ARTHROPOD BORNE DISEASE

MALARIA

1. After several days of IV therapy for chloroquine resistant malaria. The physician replaces the
IV injection with quinine sulfate, 2 g per day in divided doses. The nurse should administer this
medication after meals to
a. Delay its absorption
b. Minimize gastric irritation
c. Decrease stimulation of appetite
d. Reduce its antidysrhythmic action

2. A serious complication of acute malaria is

a. Congested lungs
b. Impaired peristalsis
c. Anemia cachexia
d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

3. A client is concerned about contracting malaria while visiting relatives in Southeast Asia.
The nurse explains that the best way to prevent malaria is to avoid
a. Mosquito bites
b. Untreated water
c. Undercooked food
d. Overpopulated areas

4. The nurse is reviewing the physical examination and laboratory test of a client with malaria.
The nurse understands that an important finding in malaria is
a. Leukocytosis
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Splenomegaly
d. Elevated sedimentation rate

5. When caring a client with malaria, the nurse should know that
a. Seizure precautions must be followed
b. Peritoneal dialysis is usually indicated
c. Isolation is necessary to prevent cross-infection
d. Nutrition should be provided between paroxysms

6. Blackwater fever occurs in some clients with malaria; therefore the nurse should observe a
client with chronic malaria for
a. Diarrhea
b. Dark red urine
c. Low-grade fever
d. Coffee ground emesis
7. Malaria may attack children. It is caused by parasites in the blood called:
a. Virus
b. Fungus
c. Bacteria
d. Plasmodium

8. the most dangerous of the four species is the:

a. Falciparum
b. Vivax
c. Ovale
d. Malariae

9. The main symptom of malaria is:

a. Shivering
b. Fever
c. Sweating
d. Vomiting

10. Which of the following patient is considered at a greater risk of developing splenomegaly
a. Typhoid fever patient
b. Malaria patient
c. Cholera patient
d. H-fever patient

11. The following are public health measures to control or prevent malaria except
a. Spraying
b. Eliminating breeding places of mosquitoes
c. Using mosquito nets
d. Immunizing the whole population

12. Malaria is diagnosed through

a. Skin slit smear
b. WBC count
c. Tourniquet test
d. Blood smear

13. Malaria vector mainly bite during

a. Morning
b. Night time
c. Noon time
d. 10am to 5 pm

14. all of the following disease are caused by viruses except

a. Malaria
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Rubella
d. Rubeola

15. Characteristics chills accompanying malaria are caused by

a. High temperature
b. Release of pyrogenic substance in the blood
c. Severe anemia
d. The release of parasites into the bloodstream

16. The vector responsible for the spread of malaria is

a. Culex mosquito
b. Anopheles mosquito
c. Flies
d. Aedes aegypti

17. chills in malaria occur every time it is released in the blood

a. Zygote
b. Oocyst
c. Schizonts
d. Metrozoites

18. Which of the following C.D. is NOT through the upper respiratory system?
a. Chicken pox
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Malaria

FILARIASIS

1. Filariasis caused by worm-like parasite invades the

a. Respiratory system
b. GIT
c. Lymphatic system
d. Urinary tract

2. Which of the following is considered chronic signs and symptoms of filariasis

a. Splenomegaly
b. Chills and fever
c. Elephantiasis
d. Lymphadenitis

3. Filariasis patients are advised to observe personal hygiene by

a. Washing the affected part with alcohol
b. Washing the affected areas with soap and water
c. Boiling drinking water
d. Cleanliness of the surroundings

4. The vector of filariasis is known as

a. Aedes aegypti
b. Aedes poicilius
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Oncomelania quadrasi

5. Filariasis afflicts Filipinos living in endemic areas. It is caused by

a. Certain strain of snail
b. Nematode worm
c. Mosquito
d. Tick mite

6. The acute stage of filariasis is characterized by

a. Fever, cough and colds
b. Chill and fever with edema of lower limbs
c. Petechial spots all over the body
d. Lymphadenitis and elephantiasis

7. The drug of choice in filariasis is

a. Praziquantel
b. Zovirax
c. Hetrazan
d. Penicillin

8. One of the laboratory tests in Filariasis is NBE or nocturnal blood exam. It is usually taken
in the residence of the patient or in the hospital at what particular time of the day?
a. During day time
b. At night preferably after 8 pm
c. After 12 midnight
d. Early morning until 6am

9. Filariasis is transmitted to person through

a. Stepping on the worm
b. Bites from infected male mosquito
c. Bites from infected female mosquito
d. Soaking in water snail carrying organism

10. The immunochromatographic test (ICT) for filariasis can only be done
a. Before 8 pm
b. After 8pm
c. Daytime
d. Early morning

PLAGUE

DENGUE

1. Which of the following is NOT skin and mucous membrane entry?

a. Gonorrhea
b. Dengue
c. Scabies
d. Syphilis

2. Early treatment of dengue fever included all of the following except

a. Prevention of shock
b. Monitoring of vital signs
c. Administration of IV as ordered
d. None of the above

3. Philippine hemorrhagic fever is caused by

a. Aedes aegypti
b. Anopheles
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. None of these

4. the etiology agent of hemorrhagic fever

a. Anopheles mosquito
b. Flaviviruses
c. Aedes aegypti
d. RNA virus
SURFACE INFECTIONS
RABIES

1. A child was bitten on the hand by a dog who had recently received a rabies shot. The
nursing priority for this child would be directed toward ensuring that the
a. Suture line remains red and dry
b. Child does not develop a fear of dogs
c. Rabies antibodies develop within 48 hours
d. Mobility of the hand returns to a pre injury state in 1 week

2. The disease that is transmitted by the bite of dog

a. Mud dog disease
b. Rabies
c. Tetanus
d. Anthrax

3. Signs and symptoms indicative of the disease cause by dog bites are
a. Hyperemia at affected sites, chills and fever
b. Nausea and vomiting, paresthesia at the bite site
c. Tingling sensation at the bite site, numbness of affected part, difficulty of speech
d. Fever, headache, spasms of muscles, hydrophobia, delirium, and convulsion

4. For how long will you observe the dog after biting man for signs of the disease
a. 1 week to 2 weeks
b. 30 days from the time of the bite
c. 1 month to 3 months
d. One year

5. If the dog does not manifest any signs indicative of the disease after the suggestive time
element for observation, it means that the dog is
a. On her incubation period
b. Still in the window phenomenon
c. Still in the prodromal stage
d. Apparently healthy

6. If the dog shows signs suggestive of the disease your best move is to
a. Apply povidone iodine continuously to the affected part
b. Kill the dog and bury
c. Kill the dog and bring the head for laboratory examination
d. Kill the dog and bring the head for lab exam and submit for immunization

