IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

SENIOR NEET GT - 1
Date : 18.11.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII CODE- A Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded

4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if

no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

SUBJECT PAPER SETTER

PHYSICS Mr.VENKAT
CHEMISTRY Mr.VENKATESWARA RAO
BOTANY Mr.NARESH
ZOOLOGY Dr.BASHA
GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
PHYSICS
1. For a conducting wire, its resistance, R = 65 ± 1Ω, length, l = 5 ± 0.1mm and
diameter d = 10 ± 0.5 mm. Find approximate percentage error in calculation of its
resistivity.
1) 21% 2) 13% 3) 16% 4) 41%
2. Given below is a velocity-time graph for an object in motion along a straight line.

With reference to the above given figure, match the Column I

(displacement/distance) with Column II (magnitude) and select the correct
answer from the options given below.
Column – I Column - II
(A) The distance covered by the object in (I) 8m
time t = 0 to t = 2s.
(B) The acceleration of the object in time (II) . –2 ms–2
t = 0s to t = 2s
(C) The displacement of the object in time (III) 4m
t = 0 s to t = 4s.
(D) The distance of object in time t = 0 s (IV) 0
to t = 4 s.
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III II I IV 2) I II III IV
3) III II IV I 4) IV II I III
3. A block of mass 5 kg is suspended with two strings, as shown in figure. Find the
tension T1, T2 in each sting, if the system is in equilibrium. (Take, g = 10 m/s2)

 50 100   100 50   150 200 

1)  ,
 3 3
N 2)  ,
 3 3
N 3) 
 5
,
5
N  
4) 50 3,100 3 N

4. A charged particle is projected perpendicular to uniform magnetic field. It describes

a circle, the quantities which are inversely proportional to specific charge.
a) Radius b) Kinetic energy c) Time period d) Momentum
1) Only a, b 2) Only a, b, c 3) Only b, c 4)Only a, c

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
5. A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in
the process is:

1) 100 J 2) zero 3) 300 J 4) 200 J

6. Consider the collision depicted in figure to be between two billiard balls with equal
masses m1 = m2. The first ball is called the cue while the second ball is called the
target. The billiard player wants to sink the target ball in a corner pocket, which is
at an angle θ2 = 370 .

Assume that the collision is elastic and that friction and rotational motion are not
important. Obtain θ1.
1) 58o 2) 54o 3) 53o 4) 90o
7. Two identical particles each of mass 'm' go round a circle of radius a under the
action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The angular speed of eachparticle
will be:
Gm Gm Gm Gm
1) 2
2) 3
3) 3
4)
2a a 8a 4a 3
8. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the
glass is 3

1) 900 2) 600 3) 300 4) 450

9. An electron of mass m , charge ‘e’ with an initial velocity V  V0iˆ V0  0  enters an
electric field E   E0iˆ  E0  constant  0  at t = 0. If 0 is its de-Broglie wavelength
initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time is
0  eE 
1) 2) 0  1  0 t  3) 0 4) 0t
 eE0   mV0 
1  t
 mV0 

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
10. Match the Column-I (quantity) with Column-II (units). Where, Y = Young's
Modulus, A = Cross sectional area, l = Length and F = Force
Column – I Column - II
(A) Stress × Strain (I) Joule
(B) YA/l (II) Nm-1
(C) Yl3 (III) Joule m-3
(D) Fl/AY (IV) m
.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) III II I IV 2) II I III IV
3) III IV I II 4) I II IV III
11. Pressure at half of the depth of lake is equal to 3/4 pressure at the bottom of the
lake, then what is the depth of the lake? (1atm = 105 N/m2)
1) 20 m 2) 10 m 3) 40 m 4) 5 m
12. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 JT is placed in a uniform magnetic
–1

field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is
1) –0.064 J 2) zero 3) –0.082 J 4) 0.064 J
13. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4  H carrying a
current of 2 A is
1) 4  J 2) 4 mJ 3) 8 mJ 4) 8  J
14. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
1) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
2) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
3) in phase and perpendicular to each other
4) in phase and parallel to each other
15. Match the corresponding entries of column-I with column-II (Where m is the
magnification produced by the mirror) :
Column – I Column - II
(A) m=-2 (I) Convex mirror
(B) 1 (II) Concave mirror
m
2
(C) m = +2 (III) Real image for real object
(D) 1 (IV) Virtual image for real object
m
2
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II, III II, III II, IV I, IV 2) I,III I, IV I, II III, IV
3) I,IV II, III II,IV II,III 4) III, IV II, IV II, III I, IV
16. A magnet field 4 103 kJ  
ˆ exerts a force of 4iˆ  3 ˆj 1010 N ona particle of charge
109 C and goin in x-y plane. The velocity of the charged particle is
1) 75iˆ 100 ˆj 2) 75iˆ 100 ˆj 3) 100iˆ  75 ˆj 4) 100iˆ  75 ˆj
17. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : Viscosity of gases decrease with temperature.
Statement (II) : Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of
insoluble impurities like oil.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
18. A train is moving with a speed of 12 m/s on rails which are 1.5 m apart. To
negotiate a curve radius 400 m, the height by which the outer rail should be raised
with respect to the inner rail is (Given, g= 10 m/s2):
1) 6.0 cm 2) 5.4 cm 3) 4.8 cm 4) 4.2 cm
19. Stress-strain graph for elastic tissue of Aorta, the large tube (vessel) carrying blood
from heart is

20. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value
of R is given by

1) 200 2) 50 3) 100 4) 400

21. In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM) :
A. Restoring force is directly proportional to the negative displacement
B. The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction.
C. Velocity is maximum at mean position.
D. The acceleration is minimum at extreme points.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B and D only 2) C and D only
3) A, B and C only 4) A, C and D only
22. A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long straight wire carrying current I
are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right
with a constant velocity 'V'. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to

1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
 2x  a 
2
 2x  a 
2
 2 x  a  2 x  a  x2
23. The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large distance (r) from center of
dipole on the equatorial plane varies with distance as:
1 1 1
1) 2 2) 3) r 4) 3
r r r
24. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If  is the electric flux in units
of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of voltmeter will be

q  q 1 q 
1) 2) 3)  4)   
2 0 3 0 2  0 

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
25. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space
without any change in its velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic
field respectively, then the region of space may does not have:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) E = 0, B = 0 2) E = 0, B  0 3) E  0, B = 0 4) E  0, B  0

26.

A capacitor of 2  F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is

turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
1) 0% 2) 20% 3) 75% 4) 80%
27. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by
adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise
measurement of X, the resistances P and Q :

1) Should be approximately equal and are small

2) Should be very large and unequal
3) Do not play any significant role
4) Should be approximately equal to 2X
9
28. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume of a gas is .
7
Then the number of degrees of freedom of gas molecule is
1) 5 2) 3 3) 7 4) 8
29. A single slit of width ‘a’ gives a diffraction pattern with a central maximum. The
intensity falls to zero at angles of:
 3  3  2
1)  ,  , …... 2)  ,  ,...... 3)  ,  ,...... 4) None of the above
2a 2a 3a 5a a a
30. The least count of a vernier callipers is 0.01 cm and its zero error is +0.02 cm.
While measuring the length of a rod, the main scale reading is 4.8 cm and sixth
division on vernier scale is in line with a marking on the main scale. Calculate the
length of the rod.
1) 4.80 cm 2) 4.84 cm 3) 5 cm 4) 4.88 cm
31. A plano convex lens is made of refractive index of 1.6. The radius of curvature of
the curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is:
1) 50 cm 2) 100 cm 3) 200 cm 4) 400 cm

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
32. The initial speed of a projectile fired from ground is u. At the highest point during
3
its motion, the speed of projectile is u . The time of flight of the projectile is:
2
u 2u u 3u
1) 2) 3) 4)
g g 2g g
33. A sonometer wire of length 114 cm is fixed at both the ends. Where should the two
bridges be placed so as to divide the wire into three segments whose fundamental
frequencies are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4 ?
1) 24 cm and 72 cm 2) 72 cm and 96 cm
3) 18 cm and 72 cm 4) 18 cm and 24 cm
34. An observer looks at a tree of height 15m with a telescope of magnitising power 10.
To him the tree appears
1) 10 times taller 2) 15 times taller 3) 10 times near 4) 15 times near
35. Ratio of moment of inertia of a hollow sphere to that of a solid cylinder of equal
mass, about their axis AB as shown in figure is 8 / x . The value of x is:

1) 34 2) 51 3) 67 4) 17
36. Two sperical bodies of mass m and 5m and radii R and 2R respectively are released
in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they
attract each other due to gravitational force only then the distance covered by small
sphere just before collision will be:

1) 5R 2) 7.5R 3) 2.5R 4) 6R
37. Two parallel plates have equal and opposide charge. When the space between them
is evacuated. The electric field between the plates is 2×105V/m . When the space
is filled with dielectric, the electric field becomes 1×105V /m.The dielectric constant
of the dielectric material:
1) 1/2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
38. Assertion: A brass disc fits snugly in the hole of the iron plate. To remove the disc
system must be cooled.
Reason: The coefficient of linear expansion of brass is more than that of iron.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false 4) Assertion is false and reason is true

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
39. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is 0.5 Am2. It is suspended in a uniform
magnetic field of 8 102 T . The work done in rotating it from its most stable to most
unstable position is:
1) 4 102 J 2) 16 102 J 3) 8 102 J 4) zero
40. Assertion : Two metallic spheres are unequally charged to the same potential. One
of them is hollow and another is solid, and both have the same radii.
Reason : Capacitance of metallic spheres depend on the radii of spheres. Then
charge on them is same
1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
3) Assertion is false but reason is true. 4) Both assertion and reason false.
41. The following configuation of gate is equivalent to:

1) NAND 2) NOR 3) OR 4) None of these.

