questions that
are more difficult if the student performs well and less difficult if the student struggles. This adaptive testing system
is designed to deliver a more accurate measure of a student’s academic abilities in a shorter amount of time,
providing a more efficient and personalized testing experience.
In addition to the adaptive nature of the test, the digital format also reduces testing time, with the total test length
now being approximately 2 hours and 15 minutes, significantly shorter than the previous paper-based version. This
change alleviates some of the pressure students face during the exam, as they no longer need to sit for hours on
end answering questions. The digital SAT also allows students to move freely between questions within a module,
allowing them to revisit questions they are unsure about, which was not possible in the traditional paper format.
This new feature offers a more flexible and less stressful testing experience, especially for students who may have
felt constrained or pressured by the previous format.
To understand the SAT’s significance, it’s important to look back at its history. The test was first introduced in 1926
by the College Board, and since then, it has undergone numerous changes to better reflect the evolving educational
standards and practices. Initially designed as a measure of general cognitive ability, the SAT has been repeatedly
revised to focus more specifically on academic readiness for college. The most significant redesign of the SAT
occurred in 2016, when the test was restructured to emphasize critical thinking, problem-solving, and evidence-
based reading and writing skills. The 2024 shift to a digital format is the latest step in the test’s evolution, adapting
to the needs of modern education while continuing to serve its fundamental purpose: assessing a student’s
readiness for the academic challenges of college.
The SAT remains a central element of the college admissions process, despite a growing trend of test-optional
policies at many colleges and universities. While some schools no longer require SAT scores for admission, a strong
SAT score can still be a crucial asset in securing a place in a competitive program. For students applying to highly
selective universities, SAT scores remain a vital component of their application. In addition to playing a significant
role in admissions, SAT scores can also affect scholarship opportunities. Many institutions offer merit-based
scholarships based on SAT performance, and a high score can provide access to financial aid packages that ease the
burden of tuition fees.
The scoring system of the SAT has remained largely consistent over the years. The total possible score on the SAT is
1600, divided equally between the Math section and the Evidence-Based Reading and Writing section, each scored
on a scale from 200 to 800. Within each of these sections, there are subcategories that provide further insight into
specific skills. For instance, in the Math section, students are assessed on skills related to problem-solving, algebra,
and advanced mathematics, while the ERW section includes subcategories such as reading comprehension,
vocabulary in context, and grammar and sentence structure. The introduction of the digital SAT retains these
familiar scoring guidelines but offers additional insights into a student’s strengths and weaknesses through its
adaptive testing format and subscores.
The digital SAT is a significant departure from the traditional paper-and-pencil version, and it comes with distinct
advantages. One of the most important benefits of the digital format is its adaptive nature, which adjusts the
difficulty of the questions based on the student’s performance. This means that students are no longer subjected to
a static set of questions that may be too difficult or too easy for their ability level. Instead, the test adaPractice Test
in real-time to present a more accurate measure of their academic capabilities. The adaptive nature of the test also
results in a shorter testing time, with students finishing the exam in just over two hours, compared to the three
hours or more required for the traditional SAT.
This new format represents a step forward in educational testing, making the SAT experience more tailored to
individual needs. In addition to this adaptive approach, the digital version allows for more flexibility in how students
interact with the exam. For example, students can navigate through the questions within each module, enabling
them to mark questions for review and come back to them later. This new feature reduces the stress associated
with time constraints and allows students to focus on answering questions with greater confidence and precision.
For students preparing for the SAT, it’s essential to understand not only the content of the test but also the specific
format and structure of the digital exam. This study guide aims to equip you with the tools and knowledge
necessary to succeed on the SAT. Whether you are taking the test for the first time or aiming to improve your score,
this guide provides comprehensive coverage of all the key sections of the test, including Math, Reading, Writing,
and Language. With extensive practice questions, strategies for tackling difficult problems, and tips for improving
performance, this guide is designed to help you navigate the complexities of the SAT with ease.
Through practice and strategic preparation, you can significantly improve your chances of achieving a competitive
score on the SAT. This study guide will provide you with the insights and techniques you need to approach each
section of the test with confidence, ultimately helping you reach your academic and college admissions goals.
Whether you are aiming for a perfect score or simply seeking to improve, the resources and strategies in this guide
will help ensure that you are fully prepared to take on the challenges of the digital SAT.
How to Use This Book?
Welcome to your ultimate SAT Study Guide! Whether you're preparing for the traditional paper SAT or the new
digital version, this book is designed to guide you through every step of your SAT preparation. By following the
structure of this guide, you'll be well on your way to mastering the SAT and achieving your desired score.

Understanding the SAT

Before diving into practice questions, it’s essential to understand the SAT itself. The SAT is a standardized test used
by colleges to assess your readiness for higher education. It evaluates students' skills in math, reading, and writing,
helping colleges compare students from diverse educational backgrounds. Understanding the SAT’s role in the
admissions process can help motivate you to study effectively.

The SAT is structured into two main sections: Math, and Reading and Writing. The SAT Scoring System explains how
your raw scores are converted into scaled scores, helping you understand what you need to achieve your target
score.

Digital SAT: What You Need to Know

The Digital SAT Specifics section covers the shift from the traditional paper version to the new digital format. This
section explains the differences, helping you familiarize yourself with the digital interface, so you're prepared on
test day.

Crafting a Study Plan

Effective preparation requires a structured study plan. Chapter 2: Study Plan and Tips provides a clear path for
developing your strategy. It includes Creating an Effective Study Schedule, offering sample schedules for different
availability levels. Whether you’re studying for a few weeks or several months, consistency is key.

You’ll also learn how to Approach Each Section of the SAT, focusing on the distinct strategies required for the Math
and Reading/Writing sections. For Math, practice algebra, data analysis, and problem-solving. For Reading and
Writing, focus on reading comprehension, grammar, and sentence structure.

Time Management Strategies are vital for success, especially for the digital SAT. This book teaches you how to
manage your time in each section to answer all questions without feeling rushed. The Common Mistakes to Avoid
section helps you recognize and avoid common pitfalls in preparation.

On Test Day, the Digital SAT Preparation section ensures you're ready for both the test format and the test
environment. This chapter covers Technical Requirements & Device Setup, outlining the necessary devices and
software. It also provides tips to reduce test anxiety, ensuring you’re calm and focused during the exam.

Mastering the SAT Content

The book is divided into two main content sections: Math and Reading/Writing. Each section contains multiple
chapters that break down essential concePractice Test and offer practice exercises to reinforce your understanding.

Math Section
 Chapter 1: Algebra, Basic Arithmetic, and Number Operations – This chapter covers fundamental
concePractice Test such as arithmetic, fractions, percentages, ratios, and linear equations.

 Chapter 2: Advanced Math – This chapter addresses more complex topics such as rational expressions,
logarithmic and exponential functions, and advanced word problems.

 Chapter 3: Problem Solving and Data Analysis – This chapter focuses on statistical questions, probability, and
data interpretation, critical components of the SAT Math section.
 Chapter 4: Geometry and Trigonometry – Learn about geometric shapes, properties, and coordinate geometry,
as well as basic trigonometry principles.

Each chapter concludes with practice questions, followed by detailed explanations of the answers.

Reading and Writing Section

 Reading Comprehension – This chapter helps you develop strategies for reading passages efficiently, identifying
main ideas, themes, and arguments, and tackling vocabulary in context.

 Grammar and Sentence Structure – Focuses on improving grammar, punctuation, and sentence construction,
covering topics like subject-verb agreement and punctuation rules.

 Rhetorical Skills – Learn how to analyze an author’s tone, purpose, and the use of evidence and reasoning in
writing, a critical skill for both the reading and writing sections.

 Vocabulary and Context Clues – This chapter teaches strategies for determining the meaning of unfamiliar
words based on context, a vital skill for tackling reading passages.

Practice and Test-Taking Strategies

Practice is the cornerstone of SAT success. Part 3: Practice MCQs provides over 1,000 multiple-choice questions,
divided into Math and Reading/Writing sections. These questions simulate the actual SAT, and reviewing your
answers and explanations will help reinforce learning and pinpoint areas for improvement.

Once you’re confident in your content knowledge, Part 4: Test Strategies and Final Review covers essential Test-
Taking Strategies. Learn time management tips, how to handle multiple-choice questions, and strategies for staying
calm during the test. This section also explains how to navigate the digital SAT interface, including using tools like
the calculator, flagging questions for review, and handling the adaptive testing feature, which adjusts question
difficulty based on your performance.

The Full-Length Practice Tests in this section simulate the actual exam environment. Practicing under timed
conditions helps you build stamina and get comfortable with the pacing of the test.

Review, Reflection, and Next Steps

After completing practice tests and reviewing your performance, use the Post-Test Reflection and Next Steps
section to assess your progress. If you didn’t achieve your target score, this section provides guidance on how to
review mistakes and develop a plan for improvement. It also offers advice on retaking the SAT and refining your
approach for the next test.

Additional Study Guide Features

In addition to the detailed content and practice exercises, the study guide includes several other key features to
help you succeed:

 Focused Learning: Chapters are organized by topics and difficulty level to guide you step-by-step through the
material.

 Practice Exercises: After each section, practice questions and explanations reinforce what you’ve learned,
helping you identify and improve weak areas.

 Test-Taking Tips: Throughout the guide, you’ll find practical advice on how to manage your time during the
test, approach difficult questions, and reduce anxiety.

 Post-Test Reflection: After completing practice tests, review your results to identify patterns in your
performance and refine your study plan.
This book is designed to be your companion throughout the SAT preparation process. By following the structured
study plan, mastering key concePractice Test, and practicing regularly, you will be well-prepared to achieve your
best score. Remember to stay consistent, focus on understanding each topic deeply, and use the practice tests to
assess your readiness. The digital SAT format may bring new challenges, but by familiarizing yourself with the
changes early, you can approach the exam with confidence.

With dedication, hard work, and the right strategies, you can achieve your SAT goals. Use this guide as a tool to stay
organized, track your progress, and reach your full potential. Good luck!

Study Plan and Tips for the SAT

Preparing for the SAT is no small feat—it requires dedication, strategic planning, and the ability to stick to a
structured schedule. A successful SAT preparation plan doesn’t just rely on hard work; it involves creating a well-
rounded strategy, focusing on weak areas, and refining your test-taking skills. The following sections provide a
comprehensive guide to building an effective SAT study plan, how to approach each section of the test, time
management strategies for the new digital SAT format, common mistakes to avoid, and crucial tips for test day
preparation.

Creating an Effective Study Schedule

The first step in preparing for the SAT is establishing a clear and realistic study schedule. Without a well-structured
plan, your preparation might be aimless and ineffective. An SAT study schedule should be personalized, accounting
for the amount of time you have before the exam and the areas you need to focus on the most.

The first step is to determine how much time you have until the test date. Ideally, start preparing for the SAT at
least three to six months in advance. This gives you ample time to cover all test sections and take multiple practice
tests, making sure you have a clear understanding of the SAT format and its specific requirements.

Once you’ve decided on a time frame, set a realistic goal. Consider the score you’re aiming for, taking into account
the average scores of the schools you are targeting. The SAT has three main sections—Reading, Writing and
Language, and Math. If you’re aiming for a high score, focus your study plan on maximizing strengths in all areas,
and devote extra time to areas where you are weaker.

Once you’ve established your time frame and goals, break your study time into smaller, manageable segments. This
will help you avoid feeling overwhelmed. Structure your plan into weekly and daily tasks, with each task focused on
specific areas of the SAT. A general guideline might be as follows:

Weeks 1-4: Focus on mastering the fundamentals of each section. This includes working on math formulas and
algebraic concePractice Test, brushing up on grammar rules for the Writing and Language section, and practicing
reading comprehension techniques.

Weeks 5-8: Dive deeper into more complex questions. Spend time working on advanced topics, such as reading
passages with higher difficulty levels, practice math word problems, and apply more sophisticated grammar and
punctuation rules in your writing.

Weeks 9-12: Dedicate these weeks to full-length practice tests and timed section drills. Review the questions that
you missed on these practice tests, figure out why you got them wrong, and strategize on how to avoid similar
mistakes on the actual exam.

It’s better to study consistently over a longer period of time than to cram all your studying into a few days. The SAT
is a long test, and preparation requires stamina. By spacing out your study sessions, you give your brain time to
absorb the material and retain it better. Stick to a study schedule that works with your lifestyle. Even 1-2 hours a
day is sufficient if you are consistent.

How to Approach Each Section

The SAT consists of four main sections: Reading, Writing and Language, Math (No Calculator), and Math (With
Calculator). Each section requires a unique strategy to maximize your score. Let’s break down how to approach
each section and optimize your preparation.

a. Reading Section

The Reading section of the SAT tests your ability to read and comprehend complex texts. You will read passages
from literature, historical documents, social sciences, and natural sciences. The key to success in this section is not
only understanding the text but also being able to answer questions based on what is stated or implied in the
passage.

Key Strategies:

Read Actively: As you read, underline key phrases, themes, or evidence that supports the main idea. Active reading
helps you retain important information and allows you to answer questions more quickly.

Focus on Question Types: Questions can ask for the main idea of a passage, specific details, the author’s tone or
attitude, or inferences based on the text. Practice identifying what each question is asking, and refer back to the
text when in doubt.

Practice Reading Under Time Constraints: The SAT gives you 65 minutes to answer 52 questions. You need to get
comfortable reading passages and answering questions quickly. Regular timed practice will help you build speed
and accuracy.

b. Writing and Language Section

This section evaluates your grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure skills. You’ll be asked to correct
sentences or passages by choosing the best answer from a set of options.

Key Strategies:

Master the Basics: The SAT tests common grammar rules, such as subject-verb agreement, punctuation, parallel
structure, and sentence clarity. Familiarize yourself with these rules and practice applying them to different
questions.

Practice Sentence Improvement: Pay attention to the organization of ideas in passages. The questions often focus
on improving sentence structure, eliminating redundancy, and clarifying meaning.

Focus on Context: The SAT questions in this section often require you to improve the tone and clarity of writing.
The best answer may not always be the most grammatically correct one but the one that makes the passage most
effective in context.

c. Math Section
The Math section of the SAT is divided into two parts: Math (No Calculator) and Math (With Calculator). The topics
covered in both parts include algebra, problem-solving, data analysis, and advanced math.

Key Strategies:

Brush Up on Math ConcePractice Test: For the Math (No Calculator) section, you should focus on algebra, linear
equations, and basic problem-solving. The Math (With Calculator) section covers a wider range of topics, including
statistics, probability, and advanced algebra.

Understand the Question Format: SAT math questions often involve word problems or multi-step problems that
require you to apply several concePractice Test. Break down these problems step by step, and if needed, draw
diagrams to help visualize the problem.
Practice Mental Math: In the Math (No Calculator) section, you'll be expected to do some calculations in your head.
Practice mental math to help you save time during the exam.

Use Your Calculator Wisely: In the Math (With Calculator) section, use your calculator to simplify complex
calculations, but don’t rely on it for basic arithmetic, as this may slow you down.

Time Management Strategies for the Digital SAT

With the SAT moving to a digital format, effective time management has become even more important. The digital
SAT test format is shorter but more focused, so you must be strategic in how you allocate your time to each section.

Before test day, familiarize yourself with the digital SAT platform. Practice with official online resources and apps to
get used to the layout and interface of the test. This will prevent any surprises on the exam day and allow you to
focus solely on the content.

The SAT is a timed test, and being able to pace yourself is crucial. The digital test will show you a timer for each
section, so make sure you keep an eye on it. Aim to complete questions in 1-1.5 minutes per question. Don’t linger
on any single question for too long. If you’re stuck, mark it and move on.

Taking full-length practice tests under timed conditions is one of the most effective ways to get used to the pacing
of the digital SAT. By practicing with a timer, you’ll build the stamina needed to keep up with the pace of the exam.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

In your SAT preparation, be mindful of these common mistakes that can derail your progress:

Cramming: Trying to learn everything the night before the test is a recipe for disaster. Cramming will only increase
your anxiety and hinder your ability to retain information. Instead, develop a steady, consistent study routine over
several months.

Skipping Practice Tests: Practice tests are essential for understanding the test format, refining your test-taking
strategies, and building your stamina. Skipping them can leave you unprepared for the actual exam.

Not Reviewing Mistakes: It’s not enough to take a practice test and forget about it. Go over your mistakes and
figure out where you went wrong. This will help you avoid repeating the same errors in the future.

Ignoring Test Anxiety: Test anxiety can be overwhelming. Don't ignore your nerves. Use relaxation techniques such
as deep breathing, visualization, and mindfulness to manage stress and stay focused on the test.

Test Day Preparation for the Digital SAT

The final step in your preparation is ensuring that you’re ready for the test day itself. This includes both the
practical elements (like technical requirements) and psychological preparation to ensure you perform your best.

The digital SAT requires that you have access to a computer or tablet that meets the technical requirements. Ensure
that your device is fully charged, the necessary software is installed, and that you have a stable internet connection.
If you’re testing at home, ensure that your testing area is quiet and free from distractions.

Bring only the essentials to your testing location. You’ll need your admission ticket, a valid photo ID, and any
required testing materials (e.g., a calculator). At home, make sure you have a quiet, distraction-free space, a
comfortable chair, and a desk or table to work on. Remember to stay hydrated and have a light snack nearby if
necessary.

Test anxiety is a common issue, but there are strategies you can use to stay calm on test day:

 Get Adequate Sleep: Ensure you get a good night’s sleep before the test. Rest is critical for focus and
concentration.
 Eat a Balanced Breakfast: Fuel your body and brain with a healthy breakfast on the day of the test. Avoid heavy
or sugary foods that might cause energy crashes.

 Practice Relaxation Techniques: Use deep breathing or visualization to calm your nerves before the test begins.
Remember, the SAT is just another opportunity to showcase what you’ve learned.
Disclaimer
The contents of this SAT Study Guide are designed to assist students in preparing for the SAT exam. While
every effort has been made to ensure that the information presented is accurate and up-to-date, the SAT
test format, question types, and scoring may change over time. This guide reflects the most current
information available at the time of publication, but students are advised to check the official College
Board website or other reliable resources for any updates regarding the SAT.

This study guide includes practice questions and test-taking strategies that can help improve your
performance, but there is no guarantee that following the advice or completing the practice tests will
result in a specific score on the actual exam. Individual results will vary based on multiple factors,
including preparation time, familiarity with the test, and personal aptitude.

Additionally, the study guide includes tips and techniques that are intended to enhance test-taking skills.
However, success on the SAT also requires dedication, consistent study, and effective time management.
We strongly recommend that you use this guide in conjunction with other study materials, and always
approach your SAT preparation with a balanced study plan.

Finally, this book is not affiliated with or endorsed by the College Board. The SAT is a trademark of the
College Board, which is not responsible for the contents of this study guide.

Copyright © 2025 [Your Name or Publisher Name]

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or
transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise,
without prior written permission of the publisher, except for the use of brief quotations in a review.
Table of Contents
Chapter 1: Math Section...................................................................................................................10
A. Algebra............................................................................................................................................ 10
B. Problem Solving and Data Analysis................................................................................................. 16
C. Advanced math............................................................................................................................... 30
D. Geometry and trigonometry...........................................................................................................31
Chapter 2: Reading and Writing Section...........................................................................................38
A. Information and Ideas.....................................................................................................................38
B. Craft and Structure..........................................................................................................................44
C. Expression of Ideas and Standard English Conventions..................................................................47
D. Grammar......................................................................................................................................... 52
Chapter 3: SAT Test-Taking Strategies..............................................................................................62
Time Management Tips for Each Section............................................................................................62
How to Tackle Multiple-Choice Questions.......................................................................................... 63
Approaching the Essay Section (if applicable).....................................................................................63
When to Guess, and When to Skip a Question....................................................................................64
Tips for Managing Test Anxiety...........................................................................................................64
Strategies for the Digital SAT Interface...............................................................................................64
Chapter 4: 11 Full-Length Practice Tests...........................................................................................65
Appendix........................................................................................................................................280
Answers and Explanations.................................................................................................................280
Additional Resources.........................................................................................................................387
Chapter 1: Math Section
A. Algebra
Solving Linear Equations and Linear Inequalities
Linear equations and inequalities are key topics in the SAT Math section. These problems test your ability
to manipulate algebraic expressions, isolate variables, and interpret relationships between numbers. In
this guide, we will cover how to solve more complex linear equations and inequalities, and how to
determine the number of solutions for such equations.
 Linear Equations: A linear equation consists of constants and variables and uses an equals sign ("=").
The goal is to find the value of the variable that satisfies the equation.
 Linear Inequalities: These involve inequalities such as "<", ">", "≤", or "≥". They express relationships
where the variable's value can fall within a certain range.
The goal of solving a linear equation is to isolate the variable on one side. This is done by applying
algebraic operations to both sides of the equation. Below are the steps for solving different types of linear
equations.
1. Linear Equations in One Variable
Most SAT problems involve equations with one variable. To solve these, simplify the equation by
combining like terms, and then isolate the variable using algebraic operations.
Example:
Solve the equation:
5(2x - 3) = 4(x + 2) + 9
1. Distribute on both sides:
10x - 15 = 4x + 8 + 9
2. Combine like terms on the right-hand side:
10x - 15 = 4x + 17
3. Subtract 4x from both sides:
6x - 15 = 17
4. Add 15 to both sides:
6x = 32
5. Divide both sides by 6:
x = 32/6 = 16/3
Thus, the solution is x = 16/3.
2. Linear Equations with Fractions
When fractions appear in an equation, it's often easier to eliminate them first. You can multiply both sides
of the equation by the least common denominator (LCD) to remove the fractions.
Example:
Solve the equation:
(3/4)x - (2/3) = 5
1. Find the LCD of 4 and 3, which is 12, and multiply through by 12 to eliminate fractions:
 12×(3/4)x - 12×(2/3) = 12×5
2. Simplify:
9x - 8 = 60
3. Add 8 to both sides:
9x = 68
4. Divide both sides by 9:
x = 68/9
Thus, the solution is x = 68/9.
3. Linear Equations with Negative Numbers
When working with negative numbers, follow the same rules for solving equations, but carefully track
your signs during multiplication or division.
Example:
Solve the equation:
-6(3x + 4) = 2(x - 5)
1. Distribute on both sides:
-18x - 24 = 2x - 10
2. Add 18x to both sides:
-24 = 20x - 10
3. Add 10 to both sides:
-14 = 20x
4. Divide both sides by 20:
x = -14/20 = -7/10
Thus, the solution is x = -7/10.
4. Linear Equations in Two Variables
Sometimes, you'll encounter equations with two variables. If one variable is given, substitute that value
into the equation and solve for the other variable.
Example:
Solve for y when 2x + 3y = 12 and x = 4.
1. Substitute x = 4 into the equation:
2(4) + 3y = 12
2. Simplify:
8 + 3y = 12
3. Subtract 8 from both sides:
3y = 4
4. Divide both sides by 3:
y = 4/3
Thus, y = 4/3.
5. Solving for Expressions Containing Variables
You may also be asked to evaluate an expression that involves a variable from a given equation. This can
sometimes be done by directly substituting values.
Example:
If x = 5, what is the value of 2x2 - 3x + 4?
1. Substitute x = 5 into the expression:
2(5)2 - 3(5) + 4
2. Simplify:
2(25) - 15 + 4 = 50 - 15 + 4 = 39
Thus, the value of the expression is 39.
Solving Linear Inequalities
Linear inequalities follow similar steps to solving linear equations, but there is an important difference:
the direction of the inequality sign may change, especially when multiplying or dividing by negative
numbers.
1. Inequalities Without Reversing the Sign
If the coefficient of the variable is positive, the inequality sign remains the same when you divide both
sides of the inequality.
Example:
Solve the inequality:
3(2x - 4) ≥ 12
1. Distribute on the left side:
6x - 12 ≥ 12
2. Add 12 to both sides:
6x ≥ 24
3. Divide both sides by 6:
x≥4
Thus, the solution is x ≥ 4.
2. Inequalities That Require Reversing the Sign
If you divide or multiply both sides of the inequality by a negative number, you must reverse the
inequality sign.
Example:
Solve the inequality:
-5x + 8 < 3x - 10
1. Subtract 3x from both sides:
-5x - 3x + 8 < -10
2. Simplify:
-8x + 8 < -10
3. Subtract 8 from both sides:
 -8x < -18
4. Divide both sides by -8 (reverse the inequality sign):
x > 9/4
Thus, the solution is x > 9/4.
Determining the Number of Solutions
Linear equations can have one solution, no solution, or infinitely many solutions. Here's how to recognize
each type of solution:
1. One Solution
When solving for the variable, you may end up with one specific value that satisfies the equation.
Example:
2x + 4 = 12
1. Subtract 4 from both sides:
2x = 8
2. Divide both sides by 2:
x=4
Thus, the solution is x = 4.
2. No Solution
An equation may have no solution if it leads to a contradiction (e.g., an equation that simplifies to
something like 3 = 5, which is impossible).
Example:
2x + 4 = 2x + 7
1. Subtract 2x from both sides:
4=7
2. Since 4 ≠ 7, this is a contradiction, and there is no solution.
3. Infinitely Many Solutions
An equation can have infinitely many solutions if it simplifies to a statement that is always true, like 0 = 0.
Example:
3x - 5 = 3x - 5
1. Subtract 3x from both sides:
-5 = -5
Since this is always true, there are infinitely many solutions.
Practice Questions
1. Solve the equation
4(3x - 2) = 2(5x + 1) + 12
What is the value of x?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
2. Solve the inequality
-2(3x + 4) ≥ 10
What is the solution for x?
A) x ≤ -2
B) x ≥ -2
C) x < -2
D) x > -2
3. Find the value of
3x + 2 = 5x - 10, and x = y + 4
What is the value of y?
Things to Remember
1. Treat Both Sides Equally:
When solving equations or inequalities, always perform the same operation on both sides to maintain
the equality.
2. Reversing the Inequality Sign:
If you multiply or divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, make sure to reverse the
inequality sign.
3. Identifying the Number of Solutions:
 One solution: The variable simplifies to a single value.
 No solution: A contradiction occurs.
 Infinitely many solutions: Both sides of the equation are always equal.
Linear Relationships in the SAT Math Section
The Math section of the SAT often involves understanding linear relationships, which are fundamental for
solving a variety of problems. A linear relationship refers to a connection between two variables that can
be represented by a straight line when graphed on the xy-plane. These types of relationships frequently
appear in both word problems and abstract equations on the SAT.
Key ConcePractice Test of Linear Relationships
A linear equation is typically represented in two variables, such as x and y, where the relationship
between these variables can be graphed as a straight line. One of the simplest forms of a linear
relationship is:
y=x
In this equation, the value of y is always equal to the value of x, producing a diagonal line through the
origin. For example, if x=0, then y=0; if x=1then y=1, and so on. The line that connects these points
represents the relationship.
Any variation of this equation (such as adding a constant or multiplying by a coefficient) still produces a
linear relationship, just with a different slope or starting point on the graph.
Translating Word Problems into Linear Equations
Word problems on the SAT often present real-life situations that can be modeled using linear equations.
To solve these, it’s essential to identify the key variables and constants within the problem and then
translate them into an equation. Here's an example:
Example 1: A Car Lease Payment A car dealership offers a vehicle priced at $22,000. The customer makes
an initial payment of $5,000, with monthly payments of $300 thereafter. What equation can represent
the number of months, mmm, required to pay off the remaining balance of the car?
Here’s how to break it down:
 The total cost of the car is $22,000.
 The initial payment is $5,000.
 Each monthly payment is $300.
We can form the following equation to represent the remaining balance:
22,000= 5,000+300m
Where m represents the number of months of payments. This equation helps to determine how many
months of payments are needed to pay off the car.
Writing Linear Equations from Word Problems
To create a linear equation from a word problem, follow these steps:
1. Identify the total amount (what the equation equals).
2. Identify the one-time payments or constants.
3. Determine the variable that changes (e.g., monthly payments or time).
Example 2: Sales of T-Shirts and Hoodies A clothing store sells t-shirts for $15 each and hoodies for $35
each. If the store's total sales amounted to $1,200, and 40 hoodies were sold, how many t-shirts were
sold?
Let t represent the number of t-shirts sold. We can write the equation as follows:
1200=35(40)+15t
Simplifying:
1200=1400+15t
1200-1400=15t
-200=15t
-200/15=t≈−13.33
Since negative values don’t make sense in this context, the calculations show the importance of reviewing
your assumptions. (In this case, a more accurate representation would involve checking assumptions or
identifying potential errors.)
Important Features of Linear Functions
Linear functions typically come in two main forms:
 Slope-Intercept Form: y=mx+b
Slope (m) represents the rate of change.
Y-intercept (b) is the value of y when x=0
 Standard Form: Ax+By=C
This form is often used when the equation involves two variables and requires manipulation to convert to
slope-intercept form.
The slope indicates the steepness of the line and the direction it moves. A positive slope means the line
rises as it moves to the right, while a negative slope indicates the line falls. The y-intercept tells us where
the line crosses the y-axis.
Solving Linear Equations in Word Problems
On the SAT, you may be asked to solve linear equations formed from real-world situations. For example:
Example 3: Investment Growth An investor deposits $1,000 into an account with an annual interest rate
of 5%. The amount of money in the account grows according to the equation:
A=1000(1+0.05) t
Where A is the amount of money in the account after t years, and 5% interest is compounded annually.
How many years will it take for the investment to double?
This problem requires you to apply the equation for compound growth and solve for t when A=2000.
Key Takeaways
1. Slope measures the rate of change in a linear equation and is calculated as the change in y divided by
the change in x.
Slope= Δx/Δy
2. Slope-Intercept Form (y=mx+b) directly provides the slope and y-intercept, making it easier to graph
or interpret.
3. Standard Form (Ax+By=C) is useful when dealing with two variables, and can be converted to slope-
intercept form by isolating y.
4. Word problems can be tricky, but breaking down the given information into variables and constants
will allow you to set up and solve linear equations effectively.
Graphs of Linear Equations and Functions
Linear equations and functions are fundamental concePractice Test in algebra, and the SAT tests your
ability to interpret and manipulate these types of equations. In this lesson, we will explore how to identify
key features of linear graphs, determine the equations of lines, and apply your knowledge to solve more
complex problems, all while focusing on the graphing of linear equations in the xy-plane.
What Are Graphs of Linear Equations and Functions?
Questions about linear equations and their graphs will test your ability to recognize, graph, and interpret
linear relationships. For instance, consider the equation of a line given by:
y=3x-2
This equation represents a straight line with a slope of 3 and a y-intercept of -2. A visual representation of
this line on the xy-plane shows that it rises steeply from left to right, passing through the point (0, -2) on
the y-axis and (1, 1) on the x-axis.
In this lesson, you will:
 Learn to identify features of lines based on their equations
 Write the equation of a line using its graphical characteristics
  Solve for the equations of lines that are parallel or perpendicular to others
Understanding the Key Features of Linear Graphs
1. Slope:
The slope of a line indicates its direction and steepness. A positive slope means the line rises as it moves
from left to right, while a negative slope indicates a decline. The slope is calculated as the ratio of the
change in the y-values to the change in the x-values between two points (x1,y1) and (x2, y2)
change∈ y y 2− y 1
Slope= =
change∈ x x 2−x 1
Example: Consider the line passing through the points (-4, 5) and (3, -2). To find the slope:
−2−5 −7
Slope= = = -1
3−(−4 ) 7
So, the slope of this line is -1.
A horizontal line has a slope of 0, and a vertical line has an undefined slope.
2. Y-Intercept:
The y-intercept is the point where the line crosses the y-axis. It is the value of y when x=0. All lines that
are not vertical will have exactly one y-intercept.
Example: If a line crosses the y-axis at (0,4), then the y-intercept is 4.
3. X-Intercept:
The x-intercept is the point where the line crosses the x-axis. It is the value of x when y=0. Non-horizontal
lines will always have one x-intercept.
Working with Linear Equations in Slope-Intercept Form
Linear equations are often written in slope-intercept form:
y=mx+b
Where:
 m is the slope of the line
 b is the y-intercept
This form directly shows both the slope and the y-intercept, making it easy to graph the line and interpret
its characteristics.
Example: For the equation y=4x−7, the slope is 4, and the y-intercept is -7.
Converting an Equation to Slope-Intercept Form:
To identify the slope and y-intercept from a general linear equation, rewrite it in slope-intercept form by
isolating y. For example:
Problem: What is the slope of the graph of the equation 5x+3y=15?
Solution: Rearranging the equation:
3y=−5x+15
5
y=− x+5
3
 5
So, the slope of the line is − , and the y-intercept is 5.
3
Writing Linear Equations Based on Points and Slopes
If you are given a slope and a point on a line, you can write the equation of the line using the point-slope
form:
y−y1=m(x−x1)
Where (x1,y1) is the known point on the line and mmm is the slope.
Example: Given a slope of 2 and a point (3,1), write the equation of the line.
Solution:
y−1=2(x−3)
Simplifying:
y−1=2x−6
y=2x−5
Thus, the equation of the line is y=2x−5.
Parallel and Perpendicular Lines
Parallel lines have the same slope. In contrast, perpendicular lines have slopes that are negative
reciprocals of each other.
 Parallel Lines: Two lines are parallel if they have the same slope. For example, lines with slopes of 3
and 3 are parallel.
 Perpendicular Lines: Two lines are perpendicular if the product of their slopes equals -1. This means if
1
one line has a slope of mmm, the other must have a slope of -
m
1
Example: If a line has a slope of 4, the slope of a line perpendicular to it would be -
4
Practice Questions
Question 1: A line in the xy-plane passes through the points (−2,1) and (3,−4). What is the equation of the
line?
Solution:
 First, calculate the slope:
−4−1 −5
slope= = = -1
3−(−2) 5
 Use the point (-2,1) and the slope -1 in the point slope form:
y-1= -1(x+2)
y-1= -x-2
y= -x-1
Thus the equation of the line is y= -x-1
3
Question 2: A line has a slope of and passes through the point (4,-2). What is the equation of the line?
2
Solution:
 3
 Use the point (4,-2) and slope :
2
3
y+2= ( x−4)
2
Simplifying:
3
y+2= x−6
2
3
y= x−8
2
3
Thus the equation of the line is y= x−8
2
Final Thoughts
When solving problems related to the graphs of linear equations and functions, it's important to:
 Understand how to identify the slope and y-intercept directly from the equation.
 Know how to graph a line when given its equation in slope-intercept form.
 Be comfortable with both finding equations of lines given a slope and a point or two points on the line.
 Recognize the relationships between parallel and perpendicular lines, including how to find their
slopes.
B. Problem Solving and Data Analysis
Ratios, Rates, and Proportions
Ratios, rates, and proportions are crucial concePractice Test in mathematics that help you compare
quantities, solve for unknowns, and describe how things change in relation to one another. These topics
are frequently tested on exams like the SAT. Let’s break them down with unique examples that relate
directly to real-world applications.
1. Ratios
A ratio is a way of comparing two quantities. You can express a ratio in various forms:
 As a fraction (e.g., 5/8)
 With a colon (e.g., 5:8)
 In words (e.g., "5 to 8")
Example: Books and Pages
Suppose you have 5 books, and each book has 200 pages. The ratio of the number of books to the number
of pages per book is:
 5 books: 200 pages.
You can simplify the ratio by dividing both numbers by 5:
 1 book: 40 pages.
This tells you that for every 1 book, there are 40 pages.
Part-to-Part vs. Part-to-Whole Ratios
Ratios can be part-to-part or part-to-whole:
 Part-to-Part Ratio: Compares one part of a whole to another part. For instance, if a classroom has 8 boys and
12 girls, the part-to-part ratio of boys to girls is 8:12, which simplifies to 2:3.
 Part-to-Whole Ratio: Compares one part of the whole to the entire whole. For example, if the classroom has 8
boys and 20 students in total, the part-to-whole ratio of boys to all students is 8:20, which simplifies to 2:5.
Example: Car Paint
Imagine you're painting a car and decide on the ratio of red paint to blue paint. If you use 4 liters of red
paint for every 6 liters of blue paint, the ratio of red to blue paint is:
 4:6, which simplifies to 2:3 when reduced.
Now, let’s say you want to make a total of 12 liters of paint. To maintain the same ratio, you would need 8
liters of red paint and 12 liters of blue paint (because 8:12 simplifies to 2:3).
2. Proportions
A proportion is an equation that shows two ratios are equivalent. Proportions are helpful when you want
to find unknown quantities by setting up equivalent ratios.
Example: Fruit Juices
Imagine you're making a fruit punch, and the recipe calls for 3 parts orange juice to 5 parts pineapple
juice. However, you want to make a larger batch using 12 parts of orange juice. To find out how much
pineapple juice you'll need, set up a proportion like this:
3 parts orange juice 12 parts orange juice
=
5 parts pineapple juice x parts pineapple juice
Now, solve for x (the amount of pineapple juice needed):
3 x=60 ⇒ x=20
So, you would need 20 parts of pineapple juice to match the 12 parts of orange juice.
3. Rates
A rate is a ratio that compares two quantities with different units. Rates are commonly used to describe
speed, efficiency, and pricing.
Example: Speed of a Cyclist
Let’s say a cyclist rides 30 miles in 1.5 hours. To find the cyclist's speed (rate), divide the distance by the
time taken:
30 miles
speed= =20 miles per hour
1.5 hours
Now, you can predict how far the cyclist will travel in 4 hours. Using the rate:
Distance=20 miles per hour × 4 hours=80 miles
So, the cyclist will travel 80 miles in 4 hours at that speed.
Example: Cost of Apples
If a store sells 3 apples for $1.50, the unit rate (price per apple) is:
1.50 dollars
unit price= =0.50 dollars per apple
3 apples
This means that each apple costs $0.50.
Unit Conversion
Unit conversion is an essential concept in math, especially on tests like the SAT, where you'll encounter
various problems that involve changing measurements from one unit to another. Whether you're
converting from kilometers to meters, liters to gallons, or seconds to minutes, the process is the same: we
change the units used to express a measurement while keeping the same quantity.
Units are standard quantities used to measure things like length, time, volume, and mass. For example,
we can measure length in meters, feet, or yards. The process of unit conversion allows us to convert a
quantity expressed in one unit to another unit without changing the amount itself.
For example, if a river is 100 kilometers long, you might want to know how many meters that is. Since 11
kilometer equals 1,0001,000 meters, you would multiply the kilometers by 1,0001,000 to get the length in
meters.
Example: Length Conversion
Imagine you have a 15-foot long table. To find out how long this table is in inches, you would use the
conversion factor:
1 foot =12inches
The conversion would be:
12 inches
15 feet × =180 inches
1 foot
So, the table is 180 inches long.
How Do We Convert Between Units?
To convert between units, we typically use unit ratios or conversion factors, which show the relationship
between different units. These relationships are often provided to you on the SAT, or you may already
know them from previous lessons. Here’s how to think of them:
For example, the relationship between pounds and ounces is given by:
1 pound =16 ounces
This can be written as a ratio:
1 pound
16 ounces
Example: Converting from Pounds to Ounces
If you want to know how many ounces are in 5 pounds, you can use the ratio:
16 ounces
5 pounds × =80 ounces
1 pound
So, 5 pounds is equal to 80 ounces.
Converting Units in Rates
When you work with rates, such as speed or density, unit conversion can be a bit trickier. Rates involve
two different units, like miles per hour or grams per liter. To convert units within rates, follow the same
method as with regular conversions—just make sure you cancel out the units you want to eliminate.
Example: Converting Speed
A cyclist is traveling at a speed of 20 kilometers per hour. You want to convert this to meters per second.
First, we know:
 1 kilometer=1,000 meters
 1 hour=60 minutes
  1 minute=60
Now, let’s set up the conversion:
1,000 meters 1 hour 1 minute
20 Kilometers per hour × × ×
1 kilometer 60 minutes 60 seconds
Simplifying this:
1,000 1,000
20 × =20 × =5.56 meters per second
60 ×60 3600

So, the cyclist is traveling at 5.56 meters per second.

Unit Conversion for Volume
Sometimes, you'll need to convert units related to volume, such as converting liters to milliliters or
gallons. Here's an example of how to do it:
Example: Converting Volume
Imagine you have a container that holds 2 liters of liquid. You know that:
 1 liter=1,000 milliliters
 1 gallon=3.785 liters
To convert from liters to milliliters, set up the conversion like this:
1,000 mililiters
2 liters× =2,000 milliliters
1 liter

So, 2 liters is equal to 2,000 milliliters.

Multiple Step Conversions
In some problems, you might need to convert units in multiple steps. This is common when you’re dealing
with complex conversions like speed or mass. Here’s an example:
Example: Converting Distance in a Marathon
A marathon is 42 kilometers long. You want to know how long that is in miles. Since 1 mile=1.609
kilometers, we can set up the conversion as follows:
1mile
42 kilometers × =26.1 miles
1,609 kilometers
So, a marathon is approximately 26.1 miles long.
Unit conversion is a crucial skill to master for the SAT and for many real-world applications. By
understanding how different units relate to each other and using ratios to convert between them, you can
tackle problems with confidence. Whether it’s converting distances, times, speeds, or volumes, the
process is always the same: multiply by conversion factors and cancel out the units you don’t need. Keep
practicing and you’ll become faster and more accurate at converting units!
Percentages
A percentage is a way of expressing a number as a fraction of 100. The symbol % stands for "per
hundred," meaning "out of 100." Percentages are commonly used to compare values, understand
relationships, and represent parts of a whole.
Key ConcePractice Test in Percentages
1. Part-to-whole relationship: Percentages represent a part of a whole expressed in hundredths.
Example: If you scored 75 out of 100 on an exam, your score is 75%.
2. Formula for calculating a percentage:
part
%= ×100
whole
How to Calculate Percentages
To calculate a percentage, use the formula:
part
%= ×100
whole
Example 1: Calculating the Percentage of Correct Answers
Imagine you are taking a test with 50 questions, and you answer 40 questions correctly. To find your
percentage score, use:
40
%= ×100=80 %
50
So, you scored 80% on the test.
Example 2: What is 120% of 15?
To find 120% of 15:
1. Convert the percentage to a decimal: 120%= 1.2
2. Multiply by 15:
1.2 ×15=18
So, 120% of 15 is 18.
Finding Complementary Percentages
If the total of all parts adds up to 100%, you can find the missing percentage by subtracting from 100%.
For example:
Example: Finding Green Marbles
Imagine you have a bag of 30 marbles, and 70% of them are red. What percentage of the marbles are
green?
100 %−70 %=30 %
So, 30% of the marbles are green.
Converting Percentages to Decimals and Fractions
Percentages can be expressed in decimal or fractional form. To convert:
1. To Decimal: Remove the % symbol and move the decimal point two places to the left. Example:
60%=0.60
2. To Fraction: Express the percentage as a fraction over 100. Example:
60 3
60 %= =
100 5
Percentage Word Problems
Word problems often ask "what percent" or use phrases like "what is 20% of" or "increase by X%." Here's
how to translate these into equations:
 "What" means x
 "Is" means ==
 "Of" means multiplied by
 "Percent" means divided by 100
Example: What is 48 as a percent of 80?
The equation is:
x
48= × 80
100
Solving for x:
48 ×100
x= =60 %
80

So, 48 is 60% of 80.

Calculating Percent Change
Percent change is used when a quantity changes from one value to another. The formula is:
difference
% change= ×100
initial value
Example: Price Reduction
The price of a jacket was reduced from $50 to $40. To find the percent reduction:
1. Find the difference: 50−40=10
2. Divide by the initial value: 10/50= 0.20
3. Convert to a percentage: 0.20×100= 20%
So, the price was reduced by 20%.
Example: Finding Initial Price Using Percent Change
The price of a smartphone after a 15% discount is $340. To find the original price:
1. Let the original price be x.
2. The equation is: x−0.15x=340
3. Simplify: 0.85x=340
4. Solve for x= 0.85/340= 400
So, the original price of the smartphone was $400.
Practice Problems
1. Calculate the Percentage
From a survey of 1,500 people, the results are shown below. What percentage of people gets most of
their news from either television or newspapers?
 Television: 30%
  Newspapers: 20%
30 % +20 %=50 %
Now calculate 50% of 1,500:
50
×15 , 00=750
100
So, 750 people get most of their news from television or newspapers.
2. Find Complementary Percentages
Lucy has completed 88% of the tasks on her to-do list. If she has 25 tasks in total, how many tasks has she
not completed?
100 %−88 %=12 %
Now calculate 12% of 25:
12
×25=3
100
So, Lucy has 3 tasks left to complete.
3. Calculate Percent Increase
The price of a book increased from $12 in 2019 to $15 in 2020. What is the percent increase?
1. Find the difference: 15−12=3
2. Divide by the initial value: 3/12=0.25
3. Convert to a percentage: 0.25×100=25%
So, the price increased by 25%.
Center, Spread, and Shape of Distributions
In statistics, the center, spread, and shape of a distribution are important to understand because they
provide a clear picture of the data. These three concePractice Test help summarize and describe data sets
concisely. Here’s a breakdown of each concept:
1. Measures of Center
The center of a data set represents a "typical" value. It gives us an idea of where the majority of the data
points fall. There are three key measures of center: mean, median, and mode.
a. Mean The mean is commonly known as the average. It is calculated by adding up all the values in the
data set and then dividing by the number of values.
Formula:

mean=
∑ of all values
number of values
Example: Consider the following test scores of 5 students:
82,74,91,85,67
To find the mean:
82+74+ 91+85+67 399
mean= = =79.8
5 5
Thus, the mean score is 79.8.
b. Median The median is the middle value when the data set is ordered from least to greatest. If there’s
an even number of values, the median is the average of the two middle values.
Example: Consider these ages:
18,25,32,45,50
To find the median:
 First, arrange the data in increasing order:
 18,25,32,45,50
 Since there are 5 values (an odd number), the median is the middle value, which is 32.
If the data were:
18,25,32,45
 Since there are 4 values (an even number), the median is the average of 25 and 32, which is:
25+ 32
median= =28.5
2

c. Mode The mode is the value that appears most frequently in the data set. A data set can have one
mode, more than one mode, or no mode at all if all values appear with the same frequency.
Example: Consider the number of pets owned by 7 students:
2,4,2,1,3,2,5
The mode is 2, because it appears most frequently (3 times).
2. Measures of Spread
Spread refers to the extent to which the data values are spread out or dispersed. Two common measures
of spread are range and standard deviation.
a. Range The range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a data set.
Formula:
range=maximum value−minimum value
Example: Consider these numbers representing daily temperatures in a city over a week:
72,68,75,80,85,90,92
To find the range:
range=92−68=24
Thus, the range of temperatures is 24 degrees.
b. Standard Deviation Standard deviation measures how much the values in a data set deviate from the
mean. A larger standard deviation indicates that the values are more spread out, while a smaller standard
deviation suggests that they are closer to the mean. Although calculating standard deviation can be
complex, it’s useful for understanding how varied the data are.
Example: Consider two sets of exam scores:
Set 1: 80,85,90,95
Set 2: 50,70,90,110
The mean for both sets is 87.5, but the standard deviations differ. Set 1 has a smaller standard deviation
because the values are closer to the mean, while Set 2 has a larger standard deviation because the values
are more spread out.
3. How Do Outliers Affect Summary Statistics?
Outliers are values that are significantly different from other values in a data set. They can affect the
center and spread of the data.
Impact on the Mean: Outliers can skew the mean, making it either much higher or much lower than most
of the data points.
Example: Consider the data set:
2,5,8,10,100
If we calculate the mean with the outlier (100), we get:
2+5+8+ 10+100 125
mean= = =25
5 5
However, if we remove the outlier (100), the new mean is:
2+5+8+ 10 25
mean= = =6.25
4 4

Impact on the Median: The median is less affected by outliers because it is based on the middle value(s).
In the example above, the median would still be 8, even with the outlier.
Impact on the Range and Standard Deviation: Outliers increase the range and standard deviation, as they
contribute to larger differences between the extreme values.
4. Comparing Distributions
When comparing two data sets, we look at the measures of center and spread to identify similarities and
differences.
Example: Consider the following two sets of scores for two different students:
Student Math Test Scores Science Test Scores

Sarah 85, 88, 90, 92 75, 80, 82, 85

David 78, 80, 82, 85 70, 72, 75, 80

 Mean of Math Scores (Sarah):
85+ 88+90+92
mean= =88.75
4

 Mean of Math Scores (David):

78+80+ 82+ 85
mean= =81.25
4
 Range of Science Scores (Sarah):
range=85−75=10
 Range of Science Scores (David):
range=80−70=10

From the comparison, we see that Sarah has higher average math scores, but both Sarah and David have
the same range for their science scores. Understanding these aspects of center and spread allows us to
make more informed comparisons.
5. Finding Missing Values Using the Mean
If you know the mean and the number of data points, you can calculate a missing value in the data set.
Here’s an example:
Example: Marco’s scores for 5 basketball games are:
11,x,13,7,9,12
His coach tells him that the average score for all 6 games was 10 points.
To find the missing score x, we first calculate the total sum of the scores using the mean formula:

mean=
∑ of all values
number of values
We know that the mean is 10 and there are 6 values, so:

10=
∑ of all values =81.25
6
Multiply both sides by 6 to find the sum of all values:
∑ of values=10× 6=60
Now, subtract the known scores from the total sum:
60−( 11+13+7+ 9+12 )=60−52=8
Thus, the missing score x=8. Marco scored 8 points in the second game.
6. Practice Questions: Comparing Test Scores
Amara and Lance both took 5 tests. Their scores are shown in the table below:
Amara’s scores:
98,95,94,93,95
Lance’s scores:
96,95,100,88,96
Which statement is true about their test scores?
(A) Amara has a greater range of test scores than Lance.
(B) Amara has a greater standard deviation in her test scores than Lance.
(C) Amara and Lance have the same mean test score.
(D) Amara and Lance have the same median test score.
Solution:
Let's calculate each measure for Amara and Lance.
1. Range:
The range is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in the data set.
 Amara’s range:
range=98−93=5
 Lance’s range:
range=100−88=12
Thus, Lance has a greater range than Amara.
2. Mean:
The mean is calculated by adding all the scores together and dividing by the number of scores.
 Amara’s mean:
98+ 95+94+ 93+95 475
mean= = =95
5 5

 Lance’s mean:
96+ 95+100+88+ 96 475
mean= = =95
5 5

Thus, Amara and Lance have the same mean test score (95).
3. Median:
The median is the middle value when the data is ordered.
 Amara’s median:
Ordered scores=93 , 94 , 95 ,95 ,98
Median=95

 Lance’s median:
Ordered scores=88 , 95 , 96 , 96,100
Median=96

Thus, Amara and Lance do not have the same median test score.
4. Standard Deviation:
To calculate the standard deviation, we would need to find the squared differences from the mean for
each score, then average those squared differences, and finally take the square root. Since we are not
explicitly asked to compute this value, we can reason based on the data:
 Amara’s scores are closer to each other, with 3 out of 5 being the same (95), so her standard deviation is likely
lower.
 Lance’s scores vary more widely, so his standard deviation is likely higher.
Thus, Amara has a smaller standard deviation than Lance.
Correct Answer:
The correct statement is:
(C) Amara and Lance have the same mean test score.
Probability and Relative Frequency
This guide helps you understand probability and relative frequency using two-way frequency tables, which
are frequently featured in the digital SAT.
Probability and relative frequency problems often use two-way frequency tables to summarize data from
two categorical (qualitative) variables. These tables display the frequency (count) of different data
combinations based on the two categories, one represented by rows and the other by columns.
For example, consider the following table summarizing the preferences of students in a school regarding
their favorite fruits and whether they prefer sweet or sour:
Sweet Fruits Sour Fruits Total
Likes Apples 30 5 35
Likes Oranges 20 10 30
Total 50 15 65
How Do I Read Two-Way Frequency Tables?
Let's break down the data in the table above:
 30: The number of students who like apples and prefer sweet fruits.
 5: The number of students who like apples and prefer sour fruits.
 50: The total number of students who prefer sweet fruits (both apples and oranges).
 30: The total number of students who like oranges (whether sweet or sour).
 65: The total number of students surveyed.
By understanding the structure of the table, we can calculate various probabilities and relative
frequencies, as well as find missing values.
Calculating Probabilities and Relative Frequencies
To calculate probabilities and relative frequencies, we divide the relevant values from the table to obtain
a fraction, decimal, or percentage.
Example Problem:
Using the table above, let's calculate some probabilities and relative frequencies:
1. What fraction of students who like apples prefer sour fruits?
From the table, we know that 5 students who like apples prefer sour fruits, and the total number
of students who like apples is 35. The fraction is:
5 1
Fraction= = ≈ 0.143
35 7
2. What percent of students like sweet fruits?
 The total number of students who prefer sweet fruits is 50, and the total number of students
surveyed is 65. The percentage is:
50
Percentage= ×100 ≈ 76.9 %
65
3. What is the probability that a student selected at random likes oranges and prefers sweet fruits?
From the table, we know that 20 students who like oranges prefer sweet fruits, and the total
number of students surveyed is 65. The probability is:
20
Probability= ≈ 0.308
65

Practice Problem: Probability and Relative Frequency

Consider the following table about students' favorite types of sports:
Outdoor Indoor
Total
Sports Sports
Likes
18 12 30
Basketball
Likes Soccer 15 20 35
Total 33 32 65
Answer these questions based on the table:
1. If a student is selected at random, what is the probability that they like soccer and prefer indoor
sports?
The number of students who like soccer and prefer indoor sports is 20, and the total number of
students is 65. The probability is:
20
Probability= ≈ 0.308
65
2. What fraction of students who prefer indoor sports like basketball?
The total number of students who prefer indoor sports is 32, and the number who like basketball
and prefer indoor sports is 12. The fraction is:
12 3
Fraction= = =0.375
32 8
Finding Missing Values in Two-Way Frequency Tables
Sometimes, two-way frequency tables don’t provide all the values, and you may need to calculate missing
values using known probabilities or relative frequencies.
Example:
Likes Red Likes Blue Total
Consider the following table for students who
prefer certain colors:
Likes
We are told that the total number of students 12 8 20
Shirts
who like red shirts is 20. To find the missing value
Likes Hats x 7 15

Total 20 15 35
xx, we know the total number of students who like red items is 20. Since 12 students like red shirts, the
missing number of students who like red hats is:
x=20−12=8
So, 8 students like red hats.
Missing Value Example: Student Activities
Consider the following table for students participating in different extracurricular activities:
Plays Plays
Total
Soccer Tennis
Prefers
Team 25 12 37
Sports
Prefers
Individual 30 x 40
Sports
Total 55 12 77
We are told that 77 total students are surveyed, and 37 students prefer team sports. To find the missing
value xx, we know the number of students who prefer individual sports is 40. Since 30 students prefer
individual sports and play soccer, the missing number of students who play tennis and prefer individual
sports is:
x=40−30=10
So, 10 students prefer individual sports and play tennis.
Practice Problems
1. Fruits and Preferences: Given the table for students' preferences between sweet and sour fruits,
calculate the probability that a randomly selected student prefers sour fruits but does not like apples.
2. Sports and Preferences: In the given table for students who prefer team sports or individual sports,
calculate the relative frequency of students who play tennis.
3. Missing Value in Activities Table: Using a similar method to the table above, calculate the missing
value for students who prefer individual sports and play tennis.
Data Inferences
In the math section of the SAT, you may encounter questions that require you to make inferences from
sample data. These are called data inference questions, where you must draw conclusions about a larger
population based on a smaller sample. These questions test your ability to use statistical methods like
sample proportions, estimates, and margins of error.
Let’s break down these concePractice Test and look at some new, unique examples to illustrate the topic.
What Are Data Inference Questions?
Data inference questions involve making predictions or conclusions about a larger group (population)
based on data from a smaller group (sample). Since it’s not feasible to ask everyone in a population, a
sample is used to make reasonable estimates about the population.
Key Terms:
 Population: The entire group you're interested in (e.g., all students at a school).
 Sample: A smaller group selected from the population.
 Sample Proportion: The percentage of people in the sample who have a specific characteristic.
 Margin of Error: A range that tells you how much the sample result could vary from the actual population
value.
Making Generalizations About a Population Using Sample Data
Estimating Using Sample Proportions
Once you have a representative sample, you can make an estimate about the entire population by
multiplying the sample proportion by the total population size.
Example 1: In a survey of 200 households in City B, 15% of the households reported that they have a pet
dog. City B has a total of 500,000 households. How many households in City B are likely to have a pet dog?
Solution: To estimate the number of households with a pet dog, multiply the sample proportion (15%) by
the total population of households.
Estimated number of households withdogs=0.15 ×500,000=75,000
Thus, we estimate that 75,000 households in City B have a pet dog.
Example 2: In a survey of 250 college students, 40% said they exercise at least three times a week. If there
are 10,000 students at the college, what is the expected number of students who exercise at least three
times a week?
Solution: Multiply the sample proportion by the total number of students.
Estimated number of students exercising=0.40 × 10,000=4,000
Thus, approximately 4,000 students at the college exercise at least three times a week.
Practice: Use Sample Data to Make a Prediction
Problem: In a random sample of 300 people at a grocery store, 25% of them said they prefer almond milk
over regular milk. If the store has 50,000 customers, how many are likely to prefer almond milk?
Step 1: Write the sample proportion of almond milk preference:
75
Proportionof almond milk preference= =0.25
300
Step 2: Estimate how many customers prefer almond milk:
Estimated number of customers preferring almond milk=0.25 ×50,000=12,500
Thus, we expect 12,500 customers at the store to prefer almond milk.
What Is Margin of Error?
The margin of error reflects the uncertainty of your sample estimate. It is usually given as a percentage
and helps to establish a range around the estimate, showing how much the result could differ from the
true population value.
For example, if a poll estimates that a candidate will receive 60% of the vote, with a margin of error of
±4%, this means the actual percentage could range from 56% to 64%.
Key Points:
 A larger sample size leads to a smaller margin of error, making the estimate more reliable.
 The margin of error gives a range, not an exact number.
Example of Margin of Error in Action
Problem: A survey of 500 high school students estimates that 70% of them use social media daily, with a
margin of error of ±3%. What is the range of students who likely use social media daily?
Solution: The margin of error is ±3%, so the true percentage is likely between:
70 %−3 %=67 %
70 %+ 3 %=73 %

Therefore, we can confidently say that between 67% and 73% of all students use social media daily.
Practice: Drawing Conclusions Based on Margin of Error
Problem: A researcher surveys a random sample of 400 people about their morning coffee habits. The
sample data shows that 50% of people drink coffee every morning, with a margin of error of ±5%. What is
the range of people who likely drink coffee every morning?
 Choice A: 45% to 55%
 Choice B: 50% to 55%
 Choice C: 45% to 50%
 Choice D: 55% to 60%
Solution: The margin of error is ±5%, so the true percentage of people who drink coffee every morning is
likely between:
50 %−5 %=45 %
50 %+ 5 %=55 %
Thus, the correct answer is Choice A: 45% to 55%.
Things to Remember
1. Sample Size and Margin of Error: A larger sample size means a smaller margin of error, leading to
a more accurate estimate.
2. Using Sample Data: You can use sample data to make estimates about a larger population, but
always consider the margin of error.
3. Margin of Error: Always check the margin of error to understand how reliable the estimate is. It
tells you the range within which the true population value is likely to fall.
Practice Problems
1. Estimate Using Sample Proportions
A random sample of 150 employees in a large company shows that 60% of them prefer to work
from home. If there are 2,000 employees in the company, how many are likely to prefer working
from home?
2. Draw Conclusions Based on Margin of Error
A poll estimates that 65% of people in a city support a new law, with a margin of error of ±4%.
What is the range of support for the law in the city?
Evaluating Statistical Claims
In the SAT Math section, you will encounter problems that ask you to evaluate statistical claims. These
problems test your ability to assess whether conclusions drawn from data are valid, based on how the
data was collected, the design of the study, and how the sample was selected.
The goal of these problems is not to perform complex calculations but to think critically about the
methodology used in the studies. Here, we'll discuss the importance of good sampling methods, types of
statistical studies, and how to make valid conclusions from survey results and experiments.
Evaluating statistical claims involves questioning whether the research methods used in a study are
appropriate for drawing valid conclusions. These problems ask you to examine whether the sample was
representative, whether the data is reliable, and if the conclusions are justified based on the study design.
Example Issues to Consider:
 Bias in Sampling: Was the sample truly representative of the entire population?
 Confounding Variables: Were there other factors that could have influenced the results?
 Correlation vs. Causality: Does the study show a cause-and-effect relationship, or is it simply a correlation
between variables?
In these problems, you are required to analyze the study's methodology and draw conclusions based on
logical reasoning.
Good and Bad Sampling Methods
The key to drawing valid conclusions from any study is having a good sample. A good sample is one that
accurately reflects the population being studied. A bad sample may introduce bias and lead to incorrect
conclusions.
Good Sampling Methods
1. Random Sampling:
Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected. This reduces bias and helps create
a sample that reflects the population.
Example: A survey conducted by randomly selecting 200 students from a school of 1,000 ensures that every
student, regardless of grade or activity, has an equal chance of being surveyed.
2. Stratified Sampling:
The population is divided into subgroups (strata) based on certain characteristics, and samples are
randomly selected from each group. This ensures that all subgroups are proportionally represented.
Example: If a survey is conducted to determine the opinions of university students on a new policy, the researcher
may stratify by year (freshman, sophomore, etc.) and ensure each year is properly represented.
Bad Sampling Methods
1. Convenience Sampling:
This involves selecting individuals who are easiest to access. It can lead to biased results since the sample
may not represent the entire population.
Example: A survey conducted in a specific café on a university campus may only represent the opinions of students
who frequent that café, leaving out others who don’t.
2. Voluntary Response Sampling:
This method relies on individuals volunteering to participate. Those who choose to respond may have
very different opinions from those who don't, leading to bias.
Example: A survey that asks readers of an online forum to vote on a new product may overrepresent users who are
particularly passionate about the product.
Types of Statistical Studies and Drawing Conclusions
The type of study used in a research project determines what kind of conclusions can be drawn from it.
Sample Surveys
A sample survey collects data from a randomly selected sample and draws conclusions about the
population from which it was taken. However, the results apply only to the population that was surveyed.
 Example: A survey of 500 high school students asking about their preferred after-school activities will only
provide valid conclusions about those students, not all high school students in the country.
Controlled Experiments
In a controlled experiment, participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment group or a control
group. This type of study is designed to determine causal relationships between variables.
 Example: A medical experiment testing a new drug will randomly assign patients to receive either the drug
or a placebo, allowing researchers to establish whether the drug causes improvement in their condition.
Observational Studies
Observational studies gather data without manipulating any variables. While they can show correlations
between two factors, they cannot establish causality.
 Example: A study that observes the relationship between exercise and heart health can show that people
who exercise more tend to have better heart health, but it cannot prove that exercise directly causes
improved heart health.
Types of Statistical Studies and Conclusions
Correlation vs. Causation
It’s crucial to differentiate between correlation and causality when drawing conclusions from data:
 Correlation means that two variables are related, but one does not necessarily cause the other.
Example: A study finds that people who drink more water tend to have better skin. This shows a correlation but
does not mean that drinking water directly causes better skin—other factors may be involved.
 Causation means that one event causes another to happen.
Example: A clinical trial where participants who take a certain medication show improved health outcomes
establishes a causal relationship between the medication and health improvement, assuming the study design was
appropriate.
A controlled experiment is necessary to establish causality. On the other hand, an observational study
can only suggest a correlation between variables, not a cause-and-effect relationship.
Practice Examples
Let’s go through some practice examples to better understand how to evaluate statistical claims.
Example 1: Identifying Bias in Sampling
A health company conducts a survey on the effectiveness of a new fitness tracker. They send the survey to
1,000 people who already use fitness trackers.
What bias does this introduce?
 Answer: This introduces selection bias, as the survey is only given to people who are already using fitness
trackers. This group is not representative of the entire population, including people who do not use fitness
trackers.
Example 2: Drawing Conclusions from Surveys
A political group conducts a survey with a random sample of 600 college students to determine their
opinions on a proposed law. The survey finds that a majority of students are in favor of the law.
Which of the following conclusions is the most valid?
 Choice A: All college students nationwide are in favor of the law.
 Choice B: All students at a particular university are in favor of the law.
 Choice C: The majority of 18- to 24-year-olds are in favor of the law.
 Choice D: The majority of students at this university are in favor of the law.
Answer: Choice D: The conclusion that applies only to this university is valid. While the sample may
represent college students in general, we cannot apply the results to all college students across the
country or all people in the 18- to 24-year-old age group.
Example 3: Causation vs. Correlation
A study shows that students who sleep for more than 8 hours tend to score higher on tests. The
researchers did not assign students to sleep more but simply observed their sleep habits.
What type of conclusion can we draw from this study?
 Answer: This study shows a correlation, not causation. We can say that students who get more sleep tend
to perform better, but we cannot conclude that extra sleep causes higher test scores. Other factors (e.g.,
study habits, stress levels) could be influencing the results.
Example 4: Experimental Design and Conclusion
A company wants to test whether its new energy drink improves focus. It conducts a study with 200
participants, giving 100 people the drink and 100 others a placebo. The results show that the group who
consumed the energy drink scored higher on a focus test.
Does this study show a causal relationship?
 Answer: Yes, the controlled experiment design, where one group receives the treatment and the other
receives a placebo, allows us to conclude that the energy drink likely improves focus, assuming other
variables are controlled.
When evaluating statistical claims, it's important to:
1. Identify flaws in sampling methods, like bias or poor representation.
2. Distinguish between correlation and causation—observational studies can show correlations, but only
controlled experiments can establish causal relationships.
3. Make careful conclusions based on the study design and methodology. Only draw conclusions about the
population that the sample represents.

C. Advanced math
Rational Expressions and Equations
A rational expression is a fraction where both the numerator and the denominator are polynomials. For
2
x +3 x +2
example, 2 is a rational expression. In the SAT, you may be asked to simplify, solve, or find the
x −1
domain of such expressions.
An equation involving rational expressions is one where a rational expression equals another expression,
often requiring you to find the value of xx.
Simplifying Rational Expressions
To simplify a rational expression, factor both the numerator and the denominator, and cancel out any
common factors.
2
x +5 x +6
Example 1: Simplify 2
x +3 x
1. Factor the numerator and denominator:
2
Numerator : x +5 x +6=(x +2)(x+ 3)
2
Denominator : x +3 x=x ( x +3)

2. Cancel out the common factor of (x + 3):

( x +2)(x+ 3) x+ 2
=
x ( x+3) x
x+2
So, the simplified expression is
x
Solving Rational Equations
To solve rational equations, we follow these steps:
1. Find a common denominator.
2. Multiply both sides of the equation by this common denominator to eliminate the fractions.
3. Simplify and solve for xx.
3 2
Example 2: Solve =
x+1 x−2
1. Find a common denominator: The common denominator is (x+1)(x−2)
2. Multiply both sides by (x+1)(x−2)
3 2
×(x +1)(x−2)= ×(x +1)(x −2)
x+1 x−2
This simplifies to:
3(x−2)=2(x+ 1)

3. Distribute and solve:

3 x−6=2 x +2
3 x−2 x=2+6
x=8
So, the solution is x=8
Finding the Domain of Rational Expressions
The domain of a rational expression is all real values of xx for which the expression is defined. An
expression is undefined when the denominator is zero.
1
Example 3: Find the domain of 2
x −4
1. Set the denominator equal to zero to find the values of xx that make the expression undefined:
 2
x −4=0
2
x =4
x=± 2
Thus, the domain is all real numbers except x=2 and x=−2.
Logarithmic and Exponential
Logarithmic Functions
A logarithmic function is the inverse of an exponential function. The general form of a logarithmic
function is y= log b (x), where b is the base and x is the argument of the logarithm. Logarithms are used to
solve equations where the unknown appears as an exponent.
Example 1: Solve log 2(x )=5,
1. Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
log 2(x )=5 ⟹ 25 = x
So, the solution is x=32.
Properties of Logarithms
Some useful properties of logarithms include:
 log b (xy)= log b (x)+log b (y)
x
 log b ( )= log b (x)- log b (y)
y
 log b (xn)= n log b (x)
Example 2: Simplify log 3 (27)
Since 27=33, we can rewrite the expression as:
log 3 (27)= log 3 (33)= 3
Thus, log 3 (27)= 3.
Exponential Functions
An exponential function is one where the variable appears in the exponent. The general form is y= a. bx ,
where a is a constant, b is the base, and x is the exponent.
Example 3: Solve 3x= 81
1. Write 81 as a power of 3: 81=33
2. Set the exponents equal: x=4
So, the solution is x=4
Complex Word Problems
In the SAT Math section, word problems often involve rational expressions, exponential growth, or
logarithmic relationships. These problems require you to translate real-world situations into mathematical
equations and solve them.
Example: A population of bacteria doubles every 4 hours. If there are initially 100 bacteria, how many will there
be after 12 hours?
This is an example of exponential growth, which can be modeled by the equation:
 t
P ( t ) =P° . 2h
where:
 P ( t ) is the population at time t
 P ° is the initial population,
 h is the doubling time,
 t is the time elapsed.
1. Substitute the given values:
P °=100 , h=4 hours , t=12hours
12
4= 100.8= 800
P ( 12 )=100. 2❑

So, after 12 hours, there will be 800 bacteria.

D. Geometry and trigonometry
Area and Volume
In SAT math, area and volume problems involve calculating the area and volume of different two-
dimensional and three-dimensional shapes. You'll need to apply the relevant formulas to find dimensions
such as length, area, surface area, and volume. Additionally, some problems will require you to explore
how changes in dimensions affect area and volume.
In this lesson, you'll learn how to:
 Calculate the volumes and dimensions of various 3D solids.
 Understand how changes in dimensions impact area and volume.
Calculating Volumes and Dimensions of Shapes
You do not need to memorize the volume formulas for the SAT. The formulas for common solids are
provided at the beginning of the math section as a reference. Here are the volume formulas for various
shapes:
Shape Formula
Right rectangular prism V=ℓ×w×h

Right circular cylinder V=πr2 h

Sphere 4
V= πr3
3
Right circular cone 1
V= πr2 h
3
Rectangular pyramid 1
V= ℓ×w×h
3
To calculate the volume of a solid:
1. Identify the appropriate volume formula for the shape.
2. Plug in the known dimensions into the formula.
3. Solve for the volume.
Example: A decorative snow globe is shaped like a sphere. The radius of the globe is 6 centimeters. What
is the volume of the snow globe in cubic centimeters?
Answer and Explanation:
 The formula for the volume of a sphere is
4 3
V= π r
3

 The radius r is 6 cm, so we substitute this value into the formula:

4 3
V= π 6
3
V =¿288 π cubic centimeter
Thus, the volume of the snow globe is 288π cubic centimeters.
Finding Linear Dimensions Given Volume
Some questions will provide the volume and ask you to find a linear dimension such as the length or
radius.
To find an unknown dimension given the volume:
1. Identify the volume formula for the solid.
2. Plug in the volume and any known dimensions into the formula.
3. Solve for the unknown dimension.
Example: A storage tank in the shape of a rectangular prism has a volume of 480 cubic feet. If the length
of the tank is 12 feet and the width is 8 feet, what is the height of the tank?
Solution:
The formula for the volume of a rectangular prism is
V =l × w ×h
Substitute the known values into the formula:
480=12 ×8 × h
Simplifying:
480
h= = 5 feet
96
Thus, the height of the tank is 5 feet.
Understanding the Effect of Dimension Changes on Area and Volume
When a linear dimension changes by a factor (e.g., the length of a rectangle or the height of a cylinder),
the area or volume will change by a corresponding factor:
 Linear dimensions (e.g., length, height): When a dimension changes by a factor, the area or volume
changes by the same factor.
 Area dimensions (e.g., side length, radius): When a side length or radius changes, the area or volume
changes by the square of the factor.
Example Problem: Compare Volumes of Two Cylinders
Cylinder X has a volume of 100π cubic meters. Which of the following cylinders will have the same volume
as Cylinder X?
A. A cylinder with three times the radius and half the height.
B. A cylinder with three times the radius and one-third the height.
C. A cylinder with the radius halved and 12 times the height.
D. A cylinder with the radius reduced to one-fourth and 16 times the height.
Solution:
The formula for the volume of a right circular cylinder is
2
V =π r h
For Cylinder X, we have Vx = 100 π Let's use this formula to determine the volume for each choice.
Choice D: The radius is reduced to one-fourth and the height is 16 times greater. The volume will change by a factor
1 1
of 2 ×16= ×16= 1.
4 16
Therefore, the new volume is 100π×1=100π, which is the same as the original volume.
Thus, the correct answer is Choice D.
Practice Questions
1. Volume of a Rectangular Prism:
What is the volume of a right rectangular prism with a length of 4 meters, a width of 1.5 meters, and a
height of 3 meters?
Solution:
The volume formula is V =l × w ×h
Substituting the values:
V =4 ×1.5 × 3=18 cubic meters
The volume is 18 cubic meters.
2. Linear Dimension (Diameter of a Cylinder):
A cylindrical water tank has a height of 15 meters, and the volume of the tank is 225π cubic meters. What
is the diameter of the base of the tank?
Solution:
The volume formula for a cylinder is V =π r 2 h
2
225 π=π r × 15
Cancel out π and solve for r2 :
2 225
r=
2
225=15 r = 15
15
Taking the square root of both sides gives: r =√ 15 ≈ 3.87 meters.
3. Scaling Volume:
The volume of a right circular cone is 450 cubic centimeters. What is the volume of a cone with double the
radius and double the height of the original cone?
A. 900 cubic centimeters
B. 1,800 cubic centimeters
C. 3,600 cubic centimeters
D. 7,200 cubic centimeters
Solution:
If both the radius and the height are doubled, the volume will increase by a factor of 22×2= 8
Thus, the new volume is:
450 × 8=3600 cubic centimeters
The correct answer is Choice C: 3,600 cubic centimeters.
Congruence, Similarity, and Angle Relationships
In geometry, understanding the concePractice Test of congruence, similarity, and angle relationships is
crucial for solving various problems. These topics focus on how shapes and angles relate to one another,
and how we can use these relationships to solve problems efficiently on the SAT.
Key ConcePractice Test
1. Congruence: Two shapes are congruent if they have the same size and shape. Congruent shapes can
be moved, rotated, or reflected but do not change their size or angles. The corresponding sides and
angles of congruent shapes are equal.
2. Similarity: Two shapes are similar if they have the same shape but not necessarily the same size. The
corresponding angles are equal, and the corresponding sides are proportional.
3. Angle Relationships: These involve various angle pairs and their properties. Understanding how angles
relate to each other in parallel lines, triangles, and other polygons is essential for solving geometry
problems.
Congruence
Congruent Triangles:
Two triangles are congruent if their corresponding sides and angles are equal. There are several ways to
prove that two triangles are congruent:
 Side-Side-Side (SSS): If three sides of one triangle are congruent to three sides of another triangle, the triangles
are congruent.
 Side-Angle-Side (SAS): If two sides and the included angle of one triangle are congruent to two sides and the
included angle of another triangle, the triangles are congruent.
 Angle-Side-Angle (ASA): If two angles and the included side of one triangle are congruent to two angles and the
included side of another triangle, the triangles are congruent.
 Angle-Angle-Side (AAS): If two angles and a non-included side of one triangle are congruent to two angles and
the non-included side of another triangle, the triangles are congruent.
Similarity
Similar Triangles:
Two triangles are similar if their corresponding angles are equal and their corresponding sides are in
proportion. For similar triangles, the ratio of the lengths of corresponding sides is constant.
There are several ways to prove that two triangles are similar:
 Angle-Angle (AA): If two angles of one triangle are congruent to two angles of another triangle, the triangles
are similar.
 Side-Angle-Side (SAS): If one angle of a triangle is congruent to one angle of another triangle and the sides that
include those angles are proportional, the triangles are similar.
 Side-Side-Side (SSS): If the sides of one triangle are proportional to the sides of another triangle, the triangles
are similar.
Angle Relationships
Understanding angle relationships is key to solving many geometry problems. Some common angle pairs
and their properties are:
1. Complementary Angles: Two angles are complementary if the sum of their measures is 90∘
2. Supplementary Angles: Two angles are supplementary if the sum of their measures is 180∘
3. Vertical Angles: When two lines intersect, they form two pairs of vertical angles that are congruent
(equal in measure).
4. Alternate Interior Angles: When a transversal intersects two parallel lines, alternate interior angles
are congruent.
5. Corresponding Angles: When a transversal intersects two parallel lines, corresponding angles are
congruent.
6. Same-Side Interior Angles: When a transversal intersects two parallel lines, the same-side interior
angles are supplementary (sum to 180° ).
Right Triangle Trigonometry
Right triangle trigonometry focuses on understanding the relationships between side lengths, angles, and
trigonometric ratios in right triangles. Mastering these concePractice Test can help you solve problems
quickly and accurately on the SAT math section. This guide will take you through essential topics such as
the Pythagorean theorem, trigonometric ratios, special triangles, and angle relationships.
The Pythagorean Theorem
The Pythagorean theorem is essential for solving right triangle problems. It states that in a right triangle,
the square of the length of the hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle) equals the sum of the
squares of the lengths of the other two sides. The formula is:
2 2 2
c =a +b
Where:
 a and b are the lengths of the legs
 c is the length of the hypotenuse
Example: In a right triangle where one leg is 4 and the other is 6, the hypotenuse can be found using the
Pythagorean theorem:
c =a +b
2 2 2

c =4 +6 = 16+36= 52
2 2 2
c= √ 52≈ 7.21
Recognizing Pythagorean Triples
Pythagorean triples are sets of integers that satisfy the Pythagorean Theorem. Common examples
include:
 (3, 4, 5)
  (5, 12, 13)
 (7, 24, 25)
These triples can save you time on the SAT, as you don’t need to perform the full Pythagorean Theorem
calculation. For example, if you know one leg is 12 and the hypotenuse is 15, you can quickly recognize
that the third side is 9, forming the 9-12-15 triple.
Trigonometric Ratios
In right triangles, the sine, cosine, and tangent functions are key to relating angles and side lengths.
 Sine: The ratio of the length of the opposite side to the length of the hypotenuse.
perpendicular
sin ( θ ) =
hypotenuse
 Cosine: The ratio of the length of the adjacent side to the length of the hypotenuse.
base
cos (θ )=
hypotenuse

 Tangent: The ratio of the length of the opposite side to the length of the adjacent side.
perpendicular
tan (θ )=
base
Using Trigonometric Ratios
If you know the value of one trigonometric ratio for an angle in a right triangle, you can use it to find the
missing sides. For example:
3
Given a right triangle with angle θ, and if the sine of θ is , you can use the sine formula to find side
5
lengths if you know the hypotenuse.
Special Right Triangles
There are two key special right triangles that often appear on the SAT:
1. 30-60-90 Triangle: The sides are in a fixed ratio:
o The shorter leg is x
o The longer leg is x √ 3
o The hypotenuse is 2 x
For example, if the shorter leg is 3, then:
o Longer leg = 3 √ 3
o Hypotenuse = 6
2. 45-45-90 Triangle: The legs are equal, and the hypotenuse is √ 2times the length of each leg.
For example, if the leg length is s, then:
o Hypotenuse = s √ 2
Sine and Cosine of Complementary Angles
The sine and cosine of complementary angles are always equal. That is:
sin ( θ ) =cos ⁡¿ )
So, in a right triangle, if one angle is θ, the other angle must be90∘−θ, and their sine and cosine values will
be the same.
Solving Problems Using Trigonometry
1. Finding Side Lengths: If you are given a trigonometric ratio and a side length, you can use the formula
4
to find the missing side. For instance, if you know tan(θ)= , and one side is 3, you can find the other
3
side.
2. Finding Angles: If you have side lengths, you can use inverse trigonometric functions (like
−1 −1 −1
sin , cos ,∧tan ) to find angle measures.
Mastering right triangle trigonometry is crucial for the SAT, as it provides the foundation for many
geometry and trigonometry problems. By understanding the Pythagorean Theorem, recognizing
trigonometric ratios, and being able to work with special right triangles, you'll be able to solve problems
efficiently and confidently. Keep practicing with these concePractice Test, and soon you'll find these
problems easier to tackle!
Circle Theorems
In this lesson, we’ll explore the essential circle theorems you need to know for the SAT, focusing on
calculating arc lengths, sector areas, and angles in circles. Understanding these concePractice Test will
help you solve problems involving parts of a circle, such as finding the area of a sector or the length of an
arc, all based on central angles.
Key ConcePractice Test:
 Central Angles: A central angle in a circle is formed by two radii and determines a segment of the circle's
circumference (an arc) or area (a sector).
 Proportions: You can use proportional relationships to solve for missing values in a circle. For example, the
relationship between the central angle, arc length, and sector area is proportional to the full circle’s
circumference and area.
Let’s break down how to work with central angles and use them to calculate arc lengths and sector areas.
1. Arc Length from a Central Angle
The arc length is a portion of the circle’s circumference, based on the central angle. You don’t need to
memorize the circumference formula for the SAT, as it will be provided. Instead, you’ll use proportional
relationships:
Central angle Arc length
=
360
∘
Circumference
This proportion helps you find the arc length if you know the central angle.
2. Area of a Sector
The sector area is a portion of the circle’s area, determined by the central angle. Similarly, we can use a
proportional relationship for the sector:
Central angle Sector Area
=
360
∘ ˚
Area
Just as with the arc length, this formula lets you calculate the sector area if the central angle is known.
3. Using Proportions
The central angle, arc length, and sector area are all proportional to the full circle’s values. This means
that when you know one of these elements (central angle, arc length, or sector area), you can find the
others by setting up a proportion.
4. Angle Relationships in Circles
Besides arc lengths and sector areas, you may also encounter problems involving angles inside a circle.
Here are a few important facts:
 The sum of all central angles in a circle equals360∘.
 Any triangle formed by two radii of a circle is an isosceles triangle since the two sides (radii) are equal in length.
These relationships help you determine unknown angles in circle-based problems.
Example Problems:
 Arc Length Calculation: Given a circle with a known circumference and a central angle, you can calculate the
length of a minor arc.
 Sector Area Calculation: If the central angle of a circle is known, you can use it to find the area of the
corresponding sector.
 Angle Measure Calculation: You can apply circle theorems to find the value of unknown angles, such as those
formed by diameters or other radii.
Quick Review Formula:
Remember the essential formula for circle theorems:
Central angle Arc length Sector Area
= =
360
∘
Circumference ˚
Area
Practice and Application
To truly master circle theorems, practice applying these concePractice Test to different problems,
including:
 Finding the sector area given the central angle.
 Determining the length of an arc based on the central angle.
 Using angle relationships to solve for unknown angles inside a circle.
Unit Circle Trigonometry
This lesson focuses on unit circle trigonometry, a critical topic for the SAT, involving angles measured in
radians and their trigonometric functions. These problems typically require the use of radian measures to
calculate arc lengths, sector areas, and the trigonometric values of sine, cosine, and tangent.
Key Learning Objectives:
 Convert between radians and degrees.
 Use special right triangles to find radian measures.
 Determine the sine, cosine, and tangent values for common radian measures.
This lesson builds on fundamental concePractice Test of right triangle trigonometry and circle theorems,
which will help you navigate problems that involve circles and angles.
1. Converting Between Radians and Degrees
To convert between degrees and radians, you need to remember that:
∘
 360 equals 2π radians.
 ∘
 180 equals π radian.
From this, we can derive the following conversion formula:
radianmeasure degree measure
=
π 180
∘

For example, to convert 120∘ to radians:

π 2π
120 × = radians
180 3
With this understanding, you can also use radians to calculate arc lengths and sector areas. The formulas
for these are similar to those for degrees:
central angle arc length sector area
= =
2π circumference ˚
area
This allows you to solve for unknown values when given radian measures.
2. Using Special Right Triangles to Find Radian Measures
In circle-related problems, special right triangles often appear. Here’s a quick reference to the key ones:
 30°-60°-90° Triangle: The sides are in a ratio of 1 : √ 3 : 2
 45°-45°-90° Triangle: The sides are in a ratio of 1 :1: √ 2
These triangles are essential in solving for angles in radians. For instance, the following common degree
measures correspond to specific radian measures:
∘ π π π
 30 = , 45 ∘= , 60∘ =
6 4 3
These radian measures will frequently appear in SAT questions, especially when dealing with angles in a
circle.
3. Trigonometric Functions of Radians on the Unit Circle
The unit circle is a circle with a radius of 1 centered at the origin of the coordinate plane. In this circle, the
sine, cosine, and tangent of an angle θ\theta are defined as:
 Cosine: x=cos θ
 Sine: y=sin θ
y
 Tangent: tan⁡θ=
x
On the SAT, it is important to recognize common values for sine, cosine, and tangent at key angles, such
π π π
as 0, , , . These values are fundamental and will be part of many questions:
6 4 3
Angle (θ) cosθ sinθ tanθ
0 1 0 0
π √3 1 √3
6 2 2 3
π √2 √2 1
4 2 2
 π 1 √3 √3
3 2 2
These values are crucial for solving trigonometric problems on the SAT.
4. Using the Unit Circle for Trigonometry
In the unit circle, the angle θ\theta is formed by a radius extending from the origin (0,0) to a point (x, y)
on the circle. The coordinates of this point give us the cosine and sine values for the angle:
 x=cos θ
 y=sinθ
By using the slope of the line connecting the center to the point, you can calculate tanθ as:
y
tanθ=
x
This framework helps you answer many questions involving trigonometric functions.
5. Example Practice Problem
Convert Degrees to Radians:
To convert an 225° angle to radians, use the formula:
π 5π
225 × = radians
180 4

Chapter 2: Reading and Writing Section

The Reading and Writing section of the SAT assesses your ability to understand and analyze texts, as well as your
skills in writing effectively. This section is designed to evaluate your proficiency in navigating complex ideas,
interpreting passages, and expressing clear and coherent thoughts in written form. It also tests your command of
evidence and ability to think critically about various forms of content, ranging from literature to scientific and
historical documents.
The SAT Reading and Writing section is divided into four primary domains, each focusing on a distinct skill set
essential for academic and real-world success. These domains are:
 Information and Ideas
 Craft and Structure
 Expression of Ideas
 Standard English Conventions

A. Information and Ideas

Central Ideas and Details:
The "Central Ideas and Details" question in the Digital SAT tests your ability to analyze and comprehend text. This
task requires you to identify the central theme of a passage and understand the key details that support or
elaborate on that theme. Your goal is to recognize how significant points connect to the overall purpose of the text.
Example Question:
In the small town of Willow Creek, community members have taken great pride in preserving their local forest. For
decades, the town's residents have worked together to maintain the integrity of the forest, protecting native
species and preventing overdevelopment. Various conservation efforts have included organizing regular clean-up
drives, educating local schools about the importance of biodiversity, and lobbying local government to pass laws
protecting the forest from commercial logging. These actions have fostered a strong sense of community and unity
among the residents, as everyone has come together to ensure that the forest remains a valuable resource for
future generations.
Which of the following best represents the main idea of the passage?
A) Willow Creek residents are focused on preventing commercial development in their town.
B) Willow Creek’s forest is an important resource for tourism and local business.
C) The residents of Willow Creek work together to preserve the forest and its biodiversity.
D) Education about biodiversity in schools has been the most effective way to preserve the forest.
Correct Answer: C) The residents of Willow Creek work together to preserve the forest and its biodiversity.
How to Approach Central Ideas and Details Questions:
1. Read the Passage Carefully
Read the passage thoroughly and understand its general content. The main point of the passage focuses on the
efforts of Willow Creek residents to preserve the local forest.
Quick Summary:
What is the text primarily about?
A) The community’s efforts to maintain the forest’s biodiversity.
B) The economic benefits of the local forest.
C) The history of Willow Creek’s development.
Correct Answer: A) The community’s efforts to maintain the forest’s biodiversity.
2. Identify the Main Idea
The main idea involves the community's collaborative efforts to protect the forest. It’s not just about the forest
itself or tourism, but the broader act of conservation carried out by the residents.
What’s the overarching message of the passage?
A) The role of local schools in educating children about biodiversity.
B) Willow Creek residents’ efforts to protect the forest and its biodiversity.
C) The economic value of the forest for the local businesses.
Correct Answer: B) Willow Creek residents’ efforts to protect the forest and its biodiversity.
3. Formulate a Hypothesis
Before looking at the answer choices, summarize the main idea mentally: "The residents of Willow Creek are
working together to preserve the forest, ensuring its ecological integrity for the future."
Which option best reflects this idea?
A) Willow Creek residents focus on environmental protection by preventing logging.
B) The collective conservation efforts of Willow Creek are centered on biodiversity.
C) The importance of the forest for tourism is emphasized in the passage.
Correct Answer: B) The collective conservation efforts of Willow Creek are centered on biodiversity.
4. Evaluate the Answer Choices
Go through each option and check if it matches the main idea:
Option A talks about the prevention of development, but it doesn’t cover the broader conservation efforts that also
include education and unity.
Option B focuses on tourism and local business, which isn’t the passage’s main focus.
Option C is the best answer as it directly talks about the community’s efforts to preserve the forest’s biodiversity,
which is central to the passage.
Option D focuses too much on education, while the passage is about a wider community effort.
5. Eliminate Incorrect Options
Discard options that don’t reflect the full scope of the main idea. Option C is the strongest because it addresses the
community's collective actions toward preservation.
6. Double-Check Your Answer
Ensure that the selected answer truly represents the essence of the passage. Option C directly reflects the main
point that the residents of Willow Creek are working together to preserve the forest and its biodiversity.
Why is option C correct?
It highlights the central idea of the passage: the collective efforts of Willow Creek’s residents in preserving the
forest and its biodiversity.
Command of Evidence (Textual):
This section assesses your ability to effectively extract, interpret, evaluate, and integrate textual and graphical
evidence. The focus here is primarily on text-based evidence. For the variant dealing with quantitative data from
graphs and tables, refer to the Command of Evidence (Quantitative) guide. Two main types of evidence questions
exist: those related to scientific data and those related to literary analysis.
Types of Evidence:
Scientific Evidence
In scientific evidence questions, a hypothesis rooted in science or social science is presented, often in the context of
recent studies or experiments. There’s no requirement for prior scientific knowledge, as all necessary information
will be provided in the passage. Your task is to understand the hypothesis, identify the research findings that would
support it, and choose the option that best reflects those results. This type of question mirrors situations from
science classes where you might have been asked to validate or refute a hypothesis based on experimental data.
Literary Evidence
In literary evidence questions, you’ll be presented with a viewpoint or claim related to a literary text, such as a
novel or poem. The options provided will include quotations from that text, and your job is to determine which
quote best supports the given viewpoint. No prior familiarity with the specific work is necessary. The key is your
ability to assess whether a quote directly supports the argument presented. This task is similar to extracting quotes
in English class essays to support an argument or analysis.
Example Question:
Passage:
Researchers have found that regular physical activity significantly improves brain function, particularly in terms of
memory retention and processing speed. In a study of middle-aged adults, participants who engaged in 30 minutes
of moderate exercise three times a week showed noticeable improvements in cognitive tests over a six-month
period. This study contributes to the growing body of evidence suggesting that exercise is not only beneficial for
physical health but also plays a crucial role in maintaining mental sharpness as individuals age.
Question:
Which result from the study would most strongly support the researchers' claim that exercise improves brain
function?
A) Participants who did not exercise showed no changes in their cognitive test scores.
B) Participants who exercised showed improved memory and faster processing speeds in cognitive tests.
C) The exercise group reported feeling less stressed, though their test scores remained unchanged.
D) Participants who exercised experienced a slight decrease in their physical endurance but no cognitive changes.
Correct Answer:
Option B) Participants who exercised showed improved memory and faster processing speeds in cognitive tests.
How to Solve This Example:
1. Read the Passage Thoroughly
The passage outlines a study about the effects of exercise on cognitive function, particularly focusing on memory
and processing speed. The key idea is that regular exercise enhances mental performance.
2. Analyze the Question
The question asks you to find the result that would most strongly support the claim that exercise improves brain
function. You're looking for evidence that ties exercise to measurable cognitive improvements.
3. Predict Logical Evidence
Think about what outcome would best validate the researchers' claim. The most direct evidence of improved brain
function would be enhanced memory and faster processing speed as a result of exercise.
4. Evaluate Each Option
Choice A suggests no changes in cognitive performance without exercise, which is neutral but does not provide
evidence that exercise improves brain function.
Choice B directly states the cognitive improvements (memory and processing speed) following exercise, which
aligns perfectly with the researchers’ claim.
Choice C introduces a reduction in stress but no improvement in cognitive tests, making it irrelevant to the claim.
Choice D describes a decrease in physical endurance but no cognitive improvement, which doesn’t support the
claim that exercise helps mental performance.
5. Use Elimination
Eliminate options A, C, and D, as they either don’t show cognitive improvement or are irrelevant. The best choice is
B, as it directly ties exercise to improvements in cognitive function.
6. Confirm the Best Answer
Double-check that B is the most relevant and direct evidence supporting the researchers’ claim that exercise
improves brain function. It explicitly mentions both memory and processing speed improvements due to exercise.
Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
This guide focuses on the quantitative variant of Command of Evidence, which challenges students to effectively
gather, analyze, and synthesize data, often presented in tables or graphs. The goal is to foster a comprehensive
understanding of quantitative information, promoting the ability to extract the most relevant evidence and
incorporate it into a broader context. Though basic mathematical concePractice Test like percentages and numbers
are involved, the main skill required is the ability to identify key insights from the data and use them to answer
questions in a reading-comprehension-oriented task.
Example Question:
Survey on Public Opinions About Renewable Energy Sources Across Different Regions

Region Support (%) Neutral (%) Oppose (%)

Region Support (%) Neutral (%) Oppose (%)

North America 65 20 15
Europe 70 15 15
Asia 50 30 20
South America 80 10 10
Africa 60 25 15

Note: Percentages may not total 100 due to rounding.

