REET Pre लेवल 2 PreviousYear पेपर 2011 to 2023
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a1997khanamREET Pre लेवल 2 PreviousYear पेपर 2011 to 2023
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•••• •••••• •••••
•••• •••••• •••••
Question Booklet No. Series Code /grarµO H$moS> :
PAPER CODE
1. Roll No. /
PL-2 (SHIFT-2)
A Write this code in OMR Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a|
2. OMR Sheet No./ Amo.E‘.Ama. erQ> H«$‘m§H$
&
* 3. Candidate’s name / * 4. Candidate’s Signature / narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form / O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V {H$¶m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature / (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet
H«$‘m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© narjmWu Ûmam ñd¶§ H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m ‘| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four
Sections : Section-I, II & III of 30-30 questions each and Section-IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all
sections. Each question is of one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.
Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR>> ~hþM¶ZmË‘H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| ‘| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & à˶oH$
IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III 30-30 àíZm| H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {bE Z¡Jo{Q>d ‘m{Hª$J Zht hmoJr &
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-2)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Section Contents Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 9
(II) Language-I (Only One Language) 30 31 60
As selected by the candidate as medium of
•••• ••••••
instruction in the Online •••••Form as
Application
Language-I from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 10 13
PL-2/Sh-2
English 30 31 60 14 16
Sanskrit 30 31 60 17 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 36
(III) Language-II (Only One Language) 30 61 90
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other
than the Language-I) in the Online Application
Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 37 40
English 30 61 90 41 43
Sanskrit 30 61 90 44 47
Urdu 30 61 90 48 52
Sindhi 30 61 90 53 56
Punjabi 30 61 90 57 60
Gujarati 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science 60 91 150 65 78
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies 60 91 150 79 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1.In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and
Language-II in the Online Application Form.
2.In Sections-IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected
subject in Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table & Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English & Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this booklet.
PL-2 A
A (2) PL-2
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-2)
Hw$c àíZ : 150 g‘¶md{Y … 2 K§Q>o 30 {‘ZQ> nyUmªH$ : 150
Hw$b àíZ àíZ g§»¶m n¥îR g§»¶m
IÊS> {df¶-gm‘J«r g§»¶m go VH$ go VH$
(I) 30 1 30 3 9
(II) ^mfm-I (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm) 30 31 60
narjmWu Ûmam M¶{ZV AZwXoeZ H$m ‘mܶ‘ H$s ^mfm
Omo {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go ^mfm-I Ho$ ê$n ‘|
Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V H$s h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 31 60 10 13
A§J«oOr 30 31 60 14 16
•••• •••••• ••••• g§ ñH¥$V 30 31 60 17 20
CXÿ© 30 31 60 21 24
{gÝYr 30 31 60 25 28
PL-2/Sh-2
n§Om~r 30 31 60 29 32
JwOamVr 30 31 60 33 36
(III) ^mfm -II ( Ho $ db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 61 90
narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm-II
Omo ^mfm-I go {^ÝZ hmoJr VWm {OgH$m M¶Z {ZåZ{cpIV
^mfmAm| ‘| go {H$¶m J¶m h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 61 90 37 40
A§J«oOr 30 61 90 41 43
g§ñH¥$V 30 61 90 44 47
CXÿ© 30 61 90 48 52
{gÝYr 30 61 90 53 56
n§Om~r 30 61 90 57 60
JwOamVr 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) J{UV VWm {dkmZ 60 91 150 65 78
(J{UV VWm {dkmZ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
(IV b) gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z 60 91 150 79 90
(gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
{H$gr Aݶ Xÿgao {df¶ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE
(IV a AWdm IV b MwZ gH$Vo h¢)
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{H$¶m h¡ Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¢ &
(2) IÊS> -IV ‘| narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| IÊS> (IV a) ¶m IÊS> (IV b) Ho$ {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z {H$¶m J¶m h¡
Cgr {df¶ H$m àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ &
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PL-2 (3) A
SECTION – I
–I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
30
1. Which dimension of development is influenced by the theories of Noam Chomsky ?
(A) Language development (B) Moral development
(C) Emotional development (D) Cognitive development
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. Individual differences in temperament are basically _____.
(A) Learned (B) Innate
(C) Acquired (D) Cultural
____
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
3. Who has NOT propounded any theory of personality ?
(A) B.F. Skinner (B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Gordon Allport (D) Ramond B. Cattell
?
(A) . . (B)
(C) (D) .
4. Which test was created by Henry A. Murray and Christiana D. Morgan ?
(A) Sentence Completion Test (B) Sixteen Personality Factors
(C) Thematic Apperception Test (D) Picture Frustration Test
. . ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. Which factor is NOT related to growth of a child ?
(A) Nutrition (B) Health
(C) Sleep (D) Domicile
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (4) PL-2
6. Which test is culture-free Non-verbal test of Intelligence ?
(A) Group test of Intelligence (B) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale
(C) Bhatia Battery (D) Standard Progressive Matrices
- - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
7. Which intelligence is NOT included in Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences ?
(A) Intrapersonal (B) Naturalistic
(C) Emotional (D) Existential
?
(A) : (B)
(C) (D)
8. Creativity is associated with which kind of thinking ?
(A) Overthinking (B) Meta thinking
(C) Reflective thinking (D) Divergent thinking
?
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B) -
(C) (D)
9. The term mental retardation is replaced with which term ?
(A) Intellectual disability (B) Mental weakness
(C) Intellectual backwardness (D) Intellectual disadvantage
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10. Which of the following is NOT true for the theoretical concept of personality ?
(A) Stable (B) Normal
(C) Enduring (D) Unique
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (5) A
11. Learning disability related to reading is termed as _____.
(A) Dyscalculia (B) Dyslexia
(C) Dysgraphia (D) Dysthymia
____
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. Children who are deprived of minimum basic facilities are classified as _____.
(A) Delinquent children (B) Special children
(C) Disadvantaged children (D) Backward children
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. Which of the following is a behavioural symptom of maladjustment ?
(A) Aggression (B) Anxiety
(C) Insecurity (D) Apathy
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. Which method is NOT directly related to children with special needs ?
(A) Diversity of curriculum
(B) Development of sports and extra curricular activities
(C) Different teaching methods
(D) Training for special activities
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Sh-2
A (6) PL-2
15. Classical conditioning theory propounded by Ivan Pavlov explains learning by _____.
(A) reinforcement (B) association
(C) imitation (D) insight
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. Which of the following is NOT a process of learning for children ?
(A) Reflection (B) Argument
(C) Maturity (D) Imagination
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. The concept of reward and punishment in learning is introduced by whom ?
(A) E.L. Thorndike (B) Kohler & Koffka
(C) B.F. Skinner (D) Albert Bandura
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) . . (B)
(C) . . (D)
18. Which statement is NOT true for the concept of learning ?
(A) Learning is the change in behaviour.
(B) There is a relatively permanent difference.
(C) Learning is influenced by practice.
(D) Learning is an innate mechanism.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (7) A
19. Concept Mapping in Education was introduced by whom ?
(A) Carl Jung (B) Martin E. Seligman
(C) Noam J. Chomsky (D) Joseph D. Novak
?
(A) (B) .
(C) . (D) .
20. Which type of teaching is NOT based upon objectives of teaching ?
(A) Cognitive teaching (B) Descriptive teaching
(C) Affective teaching (D) Psychomotor teaching
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
21. A group creativity method for solving specific problem by gathering a list of ideas
spontaneously is known
••••as••••••
- •••••
(A) Brain storming strategy (B) Mastery learning strategy
(C) Problem solving strategy (D) Heuristic strategy
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
22. Which process is NOT directly related to role of motivation in classroom learning ?
(A) Knowledge of progress and result (B) Interpersonal adjustment
(C) Praise and criticism (D) Level of aspiration
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (8) PL-2
23. Which is the main philosophy of National Curriculum Framework – 2005 ?
(A) Learning vocational skills (B) Learning without burden
(C) Learning co-curricular activities (D) Continuous and overall evaluation
-2005 ?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
24. Which statement is NOT true for Right to Education Act – 2009 ?
(A) Free and compulsory education for every child between 6 to 14 years.
(B) Provision of School Management Committee.
(C) Constitution of National Commission for Elementary Education.
(D) Minimum 60 hours of work per week for a teacher.
-2009 ?
(A) : :
(B)
(C)
(D) •••• •••••• •••••60
25. Who has NOT contributed to the development of Action Research in Education ?
(A) Kurt Lewin (B) B.R. Buckinghum
(C) Stephen M. Covey (D) Stephen M. Corey
?
(A) (B) . .
(C) . (D) .
26. Which level of measurement is least used in educational psychology ?
(A) Ordinal scale (B) Nominal scale
(C) Ratio scale (D) Equal interval scale
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (9) A
27. Which of the following psychologists is NOT related to theories of child development ?
(A) Jean Piaget (B) Abraham Maslow
(C) Albert Bandura (D) Lev Vygotsky
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
28. Which method is NOT valid to study the role of heredity ?
(A) Twin study (B) Parent-Child analysis
(C) Adoption study (D) Peer group study
?
(A) (B) -
(C) - (D)
29. The observable physical and psychological characteristics of an individual is termed as
_____.
(A) Prototype •••• •••••• ••••• (B) Karyotype
(C) Phenotype (D) Genotype
____
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
30. According to which perspective, child development reflects a specific and prearranged
scheme within the body ?
(A) Environmental (B) Social
(C) Biological (D) Psychological
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (10) PL-2
– II
–I
30
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (A) (B) (D)
32. ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. ‘ - ’
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
35.
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
36. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (11) A
39. - - –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (A) (B) (D)
42. –
(A) , :
(B)
(C) – ,
(D)
43. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. :
(A) ( )
(B) •••• •••••• •••••
(C)
(D) ,
45 54 :
: ,
,
,
,
,
,
:
, , ,
,
- ,
“ , ”
, ‘ ’
Sh-2
A (12) PL-2
45. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. ‘ ’ –
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
51. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘ ’ ?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
53. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (13) A
55 60 :
, ,
, , , :
‘ ’ ,
-
- , , -
, - , , ,
‘ ’
,
55. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
57. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (14) PL-2
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Words that are understood and constantly used form
(A) limited vocabulary (B) active vocabulary
(C) passive vocabulary (D) constant vocabulary
32. Dr. West’s comprehension test was
(A) non-linguistic (B) linguistic
(C) comprehensive (D) structural
33. Variables can be interchanged in
(A) Simple substitution (B) Compound substitution
(C) Grammar (D) Phrases
34. ‘New words at early stages should refer to objects and actions which can be shown and
demonstrated in the classroom’ is a precaution of
(A) Structural Approach (B) Situational Approach
(C) Bilingual Method (D) Direct Method
35. The exercise of listening skill is
(A) Sports commentary on a radio (B) Advertisement board
(C) Pamphlet (D) Poster
•••• •••••• •••••
36. Which one of the following is a measure to improve bad handwriting ?
(A) Use of ball pens (B) Wrong habits
(C) Proper posture (D) Writing carelessly
37. _____ is not a technical characteristics of a text book.
(A) Proper spacing and margins (B) Good quality white paper
(C) Lengthy texts (D) Readable size of the letters
38. ‘Blackboard’ is the _____ aids for teaching.
(A) technical (B) cheapest
(C) modern (D) physical
39. Audio-Visual aids save
(A) money (B) interest
(C) effort (D) verbal input
40. Students improve their critical thinking in
(A) peer assessment (B) portfolio
(C) cloze test (D) writing tests
41. CCE is _____ carried out in classroom.
(A) strictly (B) formally
(C) informally (D) timely
Sh-2
PL-2 (15) A
42. CCE is not successful in
(A) private schools (B) crowded classrooms
(C) small classrooms (D) government schools
43. For a good test in English
(A) language must be lucid and clear (B) the text-books must not be used
(C) the questions must be complex (D) the questions must be simple
44. ‘Matching Test’ is an example of
(A) Short answer type (B) Long answer type
(C) Essay type (D) Objective type
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 45 to 49) that follow :
A marriage as early as that was the last thing on her mind. She threatened her parents
that she would never marry if she did not get a proper education. She left home and got
herself enrolled in a school in Delhi. When her parents refused to pay for her education, she
politely informed them of her plans to earn money by working part-time to pay her school
fees. Her parents then agreed to pay for her education.
45. The synonym of ‘refused’ is
(A) granted (B) denied
(C) permitted (D) allowed
46. The antonym of ‘politely’ is
(A) courteously (B) humbly
(C) rashly (D) angry
•••• •••••• •••••
47. The correct spelling is
(A) acadimision (B) academician
(C) acedamician (D) academision
48. The verb form of ‘enrolled’ is
(A) enrol (B) enroll
(C) enrollment (D) enrolment
49. ‘Part-time’ stands for
(A) working less than standard hours (B) working in parts
(C) working in obligation (D) working for no remuneration
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 50 to 54) that follow :
Friends had conjectured that the bear would not recognise her. I had thought so too.
But while she was yet some yards away from his cage, Baba saw her and recognised her.
He howled with happiness. She ran up to him and petted him through the bars, and he stood
on his head in delight.
50. ‘He howled with happiness.’ The underlined verb is in _____ tense.
(A) Present Simple (B) Present Perfect
(C) Past Simple (D) Past Perfect
Sh-2
A (16) PL-2
51. She ran up to him and petted him through the bars. The underlined word is –
(A) interjection (B) conjunction
(C) adverb (D) preposition
52. Choose the conjunction :
(A) her (B) within
(C) the (D) but
53. The determiner is
(A) and (B) had
(C) the (D) up
54. Choose the correct comparative degree of ‘happy’
(A) happier (B) happiest
(C) more happy (D) most happy
55. Choose the right question for
She sold all the articles for no profit.
(A) Did she sell all the articles for no profit ?
(B) Did she sold all the articles for no profit ?
(C) Does she sell all the articles for no profit ?
(D) Do she sells all the articles for no profit ?
56. Choose the active voice of
•••• ••••••
Saina had been supported by her•••••
maternal aunt.
(A) Saina supported her maternal aunt.
(B) Saina’s maternal aunt supported Saina.
(C) Saina’s maternal aunt had supported Saina.
(D) Saina’s maternal aunt had been supported by Saina.
57. The saint chanted, “God is great.” The indirect speech of this sentence is
(A) The saint said that God is great. (B) The saint told that God was great.
(C) The saint said why God is great. (D) The saint said whether God is great.
58. The word for the phonetic transcription / I'mi:dIǝtli / is
(A) emidiately (B) immediately
(C) imitate (D) immediate
59. The number of vowel sounds is
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 20 (D) 24
60. ‘The knowledge can be stored in mind permanently.’ This principle is termed as
(A) Aptitude (B) Gradation
(C) Concreteness (D) Selection
Sh-2
PL-2 (17) A
– II
–I
31. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘ : ’
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
33. :
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D) :
34. ___________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) : (D)
37. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (18) PL-2
38. : :?
(A) : (B)
(C) : (D) - :
39. : : ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. : –
(A) : (B) : :
(C) : : (D) :
41. : –
(A) (B)
(C) : (D)
42. : –
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
43. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(45-49) –
: : : : :
:
: : : : :
:
Sh-2
PL-2 (19) A
45. “ ” :?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. “ :” - : :
(A) + : (B) + :
(C) + : (D) + :
47. “ ” : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
48. “ :” : :?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. “ :” : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) : •••• •••••• ••••• (D) :
: : (50-54) :–
:
: :
: , ,
-
50. “ ” :?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (20) PL-2
52. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ‘ ’ : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
55. : –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. “ :” ?
(A) 85 (B) 96
(C) 78 (D) 65
•••• •••••• •••••
57. ‘ ’ ?
(A) : (B)
(C) (D)
58. : : :?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. : –
(A) (B) :
(C) : (D) :
60. “ ” –
(A) : :
(B) :
(C) :
(D) :
Sh-2
PL-2 (21) A
II
I
(30)
.31
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.32
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
.33
(D) (C) (B) (A)
____ .34
(D) (C) (B) (A)
•••• •••••• •••••
.35
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.36
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.37
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.38
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
PL-2 (22) A
.39
(D) (C) (B)
(A)
.40
(D)
(C) (B) (A)
.41
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.42
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.43
••••
••••••
(B) ••••• (A)
(D) (C)
.44
(D)
1960 1965 (C) 1963 (B) (A)
1964
49 45
.45
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (23) A
.46
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.47
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(D)
(C) (B) (A)
.50
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.51
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.52
•••• •••••• •••••
(D) (C) (B) (A)
57 53
.53
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (24) A
.54
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.55
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.56
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.57
(D) (C) (B)
(A)
•••• •••••• •••••
.58
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.59
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.60
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PL-2 (25) A
– II
–I
30
31. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ______
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
( 35 39) :
,
, , ?
“ ,
”
Sh-2
A (26) PL-2
35. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. ?
(?)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. –
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (27) A
( 45 49) :
“
,
, ?
?
, ?
, ?” ? !
”
45. “ ”
, –
(A) (B) ,
(C) (D)
46. _______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
48. ‘ ’
______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. –
(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Sh-2
A (28) PL-2
51. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. – •••••• •••••
••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. (!) –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ( ) –
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
60. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (29) A
– II
– I
30
31. , , ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. ,
•••• •••••• •••••
’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37. :
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
Sh-2
A (30) PL-2
38. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. , ‘ ’ :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) , ,
40. ‘ ’ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
(A)
•••• •••••• •••••
(B)
(C)
(D)
43.
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. , :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(45-50) 45 50 :
,
’
’
’
Sh-2
PL-2 (31) A
45. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. ‘
’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. ‘’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
50. ‘’ :
(A) , (B) -,
(C) , (D) ,
(51-54) 51 54 :
51. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (32) PL-2
53. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ‘
’ – :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘ , ’
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56. ‘ ’
:
(A) (B) ’
(C)
•••• •••••• ••••• (D)
57. ‘ ’ – :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ?
(A) 14 + 10 (B) 16 + 12
(C) 14 + 8 (D) 14 + 12
Sh-2
PL-2 (33) A
– II
– I
30 .
.
31. ?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D) -
32. ?
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D) -
33. ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. •••• ••••••
••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (34) PL-2
39. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
40. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. ?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
42. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. ?
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
45 47
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. ,
. ,
, .
? ,
.
45. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (35) A
46. - ? .
(A) , , ,
(B) ,
(C) , ,
(D) , ,
47. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48 49 :
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.
? ,
.
: ,
.
48. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
49. : ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) : .
50. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (36) PL-2
51. “” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. “ , .” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. ‘ ’ .
(A) .
(B) ••••
••••••
•••••
.
(C) .
(D) .
57. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. “ ” ?
(A) . (B)
(C) . (D) .
59. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (37) A
– III
– II
30
61 65 :
,
,
, ,
,
,
,
- ,
- ,
- - ,
,
,
••••
, •••••• •••••
61. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63. ?
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) , ,
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (38) PL-2
65. : –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
68. ‘ ’
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69. :
(A) ! (B) ,
(C) ; (D)
70. ‘ ’ :
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
71. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 4 8
Sh-2
PL-2 (39) A
75. -
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
76. ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
?
(A) (B)
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78. “ ,
” ?
(A) (B) . .
(C) (D)
79. ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
81 90
: - -
- , - - :
-
, : ;
:
: - -
, ,
- , - , ,
,
, , -
, - ;
Sh-2
A (40) PL-2
81. - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ - –
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
83. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
86. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ?
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) : , ,
90. “ - ” ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (41) A
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
Choose the correct Modal Auxiliaries to fill the blanks for Q. Nos. 61 & 62 :
61. I _____ swim across the river when I was young. (ability)
(A) can (B) may
(C) could (D) might
62. I thought he _____ be at home. (possibility)
(A) might (B) may
(C) can (D) will
63. Prohibition is ‘gall and wormwood’ to distiller.
Here ‘gall and wormwood’ means :
(A) helpful (B) hateful
(C) hopeful (D) wonderful
64. He ‘stood his ground’ against adversary.
Here ‘stood his ground’ means :
(A) stand still (B) did not fall
(C) maintained his position (D) maintained his game
65. Petrarchan Sonnet is also known as :
(A) English Sonnent (B) Italian Sonnet
(C) French Sonnet (D) Shakespearean Sonnet
66.
•••• •••••• •••••
Plosives consonants are :
(A) | p, b, t, d | (B) | t , ʤ |
(C) | m, n, ŋ| (D) | f, v, , ǝ |
67. Which is palatal consonant ?
(A) | h | (B) | |
(C) | j | (D) | l |
68. The phonetic symbol for underlined letter in the word ‘tile’ is :
(A) | eI | (B) | ɔI |
(C) | AI | (D) | aI |
69. Phonetic transcription for the word ‘hang’ is :
(A) | heing | (B) | hӕŋ |
(C) | heng | (D) | hǝIŋ |
70. Phonetic transcription for the word ‘jester’ is :
(A) | ʤestǝ(r) | (B) | jestǝ(r) |
(C) | ʤeIstǝ(r) | (D) | je|stǝ(r) |
71. Which one of these is not related to passive vocabulary ?
(A) words are recognized.
(B) words are understood.
(C) words are often used in speaking and writing.
(D) words are never used in speaking and writing.
Sh-2
A (42) PL-2
72. Motivation is a process of :
(A) arousing interest (B) maintaining interest
(C) controlling interest (D) all of these
73. Communicative approach to English teaching means :
(A) Informal approach (B) Group competence
(C) Communicative competence (D) Communicative appearance
74. How many components are essential in the process of communication ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5
75. The communicative approach in teaching of English has been practiced and developed in :
(A) India and England (B) Indonesia and Japan
(C) England and America (D) China and Japan
76. Multilingualism in classroom can be used to : (Choose the irrelevant option)
(A) teach all subjects
(B) teach about diverse cultural groups
(C) teach only languages
(D) teach the lesson of equality between cultures
77. Which one of these is not a part of remedial teaching ?
(A) Teaching afresh what has not been taught earlier.
(B) Teaching afresh what has been taught earlier.
(C) Suspending the part of learning the new items.
(D) Preference to reinforced practice of forgotten parts introduced earlier.
78. Which one of these is••••
not•••••• ••••• of teaching English ?
a challenge
(A) Determining the goal of language teaching.
(B) Several methods in language teaching.
(C) Large class size.
(D) None
79. Written Tests and Examinations are not meant to test :
(A) Vocabulary (B) Translation
(C) Pronunciation (D) Composition
80. The concept of evaluation was introduced by :
(A) Dr. West (B) B.S. Bloom
(C) Thompson (D) Wyatt
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 81-85 :
“Wind energy” is derived through a process where wind is used to generate mechanical
power or electricity. Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy in the wind into mechanical
power, which can be used for specific tasks (such as grinding grain or pumping water). A
generator converts this mechanical power into electricity.
81. ‘_____’ may be an appropriate title for the given extract.
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Electricity
(C) Generator (D) Wind energy
Sh-2
PL-2 (43) A
Fill in the blanks with appropriate linking devices which are given below : (for Q. Nos. 82-83)
82. Wind is used to generate _____ mechanical power _____ electricity. (According to the
passage)
(A) either – or (B) but – also
(C) neither – nor (D) so – as
83. _____ Turbines _____ generators are used to convert energy. (According to the passage)
(A) neither – nor (B) both – and
(C) but – also (D) as – as
84. A generator with turbines _____ mechanical power into electricity.
Choose appropriate verb to fill the blank :
(A) convert (B) have converted
(C) converts (D) are converting
85. Mechanical energy and electric energy _____ the different forms of energy.
Choose the correct option to fill the blank :
(A) are (B) is
(C) have been (D) was
Read the following stanza and answer the questions : (Q. Nos. 86-87)
What this life if full of care
We have no time to stand and stare ?
No time to stand beneath the boughs.
And stare as long as sheep or cows.
86. •••• ••••••
Choose the correct rhyme scheme•••••
in the above stanza :
(A) a b c d (B) a b b a
(C) a a b b (D) b a b a
87. Which literary device is used in the second and third lines of the stanza ?
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Metaphor (D) Personification
88. In Saxon strength that abbey frowned.
Which figure of speech is used in the above line ?
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Epigram
89. I must confess that it my quest, I felt depressed and restless.
Which figure of speech is used in the above line ?