7. Nurse Jordan is on duty when a mother came to the clinic asking for an injection for her son
was bitten by a dog, when assessment has been completed and nurse Jordan saw the wound,
he should:
a. Wash the wound with soap and water
b. Ask for prescription from the doctor
c. Apply ointment and dress the wound
d. Ask for immunoglobulin

8. among the following infectious disease which is viral

a. Rabies
b. Cholera
c. Malaria
d. Tuberculosis

9. Which constitutes emergency measures in case of dog bites?

a. Immediately clean the wound with soap and water
b. Give penicillin injection to prevent the wound from being infected
c. Cauterize the wound with citric acid
d. Observed the patient for a few hours before treating the wound

10. The public health measures to prevent rabies

a. Immunize dogs against rabies
b. Immunize the population
c. Observe dog and their behavior
d. Injection anti-rabies vaccine immediately after a dog bite

11. Nurse Dirk is on duty when a mother came to the clinic asking for an injection for her son
was bitten by a dog, which of the following should be done by nurse Dirk?
a. Refer to the nearest hospital
b. Ask mother the history of the event
c. Wash the wound with soap and water
d. Immediately inject anti rabies vaccine

TRACHOMA

1. Conjunctivitis is transmitted through:

a. Contact with discharges from conjunctivae of infected persons
b. Mechanical transmission with vectors such as flies
c. Contact with discharges from upper respiratory tract.
d. All these mode of transmission

2. The incubation period is usually:

a. 12 to 15 days
b. 6 to 12 hours
c. 5 to 12 days
d. 24 to 72 hours

3. This is most communicable during:

a. All these stages of the disease
b. Lacrimal stage
c. Course of active in infection
d. Prodromal stage

4. The spread of conjunctivitis can be prevented through

a. Treatment of infected member of the family
b. Personal hygiene
c. Practice of all these health measure
d. Good diet and living conditions

5. The following measure for the control of conjunctivitis: which of these does not belong?
a. Reporting of case to local health officials
b. Advising children not to attend school during the acute stage
c. Terminal disinfection of soiled articles
d. Immunizations of contacts

6. The mother brings her daughter to the health care clinic. The child was diagnosed with
conjunctivitis. The nurse provides health teaching to the mother about the proper care of her
daughter while at home. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for additional
information?
a. ―I do not need to be concerned about the spreading of this infection to others in my
family‖
b. ―I should apply warm compresses before instilling antibiotic drops if purulent discharge
is present in my daughter’s eye‖
c. ―I can use an ophthalmic analgesic ointment at night time if I have eye discomfort‖(your
answer)
d. ―I should perform a saline eye irrigation before instilling, the antibiotic drops into my
daughter’s eye if purulent discharge is present"

Rationale:
A- Conjunctivitis is highly contagious. Antibiotic drops are usually administered four times a
day. When purulent discharge is present, saline eye irrigations or eye applications of warm
Compresses may be necessary before instilling the medication. Ophthalmic analgesic ointment
or drops may be instilled, especially at bedtime, because discomfort becomes more noticeable
when the eyelids are closed.

TETANUS

1. Preventive measure is immunization before the 7th birthday. These vaccines are
simultaneously give with 2 others what are they?
a. Tetanus toxoid and polio
b. Tetanus toxoid and diphtheria
c. Diphtheria and polio
d. Diphtheria and tetanus

2. The room is darkened as part of the nursing care of a patient ill with tetanus because
a. Light is painful to the eyes
b. Light is stimulating to spasms
c. Light will kill the organism
d. Light is not conductive to sleep

3. When reviewing the immunization schedule for an 11 month old, the nurse would expect
that the infant had been previously immunized against
a. Pertussis, tetanus, and diphtheria
b. Polio, pertussis, tetanus, and diphtheria
c. Measles, mumps, rubella and tuberculosis
d. Measles, rubella, polio tuberculosis and pertussis

4. Tetanus toxoid immunization shall be given to pregnant women

a. After 3 months gestation
b. On the first month after sensation of menstruation
c. Third trimester of pregnancy
d. At any time during pregnancy

5. To confer life time immunity of TT immunization

a. 2 booster doses are needed
b. 3 booster doses are needed
c. 4 booster doses are needed
d. 5 booster doses are needed

6. Tetanus toxoid under EPI covers

a. Pregnant mothers
b. Farmers
c. Any person doing hard working job
d. Preschoolers
7. The remaining unopened vials of measles; DPT, tetanus toxoid and BCG should be
a. Discarded right away
b. Destroyed accordingly to instruction
c. Returned to the fridge for next use
d. Returned to the vaccine carrier ready for next use

8. Jeld was punctured with a nail about 2 cm in length, developed fever, and later painful
muscular contraction of the neck and truck. The nurse or midwife will suspect
a. Diphtheria
b. Meningitis
c. Malaria
d. Tetanus

LEPROSY

1. Mode of transmission of leprosy is?

a. Sharing food
b. Sexual contact
c. Borrowing utensils
d. Droplet infection

2. Late signs and symptoms of leprosy in male patients is enlargement of the breast known as:
a. Clawing
b. Madarosis
c. Gynecomastia
d. Lagophthalmos

3. Your role in prevention of leprosy is

a. Health education
b. Personal hygiene
c. Proper nutrition
d. BCG vaccination

4. Multi drug therapy is being implemented by the DOH. Where is the initial treatment done?
a. Midwife's residence
b. Barangay captain office
c. Barangay health station
d. Rural health unit

5. Which of the following vaccines is used in the prevention of leprosy?

a. OPV
b. EPI
c. DPT
d. BCG
6. Which of the following C.D. is NOT gastrointestinal tract as portal of entry?
a. Leprosy
b. Paratyphoid
c. Typhoid
d. Dysentery

7. Which of the following is the late sign/symptom of leprosy?

a. Loss of eyebrow
b. Change in skin color
c. Thickened and painful nerves
d. Pain and redness in the eyes

Rationale: Leprosy is one of the important cause for loss of eyebrows or madarosis

8. Paucibacillary treatment of leprosy includes daily self administration of which drug?

a. Lamprene
b. Dapsone
c. Clofazimine
d. Rifampicin

Rationale: but the basis of the book doesn’t align to this. It is said that in multibacillary leprosy,
the drugs that are administered, rifampicin, clofazimine, and dapsone. While for paucibacillary
leprosy, a combination of rifampicin+dapsone.

9. Leprosy is a chronic disease of the skin and peripheral nerves. Which of the following signs
are present in the early stage?
a. loss of eyebrows
b. clawing of fingers
c. contractures
d. thickening or painful nerves

10. Which of the following diseases is not easily communicable

a. Tuberculosis
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d. Leprosy

LEPTOSPIROSIS
Situation: 81 - 85
Benito lives in a farm where the rice paddies are continuously gets flooded. On a stormy night
Benito found dead rats floating in his paddles. He never knew that these rats were contaminated
with leptospirosis.