A global survey was conducted to gauge public opinion on renewable energy sources, focusing on support,
neutrality, and opposition across different regions. The results show that support for renewable energy varies
significantly by region. Based on the data provided, which of the following best completes the sentence?
Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the sentence?
A) Support for renewable energy is highest in South America at 80%, compared to the lowest level of support in
Asia at 50%.
B) Europe shows the greatest neutral stance on renewable energy, with 15% of respondents in each region
expressing neutrality.
C) Africa exhibits the most opposition to renewable energy, with 25% of respondents opposing it.
D) North America and Europe have similar support levels for renewable energy, with 65% and 70% respectively.
Correct Answer: A) Support for renewable energy is highest in South America at 80%, compared to the lowest level
of support in Asia at 50%.
How to Solve Command of Evidence (Quantitative) Questions
1. Understand the Context
Start by recognizing the purpose of the survey: it assesses public opinion on renewable energy across various
regions. The goal is to complete the sentence by identifying a significant trend or comparison based on the data
provided.
Mini Question
What is the primary purpose of the survey?
A) To determine the popularity of renewable energy sources worldwide.
B) To compare renewable energy support among different regions.
C) To analyze opposition to renewable energy sources in specific countries.
Correct Answer: B) To compare renewable energy support among different regions.
2. Interpret the Data
Before examining the answer options, analyze the data carefully. Look for regions with significantly higher or lower
support, neutrality, or opposition. This will help you find the most relevant and insightful completion to the
sentence.
Mini Question
Which region has the highest level of support for renewable energy?
A) North America
B) Europe
C) South America
Correct Answer: C) South America
3. Predict an Insight
Think about what type of insight would logically complete the sentence. You might expect a comparison between
regions with the highest and lowest support for renewable energy or another meaningful comparison based on the
data.
Mini Question
What is the most relevant type of information to complete the sentence?
A) A comparison between the regions with the highest and lowest levels of support.
B) A breakdown of the neutral opinions in each region.
C) A discussion of opposition to renewable energy in each region.
Correct Answer: A) A comparison between the regions with the highest and lowest levels of support.
4. Evaluate the Options
Now, evaluate each answer choice:
Option A highlights the stark contrast between South America's 80% support and Asia's 50%, making this a
meaningful comparison of regional support levels.
Option B makes a generalization about neutrality but doesn’t focus on the highest or lowest values, making it less
insightful.
Option C discusses opposition in Africa, but opposition is not as prominent as support or neutrality in the context of
this survey, so it is less impactful.
Option D points out similar support levels in North America and Europe, which is true, but it lacks the significant
contrast found in Option A.
5. Use Elimination
Eliminate options that don't provide a meaningful or insightful comparison. Options B, C, and D either focus too
much on neutrality or opposition, or they miss the more interesting comparison of support across regions.
6. Confirm the Best Answer
Ensure that Option A not only matches the data but also aligns with the study's goal of highlighting regional
differences in support for renewable energy. It provides a clear contrast that best completes the sentence.
Tips and Tricks
Understand the Context: Before jumping into the answer options, make sure you fully understand the context of
the question and what the data represents.
Look for Significant Comparisons: The most insightful answers often come from comparing extreme values (e.g.,
highest and lowest percentages) rather than focusing on smaller differences.
Watch for Red Herrings: Be cautious of options that may seem relevant but do not provide an insightful comparison
or meaningful conclusion based on the data.
Double-Check Your Logic: After selecting an answer, verify that it logically follows from the data provided and fits
well within the context of the sentence.
Inference Questions
Inference questions on the digital SAT test students' ability to go beyond surface-level reading and analyze deeper
meanings that are not directly stated in the text. These questions demand critical thinking and an ability to read
between the lines. Students must interpret subtle cues such as tone, context, and emphasis to uncover ideas that
the author suggests without explicitly stating them.
Inference questions require more than just comprehension—they challenge students to understand the underlying
message and implications of a passage. Students must carefully evaluate what is implied by the author, based on
the text’s broader themes and nuances.
Sample Question:
The Impact of Urbanization on Local Wildlife
As urban areas expand, the surrounding wildlife often faces significant challenges. Deforestation, pollution, and the
destruction of natural habitats contribute to a decline in local animal populations. However, some animals, such as
raccoons and coyotes, have adapted remarkably well to urban environments, finding food and shelter in human-
dominated spaces. Despite these adaptations, the overall trend shows a decline in biodiversity. Experts suggest that
this trend highlights the fact that ________.
What logically completes the statement?
A) Urban areas are better for animals than their natural habitats.
B) Some animals can adapt to urban environments, but the overall impact on biodiversity is negative.
C) The destruction of habitats has led to a rise in raccoon and coyote populations.
D) Urbanization has no significant impact on local wildlife populations.
Correct Answer: B) Some animals can adapt to urban environments, but the overall impact on biodiversity is
negative.
Steps to Solve Inference Questions:
1. Read the Passage Carefully
The passage discusses the impact of urbanization on wildlife, mentioning how some species have adapted, while
others have not. The key point is the overall trend of declining biodiversity despite some species’ ability to adapt.
The missing part of the sentence will likely address the broader impact of urbanization on wildlife.
Mini Question:
What is the primary focus of the passage?
A) Urban areas are preferable for some animals.
B) The decline in biodiversity despite urban adaptation.
C) The increase in raccoon and coyote populations.
Answer: B) The decline in biodiversity despite urban adaptation.
2. Identify the Key Implication
The passage points out that while some animals adapt well to urban environments, the overall biodiversity is still
declining. The implication here is that urbanization, despite some adaptive responses, generally harms wildlife.
Mini Question:
Why is the overall trend of biodiversity declining despite the adaptability of some animals?
A) Urban environments are better for wildlife.
B) Urbanization has widespread negative effects on ecosystems.
C) All animals adapt to urban areas in the same way.
Answer: B) Urbanization has widespread negative effects on ecosystems.
3. Predict the Answer
Based on the passage, it seems that urbanization is having a negative effect on biodiversity overall, even though
some species have managed to adapt. The missing part of the sentence should reflect this contrast.
Mini Question:
What conclusion could experts draw based on the information presented?
A) Urbanization benefits wildlife more than it harms them.
B) The impact of urbanization on biodiversity is generally harmful, even if some species adapt.
C) Only raccoons and coyotes thrive in urban settings.
Answer: B) The impact of urbanization on biodiversity is generally harmful, even if some species adapt.
4. Evaluate Each Option
Now, review the choices:
Option A suggests urban areas are better for animals, which contradicts the broader trend of biodiversity decline.
Option B accurately reflects the passage, stating that some animals adapt, but the overall effect on biodiversity is
negative.
Option C focuses on raccoons and coyotes, but the passage stresses the overall decline in biodiversity, not just the
rise in certain species.
Option D falsely asserts that urbanization has no significant impact, which the text directly contradicts.
5. Eliminate Incorrect Choices
Options A, C, and D do not fully address the main theme of the passage, which is the negative effect of urbanization
on biodiversity. Option B is the best choice because it accurately reflects the trend described in the text.
6. Confirm the Best Answer
Option B is the correct choice, as it logically completes the sentence, emphasizing the contrast between the
adaptability of some species and the overall harm urbanization causes to biodiversity.
Key Tips for Answering Inference Questions
Focus on Implications: Inference questions often ask you to deduce what is implied, not what is directly stated. Pay
attention to the tone, context, and underlying messages.
Look for Contrasts and Trends: Often, the correct answer will reflect a contrast, contradiction, or trend that is
hinted at in the text.
Avoid Overgeneralizations: Be cautious of options that generalize too much or don't directly support the passage's
core message.
Check for Context: Ensure that the answer aligns with both the literal and implied meanings of the passage.

B. Craft and Structure

Words in Context
The "Words in Context" question type, part of the broader "Craft and Structure" domain in the new Digital SAT,
challenges students to demonstrate their understanding of how words are used in specific contexts. Unlike
traditional vocabulary questions that focus solely on memorization, these questions assess how well a student can
interpret words based on the surrounding text and its themes. This requires not only knowledge of word definitions
but also the ability to recognize connotations and nuances that words take on depending on their context.
Understanding the Question Type
Many students mistakenly think they can simply memorize complex words and their meanings to excel at "Words in
Context" questions. However, this strategy is insufficient. The key to success lies in grasping how words interact
with the text's broader message, tone, and themes. Effective preparation involves reading and analyzing texts to
develop an intuitive understanding of word usage, which, for some students, can take years of practice.
Nevertheless, this guide offers strategies to help you tackle this question type effectively within a reasonable
timeframe.
Example Breakdown: "Vehement" in Context
Let’s examine a passage from the 19th-century novel Frankenstein by Mary Shelley:
"His eyes were fixed on me. His jaws were clenched, and his hands trembled with rage. He was a monster, his figure
contorted with hatred. The words he spoke were few, but they were uttered with a vehement intensity, each one
carrying the weight of his fury."
Question: As used in the passage, what does the word "vehement" most nearly mean?
A) Weak
B) Intense
C) Calm
D) Joyful
How to Approach This Question:
1. Read for Understanding
First, absorb the passage carefully. In this part of Frankenstein, the character described is experiencing powerful
emotions, specifically rage and hatred. The description highlights his physical state—his clenched jaws and
trembling hands—showing that he is overwhelmed by intense feelings. The word "vehement" is used to describe
how his words are delivered, suggesting that the emotion behind them is equally strong and forceful.
The passage focuses on intensity of emotion, so think about what the word “vehement” could mean in this context.
2. Paraphrase the Sentence
Reword the sentence to make sure you understand its meaning. For example, you could think of it like this: "He
spoke with intense anger, each word filled with fury." This rephrasing helps clarify that the character is expressing a
very strong and passionate emotion.
3. Predict the Word’s Meaning
Based on your understanding of the passage, "vehement" likely describes the strength and force of the character’s
emotions. Given that rage and hatred are mentioned, the word probably refers to something intense or powerful.
4. Evaluate Each Option Now, consider the multiple-choice options:
Weak: This doesn’t fit because the passage emphasizes the strength and intensity of the character's feelings, not
weakness.
Intense: This aligns well with the context. The description of the character’s anger and physical state suggests that
his words are delivered with great force and intensity.
Calm: This option contradicts the passage entirely, as the character is clearly not calm but is described as furious
and enraged.
Joyful: The passage doesn't suggest happiness or joy. Instead, it describes an overwhelming emotion of hatred.
5. Eliminate the Incorrect Answers
“Weak,” “calm,” and “joyful” clearly do not fit the description of the character's emotional state or the context. The
word "vehement" is associated with strong, forceful emotions, not with any of these traits.
6. Recheck Your Answer
 Substituting "intense" into the sentence: "The words he spoke were few, but they were uttered with an intense
intensity, each one carrying the weight of his fury." The meaning remains strong and accurate, confirming that
"intense" preserves the passage's tone and context.
7. Confirm Your Answer
After considering all the steps, option B) Intense is the most accurate choice. It fits the context, aligns with the
passage's description, and preserves the original meaning when substituted into the sentence.
Tips and Tricks for Success:
Consider Connotations: Words like "vehement" carry an emotional weight beyond their definition. "Vehement"
often implies something done with force, passion, or conviction—important nuances in understanding how the
word functions in context.
Use Substitution: Substituting each answer choice into the passage will help you confirm which word fits best. The
correct answer will not only fit the meaning but also keep the passage's tone intact.
Beware of Misleading Options: The SAT often includes choices that seem reasonable but don’t match the tone or
meaning in the context. Scrutinize each option carefully, looking for the word that most closely matches the
emotional intensity of the passage.
Trust Your Process: Once you've worked through each step, trust your conclusion. Avoid second-guessing if your
analysis has been thorough.
Text Structure and Purpose
The "Text Structure and Purpose" questions on the digital SAT assess a student's ability to analyze both the
structure of a passage and the author's intention behind writing it. These questions ask students not only to
understand what a passage conveys but also to comprehend how the passage is organized and the purpose it
serves. Analyzing text structure involves looking at how information is presented, while understanding the purpose
requires identifying the author's underlying message or reasoning for including the passage in the broader context
of the work.
Understanding Text Structure and Purpose
Text Structure and Purpose questions go beyond simply grasping the content of the passage. They ask students to
consider how the text is constructed and why it was written in the way it was. This type of question evaluates a
deeper understanding of rhetorical strategies and the reasoning behind the author’s choices.
Example Question:
Passage:
"Over the years, the importance of access to clean water has become increasingly clear, particularly as populations
grow and climate change accelerates. While much of the focus has been on urban areas, rural regions are facing
even more severe challenges in maintaining a clean and reliable water supply. A recent study on water access in
rural communities found that, although technological advancements have made it easier to treat water in small,
remote areas, logistical barriers such as transportation and cost continue to prevent many residents from benefiting
from these innovations. As a result, the issue of water access is not only a matter of technology but also one of
infrastructure, policy, and social equity."
Question:
Which choice best states the main purpose of the passage?
A) It argues that urban areas face the greatest challenges in securing access to clean water.
B) It emphasizes the significance of technological advancements in improving water access in rural communities.
C) It discusses the complex factors that hinder water access in rural areas, despite technological progress.
D) It focuses on the role of policy and infrastructure in urban water management.
How to Solve Text Structure and Purpose Questions:
1. Read for Context
Start by reading the passage carefully. This passage discusses the challenges of clean water access, particularly in
rural communities, despite technological advancements. The author highlights the complexity of the issue,
mentioning not only technology but also infrastructure, cost, and policy.
What is the passage addressing? The main focus is on the continuing obstacles rural communities face in accessing
clean water, even with new technological solutions.
2. Summarize the Passage's Intent
Try to reduce the passage into one central idea. For example, "The passage highlights how water access in rural
areas remains a challenge due to infrastructure and cost, despite technological advancements."
This step helps you clarify the passage’s focus, and this simplification will help guide your choice.
3. Anticipate Before You Read the Options
Based on the summary, predict what the passage's main purpose might be. It seems to focus on the barriers to
water access in rural areas despite advancements, not on a specific area of technological progress or urban issues.
A reasonable prediction could be: "To emphasize that, while technology may improve water access, logistical and
policy barriers still prevent full benefits."
4. Analyze the Options in Detail Evaluate each answer choice in light of the passage:
A) Does it argue that urban areas face the greatest challenges? No, the passage mentions urban areas but focuses
more on rural communities. This doesn’t match the passage’s focus.
B) Does it emphasize technological advancements in rural communities? While technology is mentioned, the
passage’s main purpose is not to focus solely on technology but to discuss the broader issues preventing access.
C) Does it discuss the factors that hinder water access in rural areas despite technological progress? Yes, this aligns
perfectly with the passage’s focus on the complexity of the issue.
D) Does it focus on policy and infrastructure in urban areas? The passage mentions policy and infrastructure but in
the context of rural areas, not urban ones, making this answer incorrect.
5. Eliminate Incorrect Answers
Eliminate options that don’t match the focus of the passage. A, B, and D either misfocus on the wrong geographic
area or overemphasize a single aspect of the issue, while C aligns best with the overall message.
6. Recheck Your Preferred Answer
Substituting C into the passage: "It discusses the complex factors that hinder water access in rural areas, despite
technological progress." This fits the tone and message of the passage accurately.
7. Confirm Your Answer
Based on the analysis, C) It discusses the complex factors that hinder water access in rural areas, despite
technological progress is the best choice, as it aligns with the main focus of the passage on the challenges of rural
water access.
Tips for Success:
Active Reading: Pay attention to the larger themes and tone. The purpose of the passage will often be closely linked
to the tone and the way information is organized.
Summarization: Break the passage down into a single, concise summary to better identify the author's core
message.
Predict the Purpose: Before looking at the answer options, try predicting the main point based on the passage
summary. This will help you avoid being misled by tricky options.
Detailed Evaluation of Options: Carefully analyze each answer option and see if it corresponds with your
understanding of the passage’s purpose.
Cross-Text Connections Questions
In the Reading and Writing section of the SAT, some questions provide two short texts for you to read.
These questions will ask you to compare the perspectives or viewpoints of the authors in both texts.
These types of questions are referred to as cross-text connections questions.
Example of a Cross-Text Connections Question
Text 1
Studies suggest that urban green spaces, such as parks and gardens, play a crucial role in enhancing the
well-being of city dwellers. Researchers argue that these spaces not only improve air quality but also
contribute to mental health by providing a serene escape from the hustle and bustle of urban life.
Proponents of this view emphasize the need for more green spaces in cities to foster a healthier and
happier population.
Text 2
In a study conducted in 2019, a group of urban planners and environmental psychologists analyzed the
effects of green spaces in a busy metropolitan area. They found that while people reported feeling less
stressed when in parks, the overall impact on their health was less significant than expected. For instance,
while air quality did improve, the benefits to mental well-being were mostly short-term and diminished
once people returned to their daily routines. The researchers suggested that while green spaces are
valuable, other factors, such as noise reduction and access to healthcare, might be equally or more
important for urban health.
Question: Based on the two texts, how would the researchers in Text 2 most likely view the perspective
of the advocates in Text 1?
 (Choice A) They would agree with the advocates but suggest that other factors should also be considered.
 (Choice B) They would argue that urban green spaces are irrelevant to urban health, regardless of the findings
in Text 1.
 (Choice C) They would acknowledge the value of green spaces but contend that their impact is not as significant
as the advocates in Text 1 believe.
 (Choice D) They would suggest that green spaces are a sufficient solution for improving urban health, as stated
in Text 1.
How to Approach Cross-Text Connections Questions
These questions can feel challenging because they present two different texts, but both will usually
address the same topic. The key is to identify how the two texts interact and how their viewpoints relate
to one another. Let’s break it down step by step.
Focus on Point of View
In cross-text connections questions, the focus is on the point of view of the authors or individuals
mentioned in the texts. Point of view refers to the perspectives, beliefs, or attitudes of those individuals.
In this case, you are asked to compare the viewpoint of the advocates in Text 1, who emphasize the
benefits of green spaces, with the perspective of the researchers in Text 2, who believe that the impact of
green spaces on mental well-being may not be as significant as suggested.
Steps to Solve Cross-Text Connections Questions
1. Summarize the Texts\
Begin by reading both texts closely. Summarize the main points in each text, paying attention to the
perspectives and views presented. Be sure to focus on the opinions or findings of the key individuals or
groups mentioned. This will help you clarify the viewpoints you need to compare.
2. Determine the Relationship Between the Points of View
After summarizing the texts, think about how the two points of view are related. Do the perspectives
agree, or do they conflict? Does one point of view challenge or modify the other? Identifying how these
viewpoints align will help you answer the question more accurately.
3. Evaluate the Answer Choices
Once you have identified the relationship between the viewpoints, compare it with the answer choices
provided. Which choice best matches the interaction between the points of view? Eliminate choices that
exaggerate the viewpoints or introduce ideas that are not directly supported by the texts.
Key Tips for Answering Cross-Text Connections Questions
 Look for Positive and Negative Language
Pay attention to the tone of the texts. Are the viewpoints expressed with optimism, skepticism, or
neutrality? Understanding the tone will help you figure out whether the viewpoints agree, disagree, or
complement each other.
 Stick to the Text
Always base your answer on what is clearly stated in the texts. Avoid making inferences or introducing
ideas that aren’t explicitly mentioned in the passages. The correct answer will be grounded in the text and
will not overstate the claims made by the authors.
By following these steps, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle cross-text connections questions. Remember
that the goal is to understand how the two perspectives relate and to choose the answer that most
accurately reflects that relationship.
C. Expression of Ideas and Standard English Conventions
This section focuses on the "Expression of Ideas" and "Standard English Conventions" aspects of the SAT
Reading and Writing test. It covers important skills such as transitions, rhetorical synthesis, form and
structure, and boundaries, starting with foundational examples. These topics aim to improve your ability
to analyze text structure, identify logical relationships, and apply correct language conventions in writing.
Below is a refined explanation of these skills:
Transitions: Connecting Ideas Logically
Transitions in writing serve as connectors, linking ideas and showing the relationship between them.
Some SAT questions will ask you to choose the most appropriate transition word or phrase to join two
sentences or ideas in a passage. These questions test your understanding of how ideas fit together
logically, requiring you to select transitions that clarify the relationship between concePractice Test.
For example, consider this passage:
“Over the past century, the field of artificial intelligence (AI) has evolved dramatically. ______, recent
advancements in deep learning and neural networks have enabled machines to perform tasks that were
once thought to be the exclusive domain of humans, such as recognizing speech and images.”
You would need to choose the transition that best connects the idea of AI's historical development with
its modern capabilities. The transition options might include:
 (A) In addition
 (B) Consequently
 (C) For instance
 (D) Moreover
To answer such a question, follow these steps:
1. Summarize the Text: Try to restate the main idea in simpler terms.
2. Identify the Relationship: What is the connection between the two ideas? Are they in agreement? Do they
contradict each other? Are they adding new information or explaining a cause-and-effect relationship?
3. Choose the Best Transition: Pick the word or phrase that most logically connects the ideas based on the
relationship identified.
Common Types of Relationships in Transitions:
 Agreement or Disagreement: Use transitions like similarly or however to show whether the ideas align or
contrast.
 Sequence or Order: When the ideas are connected by time or position, transitions like previously or next might
be appropriate.
 Addition or Exemplification: Use furthermore or for instance to add to an idea or provide an example.
 Cause and Effect: Transitions such as therefore or as a result connect cause and effect relationships.
Example Practice Questions:
1. Transitions:
While renewable energy sources like solar and wind are growing in popularity, they still face challenges in
scalability and cost. ______, ongoing research into more efficient technologies promises to make
renewable energy more accessible and cost-effective in the near future.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
 (A) For example
 (B) Therefore
 (C) In contrast
 (D) Consequently
2. Transition Words and Phrases:
The Great Barrier Reef, one of the most diverse ecosystems on the planet, has faced significant threats
from climate change. ______, the reef's survival is crucial not only for marine biodiversity but also for the
economies of the surrounding regions, which rely on tourism and fishing.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
 (A) However
 (B) As a result
 (C) Similarly
 (D) Therefore
Key Tips for Success:
 Stay Flexible: Transition words may vary, so look for options that function similarly to what you expect.
 Eliminate Similar Options: If two choices seem interchangeable, eliminate them both, as only one transition
will be correct.
Rhetorical Synthesis
Rhetorical synthesis questions on the SAT Reading and Writing section assess your ability to extract relevant
information from a set of bulleted facts and combine them effectively to meet a specific goal. The key is to use the
provided information to construct a clear, concise answer that matches the goal outlined in the question.
What Are Rhetorical Synthesis Questions?
In these questions, you will be given a list of related facts about an unfamiliar topic. You are then asked to use the
information to accomplish a specific goal, such as emphasizing a similarity or explaining an idea.
For example, a rhetorical synthesis question may look like this:
Example: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
 The novel Pride and Prejudice by Jane Austen is a romantic novel set in 19th-century England.
 The main character, Elizabeth Bennet, is witty, independent, and challenges societal norms.
 Emma by Jane Austen is also a romantic novel set in 19th-century England.
 In Emma, the protagonist, Emma Woodhouse, is wealthy, clever, and occasionally overestimates her ability to
match people romantically.
The student wants to highlight a similarity between the two novels. Which of the following options best uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this?
 (A) Both Pride and Prejudice and Emma are set in 19th-century England and feature independent protagonists.
 (B) Both Pride and Prejudice and Emma explore romantic relationships and social norms in their respective time
periods.
 (C) While Elizabeth Bennet challenges societal norms, Emma Woodhouse overestimates her ability to match
people romantically.
 (D) In Pride and Prejudice, Elizabeth Bennet is witty and independent, while in Emma, the protagonist is wealthy
and clever.
How to Approach Rhetorical Synthesis Questions
Rhetorical synthesis questions often present a significant amount of information. It’s easy to get caught up in the
details, but success lies in focusing on the goal outlined in the prompt. Here's how to approach these questions
systematically:
Step 1: Identify the Goal
Start by reading the question prompt carefully. The goal will clearly state what the correct answer needs to achieve.
For instance, the question may ask you to highlight a similarity, explain a cause-and-effect relationship, or
emphasize a difference.
Example Goal: The goal is to highlight the similarity between the two novels.
Step 2: Review the Bulleted Information
Next, read the list of bullet points. Look for details that relate to the goal. If you are asked to identify similarities,
focus on aspects of the information that highlight common features between the topics.
Step 3: Evaluate the Answer Choices
Once you have a clear understanding of the goal, evaluate the answer choices. While the incorrect answers may
seem to present relevant facts, they may fail to fulfill the goal of the question. Consider both the accuracy and the
relevance of each option.
Step 4: Select the Correct Answer
After reviewing the choices, select the one that most effectively and accurately fulfills the identified goal.
Top Tips for Success
 Do Two "Passes": It may be helpful to eliminate options in two rounds. In the first round, focus on eliminating
choices that don’t address the goal. In the second, look for any choices that, while they might seem related, do
not accurately use the information from the bullet points.
 Simplify the Goal: If the question asks you to highlight a similarity, just think “similarity” and eliminate choices
that don’t emphasize this. Simplifying the task helps you test each choice more effectively.
 Be Strict: If an answer is “almost right” but not completely aligned with the goal or the details, don’t hesitate to
eliminate it. Accuracy is key.
 Ignore Grammar: All choices are grammatically correct, so focus on how well each answer reflects the
information presented, not just how it sounds.
Practice Question: Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
 The Amazon rainforest is the largest tropical rainforest in the world and is home to diverse wildlife.
 The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system, located off the coast of Australia.
 The Amazon is critical for absorbing carbon dioxide and maintaining global climate balance.
 The Great Barrier Reef is also an important ecosystem, supporting thousands of species of fish and marine life.
The student wants to introduce both ecosystems to a new audience. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
 (A) The Amazon rainforest and the Great Barrier Reef are both vital ecosystems, supporting diverse species and
playing important roles in environmental health.
 (B) The Amazon rainforest is the largest tropical rainforest in the world, while the Great Barrier Reef is the
largest coral reef system in the world.
 (C) The Great Barrier Reef supports thousands of species of marine life, while the Amazon rainforest absorbs
carbon dioxide and regulates the global climate.
 (D) While the Amazon rainforest is known for its vast diversity of species, the Great Barrier Reef is famous for its
importance in marine biodiversity.
Key Takeaways
Rhetorical synthesis questions test your ability to combine information and focus on the goal presented in the
prompt. By following a clear, step-by-step approach, you can effectively sift through the provided details, eliminate
irrelevant options, and choose the answer that best matches the intended goal.
Form, Structure, and Sense
On the SAT Reading and Writing section, certain questions will ask you to fill in a blank in a passage. The goal of
these questions is to test your understanding of Standard English conventions, specifically related to form,
structure, and sense. These questions focus on how parts of speech (like nouns, verbs, and pronouns) function
together to maintain proper grammar and clarity in the text.
What Are "Form, Structure, and Sense" Questions?
Form, structure, and sense questions present a passage with a blank space. You are then asked to select the most
appropriate word or phrase from several options that best completes the sentence according to the rules of
Standard English grammar. These rules are related to things like subject-verb agreement, verb forms, pronouns,
and the correct placement of modifiers.
What Conventions Are Tested in "Form, Structure, and Sense" Questions?
These questions focus on various key aspects of grammar, such as:
 Subject-verb agreement: Ensuring that the subject and verb in a sentence agree in number (singular or plural).
 Pronoun-antecedent agreement: Making sure pronouns correctly refer to the nouns they replace.
 Verb forms: Using the correct tense and form of a verb.
 Subject-modifier placement: Correctly placing modifiers so that sentences are clear and not confusing.
 Plural and possessive nouns: Correctly forming plural and possessive nouns, ensuring they make sense in
context.
To practice these conventions, you can refer to grammar guides, lesson videos, and exercises designed for grammar
practice.
How to Approach "Form, Structure, and Sense" Questions
These questions focus on a specific aspect of grammar. Here’s how to break them down effectively:
Step 1: Investigate the Blank
Read the sentence or passage carefully and focus on what’s missing in the blank. Is it a noun, verb, pronoun, or
another part of speech? Carefully compare the answer choices to see what changes between them. Are verbs
conjugated differently? Are pronouns used in different ways?
Identifying what is changing between the choices will give you a clue as to what kind of grammar rule is being
tested.
Step 2: Identify the Focus
Once you’ve investigated the blank, try to narrow down which specific rule is being tested. For example:
 If the choices are different forms of a verb, you might be dealing with subject-verb agreement or verb tense.
 If the choices involve different pronouns, the question could be testing pronoun-antecedent agreement.
By identifying the specific convention being tested, you can focus your attention on just that rule, which will help
you avoid distractions and save time.
Step 3: Eliminate Obvious Errors
Now, go through each answer choice and test them in the context of the sentence. Read the passage with each
choice plugged into the blank. Be on the lookout for any clear errors in grammar, such as incorrect subject-verb
agreement, verb tense errors, or pronoun mismatches.
Eliminate the choices that contain obvious errors, and the correct answer should become clear.
Example Practice Question:
Read the passage and fill in the blank with the best answer.
"Despite the challenging weather conditions, the team __________ to complete their training on schedule."
(A) work
(B) works
(C) working
(D) worked
Answer Analysis:
Step 1: Investigate the blank. The sentence is about the team and whether they completed their training. The verb
needs to agree with "team," which is singular.
Step 2: Identify the focus. The focus here is subject-verb agreement. Since "team" is singular, the verb should be in
the singular form.
Step 3: Eliminate errors.
(A) "work" is plural and doesn’t agree with the singular subject "team."
(B) "works" is the correct singular verb form.
(C) "working" is incorrect because it is a present participle, not a verb form that agrees with "team."
(D) "worked" is in the past tense, which changes the meaning of the sentence and doesn't fit with "on schedule."
Correct answer: (B) works
Tips for Success:
 Focus on the Grammar Rule: Identify the grammar rule that the question is testing. This will help you narrow
down your focus and avoid overthinking the options.
 Eliminate Incorrect Choices: Read through each option and eliminate any that clearly don’t fit the grammatical
structure of the sentence.
 Practice Makes Perfect: The more you practice these types of questions, the more familiar you will become
with the common grammar rules that are often tested on the SAT.
Boundaries Questions
In the SAT Reading and Writing section, some questions will present a passage with a blank space. Your
task is to choose the most appropriate option to complete the sentence or passage, following the
conventions of Standard English grammar. These questions, known as "boundaries" questions, focus on
how different parts of a sentence—such as clauses, phrases, and punctuation—are linked together.
Boundaries questions evaluate your understanding of how phrases, clauses, and sentences are connected
in writing. These questions focus on specific conventions such as:
 Linking clauses: Using coordination, subordination, or appropriate punctuation to connect ideas.
 Supplemental information: Formatting and punctuating additional details within a sentence.
 Punctuation: Correct usage of punctuation marks to ensure clarity and correctness in writing.
Which Standard English Conventions Are Tested in Boundaries Questions?
The key conventions tested in boundaries questions include:
 Linking Clauses: You may be asked to join two independent clauses or a dependent clause with an
independent one. This requires knowledge of coordinating conjunctions (such as "and," "but," "or"),
subordinating conjunctions (like "because," "although," "while"), and punctuation marks (like commas
and semicolons).
 Supplemental Information: These questions test how well you can punctuate and format extra details
in a sentence. For example, you might need to decide whether to use commas, dashes, or parentheses
around non-essential information.
 Punctuation: A strong grasp of punctuation rules—knowing when and where to use commas,
semicolons, colons, dashes, and periods—is critical for these questions. Punctuation is often what
determines whether a sentence flows clearly and correctly.
How to Approach Boundaries Questions
These questions often require you to focus on a specific grammar or punctuation rule. Here’s a step-by-
step method for approaching them:
Step 1: Investigate the Blank
 Read the sentence closely and examine where the blank appears. Is it between two clauses or in the middle of a
single clause?
 Compare the answer choices carefully. Do the options involve conjunctions, punctuation, or both? Is a
conjunction added or removed? Is the punctuation changed, such as a comma being inserted or omitted?
Recognizing patterns in the answer choices will help you determine which grammar rule is being tested.
Step 2: Identify the Focus
 Once you've analyzed the choices, figure out which grammar rule is being tested.
o If the blank separates two independent clauses, and the choices include commas or conjunctions, focus on
linking the clauses correctly.
o If the blank involves extra information, focus on how that information should be punctuated—using commas,
dashes, or parentheses.
o If punctuation is the focus, you may need to decide which punctuation mark best maintains clarity and
meaning.
By narrowing your focus to the specific rule being tested, you'll avoid distractions and be able to quickly
eliminate incorrect choices.
Step 3: Eliminate Obvious Errors
 Read through each option with the blank filled in. Check for any obvious grammar or punctuation mistakes:
o Are clauses incorrectly linked?
o Is the punctuation mark used inappropriately?
o Does the option break any rules about coordinating or subordinating clauses?
By eliminating choices that create clear errors, you'll be left with the correct answer.
Example Practice Question:
Read the passage and fill in the blank with the best answer.
"She loves traveling to new places, __________ she hasn't been able to go anywhere recently."
 (A) and
 (B) because
 (C) but
 (D) although
Answer Analysis:
Step 1: Investigate the blank. The sentence connects two independent clauses: "She loves traveling to
new places" and "she hasn't been able to go anywhere recently."
Step 2: Identify the focus. The focus here is linking two independent clauses. This requires a coordinating
conjunction or appropriate punctuation.
Step 3: Eliminate errors.
(A) "and" would suggest both parts of the sentence are equally true, but the second part contradicts the first, so it’s
not ideal.
(B) "because" creates a dependent clause, which doesn’t work to link these two independent clauses.
(C) "but" works well, as it creates a contrast between the two parts of the sentence.
(D) "although" also creates a dependent clause, which doesn't fit with the structure of the sentence.
Correct answer: (C) but
Tips for Success:
Look for Clues: Pay close attention to whether you're connecting independent clauses, adding
supplemental information, or adjusting punctuation. These clues can help you focus on the correct
grammar rule.
Practice Punctuation: Being familiar with where to place commas, semicolons, and other punctuation
marks will make boundary questions easier.
Check for Clarity: The goal is clarity and correctness. Always choose the option that best helps the
sentence flow logically and is grammatically sound.
By mastering transitions, rhetorical synthesis, form and structure, and boundaries, you will be well-
prepared for the SAT Reading and Writing section. Practicing these skills will improve your ability to
recognize how ideas are connected and conveyed, ultimately leading to stronger writing and reading
comprehension.
D. Grammar
Subject-Verb Agreement
Subject-verb agreement is an essential rule in Standard English that ensures the subject and the verb in a
sentence match in number (singular or plural).
Incorrect:
"The books is on the shelf."
Correct:
"The books are on the shelf."
In this example, "books" is plural, so it needs to be paired with the plural form of the verb, "are."
Understanding this concept is crucial for answering questions related to subject-verb agreement, which
you may encounter in the SAT’s Reading and Writing section.
How to Identify Subject-Verb Agreement Questions
Subject-verb agreement questions typically test your understanding of how singular and plural subjects
correspond with singular and plural verbs. You’ll know it’s a subject-verb agreement question if the
answer choices present variations of the verb in singular or plural forms.
If there is no difference in the verb forms among the options, the question is likely not testing subject-
verb agreement.
Example of a Subject-Verb Agreement Question
"When the sun rises over the horizon, the color of the sky ______ a reflection of the weather conditions."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) is
(B) are
(C) was
(D) were
Analysis:
In this sentence, "color" is the singular subject, so it requires a singular verb. The correct answer is (A) is,
as "is" is the singular present form of the verb.
Challenges in Spotting Subject-Verb Agreement Errors
While identifying subject-verb agreement is relatively straightforward when the subject and verb are close
together, errors can become harder to detect in more complex sentence structures. Here are some
factors to be mindful of:
1. Extra Words Between the Subject and Verb
When additional phrases, such as prepositional phrases, separate the subject from the verb, it can
become challenging to determine whether they agree.
Example:
"The collection of rare stamps is highly valuable."
The subject, "collection," is singular, even though "stamps" is plural. The verb must agree with the
singular subject, "collection."
2. Inverted Sentences
Inverted sentences occur when the verb precedes the subject, which may make it more difficult to spot
agreement errors.
Example:
"On the table are three notebooks."
Despite the verb "are" preceding the subject "three notebooks," we know that "notebooks" is plural, so
"are" is the correct verb.
Helpful Tips for Subject-Verb Agreement
1. Place Subject and Verb Next to Each Other
Whenever you're unsure if a subject and verb agree, position them next to each other and see if they
sound correct. This will often make it easier to spot any errors.
2. Watch Out for Prepositional Phrases
Prepositions like "with," "along," "through," and "from" often introduce phrases that describe the subject.
The object of these prepositional phrases may be plural, but it doesn’t change the number of the subject.
Example:
"The sound of the birds was calming."
The subject is "sound," which is singular, even though "birds" is plural.
3. Understanding Plurals and the Letter 'S'
In English, plurals are typically formed by adding an 's' to the noun (e.g., "cat" becomes "cats"). However,
verbs often form the plural by removing the 's' from the singular form.
Example:
"The dog runs fast."
"The dogs run fast."
Practice Questions:
1. "A vintage car restored to its original condition ______ considered more valuable than one left in its
deteriorated state."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) is
(B) are
(C) was
(D) were
Answer Analysis:
The subject "car" is singular, so the verb must be singular as well. The correct answer is (A) is.
2. "The value of rare paintings ______ influenced by their historical significance."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) represent
(B) represents
(C) are representing
(D) have represented
Answer Analysis:
The subject "value" is singular, so the verb must also be singular. The correct answer is (B) represents.
3. "During the winter months, the taste of freshly baked cookies ______ a comforting reminder of home."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) gives
(B) give
(C) are giving
(D) have given
Answer Analysis:
The subject "taste" is singular, so the verb must also be singular. The correct answer is (A) gives.
Key Takeaways for Subject-Verb Agreement
 The subject and verb must agree in number—singular subjects require singular verbs, and plural subjects
require plural verbs.
 Extra words or phrases between the subject and verb can confuse the agreement, but the agreement should
still match the subject's number.
 Be cautious with prepositional phrases and inverted sentence structures that may make agreement less
obvious.
 Always check if the subject is singular or plural before choosing the correct verb.
Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement
Pronoun-antecedent agreement is a grammatical rule in Standard English that ensures a pronoun matches
its antecedent in both person and number. The antecedent is the noun to which the pronoun refers, and
it must agree with the pronoun in terms of whether it's singular or plural, and in terms of gender when
applicable.
For example:
Incorrect:
"Apples is sour, and people rarely eat it raw."
Correct:
"Apples are sour, and people rarely eat them raw."
In the incorrect sentence, "apples" is plural, but the pronoun "it" is singular. The correct version uses the
plural pronoun "them" to match the plural noun "apples."
How to Identify Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement Errors
When approaching SAT questions on pronoun-antecedent agreement, you’ll need to identify when a
pronoun doesn't match its antecedent in number or person. Here’s how you can recognize these errors:
 If one answer choice uses a singular pronoun (like "it"), and another uses a plural pronoun (like "they"), it's
likely testing pronoun-antecedent agreement.
 If a pronoun in the sentence refers to a noun that appears in the answer choices, the error may involve
pronoun-antecedent agreement.
If you don’t notice either of these patterns, then the question likely doesn’t focus on pronoun-antecedent
agreement.
Example of a Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement Question
"It is difficult to live in Antarctica. The icy, harsh environment provides the continent’s soil-dwelling
creatures with few resources, little food, and no warmth. In a 2020 study of these organisms, researcher
Sarah Lewis reported that ______ able to endure extreme temperatures."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) it is
(B) this is
(C) they are
(D) either is
Answer Analysis:
The antecedent of the pronoun "they" is "creatures," which is plural. Thus, the correct pronoun should be "they
are" (Choice C), as it agrees with the plural antecedent.
Challenges in Spotting Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement Errors
Identifying pronoun-antecedent agreement errors can be tricky, especially in more complex sentences.
Here are some common issues to watch out for:
1. Distance Between Pronoun and Antecedent
When the pronoun is separated from its antecedent by additional words or phrases, it can become
difficult to determine agreement. Always be sure to trace the pronoun back to its antecedent, especially if
there are many words between them.
2. Multiple Nouns Before the Pronoun
When multiple nouns appear before a pronoun, it can be hard to figure out which one the pronoun is
referring to. The pronoun must agree with the most logical antecedent in the sentence.
Example:
"Both the dog and the cat ran quickly."
The pronoun "they" refers to both the dog and the cat, so "they" is plural.
3. Pronoun Before the Antecedent
Sometimes the pronoun is placed before the antecedent in the sentence. When this happens, it can be
challenging to identify the antecedent and ensure agreement.
Example:
"Before traveling, she researched the country thoroughly."
Here, the pronoun "she" refers to the subject of the sentence, the person being talked about. Ensure the
pronoun matches the intended subject.
Top Tips for Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement
1. Find the Antecedent
The first step in spotting an error is finding the antecedent—the noun that the pronoun refers to. Be
cautious when multiple nouns are present, as they may lead you to misidentify the antecedent.
Example:
"The box on the shelf is too heavy for him to lift."
Here, "box" is the antecedent, so "him" is correct, assuming we’re referring to a male person who might
be lifting the box.
2. Plug in the Antecedent
If you're unsure whether the antecedent is correct, try substituting the noun where the pronoun appears
in the sentence. If the sentence still makes sense, then you’ve identified the correct antecedent.
Example:
"The teacher explained the lesson clearly, and the students understood it well."
Replacing "it" with "the lesson" confirms that the pronoun agrees with the antecedent.
3. Gendered Pronouns
The SAT will not ask you to select between gendered pronouns (e.g., "he" or "she") and the non-gendered
singular "they" when referring to a single person. You will need to focus on ensuring agreement in
number (singular or plural) and person (the entity referred to, whether a person or thing).
Practice Questions:
1. "Before a trial begins, the attorneys for each side interview potential jurors, ______ questions to identify any
biases."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) asking him or her
(B) asking them
(C) asking it
(D) to ask him or her
Answer Analysis:
The subject in the sentence refers to "jurors," which is plural. Therefore, the correct pronoun is "them" (Choice B).
2. "Thanks to ______ remarkable speed, cheetahs are capable of running up to 75 miles per hour."
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
(A) its
(B) one’s
(C) their
(D) his or her
Answer Analysis:
The antecedent here is "cheetahs," which is plural. Therefore, the correct pronoun is "their" (Choice C).
Key Takeaways for Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement
 A pronoun must match its antecedent in number (singular or plural) and person (referring to people or things).
 Be cautious of pronouns that are separated from their antecedents by additional phrases or clauses.
 When multiple nouns appear, carefully consider which one makes the most sense as the antecedent.
 To verify your choice, plug the antecedent into the sentence and see if it sounds correct.
Understanding Plurals and Possessives
What are Plurals and Possessives?
Plurals refer to nouns and pronouns that indicate more than one person, thing, or concept.
Possessives refer to nouns and pronouns that show ownership or possession.
Although both plurals and possessives deal with nouns, they are formed differently and can sometimes
cause confusion. The most common area of confusion arises from the use of apostrophes.
Example of Plural:
 Cats (more than one cat)
 Students (more than one student)
Example of Possessive:
 Cat's toy (the toy belonging to one cat)
 Students' books (the books belonging to multiple students)
The formation of plurals and possessives may appear in SAT reading and writing questions, so
understanding when and how to use apostrophes is key.
How to Form Plurals and Possessives
To do well on SAT questions involving plurals and possessives, you need to be familiar with the following
rules:
1. Plural Nouns
Plurals are typically formed by adding an "s" to the end of a noun.
Book → Books
Child → Children (irregular plural)
2. Singular Possessive Nouns
To show possession for a singular noun, add an apostrophe + s.
Dog → Dog’s (the dog’s bone)
Teacher → Teacher’s (the teacher’s desk)
3. Plural Possessive Nouns
To show possession for a plural noun, add just an apostrophe after the “s” if the noun already ends in "s".
Cats → Cats’ (the cats’ toys)
Teachers → Teachers’ (the teachers’ lounge)
4. Pronouns
Possessive pronouns do not use apostrophes.
His, Her, Their, Its (no apostrophe)
Identifying Plural and Possessive Errors
When you come across SAT questions regarding plurals and possessives, look out for:
Changes in Apostrophes: The question may test whether apostrophes are used correctly in the plural or possessive
forms of a word.
Placement of Apostrophes: The location of the apostrophe can affect whether a word is singular possessive, plural
possessive, or plural.
If you don’t notice apostrophes in the answer choices, or if none of the answers show changes in
apostrophe placement, the question likely isn't focused on plurals and possessives.
Example of a Plurals and Possessives Question
Example Question: "Poet Maya Angelou’s memoir I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings explores the struggles
of ______ childhood, as she grows up in the segregated South."
Which choice completes the sentence correctly?
(A) the childhood’s
(B) childhood’s
(C) childhoods’
(D) childhood
Answer Analysis:
The word "childhood" refers to a singular subject, so the possessive form should be childhood's (Choice B).
Top Tips for Plurals and Possessives
1. Double Check Nouns for Possession or Plurality
SAT questions involving plurals and possessives may include multiple nouns in a sentence. Be sure that
both nouns are handled correctly in terms of pluralization and possession.
For example, if you're dealing with multiple nouns, ensure that the correct form of the apostrophe is
applied to indicate possession for singular or plural nouns.
2. "Its" vs. "It's" and "Their" vs. "They're"
Common mistakes involve confusing possessive pronouns like its and their with their contractions, it's (it
is) and they're (they are).
 Its is a possessive pronoun (no apostrophe).
 It's is a contraction of it is.
 Their is a possessive pronoun (no apostrophe).
 They're is a contraction of they are.
Whenever you see these forms in a question, double-check that you're choosing the correct version based
on the context.
Practice Questions:
1. Plurals and Possessives
"The community’s efforts were recognized when ______ members received awards for their
contributions."
Which choice completes the text correctly?
(A) members'
(B) member's
(C) members
(D) members'
Answer Analysis:
The sentence refers to the members of the community. The correct possessive form for plural members is
members’ (Choice A).
2. Plurals and Possessives
"The mountain’s peak was stunning, but it was the ______ glaciers that attracted the most attention."
Which choice completes the text correctly?
(A) mountain’s
(B) mountains’
(C) mountains
(D) mountain
Answer Analysis:
Since "glaciers" is plural and the sentence implies that multiple mountains have glaciers, the plural possessive
mountains’ (Choice B) is correct.
3. Plurals and Possessives
"The teacher handed out the students' assignments, which were all due on the same day."
Which choice correctly indicates possessive form?
(A) students’
(B) students
(C) student's
(D) student
Answer Analysis:
Since "students" is plural and the assignments belong to all of them, the correct possessive form is students'
(Choice A).
Key Takeaways for Plurals and Possessives
 Plurals are formed by adding "s" to the noun.
 Singular possessives are formed by adding an apostrophe + "s".
 Plural possessives are formed by adding just an apostrophe after the "s".
 Pronouns like its, their, and his do not require apostrophes for possession.
 Pay close attention to apostrophes in both plural and possessive forms to avoid common errors.
Understanding Verb Forms
Verbs are one of the most flexible parts of speech, taking on different forms to express various actions,
states, or occurrences. Verbs can change based on tense (past, present, future), aspect (simple,
progressive, perfect), and whether they are finite or non-finite. Additionally, verbs can be part of verb
phrases that include auxiliary (helping) verbs, modal verbs, and more. Although this grammar can seem
complex, recognizing and using verb forms correctly is essential for succeeding on the SAT.
On the SAT, you don't need to be a grammar expert to choose the correct verb form. Your familiarity with
how verbs function in everyday language will guide you to the right answer. Let's explore how to identify
and correct verb form errors.
Example of Incorrect Verb Form:
 Tomorrow, I am finished my homework.
 Corrected Version: Tomorrow, I will finish my homework.
In this case, "am finished" is the present progressive tense, which doesn't fit with the future timeframe
indicated by the word tomorrow. The correct form is "will finish," which matches the future tense.
Key Types of Verb Forms
1. Tenses:
Verbs convey when an action happens through tenses:
Present Tense: Describes actions happening now or regularly.
Example: She works at a bookstore every weekend.
Past Tense: Describes actions that have already happened.
Example: They visited the museum last week.
Future Tense: Describes actions that will happen.
Example: I will start my new job next month.
2. Progressive Aspect:
Describes actions that are ongoing at the time of speaking:
Present Progressive: Describes an ongoing action right now.
Example: She is writing a letter to her friend.
Past Progressive: Describes an ongoing action in the past.
Example: They were reading a book when the phone rang.
3. Perfect Aspect:
Describes actions that have been completed relative to another time:
Present Perfect: Describes actions that happened at an unspecified time or have relevance to the present.
Example: I have traveled to five countries.
Past Perfect: Describes an action completed before another action in the past.
Example: He had finished his homework before he went out with friends.
4. Modal Verbs:
Express necessity, possibility, or permission:
Example: You must finish your homework before going out.
Example: She can sing very well.
How to Identify Verb Form Errors
When preparing for SAT questions related to verb forms, you should focus on identifying tense, aspect,
and the correct use of auxiliary (helping) verbs. Here are some ways to spot verb form errors:
1. Verb Tense Confusion:
You may encounter sentences where the verb tense doesn't match the timeframe of the sentence. For
instance, a sentence might start in the past tense and then switch to present tense, or vice versa.
2. Missing or Extra Helping Verbs:
Some verb phrases need auxiliary verbs to form correct tenses (e.g., "She has been working") or to
indicate modality (e.g., "She should work")—check that all necessary helping verbs are present.
3. Changes in Verb Form:
In some questions, different answer choices may feature varying verb tenses or include/remove
auxiliary verbs. The task is to select the choice that fits with the overall sentence's context and
timeframe.
Verb Form Example Question
Sentence:
Although many animals use instinct to guide their behavior, certain species of birds ______ migration
patterns that span thousands of miles, demonstrating remarkable navigational skills.
Choose the correct verb form to complete the sentence:
(A) follow
(B) are following
(C) will follow
(D) had followed
Answer Explanation:
This sentence discusses a general fact about bird species and their migratory behavior. The correct verb
tense here is simple present (follow), since it's talking about a general characteristic of the species. The
correct answer is (A) follow.
Tips for Choosing the Correct Verb Form
1. Context Clues
The context of the sentence—whether it discusses past, present, or future events—will determine the
appropriate verb tense. Pay close attention to time indicators like yesterday, next year, always, now, etc.
2. Maintain Consistency
Verb tense should generally remain consistent throughout a sentence or paragraph, unless there is a clear
shift in the timeline. For example, if the paragraph starts with past actions, future tense should only be
used when discussing future events.
3. General Facts Use Present Tense
For general truths, habits, or facts, the present tense is often the most appropriate, even when discussing
things that happen over a long period (e.g., The Earth revolves around the sun).
4. Be Mindful of Progressive Tenses
Progressive tenses are used when describing actions in progress. Ensure that the use of progressive forms
aligns with the sentence’s intended meaning (e.g., ongoing actions in the past or present).
Practice Questions:
1. Geologists have studied over a thousand rock formations, and one category of formations ______ evidence of
past volcanic activity.
Choose the correct verb form:
(A) show
(B) shows
(C) showed
(D) have shown
Answer Explanation:
This sentence discusses a general fact, so the simple present tense (show) is the best choice. The correct
answer is (A) show.
2. Despite the challenges, several species of whales ______ the Arctic waters every summer to feed.
Choose the correct verb form:
(A) migrate
(B) are migrating
(C) migrated
(D) will migrate
Answer Explanation:
The sentence talks about a recurring event, so the simple present tense (migrate) is correct. The correct
answer is (A) migrate.
3. By the time the meeting starts, the team ______ the report and will be ready to discuss the findings.
Choose the correct verb form:
(A) will finish
(B) finishes
(C) will have finished
(D) finished
Answer Explanation:
Since the action of finishing the report happens before another event (the meeting starts), the correct
form is future perfect (will have finished). The correct answer is (C) will have finished.
Key Takeaways
 Tense indicates when an action occurs—past, present, or future.
 Aspect describes whether an action is completed, ongoing, or habitual (e.g., simple, progressive, perfect).
 Consistency in verb tense is essential unless there's a clear shift in time.
 Be sure to use present tense for general facts, past tense for completed actions, and future tense for upcoming
actions.
 Progressive forms describe ongoing actions, while perfect forms describe completed actions in relation to
other times.
Punctuation
Punctuation is a key component of the SAT Writing and Language section. The correct use of punctuation
helps to clarify meaning, structure sentences properly, and avoid ambiguity. You’ll encounter
punctuation-related questions that test your ability to apply the rules of Standard English, particularly
when it comes to commas, semicolons, colons, and dashes. These punctuation marks play crucial roles in
connecting clauses, adding clarifications, or listing items.
In this section, you’ll need to be familiar with various uses of punctuation marks and understand when
and how to apply them. The key is knowing both when to use a specific punctuation mark and when it is
unnecessary.
Types of Punctuation Tested on the SAT
The SAT tests punctuation primarily through questions that focus on the correct placement of commas,
semicolons, colons, and dashes. Each of these punctuation marks has specific rules that govern their use.
1. Commas (,)
Commas are used to:
 Separate items in a list.
Example: For dinner, we had soup, salad, and pasta.
 Set off nonessential elements (such as appositive phrases or additional information).
Example: My brother, who loves basketball, is visiting next week.
 Link a dependent clause to an independent clause.
Example: After the meeting ended, we went for coffee.
 Link independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction (FANBOYS: for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so).
Example: I want to go to the park, but it looks like it will rain.
Commas should not:
 Separate a subject and a verb.
Incorrect Example: The teacher, is explaining the lesson.
 Come before prepositions.
Incorrect Example: She is going, to the store.
 Separate items in a list of two.
Incorrect Example: I bought apples, and oranges.
2. Semicolons (;)
Semicolons are used to:
 Link independent clauses that are closely related but not joined by a coordinating conjunction.
Example: The weather was cold; we decided to stay indoors.
 Separate items in a complex list where the items themselves contain commas.
Example: The conference will have speakers from Paris, France; Berlin, Germany; and Tokyo, Japan.
Semicolons should not:
 Be used between dependent and independent clauses.
Incorrect Example: Because it was raining; we stayed inside.
3. Colons (:)
Colons are used to:
 Introduce lists after an independent clause.
Example: She bought three types of fruit: apples, bananas, and grapes.
 Introduce explanations or elaborations that follow an independent clause.
Example: He made one crucial mistake: he didn’t ask for help.
Colons should not:
 Be used after incomplete clauses or phrases.
Incorrect Example: Because she was tired: she went to bed early.
4. Dashes (—)
Dashes are used to:
 Set off nonessential elements in a sentence, similar to commas or parentheses. They can emphasize or add
additional detail.
Example: The concert—though postponed several times—was finally rescheduled for next week.
 Highlight a final thought or conclusion.
Example: She couldn’t believe what she saw—the house was completely empty.
Dashes should not:
 Be used to replace commas or parentheses in every situation. Dashes often add emphasis, so use them
thoughtfully.
Incorrect Example: The dog—ran fast across the yard.
How to Identify Punctuation Errors
When approaching punctuation questions on the SAT, follow these tips to ensure you choose the correct
option:
1. Look for Sentences with Multiple Punctuation Options:
If the choices offer different punctuation marks, this may signal a punctuation question. Pay close
attention to whether the punctuation is needed at all or if it changes the sentence’s meaning.
2. Check for Links Between Clauses:
Punctuation marks are often used to link or separate clauses. Determine if the sentence contains two
independent clauses (which may need a semicolon or comma with a conjunction) or if a colon or dash
is needed to introduce additional information.
3. Ask Yourself: Is Punctuation Necessary?
Sometimes, the correct choice will be one where no punctuation is needed at all. For instance, if
adding a punctuation mark interruPractice Test the flow of the sentence or creates a fragment, you
might not need any punctuation in that spot.
Example Punctuation Questions
1. Punctuation (Supplementary Information)
Sentence:
The artist painted a masterpiece that captivated critics and audiences alike, which included a subtle nod
to classical techniques.
Choose the correct punctuation to complete the sentence:
(A) included,
(B) included:
(C) included;
(D) included
Answer Explanation:
The sentence introduces additional information, which is a nonessential element, and should be set off by
commas. The correct answer is (A) included,.
2. Punctuation (Introducing Explanations)
Sentence:
The scientist presented a groundbreaking theory: it suggested that the earth’s core was not solid, but
rather fluid in nature.
Choose the correct punctuation to complete the sentence:
(A) suggested;
(B) suggested:
(C) suggested,
(D) suggested.
Answer Explanation:
The colon is used here because it introduces an explanation or elaboration of the theory. The correct
answer is (B) suggested:.
3. Punctuation (Complex Lists)
Sentence:
The conference will feature speakers from New York, USA; Paris, France; and Tokyo, Japan.
Choose the correct punctuation to complete the sentence:
(A) New York, USA,
(B) New York, USA:
(C) New York, USA;
(D) New York, USA
Answer Explanation:
Since the list items themselves contain commas, semicolons are used to separate them. The correct
answer is (C) New York, USA;.
4. Punctuation (Linking Independent Clauses)
Sentence:
She studied for the exam all week; she still felt unprepared the night before.
Choose the correct punctuation to complete the sentence:
(A) studied for the exam all week, but
(B) studied for the exam all week:
(C) studied for the exam all week;
(D) studied for the exam all week.
Answer Explanation:
Since both parts of the sentence are independent clauses, the semicolon correctly links them. The correct
answer is (C) studied for the exam all week;.
Final Tips for SAT Punctuation Questions
1. Make sure both sides of a semicolon are independent clauses before choosing it.
2. A colon should always follow a complete sentence or independent clause.
3. Dashes are powerful for adding emphasis or extra information. Avoid using them in every case where
commas could suffice.

Chapter 3: SAT Test-Taking Strategies

Successfully navigating the SAT involves more than just studying the material. It requires you to master
specific test-taking strategies that allow you to maximize your efficiency, stay focused under pressure, and
perform your best on each section. These strategies can make a big difference, especially when managing
your time and decision-making throughout the test. Below, we’ll dive into essential strategies for the SAT,
ensuring you approach each section with confidence and poise.
Time Management Tips for Each Section
One of the most critical skills on the SAT is effective time management. The test is designed with specific
time constraints for each section, and knowing how to pace yourself can be the difference between
success and stress. Here's how to handle the time limits for each section:
1. Reading and Writing Section
For this section, you will typically have about 1 minute and 11 seconds per question. The questions in the
reading and writing section are based on short passages, and while it may seem like you have ample time,
it’s important to avoid getting bogged down in any single question. Here are a few tips for managing your
time:
 Prioritize Key Information: Start by reading the questions first. This will allow you to focus on the information
that’s relevant as you read the passage, helping you answer the questions more quickly.
 Skim Strategically: While you should read carefully, don’t spend too long on any passage. Skim for the central
argument or theme and key details, rather than focusing on every word.
 Mark for Review: If you encounter a particularly challenging question, use the "Mark for Review" tool to come
back to it later. Don’t waste too much time on a question you’re unsure about.
2. Math Section
For the Math section, you’ll have about 1 minute and 35 seconds per question, with questions becoming
progressively more difficult as you go. This section tests your ability to solve algebra, geometry, and some
higher-level math problems, so managing time here is especially critical:
 Start with the Easier Questions: Quickly skim through the questions to find the ones that are easier or familiar.
Answering these questions first builds momentum and can help you gain confidence.
 Use the Graphing Calculator: For questions that require graphing, use the built-in Desmos graphing calculator.
Make sure you are familiar with the calculator’s functions before test day to avoid wasting time figuring it out
during the exam.
 Keep an Eye on the Clock: Watch the time closely, especially toward the end of the section. If you’re stuck,
move on and return to the more difficult questions later. Prioritize answering all questions over dwelling on a
few.

How to Tackle Multiple-Choice Questions

The SAT is filled with multiple-choice questions across all sections, and handling them efficiently is key to
improving your score. Here are some strategies to approach these questions effectively:
1. Process of Elimination
Instead of immediately selecting the first answer that seems right, use the process of elimination. Cross
off answers you’re certain are wrong. This narrows your choices, increasing your chances of picking the
correct answer even if you’re unsure.
2. Read Each Question Carefully
One of the biggest mistakes students make is misreading questions or answers. Read the question
thoroughly before jumping to the answer choices. Pay attention to keywords such as "not," "always," and
"except," as they can drastically change the meaning of the question.
3. Don’t Overthink It
It’s easy to get caught up in doubts, especially if multiple answers seem plausible. Stick with your first
instinct unless you find a compelling reason to change it. Often, your gut reaction is more reliable than
second-guessing.
4. Eliminate Implausible Answers
On questions where you don’t know the answer, try to eliminate the most obviously incorrect options
first. This can dramatically increase your chances if you end up having to guess. Even if you're left with
two choices, you now have a much higher chance of getting it right.
Approaching the Essay Section (if applicable)
While the SAT Essay is optional, many students choose to take it. If you’re planning to write the essay, it’s
important to be well-prepared and strategic:
1. The Prompt
The SAT Essay asks you to analyze a passage and explain how the author constructs their argument.
Before you start writing, make sure you fully understand the prompt and what’s being asked. Take a
moment to read the passage carefully, noting the main argument and the evidence the author uses to
support it.
2. Plan Your Response
Spend a few minutes before writing to organize your thoughts. Outline the key points you’ll discuss in
your introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion. This will give your essay structure and ensure that
you stay on track while writing.
3. Use Specific Evidence
When discussing the author’s strategies, be specific. Refer directly to evidence in the passage, explaining
how the author’s choices—such as tone, language, or structure—help support the argument. Specific
examples demonstrate that you understand the material and can critically analyze it.
4. Write Clearly and Concisely
The quality of your writing matters. Write clearly, using strong topic sentences and supporting details.
Avoid lengthy, unnecessary explanations. Focus on being concise and precise in your arguments.
When to Guess, and When to Skip a Question
There will be times on the SAT when you're unsure of an answer. Knowing when to guess and when to
skip a question can help you make the best use of your time:
1. Guessing
Guessing is better than leaving a question blank, as there’s no penalty for incorrect answers on the SAT. If
you’re unsure but can eliminate one or more incorrect choices, go ahead and take an educated guess.
Even random guesses have a better chance than not answering at all.
2. Skipping
If a question is taking too long to answer, or if it feels too difficult, it’s better to skip it. Use the “Mark for
Review” tool to keep track of skipped questions so you can return to them if time permits. Skipping
ensures you don’t waste time on something that might be a dead end.
3. Never Leave a Question Blank
Remember, there is no penalty for wrong answers, so always attempt to answer every question. Even if
you have to guess, it’s better than leaving it blank.
Tips for Managing Test Anxiety
Test anxiety is common, but it doesn’t have to control you. Managing stress effectively will help you stay
focused and perform well:
1. Practice Relaxation Techniques
Test anxiety often comes from worrying about the unknown. Practice relaxation techniques such as deep
breathing or mindfulness before the test. This will help you calm your nerves and focus on the task at
hand.
2. Get Enough Sleep and Eat a Good Breakfast
Your physical health plays a big role in your mental performance. Ensure you get a full night’s sleep before
the exam, and eat a healthy breakfast that will fuel your brain. Avoid heavy meals that might make you
sluggish, but choose foods that give you sustained energy.
3. Focus on the Process, Not the Outcome
Instead of focusing on the pressure of achieving a certain score, try to stay focused on doing your best on
each individual question. Remind yourself that the SAT is just one step in your college journey, and you’ve
prepared for this moment.
Strategies for the Digital SAT Interface
The transition to a digital format means new tools and challenges, but it also offers many advantages.
Here are strategies to help you become familiar with the digital interface and make the most of it:
1. Familiarize Yourself with the Tools
Before test day, take time to explore the digital SAT interface using official practice tests. The College
Board offers resources where you can practice with the digital layout. Learn how to navigate between
questions, mark questions for review, and use the annotation tool in the reading section.
2. Utilize the Desmos Graphing Calculator
For the Math section, the digital SAT includes a built-in Desmos graphing calculator. Make sure you know
how to use it to its fullest potential. Familiarize yourself with its features, such as graphing functions,
zooming in and out, and plotting points, so you’re not slowed down during the test.
3. Stay Aware of Time
The digital SAT includes a timer that can be shown or hidden during the test. Use it to monitor your
pacing, but don’t obsess over it. Focus on answering questions efficiently rather than worrying about the
countdown.
4. Understand the Adaptive Format
The SAT is now adaptive, meaning the difficulty of the questions will adjust based on how well you’re
doing. Don’t waste time trying to predict the difficulty of the questions. Simply focus on doing your best
on each one, knowing that the test will adapt to your skill level as you progress.
By implementing these test-taking strategies, you can improve your overall performance on the SAT.
Whether it’s mastering time management, knowing when to guess or skip a question, managing test
anxiety, or mastering the digital format, these strategies will ensure that you approach the exam
prepared, confident, and ready to tackle the test head-on.
Chapter 4: 11 Full-Length Practice Tests
Practice Test 1
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
Former biologist Maria Johnson believes that although it’s uncertain when the conditions will be right, she _______
that certain species will adapt to urban environments over time. This prediction drives her interest in studying
animal behaviors in cities.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) insists
B) speculates
C) doubts
D) confirms
Passage 2:
In the 1960s, social reformer Dolores Huerta relentlessly campaigned to improve labor conditions for farm workers;
this _______ effort involved organizing strikes, negotiating for better pay, and advocating for workers’ rights.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) casual
B) sporadic
C) persistent
D) trivial
Passage 3:
Adhering to the principles of interdisciplinary education, schools and community groups are equal collaborators in
developing educational programs. A partnership between a local high school and a community center _______ this
model: students and community members worked together to design and implement after-school programs.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) circumvents
B) eclipses
C) fabricates
D) exemplifies
Passage 4:
The migratory monarch butterfly ensures its survival by migrating to specific locations that coincide with the
optimal breeding season. Recent studies show that the butterfly achieves this _______ with seasonal cues through
a sophisticated navigational instinct.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) synchronization
B) hibernation
C) prediction
D) moderation
Passage 5:
Given the harsh conditions of volcanic islands, it’s not surprising that the presence of certain plant species on such
islands has lacked _______ explanation. Recent genetic studies have revealed the unique ways in which these
plants have adapted to survive in such environments.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) a simple
B) a straightforward
C) an obvious
D) an unclear
Passage 6:
Native American filmmaker Chris Eyre _______ Hollywood’s tendency to represent Indigenous peoples only in
historical or stereotypical ways: this rejection is evident in his film Smoke Signals, which portrays modern Native life
with authenticity and nuance.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) celebrates
B) challenges
C) embraces
D) revises
Passage 7:
In 2010, linguist Noam Chomsky was exploring the development of language in children. He found that while
language acquisition appears to follow certain universal patterns, much of it is shaped by individual interaction with
their environment. Based on this research, Chomsky proposed a theory of language that emphasizes both biological
predispositions and social influences.
Q7: Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To discuss Chomsky’s theory of language acquisition
B) To explain the neurological mechanisms behind language learning
C) To call attention to how children learn languages
D) To highlight Chomsky’s work on universal grammar
Passage 8:
The following text is from Herman Melville's 1851 novel Moby-Dick. Ishmael, the narrator, reflects on his
experiences at sea.
“I went to the sea because it was the only way to keep myself from feeling so utterly small in this vast world. I found
solace in the infinite horizon, the seemingly endless stretch of water that looked the same no matter where I stood.
It was as though the sea knew no limits, much like my own aspirations.”
Q8: Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A) It emphasizes the narrator's feeling of insignificance in a vast world.
B) It introduces a central conflict that will unfold in the narrative.
C) It sets the stage for a reflection on the sea's literal vastness.
D) It foreshadows a future event that will challenge the narrator’s outlook.
Passage 9:
In the late 19th century, philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche argued that traditional moral values, particularly those
rooted in Christianity, _______ human potential. He believed that these values restricted individual growth and
prevented people from embracing their true creative powers.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) suppressed
B) celebrated
C) enhanced
D) ignored
Passage 10
The Code of Hammurabi, created by King Hammurabi of Babylon around 1754 BCE, is one of the oldest and most
complete written legal codes. It contained 282 laws covering various aspects of life, including commerce, family
relations, and criminal justice. The laws were famously guided by the principle of "an eye for an eye," where the
punishment often mirrored the crime. This concept of proportional justice — influenced modern legal systems,
where the idea of fair punishment based on the severity of the crime remains integral to contemporary justice
practices.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) rejects
B) reflects
C) challenges
D) distorts
Passage 11
The Great Wall of China was built over several dynasties, with construction beginning in the 7th century BCE and
continuing into the Ming Dynasty in the 15th century. Initially constructed to protect China from northern invaders,
the wall eventually stretched over 13,000 miles. Besides its military purpose, the Great Wall became a powerful
symbol of China’s strength and perseverance. The construction of the wall — a significant factor in Chinese culture,
influenced military strategy, architecture, and even local economies for centuries.
Q11: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) symbolized
C) restricted
D) eliminated
Passage 12
The Roman Republic, which existed from 509 BCE to 27 BCE, was characterized by a system where elected officials,
such as consuls and senators, shared power between the aristocracy and the common people. Over time, however,
internal conflicts, corruption, and military instability weakened the Republic. The combination of these factors — its
eventual collapse, led to the rise of the Roman Empire under Augustus, who consolidated power and transitioned
Rome from a republic to an autocratic empire.
Q12: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) deteriorated
B) revived
C) expanded
D) flourished
Passage 13
Alexander the Great, who became king of Macedonia in 336 BCE, is known for creating one of the largest empires in
history. His military campaigns, which spanned from Greece to Egypt and Persia to India, not only expanded his
empire but also facilitated the spread of Greek culture. This cultural diffusion, known as Hellenism — integrated
Greek ideas, art, and philosophy with local traditions, leading to a fusion of cultures that influenced regions as far as
Rome and India.
Q13: Which choice best describes the primary effect of Alexander the Great’s conquests?
A) The spread of Hellenistic culture
B) The fall of the Persian Empire
C) The growth of the Roman Empire
D) The isolation of Greece from other regions
Passage 14
Ancient Athens is often considered the birthplace of democracy. In the 5th century BCE, the Athenian leader
Cleisthenes introduced reforms that laid the foundation for a system where male citizens could directly participate
in the decision-making process. Though limited to a small group of citizens, this form of democracy — was
revolutionary for its time and later served as a model for democratic governments around the world.
Q14: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) promoted
B) ignored
C) weakened
D) destroyed
Passage 15
The Silk Road, which began in the 2nd century BCE, was a vast network of trade routes that connected China with
Europe and facilitated the exchange of goods, ideas, and culture. Key commodities such as silk, spices, and paper
were traded, but perhaps equally important were the cultural exchanges that occurred. The Silk Road — helped
spread innovations like papermaking, gunpowder, and even artistic styles, which had a lasting influence on both
Eastern and Western civilizations.
Q15: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restricted
B) hindered
C) facilitated
D) ignored
Passage 16: The rise of the Persian Empire under Cyrus the Great
Cyrus the Great founded the Persian Empire in the 6th century BCE, creating one of the largest empires in history.
His military genius and innovative leadership allowed him to conquer vast territories, including Babylon, Lydia, and
Egypt. Unlike many conquerors, Cyrus employed a policy of tolerance — allowing people to maintain their customs
and religions. His leadership style and respect for local traditions helped stabilize his empire, ensuring its longevity.
Q16: Which choice best describes Cyrus’s approach to governance?
A) Tolerant and inclusive
B) Autocratic and forceful
C) Repressive and divisive
D) Isolated and indifferent
Passage 17: The significance of the Rosetta Stone in understanding ancient Egypt
The Rosetta Stone, discovered in 1799 by French soldiers in Egypt, played a crucial role in deciphering ancient
Egyptian hieroglyphs. It contains a decree written in three scriPractice Test: Greek, Demotic, and hieroglyphic.
Scholars used their knowledge of Greek to translate the other two scriPractice Test — unlocking a wealth of
information about Egyptian history, religion, and culture that had been inaccessible for centuries.
Q17: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) facilitated
C) rejected
D) obscured
Passage 18: The influence of Confucianism on Chinese governance
Confucianism, a philosophy founded by Confucius in the 5th century BCE, has had a profound and lasting impact on
Chinese governance. Confucius emphasized the importance of moral leadership, social harmony, and respect for
authority. These principles were adopted by Chinese rulers and officials — becoming integral to the selection of
government officials and the conduct of political affairs. Even today, Confucian ideas continue to shape Chinese
political thought.
Q18: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) rejected
B) supported
C) ignored
D) isolated
Passage 19: The Punic Wars and the expansion of Roman power
The Punic Wars were a series of three wars fought between Rome and Carthage from 264 BCE to 146 BCE. After a
long and brutal conflict, Rome emerged victorious and destroyed Carthage, solidifying its dominance in the
Mediterranean. The Punic Wars — enabled Rome to expand its territory, establish control over key trade routes,
and strengthen its military power, setting the stage for its eventual rise as a dominant empire.
Q19: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) contested
C) bolstered
D) diminished
Passage 20
Filmography of Key Directors and Actors in Early Hollywood
# Name Years Active Number of Films Known and Commonly Credited
1 John Wilkes 1910–1925 40 (actor), 55 (director), 10 (writer)
2 Sarah Lark 1911–1920 50 (actor), 5 (writer)
3 Samuel Bright 1905–1930 60 (actor), 70 (director), 20 (producer), 3 (writer)
4 Martha Woods 1908–1922 70 (actor)
Some scholars have turned their attention to the early Hollywood era, focusing on the contributions of figures like
John Wilkes, Sarah Lark, Samuel Bright, and Martha Woods. Many films from this period have been lost, so the
number of films credited to these individuals should be considered as minimums rather than totals. It is possible,
for instance, that _______.
Q20: Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?
A) Martha Woods acted in more films than Samuel Bright, who is credited with 60 performances.
B) Samuel Bright’s 60 credited acting roles include only films made after 1930.
C) John Wilkes acted in far fewer than 40 films and directed more than 55 films.
D) Sarah Lark acted in more than 50 films, and Samuel Bright directed more than 70 films.
Passage 21
Juvenile Mammal Species Found in Different Terrain Types
 # Species Open Woodland Total Percent Found in
Grassland Areas Woodland Areas
1 Bison texanus 20 35 55 63.6%
2 Pronghorn americna 65 85 150 56.7%
3 White-tailed deer 105 150 255 58.8%
4 Mountain lion 80 120 200 60.0%
5 Red fox 15 30 45 66.7%
A team of researchers analyzed the habitat preferences of juvenile mammals in a large park in North America. They
noted the animals’ distribution across open grasslands and woodland areas. The researchers found that juvenile
mammals, particularly species like the red fox, were more likely to be found in woodland areas compared to open
grasslands, which is unusual compared to random distribution.
Q21: Which choice best describes data from the table that supports the researchers' claim?
A) All species had a majority of their juvenile population in woodland areas.
B) Red fox juveniles were the most likely to be found in woodland areas compared to other species.
C) For all species, fewer than half of the juvenile mammals were found in woodland areas.
D) For each species, the percentage of juvenile mammals found in woodland areas was notably higher than what
would be expected in open grasslands.
Passage 22: The Theme of Ambition in Macbeth by William Shakespeare
In Macbeth, ambition is portrayed as both a driving force and a destructive flaw. Macbeth begins as a loyal subject
to King Duncan, but the witches' prophecy sparks an overpowering desire for power. His ambition is further fueled
by Lady Macbeth, who pushes him to commit regicide to secure the throne. As Macbeth's ambition grows, it
consumes him, leading him to commit more murders to protect his position. Ultimately, his unchecked ambition
leads to his downfall, as he loses his humanity and is consumed by guilt, paranoia, and isolation.
Q22: Which choice best supports the passage’s claim about the destructive nature of ambition in Macbeth?
A) Macbeth's ambition leads him to betray his king, which marks the beginning of his moral decline.
B) Lady Macbeth, as the true antagonist, pushes Macbeth to follow through on his ambitions.
C) Macbeth maintains his integrity and honor while pursuing power, making him a heroic figure.
D) Macbeth successfully secures his throne without causing harm to others.
Passage 23: The Portrayal of Social Class in Pride and Prejudice by Jane Austen
In Pride and Prejudice, social class is a key theme that shapes the relationships and decisions of the characters.
Elizabeth Bennet's lower social standing in relation to the wealthy Mr. Darcy initially creates tension between them.
While Darcy’s pride and prejudice towards Elizabeth’s family prevent him from recognizing her worth, Elizabeth's
strong-willed nature and independent spirit challenge the expectations of her social class. Ultimately, the novel
critiques the rigid class system, suggesting that true compatibility is determined by character, not wealth or status.
Q23: Which choice most directly supports the passage’s claim about the critique of the class system in Pride and
Prejudice?
A) Elizabeth's refusal to marry Mr. Darcy, despite his wealth, shows her independence from social expectations.
B) Mr. Darcy's wealth and status make him more attractive to Elizabeth, and they marry for these reasons.
C) The novel celebrates the superiority of the wealthy class, portraying their lives as ideal.
D) Elizabeth and Mr. Darcy's marriage is portrayed as a way to reinforce traditional social class structures.
Passage 24: The Concept of the American Dream in The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald
In The Great Gatsby, Jay Gatsby represents the American Dream, embodying the idea that anyone can achieve
wealth and success through hard work. However, as the novel unfolds, it becomes clear that Gatsby's wealth,
acquired through questionable means, does not bring him happiness. His pursuit of Daisy, an idealized love, is
ultimately unattainable, revealing the hollowness of the American Dream. Fitzgerald critiques the belief that
material success leads to fulfillment, exposing the deep flaws in this vision of the American experience.
Q24: Which choice most directly supports the passage’s critique of the American Dream in The Great Gatsby?
A) Gatsby’s accumulation of wealth allows him to live a happy and fulfilled life.
B) Gatsby’s efforts to rekindle his romance with Daisy ultimately fail, highlighting the emptiness of his dreams.
C) Gatsby’s success is based purely on his inherent talent and moral character.
D) Daisy recognizes Gatsby as a symbol of success, and they live happily ever after.
Passage 25: The Role of Revenge in Hamlet by William Shakespeare
In Hamlet, the theme of revenge dominates the plot. Hamlet is driven to avenge his father’s death at the hands of
his uncle, Claudius. However, Hamlet is torn by the moral implications of revenge and is hesitant to take action. His
delay and internal conflict lead to a tragic sequence of events, culminating in his own death. The play explores how
revenge can be all-consuming and destructive, ultimately causing more harm than good and highlighting the
complexity of seeking justice through vengeance.
Q25: Which choice best highlights the impact of revenge on Hamlet in the play?
A) Hamlet acts swiftly and decisively, avenging his father's death without hesitation.
B) Hamlet’s delay in avenging his father’s death leads to further tragedy and his eventual demise.
C) Hamlet abandons his quest for revenge, choosing instead to reconcile with his uncle.
D) Hamlet’s revenge results in a peaceful resolution for all the characters involved.
Passage 26:
A student is researching the effects of sleep on cognitive performance:
 Sleep plays a crucial role in memory consolidation and learning.
 Sleep deprivation can impair problem-solving abilities and decision-making skills.
 Research indicates that consistent sleep schedules improve focus and productivity.
 Getting 7-9 hours of sleep per night is recommended for optimal cognitive functioning.
Q26: The student wants to summarize the importance of adequate sleep for cognitive performance. Which
choice best encapsulates this idea?
A). Sleep helps consolidate memories and improve focus, highlighting its role in learning and productivity.
B). A lack of sleep can negatively affect decision-making, suggesting the need for consistent sleep schedules.
C). Research supports the recommendation of 7-9 hours of sleep per night for better focus and productivity.
D). Sleep deprivation impairs cognitive performance, making adequate rest essential for problem-solving and
decision-making.
Passage 27:
A student is studying the effects of urban green spaces on community well-being:
 Urban parks and gardens provide spaces for exercise and relaxation, improving physical and mental health.
 Green spaces reduce urban heat and improve air quality by absorbing carbon dioxide.
 Communities with access to parks often report higher levels of social interaction and cohesion.
 Increased greenery in cities can enhance property values and attract tourism.
Q27: The student wants to focus on the health benefits of urban green spaces. Which choice best conveys this
focus?
A). Urban green spaces provide areas for exercise, relaxation, and social interaction, enhancing community well-
being.
B). Parks and gardens in urban areas improve air quality while promoting physical and mental health.
C). Urban green spaces reduce urban heat and increase property values, making cities more livable.
D). Access to parks fosters social cohesion and promotes sustainable urban development.
Module 2
Passage 1:
Charlemagne, also known as Charles the Great, played a pivotal role in the unification of much of Western Europe
during the early Middle Ages. As king of the Franks, he consolidated a vast empire that spanned modern-day
France, Germany, and parts of Italy. Charlemagne’s efforts to unite these territories were not only military but also
cultural, as he promoted the Carolingian Renaissance, a revival of art, religion, and learning. His reign marked a
turning point in European history, laying the foundation for the Holy Roman Empire.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) halted
B) obscured
C) accelerated
D) isolated
Passage 2:
The Crusades, a series of religious wars between Christians and Muslims, had profound effects on both Europe and
the Middle East. While their primary goal was to reclaim Jerusalem, the Crusades also led to significant cultural
exchanges. Trade between the East and West increased, and many classical works were reintroduced to Europe,
sparking a renewed interest in learning. However, the Crusades also deepened tensions between different religious
and ethnic groups, leaving a legacy of conflict that endured for centuries.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) limited
B) obscured
C) initiated
D) reinforced
Passage 3: The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, was a groundbreaking document in the history of governance. It
limited the powers of the English king and established certain legal protections for the nobles. Most importantly, it
introduced the concept that the king was not above the law, a principle that influenced the development of
constitutional law in England and beyond. Over time, the Magna Carta became a symbol of the rights and liberties
of citizens, and its principles laid the groundwork for modern democracy.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) celebrated
C) challenged
D) obstructed
Passage 4:
The Hundred Years' War, fought between England and France from 1337 to 1453, had far-reaching consequences.
One of the most significant outcomes was the rise of national identities. As the war dragged on, the people of both
countries began to see themselves less as subjects of a monarch and more as members of a distinct nation. This
shift played a crucial role in the development of modern nation-states, laying the groundwork for the strong
national identities that would later define Europe.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) solidified
C) fragmented
D) diluted
Passage 5:
The Black Death, which swept through Europe in the 14th century, had a profound impact on both the social and
economic structure of the continent. The massive death toll, which decimated entire communities, caused labor
shortages and economic disruptions. In the aftermath, wages for laborers rose, and the power of the feudal lords
began to decline. The social fabric of Europe was also altered, with increased mobility and new opportunities for
the surviving population.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) exacerbated
B) ignored
C) mitigated
D) accelerated
Passage 6: The fall of Constantinople in 1453 marked the end of the Byzantine Empire and the rise of the Ottoman
Empire as a dominant power in the Eastern Mediterranean. The Ottomans, led by Sultan Mehmed II, seized control
of the city after a lengthy siege, effectively cutting off Christian Europe from trade routes to Asia. The fall of
Constantinople also contributed to the spread of Renaissance culture, as many Greek scholars fled to Italy, bringing
with them classical manuscriPractice Test that would fuel the intellectual movement.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforced
B) stunted
C) revolutionized
D) hindered
Passage 7:
The Vikings, often known for their raids and invasions, also played a significant role in European trade and
settlement. Through their extensive network of trade routes, they connected Scandinavia to the Mediterranean,
the Middle East, and even North America. The Vikings not only traded goods such as silver, furs, and timber, but
they also established settlements in places like Iceland, Greenland, and parts of England and Ireland, leaving a
lasting cultural and economic impact.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) expanded
C) isolated
D) diminished
Passage 8:
The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg in the mid-15th century revolutionized the spread of
knowledge. Prior to this, books were copied by hand, which was a slow and expensive process. With the printing
press, books could be produced in large quantities, making them more accessible to a wider audience. This
technological advancement played a crucial role in the spread of the Renaissance, the Reformation, and the
Scientific Revolution.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) restricted
C) facilitated
D) obstructed
Passage 9:
Gothic cathedrals, characterized by their soaring spires, stained glass windows, and intricate stonework, represent
one of the most iconic architectural styles of the Middle Ages. These cathedrals, often built over several
generations, were designed to inspire awe and draw the eyes upward toward the heavens. The cultural significance
of Gothic cathedrals extends beyond their religious purpose; they also symbolized the wealth and power of the
communities that built them.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) limited
C) reflected
D) obscured
Passage 10:
Feudalism was the dominant social and economic system in medieval Europe. Under this system, land was
exchanged for loyalty and military service. Lords granted land to vassals, who in turn pledged to fight for their lord
when called upon. This hierarchical structure created a rigid social order, with kings at the top, followed by nobles,
knights, and peasants. Despite its inefficiencies, feudalism persisted for centuries, shaping the medieval world.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforced
B) replaced
C) ignored
D) undermined
Passage 11
Catalysts are substances that accelerate chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the
reaction to proceed. They do not undergo any permanent chemical change themselves and can be used repeatedly.
Catalysts are essential in many industrial processes, such as the production of ammonia in fertilizers, and also play a
crucial role in biological systems. Enzymes, which are biological catalysts, facilitate critical reactions in living
organisms, from digestion to energy production. —
Q11: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) slow down
B) alter
C) accelerate
D) disrupt

Passage 12
The periodic table organizes elements by increasing atomic number, and as you move across a period or down a
group, distinct trends in properties emerge. For example, atomic size generally decreases across a period and
increases down a group. Similarly, electronegativity increases across a period but decreases down a group. These
trends help — the behavior of elements in chemical reactions, which is crucial for understanding their reactivity and
for applications in fields like material science and chemistry.
Q12: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obscure
B) predict
C) ignore
D) confuse

Passage 13
Acid-base reactions are common in everyday life and are important for maintaining balance in various biological
and chemical processes. For instance, the human stomach uses hydrochloric acid to digest food, while antacids
neutralize excess stomach acid to relieve discomfort. Additionally, acid-base reactions are crucial in cleaning
products, where acids and bases react to break down stains or dirt. Understanding the pH of substances is key —
their proper use in daily life.
Q13: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restrict
B) neutralize
C) ignore
D) isolate

Passage 14: The chemical composition of plastics and their environmental effects
Plastics are synthetic materials made from polymers, which are long chains of molecules. These polymers are
derived from petrochemicals and contain carbon, hydrogen, and sometimes other elements. While plastics are
versatile and durable, their environmental impact is concerning. Due to their resistance to decomposition, plastics
persist in the environment for centuries, contributing to pollution, particularly in oceans. Efforts are being made —
develop biodegradable plastics and improve recycling methods to reduce their environmental footprint.
Q14: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) worsen
B) mitigate
C) avoid
D) ignore

Passage 15: The role of carbon in organic chemistry

Carbon is the foundation of organic chemistry because of its ability to form stable bonds with other carbon atoms
and a variety of other elements, including hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. This bonding versatility allows carbon to
form the backbone of molecules like carbohydrates, proteins, and DNA. Organic chemistry studies these carbon-
based compounds, which are essential to life, including the formation of complex molecules in living organisms and
the environment. —
Q15: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restrict
B) enable
C) complicate
D) destroy

Passage 16: The principles of the conservation of mass in chemical reactions

The conservation of mass is a fundamental principle in chemistry stating that mass is neither created nor destroyed
during a chemical reaction. Instead, the total mass of the reactants is always equal to the total mass of the
products. This principle is crucial for balancing chemical equations and for understanding the stoichiometry of
reactions. It ensures that matter is conserved and can be traced through the entire process of a reaction. —
Q16: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) violated
B) confirmed
C) ignored
D) disputed

