CIL Pprs
CIL Pprs
265276 2. 265213 3. 265287 4. 2652104 2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded? 1. NZESZR 2. LZESZT 3. LZCQZR 4. NBESBT 3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE 1. DGEF 2. EFGD 3. EGFD 4. GFDE 4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ? 1. Train : Car 2. Bruise : Fall 3. Television : Dial 4. Locusts : Holocaust 5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to 1. arms 2. face 3. body 4. nerves Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions. Statements: 1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards. 2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom. 3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo. 4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess. 6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom 1. Ram 2. Sham 3. Pappu 4. Sudhir 7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo 1. Sudhir 2. Pappu 3. Sham 4. Ram 8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo 1. Ram 2. Sham 3. Pappu 4. Sudhir 9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than
Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest? 1. Sudha 2. Mugdha 3. Madhubala 4. Data inadequate 10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number? 8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 z 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9 1. Three 2. Five 3. Four 4. Six Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer as: 1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given. 2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given. 3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. 4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given. 5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the countrys economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output. 11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy. 12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years. 13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India. Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit. (2) if only assumption II is implicit. (3) if either I or II is implicit. (4) if neither I nor II is implicit. (5) if both I and II are implicit. 14. STATEMENT: Use chlorine tablets for drinking water. A notice by municipal authority. ASSUMPTIONS: I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous. II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets. 15. STATEMENT: If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools. II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly. 16. STATEMENT: Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news. ASSUMPTIONS: I. These types of news are always in headlines. II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital. 17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket? 1. 8 2. 6 3. 4 4. 2 18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n 1. mmmm 2. nnnn 3. mnmn 4. nmnm Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events R and S. You have to read both the events R and S and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in R and S are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer. Give answer as: 1. If R is the effect and S is its immediate principal cause. 2. If R is the immediate and principal cause and S is its effect. 3. If R is its effect but S is not its immediate and principal cause. 4. If S is an effect but R is not its immediate and principal cause. 5. None of these 19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days. Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price. 20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months. Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer. Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part. 21. DCBA is related to ZYXW in the same way as HGFE is related to 1. RSTU 2. VUTS 3. STVU 4. UVST 22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ? 1. 41 2. 65 3. 56 4. 60 23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown 2. Cap 3. Tie 4. Coat Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word. 24. SPECULATION 1. A 2. D 3. L 4. P 25. Which does not cope with others in the following? 1. navigator 2. sailor 3. pilot 4. narrator Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer as 1. if only conclusion I follows 2. if only conclusion II follows 3. if either I or II follows 4. if neither I nor II follows 5. if both I and II follow 26. STATEMENTS: 1. No table is chair. 2. Some chairs are stools. CONCLUSIONS: I. Some tables are not stools. II. Some stools are not tables. 27. STATEMENTS: 1. All magazines are books. 2. No book is novel. CONCLUSIONS: I. No novel is book. II. No magazine is novel. 28. STATEMENTS: 1. Some tulips are roses. 2. Some roses are daffodils. CONCLUSIONS: I. Some tulips are roses. II. All roses are tulips. Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as: 1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged? STATEMENT: I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it O was staged. II. There is a gap of one day between N and O. 30. In a certain code language Pit Lit Nit means Red Paint Shirt. What is the code for Paint? STATEMENT: I. In that code language Nit Lit Rit Bit means Wash Red Paint Now. II. In that code language Jit Cit Pit means Shirt is Dirty. 31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ? 1. 24732 2. 23782 3. 27772 4. 27872 5. None of these
32. 1. 2. 3. 4 5. 33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ? 1. 10495 2. 10365 3. 10685 4. 10915 5. 10725 34. 1. 325 2. 75 3. 65 4. 13 5. 31 35. 1. 784 2. 729 % of 1250 99