1. Benito went to RHU and looked for the Doctor, but he was attending an update in the city
what should you do?
a. Check vital signs
b. Bring him to the hospital
c. Start IV to open blood vessels
d. Call the doctor

2. The common feature of leptospirosis are the following but one is not
a. Fever
b. Chills
c. Headache
d. Vomiting

3. Upon nursing assessment you found out that Benito has an open wound. What is the mode of
transmission of leptospirosis?
a. Use of belongings
b. Rats and rodent
c. Open skin contact
d. Droplet spread

4. Your nursing function is to educate the people regarding the importance of immunization and
prevention. Which one is your nursing function in leptospirosis?
a. Explanation of pathophysiology
b. Health education
c. Nutrition and exercise
d. Medication
5. Treatment of leptospirosis is asymptomatic but usually this drug is prescribed mg orally once
a month.
a. Doxycycline
b. Ciprobay
c. Rocaltrol
d. Amoxicillin

6. This is considered a zoonotic disease wherein the organism thrive in rats

a. Leptospirosis
b. Paragonimiasis
c. Bubonic plague
d. Rodenticide

SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASE (STD)

1. When teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, what should the nurse
emphasize that is the most common infection?.
a. Gonorrhea
b. Chlamydia
c. Herpes
d. HIV
B- Chlamydia has the highest incidence of any sexually transmitted disease in this country.
Prevention is similar to safe sex practices taught to prevent any STD: use of a condom and
spermicide for protection during intercourse.

2. The nurse is evaluating a female clients understanding of how to prevent sexually

transmitted diseases (STDs). Which of the following statements indicates that the client
understands how to protect herself?
a. "I will be sure my partner uses a condom."
b. "I need to be sure to take my birth control pills."
c. "I will always douche after sexual intercourse.
d) "I will be sure to take antibiotics to prevent
STD."

3. A teenager returns to the gynecological (GYN) clinic for follow-up visit for sexually
transmitted disease (STD). Which of the following statements, if made by the teenager,
indicates
the need for further teaching?
a. "I always make sure my boyfriend uses a condom."
b. "I know you won't tell my parents I'm sick."
c. "My boyfriend doesn't have to come in for treatment, does he?"
d. "I finished the entire antibiotic, just like you said."
4. A nurse is asked to go to a local high school to talk to students about sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs). The nurse plans to tell the student that
a. Birth control pills are the only way to prevent STDs
b. The diaphragm provides a barrier to prevent STDs
c. The use of condoms does not provides any protection
d. The use of condoms and avoiding casual sex with multiple partners prevent STDs

5. Which of the following STDs does chancre develops

a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Genital herpes

GONORRHEA

1. Client complains of severe vulvar pruritus and a yellow-green, malodorous vaginal

discharge. The nurse recognizes that the symptoms suggest
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis
2. Which of the following is usually the initial clinical manifestation of gonorrhea in men?
a. Impotence
b. Scrotal pain
c. Penile lesion
d. Urethral discharge

3. A pregnant woman at 12 weeks' gestation diagnosed with gonorrhea. The physician orders
doxycycline. The first action of the nurse should be to
a. Instruct the client about the effects of the drug
b. Make sure the record notes that the baby must receive eye drops when born
c. Have the physician add a single dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
d. Discuss with the physician the need to change the order

4. The health nurse is conducting health teaching about ―safe‖ sex to a group of high school
students. Which of the following statement about the use of condoms should the nurse avoid
making?
a. ―Condoms should be used because they can prevent infection and because they may
prevent pregnancy‖
b. ―Condoms should be used even if you have recently tested negative for HIV‖(your
answer)
c. ―Condoms should be used every time you have sex because condoms prevent all forms of
sexually transmitted diseases‖
d. ―Condoms should be used every time you have sex even if you are taking the pill because
condoms can prevent the spread of HIV and gonorrhea‖

C- Condoms do not prevent ALL forms of sexually transmitted diseases.

SYPHILIS

1. This is a serologic test for syphilis which involves antibody detection by microscopic
flocculation of the antigen suspension:
a. VDRL venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
b. Fluorescent treponemal antigen antibodies
c. Treponema pallidum hemoglobin.
d. Treponema pallidum immunoassay

2. A male client being seen in the ambulatory care clinic in a history of being treated for
syphilis infection, the nurse interprets that the client has been re infected if which of the
following characteristics is noted in a penile lesion?
a. Multiple vesicles, with some that have ruptured
b. Papular areas and erythema
c. Cauliflower like appearance
d. Induration and absence of pain

3. Which of the following STDs does chancre develops

a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Genital herpes

AIDS

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the
public health department within the next 24 hours?
a. An infant with a positive culture of stool of Shigella
b. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear
c. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced
sputum for Pneumocystis carinii
d. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an
erythematous base that appear on the skin

B- Tuberculosis is a reportable disease because persons who had contact with the client must
be traced and often must be treated with chemoprophylaxis for a designated time. Options a
and d may need contact isolation precautions. Option c findings may indicate the initial stage of
the autoimmune deficency syndrome (AIDS).

2. The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be
emphasized as increasing risk?
a. Donating blood
b. Using public bathrooms
c. Unprotected sex
d. Touching person with AIDS

3. A client had arrived in the USA from a developing country 1 week prior. The client is to be
admitted to the medical surgical unit with a diagnosis of AIDS with a history of unintended
weight loss, drug abuse, night sweats, productive cough and a "feeling of being hot all the time."
The nurse should assign the client to share a room with a client with the diagnosis of
a. Acute tuberculosis with a productive cough of discolored sputum for over three months
b.Lupus and vesicles on one side of the middle trunk from the back to the abdomen
c. Pseudomembranous colitis and C. difficile.
d. Exacerbation of polyarthritis with severe pain

A- The client for admission has classic findings of pulmonary tuberculosis. Of the choices the
client in option A has the similar diagnosis and it is acceptable to put these types of clients in the
same room when no other alternative exists. Clients are considered contagious until the cough
is eliminated with medications which initially is a combination of 4 drugs simultaneously.

4. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the
nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The
nurse responds
a. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."
b. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
c. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
d. "Developmental delays in children."

C- CD4 lymphocyte counts are normally 600 to 1000. In 1993 the Center for Disease Control
defined AIDS as having a positive HIV plus one of these – the presence of an opportunistic
infection or a CD4 lymphocyte count of less than 200.

5. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse
that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the
following nursing interventions is a priority?
a. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
b. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
c. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer

A- The client''s behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step. If the woman is
HIV positive, the earlier treatment begins, the better the outcome.