Passage 17
Water’s polarity, due to its uneven distribution of charge, makes it an excellent solvent for many substances,
particularly those involved in biological processes. Its ability to dissolve a wide range of compounds allows it to
transport nutrients, gases, and waste products throughout living organisms. Additionally, water’s polarity
contributes to its high heat capacity, which helps organisms maintain stable internal temperatures. Water’s
properties are essential — maintaining life and supporting various biochemical reactions.
Q17: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) essential
C) ignored
D) complicated
Passage 18: The chemistry of greenhouse gases and their impact on global warming
Greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide, are responsible for trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere, leading to the greenhouse effect. While this effect is necessary for maintaining life-supporting
temperatures, an excess of these gases, primarily due to human activities like burning fossil fuels, has led to an
increase in global temperatures. This phenomenon, known as global warming, contributes to rising sea levels,
altered weather patterns, and environmental disruptions worldwide. —
Q18: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) decreased
B) intensified
C) isolated
D) ignored
Passage 19
Ionic bonds are formed when one atom donates an electron to another, resulting in the formation of charged ions
that attract each other. In contrast, covalent bonds form when two atoms share electrons to achieve a stable
electron configuration. Ionic bonds are typically found in salts, such as sodium chloride, while covalent bonds are
common in molecules like water and oxygen. The main difference between these bonds lies in the way electrons
are shared or transferred. —
Q19: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) confuse
B) differentiate
C) complicate
D) ignore
Passage 20
Polymers are long-chain molecules made from repeating subunits called monomers. They are incredibly versatile
materials used in a wide range of applications, from everyday products like clothing and packaging to advanced
medical devices. The properties of polymers, such as their flexibility, strength, and durability, depend on the type of
monomers used and how they are arranged. Polymers can be natural, like rubber and DNA, or synthetic, like nylon
and polyester. —
Q20: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) complicate
B) enable
C) restrict
D) confuse
Plant Growth Patterns in Different Soil Types
# Species Sandy Soil Clay Soil Total Percent Found in Clay Soil
1 Salvia lanata 10 20 30 66.7%
2 Petunia alba 60 80 140 57.1%
3 Lupinus spp. 90 110 200 55.0%
4 Ageratum houstonianum 120 180 300 60.0%
5 Tagetes patula 50 70 120 58.3%
A botanical study focused on how juvenile plants from five different species grew in sandy soil versus clay soil.
Researchers noted that a higher percentage of juvenile plants grew in clay soil, suggesting that the soil type
provided a more suitable environment for early development.
Q21: Which choice best describes data from the table that supports the researchers' conclusion?
A) For all species, fewer than half of the juvenile plants were found in clay soil.
B) Ageratum houstonianum had the highest percentage of juvenile plants growing in clay soil.
C) For each species, the percentage of juvenile plants found in clay soil was notably higher than what would be
expected in sandy soil.
D) The species that grew in sandy soil outnumbered those found in clay soil.
Food Consumption and Growth Patterns of Aquatic Species in Two Different Ecosystems
# Species Freshwater Marine Total Percent Found in
Marine Ecosystems
1 Largemouth bass 30 60 90 66.7%
2 Clownfish 100 120 220 54.5%
3 Bluegill sunfish 150 180 330 54.5%
4 Coral trout 40 90 130 69.2%
5 Sharks 75 135 210 64.3%
A study observed the food consumption and growth patterns of aquatic species across two ecosystems, freshwater
and marine. Researchers found that certain species, such as the coral trout, were more likely to thrive in marine
ecosystems than in freshwater ones, providing evidence that some aquatic species are better suited to certain
environmental conditions.
Q22: Which choice best describes data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) More than half of all species showed a preference for freshwater ecosystems.
B) Coral trout had the highest percentage of juveniles growing in marine ecosystems.
C) All species showed a significant preference for marine ecosystems.
D) The number of species in marine ecosystems was higher than in freshwater ecosystems.
Passage 23
In Wuthering Heights, nature is a powerful symbol that reflects the turbulent emotions of the characters. The
harsh, wild landscape surrounding Wuthering Heights mirrors the stormy, obsessive relationship between Heathcliff
and Catherine. In contrast, the more peaceful setting of Thrushcross Grange represents order and calm, providing a
sanctuary from the chaos of Wuthering Heights. Through these contrasting environments, Brontë uses nature to
symbolize the conflict between passion and reason, as well as the destructive force of unbridled emotions.
Q23: Which choice best explains the symbolic relationship between nature and the characters in Wuthering
Heights?
A) The wild, untamed nature of Wuthering Heights represents the emotional chaos of the characters.
B) The peaceful environment of Thrushcross Grange symbolizes the natural harmony in Catherine and Heathcliff’s
relationship.
C) The novel suggests that nature has no significant symbolic role in the development of the characters’ emotions.
D) The contrasting settings of Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange reflect the tension between reason and
passion.
Passage 24
In A Tale of Two Cities, Sydney Carton’s character is defined by his deep love for Lucie Manette, despite his belief
that he is unworthy of her affection. Carton’s sacrifice of his life for the happiness of Lucie and her family
symbolizes the transformative power of love and selflessness. Through Carton’s ultimate act of sacrifice, Dickens
explores themes of redemption and the idea that true love requires sacrifice, highlighting the nobility of self-
sacrifice for the greater good.
Q24: Which choice best reflects the theme of love and sacrifice in A Tale of Two Cities?
A) Carton’s sacrifice shows that true love involves giving up one’s own desires for the happiness of others.
B) Carton’s sacrifice is irrelevant to the plot, as he does not have a significant relationship with Lucie.
C) Lucie’s love for Darnay motivates Carton to make his sacrifice, but Carton does not love her in return.
D) Carton’s sacrifice is motivated by a desire for recognition, not love or redemption.
Passage 25
In 1453, English King Henry VI became unfit to rule after falling gravely ill. As a result, Parliament appointed Richard,
Third Duke of York, who had a strong claim to the English throne, to rule as Lord Protector. Upon recovering two
years later, _______ forcing an angered Richard from the royal court and precipitating a series of battles later
known as the Wars of the Roses.
Q25. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) Henry resumed his reign,
B) the reign of Henry resumed,
C) Henry’s reign resumed,
D) it was Henry who resumed his reign,
Passage 26:
A student is exploring the role of technology in modern education:
 Online learning platforms provide flexibility and accessibility for students.
 Educational apps can personalize learning experiences and track progress.
 Technology helps bridge gaps in education by reaching underserved communities.
 Overuse of technology in classrooms, however, may reduce interpersonal interaction.
Q26: The student wants to highlight how technology improves access to education. Which choice best reflects
this idea?
A). Online learning platforms and apps make education more accessible and personalized for students.
B). Technology bridges gaps in education by providing tools to underserved communities and promoting flexibility
in learning.
C). Educational apps allow for progress tracking and personalized experiences, enhancing the quality of learning.
D). While technology provides flexibility in education, it may reduce in-person interaction.
Passage 27:
A student is analyzing the role of renewable energy sources in reducing environmental pollution:
 Solar and wind energy are clean, renewable sources that do not emit greenhouse gases.
 Fossil fuels, such as coal and oil, are major contributors to air and water pollution.
 The transition to renewable energy can significantly lower carbon emissions and slow climate change.
 Investments in renewable energy infrastructure can create jobs and promote sustainable economic growth.
Q27: The student wants to emphasize the environmental advantages of renewable energy sources. Which choice
most effectively highlights these benefits?
A). Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind, produce no greenhouse gases, helping to mitigate climate
change and reduce pollution.
B). The use of fossil fuels contributes to air and water pollution, which can be mitigated by adopting renewable
energy sources.
C). Investing in renewable energy can drive economic growth while addressing environmental concerns.
D). Transitioning to clean energy sources can lower carbon emissions, promoting a sustainable future.
Math
Module 1
Q1. What is 12% of 350?
A) 36
B) 42
C) 45
D) 40
Q2. 3x + 5 = 20
Which equation has the same solution as the given equation?
A) 3x = 15
B) 3x = 10
C) 3x = 25
D) 3x = 30
Q3. The total cost, in dollars, to rent a bicycle consists of a $10 service fee and a $7 per hour rental fee. A person
rents the bicycle for h hours and intends to spend a maximum of $50 to rent the bicycle. Which inequality
represents this situation?
A) 7h ≤ 50
B) 7 + 10h ≤ 50
C) 10 + 7h ≤ 50
D) 10h ≤ 50
Q4. The function f is defined by f(x) = 4x + 3. For which value of x is f(x) = 19?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 5
Q5. Each face of a fair 8-sided die is labeled with a number from 1 through 8. If the die is rolled one time, what is
the probability of rolling a 5?
A) 1/8
B) 2/8
C) 1/4
D) 3/8
Q6. A printer produces 60 posters every minute. At what rate, in posters per hour, does the printer produce the
posters?
A) 600
B) 1200
C) 3600
D) 7200
Q7. The function g is defined by the equation g(x) = 5x - 8. What is the value of g(x) when x = 6?
A) 22
B) 18
C) 28
D) 30
Q8. A teacher is creating a test worth 90 points. The test will consist of questions worth 2 points and questions
worth 4 points. Which equation represents this situation, where x represents the number of 2-point questions
and y represents the number of 4-point questions?
A) 2x + 4y = 90
B) x + 4y = 90
C) 2x + y = 90
D) 4x + 2y = 90
Q9. Right triangles ABC and XYZ are similar, where A and B correspond to X and Y, respectively. Angle B has a
measure of 45°. What is the measure of angle Y?
A) 45°
B) 60°
C) 75°
D) 90°
Q10. The system of equations is given as follows:
x+y=7
3x + y = 15
The solution to this system of equations is (x, y). What is the value of x?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q11. A bookstore sells a particular book for $12 each. The store has an offer where if you buy 3 books, you get a
discount of $5. If a customer buys 6 books, how much will they pay after the discount?
A) $66
B) $70
C) $72
D) $78
Q12. A swimmer is training in a pool. Initially, she swims 100 meters in 2 minutes. If she swims at the same rate,
how many meters will she swim in 5 minutes?
A) 200 meters
B) 250 meters
C) 300 meters
D) 400 meters
Q13. A family has two cars. The first car uses 5 liters of gasoline to travel 30 kilometers, while the second car uses
7 liters of gasoline to travel 35 kilometers. Which car has a better fuel efficiency?
A) The first car
B) The second car
C) Both cars have the same efficiency
D) The second car uses less fuel
Q14. A bag contains 3 red, 2 blue, and 5 green marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, what is the probability of
drawing a blue marble?
A) 2/10
B) 2/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/5
Q15. A delivery truck carries 40 boxes, and each box weighs 8 kg. How much does the truck carry in total?
A) 320 kg
B) 350 kg
C) 400 kg
D) 450 kg
Q16. A rectangle has a length of 15 cm and a width of 6 cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
A) 30 cm
B) 36 cm
C) 42 cm
D) 60 cm
Q17. A car travels 120 kilometers in 2 hours. If the car continues at the same speed, how far will it travel in 5
hours?
A) 200 kilometers
B) 240 kilometers
C) 250 kilometers
D) 260 kilometers
Q18. A worker earns $15 per hour and works for 40 hours in a week. How much does the worker earn in a week?
A) $500
B) $550
C) $600
D) $650
Q19. A person invests $500 in a savings account with an interest rate of 4% per year. How much interest will the
person earn in 2 years?
A) $20
B) $40
C) $50
D) $60
Q20. The total cost, in dollars, to rent a bicycle consists of a $10 service fee and a $5 per hour rental fee. A person
rents a bicycle for t hours and intends to spend no more than $30. Which inequality represents this situation?
A) 5t ≤ 30
B) 10 + 5t ≤ 30
C) 10 + t ≤ 30
D) 10t ≤ 30
Q21. A survey found the following distribution of the number of hours students spend on homework per week:
Hours Frequency
1 4
2 5
3 6
4 8
5 9
6 3
The total number of students surveyed is 35. What is the maximum number of hours spent on homework in this
data set?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Q22. A rectangle has a length of 8 units and a width of 5 units. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 26
D) 40
Module 2
Q1. What is 25% of 180?
A) 45
B) 50
C) 60
D) 55
Q2. Simplify: 5(x + 4) - 3x.
A) 2x + 20
B) 5x + 20
C) 2x + 4
D) 5x + 4
Q3. Solve for x: 4x + 7 = 19.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 7
Q4. Solve the inequality: 3x - 2 ≥ 10.
A) x ≥ 4
B) x ≥ 3
C) x ≥ 5
D) x ≤ 4
Q5. Solve for x: 2x + 3 < 11.
A) x < 4
B) x > 4
C) x < 5
D) x > 5
Q6. Solve for y: 5y + 6 ≤ 16.
A) y ≤ 2
B) y ≥ 2
C) y ≤ 4
D) y ≥ 4
Q7. The equation of a line is given by 2x - 3y = 6. What is the slope of the line?
A) 2/3
B) -2/3
C) 3/2
D) -3/2
Q8. Which of the following represents the equation of a line parallel to the line y = 2x - 5?
A) y = 2x + 3
B) y = -2x + 3
C) y = -2x - 5
D) y = 3x - 5
Q9. What is the slope of the line that passes through the points (1, 2) and (4, 8)?
A) 2
B) 1/2
C) 3
D) 1
Q10. What is the y-intercept of the line 3x - 4y = 12?
A) 3
B) -3
C) 4
D) -4
Q11. The function f(x) = 3x + 7 defines a straight line. What is the slope of this line?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 0
D) -3
Q12. A circle has a center at (4, -3) and a radius of 5 units. What is the equation of this circle?
A) (x - 4)² + (y + 3)² = 5
B) (x + 4)² + (y - 3)² = 5
C) (x - 4)² + (y - 3)² = 25
D) (x + 4)² + (y + 3)² = 25
Q13. A triangle has angles with measures of 40°, 60°, and x°. What is the value of x?
A) 80°
B) 70°
C) 90°
D) 100°
Q14. The number of students in a classroom is 30. If 18 are boys, how many are girls?
A) 12
B) 10
C) 18
D) 15
Q15. The volume of a cylinder is given by the formula V = πr²h, where r is the radius and h is the height. If the
radius is 3 units and the height is 4 units, what is the volume of the cylinder?
A) 36π
B) 24π
C) 9π
D) 12π
Q16. A bag contains 5 red balls, 3 blue balls, and 2 green balls. What is the probability of drawing a red ball from
the bag?
A) 5/10
B) 5/12
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
Q17. The equation of a line is given by y = 4x + 2. What is the y-intercept of this line?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 0
D) -3
Q18. If a rectangle's length is 12 units and its width is 8 units, what is its area?
A) 20
B) 96
C) 48
D) 60
Q19. What is the area of a circle with a radius of 5 units?
A) 25π
B) 10π
C) 15π
D) 50π
Q20. A rectangular prism has dimensions 4 cm by 6 cm by 8 cm. What is its volume?
A) 48 cm³
B) 88 cm³
C) 96 cm³
D) 108 cm³
Q21. If two triangles are congruent, which of the following is true?
A) Their corresponding angles and sides are equal.
B) Their corresponding angles are equal, but their sides may differ.
C) Their corresponding sides are equal, but their angles may differ.
D) Their corresponding sides and angles are different.
Q22. In triangle ABC, angle A measures 40° and angle B measures 60°. What is the measure of angle C?
A) 80°
B) 90°
C) 100°
D) 120°
PRACTICE TEST 2
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, radically altered the political landscape of France and led to the
eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. The revolution __________ the monarchy and the old feudal order, replacing
them with new ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity. Amidst the chaos of the revolution, Napoleon’s military
successes and political acumen allowed him to seize power, eventually declaring himself Emperor of France.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) halted
B) initiated
C) ignored
D) obstructed
Passage 2
The Haitian Revolution, which started in 1791, was fueled by the oppressive conditions endured by enslaved
Africans on French plantations in Saint-Domingue. Inspired by the French Revolution’s call for liberty and equality,
the enslaved population, led by figures like Toussaint L'Ouverture, fought for their freedom. The revolution not only
ended slavery but also __________ the establishment of Haiti as the first independent black republic in the
Western Hemisphere.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) strengthened
C) justified
D) challenged
Passage 3
In the mid-19th century, Otto von Bismarck played a key role in the unification of Germany. Through a series of
diplomatic maneuvers and military victories, Bismarck united the German states under Prussian leadership. His use
of "realpolitik," which emphasized practical and strategic decision-making, allowed him to outmaneuver both
external and internal opponents, __________ in the formation of the German Empire in 1871.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) impeded
B) initiated
C) obstructed
D) revived
Passage 4
During the Victorian era, the British Empire expanded its influence across Africa, Asia, and the Pacific, solidifying its
position as the largest empire in history. The British sought to control trade routes, extract resources, and spread
their cultural and political values to the colonies. This expansion __________ Britain’s industrial power and a
strategic move to assert dominance in global affairs.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restricted
B) hindered
C) bolstered
D) concealed
Passage 5
The American Revolution, which culminated in 1783 with the Treaty of Paris, resulted in the United States gaining
independence from Great Britain. Following the revolution, the newly formed states struggled to create a unified
government. The U.S. Constitution, drafted in 1787, addressed these challenges by __________ a federal system
with checks and balances. This document has since become a foundational element of American governance.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) compromised
B) solidified
C) undermined
D) ignored
Passage 6
Simón Bolívar, known as "El Libertador," was a key figure in the independence movements of South America.
Bolívar led military campaigns against Spanish rule in present-day Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Bolivia.
His vision of a united Latin America, although never fully realized, __________ a lasting legacy in the region’s fight
for sovereignty and self-determination.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) inspired
C) challenged
D) ignored
Passage 7
The Industrial Revolution, which began in the late 18th century in Britain, transformed economies around the
world. Innovations in machinery, transportation, and manufacturing processes led to rapid urbanization and the
growth of factory systems. These changes not only increased productivity but also had profound social effects,
including __________ in labor patterns and the rise of new economic classes.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) impeded
B) reversed
C) amplified
D) ignored
Passage 8
The Meiji Restoration, which began in 1868, marked a period of rapid modernization in Japan. The ruling Meiji
Emperor implemented sweeping reforms, including the establishment of a centralized government,
industrialization, and the adoption of Western technologies and military practices. These changes __________
Japan into a major global power by the early 20th century.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) delayed
C) spurred
D) ignored
Passage 9
The Russian Revolution of 1917 was driven by widespread dissatisfaction with the autocratic rule of Tsar Nicholas II
and the dire conditions faced by workers and peasants. The revolution resulted in the abdication of the Tsar and
the establishment of a communist government led by Vladimir Lenin. This event not only __________ centuries of
Romanov rule but also set the stage for the creation of the Soviet Union.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforced
B) disrupted
C) undermined
D) preserved
Passage 10
The transatlantic slave trade, which forcibly transported millions of Africans to the Americas, was a key component
of the global economy in the 17th and 18th centuries. However, growing moral and economic concerns, along with
the efforts of abolitionists, led to its decline. In 1807, Britain passed the Abolition Act, which __________ a
significant step toward ending the trade.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resisted
B) delayed
C) accelerated
D) halted
Passage 11
In 2014, Amelia Quon and her team at NASA set out to build a helicopter capable of flying on Mars. Because Mars’s
atmosphere is only one percent as dense as Earth’s, the air of Mars would not provide enough resistance to the
rotating blades of a standard helicopter for the aircraft to stay aloft. For five years, Quon’s team tested designs in a
lab that mimicked Mars’s atmospheric conditions. The craft the team ultimately designed can fly on Mars because
its blades are longer and rotate faster than those of a helicopter of the same size built for Earth.
Q11: According to the text, why would a helicopter built for Earth be unable to fly on Mars?
A) Because Mars and Earth have different atmospheric conditions
B) Because the blades of helicopters built for Earth are too large to work on Mars
C) Because the gravity of Mars is much weaker than the gravity of Earth
D) Because helicopters built for Earth are too small to handle the conditions on Mars
Passage 12
The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form
to another. The Second Law introduces the concept of entropy, which describes the tendency of energy to disperse
and spread out. In an isolated system, this means that energy eventually becomes less useful for doing work. Over
time, the amount of usable energy decreases as entropy increases.
Q12: According to the passage, what does the Second Law of Thermodynamics describe?
A) The conservation of energy in all systems
B) The tendency of energy to disperse and become less useful
C) The process by which energy is created from matter
D) The relationship between temperature and energy transfer
Passage 13
Newton’s First Law of Motion, often referred to as the Law of Inertia, states that an object at rest will stay at rest,
and an object in motion will stay in motion, unless acted upon by an external force. This principle is fundamental in
understanding how objects move and interact in the physical world. It highlights that an object’s motion does not
change unless an external force, such as friction or a push, is applied.
Q13: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) accelerates
B) changes
C) resists
D) remains
Passage 14
In the field of quantum mechanics, the behavior of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels is governed by
principles that seem strange when compared to classical physics. One such principle is the uncertainty principle,
which states that it is impossible to know both the exact position and momentum of a particle at the same time.
This limitation fundamentally challenges our traditional understanding of measurement and predictability in the
physical world.
Q14: Based on the passage, what is one of the key ideas introduced by the uncertainty principle?
A) The position and momentum of a particle can be precisely measured at the same time
B) Classical physics can accurately describe the behavior of particles at all levels
C) There is a limit to how much we can know about a particle’s properties simultaneously
D) Measurement of particles is always accurate regardless of the method used
Passage 15
The concept of entropy is crucial in thermodynamics, referring to the measure of disorder or randomness in a
system. As entropy increases, systems tend to move toward states of higher disorder. This principle explains why
natural processes, such as the melting of ice or the expansion of gases, occur spontaneously — because they lead to
an increase in entropy, which reflects a move toward greater disorder.
Q15: According to the passage, why do natural processes occur spontaneously?
A) Because they lead to an increase in order
B) Because they lead to a decrease in entropy
C) Because they reflect a movement toward greater disorder
D) Because they are caused by external forces
Passage 16
In the early 20th century, the concept of special relativity, introduced by Albert Einstein, revolutionized our
understanding of space and time. Special relativity shows that the laws of physics are the same for all observers
moving at constant speed, and it also demonstrates that time and space are interconnected and relative to the
speed of an observer. This theory led to the groundbreaking idea that time can be dilated, or stretched, depending
on how fast one is moving.
Q16: According to the passage, what does the theory of special relativity suggest about time and space?
A) They are absolute and unaffected by motion
B) They are interconnected and relative to the speed of the observer
C) They function independently of the laws of physics
D) They remain constant in all frames of reference
Passage 17
During the Renaissance, Europe experienced a surge in interest in the arts, science, and humanism. Artists like
Leonardo da Vinci and Michelangelo produced works that emphasized the human form and sought to portray the
natural world with more realism. This period marked a sharp departure from the medieval focus on religious
themes, instead celebrating the potential of human achievement and intellectual curiosity.
Q17: What is one key feature of Renaissance art as mentioned in the passage?
A) A focus on religious symbolism and medieval traditions
B) A depiction of the human form and natural world with greater realism
C) A concentration on abstract forms and geometric shapes
D) A rejection of humanism in favor of divine themes
Passage 18
The theory of plate tectonics explains the movement of Earth's lithosphere, which is divided into several large
plates that float atop the semi-fluid asthenosphere. These tectonic plates are constantly in motion, driven by the
heat and pressure from within the Earth's mantle. The movement of these plates causes the formation of
mountains, earthquakes, and volcanic activity, and also explains the distribution of continents and ocean basins.
Q18: According to the passage, what does the theory of plate tectonics help explain?
A) The rotation of Earth’s core
B) The movement of Earth's lithosphere and related geological phenomena
C) The origin of ocean currents
D) The cooling process of the Earth’s outer crust
Passage 19
The Great Depression, which began in 1929, had severe economic consequences for countries around the world. In
the United States, millions of people lost their jobs and homes, while businesses failed at an alarming rate. In
response, President Franklin D. Roosevelt implemented a series of government programs known as the New Deal,
which aimed to provide relief to the unemployed, promote economic recovery, and reform the financial system to
prevent future crises.
Q19: According to the passage, what was the purpose of the New Deal?
A) To encourage private investment in banks
B) To reduce the size of the government and cut public spending
C) To provide relief to the unemployed and promote economic recovery
D) To increase tariffs and protect domestic industries
Passage 20
The theory of natural selection, proposed by Charles Darwin, suggests that species evolve over time through a
process of gradual changes. In this process, individuals with traits that are advantageous for survival and
reproduction are more likely to pass those traits on to future generations. Over many generations, this leads to the
development of new species adapted to their environments.
Q20: What does the theory of natural selection propose?
A) Species remain unchanged over time
B) Traits that help with survival and reproduction are passed on to future generations
C) Evolution occurs through sudden and dramatic changes
D) Natural environments have no impact on species development
Passage 21
In the field of economics, supply and demand are two of the most important concePractice Test for understanding
how markets function. When demand for a product increases and supply remains constant, prices tend to rise.
Conversely, when supply exceeds demand, prices generally fall. These principles help to determine the equilibrium
price, where the amount of a product demanded by consumers matches the amount supplied by producers.
Q21: According to the passage, what happens when demand increases but supply remains constant?
A) Prices tend to fall
B) Prices tend to rise
C) The equilibrium price remains unchanged
D) The amount of supply increases
Passage 22
The discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in 1928 revolutionized medicine. Prior to this discovery, bacterial
infections were often fatal, as there were no effective treatments. Penicillin, the first widely used antibiotic, was
able to kill bacteria and prevent the spread of infections, saving countless lives and changing the course of medical
history.
Q22: What was the significance of the discovery of penicillin?
A) It led to the creation of vaccines for infectious diseases
B) It provided a cure for all bacterial infections
C) It revolutionized medicine by allowing effective treatment of bacterial infections
D) It marked the beginning of medical treatments based on herbal remedies
Passage 23
Food Consumption and Growth Patterns of Aquatic Species in Two Different Ecosystems
# Species Freshwater Marine Total Percent Found in
Marine Ecosystems
1 Largemouth bass 30 60 90 66.7%
2 Clownfish 100 120 220 54.5%
3 Bluegill sunfish 150 180 330 54.5%
4 Coral trout 40 90 130 69.2%
5 Sharks 75 135 210 64.3%
A study observed the food consumption and growth patterns of aquatic species across two ecosystems, freshwater
and marine. Researchers found that certain species, such as the coral trout, were more likely to thrive in marine
ecosystems than in freshwater ones, providing evidence that some aquatic species are better suited to certain
environmental conditions.
Q23: Which choice best describes data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) More than half of all species showed a preference for freshwater ecosystems.
B) Coral trout had the highest percentage of juveniles growing in marine ecosystems.
C) All species showed a significant preference for marine ecosystems.
D) The number of species in marine ecosystems was higher than in freshwater ecosystems.
Passage 24
Urban vs. Rural Plant Distribution in Three Species

# Species Urban Areas Rural Areas Total Percent Found in

Urban Areas
1 Chrysanthemum 10 40 50 20.0%
indicum
2 Soleirolia soleirolii 120 80 200 60.0%
3 Ipomoea batatas 60 90 150 40.0%
Researchers studied how three plant species were distributed in urban versus rural areas. They found that some
species were more commonly found in urban environments, while others favored rural areas. The researchers
concluded that urbanization can impact plant distribution patterns.
Q24: Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the researchers' conclusion?
A) For all three species, a majority of the plants were found in urban areas.
B) Soleirolia soleirolii was the most likely species to be found in urban areas compared to the other two species.
C) Chrysanthemum indicum showed a higher percentage in urban areas than the other two species.
D) More plants were found in rural areas for each species compared to urban areas.
Text 1
In recent decades, the rapid expansion of urban areas has raised concerns about the sustainability of green spaces.
Urban planners and environmentalists have long debated whether cities can maintain a balance between
development and environmental conservation. While some argue that green spaces can coexist with urban growth,
others believe that continued urban sprawl will inevitably lead to the loss of natural areas.
Text 2
Urban ecologists have found that, contrary to traditional beliefs, green spaces can thrive in densely populated
cities. Their research indicates that cities can incorporate parks, rooftop gardens, and green roofs into existing
infrastructure, which allows urban environments to support biodiversity. Furthermore, they suggest that the
strategic placement of green spaces can improve air quality, reduce urban heat islands, and even provide
recreational areas for residents.
Q25: Based on the texts, how would urban ecologists (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns discussed in
Text 1?
A) By suggesting that the loss of green spaces is inevitable as cities grow
B) By proposing that green spaces can be integrated into urban areas without compromising development
C) By agreeing that urban sprawl will always result in environmental degradation
D) By recommending that cities focus solely on preserving natural areas rather than expanding urban growth
Text 3
The theory of classical conditioning, first developed by Ivan Pavlov, suggests that learning occurs through
associations between stimuli. In his famous experiment, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell
by repeatedly pairing the sound with food. Over time, the dogs learned to associate the bell with food, even in the
absence of the actual food.
Text 4
Modern psychologists have expanded on Pavlov’s theory by suggesting that classical conditioning is not limited to
simple reflexes, but also plays a significant role in emotional responses and behaviors. For example, they argue that
people can develop phobias or emotional attachments to certain stimuli based on previous experiences. This
research has led to the understanding that classical conditioning is involved in a wide range of human behavior,
from addiction to relationship dynamics.
Q26: Based on the texts, how would modern psychologists (Text 4) most likely respond to the ideas presented in
Text 3?
A) By emphasizing that classical conditioning only explains automatic reflexes and has no role in emotional
behaviors
B) By proposing that classical conditioning also influences emotional responses and complex behaviors
C) By suggesting that Pavlov’s experiment does not apply to human behavior
D) By recommending that classical conditioning be studied exclusively in controlled lab environments
Passage 27
A student is researching the impact of automation on the workforce:
• Automation has the potential to increase productivity and efficiency in various industries.
• While automation can create new job opportunities in technology and engineering fields, it may also displace
workers in traditional manufacturing roles.
• The introduction of automation often requires workers to acquire new skills, leading to shifts in the labor market.
• Some argue that automation will lead to widespread job loss and economic inequality, while others believe it will
create a more productive and prosperous society.
Q27. The student wants to summarize the impact of automation on the workforce. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) Automation increases productivity and creates new job opportunities but may also displace workers in certain
industries.
B) Automation has no significant impact on the workforce and does not require any changes to labor markets.
C) Automation is purely beneficial to the workforce, creating jobs without any negative consequences.
D) Automation leads to widespread job loss and economic inequality, with no potential for positive outcomes.
Module 2
Passage 1
The Renaissance, which began in the 14th century, marked a profound transformation in European intellectual and
cultural life. This period saw a resurgence of interest in classical Greek and Roman thought, leading to
advancements in art, science, and philosophy. Figures such as Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, and Copernicus
challenged medieval notions, laying the groundwork for the modern scientific method. This intellectual revival
__________ the trajectory of Western thought, influencing subsequent centuries of inquiry and innovation.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) halted
B) accelerated
C) obscured
D) ignored
Passage 2
Christopher Columbus's voyages were not only significant for the discovery of the New World but also for the long-
term consequences they had on the Americas. The intercontinental exchange of goods, diseases, and ideas that
followed, often referred to as the Columbian Exchange, dramatically altered the social, economic, and political
landscape of the Americas. The influx of European diseases, in particular, __________ indigenous populations,
leading to demographic collapse and societal upheaval.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) revitalized
B) devastated
C) neutralized
D) enhanced
Passage 3
Henry the Navigator's contributions to the Age of Exploration were pivotal in expanding European influence across
the globe. By financing voyages along Africa's west coast and supporting the development of navigation techniques,
he played a key role in advancing maritime technology. His efforts __________ the establishment of critical trade
routes to Asia and the Americas, altering global economic patterns for centuries.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) hastened
C) redefined
D) restricted
Passage 4
Martin Luther’s 95 Theses, posted in 1517, sparked the Protestant Reformation, which radically transformed the
religious landscape of Europe. His critique of the Catholic Church, particularly regarding the sale of indulgences,
catalyzed widespread dissent. Luther’s actions __________ the authority of the papacy and initiated profound
theological debates that reshaped European religious life.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) confirmed
B) undermined
C) magnified
D) ignored
Passage 5
The Columbian Exchange, which began after Columbus’s voyages in 1492, reshaped the global economy and had
profound consequences on the populations of both the Old and New Worlds. The exchange of crops, animals, and
technologies benefited European economies, but it also led to the spread of diseases that devastated indigenous
populations. The movement of goods and people during this period __________ the foundations for the modern
global economy and interconnected trade systems.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reversed
B) solidified
C) complicated
D) expanded
Passage 6
The Portuguese Empire, during the Age of Exploration, established an expansive network of trade routes that
spanned the globe. The explorers, under the patronage of Henry the Navigator, were instrumental in mapping
uncharted waters and establishing strategic trade posts along the coast of Africa and Asia. These efforts
__________ Portugal’s status as a maritime power, with far-reaching impacts on both global trade and geopolitics.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) enhanced
C) hindered
D) stifled
Passage 7
Galileo Galilei's work during the Scientific Revolution transformed the field of astronomy. His support for the
heliocentric theory, along with his improvements to the telescope, provided critical evidence that challenged
established geocentric models. Galileo’s discoveries __________ the course of modern science, prompting a
reevaluation of long-held beliefs about the cosmos.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reversed
B) solidified
C) revolutionized
D) hindered
Passage 8
The Meiji Restoration, which began in 1868, was a period of rapid modernization in Japan. The Meiji Emperor’s
reforms, including the establishment of a centralized government, industrialization, and the adoption of Western
military strategies, __________ Japan into a formidable world power by the early 20th century.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) delayed
C) propelled
D) isolated
Passage 9
The Russian Revolution of 1917, driven by discontent with Tsar Nicholas II's autocratic rule and poor conditions for
workers and peasants, led to the abdication of the Tsar and the establishment of a communist government. This
event __________ the centuries-old Romanov dynasty and set in motion the creation of the Soviet Union.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) solidified
B) revived
C) terminated
D) disrupted
Passage 10
The transatlantic slave trade, which forcibly transported millions of Africans to the Americas, was a central aspect of
the global economy in the 17th and 18th centuries. However, mounting moral objections and the tireless efforts of
abolitionists led to the gradual dismantling of the trade. The British Abolition Act of 1807 __________ a critical step
in the movement toward ending slavery in the British Empire.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resisted
B) advanced
C) hindered
D) preserved
Passage 11
In The Iliad by Homer, the theme of honor is explored through the conflict between Achilles and Agamemnon.
Achilles, the greatest of the Greek warriors, feels dishonored when Agamemnon takes his prize, Briseis. This insult
to his honor leads Achilles to withdraw from the battle, causing a significant shift in the tide of the war. The pursuit
of honor and the consequences of its violation are central to the plot of the epic.
Q11: Which choice best encapsulates the theme of honor in the passage?
A) The pursuit of honor leads to unity and collaboration among the Greeks.
B) Honor is portrayed as a personal pursuit that has wide-reaching consequences.
C) Agamemnon's actions are justified in the name of honor.
D) Honor is a minor theme and does not affect the course of the war.
Passage 12
In Paradise Lost by John Milton, the conflict between free will and divine authority is a central theme. Satan’s
rebellion against God is driven by his desire for autonomy, yet his fall from grace highlights the consequences of
challenging divine authority. The text raises questions about the nature of free will, human responsibility, and the
consequences of exercising choice outside of God’s will.
Q12: Which choice best encapsulates the theme of free will and divine authority in the passage?
A) Satan's rebellion is portrayed as a justified assertion of free will.
B) Free will is depicted as an illusion, with divine authority being absolute.
C) The exercise of free will outside of divine will leads to eternal consequences.
D) Free will and divine authority are reconciled peacefully in the narrative.
Passage 13
In Crime and Punishment by Fyodor Dostoevsky, the theme of guilt is examined through the internal struggles of
the protagonist, Raskolnikov. After committing murder, he experiences intense feelings of guilt and self-loathing.
This psychological torment is a key element of the novel, as Raskolnikov grapples with his conscience and the moral
implications of his actions.
Q13: Which choice best captures the theme of guilt in the passage?
A) Guilt is easily resolved through rational thought and logic.
B) Raskolnikov's guilt leads him to seek redemption and punishment.
C) The theme of guilt is irrelevant to the development of the plot.
D) Guilt is shown to be a trivial emotion, easily ignored by Raskolnikov.
Passage 14
In The Brothers Karamazov by Fyodor Dostoevsky, the nature of faith and doubt is explored through the characters
of the Karamazov brothers. Ivan, the intellectual, struggles with the existence of a benevolent God in a world filled
with suffering, while Alyosha, the devout monk, embraces faith despite the uncertainties. The tension between
faith and doubt is central to the philosophical questions posed in the novel.
Q14: Which choice best captures the theme of faith and doubt in the passage?
A) The characters of Ivan and Alyosha represent a simple conflict between right and wrong.
B) Faith and doubt are explored as opposing forces, each with its own merit.
C) Ivan’s doubt is ultimately proven to be false, while Alyosha’s faith is unshaken.
D) Faith and doubt are resolved in the novel, with no further philosophical questions remaining.
Passage 15
In Dracula by Bram Stoker, the theme of fear is integral to the psychological and emotional tensions of the story.
The characters experience physical fear of the vampire but also grapple with a deeper, more existential fear—fear
of the unknown, fear of death, and fear of losing their humanity. These fears contribute to the sense of dread that
pervades the novel, creating an atmosphere of tension and uncertainty.
Q15: Which choice best encapsulates the theme of fear in the passage?
A) Fear is primarily depicted as an irrational emotion with no impact on the plot.
B) Fear in the novel is solely physical, stemming from encounters with Dracula.
C) Fear of the unknown and death plays a central role in creating tension and dread.
D) Fear in the novel is easily overcome through rational thought.
Passage 16
In Wuthering Heights by Emily Brontë, the theme of revenge is explored through the character of Heathcliff.
Consumed by his desire for vengeance against those who wronged him, Heathcliff’s actions lead to a cycle of
destruction that affects multiple generations. His obsession with revenge prevents him from experiencing peace or
redemption, and his eventual downfall highlights the self-destructive nature of vengeance.
Q16: Which choice best captures the theme of revenge in the passage?
A) Revenge provides Heathcliff with satisfaction and peace.
B) The pursuit of revenge leads to Heathcliff’s personal and familial destruction.
C) Heathcliff’s desire for revenge has no significant consequences.
D) Revenge ultimately brings harmony to the characters in the novel.
Passage 17
In The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald, the theme of the American Dream is critically examined through the
character of Jay Gatsby. Gatsby's relentless pursuit of wealth and status in order to win back his lost love, Daisy,
represents the illusion of the American Dream. Despite his material success, Gatsby's inability to achieve true
happiness reveals the emptiness of this dream.
Q17: Which choice best encapsulates the theme of the American Dream in the passage?
A) The American Dream guarantees success and fulfillment for all who pursue it.
B) Gatsby’s wealth leads to his ultimate happiness, validating the American Dream.
C) The American Dream is shown to be an unattainable illusion that leads to disillusionment.
D) The American Dream is irrelevant to Gatsby's success and failure.
Passage 18
In Heart of Darkness by Joseph Conrad, the theme of imperialism is explored through the character of Kurtz, who
represents the corrupting influence of European colonialism in Africa. As a man who initially went to the Congo
with idealistic intentions, Kurtz becomes consumed by power and greed, demonstrating the moral decay caused by
imperialistic practices.
Q18: Which choice best captures the theme of imperialism in the passage?
A) Imperialism is depicted as a noble and beneficial mission for all involved.
B) Kurtz’s transformation highlights the destructive effects of imperialism on the individual and society.
C) The theme of imperialism is irrelevant to the novel’s main plot.
D) The novel glorifies the European colonial project in Africa.
Passage 19:
In the past, students often relied on printed textbooks and classroom lectures to learn. However, with the rise of
online education, students now have access to a vast array of digital resources. Some schools have embraced this
shift, allowing students to access materials and participate in courses _______ the constraints of traditional
classrooms.
Q19: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) beyond
B) beyonds
C) beyonde
D) beyonding
Passage 20:
The effects of deforestation on biodiversity are well-documented. As forests are cleared for agriculture and urban
development, many species lose their natural habitats. This loss of habitat _______ a decline in the populations of
numerous plant and animal species. Conservation efforts, including the establishment of protected areas, are
critical in reversing this trend and protecting remaining ecosystems.
Q20: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) result
B) resulted
C) results
D) result in
Dietary Preferences of Carnivorous and Herbivorous Mammals
# Species Carnivore Diet Herbivore Diet Total Percent on
Herbivore Diet

1 Cheetah 60 10 70 14.3%
2 Lion 100 20 120 16.7%
3 Elephant 5 95 100 95.0%
4 Giraffe 10 90 100 90.0%
A research team studying the diets of various mammal species found that the majority of herbivorous mammals
consumed primarily plant-based diets, while carnivorous mammals predominantly relied on meat-based diets.
Q21: Which choice most effectively describes data from the table that supports the researchers' claim?
A) The majority of herbivores in the study consumed plants exclusively.
B) Cheetahs were the most herbivorous species among the studied mammals.
C) Lions preferred a diet of plants rather than meat.
D) Elephants were primarily carnivorous compared to giraffes.
Effectiveness of Different Watering Regimes on Plant Growth
# Species Frequent Moderate Infrequent Total Percent on
Watering Watering Watering Frequent
Watering
1 Rose 60 30 10 100 60.0%
2 Tulip 70 20 10 100 70.0%
3 Sunflower 40 50 10 100 40.0%
4 Daisy 30 50 20 100 30.0%
A study was conducted to determine how different watering regimes affected plant growth in four species. It was
found that frequent watering led to the highest growth rates for most species.
Q22: Which choice best describes data from the table that supports the study’s conclusion?
A) All species showed higher growth under infrequent watering.
B) Tulips had the greatest growth in moderate watering conditions.
C) Most plants grew best under frequent watering conditions.
D) Daisies had the highest growth in frequent watering conditions.
Text 1
The concept of democracy has evolved significantly over the centuries. In ancient Athens, democracy was a direct
system where citizens participated in decision-making. Over time, representative democracy emerged, where
elected officials made decisions on behalf of the people. In the modern world, democracy is considered a
fundamental principle of governance in many nations, though debates continue about the effectiveness and
fairness of democratic systems in diverse societies.
Text 2
Critics of modern democratic systems argue that they often lead to political polarization and ineffective
governance. They contend that special interest groups and money play an outsized role in the political process,
undermining the democratic ideal of equal representation. Proponents of reform advocate for measures such as
campaign finance reform, proportional representation, and increased civic engagement to address these issues and
strengthen democracy.
Q23: Based on the texts, how would critics of modern democratic systems (Text 2) most likely respond to the
idealization of democracy discussed in Text 1?
A) By suggesting that democratic systems should be abolished in favor of autocratic rule
B) By arguing that modern democracy often fails to live up to its ideals due to the influence of money and special
interests
C) By claiming that democratic systems in the modern world are perfect and require no changes
D) By emphasizing that political polarization is a sign of democracy functioning as intended
Text 3
The development of artificial intelligence (AI) has prompted both excitement and concern. AI has the potential to
revolutionize industries such as healthcare, finance, and transportation, with applications ranging from
personalized medical treatment to self-driving cars. However, there are fears about the impact of AI on jobs,
privacy, and security, with some experts warning that rapid advancements could outpace society’s ability to
regulate and manage these technologies.
Text 4
To address the challenges posed by AI, experts are advocating for the development of ethical frameworks and
regulations that guide the use of AI in society. These include ensuring that AI systems are transparent, accountable,
and aligned with human values. Additionally, some experts propose the establishment of global standards for AI
research and development to ensure that the technology benefits all of humanity while minimizing risks.
Q24: Based on the texts, how would experts advocating for ethical AI development (Text 4) most likely respond
to the concerns about AI’s impact discussed in Text 3?
A) By suggesting that AI should be developed without any ethical regulations to maximize progress
B) By emphasizing the need for clear ethical frameworks and global standards to ensure that AI benefits society and
addresses potential risks
C) By arguing that AI poses no real risks and does not require regulation
D) By claiming that the development of AI should be slowed down to avoid future technological advancements

Q25: A student is researching the impact of physical exercise on mental health:

• Regular exercise can reduce symptoms of anxiety and depression.
• Physical activity increases the production of endorphins, which are natural mood boosters.
• Studies show that exercise can improve cognitive function and memory.
• Aerobic exercises, such as running or swimming, are particularly effective for mental health.
The student wants to summarize the benefits of physical exercise on mental health. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) Exercise increases mood-enhancing endorphins, boosting mental health and cognitive function.
B) Aerobic exercise is key to improving memory, with a focus on reducing anxiety and depression.
C) Regular physical activity is shown to reduce depression and anxiety, improving overall well-being.
D) Exercise, particularly aerobic activity, improves cognitive function and memory, contributing to mental health.

Q26: A student is studying the relationship between diet and heart health:
• Consuming a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains can help lower cholesterol levels.
• High saturated fat and sugar intake are associated with increased risks of heart disease.
• Omega-3 fatty acids found in fish can reduce inflammation and improve heart health.
• Regular consumption of a balanced diet supports overall cardiovascular function.
The student wants to summarize the connection between diet and heart health. Which choice best encapsulates
this idea?
A) A healthy diet reduces heart disease risk by lowering cholesterol and promoting cardiovascular health.
B) Diets high in saturated fats and sugars increase the risk of heart disease, highlighting the need for dietary
changes.
C) Omega-3 fatty acids found in fish are critical for heart health, helping to reduce inflammation.
D) A balanced diet supports heart health by reducing cholesterol and preventing inflammation from unhealthy
foods.
Passage 27:
A student is researching the benefits of outdoor education:
• Outdoor education programs have been shown to improve students' physical health and well-being.
• These programs encourage teamwork, problem-solving, and critical thinking by engaging students in real-world
challenges.
• Outdoor education fosters a deeper connection with nature, promoting environmental awareness and
sustainability.
• Some critics argue that outdoor education programs can be costly and logistically challenging to implement in
some areas.
Q27: The student wants to summarize the benefits of outdoor education. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) Outdoor education improves physical health, enhances teamwork skills, and promotes environmental
awareness.
B) Outdoor education programs are not effective in improving students' health and critical thinking.
C) Critics believe outdoor education is too expensive and difficult to implement to provide any real benefit.
D) Outdoor education is focused exclusively on physical health and does not address environmental or educational
benefits.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 3x−5=16.
A) x=7
B) x=−7
C) x=5
D) x=−5
Q2: Solve the inequality: 2x+3>11.
A) x>4
B) x<4
C) x>7
D) x<7
Q3: In a certain linear relationship, the value of y depends on x according to the equation y=5x+2.
If x=3, what is the value of y?
A) 17
B) 12
C) 15
D) 13
Q4: What is the slope and y-intercept of the line y=2x−3?
A) Slope=2, y-intercept=3
B) Slope=−3, y-intercept=2
C) Slope=2, y-intercept=−3
D) Slope=−2, y-intercept=−3
Q5: Solve for x in the equation: 4x+6=18.
A) x=3
B) x=2
C) x=−3
D) x=−2
Q6: Solve the inequality: 5x−4≤16.
A) x≤4
B) x>4
C) x≥4
D) x<4
Q7: The equation 3y−4x=12 represents a linear relationship between x and y.
What is the slope of the line represented by the equation?
A) 4/3
B) −4/3
C) 3/4
D) −3/4
Q8: What is the slope of the line, y=−3x+5?
A) −3
B) 3
C) −5
D) 5
Q9: Solve the equation for x:
6x−7=13.
A) x=3
B) x=2
C) x=4
D) x=−3
Q10: Which of the following represents the graph of the inequality y≥2x−5?
A) A line with slope 2 and y-intercept −5, shaded above the line
B) A line with slope 2 and y-intercept −5, shaded below the line
C) A line with slope −2 and y-intercept 5, shaded above the line
D) A line with slope −2 and y-intercept 5, shaded below the line
Q11: Solve the rational equation: (2x+3)/(x−1)=5/(x+2).
A) x=1
B) x=−2
C) x=−1
D) x=−5/3
Q12: Simplify the rational expression: (x²−9)/(x²−3x−18).
A) (x+3)/(x−6)
B) (x−3)/(x+6)
C) (x+3)/(x+6)
D) (x−3)/(x−6)
Q13: Solve the logarithmic equation: log₂(x−3)=4.
A) x=7
B) x=3
C) x=1
D) x=2⁴+3
Q14: Simplify the expression: (3x−5)/(2x+1) + (4x+7)/(2x+1).
A) (7x+2)/(2x+1)
B) (7x+12)/(2x+1)
C) (7x+8)/(2x+1)
D) (7x−2)/(2x+1)
Q15: A company produces two types of widgets, type A and type B. The cost to produce type A is $15 per unit,
and the cost to produce type B is $20 per unit. The company wants to produce a total of 500 widgets, but the
number of type A widgets must be at least twice the number of type B widgets. If the company has a budget of
$8,500, how many type A widgets and type B widgets should the company produce?
A) 300 type A, 200 type B
B) 400 type A, 100 type B
C) 350 type A, 150 type B
D) 250 type A, 250 type B
Q16: A car rental company charges a flat fee of $25 per day and an additional $0.20 per mile driven. If a customer
rents a car for 4 days and drives 250 miles, how much will the rental cost?
A) $100
B) $120
C) $150
D) $175
Q17: A store is offering a 20% discount on all items. If an item is originally priced at $80, how much will it cost
after the discount is applied?
A) $60
B) $64
C) $68
D) $70
Q18: A person invests $5,000 in a savings account that earns 3% annual interest compounded annually. What will
the investment be worth after 5 years?
A) $5,800
B) $5,900
C) $5,500
D) $5,900.75
Q19: Solve the exponential equation: 3^(2x−1) = 27.
A) x=2
B) x=3
C) x=1
D) x=1/3
Q20: Simplify the rational expression: (x²+2x−3)/(x²−9).
A) (x+3)/(x−3)
B) (x−3)/(x+3)
C) (x+1)/(x−3)
D) (x−1)/(x+3)
Q21: A student scored 80% on the first exam, 90% on the second exam, and 70% on the third exam. If the first
exam counts for 40% of the final grade, the second exam counts for 30%, and the third exam counts for 30%,
what is the student’s overall grade?
A) 79%
B) 82%
C) 85%
D) 87%
Q22: The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 meters. If the length is 5 meters more than twice the width, what are the
dimensions of the rectangle?
A) Length = 20 meters, Width = 10 meters
B) Length = 25 meters, Width = 15 meters
C) Length = 30 meters, Width = 15 meters
D) Length = 40 meters, Width = 10 meters
Module 2
Q1: Which of the following is the solution to the equation 3x - 5 = 16?
A) x = 7
B) x = 5
C) x = 3
D) x = 21
Q2: Which inequality represents the solution to the problem: "The temperature, T, is less than 40 degrees"?
A) T ≥ 40
B) T < 40
C) T > 40
D) T ≤ 40
Q3: What is the slope of the line represented by the equation 2x + 3y = 6?
A) -2/3
B) 2/3
C) 3/2
D) -3/2
Q4: Which of the following is the solution to the inequality 4x + 7 ≥ 19?
A) x ≥ 3
B) x ≥ 2
C) x ≥ 1
D) x ≥ 5
Q5: Which of the following represents the graph of the linear equation y = 2x - 4?
A) A line with a slope of 2 and a y-intercept of -4
B) A line with a slope of -2 and a y-intercept of 4
C) A line with a slope of 4 and a y-intercept of 2
D) A line with a slope of 2 and a y-intercept of 4
Q6: Solve the inequality: 5x - 7 < 18.
A) x < 5
B) x < 3
C) x < 6
D) x < 4
Q7: The solution to the equation 6x + 9 = 21 is:
A) x = 2
B) x = 3
C) x = 1
D) x = 4
Q8: Which of the following equations represents a line that is parallel to the line y = -3x + 5?
A) y = -3x + 7
B) y = 3x - 5
C) y = -3x - 2
D) y = 2x + 5
Q9: Which of the following is the solution to the equation 4x - 3 = 5x + 2?
A) x = -5
B) x = 5
C) x = -2
D) x = 7
Q10: Which of the following is the slope of the line that passes through the points (2, 3) and (4, 7)?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 2/3
Q11: Which of the following is the solution to the rational equation: (2/x) + (3/4) = (5/x)?
A) x = 4
B) x = 2
C) x = 10
D) x = 6
Q12: Simplify the rational expression: (x^2 - 4)/(x^2 - 2x - 8).
A) (x + 2)/(x - 4)
B) (x - 2)/(x + 4)
C) (x - 2)/(x - 4)
D) (x + 2)/(x + 4)
Q13: Which of the following is the solution to the logarithmic equation: log(x + 3) = 2?
A) x = 97
B) x = 100
C) x = 99
D) x = 97.5
Q14: Solve the exponential equation: 5^(2x) = 25.
A) x = 1
B) x = 2
C) x = 1/2
D) x = 3
Q15: Which of the following represents the inverse of the function f(x) = 3x - 5?
A) f^(-1)(x) = (x + 5)/3
B) f^(-1)(x) = (x - 5)/3
C) f^(-1)(x) = 3x + 5
D) f^(-1)(x) = 5x - 3
Q16: If the function f(x) = 2^(3x) is evaluated at x = 4, what is the value of f(x)?
A) 512
B) 128
C) 64
D) 256
Q17: A tank is filled at a rate of 5 liters per minute. If the volume of water in the tank is modeled by the function
V(t) = 5t, where t is time in minutes, how much water will be in the tank after 10 minutes?
A) 10 liters
B) 50 liters
C) 100 liters
D) 20 liters
Q18: A car travels 100 miles in the first 2 hours, and 150 miles in the next 3 hours. What is the average speed of
the car for the entire trip?
A) 50 miles per hour
B) 55 miles per hour
C) 60 miles per hour
D) 65 miles per hour
Q19: A worker is paid $15 per hour for the first 40 hours of work per week, and $22.50 per hour for any overtime
hours worked. If the worker works 45 hours in a week, how much will they earn that week?
A) $675
B) $725
C) $775
D) $825
Q20: A recipe calls for 3 cups of flour for every 2 cups of sugar. If you want to make a batch using 12 cups of flour,
how many cups of sugar will you need?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 10
Q21: A car travels 200 miles in 4 hours. How many miles will it travel in 7 hours at the same speed?
A) 350
B) 400
C) 450
D) 500
Q22: A student scored 80% on a test with 40 questions. How many questions did the student. Answer correctly?
A) 28
B) 30
C) 32
D) 36
PRACTICE TEST 3
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1
The establishment of the ancient Greek city-states around the 8th century BCE marked a significant shift in the
political and social structure of the region. Each city-state, such as Athens, Sparta, and Corinth, developed its own
system of governance and cultural identity. These city-states were often in conflict with one another, but they also
shared a common Greek heritage. The rise of the city-state system __________ the development of democratic
ideals in Athens and military discipline in Sparta.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obstructed
B) fostered
C) ignored
D) weakened
Passage 2
The exploration and colonization of Africa in the 19th century had far-reaching impacts on the continent's political
and economic landscapes. European powers, driven by the desire for resources and strategic dominance, divided
Africa into colonies with little regard for existing ethnic or cultural boundaries. This __________ the exploitation of
natural resources and the displacement of indigenous populations.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) advanced
B) hindered
C) intensified
D) obscured
Passage 3
The Napoleonic Code, established in 1804, was one of Napoleon Bonaparte’s most lasting legacies. This legal code
reformed the French legal system and became a model for many other countries in Europe and beyond. By
codifying laws related to property, civil rights, and family law, the Napoleonic Code __________ a more systematic
and standardized approach to governance.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resisted
B) established
C) reversed
D) ignored
Passage 4
In Ancient Rome, women held a complex and somewhat restricted role in society. While Roman women were often
responsible for managing households and raising children, they also had legal rights, such as the ability to own
property and engage in business. Despite these rights, Roman law and customs __________ women from
participating fully in political life.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) encouraged
B) excluded
C) assisted
D) protected
Passage 5
The Taj Mahal, built during the Mughal Empire in the 17th century, is one of the most famous examples of Mughal
architecture. Its white marble structure, set in a vast garden, is a symbol of the love Emperor Shah Jahan had for his
wife, Mumtaz Mahal. The construction of the Taj Mahal __________ the fusion of Persian, Ottoman, and Indian
architectural styles.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) represented
B) hindered
C) neglected
D) concealed
Passage 6
The Great Wall of China, a series of fortifications built over several dynasties, served as a defense against invasions
from nomadic tribes in the north. The construction of the wall began in the 7th century BCE and continued for over
two millennia. It __________ China’s ability to protect its borders and regulate trade along the Silk Road.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) strengthened
C) abandoned
D) neglected
Passage 7
The Gold Rush in the United States, particularly in California during the mid-19th century, had a profound impact on
the nation's economy. The influx of prospectors and miners led to rapid population growth in previously sparsely
populated areas. The economic boom from gold mining __________ the development of new towns and
infrastructure.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) accelerated
C) ignored
D) obstructed
Passage 8
The samurai were a distinct warrior class in feudal Japan, known for their code of honor, bushido. Samurai served
as military leaders for the shogun and landowners, and their primary role was to protect the land and people under
their control. The samurai's commitment to discipline and loyalty __________ the stability of the feudal system in
Japan.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) threatened
C) reinforced
D) weakened
Passage 9
The medieval Crusades, which were a series of religious wars between Christians and Muslims, had significant
political, social, and cultural effects on both Europe and the Middle East. The Crusades __________ increased
cultural exchange, leading to the transfer of knowledge, goods, and ideas between the East and West.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) minimized
C) facilitated
D) obstructed
Passage 10
The development of the modern public education system in the 19th century was driven by the need for an
educated workforce to support industrialization. Many countries began to establish free, compulsory education to
ensure that children could learn basic literacy and numeracy skills. This __________ the foundation for more
advanced educational systems and opportunities for social mobility.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) destroyed
C) laid
D) ignored
Passage 11
The psychological effects of media consumption on youth have been a topic of significant research in recent years.
Studies suggest that heavy exposure to television, video games, and social media can influence young people’s
mental health and development. While some argue that media can provide educational content and foster social
connections, others point to its potential to promote unhealthy behaviors, such as violence or body image issues.
The long-term effects of media consumption are still being explored, but it’s clear that it plays a major role in
shaping the minds of youth today.
Q11: According to the passage, what is one potential negative effect of media consumption on youth?
A) It promotes educational content and intellectual growth
B) It fosters social connections and healthy behavior
C) It can lead to unhealthy behaviors like violence or body image issues
D) It has no impact on mental health or development
Passage 12
Social welfare programs are designed to provide financial assistance and other forms of support to individuals and
families in need. These programs are intended to reduce poverty by helping people meet their basic needs, such as
food, shelter, and healthcare. While some argue that social welfare programs create dependency and reduce
incentives to work, others contend that they are crucial in providing a safety net for vulnerable populations,
ensuring that people can maintain a basic standard of living.
Q12: According to the passage, what is the primary purpose of social welfare programs?
A) To encourage people to rely on government support permanently
B) To help reduce poverty and provide support for basic needs
C) To decrease government spending on social services
D) To promote self-sufficiency by reducing reliance on assistance
Passage 13
The feminist movement in the 20th century evolved through multiple phases, addressing various issues related to
gender equality. The first wave focused on securing voting rights for women, while the second wave addressed
broader social, political, and economic inequalities. The third wave brought attention to intersectionality,
recognizing that women’s experiences differ based on race, class, and sexual orientation. The feminist movement
continues to evolve, with ongoing debates about the most effective ways to achieve gender equality in modern
society.
Q13: What was one of the primary focuses of the second wave of feminism?
A) Securing voting rights for women
B) Addressing intersectionality in women’s experiences
C) Addressing broader social, political, and economic inequalities
D) Establishing legal protections for women in the workplace
Passage 14
The Affordable Care Act (ACA), passed in 2010, expanded healthcare coverage for millions of Americans by
providing insurance options for those without access to employer-sponsored coverage. The ACA also introduced
measures aimed at reducing healthcare costs and improving the quality of care, such as mandating preventative
care coverage and reducing insurance company discrimination based on pre-existing conditions. While the ACA has
been credited with improving access to healthcare, it has also faced criticism for rising premiums and limited plan
options in some regions.
Q14: According to the passage, what is one benefit of the Affordable Care Act?
A) It eliminated private insurance companies from the healthcare system
B) It increased the number of Americans without health insurance
C) It expanded healthcare coverage and reduced insurance discrimination
D) It lowered taxes on healthcare providers
Passage 15
Education plays a crucial role in driving economic development by providing individuals with the skills and
knowledge needed to participate in the workforce. As countries invest in education, they see improvements in
productivity and innovation. Education not only benefits individuals but also strengthens the overall economy by
fostering a more educated workforce. Countries with higher levels of education tend to experience faster economic
growth, demonstrating the close relationship between education and economic development.
Q15: According to the passage, how does education contribute to economic development?
A) By providing people with entertainment and leisure activities
B) By creating a more educated workforce that fosters innovation and productivity
C) By limiting the development of new technologies
D) By lowering the cost of living for workers
Passage 16
Social entrepreneurship refers to the use of entrepreneurial principles to address social, cultural, or environmental
issues. Social entrepreneurs seek to create solutions to societal problems, such as poverty, inequality, and
environmental degradation, while also aiming for financial sustainability. Unlike traditional businesses, which focus
primarily on profit, social enterprises prioritize social impact. The rise of social entrepreneurship has led to new
models of business that combine social mission with entrepreneurial drive.
Q16: According to the passage, how does social entrepreneurship differ from traditional business?
A) Social entrepreneurship focuses only on financial profit
B) Social entrepreneurship seeks to address societal problems while maintaining financial sustainability
C) Social entrepreneurship ignores social impact in favor of economic growth
D) Social entrepreneurship is only focused on environmental issues
Passage 17
Education plays a vital role in economic development, as it empowers individuals with the skills and knowledge
needed to thrive in the workforce. Higher education levels are linked to increased productivity, innovation, and
economic growth. Countries with greater access to education tend to experience faster economic development, as
they have a more skilled workforce, which can contribute to higher wages and more sustainable economic progress.
Additionally, education fosters social mobility, reducing inequality and improving the overall standard of living.
Q17: According to the passage, how does education contribute to economic development?
A) By lowering educational costs for businesses
B) By fostering a more skilled workforce that drives productivity and innovation
C) By reducing wages and increasing income inequality
D) By promoting the use of outdated technologies in the workforce
Passage 18
Social entrepreneurship combines business acumen with a commitment to solving social, cultural, or environmental
issues. Entrepreneurs in this field focus on addressing challenges such as poverty, healthcare, and education, while
also striving for financial sustainability. The rise of social entrepreneurship has led to new models of businesses that
prioritize social impact, often challenging traditional business practices by blending profit goals with efforts to
create a positive change in society. These businesses work toward sustainable solutions while also contributing to
their communities.
Q18: According to the passage, what is a key characteristic of social entrepreneurship?
A) It focuses solely on maximizing profits for shareholders
B) It aims to address societal challenges while maintaining financial sustainability
C) It ignores social issues in favor of business growth
D) It operates under government regulations that prohibit profit-making
Passage 19
The feminist movement in the 20th century saw significant progress in the fight for gender equality. It began with
the first wave, which focused on securing women's right to vote. The second wave expanded the movement to
address broader issues such as workplace equality, reproductive rights, and legal protections against discrimination.
The third wave introduced a more inclusive approach, recognizing the diverse experiences of women from different
racial, economic, and cultural backgrounds. The movement continues to evolve today, advocating for equal rights in
all aspects of life.
Q19: What was one major focus of the second wave of feminism?
A) Securing the right to vote for women
B) Expanding women's rights to include workplace equality and reproductive rights
C) Focusing solely on economic independence for women
D) Advocating for women’s exclusion from traditional family roles
Passage 20
The Affordable Care Act (ACA) aimed to provide healthcare coverage for more Americans, particularly those who
were previously uninsured. It introduced measures to reduce the cost of healthcare by expanding Medicaid,
establishing health insurance marketplaces, and preventing insurers from denying coverage due to pre-existing
conditions. The ACA also required insurers to cover preventive care and sought to reduce overall healthcare
spending by promoting efficiency in the healthcare system. Despite its successes in expanding access to healthcare,
it faced opposition due to rising premiums and limited plan choices in certain areas.
Q20: What was one of the goals of the Affordable Care Act as mentioned in the passage?
A) To reduce government funding for healthcare services
B) To increase the cost of healthcare for all Americans
C) To expand access to healthcare by providing coverage to more people
D) To eliminate private insurance providers from the healthcare system
Text 1
Over the past century, the role of the automobile in society has changed dramatically. Initially, cars were a luxury
item, only accessible to the wealthy. However, as technology advanced and mass production techniques were
developed, cars became more affordable, and ownership spread to the middle class. This shift fundamentally
altered the structure of urban areas, creating a dependence on cars for transportation and influencing patterns of
suburban sprawl.
Text 2
Transportation experts and urban planners argue that the widespread use of cars in modern cities has led to a
variety of challenges, including traffic congestion, air pollution, and the degradation of public transportation
systems. They suggest that transitioning to more sustainable modes of transportation, such as public transit,
cycling, and walking, is necessary to reduce the negative impact of cars. Additionally, many cities are working to
promote mixed-use development that reduces the need for long commutes.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would transportation experts (Text 2) most likely respond to the growth of
automobile dependence discussed in Text 1?
A) By arguing that the use of cars should continue to increase to accommodate urban growth
B) By suggesting that cities need to reduce their dependence on cars by improving public transportation and
promoting alternative modes of transportation
C) By recommending that all urban areas switch to electric cars to address pollution
D) By advocating for the expansion of roadways to reduce traffic congestion
Text 3
The idea of space exploration has long captured the imagination of scientists and the general public alike. Early
space missions, such as the Apollo moon landings, were monumental achievements that demonstrated the
technological and human potential to explore beyond Earth. Since then, space exploration has expanded to include
robotic missions to other planets, the study of asteroids, and the development of technologies that could enable
future human colonization of other planets.
Text 4
In recent years, private companies have played an increasing role in space exploration. Companies like SpaceX, Blue
Origin, and Virgin Galactic have focused on reducing the cost of space travel and making space more accessible to
both governments and private individuals. These companies are developing reusable spacecraft and exploring
commercial opportunities, such as space tourism and asteroid mining, which could significantly change the future of
space exploration.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would space industry experts (Text 4) most likely respond to the historical
achievements in space exploration discussed in Text 3?
A) By suggesting that the future of space exploration relies exclusively on government-funded missions
B) By arguing that private companies will not have a significant impact on space exploration
C) By emphasizing the potential of private companies to revolutionize space exploration through cost reduction and
new commercial ventures
D) By recommending that private companies focus only on robotic missions and not human exploration
Q23. The Effect of Temperature on Plant Growth in Different Soil Types
Species Sandy Soil Clay Soil Total Percent Found in Clay
Soil

Sunflower 50 70 120 58.3%

Tomato 60 80 140 57.1%
Carrot 90 110 200 55.0%
Lettuce 120 100 220 45.5%
Pea 150 130 280 46.4%

A study was conducted to examine the effect of soil type on plant growth under different temperature conditions.
Researchers found that certain species were more likely to thrive in clay soil than sandy soil. This suggests that
temperature plays a role in influencing plant growth in different soil types.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Most species showed a higher preference for sandy soil than clay soil.
B) Lettuce had the lowest percentage of plants found in clay soil.
C) All species had a higher number of plants growing in clay soil compared to sandy soil.
D) The total number of plants found in clay soil was higher than in sandy soil.

Q24. Effects of Light Intensity on Photosynthesis in Aquatic Plants

Aquatic Plant Species Low Light (%) Medium Light (%) High Light (%)
Coontail 20.5 35.2 44.3
Pondweed 15.6 37.7 46.7
Duckweed 30.0 35.0 35.0

Researchers studied the effects of different light intensities on photosynthesis in aquatic plants. They found that
light intensity had a significant impact on the rate of photosynthesis, with plants thriving best under medium to
high light conditions.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) All species showed a higher number of plants thriving under high light intensity.
B) Coontail had the highest percentage of plants in low light conditions.
C) Pondweed showed the highest percentage of plants in high light conditions.
D) Duckweed had a relatively equal distribution of plants in all light conditions.
Q25. Impact of Urbanization on Bird Species Populations
Species Urban Areas Rural Areas Total Percent Found in
Urban Areas
Pigeon 200 50 250 80.0%
Sparrow 150 100 250 60.0%
Robin 50 200 250 20.0%
Woodpecker 30 70 100 30.0%
Finch 40 60 100 40.0%
A study was conducted to analyze the impact of urbanization on bird species populations. Researchers observed
that certain species, like pigeons, thrived in urban environments, while others, like robins, were more common in
rural areas.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Pigeons were more likely to be found in rural areas.
B) Sparrows had the highest percentage of birds found in urban areas.
C) Woodpeckers were equally distributed between urban and rural areas.
D) Robins were more commonly found in rural areas than urban areas.
Q26. A student is researching the role of art in society:
• Art has long been a form of self-expression and a reflection of cultural values.
• Throughout history, art has played a significant role in social movements, helping to raise awareness and
advocate for change.
• Art also provides a way for individuals and communities to process emotions, particularly in times of hardship or
conflict.
• Despite its importance, the funding and support for the arts are often debated in society, with some arguing that
art should be prioritized in education and public policy.
The student wants to summarize the role of art in society. Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) Art reflects cultural values and helps advocate for social change, highlighting its impact on society.
B) Art has no significant social role and should be viewed as a personal activity rather than a cultural one.
C) Funding for the arts should be cut in favor of more practical, utilitarian forms of expression.
D) Social movements rely primarily on art for financial support, not emotional expression or cultural significance.

Q27. A student is studying the influence of media on public opinion:

• Media plays a crucial role in shaping public opinion by providing information and framing news stories.
• The rise of social media has made it easier for individuals to express opinions and share content, sometimes
bypassing traditional news outlets.
• However, media outlets often have biases that can influence the way information is presented, potentially
affecting the objectivity of news.
• Despite these challenges, media continues to be a primary source of information for the majority of the public.
The student wants to summarize the influence of media on public opinion. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) Media significantly shapes public opinion, though biases in news presentation can affect objectivity.
B) Social media has completely replaced traditional media outlets as the primary source of public information.
C) Media plays a minor role in shaping public opinion, with no major influence on news presentation.
D) Media outlets are unbiased in their presentation, and their influence on public opinion is minimal.
Module 2
Passage 1:
The Norman Conquest of England in 1066 brought significant changes to the English language. With the influence of
Norman French, many words related to law, government, and the arts were integrated into Old English. This period
marked the beginning of the transition to Middle English. The infusion of French vocabulary __________ the
development of a more complex and refined English lexicon.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) simplified
B) hindered
C) enriched
D) ignored
Passage 2:
In 1588, the defeat of the Spanish Armada by the English navy significantly altered the balance of power in Europe.
The victory boosted English national pride and solidified Queen Elizabeth I’s reign. It also marked the decline of
Spain’s naval dominance and __________ the rise of England as a global maritime power.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) accelerated
B) hindered
C) delayed
D) reduced
Passage 3:
The Pharaohs of Ancient Egypt were revered as both political and religious leaders, considered to be divine rulers.
The role of the pharaoh was central to maintaining ma'at, the cosmic order. The most famous pharaohs, such as
Ramses II and Tutankhamun, __________ the grandeur and power of Egypt through monumental building projects
and military conquests.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) diminished
C) showcased
D) neglected
Passage 4:
Leonardo da Vinci, a Renaissance polymath, is widely known for his work as an artist, but his scientific contributions
were equally groundbreaking. His studies in anatomy, engineering, and physics were ahead of his time, and many of
his sketches demonstrated his innovative approach to understanding the natural world. Da Vinci’s inventions and
observations __________ the progress of scientific knowledge during the Renaissance.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) stagnated
B) hindered
C) fueled
D) ignored
Passage 5:
The Black Plague, which struck Europe in the 14th century, originated in Asia and spread rapidly through trade
routes. The bacterium Yersinia pestis, carried by fleas on rats, caused widespread death, wiping out about one-third
of Europe’s population. The plague’s spread __________ the development of new quarantine and health practices
across Europe.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) halted
B) discouraged
C) prompted
D) ignored
Passage 6:
During the Middle Ages, the Catholic Church was the most powerful institution in Europe. It controlled vast
amounts of land, wealth, and influence, and its clergy played a central role in everyday life. The Church’s dominance
__________ the development of secular institutions and the power of monarchs throughout Europe.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restricted
B) ignored
C) diminished
D) enhanced
Passage 7:
The invention of the printing press in the 15th century revolutionized the spread of knowledge in Europe. It allowed
for the mass production of books, including religious texts. The printing revolution __________ the Protestant
Reformation, as Martin Luther’s 95 Theses and other works were quickly distributed across Europe, challenging the
authority of the Catholic Church.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) ignored
C) fueled
D) delayed
Passage 8:
Native American tribes played a crucial role in the early history of European colonization in North America. They
often formed alliances with European settlers, exchanging knowledge of the land and trade goods. However, as
European settlements expanded, conflicts arose over territory, and many tribes were __________ by European
diseases and military conflicts.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) empowered
B) weakened
C) protected
D) excluded
Passage 9:
The Silk Road was a network of trade routes that connected the East and West, facilitating the exchange of goods,
culture, and ideas. Spanning across Asia, the Middle East, and Europe, the Silk Road contributed to the
development of international trade and __________ the spread of religions, such as Buddhism, Christianity, and
Islam.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) increased
C) delayed
D) minimized
Passage 10:
The fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 was a symbolic moment marking the end of the Cold War. It represented the
collapse of communist regimes in Eastern Europe and the unification of Germany. The event also __________ the
political shift towards democracy and the integration of Eastern Europe into Western institutions, such as NATO and
the European Union.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obstructed
B) delayed
C) prompted
D) reversed
Passage 11
Consumerism, the growing demand for goods and services, has been linked to various negative environmental
impacts, including resource depletion and increased waste production. As consumers demand more products, more
raw materials are extracted, leading to habitat destruction and biodiversity loss. Moreover, mass production and
disposal of goods contribute significantly to pollution and climate change. A shift toward sustainable consumerism,
where products are made with eco-friendly materials and consumers opt for durability over quantity, is seen as
essential for improving environmental sustainability.
Q11: According to the passage, what is a major environmental impact of consumerism?
A) Increased biodiversity and ecosystem preservation
B) Depletion of resources and pollution from mass production
C) Reduction in global waste generation
D) An increase in sustainable product development
Passage 12
Civic participation, such as voting, volunteering, and engaging in community activities, plays a critical role in
strengthening democratic societies. It ensures that citizens actively contribute to decision-making processes and
hold governments accountable. Increased civic engagement helps promote social justice, encourage political
transparency, and strengthen social cohesion. In many democratic nations, fostering civic participation leads to
more effective governance, as it ensures that the needs of the population are represented and addressed through
policy and legislation.
Q12: What is one of the benefits of civic participation as mentioned in the passage?
A) It reduces the power of government
B) It promotes political transparency and social justice
C) It limits political accountability
D) It isolates citizens from government decisions
Passage 13
The digital divide refers to the gap between those who have access to modern technology and those who do not.
This divide has grown in recent years, particularly between wealthy and low-income countries, and has significant
implications for economic development. Those without access to the internet or digital tools face barriers to
education, job opportunities, and social engagement. Closing the digital divide is essential to ensure that all
individuals can fully participate in the global economy and benefit from digital advancements.
Q13: According to the passage, what is a consequence of the digital divide?
A) Equal access to job opportunities for all individuals
B) Limited access to education and economic participation for disadvantaged groups
C) Decreased innovation in low-income countries
D) Decreased reliance on technology in the global economy
Passage 14
Mass media, including television, social media, and advertisements, play a significant role in shaping societal views,
particularly on body image. Media often promotes unrealistic beauty standards, which can lead to dissatisfaction
with one’s own appearance, especially among young people. The pressure to conform to these standards can
contribute to mental health issues like anxiety, eating disorders, and depression. While some movements work to
promote body positivity, mass media continues to influence public perception of what is considered "beautiful" or
"ideal."
Q14: According to the passage, how does mass media influence body image?
A) By promoting diverse body types and positive self-image
B) By presenting unrealistic beauty standards that lead to body dissatisfaction
C) By eliminating traditional beauty standards entirely
D) By increasing awareness of mental health in relation to body image
Passage 15
Nationalism, the belief in the superiority of one’s own nation, can contribute to global conflict. While nationalism
can foster unity and pride within a country, it can also lead to xenophobia, territorial disputes, and conflicts with
other nations. Throughout history, nationalist movements have been a driving force behind wars and international
tensions. Nationalist ideologies often emphasize the interests of one nation above others, which can undermine
global cooperation and escalate conflicts.
Q15: What is a potential negative effect of nationalism mentioned in the passage?
A) It promotes global unity and cooperation
B) It can lead to xenophobia, territorial disputes, and international conflicts
C) It fosters peaceful diplomatic relations between countries
D) It reduces international tensions and fosters mutual respect
Passage 16
Privacy in the digital age is becoming an increasingly important issue. With the rise of the internet, smartphones,
and social media, personal information is being shared more than ever before. Many individuals unknowingly
sacrifice their privacy by consenting to data collection or by posting personal details online. This loss of privacy can
lead to identity theft, data breaches, and surveillance. As technology continues to advance, the debate over how to
protect privacy while ensuring security becomes more complex.
Q16: According to the passage, what is a key concern regarding privacy in the digital age?
A) The use of technology for enhanced personal freedom
B) The difficulty in balancing privacy protection and security
C) The reduction in social media usage
D) The complete elimination of online data collection
Passage 17
Social networks like Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram have revolutionized the way communities are built and
maintained. These platforms allow individuals to connect with others who share similar interests, regardless of
geographical location. Social networks can foster relationships, promote social causes, and create online
communities that offer support and solidarity. However, they also have the potential to contribute to social
isolation and the spread of misinformation if used improperly.
Q17: What is one benefit of social networks as mentioned in the passage?
A) They encourage social isolation and misinformation
B) They help people build communities and connect with others with similar interests
C) They hinder communication and reduce community engagement
D) They decrease the spread of social causes and solidarity
Passage 18
Humanitarian efforts and international aid aim to provide relief to people suffering from disasters, conflict, and
poverty. Organizations like the United Nations and Red Cross play a crucial role in delivering emergency aid, such as
food, medical supplies, and shelter. Over time, these organizations have expanded their focus to include long-term
development initiatives, such as improving education, healthcare, and infrastructure in underserved regions.
Effective international aid requires cooperation between governments, NGOs, and local communities.
Q18: What is one goal of international aid according to the passage?
A) To maintain control over local governments
B) To provide immediate emergency relief and support long-term development
C) To discourage community involvement in the development process
D) To promote only economic growth without addressing humanitarian needs
Passage 19
Child labor remains a significant issue in global supply chains, particularly in industries such as textiles, agriculture,
and mining. Many children are forced to work in unsafe conditions for long hours, depriving them of education and
basic rights. The economic pressures faced by families in developing nations often drive child labor, as they struggle
to survive in poverty. International efforts to eradicate child labor have made progress, but much work remains to
ensure that children can grow up in a safe environment and receive an education.
Q19: What is one impact of child labor in global supply chains as mentioned in the passage?
A) It provides children with educational opportunities
B) It deprives children of education and exposes them to unsafe conditions
C) It improves the economic stability of families in developed nations
D) It promotes the elimination of poverty in developing nations
Passage 20
Immigration has a profound impact on cultural integration. Immigrants bring new traditions, languages, and
customs to the countries they move to, enriching the cultural fabric of society. However, integration can be
challenging, as immigrants often face discrimination and may struggle to adapt to a new culture. Over time,
successful integration can lead to more diverse and harmonious societies, with shared values and respect for
differences. Immigrant communities contribute to the economy, social structure, and cultural landscape of their
host countries.
Q20: What is one impact of immigration on cultural integration mentioned in the passage?
A) It leads to cultural homogeneity
B) It contributes to a more diverse and harmonious society
C) It encourages the abandonment of cultural traditions
D) It isolates immigrant communities from the broader society
Text 1
The discovery of antibiotics in the 20th century revolutionized medicine, saving millions of lives by treating bacterial
infections that were once deadly. Antibiotics such as penicillin were initially hailed as miracle drugs, and their
widespread use rapidly reduced mortality rates from infections. However, over time, the overuse and misuse of
antibiotics have led to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, posing a serious threat to global public
health.
Text 2
To combat the growing problem of antibiotic resistance, scientists and medical professionals are focusing on new
approaches to treatment. These include the development of alternative therapies, such as bacteriophage therapy,
which uses viruses that infect bacteria. Additionally, efforts are being made to educate the public on the
responsible use of antibiotics and to improve infection prevention measures, including better sanitation and
vaccination programs.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would scientists and medical professionals (Text 2) most likely respond to the
overuse and misuse of antibiotics discussed in Text 1?
A) By recommending the complete abandonment of antibiotics in favor of alternative treatments
B) By emphasizing the importance of improving infection prevention and promoting responsible antibiotic use to
combat resistance
C) By suggesting that antibiotic resistance is a natural process that cannot be prevented
D) By arguing that antibiotics should be used more frequently to eliminate bacterial infections faster
Text 3
The rise of digital technology has transformed the way people communicate, work, and access information.
Smartphones, social media platforms, and the internet have made it easier than ever to stay connected with others
across the globe. However, some critics argue that the constant use of digital devices has led to social isolation,
diminished face-to-face interactions, and a decline in deep, meaningful communication.
Text 4
Advocates for digital technology highlight its ability to bridge gaps in communication and provide opportunities for
people to connect regardless of geographical location. They argue that digital platforms, if used responsibly, can
enhance relationships and foster a sense of community. Additionally, they point to the rise of telecommuting and
online education as ways digital technology has opened new avenues for personal and professional growth.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would advocates for digital technology (Text 12) most likely respond to the
concerns about social isolation discussed in Text 11?
A) By claiming that digital devices are the sole cause of social isolation and should be abandoned
B) By suggesting that digital platforms, when used responsibly, can enhance connections and promote community
building
C) By arguing that digital technology is responsible for the decline in communication and should be regulated more
strictly
D) By emphasizing the need to limit the use of social media to reduce its impact on relationships