3. 576 4. 676 5. 841 36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is 1. 99999 2. 99990 3. 99909 4. 99099 5. None of these 37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is 1. 2 : 25 2. 4 : 5 3. 25 : 2 4. 5 : 4 5. None of these 38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is 1. 3 : 28 2. 5 : 14 3. 14 : 5 4. 28 : 3 5. None of these 39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is 1. 5 : 6 2. 7 : 8 3. 2 : 3 4. 9 : 17 5. None of these 40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is 1. 40 years 2. 45 years 3. 50 years 4. 55 years 5. None of these 41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is 1. 1 : 2 2. 2 : 1 3. 5 : 3 4. 3 : 5 5. None of these 42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs 850 is 1. Rs. 19.40 2. Rs. 9.80 3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80 5. None of these 43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number 1. does not change 2. decreases by 2% 3. increases by 4% 4. decreases by 4% 5. None of these 44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by 1. 8% 2. 10% 2. 12% 4. 50% 5. None of these 45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by 1. 2. 10 % 2. 11% 4. 5. 15% 46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is 1. Rs. 4.50 2. Rs. 5 3. Rs. 5.50 4. Rs. 8 5. None of these 47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is 1. 37 years 2. 39 years 3. 33 years 4. 47 years 5. None of these 48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is 1. 16.4 yrs 2. 10 yrs 3. 12 yrs 4. 16 yrs 5. 20 yrs 49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm 3. 147 cm 3. 145 cm 4. 146 cm 5. 148 cm 50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was 1. Rs. 260 2. Rs. 262.50 3. Rs. 290 4. Rs. 292.50 5. None of these 1: 43344, 6: 22112, 11: 13555, 16: 54213, 21: 22134 26: 25444, 31: 32442, 36: 23241, 41: 23414, 46: 24244
1. Sub market is also known as ______? 1. Origin of market 2. Merging of market 3. Market segment* 4. None of these 2. What is the full form of PLC? 1. Product life cycle* 2. Product long cost 3. Product life cost 4. None of these 3. Commercialisation of product is based on _______? 1. Production 2. Test Marketing* 3. Pricing 4. Wages 4. Trickledown theory is associated with ___________? 1. Brand 2. Fashion* 3. Patent 4. None of these 5. BPO stands for _________? 1. Balance of payment 2. Budget Product Online 3. Business Process Outsourcing* 4. None of these
6. AIDA is related to ________? 1. Branding 2. Packaging 3. Advertising* 4. None of these 7. Who is Prospect Customers? 1. Potential Customers* 2. Present Customers 3. Staff 4. None of these 8. Hire Purchase System is _______? 1. A contract of sales 2. Method of Pricing 3. An agreement to sell* 4. None of these 9. SEM stands for _______? 1. Search Engine Marketing* 2. Sales Even Method 3. Sales Even Organisation 4. None of these 10. What do you mean by Data Wave House? 1. A Godown 2. A shop selling computers 3. A Showroom 4. A system where data on customers is stored*
1. Which of the following is not correct with regard to marketing? a. Marketing is a Management Function b. Marketing is a Philosophy c. Marketing is not related to Business Activity alone. d. Marketing means selling. e. Objective of Marketing is to achieve customer satisfaction.
2. Which of the following is a part of Marketing Management? a. Identification of Business Opportunities b. Understanding the Customer needs c. Producing according to customer needs d. Delivering as per Customer convenience
3. If Surf-Excel is three pack sizes and two types of packages what is the product depth? a. Two b. Three c. Six d. Eight e. Nine
4. For promotion under 4P which aspect is not taken into account? a. Advertisement b. Sales Promotion c. Sales Force
5. In 4P model for marketing, the place relates to which aspect? a. Distribution b. Production c. Transportation d. a & c e. b & c
6. What among the following is the feature of experienced goods? a. These are intangible b. These cannot be packaged c. These cannot be touched d. These can be evaluated only after use e. All the above
7. A Brand name is? a. A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification. b. Its legal version is trademark c. It is given legal protection d. All the above e. None of the above
9. When very little is known about the problem being examined, which type of marketing research is done? a. Exploratory Research b. Descriptive Research c. Casual Research d. Predictive Research e. None of these
10. It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because a. It is a tangible state b. It is an intangible state c. Employees hide the truth d. All the above e. None of these
11. Which among the following is / are user /users of the outcome of the Marketing Research I) Consumers II) Business Firms III) Government IV) Producers a. Only II b. Only I & II c. I, II, & IV d. All
e. None of these
12. In Banking Services Market can be segmented on the basis of a. Density b. Customers c. Both a & b d. Neither a & b e. None of these
13. Sales targets are fixed on the basis of a. Past experience b. Time period c. Brand position d. All the above e. None of these
14. Which among the following is an example of Secondary Media? a. Television b. Radio c. Hoardings d. News Papers e. None of these
15. Emotional and Rational buying motives can be differentiated on the basis of a. Time in purchasing
16. Marketing implies Meeting needs _____________ a. Profitably b. Focus c. Products d. Research e. Psychology
17. The following does not represent a market situation. a. A bank run dispensary in its staff quarters b. A fund rising Charity Show for the members of an NGO c. A Meditation Camp of a religious Organization conducted for its members d. A stall distributing Tirumala prasadam in a mandir
18. The markets are grouped into different types based on the geographical area, location of market place, product, nature of transaction and volume of transaction. In the above statement the following is not correct? a. Nature of transaction. b. Geographical area c. Location of Market place d. Volume of transaction
19. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called
20. Services have special characteristics namely ______ which affect their Marketing process a. Intangibility b. Inseparability c. Heterogeneity d. Perishability e. All the above 1. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Marketing is the term used to refer only to the sales function within a firm b) Marketing managers usually don't get involved in production or distribution decisions c) Marketing is an activity that considers only the needs of the organization, not the needs of society as a whole d) Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large*
Answer 1: Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large
2. The term marketing refers to: a) New product concepts and improvements b) Advertising and promotion activities c) A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction*
Answer 2: Two popular definitions of marketing are: The management process of anticipating, identifying and satisfying customer requirements profitably. The set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.