6. The most logical means of preventing transmission of HIV from mother to child is that:
a. HIV positive woman should not become pregnant
b. HIV positive woman and their partners must be informed of the possible risk to the fetus.
c. HIV positive pregnant woman must be under close medical supervision.
d. Infants 0-15 months must be under close medical supervision

7. The following safety precautions are important against AIDS.

a. Advise clients not to share toothbrushes and razors
b. Sterilize instruments for ear holing, tattooing and acupuncture
c. All these are important
d. Patients will only be given blood when medically justified or when blood is HIV negative

8. Screening for HIV should be offered routinely to the following groups except:
a. None of these groups
b. People who feel they are sick
c. Babies of woman with HIV infection
d. Intravenous drug users seeking treatment

9. You Explained that one preventive measure against AIDS is to practice safe sex such as:
a. Having sex with woman having her menstrual period
b. Anal sex
c. Oral sex
d. Having a monogamous relationship

10. A student asks "if you accidentally discovered that one of your friends in the community is
HIV positve, what will you do?
a. Give him the usual friendly treatment as before
b. Tell your other friends about it so that they will know how to protect their self
c. Advise other members of the family to separate their eating utensils
d. Secretly avoid his company.

11. When caring for a client who is HIV positive, a primary responsibility of the nurse is to
explain how the client can prevent
a. AIDS
b. Social isolation
c. Other infections
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

12. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate when planning
interventions for a 28-year-old male with CD4 cell count of 600 mm3 and facial Kaposi's
sarcoma (KS) lesions?
a. Potential for infection related to open KS lesions
b. Body image disturbance related to facial KS lesions
c. Potential impaired physical mobility related to lower extremity KS lesions
d. Potential sexual dysfunction related to genital KS lesion
13. When managing an AIDS client with weakness and severe vision loss due to CMV retinitis,
which of the following nursing interventions is most important?
a. Placing a 1 visually impaired" sign over the head of the bed
b. Referring the client to support group for persons win vision loss
c. Instructing the client to call prior to getting out of bed and placing the call bell within
reach
d. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings about vision loss

14. Which of the following is necessary for nurses to protect themselves from HIV?
a. Universal precautions
b. Hand washing
c. Enteric precautions
d. Respiratory precautions

15. When leaching an HIV positive person about HIV transmission prevention, which of Ihe
following should the nurse includes?
a. The HIV-positive person can share razors and toothbrushes with the other household
members
b. The HIV-positive person should have his or her own utensils
c. The HIV-positive person's laundry must be done separately
d. The HIV-positive person can share the same bathroom with the other household members

16. An HlV-positive client asks the nurse what the best way is to clean up blood spills the home
nurse is correct to inform the client to
a. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with a 1:10 bleach to
water solution
b. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder the rubbing alcohol
c. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with soapy water
d. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with bleach

17. An AIDS client with open Kaposi's sarcoma lesions on the upper extremities is admitted to
the Hospital. When assessing the client’s vital signs the nurse should wear which of the
following?
a. Gloves and gown
b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Gown and mask

18. An end stage AIDS client requires suctioning. When performing this task the nurse is
correct to wear
a. A mask and eye protection
b. Sterile gloves and eye protection
c. A mask and sterile gloves
d. A mask, eye protection, and sterile gloves

19. A nurse assesses the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS for early signs
of Kaposi's sarcoma The nurse observes the client for lesion(s) that are:
a. Unilateral raised and bluish purple
b. Bilateral, fiat, and pink, turning to dark violet or black
c. Unilateral, red, raised and resembling a blister
d. Bilateral, flat and brownish and scaly in appearance

20. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being admitted for treatment
if Pneumocystis carinii infection. Which of the following activities that assists in maintaining
comfort does the nurse plan to include in the care of "his client?
a. Assess respiratory rate rhythm, depth, and breath sounds every 8 hours
b. Evaluate arterial blood gas results
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated
d. Monitor vital signs every hour

21. A client with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) shares with the nurse feelings
of social isolation since the diagnosis was made. The nurse plans to suggest which of the
following strategies as the most useful way to decrease the client's loneliness?
a. Using the internet on the computer facilitate communication
b. Use of the television and newspapers to maintain a feeling of being" in touch" with the
world
c. Contacting a support group available in the local region for clients with AIDS
d. Reinstituting contact with the client's family, who live in a distance city

22. A client has an initial positive result of an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
test for human immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV) The client begins to cry and ask the nurse
what this means. The nurse is able to provide support to the client by using knowledge that:
a. The client is HIV positive, but the disease has been detected early
b. The client is HIV positive, but the client's status CD4 cell count is high
c. There is a high rate if false positive results with this test, and more testing is needed
before diagnosing the client's status as HIV positive
d. There are occasional false-positive readings with this test, which can be cleared up by
Repeating

23. A prenatal client has been told during a physician visit that she is positive for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The client cried and was significantly regarding this news.
Which of the following diagnoses would these data best support?
a. Pain
b. Noncompliance
c. High risk for infection
d. Anticipatory Grieving
24. A nurse is assessing the status of the prenatal client. Following the assessment, the nurse
determines that which piece of data places the client into the high risk category for contracting
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Living in an area where HIV infection is minimal
b. A history of IV drug use in the past year
c. A history of one sexual partner within the past 10 years
d. A spouse who is heterosexual and had only one sexual partner in the past 10 year

25. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) gets recurrent Candida
infections (thrush) of the mouth. The nurse has given instructions to the client has given
instructions to the client to minimize the occurrence of thrush, and evaluates that the client
understands the material if which of the following statements is made by the client?
a. I should brush my teeth and rinse my mouth once a day.
b. I should use a strong mouthwash at least one week.
c. Increasing red meat in my diet will keep this from recurring.
d. Eating 8 oz of yogurt that contains live culture to control this

26. A nurse is teaching a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) how to
avoid food borne illnesses, me nurse instructs the client to avoid acquiring infection from food
by avoiding which of the following items?
a. Raw oyster
b. Pasteurized milk
c. Products with sorbitol
d. Bottled water

27. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being treated for tuberculosis
with isoniazid (INH). The nurse plans to teach the client which of the following regarding the
administration of the medication?
a. Administer with an antacid to prevent gastrointestinal distress
b. Administer at least 1 hour before administering an aluminum containing antacid to
prevent a medication interaction
c. Administer with food to prevent rapid absorption of INH
d. Administer with corticosteroids to potentiate the effects of INH

28. Which of the following child is not candidate for BCG immunization?
a. Those with AIDS
b. Those with fever
c. Those with diarrhea
d. Those with imminent for polio

29. Which of the following features of AIDS usually come in combination with high fever
sweats, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue, oral condidiasis and herpes zoster infection?
a. Initial infection with the virus and development of antibodies
b. Asymptomatic carrier state
c. persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
d. Other HIV-related disease including AIDS