42. Which of the following nuclear fragments corresponding to nuclear fission between
neutron  n
1
0 and  235
92 U  uranium isotope is correct:
1) 140
56 Xe 38
94
Sr  310 n 2) 153
51 Sb 99
41 Nb  30 n 3)
1 144
56 Ba 89
36 Kr  40 n 4)
1 144
56 Ba 89
36 Kr  30 n
1

43. An electron of a hydrogen like ion, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd
energy state. The energy released in this process, will be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV)
Where R = Rydberg constant
c = Speed of light in vacuum
h = Planck's constant
1) 10.5 eV 2) 40.8 eV 3) 13.6 eV 4) 3.4 eV
44. In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. To keep the
resonance frequency unchanged, the new inductance should be:
L
1) Increased by 2 L 2) Reduced by
4
3L
3) Reduced by 4) Increased to 4 L.
4
45. Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220 V ac. Primary and secondary
turns of the transforms are 100 and 10 respectively. Secondary coil of transformer
is connected to two series resistances shown in figure. The output voltage (V0) is:

1) 7 V 2) 44 V 3) 22 V 4) 15 V

CHEMISTRY
46. Reaction of propanamide with ethanolic sodium hydroxide and bromine will give1)
Aniline 2) Ethylamine 3) Methylamine 4) Propylamine
47. Orbital angular momentum of a 3d-electron is _______
3h 3h 6h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
48. The pair of both amphoteric oxides is
1) B2O3, Al2O3 2) CO2, SiO2 3) CO2, B2O3 4) SnO2, PbO2
49. Which has the highest second ionisation potential?
1) Nitrogen 2) Carbon 3) Oxygen 4) Fluorine
50. Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
1) O 2 , NO  2) CN  , CO 3) N 2 , O2 4) CO, NO
51. Match the following:
COLUMN – I (molecules) COLUMN – II (shape)
A) NH 3 P) Square pyramidal
B) ClF3 Q) Trigonal bipyramidal
C) PCl5 R) Trigonal pyramidal
D) BrF5 S) Bent T-shape
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 2) A – Q, B – R, C – S, D – P
3) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P 4) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q
52. If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na 3 PO 4 , the maximum number of
moles of Ba 3  PO4 2 that can be formed is  3 Bacl2  2 Na3 PO4  Ba3  PO4 2  6 NaCl 
1) 0.7 2) 0.5 3) 0.3 4) 0.1
53. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental
analysis gives 38.71% of C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the
compound would be
1) CHO 2) CH 4 O 3) CH 3 O 4) CH 2 O
54. The dissociation of CO 2 can be expressed as 2CO2g 2COg + O2g . If the 2 mol of
CO 2 is taken initially and 40% of the CO 2 is dissociated completely. What is the
total number of moles at equilibrium
1) 2.4 2) 2.0 3) 1.2 4) 5
55. The highest pH value is for
1) 0.1 M NaCl 2) 0.1 M NH 4 Cl
3) 0.1 M CH 3 COONa 4) 0.1 M CH 3 COONH 4
56. Standard enthalpies of combustion of CH3OH  I  , C s  , and H2  g  are -726, -393
and -286 kJ mol-1 respectively. What will be the standard enthalpy of formation of
CH3 OH  I  ?
1) -239 kJ/mol 2) -383 kJ/mol 3) -620 kJ/mol 4) -46 kJ/mol
57. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
1) CuO  s  + H2  g   Cu s  + H2 O  g 
2) 2NaOH  aq  + H2SO4  aq   Na 2SO4  aq  +2H2O  l 
3) 2K  s  + F2  g   2KF s 
4) 4 NH3  g  +5O2  g   4 NO  g  +6 H2 O  g 
58. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant
volume for the reaction. 2C6 H6  l   15O2  g   12CO2  g   6H 2O l  At 250 C in KJ is

 R  8.314 JK 1
mole1 
1) + 7.43 2) +3.72 3) -7.43 4) -3.72

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
59. Which of the following species is not aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)

60. The most stable carbanion among the following is

1) 2) 3) 4)

61. Which of the following acids on decarboxylation gives isobutane

1) 2, 2-Dimethyl butanoic acid 2) 2, 2-dimethyl propanoic acid
3) 3-Methyl pentanoic acid 4) 2-Methyl butanoic acid
62. Which of the following alkenes on reductive ozonolysis gives only ketones as
products?
A) CH 3 -CH=CH-CH 3 B)

C) D)

1) A and B 2) B and C 3) B and D 4) C and D

63.