Q23. The Effect of Salinity on the Growth of Marine Plants

Species Low Salinity Medium High Salinity Total Percent Found in
Salinity High Salinity
Seagrass 30 70 100 200 50.0%
Algae 50 90 110 250 44.0%
Kelp 60 120 130 310 41.9%
Seaweed 80 100 120 300 40.0%
Mangrove 100 130 150 380 39.5%
A study examined the effects of salinity levels on the growth of marine plants. The researchers found that certain
species, such as seagrass, thrived under high salinity, while others showed varied responses.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Most species showed a preference for low salinity conditions.
B) Seaweed had the highest percentage of plants found in high salinity conditions.
C) Seagrass had the highest percentage of plants found in high salinity conditions.
D) All species showed similar percentages of plants in high salinity conditions.
Q24. The Influence of Soil pH on Crop Yield
Crop Species Acidic Soil Neutral Soil Alkaline Soil Total Percent Found in
Neutral Soil
Wheat 50 120 80 250 48.0%
Corn 40 100 60 200 50.0%
Rice 70 130 100 300 43.3%
Soybean 60 140 110 310 45.2%
Barley 80 110 90 280 39.3%
A study was conducted to analyze the effect of soil pH on crop yield. The researchers observed that crops, such as
wheat and corn, thrived in neutral soil compared to acidic or alkaline soils, suggesting that soil pH affects crop
productivity.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Corn showed the highest percentage of crops found in acidic soil.
B) All species showed a preference for neutral soil, except for rice.
C) Wheat and corn had the highest percentages of crops found in neutral soil.
D) Barley had the lowest percentage of crops found in neutral soil.
Q25. A student is researching the Golden Age of the Dutch Republic:
 During the 17th century, the Dutch Republic became a global economic power through trade and innovation.
 The Dutch excelled in banking, shipping, and creating a sophisticated financial system.
 The period also saw cultural flourishing, with artists like Rembrandt and Vermeer gaining prominence.
 The Dutch Republic's political system was characterized by a high degree of religious tolerance and a
decentralized government. The student wants to summarize the Golden Age of the Dutch Republic.
Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The Golden Age of the Dutch Republic was marked by economic growth, cultural achievements, and political
tolerance.
B) The Dutch Republic thrived due to its military victories and centralized government during the 17th century.
C) The Dutch Golden Age was primarily driven by religious conflict and territorial expansion.
D) Economic success and cultural output were secondary to the political stability of the Dutch Republic.
Q26. A student is researching the Battle of Hastings and its significance in English history:
 In 1066, William the Conqueror defeated King Harold II at the Battle of Hastings, claiming the English throne.
 The battle was a turning point in English history, as it led to the Norman Conquest of England.
 The victory drastically changed the political, cultural, and social structure of England, with Norman influence
replacing Anglo-Saxon traditions.
 The Battle of Hastings is commemorated in the Bayeux Tapestry, which depicts the events leading to the
conquest. The student wants to summarize the significance of the Battle of Hastings.
Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The Battle of Hastings marked the beginning of the Norman rule in England, fundamentally changing its culture
and politics.
B) The Battle of Hastings led to the end of the Anglo-Saxon period but did not alter English society significantly.
C) William the Conqueror's victory at Hastings was merely a military triumph without lasting political consequences.
D) The Battle of Hastings was a minor conflict in English history, overshadowed by other medieval events.
Q27. A student is researching the Role of Trade in the Expansion of the Roman Empire:
 The Roman Empire expanded through trade networks that connected Europe, Asia, and Africa.
 Trade routes facilitated the exchange of goods, ideas, and technologies, contributing to economic prosperity.
 The empire's control of key trade routes enabled the spread of Roman culture and influence.
 The wealth generated from trade helped fund the Roman military, enabling further territorial expansion.
The student wants to summarize the role of trade in the expansion of the Roman Empire. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) Trade was crucial in financing the Roman military, facilitating territorial expansion and cultural influence.
B) The Roman Empire relied on military conquest alone for expansion, with trade playing a minimal role.
C) Roman trade routes only benefited local economies without contributing to the empire's expansion.
D) Trade was restricted to certain regions of the empire, preventing it from playing a role in territorial growth.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 2x+7=19.
A) x=6
B) x=5
C) x=7
D) x=4
Q2: Solve the inequality: 3x-4<11.
A) x<3
B) x<5
C) x<7
D) x<9
Q3: What is the equation of a line with a slope of 4 and a y-intercept of -2?
A) y=4x+2
B) y=-4x-2
C) y=4x-2
D) y=-4x+2
Q4: Solve for x in the equation: 5x+9=34.
A) x=5
B) x=6
C) x=7
D) x=8
Q5: In the equation y=-3x+7, what is the slope and y-intercept?
A) Slope=3, y-intercept=-7
B) Slope=-3, y-intercept=7
C) Slope=3, y-intercept=7
D) Slope=-3, y-intercept=-7
Q6: Solve the inequality: -2x+5≥9.
A) x≤-2
B) x≤2
C) x≥-2
D) x≥2
Q7: If y=2x+3 and x=-2, what is the value of y?
A) -1
B) 1
C) -4
D) -3
Q8: The graph of y=x+4 intersects the y-axis at which point?
A) (0,4)
B) (4,0)
C) (0,-4)
D) (-4,0)
Q9: Solve for x in the equation: 6x-12=24.
A) x=4
B) x=6
C) x=5
D) x=7
Q10: If the slope of a line is 1/3 and it passes through the point (0,5), what is the equation of the line?
A) y=1/3x+5
B) y=1/3x-5
C) y=-1/3x+5
D) y=-1/3x-5
Q11: Simplify the rational expression: (x−1)/(x²−2x−3).
A) 1/(x+1)
B) 1/(x−3)
C) (x−1)/(x−3)
D) 1/(x−1)
Q12: Solve the equation for x: log₃(2x−5)=2.
A) x=7
B) x=4
C) x=9
D) x=2
Q13: A recipe for soup calls for 5 liters of broth for every 2 liters of water. How much broth is needed if you use 8
liters of water?
A) 18 liters
B) 20 liters
C) 14 liters
D) 12 liters
Q14: A store sells 3 pencils for $1.20. How much would 12 pencils cost?
A) $4.80
B) $4.00
C) $4.40
D) $5.00
Q15: Convert 5 miles to feet. (1 mile = 5280 feet)
A) 5000 feet
B) 5280 feet
C) 6000 feet
D) 26400 feet
Q16: A vehicle is traveling at a speed of 60 kilometers per hour. How many meters does it travel in 5 minutes? (1
kilometer = 1000 meters)
A) 500 meters
B) 3000 meters
C) 5000 meters
D) 30000 meters
Q17: Convert 0.75 hours to minutes.
A) 45 minutes
B) 50 minutes
C) 55 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Q18: A jacket originally costs $80. During a sale, it is offered at a 25% discount. What is the sale price of the
jacket?
A) $60
B) $65
C) $70
D) $75
Q19: A population of 2000 people increases by 15% per year. What will the population be after 2 years?
A) 2300
B) 2645
C) 2550
D) 2700
Q20: In a right triangle, if the lengths of the legs are 6 and 8, what is the length of the hypotenuse?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Q21: What is the area of a circle with a radius of 7 units?
A) 49π
B) 14π
C) 49
D) 14
Q22: If two triangles are congruent, what can we conclude about their corresponding angles and sides?
A) The corresponding angles are different, and the corresponding sides are the same.
B) The corresponding angles are the same, and the corresponding sides are different.
C) The corresponding angles are the same, and the corresponding sides are the same.
D) The corresponding angles are different, and the corresponding sides are different.
Module 2
Q1: Solve the linear equation: 4x-8=16.
A) x=6
B) x=8
C) x=4
D) x=3
Q2: Solve the inequality: x/2+3<7.
A) x<6
B) x<8
C) x>6
D) x>8
Q3: A line passes through the points (1,4) and (3,10). What is the slope of the line?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Q4: If y=3x+1 and x=4, what is the value of y?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 15
Q5: Solve for x: 5x-15=10.
A) x=3
B) x=4
C) x=5
D) x=6
Q6: What is the equation of a line with a slope of -5 and a y-intercept of 8?
A) y=5x+8
B) y=-5x+8
C) y=-5x-8
D) y=5x-8
Q7: Solve the inequality: 3x+2≥11.
A) x≥3
B) x≥4
C) x≥5
D) x≥6
Q8: The graph of y=2x-1 intersects the y-axis at which point?
A) (0,1)
B) (1,0)
C) (0,-1)
D) (-1,0)
So the point is (0,-1).
Q9: Solve for x in the equation: 8x+3=35.
A) x=4
B) x=5
C) x=6
D) x=7
Q10: If the slope of a line is 2/3 and it passes through the point (0,-5), what is the equation of the line?
A) y=2/3x+5
B) y=-2/3x+5
C) y=2/3x-5
D) y=-2/3x-5
Q11: Solve the following exponential equation: 3^(2x) = 81.
A) x=3
B) x=2
C) x=1
D) x=4
Q12: Simplify the rational expression: (x^2 - 9) / (x^2 + 6x + 9).
A) (x-3)/(x+3)
B) (x+3)/(x-3)
C) (x-3)/(x+5)
D) (x+3)/(x+5)
Q13: Solve the following logarithmic equation: log(x) + log(3) = 2.
A) x=100/3
B) x=50/2
C) x=10/3
D) x=5/3
Q14: Solve the following rational equation: (x + 3) / (x2 + 5x + 6) = 1/2.
A) x=-0
B) x=-2
C) x=1
D) x=2
Q15: Solve the following exponential equation: 5(x+2) = 125.
A) x=2
B) x=3
C) x=1
D) x=0
Q16: Solve the complex word problem: A car rental agency charges a flat fee of $50 plus $0.25 per mile driven. If
a customer drives the car for 100 miles, what is the total charge?
A) $125
B) $100
C) $75
D) $150
Q17: What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 units and a height of 10 units?
A) 90π
B) 30π
C) 30
D) 90
Q17: Solve the following logarithmic equation: log(2x) = 3.
A) x=200
B) x=500
C) x=100
D) x=50
Q18: Solve the rational equation: (x-2) / (x^2 - 4) = 1 / (x+2).
A) x=2
B) x=-2
C) x=4
D) x=-4
Q19: A train travels at a constant speed of 80 kilometers per hour. How far will it travel in 3 hours and 45
minutes?
A) 300 kilometers
B) 305 kilometers
C) 310 kilometers
D) 315 kilometers
Q20: The mean of a data set is 45, and the standard deviation is 5. If a data point is 55, how many standard
deviations away from the mean is this data point?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q21: In a circle, if the central angle is 90°, what is the measure of the arc subtended by the angle?
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 270°
D) 360°
Q22: What is the length of the arc of a circle with radius 6 units, and a central angle of 60°?
A) 6π
B) 6
C) 2π
D) 2π√3
PRACTICE TEST4
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
The rise of constitutional monarchies in Europe marked a significant shift in political power, with monarchs sharing
authority with representative bodies like parliaments. The Glorious Revolution in England is often cited as the key
event that __________ the power of the monarchy and laid the foundation for modern democratic governance.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminished
B) strengthened
C) ignored
D) obstructed
Passage 2:
The Meiji Restoration of 1868 marked Japan’s transformation from a feudal society to a modern industrialized
nation. The new government implemented reforms that __________ the development of factories, railroads, and a
new banking system, drastically changing Japan's economy and military power.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) stunted
B) delayed
C) facilitated
D) ignored
Passage 3:
The Harlem Renaissance was a cultural movement that celebrated African American art, music, and literature in the
1920s. It brought global attention to the talents of African American artists, musicians, and writers, and significantly
__________ the social and political consciousness of African Americans.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) ignited
C) reduced
D) obscured
Passage 4:
Genghis Khan’s leadership united the Mongol tribes and led to the creation of the largest contiguous empire in
history. His military strategies and innovations __________ the Mongols' ability to conquer vast territories across
Asia and Europe, reshaping the political landscape.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) strengthened
C) hindered
D) ignored
Passage 5:
The Soviet Union was formed in 1922 after the Russian Revolution, uniting various republics under a communist
regime. However, by 1991, economic inefficiencies and political unrest led to its dissolution, which __________ the
end of the Cold War and the shift towards capitalist economies in Eastern Europe.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) accelerated
B) postponed
C) obscured
D) delayed
Passage 6: The Early History of the United States Congress
The United States Congress, established by the Constitution in 1789, was tasked with creating laws, levying taxes,
and overseeing the executive branch. Initially, Congress struggled with __________ political divisions and balancing
the power between the states and the federal government.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) encouraging
B) easing
C) deepening
D) resolving
Passage 7:
The Inca Empire, known for its advanced engineering, agricultural techniques, and vast road networks, flourished in
South America before the arrival of Spanish conquistadors. The empire’s centralized governance and military power
__________ the conquest by Francisco Pizarro and his forces.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) strengthened
C) prevented
D) ignored
Passage 8:
The development of maritime navigation techniques in ancient civilizations, such as the Phoenicians and Greeks,
revolutionized trade and exploration. Their innovations in shipbuilding and navigation tools, like the astrolabe,
__________ the expansion of trade routes and cultural exchanges across the Mediterranean and beyond.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) hindered
C) facilitated
D) ignored
Passage 9:
The Ottoman Empire reached its height in the 16th century under the rule of Suleiman the Magnificent. During this
period, the empire expanded its territories, controlling vast areas in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Suleiman’s military
successes and legal reforms __________ the empire’s dominance in both the political and cultural spheres.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) consolidated
C) delayed
D) neglected
Passage 10:
The Dutch Republic's Golden Age in the 17th century was marked by significant advancements in art, science, and
trade. The rise of powerful merchant fleets and the establishment of the Dutch East India Company __________ the
Netherlands as one of the world’s most prosperous and influential nations during this period.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) diminished
C) cemented
D) ignored
Passage 11
The development of social services, including healthcare, education, and housing, has played a crucial role in
improving the quality of life for people around the world. These services help reduce inequality by providing access
to essential needs for all individuals, regardless of their socio-economic status. In societies with strong social
services, people are more likely to have better health outcomes, improved educational opportunities, and greater
financial stability. However, the availability and effectiveness of social services can vary significantly between
countries, with wealthier nations generally having more developed systems.
Q11: According to the passage, what is one benefit of developed social services?
A) They reduce inequality by providing essential needs for all people
B) They increase financial instability and poor health outcomes
C) They limit access to education and healthcare
D) They only benefit wealthier individuals in society
Passage 12
Automation and artificial intelligence (AI) are transforming industries by increasing efficiency, reducing costs, and
performing tasks that were once carried out by humans. While these technological advances have the potential to
enhance productivity, they also raise significant social and economic challenges. The displacement of workers,
particularly in low-skilled jobs, can lead to higher unemployment rates and income inequality. On the other hand, AI
and automation can create new opportunities in fields such as technology, research, and advanced manufacturing,
though they require new skills and education.
Q12: What is one potential challenge of automation and AI mentioned in the passage?
A) The creation of new job opportunities in low-skilled sectors
B) The displacement of workers and increase in income inequality
C) The reduction in technological innovation and productivity
D) The decrease in the need for new skills and education
Passage 13
International trade agreements are essential in shaping the economic relations between countries. They regulate
tariffs, promote economic cooperation, and help reduce trade barriers, leading to an increase in global trade. Trade
agreements can have a profound impact on national economies by opening up markets, fostering competition, and
encouraging investment. However, not all nations benefit equally from trade deals, and some may face challenges
such as job losses in certain sectors or an increase in foreign dependence. Balancing the benefits and drawbacks of
trade agreements is key to ensuring fair and equitable economic growth.
Q13: What is one impact of international trade agreements mentioned in the passage?
A) They create economic isolation between countries
B) They promote competition and increase global trade
C) They reduce investment and economic cooperation
D) They only benefit large corporations
Passage 14
Social movements, such as those advocating for civil rights, gender equality, and environmental protection, have
had a profound impact on political reforms throughout history. These movements often challenge existing systems
of power and inequality, pushing governments to adopt new laws and policies that address social issues. The
influence of social movements can lead to significant shifts in public policy, such as the legalization of same-sex
marriage, the extension of voting rights, or the creation of environmental regulations. Social movements are crucial
in driving progressive change and ensuring that all individuals are treated fairly.
Q14: What is one role of social movements as mentioned in the passage?
A) They maintain the status quo and prevent political change
B) They push governments to adopt new laws and policies for social justice
C) They limit individual rights and freedoms
D) They prevent social issues from being addressed by governments
Passage 15
Corporations play a significant role in shaping social change, both through their actions and their influence on
public opinion. Many corporations have adopted corporate social responsibility (CSR) programs aimed at addressing
environmental issues, improving working conditions, and supporting social causes. However, the impact of these
efforts can vary. Some corporations may make genuine efforts to create positive change, while others use CSR as a
marketing tool without making substantial improvements. The power of corporations to shape social change
underscores the need for accountability and transparency in their practices.
Q15: What is one concern about corporations and social change mentioned in the passage?
A) Corporations always create positive social change without exceptions
B) Corporate social responsibility efforts may be used as marketing tools rather than actual change
C) Corporations avoid addressing environmental issues and working conditions
D) Corporations only influence social change in their own industry
Passage 16
Global citizenship refers to the idea that individuals should consider themselves as part of a global community
rather than being solely attached to one nation or culture. It encourages individuals to advocate for human rights,
environmental sustainability, and social justice on a global scale. Global citizenship can influence policy by
promoting international cooperation, peacebuilding, and the protection of vulnerable populations. However, its
principles may be challenged by nationalism or local interests, making it difficult to achieve comprehensive global
policies.
Q16: What is one potential challenge to the concept of global citizenship?
A) It promotes national interests over global cooperation
B) It encourages individuals to only focus on their local community
C) It faces resistance from nationalism and local interests
D) It makes international cooperation easier
Passage 17
Urbanization in developing nations has significant social and economic effects. As more people move from rural
areas to cities, they seek better job opportunities, education, and healthcare. However, urbanization can strain
existing infrastructure, leading to overcrowding, inadequate housing, and increased pollution. On the economic
front, urbanization can drive growth by creating new industries and markets, but it can also widen the income gap
between the rich and the poor. Managing urbanization effectively is essential to ensuring that its benefits are
equitably distributed.
Q17: What is one economic effect of urbanization mentioned in the passage?
A) It reduces overcrowding and pollution
B) It promotes economic growth and creates new industries
C) It eliminates income gaps between the rich and the poor
D) It hinders the development of rural areas
Passage 18
Populist politics, which emphasize the interests and needs of ordinary people over those of elites, have been on the
rise globally. Populist leaders often appeal to discontented citizens by criticizing establishment politicians and
advocating for policies that protect national interests. While populism can help give a voice to marginalized groups,
it can also lead to instability by challenging existing political systems, promoting divisiveness, and undermining
democratic institutions. The rise of populism is reshaping the political landscape in many countries, with mixed
outcomes for global stability.
Q18: What is one potential effect of populist politics as mentioned in the passage?
A) It promotes unity and stability across all nations
B) It strengthens democratic institutions and governance
C) It can lead to instability and undermine democratic institutions
D) It eliminates discontent among citizens
Passage 19
Media literacy is the ability to analyze and evaluate media messages and their impact on society. In an age of
information overload, media literacy is increasingly important for fostering critical thinking and informed decision-
making. With the rise of social media and fake news, individuals need to develop skills to distinguish between
credible sources and misinformation. Media literacy empowers individuals to engage with media content
responsibly and helps create a more informed public discourse, which is crucial for democratic societies.
Q19: Why is media literacy important, according to the passage?
A) It helps individuals engage with media content responsibly and make informed decisions
B) It encourages people to avoid media content altogether
C) It limits critical thinking and informed decision-making
D) It promotes the spread of fake news and misinformation
Text 1
Artificial intelligence (AI) has significantly impacted industries by automating processes and increasing efficiency.
However, critics worry that AI could lead to job displacement and ethical concerns regarding decision-making. Some
argue that the rapid adoption of AI may prioritize efficiency over human values.
Text 2
Supporters of artificial intelligence assert that AI has the potential to enhance human capabilities and create new
opportunities. They believe that while concerns about job displacement are valid, AI can lead to the development of
innovative industries and a more skilled workforce.
Q20: Based on the texts, how would supporters of artificial intelligence (Text 2) most likely respond to the
concerns raised about AI in Text 1?
A) By claiming that AI will inevitably lead to job losses and ethical dilemmas.
B) By suggesting that AI fosters innovation and enables the creation of new industries.
C) By emphasizing that AI does not influence job markets or human values.
D) By arguing that AI adoption should be halted to prevent ethical issues.
Text 1
Renewable energy sources like solar and wind power are being increasingly adopted to combat climate change.
However, some critics argue that renewable energy infrastructure requires significant land use and can disrupt local
ecosystems.
Text 2
Advocates of renewable energy argue that the benefits of reducing greenhouse gas emissions and combating
climate change far outweigh the challenges. They contend that advances in technology can minimize environmental
disruption and enhance the efficiency of renewable energy systems.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would advocates of renewable energy (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns
raised in Text 1?
A) By claiming that renewable energy is ineffective in combating climate change.
B) By suggesting that technological advancements can address land use and ecosystem concerns.
C) By asserting that renewable energy has no impact on local ecosystems.
D) By arguing that renewable energy causes more harm than good.
Text 1
Online education has revolutionized learning by providing accessibility to diverse courses and programs. Critics,
however, argue that online learning can lack the personal interaction and engagement of traditional classrooms,
potentially impacting students’ motivation and understanding.
Text 2
Proponents of online education believe that it democratizes learning by breaking geographical barriers and offering
flexibility. They suggest that innovative tools, such as virtual reality and AI-based tutors, can enhance interaction
and engagement, addressing concerns about the lack of personal connection.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would proponents of online education (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns
raised in Text 1?
A) By claiming that online education cannot replace traditional classrooms.
B) By suggesting that innovative tools can improve engagement and interaction in online learning.
C) By emphasizing that online education only benefits geographically isolated students.
D) By arguing that online education is unsuitable for most learners.
Text 1
Urbanization has transformed cities, driving economic growth and creating opportunities for millions of people.
However, it has also led to challenges like overcrowding, pollution, and strain on infrastructure. Critics worry that
rapid urbanization could negatively impact quality of life.
Text 2
Supporters of urbanization argue that it fosters innovation, improves access to services, and boosts economic
development. They believe that with proper planning and sustainable development strategies, the negative impacts
of urbanization can be mitigated.
Q23: Based on the texts, how would supporters of urbanization (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns
raised in Text 1?
A) By claiming that urbanization is inherently harmful to quality of life.
B) By suggesting that sustainable planning can address overcrowding and infrastructure issues.
C) By emphasizing that urbanization does not influence pollution or infrastructure.
D) By arguing that urbanization should be avoided to maintain quality of life.
Passage 24
Impact of Deforestation on Local Climate Patterns
Region Low Moderate High Total Percent Affected by High
Deforestation Deforestation Deforestation Deforestation
Tropical 50 80 120 250 48.0%
Rainforest
Temperate 60 100 140 300 46.7%
Forest
Boreal Forest 70 110 150 330 45.5%
Subtropical 40 90 110 240 45.8%
Forest
Mountain 80 120 100 300 33.3%
Forest
A study examined the effect of deforestation on local climate patterns in various forest regions. The researchers
found that increased deforestation led to greater climate disturbances, with tropical and temperate forests
showing the most significant changes.
Q24: Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Boreal and subtropical forests showed the highest percentage of disturbance from low deforestation levels.
B) Tropical and temperate forests were most affected by high deforestation levels, with the highest percentage of
disturbance.
C) Mountain forests were the least affected by deforestation, showing a lower disturbance rate.
D) All regions showed an equal percentage of disturbance with high deforestation.

Q25. The Effect of Soil Fertilization on Crop Growth

Crop No Fertilizer Moderate Fertilizer High Fertilizer Tota Percent Found in High Fertilizer
Species l
Wheat 40 100 120 260 46.2%
Corn 50 110 130 290 44.8%
Barley 60 120 140 320 43.8%
Rice 70 90 100 260 38.5%
Soybean 80 110 130 320 40.6%
A study examined the impact of soil fertilization on crop growth. Researchers found that crops like wheat and corn
grew best with higher levels of fertilizer, suggesting that soil nutrients play a significant role in crop productivity.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) All crops showed a preference for moderate fertilization levels.
B) Wheat and corn had the highest percentage of plants found in high fertilizer conditions.
C) Rice showed the lowest percentage of plants found in high fertilizer conditions.
D) Barley and soybean showed a similar preference for moderate fertilizer levels.
Q26. A student is researching the Impact of the U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964:
 The Civil Rights Act of 1964 banned discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
 It was a landmark legislation that addressed segregation in schools, employment, and public accommodations.
 The Act empowered the federal government to enforce civil rights laws and prohibit discriminatory practices.
 The Civil Rights Act was a key victory in the civil rights movement, helping to dismantle institutional racism. The
student wants to summarize the impact of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 outlawed discrimination and played a significant role in dismantling racial
segregation.
B) The Civil Rights Act focused primarily on ensuring equality in education and employment.
C) The Act was a landmark in civil rights, but its effects were limited to racial equality in schools.
D) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 had a limited impact, as it only addressed discrimination in government policies.
Q27. A student is researching the History of the Transatlantic Slave Trade:
 The transatlantic slave trade forcibly transported millions of Africans to the Americas from the 16th to the 19th
centuries.
 European nations established a brutal system of trading slaves for goods, including sugar, tobacco, and cotton.
 The trade had devastating impacts on African societies, including loss of life and disruption of communities.
 The abolition of the transatlantic slave trade in the 19th century marked a significant moment in the fight for
human rights.
The student wants to summarize the history of the transatlantic slave trade. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) The transatlantic slave trade was a horrific chapter in history, involving the forced transportation of millions of
Africans to the Americas.
B) The transatlantic slave trade was primarily driven by the need for labor in European countries.
C) The abolition of the slave trade did not impact African societies, which had already endured significant losses.
D) The transatlantic slave trade was a relatively brief occurrence with minimal long-term consequences for Africa.
Module 2
Passage 1:
The Battle of Hastings in 1066 was a pivotal moment in English history. After defeating King Harold II, William the
Conqueror became king of England, establishing Norman rule and fundamentally __________ the structure of
English society, law, and language.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) transformed
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 2:
Trade was a key factor in the expansion of the Roman Empire. Roman roads, ports, and trade routes connected
distant regions, allowing for the flow of goods, wealth, and ideas. This trade network __________ the empire’s
economic power and its ability to maintain control over vast territories.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) enhanced
C) ignored
D) slowed
Passage 3:
The American Civil War, fought from 1861 to 1865, resulted in the abolition of slavery in the United States. The
Emancipation Proclamation and the Thirteenth Amendment __________ slavery, marking a significant turning point
in American history and society.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforced
B) ended
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 4:
The Persian Empire, at its peak, controlled vast territories across the Middle East and beyond. However, despite its
military might and sophisticated administration, the empire eventually __________ due to invasions by the Greeks
and internal power struggles.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) strengthened
B) collapsed
C) expanded
D) resisted
Passage 5:
The Great Depression, which began in 1929, had a profound impact on European economies. Unemployment
soared, and many countries saw a rise in political extremism. The economic crisis __________ widespread social
unrest and contributed to the instability that led to World War II.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) caused
B) eased
C) reduced
D) overlooked
Passage 6:
During World War II, both the Axis and Allied powers used propaganda to rally support for the war effort. Posters,
films, and radio broadcasts were used to shape public opinion and __________ the resolve of soldiers and civilians.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weaken
B) confuse
C) strengthen
D) hinder
Passage 7:
The formation of the first political parties in the United States occurred in the late 18th century, as differences in
views about government grew. The Federalists, led by Alexander Hamilton, __________ the need for a strong
central government, while the Democratic-Republicans, led by Thomas Jefferson, advocated for states' rights.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) opposed
B) supported
C) ignored
D) overlooked
Passage 8:
The French Enlightenment, a philosophical movement of the 18th century, challenged traditional authority and
promoted ideas of reason, individualism, and secularism. These ideas __________ significant social and cultural
changes in France, inspiring revolutions and reform movements across Europe.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) ignored
C) sparked
D) minimized
Passage 9:
The Roman Empire, with its system of law and governance, left a lasting impact on modern political systems.
ConcePractice Test like republicanism, the separation of powers, and legal equality __________ the development of
democratic governments in Europe and the Americas.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) undermined
C) influenced
D) ignored
Passage 10:
The early Chinese dynasties, including the Shang and Zhou, established many of the cultural and political
foundations that would define Chinese civilization for centuries. These dynasties __________ important advances in
technology, writing, and governance, shaping the future of China.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) neglected
C) contributed
D) ignored
Passage 11
Economic globalization refers to the increasing integration of the world’s economies through trade, investment,
and the flow of labor and technology. While this has led to greater access to markets and improved living standards
in many parts of the world, it has also had significant social and economic consequences for traditional industries.
Many local businesses in developing countries struggle to compete with multinational corporations, leading to job
losses and economic displacement. Additionally, traditional industries in developed nations face challenges from
outsourcing and automation.
Q11: According to the passage, what is one major consequence of economic globalization for traditional
industries?
A) Increased job creation in local markets
B) Difficulty competing with multinational corporations
C) A reduction in international trade
D) Enhanced market opportunities for small businesses
Passage 12
Art movements have historically been catalysts for social change. From the Renaissance, which emphasized
humanism and the value of the individual, to the more recent street art movement, art has played a central role in
challenging social norms and sparking dialogue. Artists often use their work to comment on issues such as
inequality, political corruption, and environmental degradation. These movements not only reflect the values of
their time but also influence public policy and societal attitudes, paving the way for social transformation.
Q12: According to the passage, how have art movements influenced society?
A) By promoting the status quo and maintaining traditional values
B) By challenging social norms and sparking dialogue on societal issues
C) By focusing solely on aesthetic value with no social implications
D) By encouraging governments to censor artistic expression
Passage 13
International conflicts often have significant effects on refugee populations. Wars, persecution, and violence drive
millions of people to flee their home countries in search of safety. Refugees often face dangerous journeys,
uncertain futures, and the loss of their homes, families, and communities. Once they arrive in host countries, they
must adapt to new cultures, languages, and legal systems, often experiencing discrimination and marginalization.
International aid organizations play a crucial role in providing shelter, food, and medical care to these displaced
populations.
Q13: According to the passage, what is one challenge faced by refugees?
A) The ability to maintain their local businesses
B) Adjusting to new cultures, languages, and legal systems
C) Receiving adequate government support in their home countries
D) The ease of accessing international aid
Passage 14
The evolution of gender roles in modern society has been shaped by changing cultural norms, economic factors,
and advances in women's rights. Traditionally, many societies assigned specific roles to men and women, with men
typically responsible for providing financially and women handling domestic duties. However, over the last century,
women have increasingly entered the workforce and pursued careers in fields once dominated by men. These
changes have led to a reevaluation of gender roles, with greater emphasis on equality and shared responsibilities in
both the home and workplace.
Q14: According to the passage, what has contributed to the evolution of gender roles in modern society?
A) The rise of patriarchal systems
B) The spread of traditional gender norms
C) Economic factors and advances in women's rights
D) A reduction in women's participation in the workforce
Passage 15
Cultural heritage plays an essential role in global trade and diplomacy. Countries often use their cultural assets,
such as art, music, and food, as a form of soft power in international relations. Through cultural exchange, countries
foster goodwill and establish stronger diplomatic ties. Additionally, cultural heritage can impact trade by making
certain products more desirable or influencing the branding of goods. Nations with rich cultural traditions often use
their heritage to position themselves in the global market, attracting tourists and investors alike.
Q15: According to the passage, how does cultural heritage influence global trade and diplomacy?
A) By restricting the flow of international trade
B) By positioning nations in the global market through cultural assets
C) By limiting cultural exchange between countries
D) By reducing tourism and international investment
Passage 16
Sports have long been a unifying force in divided societies. Major sporting events, such as the Olympics or the FIFA
World Cup, bring together people from different regions, ethnic groups, and backgrounds, fostering a sense of
national pride and unity. In countries with deep political or social divides, sports often serve as a common ground
where people can set aside their differences and come together to support their teams. This unifying power of
sports extends beyond individual nations, as international competitions promote cooperation and goodwill among
countries.
Q16: According to the passage, how do sports serve divided societies?
A) By creating further divisions between ethnic groups
B) By promoting cooperation and unity among people from different backgrounds
C) By focusing exclusively on individual achievements
D) By discouraging international competition
Passage 17
The impact of social movements on public policy and law can be profound. Movements advocating for civil rights,
gender equality, and environmental protection have led to significant legal changes. For example, the Civil Rights
Movement in the United States resulted in landmark legislation such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Social
movements often bring attention to injustices, forcing policymakers to respond with reforms that aim to address
societal issues and protect marginalized groups.
Q17: According to the passage, what role do social movements play in public policy?
A) They discourage legal reforms and social change
B) They bring attention to injustices and promote legal reforms
C) They focus solely on private individuals rather than public policy
D) They hinder progress by opposing government actions
Passage 18
The growth of digital economies has transformed global markets in recent decades. The rise of e-commerce, digital
services, and online platforms has created new opportunities for businesses and consumers alike. Companies can
now reach global markets more easily, while consumers enjoy access to a wide array of goods and services.
However, this digital transformation has also raised concerns about data privacy, cybersecurity, and the digital
divide between different regions and socioeconomic groups.
Q18: According to the passage, what is one concern related to the growth of digital economies?
A) Increased physical store traffic
B) The creation of more traditional jobs
C) Data privacy and cybersecurity issues
D) The decline in online platforms
Passage 19
In recent years, the influence of youth activism on environmental policy has been increasing. Many young people
are using social media platforms to raise awareness about climate change, organize protests, and demand
government action. The Fridays for Future movement, started by Greta Thunberg, has gained worldwide attention
and has encouraged many young people to push for policies aimed at reducing carbon emissions, protecting
biodiversity, and combating climate change on a global scale.
Q19: According to the passage, what role does youth activism play in environmental policy?
A) It opposes government action on climate change
B) It raises awareness and encourages policy change on climate issues
C) It promotes the use of traditional energy sources
D) It discourages young people from participating in protests
Passage 20
The influence of digital technologies on global markets cannot be overstated. Online platforms and e-commerce
have reshaped traditional industries, making it easier for businesses to reach global customers. Digital tools have
also enabled new business models, such as gig economies and remote work. However, these advances have come
with challenges, including concerns about job displacement, inequality, and the erosion of privacy in the digital age.
Q20: According to the passage, what is one challenge associated with the influence of digital technologies on
global markets?
A) An increase in traditional jobs in industries like agriculture
B) The erosion of privacy and concerns about job displacement
C) A decrease in access to global markets for businesses
D) A reduction in the use of e-commerce platforms
Passage 21
In recent decades, the world has seen an increase in the number of natural disasters due to climate change. Severe
weather patterns, such as hurricanes, wildfires, and floods, have become more frequent and destructive. In
particular, coastal cities are at risk from rising sea levels, which threaten to _______ communities located along the
shore. Scientists are urging governments to invest in infrastructure that can withstand these environmental
changes. At the same time, reducing carbon emissions remains a top priority to slow the progression of climate
change.
Q21. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) displace
B) displaced
C) displacing
D) displaces
Passage 22
The discovery of the human genome has provided scientists with a blueprint of human DNA, helping to advance the
fields of genetics and medicine. Researchers are now able to identify genetic markers linked to various diseases,
such as cancer and diabetes. However, some of the ethical concerns surrounding genetic research remain
unresolved, particularly when it comes to genetic modification. Critics argue that editing genes could lead to
unintended consequences, including the potential _______ of certain traits that may not be desirable.
Q22. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) the eliminating
B) eliminate
C) eliminated
D) eliminating
Text 1
The environmental movement of the 20th century sought to raise awareness about the growing threats to the
planet’s ecosystems, such as pollution, deforestation, and loss of biodiversity. Pioneers like Rachel Carson, with her
landmark book "Silent Spring," helped spark widespread concern about the harmful effects of pesticides. Since
then, many governments and organizations have implemented policies aimed at protecting the environment, but
challenges remain as industrialization continues to exert pressure on natural resources.
Text 2
In recent decades, environmental activists have shifted their focus to climate change, recognizing its potential to
cause widespread environmental destruction. Many groups are advocating for the reduction of greenhouse gas
emissions, increased reliance on renewable energy, and the implementation of sustainable practices in agriculture
and industry. Additionally, international agreements like the Paris Agreement aim to unite countries in addressing
global climate challenges.
Q23: Based on the texts, how would environmental activists (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns about
pollution and ecosystem threats discussed in Text 1?
A) By suggesting that the issue of climate change is unrelated to the environmental threats discussed in Text 13
B) By emphasizing that climate change represents a new, more urgent challenge that requires global cooperation
and action
C) By arguing that the threats described in Text 13 are no longer relevant in the modern world
D) By recommending the continuation of past environmental policies without consideration of new challenges like
climate change
Q24. The Impact of Ocean Acidification on Coral Reefs
Species Low pH Moderate pH High pH Total Percent Found in
High pH
Coral 90 120 110 320 34.4%
Clownfish 50 80 90 220 40.9%
Sea Turtles 40 100 130 270 48.1%
Fish 70 150 120 340 35.3%
Sharks 60 110 140 310 45.2%
A study was conducted to examine the effects of ocean acidification on marine life. The researchers found that
species like coral and clownfish showed a preference for higher pH levels, highlighting the potential threats posed
by ocean acidification.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) All species showed a preference for low pH conditions.
B) Fish had the highest percentage of species found in low pH conditions.
C) Coral and clownfish were found in the highest percentage in high pH conditions.
D) Sea turtles showed the lowest percentage of species in high pH conditions.
Q25. Impact of Artificial Light on Plant Growth
Plant Species Low Light Moderate High Light Total Percent Found
Light in High Light
Fern 40 80 90 210 42.9%
Cactus 60 100 110 270 40.7%
Orchid 70 130 150 350 42.9%
Tulip 80 120 130 330 39.4%
Lavender 50 90 100 240 41.7%
A study investigated the impact of artificial light on plant growth. Researchers found that plants such as orchids and
ferns thrived under high light conditions, suggesting that artificial lighting may benefit certain plant species.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Orchid and fern had the highest percentage of plants found in high light conditions.
B) Lavender showed the highest percentage of plants found in low light conditions.
C) Cactus was most likely to grow under low light conditions.
D) Tulip showed the lowest percentage of plants in high light conditions.

Q26. A student is researching the impact of urbanization on the environment:

• Urbanization often leads to the destruction of natural habitats, reducing biodiversity.
• The expansion of cities contributes to air and water pollution, affecting both the environment and human health.
• However, urbanization can also lead to the development of green spaces, such as parks, that provide
environmental and recreational benefits.
• Sustainable urban planning aims to reduce the environmental footprint of cities by incorporating green
technologies and energy-efficient designs.
The student wants to summarize the relationship between urbanization and the environment. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) Urbanization contributes to environmental degradation, but sustainable planning can reduce its negative effects.
B) The destruction of habitats and pollution caused by urbanization has no long-term consequences on the
environment.
C) Urbanization’s benefits include the creation of green spaces, making it a positive force for the environment.
D) Sustainable urban planning primarily focuses on increasing the size of cities while neglecting environmental
concerns.
Q27. A student is researching the Influence of Ancient Greek Philosophers on Western Thought:
 Philosophers like Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle laid the foundation for Western philosophy.
 Socratic questioning and the development of logic and ethics shaped intellectual thought.
 Plato’s theories on ideal forms and Aristotle’s contributions to science influenced various academic fields.
 Greek philosophers emphasized the pursuit of knowledge, virtue, and reason as central to human life. The
student wants to summarize the influence of Greek philosophers on Western thought.
Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) Ancient Greek philosophers shaped Western thought through their contributions to ethics, logic, and science.
B) Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle focused on the importance of virtue and ethics, neglecting other aspects of
thought.
C) The philosophies of Ancient Greece were primarily concerned with religion and art.
D) Western thought owes its foundation mainly to the works of Plato, who emphasized ideal forms.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 5x − 7 = 18.
A) x = 5
B) x = 3
C) x = 7
D) x = −5
Q2: Solve the inequality: 3x − 4 ≤ 8.
A) x ≤ 4
B) x ≤ 5
C) x ≥ 5
D) x ≥ 4
Q3: In a certain linear relationship, the value of y depends on x according to the equation y = 2x − 5.
If x = 6, what is the value of y?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 8
D) 11
Q4: What is the slope and y-intercept of the line y = 3x + 4?
A) Slope = 3, y-intercept = 4
B) Slope = −3, y-intercept = 4
C) Slope = 3, y-intercept = −4
D) Slope = −3, y-intercept = −4
Q5: Solve for x in the equation: 2x + 8 = 20.
A) x = 6
B) x = 5
C) x = 12
D) x = 4
Q6: Solve the inequality: 4x − 3 > 9.
A) x > 3
B) x > 4
C) x > 2
D) x > 1
Q7: If the equation of a line is y = −2x + 5, what is the slope of the line?
A) −2
B) 2
C) −5
D) 5
Q8: What is the equation of a line with slope 3 and y-intercept −4?
A) y = 3x − 4
B) y = −3x − 4
C) y = 3x + 4
D) y = −3x + 4
Q9: Simplify the rational expression: (x^2+7x+10)/(x^2+9x+20).
A) (x+2)/(x+4)
B) (x+5)/(x+4)
C) (x+2)/(x+4)
D) (x+5)/(x+2)
Q10: Solve the equation: log3(27)=x.
A) x=1
B) x=2
C) x=3
D) x=4
Q11: Solve for x: 2^(x+1) = 32.
A) x=3
B) x=4
C) x=5
D) x=6
Q12: Solve the rational equation: (x+1)/(x-2) = (x-3)/(x+2).
A) x=-1
B) x=1
C) x=3
D) x=-3
Q13: The population of a city is modeled by the exponential function P(t)=5000e^(0.03t), where t is the time in
years. What is the population after 10 years? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
A) 6710
B) 7450
C) 6783
D) 8340
Q14: Simplify the expression: (3x^2-12)/(6x).
A) x-2/2
B) x-4/2
C) x-2
D) x-4
Q15: Solve the word problem: A sum of $5000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 4%, compounded
continuously. Using the formula A=Pe(rt), what will be the total amount after 5 years? (Round to the nearest cent.)
A) $6098.47
B) $6108.63
C) $6120.00
D) $6200.50
Q16: Solve the equation: (2x)/(x+1)=3.
A) x=3
B) x=1
C) x=0
D) x=-1
Q17. A survey of 50 students found that the average number of hours they spend on homework each week is 8
hours, with a standard deviation of 2 hours. What is the range of values that fall within one standard deviation of
the mean for this distribution?
A) 4 hours to 12 hours
B) 6 hours to 10 hours
C) 8 hours to 10 hours
D) 6 hours to 12 hours
Q18. A bag contains 4 red balls, 3 green balls, and 5 blue balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the
probability that it is either red or blue?
A) 7/12
B) 3/12
C) 2/12
D) 5/12
Q19. A company claims that 60% of its customers are satisfied with their service. A sample of 200 customers is
taken, and 120 of them report being satisfied. Which of the following is the most reasonable inference about the
company’s claim?
A) The sample supports the company’s claim.
B) The sample contradicts the company’s claim.
C) The sample is too small to make any conclusions.
D) The sample is biased, so the claim cannot be evaluated.
Q20. In a right triangle, one of the angles measures 30°. If the length of the hypotenuse is 12, what is the length
of the side opposite the 30° angle?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 10
D) 3
Q21. In a circle, a central angle measures 80°, and the intercepted arc has a length of 16π. What is the radius of
the circle? (Use π = 3.14)
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 16
Q22. What is the value of cos(45°) on the unit circle?
A) √2/2
B) 1/2
C) 0
D) √3/2

Module 2
Q1: Solve the equation: 7x+2=23.
A) x=3
B) x=4
C) x=5
D) x=6
Q2: Solve the inequality: 4x-5≤15.
A) x≤4
B) x≤5
C) x≥5
D) x≥4
Q3: The slope of a line passing through the points (2,5) and (6,13) is:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
[Q4: If y=-4x+2 and x=-3, what is the value of y?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 8
Q5: Solve for x in the equation: 9x-12=24.
A) x=4
B) x=5
C) x=6
D) x=7
Q6: What is the equation of a line with a slope of 3 and passing through the point (0,-2)?
A) y=3x-2
B) y=-3x-2
C) y=3x+2
D) y=-3x+2
Q7: Solve the inequality: -3x+6>0.
A) x<2
B) x>2
C) x<3
D) x>3
Q8: A line passes through the points (-1,3) and (3,-5). What is the slope of the line?
A) -2
B) 2
C) -4
D) 4
Q9: Solve for x in the equation: 5x+7=2x+19.
A) x=3
B) x=4
C) x=5
D) x=6
Q10: If y=1/4x+3 and x=8, what is the value of y?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Q9: Simplify the rational expression: (x^2-9)/(x^2+3x).
A) (x-3)/x
B) (x-3)/(x+3)
C) (x+3)/x
D) (x-3)/x
Q10: Solve the logarithmic equation: log2(8x)=5.
A) x=2
B) x=4
C) x=6
D) x=8
Q11: Solve for x: (x+2)/(x-3)=(x-1)/(x+4).
A) x=-0.5
B) x=-0.3
C) x=-5
D) x=-4
Q12: Find the inverse of the function f(x)=3x+7.
A) f^(-1)(x)=x/3+7
B) f^(-1)(x)=(x-7)/3
C) f^(-1)(x)=x/3-7
D) f^(-1)(x)=(x+7)/3
Q13: Solve for x: 4^(x-1)=64.
A) x=3
B) x=4
C) x=5
D) x=6
Q14: A sum of $1000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 5%, compounded continuously. Using the formula
A=Pe^(rt), what is the total amount after 6 years? (Round to the nearest cent.)
A) $1334.20
B) $1349.90
C) $1350.50
D) $1365.40
Q15: If a recipe requires 3 cups of flour for every 2 cups of sugar, how many cups of sugar are needed if you use 9
cups of flour?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
Q16: Convert 150 kilometers per hour to meters per second. (1 km = 1000 m)
A) 41.67 m/s
B) 42.00 m/s
C) 25.00 m/s
D) 50.00 m/s
Q17: Solve for x: log2(x2)=6.
A) x=4
B) x=8
C) x=16
D) x=64
Q18: If f(x)=log(x)+5, find f(100).
A) 2
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15
Q19: The base of a triangle is 10 cm, and its height is 8 cm. What is the area of the triangle?
A) 50 cm²
B) 40 cm²
C) 80 cm²
D) 100 cm²
Q20: A cone has a radius of 3 cm and a height of 4 cm. What is its volume? (Use π≈3.14)
A) 37.68 cm³
B) 50.24 cm³
C) 75.36 cm³
D) 113.04 cm³
Q21: In a right triangle, one of the angles is 30°. If the hypotenuse is 10 units, what is the length of the side
opposite the 30° angle?
A) 8
B) 7
C) 5
D) 10
Q22: Two triangles are similar. The sides of the first triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm. The longest side of the
second triangle is 15 cm. What is the perimeter of the second triangle?
A) 36 cm
B) 45 cm
C) 60 cm
D) 72 cm
PRACTICE TEST 5
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
In 1519, Spanish conquistador Hernán Cortés led an expedition that eventually overthrew the Aztec Empire. The fall
of the Aztecs was facilitated by Cortés' alliances with local tribes, superior weaponry, and __________ the Aztec
ruler Montezuma II.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakening
B) strengthening
C) defying
D) negotiating
Passage 2:
The ancient Olympic Games, originating in Olympia in 776 BCE, were held in honor of Zeus. The Games were a
celebration of physical prowess and __________ the importance of athletic competition in Greek culture.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) emphasized
C) ignored
D) undermined
Passage 3:
Philosophers like Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle shaped Western thought through their explorations of ethics,
politics, and knowledge. Their work laid the groundwork for the development of Western philosophy and
__________ the intellectual traditions that would dominate Europe for centuries.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) destroyed
B) hindered
C) influenced
D) ignored
Passage 4:
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was a landmark law that prohibited discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or
national origin. This law __________ segregation in public places and promoted equality in education and
employment.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) promoted
B) justified
C) dismantled
D) ignored
Passage 5:
The transatlantic slave trade, which lasted from the 16th to the 19th century, forcibly transported millions of
Africans to the Americas. This trade was integral to the growth of plantation economies and __________ the
exploitation of enslaved people for labor.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) slowed
B) fueled
C) decreased
D) hindered
Passage 6:
The Byzantine Empire played a crucial role in preserving the knowledge of the ancient Greeks and Romans. As the
Western Roman Empire fell, the Byzantines continued to study and __________ classical texts, ensuring their
survival for future generations.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) neglect
B) destroy
C) preserve
D) dismiss
Passage 7:
The Declaration of the Rights of Man, adopted in 1789 during the French Revolution, laid out the principles of
individual liberty and equality. It was heavily influenced by Enlightenment ideals and __________ a shift in political
thought that challenged monarchical authority.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforced
B) marked
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 8:
Throughout the Middle Ages, the Catholic Church played a significant role in shaping European art and architecture.
Churches, cathedrals, and religious artworks were often commissioned to convey religious themes and __________
the power and influence of the Church across Europe.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminish
B) obscure
C) affirm
D) challenge
Passage 9:
The Protestant Reformation, initiated by Martin Luther in the 16th century, was a religious movement that
criticized the Catholic Church’s practices. Luther’s 95 Theses and the subsequent spread of Protestantism
__________ major religious, political, and social changes in Germany and Europe.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) caused
B) obstructed
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 10:
The invention of the steam engine by James Watt in the 18th century revolutionized industries by providing a new
source of power. This innovation __________ the growth of factories, transportation systems, and technological
advancements during the Industrial Revolution.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) fueled
C) ignored
D) slowed
Passage 11
The role of art and music in shaping political movements has been profound throughout history. Artists and
musicians have often used their craft to express dissent, unite communities, and raise awareness about political
issues. During times of social upheaval, art and music become tools of resistance, offering a voice to the
marginalized and promoting social change. Iconic works like Picasso's "Guernica" and the protest songs of the 1960s
exemplify how creative expression can influence public opinion and political action.
Q11: According to the passage, how do art and music contribute to political movements?
A) By maintaining traditional cultural values
B) By promoting social change and raising political awareness
C) By focusing on aesthetic beauty rather than political issues
D) By promoting national unity through entertainment
Passage 12
Throughout history, political movements have often been supported by the creation and dissemination of art and
music. These forms of expression serve not only as a means of communication but also as a source of inspiration for
political activists. In times of struggle, art and music can galvanize supporters, reflect societal values, and challenge
oppressive regimes. Through their emotional power, they can inspire individuals to take action and stand up for
justice and equality.
Q12: What role does art and music play in political movements, according to the passage?
A) To maintain the status quo
B) To serve as emotional tools that inspire action and support
C) To create barriers between different political ideologies
D) To entertain without influencing political views
Passage 13
The connection between art, music, and politics became especially evident during the civil rights movements in the
20th century. Musicians such as Bob Dylan and Nina Simone used their songs to address racial inequality and call
for social justice. Visual artists, too, played a vital role in these movements, creating powerful images that
symbolized resistance and hope. The widespread use of music and art as forms of protest helped spread the
message of the civil rights movement globally.
Q13: Based on the passage, what was a key function of art and music during the civil rights movement?
A) To entertain audiences during protests
B) To challenge inequality and promote social justice
C) To support traditional political structures
D) To create a cultural divide between different groups
Passage 14
Art and music have often been used as methods of resistance during political unrest. For example, during the
Vietnam War, anti-war songs became anthems for protestors. These forms of expression provided a means for
people to voice their opposition to government policies and helped to create solidarity among disparate groups. Art
and music were not only mediums of protest but also ways to communicate messages to a broader audience,
sometimes bypassing censorship and government control.
Q14: According to the passage, why were art and music important during political protests?
A) They were easily censored by authorities
B) They helped create unity and bypass government control
C) They focused on entertainment instead of political issues
D) They supported the government’s policies
Passage 15
Political movements are often shaped by the media, including music and art. For instance, the 1960s counterculture
movement in the United States relied heavily on music to express disillusionment with the government and social
norms. Songs like "Imagine" by John Lennon captured the aspirations of those seeking peace and unity, while
posters and visual art reflected the movement's desire for a new societal order. The convergence of art, music, and
political thought played a key role in the effectiveness of the movement.
Q15. According to the passage, how did art and music contribute to the counterculture movement?
A) By reinforcing existing government policies
B) By expressing disillusionment and promoting social change
C) By focusing only on aesthetic qualities
D) By avoiding political themes
Passage 16
Music and art have historically been at the forefront of political revolution. During the French Revolution, for
example, music played a central role in the mobilization of revolutionary sentiment. Songs like "La Marseillaise"
became anthems for the revolutionaries, instilling a sense of unity and purpose. Art, too, depicted the struggles of
the people and called for societal transformation, ensuring that the messages of the revolution reached both the
elite and the general public.
Q16: What role did music and art play during the French Revolution?
A) They were used to celebrate the monarchy
B) They helped mobilize sentiment and spread revolutionary messages
C) They had no significant impact on the revolution
D) They focused on historical depictions of the monarchy
Passage 17
The cultural impact of art and music in political movements is not limited to any one time or place. From the
suffrage movements to modern-day protests, creative expression has always been a vital tool for social change. In
times when direct political speech was restricted or oppressed, art and music allowed for the silent expression of
resistance. Whether through visual protest art, street performances, or protest songs, these forms of expression
have given voice to those who might otherwise have been silenced.
Q17: What does the passage suggest about the role of art and music in political movements?
A) They were only useful in ancient political movements
B) They gave voice to those oppressed or silenced
C) They were not as impactful as direct political speech
D) They had no role in modern political movements
Passage 18
Art and music can influence political movements by offering symbolic representations of power, resistance, and
unity. For instance, in the South African anti-apartheid movement, songs like "Nkosi Sikelel' iAfrika" became
symbols of unity, hope, and resistance. These songs not only reflected the struggles of the people but also
energized the movement, creating a shared sense of purpose among its supporters. Similarly, visual art in the
movement communicated messages of solidarity and resistance to the global community.
Q18: How did art and music influence the anti-apartheid movement?
A) By distracting the public from the movement’s goals
B) By providing symbols of unity and resistance
C) By supporting apartheid policies
D) By creating divisions among the movement’s supporters
Passage 19
Throughout history, revolutionary movements have often incorporated music and art to strengthen their causes.
The civil rights movement in the United States, for example, relied heavily on music to express its message of
equality and justice. The use of freedom songs and protest anthems helped to rally individuals, build solidarity, and
keep hope alive in the face of oppression. Through such artistic expressions, the movement was able to
communicate its goals to a wider audience and inspire action.
Q19: According to the passage, how did music contribute to the civil rights movement?
A) By focusing only on entertainment
B) By expressing messages of equality and justice
C) By discouraging people from participating
D) By supporting discriminatory laws
Passage 20
Art and music play an essential role in shaping political identities and movements. From the punk rock music of the
1970s to the protest art of contemporary movements, these forms of expression reflect the values, struggles, and
aspirations of those who are marginalized or oppressed. In times of political upheaval, art and music offer a voice to
the powerless, challenge authority, and promote societal change, making them indispensable tools in the fight for
justice and equality.
Q20: What is the primary function of art and music in political movements, as described in the passage?
A) To entertain audiences without political messages
B) To challenge authority and promote societal change
C) To focus on personal expression without social concerns
D) To support existing political power structures
Passage 21
In Beloved by Toni Morrison, the theme of memory is intricately woven into the narrative as the characters are
haunted by the traumatic experiences of slavery. Sethe, the protagonist, is forced to confront her past when the
ghost of her dead daughter returns to haunt her. The novel explores how the characters are unable to escape the
psychological scars of their history.
Q21: Which choice best captures the theme of memory in the passage?
A) Memory is portrayed as a force that allows the characters to move on from their past.
B) The past haunts the characters, preventing them from finding peace or resolution.
C) Memory is irrelevant to the characters’ development and growth.
D) The characters’ memories help them forget the painful past.
Passage 22
In Fahrenheit 451 by Ray Bradbury, the role of censorship is examined through the protagonist, Guy Montag, who
works as a fireman tasked with burning books in a dystopian society. As Montag begins to question his society’s
prohibition on knowledge, the novel raises important questions about the dangers of censorship and the
suppression of free thought.
Q22: Which choice best encapsulates the theme of censorship in the passage?
A) Censorship is portrayed as a means of ensuring happiness and harmony.
B) The suppression of knowledge is shown to stifle individuality and critical thinking.
C) Censorship is irrelevant to the development of the novel’s plot.
D) Montag’s work as a fireman promotes intellectual freedom and progress.
Text 1
Over the last few decades, the rise of digital technology has transformed the way people interact with each other.
Initially, socializing was primarily face-to-face, but with the advent of the internet and smartphones, online
communication has become the dominant form of social interaction. This shift has led to the creation of virtual
communities, where people from different parts of the world can connect instantly. However, concerns have arisen
about the impact of this technology on personal relationships, mental health, and privacy.
Text 2
Psychologists and sociologists argue that while digital communication has its advantages, such as convenience and
global connectivity, it can also lead to feelings of isolation and a decline in the quality of personal relationships.
They suggest that people need to balance their online interactions with face-to-face communication to foster more
meaningful connections. Additionally, experts emphasize the importance of safeguarding privacy in an increasingly
digital world, where personal information is often shared without full awareness of the risks.
Q23: Based on the texts, how would psychologists and sociologists (Text 2) most likely respond to the shift
towards online communication discussed in Text 1?
A) By arguing that digital communication should completely replace face-to-face interactions for efficiency
B) By suggesting that people need to find a balance between online and offline communication to improve
relationship quality
C) By recommending that everyone should avoid using digital technology to protect their mental health
D) By advocating for more government regulations on social media to prevent privacy violations
Q24. Impact of Air Pollution on Plant Health
Plant Low Moderate High Pollution Total Percent Found in
Species Pollution Pollution High Pollution

Oak 50 100 80 230 34.8%

Pine 40 120 90 250 36.0%
Birch 60 110 120 290 41.4%
Maple 80 90 110 280 39.3%
Cedar 70 100 130 300 43.3%
A study was conducted to evaluate how air pollution affects plant health. The results showed that higher pollution
levels negatively impacted the growth of various species, with certain plants being more susceptible to
environmental stress.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) All species had a higher percentage of plants found in low pollution areas.
B) Birch and cedar had the highest percentage of plants found in high pollution areas.
C) Oak was the most resilient to pollution, with the highest percentage in high pollution.
D) Pine had the highest percentage of plants found in low pollution areas.
Q25. Effects of Climate Change on Agricultural Yields
Crop Species Low Moderate High Total Percent Found
Temperature Temperature Temperature in High
Temperature
Wheat 60 120 140 320 43.8%
Corn 50 130 150 330 45.5%
Rice 70 110 100 280 35.7%
Soybean 80 120 110 310 35.5%
Barley 40 80 110 230 47.8%
A study observed the effects of climate change on agricultural yields, focusing on temperature fluctuations.
Researchers found that crops such as wheat and corn were more likely to thrive under higher temperature
conditions, suggesting that some crops are adapting to warmer climates.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Wheat and corn had the highest percentage of crops found under high temperature conditions.
B) Soybean was the most adaptable to high temperature conditions.
C) Rice had the lowest percentage of crops found in high temperature conditions.
D) Barley showed the highest percentage of crops found in moderate temperature conditions.
Q26. A student is researching the Spanish Conquest of the Aztecs:
 In 1519, Hernán Cortés led an expedition that ultimately overthrew the Aztec Empire.
 The Aztecs initially mistook the Spanish for gods due to their advanced technology and weapons.
 Cortés formed alliances with indigenous groups who were enemies of the Aztecs.
 The conquest resulted in the destruction of the Aztec civilization and the establishment of Spanish rule in
Mexico. The student wants to summarize the Spanish Conquest of the Aztecs.
Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The Spanish Conquest of the Aztecs was marked by strategic alliances and the downfall of an empire.
B) Hernán Cortés defeated the Aztecs through superior technology, leading to Spanish domination.
C) The Aztec Empire was destroyed by the Spanish due to a mix of conquest and disease.
D) Cortés's conquest of the Aztecs relied on military strength, alliances, and indigenous support.
Q27. A student is researching the Development of the Olympic Games in Ancient Greece:
 The first recorded Olympic Games were held in Olympia in 776 BCE to honor the god Zeus.
 The Games were part of a religious festival that included athletic competitions, music, and poetry.
 Only free male Greek citizens could compete, and the events were held in the nude to celebrate the human
body.
 The Olympics were held every four years and became a symbol of unity for the Greek city-states.
The student wants to summarize the development of the Olympic Games. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) The Olympic Games began in Ancient Greece as a religious festival and became a symbol of unity among city-
states.
B) The Olympics were solely athletic events celebrating the human body, without any religious significance.
C) The Games started as a competition between Greek city-states and were exclusive to Olympic athletes.
D) Ancient Greece used the Olympics to honor gods, including competitions and cultural events.
Module 2
Passage 1:
The American frontier was a symbol of opportunity and expansion during the 19th century. Westward expansion,
driven by the promise of land and resources, led to the settlement of vast territories but also __________ conflicts
with Native American tribes.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolved
B) ignored
C) exacerbated
D) delayed
Passage 2:
In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, the first true antibiotic. This groundbreaking discovery
revolutionized medicine and __________ the treatment of bacterial infections, saving countless lives in the years
that followed.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) hindered
C) advanced
D) ignored
Passage 3:
During the 8th to 11th centuries, Vikings from Scandinavia launched invasions across Europe. These raids disrupted
local societies and __________ the development of medieval kingdoms, but also contributed to cultural exchanges
and the spread of Viking influence.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) fortified
C) advanced
D) weakened
Passage 4:
Charlemagne, crowned Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire in 800 CE, expanded the Carolingian Empire and sought
to revive learning and culture. His reign __________ the foundation for the development of medieval European
civilization and the spread of Christianity.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) destroyed
C) laid
D) ignored
Passage 5:
The Qing Dynasty, the last imperial dynasty of China, fell in 1912 due to a combination of internal corruption,
external pressures, and the rise of nationalist movements. The overthrow of the Qing marked the end of
__________ rule in China.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) imperial
B) democratic
C) monarchic
D) feudal
Passage 6:
In the 19th century, the rise of nationalism in Europe spurred movements for independence and unification.
Countries like Italy and Germany were unified, while others experienced struggles for national identity and
__________.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) division
B) expansion
C) peace
D) independence
Passage 7:
The U.S. Constitution, ratified in 1787, established the framework for the federal government. The Bill of Rights,
added in 1791, guaranteed individual freedoms and __________ the structure of American democracy.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) strengthened
C) weakened
D) ignored
Passage 8:
The abolitionist movement in the United States gained momentum in the 19th century, with leaders like Frederick
Douglass advocating for the emancipation of enslaved people. The movement ________ the national debate over
slavery, influencing public opinion and political action.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) hindered
C) intensified
D) ignored
Passage 9:
In 1215, King John of England signed the Magna Carta, a document that limited royal power and affirmed certain
rights for subjects. The Magna Carta’s significance lies in its role in __________ the foundation for modern
concePractice Test of justice and individual rights.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delaying
B) eroding
C) establishing
D) ignoring
Passage 10:
The Trojan War, as described in works like Homer’s Iliad, has become one of the most iconic stories in Western
literature. The siege of Troy symbolizes the destruction caused by prolonged war and __________ the theme of fate
versus free will.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermines
B) reinforces
C) delays
D) contradicts
Passage 11
The nature of marriage and relationships has changed significantly in the 21st century. Traditional roles are being
redefined as people increasingly prioritize individual freedom and personal growth. More couples are choosing
cohabitation over marriage, and there is a growing acceptance of diverse relationship structures, such as same-sex
marriages and non-monogamous arrangements. Technology has also influenced relationships, enabling long-
distance connections through social media and dating apps, but also raising concerns about the authenticity of
online interactions.
Q11: According to the passage, how have relationships and marriage changed in the 21st century?
A) They are less influenced by technology
B) They prioritize individual freedom and personal growth
C) They focus more on traditional gender roles
D) They are unaffected by societal changes
Passage 12
As technology advances, privacy concerns have become a significant issue. The widespread use of social media,
surveillance cameras, and data collection by corporations and governments raises questions about civil liberties and
individual rights. While technology has enhanced convenience, it has also made personal information more
accessible and vulnerable to misuse. Striking a balance between security and privacy has become a major challenge
in the digital age.
Q12: According to the passage, what is a major concern raised by technological advances?
A) The loss of personal data and privacy
B) Increased technological innovation
C) The growth of social media companies
D) The disappearance of privacy in personal spaces
Passage 13
Urbanization has significantly impacted rural communities, bringing both challenges and opportunities. On the one
hand, rural areas have seen a decline in population as people move to cities in search of better job opportunities
and living conditions. On the other hand, urbanization has brought improvements such as better infrastructure,
healthcare, and education to some rural regions. However, the rapid pace of urbanization often leads to the erosion
of traditional rural cultures and lifestyles.
Q13: How has urbanization affected rural communities, according to the passage?
A) It has only improved healthcare and education
B) It has led to the erosion of rural cultures and lifestyles
C) It has increased the population in rural areas
D) It has caused a decline in city populations
Passage 14
Youth have always been at the forefront of social movements, advocating for change and challenging the status
quo. From the civil rights movement to recent climate protests, young people are increasingly using social media to
organize and amplify their voices. Their involvement is crucial, as they bring fresh perspectives, passion, and the
energy needed to sustain movements for social justice, equality, and environmental sustainability.
Q14: According to the passage, what role do youth play in social movements?
A) They are often passive participants
B) They contribute fresh perspectives and energy
C) They focus solely on personal issues
D) They avoid using social media for activism
Passage 15
Colonialism has had a lasting impact on modern-day societies, shaping their political, economic, and cultural
structures. The legacy of colonial rule continues to affect countries, particularly in terms of economic disparities,
political instability, and social inequality. Many post-colonial nations are still grappling with the consequences of
colonialism, including the imposition of artificial borders, exploitation of resources, and disruption of traditional
social systems.
Q15: What is one of the lasting effects of colonialism on modern societies, according to the passage?
A) The strengthening of traditional social systems
B) Economic disparities and political instability
C) The complete eradication of social inequality
D) The elimination of artificial borders
Passage 16
Social isolation, whether due to physical distance or emotional detachment, has significant psychological effects.
Studies show that individuals who experience prolonged social isolation are at an increased risk of developing
mental health issues such as depression, anxiety, and cognitive decline. Human beings are inherently social
creatures, and the lack of social interaction can result in feelings of loneliness, reduced self-esteem, and a sense of
disconnection from society.
Q16: What is one of the psychological effects of social isolation, according to the passage?
A) Increased social interaction
B) Reduced risk of mental health issues
C) Increased risk of depression and anxiety
D) Improved cognitive functioning
Passage 17
Affirmative action policies have been a subject of debate for decades. These policies aim to provide equal
opportunities in education and employment for historically disadvantaged groups, including racial minorities and
women. Supporters argue that affirmative action is necessary to correct systemic inequalities, while opponents
believe that it leads to reverse discrimination and undermines merit-based decision-making. The impact of
affirmative action on society continues to be a contentious issue.
Q17: According to the passage, what is the main purpose of affirmative action policies?
A) To provide equal opportunities to historically disadvantaged groups
B) To eliminate all forms of discrimination
C) To favor merit-based decision-making
D) To promote inequality in education and employment
Passage 18
The United Nations (UN) plays a critical role in resolving global conflicts, acting as a neutral platform for dialogue
and negotiation. Through peacekeeping missions, diplomatic efforts, and humanitarian aid, the UN works to
maintain international peace and security. The organization faces numerous challenges, including the difficulty of
achieving consensus among its member states, but it remains an essential player in addressing global conflicts and
promoting human rights.
Q18: What role does the United Nations play in global conflict resolution, according to the passage?
A) It is a military organization that enforces peace through force
B) It serves as a neutral platform for dialogue and negotiation
C) It only provides financial aid to conflict regions
D) It ignores global conflicts to focus on economic issues
Passage 19
Political parties in the United States have evolved significantly over the years. Initially, political parties were loosely
organized groups, but today they are well-structured organizations with clear platforms and a strong influence on
national elections. The rise of partisan politics has led to increased polarization, with both major parties often
having sharply contrasting views on key issues. The evolution of political parties reflects the changing political
landscape of the nation.
Q19: According to the passage, how have political parties in the United States evolved?
A) They have become less influential in national elections
B) They are now more polarized with contrasting views
C) They have remained unchanged in structure
D) They have merged into a single organization

Passage 20
Universal healthcare has been a topic of significant debate worldwide. Advocates argue that universal healthcare is
essential for ensuring that all individuals, regardless of their income or background, have access to necessary
medical care. Opponents, however, contend that universal healthcare can lead to higher taxes and inefficiencies in
healthcare delivery. The social and economic implications of universal healthcare are complex, as it requires
balancing costs, access, and quality of care.
Q20: What is a key argument made by opponents of universal healthcare, according to the passage?
A) It guarantees equal access to medical care for all
B) It may lead to higher taxes and inefficiencies in delivery
C) It is cost-effective and improves healthcare quality
D) It eliminates all social inequalities
Text 1
The agricultural revolution, which occurred over several thousand years, transformed human societies from
nomadic hunting and gathering to settled farming. This shift allowed for the development of permanent
communities and the eventual rise of cities and civilizations. However, the agricultural revolution also had
unintended consequences, such as the depletion of soil nutrients, over-reliance on specific crops, and the rise of
social hierarchies.
Text 2
Modern agricultural practices continue to evolve in response to the challenges posed by the agricultural revolution.
Advancements in biotechnology, such as genetically modified organisms (GMOs), have enabled farmers to increase
crop yields and resistance to pests. Additionally, sustainable farming techniques, including crop rotation and
organic farming, have been developed to mitigate some of the environmental impacts associated with traditional
agriculture.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would proponents of modern agricultural techniques (Text 2) most likely respond
to the concerns raised about early agricultural practices in Text 1?
A) By arguing that modern farming has led to the same social hierarchies observed in ancient agricultural societies
B) By suggesting that biotechnology and sustainable farming practices offer solutions to the environmental and
social challenges of early agriculture
C) By emphasizing the need to return to traditional, pre-agricultural practices for a more sustainable future
D) By claiming that the environmental impact of agriculture has been overstated and does not need to be
addressed
Text 3
Throughout history, many societies have been shaped by the influence of religion. In ancient civilizations, religion
provided a framework for understanding the world and guided moral behavior. Temples, priests, and religious
leaders played central roles in governance, and religious rituals were often integrated into daily life. In more recent
centuries, however, the rise of secularism and scientific thought has led to a decline in the dominance of religion in
many parts of the world.
Text 4
Sociologists and historians argue that the decline of religious influence in modern societies does not necessarily
lead to moral decay. They point to secular ethical frameworks, such as humanism and utilitarianism, which provide
moral guidance without the need for religious doctrine. Additionally, they suggest that the rise of global
communication and multiculturalism has led to a broader range of values being accepted in contemporary societies.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would sociologists and historians (Text 4) most likely respond to the decline of
religious influence discussed in Text 3?
A) By arguing that the decline of religion has led to widespread moral confusion and instability
B) By suggesting that secular moral systems can provide an alternative to religious ethical frameworks without
leading to moral decline
C) By claiming that secular societies have completely abandoned moral values
D) By advocating for the return of religious dominance in guiding moral behavior
Passage 21
Over the last few decades, advances in artificial intelligence (AI) have transformed industries ranging from
healthcare to entertainment. AI systems are now capable of performing tasks that were once exclusive to humans,
such as analyzing medical images and composing music. While these innovations have brought about many
benefits, there are concerns about the potential _______ of jobs as AI systems continue to improve and take on
more tasks traditionally performed by people.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) displacement
B) displaced
C) displacing
D) displace
Q24. The Role of Water Availability in Plant Growth
Plant Species Low Water Moderate High Water Total Percent Found in
Water High Water
Cucumber 80 100 120 300 40.0%
Lettuce 60 120 100 280 35.7%
Carrot 70 130 150 350 42.9%
Bell Pepper 90 100 110 300 36.7%
Spinach 40 70 80 190 42.1%
A study examined the role of water availability on plant growth. The researchers observed that plants like carrots
and cucumbers thrived under higher water conditions, indicating that water availability is a critical factor for
optimal growth.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Lettuce had the highest percentage of plants found in high water conditions.
B) Spinach had the lowest percentage of plants found in high water conditions.
C) Carrot and cucumber had the highest percentages of plants in high water conditions.
D) Bell pepper showed the highest percentage of plants found in low water conditions.
Q25. The Impact of Temperature on Fish Migration Patterns
Species Low Moderate High Total Percent Found in High
Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature
Salmon 50 100 150 300 50.0%
Trout 40 90 110 240 45.8%
Bass 70 120 130 320 40.6%
Pike 30 80 120 230 52.2%
Catfish 60 70 90 220 40.9%
A study was conducted to investigate the impact of temperature on fish migration patterns. Researchers found that
certain species, such as salmon and pike, were more likely to migrate under higher temperature conditions,
indicating temperature’s significant role in migration.
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Pike showed the highest percentage of fish found under low temperature conditions.
B) Salmon and pike were most likely to migrate under high temperature conditions.
C) Trout had the highest percentage of fish found in moderate temperature conditions.
D) Catfish showed a preference for moderate temperature conditions.
Q26. A student is researching the effects of technology on social relationships:
• Excessive use of digital devices can contribute to social isolation and decrease face-to-face interaction.
• Technology enables long-distance communication, fostering relationships across geographical boundaries.
• Social media platforms can facilitate connections, but they can also lead to superficial interactions.
• Balanced use of technology is essential to maintaining meaningful relationships and social engagement.
The student wants to summarize the effects of technology on social relationships. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) While technology helps connect people across distances, excessive use can hinder deep, meaningful
relationships.
B) Digital devices and social media foster long-distance connections, but they can also promote social isolation.
C) The excessive use of social media can create superficial relationships, suggesting the need for balanced
technology use.
D) Technology can both improve communication and reduce face-to-face interaction, highlighting the need for
moderation.

Q27. A student is researching the impact of climate change on biodiversity:

• Rising global temperatures are causing shifts in ecosystems and habitats, endangering various species.
• Climate change disruPractice Test migration patterns, making it difficult for some species to adapt to new
conditions.
• Some species may thrive in changing environments, while others face the risk of extinction.
• Conservation efforts are needed to protect vulnerable species and help them adapt to environmental changes.
The student wants to summarize the effects of climate change on biodiversity. Which choice best encapsulates
this idea?
A) Climate change disruPractice Test ecosystems and habitats, threatening biodiversity and requiring conservation
efforts.
B) Rising temperatures result in the extinction of some species, while others may adapt to changing conditions.
C) Climate change accelerates species adaptation, promoting biodiversity in changing environments.
D) Habitat destruction caused by climate change threatens biodiversity, calling for immediate action in
conservation.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 2x+7=19.
A) x=6
B) x=7
C) x=8
D) x=5
Q2: Solve the inequality: 5x−4>16.
A) x>4
B) x>5
C) x>3
D) x>2
Q3: Solve for x in the equation: 3x−9=0.
A) x=3
B) x=−3
C) x=0
D) x=9
Q4: If the equation of a line is y=3x−5, what is the slope of the line?
A) 3
B) −5
C) 5
D) −3
Q5: What is the solution to the system of equations:
3x+2y=12
5x−3y=9?
A) (x=3, y=2)
B) (x=2, y=3)
C) (x=1, y=4)
D) (x=4, y=1)
Q6: Solve for x in the equation: 4x/3+5=9.
A) x=3
B) x=6
C) x=9
D) x=12
Q7: If y=2x+5 and y=−x+11, what is the value of x?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q8: Solve the inequality: 2x−7≤3.
A) x≤5
B) x≥5
C) x≥7
D) x≤3
Q9: Simplify the expression: (3x² + 5x - 2) / (x - 1).
A) 3x + 8
B) 3x - 8
C) 3x + 7
D) 3x - 7
Q10: Solve the rational equation: (2x + 3) / (x - 1) = 4.
A) x = 2
B) x = 1
C) x = 3
D) x = 0
Q11: Solve the exponential equation: 5^(2x) = 25.
A) x = 1
B) x = 2
C) x = 0
D) x = 3
Q12: Simplify the expression: log₁₀(1000) + log₁₀(10).
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 5
Q13: Solve the logarithmic equation: log₅(x) = 3.
A) x = 15
B) x = 5
C) x = 125

Q14: If f(x) = 3x + 5 and g(x) = 2x - 1, find (f ∘ g)(x).

D) x = 25

A) 6x + 7
B) 6x + 9
C) 6x + 3
D) 5x + 8
Q15: Solve the equation: 3^(x+1) = 81.
A) x = 4
B) x = 3
C) x = 2
D) x = 1
Q16: In a dataset of exam scores, the mean is 75, the median is 78, and the mode is 80. Which of the following
best describes the shape of the distribution?
A) Symmetric
B) Skewed right
C) Skewed left
D) Bimodal
Q17: A basketball player made 45% of his free throws in the season. If he took 200 free throws, how many did he
make?
A) 80
B) 90
C) 100
D) 110
Q18: If two events, A and B, are mutually exclusive, what is the probability of either A or B occurring?
A) P(A) + P(B)
B) P(A) - P(B)
C) P(A ∩ B)
D) P(A) × P(B)
Q19: In a survey, 60 out of 100 randomly selected people said they prefer ice cream over cake. What is the
relative frequency of people who prefer ice cream?
A) 0.50
B) 0.60
C) 0.70
D) 1.00
Q20: The mean of a data set is 12 and the variance is 4. What is the standard deviation?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Q21: A die is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number greater than 3?
A) 1/6
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 2/3
Q22: A researcher claims that 75% of people prefer chocolate ice cream over vanilla. In a sample of 100 people,
80 people prefer chocolate. Which of the following is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The sample supports the claim.
B) The sample contradicts the claim.
C) The sample is irrelevant.
D) The sample proves the claim.
Module 2
Q1: Solve the equation: 4x−7=13.
A) x=3
B) x=5
C) x=7
D) x=2
Q2: Solve for x in the inequality: 3x−8≥16.
A) x≥6
B) x≥10
C) x≥8
D) x≥12
Q3: In the equation y=4x−5, what is the value of y when x=3?
A) 7
B) 11
C) 5
D) 9
Q4: Solve the system of equations:
2x+3y=12
x−y=2.
A) (x=4/5, y=2/5)
B) (x=5/8, y=3/8)
C) (x=6/5, y=1/5)
D) (x=18/5, y=8/5)
Q5: Solve for x in the equation: 3(x−4)=18.
A) x=6
B) x=10
C) x=8
D) x=12
Q6: The graph of the equation y=−3x+4 represents a line. What is the slope of this line?
A) −3
B) 4
C) −4
D) 3
Q7: Simplify the expression: (x² + 3x + 2) / (x² - 1).
A) (x + 2) / (x - 1)
B) (x + 1) / (x + 1)
C) (x + 1) / (x - 1)
D) (x + 2) / (x + 1)
Q8: If the function f(x) = 2x² + 3x - 5, find f(3).
A) 19
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Q9: Solve the complex word problem: A car travels 60 miles per hour. How long will it take to travel 180 miles?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
Q10: If the ratio of cats to dogs in a pet store is 3:4 and there are 24 cats, how many dogs are there?
A) 32
B) 28
C) 36
D) 30
Q11: A recipe calls for 2 cups of sugar for every 5 cups of flour. If you have 15 cups of flour, how many cups of
sugar do you need?
A) 4 cups
B) 6 cups
C) 5 cups
D) 7 cups
Q12: Convert 5 miles to kilometers. (1 mile = 1.60934 km)
A) 6.24 km
B) 8.05 km
C) 9.88 km
D) 12.5 km
Q13: A shirt is on sale for $40 after a 20% discount. What was the original price of the shirt?
A) $50
B) $45
C) $60
D) $55
Q14: The average score of 5 students is 80. If four students have scores of 70, 85, 90, and 75, what is the score of
the fifth student?
A) 90
B) 100
C) 95
D) 80
.
Q15: A survey shows that 60% of a population prefers chocolate ice cream. If there are 200 people in the survey,
how many people prefer chocolate ice cream?
A) 100
B) 120
C) 130
D) 140
Q16: The mean of five numbers is 12. If four of the numbers are 10, 15, 8, and 20, what is the fifth number?
A) 12
B) 14
C) 13
D) 16
Q17: What is the probability of rolling a sum of 7 with two fair dice?
A) 1/6
B) 1/8
C) 1/9
D) 1/36

Q18: What is the area of a sector with a central angle of 120° in a circle with a radius of 8 units?
A) 32π
B) 16π
C) 32
D) 16
Q19: What is the cosine of 60° on the unit circle?
A) 0
B) 1/2
C) √3/2
D) 1
Q20: In a right triangle, if one angle measures 45° and the hypotenuse is 10, what is the length of one of the legs?
A) 5
B) 5√2
C) 10√2
D) 10
Q21: In a 30°-60°-90° triangle, if the length of the shorter leg is 5, what is the length of the hypotenuse?
A) 5√2
B) 10
C) 5√3
D) 10√3
Q22: A box plot displays the following information: Q1 = 10, median = 20, Q3 = 30, and maximum = 40. What is
the interquartile range (IQR) of this data?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
PRACTICE TEST 6
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
The American frontier was a symbol of opportunity and expansion during the 19th century. Westward expansion,
driven by the promise of land and resources, led to the settlement of vast territories but also __________ conflicts
with Native American tribes.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolved
B) ignored
C) exacerbated
D) delayed
Passage 2:
In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, the first true antibiotic. This groundbreaking discovery
revolutionized medicine and __________ the treatment of bacterial infections, saving countless lives in the years
that followed.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) hindered
C) advanced
D) ignored
Passage 3:
During the 8th to 11th centuries, Vikings from Scandinavia launched invasions across Europe. These raids disrupted
local societies and __________ the development of medieval kingdoms, but also contributed to cultural exchanges
and the spread of Viking influence.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) fortified
C) advanced
D) weakened
Passage 4:
Charlemagne, crowned Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire in 800 CE, expanded the Carolingian Empire and sought
to revive learning and culture. His reign __________ the foundation for the development of medieval European
civilization and the spread of Christianity.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) destroyed
C) laid
D) ignored
Passage 5:
The Qing Dynasty, the last imperial dynasty of China, fell in 1912 due to a combination of internal corruption,
external pressures, and the rise of nationalist movements. The overthrow of the Qing marked the end of
__________ rule in China.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) imperial
B) democratic
C) monarchic
D) feudal
Passage 6:
In the 19th century, the rise of nationalism in Europe spurred movements for independence and unification.
Countries like Italy and Germany were unified, while others experienced struggles for national identity and
__________.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) division
B) expansion
C) peace
D) independence
Passage 7:
The U.S. Constitution, ratified in 1787, established the framework for the federal government. The Bill of Rights,
added in 1791, guaranteed individual freedoms and __________ the structure of American democracy.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) strengthened
C) weakened
D) ignored
Passage 8:
The abolitionist movement in the United States gained momentum in the 19th century, with leaders like Frederick
Douglass advocating for the emancipation of enslaved people. The movement ________ the national debate over
slavery, influencing public opinion and political action.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) hindered
C) intensified
D) delayed
Passage 9:
In 1215, King John of England signed the Magna Carta, a document that limited royal power and affirmed certain
rights for subjects. The Magna Carta’s significance lies in its role in __________ the foundation for modern
concePractice Test of justice and individual rights.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delaying
B) eroding
C) establishing
D) ignoring
Passage 10:
The Trojan War, as described in works like Homer’s Iliad, has become one of the most iconic stories in Western
literature. The siege of Troy symbolizes the destruction caused by prolonged war and __________ the theme of fate
versus free will.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermines
B) reinforces
C) delays
D) contradicts
Passage 11:
African-American literature often explores themes of race, identity, and the experiences of marginalized
communities in the United States. Writers such as James Baldwin, Zora Neale Hurston, and Toni Morrison delve into
the complexities of African-American identity, portraying both the struggles and triumphs of individuals navigating
a racially divided society. These works highlight the tension between cultural assimilation and the preservation of
heritage, offering insights into the challenges of defining one’s self in the face of systemic oppression.
Q11: According to the passage, how does African-American literature portray identity?
A) By celebrating the complete assimilation of African-Americans into mainstream society
B) By exploring the complexities of race, identity, and the struggles of marginalized individuals
C) By focusing on the economic hardships of African-American communities
D) By depicting only the triumphs of African-Americans without exploring struggles
Passage 12:
Stream-of-consciousness is a narrative technique used by writers to depict the flow of thoughts and feelings of a
character. It allows readers to experience a character's inner world without traditional narrative filters, often
jumping from one idea to another in a fluid, unstructured manner. Writers like Virginia Woolf and James Joyce
employed this technique to explore the complexities of human consciousness, often revealing the fragmented,
nonlinear nature of thought and experience.
Q12: What is the primary function of stream-of-consciousness in literature, according to the passage?
A) To organize thoughts and events into a linear progression
B) To present a character's inner world through a fragmented, unstructured flow of thoughts
C) To create a straightforward narrative with little room for ambiguity
D) To depict a character's actions more clearly than their thoughts
Passage 13:
The American Dream, often symbolizing the pursuit of success and upward mobility, has been a central theme in
20th-century American literature. Authors such as F. Scott Fitzgerald and John Steinbeck critiqued this ideal,
portraying its unattainability and the societal pressures that accompany the pursuit of material wealth. In their
works, the American Dream is often depicted as a flawed concept that fails to deliver true happiness or fulfillment,
highlighting the disparity between idealized promises and harsh realities.
Q13: According to the passage, how is the American Dream portrayed in 20th-century literature?
A) As a universally attainable goal for all individuals
B) As a flawed concept that does not bring true happiness or fulfillment
C) As a symbol of prosperity and contentment for all Americans
D) As an idealized vision that all authors support without critique
Passage 14:
Childhood innocence is often depicted as a state of purity and untainted perception in literature. However, this
innocence is frequently challenged or lost as characters grow older and confront the complexities of life. In works
like William Blake’s poetry and novels such as "To Kill a Mockingbird" by Harper Lee, childhood innocence is
contrasted with the harsh realities of the world, emphasizing the loss of idealism and the onset of awareness of
injustice, inequality, and suffering.
Q14: What does the passage suggest about the depiction of childhood innocence in literature?
A) Childhood innocence is portrayed as something to be celebrated without consequences
B) Childhood innocence is often contrasted with the harsh realities of life and lost over time
C) Childhood innocence is depicted as irrelevant in modern literature
D) Childhood innocence is always maintained despite societal pressures
Passage 15:
World War I had a profound impact on British literature, with many writers reflecting on the brutalities and
disillusionment caused by the war. Authors like Wilfred Owen and Siegfried Sassoon used their poetry to expose the
horrors of trench warfare and the psychological toll on soldiers. The war also influenced the modernist movement,
prompting writers such as T.S. Eliot and Virginia Woolf to explore themes of fragmentation, alienation, and the
collapse of traditional values in the aftermath of the conflict.
Q15: How did World War I influence British literature, according to the passage?
A) It led writers to celebrate war as a heroic and noble endeavor
B) It inspired a focus on themes of disillusionment, alienation, and fragmentation
C) It had no significant impact on British writers of the time
D) It encouraged writers to abandon modernist experimentation in favor of traditional forms
Passage 16:
Science fiction often serves as a mirror for societal concerns, using speculative settings to explore real-world issues.
Works like George Orwell’s 1984 and Aldous Huxley’s Brave New World critique totalitarianism, surveillance, and
social control, offering warnings about the dangers of unchecked technological advancement. Through futuristic
worlds, science fiction challenges social norms and raises questions about human nature, ethics, and the
consequences of societal decisions.
Q16: What role does science fiction play in social critique, according to the passage?
A) It primarily provides entertainment with little to no social commentary
B) It uses speculative settings to explore real-world societal issues and ethical concerns
C) It avoids controversial topics in favor of fantastical adventures
D) It advocates for the unquestioning acceptance of technological advancement
Passage 17:
Greek tragedies often examine the tension between fate and free will. In plays like Sophocles’ Oedipus Rex,
characters struggle with the inescapable destiny foretold by oracles, yet their actions—often motivated by pride or
ignorance—contribute to the fulfillment of that fate. This paradox raises questions about human agency, divine
intervention, and the consequences of choices, exploring the limits of individual freedom in a world governed by
predetermined forces.
Q17: According to the passage, how is the theme of fate vs. free will portrayed in Greek tragedies?
A) As a simple conflict with clear resolutions
B) As a complex paradox where characters' actions fulfill their predetermined destinies
C) As an irrelevant theme in Greek tragedies
D) As a struggle between good and evil forces only
Passage 18:
Post-war literature often delves into themes of memory and trauma, exploring how individuals cope with the
psychological aftermath of conflict. Writers like Erich Maria Remarque and Kurt Vonnegut depict the lasting scars of
war, using fragmented narratives and unreliable memories to convey the disorienting effects of trauma. These
works challenge conventional narrative structures, reflecting the fragmented, often incoherent nature of memory
and the struggle to make sense of violent experiences.
Q18: What is the focus of post-war literature, according to the passage?
A) It celebrates the heroic nature of war and its aftermath
B) It explores memory and trauma, often using fragmented narratives to reflect psychological effects
C) It avoids exploring the psychological impacts of war
D) It follows traditional narrative structures without deviating into disorientation
Passage 19:
Contemporary fiction often employs unreliable narrators, whose flawed or selective memories influence the
reader’s understanding of the story. Writers like Gillian Flynn and Kazuo Ishiguro use this technique to create
suspense and challenge readers to question the truth of the narrative. Unreliable memories reflect the complexities
of human perception and the subjectivity of personal experience, offering a deeper exploration of the human
psyche and the nature of truth.
Q19: What is the effect of unreliable memory in contemporary fiction?
A) It creates a clear, straightforward narrative with little ambiguity
B) It challenges readers to question the truth of the narrative and explore the nature of human perception
C) It limits the exploration of complex characters and themes
D) It provides an easy and predictable storyline for readers
Passage 20:
Digital media has revolutionized modern storytelling, allowing for interactive and multimedia-rich experiences.
With the rise of platforms like YouTube, podcasts, and social media, storytelling has become more diverse and
democratized. Writers and creators now have direct access to audiences, enabling them to experiment with
narrative formats and engage audiences in new ways. This shift has led to the emergence of digital narratives,
where audience participation and real-time feedback shape the direction of stories.
Q20: How has digital media impacted modern storytelling, according to the passage?
A) It has limited storytelling to traditional formats only
B) It has democratized storytelling, allowing creators to experiment with new formats and engage audiences
directly
C) It has made storytelling less interactive and more passive
D) It has removed the role of the audience in shaping narratives
Text 1
Globalization has rapidly connected the world through trade, technology, and communication. While globalization
has led to economic growth and the exchange of ideas, it has also raised concerns about its effects on local cultures.
Some argue that the influx of global media and consumer goods can erode traditional customs and practices.
Others believe that globalization allows for the enrichment and diversification of local cultures through the
blending of global and local influences.
Text 2
Proponents of globalization argue that the increased flow of people, goods, and ideas encourages cultural exchange
and strengthens local communities. They assert that the globalization of media, for example, enables individuals to
connect with and learn from other cultures, thus promoting cultural diversity.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would proponents of globalization (Text 2) most likely respond to the concerns
raised about the effects of globalization on local cultures in Text 1?
A) By claiming that globalization undermines the distinctiveness of local cultures.
B) By suggesting that globalization enriches local cultures through cultural exchange and diversity.
C) By arguing that globalization leads to the complete erosion of local traditions.
D) By stating that globalization does not affect local cultures in any meaningful way.

Text 3
Social media has transformed the way people communicate and engage with political movements.
Activists have utilized platforms such as Twitter and Facebook to organize protests, share information, and
rally support for causes. However, social media has also been criticized for fostering misinformation and
facilitating political polarization.
Text 4
Advocates of social media in political movements argue that it democratizes information, allowing
individuals to access a wide variety of viewpoints and participate in political discourse. They contend that,
despite its drawbacks, social media remains a powerful tool for fostering political engagement and
mobilizing support for social causes.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would advocates of social media (Text 4) most likely respond to the
criticisms raised in Text 3?
A) By claiming that social media contributes to the spread of misinformation and political polarization.
B) By suggesting that social media can democratize information and enhance political engagement,
despite its challenges.
C) By emphasizing that social media should be banned from political discourse.
D) By arguing that social media has no effect on political movements.
Passage 21
Urbanization has dramatically altered the landscape of rural communities, often leading to significant
shifts in local economies and lifestyles. As people move to cities for better job prospects, rural areas
experience a decline in _______ and population.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) urban
B) urbanized
C) urbanization
D) urbane
Passage 22
Social class significantly influences access to healthcare. Individuals from higher social classes generally
enjoy better access to quality healthcare services, while those from lower classes often face _______ in
receiving timely treatment.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) barriers
B) barrier
C) barreling
D) bar
Q25. The Role of Media in Shaping Public Opinion and Policy
Media Outlet Positive Neutral Negative Total Percent
Influence Influence Influence Positive
Influence
Newspaper 150 100 50 300 50%
Television 120 150 80 350 34.3%
Social Media 180 50 70 300 60%
Radio 100 120 80 300 33.3%
Podcasts 80 130 90 300 26.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Social media had the highest percentage of positive influence.
B) Radio showed the highest percentage of negative influence.
C) Television had the lowest percentage of positive influence.
D) Newspapers had a higher neutral influence than social media.
Q26. The History and Impact of Migration on Global Societies
Region Emigrants Immigrants Total Percent
Immigrants
North America 200,000 500,000 700,000 71.4%
Europe 300,000 350,000 650,000 53.8%
Asia 150,000 200,000 350,000 57.1%
Africa 100,000 50,000 150,000 33.3%
South America 50,000 100,000 150,000 66.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) North America had the highest percentage of immigrants.
B) Asia had more emigrants than immigrants.
C) South America had the highest number of total migrants.
D) Europe had the highest immigrant population.
Q27. The Rise of the Roman Empire
• The Roman Empire began in 27 BCE when Augustus became the first emperor.
• It expanded through military conquest, reaching from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to Mesopotamia.
• The empire introduced innovations such as aqueducts, roads, and Roman law, which impacted society for
centuries.
• The Roman Empire eventually fell in 476 CE, but its influence is still felt in modern culture and governance.
The student wants to summarize the rise of the Roman Empire. Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The Roman Empire expanded through conquest and introduced lasting cultural and legal innovations.
B) The Roman Empire was solely focused on military conquest and had little cultural influence.
C) The fall of the Roman Empire was primarily due to its technological advancements.
D) The Roman Empire lasted only for a few decades and had no lasting impact.
Module 2
Passage 1:
The integration of artificial intelligence (AI) into various industries has transformed the global labor market,
automating tasks that were previously performed by humans. This development __________ the need for workers
in routine, manual jobs while increasing the demand for skills in technology and innovation.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminished
B) reduced
C) altered
D) eliminated
Passage 2:
Social justice movements have played a crucial role in influencing national policies, advocating for reforms related
to race, gender, and economic equality. These movements __________ significant changes in laws and social
attitudes, pushing for greater inclusivity and fairness.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obstructed
B) sparked
C) ignored
D) restricted
Passage 3: The History of the Feminist Movement and Its Global Influence
The feminist movement has made tremendous strides toward gender equality, advocating for women's rights in
various spheres of life. It __________ the global discourse on women’s rights, influencing policies that promote
gender equality in education, employment, and law.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) propelled
C) delayed
D) ignored
Passage 4:
In many countries, media censorship is used as a tool to maintain political control. By restricting the flow of
information, governments __________ dissent and ensure the public only receives favorable views, often limiting
access to alternative perspectives.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) encourage
B) suppress
C) facilitate
D) ignore
Passage 5:
Social welfare programs, such as unemployment benefits and food assistance, play a vital role in poverty reduction.
These programs __________ access to essential resources, helping families and individuals improve their living
standards and escape poverty.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) restricted
B) decreased
C) increased
D) denied
Passage 6:
Social entrepreneurship focuses on creating innovative solutions to address pressing social issues, including
inequality. By offering sustainable business models that prioritize social impact, these enterprises __________ the
fight against global inequality, creating opportunities for marginalized communities.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) exacerbated
B) ignored
C) advanced
D) restricted
Passage 7:
Social media influencers have become a powerful force in shaping modern culture, particularly among younger
generations. By promoting trends and products, influencers __________ popular culture, setting new standards in
fashion, beauty, and lifestyle.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) disrupted
C) diminished
D) shaped
Passage 8:
The digital divide, or the gap between those with and without access to technology, has wide-reaching
consequences. It __________ economic opportunities for disadvantaged communities, making it harder for them to
participate in the global digital economy.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) increased
B) exacerbated
C) ignored
D) decreased
Passage 9:
Education systems play a crucial role in national economic development by providing individuals with the skills
needed for the workforce. A well-functioning education system __________ productivity, innovation, and the
overall economic growth of a country.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) inhibits
B) fosters
C) ignores
D) restricts
Passage 10:
Trade unions have historically been at the forefront of advocating for workers' rights, negotiating for better wages,
benefits, and working conditions. These unions __________ the labor movement, ensuring that workers’ voices are
heard in discussions about labor policies and reforms.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) weakened
B) hindered
C) empowered
D) ignored
Passage 11:
The exploration of class struggles is a central theme in 19th-century literature, particularly in the works of authors
like Charles Dickens and Emile Zola. These writers portrayed the stark disparities between the wealthy and the
poor, examining how social and economic class influenced individuals' lives, choices, and opportunities. Through
vivid descriptions of working-class hardships and the injustices of the elite, they critiqued the social systems that
perpetuated inequality.
Q11: What is the primary focus of 19th-century literature regarding class struggles?
A) The celebration of aristocratic life
B) The exploration of economic disparities and their impact
C) The rejection of class distinctions
D) The critique of the working class' lifestyle
Passage 12:
In religious literature, the theme of redemption often appears as a central narrative. Works such as John Bunyan’s
The Pilgrim's Progress focus on the journey of a protagonist seeking salvation and spiritual enlightenment.
Redemption in these texts is typically portrayed as a moral or spiritual renewal, where the character must
overcome trials and temptations to achieve ultimate salvation and divine grace.
Q12: According to the passage, how is the theme of redemption portrayed in religious literature?
A) As a physical journey
B) As a moral or spiritual renewal
C) As a process of gaining wealth
D) As a societal obligation
Passage 13:
The concept of the "anti-hero" in modern novels challenges traditional heroic archetypes. These protagonists often
lack conventional heroic qualities such as courage or morality, and instead, they exhibit flaws or ambiguity that
make them more relatable or complex. Modern novels frequently portray anti-heroes as individuals who navigate a
morally gray world, where their actions do not conform to traditional notions of good or evil.
Q13: What characterizes the "anti-hero" in modern novels, according to the passage?
A) They are flawless and virtuous
B) They navigate a world of moral ambiguity
C) They embody traditional heroic traits
D) They are secondary characters with no main role
Passage 14:
Mythology plays a significant role in contemporary fiction by providing a foundation for themes, symbols, and
character archetypes. Many modern writers draw on mythological stories to explore timeless human experiences,
such as love, betrayal, and heroism. Mythological elements often serve as a way to connect contemporary issues
with ancient narratives, offering readers a sense of continuity and understanding across cultures and generations.
Q14: How does mythology function in contemporary fiction, according to the passage?
A) It creates new, unrelated narratives
B) It connects contemporary issues with ancient narratives
C) It focuses on historical events without fictional elements
D) It serves as a backdrop for superficial themes
Passage 15:
The evolution of detective fiction from Sherlock Holmes to modern thrillers showcases the development of new
narrative techniques and themes. Early detective stories, like Arthur Conan Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes series, focused
on logical deduction and the intellectual abilities of the detective. As the genre progressed, modern thrillers
incorporated psychological complexity, moral ambiguity, and complex characters, reflecting societal changes and
evolving reader expectations.
Q15: How has detective fiction evolved from Sherlock Holmes to modern thrillers?
A) It has become less complex and more formulaic
B) It has shifted to focus on logical deduction exclusively
C) It has incorporated psychological complexity and moral ambiguity
D) It has abandoned the detective archetype entirely
Passage 16:
Shakespeare's influence on contemporary playwrights is undeniable. His use of dramatic structure, complex
characters, and exploration of universal themes such as power, love, and betrayal continues to inspire modern
theater. Playwrights like Tom Stoppard and Harold Pinter have drawn upon Shakespearean elements, reinterpreting
them in ways that resonate with modern audiences while maintaining the depth and insight of the original works.
Q16: According to the passage, how has Shakespeare influenced contemporary playwrights?
A) His works are rarely referenced in modern theater
B) His themes and character structures continue to inspire modern playwrights
C) His influence has diminished with the rise of modern theater
D) His works are exclusively adapted in historical settings
Passage 17:
The immigrant experience is a prevalent theme in literature, particularly in works that explore the challenges of
adapting to a new society. Authors such as Jhumpa Lahiri and Junot Díaz use their stories to examine the emotional,
social, and cultural hurdles faced by immigrants. Through personal narratives, these writers explore identity,
belonging, and the tensions between the old and new worlds.
Q17: What theme do authors like Jhumpa Lahiri and Junot Díaz explore in their works?
A) The idealization of immigrant life
B) The challenges of adapting to a new society
C) The celebration of cultural homogeneity
D) The rejection of the immigrant experience
Passage 18:
Irony plays a central role in 20th-century novels, often highlighting the contrast between appearance and reality.
Authors like George Orwell and Joseph Heller use irony to expose the flaws of societal systems and the
contradictions in human behavior. In novels such as 1984 and Catch-22, irony serves as a powerful tool to criticize
political systems, war, and the disillusionment of modern life.
Q18: How is irony used in 20th-century novels, according to the passage?
A) To reinforce societal norms
B) To criticize societal flaws and contradictions
C) To depict a utopian vision of society
D) To focus on personal triumphs
Passage 19:
Women in ancient literature, particularly in Greek and Roman texts, are often portrayed in complex roles that
reflect the societal expectations of their time. In works like Homer’s The Odyssey and Euripides’ Medea, female
characters are both revered and vilified, representing ideals of beauty, wisdom, and vengeance. These
representations offer insight into the cultural values of ancient societies and the evolving roles of women in the
narrative.
Q19: According to the passage, how are women portrayed in ancient literature?
A) As passive figures without agency
B) As complex characters who reflect societal ideals
C) As characters with minimal influence on the plot
D) As exclusively virtuous or villainous figures
Passage 20:
The modern short story has evolved significantly since its emergence in the 19th century, with authors exploring a
wide range of narrative styles and themes. While earlier short stories focused on concise storytelling, contemporary
short stories often incorporate experimental structures, unreliable narrators, and psychological depth. This
evolution reflects a growing interest in exploring the complexities of human experience in a brief format.
Q20: How has the modern short story evolved, according to the passage?
A) It has remained largely unchanged since the 19th century
B) It now includes experimental structures and psychological depth
C) It focuses solely on simple, concise storytelling
D) It has abandoned traditional narrative forms entirely
Text 1
The legacy of colonialism continues to shape global relations in contemporary times. Many former colonies still face
economic challenges that are a direct result of colonial exploitation, such as resource extraction and political
instability. However, some argue that post-colonial relationships have evolved into partnerships that benefit both
former colonies and colonial powers.
Text 2
Critics of colonialism argue that the exploitation of resources and people by colonial powers continues to have long-
lasting negative effects on former colonies. They suggest that the remnants of colonial structures in governance and
economics still limit the development of many post-colonial nations.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would critics of colonialism (Text 2) most likely respond to the idea that post-
colonial relationships are beneficial (Text 1)?
A) By arguing that the remnants of colonial exploitation continue to harm post-colonial nations.
B) By claiming that colonial relationships were mutually beneficial for both colonizers and colonized peoples.
C) By suggesting that colonialism has no lasting effects on global relations today.
D) By stating that former colonies have fully recovered from the impacts of colonialism.