3. In the history of marketing, when did the production period end? a) In the late 1800s b) In the early 1900s c) In the 1920s* d) After the end of the Second World War
Answer 3: The development of marketing was first characterised by a production period which occurred during the 1890s to 1920s. This period of marketing was characterised by a focus on physical production and supply, where demand exceeded supply, there was little competition and the range of products was limited. This phase took place after the industrial revolution.
4. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase "a good product will sell itself" is characteristic of the _________ period. a) Production* b) Sales c) Marketing d) Relationship
Answer 4:
The development of marketing was first characterised by a production period which occurred during the 1890's to 1920's. This period of marketing was characterised by a focus on physical production and supply, where demand exceeded supply, there was little competition and the range of products was limited. This phase took place after the industrial revolution.
5. Which of the following factors contributed to the transition from the production period to the sales period? a) Increased consumer demand b) More sophisticated production techniques c) Increase in urbanization* d) The Great Depression
Answer 5: The development of marketing has been characterised by four periods. The first of these was the production period in which focus was on the production of the product and its attributes. However as technologies advanced and production techniques became more sophisticated, competition between organisations increased. As such the focus shifted from a period of focus on production to focus on sales in which to influence customer purchase behaviour.
Answer 1: Spam is the use of electronic messaging systems (including most broadcast media, digital delivery systems) to send unsolicited bulk messages indiscriminately. While the most widely recognized form of spam is e-mail spam, the term is applied to similar abuses in other media: instant messaging spam, Usenet newsgroup spam, Web search engine spam, spam in blogs, wiki spam, online classified ads spam, mobile phone messaging spam,
Internet forum spam, junk fax transmissions, social networking spam, television advertising and file sharing network spam.
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends. a) data mining* b) data selection c) POS d) Data conversion
Answer 2: Data mining, a branch of computer science and artificial intelligence, is the process of extracting patterns from data. Data mining is seen as an increasingly important tool by modern business to transform data into business intelligence giving an informational advantage. It is currently used in a wide range of profiling practices, such as marketing, surveillance, fraud detection, and scientific discovery
3. ________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems. a) Data Card Reader b) Point-of-sale (POS)* c) Sales inventory d) Magnetic Swipe Reader Answer 3: Point-of-sale (POS) terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems. Magnetic Swipe Reader: Reads the magnetic strip on the back of a credit or debit card. The information stored on the magnetic strip includes the credit card number, expiration date, customer name, and address. The information is transmitted to a credit card processing network through the point-of-sale system for payment of merchandise.
4. A(n) _______ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an items tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop. a) BCS*
Answer 4: Bar Code Scanner: A laser type of device (gun style, counter style) that when triggered over a bar code, converts bar code lines into numbers. This number or SKU (Stock Keeping Unit) is then transmitted back to the POS computer for automatic price lookup
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal computer is an example of a law enforcement speciality is called: a) robotics b) simulation c) computer forensics* d) animation
Answer 5: Computer forensics is a branch of digital forensic science pertaining to legal evidence found in computers and digital storage media. The goal of computer forensics is to examine digital media in a forensically sound manner with the aim of preserving, recovering, analyzing and presenting facts and opinions about the information. Although it is most often associated with the investigation of a wide variety of computer crime, computer forensics may also be used in civil proceedings. The discipline involves similar techniques and principles to data recovery, but with additional guidelines and practices designed to create a legal audit trail. 1. When looking at consumer income, marketers are most interested in: a) Discretionary income b) Deferred income c) Inflationary income d) Disposable income* e) None of the above Answer 1: A consumer's discretionary income is part of the economic environment and can influence how much money a consumer has to spend on goods and services. As such organisations have to develop an understanding of the economic environment in which they operate and trade.