(A) Personification (B) Assonance
(C) Metaphor (D) Epithet
90. Thy soul was like a star, and dwelt apart.
Choose the correct option of the figure of speech which is used in the above line :
(A) Personification (B) Metaphor
(C) Pun (D) Simile
Sh-2
A (44) PL-2
– III
– II
61. “73” –
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
62. “6:10” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. - : –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. “ •••• ••••••
” ••••• –
(A) (B) :
(C) (D)
65. “ ”
–
(A) :
(B) :
(C) : : :
(D) :
66. “ ” –
(A) (B) :
(C) (D) :
67. “ : ” –
(A) (B)
(C) : (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (45) A
68. “ : ” –
(A) (B) :
(C) (D)
69. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. “ ......... ” : –
(A) (B)
(C) : (D)
71. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. “ , ” –
(A) : (B) :
(C) : •••• •••••• ••••• (D) :
73. - –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. - : :–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. , : - : : –
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
Sh-2
A (46) PL-2
77. –
(A) -
(B) -
(C) -
(D) -
78. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. : : : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
80. –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
•••• •••••• •••••
(81-85) -
: : : :
: : :
:
81. “ ” : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) : (D) :
82. “ ” : :–
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
83. “ ” :?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (47) A
84. ‘ ’ : –
(A) (B) ,
(C) (D)
85. “ : : ” –
(A) : (B)
(C) (D) :
: (86 –90) : :–
: :,
:
:
86. “ :” : :?
(A) : (B) :
(C) (D) :
•••• •••••• •••••
87. “ :” : –
(A) : (B) - :
(C) - : (D) - :
88. - : ?
(A) : (B)
(C) (D) :
89. “ :” –
(A) (B) :
(C) (D)
90. “ :” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (48) A
III
II
(30)
.61
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D)
•••• ••••••(C)
••••• (B)
(A)
.64
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.65
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.66
(D) (C) (B) (A)
____ .67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (49) A
.68
+ (B) + (A)
+ (D) + (C)
.69
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.70
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
•••• •••••• •••••
.71
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.72
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (50) A
.74
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Plan) .75
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.76
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.77
•••• (B)
•••••• ••••• (A)
(D) (C)
.78
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.79
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.80
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (51) A
85 81
.81
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
•••• •••••• •••••
.82
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.83
(D)
(C) (B) (A)
.84
(D) (C)
(B)
(A)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (52) A
90 86
.86
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.87
(B)
•••• •••••• ••••• (A)
(D) (C)
.88
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (53) A
– III
– II
30
61. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. “ ,
”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
65. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
: (66 70)
,
!
, ,
!
,
, !
‘ ’ , ,
, !
66. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (54) PL-2
67. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. 1853 ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. –
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
73. _____
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. ‘ , ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (55) A
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
79. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) •••• •••••• •••••
( 81 85) :
, “ ”
, ,
-
Sh-2
A (56) PL-2
81. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. _______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. (i)
(ii)
(A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) •••• •••••• ••••• (D) (i) (ii)
86. ‘’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. “ ______ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (57) A
– III
– II
30
61. ‘ , ’ :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62. ?
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
63. ____ ( )
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. :
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
65. ‘ ! ’
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ____ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ____ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (58) PL-2
70. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. , ,
:
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
73. , , , , , ____ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. :
(A)
(B) ,
(C) •••••••••• •••••
(D) ,
75. :
“
, ”
(A) (B)
(C) (D) ..
76. ‘ ’ ;
, , , –
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (59) A
78. :
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
79. , ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
80. -
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(81-85) 81 85 :
;
, , , -
•••• ••••••
•••••
,
81. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘’ - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (60) PL-2
84. ‘’ :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
85. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(86-90) - 86 90 :-
,
,
,
,
86. - ••••
: •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. - - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ‘ ’ ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (61) A
– III
– II
30 .
.
61. ‘ .’ ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
62. ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. , ?
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
65. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. ?
(A) .
(B) “ ” .
(C) .
(D) .
Sh-2
A (62) PL-2
69. , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. ?
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
72. - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. ?
(A) . (B) - .
(C) . (D) .
74. ‘ ’
.
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (63) A
79. ?
(A)
, (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
80. .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81 83
. , “
, .”
‘Unto The Last’ .
. ,
••••
••••••
••••• .
.
81. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. “ .” ‘’ .
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
83. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (64) PL-2
84 85
,
,
, .
, , ,
.
,
.
84. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
86. ‘ , ‘ ?’ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ .’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ‘ ?’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (65) A
SECTION-IV / – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and
IV(b) Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social
Studies as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
IV(a) IV(b)
60
IV(a) IV(b) , -
, 60
SECTION-IV(a) / – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
60 •••• •••••• •••••
91. The factor of {x4 – (x – y)4} is :
(A) y(2x – y) (2x2 – 2xy + y2) (B) y(2x + y) (2x2 + 2xy + y2)
(C) x(2x – y) (2x2 – 2xy – y2) (D) x(2x + y) (2x2 + 2xy + y2)
{x4 – (x – y)4} :
(A) y(2x – y) (2x2 – 2xy + y2) (B) y(2x + y) (2x2 + 2xy + y2)
(C) x(2x – y) (2x2 – 2xy – y2) (D) x(2x + y) (2x2 + 2xy + y2)
92. The sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of
those numbers is :
(A) 44 (B) 80
(C) 36 (D) 40
22 404 , :
(A) 44 (B) 80
(C) 36 (D) 40
Sh-2
A (66) PL-2
93. The sum of the digits of the minimum number by which 1800 is multiplied to get a perfect
cube number is :
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
1800 ,
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
41 1
94. If a sum of money becomes 40 of itself in 4 year at a particular rate of simple interest, then
the annual rate of interest is :
(A) 5% (B) 7.5%
(C) 10% (D) 2%
1 41
4 40 , :
(A) 5% (B) 7.5%
(C) 10% (D) 2%
95. In how many year(s) will ` 2,000 become ` 2,420 at 10% per annum compound interest ?
(A) 2 years •••• •••••• ••••• (B) 1 year
(C) 3 years (D) 2½ years
10% ` 2,000 ` 2,420 ?
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 2½
96. If the selling price of 7 articles is equal to the cost price of 6 articles, then what is the
percentage loss ?
9 2
(A) 7 13 % (B) 14 7 %
1
(C) 13 7 % (D) None of these
7 ,6 , ?
9 2
(A) 7 13 % (B) 14 7 %
1
(C) 13 7 % (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (67) A
97. A bag contains ` 20, ` 10, ` 5 notes in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. If the bag contains ` 1,000 in
total, then the number of ` 5 notes is :
(A) 32 (B) 25
(C) 24 (D) 40
` 20, ` 10, ` 5 3:4:5 ` 1,000 , ` 5
:
(A) 32 (B) 25
(C) 24 (D) 40
98. If the sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 55 and the value of the
3
fraction is 8, then the fraction is :
20 10
(A) 35 (B) 15
5
(C) 50 (D) None of these
3
55 8 ,
20 10
(A) 35 (B) 15
5
(C) 50 •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
99. If a transversal intersects two parallel lines, then each pair of corresponding angles is :
(A) Half (B) Double
(C) Equal (D) None of these
, :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
100. The longest side in a right-angled triangle is called :
(A) Hypotenuse (B) Perpendicular
(C) Base (D) All of these
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (68) PL-2
101. If in the given figure PS||QR, then the value of QPS is :
(A) 36 (B) 90
(C) 54 (D) 100
PS||QR , QPS :
(A) 36 (B) 90
(C) 54 (D) 100
•••• •••••• •••••
102. The sum of all the interior angles of a pentagon is :
(A) 360 (B) 500
(C) 450 (D) 540
: :
(A) 360 (B) 500
(C) 450 (D) 540
103. The radius of a circle is 6 cm and P is any point which is 10 cm away from the centre. The
length of the tangent drawn from P to the circle will be
(A) 6 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm
6 P 10 P
:
(A) 6 (B) 12
(C) 8 (D) 10
Sh-2
PL-2 (69) A
104. In a right-angled triangle, if its sides are 15 cm and 8 cm perpendicular to each other, then
its perimeter will be
(A) 40 cm (B) 38 cm
(C) 46 cm (D) 50 cm
, 15 8 ,
:
(A) 40 (B) 38
(C) 46 (D) 50
105. The arithmetic mean of 1, 2, 3, 4, …. n numbers will be :
n n+1
(A) 2 + 1 (B) 2
n n–1
(C) 2 (D) 2
1, 2, 3, 4, …. n :
n n+1
(A) 2 + 1 (B) 2
n n–1
(C) 2 •••• •••••• ••••• (D) 2
106. The difference between the upper limit and the lower limit of a class is called :
(A) Frequency (B) Mode
(C) Class size (D) None of these
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
107. The co-ordinates of the origin are :
(A) (1, 1) (B) (–1, 0)
(C) (–1, –1) (D) (0, 0)
:
(A) (1, 1) (B) (–1, 0)
(C) (–1, –1) (D) (0, 0)
Sh-2
A (70) PL-2
108. If a dice is thrown once, then the probability of getting a number greater than 6 is :
1
(A) 0 (B) 6
2
(C) 1 (D) 6
, 6 :
1
(A) 0 (B) 6
2
(C) 1 (D) 6
109. Which of the following statements is not related to the nature of Mathematics ?
(A) Mathematics is study of numbers, places, measurements, etc.
(B) Mathematics has its own language terms, concepts, formulas, etc.
(C) The knowledge of Mathematics is not logical.
(D) The knowledge of Mathematics is the same in the whole world.
?
(A) , ,
(B) , ,
(C)
(D)
•••• •••••• •••••
110. “Mathematics is the language in which God has written the Universe.” This statement is
told by
(A) Galileo (B) Locke
(C) Bertrand Russell (D) Lindsay
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
111. According to Napoleon – “The progress and the improvement of Mathematics are linked
to prosperity of the state.”
This statement corresponds to which value of Mathematics ?
(A) Disciplinary value (B) Social value
(C) Aesthetic value (D) International value
–“ ”
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (71) A
112. The author of the book “GANITA SAR SANGRAH’ is :
(A) Aryabhatta (B) Shri Dharacharya
(C) Pythagoras (D) Mahaveeracharya
‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
113. In which method by moving from ‘Particular to General’, we generate formulas in
Mathematics ?
(A) Deductive Method (B) Lecture Method
(C) Inductive Method (D) Project Method
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
114. The knowledge of which of the following is most helpful in painting ?
(A) Geometry (B) Statistics
(C) Arithmetic (D) Function
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
115. Which of the following is not an evaluation method ?
(A) Interview (B) Preparation
(C) Questionnaire (D) Check-list
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
116. The evaluation process is related to :
(A) Educational objectives (B) Evaluation method
(C) Learning experience (D) All of these
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (72) PL-2
117. The purpose of diagnostic testing is :
(A) To guide learning methods.
(B) Classification of students according to difficulty level.
(C) Detecting lack of achievement in particular subject.
(D) All of these.
:
(A) -
(B)
(C)
(D)
118. Which method follows the principle of a process of combining different statements or
parts to get something new ?
(A) Lecture method (B) Heuristic method
(C) Analytic method (D) Synthetic method
?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
5
119. If ( 3) 92 = 3x 3 3, then the value of x is :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
5
( 3) 92 = 3x 3 3 , x :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
1 1
120. If x – x = 8, then the value of x2 + 2 is :
x
(A) 64 (B) 68
(C) 66 (D) 4354
1 2 1
x – x = 8
, x + 2 :
x
(A) 64 (B) 68
(C) 66 (D) 4354
Sh-2
PL-2 (73) A
121. The value of x in the given diagram is :
(A) 15 (B) 30
(C) 90 (D) 60
x :
(A) 15 (B) 30
(C) 90 (D) 60
•••• •••••• •••••
122. The frequency of a sound source is 50 Hz. In 2 s number of vibrations will be :
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 200
50 Hz 2s :
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 200
123. LED emits Light :
(A) Only green colour (B) Only red colour
(C) Only yellow colour (D) All of these
LED :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
124. Which of the following is not a member of the solar system ?
(A) An asteroid (B) Meteors
(C) A satellite (D) A comet
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (74) PL-2
125. Laboratory method is based on which principle ?
(A) Learning by seeing (B) Learning by doing
(C) Learning by rote (D) All of these
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
126. Synthetic fibre among the following is :
(A) Nylon (B) Cotton
(C) Wool (D) Silk
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
127. The symbol of potassium element is :
(A) P (B) Po
(C) Pt (D) K
:
(A) P (B) Po
(C) Pt (D) K
128. Chemical formula of aluminium nitrate is :
(A) Al NO3 (B) Al (NO3)3
(C) Al3(NO3)2 (D) Al2(NO3)3
•••• •••••• •••••
:
(A) Al NO3 (B) Al (NO3)3
(C) Al3(NO3)2 (D) Al2(NO3)3
129. Which of the following mixture can be separated by the winnowing method ?
(A) Mixture of grain and husk
(B) Mixture of grain and pebbles
(C) Mixture of wet sand and pebbles
(D) Mixture of sand and water
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
130. Synthetic indicator among the following is :
(A) Litmus (B) Turmeric
(C) China rose petals (D) Phenolphthalein
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (75) A
131. The pair of green-house gases is :
(A) O2, CO2 (B) CO2, N2O
(C) N2, CH4 (D) O2, H2O
- :
(A) O2, CO2 (B) CO2, N2O
(C) N2, CH4 (D) O2, H2O
132. Audio-visual teaching aid among the following is :
(A) Radio (B) Chart
(C) Television (D) Blackboard
- :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
133. Which bacteria is found in roots of leguminous plants as symbionts ?
(A) Rhizobium (B) Bacillus
(C) E.coli (D) Achromobacter
?
(A) (B)
(C) . (D)
134. Which edible part is modification of stem ?
(A) Turnip •••• •••••• ••••• (B) Carrot
(C) Sweet Potato (D) Potato
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
135. Which of the following is a simple tissue ?
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) None of these
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
136. Which of the following is not an air pollutant ?
(A) Carbon mono-oxide (B) Nitrogen oxide
(C) Methane (D) Oxygen
?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (76) PL-2
137. Sacred groves are found in
(A) Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya
(B) Aravalli hills of Rajasthan
(C) Western ghats of Maharashtra
(D) All of these
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
138. Which bacterium causes pleurisy disease in human ?
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(C) Mycobacterium leprae
(D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
139. Which type of sebaceous glands •••••
•••• •••••• present in human skin ?
(A) Apocrine (B) Merocrine
(C) Holocrine (D) Eccrine
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
140. Disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin A is :
(A) Night-blindness (B) Beri-Beri
(C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
(A) :
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
141. In which phase of cell cycle, synthesis of histone protein occurs ?
(A) G1-Phase (B) S-Phase
(C) G2-Phase (D) M-Phase
?
(A) G1- (B) S-
(C) G2- (D) M-
Sh-2
PL-2 (77) A
142. When was the Family Planning (Family Welfare) Programme started in India ?
(A) 1947 (B) 1951
(C) 1958 (D) 1960
( ) ?
(A) 1947 (B) 1951
(C) 1958 (D) 1960
143. Which of the following hormone supports pregnancy ?
(A) Insulin (B) Adrenaline
(C) Melatonin (D) Progesterone
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
144. Which of the following is not an example of Kharif crop ?
(A) Cotton (B) Soyabean
(C) Maize (D) Pea
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
145. Which of the following is not a scientific teaching method ?
(A) Anecdote method (B) Evaluation method
(C) Psychophysical method (D) Questionnaire method
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
146. The main objective (aim) of evaluation is :
(A) Removal of students errors.
(B) Measurement of students achievement.
(C) Give promotion of students.
(D) Diagnosis and treatment of learning deficits.
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
147. Which teaching aid is not included in the audio-visual equipment ?
(A) Movie (B) Television
(C) Laptop (D) Epidiascope
- , - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
Sh-2
A (78) PL-2
148. Correct decreasing order of friction forces is :
(A) rolling, static, sliding (B) rolling, sliding, static
(C) static, rolling, sliding (D) static, sliding, rolling
:
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
149. An object is moving on a circle of radius R. When it completes half circle, then the
distance and displacement travelled by it will be :
(A) R, R (B) 2 R, R
(C) R, 2R (D) 2 R, 2R
R ,
:
(A) R, R (B) 2 R, R
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) R, 2R (D) 2 R, 2R
150. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice-cream. Its other end
(A) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(B) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(C) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(D) does not become cold.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (79) A
SECTION-IV(b) / – IV(b)
SOCIAL STUDIES /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
60
91. Which Buddhist text contains a dialogue between, a king named Avantiputra and a
disciple of the Buddha named Kachchana ?
(A) Deegh Nikaya (B) Khuddak Nikaya
(C) Majjhima Nikaya (D) Anguttar Nikaya
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
92. Which Buddhist text contained a set of rules and regulations for those who joined the
sangha or monastic order ?
(A) Vinaya Pitaka (B) Sutta Pitaka
(C) Abhidhamma Pitaka (D) Jataka
?
(A) •••• •••••• ••••• (B)
(C) (D)
93. Which is included in the six school (Shaddarshan) of Indian Philosophy ?
(A) Satyaarth Prakash (B) Vaishesika
(C) Mahabharata (D) Upanishad
( ) ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
94. Who came to India during the Mauryan period as the ambassador of the Greek ruler of
West Asia named Seleucus Nicator ?
(A) Fahien (B) Xuan Zang
(C) Itsing (D) Magasthenes
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (80) PL-2
95. State the complete true statements about Arikamedu.
(I) It is located in Puducherry.
(II) Arikamedu was a Coastal settlement.
(III) Other finds include pottery such as amphorae.
(IV) Items related to the Greek Empire have been found here.
(V) The kings here were Chera Dynasty at that time.
(A) I, II, III (B) III, IV, V
(C) IV, V, I (D) V, IV, I
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(V)
(A) I, II, III (B) III, IV, V
(C) IV, V, I (D) V, IV, I
96. The Chinese Pilgrim ‘Xuan Zang’ lived in the court of which King ?
(A) Chandragupta (B) Samudragupta
(C) Harsha (D) Kanishka
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
97. In which play we find an interesting description of the plight of a poor fisherman in Gupta
period ?
(A) Harshcharit •••• •••••• ••••• (B) Abhigyan Shakuntalam
(C) Mudrarakshasa (D) Mrichhakatikam
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
98. Where is the temple of “Bhitargaon” situated ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar
(C) Orissa (D) Bengal
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
99. By what name are the teachings of Shankardeva who was the main propagator of
Vaishnavism, addressed in the late fifteenth century ?
(A) Vallabh Dharma (B) Krishna Dharma
(C) Guru Sandesh (D) Bhagavati Dharma
, ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (81) A
100. What was Khud-kashta and Pahi-kashta in Mughal period ?
(A) Types of Revenue (B) Types of Crops
(C) Types of Administration (D) Types of Farmers
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
101. What was the relation of “Manzil-abadi”, “Sipah-abadi” and “Mulk-abadi” during the
Mughal period ?
(A) Part of Book (B) Portion of the Population
(C) Part of Revenue (D) Part of Administration
“ - ”, “ - ” “ - ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
102. Who got the book published under the name “Stripurushtulna” ?
(A) Tarabai Shinde (B) Pandita Ramabai
(C) Jyotirao Phule (D) Rashsundari Devi
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
103. When was the parallel government (Prati Sarkar) established in Satara, Maharashtra ?
(A) 1941 •••• •••••• ••••• (B) 1943
(C) 1945 (D) 1947
( ) ?
(A) 1941 (B) 1943
(C) 1945 (D) 1947
104. Which word is not given in Preamble of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Belief (B) Faith
(C) Worship (D) Language
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
105. When was Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending)
Act came in force in India ?
(A) 2010 (B) 2011
(C) 2013 (D) 2014
( ) ?
(A) 2010 (B) 2011
(C) 2013 (D) 2014
Sh-2
A (82) PL-2
106. “The Idea of Residual Powers” provision in India is adopted from which Country’s constitution ?
(A) British Constitution (B) United States Constitution
(C) French Constitution (D) Canadian Constitution
“ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
107. In India after the death of President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed who acted as President of India ?
(A) B.D. Jatti (B) V.V. Giri
(C) Zail Singh (D) N.S. Reddy
?
(A) . . (B) . .
(C) (D) . .
108. Which two states have same number of Lok Sabha Constituencies ?
(A) Uttarakhand, Jharkhand (B) Kerala, Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan (D) Punjab, Odisha
- ?
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
109. Toll free Helpline Number for Children who are in need of care and protection is –
(A) 1095 (B) 1096
(C) 1097 (D) 1098
–
(A) 1095 (B) 1096
(C) 1097 •••• •••••• ••••• (D) 1098
110. In India which Constitutional Amendment determined the size of the Council of
Ministers ?
(A) 81 (B) 91
(C) 101 (D) 102
?
(A) 81 (B) 91
(C) 101 (D) 102
111. In 1989 which Committee recommended Constitutional recognition for the local
government bodies ?
(A) P.K. Thungan Committee (B) B.R. Mehta Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee (D) Sadik Ali Committee
1989 ?
(A) . . (B) . .
(C) (D)
112. ‘Abolition of titles’ is a part of which Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right Against Exploitation (D) Cultural and Educational Rights
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (83) A
113. Identify the correct group of Scheduled languages in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India.
(A) Bengali, English, Sanskrit (B) English, Hindi, Sanskrit
(C) Santhali, Hindi, Sanskrit (D) Gujarati, Marathi, English
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
114. The circle that divides the day from night on the globe is called –
(A) Circle of illumination (B) Equatorial circle
(C) Elliptical Orbit (D) Summer Solstice
, –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
115. Katabatic winds blows from –
(A) From Valley to Mountain (B) From Mountain to Valley
(C) From Sea to Land (D) From Land to Sea
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
116. Approximate Extension of the shadow zone of S-wave is –
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) 105º to 145º (B) 105º to 105º
(C) 145º to 145º (D) 90º to 90º
S- –
(A) 105º 145º (B) 105º 105º
(C) 145º 145º (D) 90º 90º
117. On which beach is Kayal located ?
(A) Malabar Coast (B) Konkan Coast
(C) Kathiawar Coast (D) Coromandel Coast
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
118. Batholiths, Lacoliths, Lapolith and Phacolith are related to
(A) Earthquake (B) Volcano
(C) River (D) Gravitational force
, , –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (84) PL-2
119. Which statements about the “Faience” are true ?
(I) Faience mines have been found in Mehrgarh.
(II) Faience were found naturally.
(III) A gum was used to shape sand or powdered quartz into an object.
(IV) The objects were then glazed, resulting in a shiny, glassy surface.
(V) Faience was used to make beads, bangles, earring and tiny vessels.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV
(C) III, IV, V (D) IV, V, I
‘ ’ ?
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(V) , ,
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV
(C) III, IV, V (D) IV, V, I
120. Which statements are true about Rigvedic period ?
•••• •••••• •••••
(I) Soma was a plant.
(II) Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh were the main deities.
(III) Called Sukta or “Well Said”.
(IV) Upanishad and Aryanak texts were composed.
(V) Indra was not the god of warrior.
(A) I, III (B) II, IV
(C) IV, V (D) I, V
?
(I)
(II) ,
(III) ,
(IV)
(V)
(A) I, III (B) II, IV
(C) IV, V (D) I, V
Sh-2
PL-2 (85) A
121. Match the following forests and trees :
Forest Tree
(1) Tropical Evergreen (a) Spruce
(2) Tropical Deciduous (b) Palm
(3) Montane (c) Mahogany
(4) Mangrove (d) Sal
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(B) (c) (d) (b) (a)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(B) (c) (d) (b) (a)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (a) (b) (c)••••(d)•••••• •••••
122. Which of the following is a group of Iron ore belts in India ?
(A) Singbhum (Jharkhand), Bailadila (Chhattisgarh), Nellore (Andhra Pradesh)
(B) Kudremukh (Karnataka), Mayurbhanj (Odisha), Bokaro (Jharkhand)
(C) Bokaro (Jharkhand), Bailadila (Chhattisgarh), Mayurbhanj (Odisha)
(D) Mayurbhanj (Odisha), Singbhum (Jharkhand), Bailadila (Chhattisgarh)
?
(A) ( ), ( ), ( )
(B) ( ), ( ), ( )
(C) ( ), ( ), ( )
(D) ( ), ( ), ( )
123. In which direction the Aravalli range extends in Rajasthan ?
(A) South-East to North-West (B) North-West to South-East
(C) South-West to North-East (D) North-East to South-West
?
(A) - - (B) - -
(C) - - (D) - -
Sh-2
A (86) PL-2
124. Match the following district and climatic regions :
District Climate region
(1) Jaisalmer (a) Extreme humid
(2) Jaipur (b) Humid
(3) Sawai Madhopur (c) Semi-Humid
(4) Jhalawar (d) Dry
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(B) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(C) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(D) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(1) (a) -
(2) (b)
(3) (c) -
(4) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(B) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(C) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(D) (d) (c) (b) (a)
125. Which of the following
••••are correct
•••••• statements with reference to district and projects ?
•••••
(1) Chittorgarh – Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
(2) Ajmer – Bisalpur Project
(3) Udaipur – Mansi Vakal Project
(4) Pratapgarh – Jakham Project
(A) (1), (3), (4) (B) (1), (2), (3)
(C) (2), (3), (4) (D) (1), (2), (4)
?
