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ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. weather B. earthquake C. anything D. birthday
Question 2: A. climate B. divide C. primary D. religion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cattle B. country C. canal D. brother
Question 4: A. emphasize B. restructure C. advocate D. graduate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Benzene, ______ by Faraday, became the starting point in the manufacture of many dyes, perfumes
and explosives.
A. which discover B. to discover C. discovering D. discovered
Question 6: The cost of living in Ha Noi is ______ than that in the countryside.
A. expensive B. most expensive C. the most expensive D. more expensive
Question 7: He will take the dog out for a walk ______ dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes dinner B. by the time he had finished dinner
C. when he finished dinner D. before he will finish dinner
Question 8: I am tired ______ watching the same program everyday.
A. of B. with C. for D. to
Question 9: Health authorities have activated their most serious response level, ______?
A. haven’t it B. hadn’t they C. have it D. haven’t they
Question 10: Have you read ______ book I lent you yesterday?
A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
Question 11: When Mrs. Maxwell died, Mr. Maxwell became a _______.
A. house husband B. grass widow C. widower D. widow
Question 12: The province’s personnel administration department announces to award prizes to the staff who can
_______ good solution.
A. come up with B. catch up with C. go through with D. live up to
Question 13: There was a lot of traffic but we managed ______ to the airport in time.
A. to come B. being come C. coming D. come
Question 14: She does the job adequately but she’s not going to set the ______ on fire.
A. world B. sun C. moon D. earth
Question 15: She hurt herself while she ______ hide-and-seek with her friends.
A. is playing B. had played C. played D. was playing
Question 16: As estimated in the report, the storm ______ great damage to not only the coastal cities but the
mountainous areas as well.
A. made B. caused C. led D. brought
Question 17: You ______ of the result of your exam by letter next week.
A. will be informed B. was informing C. informed D. inform
Question 18: He cannot make a ______ to get married to Mary or stay single until he can afford a house and a
car.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
th
Question 19: The technological revolutions and economic development of the 19 century had a considerable
_______ on workers.
A. cause B. effect C. consequence D. impact
1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges:
Question 20: Jane and Lucy are talking in the school yard.
- Jane: “You look so wonderful in your new shirt!”
- Lucy: “______.”
A. No problem B. Thank you very much. I’m afraid
C. It’s kind of you to say so D. You’re welcome
Question 21: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?”
- Salah: “______. We can’t afford such a big event.”
A. No, I don’t think so B. You can say that again
C. I can’t agree with you more D. Yes, you’re right
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.
A. harmless B. crude C. detrimental D. innocent
Question 23: Ben’s dreams of a university education went by the board when his father died and he was forced
to earn a living.
A. became possible B. turned into a nightmare
C. got rejected D. got prolonged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: In the United States, the elementary education is compulsory nationwide, with state governments
having no say in the issue.
A. perfunctory B. optional C. rational D. mandatory
Question 25: They are willing to accept a job that is not ideal, but it may be a good starting point for their
careers.
A. elegant B. stylish C. cultural D. perfect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26: “What did you do last weekend, Tim?” Alice asked
A. Alice asked Tim what had he done the previous weekend
B. Alice asked Tim what he had done the previous weekend.
C. Alice asked Tim what did he do last weekend.
D. Alice asked Tim what he had done last weekend.
Question 27: We last met each other a long time ago.
A. We haven’t met each other for a long time.
B. The last time we met each other is a long time ago.
C. We last met each other for a long time.
D. We started meeting each other a long time ago.
Question 28: You are not permitted to use your mobile phone during the test.
A. You may use your mobile phone during the test.
B. You should use your mobile phone during the test.
C. You needn’t use your mobile phone during the test.
D. You mustn’t use your mobile phone during the test.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.

2
Question 29: Many students, along with his friends, have received permission to go ahead with the music
festival.
A. students B. his C. permission D. with
Question 30: We would like to thank everyone who contributes to our group’s success last year.
A. would like B. who C. success D. contributes
Question 31: Kangaroos are part of cultural and spiritual significance for many ingenious Australians.
A. significance B. spiritual C. cultural D. ingenious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: I drank the liquid. Right after that I realized it was not water.
A. No sooner I had drunk the liquid than I realized that it was not water.
B. Only after I drink the liquid will I realize it is not water.
C. Only when I drank the liquid did I realize it was water.
D. Hardly had I drunk the liquid when I realized that it was not water.
Question 33: You drink too much coffee, that’s why you can’t sleep.
A. If you drank less coffee, you would be able to sleep.
B. You drink much coffee and you can sleep.
C. You wouldn’t sleep well if you hadn’t drink any coffee.
D. You can sleep better without coffee.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Sport and sport events provide a significant source of volunteering opportunities for a wide range of individuals.
(34) ______ organizers of major Sport events tend to target the youth market to source volunteers due to the
apparent high level of interest in sport by this group, not only in terms of young people who watch a particular
sport, but also those (35) ______ participate in it. It is therefore suggested that sport may act as a kind of
‘nursery’ for volunteering and that the experiences (36) ______ to young people in sport may be critical for their
future volunteer involvement, not only in sport but the broader society. By developing an interest in volunteering
as a young person, it is hoped that these people will continue to volunteer as they become adults. One of the
most common approaches by many event organizers is a place an advertisement in the local media which invites
readers to contact the organization. (37) ______, it is possible to adopt a more formally structured recruitment
program through schools and universities. The (38) ______ of this approach is to establish a relationship
between the governing body of a particular sport and young people from an early age, in the hope that young
people who are either spectators or participants in the sport continue from childhood to adulthood.
Question 34: A. Much B. Many C. Each D. Every
Question 35: A. when B. whom C. who D. which
Question 36: A. preferred B. admitted C. afforded D. supported
Question 37: A. In contrast B. In addition C. In short D. In conclusion
Question 38: A. benefit B. investment C. movement D. decision
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Marriage nowadays is a choice people make on their own, but this has not always been the case in
society. Thousands of years ago, the average lifespan was shorter than it is today. A man usually lived until he
was about 40 years old, while women died even sooner because of childbirth. There were many wars and
illnesses, and people had to protect themselves by having more children while they were still young. The parents
lived through their children.
Marriage was not so much a romantic love story but a business transaction, or deal. Most marriages were
arranged between parents while their children were still very young. It was the custom that the fathers made the
decision on whom their children were going to marry. The mothers had little say in it since they rarely made any
3
decisions outside the household. The fathers would meet to arrange the wedding date and the money given for the
bride on her wedding date. The more money and land a girl had, the more chances she had to marry well.
Therefore, it was important that her father choose the bridegroom very well. Usually, it was someone who came
from a good family or who was rich too. It was very unlikely that people married outside their social class. A few
well-off and rich merchants got to marry poorer noblewomen and became King’s business advisors. In a way,
poor peasants had an easier choice as it was less important whom they married.
The practice of arranged marriage is still common in some countries in the Middle East, such as India or
Pakistan. Here, social classes are still strongly divided and very well-kept. Often, however, arranged marriages
are a sign that people do not want to let go of the past, which gives them comfort and security in an ever-
changing world.
(Adapted from Longman Essence Reading, Vol. 2)
Question 39: What does the passage mainly discuss
A. The practice of arranged marriage. B. Mothers’ roles in their children’s marriage.
C. Marriage as a business transaction today. D. Marriage practices in modern society.
Question 40: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. a choice B. the average life span C. marriage D. society
Question 41: According to paragraph 1, women died even sooner than men because of ______.
A. illnesses B. wars C. childbirth D. marriage
Question 42: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. The wedding date was decided by the fathers
B. Men made almost all decisions inside the family
C. Marriage used to be a deal between two families
D. People tended to marry outside their social class
Question 43: The phrase let go of in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. save up B. turn off C. give up D. give in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Each person has different learning preferences and styles that benefit them. Some may find they even
have a dominant learning style. Others may find that they prefer different learning styles in different
circumstances. There is no right or wrong answer to which learning style is best for you – or mix of learning
styles. However, by discovering and better understanding your own learning styles, you can employ techniques
that will improve the rate and quality of your learning.
If you prefer lessons that employ images to teach, you’re a visual learner, visual learners retain
information better when it’s presented in pictures, videos, graphs and books. They frequently draw pictures or
develop diagrams when trying to comprehend a subject or memorize rote information.
If you’re a visual learner, use pictures, images, color, diagrams and other visual media in your note
taking, test preparation and studying. Whenever possible, use pictures instead of text. Try to develop diagrams to
understand concepts and storyboards to remember important sequences and relationships.
Aural (auditory) learners retain information better when it’s presented in lecture format, via speeches,
audio recordings, and other forms of verbal communication. While a visual learner would prefer to read a book or
watch a video, auditory learners would prefer to attend a lecture or listen to a book on tape. Aural learners are
also big on sound and music. They can typically sing, are musically inclined, play an instrument, and can
identify different sounds. If you’re an aural learner, integrate auditory media, listening techniques, sound, rhyme,
or even music in your learning and studying. You may also consider using background music and sounds to help
you with visualization of processes and systems. For example, if you’re practicing flight procedures, you may
consider playing a recording of an aircraft in the background as you study. Replacing the lyrics of a favorite song
with information you’re learning is a very powerful way to memorize large amounts of information for aural
learners. Use this technique and you’ll never forget the information again.
4
Question 44: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Features and techniques of two learning styles.
B. Visual and aural learners’ problems and solutions.
C. Why and how to understand your learning preferences.
D. What and how to use your learning techniques.
Question 45: By discovering and better understanding their own learning styles, learners can improve ______.
A. their learning quality and quantity B. their learning rate
C. their learning styles D. their learning quality and speed
Question 46: The word They in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. visual learners B. pictures C. videos D. graphs
Question 47: According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as benefits of diagrams EXCEPT
______.
A. to understand concepts B. to remember sequences
C. to understand storyboardsD. to use pictures not texts
Question 48: According to the passage, the benefit of listening to music while learning is that it ______.
A. is a hobby or an interest B. attracts your attention
C. makes you feel relaxed D. helps you visualize processes and systems
Question 49: The word retain can be best replaced by ______.
A. forget B. keep C. find D. remember
Question 50: The phrase be big on is closest in meaning to ______.
A. forget thing easily B. like something very much
C. like reading books D. love singing very much

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 2

Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. child B. chaos C. chores D. chase
Question 2: A. grand B. grace C. place D. flame
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. argument B. employer C. industry D. instrument
Question 4: A. mistake B. access C. actor D. danger
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Psychologists strongly advise parents with small kids not to allow them to watch videos ___
sensitive content.
A. are contained B. contain C. containing D. contained
Question 6: Chimpanzees are _______ than dogs.
A. intelligent B. most intelligent C. more intelligent D. much intelligent
Question 7: My friend will book the concert ticket _______
A. when she had finished her exam B. once she finished her exam
C. after she has finished her exam D. while she was finishing her exam
Question 8:As Mary looked at the picture of her father, her eyes were full _______ tears.
A. over B. of C. to D. about
Question 9:They have heard the news from her,_______?

5
A. haven't they B. have they C. did they D. didn't they
Question 10:He often practices playing __________ piano in his free time.
A. an B. the C. a D. Ø
Question 11:It is not always easy to _______ the difference between fact and opinion.
A. make B. do C. say D. tell
Question 12:Tik Tok was launched by a Chinese company in 2016 and it has really________ ever since.
A. put on B. taken on C. caught on D. given in
Question 13:John managed ________ his family in England by using Zalo.
A. contacting B. contact C. to contact D. to contacting
Question 14:He’s really got the bit between his _______ so that he can pass the exam with flying colours.
A. hands B. teeth C. neck D. eyes
Question 15:Tom burnt his hand when he _______ dinner.
A. was cooking B. were cooking C. cooked D. has cooked
Question 16:One aim of the International Day of Persons with Disabilities is to further _______ awareness of
disability issues.
A. rise B. increase C. raise D. boost
Question 17:More progress_______in gender equality by the Vietnamese government.
A. make B. made C. will be made D. will make
Question 18:Should your_______ be successful,we will be in contact in due course for an interview.
A. applicant B. application C. apply D. appliance
Question 19:Even if you are rich,you should save some money for a ________ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20:Romeo and Cruz are talking with each other in the canteen.
- Romeo:“Why don’t we go to a baseball game?”
- Cruz:"___________.”
A. No,thanks.I’d like to sit here. B. I’d rather go to the art gallery.
C. It’s good to play baseball. D. No,I don’t.
Question 21: Lisa and Rose are talking about music.
- Lisa:“Music is an essential part of our lives.”
- Rose:“___________.It helps to bring people of different cultures together.”
A. You’re welcome B. I don’t think so
C. You’re absolutely right D. I don’t quite agree
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22:When Josh was promoted to the position of marketing director,he had to shoulder more
responsibilities.
A. receive B. prevent C. avoid D. carry
Question 23:The athlete's bitter defeat in the match dealt a blow to his hopes of defending his title at the
championship.
A. destroyed B. raised C. expressed D. weakened
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word in each of the following questions.
Question 24:Laura handled the vase with great care for fear of breaking it.
A. strength B. comfort C. success D. attention
Question 25:It is considered wise to keep silent when one is angry because saying anything then may make
matters worse.
6
A. generous B. modest C. careless D. sensible.
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26:The last time Mary invited her friends to her house was 5 months ago.
A. Mary hasn’t invited her friends to her house for 5 months.
B. Mary had 5 months to invite her friends to her house.
C. Mary spends 5 months inviting her friends to her house.
D. Mary has invited her friends to her house for 5 months.
Question 27: She asked me,"How high was the church?"
A. She asked me how high the church is.
B. She asked me how high is the church.
C. She asked me how high the church had been.
D. She asked me how the church had been.
Question 28: Attending the IELTS workshop is completely optional.
A. You needn’t attend the IELTS workshop. B. You should attend the IELTS workshop.
C. You can’t attend the IELTS workshop. D. You mustn’t attend the IELTS workshop.
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29:Many students, along with his friends,have received permission to go ahead with the music festival.
A. students B. his C. permission D. with
Question 30: She did voluntary work for the Red Cross every week.
A. did B. work C. week D. the
Question 31:Young people of an impressive age can easily be manipulated.
A. manipulated B. Young C. impressive D. easily

Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32:Max has to attend an event this weekend.He can’t go on a picnic with his family.
A. If Max didn’t have to attend an event this weekend,he could go on a picnic with his family.
B. Provided that Max has to attend an event this weekend,he can’t go on a picnic with his family.
C. If Max had to attend an event this weekend,he could go on a picnic with his family.
D. If only Max had had to attend an event this weekend,he could have gone on a picnic with his family.
Question 33:My brother graduated from university.He started working for the WHO.
A. No sooner had my brother graduated from university than he started working for the WHO.
B. Not until my brother started working for the WHO did he graduate from university.
C. Only after my brother started working for the WHO did he graduate from university.
D. Hardly had my brother started working for the WHO when he graduated from university.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Nowadays,emphasis is often placed on assessment for learning,as opposed to assessment of learning.But what
exactly is the difference? In brief,assessment for learning involves the teacher and student becoming (34)______
of how learning can be improved,and techniques mastered.Assessment of learning,on the other hand,simply tests
what a student knows.Assessment for learning consists of students recognising where they are and where they
want to go to in order to reach their goals.(35)______,they need to participate actively in their learning.
In order for students to be motivated to learn,there should always be a clear lesson objective and all targets should
focus on the needs and abilities of (36)______ individual class.The teacher’s role is to explain to students why
they are learning what they are learning,and as most students’ attention (37)______ is short,teachers should opt

7
for a variety of interactive activities during the lesson.The use of audiovisual aids generally helps students pick
up things more easily,(38)______ in turn makes the learning process more effective overall.
(Adapted from Reactivate Your Grammar and Vocabulary by Alexandra Green)
Question 34: A. attentive B. afraid C. aware D. alert
Question 35: A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. However D. Moreover
Question 36: A. each B. much C. all D. other
Question 37: A. duration B. period C. span D. stint
Question 38: A. that B. whom C. who D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,c,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The costs and benefits of global warming will vary greatly from area to area.For moderate climate change,the
balance can be difficult to assess.But the larger the change in climate,the more negative the consequences will
become.Global warming will probably make life harder,not easier,for most people This is mainly because we
have already built enormous infrastructure based on the climate we now have.
People in some temperate zones may benefit from milder winters,more abundant rainfall,and expanding crop
production zones.But people in other areas will suffer from increased heat waves,coastal erosion,rising sea level
more erratic rainfall,and droughts.
The crops,natural vegetation,and domesticated and wild animals (including seafood)that sustain people in a given
area may be unable to adapt to local or regional changes in climate.The ranges of diseases and insect pests that
are limited by temperature may expand,if other environmental conditions are also favourable.In its summary
report on the impacts of climate change,the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change stated,"Taken as a
whole,the range of published evidence indicates that the net damage costs of climate change are likely to be
significant and to increase over time.”
Question 39:What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Solutions to global warming. B. Reasons why low-lying areas are flooded.
C. Environment pollution is real. D. Reasons why global warming is a problem.
Question 40:Which of the following is TRUE as the result of global warming?
A. All people benefit from global warming. B. All people suffer from global warming.
C. Life is more difficult for the majority of people. D. Life is easier for most people.
Question 41:In paragraph 1,the word “this” refers to _______.
A. harder life as a result of global warming B. easier life as a result of global warming
C. climate change on global scale D. flood in low-lying areas
Question 42:In paragraph 2,the word “erratic” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unchangeable B. unpredictable C. changeable D. predictable
Question 43:According to the passage,all of the following are the results of global warming EXCEPT
______________.
A. coastal erosion B. higher temperature C. increasing sea level D. stable rainfall
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,c,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding natural resources.We
have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of environmental damage,and often
forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production practices.We may think that the closure of these
huge industrial areas would improve the quality of the environment.Unfortunately,this ignores the threat of the
remaining waste,which is abandoned and poorly stored.It represents an even bigger danger because it stands
neglected as it degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem.It can
affect the health of lower food chain organisms and,consequently,the availability of food up through the food
8
chain.It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to support healthy ecosystems,control
flooding,and filter pollutants from storm water runoff.The health of animals and humans are affected when they
drink or bathe in contaminated water.In addition water- based organisms,like fish and shellfish,can pile up and
concentrate contaminants in their bodies.When other animals or humans eat these organisms,they receive a much
higher dose of contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals,plants and humans if it is removed from the ground by
manmade or natural processes.Depending on the study of rocks of the area,groundwater may rise to the surface
through springs or seeps,flow sideways into nearby rivers,streams,or ponds,or sink deeper into the earth.In many
parts of the world,groundwater is pumped out of the ground to be used for drinking,bathing,other household
uses,agriculture,and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their
roots.Eating,breathing in,or touching contaminated soil,as well as eating plants or animals that have piled up soil
contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are absorbed
from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can also harm animals and humans when
they contact the skin.Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can also be affected by exposure to
contaminants moved in the air.
(Source:Adapted from http://www.grid.unep.ch/waste/download/waste1213.pdf)
Question 44: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment
Question 45: According to the passage,the industry is likely to be thought as.
A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health
Question 46:The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to.
A. the remaining waste B. a danger
C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question 47: According to the passage,which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?
A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals
C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands
Question 48:Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks D. Animals
Question 49: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?
A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs
Question 50: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last paragraph?
A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up
----------- HẾT ---------

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ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cream B. tear C. leap D. heat
Question 2: A. message B. sunglass C. measure D. resource
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. window B. police C. problem D. answer
Question 4: A. recommend B. disappoint C. advertise D. interrupt
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage ______ in Bac Ninh Province.
A. locating B. which locates C. to locate D. located
Question 6: Science and technology in the past progressed much _______ than they do now.
A. slowly as B. most slowly C. more slowly D. as slowly
Question 7: I will read my favourite novel _______ .
A. as soon as I have eaten dinner B. after I had finished dinner
C. before I ate dinner D. when I will finish dinner
Question 8: The bus station is crowded _______ commuters almost every day.
A. with B. off C. on D. in
Question 9: She's been to New York several times, _______ ?
A. hasn't she B. is she C. isn't she D. has she
Question 10: This year, you should go back over the things you have studied in class at least once _______
week.
A. Ø (no article) B. the C. an D. a
Question 11: Now that she is trained, she hopes to earn her living as a _______ in an office.
A. staff B. guard C. clerk D. farmer
Question 12: She _______ quite often as a guest on popular television shows, as well as in television and big-
screen movies.
A. looked up B. turned on C. looked after D. turned up
Question 13: As Robert is having a party on Sunday, he's asked me _______ him decorate his room.
A. helping B. helped C. helps D. to help
Question 14: The policeman got on his _______ horse when the driver who was caught speeding questioned his
authority.
A. fat B. high C. big D. clever
Question 15: My friends _______ loudly in the class when the teacher came in with an angry face.
A. had talked B. were talking C. talked D. is talking
Question 16: He's one of the best doctors in town and held in high _______
A. appraisal B. esteem C. estimation D. value
Question 17: Every possible effort _______ by the orphanage to find the boy's parents.
A. was made B. is making C. made D. was making
Question 18: His helpfulness today has made me revise my _______ opinion of him.
A. originate B. original C. originally D. origin
Question 19: Due to the nature of the earthquake, a much larger _______of the population might be affected.
A. segment B. density C. division D. totality

10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Some students are talking about their plans for the trip.
- Tom: "I don't think taking a hiking trip in this weather is a good idea." - Peter: " _______”
A. You should do nothing B. You lied to me
C. It's a breathtaking view D. There's no doubt about it
Question 21: Brian is talking to John in his house.
- Brian: "Would you like coffee or fruit-juice?" - John: “ _______ ”
A. I couldn't agree more B. Yes, I'd like to
C. I'd prefer coffee, please D. No, I've no choice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Your room is too dark. I think the little lamp only gives a feeble light.
A. strong B. thick C. late D. resistant
Question 23: We were all amazed at how quickly my eighty-year-old grandmother was back on her feet after
breaking her hip.
A. become ill B. recover from a sickness
C. get better D. be healthy again after sickness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great menaces to all species on Earth.
A. fears B. risks C. annoyances D. irritations
Question 25: Although he made intermittent appearances this season, his goals helped his team win important
matches.
A. regular B. distinctive C. occasional D. constant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: It is mandatory for all the students to wear uniforms at school.
A. Jane may wear uniforms at school. B. Jane should wear uniforms at school.
C. Jane must wear uniforms at school. D. Jane needn’t wear uniforms at school.
Question 27: The last time I used a public phone box was ten years ago.
A. I didn't use a public phone box ten years ago.
B. I have used a public phone box for ten years.
C. I would use a public phone box in ten years.
D. I haven't used a public phone box for ten years.
Question 28: "When will your parents visit you next week”, said Claire.
A. Claire asked me when would my parents visit me next week.
B. Claire asked me when my parents would visit me the following week.
C. Claire asked me when my parents will visit her the following week.
D. Claire asked me when my parents will visit me the following week.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: The frustrated customer wanted to exchange their goods, obtain a refund, or speak to the manager.
A. frustrated B. obtain C. or D. their
Question 30: The students who always pay attention in the classroom were often more successful.
A. who B. attention C. the D. were

11
Question 31: Famine and infectious diseases at home drove men to immigrate from their hometown; hopefully to
the promised land.
A. infectious B. drove C. immigrate D. promised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The virus is so infectious. This country can’t bring it under control.
A. Unless the virus is so infectious, this country can’t bring it under control.
B. So long as the virus is so infectious, this country would bring it under control.
C. If the virus weren’t so infectious, this country could bring it under control.
D. Much as the virus is so infectious, the country can bring it under control
Question 33: We infected Coronavirus. We realized how important the prevention was.
A. Hardly had we infected Coronavirus when we realized how important the prevention was.
B. Not until had we infected Coronavirus that we realized how important the prevention was.
C. Not until we infected Coronavirus did we realize how important the prevention was.
D. Little did we realized how important the prevention was until we infected Coronavirus.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.
Scientists have proven that our genes (34) _______ our physical characteristics and traits such as height, hair
color, and eye color. For example, we get two genes from our parents to decide the color of our eyes. The gene
for brown eyes is dominant, or stronger than the gene for blue eyes. Genes that are not dominant, such as the gene
for blue eyes, are called (35) _______ genes. In order to have blue eyes, we need to have two genes for blue eyes.
What about our personalities? Our personalities affect how we act in all our social interactions with other
human beings - family members, friends, colleagues, and strangers. We can change our behaviors, but (36)
_______ individual personalities don't change much throughout our entire lives.
Some people believe that our personalities do not come from genes. They argue that they are a result of the
environment we grow up in - our interactions with others. (37) _______ people who grow up in the same
environment often have completely different personalities. So, this theory cannot be entirely correct.
While scientists have successfully identified genes (38) _______ , decide physical traits, they have not yet
discovered a gene that determines personality. In other words, there is no proof that our personalities come from
genes.
Question 34: A. determine B. hesitate C. pursue D. introduce
Question 35: A. powerful B. influential C. recessive D. gentle
Question 36: A. much B. another C. many D. little
Question 37: A. Additionally B. Moreover C. However D. Therefore
Question 38: A. whose B. that C. who D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
for each of the questions.
For many years, scientists have been arguing about global warming. While they don't all agree about what
this might mean for Planet Earth, many think it is going on - and that we can do something about it. We need a
few more years to gather facts before anyone can say for sure. But people need to start now to do things to stop it.
There are many types of gases in our atmosphere. Some of them absorb the heat from the sun and control
our climate. "Greenhouse gases” are those that hold the heat around the planet's surface. When we increase the
level of these gases, we upset the balance. These extra gases trap even more heat.
Some scientists say global warming has already started to change the environment. The Earth's temperature
has risen one degree Fahrenheit this century. Many scientists believe it could rise from two to eight degrees
Fahrenheit in the next hundred years. This would be the fastest rise in 10,000 years.