A and B are
A B
1) CH 3 CH 2 CHO, CH 3 COCH 3
2) CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 CH 2 CHO
3) CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 COCH 3
4) CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH
64. The electrophile introduced in the benzene ring during sulphonation of benzene
is

1) SO 2 2) SO3 3) SO 3 4) SO3
+

65. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

1) Tl < In < Ga < Al 2) In < Tl < Ga < Al
3) Ga < In < Al < Tl 4) Al < Ga < In < Tl
66. Which of the following solution can form maximum boiling azeotrope?
1) HCI+H 2 O 2) CH 3 OH + H 2 O 3) C 2 H 5 OH + H 2 O 4) C6 H 5 CI + C6 H 5 Br
67. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol-1 ) has been prepared by dissolving
68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained
will be  K f for water =1.86 K kg mol-1 
1) - 0.372 0 C 2) - 0.520 0 C 3)  0.372 0 C 4)  0.570 0 C
68. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303  10 3 s 1 . The time required for
40g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be [Given that log10 2  0.301 ]
1) 602 s 2) 230.3 s 3) 301 s 4) 2000 s

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GT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-18.11.2024
69. The rate constants k1 and k 2 for two different reactions are 1016. e 2000 / T and
1015. e 1000 / T , respectively. The temperature at which k1  k2 is
2000 1000
1) 1000 K 2) K 3) 2000 K 4) K
2.303 2.303
70. The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode having pOH = 4 and 250 C is
1) Zero volt 2) -0.59 V 3) 0.59 V 4) 59 mV
71. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K
Ni  s  +2Ag+  0.001M   Ni 2+  0.001M  +2Ag s 
2.303RT
(Given that E 0cell = 1.05 V, = 0.059 at 298 K )
F
1) 1.385 V 2) 0.9615 V 3) 1.05 V 4) 1.0385 V
72. Choose the correct order as the property indicated
1) F > Cl > Br > l - Negative electron gain enthalpy
2) CI > F > Br > I - Electronegativity
3) CI2 > Br2 > F2 > I 2 - Bond dissociation energy
4) F2 < CI 2 < Br2 < I 2 - Oxidizing power
73. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order
H 2 O > H 2 Te > H 2Se  H 2S
Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H 2 O is expected to have lower
boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the
presence of extensive intermolecular H-bonding in H 2 O , it has
higher boiling point
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
74. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as
well?
1) CrO 2-4 2) Cr2O72- 3) MnO 2-4 4) MnO-4
75. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following
is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
1)  Xe 4 f 8 6d 2 2)  Xe 4 f 9 5s1 3)  Xe 4 f 7 5d 1 6s 2 4)  Xe 4 f 6 5d 2 6s 2
76. Match List – I with List – II:
COLUMN – I (Complexes) COLUMN – II (Types)
A) Co  NH3 5 NO2  Cl2 and Co  NH3 5 ONO Cl2 P) Ionisation isomerism
B) Cr  NH3 6  Co  CN 6  and Cr  CN 6  Co  NH3 6  Q) Coordination isomerism
C) Co  NH3 5 SO4  Br and Co  NH3 5 Br  SO4 R) Linkage isomerism
D) Cr  H2 O 6  Cl3 and Cr  H 2 O 5 Cl  Cl2 H 2 O S) Solvate isomerism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P 2) A – R, B – P, C – Q, D – S
3) A – Q, B – R, C – S, D – P 4) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
77. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K 4 Fe  CN 6 
based on crystal field theory?
1) t2g
4 2
eg 2) t2g
6 0
eg 3) eg3 t23g 4) eg4 t22g
78. The compound that will undergo S N 1 reaction with the fastest rate is

1) 2) 3) 4)

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79. In the following sequence of reactions

the end product (C)

is:
1) Acetone 2) Methane 3) Acetaldehyde 4) Ethyl alcohol
80. Consider the following reaction:

, Identify products A and B

1) 2)

3) 4)

81. Which of the following acid has the lowest pKa?

CH3  CH -COOH
1) CH 3 CH 2 COOH 2) CH 2 =CHCOOH 3) CH  C-COOH 4)
CH3
82. Match List – I with List – II:
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(Products (Reaction of carbonyl compound
formed) with)
A) Cyanohydrin P) NH 2 OH
B) Acetal or Ketal Q) RNH 2
C) Schiff’s base R) Alcohol
D) Oxime S) HCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A – Q, B – R, C – S, D – P 2) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S
3) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P 4) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P
83. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?