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
(A) (1), (3), (4) (B) (1), (2), (3)
(C) (2), (3), (4) (D) (1), (2), (4)
126. In which Crops Rajasthan is the top producer in India ?
(A) Mustard, Chickpea, Dewgram
(B) Psyllium husk, Cumin, Cluster bean
(C) Chickpea, Green gram, Black gram
(D) Green gram, Maize, Pearl Millet
?
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
Sh-2
PL-2 (87) A
127. During 2001-2011 Population growth rate of Ganganagar district is –
(A) 10.0 % (B) 16.9 %
(C) 32.5 % (D) 21.3 %
2001 2011 –
(A) 10.0 % (B) 16.9 %
(C) 32.5 % (D) 21.3 %
128. Which ruler of Mewar was given the name of “Vishamghati Panchanan’ ?
(A) Rana Hamir (B) Rana Lakha
(C) Rana Kumbha (D) Rana Udai Singh
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
129. Who was the Maharana of Udaipur at the time of revolt of 1857 ?
(A) Jaswant Singh (B) Swaroop Singh
(C) Udai Singh (D) Ratan Singh
1857 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
130. Where was the third session of “Rajputana Madhya Bharat Sabha” held ?
(A) Nagpur (B) Jaipur
(C) Ajmer (D) Delhi
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D)
131. Who was made the Prime Minister of Greater Rajasthan ?
(A) Haribhau Upadhyay (B) Gokulbhai Bhatt
(C) Hiralal Shastri (D) Tikaram Paliwal
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
132. Who is known as “Banasur ka Shaheed” ?
(A) Kesari Singh Barahath (B) Major Saitan Singh
(C) Pratap Singh Barahath (D) Havildar Major Piru Singh
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
133. Who built Churu Fort in 1739 ?
(A) Jaswant Singh (B) Rai Singh
(C) Kalyanmal (D) Thakur Kushal Singh
1739 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
A (88) PL-2
134. Tulsi, Haalro, Timaniyan and pot ornaments are worn by women in which part of their
body ?
(A) Head (B) Neck
(C) Hand (D) Waist
, , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
135. Which Film has been made on the book “Duvidha” by Vijaydan Detha ?
(A) Mumal, Phulwari (B) Alekhu Hitler
(C) Duvidha, Paheli (D) Uljhan, Suljhan
“ ” ?
(A) , (B)
(C) , (D) ,
136. “Hela Khyal” is a folk theatre from which region of Rajasthan ?
(A) Dausa (B) Bikaner
(C) Sikar (D) Barmer
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
137. What is Patelya, Bichhiyo, Lalar, and Machar ?
(A) Famous songs of Mewar (B) Famous songs of Marwar
(C) Famous songs of Mewat (D) Famous songs of Hadoti
, , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
138. “Social Science as a general term for all the sciences which are concerned with the human
affairs.” This is defined by
(A) Seligman (B) Mitchell
(C) Fairchild (D) Peter Lewis
“ ”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
139. Which of the following is an Audio – Aids ?
(A) Linguaphone (B) Over Head Projector (OHP)
(C) Epidiascope (D) Bulletin Board
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
140. Which one is not a type of project method given by Killpatrick ?
(A) Constructive Project (B) Destructive Project
(C) Problematic Project (D) Practice Project
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (89) A
141. Who propounded the linear programmed instruction ?
(A) Norman A. Crowder (B) B.F. Skinner
(C) Thorndike (D) Thomas F. Gilbert
?
(A) . (B) . .
(C) (D) .
142. Which one is not a limitation of assessment ?
(A) Lack of time
(B) More importance to the competition
(C) Conceptual error
(D) Freedom from fear and stressful environment
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
143. Which one is not prerequisite of lesson planning ?
(A) Knowledge of subject
(B) Knowledge of learner family background
(C) Knowledge of child psychology
(D) Knowledge of methods and techniques
?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• ••••• (D) ( )
144. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Socrates – Instruction method
(B) Plato – Questioning method
(C) Herbert Spencer – Dialectic method
(D) Aristotle – Deductive and Inductive method
?
(A) –
(B) –
(C) –
(D) –
145. Which one is not a general objective of teaching of social studies ?
(A) Acquaintance with the environment
(B) Interest in socio-economic institutions
(C) Appreciation of cultural heritage
(D) Appreciation of caste system
?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D) -
Sh-2
A (90) PL-2
146. How many steps are suggested for solving a problem ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
147. From which layer of the atmosphere do radio waves come back ?
(A) Stratosphere (B) Mesosphere
(C) Ionosphere (D) Exosphere
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
148. Which of the following cyclone is called water spouts in sea ?
(A) Typhoons (B) Hurricanes
(C) Willy-Willies (D) Tornado
?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
149. Which of the following currents are cold currents ?
1. Labrador current 2. Oyashio current
3. Benguela current 4. Alaska current
(A) 1, 2, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3, 4
?
1. 2.
3. 4.
(A) 1, 2, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3, 4
150. During the time of perigee the tidal range is –
(A) Equal to normal (B) Less than normal
(C) Greater than normal (D) None of these
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sh-2
PL-2 (91) A
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
Sh-2
A (92) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
Sh-2
PL-2 (93) A
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
Sh-2
A (94) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
Sh-2
PL-2 (95) A
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/Sh-2
A (96) PL-2
INSTRUCTIONS / {ZX}e
(Read carefully and comply / ܶmZ go n‹T>| Am¡a nmbZ H$a|)
IMPORTANT / ‘hÎdnyU©
1. In Section II (Language-I) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-I in the
Online Application Form.
IÊS> (^mfm ) ‘| Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hc H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu Zo ^mfm Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ &
2. In Section III (Language-II) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-II in the
Online Application Form. The Language-II will be different from Language-I.
IÊS> (^mfm- ) ‘| Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hc H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu Zo ^mfm- Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ & ^mfm- ^mfm- go {^ÝZ hmoJr &
3. The candidate must ensure that the Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No. has been filled correctly at the prescribed place in the
OMR Answer Sheet. Your OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated on the basis of Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No., not
Question Booklet Number.
Aä¶Wu gw{ZpíMV H$a| {H$ erQ> ‘| {ZYm©[aV ñWmZ na àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS> Ed§ {eâQ> H«§$ . ghr ^am h¡ & AmnH$s erQ> H$m ‘yë¶m§H$Z
àíZ-nwpñVH$m H«$‘m§H$ na Zht ~pëH$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS> Ed§ {eâQ> H«§$. Ho$ AmYma na {H$¶m Om¶oJm &
4. The candidate has to answer of that subject in Section (IV a) Mathematics and Science or (IV b) Social Studies as selected by the candidate
in the Online Applicaton Form.
If a candidate answers the questions of the language or subject other than selected in the Online Application Form, the candidate shall be
personally responsible for it and it would be treated as wrong.
Aä¶Wu H$mo Bg àíZ-nÌ Ho$ IÊS> J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ ¶m gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z ‘| Cgr {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aZm h¡, {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu
Zo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ &
¶{X Aä¶Wu Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm ¶m {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb Z H$aHo$ Aݶ {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aVm h¡ Vmo dh Aä¶Wu H$s ñd¶§ H$s {Oå‘oXmar
hmoJr VWm JbV ‘mZm Om¶oJm &
1. Read complete instructions carefully and fill the details from Sl. No. 1 to 7 in the OMR Answer Sheet and Sl. No. 1 to 4 in the Question
Booklet. If you fail to fill the details and sign as instructed correctly, you will be personally responsible for the consequences arising during
scanning of your OMR Answer Sheet.
{ZX}em| H$mo nyU© ê$n go ܶmZnyd©H$ n‹T>| Am¡a H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ OMR erQ> Ed§ H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m (~wH$coQ>) H$mo ^a| & ¶{X Amn JcV VarHo$ go {ddaU
^aVo ¶m hñVmja H$aVo h¢ Vmo OMR erQ> H$s ñHo$qZJ Ho$ ’$cñdê$n hmoZo dmco n[aUm‘m| Ho$ à{V Amn ñd¶§ CÎmaXm¶r hm|Jo &
2. The Question Booklet comprises 96 pages having 150 questions. After being instructed to open the Booklet, only then the candidates will open
the Question Booklet seals. Check whether the Booklet contains 150 questions starting from Page No. 3 to 90. The Shift Number required in
OMR Sheet will be as per admit card issued to the candidate and also mentioned on the top of the Question Booklet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘| n¥ð> Ed§ àíZ h¢ & narjmWu {ZX}e {X¶o OmZo Ho$ CnamÝV hr àíZ-nwpñVH$m H$s grc Imoc|Jo & ¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a c| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘|
àíZ h¢ Omo {H$ n¥ð> g§»¶m go àmaå^ hmoH$a VH$ h¢ & OMR erQ> na {e’²$Q> Zå~a Aä¶Wu H$mo Omar {H$¶o J¶o àdoe-nÌ Ho$ AZwgma A§{H$V H$aZm h¡ Ed§ Omo
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ D$nar ^mJ na ^r A§{H$V {H$¶m hþAm h¡ &
3. All questions are of MCQ (Multiple Choice Question) type. There is only one correct answer to each question carrying one mark. There
will be no negative marking for wrong answers.
g^r àíZ ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àH$ma Ho$ h¢ & à˶oH$ àíZ H$m EH$ {dH$ën hr ghr h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {c¶o {ZYm©[aV A§H$ EH$ h¡ & JcV Odm~ Ho$ {c¶o F$UmË‘H$ A§H$ Zht {X¶o Om¶|Jo &
4. All questions other than language questions of Sections II and III shall be bilingual.
àíZ-nÌ Ho$ ^mfm gå~pÝYV IÊS> Ed§ Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ A{V[aŠV eof g^r IÊS>m| Ho$ àíZ {Û^mfr¶ hm|Jo &
5. In any event of any mistake in any question/s, candidates will not be penalized. However no corrections will be made in question/s during the examination.
{H$gr àíZ ‘| {H$gr Ìw{Q> Ho$ {c¶o narjmWu••••
H$mo {H$gr••••••
àH$ma H$m Zw•••••
H$gmZ Zht hmoJm & narjm H$s Ad{Y ‘| àíZm| ‘| {H$gr àH$ma H$m g§emoYZ Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
6. Rough work, if any, may be done in the Question Booklet only in the space provided at the end of the Booklet. Do not tear it off from the
Question Booklet. No additional paper shall be provided.
{H$gr àH$ma Ho$ a’$ H$m¶© hoVw àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝV ‘| OJh Xr J¶r h¡ & Bgo àíZ-nwpñVH$m go Zht ’$mSµ|> & {H$gr àH$ma H$m A{V[aŠV H$mJµO CncãY Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
PL-2/Sh-2
7. Use of Log tables, Calculator, Slide rule, Mobile phone, Pager, Digital diary, Bluetooth, Microphone or any other electronic item/instrument
etc. is not allowed. Their use will result in disqualification.
cm°J Q>o~c, H¡$늶wcoQ>a, ñcmB©S> ê$c, ‘mo~mBc ’$moZ, noOa, {S>OrQ>c S>m¶ar, ãë¶yQy>W, ‘mBH«$mo’$moZ ¶m {H$gr Aݶ àH$ma H$m BcoŠQ´>mo{ZH$ CnH$aU / dñVw H$m à¶moJ d{O©V
h¡ & BZHo$ Cn¶moJ na narjm go A¶mo½¶ Kmo{fV {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
8. OMR Answer Sheet will be provided along with Question Booklet separately.
OMR erQ> àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ gmW A{V[aŠV àXmZ H$s Om¶oJr &
9. The Question Booklet will be issued to the candidates 10 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill all entries in OMR
Answer Sheet. The Question Booklet seal shall be opened 5 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill 1 to 4 entries correctly
on the Question Booklet. After opening the Question Booklet, ensure that any page / question is not missing / not printed / torn / repeated. In case,
you find any defect anywhere in the Question Booklet, immediately inform the Invigilator and get it replaced within 5 minutes by the Invigilator.
Warning Bell will ring at 5 minutes before closer of examination and the last long bell will ring at closer of examination.
Aä¶Wu H$mo àíZ-nwpñVH$m narjm Amaå^ hmoZo Ho$ 10 {‘ZQ> nyd© Xr OmdoJr & Aä¶Wu Amdí¶H$ ê$n go OMR erQ ‘| g^r à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-
nwpñVH$m H$s grb narjm Amaå^ Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© Imobo VWm H«$‘ g§»¶m 1 go 4 H$s à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-nwpñVH$m ImobZo Ho$ níMmV narjmWu VËH$mb
¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a| {H$ Cg‘| {ZYm©[aV g‘ñV n¥îR> h¡ / H$moB© àíZ Ny>Q>m Vmo Zht h¡ / N>nmB© nyU© h¡ / H$mJO ’$Qm> Vmo Zht h¡ ¶m H$moB© n¥îR> Xþ~mam Ow‹S> J¶m h¡ µ& ¶{X àíZ-
nwpñVH$m ‘| Bg àH$ma H$s H$moB© Ìw{Q> nmB© OmVr h¡ Vmo VËH$mb drjH$ H$mo gy{MV H$a| VWm 5 {‘ZQ> Ho$ ^rVa drjH$ go AnZr àíZ-nwpñVH$m ~Xbdm bo & MoVmdZr K§§Q>r
narjm g‘mpßV Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© ~OoJr Ed§ ApÝV‘ bå~r K§Q>r narjm g‘mpßV na ~OoJr &
10. Write your Name, Exam Center Code, Signature, Roll No., Question Booklet Series Code, Shift Number and Question Paper Booklet Number
in the space provided in the Question Booklet as well as in the OMR Answer Sheet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ed§ OMR erQ> na {ZYm©[aV ñWmZ na Zm‘, narjm Ho$ÝÐ H$m H$moS>, hñVmja, Zm‘m§H$, àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS>, {e’²$Q> H«$‘m§H$ Ed§ àíZ nwpñVH$m
H«$‘m§H$ A§{H$V H$a| &
11. With each question you will find 4 possible answers marked by the letters A, B, C & D. Read each question carefully and find out which
answer, according to you is correct. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate circle completely in the OMR Answer Sheet corresponding
to the question. For marking answers use blue/black ballpoint pen only. Gel pens/pencils are not allowed.
à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ Mma d¡H$pënH$ CÎma d ‘| {X¶o J¶o h¢ & àíZm| H$mo ܶmZnyd©H$ nTµ>| d ghr CÎma H$m M¶Z H$a CgHo$ CÎma H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| gå~pÝYV àíZ H«$‘m§H$ Ho$ g‘j
C{MV Jmoco H$mo Jham H$a B§{JV H$a| & CÎmam| H$mo Xem©Zo Ho$ {c¶o Zrco ¶m H$mco ~m°c ßdmB§Q> noZ H$m hr Cn¶moJ H$a| & Ooc noZ ¶m nopÝgc H$m Cn¶moJ d{O©V h¡ &
Correct Method : CORRECT / Wrong Method : WRONG / WRONG / WRONG / WRONG /
: :
12. OMR Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. If you do not follow the instructions given above and at the backside of the OMR Answer
Sheet, it may make evaluation by computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account shall be of the candidate only.
OMR erQ> H$mo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam ‘yë¶m§H$Z Ho$ {c¶o ~Zm¶m J¶m h¡ & ¶{X Amn Cn¶w©ŠV Ed§ OMR erQ> Ho$ {nN>co n¥ð> na {X¶o J¶o {ZX}em| H$m nmcZ Zht H$aVo, Vmo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam AmnH$m
‘yë¶m§H$Z H${R>Z hmo Om¶oJm & Bg H$maU go narjmWu H$mo hmoZo dmco ZwH$gmZ H$s {Oå‘oXmar CgH$s ñd¶§ H$s hmoJr &
13. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the final bell. The OMR Answer Sheet is carbonless in duplicate having perforation on the
left side. Candidate should detach carefully the Original Copy from the Candidate’s Copy (Duplicate) so that the Original Copy is not mutilated
in any way. Candidate should handover the Original OMR Copy and Question Booklet to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.
Candidate can carry only the Candidate’s OMR copy with him/her. Question Booklet is not allowed to be taken by the candidate.
H$moB© narjmWu ApÝV‘ K§Q>r ~OZo Ho$ nyd© narjm H$j go ~mha Zht Om gHo$Jm & OMR erQ> H$m~©Z a{hV VWm AZw{c{n g{hV h¡ CgHo$ ~m¶t Va’$ na’$moaoeZ {H$¶m
hþAm h¡ & Aä¶Wu gmdYmZr go Aä¶Wu H$s à{V (AZw{c{n) go ‘yc à{V H$mo Eogo AcJ H$a| Vm{H$ {H$gr ^r VarHo$ go ‘yc à{V H$mo H$moB© hm{Z Z nhþ±Mo & narjm-H$j
N>moSµ>Zo Ho$ nyd© Aä¶Wu OMR H$s ‘yb à{V Ed§ àíZ-nwpñVH$m drjH$ H$mo gm¢n Xo & Aä¶Wu Ho$db AnZr OMR H$s à{V hr AnZo gmW bo Om gH|$Jo& àíZ-nwpñVH$m
Aä¶Wu AnZo gmW Zht bo Om gH|$Jo &
Question Booklet No. Series Code /grarµO H$moS> :
PAPER CODE
1. Roll No. /
PL-2 (SHIFT-3)
A Write this code in OMR Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a|
2. OMR Sheet No./ Amo.E‘.Ama. erQ> H«$‘m§H$
&
* 3. Candidate’s name / * 4. Candidate’s Signature / narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form / O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V {H$¶m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature / (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet : 96
H«$‘m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© narjmWu Ûmam ñd¶§ H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m ‘| Hw$b n¥îR>
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four
Sections : Section-I, II & III of 30-30 questions each and Section-IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all
sections. Each question is of one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.
Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR>> ~hþM¶ZmË‘H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| ‘| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & à˶oH$
IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III 30-30 àíZm| H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {bE Z¡Jo{Q>d ‘m{Hª$J Zht hmoJr &
narjmWu OMR erQ> ^aZo go nyd© ¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘| 1-96 n¥ð> ^br^m±{V N>no h¢ & H$moB© {dg§J{V hmoZo na àíZ-nwpñVH$m Vwa§V ~Xbdm b| &>
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-3)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Section Contents Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 9
(II) Language-I (Only One Language) 30 31 60
As selected by the candidate as medium of
•••• ••••••Form
instruction in the Online Application •••••as
Language-I from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 10 13
PL-2/Sh-3
English 30 31 60 14 16
Sanskrit 30 31 60 17 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 36
(III) Language-II (Only One Language) 30 61 90
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other
than the Language-I) in the Online Application
Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 37 40
English 30 61 90 41 43
Sanskrit 30 61 90 44 47
Urdu 30 61 90 48 52
Sindhi 30 61 90 53 56
Punjabi 30 61 90 57 60
Gujarati 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science 60 91 150 65 78
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies 60 91 150 79 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1.In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and
Language-II in the Online Application Form.
2.In Sections-IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected
subject in Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table & Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English & Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this booklet.
PL-2 A
A (2) PL-2
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-3)
Hw$c àíZ : 150 g‘¶md{Y … 2 K§Q>o 30 {‘ZQ> nyUmªH$ : 150
Hw$b àíZ àíZ g§»¶m n¥îR g§»¶m
IÊS> {df¶-gm‘J«r g§»¶m go VH$ go VH$
(I) 30 1 30 3 9
(II) ^mfm-I (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 31 60
narjmWu Ûmam M¶{ZV AZwXoeZ H$m ‘mܶ‘ H$s ^mfm
Omo {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go ^mfm-I Ho$ ê$n ‘|
Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V H$s h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 31 60 10 13
A§J«oOr 30 31 60 14 16
•••• •••••• •••••
g§ ñ H¥$ V 30 31 60 17 20
CXÿ© 30 31 60 21 24
{gÝYr 30 31 60 25 28
PL-2/Sh-3
n§Om~r 30 31 60 29 32
JwOamVr 30 31 60 33 36
(III) ^mfm -II ( Ho $db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 61 90
narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm-II
Omo ^mfm-I go {^ÝZ hmoJr VWm {OgH$m M¶Z {ZåZ{cpIV
^mfmAm| ‘| go {H$¶m J¶m h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 61 90 37 40
A§J«oOr 30 61 90 41 43
g§ñH¥$V 30 61 90 44 47
CXÿ© 30 61 90 48 52
{gÝYr 30 61 90 53 56
n§Om~r 30 61 90 57 60
JwOamVr 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) J{UV VWm {dkmZ 60 91 150 65 78
(J{UV VWm {dkmZ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
(IV b) gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z 60 91 150 79 90
(gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
{H$gr Aݶ Xÿgao {df¶ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE
(IV a AWdm IV b MwZ gH$Vo h¢)
ZmoQ> : (1) narjmWu Ûmam IÊS> -II Ed§ IÊS> -III ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z ^mfm-I Ed§ ^mfm-II Ho$ ê$n ‘|
{H$¶m h¡ Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¢ &
(2) IÊS> -IV ‘| narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| IÊS> (IV a) ¶m IÊS> (IV b) Ho$ {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z {H$¶m J¶m h¡
Cgr {df¶ H$m àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ &
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V‘ n¥ð> g§»¶m 96 na A§J«oOr VWm {hÝXr ‘| {X¶o hþE {ZX}e H$mo n‹‹T>o§ &
PL-2 (3) A
SECTION – I
–I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
30
1. Which statement is NOT true as a principle of development ?
(A) Every stage is equally important for development.
(B) Development is the product of maturation and learning.
(C) There are individual differences in development.
(D) Developmental patterns are predictable.
?
(A)
(B) ,
(C)
(D)
2. Theory of moral development
•••• was propounded
•••••• ••••• by whom ?
(A) Robert J. Havighurst (B) Lawrence Kohlberg
(C) Elizabeth Hurlock (D) Lev Vygotsky
?
(A) . (B)
(C) (D)
3. Individual differences in career choices are explained by ______.
(A) Differences in cognitive abilities
(B) Temperamental tendencies
(C) Differences in cultural background
(D) Differences in aptitude
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. Role of environment in child development is best reflected by ______.
(A) Temperamental tendencies (B) Personality disposition
(C) Primary reaction patterns (D) Habit formation
______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (4) PL-2
5. Who has NOT propounded the trait theory of personality ?
(A) Paul Costa & Robert McCrae (B) Ramond Cattell
(C) Hans Eysenck (D) Gordon Allport
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
6. Which personality test is valid for clinical diagnosis ?
(A) MMPI (B) 16 PF
(C) EPPS (D) TAT
?
(A) . . . . (B) 16 . .
(C) . . . . (D) .. .
7. Which intelligence theory was proposed by Robert J. Sternberg ?
(A) Two factor theory (B) Multifactor theory
(C) Triarchic theory (D) Hierarchical theory
. •••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
8. Which of the following is a performance test of intelligence ?
(A) Jalota General Intelligence test (B) Bhatia Battery
(C) Army Alpha test (D) Draw A Man test
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. Which of the following concept is NOT true for the nature of individual differences ?
(A) Normal probability (B) Learning similarity
(C) Variability (D) Interrelationship of traits
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (5) A
10. Which measure is NOT relevant for the education of gifted children ?
(A) Enrichment of Curriculum (B) Remedial teaching
(C) Grade acceleration (D) Special classes
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11. Which disorder is a type of learning disability ?
(A) Cretinism (B) ADHD
(C) Dyslexia (D) Autism
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. Which element of maladjustment is specifically related to decision making ?
(A) Stress (B) Frustration
(C) Anxiety (D) Conflict
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. According to J.P. Guilford, which is NOT the characteristic of creative children ?
(A) Empathy in thinking (B) Multiple solutions to a problem
(C) Flexibility in thinking (D) Originality in thinking
. . , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. Trisomy-21 is termed as
(A) Klinefelter’s syndrome (B) Sickle cell disease
(C) Turner’s syndrome (D) Down syndrome
-21
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (6) PL-2
15. Which of the following is NOT a part of Thorndike’s laws of learning ?
(A) Law of readiness (B) Law of association
(C) Law of exercise (D) Law of effect
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. Which of the following is a psychological factor influencing classroom learning ?
(A) Health, age and gender (B) Level of maturity
(C) Motivational and emotional state (D) Meaningfulness of the contents
?
(A) , (B)
(C) (D)
17. Insight theory of learning was propounded by whom ?
(A) Wolfgang Kohler (B) Jerome Bruner
(C) Martin Seligman (D) Erik Erikson
?
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. Which is the final step of problem solving approach of learning ?
(A) Following logical sequence (B) Knowledge of concepts and principles
(C) Verification of performance (D) Demonstration of activity
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
19. Use of defense mechanisms as a strategy for adjustment was originally introduced by
whom ?