30. The primary preventive measures against HIV-AIDS is:

a. withdrawal
b. virus killing drugs
c. foams and gels use
d. condom use

31. Sarah Jane is dead, victim of Aids. Which program of DOH was established to check
prevalence rate of Aids?
a. AIDS surveillance program
b. Phil. National AIDS Control
c. National AIDS prevention and control
d. AIDS awareness, activities

INTESTINAL INFECTIONS
POLIOMYELITIS

1. The major route of this transmission of polio virus in poor sanitation environment is:
a. Sewage disposal
b. Water system
c. Fecal-oral
d. Food staff

2. When virus is ingested where does it multiply

a. Alimentary tract
b. Integumentary system
c. Urinary tact
d. Reproductive tract

3. As a rural health nurse your most important function in polio prevention is to

a. Educate the public on the advantages of immunization
b. Distribute leaflets about the causes of polio
c. Call all mother for a lecture
d. Refer all children to the doctor

4. Your health teaching to Janice, the polio victim includes

a. Proper waste disposal
b. Proper eating habits
c. Regular health check up
d. Advocacy in health

5. The best nursing intervention in the case of Janice is with paralysis of lower extremity due to
poliomyelitis is;
a. Letting Janice attend mothers class
b. Rendering physical comfort
c. Referral for physical therapy
d. Diet instruction

6. The vaccines that are most sensitive to heat are

a. Oral polio, BCG
b. DPT, Hepa B
c. Measles, TT
d. Oral polio, measles

7. What storage temperature recommended for polio and measles

a. -10 C to -15 C
b. -15 C to -25 C
c. +2 C to +8 C
d. +8 C to +12 C

8. Which of the following vaccines are stocked in the freezer?

a. Oral polio, BCG
b. DPT, Hepa B
c. Measles, TT
d. Oral Polio, measles

9. How many drops of oral polio is given to the child during immunization?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

10. The vaccine against poliomyelitis may be given in association with other vaccines. This
may either be the salk vaccine or the sabin vaccine. How should salk vaccine be administered?
a. Subcutaneously
b. Hypodermically
c. Intravenously
d. Orally

11. How should sabin vaccine be administered

a. Hypodermically
b. Orally
c. Intravenously
d. Subcutaneously

12. The polio vaccine containing live attenuated viruses was developed by
a. Salk
b. Sabin
c. Kock’s
d. Saben

13. Polio vaccine is given in

a. 1 dose
b. 2 doses
c. 3 doses
d. 4 doses

14. Polio vaccine is given with a dose of

a. 1 drop
b. 2 drops
c. 3 drops
d. 4 drops

15. if the ice in the vaccine carrier is completely melted by had melted for less than 1 day, the
best thing is for the polio vaccine to
a. Kept again in the fridge
b. Set aside for the next EPI
c. Keep it in the used box
d. Destroy all polio vaccine

CHOLERA

1. Cholera may be diagnosed if a child may manifest the following signs and symptoms
a. Bloody stools
b. Mucoid stools
c. Rice-watery stools
d. Black stools

2. The following conditions are treated with antibiotics

1. dysentery
2. amebiasis
3. cholera
4. ascariasis
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. 3, 4

3. In case of an outbreak of cholera, the signs to be observed which indicates circulatory

collapse are
a. Fall in blood pressure and thread pulse
b. Oliguria and dysuria
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. White ring around the mouth

TYPHOID FEVER

1. The test used to diagnose typhoid fever is the

a. Dick test
b. Schick test
c. Widal test
d. Stress test

2. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is

a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Terramycin
d. Rifampicin

3. It is an acute enteric fever manifested by a sustained bacteremia, reticuloenthelial

involvement, and microorganism formation and ulceration of the distal form
a. Dysentery
b. Hepatitis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Cholera

4. Which of the following is the most important procedure to teach in typhoid fever?
a. Taking the temperature
b. Preparation of the liquid diet
c. Disinfection of the excreta
d. All of these

Situation: 176 – 179

Epidemiologic investigation was done by the Rural health unit because of outbreaks of typhoid
Fever

5. As public health nurse, you know that the typhoid fever is caused by
a. Improper personal hygiene
b. Inhalation of contamination water
c. Intake of unsafe water or food
d. Ticks

6. The primary purpose of conducting this investigation is to

a. Identify the groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
b. Delineate the etiology of the disease
c. Encourage cooperation and support of community
d. Identify geographical location where the disease would most likely occur

7. Which of the following sources of data will not be necessary?

a. Records maintained by the hospital
b. Health care reports
c. Population census
d. None of the above

8. As a public health nurse in rural health unit, you have a vital role in the conduct of
epidemiological investigation and this is among others the.
a. Institute appropriate control measures in a confirmed outbreak
b. Checking the presence of signs and symptoms according to the standards of the case
c. Monitor selected number of disease by weekly charting or graphing these are they occur
in the barangay
d. Planning and securing necessary resources needed for the disease.

HEPATITIS

1. A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should
reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in
addition to handwashing, to be implemented is which of these?
a. Apply appropriate signs outside and inside the room
b. Apply a mask with a shield if there is a risk of fluid splash
c. Wear a gown to change soiled linens form incontinence
d. Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces

D- The specific measure to prevent the spread of hepatitis A is careful handling and protection
while handling fecal material. All of the other actions are correct but not the most significant.

2. The nurse is attending a workshop about caring for persons infected with Hepatitis. Which
statement is correct when referring to the incidence rate for Hepatitis?
a. The number of persons in a population who develop Hepatitis B during a specific period of
time
b. The total number of persons in a population who have Hepatitis B at a particular time
c. The percentage of deaths resulting from Hepatitis B during a specific time
d. The occurrence of Hepatitis B in the population at a particular time

A- This is the correct definition of incidence of the disease

3. A client with hepatitis A (HAV) is newly admitted to the unit. Which action would be the
priority to include in the plan of care within the initial 24 hours for this client?
a. Wear masks with shields if potential splash
b. Use disposable utensils and plates for meals
c. Wear gown and gloves during client contact
d. Provide soft easily digested food with frequent snacks

C- HAV is usually transmitted via the fecal-oral route. That means that someone with the virus
handles food without washing his or her hands after using the bathroom. The virus can also be
contracted by drinking contaminated water, eating raw shellfish from water polluted with sewage
or being in close contact with a person who's infected — even if that person has no signs and
symptoms. In fact, the disease is most contagious before signs and symptoms ever appear. The
nurse should recognize the importance of isolation precautions from the initial contact with the
client on admission until the non contagious convalescence period.

4. A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should
reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in
addition to handwashing, to be implemented is which of these?
a. Apply appropriate signs outside and inside the room
b. Apply a mask with a shield if there is a risk of fluid splash
c. Wear a gown to change soiled linens from incontinence
d. Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces

D- the specific measure to prevent the spread of hepatitis A is careful handling and protection
while handling fecal material. All of the other actions are correct but not the most significant.