1) 2)

3) 4)

84. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D

The structure of D would be

1) CH 3 CH 2 CONH 2 2) CH 3 CH 2 NHCH 3 3) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 4) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
85. The wave number of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200 cm 1 . The
wave number of the corresponding line of Li 2 ion is
1) 15200 cm 1 2) 60800 cm 1 3) 76000 cm 1 4) 136800 cm 1

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86. Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product ‘Y’

The structure of ‘Y’ would be;

1) 2)

3) 4)

87. Which of the following biomolecule is not soluble in water?

1) Glycine 2) Amylopectin 3) Maltose 4) Insulin
88. The vitamin B which can be stored in human body is
1) Vitamin B12 2) Vitamin B2 3) Vitamin B 6 4) Vitamin B10
89. Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is
1) aqueous copper sulphate
2) alkaline copper sulphate
3) alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
4) aqueous sodium citrate
90. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in
1) NH 2 CONHNH 2 .HCl 2) NH 2 NH 2 .HCl
3) NH 2 CONH 2 4) C6 H 5 NHNH 2 .HCl

BIOLOGY
91. Read the following statements and select the incorrect statement `
1) Dinoflagellates are mostly marine while majority of euglenoids are running fresh
water organisms
2) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher plants
3) Euglenoids have elastic protein rich layer called pellicle.
4) Diatoms have silica rich cell wall
92. In which of the following options, all the members do not belong to same class.
1) Bread mould, mucor, parasitic fungi on mustard
2) Claviceps, Neurospora, bracket fungi
3) Rust, smut, mushrooms, bracket fungi
4) Colletotrichum, Alternaria and Trichoderma
93. Viruses are made up of
1) Nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) only 2) Nucleic acids + carbohydrates + protein
3) Protein + DNA + RNA 4) Nucleic acid + Protein (Nucleoprotein)
94. Which of the following statement is true for algae :-
1) Algae have root, stem and leaves 2) Algae have true roots but lack leaves
3) Algae have rhizoids and leaves 4) Body of algae is thalloid
95. Assertion (A) : Like flowering plants, pteridophytes do not have an independent
free living existence of gametophyte.
Reason (R) : In angiosperms and pteridophytes, female gametophyte remain
within the sporangia retained on the gametophytes.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

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96. Select the correct statement :-
1) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
2) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are Gymnosperms.
3) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species
4) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
97. Innumerable (many) vascular bundles, lack of cambium and lack of a well
demarcated pith is found in the stem of
1) Sugarcane, Grass 2) Sunflower, Neem 3) Radish, Neem 4) Pea, Peepal
98. Monocot root differ from dicot root in having :-
1) Open vascular bundle 2) Scattered vascular bundle
3) Large pith 4) Radial vascular bundle
99. A meristem may be defined as the group of cells which :-
1) Does not divide 2) Conserve food
3) Divide continuously to give rise to new cells
4) Elongate, mature and add to the group of cells
100. An elaborate network of filamentous __________ structures present in the cytoplasm
is collectively referred to as the __________.
1) Proteinaceous, microbodies 2) Lipoidal, Middle lamella
3) Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton 4) Lipoidal, Cytoskeleton
101. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
A. Rough ER i. Packaging of materials
B. Smooth ER ii. Protein synthesis
C. Golgi Complex iii. Digestion of complex macro moleucles
D. Lysosome iv. Steroidal hormone synthesis
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii 2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i 4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-i
102. As the ________ molecules cannot pass through the _________ lipid bilayer, they
require a carrier ________ of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the
membrane.
1) Non-polar, polar, lipid 2) Polar, non-polar, lipid
3) Non-polar, polar, protein 4) Polar, non-polar, protein
103. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related function?

1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy
3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane
104. Macro molecule chitin is :-
1) Simple homopolysaccharide 2) complex homopolysaccharide
3) complex heteropolysaccharide 4) simple heteropolysaccharide

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105. Assertion (A) : Catalytic activity is lost, when the co-factor is removed from the
enzyme.
Reason (R) : Co-factor, if present, make the enzyme, apoenzyme.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
106. How many chromosomes shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if
the gamete cell has ten chromosomes?
1) 10 (Ten) 2) 20 (Twenty) 3) 30 (Thirty) 4) 40 (Forty)
107. In which stage of mitosis, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?
1) Prophase & metaphase 2) Anaphase and telophase
3) Prophase and telophase 4) Metaphase and anaphase
108. Match the following with respect to meiosis:
(A) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(B) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(C) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(D) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the following:
Codes :
(1) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i (2) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i (4) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii
109. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac:
1) Egg cell 2) Central cell
3) Persistent synergid 4) Degenerating synergid
110. Wind pollinated flowers are:
1) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
2) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
3) Small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
4) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen
111. Which one of the following statements is not true?
1) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
3) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
112. In photosynthesis, hydrogen is transferred from the light reactions to dark
reactions by: –
1) NAD 2) DNA 3) ATP 4) NADP
113. Fixation of 1 CO2 requires (w.r.t. photosynthesis, plants)
1) 6NADPH(H+) & 3ATP 2) 2NADPH(H+) & 3ATP
3) 4NADPH(H+) & 3ATP 4) 5NADPH(H+) & 3ATP