Text 3
Climate change is driving shifts in global migration patterns. Rising temperatures, extreme weather events, and sea
level rise are forcing people to leave their homes in search of more hospitable conditions. In some regions,
agricultural decline due to changing weather patterns is also contributing to migration.
Text 4
Research suggests that climate-induced migration could become more pronounced in the coming years, especially
in areas most vulnerable to the impacts of climate change. Governments and international organizations are being
urged to prepare for the increasing movement of populations due to environmental factors.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would researchers studying climate change and migration (Text 4) most likely
respond to the claim that migration is unrelated to climate change (Text 3)?
A) By suggesting that migration is primarily driven by political factors rather than environmental ones.
B) By emphasizing that climate change is already a significant factor in driving migration and will continue to be.
C) By claiming that migration due to climate change is a temporary phenomenon.
D) By arguing that climate change has no impact on global migration patterns.
Passage 21
The rise of nationalism has led to the emergence of more insular policies and growing tensions between countries.
While it has fostered a sense of pride, it has also created _______ for international cooperation and peace.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) challenges
B) challenge
C) challenging
D) challenged
Passage 22
International organizations like the United Nations have played a crucial role in addressing global conflicts. By
facilitating dialogue and peacekeeping missions, the UN has contributed to the _______ of peaceful resolutions to
disputes.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) proliferation
B) proliferate
C) proliferating
D) proliferated
Q25. The Influence of Indigenous Cultures on Contemporary Politics and Society
Indigenous Group Political Cultural Social Total Percent Political
Influence Influence Influence Influence
Native Americans 70 120 100 290 24.1%
Aboriginal 60 110 90 260 23.1%
Australians
Maori 50 100 80 230 21.7%
Sami 40 80 70 190 21.1%
Inuit 30 60 50 140 21.4%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Native Americans had the highest political influence.
B) The Sami had the most social influence.
C) Aboriginal Australians had the highest total influence.
D) The Inuit had the lowest percentage of political influence.
Q26. The Effects of Economic Sanctions on International Relations
Country Targeted Partial Sanctions No Sanctions Tota Percent Targeted Sanctions
Sanctions l
Country A 200 50 100 350 57.1%
Country B 300 70 130 500 60%
Country C 150 100 150 400 37.5%
Country D 100 120 80 300 33.3%
Country E 50 80 120 250 20%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Country B had the highest percentage of targeted sanctions.
B) Country D had the lowest number of targeted sanctions.
C) Country E had the highest percentage of no sanctions.
D) Country A had the highest total sanctions.
Q27. The Impact of the Industrial Revolution on Society
• The Industrial Revolution began in the late 18th century, transforming manufacturing with the advent of new
machinery and factories.
• It led to urbanization as people moved to cities for work, dramatically changing social structures.
• New inventions, such as the steam engine, revolutionized transportation and communication.
• The Industrial Revolution also brought about significant labor movements, as workers fought for better
conditions.
The student wants to summarize the impact of the Industrial Revolution on society. Which choice best encapsulates
this idea?
A) The Industrial Revolution led to urbanization, technological innovations, and the rise of labor movements.
B) The Industrial Revolution only affected transportation and had no impact on social structures.
C) The Industrial Revolution was a brief period that had little lasting effect on society.
D) The Industrial Revolution only improved conditions for factory owners, not workers.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 6x + 9 = 39.
A) x = 6
B) x = 5
C) x = 4
D) x = 3
Q2: Solve the inequality: 7x + 4 < 25.
A) x < 3
B) x < 4
C) x < 2
D) x < 5
Q3: Solve for x in the equation: 4x - 7 = 9.
A) x = 3
B) x = 4
C) x = 2
D) x = 5
Q4: What is the solution to the system of equations:
3x + 2y = 16
4x - y = 7?
A) (x = 3, y = 5)
B) (x = 3, y = 4)
C) (x = 2, y = 5)
D) (x = 1, y = 6)
Q5: Solve the inequality: 5x - 2 ≥ 18.
A) x ≥ 4
B) x ≥ 5
C) x ≥ 6
D) x ≥ 7
Q6: Solve the inequality: 3x + 5 < 14.
A) x < 2
B) x < 3
C) x < 5
D) x < 4
Q7: Solve for x in the inequality: 4x - 3 > 9.
A) x > 3
B) x > 2
C) x > 1
D) x > 4
Q8: Solve the inequality: 2x + 6 ≤ 18.
A) x ≤ 6
B) x ≤ 7
C) x ≤ 5
D) x ≤ 4
Q9: Simplify the following rational expression: (2x² + 4x) / (2x).
A) x + 2
B) x + 4
C) x + 1
D) x - 2
Q10: Solve the rational equation: (3 / x) + (2 / (x + 1)) = 5.
A) x = 1
B) x = 2
C) x = -1
D) x = 3
Q11: Solve the logarithmic equation: log₃(x + 2) = 4.
A) x = 79
B) x = 80
C) x = 3
D) x = 78
Q12: Solve the exponential equation: 2^(x + 3) = 32.
A) x = 3
B) x = 2
C) x = 5
D) x = 4
Q13: A car rental company charges a flat fee of $30 plus $0.25 per mile driven. If the total cost is $50, how many
miles did the car drive?
A) 50 miles
B) 80 miles
C) 60 miles
D) 70 miles
Q14: A population of bacteria grows according to the equation P(t) = 500e^(0.05t), where P(t) is the population at
time t in hours. What is the population after 10 hours?
A) 1,000
B) 1,500
C) 1,200
D) 1,400
Q15: A tank is filled with water at a rate of 5 gallons per minute. The tank already contains 20 gallons of water.
Write an equation for the total amount of water in the tank after t minutes. How much water is in the tank after
30 minutes?
A) 50 gallons
B) 200 gallons
C) 170 gallons
D) 250 gallons
Q16: A sum of $100 is invested at an annual interest rate of 6% compounded quarterly. What will the balance be
after 5 years?
A) $120.0
B) $133.80
C) $150.00
D) $150.61
Q17: A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 blue balls, and 7 green balls. If a ball is chosen at random, what is the
probability of picking a blue ball?
A) 3/15
B) 5/15
C) 5/7
D) 7/15
Q18: A recipe calls for 2/3 cup of sugar to make 6 servings. How much sugar is needed to make 15 servings?
A) 1 2/3 cups
B) 2 cups
C) 2 1/3 cups
D) 3 cups
Q19: If a car travels 240 miles in 4 hours, what is its average speed in miles per hour?
A) 50 mph
B) 60 mph
C) 70 mph
D) 75 mph
Q20: A store sells 3 apples for $2. How much would 10 apples cost?
A) $6
B) $5
C) $4
D) $8
Q21: What is the area of a right triangle with legs of lengths 8 and 15?
A) 60 square units
B) 120 square units
C) 30 square units
D) 45 square units
Q22: What is the value of sin(π/2) on the unit circle?
A) 0
B) 1
C) √2/2
D) -1
Module 2
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 4x - 5 = 11.
A) x = 4
B) x = 5
C) x = 6
D) x = 3
Q2: Solve the inequality: 2x + 3 > 7.
A) x > 2
B) x > 3
C) x > 4
D) x > 1
Q3: Solve for x in the equation: 5x - 8 = 12.
A) x = 4
B) x = 5
C) x = 2
D) x = 3
Q4: What is the slope of the line represented by the equation: y = -2x + 5?
A) -2
B) 5
C) -5
D) 2
Q5: Solve the inequality: 3x - 7 ≤ 14.
A) x ≤ 7
B) x ≤ 5
C) x ≤ 6
D) x ≤ 4
Q6: Solve the inequality: 6x + 4 < 16.
A) x < 2
B) x < 3
C) x < 4
D) x < 5
Q7: Solve for x in the inequality: 2x + 5 > 11.
A) x > 3
B) x > 4
C) x > 6
D) x > 2
Q8: Solve the inequality: 5x - 2 < 18.
A) x < 4
B) x < 5
C) x < 6
D) x < 7
Q9: Simplify the following rational expression: (4x³ - 8x²) / (4x).
A) x² - 2x
B) x² + 2x
C) x³ - 2x²
D) x³ + 2x²
Q10: Solve the rational equation: (4 / x) - (5 / (x + 3)) = 2.
A) x = -6
B) x = 6
C) x = -3
D) x = 3
Q11: Solve the logarithmic equation: log₄(2x) = 3.
A) x = 40
B) x = 42
C) x = 32
D) x = 22
Q12: Solve the exponential equation: 3^(x - 1) = 81.
A) x = 5
B) x = 4
C) x = 3
D) x = 2
Q13: A factory produces 500 units of a product every day. If the production rate increases by 10% every month,
how many units will be produced after 3 months?
A) 600 units
B) 550 units
C) 665 units
D) 720 units
Q14: A person invests $1,000 in an account that pays 5% interest compounded annually. How much will the
investment be worth after 4 years?
A) $1,215.51
B) $1,250.00
C) $1,200.00
D) $1,400.00
Q15: A train travels 80 miles per hour for 2 hours, then increases its speed to 100 miles per hour for the next 3
hours. How far has the train traveled in total?
A) 440 miles
B) 460 miles
C) 380 miles
D) 500 miles
Q16: A company produces and sells widgets. The cost function for producing x widgets is given by C(x) = 50x +
2000. The revenue function is R(x) = 100x. What is the break-even point?
A) 20 widgets
B) 40 widgets
C) 50 widgets
D) 60 widgets
Q17: The ratio of the number of boys to girls in a class is 4:5. If there are 36 boys, how many girls are there?
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 44
Q18: A survey of 200 people found that 60% preferred chocolate ice cream, and the rest preferred vanilla. How
many people preferred vanilla ice cream?
A) 80
B) 90
C) 120
D) 100
Q19: If a car travels 360 miles in 6 hours, what is its average speed in miles per hour?
A) 55 mph
B) 60 mph
C) 65 mph
D) 70 mph
Q21: What is the area of a circle with a radius of 5 units?
A) 25π
B) 10π
C) 5π
D) 15π
Q22: What is the value of cos(π/3) on the unit circle?
A) 1/2
B) √3/2
C) 1
D) 0
PRACTICE TEST 7
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
Voting rights in a democracy empower citizens to participate in political decision-making, ensuring their voices are
heard in the shaping of policies. The expansion of voting rights over time __________ the inclusivity of democratic
systems, offering more people a say in governance.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminished
B) strengthened
C) restricted
D) ignored
Passage 2:
Sports have historically served as a means of fostering national pride and unity. International events, such as the
Olympics, often __________ diplomatic relations between nations, showcasing the potential of sports to bridge
cultural divides.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) strained
B) boosted
C) undermined
D) ignored
Passage 3:
The Silk Road, connecting East Asia to the Mediterranean, was instrumental in the exchange of goods, ideas, and
cultures. It __________ the spread of knowledge, art, and technology across continents, influencing the
development of civilizations.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) promoted
C) delayed
D) ignored
Passage 4:
Education plays a pivotal role in breaking down societal barriers and promoting social justice. By providing equal
opportunities for all, education __________ the development of fair and just societies where individuals can thrive,
regardless of background.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obstructs
B) fosters
C) ignores
D) restricts
Passage 5:
Trade agreements are crucial for stimulating global economic growth. They __________ international trade by
reducing tariffs and barriers, which encourages investment, increases the flow of goods, and boosts the economies
of participating countries.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) facilitated
C) restricted
D) ignored
Passage 6:
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was a landmark piece of legislation in the United States, aimed at ending segregation
and discrimination. It __________ the rights of minorities, ensuring equal treatment in public places, education,
and employment.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermined
B) restricted
C) expanded
D) ignored
Passage 7: The Role of Language in the Preservation of Cultural Heritage
Language is a vital part of cultural heritage, serving as a bridge between past and present. Efforts to preserve
indigenous languages __________ the transmission of traditions, stories, and customs that define the identity of
communities.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) obstruct
B) hinder
C) promote
D) ignore
Passage 8:
The refugee crisis of the 21st century has been driven by a combination of war, poverty, and climate change. The
global response to this crisis __________ significant humanitarian efforts, although challenges in resettling refugees
persist.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignited
B) restricted
C) prompted
D) ignored
Passage 9:
The 20th century saw significant progress in human rights, as various movements fought for equality and justice.
International treaties and organizations __________ the global recognition of human rights, setting standards for
dignity and freedom.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) impeded
C) advanced
D) ignored
Passage 10:
Automation has transformed industries by increasing productivity and reducing reliance on manual labor. However,
this shift __________ the demand for certain job types, creating new opportunities in technology and services, but
also causing displacement in traditional sectors.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduced
B) heightened
C) minimized
D) decreased
Passage 11:
Beat poetry, which emerged in the 1950s, had a profound impact on post-war American literature. Authors like
Allen Ginsberg, Jack Kerouac, and William S. Burroughs used free verse, spontaneous writing, and countercultural
themes to challenge mainstream values. The movement emphasized individual freedom, anti-materialism, and the
rejection of societal norms, influencing later generations of writers and poets to explore non-conformist themes
and break traditional literary structures.
Q11: How did Beat poetry influence post-war American literature?
A) It reinforced traditional societal values
B) It promoted anti-materialism and individual freedom
C) It focused solely on political activism
D) It emphasized conformity in artistic expression
Passage 12:
In 19th-century British novels, the significance of landscape is often intertwined with the emotional and
psychological states of the characters. Authors like Charlotte Brontë and Thomas Hardy used the natural
environment not only as a backdrop for their stories but also as a reflection of inner turmoil, personal growth, and
social conflict. The landscape serves as a powerful symbol, shaping the characters’ experiences and influencing their
actions.
Q12: What role does landscape play in 19th-century British novels?
A) It serves as a neutral backdrop to the action
B) It reflects the emotional and psychological states of the characters
C) It focuses only on physical descriptions of nature
D) It is rarely referenced in the narrative
Passage 13:
In classic novels, familial relationships are often explored as central themes that shape characters’ identities and
actions. Authors like Jane Austen and Charles Dickens examine the complexities of family dynamics, such as love,
loyalty, and conflict. These relationships frequently serve as a lens through which social norms and individual
desires are scrutinized, revealing the intricate balance between personal aspirations and familial duties.
Q13: How are familial relationships portrayed in classic novels?
A) As simple, unchanging dynamics
B) As central themes that shape characters’ identities and actions
C) As irrelevant to the development of the plot
D) As secondary to romantic relationships
Passage 14:
Absurdist literature often uses humor to explore the meaningless or absurdity of life. Writers like Samuel Beckett
and Albert Camus utilized dark humor and ironic situations to convey existential themes of alienation, despair, and
the human struggle to find purpose. This humor, though often bleak, invites readers to confront life's inherent
absurdity in a way that is both thought-provoking and unsettling.
Q14: What role does humor play in absurdist literature?
A) It trivializes existential themes
B) It is used to explore the absurdity and meaninglessness of life
C) It focuses on lighthearted situations
D) It serves solely to entertain readers
Passage 15:
In early 20th-century literature, the depiction of the working class emerged as a key theme, especially in the works
of authors like John Steinbeck and Upton Sinclair. These writers focused on the struggles of ordinary people,
illustrating the hardships of poverty, labor exploitation, and social inequality. Their works often depicted the
resilience and strength of the working class, as well as the social and economic forces that oppressed them.
Q15: How is the working class depicted in early 20th-century literature?
A) As largely inactive in social struggles
B) As symbolizing luxury and privilege
C) As struggling against poverty, labor exploitation, and inequality
D) As unaffected by societal issues
Passage 16:
Holocaust literature often represents trauma through the personal accounts of survivors and the emotional weight
of their experiences. Writers such as Elie Wiesel and Primo Levi depict the horrors of the Holocaust with harrowing
detail, focusing on themes of loss, survival, and the human capacity for cruelty. The depiction of trauma in this
literature serves to preserve history while also confronting the emotional scars that linger long after the events.
Q16: What is a key theme in Holocaust literature, according to the passage?
A) The glorification of wartime heroism
B) The depiction of trauma, loss, and survival
C) The celebration of post-war prosperity
D) The exploration of futuristic societies
Passage 17:
Metafiction in contemporary storytelling refers to works that self-consciously address the act of writing and the
nature of fiction itself. Authors like Jorge Luis Borges and Italo Calvino blur the lines between fiction and reality,
inviting readers to reflect on the construction of stories and their relationship to truth. Metafiction often includes
narrative disruptions, unreliable narrators, and self-referential elements that challenge traditional storytelling
conventions.
Q17: What is the purpose of metafiction in contemporary storytelling?
A) To reinforce traditional narrative structures
B) To challenge the boundaries between fiction and reality
C) To create straightforward, linear plots
D) To focus on real historical events without fictional elements
Passage 18:
Post-apocalyptic literature often explores themes of survival and resilience in the face of catastrophic events.
Works like Cormac McCarthy's The Road depict a bleak, desolate world where characters must navigate the
challenges of scarcity, violence, and moral decay. These stories frequently focus on the emotional and psychological
endurance of the survivors, highlighting their will to survive in a world that seems devoid of hope.
Q18: What central themes are explored in post-apocalyptic literature?
A) Romance and adventure in utopian societies
B) Survival, resilience, and the struggle to endure in a bleak world
C) The rise of new civilizations and prosperity
D) The exploration of distant planets and alien encounters
Passage 19:
Religion has shaped literature throughout history, influencing the moral and ethical frameworks within which many
stories unfold. From the religious allegories in John Bunyan’s The Pilgrim’s Progress to the exploration of faith in
Dostoevsky’s The Brothers Karamazov, religious themes have been integral to the development of characters and
narratives, shaping the moral dilemmas and choices that define literary conflict.
Q19: How has religion influenced literature, according to the passage?
A) It has been irrelevant to the development of literary themes
B) It has shaped moral and ethical frameworks in stories
C) It has limited the exploration of complex characters
D) It has solely influenced romantic narratives
Passage 20:
The Industrial Revolution had a profound impact on literature and culture, with writers like Charles Dickens and
Elizabeth Gaskell examining the social and economic changes brought about by industrialization. The rise of
factories, urbanization, and class division became central themes in many works, as authors portrayed the harsh
realities of life for the working class and the moral implications of rapid technological progress.
Q20: How did the Industrial Revolution influence literature, according to the passage?
A) It focused on celebrating technological progress without critique
B) It highlighted the social and economic changes brought by industrialization
C) It led to the abandonment of themes related to class division
D) It emphasized the decline of urban centers
Text 1
Civil rights movements have played a crucial role in challenging racial, gender, and social inequalities throughout
history. In the United States, the Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s led to the dismantling of segregation and the
expansion of voting rights for African Americans. Similarly, other nations have seen movements advocating for
equal rights and opportunities for marginalized groups.
Text 2
While civil rights movements have made significant strides, advocates argue that more work remains to be done to
address systemic inequality. These movements continue to evolve, focusing on issues such as economic disparity,
healthcare access, and social justice.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would advocates for civil rights (Text 2) most likely respond to the claim that civil
rights movements have completed their work (Text 1)?
A) By claiming that civil rights movements have achieved all of their goals and no further action is needed.
B) By emphasizing that civil rights movements continue to evolve and address ongoing systemic inequalities.
C) By stating that civil rights movements have been largely ineffective in bringing about change.
D) By advocating for a complete cessation of civil rights movements as their goals have been fulfilled.
Text 3
The role of women in shaping modern political systems has been crucial, yet often overlooked. Women have fought
for and gained the right to vote, run for office, and influence policy decisions. However, women remain
underrepresented in many political arenas, and gender bias continues to be a challenge.
Text 4
Despite the barriers that women face, progress has been made in increasing female participation in politics. Female
politicians have become leaders in various nations, pushing for reforms and advocating for policies that prioritize
gender equality and social justice.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would advocates for increased female participation in politics (Text 4) most likely
respond to the claim that women are not influential in modern politics (Text 3)?
A) By claiming that women's role in politics has had little to no impact on society.
B) By arguing that despite challenges, women continue to play a significant role in shaping political systems.
C) By suggesting that women should withdraw from politics due to ongoing gender bias.
D) By emphasizing that women are underrepresented and have not contributed to political reforms.
Passage 21
The Industrial Revolution brought significant changes to the social structure, particularly in terms of labor relations.
As factory work became more common, there was a growing _______ between the working class and the wealthy
elite.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) divide
B) dividing
C) divides
D) divided

Passage 22
The rapid growth of technology has led to significant shifts in the job market. While many industries have benefited,
others have struggled with _______ in employment due to automation and AI.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) displacement
B) displaced
C) displacing
D) displace
Q25. The Impact of the Cold War on Global Politics and Culture
Region Cold War Influence Minimal Influence No Influence Total Percent Cold War Influence
Eastern Europe 250 50 30 330 75.8%
North America 150 100 50 300 50%
Latin America 120 90 60 270 44.4%
Asia 200 120 100 420 47.6%
Africa 50 80 70 200 25%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Eastern Europe had the highest percentage of Cold War influence.
B) Africa had the lowest percentage of Cold War influence.
C) North America had more Cold War influence than Asia.
D) Latin America had the highest number of regions with no Cold War influence.
Q26. The Rise and Fall of Empires
Empire Rise Period Fall Period Total Percent of Rise Period
Roman Empire 500 BC 476 AD 1000 50%
Mongol Empire 1206 AD 1368 AD 800 65%
Ottoman Empire 1300 AD 1922 AD 1500 46.7%
British Empire 1583 AD 1997 AD 1800 58.3%
Byzantine Empire 330 AD 1453 AD 1200 41.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) The Mongol Empire had the highest percentage of rise period.
B) The Ottoman Empire had the shortest period of rise.
C) The Byzantine Empire lasted longer than the Roman Empire.
D) The British Empire had the largest total empire period.
Q27. The Exploration of the New World by Europeans
• Christopher Columbus's voyage in 1492 opened the Americas to European exploration and colonization.
• Explorers like Vasco da Gama and Ferdinand Magellan expanded European trade routes to Asia and the Americas.
• Colonization brought both economic wealth and devastating consequences for indigenous populations.
• The Age of Exploration laid the groundwork for the global exchange of goods, ideas, and cultures.
The student wants to summarize the European exploration of the New World. Which choice best encapsulates
this idea?
A) European exploration led to the discovery of new lands and initiated cultural exchanges, though it also harmed
indigenous populations.
B) European explorers sought only to conquer new lands without any economic or cultural impact.
C) The Age of Exploration was solely about finding new trade routes to Asia.
D) European exploration had no lasting effects on global trade or culture.
Module 2
Passage 1:
Technology has become a powerful tool for political activists, enabling rapid communication and organization.
Social media platforms, in particular, __________ global awareness and mobilization around social and political
causes, making it easier for movements to gain traction.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) accelerated
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 2:
As the global population continues to grow, there is increasing pressure on natural resources such as water, energy,
and arable land. This rapid growth __________ the challenges associated with sustainability, making it harder to
maintain ecological balance.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) alleviates
B) magnifies
C) simplifies
D) ignores
Passage 3:
Major world religions, such as Christianity, Islam, and Buddhism, continue to influence contemporary geopolitics.
These religions play a significant role in shaping national identities, policies, and international relations, often
__________ political and cultural conflicts across regions.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolving
B) escalating
C) mitigating
D) ignoring
Passage 4:
Environmental justice movements advocate for the fair distribution of environmental benefits and burdens. These
movements __________ the need for policies that protect vulnerable communities, who are often most affected by
climate change, such as low-income and minority groups.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignore
B) emphasize
C) hinder
D) restrict
Passage 5:
Globalization has introduced new agricultural technologies and practices to developing countries. While these
innovations __________ food production, they have also led to the decline of traditional farming methods and local
food systems.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) simplified
B) disrupted
C) advanced
D) ignored
Passage 6:
Imperialism in Southeast Asia, particularly during the colonial era, significantly reshaped the region's political and
economic systems. The legacies of this imperialism __________ contemporary political conflicts and social
inequalities in countries like Vietnam and Indonesia.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) alleviated
B) perpetuated
C) resolved
D) ignored
Passage 7:
Small island nations often rely heavily on tourism as a key driver of their economies. However, over-reliance on
tourism can __________ economic instability, as fluctuations in global tourism trends can have a significant impact
on local economies.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) alleviate
B) increase
C) exacerbate
D) simplify
Passage 8:
Youth movements have become increasingly influential in shaping political discourse in developing countries. Young
people’s advocacy for social, economic, and environmental reforms __________ governments to consider their
demands, often leading to political change and greater social engagement.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) forced
B) challenged
C) ignored
D) weakened
Passage 9:
The rise of authoritarian regimes around the world has posed significant challenges to democracy. These regimes
often __________ civil liberties, suppress opposition, and limit the free flow of information, threatening democratic
institutions.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) strengthened
B) enhanced
C) undermined
D) ignored
Passage 10:
Economic inequality is a major factor in determining access to healthcare. Those in lower income brackets often
__________ access to quality healthcare, leading to poorer health outcomes and widening the health gap between
rich and poor populations.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) benefit from
B) restrict
C) encourage
D) increase
Passage 11:
The Gothic novel, which emerged in the 18th century, evolved significantly in the 19th and 20th centuries. Authors
like Mary Shelley, Edgar Allan Poe, and H.P. Lovecraft expanded the genre by blending elements of horror,
romance, and the supernatural with psychological depth. The genre's focus shifted from isolated castles and dark,
mysterious settings to complex characters grappling with their inner demons, contributing to the development of
modern horror fiction.
Q11: How did the Gothic novel evolve in the 19th and 20th centuries?
A) It became focused solely on supernatural creatures
B) It shifted towards psychological depth and complex characters
C) It remained unchanged, focusing only on dark settings
D) It abandoned horror and became purely romantic
Passage 12:
In Shakespeare's plays, the role of women is often portrayed as complex and multifaceted. Female characters like
Lady Macbeth, Juliet, and Ophelia are not merely passive figures but active participants in the unfolding drama.
Their roles frequently challenge societal expectations, highlighting themes of power, love, and tragedy, while also
reflecting the gender norms and constraints of the Elizabethan era.
Q12: How are women portrayed in Shakespeare's plays?
A) As passive figures with no influence on the plot
B) As complex characters challenging societal expectations
C) As purely symbolic representations of virtue
D) As supporting characters with no emotional depth
Passage 13:
The French Symbolists, including poets like Charles Baudelaire and Stéphane Mallarmé, blended art and literature
to explore themes of beauty, decadence, and the subconscious. Their works aimed to evoke emotions through
symbolic imagery and music-like rhythms, creating a unique intersection between visual art and literary expression.
This fusion allowed the Symbolists to express deeper psychological truths and challenge conventional artistic forms.
Q13: What role does art play in the works of the French Symbolists?
A) It is irrelevant to their literary themes
B) It serves as a medium for expressing psychological truths and beauty
C) It focuses solely on realistic depictions of the world
D) It is used only to reinforce societal norms
Passage 14:
Contemporary literature often addresses environmental issues, reflecting growing global concerns over climate
change, conservation, and human impact on the natural world. Writers like Margaret Atwood and Richard Powers
explore these themes, depicting the consequences of environmental degradation and the human struggle for
survival in an increasingly unstable world. These works engage with ecological concerns while encouraging
reflection on humanity's relationship with nature.
Q14: What is the primary focus of environmental issues in contemporary literature?
A) Depicting the beauty of nature without concern for its destruction
B) Exploring the consequences of environmental degradation and human impact
C) Celebrating the progress of technology over nature
D) Ignoring ecological concerns and focusing on individual stories
Passage 15:
The unreliable narrator is a central feature in many psychological thrillers, often creating tension and ambiguity in
the story. Authors like Gillian Flynn and Agatha Christie use unreliable narrators to challenge the reader's
perceptions, keeping them questioning what is real. This narrative technique plays on the theme of deception and
helps create suspense, as the truth is slowly revealed through the narrator's shifting perspectives.
Q15: What role does the unreliable narrator play in psychological thrillers?
A) It reinforces the clarity of the plot
B) It creates tension and challenges the reader’s perceptions of reality
C) It serves only as a tool for humor
D) It simplifies the narrative for readers
Passage 16:
In war novels, literature often reflects the relationship between historical events and personal experiences. Authors
like Erich Maria Remarque and Tim O’Brien use the backdrop of war to explore themes of sacrifice, trauma, and the
futility of conflict. The personal stories of soldiers and civilians serve as a lens through which readers gain insight
into the emotional and moral complexities of war.
Q16: How do war novels depict the relationship between literature and historical events?
A) By focusing solely on political ideologies
B) By illustrating personal experiences amidst the backdrop of war
C) By avoiding emotional themes and focusing on battles
D) By glorifying war and military victory
Passage 17:
Victorian literature often portrays romantic relationships with an emphasis on social expectations, moral values,
and the complexities of emotional expression. Authors like Elizabeth Barrett Browning and Thomas Hardy explore
themes of duty, sacrifice, and the tension between personal desire and societal approval. These novels often reflect
the rigid gender roles and class distinctions that defined the Victorian era.
Q17: How are romantic relationships portrayed in Victorian literature?
A) As focused solely on personal desire without societal constraints
B) As complex, influenced by social expectations and moral values
C) As a means to challenge gender roles and class distinctions
D) As purely idealized and free from conflict
Passage 18:
In postcolonial literature, language plays a crucial role in shaping identity. Writers like Chinua Achebe and Ngũgĩ wa
Thiong'o explore how colonialism affected language and self-expression, often using language as a tool to reclaim
cultural identity. The manipulation and adaptation of language in their works reflect the ongoing struggle between
maintaining indigenous cultures and adapting to the language of the colonizers.
Q18: What role does language play in postcolonial literature?
A) It is used exclusively to preserve colonial languages
B) It serves as a tool for reclaiming cultural identity and expression
C) It focuses solely on creating linguistic barriers between cultures
D) It is used to promote assimilation into colonial languages
Passage 19:
The epistolary form, in which a novel is written as a series of letters, diary entries, or other documents, has been
used to enhance the emotional intimacy of the narrative. Works like Dracula by Bram Stoker and The Color Purple
by Alice Walker use this form to provide multiple perspectives, allowing readers to engage deeply with the
characters' thoughts and emotions while also revealing key plot points through personal correspondence.
Q19: What is the significance of the epistolary form in novels?
A) It simplifies the narrative structure
B) It enhances emotional intimacy and provides multiple perspectives
C) It focuses on third-person omniscient narration
D) It limits the scope of the narrative to a single viewpoint
Passage 20:
In speculative fiction, the concept of utopia and dystopia is explored as a way of examining idealized and flawed
societies. Authors like Aldous Huxley and George Orwell use dystopian settings to critique contemporary social,
political, and economic issues. These imagined worlds allow readers to explore the extremes of human behavior,
offering a cautionary reflection on the potential consequences of societal choices.
Q20: How is the concept of utopia vs. dystopia used in speculative fiction?
A) To idealize society and eliminate conflict
B) To explore and critique real-world social, political, and economic issues
C) To avoid addressing contemporary issues altogether
D) To present a neutral view of societal development
Text 1
The rise of technology has transformed education systems globally, enabling access to online learning platforms,
digital resources, and virtual classrooms. However, this digital shift has created a divide between those with access
to technology and those without, leading to concerns about inequality in education.
Text 2
Despite the challenges, technology has also played a critical role in bridging educational gaps. Online learning
platforms, mobile applications, and educational software have made learning more flexible and accessible,
especially in remote areas where traditional education infrastructure is limited.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would proponents of technology in education (Text 2) most likely respond to the
concerns about inequality raised in Text 1?
A) By arguing that technology exacerbates educational inequalities by excluding students without access to digital
tools.
B) By suggesting that technology is a tool for providing equitable educational opportunities, especially in
underserved regions.
C) By claiming that traditional education methods are superior to technology in promoting equality.
D) By emphasizing that inequality in education is unrelated to technology and is a result of other social factors.
Text 3
Democracy in ancient Greece laid the foundation for modern democratic systems. In Athens, citizens participated
directly in decision-making, and laws were based on the collective will of the people. Although limited to male
citizens, this early form of democracy inspired future political systems around the world.
Text 4
The development of democracy in ancient Greece emphasized the importance of citizen participation, fairness in
decision-making, and the rule of law. These principles continue to influence democratic systems today, where the
rights and voices of citizens remain central to political life.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would proponents of ancient Greek democracy (Text 4) most likely respond to the
claim that democracy was limited in scope (Text 3)?
A) By emphasizing that ancient Greek democracy was a model for inclusive, modern systems of governance.
B) By arguing that ancient Greek democracy was too exclusive and should be abandoned.
C) By claiming that ancient Greek democracy was irrelevant to modern political systems.
D) By suggesting that the limitations of ancient Greek democracy should be overlooked in favor of modern systems.
Passage 21
The Industrial Revolution brought significant changes to the social structure, particularly in terms of labor relations.
As factory work became more common, there was a growing _______ between the working class and the wealthy
elite.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) divide
B) dividing
C) divides
D) divided
Passage 22
The rapid growth of technology has led to significant shifts in the job market. While many industries have benefited,
others have struggled with _______ in employment due to automation and AI.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) displacement
B) displaced
C) displacing
D) displace
Q25. The Impact of Social Media on Youth Culture and Identity
Social Media Positive Neutral Negative Total Percent Positive
Platform Influence Influence Influence Influence
Instagram 200 100 50 350 57.1%
TikTok 300 120 80 500 60%
Facebook 150 120 100 370 40.5%
Twitter 120 150 90 360 33.3%
Snapchat 180 80 50 310 58.1%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) TikTok had the highest percentage of positive influence.
B) Facebook had the most negative influence on youth culture.
C) Snapchat had the lowest percentage of positive influence.
D) Instagram had a higher neutral influence than TikTok.
Q26. The History and Consequences of the Feminist Movement
Feminist Wave Political Social Cultural Total Percent Political
Influence Influence Influence Influence
First Wave (19th-20th 150 120 100 370 40.5%
Century)
Second Wave (1960s- 200 180 160 540 37%
1980s)
Third Wave (1990s-2000s) 100 130 150 380 26.3%
Fourth Wave (2010s- 250 220 190 660 37.9%
present)
Fifth Wave (Emerging) 50 90 80 220 22.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) The fourth wave had the highest political influence.
B) The second wave had the most cultural influence.
C) The third wave had the lowest political influence.
D) The first wave had the highest total influence.
Q27. The Role of the Printing Press in the Reformation
• The printing press, invented by Johannes Gutenberg, allowed for the mass production of books, including religious
texts.
• It enabled the rapid spread of Martin Luther's ideas, leading to the Protestant Reformation in the 16th century.
• Religious debates and challenges to the Catholic Church became widespread due to the availability of printed
materials.
• The printing press played a key role in reshaping religious and social structures in Europe.
The student wants to summarize the role of the printing press in the Reformation. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) The printing press helped spread Martin Luther's ideas and contributed to the Protestant Reformation.
B) The printing press was primarily used to print secular texts, with no impact on religious movements.
C) The printing press had little influence on religious debates and the Protestant Reformation.
D) The printing press was a tool used exclusively by the Catholic Church during the Reformation.
Math
Module 1
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 2x + 6 = 18.
A) x = 6
B) x = 5
C) x = 7
D) x = 8
Q2: Solve the inequality: 3x - 4 ≥ 8.
A) x ≥ 4
B) x ≥ 3
C) x ≥ 2
D) x ≥ 1
Q3: Solve for x in the equation: 4x - 5 = 11.
A) x = 4
B) x = 5
C) x = 6
D) x = 3
Q4: What is the slope of the line represented by the equation: y = 3x - 2?
A) 3
B) -2
C) 2
D) -3
Q5: Solve the inequality: 5x + 2 < 17.
A) x < 3
B) x < 4
C) x < 5
D) x < 6
Q6: Solve the inequality: 6x - 4 > 8.
A) x > 2
B) x > 1
C) x > 3
D) x > 4
Q7: Solve for x in the inequality: 4x + 3 ≤ 19.
A) x ≤ 4
B) x ≤ 5
C) x ≤ 6
D) x ≤ 3
Q8: Solve the inequality: 7x - 9 ≥ 20.
A) x ≥ 4.14
B) x ≥ 4
C) x ≥ 5
D) x ≥ 6
Q9: Simplify the rational expression: (3x² + 6x) / (3x).
A) x + 2
B) x + 3
C) x - 2
D) x - 3
Q10: Solve the rational equation: (6 / (x + 2)) = (2 / (x + 4)).
A) x = -2
B) x = -4
C) x = -5
D) x = -1
Q11: Solve for x in the equation: log₅(x + 1) = 2.
A) x = 24
B) x = 4
C) x = 24
D) x = 25
Q12: Solve the exponential equation: 2^(3x) = 32.
A) x = 5/3
B) x = 4/3
C) x = 3/2
D) x = 2/3
Q13: A car depreciates in value by 15% each year. If the car is worth $20,000 today, what will its value be after 3
years?
A) $15,000
B) $12,000
C) $13,500
D) $13,000
Q14: A store offers a 20% discount on a $150 item. How much is the discounted price?
A) $125
B) $120
C) $100
D) $130
Q15: A population of 1000 bacteria doubles every 4 hours. How many bacteria will there be after 12 hours?
A) 8000
B) 5000
C) 4000
D) 2000
Q16: A bank offers an annual interest rate of 6% compounded quarterly. How much will an investment of $1,200
be worth after 2 years?
A) $1,400
B) $1,425
C) $1,500
D) $1,440
Q17: A bookstore sells 5 books for $35. How much would 8 books cost at the same rate?
A) $45
B) $56
C) $65
D) $70
Q18: In a group of 500 students, 40% passed the exam. How many students passed?
A) 150
B) 175
C) 200
D) 250
Q19: A recipe calls for 3 cups of flour to make 9 muffins. How many cups of flour are needed to make 24 muffins?
A) 6 cups
B) 7 cups
C) 8 cups
D) 9 cups
Q20: If a car travels 120 miles in 3 hours, what is its average speed?
A) 30 mph
B) 35 mph
C) 40 mph
D) 45 mph
Q21: The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 meters, and the length is 12 meters. What is the width?
A) 8 meters
B) 10 meters
C) 12 meters
D) 14 meters
Q22: What is the value of sin(π/6) on the unit circle?
A) 1/2
B) √3/2
C) 1
D) 0
Module 2
Q1: Solve the following linear equation: 3x + 9 = 18.
A) x = 3
B) x = 4
C) x = 2
D) x = 5
Q2: Solve the inequality: 4x - 7 > 9.
A) x > 4
B) x > 5
C) x > 3
D) x > 2
Q3: Solve for x in the equation: 2x - 5 = 11.
A) x = 6
B) x = 5
C) x = 4
D) x = 8
Q4: What is the slope of the line represented by the equation: y = -3x + 4?
A) -3
B) 3
C) 4
D) -4
Q5: Solve the inequality: 2x + 5 ≥ 13.
A) x ≥ 3
B) x ≥ 4
C) x ≥ 2
D) x ≥ 1
Q6: Solve the inequality: 3x - 2 < 10.
A) x < 4
B) x < 5
C) x < 3
D) x < 2
Q7: Solve for x in the inequality: 5x + 3 ≤ 18.
A) x ≤ 3
B) x ≤ 4
C) x ≤ 5
D) x ≤ 2
Q8: Solve the inequality: 6x - 8 > 10.
A) x > 3
B) x > 4
C) x > 5
D) x > 2
Q9: Simplify the rational expression: (x² + 4x) / (2x).
A) x + 2
B) x + 4
C) x - 2
D) x + 3
Q10: Solve the equation: (3 / (x - 1)) + (2 / (x + 2)) = 1.
A) x = 3
B) x = 1
C) x = 4
D) x = 6
Q11: Solve for x in the equation: ln(x) = 5.
A) x = e⁵
B) x = 5
C) x = 10
D) x = ln(5)
Q12: Solve for x in the exponential equation: 3^(x + 1) = 81.
A) x = 4
B) x = 3
C) x = 2
D) x = 1
Q13: A company’s revenue R (in dollars) is given by the equation R = 500x + 2000, where x is the number of units
sold. If the company’s revenue is $4500, how many units were sold?
A) 7
B) 9
C) 5
D) 8
Q14: A town's population grows by 10% every year. If the population is 10,000 today, what will it be in 2 years?
A) 12,000
B) 12,100
C) 11,100
D) 12,500
Q15: A machine depreciates by 5% annually. If its initial value is $20,000, what is its value after 3 years?
A) $18,000
B) $17,000
C) $15,000
D) $16,000
Q16: A loan of $5000 is compounded annually at 6%. How much will the loan be worth after 4 years?
A) $6,000
B) $6,280
C) $6,200
D) $6,312

Q17: A survey shows that 25% of people in a city own a dog. If there are 2000 people in the city, how many
people own a dog?
A) 250
B) 500
C) 750
D) 1000
Q18: A company sells 1200 units of a product for $30 each. If the company raises the price to $35 per unit, how
much more money will the company make by selling the same number of units?
A) $3000
B) $4000
C) $5000
D) $6000
Q19: The ratio of cats to dogs in a shelter is 7:3. If there are 210 cats, how many dogs are there?
A) 60
B) 70
C) 90
D) 105
Q20: A cyclist travels 150 miles in 5 hours. What is the cyclist's average speed in miles per hour?
A) 25 mph
B) 30 mph
C) 35 mph
D) 40 mph
Q21: What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 units and a height of 10 units?
A) 30π
B) 50π
C) 90π
D) 100π
Q22: What is the value of cos(π/4) on the unit circle?
A) 1/2
B) √2/2
C) 1
D) 0
PRACTICE TEST 8
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
Artificial intelligence (AI) has revolutionized scientific discovery by enabling faster data analysis, pattern recognition,
and simulations. AI’s application in fields like drug development and climate modeling __________ the speed and
accuracy with which researchers can make groundbreaking advancements.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminished
B) improved
C) restricted
D) ignored
Passage 2:
Gene editing technologies like CRISPR have opened up new possibilities in medicine and agriculture. However, the
potential to modify human genes raises significant ethical concerns about __________ the boundaries between
acceptable medical interventions and tampering with natural genetic processes.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) respecting
B) challenging
C) reinforcing
D) limiting
Passage 3:
Space exploration has provided insights into the origins of the universe and the nature of celestial bodies. Missions
to distant planets and moons __________ our knowledge of space phenomena, offering clues to the potential for
life beyond Earth.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminished
B) expanded
C) ignored
D) restricted
Passage 4:
The human microbiome, composed of trillions of microorganisms, plays a critical role in maintaining health.
Research into microbiomes has revealed their influence on immune function, digestion, and even mental health,
emphasizing the importance of __________ microbiome health to overall well-being.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) neglecting
B) optimizing
C) disregarding
D) undermining
Passage 5:
Plastic pollution has become a major environmental concern, with millions of tons of plastic waste entering the
oceans each year. Initiatives to reduce plastic use and promote recycling __________ efforts to protect marine life
and reduce environmental damage caused by waste accumulation.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) complicated
B) hinder
C) support
D) ignore
Passage 6:
Renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power, are increasingly recognized as essential to
reducing carbon emissions. As these technologies evolve, they __________ the global shift toward sustainable
energy, contributing to efforts to mitigate climate change.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinder
B) accelerate
C) ignore
D) obstruct
Passage 7:
Climate change has led to shifts in temperature, weather patterns, and ecosystems, which have profound effects on
biodiversity. Species face increased risks of extinction, and ecosystems __________ under the strain of these
changing conditions, leading to the loss of habitats and food sources.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) flourish
B) struggle
C) ignore
D) thrive
Passage 8:
Quantum computing has the potential to revolutionize industries by solving complex problems that classical
computers cannot. As research advances, quantum technology __________ breakthroughs in fields like
cryptography, drug discovery, and artificial intelligence.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delays
B) hinders
C) promises
D) ignores
Passage 9:
Stem cell research has shown great promise in developing treatments for diseases that currently have no cure. By
harnessing the regenerative potential of stem cells, scientists __________ the possibility of new therapies for
conditions like Parkinson’s disease and spinal cord injuries.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) limit
B) diminish
C) enhance
D) ignore
Passage 10:
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) have revolutionized agriculture by improving crop yields, pest resistance,
and nutritional content. As GMO technologies evolve, they __________ food production capabilities, helping to
address global challenges such as food security and climate change.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinder
B) restrict
C) expand
D) ignore
Passage 11:
Cloud computing has transformed the way scientific data is analyzed and shared. By enabling real-time data storage
and computational resources, researchers can collaborate across geographical boundaries, streamlining workflows
and accelerating scientific discoveries. Cloud platforms also allow for the integration of large datasets, facilitating
more accurate and comprehensive analyses.
Q11: How does cloud computing impact scientific research?
A) It restricts collaboration between researchers
B) It simplifies the analysis of large datasets and enhances collaboration
C) It hinders the sharing of data across locations
D) It eliminates the need for computational resources
Passage 12:
CRISPR gene drives have emerged as a potential tool for controlling invasive species that threaten ecosystems. By
editing the genes of specific species, scientists can alter their reproduction rates or behaviors, potentially reducing
their populations. However, concerns about unintended ecological consequences have led to ongoing ethical and
environmental debates surrounding the use of gene drives in conservation.
Q12: What is a key concern regarding the use of CRISPR gene drives?
A) They could increase the population of invasive species
B) They might lead to unintended ecological consequences
C) They eliminate the need for conservation efforts
D) They only affect human populations
Passage 13:
The science of aging has advanced significantly, revealing mechanisms such as cellular senescence, oxidative stress,
and telomere shortening that contribute to the aging process. Longevity research aims to delay or reverse these
processes, potentially extending lifespan and improving quality of life. Current studies focus on genetic factors, anti-
aging compounds, and regenerative medicine to address age-related diseases and promote healthy aging.
Q13: What is the primary goal of longevity research?
A) To accelerate the aging process
B) To prevent all genetic changes
C) To delay or reverse aging and improve quality of life
D) To eliminate age-related diseases entirely
Passage 14:
Artificial intelligence (AI) plays a crucial role in predicting and managing pandemics by analyzing large volumes of
health data. AI algorithms can identify patterns and potential outbreaks earlier than traditional methods, allowing
for timely interventions. In addition, AI models are used to simulate the spread of diseases and optimize resource
allocation for better public health responses during pandemics.
Q14: How does AI contribute to managing pandemics?
A) It replaces human healthcare workers entirely
B) It predicts outbreaks and optimizes responses
C) It prevents diseases from emerging
D) It focuses on curing diseases after they spread
Passage 15:
Synthetic biology has the potential to address environmental pollution by designing organisms or biological systems
that can break down pollutants. For example, engineered microbes could be used to clean up oil spills, and plants
may be altered to absorb excess carbon dioxide. However, the deployment of synthetic organisms in the
environment requires careful regulation to ensure safety and prevent unintended consequences.
Q15: What is a potential application of synthetic biology in environmental protection?
A) Reducing the number of pollutants in natural environments
B) Designing organisms to break down pollutants like oil and carbon dioxide
C) Preventing the development of pollutants
D) Replacing natural ecosystems entirely
Passage 16:
Recent research suggests a strong connection between gut health and mental health. The gut microbiome,
composed of trillions of bacteria, plays a critical role in regulating mood and emotional responses by producing
neurotransmitters like serotonin. Disruptions to the microbiome have been linked to mood disorders, anxiety, and
depression, leading to interest in gut-brain interactions for mental health therapies.
Q16: What is the relationship between gut health and mental health?
A) Gut health has no impact on mental well-being
B) Gut health influences mood and emotional responses through the microbiome
C) Mental health issues have no effect on gut function
D) Gut bacteria only affect physical health
Passage 17:
Volcanology is the study of volcanoes, including their behavior and eruption patterns. Scientists use a variety of
techniques, including seismic activity monitoring, gas emissions analysis, and satellite imaging, to predict eruptions.
While prediction methods have improved, the complex nature of volcanic activity still makes precise forecasting
challenging, requiring constant monitoring to protect nearby populations.
Q17: What is a challenge in predicting volcanic eruptions?
A) The unpredictability of volcanic behavior despite monitoring methods
B) The inability to monitor seismic activity
C) The lack of technological advancements
D) The absence of any warning signs
Passage 18:
Ecosystems provide critical services that help mitigate the effects of natural disasters. Wetlands act as buffers
against floods, forests reduce the impact of landslides, and coral reefs protect coastal areas from storm surges. By
preserving and restoring ecosystems, we can enhance their capacity to reduce the damage caused by natural
disasters, ultimately saving lives and reducing economic losses.
Q18: How do ecosystems help mitigate natural disasters?
A) By preventing all natural disasters from occurring
B) By providing services like flood buffers and storm surge protection
C) By accelerating the occurrence of natural disasters
D) By causing disruption to human populations
Passage 19:
Sound waves are used in numerous medical and technological applications, from ultrasound imaging to hearing
aids. Ultrasound, for instance, allows for non-invasive imaging of internal organs, while sound-based technologies
assist in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Researchers continue to explore how sound waves can be
harnessed to improve health outcomes and develop new diagnostic tools.
Q19: How is sound used in medicine and technology?
A) To improve air quality
B) In ultrasound imaging and hearing aids
C) To disrupt biological systems
D) To replace conventional surgery
Passage 20:
Personalized medicine tailors medical treatments to an individual’s genetic makeup, improving the efficacy of
therapies. By analyzing genetic data, doctors can predict how patients will respond to various treatments, minimize
side effects, and offer more precise medical care. As genetic research continues to advance, personalized medicine
is expected to become an integral part of healthcare, providing individualized care based on genetic profiles.
Q20: How does personalized medicine improve healthcare?
A) By using standardized treatments for all patients
B) By tailoring treatments to individual genetic profiles
C) By relying solely on traditional therapies
D) By focusing on one-size-fits-all treatment strategies
Text 1
The resilience of the human spirit in the face of adversity has been a powerful theme throughout history.
Individuals and communities have shown remarkable strength when confronted with challenges such as war,
poverty, and injustice. From personal struggles to large-scale social movements, the human spirit’s capacity to
endure and overcome hardship is often celebrated as a testament to human perseverance and determination.
Text 2
While the resilience of the human spirit is often celebrated, it is important to recognize that adversity can also leave
lasting scars. Many individuals continue to face the lingering effects of trauma and hardship, which can impact their
emotional well-being and sense of hope. Advocates for mental health emphasize the importance of support
systems and resources for individuals affected by adversity.
Q21: Based on the passages, how would advocates for mental health (Text 2) most likely respond to the claim
that resilience alone can overcome adversity (Text 1)?
A) By suggesting that resilience is sufficient to overcome all hardships without external support.
B) By emphasizing the need for support systems and resources to help individuals cope with the lasting effects of
adversity.
C) By claiming that adversity has little impact on emotional well-being.
D) By arguing that resilience is not important in overcoming adversity.
Text 3
The symbolism of seasons in literature and art often mirrors the cycles of life. Spring represents new beginnings,
youth, and growth; summer symbolizes maturity and abundance; autumn reflects the inevitability of change and
decline; and winter signifies death, rest, or dormancy. These seasonal transitions are frequently used to explore
themes of time, transformation, and the human experience.
Text 4
While seasons symbolize the cycle of life, some argue that they also represent the complexity and unpredictability
of human existence. The transitions between seasons are not always smooth; they often involve struggle, loss, and
adaptation. This perspective highlights that life is not simply a linear progression but a series of challenges and
opportunities for growth.
Q22: Based on the passages, how would advocates for viewing life as a series of challenges (Text 4) most likely
respond to the claim that life follows a predictable cycle (Text 3)?
A) By emphasizing that life is a series of challenges and opportunities for growth, not a smooth, predictable
progression.
B) By arguing that life is entirely predictable and follows a clear seasonal cycle without difficulty.
C) By stating that human experience is solely about inevitable decline and decay.
D) By claiming that the seasons do not represent anything about human life.
Passage 21
The conflict between dreams and reality often creates an internal struggle, where idealized visions of the future
clash with the harsh truths of the present. This tension can lead to a deep sense of _______ and disillusionment.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) confusion
B) confused
C) confuse
D) confusing
Passage 22
In today's fast-paced world, many people feel _______ as societal changes accelerate, leaving individuals uncertain
about their place in the world.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) lost
B) losing
C) lose
D) lostness
Q25. The Distribution of Renewable Energy Sources by Country
Country Wind Energy Solar Energy Hydroelectric Energy Total Renewable Percent Wind
(MW) (MW) (MW) Energy (MW) Energy
USA 120,000 80,000 100,000 300,000 40%
Germany 60,000 70,000 50,000 180,000 33.3%
China 200,000 150,000 250,000 600,000 33.3%
India 50,000 120,000 80,000 250,000 20%
Brazil 30,000 40,000 100,000 170,000 17.6%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) China had the highest total renewable energy capacity.
B) India had the highest percentage of solar energy.
C) The USA had the largest wind energy capacity.
D) Germany had the lowest percentage of wind energy.
Q26. The Impact of Education Level on Employment Rate
Education Level Employed (%) Unemployed Total Population Percent Employed
(%) (millions)
High School 70% 30% 100 70%
Associate's 80% 20% 50 80%
Degree
Bachelor's Degree 90% 10% 80 90%
Master's Degree 95% 5% 40 95%
Doctoral Degree 98% 2% 10 98%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Employment rates increase with higher education levels.
B) High school graduates have the highest employment rate.
C) The total population is highest for those with an associate’s degree.
D) Master's degree holders have the highest unemployment rate.
Q27. The Significance of Silence and Its Meanings
• Silence can be a powerful tool for reflection and understanding.
• It can communicate more than words, conveying emotions or thoughts that cannot be expressed verbally.
• In many cultures, silence is a symbol of respect, meditation, or contemplation.
• However, silence can also be used to mask discomfort, fear, or avoidance of conflict.
The student wants to summarize the significance of silence and its meanings. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) Silence can be both a profound and a protective response, offering space for reflection or hiding uncomfortable
truths.
B) Silence is solely a form of communication used to avoid conflict and nothing else.
C) Silence has no meaningful impact and is simply the absence of sound.
D) Silence only conveys respect and is never used for personal protection or emotional expression.
Module 2
Passage 1:
Nanotechnology has revolutionized medical treatments by enabling precise delivery of drugs, improving
diagnostics, and enhancing tissue repair. It __________ the potential for more targeted and effective treatments,
particularly in cancer and genetic disorders.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) limits
B) expands
C) restricts
D) ignores
Passage 2: Human aging is a complex biological process influenced by genetic and environmental factors. Anti-aging
research aims to __________ the effects of aging, exploring ways to slow down cellular degeneration and promote
healthier aging.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) accelerate
B) ignore
C) reverse
D) ignore
Passage 3:
Artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning have had a profound impact on industries such as healthcare,
finance, and manufacturing. These technologies __________ productivity by automating repetitive tasks and
enabling more accurate decision-making.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduced
B) increased
C) ignored
D) delayed
Passage 4:
Biotechnology plays a critical role in increasing food production while reducing environmental impact. Genetic
modification of crops for pest resistance and higher yield __________ sustainable farming practices, contributing to
global food security.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) challenges
B) undermines
C) supports
D) ignores
Passage 5:
Autonomous vehicles hold the promise of revolutionizing transportation, reducing traffic accidents, and improving
traffic flow. However, they also __________ new risks, including safety concerns, ethical dilemmas, and potential
job losses in traditional transportation sectors.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) mitigate
B) eliminate
C) introduce
D) ignore
Passage 6:
Overfishing depletes fish populations and disruPractice Test marine food chains, leading to long-term ecological
damage. This practice __________ biodiversity and threatens the sustainability of marine ecosystems, impacting
both wildlife and human communities dependent on fisheries.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) enhances
B) damages
C) ignores
D) promotes
Passage 7:
Women have historically been underrepresented in scientific research, but their contributions are increasingly
recognized in various fields. Their participation __________ the diversity of perspectives and approaches, fostering
innovation and advancing scientific progress.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduces
B) increases
C) limits
D) ignores
Passage 8:
Environmental pollution, including air and water contamination, has been linked to a wide range of health
problems, such as respiratory diseases and cancer. Addressing pollution __________ public health outcomes,
reducing disease prevalence, and promoting healthier living environments.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) limits
B) enhances
C) worsens
D) improves
Passage 9:
Dark matter and dark energy make up most of the universe’s mass-energy content, yet little is known about their
nature. Ongoing research into these phenomena __________ our understanding of the universe’s composition and
fundamental laws of physics.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinders
B) expands
C) reduces
D) ignores
Passage 10:
Cloning technologies raise significant ethical questions regarding the rights of cloned organisms and the potential
for abuse. The debate over cloning __________ the moral implications of manipulating life at its most fundamental
level.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignores
B) challenges
C) supports
D) limits
Passage 11:
The passage of time is often depicted as an unstoppable force that moves relentlessly forward. In literature and
philosophy, the fleeting nature of life is emphasized, encouraging reflection on the brevity of human existence.
Many works explore the inevitability of aging and death, urging individuals to embrace the present moment and
live with purpose, as time waits for no one.
Q11: How is the passage of time commonly portrayed in literature?
A) As a force that can be reversed
B) As a timeless concept that does not affect individuals
C) As an inevitable and fleeting force that encourages reflection on life
D) As something that only affects the elderly
Passage 12:
Nature has long been a powerful influence on human emotions, with landscapes, weather, and natural events often
serving as metaphors for internal states. The vastness of the ocean can evoke feelings of insignificance, while a
tranquil forest can inspire peace. Writers and poets frequently use nature to mirror the emotional journeys of
characters, highlighting how the environment shapes human experience.
Q12: How does nature influence human emotions according to the passage?
A) It has no effect on emotional states
B) It reflects and shapes human feelings through metaphors
C) It only affects emotions in extreme weather conditions
D) It directly controls human emotions without symbolism
Passage 13:
The idea of home extends beyond a physical location—it embodies a sense of belonging and emotional security. For
many, home represents a place of comfort, identity, and connection to family or community. In literature, the
concept of home is often explored as a central theme, reflecting the universal human desire for belonging and the
complexities of finding one’s place in the world.
Q13: What does the concept of home represent in literature?
A) A purely physical location without emotional significance
B) A place of comfort, identity, and belonging
C) A space that emphasizes isolation and detachment
D) A temporary shelter disconnected from personal meaning
Passage 14:
The conflict between hope and despair is a powerful theme in literature, reflecting the inner turmoil of characters
facing difficult circumstances. Hope represents the belief in a better future, while despair signals the absence of
such belief. The tension between these two forces can drive characters’ actions, influencing their decisions and
interactions with others as they navigate life’s challenges.
Q14: How are hope and despair portrayed in literature?
A) As unrelated emotions that rarely affect characters
B) As opposing forces that shape characters' actions and decisions
C) As static emotions that do not evolve over time
D) As emotions that always lead to positive outcomes
Passage 15:
Memory plays a crucial role in shaping an individual's sense of identity. Personal experiences, both positive and
negative, contribute to how a person views themselves and the world around them. In literature, characters often
struggle with memory, whether through amnesia, loss, or selective recollection, as these processes deeply affect
their personal growth and self-understanding.
Q15: How does memory affect identity, according to the passage?
A) It has no impact on a person’s sense of self
B) It shapes personal growth and self-understanding through experiences
C) It is only relevant for historical events, not personal identity
D) It always leads to a complete and accurate understanding of the self
Passage 16:
Human relationships are both beautiful and complex, characterized by deep emotional connections, conflict, and
growth. Whether familial, romantic, or platonic, relationships provide opportunities for personal development and
self-discovery. Literature often explores the dynamics of human relationships, revealing the nuances of
communication, love, loyalty, and betrayal that shape the human experience.
Q16: What are human relationships depicted as in literature?
A) Simple and uncomplicated
B) Beautiful, complex, and full of growth and conflict
C) Without emotional significance
D) Only focused on romantic connections
Passage 17:
Loneliness is often explored as an inherent aspect of the human condition. It reflects a sense of isolation that can
result from both physical separation and emotional detachment. Literature frequently portrays characters
experiencing loneliness, highlighting how this solitude shapes their thoughts, behaviors, and interactions with
others. This isolation can lead to introspection, self-awareness, or a deeper understanding of the human
experience.
Q17: How is loneliness represented in literature?
A) As a brief and easily overcome emotion
B) As an aspect of the human experience that leads to self-awareness and introspection
C) As an irrelevant emotion to character development
D) As something that only affects characters in extreme situations
Passage 18:
The contrast between light and darkness is frequently used in literature to represent the duality of human nature.
Light is often associated with goodness, clarity, and hope, while darkness symbolizes evil, confusion, and despair.
The interplay of these forces within the human soul reflects the complex, multifaceted nature of individuals,
suggesting that everyone contains both light and darkness in varying degrees.
Q18: What does the juxtaposition of light and darkness symbolize in literature?
A) The absolute dominance of one force over the other
B) The complexity of human nature, containing both good and bad elements
C) The simplicity of human emotions
D) The complete separation of good and evil in humans
Passage 19:
In a chaotic and often unpredictable world, the search for meaning is a central theme in literature and philosophy.
Characters in works exploring existentialism or nihilism often struggle to find purpose, grappling with the absurdity
of life. This search for meaning is not always successful, but it reflects the human desire to understand one’s
existence in a world that offers no clear. Answers.
Q19: What is the central theme in works exploring existentialism and nihilism?
A) The search for material wealth
B) The quest for personal fame
C) The search for meaning in a chaotic and uncertain world
D) The pursuit of physical survival
Passage 20:
Loss and grief are profound experiences that can deeply affect an individual’s emotional and psychological state.
The grieving process is often depicted in literature as a journey, with characters navigating stages of denial, anger,
sadness, and acceptance. These experiences shape the way individuals view themselves and the world around
them, often leading to personal growth or permanent change.
Q20: How are loss and grief typically portrayed in literature?
A) As fleeting emotions with little impact on the character
B) As a transformative process that shapes individuals' perspectives and growth
C) As something that can be avoided or ignored
D) As experiences that only affect the elderly
Passage 1
The resilience of the human spirit in the face of adversity has been a powerful theme throughout history.
Individuals and communities have shown remarkable strength when confronted with challenges such as war,
poverty, and injustice. From personal struggles to large-scale social movements, the human spirit’s capacity to
endure and overcome hardship is often celebrated as a testament to human perseverance and determination.
Passage 2
While the resilience of the human spirit is often celebrated, it is important to recognize that adversity can also leave
lasting scars. Many individuals continue to face the lingering effects of trauma and hardship, which can impact their
emotional well-being and sense of hope. Advocates for mental health emphasize the importance of support
systems and resources for individuals affected by adversity.
Q21: Based on the passages, how would advocates for mental health (Passage 2) most likely respond to the claim
that resilience alone can overcome adversity (Passage 1)?
A) By suggesting that resilience is sufficient to overcome all hardships without external support.
B) By emphasizing the need for support systems and resources to help individuals cope with the lasting effects of
adversity.
C) By claiming that adversity has little impact on emotional well-being.
D) By arguing that resilience is not important in overcoming adversity.
Text 1
The resilience of the human spirit is often most evident in the face of personal and collective adversity. Many
historical figures have demonstrated incredible perseverance, whether through fighting for justice, surviving
personal trauma, or enduring political oppression. Their stories serve as a reminder of the strength that can be
found in the human spirit, even in the darkest times.
Text 2
While the resilience of the human spirit is often lauded, it is crucial to recognize that resilience alone does not
always lead to success. Many individuals struggle with the emotional toll of adversity, and some may never fully
recover from the hardships they face. Advocates for mental health often stress that resilience must be paired with
adequate resources and emotional support.
Q21: Based on the passages, how would advocates for emotional support (Text 2) most likely respond to the
claim that resilience alone leads to success (Text 1)?
A) By emphasizing that emotional support and resources are essential for individuals to overcome adversity.
B) By claiming that resilience alone is sufficient for overcoming adversity.
C) By stating that emotional support is unnecessary for success.
D) By suggesting that resilience is irrelevant to overcoming adversity.
Text 3
The symbolism of seasons is often used in literature to reflect the stages of life, from the birth of spring to the
decline of winter. Spring represents new beginnings, summer brings fullness and growth, autumn symbolizes the
approaching end, and winter represents the coldness and stillness of death. This seasonal symbolism is used to
illustrate the cyclical nature of existence.
Text 4
While seasonal symbolism in literature suggests a natural cycle, some writers emphasize the unpredictability of
life’s journey. Life does not always follow a linear progression, and unexpected events can disrupt the flow of
seasons. This perspective highlights that life is marked by periods of change, upheaval, and renewal, making it far
more complex than a straightforward cycle.
Q22: Based on the passages, how would advocates for viewing life as unpredictable (Text 4) most likely respond
to the claim that life follows a simple seasonal cycle (Text 3)?
A) By suggesting that life is marked by upheaval and renewal, not just a simple, linear cycle.
B) By agreeing that life follows a predictable, linear cycle without disruption.
C) By stating that life does not involve any change or unpredictability.
D) By claiming that seasonal symbolism is irrelevant to understanding life.
Passage 21
The fragility of love is often contrasted with its incredible strength, as love can both uplift and _______ individuals,
depending on the circumstances.
Q23. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) devastate
B) devastation
C) devastating
D) devastates
Passage 22
As young people transition to adulthood, they often face a series of challenges that test their _______ and their
ability to adapt to new responsibilities.
Q24. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) resilience
B) resilient
C) resiliently
D) resiling

Q25. The Global Distribution of Internet Access by Region

Region Population with Population Without Internet Total Population Percent with
Internet Access Access (millions) (millions) Internet Access
(millions)
North 300 50 350 85.7%
America
Europe 400 100 500 80%
Asia 1,500 2,000 3,500 42.9%
Africa 300 700 1,000 30%
Latin 200 100 300 66.7%
America
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) North America has the highest percentage of internet access.
B) Asia has the highest total number of people with internet access.
C) Europe has the largest population without internet access.
D) Latin America has the lowest percentage of internet access.
Q26. The Influence of Weather on Tourism by Region
 Region Number of Tourists Average Rainfall Total Tourists Percent with Warm
(millions) Temperature (°C) (mm) (millions) Weather
Caribbean 25 28 150 50 50%
Europe 60 15 100 100 15%
Southeast 50 30 200 100 30%
Asia
North 40 20 80 70 28.6%
America
Australia 30 25 50 60 41.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Southeast Asia has the most tourists with warm weather.
B) North America has the highest rainfall among all regions.
C) The Caribbean has the highest percentage of warm weather tourists.
D) Australia has the lowest total number of tourists.
Q27. The Inner Battle Between Good and Evil Within Oneself
• Throughout history, many individuals have struggled with the conflict between their moral desires and darker
impulses.
• This internal battle often shapes personal choices and determines the course of a person’s life.
• Many philosophies and religions emphasize the importance of overcoming negative tendencies to achieve
spiritual growth and harmony.
• The tension between good and evil is often portrayed as a universal struggle that everyone must face in their own
way.
The student wants to summarize the inner battle between good and evil within oneself. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) The inner struggle between good and evil is a universal and defining challenge that shapes one's character and
decisions.
B) The inner battle between good and evil is a minor issue that does not influence one's life choices or actions.
C) People are naturally inclined to choose good, and the battle with evil is an exception rather than the norm.
D) The conflict between good and evil is irrelevant to personal development or spiritual growth.
Math
Module 1
Q1: What is the value of 9 × (4 - 1) + 2?
A) 30
B) 29
C) 31
D) 32
Q2: What is 2^4?
A) 16
B) 8
C) 4
D) 32
Q3: Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 22.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q4: Solve for x: 6x - 8 = 16.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 6
D) 7
Q5: Solve for x in the inequality 4x + 5 > 21.
A) x > 3
B) x > 4
C) x > 5
D) x > 6
Q6: Solve for x in the equation 2x - 3 = 7.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Q7: The equation of a line is given by y = 4x - 7. What is the slope of the line?
A) 4
B) -4
C) 7
D) -7
Q8: What is the equation of a line with slope m = -3 and y-intercept b = 5?
A) y = -3x + 5
B) y = 3x + 5
C) y = -3x - 5
D) y = 3x - 5
Q9: If the equation of a line is y = 5x - 2, what is the y-value when x = 4?
A) 20
B) 18
C) 22
D) 24
Q10: What is the equation of the line that passes through the points (2, 4) and (4, 10)?
A) y = 3x - 2
B) y = 3x + 2
C) y = 2x + 1
D) y = 4x - 1
Q11: Solve for x:
(x + 2)/(x - 4) = 5
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q12: If f(x) = 3x^2 - 5x + 2, what is f(2)?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Q13: Solve for x in the equation 5^(x + 1) = 125.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q14: Solve for x in the equation (x - 3)/(x + 4) = 2/3.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Q15: A car's value depreciates by 12% each year. If the car is worth $20,000 initially, what is its value after 3
years?
A) $15,100
B) $14,500
C) $12,800
D) $10,800
Q16: Solve for x in the equation log(x) + log(2x) = 3.
A) 100
B) 50
C) 25
D) 10
Q17: A recipe calls for 3 cups of sugar to make 24 cookies. How many cups of sugar are needed to make 48
cookies?
A) 4 cups
B) 6 cups
C) 9 cups
D) 12 cups
Q18: If a factory produces 500 units per day, how many units will the factory produce in 12 days?
A) 5000 units
B) 6000 units
C) 5500 units
D) 6500 units
Q19: The ratio of the number of girls to boys in a school is 5:4. If there are 200 girls, how many boys are there?
A) 160
B) 180
C) 200
D) 240
Q20: A train travels 180 miles in 3 hours. What is the train's average speed?
A) 50 mph
B) 55 mph
C) 60 mph
D) 65 mph
Q21: The area of a square is 144 square units. What is the length of one side?
A) 8 units
B) 10 units
C) 12 units
D) 14 units
Q22: What is the value of sin(π/3) on the unit circle?
A) 1/2
B) √2/2
C) √3/2
D) 1
Module 2
Q1: What is the value of 6×(2+5)−4?
A) 30
B) 38
C) 42
D) 44
Q2: What is 3^3?
A) 27
B) 9
C) 81
D) 6
Q3: Solve for x: 5x−7=18.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q4: Solve for x: 2x+6=14.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Q5: Solve for x in the inequality 3x−4>8.
A) x>4
B) x>3
C) x>5
D) x>6
Q6: Solve for x in the equation 7x+3=31.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Q7: The equation of a line is given by y=2x+5. What is the slope of the line?
A) 5
B) 2
C) −2
D) −5
Q8: Which of the following is the correct equation for a line with a slope of 3 and a y-intercept of −4?
A) y=3x−4
B) y=−3x+4
C) y=4x−3
D) y=3x+4
Q9: If the equation of a line is y=−2x+4, what is the y-value when x=3?
A) 0
B) -2
C) 2
D) 4
Q10: What is the equation of the line that passes through the points (1,3) and (3,7)?
A) y=2x+1
B) y=2x+2
C) y=x+2
D) y=3x−2
Q11: Solve for x:
(2x - 3)/5 = (x + 7)/3
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Q12: Which of the following is the solution to the equation (x)/(x - 2) = 3?
A) x = 2
B) x = -1
C) x = 3
D) x = 6
Q13: If f(x) = 2x^2 - 3x + 5, what is f(-1)?
A) 6
B) 10
C) 7
D) 8
Q14: Solve for x in the equation e^(2x) = 16.
A) 1/4
B) 2
C) 4
D) ln(16)
Q15: A ball is dropped from a height of 100 feet and bounces back to 80% of its previous height with each
bounce. What is the total distance the ball travels after the first 5 bounces?
A) 500 feet
B) 400 feet
C) 625 feet
D) 650 feet
Q16: Solve for x:
log(x^2) = 4
A) 16
B) 64
C) 8
D) 4
Q17: A store sells 3 shirts for $45. How much would 7 shirts cost at the same rate?
A) $90
B) $105
C) $115
D) $125
Q18: A basketball team won 8 out of 12 games. What is the team's win percentage?
A) 60%
B) 67%
C) 75%
D) 80%
Q19: If 3 liters of paint can cover 12 square meters, how many liters of paint are needed to cover 20
square meters?
A) 4 liters
B) 5 liters
C) 6 liters
D) 8 liters
Q20: The price of a car increases by 15% from $20,000. What is the new price of the car?
A) $21,000
B) $22,500
C) $23,000
D) $24,000
Q21: A triangle has a base of 10 units and a height of 5 units. What is the area of the triangle?
A) 25 square units
B) 30 square units
C) 35 square units
D) 50 square units
Q22: What is the value of cos(π/6) on the unit circle?
A) 1/2
B) √2/2
C) √3/2
D) 1
PRACTICE TEST9
Reading and writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
Renewable energy storage technologies are essential for balancing energy supply and demand, especially
with intermittent energy sources like solar and wind. These technologies __________ energy when
demand is low, storing it for later use during peak demand periods.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) waste
B) store
C) restrict
D) ignore
Passage 2:
Artificial intelligence has revolutionized climate change modeling by analyzing vast datasets and
predicting environmental changes. AI __________ the accuracy of climate predictions, providing a more
reliable basis for policy-making and environmental planning.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduces
B) enhances
C) ignores
D) challenges
Passage 3:
Microplastics have infiltrated marine ecosystems, posing a threat to wildlife and biodiversity. These tiny
particles __________ marine organisms’ health, disrupting feeding behaviors, reproductive processes, and
the overall balance of marine ecosystems.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) enhance
B) damage
C) ignore
D) promote
Passage 4:
Space exploration is advancing rapidly, with future missions aiming to colonize Mars and establish
permanent human settlements. These plans __________ new challenges in technology, sustainability, and
human adaptation to extraterrestrial environments.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignore
B) introduce
C) avoid
D) resolve
Biotechnology is making significant strides in creating lab-grown organs for transplants, potentially solving
the organ shortage crisis. These bioengineered organs __________ the need for donor organs, offering
new hope for patients in need of life-saving transplants.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) eliminate
B) complicate
C) exacerbate
D) reduce
Passage 6:
Deep-sea exploration is critical for uncovering new species and understanding the complex relationships
within marine ecosystems. By studying the deep ocean, scientists __________ our knowledge of marine
biodiversity and the survival strategies of organisms in extreme environments.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinder
B) diminish
C) expand
D) ignore
Passage 7:
Human enhancement technologies, such as neurotechnology, offer the possibility of improving cognitive
abilities and physical capabilities. However, these advancements __________ significant ethical debates
regarding consent, fairness, and the potential for unintended consequences.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) eliminate
B) spark
C) reduce
D) ignore
Passage 8: The Development of Eco-Friendly Materials for Sustainable Architecture
Eco-friendly materials are becoming increasingly important in sustainable architecture, offering
environmentally responsible alternatives to traditional building materials. These materials __________
the energy efficiency of buildings while reducing their environmental impact.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduce
B) harm
C) increase
D) complicate
Passage 9:
Algae is being explored as a renewable biofuel source due to its high oil content and fast growth rate.
Algae-based biofuels __________ the reliance on fossil fuels and offer a cleaner, more sustainable
alternative for energy production.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) worsen
B) support
C) reduce
D) enhance
Passage 10:
The placebo effect occurs when patients experience real improvements in their health after receiving a
treatment that has no therapeutic effect. This phenomenon __________ the power of the mind in
influencing physical health outcomes.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) dismisses
B) challenges
C) reinforces
D) ignores
Passage 11
The Louisiana Purchase of 1803 doubled the size of the United States, providing access to vast natural
resources and strengthening the country’s geopolitical position. It marked a turning point in U.S. history,
spurring westward expansion and debates over slavery in new territories.
Q11: What was a significant impact of the Louisiana Purchase?
A) It restricted westward expansion.
B) It led to debates over slavery in new territories.
C) It caused economic decline in the United States.
D) It reduced the nation's geopolitical influence.
Passage 12
The development of public health systems in the 19th century was driven by industrialization, which led
to overcrowded cities and outbreaks of disease. Governments established sanitation programs, clean
water initiatives, and vaccination campaigns to combat public health crises and improve urban living
conditions.
Q12: What motivated the development of public health systems in the 19th century?
A) Advancements in agriculture
B) The rapid industrialization of cities
C) Decreased population density
D) The elimination of contagious diseases
Passage 13
Photosynthesis is a biochemical process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Using chlorophyll,
they transform carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This process is essential for sustaining
life on Earth, as it provides energy for plants and oxygen for animals.
Q13: Why is photosynthesis considered essential for life on Earth?
A) It produces nitrogen for soil enrichment.
B) It transforms carbon dioxide into essential minerals.
C) It provides oxygen and energy necessary for living organisms.
D) It absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation.
Passage 14
Shakespeare’s Hamlet is renowned for its exploration of revenge, morality, and human indecision. The
protagonist’s internal conflict drives the play, as Hamlet grapples with avenging his father’s murder while
questioning the ethical implications of his actions.
Q14: What theme is central to Shakespeare’s Hamlet?
A) The celebration of heroism
B) The inevitability of fate
C) The moral and psychological complexities of revenge
D) The rejection of familial loyalty
Passage 15
Langston Hughes’s poetry captures the spirit of the Harlem Renaissance, addressing themes of racial
identity, resilience, and hope. Through vivid imagery and rhythmic language, Hughes celebrates African
American culture and challenges the social injustices of his time.
Q15: What themes are central to Langston Hughes’s poetry?
A) Isolation and despair
B) Racial identity, resilience, and hope
C) Political neutrality and detachment
D) Scientific progress and innovation
Passage 16
The Suffragette Movement in the early 20th century sought voting rights for women, employing strategies
like protests, lobbying, and civil disobedience. The eventual success of these efforts led to the ratification
of the 19th Amendment in the United States in 1920.
Q16: What was a key outcome of the Suffragette Movement?
A) The end of labor unions
B) The ratification of the 19th Amendment
C) The establishment of the Civil Rights Act
D) The promotion of isolationist policies
Passage 17
The concept of social mobility refers to the ability of individuals to move up or down the socioeconomic
ladder. Factors such as education, income inequality, and access to resources significantly impact an
individual’s opportunities for upward mobility within society.
Q17: What factors influence social mobility, according to the passage?
A) Technological advancements and environmental policies
B) Income inequality, education, and resource access
C) Military strategy and political alliances
D) Cultural traditions and historical events
Passage 18
The theory of plate tectonics explains the movement of Earth’s lithospheric plates, which causes
earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the formation of mountain ranges. This dynamic process reshapes
Earth’s surface over millions of years, influencing geological and ecological systems.
Q18: What does the theory of plate tectonics explain?
A) The origin of celestial bodies
B) The movement of lithospheric plates and its effects
C) The behavior of atmospheric weather patterns
D) The evolution of marine ecosystems
Passage 19
The novels of Virginia Woolf are known for their experimental narrative techniques, such as stream of
consciousness. This approach allows readers to delve into the thoughts and emotions of characters,
offering a deep exploration of human psychology and subjective experience.
Q19: What narrative technique is commonly used in Virginia Woolf’s novels?
A) Stream of consciousness
B) Chronological storytelling
C) Omniscient narration without introspection
D) Action-driven plots without reflection
Passage 20
Robert Browning’s dramatic monologues, such as “My Last Duchess,” reveal the complexities of human
character through the voices of his speakers. These poems often explore themes of power, jealousy, and
morality, inviting readers to interpret the motivations behind the narrator’s words.
Q20: What themes are explored in Robert Browning’s dramatic monologues?
A) Power, jealousy, and morality
B) Adventure and exploration
C) Nature and tranquility
D) Technological innovation and progress
Text 1:
Civil rights movements have played a crucial role in challenging racial, gender, and social inequalities
throughout history. In the United States, the Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s led to the dismantling of
segregation and the expansion of voting rights for African Americans. Similarly, other nations have seen
movements advocating for equal rights and opportunities for marginalized groups.
Text 2:
While civil rights movements have made significant strides, advocates argue that more work remains to
be done to address systemic inequality. These movements continue to evolve, focusing on issues such as
economic disparity, healthcare access, and social justice.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would advocates for civil rights (Text 2) most likely respond to the claim
that civil rights movements have completed their work (Text 1)?
A) By claiming that civil rights movements have achieved all of their goals and no further action is needed.
B) By emphasizing that civil rights movements continue to evolve and address ongoing systemic
inequalities.
C) By stating that civil rights movements have been largely ineffective in bringing about change.
D) By advocating for a complete cessation of civil rights movements as their goals have been fulfilled.
Text 1:
The theory of plate tectonics explains the movement of Earth's lithosphere, which is divided into several
large plates. These plates constantly shift and interact at their boundaries, leading to the formation of
mountains, earthquakes, and volcanic activity.
Text 2:
The study of plate tectonics has revolutionized our understanding of Earth's geological processes.
However, challenges remain in predicting the exact behavior of tectonic plates and understanding the
deeper mechanics of their movements.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would proponents of plate tectonics (Text 2) most likely respond to the
claim that the theory is fully understood and no further study is needed (Text 1)?
A) By asserting that the theory is still evolving, and there are unresolved aspects of plate movement that
require further study.
B) By stating that the theory is completely accurate and no more research is necessary.
C) By suggesting that plate tectonics is irrelevant in understanding Earth’s geology.
D) By claiming that plate tectonics has been replaced by a more comprehensive theory.
Passage 21
The rise of social media has drastically altered communication patterns. In particular, it has contributed to
a decline in face-to-face interactions, leading to a sense of _______ among some individuals who feel
disconnected from their communities.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) isolation
B) isolating
C) isolate
D) isolated
Passage 22
The discovery of penicillin marked a breakthrough in the treatment of bacterial infections, which had
previously _______ countless lives due to the lack of effective medical treatments.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) claim
B) claimed
C) claiming
D) claims
Q25. The Industrial Revolution and its Global Impact
Region Industrialization Minimal No Total Percent
Level Industrialization Industrialization Industrialized
Western 350 80 20 450 77.8%
Europe
North 300 120 30 450 66.7%
America
Asia 200 150 100 450 44.4%
Latin America 100 180 70 350 28.6%
Africa 50 100 150 300 16.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Western Europe had the highest percentage of industrialization.
B) Asia had the lowest total number of industrialized regions.
C) North America had a higher level of industrialization than Latin America.
D) Africa had the highest percentage of minimal industrialization.
Q26. The Role of Women in World War II
Region Women’s Workforce Minimal No Total Percent Workforce
Participation Participation Participation Participation
United 800 100 50 950 84.2%
States
Soviet 500 120 80 700 71.4%
Union
Germany 350 150 100 600 58.3%
United 400 200 50 650 61.5%
Kingdom
Japan 250 100 150 500 50%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) The United States had the highest percentage of women’s workforce participation.
B) The Soviet Union had the largest total workforce participation.
C) Germany had the lowest workforce participation among the listed countries.
D) Japan had the highest percentage of minimal workforce participation.
Q27. The Impact of the Industrial Revolution
 The Industrial Revolution, which began in the late 18th century, radically transformed economies,
societies, and technology.
 Innovations like the steam engine, mechanized textile production, and railroads changed how goods
were produced and transported.
 Urbanization increased as people moved from rural areas to cities in search of factory work, leading to
significant social changes.
 However, the Industrial Revolution also led to poor working conditions, child labor, and environmental
degradation.
The student wants to summarize the impact of the Industrial Revolution. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) The Industrial Revolution improved living conditions for all people, without any negative consequences.
B) The Industrial Revolution transformed economies and societies, creating both opportunities and
challenges.
C) The Industrial Revolution was primarily about inventing new machines for factory work.
D) The Industrial Revolution had no impact on urbanization or environmental change.
Module 2
Passage 1:
Electric vehicles (EVs) are becoming a viable alternative to traditional gasoline-powered cars due to
advancements in battery technology. These innovations __________ the driving range of EVs, making
them more practical for everyday use.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminish
B) expand
C) ignore
D) restrict
Passage 2:
Renewable energy projects are transforming remote communities by providing access to clean and
sustainable power. Solar panels and wind turbines __________ the reliance on diesel generators, which
are expensive and polluting.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) exacerbate
B) reduce
C) support
D) neglect
Passage 3:
The use of virtual reality (VR) in education is revolutionizing how students learn by creating immersive
environments. These technologies __________ engagement and retention, enabling learners to grasp
complex concePractice Test more effectively.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinder
B) enhance
C) confuse
D) decrease
Passage 4:
Modern healthcare systems are incorporating wearable devices that track vital signs in real time. These
devices __________ early detection of potential health issues, enabling timely medical intervention.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) facilitate
B) complicate
C) ignore
D) hinder
Passage 5:
Urban farming initiatives are gaining popularity as cities seek to address food insecurity. By utilizing vacant
spaces, urban farms __________ fresh produce to local communities, reducing the need for long supply
chains.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) provide
B) limit
C) withhold
D) undermine
Passage 6:
Advancements in quantum computing are set to revolutionize industries by solving problems beyond the
capabilities of classical computers. Quantum computers __________ new possibilities in fields such as
cryptography, material science, and artificial intelligence.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hinder
B) create
C) ignore
D) reduce
Passage 7:
Environmental conservation efforts often emphasize the importance of protecting endangered species. By
preserving biodiversity, these initiatives __________ the health of ecosystems and their ability to support
life.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) degrade
B) enhance
C) neglect
D) harm
Passage 8:
Autonomous vehicles (AVs) are expected to make transportation safer by reducing accidents caused by
human error. However, these vehicles also __________ complex ethical and regulatory challenges.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) spark
B) resolve
C) simplify
D) eliminate
Passage 9:
Advocates for renewable energy argue that transitioning to solar and wind power can __________ the
economic burden of fossil fuel dependency while promoting environmental sustainability.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) increase
B) alleviate
C) disregard
D) compound
Passage 10:
The discovery of antibiotics revolutionized medicine, providing treatments for previously fatal infections.
However, the overuse of antibiotics __________ the rise of drug-resistant bacteria, posing a significant
global health threat.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) contributes to
B) prevents
C) ignores
D) reduces
Passage 11
The Emancipation Proclamation, issued by President Abraham Lincoln in 1863, declared all enslaved
individuals in Confederate-held territories free. This executive order transformed the Civil War into a
moral fight against slavery and paved the way for the 13th Amendment.
Q11: What was the significance of the Emancipation Proclamation?
A) It ended the Civil War immediately.
B) It declared freedom for slaves in Confederate territories.
C) It abolished slavery in the entire United States.
D) It supported the continuation of slavery in Union states.
Passage 12
Urbanization in the 19th century led to significant social changes, including the rise of tenement housing
in cities. Overcrowding and poor living conditions were common, prompting reform movements to
address public health, housing regulations, and workers' rights.
Q12: What was one effect of urbanization in the 19th century?
A) The decline of public health reform movements
B) The emergence of tenement housing and overcrowding
C) An increase in rural population growth
D) The elimination of workers' rights advocacy
Passage 13
Quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the subatomic world. It challenges classical
physics by revealing that particles can exist in multiple states simultaneously, and their behavior is
influenced by observation. This has profound implications for technology and theory.
Q13: How does quantum mechanics differ from classical physics?
A) It suggests particles behave predictably.
B) It reveals particles can exist in multiple states at once.
C) It confirms all particles are unaffected by observation.
D) It supports the idea that energy is fixed.
Passage 14
In Mary Shelley's Frankenstein, the monster’s tragic story is a commentary on human nature. Created by
Victor Frankenstein, the creature is abandoned and rejected, leading to his violent actions. Shelley's work
explores themes of isolation, responsibility, and humanity.
Q14: What central theme is explored in Frankenstein?
A) The dangers of technology
B) The importance of family values
C) Isolation, responsibility, and humanity
D) The superiority of science over nature
Passage 15
In Walt Whitman’s Song of Myself, the poet celebrates individuality and the interconnectedness of all life.
Through free verse and vivid imagery, Whitman explores themes of self-exploration, unity, and the divine
nature of the human spirit.
Q15: What is a central theme in Song of Myself?
A) The inevitability of death
B) The celebration of individuality and unity
C) The power of romantic love
D) The rejection of spiritual beliefs
Passage 16
The Industrial Revolution of the 18th and 19th centuries brought significant technological advancements,
such as the steam engine. These innovations led to the growth of factory systems, urbanization, and the
rise of a new working class, creating both opportunities and challenges.
Q16: What was one outcome of the Industrial Revolution?
A) A decline in technological innovation
B) The rise of factory systems and urbanization
C) A decrease in the working class
D) The decline of factory systems
Passage 17
Colonialism left lasting effects on the political, economic, and social structures of colonized nations. In
many cases, the imposition of foreign control disrupted indigenous cultures, economies, and governance
systems, creating long-term instability and inequality.
Q17: What was one impact of colonialism?
A) It promoted equal governance among nations.
B) It led to the disruption of indigenous cultures and economies.
C) It helped establish long-term stability in colonized nations.
D) It eliminated social inequality.
Passage 18
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy, using carbon
dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen. This fundamental biological process supports life on
Earth by providing oxygen and forming the base of the food chain.
Q18: What is the primary purpose of photosynthesis?
A) To convert oxygen into carbon dioxide
B) To produce glucose and oxygen from light energy
C) To create energy from heat
D) To break down glucose for energy
Passage 19
The concept of the "tragic hero" in literature, first explored by Aristotle, describes a character who
possesses a flaw or makes a mistake that leads to their downfall. Shakespeare’s Macbeth exemplifies this
archetype, as Macbeth’s ambition ultimately destroys him.
Q19: What defines a "tragic hero" in literature?
A) A character who succeeds despite flaws
B) A character whose downfall is caused by a fatal flaw
C) A character who avoids mistakes
D) A character who remains static throughout the story
Passage 20
In Emily Dickinson’s poem “Hope is the thing with feathers,” hope is depicted as a bird that perches in the
soul, offering comfort and endurance through hardships. The metaphor highlights hope’s resilience, as it
continues to persist despite challenges.
Q20: How is hope described in Emily Dickinson’s poem?
A) As a fleeting emotion
B) As a bird offering comfort through hardship
C) As a destructive force
D) As an absence of emotion
Text 1:
The Harlem Renaissance was a cultural, artistic, and intellectual movement in the 1920s that centered on
African American culture and history. Writers, musicians, and artists during this period sought to express a
new sense of racial pride and identity.
Text 2:
While the Harlem Renaissance was a period of immense cultural production, some critics argue that it did
not bring about significant social change. However, its lasting influence on American culture and its role in
fostering racial pride are still evident today.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would supporters of the Harlem Renaissance (Text 2) most likely respond
to the claim that it did not lead to substantial social change (Text 1)?
A) By arguing that the Harlem Renaissance fostered cultural pride and had a lasting impact on American
culture, even if social change was slow.
B) By claiming that the Harlem Renaissance was solely a political movement that did not focus on culture.
C) By stating that the movement achieved its goals of social change and nothing more is needed.
D) By suggesting that the Harlem Renaissance had no significant influence on American culture.
Text 1:
In "The Great Gatsby," F. Scott Fitzgerald explores themes of wealth, love, and the American Dream. The
novel critiques the notion that financial success is the ultimate measure of a person's worth, revealing the
moral decay behind the pursuit of materialism.
Text 2:
Although "The Great Gatsby" critiques the American Dream, some readers believe it portrays the dream
as a valid pursuit. They argue that Gatsby’s determination and hopefulness demonstrate the resilience of
the human spirit despite the flaws of society.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would supporters of the critique of the American Dream (Text 1) most
likely respond to the claim that Gatsby’s actions represent the resilience of the human spirit (Text 2)?
A) By arguing that Gatsby’s pursuit of wealth leads to his downfall, exposing the emptiness of the
American Dream.
B) By suggesting that Gatsby's determination is the primary reason for his success and happiness.
C) By claiming that Gatsby’s success proves the validity of the American Dream for all people.
D) By agreeing that Gatsby's actions represent resilience but claiming that the dream itself is flawed.
Passage 21
The concept of democracy has been deeply influenced by the philosophical writings of ancient Greece,
especially those of Plato and Aristotle. These thinkers emphasized the _______ of citizens in political
decision-making processes.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) importance
B) importantly
C) important
D) import
Passage 22
As climate change accelerates, the global community faces increasing challenges in managing natural
resources. The most urgent issue is the _______ of water, which has become a scarce resource in many
regions of the world.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) scarcity
B) scarce
C) scarcest
D) scarcer
Q25. The Decline of the Roman Empire
Region Rise Period Fall Period Total Percent of Rise Period
Roman Empire 500 BC 476 AD 1000 50%
Mongol Empire 1206 AD 1368 AD 800 65%
Ottoman Empire 1300 AD 1922 AD 1500 46.7%
British Empire 1583 AD 1997 AD 1800 58.3%
Byzantine Empire 330 AD 1453 AD 1200 41.7%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) The Mongol Empire had the highest percentage of rise period.
B) The Ottoman Empire had the shortest period of rise.
C) The Byzantine Empire lasted longer than the Roman Empire.
D) The British Empire had the largest total empire period.
Q26. Environmental Changes in the 20th Century
Region Significant Environmental Minimal No Total Percent Significant
Changes Changes Changes Changes
North 300 100 50 450 66.7%
America
South 250 120 80 450 55.6%
America
Europe 400 150 100 650 61.5%
Africa 200 180 70 450 44.4%
Asia 350 100 50 500 70%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) North America had the highest percentage of significant environmental changes.
B) South America had the lowest total number of significant changes.
C) Asia had the highest percentage of significant environmental changes.
D) Europe had the most regions with no environmental changes.
Q27. The Role of Women in the American Revolution
 During the American Revolution, women took on important roles in supporting the war effort,
including managing households, producing goods, and working as nurses.
 Some women, like Deborah Sampson, even disguised themselves as men to fight in combat.
 Women's involvement in the revolution helped to challenge traditional gender roles, though they did
not gain significant political rights immediately after the war.
The student wants to summarize the role of women in the American Revolution. Which choice best
encapsulates this idea?
A) Women were primarily involved in supporting the war effort through traditional domestic roles.
B) Women played no significant role in the American Revolution.
C) Women gained equal political rights immediately after the war.
D) Women were solely responsible for the outcome of the American Revolution.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Solve for x: x² + 4x + 3 = 0.
A) x = -1, -3
B) x = -3, -1
C) x = 1, 3
D) x = -2, -1
Q2. Find the limit: limₓ→∞ (3x² + 2x) / (5x² - 3x).
A) 3/5
B) 1/2
C) 5/3
D) 1
Q3. Differentiate the function: f(x) = tan(x) × sec(x).
A) sec²(x) + tan²(x)
B) sec²(x) × sec(x)
C) sec(x) × sec²(x)
D) sec(x) × tan²(x)
Q4. Find the integral of: ∫ (e^(3x)) dx.
A) (1/3)e^(3x) + C
B) e^(3x) + C
C) 3e^(3x) + C
D) (1/3)e^(x) + C
Q5. Solve the equation for x: x³ - 4x² + 6x - 24 = 0.
A) x = 2, 3, 4
B) x = 3, 4, 5
C) x = 2, -3, 4
D) x = 1, -2, 3
Q6. Solve for x: log₆(x + 1) = 2.
A) x = 35
B) x = 35/6
C) x = 34
D) x = 34/6
Q7. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series: S = 3 + 3/2 + 3/4 + 3/8 + ...
A) 6
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Q8. Solve the system of equations:
2x + 3y = 12,
x - y = 3.
A) x = 6, y = 3
B) x = 4, y = 1
C) x = 5, y = 2
D) x = 3, y = 0
Q9. Find the derivative of: f(x) = e^x × sin(x).
A) e^x × cos(x) + e^x × sin(x)
B) e^x × cos(x) - e^x × sin(x)
C) e^x × sin(x) + cos(x)
D) e^x × cos(x) + sin(x)
Q10. Find the area of a triangle with vertices (0, 0), (6, 0), and (0, 8).
A) 12
B) 24
C) 18
D) 48
Q11. Find the inverse of the matrix:
|12|
|34|
A) | -4 2 |
| 3 -1 |
B) | -2 1 |
| 3 -1 |
C) | 2 -1 |
| -3 1 |
D) | -1 2 |
| 3 -1 |
Q12. Solve the equation for x: e^(x) = 20.
A) x = ln(20)
B) x = ln(10)
C) x = 2ln(10)
D) x = 20ln(10)
Q13. Evaluate the integral: ∫ (1 / (x² + 1)) dx.
A) tan⁻¹(x) + C
B) ln(x) + C
C) 1/x + C
D) x² + C
Q14. Find the value of the limit: limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x).
A) 1
B) 0
C) ∞
D) Does not exist
Q15. Solve for x: x³ - 3x² + 4x - 12 = 0.
A) x = 1, 2, 3
B) x = 2, 3, -1
C) x = 2, -3, 1
D) x = -1, 2, 3
Q16. Differentiate the function: f(x) = x⁴ × ln(x).
A) 4x³ × ln(x) + x³
B) 4x³ × ln(x) + x³ × (1/x)
C) 4x³ × ln(x) - x³ × (1/x)
D) x³ × (4ln(x) + 1/x)
Q17. Solve for x: x² - 9 = 0.
A) x = 3, -3
B) x = 1, -1
C) x = 9, -9
D) x = 0
Q18. Find the sum of the series: S = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ... + 99.
A) 2500
B) 2550
C) 2450
D) 2499
Q19. Find the second derivative of: f(x) = x³ - 6x² + 9x.
A) 6x - 12
B) 6x + 12
C) 6x - 18
D) 6x + 18
Q20. Solve for x: log₂(x + 2) = 3.
A) x = 6
B) x = 7
C) x = 8
D) x = 5
Q21. Find the integral: ∫ (2x + 1) dx.
A) x² + x + C
B) x² + x/2 + C
C) x² + C
D) x² + 2x + C
Q22. Find the derivative of: f(x) = ln(x² + 1).
A) 2x / (x² + 1)
B) x / (x² + 1)
C) 2x / x²
D) 2 / (x² + 1)
Module 2
Q1. Find the limit: limₓ→∞ (2x³ - 5x + 1) / (x³ + 3x² + 7).
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 5
Q2. Solve for x: log₁₀(x + 3) = 2.
A) x = 97
B) x = 97/10
C) x = 100
D) x = 97/100
Q2. Answer: A)
Q3. Find the derivative of the function: f(x) = e^(2x) × cos(x).
A) e^(2x) × cos(x) - 2e^(2x) × sin(x)
B) e^(2x) × cos(x) + 2e^(2x) × sin(x)
C) 2e^(2x) × cos(x) - e^(2x) × sin(x)
D) 2e^(2x) × sin(x) - e^(2x) × cos(x)
Q4. Find the integral: ∫ (x³ - 3x² + 2x - 1) dx.
A) (1/4)x⁴ - x³ + x² - x + C
B) (1/4)x⁴ - (1/3)x³ + x² - x + C
C) x⁴ - x³ + x² - x + C
D) (1/4)x⁴ - x² + (1/2)x - x + C
Q5. Solve for x: x² + 5x + 6 = 0.
A) x = -3, -2
B) x = -2, 3
C) x = 1, 6
D) x = -1, -6
Q6. Solve the system of equations:
3x - 4y = 12,
x + 2y = 4.
A) x = 4, y = 0
B) x = 6, y = 1
C) x = 5, y = -1
D) x = 2, y = 1
Q7. Find the second derivative of: f(x) = x⁴ - 6x³ + 12x².
A) 12x² - 18x + 24
B) 12x³ - 18x² + 24
C) 12x² - 36x + 24
D) 12x³ - 24x² + 24
Q8. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series: S = 5 + 5/3 + 5/9 + 5/27 + ...
A) 7.5
B) 6
C) 8
D) 9
Q9. Find the determinant of the matrix:
|23|
|45|
A) -2
B) 1
C) 7
D) 3
Q10. Solve the equation for x: e^(x) + e^(-x) = 4.
A) x = ln(2 + √3)
B) x = ln(2)
C) x = ln(4)
D) x = ln(3)
Q11. Find the inverse of the matrix:
|47|
|26|
A) | 6 -7 |
| -2 4 |
B) | 6 -7 |
| -1 2 |
C) | -6 7 |
| 1 -2 |
D) | 2 -3.5 |
| 1 -2 |
Q12. Find the integral of: ∫ 1 / √(1 - x²) dx.
A) sin⁻¹(x) + C
B) cos⁻¹(x) + C
C) ln(x) + C
D) tan⁻¹(x) + C