5. Hepa patients' prescribed activity level is bed rest with bathroom privilege. The purpose of
bed rest for the patient is to:
a. Reduce the body’s need for oxygen
b. Reduce the metabolic demands of the liver
c. Control the spread of the disease
d. Prevent the breakdown of body’s fats

6. Although it is present in other secretions, the virus Hepa-A will be excreted from the body
primarily through this
a. Skin
b. Feces
c. Urine
d. Mucus

7. Contaminated hands are often responsible for the transmission of hepatitis. In addition, the
virus that caused the patient’s Hepatitis is very often spread by
a. Infected insects
b. Infected rodents
c. Contaminated foods and liquids
d. Contaminated clothing and eating utensils
8. As a result of having had Hepa A, the patient should be instructed never to
a. Drink alcohol
b. Donate blood
c. Smoke
d. Eat fatty foods

Situation: 180 – 183

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of infections Hepatitis

9. What would you consider as primary nursing treatment?

a. High fluid intake
b. Prompt antibiotic therapy
c. Adequate bed rest
d. IV therapy

10. Which of the following diet would most likely be prescribed by the M.D.
a. High fat
b. Balanced diet
c. High CHON
d. Bilirubin CHO
11. Which of the following laboratory test best assess the patient’s liver functioning?
a. Glucose tolerance
b. Creatinine
c. Serum transaminase
d. Bilirubin level

12. The primary portal of exit of Hepa A virus is the

a. Mucus
b. Skin
c. Urine
d. Feces

13. the prevention and control measures of parasitic infection are based on which of the
following
a. Understanding of the parasite’s life cycle and their transmission pattern
b. All of these
c. Participation and cooperation of the community
d. Availability of antihelmintic drugs in the area

14. Exposure to hepatitis B may occur in hospitals because of

a. Careless handling of feces by staff
b. Increasing use of ventilating systems
c. Needle sticks and mucous membrane exposure
d. Early diagnosis and improved treatment of hepatitis A
15. A client who has exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive
immunity which
a. Increases production of short lived antibodies
b. Provides antibodies the neutralize the antigen
c. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites
d. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large numbers of antibodies

16. A client with hepatitis asks the nurse, ―Why don’t you give me some medication to help me
get rid of this problem?‖ the nurse’s best response would be
a. Sedatives can be given to help you relax
b. We can give you immune serum globulin
c. There are no specific drugs used to treat hepatitis
d. Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery

17. The nurse has instructed a client with viral hepatitis about the type of diet should be eaten.
The lunch selection that would indicate the client understands and compliance with the dietary
principles taught is
a. Turkey salad, French fried, sherbet
b. Cheeseburger, taco chips, chocolate pudding
c. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich, gelatin dessert
d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich

18. The nurse has obtained the nursing history of client diagnosed with hepatitis C What would
be considered a potential risk factor for acquiring hepatitis C?
a. Drinking contaminated water
b. Traveling to India
c. Having a tattoo
d. Eating shellfish

19. A child with a diagnosis of hepatitis B is being cared for at home. The mother if the child
calls the health care clinic and tells a nurse that the jaundice seems to be worsening. Which of
following responses to the mother would be most appropriate?
a. "The hepatitis may be spreading‖
b. "You need to bring the child to health care clinic to see the physician."
c. 'The jaundice may appear to get worse before it resolves."
d. "It is necessary to isolate the child from others."

20. A patient comes to the clinic with influenza like symptoms, general body malaise, nausea
and vomiting, yellowish discoloration of the skin, itchiness, the nurse will suspect
a. Leptospirosis
b. Dengue fever
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis B
21. A mother brought her child in the health center for hepatitis B vaccination in a series. The
mother informs the nurse that the child missed an appointment last month to have the third
hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following statements is the appropriate nursing response
to the mother?
a. ―I will examine the child for symptoms of hepatitis B‖
b. ―Your child will start the series again‖
c. ―Your child will get the next dose as soon as possible‖
d. ―Your child will have a hepatitis titer done to determine if immunization has taken
place.‖

C- Continuity is essential to promote active immunity and give hepatitis B lifelong prophylaxis.
Optimally, the third vaccination is given 6 months after the first.

22. Which of the following conditions is not true about contraindication to immunization?
a. do not give BCG if the child has known hepatitis
b. do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS
c. do not give DPT to a child who has recurrent convulsion or active neurologic disease
d. do not give DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has had convulsions within 3 days of DPT1

FOOD POISONING (salmonella food poisoning, staphylococcal food poisoning, botulism)

1. The Department of Health is alarmed that almost 33 million people suffer from food
poisoning every year. Salmonella enteritis is responsible for almost 4 million cases of food
poisoning. One of the major goals is to promote proper food preparation. The community
health nurse is tasks to conduct health teaching about the prevention of food poisoning to a
group of mothers everyday. The nurse can help identify signs and symptoms of specific
organisms to help patients get appropriate treatment. Typical symptoms of salmonella include:
a. Nausea, vomiting and paralysis
b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Diarrhea and abdominal cramps
d. Nausea, vomiting and headache

C- Salmonella organisms cause lower GI symptoms

2. During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, the primary nursing intervention to limit
transmission is which of these approaches?
a. Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact
b. Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions
c. Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus
d. Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens
A- Gram-negative bacilli cause Salmonella infection. Two million new cases appear each year.
Lack of sanitation is the primary means of contamination. Thorough handwashing can prevent
the spread of salmonella. Note that all of the options are correct actions. However, the primary
action is to wash the hands.

3. If vomiting and diarrhea persist. Rico's stool should be examined. Which bacteria could be
identified from contaminated food such as egg, meat, poultry, and water?
a. Clostridium bolulinum
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Staphylococcus aereus
d. Escherichia Coli-ETEC

4. The nurse is instructing a group about food preparation. They are told to avoid using
products in damaged can because they might contain the anaerobic spore-forming rod
a. Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Salmonella typhosa
d. Clostridium botullinum

HOOKWORM INFECTION

1. A public health measure to prevent hookworm infestation is

a. Proper disposal and disinfection of excreta
b. Disinfection of linens
c. Boiling dishes
d. Wearing masks and gowns

SCHISTOSOMIASIS

1. The mode of transmission of schistosomiasis is throught?

a. Contact with fresh water infected with cercariae
b. Bites of aedes poicelius
c. Drinking water of questionable source
d. Oral fecal transmission

2. The intermediate host of the cercarae is the

a. Tick mite
b. Snail
c. Dog
d. Crab

3. Early signs and symptoms of schistosomiasis are

a. Abdominal pain and liver enlargement
b. Itchiness and pain at the site of predilection
c. Diarrhea and bloody stools
d. Anemia and inflamed liver

4. Which of the following will you advice the client to submit for in order to detect the
presence of schistosomiasis organism
a. Chest x ray
b. Urinalysis
c. Stool examination
d. Platelet count

5. In schistosomiasis endemic areas, how can you prevent infection?

a. Isolate infected family member
b. Protect those susceptible with mosquito repellants, anti-mosquito soaps and treated nets
c. Wear rubber boots if exposed to contaminated water
d. Teach proper safe handling of foods

6. The infective stage of the schistosoma is called

a. Cercaria
b. Lyssa
c. Bilhariasis
d. Poecilus

7. What is the drug of choice for schistosomiasis?

a. Chloroquine phosphates
b. Erythromycin
c. Hetrazan (diethylcarbamazine citrate)
d. Praziquantel (biltricide)

8. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of schistosomiasis?