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114. Study the pathway given below: -

In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C
are indicated?
A B C
1) Fixation Transmination Regeneration
2) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
3) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
4) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration
115. Read the following four statements, A, B, C and D and select the right option having
both correct statements.
Statements: (A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only.
(B) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH(H+)
(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP reductase
Options:
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) B and D
116. Which component of ETS is mobile carrier?
1) UQ (CO-Q) 2) Cyt - a 3) Cyt - b 4) Cyt – f
117. How many ATP molecules produced from the complete oxidation of a molecule of
acetyl Co-A?
1) 38 ATP 2) 15 ATP 3) 12 ATP 4) 4 ATP
118. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration- mediated breakdown of fats,
carbohydrates and proteins?
1) Acetyl CoA 2) Glucose–6–phosphate
3) Fructose-1, 6–bisphosphate 4) Pyruvic acid
119. Find out the sequence of genes on chromosome if recombination frequency
between genes A & B, C & D, B & C and A & C are 12%, 5%, 3% and 15%
respectively.
1) ACBD 2) CBAD 3) ABCD 4) DCAB

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120. A plant with AaBb composition, on self pollination result in which of the following
genotypic ratio of the progeny? AABB AABb AaBB AaBb
1) 2/16 2/16 2/16 2/16 2) 1/16 2/16 2/16 4/16
3) 1/16 2/16 2/16 1/16 4) 1/16 1/16 1/16 1/16
121. The figure below shows :-

1) Independent assortment of chromosome 2) Linkage

3) Equational division 4) Recombination
122. If one strand of double stranded DNA, consists of the sequence 3'–ATTCGTAC–5',
then the complementary sequence must be –
1) 5'–UAAGCAUG–3' 2) 3'–TAAGCATG–5'
3) 5'–TAAGCATG–3' 4) 3'–UAAGCAUG–5' in the reverse direction
123. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is allowed to
duplicate in an environment containing non- radioactive thymidine. What will be
the exact number of DNA molecules that contains the radioactive thymidine after
3 duplications -
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Eight
124. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids,
and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes
998 bases, how many codons will be altered ?
1) 11 2) 33 3) 333 4) 1
125. Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed products :
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
(b) RNA polymerase II (ii) 18S rRNA
(c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
Select the correct option from the following :
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
126. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering because: -
1) They can degrade harmful proteins
2) They can join DNA fragments
3) They can cut DNA at variable site
4) They can cut DNA at specific base sequences
127. Which one of the following has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants?
1) Bacillus coagulens 2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
3) Clostridium septicum 4) Xanthomonas citri

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128. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of
non-recombinant bacteria because of: -
1) Inactivation of gene for glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
2) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase
3) Insertional inactivation of gene for alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant
bacteria
4) Insertional inactivation of gene for beta-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
129. Match the following enzymes with their functions: -
(a) Restriction endonuclease (i) Joins the DNA fragments
(b) Restriction exonuclease (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template
(c) DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position
(d) Taq. polymerase (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following.
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
130. Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea-
leaves. This is because: -
1) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated
2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
3) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
131. The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment leading
to formation of different kinds of structures is called :
1) Redifferentiation 2) Development 3) Plasticity 4) Differentiation
132. Monadelphous character is found in :-
1) Brassicaceae (Mustard) 2) Malvaceae (Chinarose)
3) Poaceae (Grass) 4) Solanaceae (Potato)
133. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Septa are absent (I) Sunflower
(B) False septum (II) Dianthus
(C) Multilocular ovary (III) Tomato
(D) Single ovule (IV) Mustard
.

1) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - I 2) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

3) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I 4) A –I II, B - I, C - II, D – IV

134. The floral formula

1) Tobacco 2) Tulip 3) Soyabean 4) Sunhemp

135. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table ?
Microbe Product Application
1) Trichoderma polysporm Cyclosporin A Immunosuppressive drug
2) Monascus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol
3) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood
vessel
4) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains

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136. Assertion: Earliest classifications were based on the uses of various organisms.
Reason: In early days human beings needed to find sources for their basic needs
of food, clothing and shelter.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
137. Name the amino acid which has its 2 molecules present in the fi rst 7 amino acid
of β-chain of haemoglobin of a healthy man.
1) Val 2) His 3) Leu 4) Glu
138. The number of individuals of population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere
during the time period under consideration refer to
1) Immigration 2) Emigration 3) Natality 4) Mortality
139. The interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefitted can be seen during
1) Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
2) Association between fungus and cyanobacteria
3) Association between fungus and roots of higher plants
4) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants
140. Which of the given can be primary consumer?
1) Grass 2) Cow 3) Wolf 4) Lion
141. Match the following columns:
Column – I Column – II
(Genus name) (Common name)
(A) Ancyclostomes Hook worm
(B) Wucheraria Filarial worm
(C) Ascaris Round worm
(D) Trichophyton Ring worms
.

Which of the above are correctly matched?

1) A, B, C and D 2) A, B and D only
3) A, B and C only 4) B and C only
142. Which of the given invertebrates have maximum global diversity?
1) Moluscs 2) Insects 3) Crustaceans 4) Annelids
143. The world summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in
1) Rio de Janeiro 2) Johannesburg 3) Canada 4) Japan
144. Match the following columns
Column I Column II
A. Golden rice I. Armyworm
B. Bt toxin II. Rich in vitamin-A
C. RNAi III. Cry protein
D. Lepidopterans IV. Gene silencing

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II III IV I 2) III IV I II
3) IV I II III 4) II I III IV
145. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
A. Haemophilia 1. Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
B. Down’s syndrome 2. Delayed clotting of blood
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome 3. Gynecomastia
D. Turner’s Syndrome 4. Rudimentary ovaries
1) A : 1; B : 3; C : 2; D : 4 2) A : 2; B : 1; C : 3; D : 4
3) A : 4; B : 2; C : 1; D : 3 4) A : 1; B : 2; C : 3; D : 4

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146. Select the set of animals which possess pseudocoelom and exhibit bilateral
symmetry.
1) Locusta, Ancylostoma, Hirudinaria 2) Nereis, Ascaris, Pheretima
3) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma 4) Fasciola, Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana
147. Study the following what is common for the below listed bones of human skeleton?
Rib, Parietal bone, Scapula, Sternum.
1) Size 2) Function 3) Shape 4) Both 1 & 2
148. Assertion: Frogs show hibernation and aestivation
Reason: These protect frog from extreme cold and heat respectively
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
149. A type of cell junction which primarily helps to cement neighbouring cells to keep
them together is called
1) Adhering junction 2) Tight junction
3) Gap junction 4) Basement membrane
150. Identify which of the following features can be associated with smooth muscle fibres
a) Fusiform b) Striated c) Unbranched d) Contractility
Choose the correct option.
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a, c and d 4) a, b and c
151. Alveoli of lungs and blood vessels are internally lined by
1) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Squamous epithelium
3) Columnar epithelium 4) Pseudostratified epithelium
152. In a certain taxon of insects, some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18
chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome bearing organisms are
1) Males and females, respectively 2) Females and males, respectively
3) All males 4) All females
153. Choose the incorrect statement from the following about artificial kidney.
1) Haemodialysis is used to remove urea.
2) Blood drained from artery is pumped into dialyzing unit after adding heparin.
3) The composition of dialyzing fluid is having different composition from that of
plasma
4) The cleared blood (after dialysis) is pumped back to the body through a vein.
154. An adult mammal with 50kg body weight has the following functional parameters
of its lungs.
Inspiratory reserve volume= 40ml/kg body weight
Expiratory reserve volume = 15ml/kg body weight
Vital capacity = 60ml/kg body weight
Breathing rate = 20/min
The volume (in litre) of air that its lungs displace in 24 hours is
1)72,000 2) 7, 200 3) 3,600 4) 1,200
155. Select the set of factors favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the
oxyhaemoglobin in the tissues
1) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
2) High pO2, low pCO2, low H+ concentration
3) Low pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration
4) High pO2, high pCO2, low H+ concentration