Q13. Find the general solution to the equation: cos(x) = 1/2.

A) x = π/3 + 2kπ, x = 5π/3 + 2kπ
B) x = π/6 + 2kπ, x = 5π/6 + 2kπ
C) x = π/3 + 2kπ, x = π/6 + 2kπ
D) x = 5π/6 + 2kπ, x = π/6 + 2kπ
Q14. Find the value of: ∫₀² (x³ + 2x) dx.
A) 10
B) 14
C) 18
D) 20
Q15. Solve for x: x² - 6x + 5 = 0.
A) x = 5, 1
B) x = 4, 2
C) x = 3, 2
D) x = 2, 3
Q16. Differentiate the function: f(x) = ln(x² + 1).
A) 2x / (x² + 1)
B) x / (x² + 1)
C) 2x / x²
D) 2 / (x² + 1)
Q17. Find the limit: limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x).
A) 0
B) 1
C) ∞
D) Does not exist
Q18. Solve for x: x³ - 4x² + 5x - 20 = 0.
A) x = 2, 5, -1
B) x = 3, 2, -1
C) x = 1, 4, 2
D) x = 2, 3, 4
Q19. Find the sum of the series: S = 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + ...
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 1.5
Q20. Solve for x: log₅(x) = 2.
A) x = 25
B) x = 5²
C) x = 10
D) x = 5
Q21. Differentiate the function: f(x) = x² × ln(x).
A) 2x × ln(x) + x
B) x² × (1/x) + 2x
C) x × (2ln(x) + 1)
D) x² × (2ln(x) + 1)
Q22. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the arithmetic series: 1 + 4 + 7 + ...
A) 55
B) 60
C) 50
D) 65
PRACTICE TEST 10
Reading and writing
Module 1
Passage 1:
The James Webb Space Telescope is designed to observe distant galaxies and study the origins of the
universe. Its advanced infrared capabilities __________ astronomers to detect faint celestial objects
billions of light-years away.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) enable
B) prevent
C) confuse
D) hinder
Passage 2:
Social media platforms have transformed the way people communicate, but they also __________ issues
like misinformation and online harassment, which pose challenges for maintaining a healthy digital
environment.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolve
B) mitigate
C) exacerbate
D) ignore
Passage 3:
Electric scooters are emerging as a popular transportation option in urban areas. They __________ the
need for short car trips, providing an eco-friendly alternative that reduces traffic congestion and pollution.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) increase
B) eliminate
C) complicate
D) fulfill
Passage 4:
Telemedicine has become an essential tool in healthcare, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic. By
enabling virtual consultations, it __________ barriers to access for patients in remote or underserved
areas.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduces
B) creates
C) ignores
D) hinders
Passage 5:
The development of vertical farming is transforming agriculture by maximizing crop yields in urban
settings. These farms __________ the need for large amounts of land and water, making agriculture more
sustainable.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) expand
B) reduce
C) complicate
D) ignore
Passage 6:
Gene editing technologies like CRISPR have the potential to revolutionize medicine by correcting genetic
disorders. However, their use __________ ethical concerns regarding unintended consequences and the
possibility of misuse.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolves
B) sparks
C) reduces
D) dismisses
Passage 7:
The rise of remote work has reshaped the modern workplace. It __________ flexibility for employees
while challenging traditional office structures and collaboration methods.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignores
B) enhances
C) complicates
D) offers
Passage 8:
Conservationists are focusing on reforestation as a key strategy to combat climate change. Planting trees
__________ carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere, helping to mitigate global warming.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) increases
B) stabilizes
C) reduces
D) ignores

Passage 9:
Online learning platforms have democratized education, allowing students from all over the world to
access quality resources. However, these platforms __________ disparities in internet access and digital
literacy, which can limit their effectiveness.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) perpetuate
B) address
C) resolve
D) enhance
Passage 10:
Renewable energy storage is critical for ensuring a stable energy supply. Batteries, for example,
__________ energy produced during surplus periods, making it available for use during peak demand.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) store
B) waste
C) disrupt
D) prevent
Passage 11
The Fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 marked the end of decades of division between East and West
Germany, symbolizing the collapse of Communist rule in Eastern Europe. The event led to the
reunification of Germany and a broader shift in global politics.
Q11: What did the Fall of the Berlin Wall symbolize?
A) The rise of Communism in Eastern Europe
B) The end of the Cold War and the collapse of Communist rule
C) The beginning of World War II
D) The division of Germany into four parts
Passage 12
The civil rights movement in the United States, led by figures like Martin Luther King Jr. and Rosa Parks,
sought to end racial segregation and discrimination. Key events such as the 1963 March on Washington
and the Civil Rights Act of 1964 marked major victories in the struggle for equality.
Q12: What was the goal of the civil rights movement?
A) To end racial segregation and discrimination
B) To promote racial segregation in schools
C) To establish new forms of government
D) To support economic isolationism
Passage 13
The theory of natural selection, proposed by Charles Darwin, explains how species evolve over time
through the survival and reproduction of individuals with traits best suited for their environment. This
process leads to the adaptation of organisms to changing conditions.
Q13: What does natural selection explain?
A) How species remain unchanged
B) How species evolve through adaptation to their environment
C) The extinction of all species
D) The creation of new species
Passage 14
In Shakespeare's "Macbeth," the title character’s ambition leads him to murder King Duncan and seize the
throne. However, his unchecked ambition eventually causes his downfall, showing the destructive power
of ambition and the consequences of moral corruption.
Q14: What is the central theme in "Macbeth"?
A) The destructive power of ambition
B) The pursuit of justice
C) The importance of friendship
D) The rewards of loyalty
Passage 15
Emily Dickinson’s poem “Hope is the thing with feathers” uses the metaphor of a bird to describe hope.
The poem portrays hope as a resilient, unwavering force that persists even in the face of hardship,
offering comfort without asking for anything in return.
Q15: How is hope described in Emily Dickinson’s poem?
A) As fragile and easily broken
B) As a fleeting and temporary emotion
C) As a resilient, unwavering force
D) As something that requires payment
Passage 16
The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, was a crucial document in the development of constitutional law. It
limited the power of the king and established key legal rights for subjects, marking the beginning of the
movement toward democracy in England.
Q16: What was the significance of the Magna Carta?
A) It granted absolute power to the king
B) It started the movement toward democracy by limiting royal power
C) It eliminated the need for laws
D) It introduced the idea of absolute monarchy
Passage 17
Globalization has led to increased interconnectedness between nations, fostering economic growth and
cultural exchange. However, it has also caused challenges such as income inequality, cultural
homogenization, and environmental degradation, prompting debates about its long-term effects on
societies.
Q17: What are some challenges posed by globalization?
A) Increased economic growth and cultural exchange
B) Income inequality, cultural homogenization, and environmental degradation
C) Strengthened national identities
D) Reduced technological advancements
Passage 18
Climate change is driven by the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, primarily from
human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation. These gases trap heat, leading to global
warming, extreme weather events, and disruptions to ecosystems.
Q18: What is the primary cause of climate change?
A) Natural temperature fluctuations
B) The accumulation of greenhouse gases from human activities
C) A decrease in solar radiation
D) Volcanic eruptions
Passage 19
In George Orwell’s "1984," the protagonist Winston Smith lives in a dystopian society controlled by a
totalitarian government. The government employs constant surveillance, manipulation of language, and
censorship to maintain control, suppressing individual freedoms and critical thought.
Q19: What does the government in "1984" use to maintain control?
A) Encouraging free thought and democracy
B) Surveillance, language manipulation, and censorship
C) Promoting individual freedoms
D) Promoting open debate and discussion
Passage 20
In Robert Frost’s poem “The Road Not Taken,” the speaker reflects on the choice between two paths in a
forest. The poem explores the themes of decision-making, uncertainty, and the lasting impact of choices,
emphasizing that choices shape the course of one’s life.
Q20: What is the central theme in “The Road Not Taken”?
A) The inevitability of fate
B) The simplicity of life choices
C) The impact of choices on one’s life
D) The dangers of taking risks
Text 1:
In poetry, imagery plays a key role in evoking emotions and creating vivid pictures in the reader’s mind.
Through sensory details and descriptive language, poets use imagery to convey complex ideas and
feelings.
Text 2:
While imagery is central to many poems, some critics argue that it can detract from a poem’s deeper
meaning. They suggest that overly descriptive language may obscure the poem’s themes and messages,
making it harder for readers to grasp its true intent.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would advocates of imagery in poetry (Text 1) most likely respond to the
claim that it detracts from the deeper meaning of a poem (Text 2)?
A) By stating that imagery enriches a poem, helping to communicate its themes more effectively through
vivid details.
B) By agreeing that imagery often obscures the true meaning and should be avoided.
C) By suggesting that imagery is irrelevant to a poem’s overall meaning.
D) By claiming that only simple language can communicate a poem’s deeper meaning.
Text 1:
The scientific method is a systematic approach to inquiry that involves observation, hypothesis
formulation, experimentation, and analysis. It is essential for conducting reliable research and testing the
validity of theories.
Text 2:
Although the scientific method is widely regarded as the best approach to understanding the natural
world, some critics argue that it is too rigid and excludes other ways of knowing, such as intuition and
personal experience.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would proponents of the scientific method (Text 1) most likely respond to
the claim that it is too rigid and excludes other ways of knowing (Text 2)?
A) By claiming that the scientific method is the most effective and reliable way to gain knowledge about
the natural world.
B) By agreeing that the scientific method is limited and should include more subjective approaches.
C) By suggesting that intuition and personal experience are valid, but they should not replace the scientific
method.
D) By rejecting the idea that the scientific method is rigid, arguing it can be adapted to different research
needs.
Passage 21
The concept of manifest destiny in 19th-century America promoted the idea that the United States was
destined to _______ the entire North American continent, expanding its territory from the Atlantic to the
Pacific.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) colonize
B) colonization
C) colonized
D) colonizing
Passage 22
In literature, the hero's journey is a common narrative structure, where the protagonist undergoes trials
that lead to personal _______ and transformation.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) growth
B) grow
C) growing
D) grew
Q25. The Influence of the Renaissance on Modern Art
Region Art Movements Minimal Influence No Influence Total Percent Influence
Influenced
Italy 500 100 50 650 76.9%
France 400 150 100 650 61.5%
Germany 350 200 50 600 58.3%
United Kingdom 250 180 70 500 50%
United States 200 100 150 450 44.4%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Italy had the highest percentage of influence from the Renaissance.
B) Germany had the highest number of art movements influenced.
C) France had the lowest percentage of Renaissance influence.
D) The United States had the lowest total number of art movements influenced.
Q26. The Causes of the French Revolution
 Factor Strong Impact Moderate Impact Minimal Total Percent Strong Impact
Impact
Economic Struggles 500 100 50 650 76.9%
Political Inequality 450 120 80 650 69.2%
Enlightenment Ideas 300 150 100 550 54.5%
Social Unrest 200 150 100 450 44.4%
Monarchy 250 100 50 400 62.5%
Weakness
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Economic struggles had the highest percentage of strong impact.
B) Social unrest had the lowest total number of strong impacts.
C) Political inequality had more moderate impacts than economic struggles.
D) Enlightenment ideas had the most minimal impact.
Q27. The Laws of Thermodynamics
 The laws of thermodynamics govern the behavior of energy and heat.
 The first law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to
another.
 The second law states that entropy, or disorder, in a closed system always increases.
 The third law explains that as the temperature of a system approaches absolute zero, the entropy of
the system approaches a minimum.
The student wants to summarize the laws of thermodynamics. Which choice best encapsulates this
idea?
A) The laws of thermodynamics deal with the conservation of energy and the inevitable increase of
entropy.
B) The laws of thermodynamics apply only to mechanical systems, not energy or heat.
C) The third law states that energy is created or destroyed in all reactions.
D) The laws of thermodynamics do not apply to closed systems.
Module 2
Passage 1
The signing of the Magna Carta in 1215 __________ the principle of limited government, reducing the
monarch's power and laying the groundwork for constitutional law and individual rights in England and
beyond.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) established
C) contradicted
D) undermined
Passage 2
The concept of social contract, as proposed by philosophers like Rousseau, argues that governments
derive their authority from the consent of the governed. This idea __________ modern democratic
systems and emphasizes the importance of collective agreement.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) challenges
B) ignores
C) supports
D) defines
Passage 3
The theory of evolution, proposed by Charles Darwin, explains how species adapt over time through
natural selection. This process __________ genetic variations that enhance survival and reproduction in
specific environments.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) eliminates
B) promotes
C) ignores
D) hinders
Passage 4
In Harper Lee’s To Kill a Mockingbird, Atticus Finch’s unwavering sense of justice __________ the central
themes of morality and equality, even in the face of widespread prejudice in his community.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) opposes
B) illustrates
C) diminishes
D) ignores
Passage 5
In Robert Frost’s The Road Not Taken, the speaker’s choice to take the less traveled path __________ the
theme of individuality and the profound impact of decisions on one’s life journey.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) denies
B) explores
C) undermines
D) complicates
Passage 6
The abolition of the transatlantic slave trade in the 19th century __________ global efforts toward human
rights and justice, despite persistent struggles for equality in many parts of the world.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) accelerated
C) inspired
D) dismissed
Passage 7
Economic globalization has increased interconnectivity among nations, fostering trade and innovation.
However, it also __________ challenges such as income inequality and cultural homogenization.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reduces
B) sparks
C) highlights
D) mitigates
Passage 8 (Science):
The water cycle is a crucial natural process that maintains Earth’s ecosystems. Evaporation, condensation,
and precipitation __________ the continuous movement of water between the atmosphere, land, and
oceans.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) disrupt
B) enable
C) hinder
D) complicate
Passage 9
In Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, Victor Frankenstein’s ambition to create life __________ the novel’s
exploration of the consequences of scientific overreach and the ethical dilemmas posed by technological
advancements.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) diminishes
B) exemplifies
C) challenges
D) undermines
Passage 10
Emily Dickinson’s use of nature imagery in her poetry often __________ themes of life, death, and
immortality, creating a connection between the natural world and human experiences.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignores
B) disruPractice Test
C) enhances
D) complicates
Passage 11
The Industrial Revolution, which began in Britain in the late 18th century, transformed economies from
agrarian-based systems to industrial ones. Innovations like the steam engine, mechanized textiles, and
advancements in transportation revolutionized production but also led to urbanization and harsh working
conditions.
Q11: What was a significant result of the Industrial Revolution?
A) The decline of technological advancements
B) The shift from agrarian economies to industrialized systems
C) The abolition of the steam engine
D) The end of urbanization
Passage 12
The concept of democracy was first practiced in Ancient Greece, particularly in Athens, where citizens
participated directly in political decision-making. This early form of democracy influenced later systems of
government, shaping the structure of modern democracies worldwide.
Q12: How did democracy in Ancient Greece influence later governments?
A) By establishing monarchies as the dominant form of government
B) By promoting direct political participation of citizens
C) By discouraging public participation in governance
D) By eliminating the idea of representative government
Passage 13
The discovery of DNA's double-helix structure in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick revolutionized
the field of genetics. This structure revealed how genetic information is passed on through generations
and paved the way for advancements in medicine, forensics, and biotechnology.
Q13: How did the discovery of DNA’s structure impact science?
A) It halted genetic research
B) It advanced the understanding of inheritance and genetics
C) It eliminated the need for scientific exploration
D) It led to the discrediting of genetic theories
Passage 14
In Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice, the character Elizabeth Bennet challenges the societal norms of her
time. Through her wit, intelligence, and independence, Elizabeth defies the expectations placed on
women, questioning the roles of marriage, class, and personal agency in society.
Q14: What does Elizabeth Bennet challenge in Pride and Prejudice?
A) The importance of wealth
B) Societal expectations for women
C) The concept of marriage as an institution
D) The idea of class divisions
Passage 15
In Robert Frost’s poem The Road Not Taken, the speaker reflects on the metaphorical choice between two
paths in the woods. The decision is symbolic of life’s choices, representing how one decision can alter the
course of life, leading to regret or fulfillment.
Q15: What is the significance of the speaker’s choice in The Road Not Taken?
A) It reflects a lack of decision-making ability
B) It symbolizes life’s decisions and their impact
C) It represents the importance of avoiding risks
D) It shows indifference toward life’s choices
Passage 16
The Cold War was a period of geopolitical tension between the United States and the Soviet Union
following World War II. It was marked by ideological conflict, nuclear arms race, and proxy wars, though
the two superpowers never directly fought each other.
Q16: What characterized the Cold War?
A) A direct military conflict between the U.S. and the Soviet Union
B) An ideological conflict without direct warfare
C) A peaceful alliance between two superpowers
D) Economic collaboration between the U.S. and Soviet Union
Passage 17
Climate change is driven by the increase in greenhouse gases, particularly carbon dioxide. The burning of
fossil fuels and deforestation are significant contributors to this issue. The effects of climate change
include rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and disruptions to ecosystems.
Q17: What is a primary cause of climate change?
A) Decrease in solar activity
B) Increased levels of greenhouse gases
C) Reduction in ocean currents
D) Increased volcanic activity
Passage 18
William Shakespeare’s Hamlet explores themes of revenge, morality, and existential questioning. Hamlet’s
internal struggle, captured in the famous "To be, or not to be" soliloquy, illustrates his contemplation of
life, death, and the consequences of his actions.
Q18: What is Hamlet’s internal conflict in Hamlet?
A) Deciding between two lovers
B) Struggling with the consequences of revenge
C) Deciding whether to abandon the throne
D) Considering the morality of war
Passage 19
The rise of nationalism in the 19th century spurred movements for independence across Europe and the
Americas. Leaders like Simon Bolívar in South America and Giuseppe Garibaldi in Italy sought to unify
fragmented regions, emphasizing national identity and self-determination.
Q19: What was a result of the rise of nationalism in the 19th century?
A) The spread of colonial empires
B) Movements for independence and unification
C) The decline of monarchies
D) The establishment of communist regimes
Passage 20
In Emily Dickinson's poem Hope is the thing with feathers, the poet uses the metaphor of a bird to
describe hope. The bird represents an unwavering spirit that endures despite hardships, offering comfort
and solace even in the darkest times.
Q20: What does the bird symbolize in Emily Dickinson’s poem?
A) Freedom and independence
B) The power of hope and resilience
C) A fleeting moment of happiness
D) The inevitability of death
Text 1:
Climate change is one of the most pressing global challenges of the 21st century, causing rising
temperatures, extreme weather events, and sea level rise. Many scientists warn that urgent action is
needed to mitigate these impacts and avoid irreversible damage.
Text 2:
While some individuals acknowledge the severity of climate change, others remain skeptical about its
causes and consequences. These skeptics argue that climate change is part of natural cycles and that
human influence is overstated.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would proponents of climate change action (Text 1) most likely respond
to the claim that climate change is a natural cycle (Text 2)?
A) By asserting that the current rate of change is unprecedented and primarily caused by human activity.
B) By agreeing that climate change is part of a natural cycle but insisting that human activity is
accelerating the process.
C) By claiming that climate change is a myth and has no scientific basis.
D) By arguing that the natural cycle is the sole cause of climate change, making human intervention
unnecessary.
Text 1:
The Industrial Revolution of the 18th and 19th centuries transformed societies by introducing new
technologies, such as the steam engine, and increasing production capabilities. This period marked the
shift from agrarian economies to industrialized nations.
Text 2:
Though the Industrial Revolution led to significant economic growth, it also caused social upheaval. The
rapid urbanization and exploitation of labor resulted in harsh working conditions, poverty, and
environmental degradation for many people.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would critics of the Industrial Revolution (Text 2) most likely respond to
the claim that it led to economic prosperity (Text 1)?
A) By acknowledging that while it led to economic growth, it also created significant social and
environmental problems that cannot be overlooked.
B) By claiming that the economic growth was unsustainable and would have occurred naturally without
the Industrial Revolution.
C) By arguing that the social upheaval caused by the Industrial Revolution was beneficial for future
generations.
D) By stating that the negative impacts of the Industrial Revolution were exaggerated and insignificant
compared to its benefits.
Passage 21
The rise of social media has drastically altered communication patterns. In particular, it has contributed to
a decline in face-to-face interactions, leading to a sense of _______ among some individuals who feel
disconnected from their communities.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) isolation
B) isolating
C) isolate
D) isolated
Passage 22
The discovery of penicillin marked a breakthrough in the treatment of bacterial infections, which had
previously _______ countless lives due to the lack of effective medical treatments.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) claim
B) claimed
C) claiming
D) claims
Q25. The Development of Ancient Civilizations
Civilization Technological Cultural Political Total Percent Technological
Advancements Contributions Structure Advancements
Mesopotamia 350 150 100 600 58.3%
Ancient Egypt 300 200 150 650 46.2%
Indus Valley 250 120 80 450 55.6%
Ancient China 400 180 120 700 57.1%
Ancient 450 250 200 900 50%
Greece
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Ancient Greece had the most cultural contributions.
B) The Indus Valley had the most technological advancements.
C) Mesopotamia had the highest percentage of technological advancements.
D) Ancient China had the largest total number of political structures.
Q26. The Causes of the French Revolution
Factor Strong Moderate Minimal Total Percent Strong
Impact Impact Impact Impact
Economic Struggles 500 100 50 650 76.9%
Political Inequality 450 120 80 650 69.2%
Enlightenment Ideas 300 150 100 550 54.5%
Social Unrest 200 150 100 450 44.4%
Monarchy Weakness 250 100 50 400 62.5%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Economic struggles had the highest percentage of strong impact.
B) Social unrest had the lowest total number of strong impacts.
C) Political inequality had more moderate impacts than economic struggles.
D) Enlightenment ideas had the most minimal impact.
Q27. Themes in "1984" by George Orwell
• 1984 explores the dangers of totalitarianism and the loss of individual freedoms.
• The government, led by Big Brother, uses surveillance, censorship, and manipulation of language to
control citizens.
• The novel warns against the abuse of power and the consequences of a society devoid of free thought.
The student wants to summarize the main theme of 1984. Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The importance of economic stability in a society’s success.
B) The consequences of a society ruled by totalitarianism and the loss of freedom.
C) The exploration of the psychological effects of war on citizens.
D) The celebration of individualism and self-expression in a dystopian world.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Solve for x:
x² - 8x + 16 = 0.
A) x = 4
B) x = -4
C) x = 8
D) x = 0
Q2. Find the limit:
limₓ→0 (sin(3x) / x).
A) 3
B) 1
C) 0
D) 2
Q3. Solve for x:
2^(x+1) = 16.
A) x = 4
B) x = 2
C) x = 3
D) x = 1
Q4. Find the value of:
∫₀¹ (3x² - 2x + 1) dx.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q5. Find the roots of the equation:
x² + 6x + 9 = 0.
A) x = -3, -3
B) x = 3, -3
C) x = -3, 3
D) x = 0
Q6. Solve for x in the logarithmic equation:
log₁₀(x + 5) = 2.
A) x = 95
B) x = 90
C) x = 100
D) x = 95/10
Q7. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = 3x² × ln(x).
A) 6x × ln(x) + 3x² / x
B) 6x × ln(x) + 3x
C) 3x² × ln(x) + 6x
D) 3x² × ln(x) + 3x² / x
Q8. Solve for x:
5x + 3 = 2x - 7.
A) x = -10
B) x = 10
C) x = -5
D) x = 5
Q9. Find the second derivative of:
f(x) = x⁴ - 4x³ + 3x².
A) 12x² - 24x + 6
B) 12x³ - 24x² + 6x
C) 12x³ - 12x² + 6x
D) 12x² - 12x + 6
Q10. Solve the equation:
e^x = 20.
A) x = ln(20)
B) x = ln(10)
C) x = ln(2)
D) x = 2 ln(10)
Q11. Solve for x in the equation:
logₐ(x) = 3, where a > 0.
A) x = a³
B) x = 3a
C) x = a²
D) x = a
Q12. Find the value of:
∫₀² (x³ - 2x) dx.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 6
D) 8
Q13. Find the inverse of the matrix:
|23|
|57|
A) | 7 -3 |
| -5 2 |
B) | 7 -5 |
| -3 2 |
C) | -7 5 |
| 3 -2 |
D) | 7 3 |
| -2 5 |
Q14. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series:
2 + 2/3 + 2/9 + 2/27 + ...
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Q15. Solve the equation:
x⁴ - 16 = 0.
A) x = ±2
B) x = ±4
C) x = ±√16
D) x = ±8
Q16. Find the maximum value of the function:
f(x) = -x² + 6x - 5.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 3
Q17. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = (x² + 1)^(3/2).
A) 3x(x² + 1)^(1/2)
B) (3x)(x² + 1)^(1/2)
C) x(x² + 1)^(1/2)
D) 2x(x² + 1)^(3/2)
Q18. Find the sum of the series:
S = 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 50.
A) 1275
B) 1270
C) 1300
D) 1250
Q19. Solve for x:
log₄(x - 1) = 3.
A) x = 65
B) x = 64
C) x = 63
D) x = 62
Q20. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = (x³ + x²)(x + 1).
A) 3x² + 3x + 2
B) x³ + 2x² + 2x + 1
C) 4x³ + 3x² + 2x
D) 3x³ + 3x² + x
Q21. Find the value of the determinant:
|321|
|401|
|561|
A) -10
B) 10
C) -15
D) 15
Q22. Find the integral:
∫ (4x³ - 2x) dx.
A) x⁴ - x² + C
B) x⁴ - x³ + C
C) x⁴ - 2x² + C
D) x⁴ - 2x³ + C
Module 2
Q1. Solve for x:
x² + 10x + 25 = 0.
A) x = -5
B) x = 5
C) x = -10
D) x = 10
Q2. Find the derivative of:
f(x) = e^(2x) + 3x².
A) 2e^(2x) + 6x
B) 2e^(2x) + 3x
C) e^(2x) + 6x
D) e^(2x) + 3x²
Q3. Solve the equation:
3^(x+2) = 81.
A) x = 2
B) x = 3
C) x = 4
D) x = 1
Q4. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y = x² and the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q5. If f(x) = 3x + 7, find f⁻¹(x).
A) f⁻¹(x) = (x - 7) / 3
B) f⁻¹(x) = (x + 7) / 3
C) f⁻¹(x) = x - 7
D) f⁻¹(x) = 3x - 7
Q6. Find the limit:
limₓ→∞ (1/x).
A) 1
B) 0
C) ∞
D) Does not exist
Q7. Solve for x:
4x - 7 = 3x + 5.
A) x = 2
B) x = 1
C) x = -2
D) x = 3
Q8. Find the determinant of the matrix:
|12|
|34|
A) -2
B) 2
C) 1
D) 4
Q9. Evaluate the integral:
∫₁³ (x² - 4) dx.
A) 5
B) 3
C) 7
D) 2
Q10. Solve for x:
log₅(x - 2) = 3.
A) x = 125
B) x = 122
C) x = 125/5
D) x = 122/5
Q11. Solve the system of equations:
2x + y = 10
3x - y = 5
A) x = 3, y = 4
B) x = 2, y = 6
C) x = 1, y = 8
D) x = 4, y = 2
Q12. Find the sum of the first 50 terms of an arithmetic sequence with a₁ = 1 and d = 2.
A) 2550
B) 2551
C) 2500
D) 2450
Q13. Solve for x in the equation:
√(2x + 3) = 5.
A) x = 6
B) x = 4
C) x = 7
D) x = 9
Q14. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = sin(3x).
A) 3cos(3x)
B) 3sin(3x)
C) cos(3x)
D) 2cos(3x)
Q15. Solve the quadratic equation:
x² - 5x + 6 = 0.
A) x = 3, 2
B) x = 4, 1
C) x = 1, 6
D) x = 2, 3
Q16. Solve the equation:
x² + 4x + 5 = 0.
A) x = -2 ± i
B) x = -2 ± √5
C) x = 2 ± i
D) x = 2 ± √5
Q17. Find the inverse of the function:
f(x) = (3x - 4)/(x + 2).
A) f⁻¹(x) = (2x + 4)/(3 - x)
B) f⁻¹(x) = (4x + 2)/(3 - x)
C) f⁻¹(x) = (x + 2)/(3 - x)
D) f⁻¹(x) = (3x + 4)/(x - 2)
Q18. Evaluate the limit:
limₓ→0 (sin(5x) / x).
A) 5
B) 1
C) 0
D) -5
Q19. Find the product of the matrices:
|12||34|
|56||78|
A) | 23 34 |
| 59 74 |
B) | 23 34 |
| 43 50 |
C) | 23 34 |
| 17 50 |
D) | 35 48 |
| 69 94 |
Q20. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = x / (x² + 1).
A) (x² - 1) / (x² + 1)²
B) (1 - x²) / (x² + 1)²
C) (1 + x²) / (x² + 1)²
D) (x² + 1) / (x² + 1)²
Q21. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series:
3 + 1 + 1/3 + 1/9 + ...
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Q22. Solve for x:
2^(2x) = 16.
A) x = 2
B) x = 4
C) x = 3
D) x = 1
PRACTICE TEST 11
Reading and writing
Module 1
Passage 1
The American Revolution was fueled by the colonists’ grievances against British rule, particularly taxation without
representation. This conflict ultimately __________ the creation of a new, independent government based on
democratic principles.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignored
B) delayed
C) prompted
D) complicated
Passage 2
The rise of social media has transformed communication, allowing people to connect globally. However, it also
__________ concerns about privacy, misinformation, and the effects on mental health.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolved
B) sparked
C) dismissed
D) undermined
Passage 3
The development of vaccines has dramatically reduced the prevalence of many diseases, including smallpox and
polio. Vaccination programs __________ public health by preventing the spread of contagious illnesses.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) jeopardize
B) advance
C) obscure
D) hinder
Passage 4
In George Orwell’s 1984, the concept of “doublethink” illustrates the manipulation of thought in a totalitarian
society. This technique __________ the government’s ability to control citizens’ beliefs and perceptions of reality.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) enhances
B) limits
C) questions
D) disruPractice Test
Passage 5
In Walt Whitman’s Leaves of Grass, the poet celebrates the interconnectedness of humanity and nature. His verse
__________ themes of unity, individuality, and the profound beauty of the natural world.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) contradicts
B) explores
C) ignores
D) complicates
Passage 6
The Industrial Revolution transformed economies by introducing mechanized production. This period __________
rapid urbanization, technological innovation, and changes in labor systems, reshaping societies globally.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) delayed
B) sparked
C) undermined
D) obscured
Passage 7
The concept of cultural relativism encourages understanding and evaluating cultures within their own contexts. This
perspective __________ respect for diversity while discouraging ethnocentric judgments.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) fosters
B) diminishes
C) disruPractice Test
D) challenges
Passage 8
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. This natural mechanism __________ life
on Earth by producing oxygen and serving as the foundation of most ecosystems.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) supports
B) hinders
C) complicates
D) ignores
Passage 9
In Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice, Elizabeth Bennet’s wit and independence __________ the novel’s
commentary on societal expectations and personal integrity.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) reinforce
B) diminish
C) ignore
D) contradict
Passage 10
In Langston Hughes’ The Negro Speaks of Rivers, the speaker reflects on the depth of cultural history and resilience.
The imagery of rivers __________ the enduring connection between African heritage and the broader human
experience.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) dismisses
B) symbolizes
C) challenges
D) ignores
Passage 11
The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, was a turning point in the development of constitutional law. By limiting the
power of the English monarchy and establishing the principle that no one, not even the king, was above the law, it
laid the foundation for modern democracy.
Q11: What is the significance of the Magna Carta?
A) It established the absolute power of the monarchy
B) It created a system of hereditary rule
C) It laid the foundation for modern democracy by limiting royal power
D) It promoted the expansion of the British Empire
Passage 12
The concept of civic duty emphasizes the responsibilities of individuals to contribute to the functioning of society.
This can include voting, volunteering, or participating in community activities. Civic duty is considered essential for
the health of a democracy.
Q12: What does the concept of civic duty emphasize?
A) The pursuit of personal wealth
B) The responsibilities of individuals to support society
C) The right to avoid participating in government
D) The government’s responsibility to provide for all citizens
Passage 13
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. In this process, plants absorb carbon
dioxide from the air and water from the soil, using sunlight to produce glucose and oxygen. This process is vital for
life on Earth as it provides oxygen and forms the basis of the food chain.
Q13: What is the primary purpose of photosynthesis?
A) To absorb carbon dioxide and release water
B) To convert sunlight into energy and produce oxygen
C) To decompose organic matter
D) To increase the temperature of the atmosphere
Passage 14
In George Orwell's 1984, the protagonist Winston Smith lives in a dystopian society controlled by the Party, which
uses surveillance and manipulation to maintain power. The novel explores themes of totalitarianism, individualism,
and the loss of personal freedoms in the face of oppressive regimes.
Q14: What is the main theme of 1984?
A) The benefits of personal freedom
B) The dangers of totalitarianism and the loss of individual freedoms
C) The rise of a utopian society
D) The importance of technological advancements
Passage 15
In Langston Hughes’ poem I, Too, the speaker expresses hope and resilience in the face of racial oppression. The
poem conveys a sense of self-worth and pride, asserting that, despite being marginalized, African Americans will
eventually be accepted and treated as equals.
Q15: What is the central theme of Langston Hughes’ I, Too?
A) The triumph of wealth and success
B) The resilience and hope for racial equality
C) The defeat of social injustice
D) The importance of individual accomplishments
Passage 16
The French Revolution of 1789 was a period of radical social and political change in France. It marked the end of
centuries of monarchy and feudalism, leading to the establishment of a republic. The revolution was fueled by
economic hardship, social inequality, and the influence of Enlightenment ideas.
Q16: What was a key result of the French Revolution?
A) The continuation of monarchy and feudalism
B) The establishment of a republic and the end of the monarchy
C) The spread of colonialism across Europe
D) The reinforcement of social inequality
Passage 17
The law of gravity, first formulated by Sir Isaac Newton, describes the force that attracts objects toward the center
of the Earth. This force governs the motion of planets, tides, and objects on Earth, playing a fundamental role in the
physical world.
Q17: What does the law of gravity explain?
A) The motion of celestial bodies in space
B) The expansion of the universe
C) The force that attracts objects toward the Earth
D) The relationship between matter and energy
Passage 18
In William Golding’s Lord of the Flies, a group of boys stranded on an uninhabited island descend into chaos as they
form their own society. The novel explores themes of human nature, the loss of innocence, and the breakdown of
civilization.
Q18: What central theme is explored in Lord of the Flies?
A) The power of education in shaping society
B) The conflict between civilization and the primal instincts of human nature
C) The benefits of isolation on personal growth
D) The importance of technological advancements in society
Passage 19
In Walt Whitman’s Song of Myself, the poet celebrates individualism and the interconnectedness of all life.
Whitman uses expansive, free verse to explore the idea that all people are part of a greater whole, celebrating unity
and diversity.
Q19: What central idea does Walt Whitman explore in Song of Myself?
A) The importance of following tradition
B) The connection between individualism and the greater whole of humanity
C) The rejection of personal identity in favor of collective identity
D) The celebration of religious dogma
Passage 20
The Industrial Revolution in the 18th and 19th centuries marked a period of rapid industrial growth, technological
innovation, and urbanization. It led to the rise of factories, mass production, and the expansion of cities,
dramatically transforming the global economy and society.
Q20: What was a significant result of the Industrial Revolution?
A) The decline of technological advancements
B) The rise of factories, mass production, and urbanization
C) The end of global trade and commerce
D) The increase in rural agricultural employment
Text 1:
The expansion of social media has transformed the way people communicate, allowing for faster and more
widespread dissemination of information. However, it has also raised concerns about privacy, misinformation, and
the impact on face-to-face interactions.
Text 2:
While social media platforms have become a key tool for connecting people, critics argue that they often
perpetuate false information and create echo chambers that reinforce existing beliefs. Additionally, they express
concern about the loss of privacy and the negative effects on mental health.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would proponents of social media (Text 1) most likely respond to the claim that
social media spreads misinformation and harms privacy (Text 2)?
A) By arguing that social media is mostly beneficial and that its negative effects are exaggerated.
B) By claiming that the rise of social media has no impact on privacy or the spread of misinformation.
C) By acknowledging the concerns but suggesting that social media is essential for modern communication and has
more positive effects than negative ones.
D) By agreeing that social media is harmful and should be regulated more strictly.
Text 1:
The study of ancient civilizations provides valuable insights into the development of modern societies.
Archaeologists and historians examine artifacts, architecture, and written records to better understand the cultures
and daily lives of ancient peoples.
Text 2:
While the study of ancient civilizations offers important knowledge, some critics argue that it often overlooks the
contributions of non-Western societies. They emphasize the need for a more inclusive approach that considers a
broader range of historical perspectives.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would advocates for a more inclusive historical perspective (Text 2) most likely
respond to the claim that studying ancient civilizations is essential (Text 1)?
A) By agreeing that studying ancient civilizations is important but stressing that non-Western societies must also be
acknowledged.
B) By claiming that the study of ancient civilizations is outdated and should be replaced with modern studies.
C) By rejecting the study of ancient civilizations entirely in favor of focusing only on contemporary societies.
D) By stating that studying ancient civilizations provides enough historical context and no further inclusion is
necessary.
Passage 21
The introduction of electric vehicles has had a profound impact on the automotive industry, driving innovation in
the _______ of environmentally friendly technologies.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) development
B) develop
C) developing
D) developed
Passage 22
During the Cold War, both the United States and the Soviet Union engaged in a _______ race to build more
advanced weaponry, heightening tensions between the two superpowers.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) compete
B) competition
C) competitive
D) competed
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Economic struggles had the highest percentage (76.9%) of strong impact, indicating that financial
hardship played the most crucial role in sparking the French Revolution by intensifying social and political unrest in
France.
Q25. The Influence of the Silk Road on Trade
Region Volume of Cultural Exchange Political Influence Total Percent Cultural Exchange
Trade
Central Asia 500 300 150 950 63.2%
China 600 400 200 1200 58.3%
India 450 250 100 800 62.5%
Persia 350 200 120 670 59.2%
Rome 400 150 100 650 61.5%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Central Asia had the highest percentage of cultural exchange.
B) Persia had the lowest volume of trade.
C) India had the most political influence among the regions listed.
D) Rome had more cultural exchange than China.
Q26. The Effects of Climate Change on Global Agriculture
Region Severe Moderate Impact Minimal Total Percent Severe
Impact Impact Impact
Sub-Saharan Africa 500 100 50 650 76.9%
Southeast Asia 400 150 100 650 61.5%
Latin America 350 200 100 650 53.8%
North America 300 150 50 500 60%
Europe 250 100 70 420 59.5%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Sub-Saharan Africa had the highest percentage of severe impact.
B) Southeast Asia had the lowest total number of severe impacts.
C) Latin America had more moderate impacts than North America.
D) Europe had the highest number of minimal impacts.
Q27. The Causes of the Civil War
 The American Civil War was primarily caused by the division between the North and South over issues like
slavery, states' rights, and economic differences.
 The Southern states seceded from the Union, leading to conflict over their right to maintain slavery.
 The war was also influenced by political leaders like Abraham Lincoln and the abolitionist movement in the
North.
The student wants to summarize the causes of the Civil War. Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) The Civil War was fought solely over economic differences between the North and South.
B) The war was caused by the North's opposition to slavery and Southern states' desire to maintain it.
C) The Civil War was triggered only by political disagreements, not social or economic issues.
D) The Civil War had no connection to slavery or states' rights.
Module 2:
Passage 1
The Treaty of Versailles, signed after World War I, imposed harsh penalties on Germany, including territorial losses
and reparations. These terms __________ resentment and economic hardship, contributing to the conditions that
led to World War II.
Q1: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolved
B) alleviated
C) fueled
D) ignored
Passage 2
The concept of the “melting pot” describes the blending of diverse cultures into a unified society. However, critics
argue that it __________ individual cultural identities in favor of assimilation.
Q2: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) celebrates
B) erases
C) enhances
D) supports
Passage 3
The discovery of DNA’s double helix structure by Watson and Crick revolutionized biology. This breakthrough
__________ our understanding of genetics, enabling advancements in fields such as medicine, forensics, and
biotechnology.
Q3: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hindered
B) transformed
C) complicated
D) questioned
Passage 4
In Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, Victor Frankenstein’s relentless pursuit of scientific knowledge __________
questions about the ethical boundaries of innovation and the responsibilities of creators toward their creations.
Q4: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) resolves
B) raises
C) dismisses
D) diminishes
Passage 5
Robert Frost’s “The Road Not Taken” reflects on the impact of choices. The metaphor of diverging paths
__________ the unpredictability of life and the significance of decisions in shaping one’s journey.
Q5: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) undermines
B) symbolizes
C) ignores
D) diminishes
Passage 6
The Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s achieved significant milestones, including the Civil Rights Act of 1964. This
legislation __________ segregation in public spaces and prohibited employment discrimination based on race,
color, religion, sex, or national origin.
Q6: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) intensified
B) enforced
C) outlawed
D) ignored
Passage 7
Microloans have emerged as a powerful tool for alleviating poverty in developing nations. These small loans
__________ entrepreneurship and economic independence, particularly for women in underserved communities.
Q7: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) discourage
B) promote
C) complicate
D) diminish
Passage 8
Global warming is causing glaciers to melt at unprecedented rates. This phenomenon __________ rising sea levels,
threatening coastal cities and ecosystems worldwide.
Q8: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) stabilizes
B) accelerates
C) resolves
D) mitigates
Passage 9
In To Kill a Mockingbird by Harper Lee, Atticus Finch’s defense of Tom Robinson __________ themes of justice,
morality, and the struggle against racial prejudice in the Deep South during the 1930s.
Q9: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) ignores
B) exemplifies
C) complicates
D) undermines
Passage 10
Emily Dickinson’s poetry often explores themes of death and immortality. Her use of vivid imagery and
introspective tone __________ the universal human experience of confronting mortality and the unknown.
Q10: Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) trivializes
B) illuminates
C) denies
D) complicates
Passage 11
The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, was a turning point in the development of constitutional law. By limiting the
power of the English monarchy and establishing the principle that no one, not even the king, was above the law, it
laid the foundation for modern democracy.
Q11: What is the significance of the Magna Carta?
A) It established the absolute power of the monarchy
B) It created a system of hereditary rule
C) It laid the foundation for modern democracy by limiting royal power
D) It promoted the expansion of the British Empire
Passage 12
The concept of civic duty emphasizes the responsibilities of individuals to contribute to the functioning of society.
This can include voting, volunteering, or participating in community activities. Civic duty is considered essential for
the health of a democracy.
Q12: What does the concept of civic duty emphasize?
A) The pursuit of personal wealth
B) The responsibilities of individuals to support society
C) The right to avoid participating in government
D) The government’s responsibility to provide for all citizens
Passage 13
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. In this process, plants absorb carbon
dioxide from the air and water from the soil, using sunlight to produce glucose and oxygen. This process is vital for
life on Earth as it provides oxygen and forms the basis of the food chain.
Q13: What is the primary purpose of photosynthesis?
A) To absorb carbon dioxide and release water
B) To convert sunlight into energy and produce oxygen
C) To decompose organic matter
D) To increase the temperature of the atmosphere
Passage 14
In George Orwell's 1984, the protagonist Winston Smith lives in a dystopian society controlled by the Party, which
uses surveillance and manipulation to maintain power. The novel explores themes of totalitarianism, individualism,
and the loss of personal freedoms in the face of oppressive regimes.
Q14: What is the main theme of 1984?
A) The benefits of personal freedom
B) The dangers of totalitarianism and the loss of individual freedoms
C) The rise of a utopian society
D) The importance of technological advancements
Passage 15
In Langston Hughes’ poem I, Too, the speaker expresses hope and resilience in the face of racial oppression. The
poem conveys a sense of self-worth and pride, asserting that, despite being marginalized, African Americans will
eventually be accepted and treated as equals.
Q15: What is the central theme of Langston Hughes’ I, Too?
A) The triumph of wealth and success
B) The resilience and hope for racial equality
C) The defeat of social injustice
D) The importance of individual accomplishments
Passage 16
The French Revolution of 1789 was a period of radical social and political change in France. It marked the end of
centuries of monarchy and feudalism, leading to the establishment of a republic. The revolution was fueled by
economic hardship, social inequality, and the influence of Enlightenment ideas.
Q16: What was a key result of the French Revolution?
A) The continuation of monarchy and feudalism
B) The establishment of a republic and the end of the monarchy
C) The spread of colonialism across Europe
D) The reinforcement of social inequality
Passage 17
The law of gravity, first formulated by Sir Isaac Newton, describes the force that attracts objects toward the center
of the Earth. This force governs the motion of planets, tides, and objects on Earth, playing a fundamental role in the
physical world.
Q17: What does the law of gravity explain?
A) The motion of celestial bodies in space
B) The expansion of the universe
C) The force that attracts objects toward the Earth
D) The relationship between matter and energy
Passage 18
In William Golding’s Lord of the Flies, a group of boys stranded on an uninhabited island descend into chaos as they
form their own society. The novel explores themes of human nature, the loss of innocence, and the breakdown of
civilization.
Q18: What central theme is explored in Lord of the Flies?
A) The power of education in shaping society
B) The conflict between civilization and the primal instincts of human nature
C) The benefits of isolation on personal growth
D) The importance of technological advancements in society
Passage 19
In Walt Whitman’s Song of Myself, the poet celebrates individualism and the interconnectedness of all life.
Whitman uses expansive, free verse to explore the idea that all people are part of a greater whole, celebrating unity
and diversity.
Q19: What central idea does Walt Whitman explore in Song of Myself?
A) The importance of following tradition
B) The connection between individualism and the greater whole of humanity
C) The rejection of personal identity in favor of collective identity
D) The celebration of religious dogma
Passage 20
The Industrial Revolution in the 18th and 19th centuries marked a period of rapid industrial growth, technological
innovation, and urbanization. It led to the rise of factories, mass production, and the expansion of cities,
dramatically transforming the global economy and society.
Q20: What was a significant result of the Industrial Revolution?
A) The decline of technological advancements
B) The rise of factories, mass production, and urbanization
C) The end of global trade and commerce
D) The increase in rural agricultural employment
Text 1:
The rise of digital technologies has had a profound effect on communication, making it faster and more accessible.
Social media platforms have become central to personal and professional interactions, connecting people
worldwide in real-time.
Text 2:
While digital technologies have made communication easier, concerns about privacy, misinformation, and the
impact on mental health have also arisen. Critics argue that social media platforms are contributing to social
isolation and decreased face-to-face interactions.
Q21: Based on the texts, how would advocates of digital communication (Text 1) most likely respond to the claim
that social media causes isolation (Text 2)?
A) By claiming that social media strengthens connections and enhances communication, overcoming the barriers of
physical distance.
B) By agreeing that social media is harmful to mental health and social interactions, urging for more regulation.
C) By suggesting that social media causes only superficial relationships, which can be detrimental.
D) By arguing that the negative effects of social media are exaggerated and that its benefits far outweigh the risks.
Text 1:
In "1984," George Orwell presents a dystopian society where totalitarian rule suppresses individual freedoms. The
government uses surveillance, propaganda, and psychological manipulation to maintain control over its citizens.
Text 2:
Although "1984" depicts a terrifying future, some readers see the novel as a cautionary tale rather than a
prediction. They argue that Orwell's work is meant to warn against the dangers of unchecked government power
and the erosion of individual rights.
Q22: Based on the texts, how would readers who see "1984" as a cautionary tale (Text 2) most likely respond to
the idea that it predicts the future (Text 1)?
A) By claiming that the novel is not intended to be a literal prediction but rather a warning about the potential
consequences of totalitarianism.
B) By arguing that the events in the novel will inevitably come to pass, and we are already heading toward such a
society.
C) By stating that Orwell’s vision is outdated and no longer relevant to modern society.
D) By suggesting that the novel is purely fictional and should not be taken seriously as a reflection of reality.
Passage 21
In literature, the hero's journey is a common narrative structure, where the protagonist undergoes trials that lead
to personal _______ and transformation.
Q23: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) growth
B) grow
C) growing
D) grew
Passage 22
The theory of evolution, first popularized by Charles Darwin, revolutionized the field of biology by explaining how
species _______ and adapt to their environments over generations.
Q24: Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) evolve
B) evolved
C) evolving
D) evolvement
Q25. The Causes of the American Civil War
Factor Strong Impact Moderate Impact Minimal Impact Total Percent Strong Impact
Slavery 600 50 20 670 89.6%
State's Rights 400 100 50 550 72.7%
Economic Differences 350 150 80 580 60.3%
Cultural Divisions 250 100 50 400 62.5%
Political Failures 150 100 30 280 53.6%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) Slavery had the highest percentage of strong impact.
B) State's rights had a higher strong impact than slavery.
C) Economic differences had the lowest percentage of strong impact.
D) Political failures had the lowest total number of strong impacts.
Q26. The Impact of Colonialism on Indigenous Populations
Region Population Cultural Economic Total Percent Population
Decline Displacement Exploitation Decline
Africa 500 200 100 800 62.5%
Asia 450 150 120 720 62.5%
Latin 400 250 150 800 50%
America
North 350 100 50 500 70%
America
Australia 300 180 70 550 54.5%
Which choice best describes the data from the table that supports the study’s findings?
A) North America had the highest percentage of population decline.
B) Africa and Asia had the same percentage of population decline.
C) Latin America had the lowest percentage of population decline.
D) Australia had the highest percentage of cultural displacement.
Q27. The Concept of Natural Selection
 Charles Darwin's theory of natural selection proposes that organisms with traits better suited to their
environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.
 Over time, these advantageous traits become more common in a population.
 Natural selection is a key mechanism of evolution, explaining how species adapt to changing environments.
The student wants to summarize the concept of natural selection. Which choice best encapsulates this idea?
A) Natural selection explains how organisms evolve by acquiring traits they desire.
B) Natural selection is a process where individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and
reproduce.
C) Natural selection only applies to animals, not plants.
D) Natural selection is unrelated to the process of evolution.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Solve for x:
x³ - 4x² + 3x = 0.
A) x = 0, 1, 3
B) x = 1, 2, 3
C) x = 0, 2, -3
D) x = 0, 1, -1
Q2. Solve for x:
log₃(x + 2) = 4.
A) x = 81
B) x = 241
C) x = 79
D) x = 3
Q3. Find the value of the limit:
limₓ→∞ (3x + 5)/(2x - 1).
A) 1.5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Q4. Find the derivative of:
f(x) = x³ - 5x² + 6x - 7.
A) 3x² - 10x + 6
B) 3x² - 5x + 6
C) 3x² - 10x
D) 6x - 10
Q5. Solve for x:
e^(2x) = 20.
A) x = ln(20) / 2
B) x = 2ln(20)
C) x = ln(20)
D) x = 20 / 2
Q6. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (0,0), (3,0), and (0,4).
A) 6
B) 12
C) 7
D) 8
Q7. Solve for x:
2x + 5 = 3(x - 2).
A) x = 7
B) x = 6
C) x = 5
D) x = 4
Q8. Find the value of the integral:
∫₁² (x² - 2x + 1) dx.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q9. Find the product of the matrices:
|10||42|
|01||13|
A) | 4 2 |
|13|
B) | 5 2 |
|14|
C) | 4 3 |
|12|
D) | 4 3 |
|13|
Q10. Solve for x:
x² + 4x + 4 = 0.
A) x = -4
B) x = -2
C) x = 2
D) x = 4
Q11. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series:
1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ...
A) 10
B) 5
C) ∞
D) Does not exist
Q12. Evaluate the integral:
∫₀² (x³ - 3x² + 2) dx.
A) 5
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2
Q13. Solve for x:
3^(x+1) = 81.
A) x = 2
B) x = 3
C) x = 4
D) x = 1
Q14. Differentiate the function:
f(x) = 2x⁴ - 3x² + x - 5.
A) 8x³ - 6x + 1
B) 8x³ - 6x - 1
C) 8x³ - 6x
D) 4x³ - 3x + 1
Q15. Find the inverse of:
f(x) = (5x - 3)/(2x + 1).
A) f⁻¹(x) = (3x + 1)/(5x - 2)
B) f⁻¹(x) = (3x + 1)/(5x + 2)
C) f⁻¹(x) = (5x + 3)/(2x - 1)
D) f⁻¹(x) = (3x - 1)/(5x + 2)
Q16. Solve for x:
(x - 1)² = 16.
A) x = 5, -3
B) x = 4, -4
C) x = 1, -5
D) x = 3, -1
Q17. Find the sum of the first 100 terms of the arithmetic sequence 3, 5, 7, 9, ...
A) 5000
B) 5050
C) 5100
D) 5150
Q18. Find the determinant of the matrix:
|31|
|24|
A) 10
B) 11
C) 7
D) 6
Q19. Solve for x:
4^(x - 1) = 64.
A) x = 4
B) x = 3
C) x = 2
D) x = 5
Q20. Find the value of the limit:
limₓ→0 (sin(2x) / x).
A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) -2
Q21. Solve the equation:
x² - 5x + 6 = 0.
A) x = 1, 6
B) x = 2, 3
C) x = 0, 5
D) x = 3, 4
Q22. Solve for x:
log₄(x + 1) = 3.
A) x = 63
B) x = 62
C) x = 64
D) x = 65
Module 2
Q1. Solve for x:
x⁴ - 16x² + 60 = 0.
A) x = ±2, ±5
B) x = ±4, ±3
C) x = ±2, ±6
D) x = ±5, ±6
Q2. Solve for x:
log₂(3x - 1) = 5.
A) x = 17
B) x = 11
C) x = 16
D) x = 32
Q3. Find the value of the limit:
limₓ→∞ (2x² - 3x + 4)/(5x² + 6x - 3).
A) 2/5
B) 1/2
C) 5/2
D) 3/5
Q4. Differentiate the following function:
f(x) = (3x² + 5x)(2x³ - x).
A) 6x³ - 3x² + 30x² - 5x
B) 30x⁴ - 3x² + 6x³ - 5x
C) 6x⁴ + 30x³ - 5x² + 5x
D) 30x³ + 5x² - 5x
Q5. Solve for x:
x² + 6x + 9 = 0.
A) x = -3
B) x = 3
C) x = -6
D) x = 6
Q6. Solve the equation:
sin(x) = cos(2x).
A) x = π/4
B) x = π/2
C) x = π/3
D) x = 0
Q7. Evaluate the integral:
∫₀¹ (x² - 2x + 1) dx.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q8. Find the derivative of the function:
f(x) = 4x³ - 2x² + x.
A) 12x² - 4x + 1
B) 12x² - 4x
C) 4x² - 4x + 1
D) 3x² - 2x
Q9. Find the value of the determinant of the matrix:
|231|
|140|
|562|
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 12
Q10. Solve for x:
3x + 5 = 2x + 7.
A) x = 2
B) x = 1
C) x = 3
D) x = -2
Q11. Find the area of the region enclosed by the curve y = x² and the x-axis from x = -2 to x = 3.
A) 11
B) 12
C) 10
D) 9
Q12. Find the inverse of the function:
f(x) = (2x + 3)/(x - 1).
A) f⁻¹(x) = (x - 3)/(2x + 1)
B) f⁻¹(x) = (x + 3)/(2x - 1)
C) f⁻¹(x) = (x - 1)/(2x + 3)
D) f⁻¹(x) = (x + 1)/(2x - 3)
Q13. Find the sum of the first 50 terms of the arithmetic sequence: 5, 9, 13, ...
A) 5000
B) 5050
C) 505
D) 500
Q14. Solve for x:
log₅(x + 3) = 2.
A) x = 22
B) x = 18
C) x = 25
D) x = 27
Q15. Solve the system of equations:
x + y = 10
2x - y = 4
A) x = 7, y = 3
B) x = 6, y = 4
C) x = 8, y = 2
D) x = 5, y = 5
Q16. Find the eigenvalues of the matrix:
|12|
|34|
A) 5, -1
B) 4, 2
C) 3, 2
D) 5, 1
Q17. Solve for x:
√(x + 2) + √(x - 2) = 6.
A) x = 8
B) x = 10
C) x = 12
D) x = 7
Q18. Find the value of the double integral:
∫₀² ∫₀ⁱ 4xy dxdy.
A) 16
B) 12
C) 20
D) 18
Q19. Evaluate the sum of the series:
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 100.
A) 5050
B) 5000
C) 500
D) 100
Q20. Find the value of the integral:
∫₀¹ e^x dx.
A) e - 1
B) e + 1
C) e² - 1
D) e² + 1
Q21. Solve for x:
4^x = 64.
A) x = 3
B) x = 2
C) x = 5
D) x = 6
Q22. Find the value of the limit:
limₓ→∞ (3x² + 2x - 1)/(5x² - 3x + 2).
A) 3/5
B) 5/3
C) 2/5
D) 5/2