12
Sea levels could rise. Ice sheets could melt and add to the water level. Many places near the coast would be
in danger of flooding. If the climate change is too large and too fast, some plants and animals could really suffer.
They could even die out. Weather could become more violent and extreme. In some places there would be more
forest fires. But in other areas there would be more rain and snow, storms and floods.
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Global warming and its negative effects. B. Global warming and forest fires.
C. Global warming and suggested solutions. D. Global warming and its advantages.
Question 40: According to the passage, gases control our climate by _______.
A. increasing its level B. absorbing the heat
C. changing the environment D. upsetting the balance
Question 41: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. century B. global warming C. temperature D. environment
Question 42: The word "extreme" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. severe B. gentle C. quiet D. peaceful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage!
A. Climate change would cause forest fires everywhere.
B. Scientists have all agreed about global warming.
C. The gases we increase trap even more heat.
D. Scientists say that global warming can never change the environment.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
for each of the questions.
Stonehenge, one of the oldest mysteries in the world lies in southern England. Even the name is ancient. The
word "henge" comes from Old English used over a thousand years ago. The word meant "hanging, so Stonehenge
means "hanging stones." However, the hanging stones go back much further than that.
Most recent research has found that Stonehenge was built in three stages and took at least 1,400 years to
build. The first stage was started about 5,000 years ago and took 50 years to complete. In this first construction,
the people who built Stonehenge dug a ditch and some holes. Historians believe these holes held long wooden
poles. They don't know if there was a round building there or if the log poles were connected together more like
the stones there today. However, they have found some digging tools made from animal bones there which has
told them how old this stage is.
The second stage lasted for approximately the next 500 years. In this phase, it seems that some new holes
were made and some of the old holes were filled in. One of the most interesting things is that the old holes were
usually filled with burnt materials, often human ashes! These ashes and other building tools help historians tell
the age of the second phase.
The final phase took the longest time; almost 1,000 years. Some of the stones were brought by water, while
others came over land. These stones are terribly large and would be difficult even for modern machines to move.
How did the ancient people manage to move them? No one can say for certain, but it seems most likely that they
were moved through simple machines and willpower.
How the stones got into place is only one of the mysteries surrounding Stonehenge. Who built the massive
monument? Why did they build it? Was it for an ancient religion? Was it a tomb for a great person? Is it the
gateway to another world? No one can answer these questions, but there is one thing people agree on whenever
they see it. Stonehenge is one of the most impressive ancient mysteries anyone has ever seen.
(Adapted from magazinalsu.ru/en/stounhendzh-skolko-emu-let-stounhendzh)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Stonehenge: Mystery and History B. Some Interpretations of Stonehenge
C. Stonehenge: Ridiculous Theories and Facts D. The Newest Seven Wonders of the World
Question 45: The word "ditch" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
13
A. garden B. tunnel C. pond D. trench
Question 46: According to the passage, what help historians tell the age of the first stage?
A. building tools B. human ashes C. log poles D. animal bones
Question 47: The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. people B. mysteries C. machines D. stones
Question 48: The word "gateway" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. part B. entrance C. exit D. roundabout
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The first stage took 1,400 years to complete.
B. Huge stones were brought by water and came over land during the third stage.
C. Old holes were filled with materials such as human ashes during the second phase.
D. In the first construction, there were digging tools made from animal bones.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that when the mysteries of Stonehenge are settled, _______.
A. we can make modern construction techniques better
B. we can communicate with aliens from outer space
C. we can learn more about the timing of farming
D. we can learn more about ancient times

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. leather B. weather C. method D. mother
Question 2. A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. answer C. action D. police
Question 4. A. uncertain B. arrogant C. important D. impatient
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 5: The authority has a message for people ______ by the traffic.
A. delayed B. delaying C. who delayed D. to be delayed
Question 6: Of the two sisters, Linda is ______.
A. beautifu B. the most beautiful C. the more beautiful D. so beautiful as
Question 7: Justin Bieber will release an album ______.
A. after he had finished his tour around Europe B. by the time he finished his tour around Europe
C. when he will finish his tour around Europe D. as soon as he has finished his tour around Europe
Question 8: She was so involved ______ the book that she didn’t know the burglary in her living room.
A. at B. in C. to D. on
Question 9: Mary will have a presentation on global warming tomorrow ______?
A. isn’t she B. won’t she C. will she D. wouldn’t she
Question 10: Vinfast is ______ first Vietnamese car brand to enter global markets.
A. a B. no article C. the D. an
Question 11: The increase in population and the number of ______ has caused traffic jams in many cities.
A. vehicles B. residents C. museums D. restaurants
Question 12: The weather was perfect when we ______ but it was raining when we got back.
A. brought about B. got on C. turned up D. set off

14
Question 13: The guest on our program will be the youngest ______ the quiz.
A. to win B. that wins C. who is winning D. winning
Question 14: Play this song and he will quickly fall asleep. This is the one he learns at his ______knee.
A. cousin’s B. sisters’ C. mother’s D. grandmother’s
Question 15: While Peter ______ last night, he got a nightmare.
A. slept B. had slept C. is sleeping D. was sleeping
Question 16: They ______ into laughter at the sight of his clown costume.
A. poured B. burst C. cried D. joined
Question 17: I wanted ______ by the head of the company, but it was impossible.
A. to see B. to be seen C. seeing D. being to see
Question 18: She teaches the students to have respect for the different races and appreciate the ______ of their
cultures.
A. diverse B. diversely C. diversified D. diversity
Question 19: Passengers are advised to take all their personal ______ with them when they leave the plane.
A. belongings B. estates C. items D. baggage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 20: Peter is in the supermarket.
Salesperson: “ What would you like to buy now?”
Peter: “ ______” a kilo of beef, please.
A. No, thanks B. Yes, sure C. Help yourself D. OK
Question 21: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
Jimmy: “ ______. There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That's all right B. That's life C. I don't quite agree D. I can't agree more
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The senator defended his opponent's policies in a televised speech.
A. praised B. supported C. attacked D. attached
Question 23: He didn't bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. showed surprise B. didn't care C. didn't want to see D. wasn't happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The speaker paused. He hesitated to answer the direct question raised by the audience.
A. decided B. continued C. determined D. wavered
Question 25: By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as little
as 500.000 VND a week.
A. sensible B. economical C. miserable D. luxurious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: She will probably buy this house next week.
A. She doesn't have to buy this house next week. B. She may buy this house next week.
C. She should buy this house next week. D. She must buy this house next week.
Question 27: ‌The‌‌last‌‌time‌‌I‌‌saw‌‌her‌‌was‌‌three‌‌years‌‌ago.‌
A. ‌I‌‌have‌‌not‌‌seen‌‌her‌‌for‌‌three‌‌years.‌
B. ‌About‌‌three‌‌years‌‌ago,‌‌I‌‌used‌‌to‌‌meet‌‌her.‌
C. ‌I‌‌have‌‌often‌‌seen‌‌her‌‌for‌‌the‌‌last‌‌three‌‌years.‌
D. ‌I‌‌saw‌‌her‌‌three‌‌years‌‌ago‌‌and‌‌will‌‌never‌‌meet‌‌her‌.
15
Question 28: “What are you doing at 8 p.m yesterday.” asked my brother.
A. My brother asked me what I am doing at 8 p.m the previous day.
B. My brother asked me what am I doing at 8 p.m the previous day.
C. My brother asked me what I was doing at 8 p.m the previous day.
D. My brother asked me what was I doing at 8 p.m the previous day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.‌
Question 29: Mary is very indigenous so she is always the highest ranked student in the class.
A. indigenous B. is C. the D. ranked
Question 30: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams.
A. stays B. so C. to study D. her
Question 31: Sarah was not the best speaker in the class, but they had the ability to convey the good feelings.
A. not the best B. but C. they D. convey
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Peter does not have money. He can’t buy a new house.
A. As long as he had money, he can’t buy a new house.
B. If only he had bought a new house.
C. If Peter had money, he couldn’t buy a new house.
D. If Peter had money, he could buy a new house.
Question 33: The master of ceremonies has a very soft voice. Everyone listens to her attentively whenever she
appears on the stage.
A. So soft is the voice of the master of ceremonies that everyone listens to her attentively whenever she appears
on the stage.
B. As long as the master of ceremonies hadn’t had a very soft voice, everyone wouldn’t listen to her attentively
whenever she appears on the stage.
C. Only after everyone listens to the master of ceremonies attentively whenever she appears on the stage does she
have a very soft voice.
D. But for a very soft voice, everyone would listen to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In my culture, usually, if a
woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (34) ______, in the first few days of school, I found it
strange that so (35) ______women were talking to me and I was under the impression that some women on my
dormitory floor were interested in me. To (36) ______ their politeness, I would buy them flowers or offer small
gifts, as is done in my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that these same women now seemed
uncomfortable around me. One was even quite offended and told me to leave her alone. Eventually I talked to the
(37) ______ adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong, and he explained to me the way men and women
usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear that nothing was wrong with me, but rather with the way
I was interpreting my conversations with women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in
the USA, I still made many good female friends afterwards (38) ______I still maintain contact.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 34: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 35: A. a lot of B. many C. much D. plenty of
Question 36: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 37: A. habitat B. village C. nation D. residence
Question 38: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom

16
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Social media marketing has increased due to the growing active user rates on social media sites. For example,
Facebook currently has 2.2 billion users, Twitter has 330 million active users and Instagram has 800 million
users.
One of the main uses is to interact with audiences to create awareness of the brand or service, with the main idea
of creating a two-way communication system where the audience and/or customers can interact back, providing
feedback as just one example. Social media can be used to advertise; placing an advert on Facebook's Newsfeed,
for example, can allow a vast number of people to see it or targeting specific audiences from their usage to
encourage awareness of the product or brand. Users of social media are then able to like, share and comment on
the advert, becoming message senders as they can keep passing the advert's message on to their friends and
onwards. The use of new media put consumers on the position of spreading opinions, sharing experience, and has
shift power from organization to consumers for it allows transparency and different opinions to be heard.
Media marketing has to keep up with all the different platforms. They also have to keep up with the ongoing
trends that are set by big influencers and draw many people’ attention. The type of audience a business is going
for will determine the social media site they use.
(Retrieved from https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Social_media&oldid=927272773)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Advertisements on social media B. New types of marketing
C. Let listen to our customers D. Two-way communication
Question 40: The word vast in the second paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to ______
A. enormous B. definite C. small D. certain
Question 41: According to the second paragraph, users can do the followings with the adverts on social media
EXCEPT ______.
A. like B. share C. pass D. adjust
Question 42: According to the third paragraph, what do media marketing have to keep up with?
A. The type of audience B. The new trends set by every normal user
C. All the various platforms D. Other types of media
Question 43: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. users B. senders C. messages D. trends
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Scientists have identified two ways in which species disappear. The first is through ordinary or
"background" extinctions, where species that fail to adapt are slowly replaced by more adaptable life forms. The
second is when large numbers of species go to the wall in relatively short periods of biological time. There have
been five such extinctions, each provoked by cataclysmic evolutionary events caused by some geological
eruption, climate shift, or space junk slamming into the Earth. Scientists now believe that another mass extinction
of species is currently under way – and this time human fingerprints are on the trigger.
How are we doing it? Simply by demanding more and more space for ourselves. In our assault on
the ecosystems around us we have used a number of tools, from spear and gun to bulldozer and chainsaw.
Certain especially rich ecosystems have proved the most vulnerable. In Hawaii more than half of the native birds
are now gone - some 50 species. Such carnage has taken place all across the island communities of the Pacific
and Indian oceans. While many species were hunted to extinction, others simply succumbed to the “introduced
predators” that humans brought with them: the cat, the dog, the pig, and the rat.
Today the tempo of extinction is picking up speed. Hunting is no longer the major culprit, although rare birds
and animals continue to be butchered for their skin, feathers, tusks, and internal organs, or taken as savage
pets. Today the main threat comes from the destruction of the habitat of wild plants, animals, and insects need
to survive. The draining and damming of wetland and river courses threaten the aquatic food chain and our own
17
seafood industry. Overfishing and the destruction of fragile coral reefs destroy ocean biodiversity.
Deforestation is taking a staggering toll, particularly in the tropics where the most global biodiversity is at risk.
The shrinking rainforest cover of the Congo and Amazon River basins and such place as Borneo and Madagascar
have a wealth of species per hectare existing nowhere else. As those precious hectares are drowned or turned into
arid pasture and cropland, such species disappear forever.
(Source: Final Countdown Practice Tests by D. F Piniaris, Heinle Cengage Learning, 2010)
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The tempo of extinction of species today.
B. The two ways in which species disappear.
C. Deforestation as a major cause of mass extinctions of species.
D. Human activity and its impact on a mass extinction of species.
Question 45: The word assault in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. development B. influence C. attack D. effort
Question 46: All of the following are mentioned as a form of habitat destruction EXCEPT ______.
A. cutting down forests B. hunting rare birds and animals
C. destroying coral reefs D. damming wetlands and rivers
Question 47: The word them in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. oceans B. predators C. humans D. species
Question 48: Which is no longer considered a major cause of the mass extinction under way currently?
A. the building of dams across rivers B. the killing of animals for their body parts
C. the destruction of habitats of species D. the shrinking of rainforests in the tropics
Question 49: The word butchered in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. killed B. cooked C. traded D. raised
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it's impossible for scientists to identify the causes of mass extinctions of species.
B. hunting is the major contributing factor that speeds up the extinction of species.
C. the current mass extinction is different from the other five in that it is caused by humans.
D. habitat destruction makes a minor contribution to the current mass extinction of species.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. house B. home C. hour D. horse
Question 2. A. like B. find C. sign D. miss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. chemistryB. heritage C. assignment D. company
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The conference ______ by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. is planning
Question 6. Her grandfather’s illness was______ we thought at first.
A. more seriously as B. as seriously as C. more serious than D. as serious than
Question 7. ______ his employees will have worked for two hours.
A. By the time the boss arrives B. When the boss arrived
18
C. After the boss will arrive D. Only when the boss had arrived
Question 8. The manager is directly responsible______ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9. He went to Ha Noi yesterday, ______?
A. doesn’t he B. did he C. does he D. didn’t he
Question 10. We needed______ house to live in when we were in London.
A. a B. the C. any D. Ø
Question 11. A few kind words at the right time ______ all the difference.
A. make B. give C. do D. take
Question 12. Some high school students often______ helping the disadvantaged or handicapped children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 13. I expected them ______ me a job.
A. offer B. offering C. to offering D. to offer
Question 14. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 15. I saw Lisa at the museum when I______ to restaurant.
A. was going B. went C. have gone D. had gone
Question 16. She made a big ______ about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. promise C. interest D. excitement
Question 17. The road to our village ______ next year.
A. widens B. will widen C. can widen D. will be widened
Question 18. In spite of her exceptional abilities, Laura has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Question 19. Tony and Toby have a lot in ______ with each other.
A. common B. competition C. regard D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. Peter is offering to send the package for Mary.
Peter: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” – Mary: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 21. Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: “______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23. She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Around 150 the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according
to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 25. Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic.
C. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic.
Question 27. We last held a party four months ago.
A. We didn’t hold a party for four months. B. We haven’t held a party for four months.
C. We have held party for four months. D. We hadn’t held a party for four months.
Question 28. He said to them: “Who will you see before you leave here?”
A. He asked them who they would see before they left there.
B. He asked them who they would see before they left there.
C. He asked them who they would see before you left there.
D. He asked them who you would see before they left there.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29. I’m becoming increasingly forgettable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A. I’m becoming B. forgettable C. myself D. the
Question 30. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A. asked B. when C. has D. homework
Question 31. They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A. having B. her C. painted D. construction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Lan had some shocking words on her facebook. Then, everyone knew her.
A. Only when Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone know her.
B. Hardly Lan had some shocking words on her facebook than everyone knew her.
C. Only after Lan had some shocking words on her facebook everyone knew her.
D. Until Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone knew her.
Question 33. Unfortunately, the leading actor is ill. He can’t appear on stage tonight.
A. If the leading actor hadn’t been ill, he could have appeared on stage tonight.
B. If the leading actor weren’t ill, he could appear on stage tonight.
C. Provided the leading actor is ill, he can appear on stage that night.
D. If the leading actor were ill, he could appear on stage tonight.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The role of grandparents in children’s upbringing
The word ‘grandparents’ is descriptive of the unique dual parenting role that this generation assumes. It
emphasises the vital part they play in family life. With a (34)_______ of old world experience behind them,
and with the unique ability to metamorphose from advisers or mediators into listeners or friends, they can
offer support and stability in an ever-changing world. The underlying sense of responsibility (35)_______
goes with this is tremendous.
Grandparents perform a balancing act between the needs of their adult children and those of their
grandchildren. This role is varied. It is imperial at times, muted at (36)_______. It goes underground
whenever required, but it is solid and absolutely dependable. Grandparents often (37)_______ the gap
between parents and children. Rebellious, independent children who are trying to find their feet are almost
always at loggerheads with their parents. The role of grandparents can be very important provided that they
20
act as impartial judges and are able to convey this feeling to both parties. One important thing, which seems
to be missing in the lives of children today, is a sense of family, values, beliefs and principles. This is where
the grandparents step in. (38)_______, instilling beliefs and values is not as easy as it was fifty or sixty years
ago.
Question 34. A. health B. significance C. value D. wealth
Question 35. A. who B. that C. where D. it
Question 36. A. much B. others C. none D. few
Question 37. A. leave B. achieve C. bridge D. widen
Question 38. A. Therefore B. Additionally C. However D. For example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it has
had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to
become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and their
foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported each
other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come forward and it is
sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political interests. An
important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They share the
same language and enjoy each other's literature, films and television. Many Americans have British
ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system is based on Britain's,
and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain some
people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The
special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain and
Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
(Adapted from Background to British and American Cultures)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US.
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars.
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars.
Question 40. The phrase come forward in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. be willing to help B. be able to help C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 41. The word They in paragraph 3 prefers to __________.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true about the special relationship between Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are very similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries.
Question 43. Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ___________.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interests D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Think about the last test you took. How much of what you learned for the test do you still remember? Many
people take tests to pass a course or get a promotion, but they often forget the information afterward. This is
especially the case for people taking large international tests like TOEFL or IELTS. These tests usually
21
involve multiple-choice questions, and people often study to increase their scores, not to learn important
information. In fact, educators are divided on whether these kinds of tests are the most effective way to
assess a person’s abilities.
Those who support such tests say they are the only way for educators and employers to compare people
based on their test scores. However, there are people trying to reform this system. They believe that standard
tests aren’t the best way to measure a person’s ability. These reformers also believe that intelligent people
are not always good at taking tests or memorizing facts. A multiple-choice test cannot always tell what
people have learned, or whether they can apply that knowledge in the future.
Reformers believe that other types of evaluation achieve better results. Tests that contain a mix of written
and spoken questions give a more complete assessment of what the person is capable of. A portfolio, or a
collection of work done throughout a course, can show how much the student has improved individually.
Group interview, where a group of people are interviewed at the same time, can also be useful for
employers, since they show how people interact with others.
Alternative educational institutions such as Montessori and Waldorf schools don’t believe that education
should be focused on testing. At these schools, the classroom is very relaxed and "free" with students
learning from each other as much as they learn from teachers. Some of these schools even allow students to
choose what they study. Teachers create activities designed to let students show their abilities or knowledge
of a certain subject. In these schools, the focus is on learning by experiencing and doing things. The debate
on testing continues, and educators have yet to find a perfect method of evaluating learning. Until that day
comes, old test methods will be used and new test methods will continue to develop. But one thing’s for
sure, testing will continue to play an important part in our lives - so study hard!
Question 44. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The importance of taking TOEFL or IELTS.
B. Different methods of evaluation.
C. The usefulness of test scores.
D. The controversy over the fact that testing is an effective method to assess learners.
Question 45. According to the passage, reformers would agree with all the following statements EXCEPT
______.
A. Multiple-choice tests are not a good way to evaluate intelligence
B. Writing and speaking tests seem to assess students’ abilities more precisely
C. It is important to see how students communicate with other people
D. A good test should allow examiners to easily compare people
Question 46. The word achieve in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. reject B. obtain C. abandon D. announce
Question 47. The word They in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. Test scores B. Reformers C. Tests D. Employers
Question 48. According to the passage, Montessori and Waldorf schools are mentioned to illustrate that ______.
A. new test methods will continue to develop
B. testing students is necessary
C. students gain knowledge by taking part in activities
D. there’s no need to test students’ abilities
Question 49. The word evaluating in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. enhancing B. binding C. assessing D. mending
Question 50. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Educationists have already invented a perfect method to assess students’ performances.
B. Methods of evaluation have been confirmed.
C. Educators take responsibilities for testing students’ abilities.
D. Discussions on testing methods are still ongoing.
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ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. help B. hour C. hold D. hand
Question 2: A. face B. band C. mate D. cake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. device B. couple C. council D. statement
Question 4: A. interfere B. educate C. introduce D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: That farewell party, ______ for Anna, was unforgettable for all of us.
A. organizing B. organized C. was organized D. were organizing
Question 6: This assignment is ______ than that one.
A. most difficult B. the most difficult C. more difficult D. difficult
Question 7: ______, I will tell you at once.
A. When he calls me B. After he had called me
C. As soon as he called me D. While he was calling me
Question 8: She is interested ______ reading books about historical figures.
A. at B. in C. from D. on
Question 9: You cooked this meal, ______?
A. do you B. have you C. weren’t you D. didn’t you
Question 10: We changed all our ______ plans for the next picnic due to the bad weather.
A. a B. an C. 0 (no article) D. the
Question 11: To have a ______ agriculture, farmers try to limit the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. sustainable B. flexible C. potential D. preserved
Question 12: I can’t _____ working any more. Let’s have a short break.
A. go off B. put on C. take off D. go on
Question 13: The new teaching method is supposed to encourage students ______ on the lessons more.
A. focus B. to focusing C. to focus D. focusing
Question 14: Students should ______ full use of available materials in learning.
A. have B. make C. take D. do
Question 15: Quan ______ home when he met his old friend.
A. was walking B. walks C. is walking D. has walked
Question 16: Gradually, Mary ______ a taste for using chopsticks after living in Vietnam for 3 years.
A. acquired B. got C. liked D. loved
Question 17: That cake was special as it ______ by Hoa as a gift for her mother’s birthday .
A. made B. was made C. was making D. has made
Question 18: Life in the countryside is very ______ from life in the city.
A. differ B. different C. differently D. difference
Question 19: Personal electronic devices are useful ______ for our learning if suitably used.
A. gadgets B. instructions C. facilities D. tools
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Chris is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown, during office hours.

23
Chris: “Excuse me. I don't want to interrupt you but...” ~ Mr. Brown: “ ______.”
A. I quite agree. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Thank you. D. I have no idea!
Question 21: Anny is talking to Peter about their assignments:
Anny: “I think these assignments are too rough for us” ~ Peter: “______. I can’t do some parts.”
A. You are not right. B. It is a good idea.
C. I couldn’t agree with you more. D. I don’t think so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We are looking for camp helpers who are hard-working, energetic, and able to organize activities
for young children.
A. dynamic B. passive C. reluctant D. active
Question 23: That live show was out of this world. We had never attended such a wonderful one before.
A. terrible B. enormous C. fantastic D. terrific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The government needs to seek a remedy to prevent domestic violence as soon as possible.
A. result B. solution C. impact D. cause
Question 25: Tomato juice contains a rich amount of fiber which helps in breaking down bad cholesterol in the
body.
A. compounds B. produces C. comprises D. derives
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: He last talked to me two years ago.
A. He didn’t talk to me two years ago. B. He has talked to me for two years.
C. He has two years to talk to me. D. He hasn’t talked to me for two years.
Question 27: “What will you buy for our party?” Mai’s mother said.
A. Mai’s mother asked what would she buy for their party.
B. Mai’s mother asked what she will buy for their party.
C. Mai’s mother asked what she would buy for our party.
D. Mai’s mother asked what she would buy for their party.
Question 28: It is compulsory for you to do this task before class.
A. You could do this task before class. B. You can’t do this task before class.
C. You needn’t do this task before class. D. You must do this task before class.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: He calls me to ask me for some money yesterday morning.
A B C D
Question 30: Many students are under pressure when his exam is coming closer and closer.
A B C D
Question 31: Some of the tunnels in the cliff are totally natural; some others were built by the soldiers for
defensible purposes. A B C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Jenny wants to join that dancing club. She isn’t old enough.
A. Provided that Jenny is old enough, she can join that dancing club.
B. If only Jenny had been old enough, she couldn’t have joined that dancing club.
C. If Jenny had been old enough, she couldn’t have joined that dancing club.
24
D. If Jenny were old enough, she could join that dancing club.
Question 33: Peter told us about his plan to study abroad. He did it on his arrival at the party.
A. Only after his plan to study abroad did Peter inform us of his arrival at the party.
B. Not until Peter told us that he would study abroad did he arrive at the party.
C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his plan to study abroad when he arrived at the party.
D. No sooner had Peter arrived at the party than he told us about his plan to study abroad.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
GREEN ENERGY
Fossil fuels are used to generate the majority of the world's energy, and they come in different forms. For
example, coal and (34) ____ types of fuels may be burned in a power plant to generate electricity, but gasoline is
burned in a car's engine to make it run. Neither of these two sources is considered green energy (35) ____ they
produce much pollution when they are burned. In addition, they come from a source that is inevitably going to
run out.
Green energy can be defined as any energy (36) ____ that is to some degree non-polluting. When it is called
sustainable, this means that a person can replace the same amount of energy that was consumed by that person
within that person's lifetime. Since it took millions and millions of years to create the fossil fuels (37) ____ we
now burn, we know that they cannot be replaced by us.
Wind power and solar power, when harnessed properly, are two excellent sources of green energy. Once the
necessary parts such as wind turbines to (38) ____ wind power and solar panels to create solar power have been
produced, only the pollutant from the production is left.
Question 34. A. another B. others C. much D. other
Question 35. A. although B. but C. and D. because
Question 36. A. material B. source C. matter D. issue
Question 37. A. when B. where C. which D. why
Question 38. A. move B. generate C. implant D. resolve
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Born on 23rd October, 1940 in Brazil, Pelé is regarded as one of the greatest football players of all time.
Labelled "the greatest" by FIFA, he was among the most successful and popular sports figures of the 20th
century. In 1999, he was named Athlete of the Century by the IOC and was included in the Time list of the 100
most important people of the 20th century. In 2000, Pelé was voted World Player of the Century by the IFFHS,
and was one of the two joint winners of the FIFA Player of the Century. With 1,279 goals in 1,363 games, which
include friendlies, he is recognised as a Guinness World Record.
Pelé began playing for Santos at age 15 and the Brazil national team at 16. During his international career, he
becomes the only player to win three World Cups: 1958, 1962 and 1970. Pelé is the all-time leading
goalscorer for Brazil with 77 goals in 92 games. At club level he is Santos' all-time top goalscorer with 643 goals
from 659 games. Pelé's "electrifying” play and penchant for spectacular goals" made him a world star. Since
retiring in 1977, Pelé has been a worldwide ambassador for football and has made many acting and commercial
ventures. In 2010, he was named the Honorary President of the New York Cosmos.
Adapted from "Wikipedia"
Question 39. What is the main idea of the reading passage?
A. The life and career of Pelé B. Pele's education achievements
C. Pele's football achievements D. Pele's achievements and income
Question 40. According to the passage, Pele' started playing football for Santos______.
A. at age of 15 B. at age of 16 C. for the World Cup D. for international games
Question 41. The word “electrifying” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fair B. wonderful C. motivating D. weak
25
Question 42. What does the word “which” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. records B. goals C. games D. winners
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Pele'?
A. He was born in 1940. B. He is the all-time leading goal-scorer.
C. He played in World Cup 2000. D. He is a Guinness World Record.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming.
Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming
earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual
migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In
many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking
their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar
and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible. For example,
polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere
farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming.
The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and
even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough and may
disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming.
Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the
coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching
and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and
increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
Adapted from "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H. Schneider
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration
Question 45: The word “shifting” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. damaging B. changing C. holding D. catching
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is TRUE about animals when their habitats grow warmer?
A. Animals prefer to shift south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.
B. Animals choose to travel north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. Animals tend to move toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. Animals tend to move toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 47: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
Question 48: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees, ______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 49: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
26
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The additional warming could lead to the water absorption of coral reefs.
B. The bleaching of coral reefs indicates the quick growth of marine mammals.
C. The increasing of carbon dioxide in the ocean atmosphere causes the blooming phase of sea weeds.
D. The bleaching of coral reefs indicates the slow death of coral reefs.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 7

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. theory B. therefore C. neither D.weather
Question 2: A. rubbish B. upper C. funny D. student
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attractive B. successful C. inactive D. excellent
Question 4: A. support B. decide C. approach D. motto
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He read the Old Man and The Sea, a novel ______ by Ernest Hemingway.
A. write B. which written C. writing D. that wrote
Question 6: This hotel must be _______ than the small one next door.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. the most expensive D.the more expensive
Question 7: Jeff will have traveled to 20 countries _______ at the end of next month.
A. after he had turned fifty B. as soon as he turned fifty
C. when he turned fifty D. by the time he turns fifty
Question 8: As an adult, I am independent ________ my parents financially.
A. in B. of C. at D. on
Question 9: The bridge is not very safe, _______?
A. is it B. isn’t it C. isn’t this D. is this
Question 10: According to FAO, Vietnam is ________ second largest coffee producer in the world after Brazil.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 11: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A.brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 12: She has a struggle trying to persuade the board to accept her proposal, but she's determined not to
_______ .
A. give up B. put away C. break down D. take off
Question 13: My parents decided ________ a taxi because it was late.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. took
Question 14: Jimmy always takes the ________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous pop
star, which is the reason why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 15: When the boss walked into the office, his secretary _______.
A. is typing B. has been typing C. was typing D. had typed
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to _______ the demand for food.
A. make B. meet C. have D. need
Question 17: The road to our village________ next year.