2. New technology results in new goods and services, and it also can: a) Lower the quality of existing products b) Lower the available level of customer service c) Reduce prices through new production and distribution methods* d) Bring back products that were considered obsolete e) None of the above
Answer 2: The emergence of new technologies can substantially affect not only high-technology businesses but nontechnology businesses. Examples include those aspects of technology which impact upon productivity and business efficiency in new product development and distribution (e.g. changes in energy, transportation, information, and communication technologies). 3. Four competing philosophies strongly influence the role of marketing and marketing activities within an organization. Which if the following is NOT a marketing management philosophy? a) Customer orientation b) Profitability orientation* c) Marketing orientation d) Competitor orientation e) None of the above Answer 3: Developing a market orientation refers to the organisation wide generation of market intelligence pertaining to current and future customer needs, dissemination of the intelligence across the departments, and organisation wide responsiveness to it. Developing a market orientation means developing the following: customer orientation; competitor orientation; inter-functional coordination.
4. _____ is the collection and interpretation of information about forces, events, and relationships that may affect the organization. a) Environmental scanning* b) Stakeholder analysis c) Market sampling d) Opportunity analysis e) None of the above Answer 4: In order to understand how the elements in the external environment are changing it is necessary for organizations to put in place methods and processes to inform them of developments. A key process is environmental scanning. Environmental scanning is the process of gathering information about a company's external events and relationships, in order to assist top management in its decision making, and so develop its future course of action. 5. Marketing managers cannot control ____, but they can at times influence it.
a) Where advertising is placed b) The sales force c) The external environment* d) How products are priced e) All the above Answer 5: The external environment is basically uncontrollable, but the other four answers are part of the marketing mix. 1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as (A) World Bank (B) Asian Development Bank (C) IMF (D) It is known by its name 2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established? (A) 1935 (B) 1920 (C) 1928 (D) 1947 3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India? (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) ICICI Bank (D) Bank of India 4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Imperial Bank of India (C) Bank of India (D) Union Bank of India
5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) IMF (C) International Developmental Association (D) International Finance Corporation
6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) IMF (C) International Developmental Association (D) International Finance Corporation 7. Who is known as the Father of Economics? (A) Adam Smith (B) Chanakya (C) Machiavelli (D) None of these 8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card? (A) State Bank of India (B) Central Bank of India (C) Union Bank of India (D) ICICI 9. What does devaluation of a currency mean? (A) decrease in the internal value of money (B) decrease in the external value of money (C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these 10.Which of the following is known as plastic money? (A) bearer cheques (B) credit cards (C) demand drafts (D) gift cheques 11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour? (A) The length of time involved in the buying process (B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity (C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit (D) The complexity of an order 12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process? (A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation 13. Needs differ from wants because: (A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs (B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants (C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future (D) Needs and wants are exactly the same 14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)? (A) Self-actualization (B) Love (C) Security
(D) Physiological 15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form? (A) The choice set (B) The awareness set (C) The total set (D) The pre-evaluation set 16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as: (A) A primary reference group. (B) A tertiary reference group. (C) A secondary reference group. (D) A non-reference group. 17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase? (A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good (B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product (C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product (D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier 18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit? (A) Supplier (B) Gatekeeper (C) Decision maker (D) User 19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit? (A) User (B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper (D) Buyer 20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System? (A) Marketing research (B) Decision support system (C) Production monitoring system (D) None of these Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic) 1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is a. 11 b. 13 c. 17 d. 19 2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week a. Rs. 651879.61 b. Rs. 652779.61 c. Rs. 650879.51 d. Rs. 655889.71 3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week a. Rs. 501783.43 b. Rs. 501683.43 c. Rs. 511693.43 d. Rs. 511683.43 4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978? a. 49 years and 101 days b. 50 years and 100 days c. 50 years and 101 days d. 50 years and 103 days 5. Find the total of the following amount Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98 a. Rs. 27961.1 b. Rs. 26961.17 c. Rs. 26951.17 d. Rs. 25961.17
6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire? a. 40 b. 54 c. 56 d. 50 7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish 8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is a. 210 b. 110 c. 220 d. 105 9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15? a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5 b. 11 x 515 c. 1151 x 5 d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15 10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is a. 0 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is a. 16 b. 32 c. 48 d. 96 12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91 13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari a. Rs. 2000 b. Rs. 3000 c. Rs. 1500 d. Rs. 1000