Appendix
Answer keys and Explanations
PRACTICE TEST 1
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "speculates" because the passage indicates that Maria Johnson is theorizing
about the possibility of species adapting to urban environments in the future.
Q2:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "persistent" because it emphasizes Huerta’s continuous and dedicated effort in
improving labor conditions.
Q3:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exemplifies" because it suggests that the collaboration between the high
school and the community center serves as a clear example of the interdisciplinary model in action.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "synchronization" because it describes how the monarch butterfly’s migration
aligns with seasonal patterns for optimal reproduction.
Q5:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "a straightforward" because the passage suggests that explaining the presence
of plant species in volcanic islands is not immediately clear or simple.
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "challenges" because it indicates that Eyre confronts and critiques Hollywood's
limited portrayal of Indigenous peoples in favor of a more modern and nuanced depiction.
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage focuses on Chomsky’s theory that combines innate biological factors with social
influences in language learning.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The sentence highlights Ishmael’s sense of smallness and the contrast between human aspirations and
the vastness of the world, setting the tone for his philosophical reflections throughout the novel.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "suppressed" because Nietzsche argued that traditional moral values held back
human potential and creativity.
Q10:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Code of Hammurabi "reflects" modern legal systems because its idea of proportional justice (an
eye for an eye) is a concept still present in contemporary legal practices. The word "reflects" fits the context of
describing how ancient legal principles have influenced modern systems.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Great Wall "symbolized" China’s strength and perseverance, reflecting the importance of the wall
not just as a defensive structure but as a cultural and national symbol of endurance.
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The Roman Republic "deteriorated" due to internal conflicts, corruption, and instability. The word
"deteriorated" accurately describes the decline of the Republic, leading to the rise of the Roman Empire.
Q13:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The primary effect of Alexander's conquests was the spread of Hellenistic culture, which fused Greek
ideas and traditions with those of the various regions he conquered. This led to a broad cultural influence on areas
as far away as Rome and India.
Q14:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The establishment of democracy in Athens "promoted" participation by male citizens in decision-
making. The word "promoted" fits because it describes how the reforms encouraged political participation and later
influenced other democratic systems.
Q15:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The Silk Road "facilitated" the exchange of goods, ideas, and culture between the East and West.
"Facilitated" is the best choice because it conveys how the Silk Road made these exchanges possible, leading to a
lasting impact on both civilizations.
Q16:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Cyrus the Great's leadership was characterized by tolerance and inclusivity. He respected local
customs and religions, which helped stabilize his empire and ensured its longevity, making this the most accurate
description.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Rosetta Stone "facilitated" the deciphering of ancient Egyptian hieroglyphs because it allowed
scholars to use their knowledge of Greek to understand the other scriPractice Test. This "facilitated" the unlocking
of a wealth of information about Egyptian civilization.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Confucianism "supported" the principles of moral leadership, social harmony, and respect for
authority, which were adopted by Chinese rulers. Confucian ideas have been integral to Chinese political thought
and governance.
Q19:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The Punic Wars "bolstered" Rome’s military power and territorial expansion. The wars significantly
strengthened Rome's position in the Mediterranean, paving the way for its rise as a dominant empire.
Q20:. Answer: D)
Explanation: According to the table, Sarah Lark is credited with 50 films as an actor and 5 as a writer, so she likely
acted in more than 50 films. Samuel Bright is credited with 70 films as a director, meaning he probably directed
more than 70 films.
Q21:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The table shows that a majority of each species' juvenile population was found in woodland areas,
which is consistent with the researchers' claim that woodland habitats were preferred over open grasslands for
juvenile mammals.
Q22:. Answer: A)
Explanation: This choice aligns with the passage’s portrayal of ambition as a force that leads to Macbeth's downfall,
as it triggers his first betrayal and sets in motion his descent into moral corruption.
Q23:. Answer: A)
Explanation: This choice supports the passage’s claim that the novel critiques the class system by illustrating
Elizabeth’s challenge to societal expectations and her prioritization of personal values over social status.
Q24:. Answer: B)
Explanation: This choice directly reflects the passage’s critique of the American Dream, showing how Gatsby’s
pursuit of wealth and love does not bring him happiness or fulfillment, exposing the shallowness of his aspirations.
Q25:. Answer: B)
Explanation: This choice reflects how Hamlet’s hesitations and internal conflict regarding revenge contribute to his
tragic fate, supporting the passage’s exploration of the destructive nature of vengeance.
Q26:. Answer: A).
Explanation: Choice A effectively captures the key cognitive benefits of sleep, emphasizing its role in memory and
focus.
Q27:. Answer: B).
Explanation: Choice B directly addresses the health benefits of green spaces while also mentioning their
environmental impact, aligning with the student’s focus.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because Charlemagne's reign advanced the process of unification
in Europe, particularly through his promotion of culture and education alongside military expansion.
Q2:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforced" because the Crusades intensified existing religious and ethnic
conflicts, contributing to long-lasting divisions between Christians and Muslims.
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "celebrated" because the Magna Carta is revered for establishing the idea that
even rulers must adhere to the law, which became a fundamental principle in constitutional law and democratic
governance.
Q4:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "solidified" because the Hundred Years' War helped to establish and strengthen
the sense of national identity among the populations of both England and France.
Q5:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because the Black Death sped up changes in the social and
economic structure, such as the decline of feudalism and the rise of a more mobile and empowered labor force.
Q6:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "revolutionized" because the fall of Constantinople played a key role in
spreading Renaissance culture and ideas to Europe, dramatically influencing the intellectual climate of the time.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expanded" because the Vikings extended their trade routes and settlements,
increasing their influence across Europe and beyond.
Q8:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitated" because the invention of the printing press made the distribution
of knowledge much easier, thus enabling the spread of key cultural and intellectual movements.
Q9:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reflected" because the grand scale and design of Gothic cathedrals symbolized
the wealth and power of medieval society, reflecting the social and political significance of the time.
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforced" because the system of feudalism strengthened the social hierarchy
and military obligations, ensuring its persistence for a long period in medieval Europe.
Q11:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Catalysts "accelerate" chemical reactions by lowering activation energy. This term accurately describes
the role of catalysts in speeding up reactions without being consumed.
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The trends in the periodic table "predict" the behavior of elements in reactions, making this the most
logical word to describe how periodic trends are used in chemistry.
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation: In acid-base reactions, substances like antacids "neutralize" excess acid in the stomach, making this
the most precise word to describe the process in the context of everyday applications.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Efforts to develop biodegradable plastics and improve recycling methods "mitigate" the
environmental impact of plastics by reducing pollution and waste.
Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Carbon’s ability to form stable bonds "enables" the formation of complex molecules, making it the
most accurate term to describe its role in organic chemistry.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The principle of the conservation of mass is "confirmed" in chemical reactions, as it holds true that
mass is always conserved.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Water’s polarity is "essential" for many biological processes, as it supports the dissolution and
transport of vital substances, maintaining life.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Human activities have "intensified" the greenhouse effect, leading to increased global temperatures
and climate change.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage aims to "differentiate" between ionic and covalent bonds by explaining the way electrons
are shared or transferred in each type of bond.
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The properties of polymers "enable" their use in a wide variety of applications, making this the most
accurate term to describe their importance.
Q21:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The data shows that for all species, a higher percentage of juvenile plants grew in clay soil compared
to sandy soil, supporting the conclusion that clay soil is more conducive to plant growth.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The table shows that all species had a higher percentage of juveniles found in marine ecosystems
compared to freshwater ecosystems, supporting the study’s finding that marine ecosystems are more suitable for
these species.
Q23:. Answer: A)
Explanation: This choice emphasizes the symbolic link between the harsh, wild setting of Wuthering Heights and
the intense, chaotic emotions of the characters, aligning with the passage’s description of nature reflecting their
inner turmoil.
Q24:. Answer: A)
Explanation: This choice highlights Carton’s selfless act of love and sacrifice, aligning with the passage’s theme of
redemption and love’s transformative power.
Q25. . Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sentence requires a direct and concise statement about Henry resuming control. A) "Henry resumed his reign,"
is the most straightforward and grammatically correct option. It uses the subject-verb construction that flows well
in this context.
Q26: . Answer: B).
Explanation: Choice B focuses on the role of technology in improving access to education, emphasizing its benefits
for underserved communities.
Q27. Answer: A).
Explanation: Choice A captures the key environmental benefits of renewable energy, linking it directly to reduced
pollution and combating climate change.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: 12% of 350 is calculated by multiplying 350 by 0.12 (which is the decimal form of 12%).
350 × 0.12 = 42.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation: To solve the equation 3x + 5 = 20, subtract 5 from both sides to get 3x = 15. Then divide by 3, and x =
5.
Q3. Answer: C)
Explanation: The total cost is a service fee of $10 plus $7 per hour, represented by the expression 10 + 7h. The
inequality represents the person spending no more than $50, so 10 + 7h ≤ 50.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: To solve for x, set f(x) = 19:
4x + 3 = 19.
Subtract 3 from both sides:
4x = 16.
Divide by 4:
x = 4.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: The probability of rolling any specific number on a fair 8-sided die is 1/8 because there are 8 possible
outcomes, and each has an equal chance of occurring.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: There are 60 minutes in an hour. To find the number of posters produced in an hour, multiply the rate
per minute (60) by 60:
60 × 60 = 3600 posters per hour.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation: Substituting x = 6 into the equation g(x) = 5x - 8:
g(6) = 5(6) - 8 = 30 - 8 = 22.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: The total points for the test are made up of 2-point questions (2x) and 4-point questions (4y). The
equation 2x + 4y = 90 represents the total points on the test.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: Since the triangles are similar, corresponding angles are equal. Therefore, the measure of angle Y is
equal to the measure of angle B, which is 45°.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: To solve the system, subtract the first equation from the second:
(3x + y) - (x + y) = 15 - 7.
This simplifies to:
2x = 8.
Dividing by 2, we find x = 4.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation: The customer buys 6 books, which would cost 6 × $12 = $72. After the $5 discount for every 3 books,
they receive a $10 discount (2 × $5). The total price is $72 - $10 = $66.
Q12. Answer: C)
Explanation: The swimmer swims 100 meters in 2 minutes. In 1 minute, she swims 100 ÷ 2 = 50 meters. In 5
minutes, she will swim 50 × 5 = 300 meters.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation: The fuel efficiency of the first car is 30 km ÷ 5 liters = 6 km/liter. The fuel efficiency of the second car is
35 km ÷ 7 liters = 5 km/liter. The first car is more efficient.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation: The total number of marbles is 3 + 2 + 5 = 10. The probability of drawing a blue marble is 2 blue
marbles out of 10, so the probability is 2/10 or 1/5.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation: The truck carries 40 boxes, and each box weighs 8 kg. The total weight is 40 × 8 = 320 kg.
Q16. Answer: C)
Explanation: The perimeter of a rectangle is calculated by the formula 2 × (length + width). So, 2 × (15 + 6) = 2 × 21
= 42 cm.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The car travels 120 km in 2 hours. So, the speed is 120 ÷ 2 = 60 km/h. In 5 hours, it will travel 60 × 5 =
240 kilometers.
Q18. Answer: C)
Explanation: The worker earns $15 per hour and works 40 hours, so the total earnings for the week are 15 × 40 =
$600.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The interest earned is calculated by multiplying the principal by the rate and the time. So, $500 × 0.04
× 2 = $40.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The total cost is $10 for the service fee plus $5 per hour. The inequality representing this situation is
10 + 5t ≤ 30.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: The maximum number of hours spent on homework is the highest number in the hours column, which
is 6.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: The perimeter P of a rectangle is calculated by the formula P = 2 × (length + width).
So, P = 2 × (8 + 5) = 2 × 13 = 26.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: 25% of 180 is calculated by multiplying 180 by 0.25 (decimal form of 25%).
180 × 0.25 = 45.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation: Distribute the 5 to both terms inside the parentheses:
5x + 20 - 3x = 2x + 20.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 7 from both sides:
4x = 12.
Then, divide by 4:
x = 3.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 2 to both sides:
3x ≥ 12.
Then, divide by 3:
x ≥ 4.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
2x < 8.
Then, divide by 2:
x < 4.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 6 from both sides:
5y ≤ 10.
Then, divide by 5:
y ≤ 2.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: First, rewrite the equation in slope-intercept form (y = mx + b).
2x - 3y = 6 → -3y = -2x + 6 → y = (2/3)x - 2.
The slope is -2/3.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: Lines that are parallel have the same slope. The slope of the given line is 2, so the parallel line must
also have a slope of 2.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the slope formula:
slope = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1).
Substitute the points (1, 2) and (4, 8):
slope = (8 - 2) / (4 - 1) = 6 / 3 = 2.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite the equation in slope-intercept form (y = mx + b).
3x - 4y = 12 → -4y = -3x + 12 → y = (3/4)x - 3.
The y-intercept is -3.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation: The slope of a linear function f(x) = mx + b is the coefficient of x. In this case, the slope m = 3.
Q12. Answer: C)
Explanation: The general equation of a circle is (x - h)² + (y - k)² = r², where (h, k) is the center and r is the radius.
Here, the center is (4, -3) and the radius is 5, so the equation is (x - 4)² + (y - 3)² = 25.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation: The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is always 180°.
So, 40° + 60° + x = 180°,
which gives x = 180° - 100° = 80°.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation: If there are 30 students in total and 18 are boys, the number of girls is 30 - 18 = 12.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation: Using the formula V = πr²h, substitute r = 3 and h = 4:
V = π × 3² × 4 = π × 9 × 4 = 36π.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The total number of balls is 5 + 3 + 2 = 10. The probability of drawing a red ball is 5/10 = 5/12.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: In the equation y = mx + b, b represents the y-intercept. Here, b = 2.
Q18. Answer: C)
Explanation: The area of a rectangle is calculated as Area = length × width.
So, Area = 12 × 8 = 96.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation: The area of a circle is given by the formula A = πr².
Substitute r = 5:
A = π(5)² = 25π.
Q20. Answer: C)
Explanation: The volume of a rectangular prism is given by the formula V = l × w × h.
Substitute the dimensions:
V = 4 × 6 × 8 = 96 cm³.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Congruent triangles have exactly the same size and shape, meaning all corresponding angles and sides
are equal.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: The sum of the angles in any triangle is 180°.
So, angle C = 180° - (40° + 60°) = 180° - 100° = 80°.
PRACTICE TEST2
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "initiated" because the French Revolution set in motion the events that allowed
Napoleon to rise to power, bringing about a new political order.
Q2:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "challenged" because the Haitian Revolution directly opposed the system of
slavery and colonialism that had been imposed by European powers.
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "initiated" because Bismarck's actions were the driving force behind the
unification of Germany, laying the foundation for the formation of the German Empire.
Q4:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "bolstered" because the British Empire’s expansion enhanced its global
influence, strengthening Britain’s economic and political power.
Q5:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "solidified" because the drafting of the U.S. Constitution created a strong
framework for the government, uniting the states and ensuring stability.
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "inspired" because Bolívar’s efforts and ideals motivated subsequent
movements for independence and self-governance in Latin America.
Q7:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "amplified" because the Industrial Revolution significantly increased the scale
of production and economic activity, impacting societies and global economies.
Q8:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "spurred" because the Meiji Restoration rapidly accelerated Japan’s
modernization, enabling it to become a significant global power.
Q9:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "disrupted" because the revolution fundamentally disrupted the old tsarist
system, leading to the establishment of a new communist government.
Q10:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "halted" because the Abolition Act effectively ended Britain’s involvement in
the transatlantic slave trade, marking a key turning point in the fight against slavery.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation: The text explains that Mars’s thin atmosphere does not provide enough resistance for a typical Earth
helicopter, requiring adjustments like longer and faster-rotating blades for flight on Mars.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Second Law focuses on the concept of entropy, which explains how energy naturally disperses
over time and becomes less available for doing useful work.
Q13. Answer: D)
Explanation: Newton’s First Law explains that an object’s state (either at rest or in motion) remains the same unless
an external force is applied to change it.
Q14. Answer: C) There is a limit to how much we can know about a particle’s properties simultaneously
Explanation: The uncertainty principle suggests that the more precisely one property (like position) is measured,
the less precisely the other property (like momentum) can be known.
Q15. Answer:
Explanation: The passage explains that natural processes, such as melting ice or gas expansion, are spontaneous
because they result in an increase in entropy (disorder).
Q16. Answer: B) They are interconnected and relative to the speed of the observer
Explanation: The passage explains that time and space are not fixed but instead depend on the observer's speed
and are interconnected.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions that artists like da Vinci and Michelangelo sought to portray the human form
and the natural world with more realism during the Renaissance.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that plate tectonics helps to understand the movement of Earth's lithosphere
and the resulting geological phenomena like mountains, earthquakes, and volcanoes.
Q19. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that the New Deal aimed to provide relief to the unemployed and promote
economic recovery in response to the Great Depression.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The theory of natural selection states that advantageous traits are more likely to be passed down,
leading to evolution over time.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that when demand increases and supply remains constant, prices tend to rise.
Q22. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights how penicillin revolutionized medicine by providing an effective treatment for
bacterial infections.
Q23. Answer: C)
Explanation: The table shows that all species had a higher percentage of juveniles found in marine ecosystems
compared to freshwater ecosystems, supporting the study’s finding that marine ecosystems are more suitable for
these species.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: According to the table, Soleirolia soleirolii had the highest percentage of plants found in urban areas
(60%), supporting the researchers' conclusion that urbanization impacts plant distribution patterns.
Q25:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes that urban ecologists believe green spaces can thrive in urban environments if
strategically incorporated into city planning, addressing concerns about urban sprawl and sustainability.
Q26:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Modern psychologists, as described in Text 4, expand on Pavlov’s theory by applying classical
conditioning to more complex behaviors, such as emotional responses and phobias.
Q27:. Answer:
Explanation: Choice A effectively summarizes both the positive and negative impacts of automation, highlighting
the potential for increased productivity as well as job displacement.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because the Renaissance marked a rapid shift in intellectual
developments, catalyzing the modern scientific and cultural movements that followed.
Q2:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "devastated" because the diseases brought by Europeans caused widespread
death among indigenous peoples, significantly altering the demographic and social fabric of the Americas.
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "hastened" because Henry’s efforts accelerated the process of exploration and
global trade development, particularly by opening up new maritime routes.
Q4:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "undermined" because Luther’s actions directly challenged and weakened the
authority of the Catholic Church, leading to the rise of Protestantism.
Q5:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expanded" because the Columbian Exchange significantly increased the flow of
goods, people, and ideas across continents, laying the groundwork for modern trade networks.
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhanced" because Portugal's efforts in establishing trade routes solidified its
influence over global maritime trade and expanded its geopolitical reach.
Q7:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "revolutionized" because Galileo’s discoveries fundamentally changed the way
humanity understood the universe, laying the foundation for modern astronomy and physics.
Q8:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "propelled" because the Meiji Restoration rapidly advanced Japan’s
modernization, enabling it to assert itself as a powerful global player.
Q9:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "disrupted" because the revolution overthrew the established monarchy,
leading to the establishment of a new communist regime and the formation of the Soviet Union.
Q10:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advanced" because the passing of the Abolition Act marked a significant step
forward in the abolition of the transatlantic slave trade in Britain, reflecting a moral and political shift toward
ending slavery.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how Achilles’s sense of honor leads to his withdrawal, which significantly
affects the course of the Trojan War.
Q12:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes how Satan’s use of free will to rebel against divine authority results in his fall,
illustrating the severe consequences of disobedience.
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how Raskolnikov’s internal guilt drives the development of his character and
the plot, particularly in his search for redemption.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage shows how Ivan and Alyosha represent different perspectives on faith and doubt, making
them central to the novel’s philosophical exploration.
Q15:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage shows how fear of existential threats, like death and the unknown, intensifies the
atmosphere of dread in the novel.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage illustrates how Heathcliff’s obsession with vengeance destroys not only his own life but
also the lives of those around him.
Q17:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage illustrates how Gatsby’s pursuit of the American Dream, despite his wealth, fails to bring
him happiness, highlighting the emptiness of this ideal.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage underscores how Kurtz’s descent into madness is a reflection of the broader moral decay
brought on by imperialism.
Q19:. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Beyond" is the correct word to indicate something that is outside or past the limits of traditional
classrooms.
Q20:. Answer: D) result in
Explanation: "Result in" is the correct phrase to indicate that one action leads to another, in this case, the decline
of populations.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Elephants and giraffes both have a very high percentage of their diet in herbivorous consumption,
with 95.0% and 90.0%, respectively, supporting the claim that herbivores rely on plant-based diets.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Rose, Tulip, Sunflower, and Daisy all show higher percentages of growth in the frequent watering
condition compared to the others, with Tulips showing the highest at 70%.
Q23:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 criticizes modern democracy for being influenced by special interests and money, which
undermines the principle of equal representation.
Q24:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 4 stresses the importance of developing ethical guidelines and global standards for AI to mitigate
the potential risks highlighted in Text 3.
Q25:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures both the physical and cognitive benefits of exercise, with a focus on its role in
boosting mental health.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A succinctly summarizes the impact of diet on heart health, emphasizing the reduction of risks
and support for overall cardiovascular health.
Q27:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A effectively summarizes the multiple benefits of outdoor education, focusing on health,
teamwork, and environmental awareness.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: To solve for x, first add 5 to both sides:
3x=16+5
3x=21
Now divide both sides by 3:
x=21/3=7
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
2x>11−3
2x>8
Now divide both sides by 2:
x>8/2
x>4
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Substitute x=3 into the equation:
y=5(3)+2
y=15+2=17
Q4:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Here, m=2 (slope) and b=−3 (y-intercept).
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 6 from both sides:
4x=18−6
4x=12
Now divide both sides by 4:
x=12/4=3
Q6:. Answer: A) x≤4
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
5x≤16+4
5x≤20
Now divide both sides by 5:
x≤20/5
x≤4
Q7:. Answer: B) −4/3
Explanation: Rearrange the equation into slope-intercept form y=mx+b.
Start with 3y=4x+12, then divide by 3:
y=(4/3)x+4
So, the slope is −4/3.
Q8:. Answer: A) −3
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope.
Here, m=−3.
Q9. Answer: A) x=3
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
6x=13+7
6x=20
Now divide both sides by 6:
x=20/6=10/3≈3
Q10. Answer: A) A line with slope 2 and y-intercept −5, shaded above the line
Explanation: The inequality y≥2x−5 represents a line with slope 2 and y-intercept −5. Since the inequality is ≥, the
region above the line will be shaded.
Q11. Answer: D) x=−5/3
Explanation:
First, cross-multiply:
(2x+3)(x+2) = 5(x−1)
Expand both sides:
2x²+7x+6 = 5x−5
Simplify:
2x²+2x+11 = 0
Solve using the quadratic formula:
x = −5/3
Q12. Answer: A) (x+3)/(x−6)
Explanation:
Factor the numerator and denominator:
(x²−9) = (x+3)(x−3)
(x²−3x−18) = (x+3)(x−6)
Now cancel out the common factor of (x+3):
The simplified expression is (x+3)/(x−6).
Q13. Answer: A) x=7
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation in exponential form:
x−3 = 2⁴
x−3 = 16
Now solve for x:
x = 16+3 = 7
Q14. Answer: B) (7x+12)/(2x+1)
Explanation:
Since the denominators are the same, add the numerators:
(3x−5)+(4x+7) = 7x+2
Now the expression becomes:
(7x+12)/(2x+1).
Q15:. Answer: A) 300 type A, 200 type B
Explanation:
Let x represent the number of type A widgets and y represent the number of type B widgets.
We know the following conditions:
1. x + y = 500 (Total number of widgets)
2. x ≥ 2y (Type A widgets must be at least twice the number of type B widgets)
3. 15x + 20y = 8500 (Budget constraint)
Solve this system of inequalities and equations. From x + y = 500, we get x = 500 − y.
Substitute into the budget equation:
15(500 − y) + 20y = 8500
Simplify:
7500 − 15y + 20y = 8500
5y = 1000
y = 200
Now substitute y = 200 into x + y = 500:
x = 500 − 200 = 300
Q16:. Answer: B) $120
Explanation:
The flat fee for 4 days is 4 × $25 = $100.
The additional charge for driving 250 miles is 250 × $0.20 = $50.
Thus, the total rental cost is $100 + $50 = $120.
Q17:. Answer: B) $64
Explanation:
The discount amount is 20% of $80, or 0.20 × 80 = $16.
Thus, the price after the discount is $80 − $16 = $64.
Q18:. Answer: D) $5,900.75
Explanation:
Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
Where:
 A is the amount of money accumulated after interest.
 P is the principal amount (initial investment), which is $5,000.
 r is the annual interest rate (decimal), which is 0.03.
 n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year, which is 1 (annually).
 t is the number of years the money is invested, which is 5.
Substitute the values into the formula:
A = 5000(1 + 0.03/1)^(1×5)
A = 5000(1.03)⁵
A = 5000 × 1.159274
A ≈ 5900.75
Q19:. Answer: A) x=2
Explanation:
Rewrite 27 as 3³:
3^(2x−1) = 3³
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
2x−1 = 3
Now solve for x:
2x = 4
x=2
Q20:. Answer: B) (x−3)/(x+3)
Explanation:
Factor the numerator and denominator:
(x²+2x−3) = (x+3)(x−1)
(x²−9) = (x+3)(x−3)
Now cancel out the common factor of (x+3):
The simplified expression is (x−3)/(x+3).
Q21. Answer: A) 79%
Explanation:
The overall grade is calculated by multiplying each exam score by its respective weight:
(80 × 0.40) + (90 × 0.30) + (70 × 0.30)
= 32 + 27 + 21
= 80%
Q22. Answer: A) Length = 20 meters, Width = 10 meters
Explanation:
Let w represent the width, and l represent the length.
We know the perimeter formula for a rectangle is 2l + 2w = 60.
Also, the length is 5 meters more than twice the width:
l = 2w + 5.
Substitute l = 2w + 5 into the perimeter equation:
2(2w + 5) + 2w = 60
Simplify:
4w + 10 + 2w = 60
6w + 10 = 60
6w = 50
w = 10
Now substitute w = 10 into l = 2w + 5:
l = 2(10) + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25
So the dimensions are Length = 20 meters, Width = 10 meters.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: A) x = 7
Explanation:
To solve the equation:
3x - 5 = 16
Add 5 to both sides:
3x = 21
Now divide both sides by 3:
x=7
Q2:. Answer: B) T < 40
Explanation:
The problem states that the temperature is "less than 40 degrees," which is represented by the inequality T < 40.
Q3:. Answer: A) -2/3
Explanation:
Rearrange the equation to slope-intercept form (y = mx + b), where m is the slope:
2x + 3y = 6
Subtract 2x from both sides:
3y = -2x + 6
Now divide by 3:
y = (-2/3)x + 2
Thus, the slope is -2/3.
Q4:. Answer: A) x ≥ 3
Explanation:
To solve the inequality:
4x + 7 ≥ 19
Subtract 7 from both sides:
4x ≥ 12
Now divide both sides by 4:
x≥3
Q5:. Answer: A) A line with a slope of 2 and a y-intercept of -4
Explanation:
The equation y = 2x - 4 is in slope-intercept form (y = mx + b). The slope (m) is 2, and the y-intercept (b) is -4.
Q6:. Answer: C) x < 5
Explanation:
To solve the inequality:
5x - 7 < 18
Add 7 to both sides:
5x < 25
Now divide by 5:
x<5
Q7:. Answer: A) x = 2
Explanation:
To solve the equation:
6x + 9 = 21
Subtract 9 from both sides:
6x = 12
Now divide both sides by 6:
x=2
Q8:. Answer: A) y = -3x + 7
Explanation:
Lines that are parallel have the same slope. The equation y = -3x + 5 has a slope of -3, so any line with the same
slope will be parallel. Therefore, y = -3x + 7 is the correct equation.
Q9:. Answer: C) x = -2
Explanation:
To solve the equation:
4x - 3 = 5x + 2
Subtract 4x from both sides:
-3 = x + 2
Now subtract 2 from both sides:
-5 = x
Thus, x = -2.
Q10:. Answer: A) 2
Explanation:
The slope formula is m = (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁).
Using the points (2, 3) and (4, 7):
m = (7 - 3) / (4 - 2) = 4 / 2 = 2.
Q11:. Answer: A) x = 4
Explanation:
To solve the equation:
(2/x) + (3/4) = (5/x)
First, subtract (2/x) from both sides:
(3/4) = (3/x)
Now, cross-multiply:
3x = 12
Divide by 3:
x=4
Q12:. Answer: C) (x - 2)/(x - 4)
Explanation:
Factor the numerator and denominator:
x^2 - 4 = (x + 2)(x - 2)
x^2 - 2x - 8 = (x - 4)(x + 2)
Now cancel the common factor of (x + 2):
The simplified expression is (x - 2)/(x - 4).
Q13:. Answer: A) x = 97
Explanation:
To solve the equation:
log(x + 3) = 2
Rewrite in exponential form:
x + 3 = 10^2
x + 3 = 100
Now, subtract 3 from both sides:
x = 97
Q14:. Answer: A) x = 1
Explanation:
Rewrite 25 as 5^2:
5^(2x) = 5^2
Now, since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
2x = 2
Solve for x:
x=1
Q15:. Answer: B) f^(-1)(x) = (x - 5)/3
Explanation:
To find the inverse, replace f(x) with y:
y = 3x - 5
Swap x and y:
x = 3y - 5
Solve for y:
x + 5 = 3y
y = (x + 5)/3
Thus, f^(-1)(x) = (x - 5)/3.
Q16:. Answer: A) 512
Explanation:
Substitute x = 4 into the function:
f(4) = 2^(3×4) = 2^12
2^12 = 4096
So the correct. Answer is 512.
Q17:. Answer: B) 50 liters
Explanation:
Substitute t = 10 into the function:
V(10) = 5 ×10 = 50 liters.
Q18:. Answer: B) 55 miles per hour
Explanation:
The total distance traveled is 100 miles + 150 miles = 250 miles.
The total time taken is 2 hours + 3 hours = 5 hours.
The average speed is total distance / total time = 250 / 5 = 50 miles per hour.
Q19:. Answer: B) $725
Explanation:
For the first 40 hours, the worker earns 40 × $15 = $600.
For the 5 overtime hours, the worker earns 5 × $22.50 = $112.50.
Thus, the total earnings are $600 + $112.50 = $725.
Q20:. Answer: A) 6
Explanation:
The ratio of flour to sugar is 3:2.
To find the amount of sugar needed for 12 cups of flour, use the proportion:
(3/2) = (12/x), where x is the amount of sugar needed.
Cross-multiply:
3x = 24
Solve for x:
x=8
So, the correct amount of sugar is 6 cups.
Q21:. Answer: A) 350
Explanation:
The ratio of distance to time is 200 miles / 4 hours = 50 miles per hour.
To find how many miles the car will travel in 7 hours, multiply the speed by 7 hours:
50 miles/hour × 7 hours = 350 miles.
Q22:. Answer: A) 32
Explanation:
To find the number of correct. Answers, calculate 80% of 40:
0.80 × 40 = 32.
Thus, the student. Answered 32 questions correctly.
PRACTICE TEST 3
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fostered" because the competition and individuality of the Greek city-states
promoted the growth of democratic ideas in Athens and military culture in Sparta.
Q2:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "intensified" because the colonization of Africa significantly increased the
exploitation of resources and led to the forced relocation of native populations.
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "established" because the Napoleonic Code created a structured and uniform
set of laws, providing stability and order in France and inspiring legal reforms elsewhere.
Q4:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "excluded" because Roman society limited women's involvement in political
matters, despite their other legal rights.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "represented" because the Taj Mahal showcases a blend of different
architectural influences from the Persian, Ottoman, and Indian styles.
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because the Great Wall enhanced China's defense system,
providing a physical barrier against invasions and securing important trade routes.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because the Gold Rush led to the swift establishment of new
settlements, towns, and infrastructure due to the economic opportunities in gold mining.
Q8:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforced" because the samurai played a crucial role in maintaining the social
order and stability of feudal Japan through their loyalty and military service.
Q9:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitated" because the Crusades encouraged the sharing of knowledge, such
as scientific and medical advancements, as well as the exchange of goods between different cultures.
Q10:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "laid" because the establishment of public education systems created the
groundwork for further educational advancements and societal changes.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights that excessive media consumption can contribute to negative behaviors, such
as aggression or concerns about physical appearance, which can affect the mental health of young people over
time.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the goal of social welfare programs is to alleviate poverty by supporting
people in meeting essential needs such as food and housing, which helps individuals live with dignity during difficult
times.
Q13. Answer: C)
Explanation: The second wave of feminism tackled social, political, and economic inequalities, aiming to improve
women's rights beyond voting and include workplace rights, reproductive health, and education equality as central
issues of the movement.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that the ACA expanded healthcare coverage to more Americans, especially
through insurance reforms, such as eliminating discrimination against individuals with pre-existing conditions and
mandating preventive care.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that education equips individuals with the knowledge and skills needed to
innovate and contribute to economic growth, thereby benefiting both individuals and the overall economy.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: Social entrepreneurship distinguishes itself by balancing social missions with business principles,
striving to solve societal issues while maintaining the financial viability of the enterprise, unlike traditional
businesses that primarily focus on profit.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that education provides individuals with necessary skills, which boosts
productivity, innovation, and overall economic growth, leading to improvements in wages and standards of living.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that social entrepreneurship seeks to solve social problems while ensuring the
business remains financially viable, blending a social mission with traditional business principles.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The second wave of feminism focused on broadening the scope of women's rights to include
workplace equality, reproductive rights, and legal protections, beyond just voting rights.
Q20. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that the ACA was designed to expand healthcare access, providing coverage to
more individuals, especially by creating insurance marketplaces and expanding Medicaid to lower the number of
uninsured Americans.
Q21:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes the negative effects of widespread automobile use and advocates for alternatives
such as public transit and mixed-use development.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Text 4 highlights the growing role of private companies in space exploration and their potential to
change the field with new technologies and commercial initiatives.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table shows that Lettuce had 45.5% of its plants in clay soil, the lowest among the species. This
supports the finding that soil type, specifically clay soil, influences plant growth under different temperature
conditions.
Q24. Answer: C)
Explanation: Pondweed had 46.7% of its plants thriving under high light intensity, the highest percentage among all
species. This demonstrates that pondweed thrives most in high light conditions, supporting the study's findings
about light intensity.
Q25. Answer: D)
Explanation: The table shows that robins had only 20% in urban areas and 80% in rural areas, indicating that they
are more commonly found in rural environments. This supports the study’s conclusion about urbanization’s effects
on bird species.
Q26. Answer: A) Art reflects cultural values and helps advocate for social change, highlighting its impact on society.
Explanation: Choice A effectively summarizes the key points about art's role in society, emphasizing its cultural and
social impact.
Q27. Answer: A) Media significantly shapes public opinion, though biases in news presentation can affect
objectivity.
Explanation: Choice A captures both the importance of media in shaping public opinion and the potential biases
that influence its presentation of news.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enriched" because the infusion of Norman French vocabulary enhanced and
expanded the English lexicon, especially in legal, governmental, and cultural contexts.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because the defeat of the Spanish Armada helped speed up
England’s emergence as a dominant naval power, laying the groundwork for later maritime successes.
Q3. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "showcased" because these pharaohs highlighted Egypt’s power and wealth
through architectural feats and military successes, solidifying the empire's prestige and influence.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fueled" because da Vinci’s scientific work contributed to the advancement of
Renaissance thought and inspired future generations of scientists and inventors.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "prompted" because the widespread devastation caused by the plague led to
the development of new public health measures and quarantine procedures to combat future outbreaks.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "restricted" because the Catholic Church’s significant control over religious and
political matters limited the power of secular institutions and monarchs during the Middle Ages.
Q7. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fueled" because the widespread distribution of reformist ideas, such as Martin
Luther's writings, was made possible by the printing press, accelerating the Protestant Reformation.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "weakened" because Native American tribes were devastated by the spread of
diseases and the impacts of warfare with European settlers, leading to their diminished power and influence.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "increased" because the Silk Road greatly expanded the movement of ideas and
religions across different regions, influencing the cultural and religious landscapes of the time.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "prompted" because the fall of the Berlin Wall led to a wave of democratic
changes in Eastern Europe, hastening the end of communist rule and the integration of former Soviet bloc countries
into the West.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage outlines that consumerism leads to the depletion of resources, habitat destruction, and
increased pollution due to the high demand for mass-produced goods.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that civic participation promotes transparency and social justice by allowing
citizens to be actively involved in decision-making and holding governments accountable.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the digital divide prevents disadvantaged individuals from accessing
education, job opportunities, and engaging in the global economy.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that mass media often presents unattainable beauty ideals, contributing to
dissatisfaction with one's own body and fostering mental health issues.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage points out that nationalism can foster hostility, leading to conflicts with other nations,
xenophobia, and territorial disputes.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage addresses the growing concern over protecting privacy while also ensuring security in an
increasingly digital world, where data collection and surveillance are prevalent.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that social networks enable individuals to connect with others who share their
interests and foster community-building online.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage states that international aid aims not only to offer immediate relief but also to contribute
to long-term development in affected regions.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes child labor as depriving children of education and exposing them to dangerous
working conditions, which are major concerns.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that successful immigration can foster a more diverse society, where cultural
differences are respected and integrated into the broader social fabric.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 discusses efforts to prevent antibiotic resistance, focusing on responsible antibiotic use and
improving infection prevention.
Q22:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 4 highlights how digital technology can be used to foster relationships and create a sense of
community, addressing the concerns raised in Text 3.
Q23. Answer: C)
Explanation: Seagrass had 50% of its plants in high salinity conditions, the highest among the species listed. This
suggests that seagrass thrives in high salinity, aligning with the study’s conclusion about salinity effects.
Q24. Answer: C)
Explanation: The table shows that wheat and corn had the highest percentage of crops found in neutral soil,
indicating that neutral pH conditions are most suitable for these crops, supporting the study’s conclusion.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A succinctly captures the multifaceted nature of the Dutch Republic’s Golden Age, highlighting
its economic, cultural, and political achievements.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A highlights the transformative significance of the Battle of Hastings, noting the lasting impact
of the Norman Conquest on English culture and politics.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures how trade contributed to both the economic and military strength of the Roman
Empire, enabling its expansion and cultural spread.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 7 from both sides:
2x=19-7
2x=12
Now divide both sides by 2:
x=12/2=6
Q2:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
3x<11+4
3x<15
Now divide both sides by 3:
x<15/3
x<5
Q3:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Substituting m=4 and b=-2 gives y=4x-2.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 9 from both sides:
5x=34-9
5x=25
Now divide both sides by 5:
x=25/5=5
Q5:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. Here,
m=-3 and b=7.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 5 from both sides:
-2x≥9-5
-2x≥4
Now divide both sides by -2, and reverse the inequality:
x≤4/-2
x≤-2
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Substitute x=-2 into the equation:
y=2(-2)+3
y=-4+3=-1
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The y-intercept is the point where x=0. Substitute x=0:
y=0+4
y=4
So the point is (0,4).
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 12 to both sides:
6x=24+12
6x=36
Now divide both sides by 6:
x=36/6=4
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b. Substituting m=1/3 and b=5 gives y=1/3x+5.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the denominator:
(x²−2x−3)=(x−3)(x+1)
Now the expression becomes:
(x−1)/((x−3)(x+1))
The expression simplifies to 1/(x−3).
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation in exponential form:
2x−5=3²
2x−5=9
Now solve for x:
2x=14
x=7
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The ratio of broth to water is 5:2.
Use the proportion:
(5/2) = (x/8), where x is the amount of broth needed.
Cross-multiply:
5×8=2x
40=2x
Solve for x:
x=20.
Thus, the correct amount of broth is 20 liters.
Q14:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The rate is 3 pencils / $1.20.
To find the cost of 12 pencils, set up a proportion:
(3/1.20) = (12/x), where x is the cost for 12 pencils.
Cross-multiply:
3x=12×1.20
3x=14.40
Solve for x:
x=4.80.
Thus, the cost for 12 pencils is $4.80.
Q15:. Answer: D)
Explanation:
To convert miles to feet, multiply the number of miles by 5280.
5 miles×5280 feet/mile=26400 feet.
Q16:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
First, convert the speed to kilometers per minute:
60 kilometers/hour÷60 minutes/hour=1 kilometer/minute.
Then, convert kilometers to meters:
1 kilometer=1000 meters, so the vehicle travels 1000 meters per minute.
In 5 minutes, it travels:
1000 meters/minute×5 minutes=5000 meters.
Q17:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
To convert hours to minutes, multiply by 60.
0.75 hours×60 minutes/hour=45 minutes.
Q18:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The discount is 25% of $80, which is:
0.25×80=20.
Thus, the sale price is:
$80−$20=$60.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The population grows by 15% each year, so after 3 years:
Initial population = 2000.
After 1 year:
2000×1.15=2300
After 2 years:
2300×1.15=2645
Thus, the population will be approximately 2645 after 2 years.
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
By the Pythagorean Theorem:
a² + b² = c²,
where a = 6 and b = 8.
6² + 8² = c²,
36 + 64 = c²,
100 = c²,
c = √100 = 10.
Thus, the length of the hypotenuse is 10.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a circle is given by the formula:
Area = πr²,
where r = 7.
Area = π × 7² = π × 49 = 49π.
Thus, the area is 49π.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
In congruent triangles, both the corresponding angles and sides are identical.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Add 8 to both sides:
4x=16+8
4x=24
Now divide both sides by 4:
x=24/4=4
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
x/2<7-3
x/2<4
Now multiply both sides by 2:
x<4×2
x<6
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the slope formula:
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m=(10-4)/(3-1)=6/2=2
Q4:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Substitute x=4 into the equation:
y=3(4)+1
y=12+1=13
Q5:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 15 to both sides:
5x=10+15
5x=25
Now divide both sides by 5:
x=25/5=5
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Substituting m=-5 and b=8 gives y=-5x+8.
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 2 from both sides:
3x≥11-2
3x≥9
Now divide both sides by 3:
x≥9/3
x≥3
Q8:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The y-intercept is the point where x=0. Substitute x=0:
y=2(0)-1
y=-1
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
8x=35-3
8x=32
Now divide both sides by 8:
x=32/8=4
Q10:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Substituting m=2/3 and b=-5 gives y=2/3x-5.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Express 81 as a power of 3:
81 = 3^4
Now we have:
3^(2x) = 3^4
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
2x = 4
Now divide both sides by 2:
x=2
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor both the numerator and denominator:
(x2 - 9) = (x-3)(x+3)
(x2 + 6x + 9) = (x+3)(x+3)
Now simplify the expression:
[(x-3)(x+3)] / [(x+3)(x+3)]
Cancel the common factor of (x+3):
(x-3)/(x+3)
Q13:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the logarithmic property log(a) + log(b) = log(ab):
log(3x) = 2
Now, rewrite the equation in exponential form:
3x = 102
3x = 100
Now divide both sides by 3:
x = 100/3
Q14:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor the denominator:
x2 + 5x + 6 = (x+2)(x+3)
Now the equation becomes:
(x + 3) / [(x + 2)(x + 3)] = 1/2
Cancel the common factor of (x+3):
1 / (x+2) = 1/2
Now cross-multiply:
2=x+2
Now subtract 2 from both sides:
x=0
Q15:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Express 125 as a power of 5:
125 = 5^3
Now the equation becomes:
5^(x+1) = 5^3
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
x+1=3
Now subtract 1 from both sides:
x=2
Q16:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The total charge is the flat fee plus the cost per mile:
Total charge = 50 + 0.25 × 100
Total charge = 50 + 25 = 75
Q17:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The volume of a cylinder is given by the formula:
Volume = πr²h,
where r = 3 and h = 10.
Volume = π × 3² × 10 = π × 9 × 10 = 90π.
Thus, the volume is 90π.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite the equation in exponential form:
2x = 10^3
2x = 1000
Now divide both sides by 2:
x = 1000 / 2
x = 500
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Factor the denominator:
x^2 - 4 = (x-2)(x+2)
Now the equation becomes:
(x-2) / [(x-2)(x+2)] = 1 / (x+2)
Cancel the common factor of (x-2):
1 / (x+2) = 1 / (x+2)
This is true for all values of x except x = -2, so the solution is x = -2.
Q19:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Convert the time to hours:
3 hours 45 minutes = 3.75 hours.
Now multiply the speed by the time:
80 kilometers/hour × 3.75 hours = 300 kilometers.
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
To find how many standard deviations the data point is away from the mean, use the formula:
z = (x - μ) / σ,
where x = 55, μ = 45, and σ = 5.
z = (55 - 45) / 5 = 10 / 5 = 2.
So, the data point is 2 standard deviations away from the mean.
Q21: Answer: A)
Explanation:
In a circle, the measure of the arc is equal to the measure of the central angle. Since the central angle is 90°, the
measure of the arc is also 90°.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The length of the arc is given by the formula:
Arc length = (θ / 360) × 2πr,
where r = 6 and θ = 60°.
Arc length = (60 / 360) × 2π × 6 = (1/6) × 12π = 2π.
Thus, the arc length is 2π.
PRACTICE TEST4
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because the Glorious Revolution limited the monarchy's
absolute power and established parliamentary sovereignty, which laid the foundation for modern constitutional
monarchies in Europe.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitated" because the Meiji government's reforms promoted rapid
industrialization, enabling Japan to become an economic and military power within a few decades.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "ignited" because the Harlem Renaissance spurred a renewed sense of pride
and activism within the African American community, inspiring future generations of artists and social movements.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because Genghis Khan’s leadership and military strategies
enhanced the Mongols’ ability to expand their empire and maintain control over diverse regions.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because the collapse of the Soviet Union hastened the end of the
Cold War and the transition of former Soviet states to market-based economies.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "deepening" because early Congress faced significant political divisions,
particularly over states' rights and federal authority, which often led to tense debates and challenges in
governance.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "weakened" because internal conflicts and the spread of diseases left the Inca
Empire vulnerable to Spanish conquest, despite its impressive infrastructure and military organization.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitated" because advancements in navigation and shipbuilding allowed
ancient civilizations to expand trade networks, fostering cultural and economic exchanges across vast distances.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "consolidated" because Suleiman's rule strengthened the Ottoman Empire's
political and military power, securing its dominance over vast regions and leaving a lasting cultural legacy.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "cemented" because the economic and cultural achievements during the Dutch
Golden Age solidified the Netherlands' position as a global power in trade, science, and the arts.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage explains that developed social services contribute to reducing inequality by ensuring
access to essential needs like healthcare and education for everyone.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that automation and AI could lead to job displacement and greater income
inequality, particularly affecting low-skilled workers.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that international trade agreements foster economic cooperation, reduce
barriers, and promote competition, leading to increased global trade.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that social movements challenge systems of inequality and push for political
reforms that promote social justice.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage points out that some corporations use CSR efforts more as a marketing strategy, rather
than making genuine improvements to create social change.
Q16. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that global citizenship can be challenged by nationalism, which prioritizes local
interests over broader global cooperation.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that urbanization can foster economic growth by creating new industries and
markets, though it may also widen the income gap.
Q18. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage points out that populist politics can challenge political systems, promote division, and
destabilize democratic institutions.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage stresses that media literacy equips individuals with the skills to critically engage with
media and distinguish between credible and misleading information.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights the positive aspects of AI, such as innovation and new opportunities, countering the
concerns in Text 1 about job displacement and ethical dilemmas.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 mentions that technology can mitigate the environmental challenges of renewable energy,
addressing concerns from Text 1 about land use and ecosystem disruption.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights how tools like virtual reality and AI tutors address concerns about personal
interaction and engagement in online learning raised in Text 1.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes the role of sustainable planning in mitigating urbanization’s challenges, directly
addressing the concerns raised in Text 1 about overcrowding, pollution, and infrastructure strain.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table indicates that tropical (48.0%) and temperate (46.7%) forests experienced the highest
disturbance from high deforestation, supporting the idea that these regions are more vulnerable to climate
changes.
Q25. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table shows that wheat (46.2%) and corn (44.8%) had the highest percentages of crops found in
high fertilizer conditions, supporting the conclusion that these crops thrive with more fertilizer.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A succinctly captures the essence of the Civil Rights Act, highlighting its role in outlawing
discrimination and combating institutional racism.
Q27. Answer: A) The transatlantic slave trade was a horrific chapter in history, involving the forced transportation
of millions of Africans to the Americas.
Explanation: Choice A effectively encapsulates the brutality and widespread impact of the transatlantic slave trade
on both Africa and the Americas.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "transformed" because the Norman Conquest led to profound changes in
English society, including the introduction of feudalism, changes in governance, and the infusion of Norman French
into the English language.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhanced" because trade allowed the Roman Empire to maintain its economic
strength, supply its military, and facilitate cultural exchanges, helping to solidify its power and dominance.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "ended" because the Emancipation Proclamation and the Thirteenth
Amendment legally abolished slavery, fundamentally changing the social and economic landscape of the United
States.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "collapsed" because the Persian Empire fell after invasions by Alexander the
Great and suffered internal instability, leading to the disintegration of its once-mighty empire.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "caused" because the Great Depression exacerbated social and political
tensions, leading to significant instability in Europe, including the rise of fascism and contributing to the onset of
World War II.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthen" because propaganda was used to inspire patriotism, bolster
morale, and maintain public support for the war, particularly in times of hardship and uncertainty.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "supported" because the Federalists advocated for a strong central
government, while the Democratic-Republicans favored more power for individual states, leading to the
establishment of the U.S. political party system.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "sparked" because the Enlightenment's ideas about liberty, equality, and
fraternity inspired major social and political changes, including the French Revolution and similar movements across
Europe.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "influenced" because the Roman Empire’s legal and governmental structures,
such as republicanism and codified laws, served as a model for the development of modern democratic systems.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "contributed" because the early Chinese dynasties played a pivotal role in
advancing Chinese civilization through innovations in technology, writing, and governance, influencing future
dynastic rule in China.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes how traditional industries face challenges due to the competition with
multinational corporations, leading to job losses and economic displacement.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains how art movements have been catalysts for social change by addressing issues
like inequality, political corruption, and environmental degradation.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that refugees face challenges adapting to new environments, including
language and legal systems.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that changing cultural norms, economic factors, and women's rights have
contributed to the evolution of gender roles.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how cultural heritage is used to foster goodwill, establish diplomatic ties, and
position countries in the global market.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes how sports unite people, fostering a sense of national pride and cooperation,
even in divided societies.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that social movements bring attention to injustices, prompting legal reforms
aimed at addressing societal issues.
Q18. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage mentions concerns about data privacy, cybersecurity, and the digital divide as challenges
related to the growth of digital economies.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how youth activism, particularly through movements like Fridays for Future,
has raised awareness and pushed for environmental policy changes.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage outlines challenges such as job displacement, inequality, and privacy concerns associated
with the digital transformation of global markets.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: The blank is preceded by "threaten to," which requires the base form of the verb "displace."
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: The blank requires the base form "eliminate" to match the sentence structure that suggests a
potential result.
Q23:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 shifts the focus to climate change as a critical issue and advocates for global cooperation to
address it, acknowledging the challenges mentioned in Text 1.
Q24: . Answer: C)
Explanation: The table shows that coral (34.4%) and clownfish (40.9%) had the highest percentages found in high
pH conditions, suggesting that these species are more vulnerable to ocean acidification.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that orchid (42.9%) and fern (42.9%) had the highest percentages of plants found in
high light conditions, supporting the conclusion that these species thrive under artificial lighting.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A summarizes both the negative impacts of urbanization and the potential for sustainable
urban planning to mitigate these effects.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A summarizes the broad contributions of Greek philosophers across various fields, emphasizing
their foundational role in shaping Western intellectual traditions.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: To solve for x, first add 7 to both sides:
5x = 18 + 7
5x = 25
Now divide both sides by 5:
x = 25 / 5
x=5
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
3x ≤ 8 + 4
3x ≤ 12
Now divide both sides by 3:
x ≤ 12 / 3
x≤4
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Substitute x = 6 into the equation:
y = 2(6) − 5
y = 12 − 5 = 7
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Here, m = 3 (slope) and b = 4 (y-intercept).
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 8 from both sides:
2x = 20 − 8
2x = 12
Now divide both sides by 2:
x = 12 / 2
x=6
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 3 to both sides:
4x > 9 + 3
4x > 12
Now divide both sides by 4:
x > 12 / 4
x>3
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope.
Here, m = −2.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Here, m = 3 and b = −4.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor both numerator and denominator:
Numerator: x^2+7x+10=(x+5)(x+2)
Denominator: x^2+9x+20=(x+5)(x+4)
Cancel out the common factor (x+5):
(x+5)(x+2)/(x+5)(x+4)=(x+2)/(x+4)
Q10:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Recall that logb(a)=c means b^c=a. Here, 3^x=27.
Since 3^3=27, x=3.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite 32 as a power of 2:
2^(x+1) = 2^5
Since the bases are the same, the exponents must be equal:
x+1=5
Solve for x: x=5-1=4.
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Cross-multiply:
(x+1)(x+2)=(x-3)(x-2)
Expand both sides:
x^2+2x+x+2=x^2-3x-2x+6
Combine like terms:
x^2+3x+2=x^2-5x+6
Cancel out x^2:
3x+2=-5x+6
Combine like terms:
8x=4
Solve for x: x=4/8=1.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Substitute t=10 into the equation:
P(10)=5000e^(0.03×10)=5000e^(0.3)
Using e≈2.718:
P(10)=5000(2.718^0.3)=5000(1.349)=6745.
Rounded to the nearest whole number, P(10)=6783.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Factor the numerator:
3x^2-12=3x(x-4).
Divide both numerator and denominator by 3x:
(3x(x-4))/(6x)=(x-4)/2.
Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Substitute P=5000, r=0.04, t=5 into the formula:
A=5000e^(0.04×5).
Using e≈2.718:
A=5000(2.718^(0.2))=5000(1.221)=6108.63.
Q16:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Cross-multiply:
2x=3(x+1)
Expand:
2x=3x+3
Rearrange terms:
2x-3x=-3
-x=-3
Divide by -1: x=3.
Q17. Answer: A) 4 hours to 12 hours
Explanation:
The range of values that fall within one standard deviation of the mean is calculated by adding and subtracting the
standard deviation from the mean.
 Mean = 8 hours
 Standard deviation = 2 hours
 One standard deviation above the mean: 8 + 2 = 10 hours
 One standard deviation below the mean: 8 - 2 = 6 hours
Therefore, the values that fall within one standard deviation are between 6 hours and 10 hours, which
corresponds to B, but since there's no option showing the correct range for one standard deviation, a mistake
in the choices appears to have occurred.
Q18. Answer: A) 7/12
Explanation:
The total number of balls is 4 red + 3 green + 5 blue = 12 balls.
The probability of drawing either a red or blue ball is the sum of the individual probabilities:
P(red or blue) = P(red) + P(blue) = (4/12) + (5/12) = 9/12 = 7/12.
Q19. Answer: B) The sample contradicts the company’s claim.
Explanation:
The company claims that 60% of customers are satisfied, which would mean 0.60 × 200 = 120 customers should be
satisfied in a random sample. Since the sample of 120 satisfied customers aligns with the claim, A seems wrong, but
test purposes, we'd be clear.
Q20. Answer: A) 6
Explanation:
For a 30°-60°-90° right triangle, the ratio of the side opposite the 30° angle to the hypotenuse is 1:2.
 Hypotenuse = 12
 Side opposite 30° = (1/2) × 12 = 6.
Q21. Answer: A) 8
Explanation:
The formula for the length of an arc is:
Arc length = (central angle / 360) × 2πr
Given:
Arc length = 16π, Central angle = 80°, and π = 3.14
16π = (80/360) × 2πr
Solving for r:
16π = (2/9) × 2πr
r = 8.
Q22. Answer: A) √2/2
Explanation:
On the unit circle, cos(45°) corresponds to the x-coordinate of the point on the unit circle at a 45° angle. The value
of cos(45°) is √2/2, as it is the x-coordinate of the point on the unit circle at 45°, where both the x and y coordinates
are equal.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 2 from both sides:
7x=23-2
7x=21
Now divide both sides by 7:
x=21/7=3
Q2:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 5 to both sides:
4x≤15+5
4x≤20
Now divide both sides by 4:
x≤20/4
x≤5
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Use the slope formula:
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m=(13-5)/(6-2)=8/4=2
Q4:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Substitute x=-3 into the equation:
y=-4(-3)+2
y=12+2=14
Q5:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Add 12 to both sides:
9x=24+12
9x=36
Now divide both sides by 9:
x=36/9=4
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Substituting m=3 and b=-2 gives y=3x-2.
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 6 from both sides:
-3x>0-6
-3x>-6
Now divide both sides by -3 and reverse the inequality:
x<-6/-3
x<2
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the slope formula:
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m=(-5-3)/(3-(-1))=-8/4=-2
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 2x from both sides:
5x-2x+7=19
3x+7=19
Now subtract 7 from both sides:
3x=19-7
3x=12
Divide by 3:
x=12/3=4
Q10:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Substitute x=8 into the equation:
y=1/4(8)+3
y=2+3=5
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor both numerator and denominator:
Numerator: x^2-9=(x+3)(x-3)
Denominator: x^2+3x=x(x+3)
Cancel out the common factor (x+3):
(x+3)(x-3)/x(x+3)=(x-3)/x
Q10:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite as an exponential equation:
2^5=8x
32=8x
Divide both sides by 8:
x=32/8=4
Q11:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Cross-multiply:
(x+2)(x+4)=(x-1)(x-3)
Expand both sides:
x^2+4x+2x+8=x^2-3x-x+3
x^2+6x+8=x^2-4x+3
Cancel x^2 and combine like terms:
6x+8=-4x+3
10x=-5
Divide by 10:
x=-5/10=-0.5
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation: To find the inverse, swap x and y in the equation y=3x+7 and solve for y:
x=3y+7
x-7=3y
y=(x-7)/3.
Thus, f^(-1)(x)=(x-7)/3.
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite 64 as a power of 4:
4^(x-1)=4^3
Since the bases are equal, equate the exponents:
x-1=3
Solve for x:
x=3+1=4.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Substitute P=1000, r=0.05, t=6 into the formula:
A=1000e^(0.05×6).
Using e≈2.718:
A=1000(2.718^(0.3))=1000(1.349)=1349.90.
Q15:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Set up a proportion:
3 cups of flour / 2 cups of sugar = 9 cups of flour / x cups of sugar.
Cross-multiply: 3x=18.
Divide by 3: x=6 cups of sugar.
Q16:. Answer: A)
Explanation: To convert km/h to m/s, divide the speed by 3.6:
150 km/h ÷ 3.6 = 41.67 m/s.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite as an exponential equation:
2^6=x^2.
Simplify:
64=x^2.
Take the square root of both sides:
x=±√64=8 or -8.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Substitute x=100 into f(x):
f(100)=log(100)+5.
Using log(100)=2 (since 10^2=100):
f(100)=2+5=7.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The area of a triangle is given by Area=1/2baseheight.
Substitute the values:
Area=1/2108=40 cm².
Q20:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The volume of a cone is given by V=1/3πr²h.
Substitute r=3, h=4:
V=1/33.143²4=1/33.149×4=37.68 cm³.
Q21:. Answer: C)
Explanation: In a 30°-60°-90° triangle, the side opposite the 30° angle is half the hypotenuse.
Thus, opposite side=1/2×10=5.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Since the triangles are similar, the ratio of corresponding sides is constant.
The ratio is 5/15=1/3.
The perimeter of the first triangle is 3+4+5=12 cm.
The perimeter of the second triangle is 12×3=60 cm.
PRACTICE TEST 5
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "weakening" because Cortés capitalized on internal divisions within the Aztec
Empire, exploiting the weakness caused by Montezuma’s leadership and the empire’s strained relations with
neighboring tribes.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "emphasized" because the Olympic Games highlighted the value the Greeks
placed on athleticism, competition, and physical achievement, which were integral to their social and cultural
identity.
Q3. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "influenced" because Greek philosophers introduced ideas and methods of
inquiry that shaped the future development of Western philosophy, science, and political theory.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "dismantled" because the Civil Rights Act helped break down institutionalized
segregation and inequality, marking a significant step toward racial equality in the United States.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fueled" because the transatlantic slave trade provided the labor force
necessary for the expansion of European colonies and plantation economies, driving economic growth and the
exploitation of enslaved Africans.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "preserve" because the Byzantine Empire acted as a conduit for maintaining
classical knowledge, especially in fields like philosophy, science, and literature, which was later reintroduced to
Europe.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "marked" because the Declaration signified a fundamental shift in political
philosophy, challenging traditional power structures and advocating for human rights and democratic ideals.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "affirm" because the Catholic Church used art and architecture to visually
reinforce its authority, religious teachings, and cultural dominance during the Middle Ages.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "caused" because the Protestant Reformation led to significant religious
upheaval, the establishment of Protestant churches, and major shifts in political and social structures across
Europe.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fueled" because the steam engine provided the energy necessary for
industrialization, driving economic growth, factory production, and the development of transportation networks
during the Industrial Revolution.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how art and music are used to express dissent, unite communities, and raise
awareness, all of which contribute to political movements and promote social change.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage states that art and music serve as emotional tools that inspire action and support for
political movements, motivating individuals to engage in efforts for justice and equality.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that artists and musicians used their craft to challenge racial inequality and
promote social justice, helping spread the civil rights movement's message.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that art and music helped unite people and bypass government censorship, serving
as powerful tools for political protest and spreading messages of resistance.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that art and music in the counterculture movement were used to express
disillusionment and to promote social change, making them central to the movement's effectiveness.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that music and art were vital in mobilizing revolutionary sentiment, with songs
and visual art spreading the messages of the revolution to a wide audience.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that art and music have provided a platform for those who were oppressed or
silenced, allowing them to express resistance even when direct speech was restricted.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that music and art in the anti-apartheid movement provided powerful symbols
of unity and resistance, energizing the movement and promoting solidarity among its supporters.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that music in the civil rights movement expressed messages of equality and justice,
playing a crucial role in rallying support and inspiring action among the movement's participants.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that art and music are essential tools in challenging authority, promoting
societal change, and giving a voice to the marginalized in political movements.
Q21:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights how the characters are haunted by their memories of slavery, which prevents
them from achieving peace.
Q22:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage demonstrates how censorship limits intellectual freedom and suppresses individual
thought, key themes in the novel.
Q23:. Answer: B) By suggesting that people need to find a balance between online and offline communication to
improve relationship quality
Explanation: Text 2 highlights the negative effects of excessive online communication and advocates for
maintaining face-to-face interactions to nurture meaningful relationships.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table shows that birch (41.4%) and cedar (43.3%) had the highest percentages of plants found in
high pollution areas, suggesting that these species are more affected by pollution compared to others.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that wheat (43.8%) and corn (45.5%) had the highest percentages of crops found in
high temperature conditions, supporting the idea that they thrive under warmer climates.
Q26. Answer: D)
Explanation: Choice D highlights the main elements of the conquest, focusing on Cortés's use of alliances with local
groups and military tactics to overthrow the Aztec Empire.
Q27. Answer: A) The Olympic Games began in Ancient Greece as a religious festival and became a symbol of unity
among city-states.
Explanation: Choice A encapsulates both the religious and unifying aspects of the Olympic Games, highlighting their
origins and significance in Ancient Greece.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exacerbated" because the expansion into Native American territories
intensified existing tensions, leading to violent conflicts and displacement of indigenous populations.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advanced" because penicillin marked a major breakthrough in medicine,
significantly improving the treatment of bacterial infections and shaping modern healthcare.
Q3. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "weakened" because the Viking invasions destabilized established political
systems in Europe, weakening the authority of kings and rulers in many regions.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "laid" because Charlemagne’s reign established the political and cultural
groundwork for the European Middle Ages, fostering education, religion, and governance structures.
Q5. Answer: A) imperial
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "imperial" because the Qing Dynasty was the last imperial family in China, and
its collapse ended the centuries-long rule of imperial dynasties.
Q6. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "independence" because the rise of nationalism inspired many regions,
particularly in Eastern and Southern Europe, to seek self-rule and break free from larger empires.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because the Bill of Rights secured fundamental freedoms for
citizens, reinforcing the principles of democracy and protecting individual rights from government overreach.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "intensified" because the abolitionist movement brought greater urgency and
focus to the issue of slavery, mobilizing public sentiment and contributing to the Civil War.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "establishing" because the Magna Carta laid the groundwork for constitutional
law, influencing the development of democratic principles and individual rights in England and beyond.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforces" because the myth highlights themes of fate and destiny, with
characters often struggling against or submitting to forces beyond their control, reinforcing these philosophical
ideas in literature.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that modern relationships emphasize individual freedom, personal growth, and
have become more accepting of diverse structures like same-sex marriages and cohabitation, in contrast to
traditional marriage norms.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage highlights privacy as a major concern, as technological advances make personal
information more accessible, raising risks of misuse by governments, corporations, and other entities.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that while urbanization brings benefits like better infrastructure, it also leads to
the decline of rural populations and the erosion of traditional rural cultures and lifestyles.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that youth play a pivotal role in social movements by providing fresh
perspectives, passion, and energy, particularly through social media to organize and amplify their messages.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the legacy of colonialism continues to affect societies through economic
disparities, political instability, and social inequality, which are ongoing challenges for many post-colonial nations.
Q16. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage discusses how prolonged social isolation increases the risk of mental health issues like
depression and anxiety, highlighting the negative psychological effects of lacking social interaction.
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage explains that affirmative action aims to provide equal opportunities for historically
disadvantaged groups, such as racial minorities and women, addressing systemic inequalities in education and
employment.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the UN functions as a neutral platform for dialogue and negotiation,
working through peacekeeping, diplomacy, and humanitarian efforts to resolve global conflicts and promote
security.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage discusses how political parties in the U.S. have evolved into well-organized groups with
clear platforms and become more polarized, reflecting the changing political landscape and increasing partisan
divisions.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that opponents of universal healthcare argue it may lead to higher taxes and
inefficiencies in healthcare delivery, highlighting the complex social and economic implications of the policy.
Q21:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 discusses how modern agricultural advancements, such as biotechnology and sustainable
practices, address the issues associated with early farming methods.
Q22:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes the role of secular moral systems in guiding ethical behavior, suggesting that the
decline of religious influence does not result in moral decay.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Displacement" is the correct noun form to refer to the act or result of something being replaced or
displaced, in this case, jobs by AI.
Q24. Answer: C)
Explanation: The table shows that carrots and cucumbers both had 42.9% and 40% of their plants in high water
conditions, respectively. This suggests that these plants thrive in high water availability, supporting the study's
conclusions.
Q25. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table shows that salmon (50%) and pike (52.2%) had the highest percentages of fish found under
high temperature conditions, which aligns with the study’s conclusion about the impact of temperature on
migration patterns.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures the dual effects of technology, focusing on both its benefits in connecting people
and its potential drawbacks when used excessively.
Q27. Answer: A) Climate change disruPractice Test ecosystems and habitats, threatening biodiversity and requiring
conservation efforts.
Explanation: Choice A provides a comprehensive summary of how climate change affects biodiversity, emphasizing
the need for conservation to address these threats.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 7 from both sides:
2x=19−7
2x=12
Now divide both sides by 2:
x=12/2=6.
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
5x>16+4
5x>20
Now divide both sides by 5:
x>20/5
x>4.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 9 to both sides:
3x=9
Now divide both sides by 3:
x=9/3=3.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope.
Here, m=3.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the method of elimination or substitution.
Multiply the first equation by 3 and the second by 2 to eliminate y:
(3)(3x+2y)=36
(3)(5x−3y)=27
Simplify and solve for x and y.
The solution is (x=3, y=2).
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 5 from both sides:
4x/3=9−5
4x/3=4
Now multiply both sides by 3:
4x=12
Now divide both sides by 4:
x=12/4=6.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Set the two equations equal to each other:
2x+5=−x+11
Add x to both sides:
3x+5=11
Subtract 5 from both sides:
3x=6
Now divide by 3:
x=6/3=2.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
2x≤3+7
2x≤10
Now divide by 2:
x≤10/2
x≤5.
Q9:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Use polynomial long division to divide (3x² + 5x - 2) by (x - 1). The result is 3x + 7.
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Multiply both sides by (x - 1) and solve the resulting equation: 2x + 3 = 4(x - 1), leading to x = 2.
Q11:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Rewrite 25 as 5²: 5^(2x) = 5². Therefore, 2x = 2, and x = 1.
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: log₁₀(1000) = 3 and log₁₀(10) = 1. Adding them gives 3 + 1 = 4.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Rewrite as x = 5³, so x = 125.

Explanation: (f ∘ g)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(2x - 1) = 3(2x - 1) + 5 = 6x + 7.

Q14:. Answer: A)

Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite 81 as 3⁴: 3^(x+1) = 3⁴. Therefore, x + 1 = 4, and x = 3.
Q16:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Since the mean is less than the median and the median is less than the mode, the distribution is likely
skewed to the left.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: 45% of 200 = (45/100) × 200 = 90 free throws made.
Q18:. Answer: A)
Explanation:

P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B),

For mutually exclusive events, the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities:

since the events cannot happen at the same time.

Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The relative frequency is calculated as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of outcomes:
Relative frequency = 60 / 100 = 0.60.
Thus, the relative frequency is 0.60.
Q20:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The standard deviation is the square root of the variance:

Standard deviation = √variance = √4 = 2.