(A) Abraham Maslow (B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Carl Rogers (D) Jean Piaget
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (7) A
20. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation ?
(A) Need for achievement (B) Anxiety
(C) Level of aspiration (D) Reward
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
21. Which of the following is NOT a type of teaching according to stages of teaching ?
(A) Understanding stage (B) Demonstration stage
(C) Memory stage (D) Reflection stage
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
22. Which teaching-learning method was introduced by Dwight W. Allen ?
(A) Micro teaching (B) Team teaching
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) Brain storming (D) Interactive teaching
. - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
23. Which are the three important components of motivational cycle ?
(A) Learning, reward and satisfaction
(B) Need, drive and incentive
(C) Motive, goal and feedback
(D) Achievement, approval and affiliation
?
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (8) PL-2
24. Main objective of action research is ______.
(A) Activity (B) Diagnostic
(C) Descriptive (D) Transformative
_______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
25. Which of the following is NOT true for the construction of achievement test ?
(A) Reliability (B) Evaluation
(C) Validity (D) Objectivity
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
26. National Curriculum Framework was introduced in which year ?
(A) 2001 (B) 2005
(C) 2004 (D) 2008
?
(A) 2001 (B) 2005
(C) 2004 (D) 2008
27. Which assessment type is NOT related to teaching-learning process ?
(A) Achievement (B) Continuous
(C) Clinical (D) Remedial
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (9) A
28. Which concept is NOT related to Jean Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development ?
(A) Schema (B) Acquisition
(C) Assimilation (D) Accommodation
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
29. Pair of genes that occupy a specific location on a particular chromosome and control the
same trait is termed as _______.
(A) Karyotype (B) RNA
(C) Allele (D) Autosomes
,
•••• •••••• •••••
, _______
(A) (B) . ..
(C) (D)
30. Which of the following is NOT a stage of psychosexual development propounded by
Sigmund Freud ?
(A) Phallic stage (B) Anal stage
(C) Oedipus complex stage (D) Latency stage
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (10) PL-2
– II
–I
30
31 35
“ ,
- -
-
-
-
”
31. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
32. ‘ ’ :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (11) A
36. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
38. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. , :
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
42. –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43. –
(A) ,
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
(A) ,
(B)
(C)
(D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (12) PL-2
45. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. :
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
47.
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
, ?
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D)
49. •••• •••••• ••••• –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. ‘ , ,
, :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51 60
“
, ‘ ’
‘ ! ’
-
, ”
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (13) A
51. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ‘ ’ - –
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
54. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
56. ‘ ’ –
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
57. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ‘ ’–
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
59. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ‘ ’ ‘ ! ’ ’
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (14) PL-2
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Choose the sentence which is correct in structure :
(A) How does the world tending to become a unity ?
(B) How is the world tending to become a unity ?
(C) How will the world tending to become a unity ?
(D) How did the world tending to become a unity ?
32. Choose the correct option to fill the blank in the sentence given below :
The wounded man _____ by some boys.
(A) were being helped (B) are being helped
(C) was being helped (D) will being helped
33. He said, ‘Be quiet and listen to my words’. Choose the correct option to complete indirect
speech of the above sentence using phrase given below :
He urged them _____.
(A) be quiet and listen to his words (B) to be quiet and listen to my words
(C) that be quiet and listen to his words (D) to be quiet and listen to his words
34. Choose the nasal’s sounds :
(A) | m, n, ŋ| (B) | l, p, t |
(C) | w, j, z | (D) | , ð, ʃ |
35. Choose the correct phonetic •••• •••••• •••••for the word ‘Kimberlite’ :
transcription
(A) | ‘K I m ǝ b l ʌ I t | (B) | ‘K I m b ǝ l ʌ I t |
(C) | ‘K I m b ʌ r l ʌ I t | (D) | ‘K I m b ǝ l ǝ i t |
36. Grouping and sequence are involved in the principles of _____.
(A) Habit formation (B) Follow the natural way
(C) Controlled vocabulary (D) Gradation
37. The teaching material should be in accordance with the mental age and should have
relevance in real life situations. It is main characteristic of :
(A) Principles of Selection (B) Principles of Habit formation
(C) Principles of Gradation (D) Principles of Controlled vocabulary
38. In which method Mother tongue dominates in the teaching of English ?
(A) Direct method (B) Dr. Michael West’s New method
(C) Translation cum Grammar method (D) Audio-Visual method
39. Dr. Michael West’s New Method is based on the principle :
(A) Priority of reading, separate provision for readers
(B) Priority of writing, speaking
(C) Priority of speaking, writing
(D) Priority of writing, separate provision for writers
40. Which one of these is not related to the Direct Method of teaching English ?
(A) It is Natural Method also.
(B) It is Mother’s Method also.
(C) It was approved and spread by International Phonetic Association of France.
(D) This method consider visual appeal over aural – oral.
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (15) A
41. Which type of reading is also known as rapid reading or independent silent reading ?
(A) Extensive reading (B) Intensive reading
(C) Library reading (D) Loud reading
42. Which one of these is not the method of teaching writing ?
(A) Tracing method (B) Free imitation method
(C) Intensive writing method (D) F.G. French’s method
43. Reproduction technique, Role play and Performance are the main techniques for :
(A) Reading skill (B) Writing skill
(C) Speaking skill (D) Listening and understanding skills
44. The speaking and listening skills are developed by using :
(A) Flannel Boards (B) Pictures
(C) Film strips (D) Record-player
45. Language laboratory is a very popular technical innovation. It is derived from :
(A) United Kingdom (B) America
(C) France (D) Germany
46. Which one of these is not a Quantitative Techniques of Evaluation ?
(A) Oral Techniques (B) Observation Techniques
(C) Practical Techniques (D) Written Techniques
47. The technique of evaluation that includes certain statements of Yes and No type is :
(A) Check list (B) Observation techniques
(C) Rating scale (D) Anecdotal records
•••• •••••• •••••
48. Which one of these is not a function of CCE ?
(A) Children can know their strengths and weaknesses.
(B) It provides the child a realistic self-assessment.
(C) It does not help teacher to organise effective teaching strategies.
(D) It helps in identifying changes in attitudes and value systems.
49. One of these is a feature of formative assessment :
(A) It is an assessment of learning.
(B) It is a diagnostic and remedial.
(C) It is the most traditional way of evaluating students’ work.
(D) It is generally taken by students at the end of a unit.
50. Functions of evaluation are :
(A) Diagnosis, motivation (B) Diagnosis, prediction
(C) Motivation, understanding (D) Teaching, learning
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 55) that follow :
Why do people get stressed ? Adolescents are faced with the demands of their
developmental task and that of a complex society. They need to acquire skills of adjustment
to emerge into adulthood unaffected by these demands. If they lack these skills or if too
many demands are made on them, they fail. Students are anxious, as they are worried about
whether they would be able to live up to the expectations of their peers, parents and teachers.
Optimal anxiety motivates and keeps them ahead while over-anxiety is disabling.
Anxiety is contagious and passes onto other students, teachers and parents. Adolescents,
when stressed out, tend to perceive everything as an emergency.
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (16) PL-2
51. Choose the Synonym for the word ‘emergency’ :
(A) exogamy (B) exigency
(C) exequy (D) exemplary
52. Choose the Antonym for the word ‘optimal’ :
(A) enamel (B) decimal
(C) unideal (D) imaginable
53. Choose the misspelt word :
(A) percepsion (B) motivation
(C) complexion (D) paternal
54. Noun for the word ‘developmental’ will be :
(A) develop (B) developing
(C) developed (D) development
55. Choose one word for ‘a disease spread by direct or indirect contact of people or organism’:
(A) complexity disease (B) stress disease
(C) contagious disease (D) fever disease
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 56 to 60) that follow :
Education as commonly understood by people means acquiring certain knowledge
and skills in order to earn their living. But that is only one purpose of education. You may
ask why ? This is because humans are much more than just wage-earning machines. They
are endowed with emotions and feelings which enrich their life. These emotions and
feelings need to be developed so that they can develop into social beings, able to interact
•••• •••••• •••••
with fellow beings who are also members of that society of which they are a part.
56. …….. in order to earn their living. Here living is :
(A) a noun (B) an adverb
(C) an adjective (D) a verb
57. Choose compound adjective from the phrase ‘wage-earning machines’.
(A) wage (B) earning – machines
(C) machines (D) wage – earning
58. Which of the following phrases has a determiner in it ?
(A) acquiring knowledge (B) They are endowed
(C) humans are much more than (D) You may ask why ?
59. ‘Education as commonly understood by people means acquiring certain knowledge and
skills in order to earn their living.’
Which tense is used in the above sentence ?
(A) Present indefinite (B) Past indefinite
(C) Past perfect (D) Present perfect
60. Which of the following has the three degrees of the adjective in their correct form ?
(A) common, more common, most common
(B) common, commoner, commonest
(C) common, commoner, commoniest
(D) common, commoneer, commoniest
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (17) A
– II
–I
31. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘78’ -
(A) (B)
(C) , (D) – -
33. ‘’ ?
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. (35-36)
‘ ’
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) , ,
36. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (18) PL-2
37. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. “ ”
(A) ? (B) ?
(C) ? (D) ?
39. ‘ ’
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40. ‘ ________ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. -
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. -
(A) - (B) -
(C) (D) -
44. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. - - -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (19) A
46. -
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
47. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. -
(A) (B)
(C) - - (D)
49. - -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. - -•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
(51-55) –
- - - -
51. - ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (20) PL-2
53. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
– – (56-60) -
56. ‘ ’ -
(A) •••• •••••• •••••
(B)
(C) (D)
57. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘ ’ - ?
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
60. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (21) A
II
I
(30)
.31
(D) (C) (B)
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PL-2 (22) A
.39
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PL-2 (23) A
.48
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55 51
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PL-2 (24) A
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58 56
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PL-2 (25) A
– II
–I
30
31. ‘ ’–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ‘ ! ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
34. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (26) PL-2
39. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. ________ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. –
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
43. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. •••• •••••• ••••• –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. (i) –
(ii) –
(A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (D) (i) (ii)
(46 50)
,
‘ ,
,
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PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (27) A
46. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. –
(A) (B)
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48. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
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51. ‘ ’ ‘ ’ –
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PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (28) PL-2
52. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. –
(A) (B)
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55. ‘ , ’ –
(A) (B)
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56. ‘ ’ –
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(D)
57. ‘ , ’ –
(A) (B)
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58. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (29) A
– II
– I
30
31. ‘ - ’ – :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
34. ‘’ :•••• •••••• •••••
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35. ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (30) PL-2
39. :
(A) 24 (B) 22
(C) 26 (D) 28
40. ,
,
,
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. :
(A) (B)
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42. , -
:
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43. :
(A) (B)
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44. :
(A) (B)
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45. - ‘-’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. -
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (31) A
47. “ ’
” :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. , :
(A) (B)
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50. –
:
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51 56 :
-
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51. ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ‘’
(A) (B)
(C) .. (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (32) PL-2
54. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘’
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
56. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
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57 60 :
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58. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (33) A
– II
– I
30 .
.
31. ?
(A) . (B) ?
(C) ! (D)
32. ‘ ’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ‘ ’ .
(A) (B) .
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34. .
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PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (34) PL-2
36. .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. .
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
38. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
39. .
(A) (B)
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40. ‘ ’ – ?
(A) , (B) ,
(C) ••••
, ••••••
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41. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
42. ?
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43. ‘ ; ’. –
.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. ?
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (35) A
45. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. .
(A) .
(B) , .
(C) .
(D) , .
48. ‘’ .
(A) (B)
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49. ‘ ’ .
(A) (B)
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50. ‘ .’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51 53
. . .
. . .
. .
. . .
. . .
51. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (36) PL-2
52. . – ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ‘’ .
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
54. ‘ .’ – ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. ‘ ’ ’. ?
(A) •••• •••••• •••••(B)
(C) (D)
57. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘, ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’ – ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (37) A
– III
– II
30
61 65
“ ,
, ,
- - ,
, -
,
- , ”
61. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
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62. ‘ ’ :
(A) ,
(B) , ,
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(D)
63. ‘ - ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (38) PL-2
66. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
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69. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. ‘ ’ :
(A) . . (B)
•••• •••••• ••••• ....
(C) = (D)
71. ‘ ’ , –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. ?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (39) A
75. - –
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
76.
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
77. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. ‘ ’ –
(A)
(B)
(C)
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79. - –
(A)
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(C)
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80. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81 90
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,
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PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (40) PL-2
81. (, , , , , , ) –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘ - ’ –
(A) – (B) -
(C) – (D) –
84. ‘ ’ :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
85. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86. ‘ ’ •••• ••••••
– •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. :
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
89. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (41) A
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. Choose the correct modal auxiliary to fill the blank :
You _____ improve your spelling. (necessity / obligation)
(A) should (B) must
(C) can (D) might
62. What’s the good of entering into negotiations with ‘a man of straw’ ? Here ‘a man of straw’
means :
(A) a man of no substance or consequence. (B) a man who is made of straw.
(C) a man who is light in weight. (D) a man who strays here and there.
63. A poem that has 14 lines, each usually containing 10 syllables, and a fixed pattern of rhyme
is known as :
(A) An Elegy (B) Limerick
(C) Ode (D) Sonnet
64. On the approach of a policeman the bully ‘showed a clean pair of heels’. Here ‘showed a
clean pair of heels’ means :
(A) ready to clarify (B) he showed his shoes
(C) ran away (D) walked away
•••• •••••• •••••
65. Which one of these does not belong to an elegy ?
(A) a sad poem (B) mourning poem
(C) emotional poem (D) a joyful poem
66. Choose the bilabial consonants :
(A) | p b | (B) | t d |
(C) | t ʃ | (D) | k g|
67. Which is lateral consonant ?
(A) | m | (B) | l |
(C) | n | (D) | w |
68. The symbol of underlined letters in the word ‘Ship’ is :
(A) Sh (B) S
(C) ʃ (D)
69. Phonetic transcription for the word ‘jute’ is :
(A) | ðӕt | (B) | ʤu:t |
(C) | ju:t | (D) | zu:t |
70. Phonetic transcription for the word ‘wreathe’ is :
(A) | ri:ð | (B) | wri:th |
(C) | wrIð | (D) | reǝth |
71. “Important principles may and must be flexible.” Who quoted this ?
(A) Woods (B) Washington
(C) William Weak (D) Whitestone
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (42) PL-2
72. Natural order of learning a language is :
(A) speaking, listening, writing and reading.
(B) listening, writing, speaking and reading.
(C) listening, speaking, reading and writing.
(D) speaking, listening, reading and writing.
73. Which one of these is not an element of communicative approach ?
(A) Communicative approach is practical in use.
(B) It develops the speech ability.
(C) It is not practical in use.
(D) It lays stress on the functional value of the language.
74. Which is the latest application of teaching language ?
(A) Structural approach (B) Communicative approach
(C) Project approach (D) Inductive – Deductive approach
75. Choose one of these which is not a remedy to resolve the challenges of teaching English :
(A) Provide certified and qualified teachers. (B) Building Rapport
(C) Building Confidence (D) Use only one method of teaching.
76. Which one of these is not an advantage of online remedial education ?
(A) Gives a sense of isolation to the learner.
(B) Elimination of barriers of time and space.
(C) It is cost-effective.
(D) The instruction pace is flexible.
77. Which one of these is a disadvantage of online remedial education ?
(A) It is easy for the student to navigate information.
(B) No technical support••••from•••••• •••••
the instructor.
(C) A well designed online course makes it easy.
(D) None
78. Continuous evaluation is basically :
(A) formative in nature and is school based.
(B) summative in nature and is school based.
(C) formative in nature and teacher based.
(D) summative in nature and teacher based.
79. Which one of these is not a merit of Group Evaluation ?
(A) Different learning styles cannot be evaluated.
(B) Students learn in cooperative manner as they help one another in a group.
(C) A healthy competition in a group motivates them to learn.
(D) None
80. Summative evaluations :
(A) Provide the information on improving a product or a process.
(B) Provide information of short term effectiveness or long term impact for deciding the
adoption of a product or process.
(C) Provide information about teachers and what they teach in the classes.
(D) None
Read the following passage and answer the questions(Q. Nos. 81-85) :
Lack of control by parents is also harmful. If parents do not impose any constraints on the
adolescents, then they have a tendency to go astray and choose the wrong path, and later
become difficult to discipline. Such adolescents feel let down and think that nobody cares for
them. Hence some discipline from parents is necessary.
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (43) A
81. ‘_____’ may be an appropriate title for the given extract.
(A) Discipline (B) Adolescence
(C) Lack of control (D) Tendency to go astray
82. Fill in the blanks with appropriate linking devices which are given below (for Q. Nos. 82-83) :
_____ adolescents _____ their friends feel let down and think that nobody cares for them.
(A) Both – and (B) As – as
(C) So – and (D) Though – and
83. They have a tendency _____ to go astray _____ to choose the wrong path. (According to
the passage)
(A) neither – nor (B) either – or
(C) not only – but also (D) so – as
84. Adolescent as well as his friends _____ let down and think that nobody cares for them.
Choose the appropriate verb to fill the blank in the above sentence :
(A) feel (B) feels
(C) is feel (D) will be feel
85. If a Guardian _____ not impose any constraints on the adolescents, then they have a
tendency to go astray.
Choose the correct option to fill the blank :
(A) have (B) are
(C) do (D) does
Read the following stanza and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 86-87) :
‘Give me a flower delicious as ••••••
•••• the rose•••••
And stately as the lily in her pride’ –
But of what colour ?’ – ‘Rose-red’, Love first chose,
Then prayed – ‘No, lily – white – or, ‘both provide;’
86. Choose the correct rhyme scheme in the above stanza :
(A) a a b b (B) a b a b
(C) a b b a (D) a b c d
87. ‘Give me a flower delicious as the rose ……..’ Which figure of speech is used in this line ?
(A) Metaphor (B) Assonance
(C) Epithet (D) Simile
88. Richard was a lion in the fight.
Which literary device is used in the above line ?
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Personification (D) Alliteration
89. Choose the correct figure of speech in the lines given below :
Pride goeth forth on horseback, grand and gay,
But cometh back on foot, and begs its way.
(A) Personification (B) Simile
(C) Metaphor (D) None
90. “Betty Botter bought some butter ……….”
Which figure of speech used in the above line ?
(A) Simile (B) Personification
(C) Alliteration (D) Metaphor
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (44) PL-2
– III
– II
61. “54” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. (6:45) – -
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D) -
63. -
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
64. –
“ ”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. “ ” -
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
66. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (45) A
68. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. –
“ ______ ”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
72. , , ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. , , , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (46) PL-2
76. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80. •••• ••••••
– •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(81-85) -
81. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. “ ” ?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (47) A
83. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84. “ ” ?
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D) -
85.
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(86-90) –
,
•••• •••••• •••••
86. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (48) A
III
II
(30)
.61
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.62
(B)
(A)
(D)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C)
.63
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.64
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.65
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
PL-2 (49) A
.66
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.67
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.68
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.69
(B) (A)
••••
(D)•••••• ••••• (C)
.70
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.71
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PL-2 (50) A
.72
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.73
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.74
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.75
(B)
(A)
•••• (D)
•••••• ••••• (C)
.76
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.77
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.78
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (51) A
.79
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.80
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
85 81
1984
•••• •••••• •••••
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(D) (C)
(B) (A)
.83
1988 (D) 1984 (C) 1983 (B) 1982 (A)
.84
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (52) A
90 86
.86
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.87
(B) •••••
•••• •••••• (A)
(D) (C)
.88
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.89
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.90
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (53) A
– III
– II
30
61. (i)
(ii)
(A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (D) (i) (ii)
62. “ ________ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. –
(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii) •••• •••••• •••••
(4) (iv)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
64. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (54) PL-2
67. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. “ ” –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. , , ________ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
72. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. –
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
74. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (55) A
77. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. ________ –
(A) - (B) -
(C) (D)
79. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
– (81 85)
230
, •••• •••••• •••••
, , , ,
, , , ,
,
81. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (56) PL-2
84. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(86 90)
, ,
, - ,
,
; ••••, •••••• •••••
86. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ______ ( )
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (57) A
– III
– II
30
61. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ’ :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
•••• •••••• •••••
64. , , , :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ______ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (58) PL-2
69. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. :
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D) -
71. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
72. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
74. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. “ - ,
” – :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. :
(A) , ,
(B) , ,
(C) , ,
(D) , ,
77. ‘’ :
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (59) A
78.
:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
79. - :
(A) - (B)
(C) -, (D)
80. :
(A)
(B) -
(C)
(D)
81 85 :
•••• •••••• •••••
,
81. :
(A)
, (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
82. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (60) PL-2
84. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
- , 86 90 :
86. - : •••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. - - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (61) A
– III
– II
30 .
.
61. ‘ ’ ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
62. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. , , ?
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
65. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. :
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
67. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. - ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) - . (D) .
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (62) PL-2
69. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. ?
(A) . (B) - .
(C) . (D) .
•••• •••••• •••••
74. . _______
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
75. ?
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
76. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (63) A
78. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. ?
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
80. ?
(A)
, (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
81 83
‘’ ? -.
•••• ••••••
•••••
. - -
. . ; -
; . . !
. .
. .
81. ‘’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (64) PL-2
84 85
!
,
? .
;
,
, .
, .
;
, .
84. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
85. ••••
? •••••• •••••
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
86. .
(A) . (B) .. .
(C) ? (D) .
87. ?
(A) ‘ .’ .
(B) , , , .
(C) , .
(D) .
88. ‘ .’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ?
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (65) A
SECTION-IV / – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and
IV(b) Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social
Studies as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
IV(a) IV(b)
60
IV(a) IV(b) , -
, 60
SECTION-IV (a) / – IV (a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
•••• •••••• •••••
60
3 3
91. If part of a pipe is in mud, part in water and remaining 5 metre above the water
10 5
surface, then the length of the pipe will be :
(A) 15 m (B) 60 m
(C) 30 m (D) 50 m
3 3
10
, 5
5 ,
(A) 15 (B) 60
(C) 30 (D) 50
92. The present population of a town is 5000. If there is a decrease of 10% in the population
every year, then the population after 2 years will be :
(A) 4500 (B) 4050
(C) 4000 (D) 3500
5000 10% , 2
(A) 4500 (B) 4050
(C) 4000 (D) 3500
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (66) PL-2
93. What should be added to each term of the ratio 16 : 25 so that the ratio becomes 2 : 3 ?
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
16 : 25 2:3 ?
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
94. A quadrilateral whose four sides and angles are equal to each other is known as
(A) Square (B) Rectangle
(C) Rhombus (D) Parallelogram
, :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
95. The ratio of the length of the side of a square and its diagonal is
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1: 2
(C) 2:2 (D) 2:1
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 :2 (D) 2 :1
96. The sum of two sides of a triangle with the third side is
(A) greater (B) small
(C) equal (D) None of these
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
97. The volume of a cuboid is 440 cm3 and the area of its base is 88 cm2, then the height of
the cuboid will be
(A) 3 cm (B) 2.5 cm
(C) 6 cm (D) 5 cm
440 88 ,
(A) 3 (B) 2.5
(C) 6 (D) 5
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (67) A
98. The number of diagonals in a cube is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
99. If the height of a cylinder is 11 cm and the curved surface area is 968 cm2, then the radius
of the cylinder will be
(A) 10 cm (B) 11 cm
(C) 14 cm (D) 8 cm
11 968 ,
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 14 (D) 8
100. The arrangement of presenting the data in columns and rows in a sequential form is called
(A) Classification (B) Tabulation
(C) Presentation (D) Analysis
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
101. Which of the following is not a source of secondary data ?
(A) Magazines (B) Official report
(C) Self survey (D) Data stored on the internet
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
102. With the observation of frequency polygon, which of the following can be found out ?
(A) Mode (B) Median
(C) Mean (D) Standard deviation
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (68) PL-2
103. When two dice are tossed simultaneously, the probability that the sum of the numbers
appearing on both the dice is 8 will be
1 1
(A) (B)
6 36
5 7
(C) (D)
36 36
8
1 1
(A) (B)
6 36
5 7
(C) (D)
36 36
104. The knowledge of Mathematics is
(A) Exact (B) Logical
(C) Systematic (D) All of these
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
105. “Mathematics is the giving of same name to different things.” This statement is said by
(A) Henry Poincare (B) Roser Banken
(C) Berthlot (D) Benzamin Peirce
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
106. Which of the following statements is not related to the reason for giving special place to
Mathematics in the curriculum ?
(A) Mathematics is an exact Science.
(B) Mathematics generates logical attitude in children.
(C) Mathematics is not for ordinary people.