27
A. is widened B. will widened C. can widened D. will be widened
Question 18: Nowadays there are many _______ forms of entertainment everywhere.
A. various B. variety C. vary D. variously
Question 19: English is an obligatory subject from sixth grade across Vietnam, but in large cities, many primary
schools demand high _________.
A. capacity B. experience C. competency D. ability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom: “Would you please drive me to class today?”-Thuy: “________________.”
A. No, I don’t mind B. You are welcome
C.Yes, I’d be glad to D. Thank you for all
Question 21: Thanh and Nadia have just listened to Lan’s song.
Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.”
Nadia: “______.I really love her beautiful voice.”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many ethnic groups find it hard to maintain their own languages.
A. continue B. discontinue C. preserve D. speak
Question 23: We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday the next
day.
A. relaxed and comfortable B. at ease and refreshed
C. happy and disappointed D.sad and impatient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
Question 25: ANU has maintained its position as Australia's top university.
A. conserve B. remain C. complain D. conquer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: It’s not necessary that you do your homework now.
A. You shouldn’t do your homework now. B. You must do your homework now.
C. You needn’t do your homework now. D. You cannot do your homework now.
Question 27: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
D. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
Question 28:'' Where did you go last night''? she said to her boyfriend.
A. She asked her boyfriend where did he go last night.
B. She asked her boyfriend where he went the night before.
C. She asked her boyfriend where had he gone the night before.
D. She asked her boyfriend where he had gone the night before.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
28
A B C D
Question 30: Her last book is published in 20 languages years ago.
A B C D
Question 31: Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets having been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having been so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
Question 33: After he had been appointed to the post, he fell ill.
A. No sooner did he appoint to the post than he fell ill.
B. No sooner had he appointed to the post than he fell ill.
C. Hardly had he appointed to the post when he fell ill.
D. Hardly had he been appointed to the post when he fell ill.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
HEALTH BENEFITS OF DANCE
Dancing is something that humans do when they have a good time. It’s a (34) _______ response to
music, found in all cultures. What’s only been discovered recently is that dancing not only makes us feel good,
it’s also extremely good for our health.
Dancing like (35) _______ forms of exercise, releases hormones, such as dopamine, which makes us feel
relaxed and happy. And it also reduces feelings of stress or anxiety. Dancing is also a sociable activity, (36)
_______is another reason making us feel good. One study (37) _______ people’s enjoyment of dancing at home
in front of a video with dancing in a group in a studio. The people dancing in a group reported feeling happier,
(38) _______ those dancing alone did not.
Question 34: A. global B. worldwide C. world D. universal
Question 35: A. one B. little C. other D. each
Question 36: A. which B. when C. where D. why
Question 37: A. considered B. confused C. connected D. compared
Question 38: A. and B. or C. whereas D. so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Barn owls, of the family Tytonidae, are anatomically different enough from other owls to merit their own
family in the order Strigiformes. Instead of the more or less rounded face of most owls, the barn owl has a heart-
shaped face and lacks the usual tufted earlike feathers. The common barn owl is from 12 to 18 inches long and
has a white face, cinnamon buff back, buff or white breast, and relatively small eyes. The legs are fairly long,
feathered to the toes, and, like those of all owls, very strong and equipped with sharp, powerful, curved claws, the
outer ones being reversible, although they are usually directed backward.
Barn owls nest in hollow trees, caves, and buildings on every continent except Antarctica and have
adapted so well to living near humans that in some areas they seem to have forsaken natural nesting places in
favor of man-made ones. They hunt in open spaces and have the largest range of any nocturnal bird. They use
their eyesight to locate prey, but their hearing is so highly developed that they can hunt small mammals in total
darkness. Barn owls are economically valuable because of their preference for small, crop-destroying mammals.
Question 39: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The way in which barn owls hunt for food. B. The differences among owls’ families.
29
C. The natural habitat of barn owls D. The appearance of barn owls
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the barn owls described in the passage?
A. black breast B. curved claws C. small eyes D. white face
Question 41: The word “forsaken” in paragraph 2 is close in meaning to _______.
A. substituted B. abandoned C. chosen D. preferred
Question 42: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Spaces B. Humans C. Places D. Barn owls
Question 43: According to the passage, barn owls have a highly developed sense of _______.
A. taste B. touch C. hearing D. sight

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
We are a planet of seven billion people, and this number is growing by about 370,000 people every day.
This is putting a huge strain on the planet's natural resources. For many governments and environmental
organizations, the race is on to drastically reduce our consumption of resources before they run out.
Water is one of our most precious resources. Our quality of life, as well as life itself, depends on the
availability of clean, fresh water. It is the most widely used resource in industry, and plays a major role in energy
production. Although 70 percent of the world is covered in water, only 2.5 percent of that is fresh water, and less
than one percent of that freshwater is readily available to us. Yet we often overestimate how much water we
have, and reduce it further through pollution or inefficient use.
Some 92 percent of all freshwater used annually is dedicated to growing plants and raising animals for
food. This means that if water runs out, our food supply might follow. In India, it is estimated that future water
shortages could reduce grain harvests by 25%. In a country where the population exceeds 1.2 billion people and
is growing rapidly every year, this is a huge concern. India, like many developing countries, is already struggling
to provide for its population. While most people in developed countries can get water at the turn of a tap, nearly
four billion people elsewhere lack access to safe water, according to the United Nations Development Report.
Rain forests are another endangered resource. While rain forests are critically important to humanity, they
are rapidly being destroyed by human activities. The biggest cause of deforestation is conversion of forest land
for agriculture. Often called the "Lungs of the Planet” rain forests once covered 14 percent of the Earth's land
surface, but this has shrunk to only six percent. Every second, an area of rainforest, the size of a football field, is
destroyed at this rate. Rain forests will possibly disappear completely in less than 40 years.
(Adapted from: Active Reading)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Sustainability of resources. B. Human and environment.
C. Resources for the future. D. Awareness of conservation.
Question 45: The word strain in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. depletion B. contradiction C. pressure D. harmony
Question 46: The word overestimate in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. increase B. exaggerate C. reduce D. maintain
Question 47: In paragraph 2, water is one of our most precious resources because ________.
A. all freshwater on earth is readily available to us.
B. Our quality of life relies on the availability of freshwater.
C. most parts of the world is covered in fresh water
D. fresh water is hardly used for energy production.
Question 48: The word they in paragraph 4 refers to_________.
A. resources B. rain forests C. human activities D. humanity
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The shrink in forest area has been caused mainly by conversion of forest land for agriculture.
30
B. Our forests, the so- called "Lungs of the Planet”, are expanding steadily.
C. Most of the freshwater is used to grow plants and raise animals for food.
D. The availability of clean, fresh water greatly affects our quality of life.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. Rain forests may disappear in the near future due to the interference of human beings.
B. Rain forests are unlimited resources.
C. “The Lung of our Planet” once covered most of the Earth’s surface.
D. The government must be responsible for the shrink of rain forests

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laugh B. plough C. fought D. height
Question 2: A. hold B. know C. form D. show
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. prefer B. repair C. borrow D. allow
Question 4: A. determine B. consider C. develop D. concentrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Most tourists buy some souvenirs ________ by local craftsmen in Hoi An.
_ A. made B. making C. are making D. are made
Question 6: The economic conditions today are _______ than they were in the past.
_ A. much more B. many more C. much better D. the best
Question 7: She will call you to confirm ________ .
_ A. until she received the parcel B. when she was receiving the parcel
_ C. the moment she receives the parcel D. after she had received the parcel
Question 8: The pond was so clear that I could see my reflection ________ the water.
_ A. in B. at C. below D. behind
Question 9:Her brother was absent from his class yesterday, ________ ?
_ A. didn’t he B. wasn’t he C. did he D. was he
Question 10:My brother hopes to travel around the world _____ next summer.
_ A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: We have different activities and approaches, and we try and make _______ care plans for each
person.
_ A. single B. separate C. personal D. individual
Question 12:Children may be punished for not ________ their toys after playing.
_ A. giving away B. putting away C. putting off D. giving off
Question 13: He suggested ________ white text on a black background.
_ A. use B. to use C. used D. using
Question 14: Since he first intervened in the Wuhan corona virus crisis in late January, Chinese President Xi
Jinping has ordered "all-out efforts" to ________ its spread.
_ A. contain B. maintain C. retain D. attain
Question 15: He fell down when he______towards the church.
_ A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 16: The local authorities have ________ some preventive measures to reduce crime in the area.

31
_ A. done B. made C. given D. taken
Question 17:James should……..the news as soon as possible.
_ A. tell B. be told C.told D. be telling
Question 18: A new policy with regard to our country’s ________ development has been adopted.
_ A. industrialize B. industrially C. industry D. industrial
Question 19: Most young leaders find running a big business a lot like herding ________ .
_ A. dogs B. mice C. cats D. horses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Cows with newly born calves often show a strong urge to protect their helpless young.
_ A. desire B. reaction C. thought D. decision
Question 21: The campground is situated near the sea, so we will be driving for about one hour.
_ A. broken B. held C. located D. hidden
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis of research
data.
_ A. ease B. block C. speed D. build
Question 23: It seems that the deal was made behind closed doors as no one had any clue about it.
_ A. secretly B. daily C. transparently D. privately
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Mike and Laura are talking about their plan for the weekend.
- Mike: “Why don’t we go out for a change at the weekend?”
- Laura: “ ________ ”
_ A. Come off it! B. That’s great!
_ C. How come? D. I hate to differ.
Question 25: Tracy and Roger have just finished their dinner in a local restaurant.
- Tracy: “This restaurant is awful!”
- Roger: “ ________ . The food is stale and the waiters are impolite.”
_ A. What a surprise B. That would be fun
_ C. I couldn’t agree more D. Yes, I don’t think so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
_ The first thing (26)_____ is included in the "living together” (27) ______ is the expected good
relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. (28) _______ of people think
that everyone should share the housework equally, but in many homes parents do most of it. To certain
minds, many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework
equally is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and
parents must do things together. For this they can establish a housework planning.
_ (29)_________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will
think that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should share the
housework because that will help them when they have to establish their own family in the future. Too
many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate
basic housework to teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework
in their new grown-up life.

32
_ It can be (30) ________ concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for
future, because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens
will be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)
Question 26: A. which B. what C.that D. who
Question 27: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 28: A. lots B. few C. little D. a lot of
Question 29: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 30: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
People have defined ‘skyscraper’ in a number of ways over the years: an ornament on the top of a
building, a high-flying bird, a very tall man and a sail at the top of a mast. At the end of the nineteenth century,
the word was used to refer to buildings of ten storeys or more. Later, a lift was used to take people up to the
higher floors, as in the most famous skyscraper, the Empire State Building. During the middle ages, the people
living in the cities of northern Europe began to build great cathedrals. Tall spires were added to make these
churches higher and bring them closer to heaven.
In the nineteenth century, as cities grew more crowded with people looking for work, the value of
land rocketed. New businesses were starting and in order to make room for offices on a small plot of land, it was
necessary to build higher. But the problem was that to put up a stone building of such height, the walls on the
ground floor would have to be more than two meters thick to hold the weight of the building. So another material
was required to make skyscrapers possible.
About this time, three buildings were put up that used iron or steel to support great weight with
safety. They were the Crystal Palace in London, the Eiffel Tower in Paris and the Brooklyn Bridge in New York.
From then on, architects started to experiment with buildings that had steel frames and they have made huge
progress. Today, the tallest skyscrapers are a hundred storeys or more, compared to the first ten storeys
skyscrapers, which seem tiny.
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Why skyscrapers were needed.
B. The most famous skyscrapers in the world today.
_C. The people who designed skyscrapers.
_D. Problems during construction of skyscrapers.
Question 32: In the middle ages, people built tall churches because ________ .
A. they were more beautiful B. they felt like approaching God
C. they took in more people D. they started to build great cathedrals
Question 33: The word "rocketed" in paragraph 2 mostly means ________ .
_ A. rose B. dropped C. fluctuated D. drew
Question 34: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________ .
_ A. buildings B. architects C. frames D. skyscrapers
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
_ A. Taller buildings were necessary because land was expensive.
_ B. The problem with making a tall building with stone was its weight.
_ C. Skyscrapers were needed as houses for the poor.
_ D. In the past, the word ‘skyscraper’ had different meanings.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

33
Nowadays, using credit card numbers online is deemed to be risky. However, from time to time, we
all use passwords and government ID numbers on the Internet. We think we are safe, but that may not be true! A
new kind of attack is being used by dishonest people to steal IDs and credit card numbers from innocent web
surfers. This new kind of attack is called “phishing.”
__ Phishing sounds the same as the word “fishing,” and it implies that a thief is trying to lure people
into giving away valuable information. Like real fishermen, phishers use bait in the form of great online deals or
services. For example, phishers might use fake emails and false websites to con people into revealing credit card
numbers, account usernames, and passwords. They imitate well-known banks, online sellers, and credit card
companies. Successful phishers may convince as many as five percent of the people they contact to respond and
give away their personal financial information.
Is this really a big problem? Actually, tricking five percent of the online merchants is huge!
Currently, more than 350 million people have access to the Internet, and seventy-five percent of those Internet
users live in the wealthiest countries on Earth. It has been estimated that phishers send more than three billion
scam messages each year. Even by tricking only five percent of the people, phishers can make a lot of money.
__ Since there is so much money to make through this kind of scam, it has caught the interest of more
than just petty crooks. Recently, police tracked down members of an organized phishing group in Eastern Europe,
who had stolen hundreds of thousands of dollars from people online. The group created official- looking email
messages requesting people to update their personal information at an international bank’s website. However, the
link to the bank in the message actually sent people to the phishers’ fake website.
How can innocent people protect themselves? Above all, they have to learn to recognize email that
has been sent by a phisher. Always be wary of any email with urgent requests for personal financial information.
Phishers typically write upsetting or exciting, but fake statements in their emails so that people will reply right
away. Also, messages from phishers will not address recipients by name because they really don’t know who the
recipients are yet. On the other hand, valid messages from your bank or other companies you normally deal with
will typically include your name.
Question 36: What is the main purpose of the reading?
_ A. To explain a new kind of cybercrime
_ B. To outline three ways to recognize phishing scams
_ C. To report a surprising phishing scam
_ D. To contrast phishers and hackers
Question 37: The phrase “to con people into” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________ .
_ A. to realize B. to discourage C. to counterfeit D. to deceive
Question 38: According to the passage, to which of the following activities is phishing compared?
_ A. Collecting things B. Catching fish
_ C. Looking for rare things D. Meeting friends online
Question 39: According to the passage, what is implied about the people who get caught in phishing scams?
_ A. Almost all of them live in wealthy countries. B. They are very young.
_ C. Few of them have jobs. D. They often purchase things online.
Question 40: The word “crooks” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________ .
_ A. fishermen B. criminals C. police D. buyers
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following would probably NOT be found in a phishing
email message?
_ A. Some interesting information B. The receiver’s name
_ C. An urgent request for information D. Personal information about finance
Question 42: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ________ .
_ A. recipients B. phishers C. messages D. statements
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
34
Question 43: Have you met any of your neighbors since you live here?
_ A B C D
Question 44: John and Jane would like to have her own house in the future.
_ A B C D

Question 45: Our team won the trophy for the second successful season.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: She last met her closest friend five years ago.
A. She hasn’t met her closest friend for five years.
B. She didn’t meet her closest friend five years ago.
C. She has met her closest friend for five years.
D. She last saw her closest friend for five years.
Question 47: “I met my old friend yesterday” Jane said.
_ A. Jane said that she had met her old friend the previous day.
_ B. Jane said that she has met her old friend the day before.
_ C. Jane said that she would meet her old friend the following day.
_ D. Jane said that she met her old friend the day after.
Question 48: It isn't necessary to submit my assignment today.
_ A. I must submit my assignment today. B. I needn't submit my assignment today.
_ C. I could submit my assignment today. D. I shouldn’t submit my assignment today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His flight was delayed . He couldn’t be here on time.
A. He would be here in time if his flight were not delayed.
B. He would have been here in time if his flight hadn’t been delayed.
C. He would be here in time if his flight hadn’t been delayed.
D. He would have been here in time if his flight weren’t delayed
Question 50: Olga was about to say something about the end of the movie. He was stopped by his friends right
then.
A.Hardly had Olga intended to say something about the end of the movie when he was stopped by
his friends.
B. Only after Olga had said something about the end of the movie was he stopped by his friends.
C.Were it not for Olga’s intention of saying something about the end of the movie, he would not be
stopped by his friends.
D.It was not until Olga was stopped by his friends that he started to say something about the end of
the movie.
--------------- HẾT ---------------

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 9

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chair B. change C. chef D. choice
Question 2. A. cake B. rate C. dance D. gate

35
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. mistake B. machine C. music D. hotel
Question 4. A. professor B. digestion C. mechanic D. gravity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Life has become much easier for people ______near the world heritage sites because there are more
and better paid jobs there.
A. to live B. living C. live D. lived
Question 6. My electric bill this month is ______ than it was last month
A. higher B. the highest C. as higher D. high
Question 7. ______ the phone message, she will have left for America.
A. By the time we receive B. Before we received
C. When we were receiving D. After we had received
Question 8. This sweater will keep you safe ______ the cold.
A. for B. of C. from D. with
Question 9. Mr. Smith had to complain to the manager,______?
A. did he B. didn’t he C. wasn’t he D. was he
Question 10. Charles was wearing ______ silk yellow tie at the party.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11. Goodness, economy, and honesty are regarded as some universal______ a man should have.
A. habits B. customs C. characters D. virtues
Question 12. No one trusted Tim at first, but he______ to be right.
A. worked out B. came out C. found out D. turned out
Question 13. It’s not good to avoid _______ the teacher’s questions in class.
A. to answer B. answering C. answer D. answered
Question 14. He was as______ as a parrot when he learned that he had been passed over for the promotion.
A. sick B. good C. fluent D. disappointed
Question 15. David was playing football when he ______.
A. falls over B. fell over C. was falling over D. has fallen over
Question 16. Those people never ______ any notice of what their teacher says.
A. take B. pay C. get D. do
Question 17. The new computer system ______ next month.
A. installed B. is being installed C. has installed D. will install
Question 18. Many retail outlets emphasize lifestyle themes, such as the outdoors, to increase the ______ of their
products.
A. attract B. attractiveness C. attractive D. attractively
Question 19. I was out of my _____ in the advanced class, so I moved to the intermediate class.
A. size B. height C. depth D. width
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: John is asking Nam for help.
- John: “Can you tell me the way to the nearest post office?”
- Nam: “______”
A. It opens at nine o’clock. B. Turn left and then right.
C. You can walk or go there by taxi. D. It’s out two kilometers.
Question 21: Jennifer and Andy are discussing about types of markets.
- Jennifer: “I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets.”
36
- Andy: “ ______. Each has its own features. ”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. I disagree with you
C. That’s completely true D. I can’t help thinking the same
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. When I was young and naive, I believed it was possible to change the world.
A. applicable B. energetic C. practical D. thoughtless
Question 23. Some of the passengers looked green around the gills after the trip! Their faces turned pale.
A. energetic B. exhausted C. attractive D. confident
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.
A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant
Question 25. A study shows that obesity in school children has a number of complex determinants, driven by
the acquisition of habits.
A. types B. factors C. ideas D. ways
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. “Why didn’t we go out for dinner last night?” said Jim.
A. Jim asked why they hadn’t gone out for dinner the previous night.
B. Jim asked why they didn’t go out for dinner the previous night.
C. Jim asked why hadn’t they gone out for dinner the previous night.
D. Jim asked why didn’t they gone out for dinner the previous night.
Question 27. The last time Peter saw Mary was two months ago.
A. Peter has seen Mary for two months. B. Peter has not seen Mary for two months.
C. Peter first saw Mary two months ago. D. Peter saw Mary again two months ago
Question 28. It’s good for John to go before it gets dark.
A. It's dark now, and John ought to have gone before. B. John had left before it got dark.
C. John should go while it's still daylight. D. It's better for John to leave in darkness.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29. Each star has a predominant colour, which was depending on its surface temperature.
A. Each B. predominant C. was depending D. surface
Question 30. She has conducted a study of chemical fertilizers and its effect on the environment.
A. chemical B. has conducted C. the D. its
Question 31. Great white sharks are protective species along the California coast, but they are still being hunted
for business transaction.
A. protective B. transaction C. coast D. hunted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. They finished one book. They started reading the next.
A. Only if they had finished one book did they start reading the next.
B. Had they finished one book, they would have started reading the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one book when they started reading the next.
D. Not until did they start reading the next book then they finished one.
Question 33. My wife isn’t here now. I want to share the news with her.
A. If only my wife had been here and could have shared the news with me.
B. If my wife is here now, she can share the news with me now.
37
C. I wish my wife were here now, so I could share the news with her.
D. As long as my wife is here, she will be able to share the news with me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits the numbered blanks.
Japan, an economically developed country, has concerned about gender inequality. A survey showed that
Japan has been one of the developed countries (34) ______ gender equality is rather popular. The cause of this is
that after giving birth, the women need to spend (35) ______ time to take care of their children. (36) ______, they
could hardly pursue their career as they wanted. This causes them to financially depend on their husbands, which
partly contributes to right inequality. Facing this problem, Japan is making (37) ______ to provide women with
equal opportunities in employment. For instance, they have formed a committee which gives women
opportunities to become (38) ______ at their home. In addition, the committee also encourages and supports
women to participate in job market to satisfy their own needs and their children’s well.
Question 34. A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 35. A. every B. much C. other D. many
Question 36. A. However B. Although C. Therefore D. Moreover
Question 37. A. efforts B. progress C. sacrifice D. laws
Question 38. A. homemakers B. caretakers C. breadwinners D. caregivers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Scientists agree that the earth’s rising temperatures are fueling longer and hotter heat waves, more frequent
droughts, heavier rainfall, and more powerful hurricanes. In 2015, for example, scientists said that an ongoing
drought in California—the state’s worst water shortage in 1, 200 years—had been intensified by 15 percent to 20
percent by global warming. They also said the odds of similar droughts happening in the future had roughly
doubled over the past century. And in 2016, the National Academies of Science, Engineering, and Medicine
announced that it’s now possible to confidently attribute certain weather events, like some heat waves, directly to
climate change.
The earth’s ocean temperatures are getting warmer, too - which means that tropical storms can pick up more
energy. So global warming could turn, say, a category 3 storm into a more dangerous category 4 storm. In fact,
scientists have found that the frequency of North Atlantic hurricanes has increased since the early 1980s, as well
as the number of storms that reach categories 4 and 5. In 2005, Hurricane Katrina - the costliest hurricane in U. S.
history - struck New Orleans; the second-costliest, Hurricane Sandy, hit the East Coast in 2012.
The impacts of global warming are being felt across the globe. Extreme heat waves have caused tens of
thousands of deaths around the world in recent years. And in an alarming sign of events to come, Antarctica has
been losing about 134 billion metric tons of ice per year since 2002. This rate could speed up if we keep burning
fossil fuels at our current pace, some experts say, causing sea levels to rise several meters over the next 50 to 150
years.
(Adapted from https://www. nrdc. org)
Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. What is global warming?
B. What causes global warming?
C. What are the effects of global warming on humans' life?
D. How is global warming linked to extreme weather?
Question 40. Which of the following statements is NOT true about global warming, based on the given passage?
A. Global warming is intensifying droughts in areas like California.
B. Certain weather events, such as some heat waves, can be directly attributed to climate change.
C. Warm ocean temperatures are leading to more frequent and more powerful hurricanes.
D. The world is not currently seeing any negative impacts of global warming.
Question 41. The word "intensified" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. made stronger B. made faster C. made higher D. made drier
38
Question 42. The word "which" in the passage refers to ______.
A. climate change B. that tropical storms can pick up more energy
C. weather events D. the earth's ocean rising temperatures
Question 43. According to the reading what should be done to keep the sea level from rising too fast?
A. Making people aware of the alarming sign of the future weather events.
B. Stopping the future weather events from taking place.
C. Cutting down on burning fossil fuels.
D. Predicting future weather events.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Making robots work well in the home is incredibly difficult. Their sensory apparatus is limited because
sensors are expensive, and interpretation (especially common-sense knowledge) is still more suited for research
than deployment. Robotic arms are expensive to build and not very reliable. This limits the range of possibilities:
Mowing and vacuuming? Sure. Sorting laundry? Hard, but doable. Picking up dirty items around the home?
Doubtful. How about assistants for the elderly or those who need medical supervision? This is a booming area of
exploration, but I am skeptical. Today's devices are not reliable, versatile, or intelligent enough - not yet,
anyway. Moreover, the social aspects of the interaction are far more complex than the technical ones, something
the technology-driven enthusiasts typically fail to recognize.
Three likely directions for the future are entertainment, home appliances, and education. We can start with
today's existing devices and slowly add on intelligence, manipulative ability, and function. Start small and build.
The market for robots that entertain by being cute and cuddly is already well established. The second generation
of vacuum cleaners is smarter than the first. Sony's dog gets smarter and less expensive with each new version.
We don't get think of washing machines, microwave ovens, and coffee makers as robots, but why not? They don't
move around the house, but they are getting better and smarter every year. And when the coffee maker is
connected to the pantry and dishwasher, that will be a home robot worthy of the name: same for the coupling of
sorting, washing, drying, and storing clothes.
Education is a powerful possibility. There is already a solid basis of educational devices that aid learning.
Today's robots can read aloud in engaging voices. They can be cute and lovable - witness the responses to the
multiple quasi-intelligent animals on the toy market. A robot could very well interact with a child, offering
educational benefits as well. Why not have the robot help the child learn the alphabet, teach reading, vocabulary,
pronunciation, basic arithmetic, maybe basic reasoning? Why not music and art, geography and history? And
why restrict it to children? Adults can be willing and active learners.
Now this is a direction worthy of exploration: Robot as teacher. Not to replace school, not to replace human
contact and interaction, but to supplement them. The beauty here is that these tasks are well within the abilities of
today's devices. They don't require much mobility nor sophisticated manipulators. Many technologists dream of
implementing Neil Stephenson's children's tutor in his novel The Diamond Age:Or, a Young Lady's Illustrated
Primer. Why not? Here is a worthy challenge.
(Adapted from https://interactions. acm. org)
Question 44. It is understood from paragraph one that ______.
A. Home robots are still expensive even though they can do various technical tasks.
B. Home robots are not reliable and intelligent enough for complex social interactions.
C. Home robots have not been commonly used as they are still n research.
D. Home robots have been recognized by the technology-driven enthusiasts.
Question 45. Which of the following statements is TRUE as discussed in the passage?
A. The best home robots are now for entertainment purposes.
B. Home robots now are integrated into home appliances.
C. Home robots help parents teach their children more intelligently.
D. Smart home appliances should be considered home robots.
Question 46. The word "skeptical" in paragraph two is closest in meaning to ______.
39
A. doubtful B. unbelievable C. terrified D. threatening
Question 47. The writer mentions Sony's dog as an example of ______.
A. robots doing household chores B. robots entertaining in the house
C. clean and intelligent pets D. best-selling robots for entertainment
Question 48. The word "They" in paragraph two refers to ______.
A. washing machines B. microwave ovens C. coffee makers D. home appliances
Question 49. The word "engaging" in paragraph three mostly means “______”
A. satisfying B. attractive C. sweet D. warm
Question 50. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Robots nowadays are most beneficial in the field of education
B. Home robots are not popular due to the high cost of manufacture
C. Robots to entertain will be marketed more and more to children
D. Robots have been becoming an integral part of our home life

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. though B. these C. there D. thin
Question 2: A. nice B. drive C. kid D. life
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. important B. accurate C. artistic D. expensive
Question 4: A. advice B. action C. brother D. waiter
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other things, ______by the
explosion.
A. causing B. which caused C. caused D. that caused
Question 6: This pen is______than that one.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. most expensive D. the most expensive
Question 7: He will go out with his friends, ______his homework.
A. after he will have completed B. when he was completing
C. until he completed D. as soon as he has completed
Question 8: My brother is interested______the job that he saw advertised in the paper.
A. for B. on C. to D. in
Question 9: The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, ______?
A. won’t it B. hasn’t it C. isn't it D. doesn't it
Question 10: What is______longest river in the world?
A. an B. a C. the D. no article
Question 11: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into______.
A. influence B. effect C. impact D. affect
Question 12: Vietnam failed to______in the second leg of the 2022 AFF Cup after losing 0-1 and let Thailand
lift the trophy.
A. turn it around B. sort it out C. look it over D. bring it about
Question 13: The boy's father promised______for the window to be repaired.
A. paying B. to paying C. pay D. to pay
Question 14: The explorers made a fire to _______ off wild animals.

40
A. get on B. made up C. go with D. keep off
Question 15: Sam______to change a light bulb when he slipped and fell.
A. tried B. was trying C. is trying D. has tried
Question 16: The university is ______progress in the ongoing development of educational programs, services
and facilities.
A. having B. doing C. making D. taking
Question 17: The baby ______ after by me before his mother comes back.
A. will be looking B. will be looked C. will look D. looks
Question 18 : The big question is whether ChatGPT will have the same sweeping______as other
breakthrough technologies like the iPhone and Google search.
A. influential B. influent C. influentially D. influence
Question 19: I got a diploma in business administration, but still sometimes wish I had been able to go to
university and get a ______.
A. diploma B. certificate C. degree D. scholarship
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: “Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months.”
Daniel: “ ______”
A. Thank you for looking for it. B. You can say that again.
C. I'm glad you like it. D. I like reading books.
Question 21: Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
- Dane: “____________. We can use paper bags instead.”
A. I completely agree. B. It’s not true. C. I don’t quite agree D. You’re wrong.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The table is too heavy for me to move alone.
A. old B. bulky C. light D. easy
Question 23: Though her name rang a bell, I couldn't remember where I had met her before.
A. was announced B. was famous C. sounded strange D. sounded familiar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. position C. number D. quality
Question 25: If petrol price goes up any more, I will have to use a bicycle to save money.
A. develops B. increases C. decreases D. Reduce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.
A. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore. B. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore.
C. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore. D. We may not get a visa for Singapore.
Question 27: Mrs. Brown last went on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
A. Mrs. Brown has gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.