1. Diarrhea, bloody stools
2. Spleenomegaly and inflamed liver
3. Anemia and weakness
4. Epidydimitis and orchitis
5. Lymphagitis and lymphadenitis
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 4

RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS
TUBERCULOSIS
1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the
public health department within the next 24 hours?
a. An infant with a positive culture of stool of Shigella
b. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear
c. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced
sputum for Pneumocystis carinii
d. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an
erythematous base that appear on the skin

B- Tuberculosis is a reportable disease because persons who had contact with the client must
be traced and often must be treated with chemoprophylaxis for a designated time. Options a
and d may need contact isolation precautions. Option c findings may indicate the initial stage of
the autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).

2. The nurse is assigned to a client newly diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of these
protocols would be a priority for the nurse to implement?
a. Have the client cough into a tissue and dispose in a separate bag
b. Instruct the client to cover the mouth with a tissue when coughing
c. Reinforce for all to wash their hands before and after entering the room
d. Place client in a negative pressure private room and have all who enter the room use masks
with shields

D- A client with active tuberculosis should be hospitalized in a negative pressure room to

prevent respiratory droplets from leaving the room when the door is opened. Tuberculosis (TB)
is caused by spore-forming mycobacteria, more often Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In developed
countries the infection is airborne and is spread by inhalation of infected droplets. In
underdeveloped countries (Africa, Asia, South America), transmission also occurs by ingestion
or by skin invasion, particularly when bovine TB is poorly controlled

3. A client is admitted with a right upper lobe infiltrate and to rule out tuberculosis. The most
appropriate action by the nurse to protect the self would be which of these?
a. Negative room ventilation
b. Face mask with shield
c. Particulate respirator mask
d. Airborne precautions

C- Tight fitting, high-efficiency masks are required when caring for clients who have suspected
communicable disease of the airborne variety.

4. To prevent drug resistance common to tubercle bacilli, the nurse is aware that which of the
following agents are usually added to drug therapy?
a. Anti-inflammatory agent
b. High doses of B complex vitamins
c. Aminoglycoside antibiotic
d.Two anti-tuberculosis drugs

D- Resistance of the tubercle bacilli often occurs to a single antimicrobial agent. Therefore,
therapy with multiple drugs over a long period of time helps to ensure eradication of the
organism.

5. The nurse is caring for a client suspected to have Tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following
diagnostic tests is essential for determining the presence of active TB?
a. Tuberculin skin testing
b. Sputum culture
c. White blood cell count
d. Chest X-ray

B- The sputum culture is the most accurate method for determining the presence of active TB.

6. A client had arrived in the USA from a developing country 1 week prior. The client is to be
admitted to the medical surgical unit with a diagnosis of AIDS with a history of unintended
weight loss, drug abuse, night sweats, productive cough and a "feeling of being hot all the time."
The nurse should assign the client to share a room with a client with the diagnosis of
a. Acute tuberculosis with a productive cough of discolored sputum for over three months
b.Lupus and vesicles on one side of the middle trunk from the back to the abdomen
c. Pseudomembranous colitis and C. difficile.
d. Exacerbation of polyarthritis with severe pain

A- The client for admission has classic findings of pulmonary tuberculosis. Of the choices the
client in option A has the similar diagnosis and it is acceptable to put these types of clients in the
same room when no other alternative exists. Clients are considered contagious until the cough
is eliminated with medications which initially is a combination of 4 drugs simultaneously.

7. The recent increase in the reported cases of active tuberculosis (TB) in the United States is
attributed to which factor?
a. The increased homeless population in major cities
b. The rise in reported cases of positive HIV infections
c. The migration patterns of people from foreign countries
d. The aging of the population located in group homes

B- Between 1985 and 2002 there has been a significant increase in the reported cases of TB.
The increase was most evident in cities with a high incidence of positive HIV infection. Positive
HIV infection currently is the greatest known risk factor for reactivating latent TB infections as
well.

Situation: 52 – 56
Tuberculosis is one of the health problems in the municipality of pillar where you are assigned
as a public health nurse

8. The magnitude of the problem in a community can be measured throught the following
diagnostic method.
a. All of these
b. Tubercullin testing
c. Bacteriological examination
d. Chest X-ray examination

9. The following are integrated into the regular activities of the rural health unit.
a. All of these
b. BCG immunization
c. Case finding
d. Sputum microscopy

10. In a follow visit to a TB patient you explained to the other member of the family that the
patient is communicable:
a. As long as the patient is coughing
b. About 1 year or 2 years after infections
c. AS long as the tubercle bacilli is discharge in the sputum
d. About 4-12 weeks from infection

11. In response to the question as to how communicable is the patient you explained that the
degree of communicability depends on:
a. Number of bacilli discharged
b. Virulence of the bacilli
c. Chances of the bacilli to be spread through coughing and talking.
d. All these factors

12. To minimize/ prevent the spread of TB your health teaching includes which of the following:
a. Covering of nose and mouth when coughing or sneezing
b. Adherence to prescribed dosage and duration of treatment
c. Proper disposal of sputum and secretion soiled tissues
d. All these teachings

Situation: 96 -103
Mang Inasal is malnourished, living in a crowded area. He came in the health center due to loss
of weight, easy fatigability, chronic dry cough and low grade fever.

13. The main source of infection pulmonary tuberculous is:

a. Crowded living quarters
b. Unavailability of portable drinking water
c. Direct contact with infected person
d. Unsanitary surrounding

14. A physician orders an X- ray examination for the patient. What is the purpose for this?
a. To check if patient have relative with TB
b. To see the evidence of having the disease
c. Determine severity of the lesions in the lungs
d. To aid in doctors prescriptions.