(D) The language of Mathematics is universal.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (69) A
107. Mathematics teaching is useful :
(A) In social development (B) In practical life
(C) In intellectual development (D) In all of these
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
108. The word ‘curriculum’ is originated from
(A) Latin language (B) French language
(C) German language (D) None of these
‘ ’( )
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
109. ‘William Kilpatrick’ is the founder of which method of teaching mathematics ?
(A) Lecture method (B) Demonstration method
(C) Project method (D) Analytical method
‘ ’ ?
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
110. Which teaching method follows the principles of ‘Learning by doing’ and ‘Learning by
observation’ ?
(A) Inductive method (B) Laboratory method
(C) Deductive method (D) None of these
‘ ’ ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
111. Characteristics of a good test is
(A) Validity (B) Objectivity
(C) Reliability (D) All of these
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (70) PL-2
112. In which type of teaching “The main purpose is the development of effective techniques
for the correction of error in all types of learning” ?
(A) Diagnostic (B) Remedial
(C) Achievement (D) None of these
“
”?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
113. In the teaching and learning of mathematics, the use of teaching aids helps in :
(A) Making teaching joyful. (B) Making contents interesting.
(C) Maintaining class discipline. (D) All of these
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
2
•••• ••••••
2 2
•••••
1 1 1
114. The value of is
2 3 4
(A) –576 (B) 576
(C) 144 (D) 288
2 2 2
1 1 1
2 3 4
(A) –576 (B) 576
(C) 144 (D) 288
3
115. The sum of two numbers is 15. If the sum of their reciprocals is , then the larger number is
10
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25
3
15
10
,
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (71) A
116. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder
(B) Dividend = Divisor + Quotient × Remainder
(C) Divisor = Dividend × Quotient + Remainder
(D) Remainder = Dividend × Divisor + Quotient
:
(A) = × + (B) = + ×
(C) = × + (D) = × +
117. The value of 176 + 2401 is
(A) 49 (B) 6.08
(C) 25 (D) 15
176 2401
(A) 49 (B) 6.08
(C) 25 (D) 15
118. If 27(2x – 1) = (243)3, then the value of x is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 •••• •••••• •••••(D) 5
27 (2x – 1) = (243) , x
3
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 5
119. If the simple interest on ` 600 for 4 years and the simple interest on ` 600 for 2 years
together amounts to ` 180, then the rate of interest will be :
(A) 4% (B) 5%
(C) 5.5% (D) 6%
` 600 4 ` 600 2 ` 180 ,
(A) 4% (B) 5%
(C) 5.5% (D) 6%
120. If the side of a square is increased by 50%, then by what percent will its area increase ?
(A) 75% (B) 100%
(C) 125% (D) 150%
50% , ?
(A) 75% (B) 100%
(C) 125% (D) 150%
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (72) PL-2
121. Which of the following is not correct for ‘evaluation’ ?
(A) It is an integral part of teaching process.
(B) It is more objective, reliable & valid.
(C) Its area is limited.
(D) Diagnostic and remedial teaching is possible through this.
‘ ’ ?
(A)
(B) ,
(C)
(D)
122. Example of thermoplastic among the following is
(A) Bakelite (B) Melamine
(C) Polythene (D) Urea-formaldehyde resin
-
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D) -
123. Monoatomic molecule among the following is
(A) Argon (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Ozone
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
124. Chemical formula of magnesium phosphate is
(A) MgPO4 (B) Mg2(PO4)3
(C) Mg3(PO4)2 (D) Mg(PO4)2
–
(A) MgPO4 (B) Mg2(PO4)3
(C) Mg3(PO4)2 (D) Mg(PO4)2
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (73) A
125. The process used to separate grain from stalks is
(A) Hand picking (B) Threshing
(C) Sublimation (D) Sieving
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
126. Natural indicator among the following is
(A) Litmus (B) Phenolphthalein
(C) Methyl orange (D) Methyl red
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
127. Inexhaustible natural resource among the following is
(A) Forest (B) Coal
(C) Natural gas (D) Sunlight
•••• •••••• –•••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
128. Example of co-curricular activity in Science teaching is
(A) Chart (B) Model
(C) Bulletin board (D) Science club
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
129. Which class of plants is called “Amphibians of the plant kingdom” ?
(A) Pteridophyta (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Bryophytes (D) Angiosperms
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (74) PL-2
130. Which of the following is a non – infectious disease ?
(A) AIDS (B) Cancer
(C) Corona (D) Common cold
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
131. In which stage of cell division synaptonemal complex is formed ?
(A) Prophase I (B) Prophase II
(C) Prophase (D) None of these
?
(A) I (B) II
(C) (D)
132. Fossil fuels are
(A) Renewable source of energy (B) Non-renewable source of energy
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (A) (B) (D)
133. Ganga Action Plan – Phase I was launched in
(A) 1987 (B) 1985
(C) 1989 (D) 1984
- I :
(A) 1987 (B) 1985
(C) 1989 (D) 1984
134. Which bacterium causes gonorrhoea disease ?
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(C) Mycobacterium leprae (D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (75) A
135. Which type of mammary glands are present in human female ?
(A) Apocrine (B) Merocrine
(C) Holocrine (D) Eccrine
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
136. Disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin – C (Ascorbic acid) is
(A) Night-blindness (B) Beri-Beri
(C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
- (C) ( ) :
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
137. In which phase of cell division process of synapsis occurs ?
(A) Pachytene (B) Zygotene
(C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
138. When medical termination of pregnancy was legally approved in India ?
(A) 1947 (B) 1971
(C) 1958 (D) 1960
?
(A) 1947 (B) 1971
(C) 1958 (D) 1960
139. Where is the institute that developed ‘Saheli’, a contraceptive pill, located in India ?
(A) Bangalore (B) Ahmedabad
(C) Lucknow (D) Chennai
‘ ’ - , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (76) PL-2
140. Example of Rabi crop is
(A) Wheat (B) Groundnut
(C) Maize (D) Soyabean
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
141. Which teaching method was popularized by G. Stanley Hall ?
(A) Psychometric method (B) Anecdote method
(C) Questionnaire method (D) Case-history method
. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
•••• •••••• •••••
142. Characteristics of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is
(A) Durational aspect (B) Continuity
(C) Omniversal development (D) All of these
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
143. Which of the following is not an advantage of teaching aids ?
(A) Expensive material (B) Motivation and interest
(C) Effective for slow learner (D) More efficient learning possible
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (77) A
144. Which of the following is not a correct example of muscular force ?
(A) A person lifting a bucket of water placed on the ground with both his hands.
(B) A person lifting a book on the table with both his hands.
(C) A person stops rowing a boat with both his hands then boat stops after travelling
some distance in the water.
(D) A person pushing a table placed on the floor with both his hands.
?
(A)
(B)
(C) ,
(D)
145. If a simple pendulum takes 40 seconds to complete 20 oscillations, then the time period of
the simple pendulum is
(A) 2 second (B) 0.2 second
(C) 5 second •••• •••••• •••••
(D) 0.5 second
20 40 , :
(A) 2 (B) 0.2
(C) 5 (D) 0.5
146. A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk, then its other end -
(A) becomes hot by the process of convection.
(B) becomes hot by the process of radiation.
(C) becomes hot by the process of conduction.
(D) does not become hot.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (78) PL-2
147. The image of an object formed by side glass of motor vehicles is -
(A) erect, real and smaller in size than the object.
(B) erect, real and bigger in size than the object.
(C) erect, virtual and smaller in size than the object.
(D) erect, virtual and bigger in size than the object.
( ) –
(A) , ( )
(B) , ( )
(C) , ( )
(D) , ( )
148. The correct statement for loudness and pitch of the sound in roar of a lion -
(A) Loudness high, Pitch-high (B) Loudness high, Pitch-low
(C) Loudness low, Pitch-low (D) Loudness low, Pitch-high
–
(A) , (B) ,
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) , (D) ,
149. Which of the following device is based upon magnetic effect of electric current ?
(A) Electric bulb (B) Electric fuse
(C) Electric bell (D) Electric press
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
150. Which planet is least dense among the following planets ?
(A) Saturn (B) Mercury
(C) Mars (D) Jupiter
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
__________
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (79) A
SECTION-IV(b) / – IV(b)
SOCIAL STUDIES /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
60
91. How many sub-committees have been mentioned by Magasthenes to conduct military
activities in the Mauryan administration ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
- ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
92. What was the land donated to Brahmins in the Gupta period called ?
(A) Vellanvagai (B) Shalabhoga
(C) Devadana (D) Agrahara
•••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
93. Which was the capital of the Chalukyas ?
(A) Madurai (B) Amaravati
(C) Bharuch (D) Aihole
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
94. Who was the first Sultan to visit the “Shrine” of Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti ?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish
(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (D) Alauddin Khilji
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (80) PL-2
95. The Polaj, Parati, Chachar and Banjar land types belong to which period ?
(A) Maurya (B) Gupta
(C) Sultanate (D) Mughal
, , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
96. Which was Akbar’s favourite style of Calligraphy ?
(A) Nastaliq (B) Kufic
(C) Manzil-abadi (D) Herat
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
97. Who painted a picture titled “The Relief of Lucknow” about 1857 ?
(A) Marshal (B) Miss Wheeler
(C) Thomas Jones Barker (D) Joseph
“ ” •••• ••••••
1857 ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
98. Who was the author of the book ‘Gulamgiri’ ?
(A) Dayanand Saraswati (B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Jyotirao Phule (D) Raja Rammohan Roy
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
99. ‘Family Welfare’ subject is given in which schedule of Constitution of India ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 11
‘ ’ ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 11
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (81) A
100. Who has the power to amend Constitution of India ?
(A) Supreme Court (B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha (D) Parliament
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
101. When is ‘Legal Services Day’ celebrated in India ?
(A) 1 January (B) 10 August
(C) 9 November (D) 10 December
‘ ’ ?
(A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 9 (D) 10
102. State the correct sequence of words mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of
India.
(A) Fraternity, Equality, Liberty, Justice.
(B) Equality, Liberty, Justice, Fraternity.
(C) Liberty, Equality, Justice, Fraternity.
(D) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
103. When was “Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO)” came in force in
India ?
(A) 2008 (B) 2010
(C) 2011 (D) 2012
“ ( )” ?
(A) 2008 (B) 2010
(C) 2011 (D) 2012
104. Which one is not included in ‘Fundamental Duties’ given in Article 51 A ?
(A) To Pay Taxes
(B) To Defend the Country
(C) To Safeguard Public Property
(D) To Develop the Scientific Temper
51 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (82) PL-2
105. Which Constitutional Amendment determined the size of the Council of Ministers ?
(A) 81 (B) 91
(C) 101 (D) 102
?
(A) 81 (B) 91
(C) 101 (D) 102
106. ‘SVEEP’ is related to
(A) Voters Awareness Programme (B) Rural Swachhta Programme
(C) Urban Swachhta Programme (D) Corruption Control Programme
‘ ’ (SVEEP)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
107. ‘The Dispute between two States’ is part of which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court ?
(A) Original (B) Appellate
(C) Advisory (D) Writ
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) ( )
108. The ‘Theory of Basic Structure’ was propounded by the judiciary in which case ?
(A) A.K. Gopalan (B) Kesavananda Bharati
(C) S.R. Boomai •••• •••••• ••••• Golaknath
(D)
‘ ’ ?
(A) . . (B)
(C) . . (D)
109. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) The earth is also called a blue planet.
(B) Venus is considered as “Earth’s – twin”.
(C) Saturn is an Inner planet.
(D) Mercury completes one orbit around Sun in 88 days.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) , 88
110. When it is 10.00 AM on 0 longitude, what time will it be at 15 east longitude ?
(A) 11.00 AM (B) 11.00 PM
(C) 10.15 AM (D) 09.45 AM
0 10.00 , 15 ?
(A) 11.00 (B) 11.00
(C) 10.15 (D) 09.45
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (83) A
111. The place in the crust where the earthquake movement starts is called as –
(A) Focus (B) Epicentre
(C) Vent (D) Crater
- , –
(A) (B)
(C) ( ) (D)
112. Earthquake and Volcano are caused by –
(A) Endogenic forces
(B) Exogenic forces
(C) Endogenic and Exogenic forces
(D) Solar forces
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
113. The Agulhas current flows in which ocean ?
(A) Arctic Ocean (B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean (D) Indian Ocean
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
114. Who was the first General of Archaeological Survey of India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Sir John Marshall
(C) Alexander Cunningham (D) William Bentinck
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
115. Which statement is true regarding The Therigatha ?
I. This is part of Sutta Pitaka.
II. Is a collection of verses composed by Bhikkhunis.
III. This is part of Vinay Pitaka.
IV. It provides an insight into women’s social and spritual experiences.
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, IV
(C) II, III, IV (D) I, III, IV
?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, IV
(C) II, III, IV (D) I, III, IV
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (84) PL-2
116. Vardhman Mahavir belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Lichchhavis (B) Haryank
(C) Shakya (D) Satavahana
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
117. Why Magadha was the first among the Sixteen Mahajanapadas ?
(A) Agriculture was especially productive.
(B) Presence of Iron Mines.
(C) Availability of Wild elephant.
(D) All of these
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
118. Where is the Harappan site called Lothal located ?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat
(C) Haryana •••• •••••• •••••
(D) Kashmir
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
119. Barygaza was the Greek name of which port of ancient India ?
(A) Bharuch (B) Arikamedu
(C) Puhar (D) Madurai
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
120. Chola inscriptions mention several categories of land. Among them Vellanvagai was
(A) Land of Non-Brahmin Peasant proprietors.
(B) Land gifted to Brahmins.
(C) Land for the maintenance of a school.
(D) Land gifted to temples.
, “ ”
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (85) A
121. Match the following :
Festival District
(1) Camel festival (a) Jaisalmer
(2) Desert festival (b) Bikaner
(3) Kite festival (c) Udaipur
(4) Mewar festival (d) Jaipur
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
122. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary is in Kota, Bundi, Chittorgarh.
(B) Kesar Bagh Wildlife Sanctuary is in Dholpur.
(C) Semi-tropical evergreen forests are also called monsoon forests.
(D) “Kalpvriksh of Rajasthan” is Rohida.
?
(A) , ,
(B)
(C)
(D) “ ”
123. Which is not correctly matched ?
(A) Luni – Jojri (B) Banas – Menal
(C) Mahi – Banganga (D) Chambal – Parvati
?
(A) – (B) –
(C) – (D) –
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (86) PL-2
124. Who built the “Varaha temple” at Pushkar near Ajmer ?
(A) Ajay Raj (B) Aruno Raj
(C) Vigraharaj IV (D) Prithviraj Chauhan
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
125. Who was the political agent of princely State of Sirohi at the time of 1857 revolt in Rajasthan ?
(A) J.D. Hall (B) Eden
(C) Major Burton (D) Mac Mession
1857 ?
(A) . . (B)
(C) (D)
126. Motilal Tejawat was a resident of which village ?
(A) Falasiya (B) Samalia
(C) Colliery (D) Mangarh
•••• •••••• •••••
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
127. Which literary work of Kanhaiya Lal Sethia was given Suryamal Mishran Award in 1987 ?
(A) Leeltans (B) Nirgrantha
(C) Dharti Dhora Ri (D) Shabd
1987 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
128. “Hathal village” is associated with which princely state in the integration of Rajasthan ?
(A) Kishangarh (B) Jhalawar
(C) Pratapgarh (D) Sirohi
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (87) A
129. Governor General Lord William Bentinck named which fort as the second Gibraltar in the
world ?
(A) Mehrangarh (B) Nahargarh
(C) Siwana (D) Taragarh
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
130. Which fair of Rajasthan is called ‘Kumbh of the tribals’ ?
(A) Beneshwar Fair (B) Kaila Devi Fair
(C) Jeen Mata Fair (D) Diggy Fair
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
131. Thamanyo, Thedyo, Aad and Thussi ornaments are worn by women in which part of their
body ?
(A) Head (B) Neck
(C) Hands •••• •••••• •••••
(D) Waist
, , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
132. “Maharaja School of Arts and Crafts” was established by which Rajasthani ruler ?
(A) Sawai Jaisingh (B) Sawai Ramsingh
(C) Jagat Singh (D) Jaswant Singh
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
133. “Valar dance” is performed by
(A) Female (B) Male
(C) Male and Female (D) None of these
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (88) PL-2
134. After attaining which of the following objectives, a student can correct any given error in
a map ?
(A) Gaining Knowledge (B) Development of Understanding
(C) Application of Knowledge (D) Action Skills Development
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
135. “Education is nothing but the socialization of the younger generation.”
Above mentioned statement is given by which scholar ?
(A) Durkheim (B) Bossing
(C) Aristotle (D) T.P. Nunn
“ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D) . .
136. “Model of understanding level of teaching” is also known as
(A) Herbert’s Model (B) Morrison’s Model
(C) Ausubel’s Model (D) Turner’s Teaching Model
“ ” -
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
137. Which of the following teaching objective is not associated with Benjamin Bloom’s
Cognitive Domain ?
(A) Knowledge (B) Receiving
(C) Analysis (D) Evaluation
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
138. According to the nature of instructional method, project method belongs to –
(A) TCI (Teacher Controlled Instruction)
(B) LCI (Learner Controlled Instruction)
(C) T-LCI (Interactive Procedure Instruction)
(D) GCI (Group Controlled Instruction)
-
(A) . . .( )
(B) . . .( )
(C) .- . . .( )
(D) . . .( )
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (89) A
139. Which of the following formula can be used to represent the “Measurement and
Evaluation relation” ?
(A) Measurement = Evaluation + Assessment
(B) Evaluation = Measurement + Assessment
(C) Measurement = Evaluation
(D) Assessment = Measurement + Evaluation
?
(A) = + (B) = +
(C) = (D) = +
140. Which of the following steps is not a part of “Project – Method” ?
(A) Creation of the situation (B) Selection of project
(C) Analysis of information (D) Evaluation of the project
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
141. Which of the following suggestions were not presented for the continuous and
comprehensive evaluation of National Education Policy-1986 ?
(A) Evaluation should be aim-based.
(B) Nature of evaluation should be vast.
(C) Evaluation should be••••
done regularly.
•••••• •••••
(D) Intensive training is not needed in making of question papers.
-1986 –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
142. Which of the following is useful in class-room teaching comparative study ?
(A) Poster (B) Time lines
(C) Sketches (D) Graph
- -
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
143. A student can learn about the culture and folk life of ancient and modern times through
(A) Tour (B) Museums
(C) Observation (D) All of the above
- , , –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (90) PL-2
144. The newer, younger deposits of the flood plain in North-Indian plain, are known as –
(A) Bhanger (B) Khadar
(C) Bhabar (D) Terai
- - –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
145. Which is the most wide spread forest in India ?
(A) Tropical Deciduous forest (B) Tropical thorn forest
(C) Tropical evergreen forest (D) Montane forest
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
146. Which crop is known as “Golden Fibre” ?
(A) Cotton (B) Jute
(C) Hemp (D) Natural Silk
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
147. Metallic mineral pair is –
(A) Manganese – Copper (B) Copper – Graphite
(C) Iron – Mica (D) Mica – Dolomite
– •••• •••••• •••••
(A) – (B) –
(C) – (D) –
148. The biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world is extracted from which plant in India ?
(A) Arjun (B) Himalayan Yew
(C) Sarpagandha (D) Axlewood
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
149. In the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, the word “Palar Pani” is used for –
(A) River water (B) Underground water
(C) Canal water (D) Rain water
- “ - ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
150. The biggest solar park of India is established in which district of Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur (B) Jaisalmer
(C) Barmer (D) Bikaner
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (91) A
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (92) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (93) A
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
A (94) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/ Sh-3-A
PL-2 (95) A
•••• •••••• •••••
PL-2/Sh-3
A (96) PL-2
INSTRUCTIONS / {ZX}e
(Read carefully and comply / ܶmZ go n‹T>| Am¡a nmbZ H$a| )
IMPORTANT / ‘hÎdnyU©
1. In Section II (Language-I) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-I in the
Online Application Form.
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2. In Section III (Language-II) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-II in the
Online Application Form. The Language-II will be different from Language-I.
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3. The candidate must ensure that the Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No. has been filled correctly at the prescribed place in the
OMR Answer Sheet. Your OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated on the basis of Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No., not
Question Booklet Number.
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4. The candidate has to answer of that subject in Section (IV a) Mathematics and Science or (IV b) Social Studies as selected by the candidate
in the Online Applicaton Form.
If a candidate answers the questions of the language or subject other than selected in the Online Application Form, the candidate shall be
personally responsible for it and it would be treated as wrong.
Aä¶Wu H$mo Bg àíZ-nÌ Ho$ IÊS> J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ ¶m gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z ‘| Cgr {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aZm h¡, {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu
Zo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ &
¶{X Aä¶Wu Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm ¶m {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb Z H$aHo$ Aݶ {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aVm h¡ Vmo dh Aä¶Wu H$s ñd¶§ H$s {Oå‘oXmar
hmoJr VWm JbV ‘mZm Om¶oJm &
1. Read complete instructions carefully and fill the details from Sl. No. 1 to 7 in the OMR Answer Sheet and Sl. No. 1 to 4 in the Question
Booklet. If you fail to fill the details and sign as instructed correctly, you will be personally responsible for the consequences arising during
scanning of your OMR Answer Sheet.
{ZX}em| H$mo nyU© ê$n go ܶmZnyd©H$ n‹T>| Am¡a H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ OMR erQ> Ed§ H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m (~wH$coQ>) H$mo ^a| & ¶{X Amn JcV VarHo$ go {ddaU
^aVo ¶m hñVmja H$aVo h¢ Vmo OMR erQ> H$s ñHo$qZJ Ho$ ’$cñdê$n hmoZo dmco n[aUm‘m| Ho$ à{V Amn ñd¶§ CÎmaXm¶r hm|Jo &
2. The Question Booklet comprises 96 pages having 150 questions. After being instructed to open the Booklet, only then the candidates will open
the Question Booklet seals. Check whether the Booklet contains 150 questions starting from Page No. 3 to 90. The Shift Number required in
OMR Sheet will be as per admit card issued to the candidate and also mentioned on the top of the Question Booklet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘| n¥ð> Ed§ àíZ h¢ & narjmWu {ZX}e {X¶o OmZo Ho$ CnamÝV hr àíZ-nwpñVH$m H$s grc Imoc|Jo & ¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a c| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘|
àíZ h¢ Omo {H$ n¥ð> g§»¶m go àmaå^ hmoH$a VH$ h¢ & OMR erQ> na {e’²$Q> Zå~a Aä¶Wu H$mo Omar {H$¶o J¶o àdoe-nÌ Ho$ AZwgma A§{H$V H$aZm h¡ Ed§ Omo
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ D$nar ^mJ na ^r A§{H$V {H$¶m hþAm h¡ &
3. All questions are of MCQ (Multiple Choice Question) type. There is only one correct answer to each question carrying one mark. There
will be no negative marking for wrong answers.
g^r àíZ ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àH$ma Ho$ h¢ & à˶oH$ àíZ H$m EH$ {dH$ën hr ghr h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {c¶o {ZYm©[aV A§H$ EH$ h¡ & JcV Odm~ Ho$ {c¶o F$UmË‘H$ A§H$ Zht {X¶o Om¶|Jo &
4. All questions other than language questions of Sections II and III shall be bilingual.
àíZ-nÌ Ho$ ^mfm gå~pÝYV IÊS> Ed§ Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ A{V[aŠV eof g^r IÊS>m| Ho$ àíZ {Û^mfr¶ hm|Jo &
5. In any event of any mistake in any question/s, candidates will not be penalized. However no corrections will be made in question/s during the examination.
{H$gr àíZ ‘| {H$gr Ìw{Q> Ho$ {c¶o narjmWu H$mo {H$gr••••
àH$ma H$m•••••• •••••
ZwH$gmZ Zht hmoJm & narjm H$s Ad{Y ‘| àíZm| ‘| {H$gr àH$ma H$m g§emoYZ Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
6. Rough work, if any, may be done in the Question Booklet only in the space provided at the end of the Booklet. Do not tear it off from the
Question Booklet. No additional paper shall be provided.