41
B. Mrs. Brown didn't go on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
C. Mrs. Brown has two years to go on a trip to Hanoi.
D. Mrs. Brown hasn't gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
Question 28: She asked me, "How high is the church?"
A. She asked me how high the church is. B. She asked me how high was the church.
C. She asked me how high the church was. D. She asked me how the church had been.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend on
levels of productivity.
A. employee B. competent C. industrial D. depend on
Question 30: Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.
A. works B. a shipper C. twice D. as
Question 31: The native teachers used the advanced English vocabulary in his presentation so students
don’t understand the lesson.
A. advanced B. his C. So D. lesson

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He isn't qualified. He is not given important tasks.
A. If only he were qualified and wouldn't be given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would be given important tasks.
C. If he were qualified, he would not be given important tasks.
D. Provided he is qualified, he will be given important tasks.
Question 33: I had only just put the phone down. Then the boss rang back.
A. I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
B. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
C. No sooner had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
D. Scarcely had I put the phone down than the boss rang back.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
For all the talk of what humankind has done to cause destruction to the planet, we should not forget that
nature itself is a (34) ______force, capable of doing damage on a huge scale. The greenhouse effect and the
hole in the ozone layer are indeed made worse by the industrialized society we live in. (35) ______, we must
remember that there are certain species of plants and animals which, quite naturally, (36) ______off gases
that are very harmful to the atmosphere. And only 50 years ago in London, hundreds of people died from the
smog (37) ______hung over the River Thames. What is interesting here is that smoke and gases from
industry, vehicles and fossil fuels were ingredients in this deadly mixture. The (38) ______vital
ingredient, though, was the completely natural fog, and who would have thought that could be harmful? In the
early days of the industrial revolution, poets, painters and philosophers described how the polluted urban skies
made them think of the end of the world.
Question 34: A. powerful B. natural C. muscular D. heavy
Question 35: A. However B. Although C. For example D. As a result
Question 36: A. throw B. take C. run D. give
Question 37: A. when B. who C. whose D. which

42
Question 38: A. many B. others C. other D. much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
During the past half-century, our species has embarked on a remarkable social experiment. For the first
time in human history, great numbers of people – at all ages, in all places, of every political persuasion – have
begun settling down as singletons. Until the second half of the last century, most of us married young and parted
only at death. If death came early, we remarried quickly; if late, we moved in with family, or they with us. Now
we marry later. We divorce, and stay single for years or decades.
The rise of living alone has produced significant social benefits, too. Young and middle-aged solos have
helped to revitalise cities, because they are more likely to spend money, socialise and participate in public life.
Contemporary solo dwellers in the US are primarily women: about 18 million, compared with 14 million men.
The majority, more than 16 million, are middle-aged adults between the ages of 35 and 64. The elderly account
for about 11 million of the total. Young adults between 18 and 34 number increased more than 5 million,
compared with 500,000 in 1950, making them the fastest-growing segment of the solo- dwelling population.
Despite fears that living alone may be environmentally unsustainable, solos tend to live in apartments
rather than in big houses, and in relatively green cities rather than in car-dependent suburbs. There’s good
reason to believe that people who live alone in cities consume less energy than if they coupled up and
decamped to pursue a single-family home.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle)
Question 39: The best title for this passage could be______.
A. the increase in solo living B. the rise in divorce rates
C. solos’ tendency towards living in apartments D. figures about solo dwellers in the US
Question 40: Which statement is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Solos tend to live big houses in car-dependent suburbs.
B. The rise of living alone has brought about significant social advantages.
C. People now marry at young age and when they divorce, they remarry quickly.
D. People have begun settling down as singletons since the second half of the last century.
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to______.
A. solo dwellers B. young adults C. the elderly D. middle-aged adults
Question 42: In paragraph 2, all the following are the suggestions of the writer EXCEPT .
A. The number of the young adult choosing to live alone has increased the most rapidly.
B. Solo dwellers have helped to renew their cities.
C. In the US, more females choose to live alone than males.
D. There are fewer middle-aged solos than the elderly who live alone.
Question 43: The word “decamped” in paragraph 3 means______.
A. quitted B. lived separately C. lived together D. settled down
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
It’s important to be able to articulate your dream job. Not just for personal reasons, but also for when
you’re asked about it in interviews. But, how can you even begin to describe your ideal job, especially to
someone who’s clearly going to be judging your response? Just picking a place to start is a head-scratcher.
First, let’s talk about what you’re good at doing, or your strengths. It’s likely you’ve already had the
chance to talk about this topic a bit during the interview, so it makes for a nice transition. Highlight the skills
that you enjoy using most, not just the ones you’re a superstar at. This is about your dream job, so don’t shy
away from mentioning any that you want to grow as well.
Next, it’s time to talk about what interests you. Think big picture for this. What drew you to your

43
industry? What’s something you did as a kid that’s actually found its way into your work? What is it about your
career that keeps you engaged? Weave that in.
Giving a sense of what your career values are will give the interviewer an idea about what motivates you;
it’s a good way to bring the focus back to the company you’re interviewing for. It also adds some extra
complexity to your answer. You’re not just saying, “I want an interesting job that I’m good at.” I mean, that’s
nice, but this is your dream job we’re talking about!
Don’t pigeonhole yourself with anything that official. Instead, give the hiring manager a more
nuanced response by covering your skills, interests, and values. He or she will get the chance to learn more
about you—and you have more flexibility to line up your career goals and the position you’re applying for.
That’s a win-win.
(Source: https://www.themuse.com/)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The secret formula for a job interview. B. Is “dream job” really possible?
C. What makes for the dream job? D. Think proactively about your career.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .
A. automatic B. insignificant C. discouraging D. distinctive
Question 46: The word “head-scratcher” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. simplicity B. misery C. difficulty D. flexibility
Question 47: The word “ones” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. transitions B. strengths C. skills D. interviews
Question 48: What is the tone of the passage?
A. Motivating B. Biased C. Caustic D. Speculative
Question 49: According to the passage, what should interviewees NOT include in their answers?
A. Their engagement B. their skills C. Their interests D. Their values
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. Concentrating on your most outstanding ability to work for the company is a must in a job interview.
B. Something relating to your childhood as well as your priorities in career shouldn’t be mentioned to
your interviewer.
C. Taking advantage of your shyness in any job interview can definitely help impress your interviewer.
D. Being able to express your thoughts about your dream job wisely can help you a lot in a job interview.
ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 11

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chaos B. archeology C. charity D. architecture
Question 2: A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following Question s.
Question 3: A. confide B. approach C. install D. enter
Question 4: A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question s.
Question 5: Benzene, ______ by Faraday, became the starting point in the manufacture of many dyes,
perfumes and explosives.
A. was discovered B. discovering C. discovered D. was discovering
Question 6: Detective books are ______ than science fiction ones.
A. more interesting B. interestingly C. interstinger D. interesting
Question 7: I will earn my own living ______.
44
A. until I leave school B. when I left school
C. while I had left school D. after I leave school
Question 8: I'm very proud ______ my daughter, she worked very hard.
A. on B. of C. in D. at
Question 9: The poor don't have many things to eat, ______?
A. do we B. do they C. do you D. do I
Question 10: We might be able to catch ______ last train if we hurried.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11: My mother takes the ______ for teaching us in the evening so that our homework has been
finished before bedtime.
A. job B. work C. responsibility D. role
Question 12: You will have to ______ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside
Question 13: Have you ever considered ______ to study in a foreign country?
A. going B. to go C. to be going D. having gone
Question 14: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic ______ when you explain the
situation to her.
A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger
Question 15: He fell down while he ______ towards the church.
A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 16: I have no idea to ______ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 17: Many people believe we can look forward to the day when even our household jobs like
cleaning and decorating ______ by computer-control robots.
A. will be doing B. are being done C. has done D. will be done.
Question 18: The map of top ten most densely _______ countries in the world includes Monaco, Singapore,
Bahrain, Malta and Bangladesh.
A. populated B. populating C. population D. popular
Question 19: The arrested man is suspected of ______ government funds for himself.
A. robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 20: David is talking to Linda after a party.
-David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “______”
A. That’s great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
Question 21: Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
~ Sarah: "Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games. " ~ Kathy: "______"
A. I don't quite agree with you B. You are absolutely right.
C. Yes, I share your opinion. D. Surely, they shouldn't.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s)OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Domestic violence is strictly forbidden all over the world.
A. permitted B. limited C. restricted D. prohibited
Question 23: He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarreled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
45
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of
the following questions.
Question 24: He stressed that idea of the event is to grab the public's attention with their favorite acts, rather
than to give them a diverse arts festival.
A. distract B. evaluate C. change D. attract
Question 25: Computers are becoming much more sophisticated machines.
A. expensive B. complicated C. convenient D. difficult to operate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following Question s
Question 26: You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother
B. You must clean the house instead of your brother
C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother
D. You might clean the house instead of your brother.
Question 27: He started learning French six years ago.
A. He has learned French for six years.
B. It was six years ago did he start learning French.
C. He hasn’t learnt French for six years.
D. It is six years since he has learnt French.
Question 28: Clair asked, "What time do the banks close?"
A. Claire wanted to know what time the banks close?
B. Claire wanted to know what time do the banks close?
C. Claire wanted to know what time did the banks close?
D. Claire wanted to know what time the banks closed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Last Sunday is so beautiful a day that we took a drive in the country.
A. Last B. is C. a day D. took a drive
Question 30: The students spread our picnic rug out on the ground and sat down to have lunch.
A. The B. spread C. our D. sat
Question 31: In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was not
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
A. as a whole B. favourite C. especially D. protected increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 33: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34- 39

46
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed, some
people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (34)______ on young people’s
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at risk of
becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started
doing it. (35)______, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty of the
birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (36)______ with sensor
equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically converted into text
messages and beamed to the Internet where they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also
each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon
kit’ containing all these gadgets (37)______ bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, apart, that is,
from the camera, which will hang around its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of
an interactive map, (38)______ will provide local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local
air quality.
Question 34: A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 35: A. That is B. What’s more C. whereas D. Therefore
Question 36: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 37: A. each B. some C. few D. little
Question 38: A. who B. which C. that D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era, which is known
as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million years ago. For many millions of
years, they dominated the land with their huge size and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died
out rather suddenly, never to reemerge.
The word dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were not lizards, but
their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more than ten times as much as a mature
elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern-day whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including
the brontosaurus and tyrannosaurus, reached 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however,
some were actually no larger than a chicken.
Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaur to disappear. One theory involves a change in the earth’s
climate. It is believed that temperature dropped significantly towards the end of the Cretaceous Period. Too
large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly
for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to
survive.
Question 31. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The Domination of the Land B. Dinosaurs and their extinction
C. Earth’s Largest Reptiles D. The History of Earth
Question 32. The word “ones” in the passage refers to __________
A. dinosaurs B. millions C. lizards D. whales
Question 33. According to the passage dinosaurs vanished rather suddenly about _______ ago.
A. 200 million years D. 135 million years C. 80 million years D. 65 million years
Question 34. The word “chilly” in the passage refers to _________
A. very hot B. extremely cold C. very cold D. humid
Question 35. According to the passage, what is TRUE about the size of dinosaurs?
A. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth. B. It varied quite greatly.
C. It guaranteed their survival. D. It was rather uniform.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions front 44 to 50.
47
Modern technologies have changed the way that people communicate with one another. These technologies
provide new and innovative ways for people to communicate -- text messaging, email, chat and social
networks. They allow faster and more efficient communication and can help build relationships. However,
modern technologies can also have negative effects such as limiting personal contact and straining
relationships. The nature of the effect depends in large part on the type of relationship.
Modern technologies limit the amount of separation between work and home. With the advent of computers,
the Internet and cell phones people can -- and are often expected to -- address work issues from home. This
can limit family interactions and cause conflict between family members. The use of Internet and television
by children and teenagers also limits the amount of time spent with family and can increase conflict between
children and their parents.
Young people use modern technologies in increasing numbers to communicate with their friends. Text
messaging and online chats have become the preferred method of youth communication. A California State
University and UCLA study indicates that for young people face-to-face interactions are less desirable than
modern modes of communication. This preference could cause an inability to form lasting friendships or
difficulty understanding social cues. Others believe that modern technologies increase communication and
therefore strengthen friendships.
Starting new relationships -- romantic and otherwise -- can be difficult. Modern technologies allow people to
make new connections without the fear’s characteristic of face-to-face contact. The anonymity and low risk is
what makes Internet dating and social networks popular ways of meeting people. However, this anonymity
can also be dangerous. In April 2011, a woman sued an online dating site after allegedly being raped by a
man she met online.
Modern technologies allow couples to be in contact with each other more than ever before. This can lead to
increased expectations and conflict. With the increasing use of cell phones and email, people often expect an
instant reply to communication. A delayed reply -- or none at all -- can lead to suspicion and anger. The use
of social networks can also affect relationships. Information that was once private -- such as relationship
conflicts -- is now part of the public sphere.
(Adapted from https: //oureverydaylife. com/)
Question 44. Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The advantages and disadvantages of social networks.
B. The positive and negative effects of modern technologies on communication.
C. The differences between the way people communicate in the past and now.
D. How people’s relationship has to change to keep up with the development of modern technologies.
Question 45. The word “straining” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. connecting B. healing C. breaking down D. experiencing pressure
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, why do modern technologies cause conflict between family
members?
A. Because people often take advantage of these technologies to work from home.
B. Since parents spend so much time on TV and Internet that they can’t take care of their children.
C. As the pressure of work in modern time is too heavy for parents to solve at workplace.
D. Because people prefer spending time on the Internet to talking with each other.
Question 47. What does the phrase “this preference” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the preference for face-to-face communication
B. the preference to young people
C. the preference for communicating by modern modes
D. the preference for communicating with their friends
Question 48. The following are benefits of modern technologies mentioned in the passage, EXCEPT
______.
A. People are easier to keep in touch with their friends.
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B. Singles can have all information about their partners before face-to-face meeting.
C. More work is done from home instead of at the workplace.
D. People will have a more efficient way to build new relationships.
Question 49. The word “instant” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. exact B. appropriate C. immediate D. gradual
Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ______.
A. people’s personal information now is no longer confidential as people depend too much on social
networks.
B. people’s relationships become worse and worse with the increasing use of modern technologies.
C. couples are likely to separate because of the pressure of keeping in touch on social networks.
D. conflicts between people are not difficult to solve with the help of modern technologies.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1: A. these B. theme C. throat D. theft
2: A. smile B. mice C. flight D. spring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3: A. weather B. human C. cargo D. device
4: A. abandon B. cultivate C. encounter D. consider
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
5: On the trip to Australia, she bought nice new woolen carpets ______ by local artists.
A. were made B. made C. making D. was making
6: Viruses spread ______in the hot weather than in other conditions.
A. the easier B. the most easily C. easy as D. more easily
7: Wait for me and don’t worry much, babe. I’ll get home safe and sound ______.
A. as soon as we have controlled the spread of the disease
B. by the time we controlled the spread of the disease
C. after we had controlled the spread of the disease
D. when we will control the spread of the disease
8: These old ladies are dedicated nearly all their youth ______ the cause of their nation’s peace.
A. for B. in C. to D. at
9: Tracy’s taken to school by her boyfriend every day, ______?
A. isn’t she B. wasn’t she C. hasn’t she D. won’t she
10: Having read ______ instructions twice, I still couldn't understand how to use this machine.
A. an B. a C. the D. no article
11: My Tam, a much-loved singer in Vietnam, ______ her debut album “Mãi Yêu” in her twentieths.
A. produced B. provided C. released D. composed
12: They ______ their journey to Paris till the end of the month because of the father’s sudden business trip.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. keep off
13: He decided ______ cosmetic surgery to become more handsome with a well-defined feature face.
A. have B. having C. to have D. to having
14: “I’ll keep my ______ crossed for you when you are in the job interview this afternoon. Good luck! Nancy”
A. legs B. fingers C. arms D. hands

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15: The Vietnam team captain stumbled and fell when he ______ the ball through four Indonesian players.
A. have dribbled B. was dribbling C. had dribbled D. is dribbling
16: Nancy never leaves home for work without ______ a glimpse of herself in the mirror.
A. catching B. taking C. keeping D. having
17: It is believed that an entire approach to sex education ______ in the new curricula for high schools.
A. includes B. will include C. will be included D. has included
18: ______, my son will pass the exam with flying colour. He has been trying hard lately.
A. Hopeful B. Hopefully C. Hopeless D. Hopefulness
19: There is a strong ______ that the country will fall into recession again unless the State Bank lowers the
interest rate.
A. ability B. capability C. probability D. capacity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
20: Mary and Linn are having a conversation in their class.
Linn: “How often does your brother have to do a night shift?” - Mary: “______.”
A. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7 B. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles
C. Not much, only a couple of hours every day D. Three times a week, but sometimes twice
21: Ted is asking for Jack’s advice on his part-time job.
Ted: “Do you really think that I should take the job in Granny’s?"
Jack “______. Take it. The owner is generous and polite”
A. I doubt so B. I don't think so C. Trust me D. I know so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22: Mark was a reckless driver. He had been fined for speeding and had his license suspended for 3 months.
A. cautious B. considerate C. dangerous D. patient
23: That last comment of yours won the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after that.
A. was a defeat B. was a breakdown C. was a success D. was a failure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
24: My sister said that the journey by sea was long and boring. However, I found it very interesting.
A. dangerous B. tedious C. curious D. furious
25: For environmental safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of factories.
A. leak B. release C. poison D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
26: “When are you going to tell your parents the truth, Jane?” said Tom.
A. Tom asked Jane when she is going to tell her parents the truth.
B. Tom asked Jane when she was going to tell your parents the truth.
C. Tom asked Jane when was she going to tell her parents the truth.
D. Tom asked Jane when she was going to tell her parents the truth.
27: Nancy hardly talks to Harry, possibly because she is so shy.
A. Nancy may be too shy to talk to Harry more often.
B. Nancy’s shyness discourages her to talk to Harry more often.
C. Nancy shouldn’t be too shy to talk to Harry.
D. It is Nancy’s shyness that she must talk to Harry more often.
28: It’s 10 weeks since she posted her last pictures on her facebook.
A. She will post her last pictures on her facebook in ten weeks’ time.
B. She didn’t post any pictures on her facebook ten weeks ago.
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C. She hasn’t posted her pictures on her facebook for ten weeks.
D. She has posted her pictures on her facebook in the past 10 weeks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
29: It was because Tommy used to be late and misbehave with his teammates that he was made abundant last
week.
A. because B. misbehave C. teammates D. abundant
30: On the Independence Day last week, the police release several suspects related to the bank robbery.
A. On B. the C. release D. suspects
31: We all admire Nancy, our classmate, for their intelligence, cheerful disposition and honesty.
A. We all B. their C. cheerful D. honesty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
32: Peter can’t pursue his tertiary education. He has to work to raise his two brothers.
A. If Peter hadn’t had to work to raise his two brothers, he would have pursued his tertiary education.
B. If Peter didn’t have to work to raise his two brothers, he wouldn’t pursue his tertiary education.
C. If Peter didn’t have to work to raise his two brothers, he would pursue his tertiary education.
D. Provided Peter has to work to raise his two brothers, he can’t pursue his tertiary education.
33: The master of ceremonies has a very soft voice. Everyone listens to her attentively whenever she appears on
the stage.
A. Were the master of ceremonies to have a very soft voice, everyone would listen to her attentively
whenever she appears on the stage.
B. Only after everyone listens to the master of ceremonies attentively whenever she appears on the stage does
she have a very soft voice.
C. But for a very soft voice, everyone would listen to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage.
D. So soft is the voice of the master of ceremonies that everyone listens to her attentively whenever she
appears on the stage.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Nguyen Ngoc Manh, a delivery professional with a packing service in Hanoi, saw a 2-year-old girl hanging
from the balcony when he arrived with a package for one of the residents on Sunday evening.
“I was sitting in the car and waiting to deliver some (34) ______ while hearing a baby’s crying, just thought
she was yelled by her mothers,” said Mr Manh.
“No sooner had I heard someone screaming for help than I stuck my head out of the car, looking around, and
saw a girl (35) ______ was climbing out of the balcony. I plunged out of the car immediately and found ways to
climb into the building. I mounted on a 2-meter-high tile roof to seek a proper position to get the girl.”
“I tried to reach out my hand and took the maximum effort to catch the girl, so when the baby falls, I just can (36)
______so that she would not fall directly to the ground. Luckily, the baby fell into my lap,” he says.
(37) ______, the horror of the day didn’t end there. As Mr. Manh immediately embraced the baby after she
landed on his lap. He spotted blood dripping from her mouth. He immediately rushed her to a nearby hospital.
The girl, according to the report, has a broken arm and leg but no (38) ______ serious injuries.
(From https://www.independent.co.uk/news/world/asia)
34: A. facilities B. conveniences C. belongings D. commodities
35: A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
36: A. ward her off B. prevent her from C. turn her up D. turn her over
37: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. Besides D. However
38: A. another B. other C. each D. every

51
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
How much do you know about the history of some of your favorite foods? Do you know when people in
England started cooking curry dishes? Do you know in which country pizzas or hamburgers were first made? The
facts might surprise you.
Many people think the English found out about curry from people in India in the 1600s. In reality, wealthy
English people were eating dishes that were made with curry spices hundreds of years before British ships
traveled to India. Cooks of wealthy English families during the time of King Richard I were making curry dishes,
and in fact, the word “curry” can be found in an English language cookbook as far back as 1377.
As for pizza, this dish was probably first made in Persia (what is now Iran). The Persians were eating round, flat
bread with cheese in the 500s. That was nearly 1,000 years before pizza caught on in Naples, Italy!
Finally, let’s look at the truth behind hamburgers. Many people think hamburgers are an American food.
However, according to some stories, hamburgers came from Hamburg, Germany. A German named Otto Kuasw
created the first hamburger in 1891. Four years later, German sailors introduced hamburgers to Americans.
Where foods come from isn’t nearly as important as how they taste; as long as they are delicious! So, go get
some of your favorite food and dig in.
(From Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
39: What of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. British Curry: What amazing food! B. How foods affect your body.
C. How to cook some traditional dishes. D. Foods origins: what surprising facts!
40: According to paragraph 2, British curry dishes______.
A. were described in cookbook in 13th century B. were commonly cooked for the elite.
C. were eaten by King Richard I every day D. were brought to England by sailors.
41: The word that in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. people B. dishes C. curry D. spices
42: The word caught on in the paragraph 3 can be best replaced by______.
A. became popular B. was cheap C. was forbidden D. became precious
43: Which of the following statements is NOT true about hamburgers?
A. Hamburgers originated in Hamburg, Germany
B. It is rumoured that hamburgers are American foods
C. Hamburgers were brought to American by sailors in 1896.
D. The first hamburgers were made by a German man.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Far from being barren wastelands, deserts are biologically rich habitats with a vast array of animals and
plants that have adapted to the harsh conditions there. Some deserts are among the planet's last remaining areas of
total wilderness. Yet more than one billion people, one-sixth of the Earth's population, actually live in desert
regions.
Deserts cover more than one fifth of the Earth's land, and they are found on every continent. A place that
receives less than 10 inches (25 centimetres) of rain per year is considered a desert. Deserts are part of a wider
classification of regions called "drylands." These areas exist under a moisture deficit, which means they can
frequently lose more moisture through evaporation than they receive from annual precipitation.
And despite the common conceptions of deserts as dry and hot, there are cold deserts as well. The largest hot
desert in the world, northern Africa's Sahara, reaches temperatures of up to 122 degrees Fahrenheit (50 degrees
Celsius) during the day. But some deserts are always cold, like the Gobi desert in Asia and the desert on the
continent of Antarctica. Others are mountainous. Only about 10 percent of deserts are covered by sand dunes.
The driest deserts get less than half an inch (one centimeter) of precipitation each year, and that is from
condensed fog not rain.
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Desert animals have adapted ways to help them keep cool and use less water. Camels, for example, can go for
days without food and water. Many desert animals are nocturnal, coming out only when the brutal sun has
descended to hunt. Some animals, like the desert tortoise in the south-western United States, spend much of their
time underground. Most desert birds are nomadic, crisscrossing the skies in search of food. Because of their very
special adaptations, desert animals are extremely vulnerable to introduced predators and changes to their habitat.
Some of the world's semi-arid regions are turning into desert at an alarming rate. This process, known as
"desertification," is not caused by drought, but usually arises from the demands of human populations that settle
on the semi-arid lands to grow crops and graze animals. The pounding of the soil by the hooves of livestock may
degrade the soil and encourage erosion by wind and water.
(From https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/deserts-explained)
44: What is the best title for the text?
A. Deserts: General introduction B. How to survive in deserts
C. Deserts: Facts and myths D. Biological features of deserts
45: Which of the followings best replaces the word “array” in paragraph 1?
A. interaction B. corporation C. collection D. combination
46: The pronoun that in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. centimeter B. Precipitation
C. the driest desert D. continent of Antarctica
47: The word deficit in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ______.
A. irreverence B. unfeasibility C. insufficiency D. imbalance
48: According to paragraph 4, desert animals ______.
A. never move in the sunlight B. easily become preys of large predators
C. are able to survive without water D. are active when night falls
49: According to the passage, what is NOT true about desserts?
A. They are the planet’s last remaining areas of total wilderness.
B. They are biologically rich habitats with a wide number of plants and animals.
C. They are found on all of the six continents.
D. They cover more than 20% of the Earth’s land.
50: It can be inferred from the passage that the diversity of deserts’ plants and animals is poorer because of
______.
A. The appearance of grasses besides trees and shrubs
B. The considerable number of people living in desert areas
C. The lack of water for years at a time
D. The increase in the temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. those B. thin C. thank D. thought
Question 2: A. misery B. climate C. sentiment D. discussion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. disease B. humour C. cancer D. treatment
Question 4: A. celebrate B. understand C. interview D. dedicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

53
Question 5: The books ______ by William Shakespeare are interesting.
A. writes B. writing C. written D. wrote
Question 6: The people applauded ______ than before when Bobo the Clown came out.
A. most loudly B. louder C. loudest D. more loud
Question 7: Mark will book his flight ticket ______ enough money.
A. after he is saving B. when he saves
C. as soon as he had saved D. by the time he saved
Question 8: Not many people are aware ______ male preference in this company.
A. with B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: No one is absent today, ______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. is one D. isn’t it
Question 10: Could you lend me some more? I’ve spent ______ money you gave me yesterday.
A. Ø B. the C. a D. an
Question 11: The woman was ______ from the hospital this morning only a week after her operation.
A. ejected B. expelled C. evicted D. discharged
Question 12: He is extremely disappointed at not passing the General Certificate of Secondary Education
(GCSE), but I think he will ______ it.
A. turn off B. get over C. fill in D. take after
Question 13: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buying B. buying C. buy D. to buy
Question 14: Mr. David is held in high ______ for his dedication to the school.
A. respect B. esteem C. homage D. honor
Question 15: My mother ______ in her bedroom when she heard a strange noise from the kitchen.
A. was sitting B. sits C. is sitting D. has sat
Question 16: John was born into poverty but ______ an absolute fortune by the time he was thirty.
A. made B. took C. got D. kept
Question 17: The company hopes that its new product launch ______ by many potential customers.
A. was attended B. will attend C. will be attended D. will be attending
Question 18: The fund provides money to clean up chemically polluted ______ sites.
A. industrial B. industry C. industrialize D. industrially
Question 19: My sister was always the teacher's ______ when she was in the first grade at school.
A. pet B. cat C. dog D. dove
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______. What time does it start?”
A. I like a party B. Sorry. I’m busy then
C. I can’t agree with you D. Sure, I’d love to
Question 21. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jenifer: “______. It taught me so many useful things.”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree with you more.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22. Many viewers like Star Trek films which have lots of incredible space travel.
A. amazing B. astonishing C. terrible D. fantastic
Question 23. They are always optimistic although they don’t have a penny to their name.
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A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 24. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams: independent living is the only way
to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 25. It was an emergency and she pressed the red button; there was no alternative.
A. option B. care C. precious D. apology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn't talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I haven't talked to Rose for three years. D. I hadn't talked to Rose for three years.
Question 28. “Why didn’t you send me the brochure?” Mr. William asked the agent.
A. Mr. William asked the agent why she didn’t send him the brochure.
B. Mr. William asked the agent to send him the brochure.
C. Mr. William asked the agent not to send him the brochure.
D. Mr. William asked the agent why she had not sent him the brochure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential
Question 30: We always have a nice time on Christmas holiday in the past.
A. have B. on C. holiday D. the
Question 31: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate, but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She is busy with work. She cannot attend the meeting.
A. If she weren't busy with work, she could attend the meeting.
B. Provided that she is busy with work, she cannot attend the meeting.
C. If only she were here, she could attend the meeting.
D. If she is busy with work, she can't attend the meeting.
Question 33: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father himself.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of the machine
that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (34) ______
by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?