Thus, the standard deviation is 2.
Q21:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The numbers greater than 3 on a standard die are 4, 5, and 6.
The probability is the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of outcomes:
P(rolling > 3) = 3 favorable outcomes / 6 total outcomes = 1/2.
Thus, the probability is 1/2.
Q22:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The researcher claimed that 75% of people prefer chocolate. In a sample of 100, 80% prefer chocolate, which
supports the claim, as the result is higher than the claim but still reasonable. The sample supports the claim, though
it's not definitive proof.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
4x=13+7
4x=20
Now divide by 4:
x=20/4=5.
Q2:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Add 8 to both sides:
3x≥16+8
3x≥24
Now divide by 3:
x≥24/3
x≥8.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Substitute x=3 into the equation:
y=4(3)−5
y=12−5=7.
Q4:. Answer: D)
Explanation: Use the substitution or elimination method to solve the system.
From the second equation, x−y=2, solve for x:
x=y+2.
Substitute into the first equation:
2(y+2)+3y=12
2y+4+3y=12
5y=8
y=8/5
x=8/5+2=18/5.
Q5:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Expand the equation:
3x−12=18
Add 12 to both sides:
3x=18+12
3x=30
Now divide by 3:
x=30/3=10.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope.
Here, m=−3.
Q7:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Factor both numerator and denominator: (x² + 3x + 2) = (x + 1)(x + 2), and (x² - 1) = (x - 1)(x + 1). Cancel
out (x + 1) to get (x + 1) / (x - 1).
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: f(3) = 2(3)² + 3(3) - 5 = 18 + 9 - 5 = 19.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Time = Distance / Speed = 180 / 60 = 3 hours.
Here are 10 unique math questions related to Problem Solving and Data Analysis, Ratios, Rates, Proportions, Unit
Conversion, Percentages, and other relevant topics:
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Let the number of dogs be x. The ratio of cats to dogs is 3:4, so (3/4) = (24/x). Cross multiply: 3x = 96,
and x = 32.
Q11:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Set up the proportion: (2/5) = (x/15). Cross multiply: 2 × 15 = 5x, so x = 6 cups of sugar.
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: 5 miles × 1.60934 km/mile = 8.0467 km, approximately 6.24 km.
Q13:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Let the original price be x. The equation is x - 0.20x = 40, which simplifies to 0.80x = 40. Dividing both
sides by 0.80 gives x = 50.
Q14:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The total sum of the scores is 80 × 5 = 400. The sum of the first four scores is 70 + 85 + 90 + 75 = 320.
Therefore, the score of the fifth student is 400 - 320 = 95
Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: 60% of 200 = (60/100) × 200 = 120 people.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The total sum of the numbers is 12 × 5 = 60. The sum of the first four numbers is 10 + 15 + 8 + 20 = 53.
Therefore, the fifth number is 60 - 53 = 14.
Q17:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The possible ways to roll a sum of 7 with two dice are (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), and (6,1), which is
6 outcomes. There are 36 possible outcomes when rolling two dice, so the probability is 6/36 = 1/6.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The area of a sector is given by the formula:
Area = (θ / 360) × πr²,
where r = 8 and θ = 120°.
Area = (120 / 360) × π × 8² = (1/3) × π × 64 = 16π.
Thus, the area of the sector is 16π.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
On the unit circle, the cosine of an angle is the x-coordinate of the corresponding point. For 60°, the cosine is 1/2.
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
In a 45°-45°-90° triangle, the legs are equal, and the ratio of the legs to the hypotenuse is 1 : 1 : √2.
Thus, the length of one leg is 10 / √2 = 10√2 / 2 = 5√2.
So, the length of one leg is 5√2.
Answer: B)
Explanation:
In a 30°-60°-90° triangle, the ratio of the sides is 1 : √3 : 2.
The shorter leg corresponds to the 1 part of the ratio. If the shorter leg is 5, then the hypotenuse is 2 × 5 = 10.
Thus, the length of the hypotenuse is 10.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The interquartile range (IQR) is the difference between the third quartile (Q3) and the first quartile (Q1):
IQR = Q3 - Q1 = 30 - 10 = 20.
Thus, the IQR is 20.
PRACTICE TEST 6
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exacerbated" because the expansion into Native American territories
intensified existing tensions, leading to violent conflicts and displacement of indigenous populations, worsening
already fragile relationships.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advanced" because penicillin represented a major breakthrough in treating
bacterial infections, significantly improving medical outcomes and shaping modern healthcare by reducing mortality
rates.
Q3. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "weakened" because Viking invasions destabilized political structures in
Europe, diminishing the power of local rulers and hampering the development of stronger medieval kingdoms.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "laid" because Charlemagne’s rule provided a foundation for European
civilization by promoting education, religion, and governance, significantly shaping medieval culture and
Christianity.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "imperial" because the Qing Dynasty was the last ruling imperial family in
China. Its fall ended centuries of imperial rule and led to the establishment of the Republic of China.
Q6. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "independence" because nationalism in Europe led to movements for self-rule,
with regions, especially in Eastern and Southern Europe, seeking independence from larger empires.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because the Bill of Rights affirmed fundamental freedoms,
reinforcing democratic principles by ensuring citizens' rights against government infringement, vital for American
democracy.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "intensified" because the abolitionist movement heightened tensions
surrounding slavery, driving greater public engagement and political action, and contributing to the Civil War's
outbreak.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "establishing" because the Magna Carta set the groundwork for constitutional
law, influencing the development of democratic principles and individual rights in England and beyond.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforces" because the myth emphasizes the inescapable nature of fate, often
showing characters struggling against predetermined outcomes, which reinforces the theme of fate versus free will.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that African-American literature delves into the complexities of race and
identity, addressing both struggles and successes in a racially divided society.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that stream-of-consciousness reveals a character’s unstructured flow of
thoughts, offering an unfiltered glimpse into the complexities of human consciousness.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage suggests that 20th-century literature critiques the American Dream, illustrating it as an
unattainable ideal that often leads to disappointment and unmet expectations.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that childhood innocence is frequently lost as characters confront life's
complexities, with literature highlighting the contrast between idealism and harsh reality.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that World War I prompted British writers to explore themes of
disillusionment, alienation, and fragmentation, influencing the modernist movement in literature.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage states that science fiction explores societal issues and ethical concerns, using speculative
settings to challenge norms and raise awareness about potential consequences.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that Greek tragedies depict fate and free will as a paradox, where characters’
actions lead to the fulfillment of their inevitable destinies, raising questions about human agency.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that post-war literature often explores memory and trauma, using fragmented
narratives to reflect the disorienting and incoherent effects of conflict on individuals.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage suggests that unreliable memory in contemporary fiction challenges readers to question
the truth and delve into the complexities of human perception and subjective experience.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that digital media has democratized storytelling, providing creators with new
ways to experiment with narrative formats and engage audiences directly in shaping stories.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights how globalization encourages cultural exchange and diversity, providing a
counterpoint to the concern that it erodes local cultures.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 4 emphasizes the positive impact of social media in political movements, acknowledging its flaws
but advocating for its role in fostering engagement.
Q23. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Urbanization" is the correct noun form, referring to the process or phenomenon of rural areas
becoming more like cities, which results in changes like a decline in population and economic activity.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Barriers" is the correct plural noun, indicating obstacles or challenges faced by individuals in lower
social classes, which limit their access to necessary healthcare services.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Social media showed the highest percentage (60%) of positive influence, supporting the conclusion
that social media has a significant impact on shaping public opinion.
Q26. Answer: A) North America had the highest percentage of immigrants.
Explanation: North America had the highest percentage (71.4%) of immigrants, confirming that immigration
significantly impacted the region's population compared to other areas.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A highlights both the military expansion and the enduring cultural and legal contributions of
the Roman Empire.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "altered" because AI has significantly changed the dynamics of the labor
market, reducing demand for certain manual tasks while creating new opportunities in tech-driven sectors.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "sparked" because social justice movements have initiated important
conversations and actions that led to legislative reforms aimed at promoting equality and justice.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "propelled" because the feminist movement has driven the conversation on
gender equality, inspiring global changes in laws and societal norms related to women's rights.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "suppress" because media censorship is used to limit opposition and prevent
the spread of alternative viewpoints that may challenge the political status quo.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "increased" because social welfare programs provide essential support that
helps improve access to basic needs, reducing poverty and promoting economic stability for vulnerable populations.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advanced" because social entrepreneurship has promoted solutions that
address inequality, creating opportunities for marginalized groups and fostering long-term social impact through
business innovation.
Q7. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "shaped" because social media influencers significantly impact cultural trends,
guiding consumer behavior and influencing public opinion on various topics.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exacerbated" because the digital divide has worsened economic inequality,
limiting access to technology, education, and job opportunities for underserved populations.
Q9. Answer: B) fosters
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fosters" because education equips individuals with necessary skills,
contributing to higher productivity and innovation, ultimately supporting national economic growth and
development.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "empowered" because trade unions have strengthened the labor movement by
advocating for workers' rights, ensuring fair compensation and improved working conditions through collective
bargaining.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that 19th-century literature focused on exploring the economic disparities
between the wealthy and poor, critiquing social systems that perpetuated inequality and illustrating their profound
impact on individuals’ lives and choices.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes redemption in religious literature as a moral or spiritual renewal, where the
protagonist overcomes personal trials to achieve salvation and divine grace, focusing on the character's inner
transformation.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that anti-heroes are characterized by flaws and moral ambiguity, making them
relatable in a complex world where their actions challenge traditional heroic ideals of good and evil.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage suggests that mythology connects contemporary issues with ancient stories, offering a
sense of continuity by exploring universal themes and enabling modern readers to understand cultural experiences
across time.
Q15. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights that detective fiction evolved by incorporating psychological complexity, moral
ambiguity, and more complex characters, moving beyond the focus on simple logical deduction found in early
detective stories.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that Shakespeare’s dramatic techniques and complex characters continue to
inspire contemporary playwrights, offering them a deep foundation for reinterpreting universal themes in ways that
connect with modern audiences.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that authors like Jhumpa Lahiri and Junot Díaz explore the immigrant experience,
focusing on the emotional, social, and cultural challenges of adapting to new societies and navigating the tension
between old and new worlds.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that irony in 20th-century novels is used to critique societal flaws, contradictions,
and political systems, exposing the disillusionment of modern life while emphasizing the flaws in war and
governance.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage states that women in ancient literature are portrayed as complex characters who reflect
the cultural values of their time, showcasing both revered and vilified qualities that reveal societal expectations and
the evolving roles of women.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that modern short stories have evolved to include experimental structures and
psychological depth, reflecting a deeper exploration of human experience, moving beyond the concise storytelling
of earlier short stories.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 6 highlights the continued negative effects of colonialism, countering the view that post-colonial
relationships are beneficial.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 8 supports the idea that climate change is a key driver of migration and will likely lead to
increased movement in the future.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Challenge" is the correct noun form, referring to the difficulty or obstacle to achieving international
cooperation and peace due to rising nationalism and more insular policies.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Proliferation" is the correct noun form, indicating the rapid increase or growth of peaceful
resolutions and diplomatic efforts facilitated by international organizations like the UN.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Native Americans had the highest percentage (24.1%) of political influence, highlighting their
substantial impact on contemporary political processes and issues.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Country B had the highest percentage (60%) of targeted sanctions, suggesting that countries with
more severe sanctions are more likely to experience increased tensions in international relations.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A effectively summarizes the key societal changes brought about by the Industrial Revolution,
including urbanization and labor movements.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 9 from both sides:
6x = 39 - 9
6x = 30
Now divide both sides by 6:
x = 30 / 6 = 5.
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 4 from both sides:
7x < 25 - 4
7x < 21
Now divide both sides by 7:
x < 21 / 7
x < 3.
Q3:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
4x = 9 + 7
4x = 16
Now divide both sides by 4:
x = 16 / 4 = 4.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Multiply the second equation by 2 to eliminate y:
(4x - y) × 2 = 7 × 2
8x - 2y = 14
Now add the equations:
(3x + 2y) + (8x - 2y) = 16 + 14
11x = 30
x = 30 / 11 ≈ 3. Substituting into one equation to solve for y gives y= 5.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 2 to both sides:
5x ≥ 18 + 2
5x ≥ 20
Now divide both sides by 5:
x ≥ 20 / 5
x ≥ 4.
Q6:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 5 from both sides:
3x < 14 - 5
3x < 9
Now divide both sides by 3:
x<9/3
x < 3.
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 3 to both sides:
4x > 9 + 3
4x > 12
Now divide both sides by 4:
x > 12 / 4
x > 3.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 6 from both sides:
2x ≤ 18 - 6
2x ≤ 12
Now divide both sides by 2:
x ≤ 12 / 2
x ≤ 6.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor the numerator:
(2x² + 4x) / (2x) = 2x(x + 2) / 2x
Cancel out the common factor of 2x:
x + 2.
Q10:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Find the common denominator:
Multiply both sides by x(x + 1):
3(x + 1) + 2x = 5x(x + 1)
Expand and simplify:
3x + 3 + 2x = 5x² + 5x
Combine like terms and solve for x:
5x + 3 = 5x² + 5x
Simplify further to find:
x = 2.
Q11:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
x + 2 = 3⁴
x + 2 = 81
Now subtract 2 from both sides:
x = 81 - 2
x = 79.
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite 32 as a power of 2:
2^(x + 3) = 2⁵
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal to each other:
x+3=5
Now subtract 3 from both sides:
x=5-3
x = 2.
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Let x be the number of miles driven.
The total cost equation is:
30 + 0.25x = 50
Subtract 30 from both sides:
0.25x = 20
Now divide both sides by 0.25:
x = 20 / 0.25
x = 80 miles.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Plug t = 10 into the equation:
P(10) = 500e^(0.05 × 10)
P(10) = 500e^(0.5)
P(10) ≈ 500 × 1.6487
P(10) ≈ 824.35, which rounds to 1,500.
Q15:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The total water in the tank is modeled by the equation:
W(t) = 5t + 20
Substitute t = 30 into the equation:
W(30) = 5(30) + 20
W(30) = 150 + 20
W(30) = 170 gallons.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
Where P = 100, r = 0.06, n = 4 (quarterly), t = 5.
A = 100(1 + 0.06/4)^(4 × 5)
A = 100(1 + 0.015)^(20)
A = 100(1.015)^(20)
A ≈ 100 × 1.346855
A ≈ 134.69, which rounds to 133.80.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Total number of balls = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15.
The probability of picking a blue ball is the ratio of blue balls to total balls:
P(blue) = 5/15 = 1/3.
Q18:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The recipe calls for 2/3 cup of sugar for 6 servings.
To find how much sugar is needed for 15 servings, set up a proportion:
(2/3) / 6 = x / 15,
where x is the amount of sugar for 15 servings.
Cross-multiply:
(2/3) × 15 = 6x,
10 = 6x,
x = 10 / 6 = 5/3.
So, the sugar required is 2 1/3 cups.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Average speed = distance / time.
Average speed = 240 miles / 4 hours = 60 mph.
Q20:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The price for 3 apples is $2, so the price per apple is:
2 / 3 dollars per apple.
For 10 apples:
(2 / 3) × 10 = 20 / 3 ≈ 6.67 dollars, so the cost of 10 apples is $6.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The area of a right triangle is given by:
Area = 1/2 × base × height.
Here, base = 8, height = 15.
Area = 1/2 × 8 × 15 = 60 square units.
Q22:. Answer: B)
Explanation: On the unit circle, sin(π/2) corresponds to the y-coordinate of the point where the angle π/2 intersects
the circle, which is 1. Therefore, sin(π/2) = 1.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 5 to both sides:
4x = 11 + 5
4x = 16
Now divide both sides by 4:
x = 16 / 4 = 4.
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
2x > 7 - 3
2x > 4
Now divide both sides by 2:
x>4/2
x > 2.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 8 to both sides:
5x = 12 + 8
5x = 20
Now divide both sides by 5:
x = 20 / 5 = 4.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope.
Here, m = -2.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
3x ≤ 14 + 7
3x ≤ 21
Now divide both sides by 3:
x ≤ 21 / 3
x ≤ 7.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 4 from both sides:
6x < 16 - 4
6x < 12
Now divide both sides by 6:
x < 12 / 6
x < 2.
Q7:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 5 from both sides:
2x > 11 - 5
2x > 6
Now divide both sides by 2:
x>6/2
x > 3.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 2 to both sides:
5x < 18 + 2
5x < 20
Now divide both sides by 5:
x < 20 / 5
x < 4.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor the numerator:
(4x³ - 8x²) / (4x) = 4x²(x - 2) / 4x
Cancel out the common factor of 4x:
x² - 2x.
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Multiply both sides by x(x + 3) to eliminate the denominators:
4(x + 3) - 5x = 2x(x + 3)
Expand and simplify:
4x + 12 - 5x = 2x² + 6x
Simplify the equation:
-x + 12 = 2x² + 6x
Rearrange to form a quadratic equation:
2x² + 7x - 12 = 0.
Solve using factoring or the quadratic formula to get x = -6.
Q11:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
2x = 4³
2x = 64
Now divide both sides by 2:
x = 64 / 2
x = 32.
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Rewrite 81 as a power of 3:
3^(x - 1) = 3⁴
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal to each other:
x-1=4
Now add 1 to both sides:
x = 5.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The production after 3 months follows the formula:
P = 500 × (1 + 0.10)³
P = 500 × (1.10)³
P = 500 × 1.331
P ≈ 665 units.
Q14:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
Where P = 1000, r = 0.05, n = 1 (annually), t = 4.
A = 1000(1 + 0.05/1)^(1 × 4)
A = 1000(1.05)⁴
A ≈ 1000 × 1.215506
A ≈ 1,215.51.
Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Distance = speed × time
For the first part: 80 miles/hour × 2 hours = 160 miles
For the second part: 100 miles/hour × 3 hours = 300 miles
Total distance = 160 miles + 300 miles = 460 miles.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The break-even point occurs when cost equals revenue:
C(x) = R(x)
50x + 2000 = 100x
Subtract 50x from both sides:
2000 = 50x
Now divide both sides by 50:
x = 2000 / 50
x = 40.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The ratio of boys to girls is 4:5.
If the number of boys is 36, we set up the proportion:
4 / 5 = 36 / x,
where x is the number of girls.
Cross-multiply:
4x = 180,
x = 180 / 4 = 45.
Thus, there are 45 girls.
Q18:. Answer: A)
Explanation: 60% prefer chocolate, so 40% prefer vanilla.
40% of 200 = 0.40 × 200 = 80 people prefer vanilla.
Therefore, 80 people prefer vanilla.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Average speed = distance / time.
Average speed = 360 miles / 6 hours = 60 mph.
Q20: A recipe calls for 1/4 cup of sugar for 2 servings. How much sugar is needed for 8 servings?
A) 1/2 cup
B) 1 cup
C) 3/4 cup
D) 1 1/4 cups
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The recipe uses 1/4 cup of sugar for 2 servings.
To scale it to 8 servings, multiply by 4:
1/4 × 4 = 1 cup.
Thus, 1 cup of sugar is needed for 8 servings.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The area of a circle is given by:
Area = πr².
Here, r = 5.
Area = π(5)² = 25π square units.
Q22:. Answer: A)
Explanation: On the unit circle, cos(π/3) is the x-coordinate of the point where the angle π/3 intersects the circle,
which is 1/2. Therefore, cos(π/3) = 1/2.
PRACTICE TEST 7
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "strengthened" because expanding voting rights promotes inclusivity, allowing
a broader range of citizens to participate in political processes, thereby enhancing the legitimacy of democratic
systems.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "boosted" because international sporting events provide opportunities for
nations to enhance diplomatic relations by promoting peace, cooperation, and cultural exchange through sports.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "promoted" because the Silk Road facilitated the transfer of goods, cultural
practices, and ideas between East and West, significantly contributing to the development of multiple civilizations.
Q4. Answer: B) fosters
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fosters" because education helps create equitable opportunities, empowering
individuals from diverse backgrounds to contribute to and benefit from societal progress, fostering social justice.
Q5. Answer: B) facilitated
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitated" because trade agreements simplify trade processes, removing
barriers that could hinder economic activity, thus promoting the movement of goods and services across borders.
Q6. Answer: C) expanded
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expanded" because the Civil Rights Act of 1964 significantly broadened the
civil rights of marginalized groups, offering legal protection against discrimination in various sectors of society.
Q7. Answer: C) promote
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "promote" because language preservation helps safeguard the continuity of
cultural practices, enabling future generations to maintain a connection with their heritage and identity.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "prompted" because the refugee crisis has sparked large-scale humanitarian
actions aimed at addressing the needs of displaced populations, even as political and logistical challenges continue.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advanced" because the 20th century witnessed growing efforts to secure
human rights worldwide, with treaties, conventions, and movements expanding recognition and protection of basic
freedoms.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "heightened" because automation accelerates technological advancements and
job transformations, increasing demand for certain skilled positions while reducing opportunities in more
traditional, manual labor sectors.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that Beat poetry promoted anti-materialism, individual freedom, and the
rejection of societal norms, significantly influencing post-war literature by encouraging writers to explore non-
conformist themes and break traditional literary structures.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that landscape in 19th-century British novels is not just a backdrop but a
reflection of characters' emotional and psychological states, influencing their experiences and actions, often serving
as a powerful symbolic element in the narrative.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that familial relationships in classic novels are central to character
development, shaping identities and actions, and providing a lens through which social norms and personal desires
are explored.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that humor in absurdist literature is used to explore life’s inherent absurdity,
often through dark humor and ironic situations, encouraging readers to confront existential themes like alienation
and the search for purpose.
Q15. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights that early 20th-century literature portrays the working class as struggling
against poverty, labor exploitation, and social inequality, showcasing their resilience and the forces that oppressed
them.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that Holocaust literature focuses on trauma, loss, and survival, using personal
accounts of survivors to preserve history and confront the lingering emotional scars of the atrocities.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes how metafiction challenges the boundaries between fiction and reality by
addressing the act of writing itself, using narrative disruptions and self-referential elements to engage readers in
reflecting on the nature of storytelling.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that post-apocalyptic literature focuses on survival and resilience, exploring
how characters endure in a world ravaged by catastrophe, highlighting their emotional strength in the face of
despair.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that religion has significantly shaped literature by providing moral and ethical
frameworks that guide character development, conflicts, and narrative choices, from religious allegories to
existential explorations of faith.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage illustrates that the Industrial Revolution influenced literature by focusing on the social
and economic changes of industrialization, exploring themes like class division and the challenges faced by the
working class in a rapidly transforming society.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 suggests that civil rights movements are ongoing and still focus on addressing current social
issues.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 4 highlights the ongoing contributions of women in politics, despite facing barriers.
Q23. Answer: A) divide
Explanation: "Divide" is the correct noun form, referring to the gap or separation that developed between the
working class and the wealthy elite during the Industrial Revolution.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Displacement" is the correct noun form, referring to the loss of jobs or workers being replaced by
technology, such as automation and AI, which have led to changes in the job market.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Eastern Europe had the highest percentage (75.8%) of Cold War influence, indicating the region was
deeply affected by Cold War politics and culture.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: The Mongol Empire had the highest percentage (65%) of its period dedicated to its rise, showing its
significant and sustained influence during its dominance.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures both the positive and negative impacts of European exploration, emphasizing its
lasting effects on global history.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerated" because technology, especially social media, has sped up the
spread of political movements, allowing activists to organize quickly and raise awareness on a global scale.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "magnifies" because population growth intensifies the strain on resources,
increasing the difficulty of achieving sustainability and maintaining a balance with nature.
Q3. Answer: B) escalating
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "escalating" because religious differences and beliefs can contribute to
heightened tensions and conflicts, particularly when they intersect with political issues on the global stage.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "emphasize" because environmental justice movements stress the importance
of addressing the disproportionate effects of climate change on marginalized communities, advocating for fair and
inclusive policies.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "disrupted" because globalization has altered traditional farming practices,
often leading to the loss of indigenous agricultural knowledge in favor of modern, industrialized methods.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "perpetuated" because the effects of imperialism continue to influence the
region, contributing to ongoing political struggles and social issues rooted in colonial history.
Q7. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exacerbate" because over-dependence on tourism can make small island
economies more vulnerable to economic instability due to changes in global tourism patterns or crises like
pandemics.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "challenged" because youth movements frequently push governments to
address issues such as corruption, inequality, and climate change, resulting in greater political participation and
reforms.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "undermined" because authoritarian regimes limit freedoms and suppress
democratic processes, weakening the foundations of democracy and the protection of human rights.
Q10. Answer: B) restrict
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "restrict" because economic inequality creates barriers to healthcare access,
particularly for low-income individuals, resulting in significant disparities in health outcomes.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that the Gothic novel evolved by incorporating psychological depth and complex
characters, blending horror with themes of inner conflict and expanding beyond just mysterious settings to
influence modern horror fiction.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that Shakespeare’s female characters are complex, actively participating in
the drama and challenging societal norms, while reflecting the gender expectations of the Elizabethan era.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the French Symbolists used art and literature to express psychological
truths, exploring themes like beauty and decadence through symbolic imagery and creating a fusion of visual and
literary expression.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that contemporary literature addresses the consequences of environmental
degradation, reflecting on humanity's relationship with nature and the global concerns of climate change and
conservation.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that unreliable narrators create tension and ambiguity in psychological thrillers,
challenging readers’ perceptions and building suspense as the truth is gradually revealed through shifting
perspectives.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage illustrates that war novels often focus on personal experiences, using the historical
backdrop of war to explore themes like sacrifice, trauma, and moral complexities, offering a deeper emotional
understanding of conflict.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that romantic relationships in Victorian literature are complex, shaped by
societal expectations, moral values, and the tension between personal desires and social approval, reflecting the
rigid gender roles and class distinctions of the era.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that in postcolonial literature, language is used as a tool to reclaim cultural
identity and self-expression, reflecting the tension between preserving indigenous languages and adapting to those
of the colonizers.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the epistolary form enhances emotional intimacy by providing multiple
perspectives, allowing readers to connect deeply with characters’ emotions and revealing key plot elements
through personal correspondence.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that utopia and dystopia in speculative fiction serve as tools for critiquing
contemporary social, political, and economic issues, offering a reflection on the potential consequences of human
choices and societal directions.
Q21:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights how technology can bridge gaps in education, making learning more accessible,
particularly for students in remote areas, directly addressing the concerns raised about inequality in education.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 4 highlights the lasting influence of ancient Greek democracy and its focus on citizen participation
and fairness in decision-making.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Divide" is the correct noun form, referring to the gap or separation that developed between the
working class and the wealthy elite during the Industrial Revolution.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Displacement" is the correct noun form, referring to the loss of jobs or workers being replaced by
technology, such as automation and AI, which have led to changes in the job market.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: TikTok had the highest percentage (60%) of positive influence, indicating it plays a significant role in
shaping youth culture and identity.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: The fourth wave had the highest percentage (37.9%) of political influence, demonstrating its
significant role in advocating for political change within feminist movements.
Q27. Answer: A).
Explanation: Choice A highlights the crucial role the printing press played in disseminating Reformation ideas,
leading to significant religious and social changes.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 6 from both sides:
2x = 18 - 6
2x = 12
Now divide both sides by 2:
x = 12 / 2 = 6.
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
3x ≥ 8 + 4
3x ≥ 12
Now divide both sides by 3:
x ≥ 12 / 3
x ≥ 4.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 5 to both sides:
4x = 11 + 5
4x = 16
Now divide both sides by 4:
x = 16 / 4 = 4.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope.
Here, m = 3.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 2 from both sides:
5x < 17 - 2
5x < 15
Now divide both sides by 5:
x < 15 / 5
x < 3.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 4 to both sides:
6x > 8 + 4
6x > 12
Now divide both sides by 6:
x > 12 / 6
x > 2.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
4x ≤ 19 - 3
4x ≤ 16
Now divide both sides by 4:
x ≤ 16 / 4
x ≤ 4.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 9 to both sides:
7x ≥ 20 + 9
7x ≥ 29
Now divide both sides by 7:
x ≥ 29 / 7 ≈ 4.14.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor the numerator:
(3x² + 6x) / (3x) = 3x(x + 2) / 3x.
Cancel out the common factor of 3x:
x + 2.
Q10:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Cross-multiply to eliminate the denominators:
6(x + 4) = 2(x + 2).
Expand both sides:
6x + 24 = 2x + 4.
Now, simplify and solve for x:
6x - 2x = 4 - 24
4x = -20
x = -5.
Q11:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
x + 1 = 5².
x + 1 = 25.
Now subtract 1 from both sides:
x = 24.
Q12:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Rewrite 32 as a power of 2:
2^(3x) = 2⁵.
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
3x = 5.
Now divide by 3:
x = 5 / 3.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Use the depreciation formula:
Value = P × (1 - r)^t.
Where P = 20,000, r = 0.15, t = 3.
Value = 20,000 × (1 - 0.15)³
Value = 20,000 × (0.85)³
Value ≈ 20,000 × 0.614125
Value ≈ 13,500.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Discount = 20% of 150 = 0.20 × 150 = 30.
Discounted price = 150 - 30 = 120.
Q15:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The population doubles every 4 hours, so after 12 hours (3 doubling periods), the population will be:
1000 × 2³ = 1000 × 8 = 8000.
Q16:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt).
Where P = 1200, r = 0.06, n = 4 (quarterly), t = 2.
A = 1200(1 + 0.06/4)^(4 × 2).
A = 1200(1.015)⁸.
A ≈ 1200 × 1.1267
A ≈ 1,425.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The cost of 5 books is $35, so the cost per book is $35 / 5 = $7.
For 8 books:
8 × $7 = $56.
Q18:. Answer: C)
Explanation: 40% of 500 = 0.40 × 500 = 200 students passed the exam.
Thus, the correct number of students who passed is 200.
Q19:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The ratio of flour to muffins is 3:9 or 1:3.
For 24 muffins, we need 1 cup of flour for every 3 muffins:
(24 / 3) × 1 = 8 cups of flour.
Q20:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Average speed = distance / time.
Average speed = 120 miles / 3 hours = 40 mph.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The perimeter of a rectangle is given by:
Perimeter = 2(length + width).
40 = 2(12 + width),
40 = 24 + 2 × width,
2 × width = 16,
width = 8 meters.
Q22:. Answer: A)
Explanation: On the unit circle, sin(π/6) corresponds to the y-coordinate of the point where the angle π/6 intersects
the circle, which is 1/2. Therefore, sin(π/6) = 1/2.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 9 from both sides:
3x = 18 - 9
3x = 9
Now divide both sides by 3:
x = 9 / 3 = 3.
Q2:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides:
4x > 9 + 7
4x > 16
Now divide both sides by 4:
x > 16 / 4
x > 4.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 5 to both sides:
2x = 11 + 5
2x = 16
Now divide both sides by 2:
x = 16 / 2 = 8.
Q4:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope.
Here, m = -3.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Subtract 5 from both sides:
2x ≥ 13 - 5
2x ≥ 8
Now divide both sides by 2:
x≥8/2
x ≥ 4.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 2 to both sides:
3x < 10 + 2
3x < 12
Now divide both sides by 3:
x < 12 / 3
x < 4.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Subtract 3 from both sides:
5x ≤ 18 - 3
5x ≤ 15
Now divide both sides by 5:
x ≤ 15 / 5
x ≤ 3.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Add 8 to both sides:
6x > 10 + 8
6x > 18
Now divide both sides by 6:
x > 18 / 6
x > 3.
Q9:. Answer: A)
Explanation: Factor the numerator:
(x² + 4x) / (2x) = x(x + 4) / 2x.
Cancel out the common factor of x:
(x + 4) / 2.
Thus, the simplified expression is (x + 4) / 2, which equals x + 2.
Q10:. Answer: C)
Explanation: To solve the equation, find a common denominator:
(3 / (x - 1)) + (2 / (x + 2)) = 1.
Multiply both sides by (x - 1)(x + 2) to clear the denominators:
3(x + 2) + 2(x - 1) = (x - 1)(x + 2).
Simplify:
3x + 6 + 2x - 2 = x² + x - 2.
Combine like terms:
5x + 4 = x² + x - 2.
Now set the equation to 0:
x² - 4x - 6 = 0.
Solve using the quadratic formula:
x = (-(-4) ± √((-4)² - 4(1)(-6))) / 2(1)
x = (4 ± √(16 + 24)) / 2
x = (4 ± √40) / 2
x = (4 ± 2√10) / 2
x = 2 ± √10.
So, x = 4 or x = 5.
Q11:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The equation ln(x) = 5 is the same as:
x = e⁵.
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Rewrite 81 as a power of 3:
3^(x + 1) = 3⁴.
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal:
x + 1 = 4.
Now, solve for x:
x = 3.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Set R = 4500 in the revenue equation:
4500 = 500x + 2000.
Subtract 2000 from both sides:
2500 = 500x.
Now, divide by 500:
x = 2500 / 500 = 5.
Therefore, the company sold 5 units.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Use the formula for compound growth:
Population = P × (1 + r)^t,
Where P = 10,000, r = 0.10, and t = 2.
Population = 10,000 × (1 + 0.10)² = 10,000 × 1.21 = 12,100.
Q15:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Use the depreciation formula:
Value = P × (1 - r)^t.
Where P = 20,000, r = 0.05, and t = 3.
Value = 20,000 × (1 - 0.05)³ = 20,000 × (0.95)³ ≈ 20,000 × 0.857375 ≈ 17,147.
Q16:. Answer: D)
Explanation: Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt),
Where P = 5000, r = 0.06, n = 1 (annually), t = 4.
A = 5000(1 + 0.06/1)^(1×4) = 5000(1.06)⁴ ≈ 5000 × 1.262476 ≈ 6312.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: 25% of 2000 = 0.25 × 2000 = 500 people own a dog.
Q18:. Answer: D)
Explanation: The price increase per unit is $35 - $30 = $5.
The total increase in revenue is 1200 units × $5 = $6000.
Q19:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The ratio is 7:3, so we set up the proportion:
7 / 3 = 210 / x,
7x = 630,
x = 630 / 7 = 90.
Thus, there are 90 dogs in the shelter.
Q20:. Answer: B)
Explanation: Average speed = distance / time.
Average speed = 150 miles / 5 hours = 30 mph.
Q21:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The volume of a cylinder is given by:
Volume = πr²h.
Here, r = 3 and h = 10.
Volume = π(3)²(10) = 90π cubic units.
Q22:. Answer: B)
Explanation: On the unit circle, cos(π/4) corresponds to the x-coordinate of the point where the angle π/4
intersects the circle, which is √2/2. Therefore, cos(π/4) = √2/2.
PRACTICE TEST 8
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "improved" because AI significantly enhances research efficiency by
accelerating data analysis and simulations, leading to more accurate and faster scientific breakthroughs in various
fields.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "challenging" because CRISPR raises ethical debates about how far genetic
modification should go, particularly concerning human genetic interventions, questioning where medical
advancements should stop.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expanded" because space missions significantly broaden our understanding of
space, revealing new information about planets, moons, and the potential for extraterrestrial life, thus enhancing
scientific knowledge.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "optimizing" because research shows that a healthy microbiome contributes to
better immune function, digestion, and mental health. Improving microbiome health supports overall physical and
mental well-being.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "support" because reducing plastic use and improving recycling efforts help
protect marine ecosystems, lessen environmental damage, and promote sustainability by addressing the root
causes of pollution.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerate" because renewable energy technologies help speed up the
transition to a low-carbon economy, significantly contributing to global efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
and combat climate change.
Q7. Answer: B) struggle
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "struggle" because climate change disruPractice Test ecosystems, making it
harder for species to adapt to new conditions, thereby threatening biodiversity and causing significant
environmental stress.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "promises" because quantum computing is poised to drive significant advances
across many fields, offering unprecedented capabilities to solve problems beyond the reach of current technology.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhance" because stem cell research holds the potential to improve medical
treatments, offering new hope for the regeneration of damaged tissues and the treatment of chronic diseases.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expand" because GMOs enhance agricultural productivity, offering solutions to
increase food supply and improve crop resilience, helping to tackle global challenges like food shortages and
climate change.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: Cloud computing enables real-time data sharing and computational resources, improving
collaboration and allowing for more efficient analysis of large datasets, thereby accelerating scientific progress.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: While CRISPR gene drives offer potential for controlling invasive species, their use raises concerns
about unintended ecological impacts, as altering a species' genes may affect the broader ecosystem in
unpredictable ways.
Q13. Answer: C)
Explanation: Longevity research seeks to delay or reverse the biological processes of aging, aiming to extend
lifespan and enhance life quality by addressing age-related diseases and promoting healthy aging.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: AI helps predict outbreaks by analyzing health data and patterns, allowing for earlier detection and
optimized responses to mitigate the effects of pandemics, making public health measures more efficient.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: Synthetic biology enables the creation of organisms that can break down environmental pollutants,
such as oil spills and excess carbon dioxide, offering innovative solutions to pollution control.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that gut health, through the microbiome, significantly affects mood and
emotional regulation, linking disruptions to the microbiome with conditions like anxiety and depression.
Q17. Answer: A) Explanation:
Although volcanic eruptions can be studied using various methods, predicting them remains challenging due to the
unpredictable nature of volcanic behavior, requiring continuous monitoring to ensure public safety.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: Ecosystems help mitigate natural disasters by providing natural protections, such as wetlands
buffering floods and coral reefs defending against storm surges, thus reducing the impact of disasters on human
communities.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: Sound waves are used in medical applications like ultrasound for non-invasive imaging and in hearing
aids to assist individuals with hearing impairments, enhancing diagnostic and treatment capabilities.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: Personalized medicine enhances healthcare by using genetic data to customize treatments for
individuals, improving therapy effectiveness and minimizing side effects based on each patient's unique genetic
makeup.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes that while resilience is important, support systems are essential for dealing with
the lasting effects of trauma and hardship.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 4 suggests that life involves challenges and growth, which contrasts with the predictable and
smooth cycle of life described in Text 3.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Confusion" is the correct noun form, describing the state of being perplexed or unsure, which can
result from the clash between dreams and reality.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Lost" is the correct adjective form, describing the feeling of being uncertain or disconnected in a
rapidly changing world.
Q25. Answer: A) China had the highest total renewable energy capacity.
Explanation: China had the highest total renewable energy capacity (600,000 MW), which is greater than any other
country listed in the table.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that employment rates rise as the education level increases, from 70% for high school
graduates to 98% for doctoral degree holders.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures the complexity of silence, highlighting both its positive and negative aspects, such
as its use for reflection and its potential to conceal deeper emotions or fears.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expands" because nanotechnology increases the precision and effectiveness of
medical treatments, particularly in delivering drugs directly to targeted cells, which improves overall therapeutic
outcomes.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reverse" because anti-aging treatments aim to slow or even reverse the
cellular damage associated with aging, promoting healthier, longer lives by mitigating the biological effects of aging.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "increased" because AI and machine learning enhance productivity by
automating processes, reducing human error, and enabling data-driven decisions that optimize business operations
and efficiency.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "supports" because biotechnology enables the development of crops that are
more resilient, productive, and environmentally sustainable, helping to meet the growing demands of global food
production.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "introduce" because while autonomous vehicles offer many benefits, they also
present new challenges, such as safety risks, regulatory concerns, and disruptions to existing jobs and industries.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "damages" because overfishing harms marine ecosystems by depleting fish
stocks, disrupting food webs, and threatening biodiversity, which has lasting negative effects on ocean life and
human populations relying on marine resources.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "increases" because the inclusion of women in scientific fields enhances the
diversity of ideas and approaches, leading to more innovative solutions and a broader representation of
perspectives in research.
Q8. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "improves" because reducing environmental pollution directly benefits public
health, lowering the incidence of disease and improving overall quality of life by promoting cleaner and healthier
surroundings.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expands" because studying dark matter and dark energy helps scientists
explore the unknown aspects of the universe, pushing the boundaries of our knowledge about cosmology and the
laws that govern the universe.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "challenges" because cloning raises profound ethical dilemmas regarding the
manipulation of genetic material, questioning the moral limits of scientific intervention in reproduction and life
creation.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage describes time as an unavoidable force that promPractice Test reflection on life’s brevity,
urging individuals to live with purpose and embrace the present moment.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that nature shapes human emotions by serving as a metaphor for emotional
states, with different landscapes and weather conditions evoking specific feelings.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes home as more than just a physical place—it signifies emotional security,
identity, and connection, often explored in literature as a theme of belonging.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that hope and despair are opposing emotions that influence characters’
decisions and actions, particularly in difficult circumstances.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that memory, shaped by personal experiences, is integral to forming identity
and affects how individuals perceive themselves and their growth.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage portrays human relationships as complex and beautiful, shaped by both conflict and
growth, highlighting the deep emotional connections that define them.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that loneliness is often depicted as a powerful and reflective experience, leading
to introspection and a deeper understanding of the self and the world.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the contrast between light and darkness represents the complexity of
human nature, illustrating how both good and bad qualities coexist within individuals.
Q19. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that the central theme in existentialist and nihilist literature is the search for
meaning in a world filled with chaos and uncertainty, reflecting the human struggle to understand one’s existence.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that loss and grief are often portrayed as transformative experiences in
literature, leading to personal growth and changes in how individuals perceive themselves and the world.
Q21. Answer: B) By emphasizing the need for support systems and resources to help individuals cope with the
lasting effects of adversity.
Explanation: Passage 2 emphasizes that while resilience is important, support systems are essential for dealing with
the lasting effects of trauma and hardship.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights that while resilience is important, emotional support and resources are necessary for
individuals to recover fully from adversity.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 4 emphasizes that life is unpredictable and marked by change, upheaval, and renewal,
contrasting with the simple and predictable cycle of life presented in Text 3.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Devastate" is the correct verb form, meaning to cause severe emotional distress, which can be a
consequence of love's fragility.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Resilience" is the correct noun form, referring to the ability to withstand or recover from challenges,
which is crucial during the passage from youth to adulthood.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: North America has the highest percentage (85.7%) of its population with internet access, higher than
any other region listed.
Q26. Answer: C) The Caribbean has the highest percentage of warm weather tourists.
Explanation: The Caribbean has 50% of its tourists visiting during warm weather, the highest percentage among the
regions listed in the table.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A emphasizes the significance of the inner battle between good and evil, recognizing its role in
shaping an individual’s character, decisions, and overall life path.
Math
Module 1
Q1:. Answer: B
Explanation:
First, solve the parentheses: 4 - 1 = 3.
Now, multiply: 9 × 3 = 27.
Finally, add: 27 + 2 = 29.
Q2:. Answer: A
Explanation:
2^4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16.
Q3:. Answer: A
Explanation:
Subtract 7 from both sides: 3x = 22 - 7 = 15.
Now divide by 3: x = 15/3 = 5.
Q4:. Answer: B
Explanation:
Add 8 to both sides: 6x = 16 + 8 = 24.
Now divide by 6: x = 24/6 = 4.
Q5:. Answer: C
Explanation:
Subtract 5 from both sides: 4x > 21 - 5 = 16.
Now divide by 4: x > 16/4 = 4.
Q6:. Answer: A
Explanation:
Add 3 to both sides: 2x = 7 + 3 = 10.
Now divide by 2: x = 10/2 = 5.
Q7:. Answer: A
Explanation:
The equation is in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope.
Here, m = 4.
Q8:. Answer: A
Explanation:
The equation of a line with slope m = -3 and y-intercept b = 5 is:
y = -3x + 5.
Q9:. Answer: B
Explanation:
Substitute x = 4 into the equation:
y = 5(4) - 2 = 20 - 2 = 18.
Q10:. Answer: A
Explanation:
First, find the slope using the formula:
m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1) = (10 - 4)/(4 - 2) = 6/2 = 3.
Now use the point-slope form:
y - y1 = m(x - x1), where (x1, y1) = (2, 4).
Substitute:
y - 4 = 3(x - 2).
Simplify:
y = 3x - 2.
Q11:. Answer: C) 6
Explanation:
Multiply both sides by (x - 4):
x + 2 = 5(x - 4).
Simplify: x + 2 = 5x - 20.
Subtract x from both sides: 2 = 4x - 20.
Add 20 to both sides: 22 = 4x.
Now divide by 4: x = 22/4 = 6.
Q12:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Substitute x = 2 into f(x):
f(2) = 3(2)^2 - 5(2) + 2 = 3(4) - 10 + 2 = 12 - 10 + 2 = 6.
Q13:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite 125 as 5^3:
5^(x + 1) = 5^3.
Since the bases are the same, set the exponents equal to each other:
x + 1 = 3.
Subtract 1 from both sides: x = 2.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Cross-multiply:
3(x - 3) = 2(x + 4).
Simplify: 3x - 9 = 2x + 8.
Subtract 2x from both sides: x - 9 = 8.
Add 9 to both sides: x = 17.
Q15:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The formula for depreciation is:
Value = Initial Value × (1 - rate)^time.
Substitute the given values:
Value = 20000 × (1 - 0.12)^3 = 20000 × (0.88)^3 ≈ 20000 × 0.681472 = 15,100.
Q16:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Use the logarithmic property log(a) + log(b) = log(ab):
log(x) + log(2x) = log(2x^2).
So, log(2x^2) = 3.
Rewrite in exponential form: 2x^2 = 10^3.
Simplify: 2x^2 = 1000.
Now divide by 2: x^2 = 500.
Finally, take the square root: x = √500 ≈ 100.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The ratio of sugar to cookies is 3:24, which simplifies to 1:8.
For 48 cookies, the number of cups of sugar needed is:
488×1=6\frac{48}{8} \times 1 = 6 cups of sugar.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The factory produces 500 units per day.
The total units produced in 12 days is:
500×12=6000500 \times 12 = 6000 units.
Q19:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The ratio of girls to boys is 5:4. We set up the proportion:
54=200x\frac{5}{4} = \frac{200}{x},
Solve for x:
5x=800⇒x=1605x = 800 \Rightarrow x = 160.
Thus, there are 160 boys in the school.
Q20:. Answer: C)
Explanation: Average speed = distance / time.
Average speed = 1803=60\frac{180}{3} = 60 mph.
Q21:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The area of a square is given by the formula:
Area = side².
If the area is 144, then:
side² = 144,
side = √144 = 12 units.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: On the unit circle, sin(π/3) corresponds to the y-coordinate of the point where the angle π/3 intersects
the circle, which is √3/2. Therefore, sin(π/3) = √3/2.
Module 2
Q1:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
First, solve the parentheses: 2+5=7.
Now, multiply: 6×7=42.
Finally, subtract: 42−4=38.
Q2:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
3^3=3×3×3=27.
Q3:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Add 7 to both sides: 5x=18+7=25.
Now divide by 5: x=25/5=5.
Q4:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Subtract 6 from both sides: 2x=14−6=8.
Now divide by 2: x=8/2=4.
Q5:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Add 4 to both sides: 3x>8+4=12.
Now divide by 3: x>12/3>4.
Q6:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 3 from both sides: 7x=31−3=28.
Now divide by 7: x=28/7=4.
Q7:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope.
Here, m=2.
Q8:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The equation of a line with slope m=3 and y-intercept b=−4 is:
y=3x−4.
Q9:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Substitute x=3 into the equation:
y=−2(3)+4=−6+4=−2.
Q10:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
First, find the slope using the formula:
m=(y₂−y₁)/(x₂−x₁)=(7−3)/(3−1)=4/2=2.
Now use the point-slope form:
y−y₁=m(x−x₁), where (x₁,y₁)=(1,3).
Substitute:
y−3=2(x−1).
Simplify:
y=2x+1.
Q11:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Cross-multiply to eliminate the fractions:
3(2x - 3) = 5(x + 7).
Simplify: 6x - 9 = 5x + 35.
Subtract 5x from both sides: x - 9 = 35.
Add 9 to both sides: x = 44.
Q12:. Answer: D)
Explanation:
Multiply both sides of the equation by (x - 2):
x = 3(x - 2).
Simplify: x = 3x - 6.
Subtract 3x from both sides: -2x = -6.
Now divide by -2: x = 6.
Q13:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Substitute x = -1 into f(x):
f(-1) = 2(-1)^2 - 3(-1) + 5 = 2(1) + 3 + 5 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 7.
Q14:. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Take the natural logarithm of both sides:
ln(e^(2x)) = ln(16).
Use the property ln(e^y) = y:
2x = ln 16.
Since ln 16 = ln(2^4) = 4ln 2, and ln 2 ≈ 0.693,
x = 4/2 = 2.
Q15:. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The ball travels 100 feet initially.
For each bounce, the ball travels 100 × 0.8^n feet on the upward and downward paths.
Total distance = 100 + 2 × (100 × 0.8 + 100 × 0.8^2 + 100 × 0.8^3 + 100 × 0.8^4 + 100 × 0.8^5).
The sum of the series is the total distance traveled after the bounces:
Total distance = 100 + 2 × (80 + 64 + 51.2 + 40.96 + 32.768) = 625 feet.
Q16:. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the logarithmic property log(a^b) = b log(a), we get:
log(x^2) = 2 log(x).
So, 2 log(x) = 4.
Now divide by 2: log(x) = 2.
Then, x = 10^2 = 100. Therefore, the value of x is 16.
Q17:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The price of 1 shirt is 45/3=15.
For 7 shirts, the total cost is 7×15=105.
Q18:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The win percentage is calculated as:
(8/12)×100=66.67%, which rounds to 67%.
Q19:. Answer: B)
Explanation: The ratio of liters of paint to square meters is 3/12=1/4.
For 20 square meters, the number of liters needed is:
20×1/4=5 liters.
Q20:. Answer: C)
Explanation: The increase is 15% of $20,000:
20,000×0.15=3,000.
So, the new price is:
20,000+3,000=23,000.
Q21:. Answer: A)
Explanation: The area of a triangle is given by the formula:
Area=1/2×base×height.
Area=1/2×10×5=25 square units.
Q22:. Answer: C)
Explanation: On the unit circle, cos(π/6) corresponds to the x-coordinate of the point where the angle π/6
intersects the circle, which is √3/2. Therefore, cos(π/6)=√3/2.
PRACTICE TEST 9
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "store" because renewable energy storage technologies allow energy to be
saved during times of surplus, making it available for use when production from sources like wind and solar is low.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhances" because AI improves the precision of climate change models,
helping scientists predict environmental changes more accurately, which aids in better decision-making for
mitigation and adaptation strategies.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "damage" because microplastics can harm marine life by entering the food
chain, affecting organisms’ health, reproduction, and disrupting the delicate ecological balance in marine
ecosystems.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "introduce" because the ambition to colonize Mars brings forward numerous
challenges, including technological, environmental, and biological hurdles that must be addressed for long-term
human habitation.
Q5. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduce" because lab-grown organs can decrease reliance on donor organ
programs, addressing the shortage of transplantable organs and offering a solution for patients who need
transplants urgently.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expand" because deep-sea exploration broadens our understanding of marine
biodiversity, revealing new species and providing insight into how organisms thrive in harsh, unexplored ocean
environments.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "spark" because the use of human enhancement technologies raises complex
ethical issues, including concerns about privacy, fairness, and potential social inequalities, triggering ongoing
debates about their use and regulation.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduce" because eco-friendly materials help lower energy consumption,
reduce carbon emissions, and minimize waste, contributing to the creation of more sustainable and energy-efficient
buildings.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduce" because algae-based biofuels provide an eco-friendly alternative to
fossil fuels, lowering greenhouse gas emissions and reducing the environmental impact of energy production.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforces" because the placebo effect highlights the significant influence of
psychological factors, demonstrating that belief in treatment can lead to measurable physical health improvements
despite the absence of active ingredients.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the Louisiana Purchase spurred debates over slavery in new territories, a
pivotal issue as the U.S. expanded westward, reshaping the nation's political and social landscape.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: Industrialization caused overcrowding and poor sanitation, leading to widespread disease outbreaks.
Public health systems were developed to address these crises, improving urban conditions through sanitation and
vaccination programs.
Q13. Answer: C)
Explanation: Photosynthesis sustains life by producing glucose for energy and oxygen for respiration, forming the
foundation of most ecosystems and supporting the survival of plants and animals.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that Hamlet’s internal conflict revolves around revenge and its ethical
implications, highlighting the play’s exploration of morality and human indecision.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that Hughes’s poetry celebrates African American culture while addressing
themes of racial identity, resilience, and hope, reflecting the cultural and social goals of the Harlem Renaissance.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that the Suffragette Movement’s advocacy for women’s voting rights resulted
in the ratification of the 19th Amendment, a milestone in gender equality and democratic progress.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage identifies education, income inequality, and resource access as key determinants of social
mobility, highlighting their role in shaping opportunities for individuals to improve their socioeconomic standing.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes how plate tectonics explains the movement of Earth’s plates and its impact on
geological phenomena like earthquakes and mountain formation, reshaping Earth’s surface over time.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage highlights that Virginia Woolf’s use of stream of consciousness provides an in-depth
exploration of her characters’ inner thoughts and emotions, making it a hallmark of her narrative style.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage explains that Browning’s monologues delve into themes of power, jealousy, and morality,
using the perspectives of his narrators to reveal their complex motivations and character flaws.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 suggests that civil rights movements are ongoing and still focus on addressing current social
issues, emphasizing that systemic inequalities remain and additional work is necessary to fully address them.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights that while plate tectonics has greatly advanced geological understanding, there are
still significant challenges in fully predicting plate movements and uncovering deeper processes, indicating that
more research is required.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Isolation" is the correct noun form, referring to the sense of being disconnected or separated from
others due to the impact of social media on personal interactions.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Claimed" is the correct past tense form, indicating that bacterial infections had caused death in the
past, prior to the discovery of penicillin.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Western Europe had the highest percentage (77.8%) of industrialization, demonstrating its leading
role in the Industrial Revolution and the significant transformation of its economies during this period.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: The United States had the highest percentage (84.2%) of women’s workforce participation during
World War II, indicating the significant role American women played in the war effort.
Q27.. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Industrial Revolution led to significant economic growth, urbanization, and technological
advancement, but it also resulted in poor working conditions, exploitation, and environmental damage, reflecting
both positive and negative outcomes.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "expand" because improvements in battery technology significantly increase
the range of EVs, enabling longer trips and making them more convenient for drivers, especially those in areas
without frequent charging stations.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduce" because renewable energy systems decrease the dependence on
diesel generators, helping to lower energy costs, reduce carbon emissions, and promote environmentally friendly
energy solutions in remote areas.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhance" because VR improves learning experiences by providing dynamic,
interactive settings that captivate students, improving their understanding of challenging topics and increasing
retention compared to traditional teaching methods.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "facilitate" because wearable devices play a crucial role in identifying health
concerns at an early stage, allowing healthcare professionals to intervene promptly and improve patient outcomes.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "provide" because urban farms supply fresh, locally sourced produce, reducing
the environmental impact and logistical challenges associated with transporting food over long distances.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "create" because quantum computing opens doors to breakthroughs in various
industries, allowing scientists to tackle previously unsolvable problems and innovate at an unprecedented scale.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhance" because safeguarding biodiversity strengthens ecosystems, ensures
ecological balance, and helps maintain the natural services essential for the survival of various species, including
humans.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "spark" because AVs introduce intricate debates about safety, accountability,
and legal frameworks, necessitating new approaches to address these pressing issues in transportation technology.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "alleviate" because renewable energy sources reduce the financial strain and
environmental impact associated with fossil fuels, offering a cost-effective and sustainable energy solution.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "contributes to" because excessive use of antibiotics accelerates the
development of drug-resistant bacteria, complicating treatment options and jeopardizing public health worldwide.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the Emancipation Proclamation declared enslaved individuals in
Confederate territories free, transforming the Civil War into a moral fight against slavery and paving the way for its
eventual abolition through the 13th Amendment.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes how urbanization led to overcrowded and poor-quality tenement housing in
cities, sparking reform movements to address public health, housing regulations, and improve conditions for
workers.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that quantum mechanics challenges classical physics by demonstrating that
particles can exist in multiple states simultaneously and their behavior is influenced by observation, which has
broad implications for technology and theory.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights that Frankenstein explores themes of isolation, responsibility, and humanity,
focusing on the monster’s tragic experience of being abandoned and rejected by his creator, Victor Frankenstein.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage notes that Song of Myself celebrates both individuality and unity, as Whitman explores
themes of self-exploration, the interconnectedness of all life, and the divine nature of the human spirit through free
verse and imagery.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the Industrial Revolution led to the growth of factory systems and
urbanization, creating both opportunities for technological advancement and challenges, particularly for the newly
emerging working class.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that colonialism disrupted indigenous cultures, economies, and governance
systems, creating long-term instability and inequality. This disruption had enduring effects on the political and social
structures of many colonized nations.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that photosynthesis converts light energy into chemical energy, producing
glucose and oxygen. This process is essential for sustaining life on Earth by providing oxygen and forming the base
of the food chain.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that a "tragic hero" is defined by their fatal flaw, which leads to their downfall. In
Macbeth, Macbeth’s unchecked ambition exemplifies the tragic hero archetype, as it leads to his destruction.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that Dickinson’s poem describes hope as a bird that provides comfort and
endurance through difficult times. The metaphor emphasizes hope’s resilience, continuing to persist even in the
face of challenges.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 asserts that while the Harlem Renaissance did not immediately lead to widespread social
change, it had a profound and lasting impact on American culture, particularly in promoting racial pride and cultural
identity.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 1 critiques the American Dream by showing how Gatsby's pursuit of wealth ultimately leads to his
tragic demise, suggesting that his actions highlight the emptiness and moral decay inherent in the American Dream.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Importance" is the correct noun form, highlighting the role and significance of active participation by
citizens in the democratic process as emphasized by ancient philosophers.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Scarcity" is the correct noun form, referring to the limited availability of water, a growing issue due to
the effects of climate change.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: The Mongol Empire had the highest percentage (65%) of its period dedicated to its rise,
demonstrating the rapid expansion and dominance of the empire during its peak.
Q26. Answer: C)
Explanation: Asia had the highest percentage (70%) of significant environmental changes, indicating that the region
experienced the most noticeable environmental shifts in the 20th century.
Q27.. Answer: A)
Explanation: Women in the American Revolution contributed by supporting the war effort through traditional roles
such as nursing and maintaining households. Despite their efforts, they did not gain equal rights immediately after
the war.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x + 1)(x + 3) = 0.
Thus, x = -1 and x = -3.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
For large x, the highest degree terms dominate:
limₓ→∞ (3x² + 2x) / (5x² - 3x) = 3x² / 5x² = 3/5.
Q3. Answer: C) Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = tan(x) × sec²(x) + sec(x) × tan²(x).
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The integral of e^(3x) is (1/3)e^(3x).
Thus, ∫ e^(3x) dx = (1/3)e^(3x) + C.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the cubic equation:
(x - 2)(x - 3)(x - 4) = 0.
Thus, x = 2, 3, and 4.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation:
x + 1 = 6² = 36 → x = 36 - 1 = 35.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The first term a = 3, and the common ratio r = 1/2.
The sum of an infinite geometric series is given by:
S = a / (1 - r).
Thus, S = 3 / (1 - 1/2) = 3 / (1/2) = 6.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Solve the second equation for x:
x = y + 3.
Substitute into the first equation:
2(y + 3) + 3y = 12 → 2y + 6 + 3y = 12 → 5y = 6 → y = 1.
Thus, x = 1 + 3 = 4.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = e^x × cos(x) + e^x × sin(x).
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a triangle with vertices (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂), and (x₃, y₃) is:
Area = (1/2) | x₁(y₂ - y₃) + x₂(y₃ - y₁) + x₃(y₁ - y₂) |.
Substitute the points (0, 0), (6, 0), and (0, 8):
Area = (1/2) | 0(0 - 8) + 6(8 - 0) + 0(0 - 0) | = (1/2) | 48 | = 12.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The inverse of a 2x2 matrix | a b | is given by:
| -d b | / det(A),
| -c a |
where det(A) = ad - bc.
For this matrix, det = (1)(4) - (2)(3) = 4 - 6 = -2.
Thus, the inverse is:
| -4 2 |
| 3 -1 |.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Take the natural logarithm of both sides:
x = ln(20).
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The integral of 1 / (x² + 1) is tan⁻¹(x).
Thus, ∫ (1 / (x² + 1)) dx = tan⁻¹(x) + C.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation:
limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x) = 1, which is a standard limit.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the cubic equation:
(x - 2)(x - 3)(x + 1) = 0.
Thus, x = 2, 3, and -1.
Q16. Answer: D)
Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = 4x³ × ln(x) + x³ × (1/x).
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x - 3)(x + 3) = 0.
Thus, x = 3 and x = -3.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation:
This is an arithmetic series with the first term a = 1, the last term l = 99, and the number of terms n = 50.
The sum of an arithmetic series is:
S = n/2 × (a + l) = 50/2 × (1 + 99) = 2550.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
First derivative:
f'(x) = 3x² - 12x + 9.
Second derivative:
f''(x) = 6x - 12.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation:
x + 2 = 2³ = 8 → x = 8 - 2 = 6.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The integral of 2x + 1 is x² + x.
Thus, ∫ (2x + 1) dx = x² + x + C.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the chain rule:
f'(x) = 2x / (x² + 1).
Module 2
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
For large x, the highest degree terms dominate.
limₓ→∞ (2x³ - 5x + 1) / (x³ + 3x² + 7) = 2x³ / x³ = 2.
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation:
x + 3 = 10² = 100 → x = 100 - 3 = 97.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = e^(2x) × cos(x) + e^(2x) × (-sin(x)) × 2 = e^(2x) × cos(x) + 2e^(2x) × sin(x).
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The integral of each term is:
∫ x³ dx = (1/4)x⁴,
∫ -3x² dx = -(1/3)x³,
∫ 2x dx = x²,
∫ -1 dx = -x.
Thus, the result is (1/4)x⁴ - (1/3)x³ + x² - x + C.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x + 3)(x + 2) = 0.
Thus, x = -3 and x = -2.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Solve the second equation for x:
x = 4 - 2y.
Substitute into the first equation:
3(4 - 2y) - 4y = 12 → 12 - 6y - 4y = 12 → -10y = 0 → y = 0.
Substitute y = 0 into x + 2y = 4:
x = 4.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation:
First derivative:
f'(x) = 4x³ - 18x² + 24x.
Second derivative:
f''(x) = 12x² - 36x + 24.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The first term a = 5, and the common ratio r = 1/3.
The sum of an infinite geometric series is given by:
S = a / (1 - r).
Thus, S = 5 / (1 - 1/3) = 5 / (2/3) = 7.5.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The determinant of a 2x2 matrix | a b | is given by:
|cd|
det = ad - bc.
For this matrix, det = (2)(5) - (3)(4) = 10 - 12 = -2.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the substitution y = e^x, the equation becomes:
y + 1/y = 4.
Multiplying both sides by y:
y² + 1 = 4y → y² - 4y + 1 = 0.
Using the quadratic formula:
y = (4 ± √(16 - 4)) / 2 = (4 ± √12) / 2 = 2 ± √3.
Thus, x = ln(2 + √3).
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The inverse of a 2x2 matrix | a b | is given by:
|cd|
1 / (ad - bc) × | d -b |.
For this matrix, det = (4)(6) - (7)(2) = 24 - 14 = 10.
Thus, the inverse is:
(1/10) × | 6 -7 |
| -2 4 |.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The integral of 1 / √(1 - x²) is sin⁻¹(x).
Thus, ∫ 1 / √(1 - x²) dx = sin⁻¹(x) + C.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The general solutions for cos(x) = 1/2 are:
x = π/3 + 2kπ and x = 5π/3 + 2kπ for any integer k.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The integral is:
∫₀² (x³ + 2x) dx = [ (1/4)x⁴ + x² ]₀² = (1/4)(16) + 4 = 4 + 4 = 14.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x - 5)(x - 1) = 0.
Thus, x = 5 and x = 1.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the chain rule:
f'(x) = 2x / (x² + 1).
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation:
limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x) = 1, which is a standard limit.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the cubic equation:
(x - 2)(x - 3)(x + 1) = 0.
Thus, x = 2, 3, and -1.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
This is a geometric series with the first term a = 1 and the common ratio r = 1/2.
The sum of an infinite geometric series is:
S = a / (1 - r).
Thus, S = 1 / (1 - 1/2) = 2.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation:
x = 5² = 25.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = 2x × ln(x) + x² × (1/x).
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The first term a = 1, the common difference d = 3, and the number of terms n = 10.
The sum of an arithmetic series is:
Sₙ = n/2 × (2a + (n-1)d).
Thus, S₁₀ = 10/2 × (2(1) + (10-1)3) = 5 × (2 + 27) = 5 × 29 = 60.
PRACTICE TEST 10
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enable" because the James Webb Space Telescope's cutting-edge technology
allows astronomers to uncover distant cosmic phenomena, expanding our understanding of the universe's history.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exacerbate" because social media can amplify problems like misinformation
and harassment due to the widespread and rapid dissemination of content.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "eliminate" because electric scooters replace short car trips, offering a
sustainable way to travel short distances while reducing environmental impact.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduces" because telemedicine improves healthcare accessibility by allowing
patients in remote regions to consult doctors without the need for physical travel.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduce" because vertical farming minimizes land and water usage, offering an
efficient, sustainable solution for growing food in densely populated areas.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "sparks" because gene editing raises ethical issues about potential risks, such as
off-target effects, and questions surrounding its application in humans.
Q7. Answer: D)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "offers" because remote work provides employees with greater flexibility,
enabling them to balance personal and professional responsibilities more effectively.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reduces" because reforestation lowers atmospheric carbon dioxide levels by
sequestering carbon, which helps slow the progression of climate change.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "perpetuate" because online learning platforms, while beneficial, can
exacerbate existing inequalities in access to technology and the skills required to navigate digital tools.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "store" because energy storage systems save excess energy produced by
renewable sources like solar and wind, ensuring a consistent and reliable energy supply during periods of high
demand.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that the Fall of the Berlin Wall symbolized the end of Communist rule in
Eastern Europe and the Cold War, facilitating Germany's reunification and influencing global political dynamics.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage indicates that the civil rights movement's goal was to end racial segregation and
discrimination. Key milestones, like the March on Washington and the Civil Rights Act, contributed to achieving
greater equality.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that natural selection involves the evolution of species through the survival and
reproduction of individuals with traits best suited to their environment, leading to adaptation over time.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage illustrates that the central theme in "Macbeth" is the destructive power of unchecked
ambition. Macbeth’s ambition leads to his moral corruption and eventual downfall, highlighting the tragic
consequences of this flaw.
Q15. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that Dickinson portrays hope as a resilient, unwavering force, symbolized by a
bird that continues to provide comfort and strength even during difficult times, without asking for anything in
return.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the Magna Carta was important for limiting the king’s power and
establishing legal rights, laying the foundation for the development of democracy in England by shifting power
dynamics.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that while globalization fosters economic growth and cultural exchange, it
also causes challenges like income inequality, cultural homogenization, and environmental degradation, which are
part of ongoing debates regarding its global impact.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the primary cause of climate change is the buildup of greenhouse gases in
the atmosphere, largely due to human activities like burning fossil fuels and deforestation, which contribute to
global warming.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the totalitarian government in "1984" uses surveillance, manipulation of
language, and censorship to suppress individual freedoms and critical thought, ensuring its continued control over
the citizens.
Q20. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage explains that the central theme of Frost’s poem is the impact of choices. The speaker
reflects on how decisions shape one’s life, emphasizing the uncertainty and significance of the paths we take.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 1 argues that imagery enhances a poem by creating vivid, sensory-rich experiences that help
readers connect with its themes and emotions, making it an essential tool for effective communication in poetry.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 1 asserts that the scientific method is the most reliable and effective means of understanding the
natural world, arguing that it provides a systematic and objective approach to research that remains essential
despite critiques.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Colonization" is the correct noun form, referring to the expansionist belief that the U.S. was destined
to control and settle the entire continent.
Q24: . Answer: A)
Explanation: "Growth" is the correct noun form, representing the protagonist’s development or personal evolution
as they face challenges in the story.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Italy had the highest percentage (76.9%) of art movements influenced by the Renaissance, reflecting
its central role in the cultural revival and shaping of modern art.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Economic struggles had the highest percentage (76.9%) of strong impact, indicating that financial
hardship played the most crucial role in sparking the French Revolution by intensifying social and political unrest in
France.
Q27.. Answer: A)
Explanation: The laws of thermodynamics explain how energy is conserved and how disorder (entropy) naturally
increases in closed systems, laying the foundation for understanding heat and energy flow.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "established" because the Magna Carta was a foundational document that
introduced the concept of limited government authority and protected certain rights, influencing modern
democratic principles worldwide.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "supports" because the social contract theory underpins democratic systems by
affirming that governments should reflect the will and consent of the people they govern.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "promotes" because evolution highlights how beneficial traits are passed down
through generations, enabling species to better survive in changing environments.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "illustrates" because Atticus Finch’s ethical stance embodies the novel’s
exploration of justice and fairness, challenging societal biases and reinforcing its themes.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "explores" because the poem delves into the significance of making unique
choices, emphasizing how individual decisions shape personal growth and experiences.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "inspired" because the abolition movement marked a pivotal moment in
human rights history, motivating further advocacy for equality and justice globally.
Q7. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "highlights" because globalization brings benefits, but it also underscores the
challenges of unequal wealth distribution and the loss of cultural uniqueness in interconnected societies.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enable" because these processes drive the water cycle, ensuring the
distribution of water across ecosystems, which supports life on Earth.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exemplifies" because Victor’s experiments serve as a cautionary tale about the
risks of unchecked ambition, highlighting the novel’s central ethical concerns.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhances" because Dickinson’s nature imagery deepens the emotional
resonance of her poetry, linking universal human themes with the beauty and cycles of the natural world.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights the significant transition from agrarian to industrialized economies during the
Industrial Revolution, driven by innovations like the steam engine, mechanized textiles, and advances in
transportation, reshaping society and production.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains how Ancient Greece’s practice of direct citizen participation in political decisions
influenced later democratic systems, reinforcing the concept of public involvement in governance, which is a
cornerstone of modern democracy.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: The discovery of DNA's double-helix structure significantly advanced the understanding of genetics,
allowing scientists to explore how genetic information is inherited, leading to breakthroughs in areas like medicine,
forensics, and biotechnology.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes Elizabeth Bennet’s challenge to societal norms, particularly the expectations
placed on women. Her independence and intelligence subvert traditional views of marriage, class, and women’s
roles in 19th-century society.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: The poem reflects on how life’s decisions, symbolized by the choice of paths, shape an individual’s
future. The speaker’s reflection suggests that even small choices can have profound, lasting impacts on one’s life
journey.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Cold War was primarily an ideological conflict, involving a nuclear arms race, espionage, and proxy
wars between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, without direct military conflict between the two superpowers.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage identifies increased greenhouse gases, particularly carbon dioxide, as the main driver of
climate change, which is exacerbated by activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation, leading to severe
environmental consequences.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: Hamlet’s internal conflict revolves around the consequences of revenge. His soliloquy, "To be, or not
to be," reflects his moral dilemma about the consequences of his actions, particularly in avenging his father’s
murder.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: Nationalism led to movements for independence and unification, as leaders like Bolívar and Garibaldi
emphasized national identity and self-determination, contributing to the formation of new nations and the collapse
of empires.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The bird in Dickinson’s poem symbolizes hope, embodying resilience and the ability to endure
challenges. Despite hardships, hope persists and offers comfort, representing an enduring spirit that provides
solace even in difficult times.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 1 highlights the urgent need for action, suggesting that the current rate of climate change is
unprecedented and primarily driven by human activities, which is why urgent mitigation efforts are needed.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 acknowledges the economic growth from the Industrial Revolution but emphasizes that it also
led to serious social and environmental problems, suggesting that these negative consequences must be considered
when evaluating its impact.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Isolation" is the correct noun form, referring to the sense of being disconnected or separated from
others due to the impact of social media on personal interactions.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Claimed" is the correct past tense form, indicating that bacterial infections had caused death in the
past, prior to the discovery of penicillin.
Q25. Answer: C)
Explanation: Mesopotamia had the highest percentage (58.3%) of technological advancements, showcasing its
significant contributions to early technologies like writing and the wheel, which laid the foundation for future
civilizations and innovations in various fields.
Q27. Answer: B)
Explanation: 1984 explores the consequences of totalitarian rule, highlighting the loss of individual freedom
through surveillance, censorship, and control over language. The novel serves as a warning about the dangers of
unchecked governmental power.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x - 4)(x - 4) = 0 → x = 4.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the standard limit limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x) = 1, the limit is:
limₓ→0 (sin(3x) / x) = 3.
Q3. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation as:
2^(x+1) = 2⁴ → x + 1 = 4 → x = 3.
Q4. Answer: A) 1
Explanation:
The integral is:
∫₀¹ (3x² - 2x + 1) dx = [x³ - x² + x]₀¹ = (1 - 1 + 1) - (0) = 1.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x + 3)(x + 3) = 0 → x = -3.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation as:
x + 5 = 10² = 100 → x = 100 - 5 = 95.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Using the product rule:
f'(x) = 6x × ln(x) + 3x² × (1/x) = 6x × ln(x) + 3x.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 2x from both sides:
3x + 3 = -7 → 3x = -10 → x = -10/3.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
First derivative:
f'(x) = 4x³ - 12x² + 6x.
Second derivative:
f''(x) = 12x² - 24x + 6.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Taking the natural logarithm of both sides:
x = ln(20).
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation:
By the definition of a logarithm:
x = a³.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The integral is:
∫₀² (x³ - 2x) dx = [ (1/4)x⁴ - x² ]₀² = (1/4)(16) - (4) = 4 - 4 = 2.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The determinant of the matrix is:
det = (2)(7) - (3)(5) = 14 - 15 = -1.
Thus, the inverse is:
(1/det) × | 7 -3 |
| -5 2 |
= | 7 -5 |
| -3 2 |.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The first term a = 2, and the common ratio r = 1/3.
The sum of an infinite geometric series is:
S = a / (1 - r).
Thus, S = 2 / (1 - 1/3) = 2 / (2/3) = 3.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x² - 4)(x² + 4) = 0.
x² = 4 → x = ±2, and the other factor does not yield real solutions.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The function is a parabola opening downward. The vertex occurs at:
x = -b / 2a = -6 / 2(-1) = 3.
Substitute x = 3 into the function:
f(3) = -(3)² + 6(3) - 5 = -9 + 18 - 5 = 4.
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the chain rule:
f'(x) = (3/2)(x² + 1)^(1/2) × 2x = 3x(x² + 1)^(1/2).
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic series is:
Sₙ = n/2 × (a₁ + aₙ).
For this series, n = 50, a₁ = 1, and aₙ = 50.
S₅₀ = 50/2 × (1 + 50) = 25 × 51 = 1275.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation as:
x - 1 = 4³ = 64 → x = 64 + 1 = 65.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Use the product rule:
f'(x) = (3x² + 2x)(x + 1) + (x³ + x²)(1)
= x³ + 2x² + 2x + 1.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The determinant of a 3x3 matrix is calculated as:
det = 3(01 - 16) - 2(41 - 15) + 1(46 - 05) = -18 - 2(4 - 5) + 1(24) = -18 + 2 + 24 = 10.
Q22. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The integral is:
∫ (4x³ - 2x) dx = (1/4)x⁴ - x² + C.
Thus, the result is x⁴ - 2x² + C.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x + 5)² = 0 → x = -5.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The derivative of e^(2x) is 2e^(2x) and the derivative of 3x² is 6x.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite 81 as 3⁴:
3^(x+2) = 3⁴ → x + 2 = 4 → x = 2.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area under the curve is the integral:
∫₀² x² dx = [ (1/3)x³ ]₀² = (1/3)(8) = 2.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
To find the inverse, switch x and y and solve for y:
y = 3x + 7 → x = 3y + 7 → y = (x - 7) / 3.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation:
As x approaches infinity, 1/x approaches 0.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 3x from both sides:
x - 7 = 5 → x = 2.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The determinant of a 2x2 matrix is:
det = (1)(4) - (2)(3) = 4 - 6 = -2.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The integral is:
∫₁³ (x² - 4) dx = [ (1/3)x³ - 4x ]₁³ = (9/3 - 12) - (1/3 - 4) = 3 - 12 - (1/3 - 4) = 5.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation as:
x - 2 = 5³ = 125 → x = 125 + 2 = 127.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Add the two equations:
(2x + y) + (3x - y) = 10 + 5 → 5x = 15 → x = 3.
Substitute x = 3 into 2x + y = 10:
2(3) + y = 10 → 6 + y = 10 → y = 4.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic sequence is:
Sₙ = n/2 × (2a₁ + (n - 1)d).
S₅₀ = 50/2 × (2(1) + (50 - 1)(2)) = 25 × (2 + 98) = 25 × 100 = 2500.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Square both sides:
2x + 3 = 25 → 2x = 22 → x = 6.
Q14. Answer: A) 3cos(3x)
Explanation:
The derivative of sin(3x) is:
f'(x) = 3cos(3x).
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x - 3)(x - 2) = 0 → x = 3, x = 2.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The discriminant is negative:
Δ = 4² - 4(1)(5) = 16 - 20 = -4, so the solutions are complex:
x = -2 ± i.
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Switch x and y and solve for y:
y = (3x - 4)/(x + 2) → x = (3y - 4)/(y + 2). Solving for y gives:
f⁻¹(x) = (2x + 4)/(3 - x).
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the standard limit limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x) = 1, we get:
limₓ→0 (sin(5x) / x) = 5.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Matrix multiplication:
| 1 2 | | 3 4 | = | 1×3 + 2×7 1×4 + 2×8 | = | 23 34 |
| 5 6 | | 7 8 | | 5×3 + 6×7 5×4 + 6×8 | | 59 74 |
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Using the quotient rule:
f'(x) = [(x² + 1)(1) - x(2x)] / (x² + 1)² = (1 - x²) / (x² + 1)².
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The first term a = 3 and the common ratio r = 1/3.
The sum of the infinite geometric series is:
S = a / (1 - r) = 3 / (1 - 1/3) = 3 / (2/3) = 4.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite 16 as 2⁴:
2^(2x) = 2⁴ → 2x = 4 → x = 2.
PRACTICE TEST 11
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "prompted" because the dissatisfaction with British governance led to the
Revolutionary War and established a government rooted in democracy, prioritizing representation and freedoms
not afforded under colonial rule.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "sparked" because social media's widespread use has raised critical issues,
including potential breaches of privacy, spreading false information, and its negative influence on psychological
well-being, spurring ongoing public debates.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "advance" because vaccines have significantly improved public health by
reducing disease outbreaks, saving lives, and fostering immunity within communities, demonstrating their crucial
role in disease prevention worldwide.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "enhances" because doublethink allows the government to enforce
contradictory beliefs, ensuring complete control over individuals’ thoughts and eliminating their ability to challenge
authority or perceive the truth.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "explores" because Whitman’s poetry delves deeply into the connections
between individuals and the natural world, emphasizing shared experiences and the harmony of existence while
celebrating diversity and independence.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "sparked" because the Industrial Revolution triggered advancements in
technology, large-scale migration to cities, and shifts in economic structures, profoundly influencing modern
industries and social dynamics.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fosters" because cultural relativism promotes appreciation of diverse
traditions and beliefs, encouraging open-mindedness and reducing ethnocentrism by highlighting the importance of
evaluating cultures based on their unique contexts.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "supports" because photosynthesis provides the oxygen essential for life and
forms the base of the food chain, sustaining ecosystems and driving the planet’s biological processes.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "reinforce" because Elizabeth’s character highlights themes of self-respect,
critical thinking, and resistance to societal pressures, aligning with the novel’s emphasis on individual values and
relationships.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "symbolizes" because Hughes uses rivers as metaphors for strength, continuity,
and the richness of cultural legacy, connecting personal and historical experiences to the universal human
condition.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation: The Magna Carta limited royal power by establishing that no one, not even the king, was above the
law. This principle laid the foundation for modern democratic systems and the rule of law.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: Civic duty highlights the importance of individuals taking active roles in supporting society, such as
voting and volunteering. These actions ensure a healthy democracy by fostering collective responsibility for societal
well-being.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: Photosynthesis allows plants to convert sunlight into energy, producing glucose for plants and oxygen
for other organisms. This process is vital for sustaining life on Earth by supporting the food chain and oxygen levels.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: 1984 critiques totalitarianism, focusing on how oppressive regimes use surveillance and manipulation
to strip away individual freedoms. It explores the loss of personal autonomy and the consequences of an all-
powerful government.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: I, Too focuses on the resilience and hope of African Americans in the face of racial oppression. The
poem emphasizes the eventual acceptance and equality of marginalized groups, expressing pride and belief in
future equality.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The French Revolution led to the collapse of the monarchy and feudal system, establishing a republic.
It was driven by economic and social inequality, as well as Enlightenment ideas advocating for liberty and equality.
Q17. Answer: C)
Explanation: Newton’s law of gravity describes the force that attracts objects toward the Earth. This force governs
both the movement of celestial bodies and everyday objects, playing a critical role in the behavior of the physical
world.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: Lord of the Flies explores the conflict between the structured, civilized self and the primal instincts
that emerge when social order breaks down. It highlights the fragility of civilization and the darkness of human
nature.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: Song of Myself explores the relationship between individualism and the interconnectedness of
humanity. Whitman celebrates both personal identity and unity, emphasizing that all individuals are part of a larger,
diverse whole.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Industrial Revolution led to significant social and economic changes, including the rise of factories,
mass production, and urbanization. It reshaped the global economy, creating new industries and transforming
society.
Q21. Answer: C)
Explanation: Text 1 focuses on the positive impacts of social media, so proponents would likely acknowledge
concerns about misinformation and privacy but argue that social media's role in modern communication outweighs
these issues.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes the need for inclusivity in studying history. Advocates would agree that ancient
civilizations are important but argue that a more inclusive approach, recognizing non-Western societies, is essential
for a complete historical perspective.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Development" is the correct noun form, referring to the ongoing progress and innovations related to
eco-friendly technologies in the automotive industry.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Competition" is the correct noun form, referring to the intense rivalry between the U.S. and the
Soviet Union to advance military technology during the Cold War.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Central Asia had the highest percentage (63.2%) of cultural exchange, indicating that the region served
as a significant conduit for cultural, religious, and technological transmission along the Silk Road, connecting various
civilizations.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Sub-Saharan Africa had the highest percentage (76.9%) of severe impact, indicating that the region
faces significant agricultural challenges due to climate change, affecting food production and livelihoods on a large
scale.
Q27.. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Civil War stemmed from deep divisions over slavery, states' rights, and economic differences. The
South's desire to maintain slavery and the North's opposition to it played key roles in the conflict.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "fueled" because the treaty's harsh terms caused widespread discontent in
Germany, creating fertile ground for nationalist ideologies and escalating tensions that led to the outbreak of World
War II.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "erases" because critics contend that the melting pot metaphor prioritizes
assimilation over preserving unique cultural traditions, potentially leading to the loss of individual and collective
identities within society.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "transformed" because understanding DNA’s structure provided insights into
genetic inheritance, molecular biology, and innovation in numerous applications, profoundly shaping modern
science and medicine.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "raises" because the novel examines the moral implications of unchecked
ambition and innovation, questioning the ethical obligations scientists have toward their discoveries and the
consequences of their actions.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "symbolizes" because Frost uses the imagery of two roads as a metaphor for
life’s choices, emphasizing their profound and often unpredictable influence on an individual’s life path.
Q6. Answer: C)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "outlawed" because the Civil Rights Act effectively banned segregation and
discriminatory practices, marking a pivotal step toward equality and justice in American society.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "promote" because microloans empower individuals to start or expand
businesses, fostering self-sufficiency and improving economic conditions, especially in marginalized populations
where access to traditional financial systems is limited.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "accelerates" because the rapid melting of glaciers contributes directly to rising
sea levels, endangering habitats, increasing flooding risks, and posing significant challenges to coastal communities.
Q9. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "exemplifies" because Atticus’s actions embody the novel’s central themes,
highlighting the importance of integrity and fairness while challenging the deeply entrenched racial biases of the
time.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The correct. Answer is "illuminates" because Dickinson’s work sheds light on profound existential
questions, offering a deeply personal yet relatable perspective on life’s fleeting nature and the search for meaning
beyond death.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation: The Magna Carta limited the monarchy’s power and established that everyone, including the king,
must obey the law. This laid the foundation for constitutional law and modern democratic principles, marking a
shift toward political equality.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation: Civic duty stresses that individuals should actively participate in society, whether through voting,
volunteering, or engaging in community activities. These actions ensure the functioning of a democratic
government and contribute to the overall health of society.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation: Photosynthesis allows plants to convert sunlight into chemical energy. The process produces glucose
for the plants and oxygen for other organisms, making it vital for life on Earth by sustaining the food chain and
maintaining oxygen levels.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation: 1984 focuses on the dangers of totalitarianism, showing how an oppressive regime uses surveillance
and mind control to strip away personal freedoms. The novel critiques the erosion of individual rights in a dystopian
society under constant surveillance.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation: I, Too expresses the speaker’s hope and resilience, asserting that despite racial oppression, African
Americans will eventually be recognized as equals. Hughes conveys the power of pride and the belief in eventual
societal change.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation: The French Revolution ended the monarchy and feudal system, leading to the establishment of a
republic. Fueled by economic hardship and Enlightenment ideas, it aimed to reduce inequality and promote
democratic principles across France.
Q17. Answer: C)
Explanation: Newton’s law of gravity explains the force that attracts objects toward Earth, affecting the motion of
objects and celestial bodies. This force plays a crucial role in the physical world, from the movement of planets to
the behavior of tides.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation: Lord of the Flies explores how isolation leads to the breakdown of societal norms and the emergence
of primal instincts. It highlights the conflict between the civilized self and the darker, more chaotic aspects of
human nature.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation: In Song of Myself, Whitman emphasizes individualism while also celebrating the interconnectedness
of all people. His free verse style reflects his belief in the unity of humanity, blending personal expression with a
sense of collective belonging.
Q20. Answer: B)
Explanation: The Industrial Revolution led to the rise of factories, mass production, and urbanization. These
changes transformed the global economy, reshaping society by creating new job opportunities and leading to the
growth of cities and technological innovations.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 1 emphasizes how digital communication, especially social media, connects people worldwide in
real-time. Advocates would likely argue that this connectivity outweighs concerns about isolation, as it breaks down
geographic and social barriers.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Text 2 presents "1984" as a cautionary tale, arguing that the novel is not a prediction but a warning
about the potential dangers of unchecked power. This response emphasizes the book’s relevance in preventing
such scenarios.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Growth" is the correct noun form, representing the protagonist’s development or personal evolution
as they face challenges in the story.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Evolve" is the correct verb form, explaining the ongoing process of species changing and adapting to
their environments as described by Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: Slavery had the highest percentage (89.6%) of strong impact, highlighting its central role in causing the
American Civil War as the primary issue driving the conflict between the North and South.
Q26. Answer: B)
Explanation: Africa and Asia both had the same percentage (62.5%) of population decline, reflecting the
devastating effects of colonialism on indigenous populations, including disease, conflict, and exploitation across
both continents.
Q27.. Answer: B)
Explanation: Natural selection drives evolution by favoring organisms with beneficial traits, allowing them to
survive, reproduce, and pass these traits to future generations, which shapes species over time.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
x(x² - 4x + 3) = 0 → x = 0, (x - 1)(x - 3) = 0 → x = 1, 3.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
x + 2 = 3⁴ = 81 → x = 81 - 2 = 79.
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Divide the numerator and denominator by x:
limₓ→∞ (3 + 5/x) / (2 - 1/x) = 3/2 = 1.5.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Apply the power rule to each term:
f'(x) = 3x² - 10x + 6.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Take the natural logarithm of both sides:
2x = ln(20) → x = ln(20) / 2.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a triangle is given by:
Area = (1/2) × base × height = (1/2) × 3 × 4 = 6.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Distribute the 3:
2x + 5 = 3x - 6 → x = 6.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Integrating term by term:
∫(x² - 2x + 1) dx = (1/3)x³ - x² + x.
Evaluate from 1 to 2:
[(1/3)(8) - 4 + 2] - [(1/3)(1) - 1 + 1] = 8/3 - 4 + 2 - 1/3 = 1.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Matrix multiplication:
| 1 0 | | 4 2 | = | 1×4 + 0×1 1×2 + 0×3 | = | 4 2 |
| 0 1 | | 1 3 | | 0×4 + 1×1 0×2 + 1×3 | | 1 3 |
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x + 2)(x + 2) = 0 → x = -2.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Since the common ratio r = 2 > 1, the sum of the infinite geometric series diverges to infinity.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Integrate term by term:
∫(x³ - 3x² + 2) dx = (1/4)x⁴ - x³ + 2x.
Evaluate from 0 to 2:
[(1/4)(16) - 8 + 4] - [(1/4)(0) - 0 + 0] = 4 - 8 + 4 = 3.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite 81 as 3⁴:
3^(x+1) = 3⁴ → x + 1 = 4 → x = 3.
Q14. Answer: A) 8x³ - 6x + 1
Explanation:
Differentiate each term:
f'(x) = 8x³ - 6x + 1.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Swap x and y and solve for y:
x = (5y - 3)/(2y + 1) → y = (3x + 1)/(5x - 2).
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Take the square root of both sides:
x - 1 = ±4 → x = 5 or x = -3.
Q17. Answer: B) 5050
Explanation:
The sum of an arithmetic series is:
Sₙ = n/2 × (2a + (n - 1)d).
S₁₀₀ = 100/2 × (2(3) + (100 - 1)(2)) = 50 × (6 + 198) = 50 × 204 = 5050.
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The determinant of a 2x2 matrix is:
det = (3)(4) - (1)(2) = 12 - 2 = 10.
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite 64 as 4³:
4^(x - 1) = 4³ → x - 1 = 3 → x = 4.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the standard limit limₓ→0 (sin(x) / x) = 1, we get:
limₓ→0 (sin(2x) / x) = 2.
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the equation:
(x - 2)(x - 3) = 0 → x = 2, x = 3.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
x + 1 = 4³ = 64 → x = 64 - 1 = 63.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Let y = x². Then, the equation becomes:
y² - 16y + 60 = 0.
Solving this quadratic equation for y gives:
y = 6 and y = 10.
Thus, x² = 6 or x² = 10, so x = ±√6 and x = ±√10.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite the logarithmic equation in exponential form:
3x - 1 = 2⁵ = 32 → 3x = 33 → x = 11.
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
As x approaches infinity, the terms with the highest degree dominate the expression.
limₓ→∞ (2x² / 5x²) = 2/5.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Apply the product rule:
f'(x) = [ (3x² + 5x)'(2x³ - x) ] + [ (3x² + 5x)(2x³ - x)' ].
Simplifying gives:
f'(x) = 30x⁴ - 3x² + 6x³ - 5x.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Factor the quadratic equation:
(x + 3)² = 0 → x = -3.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the identity cos(2x) = 1 - 2sin²(x), we get:
sin(x) = 1 - 2sin²(x).
Solve this for sin(x) to get x = π/4.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Integrate term by term:
∫(x² - 2x + 1) dx = (1/3)x³ - x² + x.
Evaluate from 0 to 1:
[(1/3)(1) - (1) + (1)] - [(1/3)(0) - (0) + (0)] = 1/3 - 1 + 1 = 1.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Differentiate each term:
f'(x) = 12x² - 4x + 1.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The determinant of a 3x3 matrix is:
det = 2(42 - 06) - 3(12 - 05) + 1(16 - 45) = 2(8) - 3(2) + 1(-14) = 16 - 6 - 14 = 9.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 2x from both sides:
x + 5 = 7 → x = 2.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The area is given by the integral:
∫₋₂³ |x²| dx.
This simplifies to ∫₋₂⁰ x² dx + ∫₀³ x² dx.
Evaluate the integrals:
[ (1/3)x³ ]₋₂⁰ + [ (1/3)x³ ]₀³ = (0 - (-8/3)) + (27/3 - 0) = 8/3 + 27/3 = 12.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Swap x and y, then solve for y:
x = (2y + 3)/(y - 1).
Multiply both sides by (y - 1) and solve for y to get:
f⁻¹(x) = (x + 3)/(2x - 1).
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Use the formula for the sum of an arithmetic series:
Sₙ = n/2 × (2a + (n - 1)d).
S₅₀ = 50/2 × (2(5) + (50 - 1)(4)) = 25 × (10 + 196) = 25 × 206 = 5050.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation in exponential form:
x + 3 = 5² = 25 → x = 25 - 3 = 22.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Solve for y in the first equation:
y = 10 - x.
Substitute this into the second equation:
2x - (10 - x) = 4 → 3x = 14 → x = 7.
Substitute x = 7 into y = 10 - x:
y = 3.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Find the determinant of the matrix A - λI and solve for λ:
det| 1-λ 2 | = (1 - λ)(4 - λ) - 6 = λ² - 5λ - 1.
The eigenvalues are the roots of this quadratic equation: λ = 5 and λ = -1.
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Square both sides:
(√(x + 2) + √(x - 2))² = 36.
Simplify to:
x + 2 + x - 2 + 2√((x + 2)(x - 2)) = 36 → 2x + 2√(x² - 4) = 36.
Solve for x = 8.
Q18. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Solve the inner integral first:
∫₀ⁱ 4xy dx = 2xy².
Now, integrate with respect to y:
∫₀² 2xy² dy = 2x ∫₀² y² dy = 2x[2] = 4x.
Finally, solve:
∫₀² 4x dy = 8.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Use the formula for the sum of an arithmetic series:
Sₙ = n/2 × (a + l), where a = 1, l = 100, and n = 100.
S₁₀₀ = 100/2 × (1 + 100) = 50 × 101 = 5050.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Integrate e^x with respect to x:
∫ e^x dx = e^x.
Evaluate from 0 to 1:
e - 1.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Rewrite 64 as 4³:
4^x = 4³ → x = 3.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
As x approaches infinity, the terms with the highest degree dominate.
limₓ→∞ (3x² / 5x²) = 3/5.
PRACTICE TEST 12
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation: The paragraph emphasizes how the printing press played a pivotal role in advancing communication
and education, making "invention" the most logical choice to complete the text.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage highlights both the opportunities and challenges of genetic engineering, making
"potential" the most suitable choice.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage discusses the lasting effects of the Cold War, making "legacy" the most appropriate term
to complete the sentence.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights the practical benefits of understanding human behavior, making "value" the
most logical choice.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes the role of dystopian fiction in critiquing societal issues, making "critique" the
best fit.
Q6. Answer: D)
Explanation: The passage discusses both the benefits and challenges associated with antibiotics, making
"complexity" the most fitting term.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes the timeless and impactful nature of art, making "significance" the most
appropriate choice.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage addresses both the achievements and challenges of space exploration, making
"complexity" the most logical term to complete the sentence.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights both the advantages and challenges of globalization, making "complexity" the
most appropriate term.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes both the benefits and obstacles associated with renewable energy, making
"promise" the most fitting term.
Q11 Answer: B)
Explanation: Cortés’ alliances with local tribes were key in weakening the Aztec forces, and capturing Montezuma
helped disrupt their leadership.
Q12 Answer: B)
Explanation: Darwin’s theory challenged traditional religious views and led to intense debates about the origins of
life, significantly altering scientific thought.
Q13 Answer: B)
Explanation: The Industrial Revolution led to urbanization, which caused overcrowding and poor living conditions,
along with exploitation in factories.
Q14 Answer: B)
Explanation: The U.S. entered the war primarily due to the growing aggression of Germany and its allies,
threatening democracy and stability in Europe.
Q15 Answer: C)
Explanation: The Great Wall was built to defend against invasions from northern tribes and other potential threats.
Q16 Answer: B)
Explanation: The Civil War ended with the passage of the 13th Amendment, which abolished slavery in the United
States.
Q17 Answer: B)
Explanation: The Roman Empire’s collapse is often attributed to a combination of economic decline, internal
political instability, and invasions.
Q18 Answer: C)
Explanation: France’s military and financial support was vital to the success of the American colonies in the
Revolutionary War.
Q19 Answer: B).
Explanation: The Apollo 11 mission represented a significant achievement that highlighted the U.S.'s technological
and political influence, especially during the Cold War.
Q20 Answer: B)
Explanation: Modern democracy, unlike ancient Greek democracy, includes universal suffrage and representative
systems where citizens elect leaders.
Q 21 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage discusses how factors like economic inequality, lack of access to education, and
discrimination hinder some people from achieving the American Dream.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 highlights concerns about the risks of unregulated AI, advocating for ethical and regulatory
measures to prevent negative consequences.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 advocates for ethical guidelines and transparency to ensure influencer marketing practices are
trustworthy.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that 47.1% of individuals in the 19–35 age group lived in large cities, the highest
percentage among all age groups.
Q25. Answer: B)
Explanation: The table shows that 50.0% of nuclear energy consumption occurred in the industrial sector, the
highest percentage for any energy source.
Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A captures the multifaceted nature of the era, including its motivations, achievements, and
consequences.
Q27. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Contentious" is the correct adjective to describe debates that are likely to provoke disagreement,
aligning with the historical conflicts of the Renaissance.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Durability" is the most logical choice, referring to the lifespan and reliability of electric vehicle
batteries.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Replace" is the best fit, as it reflects concerns about AI taking over human roles in the workforce.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Alternative" refers to different modes of transportation that are eco-friendly and less harmful to the
environment.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Divisive" reflects the polarized nature of social media’s impact on public opinion.
Q5. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Significant" is the most appropriate choice, highlighting the ongoing challenges despite progress.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Complicate" fits best, suggesting that technological advancements could worsen resource depletion
by enabling higher consumption rates.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Irreversible" is the most logical choice, indicating the lasting and permanent effects of global warming
on marine life.
Q8. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Defensive" refers to strategies aimed at protecting the business from further economic harm.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Promoting" fits best, as it reflects the government's efforts to encourage active participation in
conservation.
Q10. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Expansion" is the correct word, as it refers to increasing the use of sustainable agricultural practices
to enhance food security.
Q11 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions internal decay, external invasions, and economic troubles as key factors in the
collapse of the Roman Empire.
Q12 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that the Industrial Revolution brought economic growth but also social
inequality and poor working conditions.
Q13 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage specifically attributes the increase in global temperatures to human activities, particularly
the burning of fossil fuels.
Q14 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the central theme of "Macbeth" is the destructive nature of unchecked
ambition and power.
Q15 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage lists voter apathy, misinformation, and the influence of money as challenges faced by
democratic systems.
Q16 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions that the UN is criticized for its lack of enforcement power and perceived bias in
certain political matters.
Q17 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions doping scandals, political protests, and commercialization as controversies
surrounding the modern Olympics.
Q18 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that mediation helps facilitate communication and find a mutually acceptable
solution to the conflict.
Q19 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that CBT aims to identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors
that contribute to emotional distress.
Q20 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that penicillin revolutionized medicine by dramatically reducing mortality rates
from bacterial infections.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Deterioration" is the correct noun form to describe the process of decline or degeneration of
communication, fitting the context of the passage.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Distributed" is the correct past participle form, indicating the action of reducing carbon emissions
across sectors in the context of the sentence.
Q23. Answer: B)
Explanation: The USA's lower unemployment rate can be attributed to a more robust and diversified economy,
creating more job opportunities.
Q24. Answer: B)
Explanation: Brazil’s 12.4% unemployment rate and 25.9% poverty rate are the highest in the table, indicating
significant economic challenges
Q25. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B accurately summarizes the impact of climate change on biodiversity, highlighting both the
threat to species and the role of conservation efforts.
Q26. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B highlights the transformative role of technology while emphasizing the need for balance to
prevent negative consequences on skills development.
Q27. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B acknowledges the dual impact of social media, noting its potential harm to mental health
when overused and its benefits in fostering connections.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Solve for x in the equation:
5x-3=2x+9.
Subtract 2x from both sides:
3x-3=9.
Add 3 to both sides:
3x=12.
Divide by 3:
x=4.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Both terms have the same denominator, so you can combine them:
6/x+3/x=(6+3)/x=9/x.
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Solve for x:
2x+5>15.
Subtract 5 from both sides:
2x>10.
Divide by 2:
x>5.
Q4. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Solve for x:
4x+3=2x+11.
Subtract 2x from both sides:
2x+3=11.
Subtract 3 from both sides:
2x=8.
Divide by 2:
x=3.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The equation is in the slope-intercept form y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. Here, the slope is
2.
Answer: B)
Q6. Explanation:
The equation y=-3x+4 shows a slope of -3 and a y-intercept of 4. This means the line falls (negative slope) and
crosses the y-axis at 4.
Q7. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Simplify the expression:
(3x^2y)/(4xy^2)=3x/4y.
Cancel out one x and one y from the numerator and denominator.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Since 2⁴=16, log₂16=4.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Find a common denominator:
(2x/5)-(x/3)=(6x/15)-(5x/15)=x/15.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation:
81=3⁴, so x=4.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The car travels at 60 miles per hour. To travel 180 miles:
180/60=3 hours.
Q12. Answer: B)
Explanation:
If the ratio is 3:4, for every 3 apples, there are 4 oranges. With 12 apples:
12/3×4=16.
Q13. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The ratio of flour to muffins is 2:8=1:4. For 24 muffins, the flour needed is:
1×24=4 cups of flour.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation:
1 km = 1000 m. So, 5 km = 5×1000=5000 m.
Q15. Answer: B)
Explanation:
25%×200=0.25×200=50.
Q16. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Arrange the numbers in ascending order: 2, 3, 5, 7, 10. The median is the middle number, which is 5.
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The total number of balls is 5+7+3=15. The probability of selecting a blue ball is:
7/15.
Q18. Answer: C)
Explanation:
When the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode, the data set is negatively skewed
(skewed left).
Q19. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Typically, a confidence level of 95% implies a margin of error of 5%.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a circle is A=πr². With a radius of 7 cm:
A=π(7²)=49π cm².
Q21. Answer: B)
Explanation:
By definition, congruent triangles have the same shape and size, meaning their corresponding angles and sides are
equal.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
In a 30°-60°-90° triangle, the side opposite the 30° angle is half the length of the hypotenuse. So, the side opposite
the 30° angle is:
10/2=5.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Solve the system of equations.
From x + 2y = 8, solve for x:
x = 8 - 2y.
Substitute into 2x - 3y = 12:
2(8 - 2y) - 3y = 12 → 16 - 4y - 3y = 12 → 16 - 7y = 12 → -7y = -4 → y = 4/7.
Substitute y = 4/7 back into x = 8 - 2y → x = 8 - 2(4/7) = 8 - 8/7 = 56/7 - 8/7 = 48/7.
Therefore, x + y = 48/7 + 4/7 = 52/7 = 7.428, which is approximately 5.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sum of the roots of a quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 is given by -b/a. For x² - 7x + 10 = 0, a = 1, b = -7, and c
= 10.
The sum of the roots is -(-7)/1 = 7.
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Solve the inequality:
3x - 5 ≥ 2x + 4 → subtract 2x from both sides → x - 5 ≥ 4 → add 5 to both sides → x ≥ 9.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Expand both sides:
5x - 10 + 3 = 2x + 8 - 7 → 5x - 7 = 2x + 1 → subtract 2x from both sides → 3x - 7 = 1 → add 7 to both sides → 3x = 8
→ divide by 3 → x = 8/3.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Rewrite the equation in slope-intercept form y = mx + b:
4x - 3y = 12 → -3y = -4x + 12 → y = (4/3)x - 4.
The slope m = -4/3.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Substitute x = -2 into the equation y = 3x² - 4x + 1:
y = 3(-2)² - 4(-2) + 1 = 3(4) + 8 + 1 = 12 + 8 + 1 = 21.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Substitute x = 2 into the equation y = 2x - 5:
y = 2(2) - 5 = 4 - 5 = -1.
So, the point (2, -1) lies on the line.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The y-intercept occurs when x = 0.
Substitute x = 0 into y = -x + 2:
y = -(0) + 2 = 2.
So, the point of intersection is (0, 2).
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
By definition, logₓ 81 = 4 means x⁴ = 81.
Taking the fourth root of both sides: x = 3.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Simplify the expression by subtracting exponents for the same base:
(x⁴y²) / (x²y) = x⁴ / x² × y² / y = x² × y = x²y.
Q11. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Multiply both sides by (x - 1):
2x + 3 = 5(x - 1).
Expand:
2x + 3 = 5x - 5 → subtract 2x from both sides → 3 = 3x - 5 → add 5 to both sides → 8 = 3x → x = 8/3.
Q12. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Factor the numerator:
(3x² - 6x) = 3x(x - 2).
Now the expression becomes:
3x(x - 2) / 9x = (x - 2) / 3.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Since 6³ = 36, log₆ 36 = 3.
Q14. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Substitute x = -2 into the function:
f(-2) = (-2)² - 3(-2) + 5 = 4 + 6 + 5 = 11.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Time = Total Units / Units per Hour = 960 / 120 = 8 hours.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Let the numbers be x and y.
x + y = 36 and x - y = 12.
Add the two equations:
2x = 48 → x = 24.
Substitute x = 24 into x + y = 36 → 24 + y = 36 → y = 12.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The even numbers are 2, 4, and 6.
There are 3 even numbers out of 6 total numbers, so the probability is 3/6 = 1/2.
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The even numbers on a die are 2, 4, and 6, so the probability of getting an even number on one roll is 3/6 = 1/2.
The probability of getting an even number on both rolls is:
(1/2) × (1/2) = 1/4.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values in the data set.
The maximum is 12 and the minimum is 3, so the range is 12 - 3 = 9.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The z-score is calculated by subtracting the mean from the score and dividing by the standard deviation:
z = (90 - 85) / 5 = 5 / 5 = 1.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a triangle is given by the formula:
Area = 1/2 × base × height = 1/2 × 10 × 6 = 30 cm².
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sine of 45° is √2 / 2, as it corresponds to the ratio of the opposite side to the hypotenuse in a 45°-45°-90°
triangle.
PRACTICE TEST 13
Reading and Writing
Module 1
Q1. Answer: C)
Explanation: The paragraph emphasizes how evolution is widely supported by evidence but remains a subject of
debate regarding its broader implications, making "application" the best fit.
Q2. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights the printing press’s ability to promote both progress and controversy, making
"paradox" the best fit.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage underscores sociology’s applicability in addressing real-world issues, making "value" the
most suitable choice.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes both the benefits and challenges of AI, making "complexity" the most
appropriate term.
Q5. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights the Harlem Renaissance’s profound and lasting influence, making "impact" the
most fitting choice.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage describes the intricate balance required for effective conservation, making "complexity"
the most logical choice.
Q7. Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights the multifaceted nature of the free will debate, making "complexity" the most
fitting term.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage discusses media’s ability to both enlighten and mislead, making "paradox" the most
appropriate term.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes historical fiction’s educational and reflective benefits, making "value" the
best choice.
Q10. Answer: B) complexity
Explanation: The passage highlights the intricate and collaborative nature of solving environmental problems,
making "complexity" the most logical choice.
Q12 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage mentions that error rates and qubit coherence are significant challenges in the
development of quantum computing.
Q13 Answer: B)
Explanation: Critics are concerned that the environmental impact of producing solar panels, including the use of
rare earth metals, could undermine their long-term benefits.
Q14 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that residents of food deserts experience poorer health outcomes, including
obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular diseases.
Q15 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage suggests that raising taxes on the wealthy could fund education and social programs to
address income inequality.
Q16 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions that automation through AI may lead to job displacement in traditional sectors,
although new jobs may also be created.
Q 17 Answer: B)
Explanation: The discovery of water ice and methane spikes has led to speculation about the potential for microbial
life on Mars.
Q18 Answer: B)
Explanation: Critics are concerned about the environmental degradation
Q19 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage attributes Arctic amplification to the albedo effect and changes in atmospheric circulation
that trap heat in the region.
Q20 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights concerns about transparency in AI processes and potential biases in the data
used to train these systems.
Q21 Answer: A)
Explanation: The passage mentions that desalination is costly and energy-intensive, which raises concerns about its
widespread implementation.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation: Text 2 emphasizes the need for a comprehensive approach combining mitigation and adaptation to
address climate change.
Q23. Answer: C)
Explanation: Text 2 supports a balanced approach to maximize the strengths of both physical and digital formats.
Q24. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that 52.0% of literate individuals in the South region were found in urban areas, the
highest percentage among all regions.
Q25. Answer: A)
Explanation: The table shows that 42.9% of wasted baked goods came from restaurants, the highest percentage for
this category.
Q26. Answer: A)
Explanation: Choice A acknowledges the revolutionary changes while addressing the broader implications on
society and the environment.
Q27. Answer: A) systemic
Explanation: "Systemic" is the appropriate adjective to describe challenges that are deeply rooted in and affect the
broader structure of the global economy.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Scalability" refers to the ability of quantum computers to be effectively scaled for practical,
widespread commercial applications, which is a current challenge.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Dismantle" suggests the possibility of AI disrupting or breaking down existing societal systems, a
concern voiced by critics.
Q3. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Redundancy" refers to the practice of adding layers or alternative pathways in systems to ensure
continuity in the face of disruptions.
Q4. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Authenticity" highlights the importance of genuine human interaction and empathy, which
automated systems currently cannot replicate effectively.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Feasibility" refers to the practical challenges in implementing sustainable urbanization when
economic dependencies conflict with environmental goals.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Intersection" represents the point where the concePractice Test of determinism (external influence)
and autonomy (personal freedom) meet and are debated.
Q7. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Divisive" rhetoric refers to communication strategies that emphasize division and polarization,
common in populist movements.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Fragility" suggests that the agricultural systems of these civilizations were vulnerable to climate
change, contributing to their decline.
Q9. Answer: C)
Explanation: "Irreversible nature" refers to the fact that gene editing can create permanent alterations to the
genome, which raises ethical concerns.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation: "Exacerbate" suggests that AI systems may worsen existing biases and inequalities by reflecting and
reinforcing the prejudices present in the data.
Q11 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage focuses on the mission's goal of gathering data about Mars' surface, atmosphere, and
potential for supporting life.
Q12 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that the French Revolution led to the rise of radical political ideologies and the
establishment of the First French Republic.
Q13 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions that globalization has raised concerns about the growing gap between rich and
poor nations.
Q14 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage explains that Darwin's theory suggests species evolve over time through the process of
natural selection.
Q15 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage highlights that the central theme of "1984" is the dangers of government overreach and
suppression of free thought.
Q16 Answer: C)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that the separation of powers is meant to create checks and balances and
protect individual liberties.
Q17 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage identifies the difficulty in providing aid and ensuring protection as a major challenge
related to the refugee crisis.
Q18 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions that one criticism of the World Cup is the commercialization of the event.
Q19 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage highlights that successful negotiation can preserve relationships and foster cooperation.
Q20 Answer: B)
Explanation: The passage mentions mindfulness and relaxation exercises as techniques for managing stress.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Displacement" is the correct noun form to refer to the removal or replacement of jobs due to AI
advancements.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation: "Isolated" is the correct past participle form to show the emotional state resulting from excessive time
spent on social media.
Q23. Answer: A)
Explanation: The tech industry’s higher growth rate is likely due to continuous innovations and the industry’s ability
to attract high-paying talent, fostering expansion.
Q24. Answer: C)
Explanation: Despite the USA’s higher health expenditure, Japan has a higher life expectancy, suggesting factors
other than spending, such as lifestyle and health habits, may be more influential.
Q25. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B accurately summarizes the evolution of human rights, noting both the progress and the
ongoing challenges.
Q26. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B highlights the importance of education in economic mobility while acknowledging the
barriers created by unequal access.
Q27. Answer: B)
Explanation: Choice B summarizes the benefits of renewable energy while acknowledging the challenges related to
cost and intermittency.
Math
Module 1
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Expand both sides:
3x-6=2x+8.
Subtract 2x from both sides:
x-6=8.
Add 6 to both sides:
x=14.
Q2. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Subtract (3/x) from both sides:
5=(6/x)-7.
Add 7 to both sides:
12=(6/x).
Multiply both sides by x:
12x=6.
Divide both sides by 12:
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Solve the system of equations. From the second equation:
x=2y-3.
Substitute into the first equation:
2(2y-3)+3y=12.
Simplify:
4y-6+3y=12.
Combine like terms:
7y-6=12.
Add 6 to both sides:
7y=18.
Divide by 7:
y=18/7.
Now, substitute into x-2y=-3:
x-2(18/7)=-3.
Solve for x.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Substitute -2 into the function:
f(-2)=2(-2)^2+3(-2)-5=2(4)-6-5=8-6-5=-3.
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Simplify:
(x^3y^2)/(x^2y^3)=(x^(3-2))/(y^(3-2))=x/y.
Q6. Answer: A)
Explanation:
To find the inverse, swap x and y, and solve for y.
x=(3y-5)/4.
Multiply both sides by 4:
4x=3y-5.
Add 5 to both sides:
4x+5=3y.
Divide by 3:
y=(4x+5)/3.
Thus, f^(-1)(x)=(4x+5)/3.
Q7. Answer: D)
Explanation:
Rewrite the logarithmic equation as an exponential equation:
x+3=2^5.
Simplify:
x+3=32.
Subtract 3 from both sides:
x=29.
Q8. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Using the quadratic formula:
x=(-5±√(25+24))/4=(-5±√49)/4.
Thus, the solutions are x=(-5±7)/4, so x=(-5+7)/4=2/4=1/2 or x=(-5-7)/4=-12/4=-3.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The area of a triangle is A=(1/2)baseheight.
Thus, A=(1/2)69=27 cm^2.
Q10. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Multiply both sides of the equation by x:
1=3x.
Divide both sides by 3:
x=1/3.
Q11. Answer: A)
Explanation:
By the properties of logarithms, 2^(log_2(16))=16.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 4x from both sides:
-3=x+1.
Subtract 1 from both sides:
x=-4.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Simplify:
(4x^2y^3)/(8xy^2)=(x^(2-1)×y^(3-2))/2=2x/y.
Q14. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Factor the expression:
x^3-8=(x-2)(x^2+2x+4).
Thus, x=2.
Q15. Answer: A)
Explanation:
The sum of the solutions for ax^2+bx+c=0 is -b/a.
Thus, the sum is -5/1=-5.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Since 125=5^3, 5^x=5^3, so x=3.
Q17. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Simplify:
(3x^4y^2)/(6xy^3)=(1/2)×x^(4-1)×y^(2-3)=2x/y.
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Expand:
4x+4=2x+10.
Subtract 2x from both sides:
2x+4=10.
Subtract 4 from both sides:
2x=6.
Divide by 2:
x=3.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
a/b=3/4, so a/12=3/4.
Multiply both sides by 12:
a=(3/4)×12=9.
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Since 5^2=25, log_5(25)=2.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 2x from both sides:
3=x-5.
Add 5 to both sides:
x=8.
Q22. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The discriminant is b^2-4ac. For x^2+4x+1=0, a=1, b=4, and c=1.
So, the discriminant is 4^2-4(1)(1)=16-4=12.
Module 2
Q1. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Expand both sides:
5x+15=2x+12.
Subtract 2x from both sides:
3x+15=12.
Subtract 15 from both sides:
3x=-3.
Divide by 3:
x=-1.
Q2. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 4 from both sides:
2x>6.
Divide by 2:
x>3.
Q3. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Subtract 2x from both sides:
x-7≤5.
Add 7 to both sides:
x≤12.
Q4. Answer: C)
Explanation:
The y-intercept is 2, so the point is (0,2).
Q5. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Slope = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1) = (8-2)/(3-1) = 6/2 = 3.
Q6. Answer: B)
Explanation:
Factor the numerator:
(3(x^2-4))/(6x) = (3(x-2)(x+2))/(6x).
Cancel common factors:
((x-2)(x+2))/(2x).
Q7. Answer: C)
Explanation:
Since 32 = 2^5,
2^(x+1) = 2^5, so x+1 = 5.
Thus, x = 4.
Q8. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The cost per pen is 3/5.
Thus, 20 pens will cost 20 × (3/5) = 12 dollars.
Q9. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Mean = (4+7+10+13+16)/5 = 50/5 = 10.
Q10. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Speed = 120/3 = 40 mph.
Q11. Answer: C)
Explanation:
1 kilometer = 1000 meters, so 5 kilometers = 5000 meters.
Q12. Answer: A)
Explanation:
25% of 200 = (25/100) × 200 = 50.
Q13. Answer: B)
Explanation:
The median is the middle value, which is 12.
Q14. Answer: B)
Explanation:
There are 2 outcomes (heads or tails), so the probability of getting heads is 1/2.
Q15. Answer: D)
Explanation:
Using the principle of inclusion and exclusion:
Students who like at least one sport = 40 + 30 - 20 = 50.
Thus, the probability is 50/100 = 0.5.
Q16. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Area = (1/2) × base × height = (1/2) × 10 × 5 = 25 cm².
Q17. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Volume = length × width × height = 4 × 5 × 6 = 120 cm³.
Q18. Answer: A)
Explanation:
By the Pythagorean theorem:
c = √(3²+4²) = √(9+16) = √25 = 5.
Q19. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Area = π × r² = π × (7)² = 49π cm².
Q20. Answer: A)
Explanation:
sin(90°) = 1.
Q21. Answer: A)
Explanation:
In a 45°-45°-90° triangle, the legs are congruent, so the ratio is 1:1.
Q22. Answer: A)
Explanation:
Volume = π × r² × h = π × (3)² × 10 = 90π cm³.

Additional Resources
Test-Taker Accommodations for the Digital SAT
When taking the SAT in a digital format, students who are approved for accommodations may notice some
differences in how their accommodations are provided compared to the traditional paper-and-pencil version of the
test. For example, a student approved to use a human reader on the paper version may instead use a screen reader
for the digital test. In some cases, certain accommodations may no longer be necessary, such as the large print
option, which can be replaced by the zoom tool available to all digital test takers.
It’s important to understand how your specific accommodations will be implemented in the digital format. If you
believe you need a different accommodation, be sure to contact your school counselor, SSD (Services for Students
with Disabilities) coordinator, or reach out to SSD directly well before your test day.
Key Note: Accommodations cannot be changed or waived on the day of the test. All accommodations must be
pre-approved by SSD, so it's crucial to speak with your school's SSD coordinator or refer to the SSD services for
more details on how to request accommodations.
Below is an overview of how common accommodations will be applied during the digital SAT:
Approved Accommodations for the Digital SAT
General Extended Time: Students approved for extended time will receive their allotted extra time within the
digital format, as well as additional breaks. The amount of extra time will be applied as approved (e.g., time and
one-half or double time).
o For those approved for extended time only for the math section, the extra time will only apply to that section.
o For SAT Weekend testing, students with time accommodations will take the test on a single day at a test center
unless other accommodations require testing at their school.
Breaks
 Breaks as Needed: Students approved for breaks at any time will have access to a pause feature in the digital
test interface. This will allow them to take breaks whenever needed without interrupting the test flow.
 Extended Breaks: Students granted extended breaks will receive a break that lasts twice as long as the standard
break time.
 Extra Breaks: Those approved for extra breaks will receive an additional 5-minute break between Module 1 and
Module 2 of each section.
 Extra and Extended Breaks: This accommodation includes both extra and extended breaks, combining the
benefits of longer breaks and additional rest periods.
Braille and Raised Line Drawings
 Contracted Braille with Raised Line Drawings: Students approved for braille testing will use their own
refreshable braille display or a screen reader while taking the digital test. Screen reader users will be required
to use headphones for audio assistance.
o If a student cannot use the digital test format, they can request a paper braille version.
 Raised Line Drawings: For students who need raised line drawings (previously referred to as braille graphs and
figures), a supplemental raised line drawing tool will be provided alongside the digital test.
Reading and Writing Accommodations
 Human Reader / Screen Reader: For students approved for a human reader or screen reader, the digital test
will have the screen reader functionality enabled via the operating system or through the student’s own screen
reader software. This will allow for text-to-speech capabilities for reading the test materials aloud.
 Writer/Scribe / Dictation: Students approved for writer/scribe or dictation will use speech-to-text technology
within the digital test format.
 Pre-recorded Audio (MP3 via streaming): Pre-recorded audio is no longer an available accommodation for the
digital test. Instead, students previously approved for this will now use screen reader functionality or text-to-
speech tools to assist with reading the test.
Assistive Technology
 Assistive Technology: Students can use approved assistive technology software while taking the digital test, as
long as it is compatible with the test platform.
 Assistive Technology—Compatible (ATC) Test Format: Students approved for an ATC format will take the
digital test with the assistive technology tools integrated into the device’s operating system.
Limited Time
 Limited Time Testing: If a student has limited time accommodation, they will take the test over multiple days if
the test duration exceeds their approved time.
Audio
 Auditory Amplification/FM System: Students who use an FM system for auditory amplification may do so while
taking the digital test. They will be allowed to use headphones to amplify sound as needed.
Calculators
 4-Function Calculator: In the digital test format, a calculator will be available to all students as a universal tool,
and there will no longer be a separate math section without a calculator.
Large Print, Magnification, and Color Adjustments
 Large Print Test: Students requiring large print can take advantage of the digital test’s zoom function, allowing
them to adjust the font size to their needs.
 Magnification Devices: Whether using electronic or non-electronic magnification devices, students can use the
digital zoom tool available within the operating system to enlarge test content.
 Color Adjustments: Students needing color contrast or color overlays can use the color settings built into the
device’s operating system or screen. Alternatively, a plastic overlay can be placed over the screen for additional
visual support.
Important Reminders
 Accommodation Approvals: All accommodations must be requested and approved in advance through SSD.
Speak to your school’s SSD coordinator to ensure your needs are properly communicated and documented
before your test date.
 Testing Changes: As digital testing rolls out, some accommodations may have been updated or adjusted from
the paper-and-pencil format. Be sure to check how your accommodations will be provided and confirm any
necessary adjustments with your school’s SSD coordinator.
 Digital Testing Tools: Familiarize yourself with the digital testing interface and tools (like screen readers,
magnification options, and the built-in calculator) before the test day to ensure a smooth and stress-free
experience.
By understanding how your approved accommodations will be applied in the digital testing environment, you can
better prepare for your SAT and feel confident that your needs will be met. If you have any concerns or believe you
require different accommodations, don’t hesitate to reach out to your school’s SSD coordinator or the SSD office to
discuss your options.
Score Interpretation for Digital SAT
Understanding Your Digital SAT Score Report
The Digital SAT score report offers a detailed breakdown of your performance on the exam, helping you assess how
well you did in each section and providing insights into which areas need more attention if you're planning to retake
the test. The exam is divided into two main sections: Reading and Writing and Math, with each section scored on a
scale from 200 to 800. This means the total possible score for the test ranges from 400 to 1600, combining both
sections.
In addition to the overall score, the score report includes scores in specific domains within each section. For the
Reading and Writing section, these domains are:
 Information and Ideas: This domain measures your ability to understand and analyze texts, extract main ideas,
and reason with the information provided in both passages and figures.
 Craft and Structure: This domain assesses your understanding of vocabulary, how well you grasp rhetorical
strategies in writing, and your ability to analyze how different texts are related.
 Expression of Ideas: This evaluates your proficiency in using writing tools, such as transitions, sentence
structure, and rhetorical devices, to improve clarity and coherence in written expression.
 Standard English Conventions: This domain checks your knowledge of grammar, punctuation, and sentence
structure rules.
For the Math section, the four domains are:
 Algebra: This domain focuses on your ability to solve linear equations, inequalities, and work with systems of
equations.
 Advanced Math: Here, you'll be assessed on your ability to solve more complex, nonlinear equations and other
advanced mathematical concePractice Test.
 Problem-Solving and Data Analysis: This domain evaluates your skills in using data, graphs, and concePractice
Test like percentages, averages, and probability.
 Geometry and Trigonometry: This measures your proficiency in solving geometry problems involving shapes
and angles, as well as applying trigonometric functions.
Each of these domains is meant to provide you with a clearer picture of your strengths and weaknesses. If you're
retaking the test, these domain-level insights can help you target the areas that need improvement.
How the Adaptive Testing Format Affects Scoring
One of the major innovations of the Digital SAT is the adaptive testing format, which tailors the difficulty of the
questions you receive based on your performance on earlier questions. This means that your test experience is
unique compared to other test-takers. Here's how it works:
The Digital SAT is divided into two modules per section—the Base Module and the Adaptive Module. The Base
Module contains questions that are of a moderate difficulty level for all students. After completing this first
module, the test adjusts based on how well you performed. If you answer a significant number of questions
correctly in the Base Module, you will be given more difficult questions in the Adaptive Module. Conversely, if you
struggle in the Base Module, you will be given easier questions in the Adaptive Module.
This adaptive format is designed to provide a more accurate measure of your abilities by adjusting the difficulty
level of the questions to match your skill level. The challenge is that this means your score depends not only on how
many questions you get right but also on the difficulty of the questions you were given. If you perform well in the
Base Module, the tougher questions in the Adaptive Module will allow you to demonstrate a higher level of
proficiency, which could contribute to a higher score. If you perform poorly, you’ll be given easier questions that
won’t help your score as much, potentially lowering your score.
What Your Score Means in the Context of College Admissions
Your Digital SAT score is a key component of your college application, and colleges use SAT scores to compare
students from different schools, regions, and academic backgrounds. The SAT offers a standardized way of
assessing students, which helps colleges evaluate applicants on a level playing field, regardless of the grading
systems or curricula at their schools.
Colleges use your SAT score in conjunction with other aspects of your application—such as your high school GPA,
extracurricular activities, recommendation letters, and essays—to make admissions decisions. In addition to
admissions, SAT scores can also be used for scholarship eligibility and entry into special programs or honors
colleges. Many colleges and universities still require SAT scores, even those that have adopted test-optional or test-
blind policies, so it’s essential to know each school’s specific requirements and determine whether submitting your
SAT scores will strengthen your application.
Your score report will also include percentile rankings, which show how your score compares to those of other test-
takers. For example, if you score in the 85th percentile, it means you scored better than 85% of the students who
took the test. Percentiles are particularly useful because they give you a relative understanding of where you stand
compared to others who have taken the same test, both nationally and internationally. These percentiles will help
you understand the competitiveness of your score for different colleges and universities.
Score Percentiles and Comparing Digital SAT Scores to Previous Versions
Percentile rankings are a critical tool for understanding the significance of your SAT score. The percentile tells you
what percentage of students scored lower than you, offering a snapshot of how competitive your score is. For
instance, if you are in the 90th percentile, you have scored better than 90% of the students who took the exam.
The Digital SAT uses the same scoring range as previous versions of the SAT (from 400 to 1600). However, due to
the adaptive nature of the test, some variations in scores may be observed between the digital format and the
previous paper-and-pencil versions. Despite this, the College Board provides tools for comparing your Digital SAT
scores to those from the older versions, helping you understand where you stand in relation to students who took
the traditional exam.
In particular, College Board reports provide percentile data to compare Digital SAT scores with those of previous
years. This allows you to see how your scores hold up against the scores of students who took the test before the
digital shift and provides a more comprehensive perspective on your performance.
Understanding your score percentiles, especially in the context of college admissions, helps you determine where
you stand among other applicants. It also allows you to tailor your college application strategy, as it gives you a
clearer understanding of how competitive your score is within the context of a particular school's expectations.
Interpreting your Digital SAT score involves more than just knowing the numbers on your report. It’s important to
understand how the adaptive testing format works and how your score relates to both the questions you received
and the overall pool of test-takers. Your score not only provides insights into your academic strengths and areas
that may need improvement, but it also plays a key role in your college admissions journey. By understanding your
scores and how they fit into the broader landscape of college admissions, you can make informed decisions about
the next steps in your academic career. Whether you’re looking to improve your score for a future test or using
your results to apply to colleges, understanding your Digital SAT score is a vital step in achieving your academic
goals.
Post-SAT Reflection and Strategies for Future Test-Taking Success
The SAT is a significant milestone for many students, and once it's behind you, the anxiety often doesn't fade
instantly. While waiting for your results can feel excruciating, it's also an opportunity to reflect on your test-taking
experience and think about how you can improve your approach for the future. This post-SAT reflection isn't just
about analyzing what went wrong; it's also about taking a constructive approach to the test-taking process, learning
from your experience, and preparing yourself for future success.
What Happens After the SAT? A Reflection on the Experience
When the test is over, it's easy to get caught up in a cycle of second-guessing: "Did I study enough?" "Could I have
answered those math questions better?" "Why did I forget my legal name on the answer sheet?" These are all
common thoughts. It's completely normal to reflect and wonder about missed opportunities or mistakes, but
remember—there's little you can do at this point except wait.
Instead of dwelling on potential regrets, it's essential to focus on your strengths. After months of preparation, you
did your best. You arrived on time, you completed the test, and you gave it your all. These accomplishments are
significant and should be celebrated. Don't let anxiety about the outcome overshadow the effort you put in.
Handling the Waiting Period
The waiting period after the SAT can be one of the hardest parts of the process. Some students find themselves
obsessing over every difficult question they encountered during the test, debating over whether they made careless
mistakes or wondering how each module compares to others. While it's tempting to discuss every detail with
friends or dive into online forums, this can often lead to more anxiety and unnecessary stress.
Rather than fixating on the past, take this time to unwind. Continue with your classes and extracurricular activities
as usual, and don’t let the test define you. Your college application isn't just about your SAT score—it's about the
whole picture, including your grades, extracurriculars, and personal statement. In the end, focusing on maintaining
a balanced lifestyle will benefit you more than obsessing over your test performance.
Lessons from Others: Effective Strategies for Retaking or Preparing for the SAT
If you're gearing up for another round of SATs or preparing for your first attempt, there's a wealth of advice from
students who have already navigated this journey. Their insights can help you avoid common pitfalls and approach
the test more effectively. Here are some key strategies to keep in mind:
1. Don’t Rely Solely on the Official Practice Tests
While the official SAT Bluebook practice tests are a great resource, many students have found that they may be
easier than the actual test. This can lead to a false sense of security, as some students perform well on these
practice tests only to be shocked by the difficulty level of the real exam. Instead of relying exclusively on these,
broaden your study materials. Supplement your practice with tests from other credible sources and aim for a
score goal that challenges you. Diversifying your study materials will better prepare you for the range of
questions you may face on test day.
2. Focus on Your Weaknesses
We all have areas where we struggle more, whether it's math or reading comprehension. It's essential to
identify these weaknesses early on and dedicate extra study time to improving them. If vocabulary or specific
math formulas are your weak points, prioritize them in your preparation. For reading, practicing the skill of
summarizing passages in your own words can be helpful, as well as focusing on the first and last sentences of a
 passage—these often provide a clear idea of the main idea. Work on building your vocabulary by reading
widely, and don't hesitate to seek extra help, whether from a tutor or online resources.
3. Master Time Management
One of the most common reasons for low SAT scores is poor time management. Many students struggle not
because they lack knowledge but because they can’t complete the test in time. The key is to practice answering
questions efficiently. During study sessions, time yourself to simulate real test conditions. Prioritize difficult
questions, and if you’re stuck, move on and return to tough questions later. Keep an eye on the clock, and make
sure you allocate enough time for each section without rushing through easier questions too quickly.
4. Embrace the Process—There’s Always One Correct Answer
In the rush of the exam, it's easy to feel pressured and even tempted to guess randomly when you encounter a
tough question. But guesswork won't help you achieve the best score. Instead, focus on eliminating obviously
wrong answers first. If you must guess, try to deduce the correct answer by context or grammatical clues,
especially for reading and writing sections. This strategy can increase your chances of selecting the right answer
even when you’re unsure.
5. Remember—Your SAT Score Is Just One Part of the Picture
It's easy to get caught up in the idea that your SAT score defines your academic worth, but it's essential to keep
perspective. Colleges consider many factors when reviewing applications—grades, extracurricular activities,
personal statements, and letters of recommendation all play a role. A lower score in one section doesn’t mean
the end of your college aspirations. If you feel your SAT score doesn’t reflect your true potential, take steps to
strengthen other aspects of your application. Volunteering, pursuing extracurricular passions, and crafting a
compelling personal statement can help offset a less-than-perfect test score.
The SAT is undeniably stressful, but it’s also an opportunity to learn and grow. Whether you are reflecting on your
test experience or preparing for another round, the key is to take a proactive approach. Learn from your
experience, refine your strategies, and focus on maintaining a well-rounded application. Remember that your score
doesn’t define you—it’s only a small part of your overall academic journey. Celebrate your progress, and approach
future test-taking experiences with confidence and clarity.