{H$gr àH$ma Ho$ a’$ H$m¶© hoVw àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝV ‘| OJh Xr J¶r h¡ & Bgo àíZ-nwpñVH$m go Zht ’$mSµ|> & {H$gr àH$ma H$m A{V[aŠV H$mJµO CncãY Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
PL-2/Sh-3
7. Use of Log tables, Calculator, Slide rule, Mobile phone, Pager, Digital diary, Bluetooth, Microphone or any other electronic item/instrument
etc. is not allowed. Their use will result in disqualification.
cm°J Q>o~c, H¡$늶wcoQ>a, ñcmB©S> ê$c, ‘mo~mBc ’$moZ, noOa, {S>OrQ>c S>m¶ar, ãë¶yQy>W, ‘mBH«$mo’$moZ ¶m {H$gr Aݶ àH$ma H$m BcoŠQ´>mo{ZH$ CnH$aU / dñVw H$m à¶moJ d{O©V
h¡ & BZHo$ Cn¶moJ na narjm go A¶mo½¶ Kmo{fV {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
8. OMR Answer Sheet will be provided along with Question Booklet separately.
OMR erQ> àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ gmW A{V[aŠV àXmZ H$s Om¶oJr &
9. The Question Booklet will be issued to the candidates 10 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill all entries in OMR
Answer Sheet. The Question Booklet seal shall be opened 5 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill 1 to 4 entries correctly
on the Question Booklet. After opening the Question Booklet, ensure that any page / question is not missing / not printed / torn / repeated. In case,
you find any defect anywhere in the Question Booklet, immediately inform the Invigilator and get it replaced within 5 minutes by the Invigilator.
Warning Bell will ring at 5 minutes before closer of examination and the last long bell will ring at closer of examination.
Aä¶Wu H$mo àíZ-nwpñVH$m narjm Amaå^ hmoZo Ho$ 10 {‘ZQ> nyd© Xr OmdoJr & Aä¶Wu Amdí¶H$ ê$n go OMR erQ ‘| g^r à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-
nwpñVH$m H$s grb narjm Amaå^ Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© Imobo VWm H«$‘ g§»¶m 1 go 4 H$s à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-nwpñVH$m ImobZo Ho$ níMmV narjmWu VËH$mb
¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a| {H$ Cg‘| {ZYm©[aV g‘ñV n¥îR> h¡ / H$moB© àíZ Ny>Q>m Vmo Zht h¡ / N>nmB© nyU© h¡ / H$mJO ’$Qm> Vmo Zht h¡ ¶m H$moB© n¥îR> Xþ~mam Ow‹S> J¶m h¡ µ& ¶{X àíZ-
nwpñVH$m ‘| Bg àH$ma H$s H$moB© Ìw{Q> nmB© OmVr h¡ Vmo VËH$mb drjH$ H$mo gy{MV H$a| VWm 5 {‘ZQ> Ho$ ^rVa drjH$ go AnZr àíZ-nwpñVH$m ~Xbdm bo & MoVmdZr K§§Q>r
narjm g‘mpßV Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© ~OoJr Ed§ ApÝV‘ bå~r K§Q>r narjm g‘mpßV na ~OoJr &
10. Write your Name, Exam Center Code, Signature, Roll No., Question Booklet Series Code, Shift Number and Question Paper Booklet Number
in the space provided in the Question Booklet as well as in the OMR Answer Sheet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ed§ OMR erQ> na {ZYm©[aV ñWmZ na Zm‘, narjm Ho$ÝÐ H$m H$moS>, hñVmja, Zm‘m§H$, àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS>, {e’²$Q> H«$‘m§H$ Ed§ àíZ nwpñVH$m
H«$‘m§H$ A§{H$V H$a| &
11. With each question you will find 4 possible answers marked by the letters A, B, C & D. Read each question carefully and find out which
answer, according to you is correct. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate circle completely in the OMR Answer Sheet corresponding
to the question. For marking answers use blue/black ballpoint pen only. Gel pens/pencils are not allowed.
à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ Mma d¡H$pënH$ CÎma d ‘| {X¶o J¶o h¢ & àíZm| H$mo ܶmZnyd©H$ nTµ>| d ghr CÎma H$m M¶Z H$a CgHo$ CÎma H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| gå~pÝYV àíZ H«$‘m§H$ Ho$ g‘j
C{MV Jmoco H$mo Jham H$a B§{JV H$a| & CÎmam| H$mo Xem©Zo Ho$ {c¶o Zrco ¶m H$mco ~m°c ßdmB§Q> noZ H$m hr Cn¶moJ H$a| & Ooc noZ ¶m nopÝgc H$m Cn¶moJ d{O©V h¡ &
Correct Method : CORRECT / Wrong Method : WRONG / WRONG / WRONG / WRONG /
: :
12. OMR Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. If you do not follow the instructions given above and at the backside of the OMR Answer
Sheet, it may make evaluation by computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account shall be of the candidate only.
OMR erQ> H$mo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam ‘yë¶m§H$Z Ho$ {c¶o ~Zm¶m J¶m h¡ & ¶{X Amn Cn¶w©ŠV Ed§ OMR erQ> Ho$ {nN>co n¥ð> na {X¶o J¶o {ZX}em| H$m nmcZ Zht H$aVo, Vmo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam AmnH$m
‘yë¶m§H$Z H${R>Z hmo Om¶oJm & Bg H$maU go narjmWu H$mo hmoZo dmco ZwH$gmZ H$s {Oå‘oXmar CgH$s ñd¶§ H$s hmoJr &
13. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the final bell. The OMR Answer Sheet is carbonless in duplicate having perforation on the
left side. Candidate should detach carefully the Original Copy from the Candidate’s Copy (Duplicate) so that the Original Copy is not mutilated
in any way. Candidate should handover the Original OMR Copy and Question Booklet to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.
Candidate can carry only the Candidate’s OMR copy with him/her. Question Booklet is not allowed to be taken by the candidate.
H$moB© narjmWu ApÝV‘ K§Q>r ~OZo Ho$ nyd© narjm H$j go ~mha Zht Om gHo$Jm & OMR erQ> H$m~©Z a{hV VWm AZw{c{n g{hV h¡ CgHo$ ~m¶t Va’$ na’$moaoeZ {H$¶m
hþAm h¡ & Aä¶Wu gmdYmZr go Aä¶Wu H$s à{V (AZw{c{n) go ‘yc à{V H$mo Eogo AcJ H$a| Vm{H$ {H$gr ^r VarHo$ go ‘yc à{V H$mo H$moB© hm{Z Z nhþ±Mo & narjm-H$j
N>moSµ>Zo Ho$ nyd© Aä¶Wu OMR H$s ‘yb à{V Ed§ àíZ-nwpñVH$m drjH$ H$mo gm¢n Xo & Aä¶Wu Ho$db AnZr OMR H$s à{V hr AnZo gmW bo Om gH|$Jo& àíZ-nwpñVH$m
Aä¶Wu AnZo gmW Zht bo Om gH|$Jo &
Question Booklet No. Series Code /grarµO H$moS> :
PAPER CODE
1. Roll No. /
PL-2 (SHIFT-4)
A Write this code in OMR Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a|
2. OMR Sheet No./ Amo.E‘.Ama. erQ> H«$‘m§H$
&
* 3. Candidate’s name / * 4. Candidate’s Signature / narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form / O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V {H$¶m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature / (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet : 96
H«$‘m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© narjmWu Ûmam ñd¶§ H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m ‘| Hw$b n¥îR>
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four
Sections : Section-I, II & III of 30-30 questions each and Section-IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all
sections. Each question is of one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.
Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR>> ~hþM¶ZmË‘H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| ‘| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & à˶oH$
IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III 30-30 àíZm| H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {bE Z¡Jo{Q>d ‘m{Hª$J Zht hmoJr &
narjmWu OMR erQ> ^aZo go nyd© ¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘| 1-96 n¥ð> ^br^m±{V N>no h¢ & H$moB© {dg§J{V hmoZo na àíZ-nwpñVH$m Vwa§V ~Xbdm b| &>
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-4)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Section Contents Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 9
(II) Language-I (Only One Language) 30 31 60
As selected by the candidate as medium of
•••• ••••••Form
instruction in the Online Application •••••as
Language-I from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 10 13
English 30 31 60 14 16
Sanskrit 30 31 60 17 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 36
(III) Language-II (Only One Language) 30 61 90
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other
than the Language-I) in the Online Application
Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 37 40
English 30 61 90 41 43
Sanskrit 30 61 90 44 47
Urdu 30 61 90 48 52
Sindhi 30 61 90 53 56
Punjabi 30 61 90 57 60
Gujarati 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science 60 91 150 65 78
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies 60 91 150 79 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1.In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and
Language-II in the Online Application Form.
2.In Sections-IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected
subject in Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table & Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English & Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this booklet.
PL-2 A
A (2) PL-2
PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-4)
Hw$c àíZ : 150 g‘¶md{Y … 2 K§Q>o 30 {‘ZQ> nyUmªH$ : 150
Hw$b àíZ àíZ g§»¶m n¥îR g§»¶m
IÊS> {df¶-gm‘J«r g§»¶m go VH$ go VH$
(I) 30 1 30 3 9
(II) ^mfm-I (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 31 60
narjmWu Ûmam M¶{ZV AZwXoeZ H$m ‘mܶ‘ H$s ^mfm
Omo {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go ^mfm-I Ho$ ê$n ‘|
Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V H$s h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 31 60 10 13
A§J«oOr 30 31 60 14 16
•••• •••••• •••••
g§ ñ H¥$ V 30 31 60 17 20
CXÿ© 30 31 60 21 24
{gÝYr 30 31 60 25 28
n§Om~r 30 31 60 29 32
JwOamVr 30 31 60 33 36
(III) ^mfm -II ( Ho $db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 61 90
narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm-II
Omo ^mfm-I go {^ÝZ hmoJr VWm {OgH$m M¶Z {ZåZ{cpIV
^mfmAm| ‘| go {H$¶m J¶m h¡ :
{hÝXr 30 61 90 37 40
A§J«oOr 30 61 90 41 43
g§ñH¥$V 30 61 90 44 47
CXÿ© 30 61 90 48 52
{gÝYr 30 61 90 53 56
n§Om~r 30 61 90 57 60
JwOamVr 30 61 90 61 64
(IV) (IV a) J{UV VWm {dkmZ 60 91 150 65 78
(J{UV VWm {dkmZ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
(IV b) gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z 60 91 150 79 90
(gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z {ejH$ Ho$ {bE)
AWdm
{H$gr Aݶ Xÿgao {df¶ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE
(IV a AWdm IV b MwZ gH$Vo h¢)
ZmoQ> : (1) narjmWu Ûmam IÊS> -II Ed§ IÊS> -III ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z ^mfm-I Ed§ ^mfm-II Ho$ ê$n ‘|
{H$¶m h¡ Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¢ &
(2) IÊS> -IV ‘| narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| IÊS> (IV a) ¶m IÊS> (IV b) Ho$ {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z {H$¶m J¶m h¡
Cgr {df¶ H$m àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ &
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V‘ n¥ð> g§»¶m 96 na A§J«oOr VWm {hÝXr ‘| {X¶o hþE {ZX}e H$mo n‹‹T>o§ &
PL-2 (3) A
SECTION – I
–I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
30
1. Which among the following is involved in learning process ?
(A) Physiological (B) Psychological
(C) Environmental (D) All of the above
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. The ________ is the immediate environment in which the individual lives.
(A) Microsystem (B) Mesosystem
(C) Exosystem (D) Chronosystem
_____
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• •••••
(D)
3. __________ proposed the theory of multiple intelligence.
(A) Howard Gardner (B) Freud
(C) Binet (D) Thurstone
_____ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. According to Right to Education Act, 2009, no school to be established without obtaining
certificate of :
(A) Appreciation (B) Recognition
(C) Terms and Condition (D) Authorization
RTE , 2009 , -
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. Any relatively permanent change in behaviour or behavioural potential produced by
experience is called :
(A) Learning (B) Thinking
(C) Cognition (D) Motivation
_____
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (4) PL-2
6. As per Right to Education Act, 2009, Elementary Education means :
(A) Education from first to eighth class (B) Education before first class
(C) Education from 8th to 12th class (D) Education in middle school
RTE , 2009 :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7. In the field of mechanism of heredity, modern studies have been done principally in which
direction ?
(A) Cytology (B) Biometry
(C) Experimental breeding of animal (D) All of the above
, ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
8. RTE Act, 2009 directs _______ working hours per week for teachers.
(A) 40 hrs. (B) 45 hrs.
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) 42 hrs. (D) 48 hrs.
RTE , 2009 ?
(A) 40 (B) 45
(C) 42 (D) 48
9. Which out of the following is not a biological determinant of personality ?
(A) Nervous system (B) Ductless glands
(C) Somatic structure (D) Situational structure
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10. Which of the following is not a general law of heredity ?
(A) Progression (B) Variation
(C) Regression (D) like begets like
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (5) A
11. Which of the following is not a step in conducting scientific research ?
(A) Conceptualizing a problem (B) Revising research conclusion
(C) Collecting data (D) Dynamic approach
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. _______ of the test refers to the consistency of scores obtained by an individual on the
same test on different occasion.
(A) Reliability (B) Validity
(C) Objectivity (D) None of these
_______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. Right to Children for free and Compulsory Education falls under Act :
(A) 2009 (B) 2012
(C) 2005 (D) 2010
?
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) 2009 (B) 2012
(C) 2005 (D) 2010
14. In giving instructions to the mentally retardeds the teacher must keep in mind that they :
(A) are able to pass examination
(B) learn more vocational skills
(C) work hard to compete with normal children
(D) spend time in competitive games continuously
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. Learning through Reward and Punishment is :
(A) Observational learning (B) Social learning
(C) Operant conditioning (D) Classical conditioning
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (6) PL-2
16. According to Freud, the primary structural elements of personality are :
(A) Conscious, Subconscious, Unconscious
(B) Id, Ego, Super-ego
(C) Pleasure principles
(D) Defence mechanism
, :
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) (D)
17. Tendency of body to maintain a steady state is :
(A) Homeostatic (B) Balance
(C) Fostering (D) Drive
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. •••• ••••••
Sita works at a day care center. The •••••
pay is low and hours are long. But she loves being
around children & has no desire to look for a higher-paying job. Sita’s motivation appears
to be :
(A) Intrinsic (B) Extrinsic
(C) Selfish (D) External
,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
19. In the identification of the gifted, we must give priority to :
(A) the parents’ opinion (B) result of objective test
(C) teachers’ opinion (D) the community viewpoint
:
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (7) A
20. Which of the following has not been shown to help maintain a healthy level of cognitive
functioning ?
(A) Participating in games (B) Working crossword puzzles
(C) Sedentary lifestyle (D) Reading
?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
21. “Life presents a continuous chain of struggle for existence and survivals.” is said by
(A) Darwin (B) Shaffer
(C) Jerslid (D) Spencer
‘ , ’
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
22. Which among the following is not a major period of cognitive development given by
Piaget ?
(A) Sensorymotor stage (B) The pre-operational stage
(C) Cyclic stage (D) Formal operations
‘ ’
?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
23. Mental activity that goes on in the brain when a person is processing information is called :
(A) Learning (B) Mental imagery
(C) Thinking (D) Concept
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (8) PL-2
24. Formula of IQ is :
MA CA
(A) 100 (B) 100
CA MA
CA 100 MA
(C) (D) 100
MA BA
:
MA CA
(A) 100 (B) 100
CA MA
CA 100 MA
(C) (D) 100
MA BA
25. Assimilation is :
(A) Current schema to interpret the external world
(B) Process of changing to better
(C) Adapting to internal world
(D) None of these
:
(A)
(B) •••• •••••• •••••
(C)
(D)
26. The three pillars of education are ________, ________ and ________.
(A) Teacher, Student, Curriculum (B) Principle, Teaching, Aim
(C) Education, Methodology, Teacher (D) Importance, Teacher, Objectivity
______, ______ ______
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
27. Dyslexia is :
(A) Difficulty in reading skills (B) Difficulty in understanding maths
(C) Difficulty in writing spellings (D) Difficulty in competing
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (9) A
28. A series of pictures is shown to the subject and he is asked to make a story, is used in
________ projective technique.
(A) TAT (B) Role Play
(C) Rorschach (D) Dramatic Production
,
_______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
29. Which among the following is not a subjective method to assess personality ?
(A) Individual history (B) Interview technique
(C) Inventory technique •••• •••••• •••••
(D) Rating Scale
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
30. Which among the following doesn’t fall under the classification of mental retardation ?
(A) Mild retardation (B) Moderate retardation
(C) Severe retardation (D) Acute retardation
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (10) PL-2
– II
–I
30
( 31-36 )
- ; , ,
, , - , ,
? ,
, –“ ”
-
31. ‘ •••• •••••• ••••• ’
-
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
32. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. ‘
’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (11) A
36. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D) ! !
38. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. ‘ - ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. ‘ , ’ -
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
41. -
(A) •••• •••••• •••••
(B)
(C) (D) -
42. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. ‘ , , ,
’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. , , , , ,
,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. -
9
(A) 6 (B) 12 15
(C) 18 21 (D) 21 24
A (12) PL-2
46. ‘ ’
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. - –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) , -
(B) , -
(C) •••• •••••• •••••
(D)
( . 51 60) :
, ,
, ,
;
51. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (13) A
52. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. ‘
’ -
(A) •••• •••••• •••••
(B)
(C) (D)
57. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ‘ ’–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (14) PL-2
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Choose the correct interrogative sentence :
(A) Had been it raining for long ? (B) What been it had raining for long ?
(C) How had been it raining for long ? (D) Had it been raining for long ?
32. Choose the correct option to fill the blank in the sentence given below :
Admittance _____ to him by the guard.
(A) were refused (B) was refused
(C) are refused (D) will be refuse
33. ‘So help me, Heaven !’ he cried, ‘I will never steal again.’
Choose the correct indirect speech of the above sentence :
(A) He called upon Heaven that I would never steal again.
(B) He called upon Heaven to witness his resolve never to steal again.
(C) He called upon Heaven to never steal again.
(D) He called upon Heaven to witness his resolve not to never steal again.
34. Choose the ‘Affricate’ sounds :
(A) | tʃ, ʤ | (B) | m, n |
(C) | f, v | (D) | , ð |
35. Phonetic symbol / transcription for the word ‘Guttation’ is :
(A) | gʌ'tǝʃ(ǝ)n | •••• •••••• •••••
(B) | gʌ'teIʃ(ǝ)n |
(C) | gʌ'ttes(ǝ)n | (D) | gʌ'ttǝIs(ǝ)n |
36. The fundamental order of listening, speaking, reading and writing should be followed; it is
the general characteristic of :
(A) Principles of selection (B) Principles of gradation
(C) Principles of habit formation (D) Follow the natural way
37. ‘Leading from simple to complex’ is used in the principles of :
(A) Gradation (B) Habit formation
(C) Controlled vocabulary (D) Follow the natural way
38. Which one of these is a principle of ‘Translation cum Grammar’ method ?
(A) To teach English directly.
(B) To establish bond or a link between thought, expression, experience and language.
(C) The unit of teaching is a word not the sentences.
(D) The sentence is the unit of teaching in this method.
39. Which method is a midway between the two old methods; (Translation cum Grammar
method and the Direct method) ?
(A) Inductive – Deductive method (B) Bilingual method
(C) Dr. Michael West’s new method (D) Audio Lingual method
40. Which one of these is related to the ‘Inductive – Deductive method’ of teaching English ?
(A) It is a slow procedure.
(B) This method discourages the students to be mentally active.
(C) Priority of reading.
(D) The sentence is the unit of teaching in this method.
PL-2 (15) A
41. Which skill is the basis of good learning of the language ?
(A) Speaking skill (B) Explaining skill
(C) Reinforcement skill (D) Listening skill
42. Choose the correct option which is not a technique for speaking skills :
(A) Reproduction (B) Question – Answers
(C) Role play (D) Model Reading
43. According to Thompson and Wyatt, how many objectives are of teaching rapid reading ?
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
44. Who was of the opinion that reading ability can be developed by reading books in solitude
with ease, interest and pleasure ?
(A) Menon and Palet (B) Robert Lado
(C) Rajgopalan (D) West
45. Oral reading is also known as :
(A) Intensive reading (B) Silent reading
(C) Loud reading (D) Library reading
46. Checklist, Rating scale, Interview schedule and Anecdotal records are tools for :
(A) Summative Assessment (B) Informative Assessment
(C) Annual Assessment (D) Formative Assessment
47. Which of these is not a technique of evaluation ?
(A) Appropriateness (B) Effectiveness
(C) Imitation (D) Practicability
•••• •••••• •••••
48. Check-list technique is used for evaluation :
(A) results, attendance, participation in games, sports.
(B) interest, attitudes and values of the students.
(C) of significant event and work performance of the students.
(D) None
49. Which one of these commissions and committees has not made recommendation to
encourage internal assessment through continuous and comprehensive evaluation ?
(A) Hartog Committee (B) Hunter Commission
(C) Mudaliar Commission (D) None
50. Which one of these is not objective of CCE ?
(A) To make the process of teaching and learning a teacher – centred activity.
(B) To make the process of teaching and learning a learner – centred activity.
(C) To help develop cognitive, psychomotor and effective skills.
(D) To make evaluation an integral part of teaching – learning process.
Read the passage and answer the Question Nos. 51 to 55 :
India today presents a very mixed picture of hope and anguish of remarkable advances
and at the same time of inertia; of a new spirit and also the dead hand of the past and of
privileges; of an overall and growing unity and many disruptive tendencies. Withal there is
a great vitality and ferment in people’s minds and activities.
It is remarkable thing that a country and people rooted in this remote past, who have shown
so much resistance to change in the past; should now be marching forward rapidly and with
resolute steps.
A (16) PL-2
51. Choose the synonym for the word ‘vitality’ :
(A) lethargy (B) torpidity
(C) energy (D) externality
52. Choose the antonym for the word ‘anguish’ :
(A) ecstacy (B) agony
(C) excruciation (D) affliction
53. Choose the correctly spelt word :
(A) Fermantation (B) Presantation
(C) Picturesque (D) Resoluation
54. ‘Adverb’ for the word ‘disruptive’ will be :
(A) disrupt (B) disruptively
(C) disruption (D) disrupter
55. Choose one word for ‘a tendency to do nothing or to remain unchanged’ :
(A) anguish (B) disruptive
(C) ferment (D) inertia
Read the passage and answer the Question Nos. 56 to 60 :
The rich can provide their children with all that money can buy : rich food; expensive
clothes, cars and every other imaginable comfort and luxury. But they simply cannot give
them what they need most – parental care and affection on a personal level for which there
is no substitute in the whole world. These children who are brought up almost entirely by
hired attendants develop a•••• ••••••
twisted •••••
personality. Their rich, busy and well-bred parents are
one day shocked to find that their children have developed some of the traits of their own
attendants which are, to say the least, considerable less than well-bred.
56. ……… and every other imaginable comfort and luxury. Here ‘imaginable’ is :
(A) a noun (B) a conjunction
(C) an adjective (D) an adverb
57. Choose compound adjective from the phrase ‘well-bred parents’.
(A) well-parents (B) well-bred
(C) well (D) bred
58. Which one of these phrase has a determiner in it ?
(A) But they simply cannot give.
(B) The rich can provide their children all they need.
(C) There is no substitute.
(D) Hired attendants develop twisted personality.
59. ‘These children who are brought up almost entirely by hired attendants develop a twisted
personality.’
Which tense is used in the above sentence ?
(A) Present perfect (B) Present continuous
(C) Present indefinite (D) Past indefinite
60. Which of the following has the three degrees of the adjective in their correct form ?
(A) Simple, more simple, most simple (B) Rich, more rich, most rich
(C) Little, less, least (D) Expensive, expensiver, expensivest
PL-2 (17) A
– II
–I
31. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. “96” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
33. “ ” -
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
34. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (18) PL-2
38. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. – ________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. ?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
42. ‘ ’ •••• •••••• ••••• ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. ?
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D) -
45. - -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (19) A
46. , , , -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
48. , ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. -
(A) - (B) -
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
50. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(51-55) –
51. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (20) PL-2
53. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(56-60) –
‘ ’ ? , ,
‘ ’
- - - - ,
,
56. “ ” -
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. – -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. – -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. “ ” -
(A) + (B) +
(C) + (D) +
PL-2 (21) A
II
I
(30)
.31
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.32
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
•••• •••••• •••••
.33
(D) (C) (B)
(A)
.34
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.35
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.36
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (22) A
.37
(D) (C)
(B) (A)
.38
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.39
(D)
(C) (B)
(A)
.40
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.41
(B)
(A)
•••• (D)
•••••• •••••
(C)
.42
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.43
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.44
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.45
(D) (C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (23) A
.46
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.47
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.50
(B) (A)
(C)
•••• (D)
•••••• •••••
54 51
.51
(D) (C) (B)
(A)
.52
(D)
(C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (24) A
.53
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.54
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.55
(D) (C) (B) (A)
60 56
1916 16
.56
•••• •••••• •••••
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.57
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.58
(D) (C)
(B) (A)
.59
(D) (C) (B)
(A)
.60
(D)
(C) (B) (A)
PL-2 (25) A
– II
–I
30
31. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ______ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. –
1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)
(A) 1 (iii) 2 (ii) 3 (i) 4 (iv)
(B) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 ••••
(i) ••••••
4 (iv)
•••••
(C) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 4 (i)
(D) 1 (iv) 2 (i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii)
34. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. “ ”
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 1
(C) 1 2 (D) 2 1
36. -
(A) (?) (B) (!)