14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income a. Rs. 400 b. Rs. 480 c. Rs. 450 d. Rs. 475 15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate? a. 36% b. 60% c. 40% d. None of these Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning) Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series 1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba a. aaab b. baba c. abba d. baab 2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc a. abab b. caab c. acac d. aaab 3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba a. cbaba b. bacbc c. bcabc d. abcbc 4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _ a. caac b. cbca c. cbac d. cabc 5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _ a. cabaac b. ababab c. cbccab d. aaabca 6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days. a. 4
b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d. 28 8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on a. 19 b. 20 c. 21 d. 22 9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be a. Sunday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Monday 10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards a. North b. South c. SW d. SE 11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now a. North b. South c. NE d. NW 12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now. a. 3 KM b. 4 KM c. 5 KM d. 0 KM 13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _ a. 137 b. 127 c. 103 d. 218 14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _ a. 5 b. 6
c. 4 d. 3 15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : : a. KMQT b. KMPU c. LMPT d. KMPT Vizag Steel Plant MT Recruitment Books Answers Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic) 1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b 6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b 11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning) 1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c 6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b 11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE 1. Captain' is related to a Team' in the same way as Director' is related to (1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation (4) Union (5) Customer 2. Find the odd one out of the following options (1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece (5) Relation 3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 4. If fork' is called plate', plate' is called 'knife', knife' is called jug', jug' is called glass', glass' is called cup' and cup' is called fork', by what do we cut fruit? (1) spoon (2) jug (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these 5. If a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word XRAY'? (1) 33 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these 6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code? (1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD (3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these 7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? (1) Seeta (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry? (1) Mahesh (2) Kamal (3) Raman (4) Harry (5) Cannot be determined 9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with T' and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y J 11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five (5) None of these 12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these 13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? (1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? (1) # (2) 7 (3) U (4) 9 (5) None of these 15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) G$M (2) K9Q (3) ?D7 (4) 2MU (5) PCI
16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means he has won','le ki ba' means she has lost' and in se pe' means he always won'. Which word in that language means he'? (1) in (2) pe (3) se (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO (5) None of these 19. If 1 is coded as , 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as , 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? (1) ? + % # (3) ? + % # (2) ? + % (4) #
#%+?
(5) None of these 20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? (1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN (3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO (5) None of these Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel. (i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits Go' advertises neither soap nor computers. (iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. (iv) No girl advertises soap. (v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice (vi) 21. Who advertises watches? (1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman (4) Priyanka (5) None of these 22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? (1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap (5) Come-watch 23. Which channel does Kamal visit? (1) Go (2) Fun (3) Come (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? (1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches (3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these 25. What will Jitu advertise? (1) Chocolates (2) Watches (3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? (1) 3 hours (2) 2 hours (3) 4 hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 28. Find the odd one out (1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 9 29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT (3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT (5) None of these 30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. (1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. None of these'. Letters M Numeric 2 Q 5 I 3 N 7 E 1 Y 8 U 4 G 6 R 9
Codes Conditions: (i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as . (ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as? 31. ENIMY (1) 1%28 (2) ?732? (3) 17328 (4) ?7328 (5) None of these 32. GENIR (1) ?173? (2) 6%39 (3) 6%79 (4) 61739 (5) None of these 33. QUERI (1) 5%93 (2) ?413? (3) ?4139 (4) ?419? (5) None of these 34. EINUM (1) 1%72 (2) 0%42 (3) 1374? (4) 1%43 (5) None of these 35. UNGRE (1) 769 (2) 4769