55
For a long time, the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors. And
they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is (35) ______ very complex. It has never been one
job, it has always been many. A factory robot carries out one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do
something else. It doesn't run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other hand, has to do (36) ______
different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and positions of
rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats, and dogs.
(37) ______, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate
objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing is the software -
the programs (38) ______ will operate the machine.
Question 34: A. given B. made C. succeeded D. managed
Question 35: A. actually B. likely C. seriously D. hardly
Question 36: A. any B. little C. several D. few
Question 37: A. Because B. Although C. However D. So that
Question 38: A. who B. what C. where D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or course tutor
will not tell students what to do but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out which one is
the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something goes wrong and
seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth. This means
that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend the reasons for that
point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating everyone
equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names. This concern
with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are even ready to joke
about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of privacy
mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance, and relationships are only discussed with close friends.
While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless the
friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn.
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A story about Australia B. Australian culture shock
C. Things to do in Australia D. Australian culture
Question 40: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. circumstances B. Australians C. options D. students
Question 41: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because ______.
A. Australians are difficult to remember people's surnames
B. Australians restrict class discrimination
C. Australians get on well with each other
D. Calling each other by their first names makes them friendlier
Question 42: The word “critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. faultfinding B. grateful C. complimentary D. appreciative
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly polite.
B. Australians are prepared to accept a range of opinions.
C. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
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D. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The next time you're out in a public place, like a park or a restaurant, look around you. What is
happening? Some people are surfing the internet on their phones. Others are wearing headphones, listening to
music on their MP3 players. That's just the way life is today. We all spend a fair amount of our time connected
to technology.

Now imagine living in a world without smartphones, tablets or any of the electronic gadgets we take for
granted these days. There's no internet and you go to the library and look at a book when you want to find
anything out. You play outside with friends in the real world instead of playing online video games in virtual
worlds. There are no texts, no DVDs and no email. Welcome to 1986!

That's the world the McMillan family from Ontario, Canada, decided to live in for a year. Blair, 27,
Morgan, 28, and their two sons Trey and Denton, aged five and three, got rid of their cable TV, smartphones,
internet, new games console, digital camera, DVD player and sat nav, and instead used an old TV, a radio, old
telephones, a VHS video player, an old games console and maps. They decided to try it after seeing how their
young children were becoming dependent on technology. They aren't alone. More and more parents today
worry about the effect technology is having on their children, particularly very young children.

The McMillans decided to get back to basics to see how things have changed. So how did they find their
year without modem technology? ‘I thought Blair was mad when he suggested doing this whole thing,’ says
Morgan, but it's made me realise how much time we wasted. We seem much more relaxed now, not checking
in on email or Facebook all the time.’ The McMillans are now back in the present with a different attitude to
today's technology. Blair said, ‘I'm not anti-technology. I wanted to taste, and I wanted my kids to taste what it
would be like without it, and to see if we could actually do it.”
(Adapted from Optimise by Malcolm Mann and Steve Taylore-Knowles)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Year without Technology B. The Fresh Era of New Technology
C. A Day of Living without Your Phone D. Technology in Times of Change
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, people nowadays _______.
A. tend to stroll around public parks frequently B. are only keen on reading news on the Internet
C. lead an easier life D. are addicted to using technology
Question 46. The word ‘fair’ in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. limited B. equal C. pretty small D. quite large
Question 47. The word ‘dependent’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. reliant B. stuck C. pessimistic D. confused
Question 48. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Electronic gadgets B. The McMillans C. Modem parents D. Young children
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Life today is better and healthier than life in the past.
B. The McMillan family changed their forms of entertainment in their experiment.
C. Trey and Denton were very hooked on modern technology.
D. Many parents nowadays share the same concern as the McMillans.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Blair was crazy about a life dominated by modern technology.
B. Life with lots of electronic gadgets might make the McMillans quite stressful.
C. Morgan attributed the success of her family’s experiment to Blair’s willingness.
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D. The McMillans returned to the present because they’re fed up the life in 1986.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 14
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chat B. chaos C. scheme D. chemist
Question 2: A. cat B. hat C. base D. fat
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. finish B. listen C. promise D. begin
Question 4: A. company B. occasion C. restaurant D. company
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The conference______ by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. to plan
Question 6: My brother was feeling tired last night, so he went to bed ______usual.
A. more early than B. as early as C. more earlier as D. earlier than
Question 7: ______, I’ll call you and we’ll go out to dinner.
A. A.s soon as I finished my report B. A.s soon as I will finish my report
C. A.s soon as I had finished my report D. A.s soon as I finish my report
Question 8: He quickly became accustomed ______the local food.
A. of B. in C. with D. to
Question 9: They are studying pronunciation with Mr. Brown, _______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 10: My parents hope to travel around______ Philippines next Summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: My cousin wanted to change his career because he wasn't very satisfied with his______.
A. winnings B. earnings C. proceeds D. savings
Question 12: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm______.
A. went up B. went off C. came across D. came off
Question 13: Can you manage ______the work by yourself?
A. finish B. to finish C. finishing D. finished
Question 14: The concert only lasted an hour, so we felt we were getting ______measure.
A. small B. low C. short D. long
Question 15: While my father______ a film on TV, my mother was cooking dinner.
A. watched B. was watching C. had watched D. watches
Question 16: My sister ______the washing up every day.
A. makes B. does C. takes D. gives
Question 17: The students ______to be at school by the teacher at 8:00 am yesterday.
A. tell B. told C. have told D. were told
Question 18: That sort of extreme diet is not______ over a long period.
A. sustainably B. sustainability C. sustainable D. sustain
Question 19: The new airport was constructed in the ______of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom: “Do you have a minute please?”

58
Tony: “______.”
A. Sorry. I left my watch home B. That’s just fantastic. Thanks
C. Yes, but you should be brief D. Well it is not as good as I think
Question 21: Paul and Daisy are discussing about life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy:“______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. I am sorry to hear that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. There’s no doubt about that.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance
Question 23: The primary aim of this course is to improve your spoken English.
A. narrow B. main C. solid D. minor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Peter is trying to get to sleep, so if you wake him up, he will fly off the handle.
A. continue sleeping B. want to fly C. become angry D. keep calm
Question 25. The 2002 World Cup was held jointly by Japan and South Korea, and with the victory over
Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team to win the trophy five times.
A. fall B. lose C. upset D. defeat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closes tin meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26: It isn't necessary for US to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn't discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn't discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27: We last went out together two years ago.
A. We haven't gone out together for two years. B. We didn't go out together two years ago.
C. We went out together for two years. D. We have gone out together since two years ago.
Question 28: “Kate, what will you do next Saturday?” Nam asked.
A. Nam asked Kate what she would do the next Saturday.
B. Nam asked Kate what would she do the next Saturday.
C. Nam asked Kate what will she do next Saturday.
D. Nam asked Kate what she will do the next Saturday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29.
It will require collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet our goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Question 30. Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.
A. works B. a shipper C. twice D. as
Question 31. Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in
athletics.
A. Vietnamese B. determined C. her D. regional throne
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Bill really wants to buy a pair of shoes. He doesn't have enough money.
A. Provided that Bill has enough money, he can't buy a pair of shoes.
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B. Bill wishes he had enough money so that he could buy a pair of shoes.
C. If Bill had enough money, he couldn't buy a pair of shoes.
D. If only Bill had had enough money, he could have bought a pair of shoes.
Question 33: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father himself.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Pets can improve your life.
The role of animals in helping people recover from a range of health and emotional problem has long been
widely recognized. Now a survey (34) _______ is reported in the Journal of Personality and Social Psychology
appears to show that owning a pet can benefit healthy individuals, too. A number of experiments, (35) _______
by two universities in the United States, indicate that pet owners are generally happier, healthier, fitter, more
confident and better able to cope with everyday issues than non-owners.
The researchers discovered that individuals have just as close a relationship with the key people in their lives in
other words family and friends (36)_______ they have with their pets. And although they found no (37)
_______that people choose emotional relationship with pets over relationships with (38) _______ people, a study
of universities showed that owning a pet helped them get over the break-up of a relationship with a partner.
Source:www.the first trainer.com/)
Question 34: A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 35: A. carried B. conducted C. governed D. operated
Question 36: A. because B. because of C. Therefore D. although
Question 37: A. testimony B. support C. evidence D. indication
Question 38: A. other B. a lot of C. another D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
When he was nine years old, Felix Finkbeiner gave a class presentation on climate change. The young German
spoke about deforestation and its effect on the planet. At the end of his talk, he challenged the people of his
country to help by planting one million trees. Nobody thought much would come of a nine-year-old's school
project. Before he was 20, however, Finkbeiner's efforts had resulted in the planting of more than 14 billion trees
around the world.
Finkbeiner and his classmates began the project - named “Plant-for-the-Planet” - by planting the first tree outside
their school. Other schools followed the example, and news of the one-million challenge spread. As a result,
Finkbeiner was asked to speak at the European Parliament. Other invitations soon followed, and when he was just
13, he spoke at a United Nations conference in New York. “We cannot trust that adults alone will save our
fixture,” he said in the speech. “We have to take our future in our hands.”
Finkbeiner is now in his twenties, and Plant-for-the-Planet is an organization with around 70,000 members. It
works to teach people about climate change and to encourage the planting of more trees. Germany's one millionth
tree was planted long ago. The goal now is one trillion -150 for every person on Earth.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Becky Tarver Chase and David Bohlke)
Question 39: What is the reading mainly about?
A. The problems deforestation can cause for our planet.
B. The reasons of climate change.
C. How planting trees can help the environment.
D. How a young person has made a big difference to the environment.
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Question 40: The word "deforestation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. afforestation B. defecation C. the cutting down of trees D. preservation
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, what first happened to Finkbeiner after the widespread impact of the
“Plant-for-the -Planet project”?
A. He discussed the problem of climate change with world leaders.
B. He made a presentation at a United Nations conference in New York.
C. He received an offer to make a speech at the European Parliament.
D. He had to confront many challenges.
Question 42: In the third paragraph, what does the word “It” refer to?
A. Plant-for-the-Planet B. Germany's one millionth tree
C. Climate change D. Planting trees
Question 43: What is NOT true about Plant-for-the-Planet today?
A. It teaches people about climate change. B. It has many thousands of members.
C. Its aim is to plant one billion trees. D. It encourages people to afforest.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
I've always wanted to learn how to dance. When I was younger, I loved going to discos and I used to spend hours
practicing moves in front of the mirror! I think I was quite good, but as I got older, I became less confident.
Recently, I decided I'd join a dance class. The problem with most dance classes is that you need a partner,and
none of my male friends ever wanted to come with me. I was beginning to give up on the idea when I came
across a magazine article about Indian dancing. It sounded great and best of all I could do it on my own! So, I
found a class on the Internet and booked myself into a course.
I turned up for the first lesson feeling very nervous. I needn ’t have worried though because everyone was really
friendly. We were all female.The youngest was about eighteen and the oldest was forty something. Our teacher
came in looking fantastic in her traditional dance clothes and we soon all caught her energy and enthusiasm. She
put on the music immediately, which was a combination of western pop songs set to an Indian beat, and we
started following her moves. Any nervousness soon disappeared because the moves were so complicated. There
was no time to worry about whether you're doing them right!
I've noticed a lot of changes in myself since I started dancing. I'm much fitter and I feel more confident. I've also
made some great friends at the class. If you’re interested in dancing, or you just want to feel fitter, I'd recommend
Indian dancing!
(Adapted from PET Practice tests by Jenny Quintana)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Simple Steps of Indian Dancing B. Why People Enjoy Indian Dancing
C. How I Began My Hobby: Indian Dancing D. Indian Dancing Is Difficult
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, in the first dance class ______.
A. everybody was keen to dance B. nobody spoke to each other
C. everybody admired the teacher D. a 1ot of time was spent discussing the moves
Question 46: The word "booked" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. wrote B. enrolled C. pursued D. moved
Question 47: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the moves B. the songs C. the partners D. the friends
Question 48: The word "complicated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. relaxing B. difficult C. interesting D. beautiful
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. She is fitter and enjoys dancing. B. She hasn't always been confident.
C. She is satisfied with the dancing course. D. She is good at Indian dancing.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
61
A. The writer likes listening to pop music.
B. Learners must have some dancing experience before joining the class.
C. There is no need to bring a partner to the dancing class.
D. The teacher inspired the writer to start dancing.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Question 2. A. listen B. maintain C. title D. water
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort B. actor C. event D. music
Question 4. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. recognise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Ferdinand Marcos, ______ to leave the Philippines after allegations of stealing foreign aid and
treasury money, died in exile in Hawaii.
A. be forced B. forcing C. forced D. was forced
Question 6. The portrait that artist has painted is _____ than most of his other paintings.
A. most colorful B. colorful C. the most colorful D more colorful
Question 7. ______ she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 8. My brother is still dependent ______ our parents for financial support.
A. on B. at C. with D. to
Question 9. Your mother has recently gone on business, _______?
A. has she B. didn’t she C. did she D. hasn’t she
Question 10. He had ______ terrible headache after having drunk a lot of wine in the evening.
A. x (no article) B. a C. the D. an
Question 11. She takes a four-year ______course to be in pursuit of her dreams of becoming a doctor.
A. diploma B. licence C. certificate D. degree
Question 12. He _____ to three students outside London and dropped them off in Watford.
A. called on B. brought up C. took off D. picked up
Question 13. I'd rather ______ a new television because it's not worth having such an old TV set repaired.
A. to buy B. buy C. to buying D. buying
Question 14. Mary tried to keep a straight ______ but unable to contain herself, burst into laughter.
A. head B. hand C. neck D. face
Question 15. Daisy _______ the dishes in the kitchen when she saw a mouse on the cupboard .
A. is doing B. has done C. was doing D. does
Question 16. She ______ him a high compliment by saying she had read all his books.
A. paid B. took C. had D. said
Question 17. My mother is very angry because some paint ______ on the carpet in the living room.
A. was spilling B. will spill C. had spilt D. has been spilt
Question 18. The drug under examination has shown some ______ results when given to volunteers in some
countries.
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A. impressively B. impress C. impressive D. impression
Question 19. Until you have experienced it, you will have no of what it is to be truly lonely.
A. opinion B. conception C. insight D. awareness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. Matthew is talking about Ann's new school bag.
Matthew: "You really have a beautiful school bag, Ann."
Ann: “_______”
A. Thanks. That's a nice compliment. B. What a shame!
C. I don't like your compliment. D. Oh, it's not my favorite choice.
Question 21. Mark and Joe are talking about doing charity work.
Mark: "As far as I know, doing charity work is a really helpful thing for everyone in the society."
Joe: “______. I feel happy when I can help others”
A. I'll take part in this campaign B. I couldn't agree with you more
C. That sounds great D. That's fine for me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Laura wasn’t close to her parents, and she often confided all her secrets to her best friend.
A. explored B. refused C. concealed D. revealed
Question 23. You must look after the money and passports – if they get stolen, we’ll be up the creek.
A. in trouble B. in comfort C. out of difficulty D. out of work
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. He was discharged from his job for having stolen some money from his colleagues.
A. sacked B. released C. accused D. employed
Question 25. I felt it was discourteous of him to leave immediately after his talk.
A. polite B. rude C. respectful D. friendly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions
Question 26. It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You shouldn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
Question 27. The last time I had a meal with her was three years ago.
A. About three years ago, I used to have a meal with her.
B. I have not had a meal with her for three years.
C. I have had a meal with her for the last three years.
D. I didn’t have a meal with her for three years.
Question 28. He said to me, “Will you see your friends before you leave Paris?”
A. He asked me if I will see my friends before I leave Paris.
B. He asked me if I would see my friends before I left Paris
C. He asked me if I would see my friends before I leave Paris.
D. He asked me if I would see your friends before I left Paris
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. Higher education in the US has begun when the first colonists founded Harvard College.
A B C D
63
Question 30. A salesman's failure to achieve apparently realistic targets might be due to a change in
A B C
the size of his territory.
D
Question 31. The teacher wants the children to feel confidential about asking questions when they don't
A B C
understand
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32. He is short-sighted. Therefore, he has to wear glasses.
A. Unless he isn’t short-sighted, he won’t have to wear glasses.
B. If he hadn’t been short-sighted, he wouldn’t have had to wear glasses,
C. If he weren’t short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear glasses.
D. Should he not be short-sighted, he won’t have to wear glasses.
Question 33. Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father himself.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
Living in a new country
Although living in another country can be an exciting adventure, it sometimes proves to be a difficult
experience. (34) ______ things are new and different – not only the language and culture but also everyday things
like where to buy stamps or when banks are open. For a person who is used to being in control of their world
these new experiences can make them feel helpless, confused and frustrated. Many of those (35) ______ start a
life somewhere else often go through certain stages before they feel at home in their new surroundings . The first
few weeks after arrival in another country are full of positive feelings and excitement. Then reality sets in and
can make you feel angry and impatient. Some people (36) ______ their new home for such feelings. Eventually,
however, most newcomers settle in and begin to adapt. (37) ______, when a person returns to their own culture,
they may experience the same things in reverse. It (38) ______ them some time to get back to their former life in
their home country.
Question 34. A. Another B. Other C. Every D. Many
Question 35. A. which B. whom C. who D. when
Question 36. A. cause B. blame C. accuse D. hold
Question 37. A. However B. Although C. So D. Therefore
Question 38. A. creates B. makes C. takes D. gives
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be 60 and
older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises concerns about
healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on economic integration and
requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to loosen the two-child policy and to
increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the two-child policy the government
expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years. But its effect could be creating an
uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the government loosened the two-child policy in 2015
in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third childbirth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
64
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary evaluation
in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly while creating savings
in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion opportunities for younger generations. It
is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 per cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual
labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture, manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50
can be dangerous and unproductive. Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by
policymakers as one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only
temporary solutions.
Question 39. The best title for this passage could be ______ .
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 40. Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns about healthcare,
welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing population within
the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with global economy.
Question 41. The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ______?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 42. In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that ______ .
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and effective
solutions.
Question 43. The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means ______ .
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The atmosphere that originally surrounded Earth was probably much different from the air we breathe
today. Earth's first atmosphere (some 4.6 billion years ago) was most likely hydrogen and helium--.the two most
abundant gasses found in the universe--as well as hydrogen compounds, such as methane and ammonia. Most
scientists feel that this early atmosphere escaped into space from the Earth's hot surface.
A second, more dense atmosphere, however, gradually enveloped Earth as gasses from molten rocks
within its hot interior escaped through volcanoes and steam vents. We assume that volcanoes spewed out the
same gasses then as they do today: mostly water vapor (about 80 percent), carbon dioxide (about ten percent),
and up to a few percent nitrogen. These same gasses probably created Earth's second atmosphere.
As millions of years passed, the constant outpouring of gasses from the hot interior--known as out
gassing provided a rich supply of water vapor, which formed into clouds. Rain fell upon Earth for many
thousands or years, forming the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the world. During this time, large amounts of carbon
dioxide were dissolved in the oceans. Through chemical and biological processes, much of the carbon dioxide
became locked up in carbon sedimentary rocks, such as limestone. With much of the water vapor already
condensed into water and the concentration of carbon dioxide dwindling, the atmosphere gradually became rich
nitrogen.
It appears that oxygen, the second most abundant gas in today's atmosphere, probably began an
extremely slow increase in concentration as energetic rays from the sun split water vapor into hydrogen and

65
oxygen during a process called photodissociation. The hydrogen, being lighter, probably rose and escaped into
space, while the oxygen remained in the atmosphere.
This slow increase in oxygen may have provided enough of this gas for primitive plants to evolve,
perhaps two to three billion years ago. Or the plants may have evolved in an almost oxygen-free (anaerobic)
environment. At any rate, plant growth greatly enriched our atmosphere with oxygen. The reason for this
enrichment is that plants, in the presence of sunlight, process carbon dioxide and water to produce oxygen.
Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The original atmosphere on Earth was unstable.
B. The atmosphere on Earth has changed over time.
C. Hot underground gasses created clouds, which formed the Earth's atmosphere.
D. Plant growth depended on oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere.
Question 45. The word "enveloped" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. escaped B. changed C. surrounded D. characterized
Question 46. According to the passage, out gassing eventually led to all of the following EXCEPT_____.
A. increases in the carbon dioxide content of sedimentary rocks
B. the formation of clouds
C. the formation of bodies of water
D. decreases in the level of nitrogen
Question 47. The word "they” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. molten rocks B. steam vents C. volcanoes D. gasses
Question 48. The passage suggests that oxygen remained in the atmosphere because ______.
A. it was heavier than hydrogen
B. hydrogen became trapped in limestone
C. sun rays created equal amounts of hydrogen and oxygen
D. it was caused by outgassing
Question 49. The phrase "At any rate" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. regardless B. fortunately C. in addition D. although unlikely
Question 50. The author organizes the discussion of the Earth's atmosphere in terms of the .
A. chemical and physical features of gasses
B. role of volcanoes in its formation
C. time it took for the Earth's surface: to cool and nitrogen to appear
D. occur in which changes

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chin B. chef C. child D. charge
Question 2: A. species B. letter C. special D. helpful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. promote B. allow C. prevent D. offer
Question 4: A. similar B. attractive C. popular D. beautiful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The conference ______by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. is planning
Question 6: Electric cars are _______ than petrol cars.

66
A. convenient B. the more convenien C. more convenient D. the most convenient
Question 7: The training course will start______.
A. until the students will all arrive B. before the students all arrived
C. as the students arrive D. when the students was all arriving
Question 8: Their mother always told them to be careful ______ these scissors!
A. for B. in C. with D. at
Question 9: Your sister passed her driving test, ______?
A. had she B. did she C. hadn't see D. didn’t she
Question 10: ______ biggest fear is that humans might lose control over robots.
A. The B. A C. x (no article) D. An
Question 11: Action movies may have negative ______on children.
A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision
Question 12: Peter ______ some of his old love letters on his wife's desk.
A. turned up B. came across C. got on D. went over
Question 13: The students expected ______ their good results.
A. getting B. to get C. to getting D. gets
Question 14: Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the ______ of
extinction.
A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge
Question 15: John ______a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. read C. was reading D. reading
Question 16: Thanks to the help of the teacher, she is ______ encouraging progress in math.
A. doing B. making C. checking D. stopping
Question 17: A new hospital _____ in this area by the local organization last year.
A. built B. was built C. has built D. has been built
Question 18: We hope very much to find a ______ solution to the problem.
A. satisfy B. satisfactory C. satisfaction D. satisfactorily
Question 19: My sister takes ______ for sweeping the house.
A. probability B. ability C. possibility D. responsibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.
Huy: “What do you think about the book?”
Mai: “______”
A. Yes, let’s read it together. B. The best I’ve ever read!
C. I can’t agree with you more. D. I wish I could buy one.
Question 21: Minh wanted to invite Lan to go to the cinema.
Minh: “ Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”
Lan: “______. Where will we meet?”
A. That would be great. B. You are welcome.
C. I don’t agree. I’m afraid D. I feel very bored
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. important B. well-known C. impressive D. easy-looking
Question 23. You don’t love someone for their looks, or their clothes or for their fancy car, but because they sing
a song only you can hear.
A. expensive B. funny C. new D. private
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Scientists believe that it is possible for waves to reach the heights described when they come into
contact with strong ocean currents.
A. avoid B. touch C. meet D. enter
Question 25. The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. pollute B. complete C. protect D. destroy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 26. The teacher asked him some questions, but he failed to answer it.
A B C D
Question 27. Children using drugs often leave clues, and sensitive parents will investigate when
A B C
their suspicions are aroused.
D
Question 28. My brother spend three months working as an apprentice in a car dealership last year.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 29. "Where is your father now?" said Minh’s mother to him.
A. Minh’s mother asked him where was his father then.
B. Minh’s mother asked him where his father was now
C. Minh’s mother asked him where his father was then.
D. Minh’s mother asked him where his father had been then.
Question 30. It is necessary for me to hand in my report soon.
A. I may not hand in my report soon. B. I need to hand in my report soon.
C. I shouldn't hand in my report soon. D. I can hand in my report soon.
Question 31: He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn’t visited London for three years.
C. He didn’t visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Her parents were so busy at work. They didn’t attend her graduation ceremony.
A. If her parents had been so busy at work, they could have attended her graduation ceremony.
A. If her parents were not so busy at work, they attended her graduation ceremony.
C. Unless her parents attended her graduation ceremony, they couldn’t have been so busy at work
D. If her parents had not been so busy at work, they could have attended her graduation ceremony
Question 33: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
B. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.
C. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
D. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Password Managers

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Many people tend to use the same password for all of their online accounts. (34) ______ this solves the annoying
problem of having to (35) ______ too many passwords to memory, it also leaves a big security gap that can one
day lead to disastrous consequences. And one of the solutions to this could be a password manager.
A password manager is a program that allows you to generate and store all your passwords in a safe location.
Most of them also allow you to keep credit card information and other pieces of information (36) ______ you can
choose to share with your family members. Instead of memorizing all the login information you use for (37)
______ site, you only have to remember one master password when using a password manager or, if you want
even more security and convenience, using biometric data (your fingerprint or face) is also a possible (38)
______.
(Adapted from:cybernews.com)
Question 34: A. Although B. However C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 35: A. apply B. commit C. devote D. contain
Question 36: A. where B. which C. whom D. when
Question 37: A. the other B. all C. each D. another
Question 38: A. suggestion B. arrangement C. circumstance D. alternative
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
If you want to improve your memory, you should pay attention to making key adjustments to your lifestyle.
One of the easiest ways to boost your memory is to get a good night's sleep or take a power nap after learning
something new. One study found that people who slept for 8 hours after learning new faces and names were able
to remember them significantly better compared to those who didn't sleep as much.
Of course, exercising helps a lot too. Our brains rely on oxygen to function properly. Exercise improves blood
flow to the brain. Also, research at the National Institute on Ageing showed that aerobic exercise is linked with
improved memory. This is because it pushes the body to produce more cathepsin B, a protein that triggers the
growth of neurons.
Finally, eat healthier. Saturated and trans fats are linked to poorer memory since they build up in your brain‘s
blood vessels and prevent blood from flowing to the brain, which can compromise thinking and memory.
(Adapted from:zapier.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Why blood flow is vital to the human brain B. The link between exercise and good memory
C. Lifestyle changes that improve your memory D. How your diet affects your ability to
remember
Question 40: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to______
A. blood flow B. aerobic exercise C. research D. memory
Question 41: The study mentioned in paragraph 2 found that______.
A. sleeping boosts memory most significantly when people learn new faces.
B. people who did not sleep could not remember new faces and names at all.
C. those who got 8 hours of sleep learned faces and names better than those who slept less.
D. the more people sleep, the better they are at learning and remembering new information.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Aerobic exercise is linked with improved memory
B. Without enough oxygen, the human brain will not be able to work well.
C. Exercising helps blood flow and brings oxygen to the brain more easily.
D. Vegetables have been shown in many studies to significantly boost our memory.
Question 43: The word compromise in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to.
A. disband B. weaken C. defeat D. control
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
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No animal species can survive indefinitely on Earth. There are many factors that can cause an animal or plant
species to become endangered, and one big one is the destruction of their habitats. Deforestation and soil, air, and
water pollution are usually the main culprits. For example, the population of critically endangered Sumatran
orangutans is now less than 10,000 on their home island of Sumatra, Indonesia, due to deforestation and farming.
Another cause of endangerment is from humans exploiting wild animals. Uncontrolled hunting of whales in the
last century, for example, resulted in many whale species becoming critically endangered. The high demand for
animal parts stems from their use in certain foods or medicines or their value as decorative objects. For example,
the ivory tusks of elephants are used to make jewelry, and the price is high enough that people risk being arrested
and jailed to go after these animals.
Introducing a non-native species to an environment can also cause species endangerment. A native species is one
that develops naturally in a particular area and has done so for a long time. A non-native species might be
introduced into a new environment by humans, either intentionally or by accident. The brown tree snake,
unknowingly brought by cargo ships stopping at Guam, has managed to kill off 10 of the 11 species of birds
native to the island's forests. In Florida, large pet snakes such as the anaconda and the python have been released
into the large Everglades swamp. The snakes have thrived in their new environment, and now compete with and
may soon overwhelm the swamp's alligators.
Organizations such as the World Wildlife Fund and the IUCN try to raise awareness of threatened animals and
plants. These organizations collaborate with government agencies to save threatened or endangered species and
to make new laws that will protect them. But to really protect plant and animal species now and in the future, the
public needs to be educated on the value of keeping these species alive.
(Adapted from: Active skills for reading 3)
Question 34: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Why do wild animals become endangered?
B. When do mass extinctions happen?
C. Why do non-native species grow?
D. How can we prevent species extinction?
Question 45: The word culprits in paragraph one is closest in meaning to.
A. benefits B. causes C. results D. effects
Question 46: The word thrived in paragraph three is closest in meaning to.
A. struggled B. failed C. declined D. developed
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, why have many whale species become endangered?
A. A non-native species has been introduced to their environment.
B. They are less able to adapt to the weather and living habitats.
C. Their living habitats are being destroyed
D. They have been hunted in great numbers.
Question 48: The word them in paragraph four refers to.
A. organizations B. agencies C. species D. laws
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. A species may become endangered for many reasons.
B. People may risk hunting animals for their high values.
C. Introducing non-native species will save native ones.
D. Organizations have tried to save threatened species.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Governments and organizations must work together to be effective.
B. The most important thing is to raise awareness and educate people.
C. Laws are needed to protect these endangered species.
D. People hunting animals should be arrested and jailed.