(C) (;) (D) (“ ”)
37. “ ” –
(A) - (B)
(C) - (D) -
38. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (26) PL-2
39. –
1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)
(A) 1 (iii) 2 (ii) 3 (iv) 4 (i)
(B) 1 (ii) 2 (iv) 3 (iii) 4 (i)
(C) 1 (iv) 2 (iii) 3 (i) 4 (ii)
(D) 1 (i) 2 (ii) 3 (iv) 4 (iii)
40. (i)
(ii)
(A) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii)
41. “ ” -
(A) (B) .
(C) . (D) . .
42. •••• ••••••
- •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. , -
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
PL-2 (27) A
48. , , , –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. , -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
- 51 55
“ , , ”
“ , ”
, “
, ”
, ,
“
•••• •••••• •••••
’ ‘ ?’ , ‘
51. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. “ , ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (28) PL-2
55. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
( 56 60) –
‘ ’ ,‘ ’
, -
,
,
•••• •••••• •••••
56. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ______ ______
(A) – (B) –
(C) – (D) –
59. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (29) A
– II
– I
30
31. ‘ ’ :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32. :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
33. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) ’ (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
34. :
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3
35. ______
(A) - (B) -
(C) - (D)
36. ,
,
,
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (30) PL-2
38. :
(A)
(B)
(C) , ,
(D)
39. :
(A) 12 + 14 ’ (B) 14 + 16 ’
(C) 13 + 14 ’ (D) 13 + 11 ’
40. “ ,
”
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. :
(A) , ,•••••••••• •••••
(B) , ,
(C) -, , (D) , -,
42. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
:
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
44. , ,
______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (31) A
46. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47. “
, , , ,
” – :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. , , , - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. -,
••••
•••••• •••••
’ :
(A) 3 () (B) 4 ()
(C) 5 () (D) 6 ()
(51-56) 51 56 :
’
’ -
51. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (32) PL-2
53. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(57-60) 57 60 :
•••• ••••••
•••••
-
- - -, -, -
57. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (33) A
– II
– I
30 .
.
31. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. ‘ ’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
34. , -
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. ?
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
37. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (34) PL-2
38. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. - ?
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
43. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. ?
(A) (:) (B) (?)
(C) (;) (D) (“ ”)
46. .
(A) .
(B) .
(C) – .
(D)
PL-2 (35) A
47. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50. ‘ .’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
51 52
: , .
.
.
.
51. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52. ‘’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (36) PL-2
53 55 :
,
:
53. ________.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55. ‘’ .
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. ‘’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. ‘ .’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (37) A
– III
– II
30
61 65
, ,
, - ‘ ’,
-
61. -
•••• •••••• •••••
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62. :
(A) (B) , – ‘ ’
(C) (D)
63. :
“ , ”
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. ,
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (38) PL-2
65. -
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
66. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
70. ?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
71. ?
(A) (B) . .
(C) (D)
72. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (39) A
75. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. ‘ ’ -
(A)
(B) •••• •••••• •••••
(C)
(D)
80. , -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81 90
“ ! -
“ ” ?
- , ‘ ’
?“ ” ? ‘ ’
,
, , -
- - ”
A (40) PL-2
81. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘ - ’ -
(A) - (B) -
(C) – (D) –
84. ‘ ’ :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
85. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86. •••• ••••••?•••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
88. :
(A) , , (B) , , -
(C) , , (D) , ,
89. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (41) A
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. You _____ be ashamed of yourself having made such a comment.
(A) may (B) should
(C) can (D) could
62. He chased the thief as far as he _____.
(A) may (B) should
(C) can (D) could
63. The car seemed to have _____.
(A) beat the bush (B) tried to pin
(C) vanished into thin air (D) boarded the wrong train
64. ‘Drama’ originated in
(A) Greece (B) Rome
(C) Italy (D) England
65. An ‘octave’ is a stanza with _____ lines.
(A) 6 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 8
66. •••• ••••••
The twenty-six letters of alphabet have•••••
_____ sound symbols.
(A) 20 (B) 24
(C) 44 (D) 45
67. The phonetic symbol of the underlined letter in the word ‘thin’ is
(A) ð (B)
(C) Ʒ (D) ʤ
68. The phonetic transcription of ‘lung’ is
(A) / lʌŋ / (B) / lǝng /
(C) / lɔng / (D) / le:ŋ/
69. The word having the sound of ‘eǝ’ is
(A) pear (B) hire
(C) moor (D) roar
70. ‘h’ is a _____ sound.
(A) voiceless (B) voiced
(C) palatal (D) velar
71. ‘Expression should be impressive’ is an imperative of
(A) Accuracy and correctness (B) Naturalness
(C) Measurement (D) Evaluation
72. ‘Freedom on part of the speaker is essential’ ……… is a rationale of
(A) Direct method (B) Structural approach
(C) Communicative approach (D) Substitution approach
A (42) PL-2
73. _____ is an advantage of communicative approach.
(A) Listening (B) Speech ability
(C) Writing (D) Reading habits
74. Language has _____.
(A) script (B) gesture
(C) feeling (D) sound
75. If a Bengali family lives in Delhi, the children in the family will learn _____ in family and
_____ from environment.
(A) Bengali, English (B) Bengali, Hindi
(C) Hindi, English (D) Hindi, Sanskrit
76. Evaluation is done on two basics
(A) cumulative (B) terminal
(C) sessional (D) formative and summative
77. The comprehensive evaluation involves
(A) assessment of answer books.
(B) performance in co-curricular activities.
(C) assessment of health habits, work habits, cleanliness and co-operation.
(D) All of the above
78. ‘Class magazines’ is an example of
(A) assignment (B) project work
(C) writing test •••• •••••• ••••• speech test
(D)
79. One of the objectives of the remedial work is to
(A) highlight weak students.
(B) identify the cases who are lack in studies.
(C) spot the weak and punish them.
(D) make the weak students aware of their backwardness.
80. Remedial teacher should keep a liasoning with the parents to
(A) ensure the weakness of their child.
(B) help in identifying the cause behind child’s lagging.
(C) work in same environment.
(D) rebuke the students.
(Prose passage Q. Nos. 81-85)
Almost the whole village stopped to watch the big boat being built at sometime or the other.
No one owned such a large boat or even worked on one. Perhaps they were jealous and that
was why no one had a good word for it. They did not want to believe, it would do well at
sea. But, they, in a way, were proud too. Building a big boat like this in their village was an
achievement.
81. Do you like to eat a pizza ? Do you prefer a hamburger ? The two questions can be combined
using
(A) and (B) or
(C) but (D) that
PL-2 (43) A
82. I am sure. It is true. The two sentences can be combined using
(A) so (B) than
(C) but (D) that
83. Many a man _____ done this.
(A) is (B) has
(C) was (D) were
84. Gold and silver _____ precious metals.
(A) is (B) has
(C) have (D) are
85. ‘…….. no one had a word for it’ ……... The underlined word in the line from the passage
stands for
(A) the boat (B) the people
(C) sea (D) achievement
(Poem Passage Q. Nos. 86-90)
‘Weavers weaving at break of day,
Why do you weave a garment so gay ?
Blue as the wings of a halcyon wild, •••••
•••• ••••••
We weave the robes of a new-born child.’
86. ‘Blue as the wings of a halcyon wild.’ The figure of speech used in the extract is
(A) alliteration (B) simile
(C) metaphor (D) assonance
87. The rhyme scheme in the stanza is
(A) a a b b (B) bbaa
(C) a b a b (D) abba
88. The plot of a story may be
(A) comic (B) tragic
(C) satiric (D) all
89. Dravid was the wall of our cricket team.
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Personification (D) Rhyme
90. Inanimate objects and abstract notions are spoken of as having life and intelligence in
(A) metaphor (B) simile
(C) personification (D) plot
A (44) PL-2
– III
– II
61. ‘ ’ (30) ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ?
(A) •••• •••••• •••••
(B)
(C) (D)
64. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (45) A
68. “ ” -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. _________
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
72. - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. -
(A) (B)
(C) - (D) -
74. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) –
75. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (46) PL-2
76. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. “ :” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. -
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
80. ‘ ’ ?•••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(81-85) -
, , ,
81. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (47) A
83. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ‘ ’ - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(86-90) –
86. “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• •••••
(D)
87. ‘ – ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (48) A
III
II
(30)
.61
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.62
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
•••• •••••• •••••
.63
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.64
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.65
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (49) A
.66
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.67
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.68
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.69
(B)
(A)
•••• •••••• •••••
(D)
(C)
.70
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.71
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.72
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (50) A
.73
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.74
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.75
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.76
(B) (A)
••••
•••••• •••••
(D) (C)
.77
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.78
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (51) A
.79
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.80
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
85 81
••••
••••••
•••••
.81
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.82
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.83
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
PL-2 (52) A
.84
(B) (A)
(D) (B) (A) (C)
.85
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
.86
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.87
(B) (A)
••••
(D)•••••• ••••• (C)
.88
(B) (A)
(D)
(C)
.89
(B)
(A)
(D) (C)
.90
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
PL-2 (53) A
– III
– II
30
61. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
65. ‘ , ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. –
1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)
(A) 1 (iv) 2 (iii) 3 (ii) 4 (i)
(B) 1 (i) 2 (iii) 3 (ii) 4 (iv)
(C) 1 (i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv)
(D) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 4 (i)
A (54) PL-2
69. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. / -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. ______ •••• •••••• ••••• –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. , ( ) , ( ) ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. ______ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77. ______ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78. 120 129 –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (55) A
79. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80. ______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
– (81 85)
11
5 ,
52
, , , , ,
,
500
,
•••• •••••• •••••
, – , ,
81. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘ ’ ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (56) PL-2
85. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
: (86 90)
! ,
, , ,
, ,
, , , ,
•••• •••••• •••••
86. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. ‘ ’ -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ______ ______
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
PL-2 (57) A
– III
– II
30
61. ‘ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62. ‘ ’ – :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
64. ‘ , ’ ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. :
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
66. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (58) PL-2
69. ,
,
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. “ , ” – :
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
•••• •••••• •••••
73. , :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. - :
(A) -
(B) -
(C) -
(D) -
75.
:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. ‘ , ,
’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (59) A
77. :
(A) (B) -
(C) -
(D)
78. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80. :
(A) , , -
(B) , ,
(C) , ,
(D) , ,
(81-85) 81 85 :
•••• •••••• •••••
- ,
, ,
- -
,
’ -
81. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘’ :
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
A (60) PL-2
84. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(86-90) - 86 90 :-
,
,
,
,
•••• •••••• •••••
86. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87. - ’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. - :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. ‘’ :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (61) A
– III
– II
30 .
.
61. -5 ?
(A) 5000 (B) 3000
(C) 2000 (D) 1000
62. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
64. () .
(A) , , , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
65. ‘ ’. .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. ‘ ’ – ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (62) PL-2
68. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71. , ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. ?
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
73. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75. .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (63) A
77. ?
(A) .
(B) - .
(C) .
(D) .
78. .
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) (iii) (B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (D) (iv)
79. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80. .
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
•••• •••••• •••••
81 83
. , ,
.
.
81. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82. , ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. ‘’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (64) PL-2
84 85
;
- .
,
.
84. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85. ‘’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86. , , , ?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• •••••• •••••
(D)
87. ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. ‘ ’ .
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89. , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90. .
(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .
PL-2 (65) A
SECTION-IV / – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and
IV(b) Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social
Studies as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
IV(a) IV(b)
60
IV(a) IV(b) , -
, 60
SECTION-IV(a) / – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
60 •••• ••••••
•••••
91. A factor of the expression x3 – 2x + 1 is :
(A) x – 1 (B) x+1
(C) x+2 (D) x – 2
x3 – 2x + 1
(A) x – 1 (B) x+1
(C) x+2 (D) x – 2
2 2
92. The solution of the equation + = 0 is :
3x – 4 2x – 6
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 2
2 2
+ =0
3x – 4 2x – 6
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 2
A (66) PL-2
3
8 100
93. 3 125 is equal to :
16 49
7
(A) 7 (B)
4
4 1
(C) (D)
7 7
3
8 100 3
125
16 49
7
(A) 7 (B)
4
4 1
(C) (D)
7 7
3
94. The simple interest on a sum of money for 5 years becomes of the principal, then the
5
rate of simple interest will be :
(A) 10% (B) 8%
(C) 12% (D) 14%
3
5
5
,
(A) 10% (B) 8%
(C) 12% (D) 14%
95.
•••• •••••• •••••
If the loss caused by selling an article for ` 560 is ` 50 more than the profit made by
selling it for ` 720, then the cost price of the article is :
(A) ` 665 (B) ` 615
(C) ` 600 (D) ` 620
` 560 , ` 720 ` 50 ,
(A) ` 665 (B) ` 615
(C) ` 600 (D) ` 620
96. If the cost of 5 bananas and 4 apples is equal to the cost of 3 bananas and 7 apples, then
the ratio of the prices of a banana and an apple will be :
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 3 : 5
5 4 3 7 ,
:
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 3 : 5
97. If 75 is added to 75% of a number, the same number is obtained, then that number is :
(A) 300 (B) 270
(C) 250 (D) 225
75% 75 ,
(A) 300 (B) 270
(C) 250 (D) 225
PL-2 (67) A
98. The present population of a village is 1,30,910. If in the previous years there is an increase
of 6%, a decrease of 5%, an increase of 4% respectively, then the population of 3 years
ago was
(A) 1,30,000 (B) 1,10,000
(C) 1,25,000 (D) 1,15,000
1,30,910 6% , 5% , 4%
, 3
(A) 1,30,000 (B) 1,10,000
(C) 1,25,000 (D) 1,15,000
99. In the given figure, the lines XY and MN intersect at point O. If POY = 90 and
a : b = 2 : 3, then the value of c will be :
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) 90 (B) 126
(C) 144 (D) 150
XY MN O POY = 90 a:b=2:3
, c
(A) 90 (B) 126
(C) 144 (D) 150
A (68) PL-2
100. If all the three sides of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three sides of another
triangle, then the two triangles are :
(A) Perpendicular (B) Congruent
(C) Parallel (D) None of these
, ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
101. The length of a chord at a distance of 6 cm from the center of a circle of radius 10 cm is :
(A) 12 cm (B) 14 cm
(C) 18 cm (D) 16 cm
10 6
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 18 (D) 16
102. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 48 cm, then its area will be :
(A) 64 3 cm2 (B) 55 2 cm2
(C) 32 3 cm2 (D) None of these
48 ,
(A) 64 3
•••• •••••• •••••
(B) 55 2
(C) 32 3 (D)
103. If the lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm, then its perimeter will
be :
(A) 34 cm (B) 68 cm
(C) 52 cm (D) 56 cm
10 24 ,
(A) 34 (B) 68
(C) 52 (D) 56
104. A room is 12 metres long, 9 metres wide and 8 metres high. What is the longest rod that
can be placed in it ?
(A) 29 metre (B) 17 metre
(C) 15 metre (D) 21 metre
12 ,9 8
?
(A) 29 (B) 17
(C) 15 (D) 21
PL-2 (69) A
105. The main objective of tabulation is :
(A) Presenting the data on the basis of their characteristics.
(B) Presenting the data in a systematic manner.
(C) Presenting complex facts in simple form.
(D) All of these
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
106. The mode value of a series is :
(A) Intermediate value (B) Most frequency value
(C) Minimum frequency value (D) Marginal value
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
107. The coordinates of a point on the X-axis are :
(A) (2, 3) (B) (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0) (D) (1, 1)
X-
(A) (2, 3) (B) (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0) (D) (1, 1)
108. The probability of having 53 Tuesdays in an ordinary year is :
1 2
(A) (B)
7 7
3 4
(C) (D)
7 7
53
1 2
(A) (B)
7 7
3 4
(C) (D)
7 7
A (70) PL-2
109. Which of the following is a teaching aid of Mathematics ?
(A) Napier strips (B) Logarithmic table
(C) Geometry box (D) All of these
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
110. Which of the following Mathematical statement is true ?
(A) Evaluation = Measurement + Judgement
(B) Evaluation = Measurement – Judgement
(C) Evaluation = Judgement – Measurement
(D) Evaluation = Measurement Judgement
?
(A) = + (B) = –
(C) = – (D) =
111. Which of the following is not an Indian Mathematician ?
(A) Ramanujan (B) Brahmagupta
(C) Aryabhatta (D) Pythagoras
? •••••
•••• ••••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
112. Which of the following is not the type of cognitive objective in Mathematics teaching ?
(A) Knowledge (B) Understand
(C) Skills (D) Application
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
113. Which of the following is not a method of Evaluation of teaching Mathematics ?
(A) Supervision
(B) Interview
(C) Teaching model created by student
(D) Dictation
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (71) A
114. Mathematical statement whose truth has been proved is called :
(A) Theorem (B) Axiom
(C) Conjecture (D) Postulates
,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
115. Main objective of Geometry teaching is :
(A) To teach the use and measurement of mathematical tools.
(B) To develop creative imagination in student.
(C) To develop the power of object transmission in the student.
(D) All of these
•••• •••••• •••••
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
116. “Child is able to Recall definition of Rectangle.” This statement shows which learning
objective ?
(A) Understanding (B) Analysis
(C) Knowledge (D) Evaluation
“ ”
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (72) PL-2
117. A child is able to construct a triangle on the basis of given measurement. Which main
objective fulfill through this activity ?
(A) Receiving (B) Responding
(C) Valuing (D) Skill
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
118. Children with strong intellect do not have qualities :
(A) They are more curious.
(B) Their area of interest are broader.
(C) They are emotionally unstable.
(D) The knowledge of reasoning is visible from young age.
–
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
•••• •••••• •••••
119. If 3(x + 8) = 27(2x + 1), then the value of x is :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
3 (x + 8) = 27 (2x + 1) , x
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
1 1
120. If x + y = 7 and x2 + y2 = 25, then the value of + is :
x y
12 7
(A) (B)
7 25
7 1
(C) (D)
12 10
1 1
x+y=7 x2 + y2 = 25 , +
x y
12 7
(A) (B)
7 25
7 1
(C) (D)
12 10
PL-2 (73) A
121. Full name of LED is :
(A) Light Emitting Doll (B) Light Emitting Dynamo
(C) Light Emitting Drum (D) Light Emitting Diode
LED :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
122. Electric-cell converts
(A) mechanical energy into electric energy.
(B) electric energy into mechanical energy.
(C) chemical energy into electric energy.
(D) electric energy into sound energy.
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
•••• •••••• •••••
123. Order of planets according to distance from the Sun is :
(A) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth
(B) Venus, Mercury, Earth, Mars
(C) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
(D) Mercury, Earth, Venus, Mars
:
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
124. Which of the following is not a criteria of a good test ?
(A) Reliability (B) Validity
(C) Objectivity (D) Subjectivity
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (74) PL-2
125. The process used in the separation of rice from paddy stalks is –
(A) Hand picking (B) Threshing
(C) Winnowing (D) Sieving
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
126. One of the steps used in the process of formation of common salt from sea-water is –
(A) Distillation (B) Condensation
(C) Vaporisation (D) Filtration
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
127. The chemical substance present in calamine solution that is applied on the skin to
neutralise the effect of ant bite is –
(A) Calcium carbonate (B) Zinc carbonate
(C) Sodium carbonate (D) Sodium hydroxide
,
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
128. The oxide responsible for acid-rain is –
(A) H2O (B) CO
(C) SO2 •••• ••••••
(D)•••••
CO2
- -
(A) H2O (B) CO
(C) SO2 (D) CO2
129. The pair of thermosetting plastic is –
(A) Polythene, PVC (B) Polythene, Melamine
(C) Bakelite, PVC (D) Bakelite, Melamine
-
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
130. The fuel with highest calorific value in kJ/kg unit is –
(A) CNG (B) LPG
(C) Petrol (D) Hydrogen
kJ/kg -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
131. The type of teaching aid involved in experiment done by a student in laboratory is –
(A) Audio aid (B) Visual aid
(C) Audio-visual aid (D) Activity aid
-
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
PL-2 (75) A
132. In which group the unicellular, Eukaryotic organisms are included ?
(A) Monera (B) Protista
(C) Fungi (D) Plantae
, ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
133. After fertilization, a mature and developed ovary is known as –
(A) Seed (B) Endosperm
(C) Fruit (D) Embryo
, –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
134. Which one is not necessary for photosynthesis ?
(A) Sunlight (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Chlorophyll (D) Oxygen
•••• •••••• •••••
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
135. During respiration in plants the breakdown of glucose to Pyruvic acid is called –
(A) Kreb’s cycle (B) Calvin cycle
(C) Glycolysis (D) Fermentation
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
136. Who first described Golgi apparatus ?
(A) Robert Hooke (B) Robert Brown
(C) Camilio Golgi (D) Leeuwenhoek
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (76) PL-2
137. Which bacterium causes ‘Whooping Cough’ disease in human ?
(A) Bordetella pertussis (B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(C) Mycobacterium leprae (D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
138. Which type of sweat glands are present in human skin ?
(A) Apocrine (B) Holocrine
(C) Eccrine (D) All of these
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
139. Disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin-D (Calciferol) is :
(A) Night-blindness (B) Beri-Beri
(C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
- ( ) •••• •••••• •••••
(A) (B) -
(C) (D)
140. In which animal asexual reproduction occurs by budding ?
(A) Amoeba (B) Hydra
(C) Plasmodium (D) Leishmania
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
141. Which hormone controls maturation of egg in ovary ?
(A) FSH (B) TSH
(C) ADH (D) GH
?
(A) FSH (B) TSH
(C) ADH (D) GH
PL-2 (77) A
142. Example of sexually transmitted disease is –
(A) T.B. (B) Cancer
(C) Gonorrhoea (D) Pneumonia
–
(A) . . (B)
(C) (D)
143. The example of Kharif crop is –
(A) Gram (B) Pea
(C) Maize (D) Linseed
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
144. Which of the following is the oldest teaching method ?
(A) Reminiscences method (B) Evaluation method
(C) Projective method (D) Anecdote method
?
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (D)
145. Meaning of comprehensive evaluation in continuous and comprehensive evaluation –
(A) Evaluation of educational field
(B) Evaluation of co-educational field
(C) Evaluation of educational and co-educational field
(D) Evaluation of all subjects
–
(A)
(B) -
(C) -
(D)
146. Which teaching aids are not included in the visual equipment ?
(A) Projector (B) Film strip
(C) Poster (D) Gramophone
- - ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (78) PL-2
147. A force F is acting on area A. If the force is double and the area is halved, the resultant
pressure will be of the initial pressure :
(A) half (B) double
(C) one-fourth (D) four times
F A ,
:
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
148. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice-cream. Its other end
(A) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(B) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(C) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(D) does not become cold.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) •••• •••••• •••••
149. Image formed by a plane mirror is :
(A) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged.
(B) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.
(C) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged.
(D) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.
:
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
150. The limit of audibility for healthy human is :
(A) 10 Hz to 20000 Hz (B) 10 Hz to 2000 Hz
(C) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz (D) 20 Hz to 200000 Hz
:
(A) 10 Hz 20000 Hz (B) 10 Hz 2000 Hz
(C) 20 Hz 20000 Hz (D) 20 Hz 200000 Hz
PL-2 (79) A
SECTION-IV(b) / – IV(b)
SOCIAL STUDIES /
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject
must answer all the questions.
60
91. At which place in Gujarat were the teachings of Lord Mahavira and his followers
presently available were written down about 1500 years ago ?
(A) Valabhi (B) Lothal
(C) Rangpur (D) Bharuch
1500
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
92. Which ‘Tripitaka’ tells us that there were separate branches for men and women in
‘Sangha’ ?
(A) Abhidhamma Pitaka•••• •••••• (B)•••••
Sutta Pitaka
(C) Vinaya Pitaka (D) None of these
- , ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
93. Which rivers contributed significantly to Magadha’s transportation, water supplies and
making the land fertile ?
(A) Godavari – Tungabhadra (B) Ganga – Son
(C) Chambal – Mahi (D) Krishna – Kaveri
, - ?
(A) – (B) –
(C) – (D) –
94. Most of the Ashoka’s inscriptions have been found in -
(A) Prakrit Language and Brahmi Script
(B) Pali Language and Devnagari Script
(C) Sanskrit Language and Brahmi Script
(D) Punjabi Language and Gurumukhi Script
-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (80) PL-2
95. Which land was granted to Brahmanas and was usually exempted from paying land
revenue and other dues to King ?