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow. 36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions: I. Some ink are pencils. II. All ink are lead. 37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions: I. Some ACs are ovens. II. No. AC is oven. 38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions: I. Some planes are clouds. II. Some clouds are birds. 39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions: I.. Some sweets are spice. II. No spice is salt. 40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers. Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and: Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 41. How is cricket' written in a code language? I. Dinesh play cricket' is written as do si ha'. II. play cricket now' is written as ha si ma'. 42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P? I. P is older than M and N but not O. II. L is older than O. 43. When is Rahul's birthday? I. Rahul and Shivani are twins. II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year. 44. What is the strength of the class? I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last. II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top. 45. How far does Shruti live from the school? I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school. II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house. Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order? (1) 359 (2) 972 (3) 526 (4) 487 (5) 251 47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers? (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five 49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number? (1) 251 (2) 359 (3) 487 (4) 526 (5) 972 50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest? (1) 972 (2) 526 (3) 487 (4) 251 (5) 359 Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning 1. (3) 6. (3) 11. (4) 16. (4) 21. (3) 26. (1) 2. (5) 7. (4) 12. (3) 17. (2) 22. (4) 27. (2) 3. (2) 8. (2) 13. (2) 18. (5) 23. (1) 28. (5) 4. (2) 9. (1) 14. (1) 19. (1) 24. (2) 29. (2) 5. (2) 10. (1) 15. (5) 20. (5) 25. (3) 30. (5)
1. Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which boost their assets was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAV as used in above head lines ? (A) Nil Accounting Variation (B) Net Accounting Venture (C) Net Asset Value (D) New Asset Venture (D) None of these Ans : (C) 2. As per reports published in various news papers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 200910. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent (A) Of the total investments they made collectively during the year (B) More than their profits during previous year (C) Of the total capital of the company (D) Less than the total expenditure of the companies (D) None of these Ans : (B) 3. As per the news published in various news papers Pakistan has imposed 15 per cent regulatory duty on exports of cotton yarn. Why countries are required to impose regulatory duties on exports of some of their commodities while in the eyes of the layman more exports means more foreign exchange and more revenue for the Govt. ? 1. It is done to control the exports of a commodity as it may be needed more in local markets than in foreign countries. 2. It is done to control the general inflation in the country as the inordinate exports of various commodities create imbalance and also cost push inflation. 3. It is a good short time measure to collect more revenue from the exports of the commodity which is in high demand in overseas markets. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 4. As per the reports published in some major news papers ADAG companies made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as (A) Companies owned by Tata Group (B) Aditya Birla Companies (C) Reliance companies (D) Companies owned by Aptech (E) None of these Ans : (C) 5. ONGC Mittal Energy finds hydrocarbons in two blocks OPL279 & OPL 285 in Nigerian sea was the news in some major news papers. what is
the full form of the term OPL as used in the above head line ? (A) Oil Prospecting License (B) Ownership and Partnership Lease (C) Overseas Private Line (D) ONGC Petroleum Ltd. (E) None of these Ans : (A) 6. Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 200910? was the news in major financial news papers recently. What is a mutual fund ? 1. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invest it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments. 2. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to ralse money to be invested in a particular industry i.e. housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else. 3. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc. the common pool is known as Mutual Fund. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 7. As we all know the Bank Rate at present is fixed at 6%. What does it mean in context to the banking operations ? (A) No bank will be able to give loan to any party on a rate lower than the Bank Rate (B) Bank should give loan to their priority sector customers/borrowers at the rate of 6% only. They cannot charge less or more than this from their priority sector clients (C) Banks are required to invest 6% of their total capital on financial inclusion and inclusive banking operations (D) Banks will be required to give 6% of their total deposits to the Govt. of India for meeting its Balance of Trade requirements (E) None of these Ans : (A) 8. As per the reports in various news papers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ? (A) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (B) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance (IIBF) (C) Indian Bank Association (D) Registrar of Companies (E) None of these Ans : (E) 9. We very frequently read about Europes Sovereigndebt crisis these day. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the same ? 1. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal. 2. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union.
3. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain & Greece. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 10. As we all know the RBI has raised the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 25 bps. in April 2010. What action banks will have to take to implement the same ? 1. They will have to deposit some more money with the RBI as a reserved money. 2. Banks will be required to give some more loan to projects of the priority sector. 3. Banks will be required to give loan equivalent to the CRR to the Govt. of India for its day to day expenditure as and when required. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 11. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 201011 will be at which of the following levels ? (A) 65% (B) 7% (C) 75% (D) 8% (E) None of these Ans : (D) 12. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBIs credit policy announced in April 2010 ? 1. Repo rate raised by 25 bps. 2. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs). 3. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also with the RBI. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 13. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with which of the following activities / operations ? (A) Dollar Rupee Exchange Rate (B) Floating of Commercial Papers (C) Launch of new mutual funds (D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day (E) None of these Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ? (A) Provision Coverage Ratio (B) Securitization (C) Consolidation (D) Commodification (E) Derivatives Ans : (C) 15. The process of Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops, is technically known as (A) water harvesting (B) irrigation (C) water recharging (D) percolation (E) None of these Ans : (B) 16. As per the news published in major news papers/journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision ofthe banks/credit card companies will provide 1. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of talking to a machine. 2. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction directly. 3. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) Only 1 and 3 Ans : (B) 17. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of the following states ? (A) Gujarat (B) Kerala (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh (E) Jharkhand Ans : (E) 18. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than CO2 ? (A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur dioxide (C) Hydrogen (D) Methane (E) None of these Ans : (D) 19. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ? (A) 20th June (B) 22nd July (C) 22nd March
(D) 20th May (E) None of these Ans : (C) 20. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous (A) Author (B) CineActor (C) Sportsman (D) Classical Singer (E) Social Worker Ans : (A) 21. As per the reports published recently the Govt. of India has decided to create a separate agency/body scrutinize all Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs) officially. Up till now the security screening was being done by the (A) Ministry of Foreign Affairs Govt. of India (B) Reserve Bank of India (C) Securities & Exchange Board of India (D) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India (E) Ministry of Home Affairs Govt. of India Ans : (E) 22. As per the news reports in various news papers the USA has outlined some major policy goals to prevent the danger of nuclear terrorism. Which of the following is/are included in those policy goals ? 1. Convene a nuclear security summit within a years time under the leadership of the USA. 2. A new agreement/pact should be introduced in place of present Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT). 3. Call for a global effort to secure all nuclear weapons at all vulnerable sites all over the world. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 23. Indira Gandhi Canal which is around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ? (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Gujarat (E) Rajasthan Ans : (E) 24. Former caption of the Indian Cricket team, Ajit Wadekar is conferred which of the following awards for the year 2010 ? (A) Bharat Ratna (B) Khel Shri Award (C) Dronacharya Award (D) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (E) None of these Ans : (E) 25. Who amongst the following is the director of the popular Hindi
film Oye Lucky ! Lucky Oye ? (A) Mani Ratnam (B) David Dhavan (C) Dibankar Banerjee (D) R. Balakrishnan (E) None of these Ans : (C) 26. India recently signed an agreement to import Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) from a country which is the largest LNG producer and supplier of the world. Which is that country ? (A) Kuwait (B) Qatar (C) Iran (D) Saudi Arabia (E) None of these Ans : (B) 27. As a measure to help countries hit by global financial meltdown the RBI has purchased notes worth US $ 10 billion in terms of Special Drawing Rights from a World Organisation/agency. Which is this agency/organization ? (A) Federal Reserve of U.S.A. (B) Asian Development Bank (C) World Bank (D) International Monetary Fund (E) None of these Ans : (D) 28. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India ? (A) Mazagaon Dock Ltd. (B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (C) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (D) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (E) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. Ans : (C) 29. Which of the following states won the senior National Womens Football Tournament 2010 ? (A) Manipur (B) Assam (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala (E) Delhi Ans : (A) 30. Which of the following is not a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) ? (A) Shaurya (B) Pinaka (C) Brahmos (D) Agni (E) Nag Ans : (A) 31. Which of the following declarations/treaties was adopted by the BRIC countries recently to promote Global Food Security ? (A) Moscow Declaration
(B) Doha Treaty (C) Delhi Declaration (D) Kabul Treaty (E) None of these Ans : (A) 32. Which of the following statements represent(s) the main objective(s) of the revised National Health Policy2002 of the Govt. of India ? 1. Increase Public expenditure from 09 per cent to 2 per cent of the GDP. 2. Setting up of Medical Grants Commission for funding new Govt. Medical & Dental colleges. 3. Mandatory two years rural posting before awarding the degree to Medical Graduates. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 33. Which of the following metals is used for genration of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ? (A) Zinc (B) Platinum (C) Uranium (D) Nickel (E) None of these Ans : (C) 34. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on sharing of river water between India and (A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan 32. Which of the following statements represent(s) the main objective(s) of the revised National Health Policy2002 of the Govt. of India ? 1. Increase Public expenditure from 09 per cent to 2 per cent of the GDP. 2. Setting up of Medical Grants Commission for funding new Govt. Medical & Dental colleges. 3. Mandatory two years rural posting before awarding the degree to Medical Graduates. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 33. Which of the following metals is used for genration of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ? (A) Zinc (B) Platinum (C) Uranium (D) Nickel (E) None of these Ans : (C)
34. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on sharing of river water between India and (A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan (C) Nepal (D) Afghanistan (E) Myanmar Ans : (B) 35. The Union Cabinet recently cleared Prohibition of unfair Practices in Technical Medical Educational Institutes and Universities Bill 2010. As per the bill which of the following will now be treated as a cognizable offence ? (A) Accepting capitation fee from the students (B) Running a private college (C) Not allowing students to change their course in between (D) Running a college without proper facilities (E) None of these Ans : (A) 36. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ? 1. Wind Energy 2. Solar Energy 3. Nuclear Energy (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 37. Which of the following countries is not amongst the top ten in industrial production in the world during 2010 ? (A) India (B) Iran (C) China (D) France (E) U.S.A. Ans : (B) 38. Commonwealth Games 2010 are being organized in which of the following countries ? (A) Australia (B) South Africa (C) Canada (D) New Zealand (E) India Ans : (E) 39. Which of the following is not a banking related term ? (A) Radiation (B) Outstanding amount (C) Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (D) Explicit Guarantee (E) Creditor Ans : (A) 40. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as (A) Investment Banking (B) Portfolio Management