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ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 17
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thing B. thought C. though D. think
Question 2: A. cat B. hat C. base D. fat
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. quality B. industry C. computer D. confidence
Question 4: A. argue B. listen C. promise D. begin
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: On my 15th birthday, my great aunt gave me this book, ____ by Sir Francis Drake.
A. was written B. writing C. written D. is writing
Question 6: Traveling in winter is ____ than in summer.
A. interesting B. most interesting C. the most interesting D. more interesting
Question 7: ____, I will let you know.
A. When I had found out the truth B. When I find out the truth
C. When I was finding out the truth D. When I found out the truth
Question 8: While studying, he was financially dependent ____ his parents.
A. to B. of C. on D. from
Question 9: The boys were at home yesterday, ____?
A. didn't they B. weren't they C. were they D. did they
Question 10: It is an advantage if you know how to play____ guitar.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: It is widely thought that stress can ____ your immune system.
A. reduce B. degrade C. decline D. weaken
Question 12: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm ____.
A. went up B. went off C. came across D. came off
Question 13: The chairperson suggested ____ the meeting by 30 minutes.
A. extending B. extend C. to extend D. extended
Question 14: The concert only lasted an hour, so we felt we were getting ______ measure.
A. small B. low C. short D. long
Question 15: When she came home last night, her children ______ TV.
A. are watching B. were watching C. watch D. have watched
Question 16: My sister ____ the washing up every day.
A. makes B. does C. takes D. gives
Question 17: In this study, children’s eye movements ______ while they listened to a series of messages.
A. recorded B. were recording C. record D. were recorded
Question 18: That sort of extreme diet is not ____ over a long period.
A. sustainably B. sustainability C. sustainable D. sustain
Question 19: My cousin wanted to change his career because he wasn't very satisfied with his ____.
A. winnings B. earnings C. proceeds D. savings
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: The porter at the hotel is offering help to Marry.
Porter: “Let me help you with that heavy luggage.”
Marry: “____”

71
A. My pleasure. B. I don’t think you can.
C. I’m sad to hear that. D. Thank you. You are so kind.
Question 21: Susan and Anny are talking about English.
Susan: "Would you say that English is a global language?" – Anny: "____."
A. Yes, it was ever B. I like it C. Oh, absolutely D. Yes, it has
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Peter is trying to get to sleep, so if you wake him up, he will fly off the handle.
A. continue sleeping B. want to fly C. become angry D. keep calm
Question 23: Skills can be enhanced by the appropriate use of technology in certain circumstances.
A. unsuitable B. unimportant C. ill-prepared D. irregular
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Question 25: The primary aim of this course is to improve your spoken English.
A. narrow B. main C. solid D. minor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following sentences.
Question 26: It’s not good for us to eat so much sugar every day.
A. We needn’t eat so much sugar every day. B. We must eat so much sugar every day.
C. We shouldn’t eat so much sugar every day. D. We may eat so much sugar every day.
Question 27: “What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?” Nhung asked Ha.
A. Nhung asked Ha what language Ha found the most difficult to learn of all.
B. Nhung wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all.
C. Nhung asked Ha what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all.
D. Nhung asked Ha what language you found the most difficult to learn of all.
Question 28: We last went out together two years ago.
A. We haven't gone out together for two years. B. We didn't go out together two years ago.
C. We went out together for two years. D. We have gone out together since two years ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29: He is diagnosed with autism when he was just over two.
A. is B. with C. autism D. just
Question 30: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A. Vietnamese B. determined C. her D. regional throne
Question 31: It will require collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet our goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner has the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards it when the train arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the train arrived at the station when the passengers rushed towards it
D. Not until the train arrived at the station did the passengers rush towards it.
Question 33: Jane didn’t tell John the truth about the theft. Now she regrets it.
A. Jane regrets having told John the truth about the theft.
B. If only Jane had told John the truth about the theft.
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C. Jane wishes she told John the truth about the theft
D. Jane wishes she hadn’t told John the truth about the theft.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Testing games
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world - (34) ____ out new
games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was selected to test games (35)
____ are about to be launched onto the market. Each week she is given a different game to play before recording
her thoughts on a form designed by the company. As the company director said, “What better way to find out
about games than to put them in the hands of the customers who will make most use of them?” Eloise is (36)
____ with her new job but she also takes it very seriously. She is allowed to keep the games after testing them.
(37) ____, she has decided instead to give them away to children less fortunate than herself. “I’ve got (38) ____
of games and some children don't have any,” she explained.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools 1, 2015)
Question 34: A. doing B. trying C. carrying D. finding
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 36: A. amused B. proud C. thankful D. delighted
Question 37: A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38: A. one B. plenty C. each D. much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Every day on radio, on TV, and in the newspaper, we hear, see or read about many problems in the world, for
example, pollution problems.
Air pollution is the first kind. It mostly comes from fumes released from motorbikes, cars, airplanes, trains and
poisonous gases emitted from factories. Also, waste is dumped anywhere, even in the city where many people
are living. The second pollution problem is sea pollution. Many people earn their living from fishing in the sea,
and the fish they catch feed many people. But the sea has become so polluted from oil spills and factory wastes
that the fish are dying. This is not only killing the fish, but is also affecting those people who eat fish.
Seldom do you find a place nowadays that is not polluted. This problem is growing more difficult every day. We
must find a good solution that makes the world a better place to live.
(Adapted from https://brainly.in/question)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Some kinds of pollution in the world B. Air pollution from factory
C. Effects and solutions of pollution D. Sea pollution and its effects
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as something that people can get
information from?
A. television B. the newspaper C. the Internet D. the radio
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be a consequence of pollution?
A. Pollution affects those who eat fish. B. Many people are living in the city.
C. Many people live on the money from fishing. D. The fish caught feed many people.
Question 42: The word poisonous in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. crude B. toxic C. numerous D. clean
Question 43: The word that in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. a place B. people C. a solution D. a problem
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
I've always wanted to learn how to dance. When I was younger, I loved going to discos and I used to spend hours
practicing moves in front of the mirror! I think I was quite good, but as I got older, I became less confident.
73
Recently I decided I'd join a dance class. The problem with most dance classes is that you need a partner, and
none of my male friends ever wanted to come with me. I was beginning to give up on the idea when I came
across a magazine article about Indian dancing. It sounded great and best of all I could do it on my own! So, I
found a class on the Internet and booked myself into a course.
I turned up for the first lesson feeling very nervous. I needn ’t have worried though because everyone was really
friendly. We were all female. The youngest was about eighteen and the oldest was forty something. Our teacher
came in looking fantastic in her traditional dance clothes and we soon all caught her energy and enthusiasm. She
put on the music immediately, which was a combination of western pop songs set to an Indian beat, and we
started following her moves. Any nervousness soon disappeared because the moves were so complicated. There
was no time to worry about whether you're doing them right!
I've noticed a lot of changes in myself since I started dancing. I'm much fitter and I feel more confident. I've also
made some great friends at the class. If you’re interested in dancing, or you just want to feel fitter, I'd recommend
Indian dancing!
(Adapted from PET Practice tests by Jenny Quintana)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Simple Steps of Indian Dancing B. Why People Enjoy Indian Dancing
C. How I Began My Hobby: Indian Dancing D. Indian Dancing Is Difficult
Question 45: According to paragraph 3, in the first dance class ____.
A. everybody was keen to dance B. nobody spoke to each other
C. everybody admired the teacher D. a 1ot of time was spent discussing the moves
Question 46: The word "booked" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. wrote B. enrolled C. pursued D.
moved
Question 47: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. the moves B. the songs C. the partners D. the friends
Question 48: The word "complicated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. relaxing B. difficult C. interesting D. beautiful
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. She is fitter and enjoys dancing. B. She hasn't always been confident.
C. She is satisfied with the dancing course. D. She is good at Indian dancing.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The writer likes listening to pop music.
B. Learners must have some dancing experience before joining the class.
C. There is no need to bring a partner to the dancing class.
D. The teacher inspired the writer to start dancing.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. this B. thick C. maths D. thin
Question 2. A. wild B. driven C. alive D. sign
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. divide C. open D. appeal
Question 4. A. develop B. reunite C. understand D. recommend

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Attendance is mandatory for the staff meeting ______for next Tuesday in the council hall.
A. has been scheduled B. schedule C. will schedule D. scheduled
Question 6. This chair is ______ than the other.
A. comfortable B. the comfortable C. more comfortable D. most comfortable
Question 7.______, he will have worked there for 10 years.
A. While his contract with the company is expiring
B. By the time his contract with the company expires
C. As soon as his contract with the company had expired
D. Before his contract with the company will expire
Question 8. Most of Vietnamese people are satisfied ______their government’s response to combat corruption.
A. above B. with C. to D. of
Question 9. The journey soon became tedious, ______?
A. doesn't it B. wasn't it C. didn't it D. won't it
Question 10. At first she was trained to be ______ scriptwriter, but later she worked as a secretary.
A. the B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 11. All the dancers come on stage during the grand ______.
A. final B. finale C. end D. ending
Question 12. Our teacher told us that if we don't ______the environment, our grandchildren may not even be
able to carry on living.
A. take after B. hold on C. look after D. count on
Question 13. She failed ______in the art college.
A. get B. getting C. got D. to get
Question 14. Little Johnnie’s parents were worried that he was very big, but the doctor told them not to worry as
it was only ______fat.
A. kitten B. puppy C. piglet D. duckling
Question 15. Sam _____to change a light bulb when he slipped and fell.
A. was trying B. tried C. had been trying D. has tried
Question 16. The group’s legal advisers said they were ______the initiative to tackle online privacy issues.
A. doing B. taking C. making D. leading
Question 17. Japanese _____at the meeting.
A. will speak B. will spoken C. will be spoken D. will be speaking
Question 18. I think mobile phones are ______for people of all ages.
A. usage B. usefully C. useful D. use
Question 19. Vietnam makes many key containment decisions in a ______of days, which may take weeks for
governments in other countries to make.
A. matter B. trouble C. situation D. amount
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. A father and a son are talking on the phone.
-The son: “Dad, I’ve won a scholarship to study in the USA.”
-The father: “______.”
A. Congratulations! I’m proud of you B. Good luck C. Come on. You can do it D. Let it be
Question 21. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
-Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
-Mary:“ ______.It has many beautiful scenes and two main actors are really involved in their roles.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I don’t like your saying
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C. I didn’t say anything D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22. When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he commanded his officers to
release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 23. I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next generation solve the global
warming problem.
A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they have finished eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 25. Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about the currency because
of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the project today.
A. You needn’t finish the project today. B. You may not finish the project today.
C. You had better not finish the project today. D. You can’t finish the project today
Question 27. The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago,I often went to the museum.
C. My going to the museum lasted a year. D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 28. “When are you going to tell your parents the truth, Jane?” said Tom.
A. Tomasked Janewhen she is going to tell her parents the truth.
B. Tomasked Janewhen she was going to tell your parents the truth.
C. Tomasked Jane when was she going to tell her parents the truth.
D. Tom asked Jane when she was going to tell her parents the truth.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29. Government should see WHO’s Disease Outbreak News to get up-to-date information on
A B
the impact of COVID-19 virus variety on the effectiveness of the different vaccines.
C D
Question 30. Last month, my mother makes more than 20 dresses and sold all of them.
A B C D
Question 31. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its needs.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32. The examiner doesn’t accept my answer. My handwriting is not legible.
A. If only the examiner will accept my answer and can read my handwriting.
B. The examiner wouldn’t accept my answer if my handwriting were legible.
C. If my handwriting were legible, the examiner would accept my answer.
D. Providing my handwriting is legible, the examiner will accept my answer.
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Question 33. The COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world. People are more concerned about
online learning platforms only then.
A. Not until people are more concerned about online learning platforms has the COVID-19 resulted in schools
shut all across the world.
B. Hardly had the Covid-19 result in schools shut all across the world when people are more concerned about
online learning platforms.
C. Only after the COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world are people more concerned about
online learning platforms.
D. Without people’s concern about online learning platforms, schools all across the world wouldn’t have been
shut down.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
“A healthy mind lives in a healthy body” is a saying (34)______is believed to have often been used by the
ancient Greeks. Thousands of years later, the same idea still applies. According to health experts, it’s advisable to
drink eight to ten glasses of water every day.(35)______,water itself is not enough; a balanced diet is essential,
too.
A healthy body naturally is the result of doing exercise. Many people, however, do not like gyms and object to
going there for different reasons. Some, for instance, say that aerobic sessions are too difficult to follow while
(36)______claim that gyms are just too expensive. Many people also claim that they have difficulty in finding
time to exercise due to their (37) ______ lifestyle, but the truth is that everyone can make a little time every now
and then. Regardless of the way people choose to exercise, it is important to remember that there’s no point in
doing it only for a short period of time.
Last but not least, having a positive attitude and doing away with negative (38) ______contributes to one’s
well-being. In short, following this simple advice surely helps in having a healthy mind and body.
Question 34. A. where B. when C. who D. that
Question 35. A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite
Question 36. A. others B. another C. much D. every
Question 37. A. hectic B. comfortable C. tedious D. restless
Question 38. A. opinions B. beliefs C. notions D. thoughts
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 40.

The nuclear family is the traditional family structure in the West. This term, originating in the 1950s,
describes families consisting of a father, a mother, and their offspring. Under this structure, the family is seen as
the basic unit in society; the father functions as the breadwinner and the mother as the homemaker. Nowadays,
alternative family types are becoming more prevalent, such as single-parent families, families headed by same-
sex parents, and extended families where families live with their kin, which may include several generations.
Extended families are less common in North America, where it is not uncommon to place grandparents in
retirement homes.
A Social Trends survey in 2009 reported radical changes in child rearing and marriage practices in the
United Kingdom. Figures showed that while 30 percent of women under thirty had given birth by the age of 25,
only 24 percent had tied the knot. This marked the first-time childbirth had become the first major milestone in
adult life, ahead of marriage. In 1971 in the U.K, 3/4 of women were married by the age of 25 and half were
mothers.
Judging by the high rates of divorce and the increasing number of children born out of wedlock, it would
appear that the family as an institution is in decline. American sociologist Stephanie Coontz believes so too, but
for different reasons. Coontz points out that marriages are no longer arranged for political or economic reasons,
and children are no longer required to contribute to the family income. Marriages nowadays are founded on love.
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She believes this shift towards love and free choice has actually weakened both the family by making it optional
and the bond between the husband and wife by making it contingent on emotional fulfillment.
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Changes in types of family in some parts of the world
B. Types of family in the United Kingdom
C. Types of family in the West
D. Changes in marriage practices in the United Kingdom
Question 40. According to the first paragraph, all of the following are types of family EXCEPT _______.
A. single-parent family B. nuclear family C. extended family D. prevalent family
Question 41. The word “their” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. generations B. families C. parents D. grandparents
Question 42. According to the second paragraph, what does the phrase “tied the knot” mean?
A. became mother B. got married C. got divorced D. became single mother
Question 43. According to the last paragraph, what weakens both the family and the bond between husband and
wife?
A. Romantic marriages B. Political marriages C. Economic marriages D. Family income
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Technology has the power to do many things, and changing the world is one of them. We're privileged to
be living in a time where science and technology can assist us, make our lives easier and rethink the ways we go
about our daily lives. The technology we're already exposed and accustomed to has paved the way for us to
innovate further, and this list of current and future technologies certainly have the potential to change our lives
even more.
As the population of Earth continues to grow, living space also shrinks, not only for human beings but for
the animals and plants we rely on too. It's reasonable to see a future where tech will need to be developed to
allow for farmland in unusual places. This concept of high-rise farms in the middle of a city isn't totally out of
this world.
NASA is already sending robots of different shapes and sizes into space. As technology progresses, this
makes sense. Robots don't need to worry about oxygen to breathe or food to eat and they can be packed full of
sensors to send data back to Earth. The same applies in the workplace. Robots can take on the more difficult,
dangerous and dull jobs to save mankind the trouble and risk. They can also hypothetically operate more
quickly, efficiently and with fewer mistakes too.
Cows on tower blocks might seem a bit bonkers, but lab-grown meat is a real thing that's already being
worked on. If scientists can develop a cost-effective way to grow edible meat in the lab it would change the way
we live and eat forever. This change not only cuts down the ecological damage meat farming does to the world,
but also makes for an ethical alternative to meat eating that many people could enjoy.
We've been wreaking havoc on Earth for a long time and the planet can only put up with mankind's
destructive nature for so long. If we don't destroy it, we'll one day outgrow it. Plants are in the works to colonize
other planets and Mars will no doubt be the first port of call. With leaps forward in technology, this vision of the
future is quickly becoming science-fact, rather than science-fiction.
Question 44. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technology that will change the way we live.
B. Technology that will dominate us in every field.
C. Technology that will keep us under control.
D. Technology that will change our mood.
Question 45. The word “privileged” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to ______.
A. entitled B. disadvantaged C. restricted D. specialized
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, why it is essential for high-rise farms to be developed?
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A. Because it is reasonable to have farms which are really environmentally friendly.
B. Because there is a demand for using technology to develop farmland in surprising places.
C. Because people find it impossible to live in harmony with animals and plants.
D. Because people can’t stand living with animals and have to find unusual places.
Question 47. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. shapes B. sizes C. robots D. technologies
Question 48. The word “hypothetically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. practically B. actually C. theoretically D. absolutely
Question 49. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Scientists are now successful in developing a cost-effective way to grow edible meat in the lab.
B. Edible meat in the lab can both bring benefits to the ecology and make for alternative meat.
C. Edible meat in the lab warns people not to kill wild animals for food and rely on wildlife products.
D. Edible meat in the lab is supposed to be more delicious than one from domestic animals.
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following will happen if we stop destroying our planet?
A. We will stand a chance of outgrowing it because plants are in the process of colonizing other planets.
B. Plants and animals will dominate human beings and we have to move to other planets.
C. Human beings, animals and plants will live together in harmony and there will be no wars.
D. We will wreak havoc on Earth and drive a large number of species to the verge of extinction.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chick B. scheme C. cheese D. child
Question 2: A. thrill B. size C. prize D. crime
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. document B. holiday C. location D. journalist
Question 4: A. listen B. agree C. escape D. deny
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Mary, _______ with her grandparents, doesn’t want to move to another place.
A. living B. lives C. having lived D. lived
Question 6: Their house is ____________ than any other houses in the village.
A. expensive B. more expensive
C. the most expensive D. most expensive
Question 7: I hope these machines will have worked very well __________.
A. as soon as you would come back next month
B. when you came back next month
C. by the time you come back next month
D. after you were coming back next month
Question 8: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent service.
A. for B. on C. in D. off
Question 9: She’ll take the flight for the early meeting, ______?
A. won’t she B. hasn’t she C. didn’t she D. doesn’t she
Question 10: Children are encouraged to read_______ books since they are a wonderful source of knowledge.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11: He made false _______ against me though he didn’t have enough evidence.

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A. complaints B. accusations C. annoyances D. disappointments
Question 12: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will _______.
A. point out B. die out C. cut up D. make up
Question 13: Most students expect______ scholarship to lessen their parents’ hardship.
A. win B. to win C. winning D. won
Question 14: The letters he would write were full of doom and _______. We still do not know what made him so
depressed.
A. drib B. gloom C. duck D. tuck
Question 15: While she was taking her exams, she _______ a terrible headache.
A. will have B. has C. had D. is having
Question 16: The course was so difficult that I didn’t __________ any progress at all.
A. do B. make C. produce D. create
Question 17: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers.
A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide
Question 18: They offered her the job because she was very _______ on the design front.
A. creatively B. creative C. create D. creation
Question 19: This restaurant is very popular because its diners themselves decide the ________.
A. handbook B. brochure C. menu D. catalog
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits.
- Peter: “You should eat more fruits and vegetables.”
- Mary: “___________”
A. Yes, I will, Thanks B. No, thanks
C. My pleasure D. You’re welcome
Question 21: Mrs. Brown and Mr. Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs. Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr. Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you
C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Aren’t you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding before
you’re invited to it?
A. knowing the horse cart B. doing things in the right order
C. doing things in the wrong order D. upsetting the horse cart
Question 23: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in the
company.
A. confirmation B. refusal C. agreement D. admission
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part– time job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Question 25: My sister is a very diligent student. She works very hard at every subject.
A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
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A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic.
Question 27: “Where do you work, Tuan?” Nam asked.
A. Nam asked Tuan where do I work. B. Nam asked Tuan where I worked.
C. Nam asked Tuan where does he worked. D. Nam asked Tuan where he worked.
Question 28: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams.
A B C D
Question 30: She is a confidential and practiced speaker who always impresses her audience.
A B C D
Question 31: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice everyday
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The book was interesting. I’ve read it three times.
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. So interesting was the book that I have no time to read it.
C. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
D. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
Question 33: She bought an old TV. She has regrets about it now.
A. Provided she bought an old T, she wouldn’t have regrets.
B. If she hadn’t bought an old TV, she would have regrets.
C. If only she had bought an old TV.
D. She wishes she hadn’t bought an old TV.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
A stinky gym bug in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in your family?
(34) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men.
Take colors, for example. One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (35)
_______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have a finer
sense of touch, whether male or female.
Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys hear
as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man’s hearing may soon deteriorate. (36) _______, environmental factors
could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (37) _______ need both taste
and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue.
Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it’s likely that Mom will be the most (38) _______ out by it. But is that
because women’s brains have more ‘smell cells’ or because you were too lazy to move it?
Question 34: A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every
Question 35: A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades
Question 36: A. So B. Therefore C. However D. Due to
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Question 37: A. who B. which C. where D. whom
Question 38: A. taken B. sprung C. mazed D. freaked
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are also quite fierce.
At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler. These nicer
wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this happened or why. Some people say it happened
naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say people made it happen between 15 000 and 50 000 years ago.
However they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study humans say the first
tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Not long after there were dogs in
Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America. These dogs were probably used mostly for hunting and
traveling. They were also good companions.
Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for hunting but as guards
and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog. Ancient Egyptians also named their pet
dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky, and Useless.
Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the dogs
were attack dogs, but other times the dogs were messengers.
There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are many different
explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae family. This includes
coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding influenced the variation.
Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked and combined them to make all new breeds. In this way. people are
still helping new breeds to appear today!
Question 39: Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?
A. No one knows for sure where dogs first appeared with humans.
B. There are two theories about the evolution of dogs.
C. Evolution and breeding have made dogs what they are today.
D. Human beings used dogs for many jobs, so dogs are the first tame animals.
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. years C. dogs D. wolves
Question 41: According to some scientists, when did the first tame dogs appear with humans?
A. About 15,000 years ago B. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago
C. Over 50.000 years ago D. About 13,000 years ago
Question 42: The word “companions” in the second paragraph mostly means ______.
A. messengers B. co-workers C. traveling friends D. hunting animals
Question 43: According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Most people like to name their dogs Reliable, Blacky, and Useless.
B. The Roman always used dogs as messengers.
C. The first tame dogs appeared in ancient Egypt.
D. According to some studies, dogs mixed with coyotes and jackals.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how far the
human population has come in terms of community development. Despite its positive things, there are also
negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than modern
countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these problems is China.
China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based society to a significant
industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized
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meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. In most recent decades, since China’s
change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people
migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled.
These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this
large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution. It could
include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like
CO2 or Methane. Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very
extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems
or disease. When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more
detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible
to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For instance, urban cities
tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high quality
as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it
more. This increase in consumption of low-quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease,
obesity, or many other health conditions.
Question 44: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development
B. Urbanization - Pros and cons
C. Urbanization - How people’s health is impacted?
D. Developing countries - The fastest urbanization
Question 45: The word “agrarian” in paragraph 2 mostly means ________.
A. farming B. industry C. city D. modernizing
Question 46: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fresh B. overcrowded C. sparse D. contaminated
Question 47: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______.
A. industrial plants B. sewage C. refineries waste D. chemicals
Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ________?
A. quality B. sugar C. food D. sodium
Question 49: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the change in people’s diet.
B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
D. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
B. Living in urban areas for a long time will certainly make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in developing
nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in urban cities.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. those B. thin C. thank D.thought
Question 2: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. govern B. cover C. perform D. father
Question 4: A. Perfection B. Computer C. Fascinate D. Fantastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The books ____________ by William Shakespeare are interesting.
A. writes B. writing C. written D. wrote
Question 6: The people applauded __________ than before when Bobo the Clown came out.
A. most loudly B. louder C. loudest D. more loud
Question 7: Mark will book his flight ticket ____________.
A. after he is saving enough money B. when he saves enough money.
C. as soon as he had saved enough money D. by the he saved enough money
Question 8: Not many people are aware _______ male preference in this company.
A. with B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: No one is absent today, _______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. is one D. isn’t it
Question 10: Could you lend me some more? I’ve spent _____ money you gave me yesterday.
A. Ø B. the C. a D. an
Question 11: Students are restrained from eating bananas prior to an exam for of failing 'like sliding
on a banana skin'.
A. cheer B. fear C. scare D. anger
Question 12: She _________her job as an event manager to become a self-employed baker.
A. gave up B. gave away C. gave over D. gave off
Question 13: We wish _______ to college next year.
A. go B. to go C. going D. shall go
Question 14. A: "Just let me know if there is anything else I can do you for you in case of need, Janet."
B: "Thanks, Mary. I can count on you to help; You've always been a __________.”
A. good deal B. good whip C. close call D. good egg
Question 15: The children ________loudly when their parents arrived home from work.
A. were playing B. play C. playing D. played
Question 16: She ________ 20 pounds out of the bank every Monday
A. pulls B. draws C. takes D. removes
Question 17: She expects that her presentation _________ by many people.
A. will being watched B. will watch C. was watching D. will be watched
Question 18: The ships had their days of ________ in the 1840s and 1850s.
A. glorious B. glory C. glorify D. gloriously
Question 19: Now that he is trained, he hopes to earn his living as a ________ in an office.
A. staff B. personnel C. typewriter D. clerk
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. David is talking to Lucy about her painting.
David: “What a beautiful painting!”
Lucy:“ __________________.”
A. No problem B. It's on the wall C. I'm glad you like it D. You're welcome
Question 21. Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
Dane: “ _____________. We can use paper bags instead.”
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A. I completely agree B. It's not true C. I don't quite agree D. You're wrong
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I think it’s impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate
students’ progress.
A. stop B. extinguish C. continue D. organize
Question 23. We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something D. as long as expected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for high
quality linguistic teaching.
A. noticeable B. friendly C. affectionate D. natural
Question 25. American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26:. I’m sure Linda was very upset when you left.
A. Linda could have been very upset when you left.
B. Linda must be very upset when you left.
C. Linda may be very upset when you left.
D. Linda must have been very upset when you left.
Question 27:The last time I saw Peter was when I ran into him at the station on my way to Glasgow.
A. I haven't seen Peter since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for Glasgow
B. The last time I went to Glasgow, I happened to meet Peter at the station.
C. When I last saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow, I ran after him.
D. I finally saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow
Question 28: My father said to me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the train?”
A. My lather told me why was I late and did I miss the train.
B. My father asked me why was I late and did I miss the train.
C. My father asked me why you were late and if you missed the train.
D. My father asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the train.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29:“Hollywood's Eve” fills in many of the gaps in our knowledges of Babitz's
A B C
life and work.
D
Question 30: While many people moved to big cities with a view to turning over a new leaf some
A B
people flew the big cities in search of the rural idyll.
C D
Question 31: Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its needs.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I’m not rich. I can’t help other people.
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A. If I am rich, I can help other people. B. If I were rich, I can help other people.
C. If I am rich, I could help other people. D. If I were rich, I could help other people.
Question 33: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (34) ______up about 10 percent of the population - but, frankly, it
seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets, awkwardly designed
desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (35)
______someone to become a left hand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex makes
between genes and environment. While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who
dominantly use their left hands do have (36)________ left-handed family members. And researchers have found
different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (37) ______it is that drives someone to use their
antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to
have. (38)_______ for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to
brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help put an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English)

Question 34: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make


Question 35: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 36: A. much B. more C. other D. some
Question 37: A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 38: A. so B. however C. although D. but

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Maria Alcalá of Madrid speaks for many Mediterranean people when she says that “a meal without olive oil
would be a bore.” No one knows when the Mediterranean civilizations initially fell in love with olives. That
occurred before recorded history. However, there is evidence that the cultivation of olive trees began in countries
around the Mediterranean Sea in approximately 4000 B.C., and 2,000 years after that people in the eastern
Mediterranean region began to produce oil from olives. The Mediterranean still accounts for 99 percent of all
world olive oil production.
From ancient times until today, the basic process of producing the oil is the same. First, whole olives are
crushed. Then, the liquid is separated from the solids. After that, the valuable oil is separated from the water.
Many olive growers maintain their ancient traditions and still harvest the olives by hand. “We harvest in the
traditional way,” says Don Celso, an olive farmer from Tuscany, Italy. "It would be less expensive to do it with
machines, but it's more a social thing. Twenty people come to help with the harvest, and we pay them in oil."
Olive oil has had a variety of uses through its long history. In ancient times, olive oil was used as money and
as medicine. It was even used during war-heated up and dropped down on attackers. It is still used in religious
ceremonies. It is great for protecting the freshness of fish and cheese. There are even olive oil lamps and olive oil
soaps. Olive oil enhances the lives of people everywhere. Its benefits, recently confirmed by science, were
already understood in ancient times. Mediterranean people are happy to share their secret with the world.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 2 by Paul Maclntyre)

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Question 39. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. An oil for all. B. Olive oil: A cure for every disease.
C. How to produce oil from indigenous trees? D. The best kept secret.
Question 40. The word ‘civilisations’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. empires B. societies C. subcultures D. species
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following has olive oil NOT been used for?
A. currency B. cosmetics C. weapons D. pharmaceuticals
Question 42. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. olive B. way C. machine D. harvest
Question 43. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. There is strong evidence suggesting that the first olive trees were planted exactly 4,000 years BC.
B. The Mediterranean accounts for all of the worlds’ olive oil consumption even to this day.
C. The exact time that olives became popular among Mediterranean cultures remains unclear.
D. The way the oil is produced today is quite different from that in the past.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50
Due to the nature of our business, it's sometimes necessary that our staff work at night. Night shifts can be
particularly demanding on employee wellbeing and health. This can include disruption to the body clock,
fatigue, sleeping difficulties, disturbed appetite and digestion, reliance on sedatives or stimulants, social and
domestic problems and other symptoms of ill health. To combat this, we do not have employees on night shifts
for extended periods. This is because workers’ bodies will just have started to adapt to the new pattern.
We find rotation shifts every two to three days are best for workers and weekly or fortnightly rotations are
the least comfortable for workers. Forward-rotating programs (moving from morning to afternoon to night
shifts) are better than backward-rotating ones in terms of sleep loss and tiredness.
If someone works at night, there are rules covering the hours they work. Night time working hours are usually
between 11 p.m. and 6 a.m. – but this can be flexible and should be discussed between you and us. To qualify as
night working, the night time period must be no more than 8 hours long and include the period between
midnight and 5 a.m. Any of our staff under 18 years are not allowed to be night workers.
We must make sure that you don't work more than an average of 8 hours in a 24-hour period. By law, you can't
opt out of this working limit. We must also keep records of any night workers’ working hours to prove they
aren't exceeding night working limits, and we must keep the records for at least 2 years. These records can be
inspected by you at any time on request.
Our usual limits and regulations for night workers do not apply to self-employed workers. This does not
include agency workers, who are treated as normal workers with us.
If you agree to working at night for us, the agreement will be put in writing. If you are to begin working at
night, we must perform a health assessment before you become a night worker and on a regular basis after that.
Usually, this is just done with a questionnaire, which was created in collaboration with qualified health
professionals. If there are any health questions regarding your health and night work, we will offer you a follow-
up examination by a health professional if you still wish to work nights.
Adapted from IELTS 5 practice Tests – General Set 3 - Tests No. 11-15 (High Scorer’s Choise) – page 109)
Question 44. Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. Night shifts have great impacts on workers’ wellbeing and health
B. Notes for Employees Considering Night Time Working
C. What should we do when going on business?
D. Rules for Considering Time Working.
Question 45. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______

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A. the hours B. someone works at night C. rules D. Night time working hours
Question 46. The word “sedatives” in the paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _______
A. tranquillisers B. drug addictions C. tiredness D. weariness
Question 47. In paragraph 6, who were consulted when creating the health assessment questionnaire?
A. night workers B. a health assessment
C. lead assessors D. qualified health professionals
Question 48. The word “opt out of” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______
A. reject B. pay a visit C. choose not to join D. work overtime
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The company must retain records relating to night workers’ hours for leastwise 2 years.
B. Under existing regulations, night time working hours are required to be from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m.
C. The maximum length of a night shift at the company is 24 hours.
D. Backward-rotating shift schedules are best for minimising employees’ fatigue.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Night working can be available at any time on workers’ request.
B. It is reasonable for us to work on a night shift in order that we can get extra income.
C. We should take part in many programs in which we can work on night shifts for a long time.
D. We should look into specific regulations relating to night workers if we want to work on a night shift.

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ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scholar B. charity C. chemistry D. chaos
Question 2: A. intend B. compete C. medal D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purchase B. ladder C. forest D. police
Question 4: A. organize B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Luu Sy Hiep, _________ from the company, is now facing legal charges.
A. was fired B. fired C. firing D. was firing
Question 6: Playing basketball is _______ than playing badminton.
A. easier B. most easy C. the easiest D. easy
Question 7: You will receive an automatic email notification ________.
A. as soon as you completed your online profile
B. once your profile is available online
C. after your profile will be available online
D. when you finished your online profile
Question 8: I'm not really interested _______ watching horror movies.
A. in B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: The number of rare animals is decreasing so rapidly, ________ ?
A. is it B. isn't it C. doesn't it D. does it
Question 10: She needs __________ new phone because her old one was broken.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 8% _______ annually.
A. interest B. profit C. money D. income
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn't ________ what they were saying.
A. bring about B. turn up C. try out D. make out
Question 13: John is planning ___________ to the gym after work today.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 14: Could I pick your _______ on the subject before the meeting?
A. intellect B. heads C. mind D. brains
Question 15: When the old man ________ past the park, he saw some children playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 16: I didn’t _______ to see my aunt when I was in Paris.
A. take B. make C. get D. meet
Question 17: The application form must ________ to the university before May 31st.
A. send B. be sending C. have sent D. be sent
Question 18: Rapid ________ happened during the period of industrialization in Europe and North America the
19th and early 20" centuries.
A. urbanizing B. urbanize C. urbanization D. urbanizingly
Question 19: His boss asked him to take _____ of the office for a few days while she was away
A. responsibility B. advantage C. duty D. charge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.

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Question 20: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “ ________ . It's really worrying.”
A. I don't think so. B. I'll think about that.
C. I don't agree D. I can't agree with you more.
Question 21: A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
- Librarian: “ ________ ”
A. Certainly, what's the fax number? B. It's very kind of you to say so.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits.
A. joy B. boredom C. confidence D. apprehension
Question 23: He was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of sincerity B. full of experience
C. without money D. lack of responsibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: There's a feeling of accomplishment from having a job and all that goes with it.
A. involvement B. prosperity C. achievement D. contribution
Question 25: I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older brother, but my sister,
whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years,
A. opposed B. contactable C. truthful D. harmonized
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: I am pretty sure Dan is at home because the lights are on
A. Dan may be at home because the lights are on
B. Dan needn't be at home because the lights are on.
C. Dan can't be at home because the lights are on.
D. Dan must be at home because the lights are on.
Question 27: We last visited my uncle two years ago.
A. We have two years to visit my uncle. B. We have visited my uncle for two years,
C. We haven't visited my uncle for two years. D. We didn't visit my uncle two years ago.
Question 28: "Do you still remember Darin, our childhood friend?" Mary asked me.
A. Mary asked me to remember Darin, our childhood friend.
B. Mary reminded me of our childhood friend, Darin.
C. Mary wanted to know if Darin, our childhood friend, still remembered me.
D. Mary asked me whether I still remembered Darin, our childhood friend.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29: There were only a few classrooms and its walls were made of mud and straw
A. few B. its C. of D. were
Question 30: Last Sunday is so beautiful a day that we took a drive in the country.
A. last B. is C. a day D. took a drive
Question 31: Discovering that he had an attitude for finance, he got a job as a commercial-credit analyst
A. commercial B. attitude C. Discovering D. analyst

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Question 33: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in her
community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CITIES GOING GREEN
As more and more people concentrate in cities, planners are looking for ways to transform cities into better
living spaces, (34) ________ can be done by improving existing infrastructure while also creating more public
(35) ________ that are both beautiful and green. This can be hard to accomplish, especially in cities with a
haphazard fashion. Some cities have been created with the idea of a green city as the goal.
One such city, Masdar City in the United Arab Emirates, aims to become a model for (36) ________ cities
to follow. It is being known as a truly green city that relies strictly on renewable sources such as solar energy to
provide all of its energy needs. (37) ________ , it will be a zero waste city in which everything that is used can be
recycled. Whether it will truly (38) ________ its goal remains to be seen, but it will also act as an experiment for
environmentally friendly areas to be tested.
Question 34: A. why B. when C. which D. that
Question 35: A. rooms B. places C. spaces D. breaks
Question 36: A. other B. every C. one D. another
Question 37: A. Therefore B. In addition C. although D. However
Question 38: A. accompany B. access C. account D. accomplish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or improper,
normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own, we may
experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a fundamentally different
culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other cultures; however, having our own
judgment could lead us to discriminate other cultural values which are different from our own because we do not
understand them.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and school increasingly consist of various
cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level of understanding
about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about other cultures helps us
understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and
personal biases about different groups.
In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect "ways of being" that are not necessarily our
own, so that we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across cultures.
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Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from diverse cultures
contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. How can we learn from culture? B. What is the function of culture?
C. How do people use own culture? D. Why is cultural diversity a "good thing"?
Question 40: The word "which" in paragraph 1 refers to ________
A. cultural values B. other cultures C. judgment D. standard
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE about the main reason for discrimination?
A. Making judgment B. Immersed in a culture
C. Valuating everything D. Contacting with a different culture
Question 42: The word "dispel" in paragraph 2 mostly means ________
A. realize B. remove C. contain D. discuss
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following do people from diverse cultures NOT contribute
to a country?
A. new ways of thinking B. a more interesting place
C. language skills D. different experiences
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history, enterprising
individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched
deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds,
mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include
scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and various
worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, none of the other migrations
could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned their
hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They
show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs.
Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees,
ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors. They don’t
even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed anything equivalent to
the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all
vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the
water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modem turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before most of
the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating
from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modem turtles and tortoise. You might
wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found.
Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined
bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little
less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
B. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
C. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
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Question 45: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Manatees B. Whales C. Dugongs D. Turtles
Question 46: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. got familiar B. soon became
C. stopped happening or existing D. began to happen or exist
Question 47: The word “incarnation” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. evolution B. ancestor C. natural selection D. embodiment
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.
B. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
C. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
D. Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern
turtles and tortoise.
Question 49: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dolphins B. fragments C. ichthyosaurs D. turtles
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. it’s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found
B. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine species
C. turtles’ ancestor and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have the similar appearances with dolphins

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 22
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. keen B. kick C. know D. keep
Question 2: A. park B. fast C. card D. catch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. enter C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. purity B. chemical C. habitat D. destruction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Despacito, _____over four billion times on YouTube is one of the most favourite songs among
teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. viewed C. viewing D. were viewed
Question 6: The English test was ________ than I thought it would be.
A. easier B. the easier C. more easy D. easiest
Question 7: In a few months, I will move into a very small flat ________.
A. after I have lived for years with my parents
B. before I had lived for years with my parents
C. by the time I was living for years with my parents
D. as soon as I had lived for years with my parents
Question 8: It was careless ________ you to leave the door unlocked when you went out.
A. in B. at C. on D. of
Question 9: This picture is very beautiful, __________?
A. isn’t it B. was it C. doesn’t it D. did it
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Question 10: I often watch ______ television for two hours every night.
A. a B. an C. no article D. the
Question 11: His answer was so confusing that it hardly made ____
A. meaning B. interpretation C. indelibility D. sense
Question 12: “Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour. ”
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 13: My teacher promised _____ me prepare for my next examination.
A. help B. to help C. helping D. helped
Question 14: There's a(n)____________ of difference between liking someone and loving them.
A. world B. earth C. whole D. entirety
Question 15: When her train got to the station, we ______ on the platform.
A. waited B. were waiting C. have waited D. are waiting
Question 16: I have no idea to_____ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 17: The ancient houses ______ by the fire. They are now under reconstruction.
A. were destroyed B. destroyed C. have destroyed D. were destroying
Question 18: I____ think that we should do something immediately to change the situation we are in.
A. person B. personal C. personally D. personality
Question 19: The children are really getting in my___________ Tell them to go and play out side.
A. hair B. nerves C. mouth D. books
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 20: Tom and Mary are doing exercise in class.
- Tom: “Pass me that pen, please!” – Mary: “______”
A. Here you are. B. No, it isn’t. C. Yes, please. D. It doesn’t matter.
Question 21: Peter and Mary are talking about burning fossil fuels.
- Peter: "Burning fossil fuels may have negative effects on environment. "
- Mary: “______. It causes air pollution. "
A. I'm not sure about that B. You're wrong
C. I don’t quite agree D. That's quite true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 23: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: I hope things will start to look up in the new year.
A. get better B. get worse C. become popular D. get bored
Question 25: Drunk driving can lead to some tragic results.
A. miserable B. peaceful C. delighted D. lasting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 26: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company should accept his application B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application. D. The company needs to accept his application.
Question 27: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
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A. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
B. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
C. He had tested his eyes ten months ago.
D. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
Question 28: "Why didn’t you submit your assignments yesterday, " said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher asked the students why they submitted their assignments the day before.
B. The teacher asked the students why they hadn’t submitted their assignments the day before.
C. The teacher asked the students why had they submitted their assignments the day before.
D. The teacher asked the students why hadn’t they submitted their assignments the day before.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Many successful film directors are formal actors who desired to expand their experience in the
film industry.
A. successful B. formal C. who D. expand
Question 30: Many students took part in the entrance examination at university highly every year.
A. students B. took C. entrance D. highly
Question 31.1 asked my kids to get off his phones and take part in some outdoor activities.
A. asked B. get off C. his D. take part
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: The teacher is busy today. Her students really need her help.
A. If the teacher is not busy today, she can help her students.
B. She wishes the teacher were not busy today, and she could help her students.
C. Provided the teacher is not busy today, she will help her students.
D. If the teacher is not busy today, she can’t help her students.
Question 33: Mr. J received a COVID-19 positive test result. Immediately, he was sent to the hospital.
A. Only after Mr.J was sent to the hospital, did he test positive for COVID-19.
B. No sooner had Mr. J tested positive for COVID-19 than he was sent to the hospital.
C. Not until Mr. I was sent to the hospital did he receive a COVID-19 positive test result.
D. Only by receiving a COVID-19 positive test result could Mr. J be sent to the hospital.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the
energy to get out of bed in time for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are in
danger of getting so (34)___________sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at risk.
Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (35)___________teenagers require nine or ten
hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours' sleep a
night less than their parents did at their age.
This (36)___________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction
time and poor concentration is well (37)___________Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour's
sleep a night can have profound ef fects on how children perform the next day. A good night's sleep is also
crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (38)___________they release a hormone that is
essential for their 'growth spurt' (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It's true
that they can, to some extent, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won't help them when they are dropping
off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
Question 34: A. less B. little C. few D. much
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Question 35: A. because B. so C. or D. whereas
Question 36: A. raises B. rises C. comes D. results
Question 37: A. arranged B. organized C. established D. acquired
Question 38: A. where B. that C. which D. at which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or A to indicate the correct answers to each of the
question.
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive force
that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of
Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a
Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive.
That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old, according
to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have
observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than political
issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to
view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older
generation generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation as
superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone
over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values,
work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 39. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
C. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
D. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
Question 40. The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. agreeing B. possitive C. serious D. discordant
Question 41. What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause disagreement?
A. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
D. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation.
Question 42. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 43. According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
C. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
D. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than men might be due to
a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers have suggested.
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Recent figures show about 65% of those with living with dementia in the UK are women, with a similar
statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading cause of death for women in
England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of dementia, but the most common form. While one
explanation is that dementia risk increases with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men, new
research suggests there might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within neurons and
linked to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.
The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los Angeles by researchers
from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-reviewed, used scans from a method called positron
emission tomography. That allowed them to look at the way clumps of a protein called tau were spread in the
brains of 123 men and 178 women without cognitive problems, as well as 101 men and 60 women with mild
cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Cognitively normal older people
often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.
From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show similar signals relating to
tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based on that we kind of try to reconstruct the pattern
of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is presenting the research, told the Guardian. “It is kind of like
reconstructing a crime scene.” The team says the results suggest these maps look different in women and men,
suggesting tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female brain.
Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer reviewed – added weight to the idea that
there might be differences between men and women that affect dementia risk. Research by scientists at the
University of Miami has revealed a handful of genes and genetic variants appear to be linked to Alzheimer’s
disease in just one biological sex or the other. While the actual importance of these factors has yet to be unpicked,
and the study only looked at white participants, the team says it underscores that there could be a genetic reason
for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women, and the way it develops.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 44. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women
B. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.
C. Research shines light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.
D. The differences between male and female brain and the condition for Alzheimer’s.
Question 45. The following are the reasons for Alzheimer’s disease, EXCEPT _______.
A. gene B. anatomy C. age D. job
Question 46. The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions
Question 47. What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. cognitively normal older people’s
B. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease
C. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems
D. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems
Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.
B. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.
C. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.
D. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from Alzheimer’s.
Question 49. The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated
Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that _______.
A. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.
B. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.
97
C. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.
D. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been scientifically
illuminated.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 23
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. father B. anything C. another D. although
Question 2: A. mind B. time C. skill D. light
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attract B. devote C. suppose D. visit
Question 4: A. character B. primary C. decision D. benefit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The car ______ in our garage is very expensive.
A. repaired B. repairing C. is repaired D. is repairing
Question 6: Peter usually drives ______ than Mary .
A. very fast B. as fast C. fastest D. faster
Question 7: I will come and see you ______.
A. when I was finishing my homework B. after I had finished my homework
C. until I finished my homework D. as soon as I have finished my homework
Question 8: I've been trying to learn Spanish but I'm not very satisfied ______ my progress.
A. with B. at C. about D. in
Question 9: The film is good, ______?
A. is it B. are they C. isn’t it D. aren’t they
Question 10: ______ organic fruits are good for health.
A. A B. An C. The D. x (no article)
Question 11: They are conducting a wide ______ of surveys throughout Vietnam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 12: Our talented scientists have ______ breakthrough solutions to global technological challenges for
fairer, safer and more sustainable developments.
A. turned up B. took after C. came over D. looked for
Question 13: I don’t advise anybody ______ in that hotel.
A. stay B. to stay C. staying D. stayed
Question 14: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 15: When I first saw him, he ______ in London.
A. had lived B. is living C. was living D. has been living
Question 16: I ______ advantage of the fact that my friend works in a clothes boutique.
A. take B. do C. have D. make
Question 17: The company hopes that their new product launch _______by many potential customers.
A. will be attended B. will attend C. attend D. was attending
Question 18: The post office offers a very ______ price for this Express Money Transfer.
A. compete B. competitive C. competitively D. competition
Question 19: There can be no _____ fixes or magic solutions to the problem of unemployment.
A. fast B. speedy C. quick D. sudden

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Jack is inviting Mary to his party.
- Jack: “Would you like to come to my party this weekend?”
- Mary: “______.”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. No, don’t worry C. You’re welcome D. I’m afraid so
Question 21: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “______. It’s really worrying.”
A. I’ll think about that B. I don’t agree
C. I don’t think so D. I can’t agree more
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I wanted to ride a roller coaster, but I lost my nerve once I saw it.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We’re seeking for a talented musician to join our entertainment company.
A. good B. famous C. great D. gifted
Question 25: Joggers who begin running without warming up could sustain a muscle injury.
A. suffer B. invite C. irritate D. anticipate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: You are not allowed to use your mobile phone during the test.
A. You mightn't use your mobile phone during the test.
B. You needn’t use your mobile phone during the test.
C. You oughtn’t to use your mobile phone during the test.
D. You mustn’t use your mobile phone during the test.
Question 27: Mrs. Brown last recycled plastic bottles two months ago.
A. Mrs Brown didn’t recycle plastic bottles two months ago.
B. Mrs Brown hasn’t recycled plastic bottles for two months.
C. Mrs Brown has never recycled plastic bottles before.
D. Mrs Brown has recycled plastic bottles for two months.
Question 28: “Was Kate waiting for you at the airport? “ He asked me.
A. He asked me if Kate was waiting for me at the airport.
B. He asked me if Kate had been waiting for you at the airport.
C. He asked me if had Kate been waiting for me at the airport.
D. He asked me if Kate had been waiting for me at the airport.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Students who want to study at university must take the entry examination.
A. who B. to study C. take D. entry
Question 30: Last Sunday, my cousins pay me a visit when we were having dinner.
A. pay B. when C. a visit D. having
Question 31: We need to improve the quality of goods and services so that it can enter new markets.
99
A. improve B. goods C. it D. markets
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Her English is not good. She can’t apply for the job.
A. If only her English had been good, she couldn't have applied for the job.
B. If her English had been good, she couldn’t have applied for the job.
C. She wishes her English were good so that she could apply for the job.
D. Provided that her English is good, she can’t apply for the job.
Question 33: He is intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very too intelligent to he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Teenagers having exams may feel stressed for different reasons. Their future may depend on their exam
results. And many of them will probably be afraid that their performances will not be as good as their friends’
and may feel worried about being (34) ______ negatively to them. They may feel so (35) ______ by the amount
of studying which they need to do. To obtain a good result, they may have to give up (36) ______ leisure
activities such as doing sports and listening to music. Teenagers (37) ______ suffer from exam stress may show a
variety of symptoms including loss of appetite, being unable to sleep and a lack of motivation to study. (38)
______ it is important for teachers and parents to watch out for these signs and to be as supportive and
encouraging as possible.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook-Han, Hutchinson, Passmore and Uddin)
Question 34: A. agreed B. compared C. closed D. suggested
Question 35: A. relaxed B. exhausted C. excited D. embarrassed
Question 36: A. each B. many C. much D. every
Question 37: A. which B. where C. who D. when
Question 38: A. Therefore B. However C. Although D. Moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in
making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that
perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as
well., especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses
because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates
and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these
carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients
on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because
of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons.
The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
100
without our knowledge.
Question 39: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
B. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
Question 40: The word “these” refers to ______.
A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
Question 41: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing
Question 42: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons
B. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals
C. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five years
D. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world
Question 43: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food.
B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet.
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health.
D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The word ‘grandparents' is descriptive of the unique dual parenting role that this generation assumes. It
emphasizes the vital part they play in family life. With a wealth of old world experience behind them, and with
the unique ability to metamorphose from advisers or mediators into listeners or friends, they can offer support
and stability in an ever-changing world.
The underlying sense of responsibility that goes with this is tremendous. Grandparents perform a
balancing act between the needs of their adult children and those of their grandchildren. This role is varied. It is
imperial at times, muted at others. It goes underground whenever required, but it is solid and absolutely
dependable.
Grandparents often bridge the gap between parents and their children. Rebellious, independent children
who are trying to find their feet are almost always at loggerheads with their parents. The role of grandparents
can be very important provided they act as impartial judges and are able to convey this feeling to both parties.
Grandchildren, in most cases, prefer to listen to their grandparents rather than their parents, who often find
themselves up against a brick wall.
One important thing, which seems to be missing in the lives of children today, is a sense of family,
values, beliefs and principles. This is where the grandparents step in. However, instilling beliefs and values is not
as easy as it was fifty or sixty years ago. Then, no questions were asked and there was an implicit sense of trust.
With changing times and changing outlooks, children have started to question the validity of everything around
them. Globalization has eroded their sense of belonging and weakened identification with their roots. Science and
technology force them to doubt every traditional belief.
Parents, who have so many demands on their time, are perhaps not in the best position to instil traditional
values in their offspring. Children are very demanding and grandparents, without appearing to be pushy, have
both the time and the experience to deal with tantrums. They can appease, soothe and impart values with
tremendous ease. Any nation’s traditional culture is rich and varied, but how many children recognize this?
Grandparents can teach them to value cultural traditions and thereby inform their moral development.
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
101
A. The Role of Grandparents in Children’s Upbringing
B. Grandparents as Versatile Educators in Their Neighborhoods
C. The Importance of Early Education to a Child’s Academic Performance
D. The Education of Children during Their Formative Years
Question 45: The word “metamorphose” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. depart B. form C. change D. return
Question 46: According to the passage, in a modern household ______.
A. children’s needs should be prioritized over their parents’
B. grandparents’ rich experience can come in handy.
C. children can act as a go-between for their parents
D. the role of grandparents must be imperial at all times
Question 47: The phrase “at loggerheads” in paragraph 3 mostly means
A. complaining B. disagreeing C. conversing D. sharing
Question 48: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. parents B. judges C. children D. grandparents
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Children nowadays have a stronger sense of family, values, beliefs, and principles.
B. Children these days have started to re-examine traditional beliefs and values.
C. As a rule, children prefer their parents’ advice to their grandparents’.
D. The task of imparting knowledge and values to children was neglected in the past.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Without guidance, children may fail to appreciate the cultural traditions of their nations.
B. In general, working parents are in the best position to impart values to their children.
C. Compared to grandparents, parents have a stronger sense of responsibility towards their families.
D. Children in families with grandparents tend to experience more trust issues than others.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 24
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. must B. full C. cut D. sun
Question 2. A. other B. anything C. father D. together
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. permit B. refuse C. support D. offer
Question 4. A. composer B. funeral C. musician D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is _________ honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. x (no article)
Question 6. The students postponed ______ for the exam until the night before .
A. preparing B. prepare C. to prepare D. prepared
Question 7. We will congratulate him on winning the first prize ______.
A. as soon as Peter gets here B. after Peter had got here
C. when Peter was getting here D. until Peter got here
Question 8. I assume that you are acquainted with this subject since you are responsible ______writing the
accompanying materials.
A. for B. with C. to D. with