(A) Agrabhag (B) Agrahara
(C) Agradaan (D) Bhumi-dan
-
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
96. In which language was the “Prayaga – Prashasti” composed by Harishena, the court poet
of Samudragupta ?
(A) Prakrit (B) Hindi
(C) Pali (D) Sanskrit
‘ - ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
97. The Shunga dynasty was founded by which General of the Mauryas ?
(A) Pushyamitra Shunga (B) Agnimitra Shunga
(C) Vasumitra Shunga (D) Devbhuti Shunga
?
(A) (B)
(C) •••• ••••••
(D)•••••
98. Choose the Kanishka’s court poet who composed a biography of the Buddha, the
‘Buddhacharita’.
(A) Saundranand (B) Ashvaghosha
(C) Shudrak (D) Harshvardhan
,‘ ’
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
99. Which was an administrative subdivision of a Mughal province ?
(A) Peshkash (B) Jaagir
(C) Milkiyat (D) Pargana
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
100. Which is a Major poetic anthology of Alvar Saints also known as Tamil Ved ?
(A) Tondaradippodi (B) Karaikkal Ammaiyar
(C) Tavram (D) Nalayira Divyaprabandham
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PL-2 (81) A
101. The Mother of Mughal ruler Jahangir belong to which Rajput dynasty ?
(A) Kachhwaha (B) Rathore
(C) Parmar (D) Chouhan
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
102. “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day.” In 1851 the Governor – General Lord
Dalhousie said this statement about which state ?
(A) Satara (B) Awadh
(C) Jhansi (D) Nagpur
“ ” 1851
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
103. Which day was earmarked for “Direct Action Day” ?
(A) 14 August 1948 (B) 16 August 1947
(C) 14 August 1946 (D) 16 August 1946
‘ ’ ?
(A) 14 , 1948 (B) 16 , 1947
(C) 14 , 1946 •••• ••••••
(D)•••••
16 , 1946
104. By which Constitutional Amendment the Age of adult suffrage in India was reduced from
21 years to 18 years ?
(A) 59 (B) 61
(C) 63 (D) 71
21 18 ?
(A) 59 (B) 61
(C) 63 (D) 71
105. Which feature is not in the “Preamble” of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Secularism (B) Federal Government
(C) Political Justice (D) Equality of Status
?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D)
106. Who was the Deputy Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in India ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) K.M. Munshi
(C) A.N. Sinha (D) H.C. Mukharji
?
(A) . (B) . .
(C) . . (D) . .
A (82) PL-2
107. “Right to Property” is presently mentioned in which Article of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 224 (A) (B) 290 (A)
(C) 300 (A) (D) 312 (A)
“ ” ?
(A) 224 ( ) (B) 290 ( )
(C) 300 ( ) (D) 312 ( )
108. Which Constitutional Amendment was made to provide opportunities for education to the
children of 6 to 14 year of age ?
(A) 74th (B) 81th
(C) 86th (D) 91th
6 14 ?
(A) 74 (B) 81
(C) 86 (D) 91
109. Who are included in the electoral college of the Vice-President of India ?
(A) Nominated members of Parliament
(B) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Nominated members of State Legislative Assemblies
?
(A) (B)
•••• •••••• •••••
(C) (A) (B) (D)
110. Which Article of the Constitution of India described the Power of the President to
“consult” the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) 143 (B) 147
(C) 140 (D) 145
?
(A) 143 (B) 147
(C) 140 (D) 145
111. In which Part of Constitution of India described the Urban Local government ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (A)
(C) 11 (D) 10 (A)
?
(A) 8 (B) 9 ( )
(C) 11 (D) 10 ( )
112. What is the minimum number of Women Members in the National Commission for
Protection of Child Right ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
PL-2 (83) A
113. According to Article 74 of the Constitution of India on whose advice does the President act ?
(A) Council of Minister (B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Loksabha (D) Governor
74 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
114. Which of the following is a group of inner planets ?
(A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Jupiter
(B) Venus, Earth, Mercury, Mars
(C) Earth, Mars, Venus, Jupiter
(D) Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn
?
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
115. Which of the following is a correct statement with reference to latitude and longitude
respectively ?
(A) 87 North to 197 East (B) 56 North to 91 South
(C) 101 East to 192 West (D) 23 North to 66 East
:
(A) 87 197 (B) 56 91
(C) 101 192 •••• ••••••
(D)•••••
23 66
116. Equinox is related to -
(A) 21 March (B) 29 February
(C) 22 December (D) 21 June
-
(A) 21 (B) 29
(C) 22 (D) 21
117. Which range is located in the north-west direction of the Peninsular Plateau ?
(A) Vindhyachal (B) Satpura
(C) Aravalli (D) Eastern Ghats
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
118. Which of the following is related to endogenic forces ?
(A) Wind, Glaciers, Volcano
(B) Volcano, Landslides, Earthquake
(C) Earthquake, Landslides, River
(D) Glaciers, Sea-waves, River
?
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , - ,
A (84) PL-2
119. In 1947, he was then Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
(A) Alexander Cunningham (B) R.C. Banerjee
(C) R.E.M. Wheeler (D) Sir Jhon Marshal
1947 -
(A) (B) . .
(C) .. . (D)
120. Which Satavahana ruler claimed to be both, a unique Brahmana (eka bamhana) and a
destroyer of the pride of Kshatriyas ?
(A) Satakarni - I (B) Shiv Skanda Satakarni
(C) Simuka (D) Gautamiputra Sri – Satakarni
( )
?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D) -
121. In August, at which latitude does the Subtropical Easterly Jet Stream blow in India ?
(A) 8 North (B) 15 North
(C) 27 North (D) 37 North
?
(A) 8 •••• ••••••
(B)•••••
15
(C) 27 (D) 37
122. The correct order of the physical regions of Rajasthan located from North to South is
(A) Vindhyan range Luni Basin Shekhawati Region Mahi Plains
(B) Luni Basin Vindhyan range Shekhawati Region Mahi Plains
(C) Shekawati Region Vindhyan range Luni Basin Mahi Plains
(D) Plains of Ghaghar Bhorat Plateau Shekhawati Region Luni Basin
-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
123. Which of the following is an example of Arabian Sea drainage system ?
(A) Menal, Kothari, Berach (B) Jojri, Berach, Menal
(C) Kothari, Som, Ruparel (D) Jojri, Bandi, Jawai
:
(A) , , (B) , ,
(C) , , (D) , ,
PL-2 (85) A
124. Match the following :
Name of Sanctuary Wild animal
(1) Desert National Park (a) Panther
(2) Todgarh Raoli (b) Bear
(3) Sita Mata (c) Great Indian Bustard
(4) Mount Abu (d) Flying Squirrel
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) c a d b
(B) a c b d
(C) d a c b
(D) b d a c
:
(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) c a d b
(B) a c b d
(C) d a c b
(D) b d a c •••• •••••• •••••
125. Match the following :
Mineral Use
(1) Lead Zinc (a) Electric Wire
(2) Copper (b) Fertilizers
(3) Gypsum (c) Ceramic
(4) Wollastonite (d) Battery Acid
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) b c d a
(B) c d a b
(C) a b c d
(D) d a b c
:
(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) b c d a
(B) c d a b
(C) a b c d
(D) d a b c
A (86) PL-2
126. The headquarters of North-Western Railway Division is located at
(A) Jaipur (B) Ajmer
(C) Kota (D) Jodhpur
- -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
127. When did Rana Sanga died ?
(A) 30 January, 1528 (B) 30 July, 1527
(C) 28 August, 1529 (D) 29 November, 1530
?
(A) 30 , 1528 (B) 30 , 1527
(C) 28 , 1529 (D) 29 , 1530
128. Who was the founder of Vishnoi sect ?
(A) Pipaji (B) Achalnathji
(C) Jambhoji (D) Ramanandji
••••?•••••• •••••
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
129. Who was the editor of the newspaper “Pratap” which gave wide publicity to the Bijoliya
Peasant Movement ?
(A) Ganesh Shankar Vidhyarthi (B) Rama Kishan Verma
(C) Manikyalal Verma (D) Ramlal Ojha
- “ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
130. When was the Matsya Sangh established in the first phase of Rajasthan integration ?
(A) 30.03.1948 (B) 18.03.1948
(C) 11.11.1950 (D) 28.03.1949
– ?
(A) 30.03.1948 (B) 18.03.1948
(C) 11.11.1950 (D) 28.03.1949
PL-2 (87) A
131. Where was the “Rajasthan Seva Sangh” established in 1919 with the contribution of Vijay
Singh Pathik, Ramnarayan Choudhary and Haribhai Kinkar ?
(A) Bhinmal (B) Raipur
(C) Alwar (D) Wardha
1919 ‘ ’ ,
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
132. During the reign of which ruler Pichola lake was built ?
(A) Bappa Rawal (B) Maharana Lakha
(C) Rana Sanga (D) Rao Chunda
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
133. “Jaisingh Karika” written by Sawai Jai Singh related to which subject ?
(A) Astrology (B) Economics
(C) Politics (D) Military administration
“ ” ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
•••• •••••• •••••
134. ‘Pichwai Painting’ related to which school of painting ?
(A) Kishangarh School of painting
(B) Bikaner school of painting
(C) Alwar school of painting
(D) Nathdwara school of painting
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
135. ‘Rangadi’ and “Nimadi’ are subdialects of which Rajasthani dialect ?
(A) Malawi (B) Wagdi
(C) Hadauti (D) Shekhawati
‘ ’ ‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
136. Who was also known as ‘Meera of Wagad’ ?
(A) Meera Bai (B) Gavari Bai
(C) Koyal Bai (D) Kali Bai
‘ ’ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (88) PL-2
137. Which one of the following is not the aim of Social Science ?
(A) Intellectual and Mental development
(B) Utilization of leisure time
(C) Helpful in bringing social changes
(D) Teaching etiquettes
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
138. The importance of teaching-learning material in Social Science is :
(A) Save time and energy (B) Clarity of the subject matter
(C) Both (A) and (B) are wrong (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct
- :
(A) (B)
(C) (A) (B) (D) (A) (B)
139. ‘Social Science refers to those branches of the study that deal with humans in their social
relations.’ This definition was given by –
•••• •••••• •••••
(A) Columbia Encyclopedia
(B) Britannica Encyclopedia
(C) Encyclopedia of Social Sciences
(D) Report of, The Commission on Social Studies, USA
“
” –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) , . . .
140. Use of Information Technology in Education started first in which country ?
(A) Britain (B) USA
(C) France (D) Germany
?
(A) (B) . . .
(C) (D)
PL-2 (89) A
141. Which criteria is not correct for a good evaluation ?
(A) Validity (B) Reliability
(C) Objectivity (D) Subjectivity
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
142. Values of Social Science teaching are –
(A) Social Value (B) Democratic Value
(C) Artistic and Recreational Value (D) All of the above
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
143. Summative Assessment is inappropriate for the following :
(A) Deciding upon the grade
(B) Summarising student learning
(C) End of the term assessment
(D) Monitoring the progress of teaching – learning process
–
(A) ( )
(B)
(C) •••• •••••• •••••
(D) -
144. Which of the following subject is not included in social science at the upper primary level ?
(A) History (B) Civics
(C) Geography (D) Psychology
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
145. Which one of the following is the correct example of ‘Application objective’ of teaching ?
(A) Define (B) Classify
(C) Establish (D) Recall
‘ ’ –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
146. Main components of Information Technology are –
(A) Software (B) Hardware
(C) User (D) All of the above
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (90) PL-2
147. Which permanent wind blows between 30 South to 60 South latitudes ?
(A) South – East trade winds (B) Polar Easterlies
(C) Westerlies winds (D) North-East trade winds
30 60 ?
(A) - (B)
(C) (D) -
148. Where do willy-willies cyclones originate ?
(A) West Australia (B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Indian Ocean
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
149. Which of the following oceanic currents are located in the South Atlantic Ocean ?
(1) Brazilian Current (2) Benguela Current
(3) Oyashio Current •••• •••••• (4)•••••
Gulf Stream Current
(A) 2, 4 (B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(A) 2, 4 (B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
150. Dehradun, Kotlidun and Patlidun are located at
(A) Between Himadri and Himachal
(B) Between Himachal and Shiwaliks
(C) South of Shiwaliks
(D) North of Himadri
, -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
______________
PL-2 (91) A
Space For Rough Work /
A (92) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
PL-2 (93) A
Space For Rough Work /
A (94) PL-2
Space For Rough Work /
PL-2 (95) A
A (96) PL-2
INSTRUCTIONS / {ZX}e
(Read carefully and comply / ܶmZ go n‹T>| Am¡a nmbZ H$a| )
IMPORTANT / ‘hÎdnyU©
1. In Section II (Language-I) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-I in the
Online Application Form.
IÊS> (^mfm ) ‘| Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hc H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu Zo ^mfm Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ &
2. In Section III (Language-II) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as Language-II in the
Online Application Form. The Language-II will be different from Language-I.
IÊS> (^mfm- ) ‘| Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hc H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu Zo ^mfm- Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ & ^mfm- ^mfm- go {^ÝZ hmoJr &
3. The candidate must ensure that the Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No. has been filled correctly at the prescribed place in the
OMR Answer Sheet. Your OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated on the basis of Question Booklet Series Code and Shift No., not
Question Booklet Number.
Aä¶Wu gw{ZpíMV H$a| {H$ erQ> ‘| {ZYm©[aV ñWmZ na àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS> Ed§ {eâQ> H«$§ . ghr ^am h¡ & AmnH$s erQ> H$m ‘yë¶m§H$Z
àíZ-nwpñVH$m H«$‘m§H$ na Zht ~pëH$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS> Ed§ {eâQ> H«§$. Ho$ AmYma na {H$¶m Om¶oJm &
4. The candidate has to answer of that subject in Section (IV a) Mathematics and Science or (IV b) Social Studies as selected by the candidate
in the Online Applicaton Form.
If a candidate answers the questions of the language or subject other than selected in the Online Application Form, the candidate shall be
personally responsible for it and it would be treated as wrong.
Aä¶Wu H$mo Bg àíZ-nÌ Ho$ IÊS> J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ ¶m gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z ‘| Cgr {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aZm h¡, {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z Aä¶Wu
Zo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {H$¶m h¡ &
¶{X Aä¶Wu Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm ¶m {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb Z H$aHo$ Aݶ {df¶ Ho$ àíZm| H$mo hb H$aVm h¡ Vmo dh Aä¶Wu H$s ñd¶§ H$s {Oå‘oXmar
hmoJr VWm JbV ‘mZm Om¶oJm &
1. Read complete instructions carefully and fill the details from Sl. No. 1 to 7 in the OMR Answer Sheet and Sl. No. 1 to 4 in the Question
Booklet. If you fail to fill the details and sign as instructed correctly, you will be personally responsible for the consequences arising during
scanning of your OMR Answer Sheet.
{ZX}em| H$mo nyU© ê$n go ܶmZnyd©H$ n‹T>| Am¡a H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ OMR erQ> Ed§ H«$‘m§H$ go VH$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m (~wH$coQ>) H$mo ^a| & ¶{X Amn JcV VarHo$ go {ddaU
^aVo ¶m hñVmja H$aVo h¢ Vmo OMR erQ> H$s ñHo$qZJ Ho$ ’$cñdê$n hmoZo dmco n[aUm‘m| Ho$ à{V Amn ñd¶§ CÎmaXm¶r hm|Jo &
2. The Question Booklet comprises 96 pages having 150 questions. After being instructed to open the Booklet, only then the candidates will open
the Question Booklet seals. Check whether the Booklet contains 150 questions starting from Page No. 3 to 90. The Shift Number required in
OMR Sheet will be as per admit card issued to the candidate and also mentioned on the top of the Question Booklet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘| n¥ð> Ed§ àíZ h¢ & narjmWu {ZX}e {X¶o OmZo Ho$ CnamÝV hr àíZ-nwpñVH$m H$s grc Imoc|Jo & ¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a c| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m ‘|
àíZ h¢ Omo {H$ n¥ð> g§»¶m go àmaå^ hmoH$a VH$ h¢ & OMR erQ> na {e’²$Q> Zå~a Aä¶Wu H$mo Omar {H$¶o J¶o àdoe-nÌ Ho$ AZwgma A§{H$V H$aZm h¡ Ed§ Omo
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ D$nar ^mJ na ^r A§{H$V {H$¶m hþAm h¡ &
3. All questions are of MCQ (Multiple Choice Question) type. There is only one correct answer to each question carrying one mark. There
will be no negative marking for wrong answers.
g^r àíZ ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àH$ma Ho$ h¢ & à˶oH$ àíZ H$m EH$ {dH$ën hr ghr h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {c¶o {ZYm©[aV A§H$ EH$ h¡ & JcV Odm~ Ho$ {c¶o F$UmË‘H$ A§H$ Zht {X¶o Om¶|Jo &
4. All questions other than language questions of Sections II and III shall be bilingual.
àíZ-nÌ Ho$ ^mfm gå~pÝYV IÊS> Ed§ Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ A{V[aŠV eof g^r IÊS>m| Ho$ àíZ {Û^mfr¶ hm|Jo &
5. In any event of any mistake in any question/s, candidates will not be penalized. However no corrections will be made in question/s during the examination.
{H$gr àíZ ‘| {H$gr Ìw{Q> Ho$ {c¶o narjmWu H$mo {H$gr àH$ma H$m ZwH$gmZ Zht hmoJm & narjm H$s Ad{Y ‘| àíZm| ‘| {H$gr àH$ma H$m g§emoYZ Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
6. Rough work, if any, may be done in the Question Booklet only in the space provided at the end of the Booklet. Do not tear it off from the
Question Booklet. No additional paper shall be provided.
{H$gr àH$ma Ho$ a’$ H$m¶© hoVw àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝV ‘| OJh Xr J¶r h¡ & Bgo àíZ-nwpñVH$m go Zht ’$mSµ|> & {H$gr àH$ma H$m A{V[aŠV H$mJµO CncãY Zht H$adm¶m Om¶oJm &
7. Use of Log tables, Calculator, Slide rule, Mobile phone, Pager, Digital diary, Bluetooth, Microphone or any other electronic item/instrument
etc. is not allowed. Their use will result in disqualification.
cm°J Q>o~c, H¡$늶wcoQ>a, ñcmB©S> ê$c, ‘mo~mBc ’$moZ, noOa, {S>OrQ>c S>m¶ar, ãë¶yQy>W, ‘mBH«$mo’$moZ ¶m {H$gr Aݶ àH$ma H$m BcoŠQ´>mo{ZH$ CnH$aU / dñVw H$m à¶moJ d{O©V
h¡ & BZHo$ Cn¶moJ na narjm go A¶mo½¶ Kmo{fV {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
8. OMR Answer Sheet will be provided along with Question Booklet separately.
OMR erQ> àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ gmW A{V[aŠV àXmZ H$s Om¶oJr &
9. The Question Booklet will be issued to the candidates 10 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill all entries in OMR
Answer Sheet. The Question Booklet seal shall be opened 5 minutes before the start of examination and the candidate must fill 1 to 4 entries correctly
on the Question Booklet. After opening the Question Booklet, ensure that any page / question is not missing / not printed / torn / repeated. In case,
you find any defect anywhere in the Question Booklet, immediately inform the Invigilator and get it replaced within 5 minutes by the Invigilator.
Warning Bell will ring at 5 minutes before closer of examination and the last long bell will ring at closer of examination.
Aä¶Wu H$mo àíZ-nwpñVH$m narjm Amaå^ hmoZo Ho$ 10 {‘ZQ> nyd© Xr OmdoJr & Aä¶Wu Amdí¶H$ ê$n go OMR erQ ‘| g^r à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-
nwpñVH$m H$s grb narjm Amaå^ Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© Imobo VWm H«$‘ g§»¶m 1 go 4 H$s à{dpîQ>¶m| H$mo ghr àH$ma go ^ao & àíZ-nwpñVH$m ImobZo Ho$ níMmV narjmWu VËH$mb
¶h gw{ZpíMV H$a| {H$ Cg‘| {ZYm©[aV g‘ñV n¥îR> h¡ / H$moB© àíZ Ny>Q>m Vmo Zht h¡ / N>nmB© nyU© h¡ / H$mJO ’$Qm> Vmo Zht h¡ ¶m H$moB© n¥îR> Xþ~mam Ow‹S> J¶m h¡ µ& ¶{X àíZ-
nwpñVH$m ‘| Bg àH$ma H$s H$moB© Ìw{Q> nmB© OmVr h¡ Vmo VËH$mb drjH$ H$mo gy{MV H$a| VWm 5 {‘ZQ> Ho$ ^rVa drjH$ go AnZr àíZ-nwpñVH$m ~Xbdm bo & MoVmdZr K§§Q>r
narjm g‘mpßV Ho$ 5 {‘ZQ> nyd© ~OoJr Ed§ ApÝV‘ bå~r K§Q>r narjm g‘mpßV na ~OoJr &
10. Write your Name, Exam Center Code, Signature, Roll No., Question Booklet Series Code, Shift Number and Question Paper Booklet Number
in the space provided in the Question Booklet as well as in the OMR Answer Sheet.
àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ed§ OMR erQ> na {ZYm©[aV ñWmZ na Zm‘, narjm Ho$ÝÐ H$m H$moS>, hñVmja, Zm‘m§H$, àíZ-nwpñVH$m grarO H$moS>, {e’²$Q> H«$‘m§H$ Ed§ àíZ nwpñVH$m
H«$‘m§H$ A§{H$V H$a| &
11. With each question you will find 4 possible answers marked by the letters A, B, C & D. Read each question carefully and find out which
answer, according to you is correct. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate circle completely in the OMR Answer Sheet corresponding
to the question. For marking answers use blue/black ballpoint pen only. Gel pens/pencils are not allowed.
à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ Mma d¡H$pënH$ CÎma d ‘| {X¶o J¶o h¢ & àíZm| H$mo ܶmZnyd©H$ nTµ>| d ghr CÎma H$m M¶Z H$a CgHo$ CÎma H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| gå~pÝYV àíZ H«$‘m§H$ Ho$ g‘j
C{MV Jmoco H$mo Jham H$a B§{JV H$a| & CÎmam| H$mo Xem©Zo Ho$ {c¶o Zrco ¶m H$mco ~m°c ßdmB§Q> noZ H$m hr Cn¶moJ H$a| & Ooc noZ ¶m nopÝgc H$m Cn¶moJ d{O©V h¡ &
Correct Method : CORRECT / Wrong Method : WRONG / WRONG / WRONG / WRONG /
: :
12. OMR Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. If you do not follow the instructions given above and at the backside of the OMR Answer
Sheet, it may make evaluation by computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account shall be of the candidate only.
OMR erQ> H$mo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam ‘yë¶m§H$Z Ho$ {c¶o ~Zm¶m J¶m h¡ & ¶{X Amn Cn¶w©ŠV Ed§ OMR erQ> Ho$ {nN>co n¥ð> na {X¶o J¶o {ZX}em| H$m nmcZ Zht H$aVo, Vmo H$å߶yQ>a Ûmam AmnH$m
‘yë¶m§H$Z H${R>Z hmo Om¶oJm & Bg H$maU go narjmWu H$mo hmoZo dmco ZwH$gmZ H$s {Oå‘oXmar CgH$s ñd¶§ H$s hmoJr &
13. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the final bell. The OMR Answer Sheet is carbonless in duplicate having perforation on the
left side. Candidate should detach carefully the Original Copy from the Candidate’s Copy (Duplicate) so that the Original Copy is not mutilated
in any way. Candidate should handover the Original OMR Copy and Question Booklet to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.
Candidate can carry only the Candidate’s OMR copy with him/her. Question Booklet is not allowed to be taken by the candidate.
H$moB© narjmWu ApÝV‘ K§Q>r ~OZo Ho$ nyd© narjm H$j go ~mha Zht Om gHo$Jm & OMR erQ> H$m~©Z a{hV VWm AZw{c{n g{hV h¡ CgHo$ ~m¶t Va’$ na’$moaoeZ {H$¶m
hþAm h¡ & Aä¶Wu gmdYmZr go Aä¶Wu H$s à{V (AZw{c{n) go ‘yc à{V H$mo Eogo AcJ H$a| Vm{H$ {H$gr ^r VarHo$ go ‘yc à{V H$mo H$moB© hm{Z Z nhþ±Mo & narjm-H$j
N>moSµ>Zo Ho$ nyd© Aä¶Wu OMR H$s ‘yb à{V Ed§ àíZ-nwpñVH$m drjH$ H$mo gm¢n Xo & Aä¶Wu Ho$db AnZr OMR H$s à{V hr AnZo gmW bo Om gH|$Jo& àíZ-nwpñVH$m
Aä¶Wu AnZo gmW Zht bo Om gH|$Jo &
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