Polity Questions From M.

Laxmikanth

UPSC CSE Prelims 2019

1. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during
the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

2. Consider the following statements:

(1) The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an
article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review
(2) Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the
Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the
judiciary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India

cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what
Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of
the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the
Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for
voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of
the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership
of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of
that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

4. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to

marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
5. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or
limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article
142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while
discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its
powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of
India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the
Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the
concurrence of the Union Legislature.

6. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India,

consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the

House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular
matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following
statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law
to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into
question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept
as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
 UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions

2. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights

incorporated against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality

3. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice
4. A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government

5. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to

which of the following type of citizens?

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000

2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income
of less than ₹ 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

6. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by
it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by
it before completion of a fixed term
7. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare
State?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule

8. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of

federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard
the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the
Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. In the context of India, which one of the following is the

characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
10. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other
part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of
other parts

11. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the

Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of
laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
12. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to

vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if
he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person
convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for
five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election
even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at

such a place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the
Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three
sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is
required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
 UPSC CSE Prelims 2021
1. Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare
2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right
3. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January,
1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
4. Constitutional government means
(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
5. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative
authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the
matter of the application of law violates which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
6. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that
indicates that it is federal in character?
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent
units
(c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional
parties
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
7. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to
sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of
India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as
the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under
any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
9. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of
liberty in a liberal democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers
10. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model,
but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign
but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment
of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by
the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution
of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
 UPSC CSE Prelims 2022
1.Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation

of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President
of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her
assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no
provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz.
Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge,
Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including
the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total
number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

4. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following

statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any

political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the
presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the

only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in
the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of
India submits his resignation when the Government which
appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6.With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the
following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is

entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a
Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to
obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok

Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date
as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal
opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when
presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against
his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the
appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the
Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

8. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the

Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best
reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal
people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category
State.
 UPSC CSE Prelims 2023
1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

2. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief

purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

3. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was

widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations
of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment

4. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India :

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
5. Consider the following statements :

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the

Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the
performance of duties of his/her office of President before the
date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on
the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved
and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution
prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her
assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

6. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian

Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it
can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it
cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make
recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting
becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
7. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following
statements :

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes

place though an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the
District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers Of the concerned States are required to submit
annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration
of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

8. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :

Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November

every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of
India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above

statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is

the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is
not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
UPSC CSE Prelims 2024
 Polity Questions Outside M. Laxmikanth

UPSC CSE Prelims 2019

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts

several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining
PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
3. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an
eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure
without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics
in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
(2000)
 UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
1. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are
correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical

infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST
populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused
funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under
implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

2. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other
documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic
Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because
this is mandated by
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act,
2003
3. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of
the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

UPSC CSE Prelims 2021

1. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and
Padma Awards.
(a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of
the Constitution of India.
(b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were
suspended only once.
(C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of
five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned
magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not
allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to
such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure
effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
5. Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory
independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an
authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural
rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a
very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an
executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

6. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following

statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a
secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative
reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the
recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and
this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in
one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok
Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha
election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of
bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of
him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

UPSC CSE Prelims 2022

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of

Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High
Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal
Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on
Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates,

but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from
recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal
education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC CSE Prelims 2023

1. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Govemments with their own
rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which
expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

2. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements .that the
reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would
be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency
of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

3. Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty

to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to
a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the
accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

4. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of

India :
 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the
Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the
Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of
each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of
Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of
Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of
elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

5. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of
the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the
police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas,
the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in
some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

6. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action: The Act under which it is covered

1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official

Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer
or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of
others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

7. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of

India, according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I : One of the standard size of the National Flag of India is

600 mm x 400 mm . .
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag
shall be 3 : 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above

statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is

the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is
not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
UPSC CSE Prelims 2024