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Question 9. The students _________ their tasks when the teacher came into the classroom.
A. are completing B. completing C. completed D. were completing
Question 10. Dr. Wilson, ______ as the director of the Institute, is a brilliant and dedicated scientist.
A. selected B. selecting C. was selected D. select
Question 11. This city becomes ____________ in the summer than in other seasons.
A. so crowded B. more crowded C. the most crowded D. crowded
Question 12. A nest ________ in the porch since last week by a pair of robins
A. was building B. had built C. has been built D. been built
Question 13. John's___and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 14. If you want to take part in volunteer organisations, you will have to ______ an application form.
A. fill in B. go up C. take on D. take off
Question 15. Many others certainly don't see it that way and are adamant that the late politician was largely to
blame for having a(n) ______________for the vision but scant regard for the detail.
A. eye B. ear C. nose D. tongue
Question 16. I have never been to South America before and I can’t speak _______ of Spanish.
A. people B. a word C. words D. sentences
Question 17. I won't buy that car because it has too much ______________on it.
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
Question 18. When I told my family I wanted to be a professional musician, I faced a______of criticism from
my parents, who strongly disapproved of the idea.
A. barrage B. barricade C. blast D. attack
Question 19. She’s beautiful, _______?
A. won’t she B. didn’t she C. doesn’t she D. isn’t she
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport.
- Officer: “Can I have your passport, please?”
- Client: “______”
A. No, I’ll think it expired. B. Thank you for your help.
C. Yes, here you go. D. But I don’t like it.
Question 21: Jack and John are talking about their coming test.
- Jack: "I think our coming test will be very difficult?"
- John: “__________. It’s challenging”
A. You must be kidding B. I quite agree
C. I am of the opposite opinion D. I don’t think that’s a good idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many American people think that it is wise for a woman to maintain her attractiveness after
marriage.
A. lose B. confide C. preserve D. neglect
Question 23: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job.
A. make B. provide C. support D. allow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 25: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
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A. began to dislike it C. lost my temper
B. was discouraged from trying D. was determined to go ahead
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house. B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house. D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
Question 27: I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
A. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
B. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
C. I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
Question 28: “How long have you been working at your present job?” she asked
A. She asked me how long I had been working at my present job.
B. She asked me how long had I been working at my present job.
C. She asked me how long I have been working at my present job.
D. She asked me how long have you been working at your present job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Last week I have to bring work home every night to get it all done.
A B C D
Question 30: John and Jane would like to have her own house in the future.
A B C D
Question 31: The team’s spirits were really low after the first loss, but their morality was improved
A B
remarkably by the next three consecutive victories.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: David broke his leg. He couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could have played in the final.
C. David could play in the final due to his broken leg.
D. But for his broken leg, David could play in the final now.
Question 33: Harry had packed his luggage. After that, he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
A. Packing his luggage, Harry loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
B. Only after Harry had packed his luggage, did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
C. No sooner had Harry packed his luggage when he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
D. Not until had Harry packed his luggage did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
CHECKING YOUR MOBILE PHONE
How often do you check your phone? For many of us, our phone is an essential part of everyday life, but
apparently, we are spending an increasing amount of time checking it for information without being (34) _____
of doing so.
Research in Helsinki shows that phone checking typically lasts less than 30 seconds on each occasion, and
usually consists of opening a single application such as social media. They study also found (35) _____ users
check their mobiles throughout the entire day, and that what they check is often (36) _____ with particular
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contexts. (37) _____, when travelling to work or college, people tend to check their email: if they are bored, they
get a quick update on the latest news.
Checking this frequently can easily become a habit, (38) _____ some say can distract us from more important
things. Others, though believe that being able to obtain so much new information so quickly makes life for more
interesting.
(Adapted from First trainer)
Question 34. A. cautious B. sensitive C. conscious D. sensible
Question 35. A. many B. little C. a lot D. another
Question 36. A. attracted B. assumed C. associated D. accompanied
Question 37. A. However B. As a result C. Although D. For instance
Question 38. A. where B. which C. why D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body
language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body language
varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a
parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or
parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North
America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who
don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same
situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are
having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move any
other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world
use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate
different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking
out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of
another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Misunderstandings in communication
B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in American
D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 40: The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. mispronounced B. misbehaved C. misspelled D. misunderstood
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph e refers to _______.
A. the country B. an example C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake
Question 42: As stated in the last paragraph, in order to communicate successfully with people from another
culture, it is advisable for a person _______
A. to use the body language of the people from that culture.
B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture.
C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture.
D. to travel to as many countries as possible.
Question 43: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. distance B. posture C. gesture D. eye movement
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do
you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment to
technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program
from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World Wide
Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050, music,
films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many
places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water.
Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some
futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be
any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer
will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway
around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again.
By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two
hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use
robots. Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day.
By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic
devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf
people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones
of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they
behave and how much intelligence they have.
(Source: Cambridge English for Schools by Andrew Littlejohn, Diana Hicks)
Question 44. The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. The effect of the futurologists’ prediction on our lives.
B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
D. The importance of cloning in the future.
Question 45. The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. the possible war. B. the cash crop planting. C. the serious shortage. D. the demand for
water.
Question 46. The word “domain” in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. way of life B. interest C. field of expertise D. challenge
Question 47. The word “conquered” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. controlled B. diagnosed C. transmitted D. caused
Question 48. What way NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer.
B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
Question 49. We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _______.
A. People will be used to travel around the world in two hours.
B. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
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C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 50 What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 25
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. throw B. threat C. these D. thumb
Question 2. A. with B. mild C. kind D. site
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. farmer B. kitchen C. ruler D. advice
Question 4. A. understand B. memorise C. generate D. classify
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Tourists should avoid buying unusual relics, illegally ______ from protected heritage sites.
A. removed B. removing C. remove D. were removing
Question 6. Learning English is ______ than playing badminton.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 7. Susan will hang out with her friends ______.
A. after she had finished her work B. when she finished her work
C. as soon as she finishes her work D. by the time she finished her work
Question 8. Nam is aware ______ the importance of learning a foreign language.
A. in B. on C. about D. of
Question 9. Our school is the biggest in this city, ______?
A. does it B. doesn’t it C. didn’t it D. isn’t it
Question 10. His brother likes playing ______ soccer. It’s good for his health.
A. the B. an C. 0 (no article) D. a
Question 11. If we build that hotel there, the ocean will be hidden from ______.
A. sight B. view C. note D. scene
Question 12. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t ______ at somebody’s house on the first day of the New Year unless
you have been invited by the house owner.
A. show up B. write off C. look after D. pick up
Question 13. He decided ______ out of school three years ago.
A. dropping B. drop C. to dropping D. to drop
Question 14. Martin is called the teacher’s pet by his classmates because he is taken under his teacher’s
______.
A. hands B. wings C. arms D. legs
Question 15. They broke the TV while they ______ it to a new showroom.
A. were moving B. moved C. move D. are moving
Question 16. The scholarship Hoa was granted ______ a big difference to her life and her career.
A. got B. found C. gave D. made
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Question 17. He hopes that after the project starts, it ______ by many investors.
A. supports B. will support C. was supporting D. will be supported
Question 18. With a good sense of humour, David is ______ with the students.
A. popularly B. popularize C. popular D. popularity
Question 19. IVF has installed more than 60 air ______ devices in campus buildings and 238 in campus
elevators.
A. adjustment B. purification C. pollution D. absorption
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. Lucia is calling to Mrs. Mary’s home.
- Lucia: “Hello, may I speak to Mrs. Mary, please?”
- Call receiver: “______”
A. Of course, not. B. Wait here. C. Hold on, please. D. Yes, please.
Question 21. Mrs. Brown and Mr. Smith are talking about teaching teamwork skills to children.
Mrs Brown: “Teamwork skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “_______ . They are necessary for their future life.”
A. I totally agree with you. B. I don’t either. C. I don’t think so. D. You’re wrong.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. That boy concealed the truth so as not to make his parents disappointed.
A. maintained B. revealed C. behaved D. protected
Question 23. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.
A. extremely happy B. feeling extremely unhappy
C. feeling extremely airy D. extremely light

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24. How many countries participated in the last Olympic Games?.
A. turned B. hosted C. joined D. formed
Question 25. Some students found it a little daunting for the first week in a new university.
A. happy B. boring C. superb D. useful

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. It is compulsory for all students to hand in their paper before 10:30.
A. All students needn’t hand in their paper before 10:30.
B. All students may hand in their paper before 10:30
C. All students shouldn’t hand in their paper before 10:30
D. All students must hand in their paper before 10:30
Question 27. I last sent her a letter three years ago.
A. I haven’t sent her a letter for three years. B. I didn’t send her a letter for three years.
C. I sent her a letter for three years. D. I have sent her a letter for three years.
Question 28. “What are you doing this Sunday?” asked my aunt.
A. My aunt asked me what I was doing that Sunday.
B. My aunt asked me what am I doing that Sunday.
C. My aunt asked me what was I doing that Sunday.
D. My aunt asked me what I am doing that Sunday.
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Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29. When it comes to gauging important job candidates, many companies now rate emotional
A B
intelligence as important as technological ability and employ EQ testing before hiring.
C D
Question 30. Caroline wears her new yellow dress on her sister’s wedding last week.
A B C D
Question 31. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Jane does not attend the live show. She is in lockdown.
A. Provided that Jane is not in lockdown, she can’t attend the live show.
B. If Jane had been in lockdown, she couldn’t have attended the live show.
C. If Jane weren’t in lockdown, she could attend the live show.
B. If only Jane had not been in lockdown, she could have attended the live show.
Question 33. Spectators are forbidden to bring alcohol into the national stadium. There’s no exception
whatsoever.
A. By no means were spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the national stadium.
B. At no time are spectators banned from bringing alcohol into the national stadium.
C. Under no circumstances are spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the national stadium.
D. On no occasion are spectators banned from bringing alcohol into the national stadium.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The Internet has truly transformed how students do their homework. (34) ______ homework today still
means spending time in the library, it’s for a different reason. Rather than using books for research, students
today are (35) ______ to the Internet to download enormous amounts of data available online.
In the past, students were limited to their school’s selection of books. In (36) ______ cases, they got to the
school library and found out that someone had already taken the books they needed. Nowadays, such
inconvenience can be avoided since the Internet never runs out of information. Students, however, do have to
make sure that the information they find online is true. Teachers have also benefited from the homework (37)
______ is done on the Internet. They do not need to carry students’ papers around with them any more. This is
because online (38) ______ allow students to electronically upload their homework for their teachers to read and
mark. Of course, this also means that students can no longer use the excuse that the dog ate their homework!
(Adapted from “Gold Pre-first Exam Maximizer” by H. Chilton & L. Edwards, 2013, Harlow: Pearson)

Question 34. A. But B. For C. While D. Because


Question 35. A. connecting B. linking C. searching D. looking
Question 36. A. much B. each C. another D. many
Question 37. A. which B. who C. whose D. whom
Question 38. A. materials B. systems C. structures D. sources

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions front 39 to 43.
William Shakespeare (1564-1616) wrote many plays and poems which are known the world over.

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Shakespeare’s works have survived the years and then some! For example, Romeo and Juliet has not only been
performed again and again in theaters around the world, but it has also been made into a very popular movie,
twice!
During the late 1500s, however, Shakespeare’s plays were often performed at the Globe Theatre in London.
The Globe was a large open-air theater that used only natural lighting. Shows at the Globe used very few props, but
performances were always interesting and exciting because the audience yelled at, cheered, and talked with the
performers. The Globe was a great success. However, in 1613, during a performance of Shakespeare’s Henry
VIII, a cannon was fired on stage, setting off a fire. The fire completely destroyed the theater. The Globe was
fixed a year later, but it did not stay open long. The theater was closed by the Puritans, who did not approve of
entertainment. The Globe never opened again, and the building was finally torn down in 1644.
Theater lovers in England never forgot the Globe, and in 1970, a decision was made to rebuild it as close to
the original design as possible. Imagine how people felt when, in 1989, those working on the new Globe came
across some of the original buildings only about 100 meters from the new theater. They were building the new
theater almost in the original Globe’s location! The new Globe opened in 1999 and has since won many awards as
one of the best tourist attractions in Europe.
(Adapted from Reading challenge 2, Unit 11)
Question 39. What is the main focus of this reading?
A. Interesting attractions in Europe B. Shakespeare and the Globe Theatre
C. Shakespeare’s plays and poems D. The first play at the Globe Theatre
Question 40. The word “props” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. talents B. objects C. stories D. actions
Question 41. During what kind of scene did the fire at the Globe start?
A. During a battle scene B. During a party scene
C. During a cooking scene D. During a beach scene
Question 42. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. the design B. the decision C. the Globe D. the England
Question 43. Which is probably NOT true about plays at the Globe in the 1500s?
A. Actors didn’t use very many objects on stage. B. The shows were very popular.
C. The audience said things to actors on stage. D. The shows were usually performed at night.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has
one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of 18.
Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families
marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of school
and earn little money.
Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are
more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows that 91%
of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.
Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible
because the money they have to pay to the groom’s family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010, the
legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the Nepalese
Country Code.
The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up
to 10,000 rupees (£102). But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot of progress
in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and civil society

110
cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing Nepal’s first national
strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not Brides Nepal. However, the post-
earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow and the national strategy has been
delayed.
(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)
Question 44. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality.
B. Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal.
C. Nepal’s strategies to child protection programming.
D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.
Question 45. According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ________.
A. play an important role in bolstering their household finances
B. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families
C. can get married two years later than those are from poor families
D. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money
Question 46. The word "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. girls B. families C. years D. rates
Question 47. The word "burden” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. issue B. potency C. load D. cargo
Question 48. According to the last paragraph, how many years will a rule-breaker spend in jail?
A. exactly three years B. over three years C. from one to three years D. about two
years
Question 49. The word "imprisonment” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _________.
A. detention B. custody C. salvation D. emblem
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage _________.
A. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage
B. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world
C. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money
D. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 26
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. than B. thumb C. thank D. think
Question 2: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. hacker B. reply C. software D. marvel
Question 4: A. different B. beautiful C. effective D. magical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The woman, ________documents from ACE organization, is very ill-natured.
A. was stolen B. stolen C. stealing D. was stealing
Question 6: Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 7: _______, we will leave for the conference at the City Hall.
A. As soon as it stops raining B. Once it stopped raining

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C. When it had stopped raining D. While it was stopping raining
Question 8: I'm not really keen __________spicy food, but I'll give it a try.
A. in B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: Michael returned to his hometown last summer, _______?
A. won't he B. doesn't he C. didn't he D. hasn't he
Question 10: I bought ___ new shirt yesterday. It was very nice.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: You’ll get a better _______ of exchange at another bank.
A. worth B. value C. rate D. charge
Question 12: I could not _______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. take in C. make off D. get along
Question 13: Sarah said she would like _________ Paris someday to see the Eiffel Tower.
A. visit B. to visit C. visiting D. visited
Question 14: I always get ________ in my stomach before visiting the dentist. This is really hard for me.
A. worms B. mosquitoes C. crabs D. butterflies
Question 15: While she _________ into the house to steal things, she was bitten by a dog.
A. broke B. breaking C. was breaking D. has broken
Question 16: It is important to ________ in mind that these financial consequences have remained largely
hidden
A. know B. give C. hold D. bear
Question 17: My close friend ________ a new tablet on her birthday next week
A. will be given B. is giving C. will give D. will be giving
Question 18: Her ________ has declined since her return from exile two years ago.
A. popularity B. popularly C. popularize D. popular
Question 19: There is a ________ mood everywhere in in the world on New Year's Day.
A. optimistic B. constant C. popular D. festive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Minh is talking to Thomas after his test.
- Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected."
- Thomas: " _______ "
A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That's brilliant enough! D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Question 21: Ann and John is talking about social network.
- Ann: "Today social network plays an important role in communication.”
- John: “ ________ ”
A. It's rubbish B. I'm afraid I don't know
C. I don't agree with you D. I agree with you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment,
A. consideration B. worry C. ease D. speculation
Question 23: My brother has become a bit of couch potato since he stopped playing football.
A. a nice person B. a kind person C. a live wire D. a lazy person
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Taking a deep breath before an interview can help reduce anxiety.
A. create B. keep C. decrease D. increase
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Question 25: According to the officials of the MOET, reopening schools is inevitable since the vaccine rate is
high now.
A. unlikely B. doubtful C. unavoidable D. dispensable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26: She started driving to work one month ago.
A. She has driven to work since one month.
B. It is one month when she started driving to work.
C. She has driven to work for one month.
D. It was one month after she started driving to work.
Question 27: It’s important that you pay attention to the lecture.
A. You must pay attention to the lecture. B. You shouldn’t pay attention to the lecture.
C. You can pay attention to the lecture. D. You needn’t pay attention to the lecture.
Question 28: “Why didn’t you send me the brochure?” Mr. William asked the agent.
A. Mr. William asked the agent why she didn’t send him the brochure.
B. Mr. William asked the agent to send him the brochure.
C. Mr. William asked the agent not to send him the brochure.
D. Mr. William asked the agent why she had not sent him the brochure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29: The main cause of the strike was the management’s refusal to give further consideration
to the question of pay differences.
A. was B. refusal C. differences D. to
Question 30: A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their own.
A. from B. own C. their D. other
Question 31: Last Sunday is so beautiful a day that we took a drive in the country.
A. Last B. a day C. is D. took a drive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in her
community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
Question 33: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

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The outbreak of COVID-19 is an unprecedented public health crisis, touching nearly all countries and (34)
________ across the world. The health impacts of COVID-19 are devastating and, rightly, in the forefront of our
minds, cross our media, and impacting people's lives and livelihoods across the world. One of the most tangible
outcomes of COVID-19 is the ever-increasing socio-economic gap between learners. Over 365 million children
are missing out on important school feeding programmes (35) ________ keep them healthy and motivated to
learn. Moreover, families may be pushed to (36) ________ to negative coping mechanisms to meet their needs,
including child labour or reducing the number and quality of meals at a time when staying healthy and keeping a
strong immune system is particularly important.
Home learning may itself be a source of stress for families and learners, with pressure to take on new
responsibilities. (37) ________ children are suffering from anxiety, living without access to the internet or other
means required to benefit from distance learning. Some older children are stressed about missing months of
education (38) ________ they have to care for younger children in the home while parents and caregivers are
working.
(Adapted from https://en.unesco.org/news)
Question 34: A. basics B. communities C. backgrounds D. contexts
Question 35: A. why B. who C. when D. which
Question 36: A. mitigate B. resort C. offer D. worry
Question 37: A. Every B. Others C. Much D. Many
Question 38: A. although B. however C. because D. therefore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or course tutor
will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out which one is
the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something goes wrong and
seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth. This means
that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend the reasons for that
point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating everyone equally.
An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names. This concern with
equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are even ready to joke about
themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of privacy
mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with close friends.
While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless the
friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn.
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A story about Australia B. Australian culture shock
C. Things to do in Australia D. Australian culture
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. circumstances B. Australians C. options D. students
Question 41: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because _______.
A. Australians are difficult to remember people's surnames
B. Australians restrict class discrimination
C. Australians get on well with each other
D. Calling each other by their first names makes them friendlier
Question 42: The word "critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. faultfinding B. grateful C. complimentary D. appreciative
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly polite.
B. Australians are prepared to accept a range of opinions.
C. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
D. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
There have been many famous detectives in literature. But one of the first-and certainly the most famous is
Sherlock Holmes. Holmes was created by the British writer Sir Arthur Conan Doyle in the late nineteenth
century.
Sherlock Holmes made his first appearance in the work A Study in Scarlet, which was published in 1887.
Holmes instantly became a popular literary figure with the general populace, who demanded that Doyle write
more stories involving him. Doyle compiled and eventually wound up writing fifty-six short stories and four
novels that featured Holmes. While he took a break of several years from creating stories about Holmes, Doyle
continued to write Holmes stories until 1927. Among the most famous of all the works featuring Holmes are The
Hound of the Baskervilles, The Blue Carbuncle, and A Scandal in Bohemia
One of the reasons that Sherlock Holmes was so popular concerns the method he employs to solve his cases:
logic. Together with his partner, Dr. Watson, Holmes uses his powers of observation to detect clues that can help
him solve the cases he accepts. Holmes has an incredibly sharp mind that enables him to determine who the
guilty party is or what the problem is. Holmes also is a master of disguise, which he proves many times, and he is
skilled at boxing as well as sword fighting.
While Holmes often solves cases that are unrelated to one another, he has a nemesis with whom he comes
into both direct and indirect conflict in several stories. That person is Professor Moriarty, the leader of a crime
ring in London. In one of the stories, The Final Problem, Holmes and Moriarty fight one another and fall to their
deaths by plunging down a steep cliff near a waterfall. When he wrote that story, Doyle had tired of Holmes and
wanted to kill off the character. He then refrained from writing about Holmes for many years but public demand
for more detective stories induced him to bring Holmes back from the dead and to continue writing.
(Adapted from Reading Intermediate)
Question 44: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle: The Creator of Sherlock Holmes
B. The Most Famous Detectives in the World
C. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson
D. A Brief Biography of Sherlock Holmes
Question 45: The word “him” in paragraph 2 refers to ________
A. Sherlock Holmes B. criminal C. children D. populace
Question 46: In paragraph 4, the word “nemesis” is closest in meaning to ________
A. competitor B. rival C. peer D. partner
Question 47: According to the passage, which is NOT TRUE about Sherlock Holmes?
A. He was fluent in several foreign languages.
B. He often resorted to fighting during his investigations.
C. He relied upon logic to solve various mysteries.
D. He discouraged Dr. Watson to become more observant.
Question 48: In paragraph 4, the phrase “refrained from” is closest in meaning to ________
A. continued B. resumed C. postponed D. stopped
Question 49: What does the author imply about Professor Moriarty?
A. There is an unknown reason why he engaged in a life of crime.
B. Critics consider him to be the greatest literary villain in history,
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C. Sherlock Holmes and he are related to one another.
D. He fails to encounter Holmes in some stories he is involved in.
Question 50: Why did Doyle kill Sherlock Holmes in one of his stories?
A. He had no desire to write about Holmes anymore.
B. Killing Holmes would help Doyle increase his sales.
C. It was too difficult for him to come up with new storylines.
D. His fans demanded that Holmes be killed off.

ĐỀ ÔN SỐ 27
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. skin B. lip C. fire D. chill
Question 2: A. these B. think C. those D. there
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. festival B. buffalo C. appearance D. furniture
Question 4: A. advice B. bottle C. garbage D. sentence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is suitable in each of the following questions.
Question 5: He suggested that I should ______ some experience in a related industry like travel.
A. raise B. gain C. attain D. prepare
Question 6: She looks ______ than her friends.
A. more beautiful B. most beautiful C. beautiful D. as beautiful
Question 7: This kind of food ______ at Bob's house every night this week.
A. has been eaten B. is being eating C. has been eating D. has eating
Question 8: He will go to university on September next ______.
A. before he finished high school B. as soon as he finishes high school
C. while he was finishing high school D. after he had finished high school
Question 9: ______ firemen did well because of their preparation for catastrophic gas explosions.
A. Ø B. An C. A D. The
Question 10: Donald investments,previously ______ DI Financial, is hoping to increase its client base by
60% this year.
A. to name B. naming C. named D. name
Question 11: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will ______.
A. point out B. make up C. die out D. cut up
Question 12: I haven’t seen him since I ______ a student.
A. was B. am C. had been D. have been
Question 13: The new agreements will enhance the city’s ______ to overseas investors.
A. attractiveness B. attract C. attractive D. attractively
Question 14: Peter was born and brought up in Hastings and knows it like the ______.
A. nose on his face B. back of his hand C. tip of the tongue D. hair on his head
Question 15: Their students are studying pronunciation with Mr. Brown, ______?
A. haven’t they B. aren’t they C. didn’t they D. don’t they
Question 16: Don’t ______ to the conclusions, we don’t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. hurry B. leap C. rush D. run
Question 17: He thinks we’ve invited too many guests, but I say the more the ______ .
A. merrier B. happier C. greater D. nicer
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Question 18: We have arranged ______ overnight at my sister’s house.
A. stay B. to stay C. to staying D. staying
Question 19: I am ashamed ______ myself because I did something bad.
A. about B. at C. of D. with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 20: S.Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s
outstanding humanitarianism
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. widespread D. remarkable
Question 21: According to Freud, dreams can be interpretted as the fulfillment of wishes
A. performance B. completion C. attainment D. conclusion
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable employment.
A. steady B. temporary C. durable D. long-lasting
Question 23: I'm not an impulsive person; I don't generally do things on the spur of the moment.
A. intentionally B. attentively C. industriously D. quickly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
- Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
- Peter: “______. It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. You must be kidding B. I don’t think so
C. I couldn’t agree with you D. I absolutely agree with you
Question 25: Cindy’s car couldn’t start. Fortunately, James helped her repair the car. She thanked James for
his help.
- Cindy: “It was very kind of you to help repair my car, James?”
- James: “______”.
A. Thanks a million B. That was the least I could do
C. You can say that again. D. I’m glad you like it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
A scientist said robots will be more intelligent than humans by 2029. The scientist's name is Ray
Kurzweil. He works for Google as Director of Engineering. He is one of the world’s leading experts on (26)
______ intelligence (A.l). Mr Kurzweil believes computers will be able to learn from experiences, just like
humans. He also thinks they will be able to tell jokes and stories, and even flirt. Kurzweil‘s 2029 prediction is a
lot sooner than (27) ______ people thought. The scientist said that in 1999, many A.I. experts said it would be
hundreds of years before a computer was more intelligent than a human. He said that it would not be long before
computer inteligence is one billion times more powerful than the human brain.
Mr Kurzweil joked that many years ago; people thought he was a little crazy for predicting
computers would be as intelligent as humans. His thinking has stayed the same. (28) ______, everyone else has
changed the way they think. He said: “My views are not radical any more. I've actually stayed (29) ______. It's
the rest of the world that's changing its View.” He highlighted examples of high-tech things we use, see or read
about every day. These things make us believe that computers have intelligence. He said people think differently
now: "Because the public has seen things like Siri in (30 ______ you talk to a computer, they've seen the Google
self-driving cars."
(Source: https://breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 26. A. artificial B. false C. handmade D. fake
Question 27. A. one B. each C. much D. many
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Question 28. A. Therefore B. But C. However D. Because
Question 29. A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant
Question 30. A. where B. which C. whom D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
In the near term, the goal of keeping AI’s impact on society beneficial motivates research in many
areas, from economics and law to technical topics such as verification, validity, security and control. Whereas it
may be little more than a minor nuisance if your laptop crashes or gets hacked, it becomes all the more important
that an AI system does what you want it to do if it controls your car, your airplane, your pacemaker, your
automated trading system or your power grid. Another short-term challenge is preventing a devastating arms race
in lethal autonomous weapons.
In the long term, an important question is what will happen if the quest for strong AI succeeds and
an AI system becomes better than humans at all cognitive tasks. Such a system could potentially undergo
recursive self-improvement, triggering an intelligence explosion leaving human intellect far behind. By
inventing revolutionary new technologies, such superintelligence might help us eradicate war, disease, and
poverty, and so the creation of strong AI might be the biggest event in human history. Some experts have
expressed concern, though, that it might also be the last, unless we learn to align the goals of the AI with ours
before it becomes superintelligent.
There are some who question whether strong AI will ever be achieved, and others who insist that the
creation of superintelligent AI is guaranteed to be beneficial. At FLI we recognize both of these possibilities, but
also recognize the potential for an artificial intelligence system to intentionally or unintentionally cause great
harm. We believe research today will help us better prepare for and prevent such potentially negative
consequences in the future, thus enjoying the benefits of AI while avoiding pitfalls.
(Source: https://www.beyondteaching.com/)
Question 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Transcending complacency on superintelligent machines.
B. No time like the present for AI safety work.
C. The importance of researching AI safety.
D. Challenges to ensuring the safety of AI systems.
Question 32. According to paragraph 1, what is NOT mentioned as a potential benefit of AI?
A. Facilitating the identification system. B. Managing the electricity in homes.
C. Controlling vehicles and gadgets. D. Curing life-threatening diseases.
Question 33. The word “recursive” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. repeated C. impossible D. monotonous
Question 34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. event B. human C. history D. poverty
Question 35. According to paragraph 3, which information is incorrect about the future of AI?
A. We cannot deny the likelihood of AI turning on its creator – the human.
B. The emergence of superintelligence will yield valuable benefits for human.
C. One of the focus of AI system nowadays should be preparation and preventive measures.
D. The probability of malicious artificial intelligence is an unexpected zero.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest victims. While they
have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of COVID-19 - at least to date – the
crisis is having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being
affected, in particular by the socio-economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures that
may inadvertently do more harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the impact
will be lifelong. Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally. They are

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expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest neighborhoods, and
for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis: infection with the
virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop transmission of the virus and end the
pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of delayed implementation of the Sustainable Development
Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children could fall into
extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386 million children already in
extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed countrywide school closures, affecting more than 1.5
billion children and youth. The potential losses that may accrue in learning for today’s young generation, and
for the development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of countries have
introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the share is only 30
percent. Before this crisis, almost one third of the world’s young people were already digitally excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with heightened risk of children witnessing or
suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those living in unsanitary and crowded
conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at considerable risk. Children’s reliance on online
platforms for distance learning has also increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content and online
predators.
(Source: https://unsdg.un.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. The impact of COVID-19 on children
B. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
C. Protecting children from COVID-19
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 37: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to .
A. measures B. children C. countries D. harmful effects
Question 38: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. programs B. steps C. ways D. factors
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year.
B. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the pandemic
C. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the pandemic.
D. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful to children.
Question 40: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means .
A. recover B. solve C. prove D. understand
Question 41: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the pandemic .
A. most children don’t want to learn online.
B. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. children have more risks than adults.
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on children,
EXCEPT_______.
A. risks for child safety B. falling into poverty
C. exacerbating the learning crisis D. threats to child survival and health
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: I was seeing him with a little blond girl at lunch yesterday.
A B C D
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Question 44: It will require collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet
A B
C D
Question 45: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: She has not been taken to the zoo for a long time.
A. They did not take her to the zoo a long time before.
B. After a long time she has not taken to the zoo.
C. The last time she was taken to the zoo was a long time ago.
D. She has been taken to the zoo a long time ago.
Question 47: “My mother hasn’t played any sport since last year” Ly told
A. Ly told her mother hadn’t played any sport since the previous year.
B. Ly told her mother hasn’t played any sport since the following year.
C. Ly told my mother hadn’t played any sport since the previous year.
D. Ly told her mother hadn’t played any sport since the following year
Question 48: I’m sure James won’t be seeing the boss tomorrow.
A. James needn’t be seeing the boss tomorrow
B. James should be seeing the boss tomorrow.
C. James might be seeing the boss tomorrow.
D. James can’t be seeing the boss tomorrow.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49: I took part in the Blood Donation Day. Jenny encouraged me to do it.
A. But for taking part in the Blood Donation Day, Jenny wouldn't have encouraged me.
B. I would be ready to take part in the Blood Donation Day if Jenny encouraged me to do it.
C. Provided Jenny hadn't encouraged me, I wouldn't take part in the Blood Donation Day.
D. Without Jenny's encouragement, I wouldn't have taken part in the Blood Donation Day.
Question 50: Teachers' digital skills are enhanced. Students find online lessons more interesting now.
A. At no time do students find online lessons interesting because of teachers' digital skills.
B. Not until students find online lessons more interesting are teacher's digital skills enhanced.
C. Never have students found online lessons so interesting as they are now thanks to teachers' digital skills.
D. In no way do students find online lessons more interesting despite teachers' digital skill enhancement.

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