15. In TB control program of DOH it has specific objectives; one on prevention is another
program which is focused in children, which one below on this program?
a. Differential prophylaxis
b. Sputum collection and examination
c. EPI for BCG vaccine
d. Tuberculin skin testing

16. On health education which one is the responsibility of the community health nurse?
a. Intensive and responsive IEC campaign
b. Intersection coordination
c. Supervision and monitoring
d. Periodic reporting and recording

17. If assigned to conduct research related to TB control which would provide epidemiological
and sociological information? Choose one method of data collection.
a. Identify operational problem
c. Read related literature
b. Prevalence survey
d. Include TB cases as population

18. A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis. The nurse should
include which intervention in the plan of care?
a. Putting on a mask when entering the client’s room.
b. Instructing the client to wear a mask at all times
c. Wearing a gown and gloves when providing direct care
d. Keeping the door to the client’s room open to observe the client

A- Because tuberculosis is transmitted by droplet nuclei from the respiratory tract, the nurse
should put on a mask when entering the client’s room. Having the client wear a mask at all the
times would hinder sputum expectoration and make the mask moist from respirations. If no
contact with the client’s blood or body fluids is anticipated, the nurse need not wear a gown or
gloves when providing direct care. A client with tuberculosis should be in a room with laminar air
flow, and the door should be closed at all times.

19. A woman whose husband was recently diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)
is a tuberculin skin test converter. Management of her care would include:
a. scheduling her for annual tuberculin skin testing
b. placing her in quarantine until sputum cultures are negative
c. gathering a list of persons with whom she has had recent contact
d. advising her to begin prophylactic therapy with isoniazid (INH)

Individuals who are tuberculin skin test converters should begin a 6-month regimen of an
antitubercular drug such as INH, and they should never have another skin test. After an
individual has a positive tuberculin skin test, subsequent skin tests will cause severe skin
reactions but won’t provide new information about the client’s TB status. The client doesn’t have
active TB, so can’t transmit, or spread, the bacteria. Therefore, she shouldn’t be quarantined or
asked for information about recent contacts.

Situation: 133 - 136

Tuberculosis, a primary disease is common among malnourished individuals living in crowded
places. The Dept. of Health survey of 1997 reveals that there are 600,000 actively spreading the
disease, and 16 million Filipinos are afflicted.

20. The bacteria producing the disease is:

a. Mycobacterium
b. Mycobacterium africanum
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycobacterium leprae

21. Which of the following is the mode of transmission pulmonary tuberculosis?

a. Ingested food
b. Skin contact
c. Airborne droplet
d. Used utensils

22. Which vaccine is a preventive measure during infancy and grade school entrants?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Tuberculin
d. OPV

23. As a nurse, which of the following topics is considered your health teaching in cases if
communicable diseases?
a. Prevalence of the disease in the community
b. Annual risk of infection
c. Mode of spread and control measure
d. Morality rate among adults and infants

24. Which of the following comprehensive strategies used to detect and cure tuberculosis?
a. Category and Treatment Regimen
b. Case finding and maintenance
c. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course
d. Strengthen national TB Control Program

25. a father of three young children is diagnosed by having tuberculosis, members of this
family who have a positive reaction to the tuberculin test are candidates for treatment with
a. BCG vaccine
b. INH and PAS
c. Old tuberculin
d. Purified protein derivative of tuberculin

26. If a person has been exposed to tuberculosis by shows no signs or symptoms except a
positive tuberculin test, prophylactic drug therapy is unusually continued after the last exposure
for a period of
a. 3 weeks
b. 4 months
c. 9 months
d. 2 years

27. Children in the family of a person who has tuberculosis who have been exposed to but show
no evidence of the disease
a. Can be considered to be immune
b. Should be given antitubercular drugs
c. Are usually given massive dose of penicillin
d. Are given x-ray examinations every 6 months

28. After receiving streptomycin sulfate for 2 weeks as part of the medical regimen for
tuberculosis the client states, ―I feel like I am walking like drunken seaman.‖ The nurse
withholds the drug and promptly reports the problem to the physician because the signs may be
a result the drug’s effect on the
a. Contain little if any sodium
b. Are readily absorbed by the stomach mucosa
c. Have no direct effect on systemic acid-base balance when taken as directed
d. Cause a few side effects such as diarrhea or constipation when they are used properly

29. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being treated for tuberculosis
with isoniazid (INH). The nurse plans to teach the client which of the following regarding the
administration of the medication?
a. Administer with an antacid to prevent gastrointestinal distress
b. Administer at least 1 hour before administering an aluminum containing antacid to
prevent a medication interaction
c. Administer with food to prevent rapid absorption of INH
d. Administer with corticosteroids to potentiate the effects of INH
30. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is to be admitted to a medical surgical unit. When
planning a bed assignment, the nurse:
a. Plans to transfer the client to the intensive care unit
b. Assigns the client to a double room, because intravenous antibiotics will be administered
c. Assigns the client to a double room and places a ―strict handwashing" sign outside the
door
d. Places the client in a private, well ventilated room

31. A client is suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The nurse assesses the client
which of the following signs and symptoms of TB?
a. Weight gain, insomnia, and night sweats
b. Low-grade fever, fatigue, and productive cough
c. High fever, night sweats, and chest pain
d. Decreased appetite, dyspnea and chills

32. A client who has a positive sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) has been
started on therapy with streptomycin. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing toxic
effects of the medication if which of the following results is abnormal?
a. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
b. Blood urea nitrogen ( BUN) and creatinine
c. Hepatic enzymes
d. Vision testing

33. Tuberculosis is highly infectious chronic disease caused by:

a. Streptococcus
b. Protozoan
c. Tubercle bacilli
d. E. Coli

34. Tuberculosis is spread by the following except.

a. Droplet
b. Sexual contact
c. Direct or indirect contact with person or object contaminated with the organism
d. Drinking unpasteurized milk

35. The age group with the highest risk for TB of developing the disease is between
a. Children under three years old
b. Children entering grade one
c. 8-12 years old
d. 13-15 years old

36. The modern management of TB patient is

a. Confinement in the hospital
b. Ambulatory treatment
c. Isolation
d. Sheltered colony

37. The following are anti-TB drugs except

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Dapsone
d. Pyrazinamide

38. Which of the following drugs when administered produces adverse reaction like peripheral
neuropathy?
a. INH
b. PZA
c. Rifampacin
d. Streptomycin

39. What drug of choice is given to counteract the effect of such drug(INH)
a. Aspirin
b. Vitamin B complex
c. Vitamin C
d. Antacid

40. A woman with active tuberculosis (TB) and has visited the health center for regular therapy
for five months wants to become pregnant. The nurse knows that further information is
necessary when the woman states:
a. ―Spontaneous abortion may occur in one out of five women who are infected‖
b. ―Pulmonary TB may jeopardize my pregnancy‖
c. ―I know that I may not be able to have close contact with my baby until contagious is no
longer a problem
d. ―I can get pregnant after I have been free of TB for 6 months‖

D- Intervention is needed when the woman thinks that she needs to wait only 6 months after
being free of TB before she can get pregnant. She needs to wait 1.5-2 years after she is
declared to be free of TB before she should attempt pregnancy.