(C) Merchant Banking (D) Bancassurance (E) Micro Finance Ans : (D) 41. Who amongst the following has recently taken over as the Chairman of the 19th Law Commission ? (A) Mr. A. R. Lakshmanan (B) Mr. P. V. Reddy (C) Mr. Yashwant Sinha (D) Mr. Ranjan Bharti Mittal (E) None of these Ans : (B) 42. Moortidevi Award is given for excellence in the field of (A) Classical dance (B) Literature (C) Classical music (D) Cinematography (E) Social service Ans : (B) 43. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ? (A) Love (B) Tee (C) Penalty stroke (D) No Ball (E) None of these Ans : (D) 44. Which of the following awards is given by an agency of the United Nations Organization ? (A) Normon Borloug Award (B) Kalinga Prize (C) Ramon Magsaysay Award (D) Pulitzer Prize (E) None of these Ans : (B) 45. Which of the following countries won the Hockey World Cup 2010 ? (A) Spain (B) England (C) India (D) Australia (E) None of these Ans : (D) 46. Who amongst the following is the author of the English novel solo, which was given Common Wealth Writers Prize 2010 ? (A) Aamer Hussain (B) Jonathan Tel (C) Rana Dasgupta (D) John Torrence Tate (E) None of these Ans : (C) 47. Mr. Surjit Patar who was awarded Saraswati Samman recently is a well known poet of (A) Hindi
(B) English (C) Punjabi (D) Urdu (E) Bengali Ans : (C) 48. Which of the following is the book written by Kiran Desai ? (A) Higher than Everest (B) A Passage to England (C) Affluent Society (D) All my Yester Years (E) The Inheritance of Loss Ans : (E) 49. Which of the following Trophies/cups is associated with the game of Hockey ? (A) Durand Cup (B) Santosh Trophy (C) Rangaswami Cup (D) Ranji Trophy (E) K. D. Singh Babu Trophy Ans : (C) 50. Sandra Bullock who was awarded Oscar recently is a famous (A) Actress (B) Director (C) Music Composer (D) Screen play writer (E) None of these Ans : (A)
1. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture? Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs. 2. A wizard named Nepo says I am only three times my sons age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old. How old is Nepo? Ans. 360 years old. 3. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they? Ans. Three. 4. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day? Ans. Eight. 5. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs? Ans. Five minutes. 6. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A? 7. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE? Ans. AE = 10. 8. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm. 9 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace. Ans. 64/2210. 10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ? Ans. 991. 11. If Log2 x 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be? Ans. x = e2 or e3. 12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The tens place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number? Ans. 46 13.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.? Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twentyfive paise coins. 14.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top? Ans.18 hours. 15. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12 Ans. 9 16. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose? Ans. 32 8/11 minutes. 17. Solve for x and y: 1/x 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9. Ans. x = 3/2 or 3 and y = 3 or 3/2. 18. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed? Ans. 20 %. 19. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6. Ans. 10. 20. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979? Ans. Friday. 21. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed? Ans. 1700 men. 22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball? Ans. 3720. 23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes. 24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes. 25. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps? Ans.46 steps. 1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series? ACE, FGH, ?, PON (A) KKK (B) JKI (C) HJH (D) IKL Ans. (A) 2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ? (A) Script (B) Pen (C) Paper (D) Book Ans. (B) 3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ? (A) Furniture (B) Forest (C) Fire (D) Carpenter Ans. (D) 4. acme : mace :: alga: ? (A) glaa (B) gaal (C) laga (D) gala Ans. (D) 5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:? (A) UTOPTU (B) UOTUPT (C) TUOUTP (D) TUOTUP Ans. (D) 6. Medicine is related to Patient in the same way as Education is related to (A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition Ans. (C) 7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S, V, Y, B, ? (A) C (B) D (C) E (D)G
Ans. (C) 8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9 Ans. (D) 9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark. AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? (A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX Ans. (C) 10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? (A) 48 (C) 52 (B) 49 (D) 56 Ans. (B) Directions(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three. 11. (A) Bokaro (B) Jamshedpur (C) Bhilai (D) Agra Ans. (D) 12. (A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December Ans. (B) 13. (A) Bible (B) Panchsheel (C) Geeta (D) Quran Ans. (B) 14. (A) Star (B) Sun (C) Sky (D) Moon Ans. (C) Directions(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets. 15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left? (A) N (B) L (C) O (D) None of these Ans. (D) 16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V (B) T (C) W (D) Y Ans. (B) 17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right? (A) V (B) X (C) W (D) I Ans. (C) Directions (Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 18. (A) Green (B) Red (C) Colour (D) Orange Ans. (C) (B) Crocodile (C) Earthworm (D) Snail Ans. (A) 20. (A) Polo (B) Chess (C) Ludo (D) Carrom Ans. (A) 21. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star Ans. (B) 22. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee Ans. (B) 23. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal Ans. (D) 24. In a certain code CONTRIBUTOR is written as RTNOCIROTUB. How is prohibition written in that code? (A) NOITIBIHORP (B) IHORPBITION (C) ITIONBIHOTP (D) IHORPBNOITI Ans. (D)
25. If CAT and BOAT are written as XZG and YLZG respectively in a code language how is EGG to be written in the same language? (A) VSS (B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTF Ans. (C)