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156. Match the items given in Column – I with those in Column – II and select the
correct option given below:
Column – I Column - II
(A) O blood group individuals (I) Universal recipients
(B) Basophils (II) Granulocytes
(C) AB blood group individuals (III) Bilobed nucleus
(D) Eosinophils (IV) Universal donors
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) I II IV III 2) III IV I II
3) IV II I III 4) I IV III II
157. Given below are four statements (a – d)
(a) Coronary artery disease is referred to as atherosclerosis
(b) The P-wave of ECG represents the electrical excitation of the ventricles
(c) Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system
(d) The cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped out by each
ventricle per stroke
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) b and c 2) a and c 3) c and d 4) b and d
158. With decrease in blood pressure and blood volume the release of ________ is
suppressed. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
1) Vasopressin 2) Aldosterone 3) ANF 4) Renin
159. How many of the following animals in the given box are ureotelic?
Frog, Pigeon, Lizards, Humans, Cockroach
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
160. Select the correct option.
A) Femur is the longest bone in human body.
B) The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called false ribs
C) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis.
D) The organ of Corti converts the nerve impulses into sound vibrations.
1) A, B, C, D true 2) A, B, C only true 3) A, C only true 4) B, D only true
161. The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of __A__ species (including
__B__ plants and __C__ vertebrates) in the last __D__ years. The A,B,C,D
respectively are
1) 500, 784, 333, 87 2) 784, 87, 338, 500
3) 87, 338, 784, 500 4) 784, 500, 338, 87
162. Select the odd one w.r.t brain stem.
1) Pons 2) Cerebellum 3) Medulla oblongata 4) Midbrain
163. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched w.r.t hormone and its
deficiency diseases/disorders?
1) GH – Pituitary dwarfism 2) Thyroxine – Grave’s disease
3) Adrenal cortical hormones – Addison’s disease 4) ADH – Diabetes insipidus
164. Which among the given hormones would enter the target cell and interact with
intracellular receptors to exert its function?
1) Insulin 2) Glucagon 3) Testosterone 4) Epinephrine
165. Match the following columns
Column I Column II
A. Rosie I. Emphysema
B. Biopiracy II. Right granted for biological entities
C. Biopatent III. Unauthorised use of biological products and processes
D. 𝛼 – 1- antitrypsin IV. Transgenic cow
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV III II I 2) III II I IV
3) II I IV III 4) IV I III II

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166. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of
1) Double helical structure of DNA
2) Coding sequence are identical in all individuals.
3) Polymorphism in non-coding sequences
4) Semi-conservative mode of replication
167 The malignant tumors show all the following features except
1) Uncontrolled and rapid growth 2) Damage to surrounding tissues
3) Presence of contact inhibition 4) Metastasis
168. Observe the following interspecific interactions.
Commensalism, Ammensalism, Mutualism, Paraistism
How many of these are beneficial type to neither of the species ?
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4
169. Read the given statements (a to e) and select the option which correctly states
them as True (T) or False (F).
(a) Respiration in flying fox is by lungs
(b) Fertilisation is internal in Ornithorhynchus
(c) Heart is four-chambered in Chameleon
(d) Air sacs in Psittacula supplement respiration
a b c d a b c d
1) T F F T 2) T F T T
3) T T F T 4) T T T F
170. How many of the following organs are secondary lymphoid organs in human body?
Bone marrow, Thymus, Peyer’s patches, Spleen, Tonsils, Appendix, Lymph
nodes
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six
171. In a female cockroach, the location of which body part corresponds to 2nd to 6th
abdominal segments?
1) Gonapophyses 2) Ovaries 3) Mushroom gland 4) Collaterial gland
172. During fertilization changes induced in which layer ensures that only one sperm
can fertilise an ovum?
1) Corona radiata 2) Zona pellucida
3) Acrosomal layer of sperm 4) Trophoblast
173. A diagrammatic section of ovary is given below. Choose the option which correctly
identifies A and B.

A B
1) Primary follicle Ovum
2) Graafian follicle Ovum
3) Graafian follicle Corpus luteum
4) Tertiary follicle Corpus luteum
174. The normal site for meiotic division of the secondary oocyte in a human female is
1) Fallopian tube 2) Ovary 3) Vagina 4) Cervix
175. Which of the following methods of birth control gives the additional benefit of
protecting the user from contracting STIs and AIDS?
1) Lippes loop 2) Condoms 3) Progestasert 4) Implants

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176. Flying phalanger and flying squirrel show all of the following except
1) Convergent evolution 2) Adaptive convergence
3) Analogy 4) Adaptive radiation
177. All of the following gases were present in the urey-Miller experiment except
1) CH4 2) O2 3) NH3 4) H2
178. The first human – like being, the hominid, was called
1) Homo sapiens 2) Homo habilis 3) Homo erectus 4) Neanderthal man
179. Read the following statements.
I) Stellar’s sea cow becomes extinct due to over exploitation by humans.
II) Biodiversity hot spots are examples of insitu conservation.
III) Habitat loss and fragmentation causes alien species invasion.
IV) Tropics have greater biological diversity.
1) I, II, III, IV true 2) I, II, IV true 3) I, III, IV true 4) II, III, IV true
180. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature,
according to
1) Thomas Malthus 2) Lamarck 3) Hugode Vries 4) Charles Darwin

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY