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SSC MTS 2024 AnswerKey Compilation English

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7K views613 pages

SSC MTS 2024 AnswerKey Compilation English

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ADARSH PRIYA

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SSC MTS

2024
Answer Key PDF in
#English

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Table of Contents

Exam Shift-30/09/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 4

Exam Shift-30/09/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 13

Exam Shift-30/09/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 23

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Exam Shift-01/10/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 43

Exam Shift-07/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 53

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Exam Shift-16/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 195

Exam Shift-16/10/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 205

Exam Shift-16/10/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 216

Exam Shift-17/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 226

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Exam Shift-17/10/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 237

Exam Shift-17/10/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 247

Exam Shift-18/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 257

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Exam Shift-18/10/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 275

Exam Shift-21/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 285

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Exam Shift-29/10/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 406

Exam Shift-30/10/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 412

Exam Shift-30/10/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 422

Exam Shift-30/10/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 433

Exam Shift-04/11/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 440

Exam Shift-04/11/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 451

Exam Shift-04/11/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 461

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Exam Shift-05/11/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 471

Exam Shift-05/11/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 478

Exam Shift-05/11/2024,||4:00 PM - 5:30 PM||Click Here 488

Exam Shift-11/11/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 498

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/09/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average monthly expenditure of a family was ₹8,600 during the first three months, ₹9,750 during the next four months
and ₹9,920 during the last five months of a year. If the total savings during the year was ₹65,300, the average monthly
income (in ₹) of the family was:
Ans A). 14,975 B). 15,794 C). 15,479 D). 14,597
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 A thief saw a policeman, and he started running at a speed of 18 m/s. After 12 seconds, the policeman starts running behind

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the thief at a certain speed. If the policeman covered 864 meters distance to reach the thief, then the speed (in m/s) of the

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policeman is:
Ans A). 28 B). 15 C). 30 D). 24
Correct Answer: D

Q.3
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The ratio of the present age of A and B is 3 : 1. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 1. The age of A (in years) after
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eight years will be:
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Ans A). 30 B). 22 C). 38 D). 40

Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Two trains, 148 m and 152 m long, are running towards each other on parallel lines at 62 km/h and 46km/h, respectively. In
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what time will they be clear of each other from the moment they meet?
Ans A). 5 sec B). 20 sec C). 10 sec D). 15 sec
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.5
B y

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 The average monthly income of A and B is ₹3,590. The average monthly income of B and C is ₹4,250. The average monthly
income of A and C is ₹6,500. What is the monthly income of C?
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Ans A). ₹7,545 B). ₹6,984 C). ₹8,190 D). ₹7,160

Correct Answer: D

Q.7 In a 100-marks test, the average of marks scored by 50 students was found to be 65. Later on, it was discovered that a score
of 88 was misread as 68. Find the correct average.
Ans A). 65.60 B). 65.50 C). 65.70 D). 65.40
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 A man sells an article at a certain price and suffers a loss of 20%. If he sells the article at ₹100 more, he gets a profit of 30%.
Find the cost price of the article (in ₹).
Ans A). 250 B). 300 C). 400 D). 200
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum grows to ₹806 in 6 years. If the amount remains the same, how much will it
grow at a 12% simple interest rate in 5 years?
Ans A). ₹992 B). ₹985 C). ₹1,000 D). ₹1,120
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1430 B). 1470 C). 1510 D). 1410
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.11

Ans
A). D). Correct Answer: B
B). C).

Q.12 Rice worth₹43/kg and₹67/kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 2 : 1 : 5. If the mixture is worth₹96/kg,
the price (in ₹) of the third variety of rice per kg will be:
Ans A). 131 B). 159 C). 123 D). 142
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Three numbers are in the ratio of 6:7:3 and their LCM is 3654.Their HCF is:
Ans A). 28 B). 87 C). 29 D). 27
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1050 B). 990 C). 1010 D). 1090
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 20 identical solid hemispheres of radius 3 cm are melted to form a big solid hemisphere. What is the radius (in cm) of the
biggest hemisphere formed, if 20% of the solid is wasted during the process?
Ans A). B). D).
C). Correct Answer: C

Q.16 The following bar graph shows the production of cement (in 10,000 tones) by 4 companies X, Y, Z and W during the period

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2018 - 2020. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question.

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Which company has the maximum average production over the course of 3 years?

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Ans A). Y B). X C). W D). Z

Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Riya offers 12% discount on all her goods and offers an additional discount of 6% to those customers who pay in cash. How
much will a customer have to pay for a fan marked for ₹2,400 if he pays in cash?
Ans A). ₹1,985.28 B). ₹1,900 C). ₹2,300.50 D). ₹2,122.50
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 In a college, 20% of the number of boys are equal to the three-fourth of the number of girls. What is the ratio of boys and
girls in that college ?
Ans A). 15 : 4 B). 13 : 4 C). 5 : 3 D). 7 : 6
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Atul sold two sacks of rice for ₹19,200 each. On one, he gained 20% and on the other, he lost 20%. Find his gain or loss
percentage in the whole transaction.
Ans A). 8% profit B). 7% profit C). 4% loss D). 5% loss
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20

Ans A). 39% B). 35% C). 24% D). 29%

Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
39 ÷ 3 – 24 + 60 × 12 = ?
Ans A). 163 B). 86 C). 136 D). 190
Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘I swim fast’ is coded as ‘cp lk bs’ and ‘may I go’ is coded as ‘ap sb lk’. How is ‘I’ coded in that

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code language?
Ans A). bs B). lk C). sb D). cp

Q.3
ap Correct Answer: B

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
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order). A is sitting second to the right of E. Only one person is sitting between D and A. B is sitting third to the right of G. F
is an immediate neighbour of B. How many people are sitting between D and E when counted from the left of E?
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Ans A). Two B). One C). Four D). Three

Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘WING’ is coded as ‘2618’ and ‘NEAT’ is coded as ‘3469’. What is the code for ‘N’ in that
language?
Ans A). 6 B). 8 C). 1 D). 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(4, 35, 11)
(1, 82, 61)
Ans A). (13, 53, 20) B). (8, 33, 15) C). (2, 53, 6) D). (21, 310, 23)
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 In a code language, 'CAKE' is written as ‘ACIG’ and 'GOLD' is written as 'EQJF'. How will 'WIRE' be written in that language?
Ans A). GUPK B). UKPG C). GUKP D). GPUK
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.8 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some chickens are hens.
No hen is an egg.

Conclusions:
(I) No chicken is an egg.
(II) All hens are chickens.

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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Both conclusions I and II follow C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Only conclusion I follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.10
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Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
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G

Ans
Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.11 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting to the immediate right of E. D is sitting third to the left of C. A is the immediate neighbour of B and C. F is
not the immediate neighbour of E.

What is the position of G with respect to A?

Ans A). Second to the left B). Third to the left C). Second to the right D). To the immediate left
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 7 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 100. To which of the following is 22
related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 189 B). 190 C). 180 D). 170
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.14 What should come in place of '?' in the given series?

-12, +24, -48, +96, ?, +384

Ans A). -192 B). 108 C). 96 D). -108
Correct Answer: A

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Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are

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interchanged?

5 ÷ 6 × 3 – 4 + 11 = ?
Ans A). 7 B). 11 C). 14 ap D). 3
Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 JM12 is related to EH15 in a certain way. In the same way, QT34 is related to LO37. To which of the following is SV 23 related
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following the same logic?

Ans A). MP26 B). MQ27 C). NQ26 D). NP27
Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
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Statements:
No bus is a car.
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No car is a truck.
B

Conclusions:
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(I) No car is a bus.

(II) No truck is a car.
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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Only conclusion I follows. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Both conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 In a code language, 'COLONY' is coded as '48' and 'INTERCHANGE' is coded as '88'. How will 'MOUNTAIN' be coded in the
same language?
Ans A). 64 B). 86 C). 66 D). 84
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 HFLI is related to OMSP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOL is related to RPVS.
To which of the following is MKQN related, following the same logic?
Ans A). TRUX B). RTXU C). RTUX D). TRXU
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ACE ,FHJ, KMO, PRT , ?

Ans A). NOP B). UWY C). GJK D). BCD
Correct Answer: B

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 3 August 2023, which amends the ____________.
Ans A). Pharmacy Act, 1950 B). Pharmacy Act, 1949 C). Pharmacy Act, 1947 D). Pharmacy Act, 1948
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 In which state/union territory is Losar celebrated to mark the start of the new year in that region?
Ans A). Kerala B). Bihar C). Ladakh D). New Delhi
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Kanak Rele, who established Nalanda Dance Research Centre, was a performer of which of the following classical dance
forms of India?
Ans A). Mohiniyattam B). Manipuri C). Kathak D). Sattriya
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Which of the following acts introduced the system of dyarchy in the provincial administration in India?
Ans A). The Government of India Act of 1909 B). The Government of India Act of 1919 C). The Government of India Act of 1935
D). The Government of India Act of 1947
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In which part of India is cool mountain climate observed?

Ans A). West B). South C). North D). East
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Who was the founder of the Mauryan dynasty?

Ans A). Vikramaditya B). Bindusara C). Chandragupta Maurya D). Ashoka
Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 As of 31st October 2023, the senior-most member (in terms of age) in the 17th Lok Sabha, Shafiqur Rahman Barq represents

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which political party?
Ans A). Bharatiya Janata Party B). Indian National Congress C). Samajwadi Party D). Rashtriya Janata Dal
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Which of the following books is written by Dadabhai Naoroji?

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Ans A). Poverty and India B). Important Chapters of Poverty C). Poverty and Un-British Rule in India D). Economics History of India
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 The historical fiction ‘The Glory of Patan’ by KM Munshi was originally written in which Indian language?
Ans A). Malayalam B). Bengali C). Tamil D). Gujarati
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 On which date did Punjab abolish the Legislative Council?

Ans A). 1 January 1971 B). 1 January 1977 C). 1 January 1975 D). 1 January 1970
Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.11 The chemical compound present in turmeric is:

Ans A). curcumin B). tartaric acid C). carotene D). capsaicin
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Who among the following established the Indore gharana?

Ans A). Bhimsen Joshi B). Ustad Amir Khan C). Tansen D). Ustad Ghaghe Khuda Baksh
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 With reference to medieval Indian architecture style, what is ‘Pietra Dura’?
Ans A). Sculpture art of the Mauryan period B). Oil paintings on the walls of Taj Mahal C). Fine quality clothes used by the Mughals
D). Decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The Rabi season of agriculture begins in October-November and ends in __________.
Ans A). June-July B). March-April C). January-February D). May-June
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 What is the chemical formula for sodium bicarbonate?

Ans A). NaCl B). Na2CO3 C). NaHCO3 D). NaOH
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following is one of the features of capital goods?

Ans A). They are durable. B). They are inexpensive. C). They are Giffen goods. D). They are inferior goods.
Correct Answer: A

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Q.17 निम्न से कौन-सा पद्म पुरस्कारों का घटता क्रम क्या है?
Ans A). पद्म श्री, पद्म विभूषण, पद्म भूषण B). पद्म भूषण, पद्म श्री, पद्म विभूषण C). पद्म विभूषण, पद्म भूषण, पद्म श्री D). पद्म श्री, पद्म भूषण, पद्म विभूषण

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Which of the following dynasties established the Vijayanagara kingdom in fourteenth century?
Ans A). Aravidu dynasty B). Saluva dynasty C). Tuluva dynasty D). Sangama dynasty
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 The red colour of tomatoes is due to the presence of:

Ans A). limonene B). lycopene C). beta carotene D). alizarin
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Which Union Territory had minimum literacy rate as per 2011 Census?
Ans A). Chandigarh B). Dadra and Nagar Haveli C). Lakshadweep D). Delhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 In 1976, in which Part of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A were Fundamental Duties added?
Ans A). VI B). V C). IV A D). III
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 With which sport is Sanjana Bathula associated?

Ans A). Roller skating B). Squash C). Shooting D). Badminton
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Who was the captain of Royal Challengers Bangalore in the Women's Premier League event 2023?
Ans A). Harmanpreet Kaur B). Deepti Sharma C). Shafali Verma D). Smriti Mandhana
Correct Answer: D

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Q.24 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the famous place Mawsynram?
A. It is the wettest place on the earth.
B. It is located in Meghalaya state of India.
Ans A). Only A is correct. B). Neither A nor B is correct. C). Only B is correct. ap
D). A and B both are correct.
Correct Answer: D
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Q.25 How many countries share their land borders with India?
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Ans A). Nine B). Seven C). Six D). Eight

Correct Answer: B
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Trifle B). Surrender C). Consicstent D). Disgust

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ecstatic
Ans A). Shocked B). Happy C). Angry D). Interested
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a phrasal verb error.
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Mrs. Premlatha asked / Malini to hand down / all the / payment slips.
Ans A). all the B). Mrs. Premlatha asked C). Malini to hand down D). payment slips
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 What does it imply when people say to ‘read between the lines’?
Ans A). To read something fast B). To read with an ability to infer the meaning C). To skip initial and final lines in a paragraph
D). To avoid detailed information
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The workers had been repairing / the mall road in / town for / several days now.
Ans A). the mall road in B). several days now C). The workers had been repairing D). town for
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A piece of cake
Ans A). A slice of cake for eating B). Easy to do or achieve C). A cake which is sold as a piece D). A cake that broke into pieces

Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Cultural heritage is the lifeblood of any ________ and serves as a link between generations.
Ans A). lethargy B). birthright C). civilisation D). believe
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the most appropriate verb form to fill in the blank.

Arun __________ his bicycle to school every day.

Ans A). ride B). riding C). rides D). rode
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'pursue' from the given sentence.
Dr. Kalam's success in the field of science has inspired young Indians to dream big and chase those dreams with immense
hard work.
Ans A). chase B). inspired C). immense D). success
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My secretary is disposed of / discuss everything in great detail / before she begins / the actual work.
Ans A). My secretary is disposed of B). discuss everything in great detail C). before she begins D). the actual work.
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The accideent on the highway caused a long traffic jam.
Ans A). accidnt B). acicdent C). accident D). acident
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. One of them contains an error. Select the segment that
contains the error from the given options.
Neither Smith / nor Rose / were in / the classroom.

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Ans A). Neither Smith B). were in C). the classroom D). nor Rose
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word

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The project’s tight deadline and complex requirements made it a gruelling task for the team.
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Ans A). Empowering B). Inclusive C). Challenging D). Accessible
Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He is _________ tired to finish his homework.

Ans A). to B). too C). most D). more
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please listen to all announcements _______.

Ans A). easily B). generally C). hungrily D). attentively

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Energy
Ans A). Frailty B). strife C). Speed D). Power
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The detective's job was to discern the truth from the web of lies.
Ans A). Ignore B). Confuse C). Perceive D). Fabricate
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). She always eats healthy meals. B). The sun rises in the east. C). We watches movies every Friday night.
D). He works as a software developer.
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The rainbow only appears after a hurican.
Ans A). hurrecane B). hurrecain C). hurrican D). hurricane
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Accepting how wonderful you truly are and incorporating this _______ into your attitude and personality is perhaps one of
the most difficult things to do in life.
Ans A). insight B). craziness C). folly D). glitch
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

My next pet, Ari, was a pigeon. He became convinced that he was not a bird at all and refused to ____ 1 ___. If he wanted to get on a
table or a chair, he stood below it, cooing until someone picked him up. He would even try to come ____ 2____ walks with us. This,
however, we had to stop for, _____ 3____ you carried him on your shoulder or else you let him walk behind. If you let him walk, you
had to slow down your own ______ 4_____ to suit his, for should you get too far ahead, you would find him running after you, cooing
frantically, his chest pouted out with ______5_____.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). fly B). read C). flea D). file
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). by B). on C). at D). in
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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My next pet, Ari, was a pigeon. He became convinced that he was not a bird at all and refused to ____ 1 ___. If he wanted to get on a
table or a chair, he stood below it, cooing until someone picked him up. He would even try to come ____ 2____ walks with us. This,
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however, we had to stop for, _____ 3____ you carried him on your shoulder or else you let him walk behind. If you let him walk, you
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had to slow down your own ______ 4_____ to suit his, for should you get too far ahead, you would find him running after you, cooing
frantically, his chest pouted out with ______5_____.

SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). neither B). either C). never D). ever

Correct Answer: B
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
B

My next pet, Ari, was a pigeon. He became convinced that he was not a bird at all and refused to ____ 1 ___. If he wanted to get on a
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table or a chair, he stood below it, cooing until someone picked him up. He would even try to come ____ 2____ walks with us. This,
however, we had to stop for, _____ 3____ you carried him on your shoulder or else you let him walk behind. If you let him walk, you
at

had to slow down your own ______ 4_____ to suit his, for should you get too far ahead, you would find him running after you, cooing
frantically, his chest pouted out with ______5_____.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). piece B). peace C). pace D). space
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). indignation B). intimation C). inclination D). ignition
Correct Answer: A
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/09/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The graph given below represents the number of students (in thousands), who opted for the given three subjects during the
given four years.

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G
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Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects in the year 2022, 42% were girls. How many boys
B

chose the given three subjects?

Ans A). 31,500 B). 38,900 C). 40,600 D). 29,300
hs

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 A policeman follows a thief, who is 150 metres ahead of him., and they run at the speed of 6 km/h and 5 km/h,
respectively.What distance does the policeman cover to catch up with the thief?
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Ans A). 880 metres B). 870 metres C). 890 metres D). 900 metres
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Rohan deposited ₹500 for 2 years, ₹650 for 4 years and ₹1,300 for 6 years, at the same rate of interest. He received the total
simple interest of ₹1,140. What is the rate of interest per annum?
Ans A). 10% B). 9.5% C). 10.5% D). 11%
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 A right circular cone of height h and radius R is cut by a plane parallel to the base at a distance h/4 from the base. The ratio
of the curved surface areas of the resulting cone to the frustum is:
Ans A). 7 : 16 B). 16 : 9 C). 16 : 7 D). 9 : 7
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 A shot-put made of iron with a diameter of 12 cm is melted into a solid cylinder with a height of 2 cm. What is the diameter of
the cylinder made?
Ans A). 12 cm B). 18 cm C). 24 cm D). 21 cm
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 An oil dealer had three types of oil. 403 litres of the first kind, 434 litres of the second kind and 465 litres of the third kind.
Find the maximum volume of oil, filled in each barrel, if equal number of barrels are filled.
Ans A). 52 litres B). 48 litres C). 31 litres D). 41 litres
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 In a mock test conducted by a coaching institute, 20 students average scored 75% marks and the remaining 15 students
average scored 54% marks. Find the average score.
Ans A). 66% B). 67% C). 63% D). 62%
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The mean (rounded off to two decimal place) of the first 6 odd prime numbers is:
Ans A). 9.33 B). 8.61 C). 7.93 D). 10.71
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 In an election contested by two candidates, one candidate got 25% of the total votes and still lost by 20,000 votes. Find the
total number of votes cast? (all votes are valid)
Ans A). 35000 B). 40000 C). 25000 D). 55000
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The marked price of a scooter is ₹1,80,000. The shopkeeper gave a scheme discount of 4% on ₹1,20,000 and 2.5% on the
remaining amount. The selling price (in ₹) of the scooter is:
Ans A). 1,37,700 B). 1,73,070 C). 1,73,700 D). 1,77,300
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 The average of the sales of an electronics shop in the years 1991, 1992, 1993 and 1994 is 2000, and that for the years 1992,
1993, 1994 and 1995 is 2200. If the sales in 1995 are 1800, find the sales in 1991.
Ans A). 800 B). 1200 C). 1000 D). 500
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price. Further, he uses a weighing balance which shows 1200 grams

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for a kilogram. What is his profit percentage?

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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.13
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A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell rice at the cost price of ₹95 per kg, but the weight he uses has 1 kg written on it,
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while it actually weighs 950 gm. The profit he thus earns on selling rice having an actual weight of 95 kg rice is:
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Ans A). ₹500 B). ₹375 C). ₹475 D). ₹275

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 In the first 5 overs of a T-20 international cricket match, the run rate was only 5.6. What should be the run rate
(approximately) in the remaining 15 overs to reach a target of 185 runs?
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Ans A). 10.46 B). 10.25 C). 9.55 D). 11.15

Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 835 B). 875 C). 815 D). 915
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Correct Answer: B
B

Q.16 If Anil takes 5 days to complete a task when he works for 8 hours a day, how many days will he take to complete
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the task if he works 6 hours a day?

Ans
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D). Correct Answer: A

A). B). C).
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Q.17 Find the area of a square whose diagonal is of 14 cm length.

Ans A). 95 cm2 B). 98 cm2 C). 94 cm2 D). 96 cm2 Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 410 B). 450 C). 390 D). 490
Correct Answer: B

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Q.19

Ans A). 8.02% B). 7.93% C). 9.93% D). 8.93%

Correct Answer: D

Q.20 A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief are 10 kmph and 8 kmph, respectively. If the policeman
started 15 minutes late, find the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief.
Ans A). 15 minutes B). 45 minutes C). 30 minutes D). 60 minutes
Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

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Ans B). C).
A). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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Ans A). D).

B). C). Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
B

it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
Some hooks are rags.
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All rags are bottles.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bottles are hooks.
(II) All bottles are rags.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: B

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Q.4

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 12 is related to 59 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 79. To which ofthe following is 24
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 101 B). 117 C). 107 D). 96
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
EGC, IFG, MEK, QDO, ?
Ans A). WSU B). VWS C). UCS D). SWU
Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). P is

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sitting to the immediate right of V and third to the left of U. S is sitting fourth to the right of Q, who is not an immediate
neighbour of P and T. Q is sitting to the second right of U. R is sitting to the immediate right of Q and second to the left of P.
How many people are sitting between R and T when counted from the left of T?
Ans A). Three B). Five C). Two ap D). Four
Correct Answer: A
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Q.8
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Ans A). − and × B). + and × C). ÷ and × D). − and +

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘FAST’ is coded as ‘6842’ and ‘TILE’ is coded as ‘5761’.What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code
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language?
Ans A). 2 B). 5 C). 1 D). 6
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.10 Rajan, Pragyan, Kamal, Sachin, Ashok, Narendra, and Laksh are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
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necessarily in the same order).

Rajan sits 3rd to the right of Narendra. Kamal sits 2nd to the right of Rajan. Ashok is an immediate neighbour of Narendra.
at

Pragyan sits to the immediate right of Sachin.

Who is sitting 3rd to the left of Narendra?
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Ans A). Sachin B). Laksh C). Pragyan D). Kamal

Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(20, 76, 91)

(87, 41, 123)
Ans A). (57, 18, 100) B). (84, 47, 126) C). (40, 80, 15) D). (47, 19, 51)
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 GMIE is related to HNJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KQMI is related to LRNJ.
To which of the following is NTPL related, following the same logic?
Ans A). UOQM B). UOMQ C). OUQM D). OUMQ
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

34 51 85 102 136 ?
Ans A). 153 B). 146 C). 157 D). 142
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

140 × 2 − 4 ÷ 56 + 82 = ?
Ans A). 262 B). 268 C). 241 D). 212
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘checked his mirror’ is written as ‘aw ar ae’ and ‘book inevitably mirror’ is coded as ‘al aw ao’.

Ans A). al
How is ‘mirror’ coded in that language?
B). aw C). ae
ap D). ao
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
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Ans
B y
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A). B). C).

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Correct Answer: D

D).

Q.18 TAHO is related to XELS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HOVC is related to LSZG.
To which of the following is NUBI related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RYFM B). FYKM C). RYGM D). RYKM
Correct Answer: A

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Statements:
Some metals are iron.
Some iron are steel.

Conclusions:
(I) Some metals are steel.
(II) All steel are iron.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘will make you’ is written as ‘ft fy fd’ and ‘you see what’ is writtenas ‘fi fo ft’. How will ‘you’ be
writtenin the given language?
Ans A). fo B). fy C). fd D). ft
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who was the court poet of king Harshavardhana?

Ans A). Vatsbhatti B). Kalidas C). Ravikirti D). Banabhatta
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 As per Article 181, the ___________ can not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in
State Legislative Assembly.

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Ans A). Advocate General B). Deputy Chairman C). Speaker D). Chairman
Correct Answer: C

Q.3
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In 1928, who among the following wrote the Congress Party’s Nehru Report, a future constitution for
independent India, based on the granting of dominion status?
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Ans A). Motilal Nehru B). Jawaharlal Nehru C). Subhash Chandra Bose D). Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 The Patkai hills are part of the ____________ mountains.

Ans A). Western Ghats B). Eastern Ghats C). Purvachal D). Karakoram
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 In which of the following events did India get its first individual Olympic gold medal?
Ans A). Wrestling B). Boxing C). Weightlifting D). Shooting
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 The term 'foot fault' is associated with which of the following games?
B

Ans A). Hockey B). Tennis C). Archery D). Basketball

Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Calculate the revenue receipts from the following information.

Revenue deficit= 2.80% of GDP Revenue expenditure= 10.80% of GDP

Ans A). 12.80 B). 8.00 C). 13.60 D). 2.70

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 When a large amount of carbon dioxide dissolves in a water body, the water becomes acidic because of the formation of
which of the following acids?
Ans A). Carboxylic acid B). Carbamic acid C). Carbolic acid D). Carbonic acid
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which programme, that was introduced in the year 2000-2001, aims to offer homes, drinking water, primary education and
basic healthcare in rural areas?
Ans A). Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi B). Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana C). The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
D). Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Which of the following institutes/projects is declared as a masterpiece of oral and intangible heritage of humanity by
UNESCO in May 2001?
Ans A). Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy B). National Institute of Kathak Dance C). National Project to support Kuttiyattam
D). Music Academy Madras
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 Select the INCORRECT pair of molecule/formula units and their molar mass from the following.
Ans A). HNO3 - 62 B). CH4 - 16 C). NaCl - 58.5 D). HCl - 36.5
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 In animal cells, the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids through ꞵ-oxidation is conducted by which of the following
organelles?
Ans A). Ribosome B). Peroxisome C). Mitochondria D). Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 How many cities have been selected to be developed as sustainable and responsible destinations as per the Swadesh
Darshan 2.0 scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism in January 2023?
Ans A). 67 B). 21 C). 45 D). 30
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which of the following architectural elements is excluded from the construction sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
Ans A). Iron Slabs B). Sun Dried Bricks C). Baked Bricks D). Mortar of Gypsum
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 In the 1991 Census, which state was the highest in rank in terms of literacy rate and held higher than the national average of
literacy rate?
Ans A). West Bengal B). Karnataka C). Tamil Nadu D). Kerala
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Which organelle contains ribosomal RNA and is involved in the production of ribosomes?
Ans A). Endoplasmic reticulum B). Nucleus C). Nucleolus D). Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The autobiography 'Wings of Fire' chronicles the life of which notable Indian personality?
Ans A). APJ Abdul Kalam B). Kiran Bedi C). Arundhati Roy D). Ratan Tata

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 Which of the following revolutionaries, who was arrested in Lahore conspiracy case by the British Government of India, was
martyred in the hunger strike of 63 days in jail?
Ans A). Ram Prasad Bismil B). Jatindra Nath Das C). Prafulla Chaki ap D). Rash Behari Bose
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the Indian Constitution?
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Ans A). Very rigid and difficult to amend B). Flexible C). Rigid D). Neither rigid nor flexible
Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 The 'Bathukamma' festival is associated with which state?

Ans A). Telangana B). Sikkim C). Punjab D). Tripura

Correct Answer: A
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Q.21 Raga Deepak has been associated with which famous musician?
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Ans A). Ali Khan Karori B). Tansen C). Lal Kalawant D). Khusrau
B

Correct Answer: B
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Q.22 In September 2023, after the retirement of Incumbent Sanjay Kumar Mishra, who was appointed as In-charge Director of ED?
at

Ans A). Tushar Mehta B). Rahul Navin C). Samant Goel D). TV Somanathan
Correct Answer: B
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Q.23 Balban’s rule as an absolute despot led to which of the following events?
Ans A). Respected common man B). Granting Jagirs to Nobles C). Appointed Hindus in administration D). Destruction of the Forty

Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following dams is a part of the Damodar Valley Corporation?
Ans A). Maithon B). Rihand C). Koyna D). Salal
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Which of the following dances is traditionally performed by the males of three adjacent states - Jharkhand, Odisha and West
Bengal?
Ans A). Odissi B). Sattriya C). Kuchipudi D). Chhau
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
All in all, he had the more splendid collection of antique paintings ever.
Ans A). most splendid B). more splendider C). splendid D). splendidest
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The company plans to expand its operations into global markets soon.
Ans A). Eliminate B). Spread C). Restrict D). Diversify
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
To show the white feather
Ans A). To act cowardly B). To show anger C). To maintain peace D). To act bravely
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My brother trains young girls at the football academy, whereas I gets a handsome salary to teach mathematics at the same
place.
Ans A). at the football academy, whereas B). My brother trains young girls C). to teach mathematics at the same place
D). I gets a handsome salary
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Reverent
Ans A). Rushed B). Important C). Related D). Respectful
Correct Answer: D

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Q.6 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). An unexpected power failure completely foiled the plan of the team. B). An unexpected power failure completely foiled a plan of a team.
C). A unexpected power failure completely foiled the plan of a team. ap
D). An unexpected power failure completely foiled an plan of the team.
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
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The bread was drier and stale.

Ans A). dry B). much drier C). driest D). more drier
Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
G

After their disagreement, they decided to saparate their belongings and part ways.
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Ans A). seperate B). seprete C). separate D). seprate

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 One of the four underlined words in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
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Let us appreciate, support and contribute our might to the promotional efforts of the comunity.
Ans A). appreciate B). promotional C). contribute D). comunity
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Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The scientist conducted a series of experiments to _______ his hypothesis.

Ans A). variation B). variable C). vague D). verify
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the option that has an error in the use of phrasal verb.
Ans A). Why does she break out with all her near and dear ones? B). To earn a significant profit, you are advised to deal in electronic items.
C). Clean up the mess in the kitchen. It is unhygienic. D). We look forward to seeing you during the event.
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Johannes Gutenberg invented the first printing press that could print thousands of ______________ a day. This made books
cheaper and information ______________ widely available.
Ans A). pages; more B). sheet; much C). leaf; many D). sides; most
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Although she is usually / rude with everyone, / she behaved nice / with all of us today.
Ans A). with all of us today B). Although she is usually C). she behaved nice D). rude with everyone
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

I cannot see without my glasses.
Ans A). A device used to correct the defects of vision B). A container C). A fragile object D). An unbreakable object
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

They all felt that the movie was truly captivating and unforgettable.
Ans A). tantalising B). relatable C). repugnant D). charismatic
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

All the political parties of India appaer lost in the physical exercise of fighting elections.
Ans A). Apeear B). Aapear C). Apearr D). Appear
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

I long from travel outside the country, dreaming of adventures among the towering Alps and
basking in the turquoise waters of the Caribbean.
Ans A). long at travel B). long to travel C). long for travelling D). long for travelled

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Triumph ap
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Ans A). Failure B). Lapse C). Attentiveness D). Delay
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

She is someone who always discourages our enthusiasm; therefore, we have decided to keep our distance from her.
an

Ans A). a nine days' wonder B). a fish out of water C). a wet blanket D). a cash cow
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
G

A building where animals are butchered

Ans A). Decanter B). Abattoir C). Burrow D). Cemetery

Correct Answer: B
hs

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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Goddess Shailputri is the first form of Goddess Durga, who is worshipped ____(1)___ Navaratri. In this form, she is worshipped as the
daughter of ___(2)__ Himalayas. She is the goddess ___(3)____ nature and is adorned with flowers. She ___(4)__ a bull and holds a
trident in one hand and a lotus flower in another. During Navaratri, nine different forms of Durga are worshipped. Durga is a ___(5)__,
___(6)___, ___(7)___ deity who is also known as Adishakti—the energy that manifested to create the universe.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). by B). to C). among D). during
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate article to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). the B). no article C). an D). a
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). at B). of C). w
ith D). around
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

Goddess Shailputri is the first form of Goddess Durga, who is worshipped ____(1)___ Navaratri. In this form, she is worshipped as the

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daughter of ___(2)__ Himalayas. She is the goddess ___(3)____ nature and is adorned with flowers. She ___(4)__ a bull and holds a
trident in one hand and a lotus flower in another. During Navaratri, nine different forms of Durga are worshipped. Durga is a ___(5)__,
___(6)___, ___(7)___ deity who is also known as Adishakti—the energy that manifested to create the universe.
at
SubQuestion No : 24
Pr

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). was riding B). had ridden C). rides D). rode
an

Correct Answer: C
ag

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.

Goddess Shailputri is the first form of Goddess Durga, who is worshipped ____(1)___ Navaratri. In this form, she is worshipped as the
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daughter of ___(2)__ Himalayas. She is the goddess ___(3)____ nature and is adorned with flowers. She ___(4)__ a bull and holds a
B

trident in one hand and a lotus flower in another. During Navaratri, nine different forms of Durga are worshipped. Durga is a ___(5)__,
___(6)___, ___(7)___ deity who is also known as Adishakti—the energy that manifested to create the universe.
hs

SubQuestion No : 25
at

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks number 5.

Ans A). powerful; Indian; radiant B). radiant; Indian; powerful C). powerful; radiant; Indian D). Indian; radiant; powerful
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/09/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Ramani sells her car to Sarla at a loss of 15%. If Sarla pays ₹1,91,250 for it, then what is the cost price of the car for Ramani?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.2

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an
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Ans A). 880 B). 900 C). 840 D). 860

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.3 Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their HCF is 60. The numbers are:
B

Ans A). 20, 15, 12 B). 180, 240, 300 C). 45, 60,75 D). 90, 120, 150
Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.4 In a park there are rabbits and pigeons in the ratio 4 : 9. If legs are counted, the total number of legs is 340. Find the number
at

of rabbits.
Ans A). 40 B). 70 C). 30 D). 20
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Correct Answer: A

Q.5

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 770 B). 850 C). 750 D). 810
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans A). 48.6 B). 49.6 C). 50.6 D). 51.6
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Two candidates contested in an election. One of them secured 62.5% of the total votes and won by 996 votes. What is the
total number of votes cast?(all votes are valid)
Ans A). 1594 B). 2656 C). 3984 D). 2988
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 The average of the numbers 253, 245, 325, 120 and 115+2K is 212. Find the average of the numbers 353, 354, 225, 220 and
110+3K.
Ans A). 252 B). 250 C). 253 D). 251
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 20 cm and 23 cm. What is the area (in cm2) of the rhombus?
Ans A). 460 B). 345 C). 230 D). 115
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹,
rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?
Ans A). 10.09 B). 7.09 C). 8.09 D). 9.09
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 The average score obtained by 64 boys and a certain number of girls in a test is 59.15, while the average score obtained by
the boys is 55.25. If the average score of the girls is 68.75, then how many girls appeared for the test?
Ans A). 27 B). 28 C). 25 D). 26
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Sharad invested two equal amounts for 6 years and 3 years at the rate of 7% and 9% per annum, respectively. The sum of
their simple interest is ₹1,587. The invested amount (in ₹) by Sharad is:
Ans A). 4,650 B). 4,600 C). 4,374 D). 4,550
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 2 years.

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Ans A). 400 B). 360 C). 320 D). 300
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 ap
The speed of a boat in still water is 13 km/h and the speed of the stream is 4 km/h. How much more time will it take in going
upstream than ingoing downstream a distance of 68 km? (Correct to the nearest minute)
at
Ans A). 3 h 30 min B). 3 h 50 min C). 3 h 33 min D). 2 h 55 min
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Q.16 The marked price of a chair is ₹1,800 and a discount of 18% is offered on the marked price. What additional discount must
be offered to the customer now to bring the net price to ₹1,220? (Correct to two places of decimals.)
an

Ans A). 13.47% B). 31.47% C). 17.34% D). 14.37%

Correct Answer: C
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G
B y
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Q.17

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Ans A). 32 : 45 B). 47 : 39 C). 39 : 47
ap D). 45 : 32
Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 The average weight of a class of 115 students is 52.4 kg. If the average weight of the 63 boys is 60 kg, then find the average
weight (in kg) of the girls in the class.
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(Rounded off to one decimal place)

Ans A). 41.8 B). 45.5 C). 47.6 D). 43.2
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.19
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G

Ans A). 250 B). 175 C). 200 D). 225

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.20 In a circular race of 1500 m, P and Q start from the same point and at the same time, at speeds of 20 km/h and 35 km/h,
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respectively. After what time will they meet for the first time on the track if they are running in the same direction?
Ans A). 340 sec B). 640 sec C). 840 sec D). 360 sec
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Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). W sits second
to the right of U. T sits second to the right of W. X sits to the immediate right of T. Who sits to the immediate right of X?
Ans A). V B). U C). S D). W
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘MICE’ is coded as ‘6481’ and ‘RICE’ is coded as ‘1584’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 1 B). 5 C). 4 D). 8
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 10 is related to 102 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 13 is related to 171. To which of the following is 16
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 265 B). 268 C). 258 D). 251
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

162 184 206 228 250 ?

Ans A). 262 B). 272 C). 277 D). 284
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘Do you follow’ is coded as ‘MP TQ IX’ and ‘How are you’ is coded as ‘TQ LV IJ’. How is ‘you’
coded in that code language?
Ans A). TQ B). LU C). MP D). IX
Correct Answer: A

Q.6

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
ap
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Some actors are dancers.
Some dancers are singers.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some actors are singers.
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(II) No singer is a dancer.

Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion I follows
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Correct Answer: B
G

Q.8 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
y

are interchanged?
90 − 6 + 69 ÷ 54 × 27 = ?
B

Ans A). −44 B). −43 C). −45 D). −42

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.9 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched as
at

shown in the last figure. How would the paper look when unfolded?
M

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.10 ACDB is related to ZXWY in a certain way. In the same way, EGHF is related to VTSU. To which of the following is IKLJ
related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RPQO B). PRQO C). PROQ D). RPOQ
Correct Answer: D

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Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: D

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘clean the room’ is written as ‘rt yp fs’ and ‘room is good’ is coded as ‘sw rt la’. How is ‘room’
coded in the given language
Ans A). yp B). sw C). rt D). fs
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation mathematically correct?
49 + 7 × 10 ÷ 6 – 3 = 73
Ans A). + and – B). × and ÷ C). – and × D). + and ÷
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

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HAF, KDI, NGL, QJO, ?
Ans A). PQR B). RTW C). TMR D). SKP

Q.15
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Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Correct Answer: C
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an
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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

B y
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Q.16
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Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements:
Some creepers are stones.
Some stones are buds.
Conclusions:
(I) Some buds are stones.
(II) No creeper is a bud.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: C

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Q.18 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(16, 3, 27)
(10, 19, 37)
Ans A). (5, 14, 20) B). (15, 17, 30) C). (19, 15, 32) D). (7, 25, 40)
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 UDLT is related to XGOW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZIQY is related to CLTB.
To which of the following is IQYH related, following the same logic?
Ans A). MKBK B). LTCL C). LGKK D). LTBK
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Six students Dhiraj, Mohan, Lokesh, Param, Rohan and Suresh are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Rohan is sitting second to the right of Suresh. Param is sitting third to the right of Rohan.
Param is an immediate neighbour of both Lokesh and Suresh. Mohan and Lokesh are immediate neighbours. Who is the
immediate neighbour of both Dhiraj and Mohan?
Ans A). Param B). Suresh C). Lokesh D). Rohan
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Identify the INCORRECT pair of cropping season and related crop from the following.
Ans A). Rabi - Wheat B). Kharif - Maize C). Rabi - Paddy D). Kharif – Soyabean
Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 R Muthukannammal, who was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022, is a ______________ dancer.
Ans A). Garba B). Sadir C). Rouf D). Chhau

Q.3
ap
Calculate the Body Mass Index (BMI) of a person whose weight is 50 kg and height is 1.5 m.
Correct Answer: B
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Ans A). 25.0 kg/m2 B). 22.2 kg/m2 C). 16.6 kg/m2 D). 18.0 kg/m2
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Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Which of the following is an Indian folk dance?

Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Mohiniyattam C). Sattriya D). Bihu

Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 Which country won the 4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship 2023 event in the Men's category?
G

Ans A). Iran B). Indonesia C). South Korea D). India
Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.6 The word ‘Megalith’ comes from two ________ words; ‘megas’ means great and ‘lithas’ means stone.
Ans A). Hebrew B). Greek C). Latin D). English
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Where was Global Technology Summit 2022 held?

Ans A). New Delhi B). Jaipur C). Varanasi D). Bengaluru
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Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The Ganesh-rath is one of the finest monolithic temples at _____________.

Ans A). Mahabalipuram B). Sarnath C). Gangaikondacholapuram D). Kanchipuram
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Jyotiba Phule belonged from which state?

Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Maharashtra C). Gujarat D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 On 27th october 2019, Dushyant Chautala took an oath as Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans A). Himachal Pradesh B). Haryana C). Punjab D). Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Where was the Hindu college established in the year 1791 to teach ancient Sanskrit texts?
Ans A). Madras B). Calcutta C). Banaras D). Agra
Correct Answer: C

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Q.12 Which of the following states of India marked the lowest in National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review
2023?
Ans A). Goa B). Kerala C). Sikkim D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a part of the capital receipts?

Ans A). Tax revenue B). Recovery of loan C). Disinvestment D). Borrowing
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 On boiling an egg, why does the outer part become opaque and white?
Ans A). The heat causes a reaction of the egg with water and makes it opaque.
B). The heat causes a change in the crystal structure of egg yolk. C). The heat causes a change in the structure of egg protein.
D). The heat causes denaturation, hardening the albumin and colouring it opaque white
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Which of the following National Parks is located in Madhya Pradesh?

Ans A). Nanda Devi B). Periyar C). Bandhavgarh D). Silent Valley
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following is the compound with the chemical formula H2SO4?

Ans A). Nitric Acid B). Sulfuric Acid C). Sulfurous Acid D). Hydrogen Sulfide
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 According to Article 74(1), who is at the head of the Council of Ministers?
Ans A). Speaker of the House B). Prime Minister C). Chief Justice D). President
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In which of the following states is the Behdienkhlam Festival celebrated, in which the young men make a symbolic gesture
of driving away of the evil spirit, plague and disease by beating the roof of every house with bamboo poles?

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Ans A). Odisha B). Bihar C). Manipur D). Meghalaya
Correct Answer: D

Q.19
ap
Who among the following personalities was the recipient of the Lata Mangeshkar Award for Music 2021, presented by the
Madhya Pradesh government?
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Ans A). Kumar Sanu B). Udit Narayan C). Shaan D). Darshan Raval
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.20 The first post-independence National Games were hosted by which of the following cities?
an

Ans A). Delhi B). Jabalpur C). Lucknow D). Madras

Correct Answer: C
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Q.21 The Hindu temples ‘Hinglaj Mata’ and ‘Katasraj’ are located in which neighbouring country of India?
Ans A). Pakistan B). Bhutan C). Sri Lanka D). Nepal
G

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.22 The officer known as Diwan belonged to which of the following departments of the Mughal empire during Akbar’s reign?
B

Ans A). Military B). Foreign affairs C). Judicial D). Finance
Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.23 Which of the following Articles on Fundamental Duties was added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
at

Amendment Act?
M

Ans A). 40 B). 52-A C). 51-A D). 45A

Correct Answer: C

Q.24 The famous Hindi novel ‘Maila Aanchal’ is written by:

Ans A). Mridula Garg B). Shrilal Shukla C). Phanishwar Nath Renu D). Premchand
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 The average separation between the sun and the earth in terms of light years is 8.311 minutes. Here, minutes indicate:
Ans A). speed B). time C). velocity D). d
istance
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the phrase/idiom.

When Jane realised that she had made a serious mistake at work, she knew she had to face the ______and take
responsibility for her actions.
Ans A). mirror B). music C). fun D). band
Correct Answer: B

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Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans A). Conscience B). Cemetery C). Accommodate D). Calender
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Select the most appropriate word to replace the underlined word in the following sentence.

The officer was polite to the workers.

Ans A). adamant B). officious C). harsh D). humble
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A detrimental attitude can always be cured with a cordial approach.

Ans A). unmindful B). social C). damaging D). cooperative
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
In accordance to / the factual data, / serious measures are required / to control the loss.
Ans A). In accordance to B). the factual data C). to control the loss D). serious measures are required
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Nostalgia B). Neutral C). Mutual D). Motevate

Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It is essential that you act in accordance with the rules and regulations of the organisation.

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Ans A). obey B). fulfill C). comply D). observe
Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word.

"Today's whether is very pleasant", said Maya. ap

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Ans A). Wether B). Wheather C). Weathur D). Weather
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with the grammatical error.
an

Mahesh and his workers / will have been worked / on the project / for a long time.
Ans A). on the project B). will have been worked C). Mahesh and his workers D). for a long time
Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
G

A Gita is considered / to be a dialogue between / the Pandava prince, Arjuna, / and Lord Krishna.
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Ans A). to be a dialogue between B). the Pandava prince, Arjuna C). and Lord Krishna D). A Gita is considered
B

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.11 Which of the following sentences contains an error in the use of a phrasal verb?
Ans A). Let's call off the picnic as there is a possibility of heavy rain. B). Can you please take care for my belongings for some time?
at

C). It is wise to put up with one's quarrelsome neighbours. D). While visiting the library, I came across an interesting book.
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

If you do not followed the rules, you will not be allowed to stay at this hostel.
Ans A). No substitution B). If you do not follow the rules C). If you cannot be following the rules D). If you should not follow the rules

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

After she will get her degree, she moved to Germany.

Ans A). After she got her degree B). After she get her degree C). After she gets her degree D). No substitution
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

Mita is smart than many other kids in the school.

Ans A). most smart
Click B).
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smart
Telegram C).- smartest D). smarter
Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
The lavish party had a luxurious atmosphere and elegant decorations.
Ans A). Simple B). Happy C). Excessive D). Middling
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The billionaire knows how to _____ money.

Ans A). do B). make C). develop D). form
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
By next December / we will has lived / in this city for 28 years.
Ans A). no error B). in this city for 28 years C). by next December D). we will has lived
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
It is impossible to think of Lady Stranleigh as an ordinary mother.
Ans A). Unlucky B). Strange C). Blessed D). Usual
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Rakesh committed the mistake, and he must be convicted.

Ans A). Punished B). Sentenced C). Crucified D). Acquitted
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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He needs to ___________ as his exams are approaching.

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Ans A). hit the sack B). bury himself in C). learn the ropes D). hit the books
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
at
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Pr

Club introduced their credit card in the US, 3.___________ customers to pay restaurant bills without cash. American Express
4._______ their first credit card in 1958, while the Bank of America introduced the Bank America Card (now Visa) in 1958. Visa, now
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known as the Visa International Service Association, is accepted in over 150 countries, making it one of the most 5._______ credit
cards available.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
B y

Ans A). producer B). finder C). inventor D). discoverer

Correct Answer: C
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

Credit cards originated in the 1920s in the US, with European references dating back to 1890. John Biggins, 1.______ of the first
bank-issued credit card, invented the 'Charge-It' programme in 1946, 2.______ bank customers and local merchants. In 1950, Diners
Club introduced their credit card in the US, 3.___________ customers to pay restaurant bills without cash. American Express
4._______ their first credit card in 1958, while the Bank of America introduced the Bank America Card (now Visa) in 1958. Visa, now
known as the Visa International Service Association, is accepted in over 150 countries, making it one of the most 5._______ credit
cards available.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). untangling B). connecting C). smashing D). splitting
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). prohibiting B). enjoying C). allowing D). forbidding
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). censored B). issued C). published D). suppressed

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Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:

ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at
Credit cards originated in the 1920s in the US, with European references dating back to 1890. John Biggins, 1.______ of the first
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bank-issued credit card, invented the 'Charge-It' programme in 1946, 2.______ bank customers and local merchants. In 1950, Diners
Club introduced their credit card in the US, 3.___________ customers to pay restaurant bills without cash. American Express
4._______ their first credit card in 1958, while the Bank of America introduced the Bank America Card (now Visa) in 1958. Visa, now
known as the Visa International Service Association, is accepted in over 150 countries, making it one of the most 5._______ credit
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cards available.
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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
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Ans A). universal B). solidify C). entitle D). amateur

Correct Answer: A
B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 01/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD, the coordinates of whose vertices are A(6,-3),B(-4,-2),C(3,1) and D(5,0)?
Ans A). 21 unit2 B). 30 unit2 C). 25 unit2 D). 16 unit2 Correct Answer: A

Q.2 A cylindrical disc of thickness 1 cm is made by melting two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm, and length 6 cm and 4
cm, respectively. The radius of the new cylinder is:
Ans A). 7 cm B). 21 cm C). 14 cm D). 28 cm

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Correct Answer: C

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Q.3 Two successive increases of 15% each, is by what percentage more than the two successive decreases of 12% each?
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans
A). B). C).
ap D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 The average weight of a certain number of students in a group was 72 kg. If 11 students, with an average weight of 76 kg
each, leave the group, and 5 students, each with an average weight of 79 kg, join the group, the average weight of the
students in the group decreases by 0.6 kg. The number of students initially in the group was:
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Ans A). 21 B). 25 C). 17 D). 19

Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 12% per year rate of interest?
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Ans A). 250 B). 1000 C). 500 D). 750

Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 Two mixers and one TV cost ₹7,000, while two TVs and one mixer cost ₹9,800. The value of one TV is:
B

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
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Q.7
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Ans A). ₹780 crores B). ₹800 crores C). ₹760 crores D). ₹820 crores
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 815 B). 875 C). 915 D). 835
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.9 The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room 525 centimetre long and 378 centimetre broad is:
Ans A). 178 B). 150 C). 380 D). 450
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 20%?
Ans A). 2.82 B). 4.82 C). 1.82 D). 3.82
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 A grocer mixes two varieties of tea worth ₹120/kg and ₹125/kg in a ratio to produce a new variety worth ₹122/kg. What is the
ratio of the varieties to be mixed to obtain the new variety?
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 A retailer allows a trade discount of 25% and a further discount of 8% on the marked price of the products, if paid along with
his shop’s membership card. He makes a net profit of 15% on the cost. By what percentage are the products marked up by
him?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Ravi goes to college from his village at the speed of 5km/h and returns at the speed of 4km/h. If he takes 9 hours in all, find
the distance (in km) between the village and the college.
Ans A). 20 B). 40 C). 18 D). 9
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Two trains running towards each other on parallel tracks, at speeds of 45 km/hr and 51 km/hr, take 21 seconds to cross each
other. If the length of one train is 290 m, then the length (in m) of the other train is:
Ans A). 250 B). 290 C). 230 D). 270
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 The ratio of the present ages of Ram and Shyam is 3 : 4, and 4 years ago the ratio was 2 : 3. What will be the ratio of the
ages of Ram and Shyam 4 years from now?
Ans A). 4 : 5 B). 1 : 5 C). 2 : 5 ap D). 3 : 5
Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 A borrows ₹89,500 for 3 years at 7% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of 9% for the first
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year, 8% for the second year, and 7% for the third year. What is the total simple interest (in ₹) paid by A and B?
Ans A). 45,027 B). 47,025 C). 42,075 D). 40,275
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 The average of 9 numbers is 3. If the average of the first 8 of these numbers is 2, the 9th number is:
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Ans A). 11 B). 12 C). 14 D). 15

Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 A cylindrical tank of height 10 m and radius 5 m has a small circular cut of 0.5 m radius on its top surface. What would be
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the total surface area of the tank?

Ans B). D). Correct Answer: A

A). C).
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Q.19 The given bar graph shows the production of onions (in quintals) from the year 2018 to 2022. Study the graph and answer
the question that follows.

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Considering the average production during this period, the number of years in which the production is above the average is:

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Ans A). 2 B). 3 C). 1 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Find the average of 300, 129, 49, 120 and 102. ap
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Ans A). 130 B). 120 C). 150 D). 140
Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is second to
the left of T. Q is an immediate neighbour of both U and P. S and P are immediate neighbours. Who among the following has
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both T and U as his immediate neighbours?

Ans A). S B). R C). Q D). P
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 UBIP is related to YFMT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IPWD is related to MTAH.
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To which of the following is OVCJ related, following the same logic?

Ans A). SZGN B). SMGJ C). SJZM D). SZMG

Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘5173’ and ‘AIDS’ is coded as ‘6452’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
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language?
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Ans A). 6 B). 5 C). 1 D). 2

Correct Answer: B

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TKU, UNP, VQK, WTF, ?

Ans A). XXA B). WAW C). XWA D). YXB
Correct Answer: C

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Q.5

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

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(12, 4, 160)
(6, 11, 157)
Ans A). (6, 15, 90) B). (14, 7, 245) C). (21, 4, 168)
ap D). (9, 15, 90)
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 GY 16 is related to DV 23 in a certain way. In the same way, OD 11 is related to LA 18. To which of the following is LW 13
related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). IT 20 B). IS 20 C). HS 20 D). HT 19

Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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53, 52, 39, 38, ?, 24

Ans A). 23 B). 25 C). 26 D). 28

Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.
B
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Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
15 − 54 × 18 + 16 ÷ 2 = 44
Ans A). − and + B). + and × C). ÷ and × D). − and ÷
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘PLAY’ is coded as ‘4831’ and ‘CLAY’ is coded as ‘1824’. What is the code for ‘C’ in that
language?

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Ans A). 2 B). 1 C). 8 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if

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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All parrots are eagles.

No parrot is a crow.
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Conclusions:
(I) No eagle is a crow.
(II) All crows are parrots.
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Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow B). Only conclusion I follows C). Only conclusion II follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows
G

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘–’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘+’
B

are interchanged?
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6 − 8 ÷ 12 + 3 × 9 + 3 ÷ 17 = ?
Ans A). 2 B). 66 C). 71 D). 56
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some carrots are radishes.
Some cucumbers are radishes.
Conclusions:
I. All cucumbers are carrots.
II. Some cucumbers are carrots.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion I follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 In a certain code language, 'EAGER' is writtenas ‘CGGTG’ and 'LEARN' is writtenas ‘GNAPT’. How will 'HINDI' be written in
that language?
Ans A). KJNKF B). KJPKF C). KJNFK D). JKNKF
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans A). C). D).

B).

Correct Answer: A

Q.19 18 is related to 80 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 23 is related to 100. To which ofthe following is 36
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 138 B). 144 C). 152 D). 142
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting third to the left of E. A is sitting to the immediate left of G. D is the immediate neighbour of A and B. F is
sitting to the immediate left of C.

How many people are sitting between F and D when counted from the right of F?
Ans A). Three B). Two C). Five D). Four
Correct Answer: A

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 A party recognised by the Election Commission of India that secures at least ________ of the total votes in
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the General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly in four or more states in addition to winning
four Lok Sabha seats is called a National Party.
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Ans A). eight per cent B). three per cent C). one per cent D). six per cent
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Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Which musical duo is part of the Khayal singing lineage of the Banaras Gharana?
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Ans A). Rajan and Sajan Mishra B). Salamat Ali and Nazakat Ali Khan C). Subhan Kasim and Subhan Bab D). Sandhya and Prasun Banerjee
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Correct Answer: A
G

Q.3 The IUPAC name of CH3-(CH2)18-CH3 is ________.

Ans A). triacontane B). decane C). icosane D). dodecane

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.4 Which of the following can be a basis of difference between a salamander and a house-wall lizard apart from their habitat?
hs

Ans A). Egg-laying feature B). Cold-blood C). Scales on the skin D). Three-chambered heart
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Which of the following novels is NOT written by Aravind Adiga?

Ans A). Last Man in Tower B). The English Teacher C). The White Tiger D). Selection Day
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 In which stadium did Indian cricketer Saurav Ganguly take off and waive his t-shirt?
Ans A). Cape Town Stadium, South Africa B). Lord’s Stadium, England C). The Melbourne Cricket Ground, Australia
D). Perth Stadium, Australia
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 The PM-SVANidhi Scheme (2020) is run by which Ministry of the Government of India?
Ans A). Ministry of Labour and Employment B). Ministry of Finance C). Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs D). Ministry of Rural Development

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 After which of the following Acts did India come to be governed in the name of the British crown?
Ans A). Government of India Act, 1919 B). Government of India Act, 1858 C). Charter Act of 1853 D). Charter Act of 1833
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Hornbill festival is organised every year in which of the following states?
Ans A). Nagaland B). Sikkim C). Tripura D). Goa
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 t the Sansad Ratna Awards 2023, who among the following received the Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Lifetime Achievement
A
Award?
Ans A). Nagendra Singh B). HD Deve Gowda C). Laxminarayan Yadav D). TK Rangarajan
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 When was National Judicial Commission Bill, which is a private member bill to regulate the appointment of judges through
the National Judicial Commission, introduced in Rajya Sabha?
Ans A). August 2023 B). July 2023 C). March 2022 D). December 2022
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The Mughal emperor, Babur was a devotee of the ______Sufi Silsila.
Ans A). Naqshbandi B). Suhrawardi C). Qadri D). Chisti
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Which of the following dances of Goa is performed to celebrate the victory of the Maratha warriors over the Portuguese?
Ans A). Ghodemodni B). Zemmado C). Morulem D). Goff
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Which of the following Kathak dancers received the Padma Shri of 2022?
Ans A). Shakti and Mukti Mohan B). Sunayana Hazarlal Agrawal C). Shovana Narayan D). Kamalini and Nalini Asthana
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The Bidar Fort of Karnataka is irregularly ______ in shape.

Ans A). rhomboid B). circular C). rectangular D). square
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 A coastal area was flooded with sea water and resulted in heavy salt deposits in the nearby area. After a few days, it was
observed that many plants died. Based on these statements, which of the following is the most probable cause of the plant
deaths?

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A. Plants died due to infection from sea water borne germs.

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B. Plants died due to absence of sunlight.
C. Plants died due to plasmolysis in the plant cells.

Ans A). A
D. Plants died because they were eaten by sea organisms.
B). C C). D
ap D). B
Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 According to Indian Meteorology, which of the following is NOT a season experienced in India?
Ans A). The southwest monsoon season B). The hot weather season C). Equatorial season D). The cold weather season
Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 Bawris are traditionally used for:

Ans A). storing and recharging water B). getting useful minerals C). getting petroleum oil D). collecting garbage
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Who was the Indian match referee in the ICC - T20 World Cup 2021 tournament?
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Ans A). Rahul Dravid B). Venkatesh Prasad C). Sunil Gavaskar D). Javagal Srinath
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.20 The Universal Adult Franchise in Indian Constitution is applicable to Indian Citizens from the age of _______________.
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Ans A). 18 years B). 22 years C). 21 years D). 17 years

Correct Answer: A
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Q.21 Who among the following deciphered the Brahmi Script of the Mauryan period?
Ans A). James Mill B). James Prinsep C). Rakhal Das Banerji D). Herbert Hope Risley
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 In general, deficit is considered as a ________ concept.

Ans A). surplus B). stock C). margin D). flow
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Who was appointed as the Viceroy of India in place of Lord Wavell in February 1947?
Ans A). Lord Willingdon B). Lord Linlithgow C). Lord Irwin D). Lord Mountbatten
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following age groups is considered as working population or working age in India?
Ans A). 15-40 years B). 0-60 years C). 15-59 years D). 25-65 years
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 What is the approx width of broad-gauge railway network in India?

Ans A). 1.3 metres B). 1.6 metres C). 1 metre D). 1.2 metres
Correct Answer: B

Click
Section : English Language To Join Telegram
and Comprehension - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir
Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Raghav, who studies tourism at present, is planning to go abroad after his graduation.
Ans A). will study B). study C). studied D). is studying
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The disposal of hazardous waste in hospitals and factories is a serious problem and needs to be taken care of urgently.
Ans A). dangerous B). belligerent C). hazy D). benign
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the present perfect tense of the verb given in the brackets to fill in the blank.

Alex _______ (study) two programming languages.

Ans A). has studied B). have study C). has been studying D). had studied
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The teacher checked / whether each of them / have a blanket / as it was a cold night.
Ans A). have a blanket B). as it was a cold night C). The teacher checked D). whether each of them
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of ‘scanty’ in the sentence given below.
India has varied regions which have excess, moderate and deficient rainfall all through the year.
Ans A). Excess B). Moderate C). Deficient D). Varied
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

Arvind wanted to bake a cake for Riya's birthday, so he mixed the ______________, eggs and butter.

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Ans A). flawer B). flower C). flour D). flover
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The gardener's meticulous care ensured the vibrent colours of the flowers.
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Ans A). Vibrent B). Gardener's C). Care D). Meticulous
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Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please put the dishes in the _________ after you finish eating.
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Ans A). sink B). shrink C). cinque D). sync

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). perepharal B). belated C). tentative D). stringent

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Inspire
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Ans A). Reach B). Stimulate C). Aspire D). Daunt

Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the given sentence.
The student received an A+ for her exellent performance.
Ans A). perfarmence B). excellent C). performence D). excelleant
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The __________ of the scientific experiment raised questions about the validity of the results.
Ans A). transparency B). ambiguity C). verbosity D). meticulousness
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The student leader has _____ politics recently.

Ans A). approached B). entered C). gathered D). jumped
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
I am / cleaning the sofa / when she called me.
Ans A). cleaning the sofa B). when she called me C). No error D). I am
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The society / of the / our place / is good.
Ans A). is good B). our place C). The society D). of the
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the most appropriate expression that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Sonali is contemplating whether to accept the offer from Saanvi or not; she is still not in a position to be able to arrive at a
decision.
Ans A). raising the eyebrows B). blowing hot and cold C). getting her act together D). chewing the cud
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the
sentence.
She was deeply effected by the news, to the point of tears.
Ans A). affect from B). effected from C). affected of D). affected by
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 You overhear someone say, "He's always on cloud nine." What does this idiom mean in the given context?
Ans A). Often absent B). Extremely happy C). Frequently daydreaming D). Always busy
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error

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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

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She is / as more intelligent as / her brothers are.
Ans A). She is B). No error. C). her brothers are.
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D). as more intelligent as
Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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He dropped out / at his friend's house / on his way home / the day before yesterday.
Ans A). on his way home B). at his friend's house C). the day before yesterday D). He dropped out
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

It was one January morning, very early — a pinching, frosty morning — the cove all grey ____ 1 ____ hoar-frost and the ripple
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lapping softly on the stones. The captain had _____ 2____ earlier than usual and set out down the beach. Mother was upstairs with
B

father and I was _____ 3____ the breakfast table against the captain’s return when the parlour door opened and a man stepped in on
whom I had never set my eyes before. He was a pale, tallowy creature, wanting two fingers of the left hand, and ______ 4____ he
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wore a cutlass, he did not look much like a fighter. I had always my eye open for seafaring ______ 5_____ with one leg or two, and I
remember this one puzzled me.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). with B). among C). amongst D). about
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was one January morning, very early — a pinching, frosty morning — the cove all grey ____ 1 ____ hoar-frost and the ripple
lapping softly on the stones. The captain had _____ 2____ earlier than usual and set out down the beach. Mother was upstairs with
father and I was _____ 3____ the breakfast table against the captain’s return when the parlour door opened and a man stepped in on
whom I had never set my eyes before. He was a pale, tallowy creature, wanting two fingers of the left hand, and ______ 4____ he
wore a cutlass, he did not look much like a fighter. I had always my eye open for seafaring ______ 5_____ with one leg or two, and I
remember this one puzzled me.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). danced B). risen C). written D). waltzed
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). lying B). laying C). throwing D). playing
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

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Ans A). through B). throw C). though D). threw

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Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

whom I had never set my eyes before. He was a pale, tallowy creature, wanting two fingers of the left hand, and ______ 4____ he
wore a cutlass, he did not look much like a fighter. I had always my eye open for seafaring ______ 5_____ with one leg or two, and I
remember this one puzzled me.
ag

SubQuestion No : 25
G

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). plants B). birds C). men D). flowers
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Correct Answer: C
B
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M

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 01/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If the curved surface area of a cylindrical pipe is 44,000 cm2 and its diameter is 5 cm, find its length.

(Take π = )

Ans A). 19 m B). 24.5 m C). 28 m D). 14 m

Correct Answer: C

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Q.2

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Ans A). 2268 B). 1664 C). 2024
ap D). 1012
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 80, and that of the rest is 70. What is the
average score of the class?
Ans A). 74 B). 77 C). 87 D). 67
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 440 B). 400 C). 360 D). 340
Correct Answer: B
G

Q.5 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
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The graph shows the sales of three products: P, Q and R by four companies: A, B, C and D.
B
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How much more in percentage is the total sales of R than total sales of P (rounded off to one decimal place)?
Ans A). 26.9% B). 26.2% C). 22.9% D). 29.6%
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 A shopkeeper makes a 15% profit on a sale. He would have made 18%, if he had sold it for Rs.18 more. The cost price of the
article is:
Ans A). Rs.650 B). Rs.550 C). Rs.600 D). Rs.500
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Find the HCF of 24, 36 and 60.

Ans A). 12 B). 360 C). 4 D). 6
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 A 725 m long train passes through a 235 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
Ans A). 66 km/h B). 54 km/h C). 72 km/h D). 82 km/h
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 The number of three different types of motor bikes B1, B2, and B3 manufactured by a company in three months is given in
the following table. Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
Motor Bikes / Months October November December
B1 107 121 145
B2 95 100 80
B3 43 40 20

What is the average number of motor bikes manufactured by the company in the month of November?
Ans A). 89 B). 87 C). 86 D). 88
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 A merchant has 5000 kg of Basmati rice. He sells some part of this Basmati rice at 20% profit and the rest at 35% profit. He
gains 29% in the entire transaction. What is the quantity sold at 20% profit and 35% profit, respectively?
Ans A). 2600 kg, 2400 kg B). 2200 kg, 2800 kg C). 1800 kg, 3200 kg D). 2000 kg, 3000 kg
Correct Answer: D

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Q.11 If tea that costs ₹7.50 per kg is mixed with tea that costs ₹10.50 per kg in the proportion of 2 :1 then, what is the cost (in ₹) of
the resultant mixture per kg?
Ans A). 7.00 B). 8.50 C). 7.50
ap D). 9.00
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 A train travelling at a speed of 60 km/h leaves station A at 7:00 a.m. and another train travelling at a speed of 84 km/h starts
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from station A at 9:30 a.m. in the same direction on a parallel track. At what distance (in km) from station A and after how
many hours of travel of the second train will they be together? Express your answer in the same order.
Ans A). 693, 8.25 B). 525, 6.25 C). 375, 6.25 D). 495, 8.25
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Correct Answer: B

Q.13
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G
B y
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Ans A). 1810.16 B). 745.36 C). 1025.24 D). 1620.35

Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
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Ans A). 460 B). 440 C). 540 D). 500

Correct Answer: D

Q.15 A person deposited ₹2,500 in a bank that pays 8% simple interest. He withdrew ₹1,000 (from
amount) at the end of the first year. What will be his balance after 4 years?
Ans A). ₹2,018 B). ₹2,108 C). ₹2,480 D). ₹2,280 Correct Answer: B

Q.16 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
Ans A). 6.17 B). 3.17 C). 4.17 D). 5.17
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 If 4% of (A + B) is equal to 28% of (A – B), then find A : B.

Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 4 : 3 C). 3 : 4 D). 1 : 3
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 The average weight of a group of 20 women was calculated as 58.5 kg and it was later discovered that the weight of one of
the women was read as 35 kg, whereas her actual weight was 65 kg. What is the actual average weight of the group of 20
women?
Ans A). 70 kg B). 40 kg C). 60 kg D). 50 kg
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Sunil, Basid, Vikram, and Kuldeep receive salaries in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 8 : 13. If the difference between the salaries of Sunil
and Basid is ₹2,000, then what is the difference between the salaries (in ₹) of Vikram and Kuldeep?
Ans A). 2,400 B). 2,000 C). 2,200 D). 2,500
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Manpreet offers two successive discounts of 12% and 8% on the sale of a sweater to his customers on the occasion of
Diwali. What is the equivalent single percentage discount offered by Manpreet?
Ans A). 20.96% B). 19.04% C). 19.64% D). 20.00%
Correct Answer: B

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, 'BRIGHT' is coded as '371562', and 'GIRTHS' is coded as '653782'. What is the code for ‘B’ in
'BRIGHT'?
Ans A). 2 B). 1 C). 8 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 MJHI is related to TQOP in a certain way. In the same way, GDBC is related to NKIJ. To which of the following is XUST
related following the same logic?
Ans A). EABZ B). EBZA C). DABZ D). BZAC
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Six friends are sitting on a circular table, facing towards the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) . X is to the

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immediate left of Z and W is to the immediate right of Y. Z and U are separated by only one person sitting between them. W

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is an immediate neighbour of U. Only V is sitting between Z and Y. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours
of U?
Ans A). X and W B). W and V C). W and Y
ap D). Z and Y
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
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sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
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constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.

Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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8, 30
G

12, 46
Ans A). 15, 62 B). 16, 61 C). 15, 61 D). 16, 62
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.5 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.
hs
at
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Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.6 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘–’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
17 + 77 – 7 × 37 ÷ 47 = ?
Ans A). 187 B). 167 C). 157 D). 177
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). T is sitting to the immediate right of G. R is sitting to the immediate right of E. Only two people are sitting between D
and S when counted from the right of S. E is an immediate neighbour of S. If F is not an immediate neighbour of S, who is
sitting third to the left of F?
Ans A). R B). T C). E D). S
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.9 10 is related to 75 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 47. To which of the following is 15
related following the same logic?

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Ans A). 164 B). 110 C). 123 D). 156
Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

10, 22, 46, 94, 190, ? ap

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Ans A). 385 B). 389 C). 387 D). 382
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
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456 × 4 − 3 ÷ 11 + 70 =?
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Ans A). 84 B). 77 C). 87 D). 79

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.12 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
EMU, DNT, COS, BPR, ?
B y

Ans A). AQQ B). BST C). UBO D). FCD

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘make some noise’ is written as ‘ja sp ko’ and ‘noise is painful’ is writtenas ‘la ma sp’. How will
‘noise’ be writtenin that language?
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Ans A). ko B). la C). ma D). sp

Correct Answer: D
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Statements:
Some whales are sharks.
No shark is a dolphin.

Conclusions:
(I) No dolphin is a shark.
(II) Some sharks are whales.

Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: A

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Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All shirts are trousers.
No trouser is a belt.

Conclusions:
(I) No shirt is a belt.
(II) Some belts may be trousers.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

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Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 CE 77 is related to IK 87 in a certain way. In the same way, GJ 52 is related to MP 62. To which of the following is BG 43
related following the same logic?
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Ans A). NZ 30 B). WZ 20 C). HM 53 D). XY 35

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘2348’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
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Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 2 D). 8

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.19 In a certain code language, 'BORDER' is coded as ‘OBDRRE’ and 'BEYOND' is coded as ‘EBOYDN’. How will 'BURDEN' be
coded in the same language?
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Ans A). UBDREN B). NEDRUB C). UBRDNE D). UBDRNE

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
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the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As per Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duty (h) is to develop the ________________, humanism and the
spirit of inquiry and reform.
Ans A). religious temper B). scientific temper C). cultural temper D). sociological temper
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 In which state is Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Ans A). Telangana B). Gujarat C). Odisha D). Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021, which Union Territory has the lowest proportion of poor?
Ans A). Delhi B). Lakshadweep C). Chandigarh D). Puducherry
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Which Article of the Constitution of India specifically addresses the qualifications for the office of the President?
Ans A). Article 50 B). Article 56 C). Article 58 D). Article 60
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Who among the following was the most important god of the Aryans?
Ans A). Agni B). Pashupatinath C). Marut D). Indra
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 When was the All Bengal Students Conference held in the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru?
Ans A). 1928 B). 1939 C). 1934 D). 1920
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 The autobiography of which of the following actors is titled ‘The Substance And The Shadow: An Autobiography’?

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Ans A). Vinod Khanna B). Rajesh Khanna C). Rishi Kapoor D). Dilip Kumar
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 What is the name of Formula E’s first ever race in India, which was hosted in collaboration with the Telangana government?
Ans A). The 2023 Mahindra Mumbai E-Prix B). The 2023 Greenko Hyderabad E-Prix ap C). The 2023 Mahindra Bangalore E-Prix
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D). The 2023 Greenko Buddha Circuit E-Prix
Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 During which centuries did several Buddhist pilgrims and scholars travel to China on the historic 'silk route'?
Ans A). First, second and third centuries AD B). Sixth and seventh centuries AD C). Fourth and fifth centuries AD
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D). Eighth and ninth centuries AD

Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Non-polar molecules possess _______.

Ans A). permanent dipole moment B). partial charge C). no dipole moment D). instantaneous dipole moment
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is an example of the ________ industry.
B

Ans A). public sector B). cooperative sector C). private sector D). joint sector
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Which Indian dancer of the Manipuri style won the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony in 2014?
at

Ans A). Nirmala Mehta B). Guru Bipin Sinha C). Rajkumar Singhajit Singh D). Elam Endira Devi
Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Who among the following led the Parliamentary delegation to participate in the 9th BRICS Parliamentary Forum in
September 2023?
Ans A). Harivansh Narayan Singh B). Nitin Gadkari C). Jagdeep Dhankar D). Om Birla
Correct Answer: A

Q.14
Which classical dance form is performed by the renowned artists; Sitara Devi, Rohini Bhate, Pandit Munnalal Shukla,
Kumudini Lakhia and Uma Sharma?
Ans A). Kathak B). Bharatanatyam C). Odissi D). Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the synthetic indicator from among the given options.
Ans A). Turmeric B). Cabbage juice C). Litmus solution D). Methyl orange
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 The Ramoshi Uprising of 1824 took place in which of the following present states of India?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Tamil Nadu C). Maharashtra D). West Bengal
Correct Answer: C

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Q.17 In October 2023, Maharashtra government planned which of the following schemes to overhaul its medical system after the
death of 38 patients in Nanded?
Ans A). Ayushman Maharashtra B). Vision 2035 C). Sahakar Mitra D). Arogya Mission
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A and column-B?

Column-A (Food component) Column-B (Enzyme involved in digestion)

i. Protein a. Amylase
ii. Carbohydrates b. Lipase
iii. Fats c. Trypsin

Ans A). i-c, ii-a, iii-b B). i-b, ii-a, iii-c C). i-a, ii-b, iii-c D). i-a, ii-c, iii-b
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 A process like river bifurcation can create valuable landforms for the environment, providing growth of vegetation. An
example of such landform is _____.
Ans A). river deltas B). potholes C). V-shaped valleys D). cascades
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 The Taj Mahal was built by who among the following?
Ans A). Babar B). Jahangir C). Shah Jahan D). Akbar
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which of the following statements is/are FALSE for the Harappan town planning?
1. Most of the towns have citadel in harappan civilization.
2. Every town had a temple in Harappan civilization.
3. Every building was made of sand stone in Harappan civilization.
Ans A). Both 1 and 3 B). Only 1 C). Both 1 and 2 D). Both 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D

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Q.22 __________ was the pioneer who modified the Hawaiian slide guitar to play classical ragas.
Ans A). Krishna Ram Chaudhary B). Buddhadev Dasgupta C). Palghat Raghu
ap D). Brij Bhushan Kabra
Correct Answer: D
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Q.23 Which edition of the Intercontinental Cup event was played in India in 2023?
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Ans A). 10th B). C). 3rd D). 5th Correct Answer: C
1st
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Q.24 In the context of microfinance, what does ‘S’ stand for in SHG?
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Ans A). Social B). Steady C). Sustainable D). Self

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.25 In which state is 'Bhogali Bihu' festival celebrated?

Ans A). Assam B). Jharkhand C). Gujarat D). Chhattisgarh
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Correct Answer: A
B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.
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She accused her sister of being vindictive when she was trying to defame her.
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Ans A). vigilant B). revengeful C). righteous D). venerable

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My grandparents live in a beautiful house _________ the countryside.

Ans A). in B). on C). onto D). at
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The children were merry than usual on Sunday.
Ans A). more merrier B). the merriest C). merriest D). merrier
Correct Answer: D

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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

They looked out the matter and found the root cause of the problem.

Ans A). looked of the matter and found B). looked until the matter and found C). looked unless the matter and found
D). looked into the matter and found
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future tense form.
Since next Friday, the team of three members has been tracking the animal.
Ans A). From next Friday, the team of three members are tracking the animal.
B). Since last Friday, the team of three members had tracked the animal.
C). From next Friday, the team of three members have been tracking the animal.
D). From next Friday, the team of three members will be tracking the animal.
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The athlete demonstrated remarkable agility during the gymnastics routine.
Ans A). Nimbleness B). Prowess C). Flexibility D). Stiffness
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Apple of one's eye
Ans A). Very docile B). Very strong C). Very precious D). Very stubborn
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the sentence with the most appropriate use of preposition.
Ans A). Reetu slept all in the history class. B). Reetu slept all through the history class. C). Reetu slept all during the history class.

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D). Reetu slept all into the history class.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.9 Read the sentence given below and identify if there is an error in it. The error can be in any segment of the sentence which
are marked A, B, C, and D. Select option D if there is 'No error'.
(A) Ritika angrily / (B) spoke to Kartik / (C) after the meeting / (D) No error. ap
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Ans A). D B). A C). C D). B
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Blunt
an

Ans A). Insensitive B). Adventurous C). tactful D). Rowdy

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
G

The children's laughter was filled with exuberant joy.

Ans A). flawless B). euphoric C). sarcastic D). repressed

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.12 Change the following sentence into superlative degree.

No other mountain in the world is as high as the Mount Everest.

Ans A). No other mountain is highest than Mount Everest. B). Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world.
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C). Mount Everest is higher than any other mountain in the world. D). Mount Everest is high mountain in the world.
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 One of the four words in bold in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The hurricane left behind a devasstating trail of destruction.

Ans A). trail B). hurricane C). devasstating D). destruction
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The farm cattle is grazing in the field when the tiger attacked.
Ans A). The farm cattle B). in the field when C). is grazing D). the tiger attacked.
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The artist's unique technique added a touch of individiuality to the painting.

Ans A). Individiuality B). Unique C). Technique D). Artist's
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The loud thunder _______ the children, making them cry.

Ans A). fastened B). fainted C). frightened D). fancied
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

When pigs fly

Ans A). Something unplanned B). Something terrible C). Something that spoils relationships D). Something that will never happen

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Placing a huge magnet atop the temple pose to being the biggest hurdle for the masons.
Ans A). No improvement required B). posing as be C). poses for being D). posed to be
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Rahul’s personality is complamented by his confident looks.

Ans A). complamanted B). compliminted C). complemented D). complieminted Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Enmity

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Ans A). Malignity B). Antipathy C). Hostility D). Friendship
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at
A monsoon is traditionally a seasonal reversing wind (1)________________ by corresponding changes in precipitation but is now
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(2)___________ describe seasonal changes in atmospheric circulation and precipitation associated (3)_______________ annual
latitudinal oscillation of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) between its limits to the north and south of the equator. Usually, the
term monsoon (4)___________ refer to the rainy phase of a seasonally changing pattern, although technically there is also a dry
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phase. The term is also sometimes used to (5)_________________ locally heavy but short-term rains.

SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). accompanies B). accompany C). accompanied D). accompanying

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
hs

A monsoon is traditionally a seasonal reversing wind (1)________________ by corresponding changes in precipitation but is now
at

term monsoon (4)___________ refer to the rainy phase of a seasonally changing pattern, although technically there is also a dry
phase. The term is also sometimes used to (5)_________________ locally heavy but short-term rains.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). used to B). using to C). uses to D). use to
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A monsoon is traditionally a seasonal reversing wind (1)________________ by corresponding changes in precipitation but is now
(2)___________ describe seasonal changes in atmospheric circulation and precipitation associated (3)_______________ annual
latitudinal oscillation of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) between its limits to the north and south of the equator. Usually, the
term monsoon (4)___________ refer to the rainy phase of a seasonally changing pattern, although technically there is also a dry
phase. The term is also sometimes used to (5)_________________ locally heavy but short-term rains.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). on B). with C). for D). of
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). is used to B). is use to C). are used to D). were used to
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
A monsoon is traditionally a seasonal reversing wind (1)________________ by corresponding changes in precipitation but is now
(2)___________ describe seasonal changes in atmospheric circulation and precipitation associated (3)_______________ annual
at
latitudinal oscillation of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) between its limits to the north and south of the equator. Usually, the
Pr

SubQuestion No : 25
an

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). describe B). describes C). described D). describing

Correct Answer: A
G
B y
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at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In a student council election, there were three contestants. All the voters participated in the voting and 10% of votes were
declared invalid. The contestants got the votes in the ratio 8 : 7 : 5. If the second candidate in the list got 4725 votes, the
total number of valid votes is:
Ans A). 10,000 B). 11,500 C). 13,500 D). 9,000
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 A person travels equal distances with speeds of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 8 km/hr, respectively, and takes a total of 425 minutes.

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What is the total distance (in km) travelled?

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Ans A). 32 B). 28 C). 27 D). 30
Correct Answer: D

Q.3
ap
Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
at
Ans A). 660 B). 680 C). 760 D). 720
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.4 Surendra bought an old bicycle for ₹2,500 and spent ₹300 on its repair. He sold it for ₹3,000. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
Correct Answer: A
an

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
G

Ans A). 1390 B). 1310 C). 1350 D). 1290

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.6 A hemispherical bowl is 264 cm round at the brim. Suppose that the bowl is half-full of beverage. If the beverage is served in
B

hemispherical glasses 6 cm in the diameter at the top, how many people would be served?
hs

Ans A). 1170 B). 1372 C). 1270 D). 1470

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.7 The highest common factor of 84 and 108 is:

Ans A). 16 B). 8 C). 12 D). 6

Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 The following graph shows the actual and target revenue (in crores) of an industry in five different branches. Study the
graph and answer the question:

The ratio of total actual revenue to the total target revenue over all the branches is:
Ans A). 16 : 17 B). 17 : 16 C). 14 : 13 D). 13 : 14
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What is the area of the remaining portion of a circle of radius 14 cm when a square with maximum possible area inscribed in
it is removed from it? (Use π= 22/7)

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Ans A). 518 cm2 B). 520 cm2 C). 224 cm2 D). 616 cm2

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Correct Answer: C

Q.10 A vendor wants to gain 25% by adding water to milk and selling the mixture at the cost price. Find the ratio
of water and milk in the mixture. ap
at
Ans A). 2 : 5 B). 1 : 4 C). 2 : 7 D). 1 : 5
Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 If the cash difference between the selling price of an item at a gain of 3% and 6% is ₹9, which of the following options is the
correct ratio between the selling prices?
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Ans A). 101 : 103 B). 103 : 100 C). 103 : 106 D). 101 : 105
Correct Answer: C
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Q.12
Two vessels, A and B, contain spirit and water in the ratio 3 : 4 and 5 : 3,
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respectively. Find the ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to obtain
a new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 4 : 3.
B y

Ans A). 3 : 8 B). 3 : 7 C). 5 : 8 D). 4 : 7

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 The average age of 12 men is increased by 6 years when three of them, whose ages are 36, 40 and 44 years, are replaced by
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3 persons. What is the average age of the 3 persons?

Ans A). 58 years B). 64 years C). 67 years D). 50 years
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Correct Answer: B

Q.14 If the volume and surface area of a sphere are numerically the same, then find the volume (in cm3) of its semi − sphere.
(correct to two places of decimals, use π = 3.14)
Ans A). 65.25 B). 65.52 C). 56.25 D). 56.52
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. How much distance (in km) can be
covered going downstream in 12 minutes?
Ans A). 3.5 B). 3.7 C). 3.4 D). 3.6
Correct Answer: D

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Q.16

Ans A). Company C, in 2011 B). Company A, in 2010 C). Company B, in 2009 D). Company A, in 2011
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Raju sold 4 laptops at a rate of ₹1,54,005 all together and incurred a loss of 25%. At what rate should he sell the laptops to
gain a profit of 25%?

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Ans A). ₹2,25,820 B). ₹2,56,675 C). ₹2,31,007.5 D). ₹2,05,340
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 A sum of₹2,380 is lent out into two parts, one at 25% p.a. and another at 20% p.a. . If the total annual
income is₹500, find the money (in ₹) lent at 25% rate.
Ans A). 320 B). 240 C). 480
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 The average age of a group of 32 women is 60 years and that of another group of 40 men is 33 years. The average age of the
two groups mixed together is:
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Ans A). 42 years B). 45 years C). 48 years D). 46.5 years
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 The marked price of a folding bed is ₹18,000. Aman bought it after two successive discount
of 15% and 10%. He spent ₹830 on transportation and sold it for ₹18,440. Find his profit.
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Ans A). ₹2,869 B). ₹3,539 C). ₹3,840 D). ₹3,148

Correct Answer: C
B y

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

statements.
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Statements:
All planets are rocks.
All rocks are lakes.

Conclusions:
(I) All planets are lakes.
(II) All rocks are planets.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Both conclusions I and II follow. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Seven friends, Kamala, Raveena, Amruta, Nisha, Gautami, Bhavana and Triveni, are sitting in a circular dining table facing
the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Raveena is sitting second to the right of Nisha. Gautami has Kamala and
Triveni as immediate neighbours. Triveni is sitting third to the left of Nisha. Amruta is not an immediate neighbour of Nisha.
Who is seated fourth to the left of Bhavana?
Ans A). Kamala B). Triveni C). Nisha D). Raveena
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). N sits to the
immediate right of R. M sits second to the right of N. P sits second to the right of M. O sits third to the right of P. Who sits to
the immediate right of Q?
Ans A). R B). O C). M D). P
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

1,17, 33, 49, 65 ,?

Ans A). 79 B). 77 C). 80 D). 81
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
15 ÷ 5 + 8 − 4 × 7 = ?
Ans A). 18 B). 25 C). 22 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans A).
B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
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constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
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Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
24, 73
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27, 82
Ans A). 32, 101 B). 32, 100 C). 33, 101 D). 33, 100
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
B y
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
8+2–1×1÷1=?
Ans A). 3 B). 5 C). 7 D). 10
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GGB, HHD ,IKH, JPN, ?

Ans A). OUV B). OWV C). KWV D). PUV
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘MOVE’ is coded as ‘3917’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘4692’.
What is the code for ‘E in the given code language?
Ans A). 9 B). 4 C). 2 D). 7
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 PLRN is related to QMSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LHNJ is related to
MIOK. To which of the following is HDJF related, following the same logic?
Ans A). EIGK B). EIKG C). IEKG D). IEGK
Correct Answer: C

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Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘father makes tea’ is coded as ‘ib fx ey’ and ‘tea and coffee’ is coded as ‘kr ey wn’. How is ‘tea’

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coded in the given language?
Ans A). fx B). kr C). wn D). ey
Correct Answer: D

Q.15
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In a certain code language, ‘FLOAT’ is coded as ‘14238’ and ‘BLOAT’ is coded as ‘23849’. What is the code for ‘F’ in the given
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code language?
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Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 1 D). 9

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.
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B y

Ans
hs

Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘GIFT’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘FIST’ is coded as ‘4157’. What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans A). 9 B). 5 C). 1 D). 4
Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some kites are rocks.
All rocks are stones.

Conclusions:
(I) Atleast some kites are stones.
(II) All stones are rocks.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 519 is related to 781 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 642 is related to 904. To which ofthe following is 485
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans A). 721 B). 794 C). 756 D). 747
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 FI29 is related to TW49 in a certain way. In the same way, LO38 is related to ZC58. To which of the following is RU65 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). FE85 B). IF58 C). EF58 D). FI85
Correct Answer: D

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Section : General Awareness

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Q.1 Which of the following states had benefitted by the Indira Gandhi Canal?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Uttar Pradesh C). Gujarat
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D). Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Which of the following is the style of temple architecture that is widely favoured in northern India?
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Ans A). Vihar B). Madapa C). Nagar D). Dravid

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 'My Country My Life' is the autobiography of:

Ans A). Khushwant Singh B). Manmohan Singh C). Natwar Singh D). Lal Krishna Advani
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Correct Answer: D

Q.4 In which of the following systems was the charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company given to the village
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headman, rather than the zamindar?

Ans A). Mahalwari B). Iqtadari C). Zamindari D). Ryotwari

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.5 Who among the following signed a pact with Lord Irwin on March 5, 1931?
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Ans A). B R Ambedkar B). Subhas Chandra Bose C). Mahatma Gandhi D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 A river is capable of forming which of the following landscapes when the river is in its middle course?
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Ans A). Waterfalls B). A delta C). V shaped valley D). A meander
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Which of the following mountain peaks is a part of the Himalayas?

Ans A). Kamet B). Dhupgarh C). Kalsubai D). Taramati
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT related to goals of Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens?
Ans A). Preserve B). Cherish C). Courage D). Respect
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Which team won the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy in 2023?
Ans A). Malaysia B). India C). Japan D). South Korea
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 S Abdul Nazeer was appointed as the Governor of _______ in February 2023.
Ans A). Kerala B). Maharashtra C). Andhra Pradesh D). Goa
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 Which Tamil superstar founded the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) political party in Tamil Nadu
and Puducherry on 2 February 2024 with the slogan 'Pirappokkum Ellaa Uyirkkum' (All are equal by
birth)?
Ans A). Vijay B). Kamal Haasan C). Rajinikanth D). Dhanush
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 The digestive enzymes inside lysosomes are made by:

Ans A). rough endoplasmic reticulum B). plastids themselves C). Golgi apparatus D). mitochondria
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 ________was well known for creating fusion art by adapting European theatrical techniques to Indian classical dance
combined with Indian folk and tribal dance.
Ans A). Uday Shankar B). Guru Bipin Singh C). Kelucharan Mohapatra D). Birju Maharaj
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 What is the primary gas responsible for the leavening effect in bread when yeast ferments sugars?
Ans A). Carbon dioxide B). Nitrogen C). Oxygen D). Helium
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Who was the famous Venetian traveller of the 13th century who visited Kerala?
Ans A). Abdur Razzaq B). Marco Polo C). Barthema D). Nicolo Conti
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 What is Cash Reserve Ratio?

Ans A). Percentage of deposits that a central bank must keep as cash reserves with the bank
B). Percentage of deposits that a central bank must keep as cash reserves with the government
C). Percentage of deposits that a bank must keep as cash reserves with any bank

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D). Percentage of deposits that a bank must keep as cash reserves with the central bank
Correct Answer: D

Q.17
B). Sikkim C). Jharkhand
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Sarhul is an agricultural festival of tribals, which is primarily celebrated in the Indian state of ________.
Ans A). Uttarakhand D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 According to Census 2011, what is the sex ratio of India?

Ans A). 950 B). 998 C). 943 D). 933
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair was a notable figure in which of the following classical dance forms of India?
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Ans A). Kathakali B). Kuchipudi C). Bharatnatyam D). Mohiniyattam

Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 Who was the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for the 2011 Indian Census?
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Ans A). Vivek Joshi B). Devender Kumar Sikri C). Jayant Kumar Banthia D). Dr. C Chandramouli
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.21 Helium gas can be converted to the liquid form by the _______.
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Ans A). hydrogen bonding interaction B). London forces of attraction C). dipole-induced dipole forces of attraction
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D). dipole-dipole forces of attraction

Correct Answer: B
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Q.22 The sister of Harshavardhana Rajyashri was married to___________, the king of Maukhari dynasty of Kanyakubja.
Ans A). Grahavarman B). Devagupta C). Sasanka D). Isanavarman
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Pandit Arvind Thatte belongs to which of the following gharanas?

Ans A). Indore gharana B). Mewati gharana C). Agra gharana D). Benaras gharana
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 In the inaugural year of the Nehru Cup event for football in 1982, which team emerged as the winner of the first edition?
Ans A). Poland B). Ghana C). Uruguay D). Australia
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha as on 10 October 2023?
Ans A). Virendra Kumar B). Piyush Goyal C). Prakash Javdekar D). Jagdeep Dhankar
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

He gnashed his teeth at his son's actions.

Ans A). expressed disappointment B). expressed rage C). expressed sadness D). expressed joy
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The concert was canceeled due to rain.
Ans A). Cancealed B). Cancaeled C). Cancelled D). Cencelled
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Run errands
Ans A). To go out to buy or do something B). To participate in a race through unfair means C). To finish running before the end point
D). To do something incorrectly or erroneous in haste
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
He cheated in the [A] / examination, making his [B] / already-falling academic [C] / credentials worst. [D]
Ans A). D B). A C). C D). B
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Conscious
Ans A). Secure B). Unaware C). Sensible D). Sentimental
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

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Our _____ conducted a _____ to get everyone's opinion.
Ans A). principle; poll B). principal; poll C). principle; pole D). principal; pole
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Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
He is waiting / at airport to receive / Mr. Smith, who is / coming from South Africa.
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Ans A). He is waiting B). Mr. Smith, who is C). coming from South Africa. D). at airport to receive
Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.
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Many ornithologists believe that the northern mocking birds are __________ wild birds in the jungle.
Ans A). the noisy B). noisy C). the noisiest D). noisier
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
B y

The rivals in the institution _____ (fabricated) evidence and manipulated the whole dataset.
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Ans A). destroyed B). forged C). fluctuated D). wrecked

Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.
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Tina dropped behind of / college and / went straight / into a good job.
Ans A). college and B). went straight C). Tina dropped behind of D). into a good job
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Spouse B). Intransigence C). Endengered D). Unambiguous

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Identify the ODD word from the given options.

Ans A). Golf B). Billiards C). Table tennis D). Carom
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

My friend, / Priya looks more cheerful today / as she celebrates her birthday.
Ans A). No error B). Priya looks more cheerful today C). My friend, D). as she celebrates her birthday
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Arun asks Smita to copy the contents of the document word by word.
Ans A). word for word B). word par word C). word with word D). word to word
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The new almirah is big than this one.
Ans A). bigger B). more big C). biggest D). more bigger
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
In what ways do you find technological advancements beneficial to your daily life?

Ans A). unfavourable B). unfathomable C). unapproachable D). unwarranted

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

We are entering a point where technology will change at __________ speeds.
Ans A). extreme B). inferier C). suprime D). modarate
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Leisure activities can improve an individual's physical and mental health by ________ stress, and offering a pleasurable
experience.
Ans A). reconstructing B). irritating C). relieving D). upsetting
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

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Entice
Ans A). Allure B). Repulse C). Invite D). Tangle
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Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
School classrooms have _________ very little over the last century.
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Ans A). changed B). freed C). startled D). unconcerned

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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Dolphins 1_________ regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea, and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been
common since Roman times. The more we 2____________ about dolphins, the more we realise that their society is more complex
3__________ people previously imagined. They look 4____________ other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant
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5___________ and protect the weakest in the community, as we do.

SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). has B). was C). are D). is

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). learns B). learning C). learned D). learn
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). for B). the C). than D). to
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). up B). on C). after D). into
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

Dolphins 1_________ regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea, and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been

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common since Roman times. The more we 2____________ about dolphins, the more we realise that their society is more complex
3__________ people previously imagined. They look 4____________ other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant
5___________ and protect the weakest in the community, as we do.
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SubQuestion No : 25
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). mothers B). brothers C). fathers D). uncles
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Correct Answer: A
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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Study the bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ crores) of a company in 5 years during 2018 to 2022.

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In which year is the ratio of income to expenditure 2nd highest?

Ans A). 2022 B). 2019 C). 2020 D). 2018
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Correct Answer: C
B

Q.2
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Ans A). 22 B). 18 C). 20 D). 25

Correct Answer: C

Q.3 141 is divided into two parts in such a way that the one-eighth part of the first and one-ninth
part of the second are in the ratio 5 : 6. Find the first part.
Ans A). 36 B). 72 C). 48 D). 60
Correct Answer: D

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Q.4 A hemispherical bowl with diameter 14 cm has to be painted inside and outside. How much it will be charged at the rate of
₹20 per 40 cm2?
Ans A). ₹154 B). ₹616 C). ₹308 D). ₹224
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 420 B). 520 C). 440 D). 480
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 The radius of a cylinder is doubled due to which the volume of the new cylinder also gets doubled. The height of the new
cylinder is what percentage of the old cylinder?
Ans A). 200% B). 100% C). 25% D). 50%
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The average of seven consecutive numbers is 95. Find the middle number in the series of seven consecutive numbers.
Ans A). 98 B). 96 C). 92 D). 95
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take to cover a
distance of 250 km?
Ans A). 5 hr B). 5 hr 30 min C). 4 hr 30 min D). 6 hr
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans A). 51.2 B). 50.2 C). 49.2 D). 48.2
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 The number of heads on the farm, as determined by the farmer, was 60. When he counted, he discovered there were 150
legs. If all that was present were pigeons or horses, and every horse on the property had four legs while every pigeon had

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two, how many horses were there on the property?

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Ans A). 14 B). 12 C). 15 D). 10
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 ap
The largest number that can divide 147,183 and 271 leaving remainders 11,13 and 16, respectively, is:
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Ans A). 14 B). 17 C). 15 D). 16
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans A). 49.6 B). 48.6 C). 50.6 D). 51.6
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Correct Answer: A

Q.13 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
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off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?

Ans A). 9.27 B). 7.27 C). 8.27 D). 10.27

Correct Answer: B
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Q.14 Anil sells sugar at cost price but uses false weights and thus makes 20% profit. How many grams of sugar does he give in 1
B

kilogram?
Ans A). 833.23 B). 833.13 C). 833.33 D). 823.33
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 A 240 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 4.5 km/h in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. What is the speed
(in km/h) of the train?
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Ans A). 61.5 B). 67.5 C). 60.5 D). 58.5

Correct Answer: B

Q.16

Ans A). 1458 B). 1025π C). 1458π D). 1546

Correct Answer: C

Q.17

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 940 B). 840 C). 900 D). 860
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 At what rate percent per annum on simple interest will ₹760 amount to ₹912 in 5 years?
Ans A). 5%
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3% C). 4%
Join Telegram D). 6%
- Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: C
Q.20 Trader A gives a single discount of 45% and Trader B gives two successive discounts of 35% and 10% on an identical item
of the same marked price. If the discount given by A is ₹539 more than the discount given by Trader B, then what is the
marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A). 15,600 B). 16,500 C). 14,500 D). 15,400
Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘like my pet’ is written as ‘nj kj lk’ and ‘pet is wet’ is writtenas ‘lk mk bt’. How is ‘pet’ writtenin the
given language?
Ans A). lk B). kj C). nj D). mk
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

0 , 99
1
21, 440
Ans A). 30, 899 B). 3, 23 C). 26, 298 D). 15, 285
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

an
ag
G

Q.4 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
B

Statements:
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Some lights are fans.

Some fans are beds.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some lights are beds.
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(II) All beds are fans.

Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Both conclusion I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). F is sitting fourth to the right of D. E is sitting second to the left of F. B is sitting to the immediate left of G. A is not an
immediate neighbour of F.

How many people are sitting between C and D when counted from the right of D?
Ans A). Two B). One C). Four D). Three
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘good bright boy’ is coded as ‘xd yf vj’ and ‘boy is lazy’ is coded as ‘sb xd ql’. How is ‘boy’ coded
in the given language?
Ans A). yf B). ql C). vj D). xd
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 A, B, P, Q, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q sits to the
immediate left of B. Y sits to the immediate right of B. A sits second to the right of B. P sits second to the right of A. Who sits
third to the right of Z?
Ans A). Q B). P C). A D). B
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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ap
at
Pr
an
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Ans
A). B). C). D).
G

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘bring hot food’ is coded as ‘ud lp sj’ and ‘food is tasty’ is coded as ‘sj xk jt’. How is ‘food’ coded
in the given language?
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Ans A). xk B). lp C). ud D). sj

Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
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14 ÷ 7 − 27 × 9 + 12 = ?
Ans A). 79 B). 89 C). 81 D). 71
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 EX04 is related to ZS16 in a certain way. In the same way, UN06 is related to PI36. To which of the following is WP07 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). KR94 B). RK49 C). RK94 D). KR49
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

16, 8.5, 9.5, 15.75, 33.5, ?

Ans A). 69 B). 83.75 C). 67 D). 86.25
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All roses are lilies.
Some lilies are sunflowers.
Conclusions:
(I): Some roses are sunflowers.
(II): All lilies are roses.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 In a certain code language, 'BUY' is writtenas ‘ACTVXZ’ and 'CAP' is writtenas ‘BDZBOQ’. How will 'BOX' be written in that
language?
Ans A). ACNPWY B). ACMPUY C). CDPQYZ D). ACMPWY
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
5÷4−3×1+2=?
Ans A). 21 B). 16 C). 19 D). 20
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 GYEV is related to DBBY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XHVE is related to
UKSH. To which of the following is LTJQ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). IWGT B). IGTR C). IGWT D). TYHU
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 14 is related to 93 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 37. To which of the following is 11

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related, following the same logic?

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 90 B). 72 C). 77 ap D). 67
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
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an
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Ans
G
B y

A). B). C).

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at
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Correct Answer: D

D).

Q.20 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
XJP, VMN, TPL, RSJ, ?
Ans A). PVG B). QVG C). PUG D). PVH
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

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Q.1 Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy?
Ans A). His sending missionary to Ceylon B). The Kalinga War C). His embracing of Buddhism D). The third Buddhist Council

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Under which of the following Acts, was Warren Hastings appointed as the Governor-General of Bengal?
Ans A). The Regulating Act, 1773 B). The Government of India Act, 1858 C). The Government of India Act, 1909
D). The Government of India Act, 1935
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 While estimating Gross Domestic Product, the monetary value of only final goods are considered because ___________.
a. its immobility, the active economic flow is ended.
b. of the issues of double counting
c. the value added at each stage of the production process is included
Ans A). Only b B). Only a C). All a, b and c D). Only b and c
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram was built during the reign of the _________ king Narasimhavarman II.
Ans A). Chola B). Chera C). Chalukya D). Pallava
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 As on February 2024, Yanthungo Patton is the Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans A). Sikkim B). Meghalaya C). Assam D). Nagaland
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which of the following is a mineral deficiency disease?

Ans A). Rickets B). Marusmus C). Scurvy D). Goitre
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 Sekrenyi festival of Nagaland is celebrated annually in the month of ______ as part of the Mini Hornbill Tribal Festival which

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is a celebration of purification accompanied with feasting and singing.
Ans A). July B). February C). August D). March
ap Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Purushottam Dadheech, a renowned Kathak dancer who had been honoured with Padma Shri award for 2020, is associated
with which of the following places?
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Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Bihar C). Madhya Pradesh D). Haryana
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 What does WFI stand for in the context of sports?

Ans A). Wrestling Federation of India B). Women Federation of India C). Women Sports Federation of India
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D). Winter Games Federation of India

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.10 The architectural marvels, temples of Gangaikonda-Cholapuram, were built by which of the following king?
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Ans A). King Vijayalaya B). King mahendravarman C). King Akabar D). King Rajendra
B

Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 Which of the following is NOT an example of a ‘Lagoon’?

Ans A). Nainital B). Chilika C). Pulicat D). Kolleru
at

Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Dappu dance is a famous dance form of which of the following states?
Ans A). Kerala B). Andhra Pradesh C). Punjab D). Bihar
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 In its 279th report released in April 2023, the Law Commission of India has recommended the provision of which law to be
retained?
Ans A). Labour Law B). Revenue Law C). Contract Law D). Sedition Law
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 With reference to ‘slash and burn’ agriculture, which of the following names is NOT related to Odisha?
Ans A). Bringa B). Roca C). Pama Dabi D). Koman
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 What was the amount earned by BCCI from the sale of five teams in the inaugural Women’s Indian Premier League (WPL) in
January 2023?
Ans A). ₹4,669.99 crore B). ₹7,245.89 crore C). ₹951.25 crore D). ₹1,289.50 crore
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Epilepsy is a disorder that affects which of the following parts of the human body?
Ans A). Brain cells B). The teeth and bones
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The skin D). The muscles
By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: A
Q.17 Which of the following options has all vector quantities?
Ans A). Force, Velocity, Momentum, Energy and Power B). Force, Velocity, Momentum, Energy and Acceleration
C). Power, Momentum, Energy, Speed and Work D). Force, Velocity, Momentum, Weight and Acceleration
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in which of the following years?
Ans A). 2004 B). 2005 C). 2009 D). 2006
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 According to Article _____, there shall be equality of opportunities for all citizens in matters relating to employment or
appointment to any office under the State.
Ans A). 18 B). 19 C). 17 D). 16
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 In the PM-SVANidhi Scheme (2020), the urban street vendors are eligible to avail a Working Capital Loan up to 10,000 with a
tenure of:
Ans A). 1 year B). 2 years C). 3 years D). 5 years
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Mica is which type of mineral?

Ans A). Energy mineral B). Non-metallic C). Ferrous metallic D). Non-ferrous metallic
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 The model of 'Quasi Federal' form of government in Indian constitution is borrowed from which country?
Ans A). Germany B). Canada C). United Kingdom D). Australia
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Sahaswan gharana of Rampur was established by whom among the following personalities?
Ans A). Amanat Ali Khan B). Abdul Karim Khan C). Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan D). Ustad Ghaghe Khuda Baksh

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Correct Answer: C

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Q.24 Which of the following social organisations was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875?
Ans A). Prarthana Samaj B). Satyashodhak Samaj C). Arya Samaj
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.25 The name of the autobiography of Saina Nehwal is called:
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Ans A). Unbreakable B). Playing to win, my life on and off court C). Straight from the heart D). Playing it my way
Correct Answer: B
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The situation was out of hand. So, the manager called the police station for help.
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Ans A). To be serious B). In an undecided state C). To be uncontrollable D). To be abrupt
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Foremost
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Ans A). Disposed B). Forecast C). Unimportant D). Premature

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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This is going to be overwhelming for you as you have taken on work beyond your capabilities.
Ans A). at the eleventh hour B). called it a day C). bitten off more than you can chew D). put something on ice
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

My mother asked me who did accompany me to the airport.

Ans A). who must accompanied me B). who accompanied me C). who accompany me D). whom I was accompanied
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 The given sentence is divided into four parts. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the part that contains the
error from the given options.
He was acquitted to / a cyber crime / on the basis of evidence / given to the court.
Ans A). a cyber crime B). given to the court C). He was acquitted to D). on the basis of evidence
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 Select the option that has an error in the use of phrasal verb.
Ans A). Back up your essential files. Technology is only sometimes reliable.
B). Pushpa came across an old photo in the album and asked me to recognise the face in it.
C). Please turn up the heater. The weather is too cold today . D). Please suggest me some tips to get out nervousness.
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Leif Erikson is a Viking ________ believed to have sailed from the Green Lands to Vinland. Vinland is now thought to be the
northern tip of Canada's Newfoundland island where ________ found evidence of Erikson's ________ in 1960s.
Ans A). sailor; excavators; packed B). astronomer; sculptors; colony C). calligrapher; historians; community
D). explorer; archaeologists; settlement
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The new syllabus of Final Semester of MBA is very difficult.

Ans A). perplexing B). rigid C). easy D). problematical

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Crowded B). Elegant C). Efficient D). Defecteev
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

This sentence can have multiple meanings. Could you please specify what it means?

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Ans A). Homogeneous B). Amorphous C). Ambiguous D). Heterogeneous

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Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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One of the most horrified serials of the Indian television industry was broadcast twenty years ago.
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Ans A). most horrifying serials B). most horror serials C). horrified serials D). more horrify serials
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
She is studying / the medicine / at university / to become a doctor.
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Ans A). to become a doctor. B). She is studying C). the medicine D). at university
Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
G

The gold watch / look really expensive / and is not affordable / for common people.
Ans A). look really expensive B). and is not affordable C). for common people D). The gold watch
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
hs

Fusion
Ans A). Grind B). Glide C). Ingredient D). Blend
at

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Rectify the following sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the underlined word from the options.

Life is a collection of ephmeral moments.

Ans A). Epmeral B). Ephemeral C). Ephameral D). Ephemerl
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

His decision to quit his stable job and travel the world was driven by a sudden caprice.
Ans A). Impulse B). Sorrow C). Delight D). Determination
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Restraint
Ans A). Self-esteem B). Self-acceptance C). Self-appraisal D). Self-control
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Explaination B). Proposal C). Myriad D). Accolades
Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
It has been / noticed that / across all his faults, / he is admired.
Ans A). across all his faults B). noticed that C). It has been D). he is admired
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Bilingual children are so intelligent than those who speak just one language.
Ans A). better intelligent than B). the most intelligent to C). more intelligent than D). so intelligent to
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________
times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.
In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
and the ruled (5) ________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). modern B). prehistoric C). monolithic D). ancient
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________

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times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.

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In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
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and the ruled (5) ________.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
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Ans A). future B). dark C). present D). past

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.
The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________
y

times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
B

writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.

In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
hs

public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
at

and the ruled (5) ________.

SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). either B). both C). or D). nor
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). All B). No C). Both D). Some
Correct Answer: B

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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). apart B). overall C). together D). jointed
Correct Answer: C

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ap
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Pr
an
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G
B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 300 B). 320 C). 360 D). 400
Correct Answer: C

Q.2

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.3 The price of 24 movie tickets is ₹768. How much (in ₹) will 32 movie tickets cost? [Assume that all tickets here are equally
priced]
Ans A). 1040 B). 1056 C). 992 D). 1024
Correct Answer: D

Q.4

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B y
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Ans A). ₹61.54 B). ₹51.23 C). ₹58.37 D). ₹63.14

Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 A man spends 12% of his income on food, 18% on children’s education, and 70% of the remaining on house rent. What
percentage of his income is he left with?
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Ans A). 21% B). 30% C). 20% D). 28%

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 A man bought a bullock and a cart for ₹10,000. He sold the bullock at a gain of 30% and the cart at a loss of 20%, thereby
gaining 2% on the whole. Find the cost of the bullock.
Ans A). ₹5,600 B). ₹4,400 C). ₹5,400 D). ₹4,600
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 The below table shows the population of men and women (in ratio) for five cities. Study the below table carefully and answer
the question that follows.
City Population Men : Women
Kanpur 4500 5:4
Bangalore 1547 4:3
Pune 1818 5:1
Mumbai 1547 3:4
Jabalpur 1089 4:5

What is the difference between the total number of men of Mumbai and Pune together and number of women in Jabalpur
and Bangalore together?
Ans A). 760 B). 747 C). 572 D). 910
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 The mean of the first 8 odd natural numbers is:

Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 6 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 49% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

Q.10 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 51.6 B). 49.6 C). 48.6 D). 50.6
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 A man covers the first half of the journey at the speed of 60 km/h and the remaining at the speed of 84 km/h. What is his
average speed (in km/h)?

Ans A). 70 B). 60 C). 65 D). 75

Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 210 B). 150 C). 250 D). 170
Correct Answer: A

Q.13

Ans A). 2.25 m B). 5.5 m C). 7.5 m D). 4.5 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.14 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
Ans A). 6 B). 8 C). 9 D). 7
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 A closed cylindrical tank of height 280 cm and base radius 70 cm is to be made from a metal sheet. The required sheet for
the same, in m2, is:
Ans A). 15.4 B). 14.4 C). 13.8 D). 12.8
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 2 kg of copper at ₹15 per kg is mixed with 3 kg of zinc at ₹20 per kg. Find the average price of the mixture.
Ans A). ₹18.5 B). ₹18 C). ₹17 D). ₹17.5

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.17 Find the greatest number that exactly divides 12, 24 and 40.
Ans A). 3 B). 40 C). 4 D). 2
Correct Answer: C

Q.18
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How many kilograms of tea, costing ₹250 per kg must be mixed with 25 kg of tea costing ₹400 per kg so that there may be a
profit of 10% on selling the mixture at ₹330 per kg?
at
Ans A). 45 kg B). 40 kg C). 60 kg D). 50 kg
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.19 In view of Diwali, Rajnee, an electronics shop owner, offers a discount scheme to her customers that on buying 15
decorative bulbs, they get 5 decorative bulbs free. What is the effective percentage discount given by Rajnee to her
customers?
Ans A). 25% B). 33% C). 30% D). 20%
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Correct Answer: A

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.
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2
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Ans A). B). C).
G

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
B

Q.1
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.
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Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
27, 109
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31, 125
Ans A). 35, 144 B). 36, 145 C). 35, 145 D). 36, 144
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 70 × 2 – 30 + 30 = ?
Ans A). 69 B). 68 C). 70 D). 66
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 HPML is related to MURQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CJGF is related to
HOLK. To which of the following is RZWV related, following the same logic?
Ans A). WEBA B). ABWE C). ABEW D). WEAB
Correct Answer: A

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Q.4 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
[6/5], [3/2], [9/5],[21/10], [12/5], ?
Ans A). 5/2 B). 27/10 C). 29/10 D). 9/2
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
A. No caps are hats.
B. Some hats are helmets.
Conclusions:
I. All helmets are caps.
II. Some helmets are hats.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Both the conclusions follow. D). None of the conclusions follow.

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

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Ans ap Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).
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Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘All men fight’ is coded as ‘AO EI UH’ and ‘men shave everyday’ is coded as ‘MN TP EI’. How is
‘men’ coded in that code language?
Ans A). UH B). TP C). EI D). AO
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Correct Answer: C

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘find the key’ is written as ‘so hd sm’ and ‘key to success’ is writtenas ‘gj so la’. How is ‘key’
G

writtenin the given language?

Ans A). gi B). la C). sm D). so
Correct Answer: D
y

Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
B
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at
M

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ABC, EFG, IJK, MNO ,?

Ans A). QRS B). STU C). TUV D). UVW
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Eight friends, J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). K is an immediate neighbour of both Q and M. N is an immediate neighbour of both P and J. L is sitting immediately
right to J. K is sitting at the immediate left of Q and is second to the right of O.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of M?
Ans A). P B). O C). J D). K
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
52 + 44 − 38÷ 2 + 13× 4 − 26 = 97
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans A). 44 and 38 B). 38 and 26 C). 44 and 26 D). 52 and 38
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 49 is related to 96 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 54 is related to 106. To which ofthe following is 36
related following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans A). 78 B). 62 C). 70 D). 56
Correct Answer: C

Q.15

Ans A). B).

C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘CURD’ is coded as ‘2436’ and ‘DOGS’ is coded as ‘3719’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 3 D). 6
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

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A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘HOME’ is coded as ‘7519’ and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘6782’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
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language?
Ans A). 7 B). 6 C). 1 D). 2
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C sits
second to the left of E, who is third to the left of A. G sits third to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of F. D
sits second to the right of B.
How many people sit between D and A when counted from the left of D?
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Ans A). One B). Two C). Three D). Four

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.20 NGMI is related to LEKG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QJPL is related to OHNJ.
To which of the following is TMSO related following the same logic?
Ans A). KRMQ B). KEQM C). RKMQ D). RKQM
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Correct Answer: D
B
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to Labour and Employment Statistics 2022, match the states in the first column with their rate of unemployment
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in the year 2020-21 given in the second column.

i) Kerala a) 6.3%
ii) Goa b) 10.1%
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iii) Haryana c) 6.9%

iv) Uttarakhand d) 10.5%

Ans A). i) a, ii) c, iii) d, iv) b B). i) d, ii) b, iii) c, iv) a C). i) d, ii) c, iii) b, iv) a D). i) b, ii) d, iii) a, iv) c
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Which of the following dance forms is primarily associated with Eastern India states like Odisha,
Jharkhand and West Bengal?
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kuchipudi C). Chhau D). Kathak
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Which Articles of the Constitution of India provide for a parliamentary form of government at the Centre?
Ans A). Articles 74 and 75 B). Articles 71 and 72 C). Articles 79 and 80 D). Articles 76 and 77
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Which of the following crops is grown in the Kharif season in India?
Ans A). Mustard B). cucumber C). Soyabean D). Barley
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 What was the percentage increase in the disbursal of 'Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana' (PMMY) loans in the first quarter of FY
2023-24 compared to the same quarter in the previous year, if the disbursal reached ₹81,597 crore, up from ₹62,650 crore?
Ans A). 23% B). 27% C). 15% D). 20%
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 In which of the following years was the 'Quit India Movement' launched?
Ans A). 1942 B). 1935 C). 1920 D). 1919
Correct Answer: A

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Q.7 A person having stunted growth and discoloured hair is most probably suffering from ________________.
Ans A). Protein Deficiency B). Lipid Deficiency C). Glucose Deficiency D). Vitamin A Deficiency
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In the case of reptiles, their heart is not properly divided in to four chambers i.e., it consists of two auricles and an
incompletely divided ventricle. Which of the following is an example of a reptile having a four-chambered heart?
Ans A). Snake B). Turtles C). Crocodile D). Lizard
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Samrat Choudhary and Vijay Kumar Sinha became the Deputy Chief Minister of ________________ on 28 January 2024.
Ans A). Odisha B). West Bengal C). Bihar D). Jharkhand
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Which of the following is the autobiography of Bhishma Sahni?

Ans A). Aaj ke Ateet B). Aatma Parichaya C). Aarhdakatha D). Pankhhin
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 In which year was the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index launched in India?
Ans A). 2021 B). 2022 C). 2020 D). 2023
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Valabhi type of Nagara temples are generally ___________ in shape, with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
Ans A). square B). triangular C). circular D). rectangular
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Who among the following founded the Saluva dynasty of Vijayanagara empire?
Ans A). Rama Deva Raya B). Narsimha Deva Raya C). Bukka Raya I D). Krishanadeva Raya
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?
Ans A). Bhimrao Ambedkar B). Vallabhbhai Patel C). Rajendra Prasad D). JB Kripalani
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron ore belt lies in which of the following groups of states?
Ans A). Karnataka - Goa B). Chhattisgarh - Maharashtra C). Odisha - Jharkhand D). Madhya Pradesh - Gujarat
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Which team won the Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2 event?
Ans A). Chennai Quick Guns B). Gujarat Giants C). Telugu Yoddhas D). Mumbai Khiladis
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Which of the following was the first Regional Rural Bank of India?

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Ans A). Utkarsh Bank B). Vishwas Bank C). Pratham Bank D). Bandhan Bank
Correct Answer: C

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Q.18 The elements that are liquid at room temperature (25°C) are:
Ans A). bromine and chlorine B). helium and mercury C). bromine and mercury D). helium and chlorine

Q.19 Article __________ A supplements the 11th fundamental duty of the Indian Constitution? ap Correct Answer: C
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Ans A). 28 B). 46 C). 21 D). 33
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Maitraka dynasty was founded in which part of India?

Ans A). Northern B). Western C). Eastern D). Southern
Correct Answer: B
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Q.21 Sonu Nigam was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022 for which of the following fields?
Ans A). Sports B). Civil Service C). Public Affairs D). Art
Correct Answer: D
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Q.22 For transporting water from one place to another, some man-made structures used to distribute water to a place far away
are known as:
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Ans A). aquifuge B). aquiclude C). aqueducts D). aquifer

Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Which of the following awards is NOT sponsored by the Madhya Pradesh government?
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Ans A). Tagore Ratna B). Devi Ahilyabai Award C). Kishore Kumar Samman D). Tulshi Samman
B

Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Who among the following was the chief guest of India's first Republic Day in 1950?
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Ans A). Rana Abdul Hamid B). Georgy Zhukov C). Sukarno D). Queen Elizabeth
Correct Answer: C
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Q.25 Who among the following was the first Indian representative in modern Olympics?
Ans A). Milkha Singh B). KD Jadhav C). Nilima Ghose D). Norman Pritchard
Correct Answer: D
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The head coach declared that the player who will score the most points in the game will clinch the trophy this year.
Ans A). who scores the points maximum B). who were score the maximum points C). who have score the maximum points
D). who scores the maximum points
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Despite the challenges,/ they ultimate achieved / their goal of launching / their startup.
Ans A). Despite the challenges, B). their goal of launching C). they ultimate achieved D). their startup.
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word(s) in the given sentence.

Manik said that it is mandatory that each student pay his/her tuition fees every month.
Ans A). each student paids B). each student pays C). each student paid D). each students pay
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Once the seminar was over, the host gave up the certificates to the active participants.
Ans A). brought about B). came by C). gave away D). put across
Correct Answer: C

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Q.5 Rectify the error in the given sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options provided.

The nights of King Arthur were known for their chivalry.

Ans A). knights B). naughts C). knots D). nites
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
I want to buy the less expensive bike, but with the best mileage.
Ans A). least B). little C). lesser D). most less
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to ___________ the main idea of the passage in the exam.
Ans A). conclusion B). summarise C). underestimate D). plagiarise
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

The youngest employees/ are chosen by the/ organisation to/ manage the fieldwork.
Ans A). The youngest employees B). organisation to C). manage the fieldwork. D). are chosen by the
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The most effective way to enhance your vocabulary is to look to unknown words in a dictionary.
Ans A). look up B). write off C). set by D). stand against
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that has a grammatical error.
The thieves had no alternative / but to acquiesce with / the orders of / the police.
Ans A). the police. B). The thieves had no alternative C). but to acquiesce with D). the orders of
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The microscopic chip that emits a uniqe signal has been embedded into your arm.
Ans A). embedded B). uniqe C). emits D). microscopic
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Benevolent
Ans A). Enthusiastic B). Kind C). Mysterious D). Hostile
Correct Answer: B

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Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

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Careful
Ans A). Cautious B). Corrupt C). Captivating D). Corrosive
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Poonam used a rubber band to keep the pencils together. 'Band' here means ____________. ap
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Ans A). a thin ring of rubber used for holding things together B). a long rigid piece of wood or metal C). a tube filled with water
D). a range of values or frequencies within a series
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Altogether B). Always C). Until D). Fulfeel
Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The partners ended up being traitorous to each other.

Ans A). Faithful B). Proficient C). Disloyal D). Fickle

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who rules with absolute power and authority
Ans A). Senator B). Ruler C). Dictator D). Sovereign
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Correct Answer: C
B

Q.18 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The entire audience was all ears when the Indian-born American economist started giving a speech.
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Ans A). was eager to speak plainly B). was willing to exit the show C). was arguing in favour of both sides D). was keen to listen
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Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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He is known for his humility.

Ans A). Pride B). Knowledge C). Beauty D). Agility
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Bheem has been shown in the popular culture as someone who eats in large quantity.
Ans A). eat humble pie B). eats like a horse C). eat like a bird D). chews the fat
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Three big fat rats once found a new use for _____1_____ tails. During the night, they came ______2_____ into the larder and found a
jar with treacle in it. But the jar had a ____3___ neck, and try as they might, the rats could not reach the treacle either with their
mouths or their paws. At last, a bright idea ______4______ one of them. He climbed onto the jar and let his tail hang down into the
treacle. Then he pulled it out nicely coated with treacle and allowed the two rats to lick it _____5_______.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). the B). it's C). their D). there
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). dreaming B). acting C). yelling D). creeping
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). narrow B). funny C). obese D). slow
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). flew B). went C). struck D). stood
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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Three big fat rats once found a new use for _____1_____ tails. During the night, they came ______2_____ into the larder and found a
jar with treacle in it. But the jar had a ____3___ neck, and try as they might, the rats could not reach the treacle either with their

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mouths or their paws. At last, a bright idea ______4______ one of them. He climbed onto the jar and let his tail hang down into the
treacle. Then he pulled it out nicely coated with treacle and allowed the two rats to lick it _____5_______.

SubQuestion No : 25
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). at B). by C). in D). off
Correct Answer: D
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average age of 11 players of a cricket team is increased by 2 months, when two of them aged 20 years and 21 years,
respectively, are replaced by two new players. Find the average age of the two new players (in years).
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 400 B). 360 C). 300 D). 320
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 39 kg is:

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Ans A). 49.8 B). 52.8 C). 51.8 D). 50.8
Correct Answer: D

Q.4
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A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 15 cm contains a liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped bottles of
diameter 5 cm and height 6 cm. The number of bottles required to empty the bowl is:
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Ans A). 40 B). 30 C). 60 D). 50
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 410 B). 390 C). 490 D). 450
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 The price of a computer increases by 10% in the first year, decreases by 5% in the second year, and increases by 8% in the
third year. If the original price was ₹50,000, then the final price (in₹) is:
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Ans A). 56,430 B). 55,100 C). 54,120 D). 55,830

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Find the HCF of 70 and 90.

Ans A). 2 B). 5 C). 7 D). 10

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.8 There is a 21 litres mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and water in the mixture is 4 : 3. Find the amount of water (in
litres) that should be added to this mixture so that the resulting mixture has 50% of water in it.
at

Ans A). 4 B). 1 C). 3 D). 2

Correct Answer: C
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Q
.
9
Ans A). 36.20% B). 36.25% C). 36.10% D). 36.15%
Correct Answ

Q.10 The average of the first six multiples of 7 is:

Ans A). 24.5 B). 23.2 C). 22.4 D). 25.1
Correct Answer: A

Q.11

Ans A). ₹1,234 B). ₹1,232 C). ₹1,236 D). ₹1,230

Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Alfred buys an old scooter for ₹4,700 and spends ₹800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for ₹5,800, his gain percentage
is:
Ans
A). Correct Answer: D
B). C). D).

Q.13 A thief saw a policeman and he started running at a speed of 12 m/s. After a certain time, the policeman starts running
behind the thief at a speed of 18 m/s. If the policeman covered a 540 m distance to catch the thief, the time (in seconds) after
which the policeman started running is:
Ans A). 10 B). 12 C). 15 D). 18
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 The speeds of three cars are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 4. The ratio between the time taken by these cars to cover the same distance
is:
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.15 A flat worth ₹9,50,000 is sold by Lakshman to Bharath at 8% profit. If Bharath sells it back to Lakshman at 3% loss, then find
the gain/loss (in ₹) of Lakshman in the entire transaction?
Ans A). Lakshman gains ₹30,780 B). Lakshman gains ₹50,200 C). Lakshman gains ₹45,220 D). Lakshman loses ₹45,220
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 A man riding his bicycle covers 75 metres in 12.5 seconds. What is his speed (in km/hr)?
Ans A). 21.6 B). 15.5 C). 11.1 D). 6
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Study the table and answer the question.

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The number of girls whose height is above 125 cm is

Ans A). 19 B). 23 C). 14 D). 25
G

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 The area of a rectangular field is 396 m2, whose sides are in the ratio of 11 : 9. What is The perimeter of the rectangular
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field?
B

Ans A). 76 m B). 80 m C). 78 m D). 74 m

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19
at

Rakesh rented out an amount to Samarth for 6 years at simple interest rate. At the end of the 6th year, Samarth paid of the
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amount to Rakesh to clear out the amount. The rate of simple interest per annum was:
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.20 The following bar graph represents the annual result of five classes (VI to X) of a school. Study the bar graph carefully and
answer the question given below:

What is the average number of students in the given five classes?

Ans A). 44 B). 47 C). 57 D). 53

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Correct Answer: D

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 ap
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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Statements:
Some plants are rocks.
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No vegetable is a plant.

Conclusions:
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I) No vegetable is a rock
(II) Some rocks are plants.
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Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.2 JT79 is related to DN71 in a certain way. In the same way, KU22 is related to EO14. To which of the following is LV71 related,
following the same logic?
hs

Ans A). FP63 B). FP66 C). PF66 D). PF63

Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

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Q.4 Seven people S, E, C, T, I, O and N are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same
order). E is sitting second to the left of N, while N is sitting second to the left of S. Only one person is sitting between S and
O when counted from the right of S. C is sitting to the immediate right of E, whereas T is sitting to the immediate left of O.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of I?
Ans A). C B). O C). T D). S
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 12 16 30 34 66 70 ?
Ans A). 136 B). 138 C). 142 D). 140
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘×’ and ‘ ÷ ‘ are interchanged and ‘–’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
23 ÷ 18 + 150 × 50 – 44 = ?
Ans A). 455 B). 545 C). 485 D). 515
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘WORD’ is coded as ‘7135’ and ‘RISE’ is coded as ‘4658’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 3 B). 5 C). 4 D). 6
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). ap D).

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Q.9 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
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(28 × 2) −16 × 6 + 8 × 3 + 5 × 7 = 39
(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
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Ans A). 5 and 3 B). 8 and 7 C). 6 and 7 D). 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.10 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even
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if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
B

Statements:
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All pumpkin is mutton.

All mutton are fishes.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some fishes are mutton.
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(II) All pumpkins are fishes.

Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (I) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘BENT’ is coded as ‘4628’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘5471’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 7 B). 4 C). 6 D). 5
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 14 is related to 68 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 83. To which of the following is
21 related, following the same logic?

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Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people are sitting between E and A when counted from the right of E. B is sitting 2nd to the left of A. G is sitting to the
immediate left of F. Only 2 people are sitting between B and G when counted from the right of B. C is the immediate
neighbour of E. What is the position of D with respect to E?
Ans A). 3rd from the right B). 2nd from the left C). 2nd from the right D). 3rd from the left Correct Answer: A

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘I play football’ is coded as ‘ku ch ta’ and ‘he play cricket’ is coded as ‘al bi ta’. How is ‘play’
coded in the given language?
Ans A). ku B). al C). bi D). ta
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BXL, DVN, FTP, ?, JPT

Ans A). GRR B). GRS C). HRR D). HST
Correct Answer: C

Q.16

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

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A). B). D).
C).
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Correct Answer: D
an

Q.18 3 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 12 is related to 60. To which of the following is 5 related
to, following the same logic?
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
G

Ans A). 25 B). 35 C). 30 D). 32

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
B
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.20 EF26 is related to JK33 in a certain way. In the same way, TU27 is related to YZ34. To which of the following is JK28 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). OP35 B). OP36 C). PO35 D). PO36
Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

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Q.1 The liquid water present in oceans, lakes and rivers gets converted to the gaseous form in the presence of sunlight in the
water cycle. This step is called:
Ans A). Evaporation B). Precipitation C). Melting D). Condensation
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on the birth anniversary of which of the following freedom fighters?
Ans A). Bhagat Singh B). Subhash Chandra Bose C). Chandrashekhar Azad D). Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 As per Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of Hindu population in India?
Ans A). Bihar B). Madhya Pradesh C). Himachal Pradesh D). Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Bharatanatyam Guru ________ received the Nrithya Seva Ratna award from Indian Fine Arts Akademi, San Diego in 2023.
Ans A). Sailaja B). Ratikant Mohaptra C). Vidhya Subramanian D). Hema Rajagopalan
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India mentions that every Minister and the Attorney-General of India
shall have the right to speak in and participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament?
Ans A). Article 86 B). Article 87 C). Article 89 D). Article 88
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 The training academy for Indian Police Service officers has been named after:
Ans A). Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel B). Lal Bahadur Shastri C). Jawaharlal Nehru D). Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Who is revered as ‘Karnataka Sangeeta Pitamaha’?

Ans A). Jagannatha Dasa B). Purandara Dasa C). Gopala Dasa D). Vijaya Dasa
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following statements about nutrients are correct?

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Statement A: C, H, O, N, P and K are macro nutrients.

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Statement B: Fe, Mn, Ni, Co and Mo are micronutrients.
Statement C: Micronutrients are not essential for our body.

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Ans A). All statements A, B and C B). Only statements B and C C). Only statements A and B D). Only statements A and C
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 The campaign 'Ek Tareekh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Sath' is associated with which occasion?
Pr

Ans A). Ambedkar Jayanti B). Sardar Patel Jayanti C). Vivekananda Jayanti D). Gandhi Jayanti
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Below are two chemical equations:

Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)

Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq) → PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s)
ag

Why does copper get separated from its compound form in both the cases?
Ans A). Zinc and Lead are unstable in element form. B). Copper compounds break down under high pressure.
G

C). Zinc and Lead are more reactive than Copper. D). Copper is more reactive than Zinc and Lead.
Correct Answer: C
y

Q.11 Which of the following cell organelles possesses their own DNA and can synthesise protein for their functions?
B

Ans A). Endoplasmic reticulum B). Chloroplast C). Centrosome D). Golgi complex
Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.12 Who among the following is/was a famous proponent of Bharatanatyam?

Ans A). Sunanda Nair B). Rukmini Devi Arundale C). Kalavati Devi D). Kumkum Mohanty
Correct Answer: B
M

Q.13 In the Great Stupa at Sanchi there are ________ gateways known as ‘Toranas’ at the cardinal points to the compass.
Ans A). 4 B). 6 C). 2 D). 8
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 'Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections'
comes under which Article of Indian constitution?
Ans A). Article 36 B). Article 66 C). Article 56 D). Article 46
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who among the following has written ‘Gita Govinda’, a Sanskrit epic?
Ans A). Kalhan B). Ramachandra C). Udayaraja D). Jayadeva
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Who were the first foreign rulers of northwest India in the post-Mauryan period?
Ans A). Kushanas B). Parthians C). Bactrian Greeks D). Sakas
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 As of 2023, what is the number of major public seaports in India?

Ans A). 12 B). 10 C). 16 D). 13
Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 In cycling, what is a 'peloton'?
Ans A). The finish line of a race B). A cycling technique for climbing hills C). A group of riders in a tight pack during a race
D). The starting line of a race
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which author wrote the Hindi novel 'Tamas'?

Ans A). Shrilal Shukla B). Bhisham Sahani C). Yashpal D). Premchand
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 As of July 2023, 137 unique products under 'One District, One Product' scheme has been notified from how many districts?
Ans A). 713 B). 256 C). 538 D). 657
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 What is the height of the Kanchenjunga peak of Himalaya?

Ans A). 8434 metres B). 8598 metres C). 8175 metres D). 8798 metres
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 In which of the following years was the Census Act enacted and extended to the whole of India?
Ans A). 1950 B). 1948 C). 1949 D). 1951
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 What is the usual treatment on repo rates by the Reserve Bank of India in case of a hawkish monetary policy stance?
Ans A). Reduced gradually B). Reduced sharply by more than 100 bps C). Increased D). Kept the same
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Who among the following was India's first cricket team captain?
Ans A). K Srikant B). CK Nayudu C). Sunil Gavaskar D). Navab Pataudi
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Which social reformer from South India founded the Self Respect Movement?
Ans A). Kandukur Veeresalingam B). C Iyodhee Pandithar C). Chembeti Sridharalu Naidu D). EV Ramaswamy Naicker

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Correct Answer: D

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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence. ap

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Uluru is the world's largest monolith and Australia's recognisable natural icon with an elliptical shape and a circumfarence
of around 94 kilometers.
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Ans A). Elliptical B). Circumfarence C). Kilometers D). Monolith

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Bulging
Ans A). Weeping B). Swelling C). Contracting D). Hanging
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.3 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
y

correct.
B

This almirah is made up of heavier metal.

Ans A). heaviest B). most heavier C). most heaviest D). heavy
Correct Answer: D
at

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Living within our environmental limits is one of the central _________________ of sustainable development.
M

Ans A). principles B). agencies C). demonstrates D). illuminates

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Monika said to her mother that, "I have passed the examination."
Ans A). Monika said to her mother that, "I am passed B). Monika said to her mother, "I have passed C). No improvement required
D). Monika said to her mother that, "she has passed
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.

Tara was late for the meeting / but somehow managed / to catch out with / everything she had missed.
Ans A). but somehow managed B). Tara was late for the meeting C). to catch out with D). everything she had missed
Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I don't prefer to remain alone at home in the evenings because loneliness evokes a sense of melancholy and grief within me.
Ans A). Readiness B). Absoluteness C). Shyness D). Cheerfulness
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate idiom/phrase to fill in the blank.

My car _______ on the way to college yesterday.

Ans A). broke in B). broke up C). broke down D). broke out
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Never ________ ever seen a more disgusting sight.
Ans A). did I B). has I C). have I D). I have
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Good nutrition is the bedrock at child survival, health and development.

Ans A). bedrock of child survival B). bedrock from child survival C). bedrock through child survival D). bedrock off child survival

Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Roger applied the __________ in advance as he anticipated an accident.
Ans A). brake B). broke C). break D). brig
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the most appropriate word from the given options that can substitute the word ‘courage’ and make a meaningful
sentence.

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I am not courage enough to take this risk.

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Ans A). courageous B). encourage C). discouraging D). discourage
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

ap
at
She was barking up the wrong _______ when she filed a complaint against ragging with the students' union instead of the
university administration.
Pr

Ans A). disc B). dog C). pillar D). tree

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Enthusiastic B). Spectaculor C). Gracious D). Reliable
Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.15 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
G

Select the correct alternative.

Playing in the field, the young gayer students were laughing and giggling.
y

Ans A). most gay B). gay C). gayest D). more gay
Correct Answer: B
B

Q.16 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
hs

Select the correct alternative.

The sky appeared to be greyest after the storm.
at

Ans A). more grey B). greyer C). most grey D). grey
Correct Answer: D
M

Q.17 The sentence below contains errors. Select the option with the correct use of tenses.
Your father will waiting for you when you reach home.
Ans A). Your father should waiting for you when you reach home. B). Your father will be waiting for you when you reach home.
C). Your father would waiting for you when you reach home. D). Your father waiting for you when you reach home.
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
The future looks bleak for the fishing industry.
Ans A). Ample B). Expensive C). Fearless D). Depressing
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Blend
Ans A). Disperse B). Boil C). Mix D). Divide
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Eligible B). Poignant C). Gourrmet D). Relevant
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Traditional medicines (TMs) make (1)___________ natural products and are of great importance. Such forms of medicine as
traditional Chinese medicine (TCM), Ayurveda, Kampo, traditional Korean medicine (TKM), and Unani (2)_________ natural products
and have been (3)__________ all over the world for hundreds or even thousands of years, and they (4)__________ blossomed into
orderly-regulated systems of medicine. In their various forms, they may have certain defects, but they (5)_________ still a valuable
repository of human knowledge.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). used off B). use of C). uses of D). used of
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). employ B). employing C). employs D). employed
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

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Traditional medicines (TMs) make (1)___________ natural products and are of great importance. Such forms of medicine as
traditional Chinese medicine (TCM), Ayurveda, Kampo, traditional Korean medicine (TKM), and Unani (2)_________ natural products

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and have been (3)__________ all over the world for hundreds or even thousands of years, and they (4)__________ blossomed into
orderly-regulated systems of medicine. In their various forms, they may have certain defects, but they (5)_________ still a valuable
at
repository of human knowledge.

SubQuestion No : 23
Pr

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). practice B). practised C). practises D). practices
an

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
ag

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

and have been (3)__________ all over the world for hundreds or even thousands of years, and they (4)__________ blossomed into
B

orderly-regulated systems of medicine. In their various forms, they may have certain defects, but they (5)_________ still a valuable
repository of human knowledge.
hs

SubQuestion No : 24
at

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). have being B). have C). had D). has
M

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). was B). are C). am D). is
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A car travels from Kanpur to Delhi at an average speed of 60 km/h and returns at an average speed of 90
km/h. Find the average speed of the car in the whole journey.
Ans A). 65 km/h B). 78 km/h C). 60 km/h D). 72 km/h
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 A shopkeeper declares the following three schemes of discounts. Which scheme is most beneficial to a customer?
A. Buy 25 items and get 30 of the same items

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B. Two successive discounts of 12% and 18%

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C. Two successive equal discounts of 15%
Ans A). A B). B and C C). Only C D). Only B
Correct Answer: C

Q.3
ap
The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% per annum for 9 years is ₹1,260. At what rate of interest can
at
the same amount of interest be received on the same sum after 6 years?
Pr

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.4 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
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Ans A). 5.45 B). 8.45 C). 6.45 D). 7.45

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans A). 50 B). 52 C). 51 D). 49
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.6 Three red lights on the same road start blinking at the same time and blink repeatedly after every 4, 6 and 8 minutes,
hs

respectively. How many times will they blink together in an interval of 3 hours, excluding blinking together at the starting
moment?
at

Ans A). 5 B). 7 C). 6 D). 4

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.7 In a mixture of 60 litres, milk and water are in the ratio 7 : 3. If 3 litres of water be added, find the ratio of milk and water in
the new mixture.
Ans A). 2:3 B). 3:2 C). 2:1 D). 1:2 Correct Answer: C

Q.8 In a 5-km race, A beats B by 750 metres and C by 1260 metres. By how many metres does B beat C in the same race?
Ans A). 700 metres B). 600 metres C). 500 metres D). 400 metres
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 A solid cone of base radius 7 cm and height 18 cm is melted and recast into a hollow metal hemisphere of internal and
external radii 20 cm and R cm, respectively. What is the value of R (in cm)?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.10

Ans A). 712 B). 826 C). 956 D). 789

Correct Answer: A

Q.11 The ratio of income to expenditure of a family is 18:15. Find the savings if the income of the family is ₹81,000.
Ans A). ₹12,750 B). ₹15,000 C). ₹13,500 D). ₹17,500
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The curved surface area of a cylinder is three-fifth of its total surface area. Find the ratio

r
between the height and radius of the cylinder.

Si
Ans A). 3 : 2 B). 2 : 5 C). 3 : 5 D). 8 : 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.13
ap
The given bar graph shows the number of bicycles produced by a company from 1996 to 2000. Study
at
the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
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The combined number of bicycles produced during 1996, 1997 and 2000 is what percentage (rounded
off to 1 decimal place) of the combined bicycles produced from 1996 to 2000?

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 A man sold an article for ₹247.50, thereby gaining 12.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:
Ans A). 225 B). 220 C). 224 D). 210
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 600 B). 500 C). 520 D). 560
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 The average of the present ages of P and Q is 56 years and their ages are in the ratio 5:3. What will be the age of Q seven
years hence?
Ans A). 54 years B). 42 years C). 52 years D). 49 years
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 A tunnel elevator can carry a maximum of 15 passengers with an average weight of 81 kg. However, four persons beyond
the maximum capacity entered the elevator, resulting in an average weight of 82 kg and causing it to be overloaded. Find the
average weight (in kg) of the additional four persons.
Ans A). 90.41 B). 100 C). 102.37 D). 85.75
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 The average weight of three friends Ram, Ramesh and Shyam is 76 kg. Somesh joins them and the average weight of the
four friends becomes 74 kg. If Mohan, whose weight is 2 kg more than that of Somesh replaces Ramesh, the average weight
of Ram, Shyam, Somesh and Mohan becomes 68 kg. Find the weight of Ramesh.
Ans A). 89 kg B). 94 kg C). 75 kg D). 84 kg
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1240 B). 1140 C). 1200 D). 1160
Correct Answer: C

Q.20

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Ans A). 3 : 5 B). 4 : 7 C). 3 : 4 D). 2 : 3
Correct Answer: B

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

ap
at
Q.1 DFIE is related to CGHF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MOFC is related to LPED.
Pr

To which of the following is GRRP related, following the same logic?

Ans A). DSPQ B). ERQQ C). FSQQ D). FSQR
an

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 8 is related to 93 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 10 is related to 117. To which of the following is 14
ag

related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
G

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
y

Ans A). 166 B). 187 C). 165 D). 189

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.3 CA 19 is related to ID 14 in a certain way. In the same way, ML 53 is related to SO 48. To which of the following is GD 8
related, following the same logic?
at

Ans A). NF −3 B). MG 3 C). MH −3 D). NH 3

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.4 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
12 × 96 − 24 + 8 ÷ 38 = ?
Ans A). 16 B). 6 C). −4 D). −14
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some cups are glasses.
No cup is a plate.

Conclusions:
(I) No glass is a plate.
(II) Some glasses are not cups.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.

Correct Answer: B

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Q.6 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements:
No teacher is a male.
No male is an Engineer.
Conclusions:
I. No teacher is an Engineer.
II. Some male are teachers.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Seven people P, U, L, M, A, G and E are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). P is sitting third to the left of M. G is sitting second to the right of M. Only one person is sitting between M and A
when counted from the left of M. L is sitting to the immediate right of G. Only one person is sitting between L and E . Who is
sitting to the immediate left of U?
Ans A). A B). M C). P D). G
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘toy is new’ is coded as ‘bz tq gl’ and ‘give me toy’ is coded as ‘hx vm tq’. How is ‘toy’ coded in
the given language?

Ans A). bz B). hx C). tq D). vm
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

r
Si
ap
at
Pr
an

Ans
ag

A). B). C). D).

G
B y

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘did we know’ is written as ‘kp as th’ and ‘we solve this’ is written as ‘nk kp bo’. How is ‘we’
at

written in the given language?

Ans A). nk B). kp C). bo D). as

Correct Answer: B

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

39, 47, 55, 63, 71, ?

Ans A). 78 B). 79 C). 80 D). 77
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
56 − 33 × 3 ÷ 4 + 36 =?
Ans A). 64 B). 68 C). 66 D). 74
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 In a certain code language, 'CHOSEN' is coded as ‘YTMIWN’ and 'COMMON' is coded as ‘YMOOMN’. How will 'CLIENT' be
coded in the same language?
Ans A). YPSVNF B). YPSXNG C). YPTXNG D). YPSWNH
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

EBF, IGG, MLH, QQI ,?

Ans A). SUI B). TUJ C). SUJ D). UVJ
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘EACH’ is coded as ‘6138’ and ‘CAME’ is coded as ‘1396’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans A). 6 B). 9 C). 3 D). 1
Correct Answer: B

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Q.17 The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first
number. Select the pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
at
, 42
6
Pr

9, 63
Ans A). 19, 123 B). 13, 91 C). 17, 102 D). 11, 67
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.18 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.
ag
G
B y
hs

Ans
at

Correct Answer: B
M

A). B). C). D).

Q.19 T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). U is sitting
third to the right of V, who is sitting second to the left of W. Y is not an immediate neighbour of U. T is sitting to the
immediate left of V.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of T?
Ans A). W B). X C). U D). V
Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 How much money was allotted by the Gujarat government in August 2023 for the One District, One Product (ODOP)
Programme to promote its indigenous products at the international level?
Ans A). ₹58 crore B). ₹10 crore C). ₹100 crore D). ₹25 crore
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 In the context of microfinance in India, the concept of SHG-BLP is used. What does L stand for in SHG-BLP?

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Ans A). Lend B). Linkage C). Link D). Lending
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 In which among the following years was Hindu widow remarriage declared legal in India?
Ans A). 1893 B). 1856 C). 1899 ap D). 1872
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.4 Annapurna Devi is associated with which of the following musical instruments?
Pr

Ans A). Mridangam B). Flute C). Sarangi D). Surbahar

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.5 Who regarded Vedas as the source of all knowledge and known for the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’?
ag

Ans A). Raja Rammohun Roy B). Swami Vivekananda C). Keshav Chandra sen D). Swami Dayanada Saraswati
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.6 Rigveda is the earliest specimen of:

Ans A). Indo-African language B). Indian language C). Russian language D). Indo European language
y

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.7 What is the length of the men's kabaddi court?

Ans A). 11 m B). 15 m C). 17 m D). 13 m

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.8 Which of the given options is rod-shaped, carries genetic information, is visible only at cell division and is present in the
M

nucleus?
Ans A). Chromosomes B). Lysosomes C). Ribosomes D). Cytoplasm
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Prerana Shrimali received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in which of the following years for her contribution to the
Kathak dance form?
Ans A). 2012 B). 2009 C). 2003 D). 2015
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Which gas is released when you combine vinegar and baking soda in a balloon, causing it to inflate?
Ans A). Carbon dioxide B). Hydrogen C). Oxygen D). Nitrogen
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 From 13 September 2023, DMK MP Tiruchi Siva has been appointed the chairperson of the Committee on _______________.
Ans A). Home B). Information Technology C). Transport D). Industry
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Which of the following Rights is mentioned in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Right to Freedom: Protection of life and personal liberty
B). Right against Exploitation: Prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour
C). Right to Equality: Equality before law D). Right to Freedom of Religion: Freedom to manage religious affairs

Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The Sahitya Akademi award winning novel ‘Zindaginama’ was written by:
Ans A). Krishna Sobti B). Amrita Pritam C). Mahadevi Verma D). Mannu Bhandari
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Who among the following is worshipped as Nataraja before many classical dance performances in India?
Ans A). Indra B). Vishnu C). Brahma D). Shiva
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The famous ‘Tripartite struggle’ for supremacy occurred between which of the following powers?
Ans A). Sen, Pala and Rashtrakuta B). Chalukya, Sen and Pratihars C). Chouhan, Pala and Gurjar
D). Gurjar-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Palas
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Four resistors of equal resistance R each are connected in various possible ways both in series and/or parallel to get
different combined resistances. Which of the following values of resistance cannot be achieved by using all the four
resistors?
Ans A). 0.25 R B). 1.33 R C). 2 R D). 2.5 R
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The remains of Great Bath have been found from the excavation at which of the following Harappan sites?

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Ans A). Kalibangan B). Lothal C). Harappa D). Mohenjodaro
Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 As per HDI 2021, which of the following neighbouring countries of India had the highest female life expectancy at birth?
Ans A). Bangladesh B). Maldives C). Sri Lanka ap D). Bhutan
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 What is the retirement age of Judges serving at the Supreme Court of India?
Pr

Ans A). 68 years B). 60 years C). 65 years D). 62 years

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.20 According to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 2022-23, which state of India is the largest producer of
sugarcane?
ag

Ans A). Karnataka B). Uttar Pradesh C). Andhra Pradesh D). Bihar
Correct Answer: B
G

Q.21 Which of the following peaks is NOT located in the Himalayan mountains?
y

Ans A). Nanda Devi B). Kamet C). Annapurna D). Kalsubai
Correct Answer: D
B
hs

Q.22 Chithirai festival of Tamil Nadu is dedicated to which of the following Goddesses?
Ans A). Pidari B). Mariamman C). Meenakshi D). Muneeswaran
at

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.23 India won its first Olympic gold in hockey in which of the following years?
Ans A). 1936 B). 1940 C). 1932 D). 1928
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted in which year by the Government of India?
Ans A). 2013 B). 2001 C). 2008 D). 2005
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Gabbro is an example of which type of rocks?

Ans A). Igneous rock B). Organically formed sedimentary rock C). Sedimentary rock D). Metamorphic rock
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The project fell besides due to lack of funding and support.

Ans A). fell along due to lack B). fell about due to lack C). fell until due to lack D). fell through due to lack
Correct Answer: D

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Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Panacea
Ans A). Survey B). Remedy C). Pressure D). Miracle
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
My sister-in-law is the most succeeded for all the industrialists in this country today.
Ans A). in this country today B). My sister-in-law is the most C). the industrialists D). succeeded for all
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

I hope that / yesterday's lunch / at Rahul's place / was at your liking.

Ans A). I hope that B). at Rahul's place C). was at your liking. D). yesterday's lunch
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The lenient ways of the manager prompted substandard work from his subordinates.
Ans A). ignorant B). easygoing C). irritating D). insane
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Addict B). Crazy C). Medicin D). Eighty
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Everyone says that waking up early in the morning is beneficial for our health and overall well-being. But it is easier said
than done.

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Ans A). a life filled with excitement B). a step towards better health C). to start performing better than before D). not as easy as it seems to be

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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The management gave kudos to Jithin for his performance. ap
at
Ans A). praise B). criticism C). punishment D). admonishment
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
an

The White man had to swallow his bombast and have completed the journey in mortified.
ag

Ans A). complete the journey in mortification B). No substitution required C). completing the mortifying journey
D). completes the journey mortifying
G

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hamper
Ans A). Urge B). Hinder C). Accuse D). Absorb
hs

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

During the meeting, the employer's _________ was clear as he calmly addressed each team member's concerns and
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provided insightful solutions.

Ans A). composes B). compose C). composure D). composed
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The new intern was eager to learn the _________ of the corporate world.
Ans A). rides B). tides C). flies D). ropes
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
While she / was watched / the movie, / her phone rang.
Ans A). her phone rang B). While she C). was watched D). the movie,
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The flight was about to take off when suddenly the authorities came to ensure the record of the maintanance department.
Ans A). maintnance B). maintainance C). maintenance D). maintainence
Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Sarah / will singing / at the concert / on Saturday.
Ans A). Sarah B). will singing C). at the concert D). on Saturday
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate verb / verb phrase to fill in the blank.
In 2030, advancements in technology ________________ the way we live, work and interact with each other.
Ans A). could be reshaped B). shall have been reshaped C). will be reshaping D). have reshaped
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
They were / interested / on / learning new languages.
Ans A). learning new languages B). interested C). They were D). on
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Posthumous B). Extraneous C). Colloquiel D). Quiescent
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The way she elaborated on every detail with precision impressed everyone _____ the meeting.
Ans A). off B). above C). at D). into
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the following word.

Reluctant
Ans A). Unrelenting B). Unwilling C). Curious D). Pleasant
Correct Answer: B

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Si
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ap
at
A phobia is an irrational fear of an object, situation or living thing. While fear is (1)_______ natural response to danger, phobias often
occur (2)____________ response to something unlikely to cause real harm. In some cases, a person with a (3)___________ will meet
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extreme anxiety when faced with it. Someone experiencing a phobia that is interfering with everyday life should consider undergoing
treatment for their phobia, as outcomes for professional care are typically favourable.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
G

Ans A). one B). a C). those D). these

Correct Answer: B
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.
at

the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia, which is a type of anxiety disorder. Someone with a specific phobia will (4)_________
intense fear and anxiety when confronted with the source of the phobia, which could include blood, heights or specific animals like
dogs. Phobias are (5)______________ by significant distress and often cause a person to avoid the source of their fear or suffer from
extreme anxiety when faced with it. Someone experiencing a phobia that is interfering with everyday life should consider undergoing
treatment for their phobia, as outcomes for professional care are typically favourable.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). on B). in C). of D). at
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A phobia is an irrational fear of an object, situation or living thing. While fear is (1)_______ natural response to danger, phobias often
occur (2)____________ response to something unlikely to cause real harm. In some cases, a person with a (3)___________ will meet
the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia, which is a type of anxiety disorder. Someone with a specific phobia will (4)_________
intense fear and anxiety when confronted with the source of the phobia, which could include blood, heights or specific animals like
dogs. Phobias are (5)______________ by significant distress and often cause a person to avoid the source of their fear or suffer from
extreme anxiety when faced with it. Someone experiencing a phobia that is interfering with everyday life should consider undergoing
treatment for their phobia, as outcomes for professional care are typically favourable.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). violence B). danger C). phobia D). trouble
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24

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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

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Ans A). horizon B). aspire C). dream D). experience
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

intense fear and anxiety when confronted with the source of the phobia, which could include blood, heights or specific animals like
dogs. Phobias are (5)______________ by significant distress and often cause a person to avoid the source of their fear or suffer from
ag

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
B y

Ans A). classified B). qualified C). characterised D). categorised

Correct Answer: C
hs
at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 48.6 B). 49.6 C). 50.6 D). 51.6
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 1500 B). 1000 C). 750 D). 375
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 720 B). 660 C). 760 D). 680
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 48.8 B). 49.8 C). 50.8 D). 51.8

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.5 A person got an article at 22% discount, if he got no discount, then he had to pay ₹1,760 more. How much did he pay (in ₹)
for the article?
Ans A). 5,120 B). 6,360 C). 5,640
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D). 6,240
Correct Answer: D
at
Q.6
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an
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Ans A). 21 B). 10.5 C). 14 D). 7

Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.
G
B y
hs
at
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What was the difference in the production of food grains between 1991 and 1994?
Ans A). 5000 tons B). 500 tons C). 10000 tons D). 15000 tons
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A fast train takes 1 hour less than a slow train for a journey of 96 km. If the speed of the slow train is 8 km/h less than that of
the fast train, then find the speeds of the fast train and slow train respectively.
Ans A). 26 km/h, 34 km/h B). 32 km/h, 24 km/h C). 34 km/h, 28 km/h D). 12 km/h, 14 km/h
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 By selling 20 cakes, a shopkeeper earns selling price of 4 cakes. Determine the profit percentage.
Ans A). 10% B). 25% C). 20% D). 4%
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The centroid of a ∆XYZ is G. The area of ∆XYZ is 45 cm2. The area of ∆GYZ is:
Ans A). 22.5 cm2 B). 7.5 cm2 C). 15 cm2 D). 30 cm2 Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 360 toffees are distributed among Pushkal, Quadir and Rustam in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. After distribution, Quadir gives 20% of
his toffees to Pushkal and Rustam gives 25% of his toffees to Pushkal. What is the new ratio of toffees with Pushkal, Quadir
and Rustam?
Ans A). 5 : 4 : 6 B). 7 : 3 : 5 C). 6 : 4 : 5 D). 3 : 5 : 7
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 R earns ₹55,000 per month and his annual expenditure is ₹4,50,000. What is his percentage of savings per annum?
Ans A). 31.82% B). 38.12% C). 36.21% D). 32.81%
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 A car travels 80 km at the speed of 20 km/h and the next 30 km at the speed of 30 km/h. What is its average speed?
Ans A). 20 km/h B). 22 km/h C). 40 km/h D). 30 km/h
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The HCF of 513,1134 and 1215 is:

Ans A). 27 B). 19 C). 45 D). 43
Correct Answer: A

Q.15

Ans A). 1720 B). 1760 C). 1780 D). 1740

Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Reena sells an article at 12% below its cost price. Had she sold it for ₹540 more, she would
have gained 15%. At what price should she sell the article to gain 20%?
Ans A). ₹2,004 B). ₹2,040 C). ₹2,400 D). ₹4,200
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The mean of marks secured by 3 students in grade A of class XI is 83, that of 4 students of grade B is 76 and that of 5
students of grade C is 85. What will be the mean of marks of the students of three grades of Class XI?
Ans A). 80.5 B). 81 C). 80 D). 81.5
Correct Answer: D

Q.18
There are 40 students in a class. Their average weight is 60 kg. Two

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students left the class. Then the average weight is reduced by 500 g. Find

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the weight of the two students who left the class (in kg).
Ans A). 140 B). 130 C). 129
ap
D). 139
Correct Answer: D
at
Q
.
1
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9
Ans A). 240 B). 405 C). 360 D). 540
Co
an

Q.20 The table below shows the number of students enrolled in four colleges over the four years.
ag
G
B y
hs
at
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What is the average number of students studying per year in college Q over the given years?
Ans A). 455 B). 473 C). 505 D). 548
Correct Answer: B

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘2846’ and ‘APES’ is coded as ‘7321’. What is the code for ’P’ in that
language?
Ans A). 3 B). 4 C). 1 D). 2
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 What should come in place of the question (?) in the following series?
4 ,-27, -58, -89 ,-120 ,?
Ans A). 151 B). -131 C). -151 D). -141
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation mathematically correct?
15 × 14 – 8 + 12 ÷ 4 = 5
Ans A). × and + B). ÷ and – C). × and – D). ÷ and +
Correct Answer: A

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Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

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Ans

ap Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).
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an

Q.7 Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
pattern.
ag
G
B y
hs

Ans
Correct Answer: C
at

A). B). C). D).

Q.8 MHPL is related to OJRN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PKSO is related to
RMUQ. To which of the following is SNVR related following the same logic?
Ans A). PUTX B). UPXT C). PUXT D). UPTX
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

SXG, QVI, OTK, MRM ,?

Ans A). LPP B). KPO C). KPP D). LPO
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All leaves are trees.
Some trees are plants.
Conclusions:
(I) Some leaves are plants.
(II) All leaves are trees.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Both conclusions I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: A

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Q.11 ‘NQRP’ is related to ‘TWXV’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘FHIG’ is related to
‘LNOM’. To which of the following is ‘LOPN’ related following the same logic?
Ans A). QTUS B). RUVT C). QSTR D). RSQT
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 In a certain code language, 'MASTER' is coded as '917032', and 'STREAK' is coded as '372159'. What is the code for ‘K’ in
'STREAK'?
Ans A). 7 B). 5 C). 3 D). 9
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people are sitting between R and O when counted from the left of R. Only M is sitting between L and N. N is an immediate
neighbour of O. P is sitting third to the right of L.

Who is sitting second to the left of O?

Ans A). Q B). L C). R D). P
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
48 × 16 − 20 ÷ 21 + 7 = ?
Ans A). 259 B). 269 C). −269 D). −259
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 16 is related to 176 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 21 is related to 231. To which of the following is 33
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 363 B). 361 C). 364 D). 362
Correct Answer: A

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Conclusions:

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[1] Some ACs are remotes.
[2] All remotes are Acs.
Ans A). Only conclusion [1] follows
D). Only conclusion [2] follows
B). Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows

apC). Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow

Correct Answer: A
at
Q.17 In a certain code language, if HOUSE is coded as 67 and GROUND is coded as 83, then how will KITCHEN be coded?
Pr

Ans A). 119 B). 110 C). 130 D). 122

Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
an

48 : 42
Ans A). 63 : 28 B). 65 : 28 C). 69 : 32 D). 48 : 24
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.19 A, B, C, L, M, Y and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two
people sit between B and L when counted from the right of L. X sits to the immediate left of Y. A sits to the immediate right of
G

M. Y is an immediate neighbour of L.
Who sits fourth to the right of C?
y

Ans A). L B). M C). A D). X

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.20
hs

Ans A).
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B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg were dropped from a height of 3.2 metres. Their respective velocities just before touching the
ground will be:
(Assume acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A). 8 m/s and 4 m/s B). 3.2 m/s for both C). 4 m/s and 8 m/s D). 8 m/s for both
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 The igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are interconvertible through a continuous process called:
Ans A). lithification B). metamorphism C). rock cycle D). weathering and erosion
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 'Sange Meel Se Mulaqat' is the documentary of which famous musician?

Ans A). Zakir Hussain B). Bismillah Khan C). Hari Prasad Chaurasia D). MS Gopalakrishnan
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 ‘The Namesake’, ‘Unaccustomed Earth’ and ‘The Lowland’ are novels written by who among the following authors?
Ans A). Arundhati Roy B). Jhumpa Lahiri C). Aravind Adiga D). Shobha De
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Which of the following types of emergencies is declared under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). State Emergency B). Financial Emergency C). National Emergency D). Constitutional Emergency
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 When is the National Unity Day celebrated in India?
Ans A). 26 January B). 31 October C). 2 October D). 14 November
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Which material was largely used to build the stupa at Piprahwa in Uttar Pradesh?
Ans A). Bricks B). Marble C). Sandstone D). Granite Stone
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 How many components are there in the New India Literacy Program (NILP) scheme launched by the Union Ministry of
Education in March 2023?
Ans A). Seven B). Three C). Nine D). Five
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 In June 2023, which country conferred the ‘Order of the Nile’ award on Narendra Modi?
Ans A). Lebanon B). Turkey C). Egypt D). Singapore
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Who among the following adopted the policy of consolidation in place of expansion by eliminating the rebels?
Ans A). Shamsuddin Iltutmish B). Raziya C). Nasiruddin Mahmud D). Ghiyasuddin Balban
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what was the proportion of population in
multidimensional poverty (Headcount Ratio) in urban India in 2019-2021?
Ans A). 2.12% B). 11.32% C). 5.27% D). 6.96%
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 In which of the followings years was the National Population Policy of India released?
Ans A). 1995 B). 2000 C). 2015 D). 1952
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Match the political parties of British India in column A with their respective founders in column B.

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Si
Ans A). a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii B). a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii C). a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
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D). a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Union Government budget in India?
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a. The Budget reflects the vision of the government in fulfilling the aspirations of people.
b. The Budget is the summary report of the financial performance of the government in power.
c. The Budget provides details of expenditures meted out by various Union Government ministries.
an

Ans A). All a, b and c B). Only a and b C). Only c D). Only a
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.15 A ______ happens in chess when a player gives up material during the initiation to seek some kind of compensation.
Ans A). Blockade B). Nick C). Gambit D). Castling
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.16 Kaal Baisakhi belongs to which state from the following?

Ans A). Punjab B). Rajasthan C). West Bengal D). Bihar
Correct Answer: C
B

Q.17 Which of the following statements is NOT true about Plastids?

Ans A). Starch, oils and protein granules are stored in chromoplasts. B). They have their own ribosomes. C). They have their own DNA.
D). Stroma is found in chloroplast.
at

Correct Answer: A

Q.18 In the animal kingdom, which of the following phyla includes animals with a segmented body?
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Ans A). Chordata B). Arthropoda C). Annelida D). Mollusca

Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which of the following is NOT associated with the Iron Age in India?
Ans A). Smelting B). Painted grey ware C). Northern black polished ware D). Mehrauli iron pillar
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Which of the following committees was set up to investigate into the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Ans A). Sadlar Committee B). Hunter Committee C). Henry Fowler Committee D). Butler Committee
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 From which of the following countries has the Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of the Concurrent List?
Ans A). Australia B). Russia C). USA D). Ireland
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 _________was launched by the Government of India in 2020 to make the country and its citizens independent and self-
sufficient in all respects.
Ans A). Smart Cities Mission B). Swachh Bharat Mission C). Digital India Mission D). Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Which of the following war dances is performed in Ngada festival and is a performed by the tribes of Nagaland?
Ans A). Jawara B). Dalkhai C). Rengma D). Garadi
Correct Answer: C

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Q.24 Which edition of the Pro Kabaddi League was started in December 2023?
Ans A). 12th B). 11th C). 10th D). 8th Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Mallika Sarabhai was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2010 for her contribution to which of the following fields?
Ans A). Dance B). Literature C). Painting D). Singing
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
He was able to do _____(tedious) jobs and hence decided to be in the airline service, which demanded 12 long hours of
service.
Ans A). irksome B). delightful C). riotous D). timid
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.
Family planning programs play a crucial role in promoting reproductive health and empowering individuals to make
informed choices, contributing to sustainable population growth and a healthier society.
Ans A). promoting a viable population increase B). discouraging a sustainable population upswing
C). supporting sustainable population explosion D). fostering an unbalanced population growth
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Based on the situation in the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment.
Having known to the facts, the manager disregarded the arguments of the customer.
Ans A). Turned a deaf ear B). Bite the Bullet C). Turned out D). Turned against
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Select the sentence that contains a spelling error.

Ans A). They had been disgrantled with the company due to various reasons.
B). Despite his formidable appearance, he possesses a kind heart. C). We saw a pride of lions nonchalantly roaming in the forest.
D). He has made significant improvement in the last few weeks.
Correct Answer: A

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Q.5 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.

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I left my / coat in the / hospital when I / had visit Alex.
Ans A). I left my B). hospital when I C). coat in the D). had visit Alex.
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. ap

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Vigorous
Ans A). Academic B). Energetic C). Guarded D). Furious
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Contrary
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Ans A). Transformational B). Reverse C). Similar D). Forward

Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

They needed a __________ answer for every question.

Ans A). precise B). more precise C). most precise D). preciser
Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The CEO came up with a groundbreaking strategy to _______________ new markets and capitalise on emerging trends.
Ans A). break off B). break out C). break down D). break into
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Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word.

She has a magnificient personality.

Ans A). Megnificent B). Magnifecient C). Magnificent D). Megnifecent

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

The walls of the marriage hall were covered by beautiful purple curtains.
Ans A). covered with B). covered upon C). covered of D). covered on
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Haste
Ans A). Speed B). Delay C). Twist D). Quick
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). The teacher from a South explained the theory in the detailed manner.
B). A teacher from South explained the theory in the detailed manners.
C). The teacher from the South explained the theory in a detailed manner.
D). The teacher from an South explained a theory in a detailed manner.
Correct Answer: C

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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

If 2023 was ___ year consumers helped stave off a recession with an unexpected surge in spending, many economists
_________ 2024 will be the time shoppers finally tighten their belts.
Ans A). an, thought B). a, see C). the, predict D). a, wanted
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Playing ‘hide-n-seek’ is the one of the fond memories of my childhood.
Ans A). most fondest B). fonder C). more fonder D). fondest
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Pamper' from the given sentence.
I always feel that nuclear families always mollycoddle their kids without directing them to the correct path or denying their
unrealistic demands.
Ans A). Path B). Demands C). Nuclear D). Mollycoddle
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The old man shared his __________ wisdom with the young generation.
Ans A). trivial B). sagacious C). ephemeral D). frivolous
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Clear as mud
Ans A). A dirty surrounding B). Very easy to understand C). A clean surface D). Very difficult to understand
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The children were excited to ride the carusel.
Ans A). Carousell B). Carousel C). Carrousel D). Karusel
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

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Yash is not better than Harsh.
Ans A). Yash is best than Harsh. B). Yash is as good as Harsh. C). Yash and Harsh both are good. D). Yash is not good than Harsh.

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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We should remember that all religions (1)________ good conduct in life, the foundation of which should rest on (2)_________.
Without the basis of morality, philosophy would remain mere polemics, and religion would be (3)_________ and vain. Nobody can say
that he is religious unless he is (4)_________ and unselfish. It is realised that by constant endeavour through thought, word and deed,
one could (5)_________ absolute peace of mind.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). abandon B). preach C). refrain D). depart
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
y

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
B

that he is religious unless he is (4)_________ and unselfish. It is realised that by constant endeavour through thought, word and deed,
one could (5)_________ absolute peace of mind.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
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Ans A). evil B). boundaries C). unconscientiousness D). ethics

Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
We should remember that all religions (1)________ good conduct in life, the foundation of which should rest on (2)_________.
Without the basis of morality, philosophy would remain mere polemics, and religion would be (3)_________ and vain. Nobody can say
that he is religious unless he is (4)_________ and unselfish. It is realised that by constant endeavour through thought, word and deed,
one could (5)_________ absolute peace of mind.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). useful B). popular C). rational D). meaningless
Correct Answer: D

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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). grotesque B). lethargic C). truthful D). insensitive
Correct Answer: C

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). scatter B). forfeit C). acquire D). divide
Correct Answer: C

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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A person sold an article and got a loss of 9%. If he sold it for ₹51 more he would gain 8%. Find the C.P.
Ans A). Rs.400 B). Rs.250 C). Rs.350 D). Rs.300
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 A commodity is made of two metals, A and B, which cost ₹35 per kg and ₹40 per kg, respectively, in the ratio of 2 : 3. What is
the cost (in ₹) of 12 kilograms of this commodity?
Ans A). 228 B). 152 C). 456 D). 38

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Correct Answer: C

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Q.3 In a company, if 40 workers can make 50 bags in 4 days, then how many bags will 24 workers

Ans A). 60
will make in 8 days?
B). 40 C). 54
ap D). 45
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 A chemist prepares 100 grams of medicine by mixing two ingredients X and Y. The rate of X is ₹1,500 per 100 grams and that
of Y is ₹50 per 10 grams. X and Y are mixed in such a way that the cost of the resulting medicine is ₹13 per gram. What is the
quantity of X (in grams) in the medicine?
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Ans A). 10 B). 30 C). 80 D). 20

Correct Answer: C
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Q.5
G
B y

Ans
D). Correct Answer: C
A). C).
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B).
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Q.6
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Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 5 D). 3

Correct Answer: A

Q.7 The cost price of an article is 76% of its marked price. Find the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 5%.
Ans A). 27.5% B). 25% C). 24% D). 22.5%
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Two vendors calculate their profit percentage on the cost price and selling price, respectively. What will be the difference
between the profits (in ₹) if both the vendors declare a profit of 28% on the goods sold for ₹3,200?
Ans A). 196 B). 700 C). 548 D). 896
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 In 2016, the price of a refrigerator increased by 5%, and in 2017, it decreased by 5%. At the end of the year 2017, its price
was ₹47,880. What was its price at the beginning of the year 2016?
Ans A). ₹48,000 B). ₹46,000 C). ₹48,560 D). ₹54,050
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 The area of a rectangular park of length 15 m and breadth 12 m is:
Ans A). 54 m2 B). 180 m2 C). 144 m2 D). 170 m2 Correct Answer: B

Q.11 The average of four girls' age is 12 years. The ages of three of them are 7, 12 and 13 years. Find the age of the fourth girl.
Ans A). 16 years B). 14 years C). 17 years D). 15 years
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 465 B). 485 C). 565 D). 525
Correct Answer: D

Q.13

Ans A). 1402 B). 1403 C). 1401 D). 1404

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 At a certain rate of simple interest, a sum becomes ₹9,430 in 3 years and ₹11,070 in 7 years. Find the sum.
Ans A). ₹8,200 B). ₹8,000 C). ₹8,350
ap D). ₹7,800
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 In an office, the data of employees in four different categories from three different cities B, C and D is given below in bar
graph.
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an
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G
B y
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In which category is the difference between the numbers of employees from any two different cities maximum?
Ans A). 2 B). 1 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 900 B). 860 C). 840 D). 940
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take to cover a
distance of 300 km?
Ans A). 5 hr 30 min B). 6 hr C). 5 hr D). 4 hr 30 min
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18

Ans D).
A). B). C). Correct Answer: B

Q.19 A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance of 6 km at the same
speed?
Ans A). 11 minutes B). 12 minutes C). 9 minutes D). 10 minutes
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 52 B). 53 C). 51 D). 50
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘nothing to hide’ is written as ‘tg mk sa’ and ‘hide and seek’ is writtenas ‘mk wd lq’. How will
‘hide’ be written in that language?
Ans A). tg B). mk C). wd D). lq
Correct Answer: B

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16, 80

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22, 110
Ans A). 15, 20 B). 17, 32 C). 25, 125 D). 21, 33

Q.3
ap Correct Answer: C

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
at
pattern.
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B y
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Ans

B). C).
A).

Correct Answer: C
D).

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Q.4

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.5 AE10 is related to CG20 in a certain way. In the same way, KO20 is related to MQ30. To which of the following is CG30
related, following the same logic?
Ans A). EF40 B). EI45 C). GI45 D). EI40
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 A, B, C, P, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Y sits third
to the left of A. B sits second to the left of C. Z sits to the immediate left of B. P sits third to the left of Z. A is not an
immediate neighbour of C. Who sits third to the left of Y?
Ans A). X B). B C). Y D). Z
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are

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interchanged?
12 ÷ 3 – 8 + 16 × 4 = ?
Ans A). 48 B). 44 C). 40
ap D). 42
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AYF, FUI, KQL, PMO, ?
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Ans A). VIQ B). VIR C). UJR D). UIR

Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
ag
G
B y

Ans
hs

Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

Q.11 DKNF is related to YFIA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QYCR is related to LTXM.
To which of the following is PEVM related, following the same logic?
Ans A). KZQH B). KZPG C). IYPG D). IYQH
Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All kurtas are sarees.
All sarees are blouse.

Conclusions:
(I) All kurtas are blouse.
(II) No blouse is a saree.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow B). Only conclusion II follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follow D). Only conclusion I follows

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BEST’ is coded as ‘4982’ and ‘STEM’ is coded as ‘6489’. What is the code for ‘B’ in that
language?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 6 D). 8
Correct Answer: A

Statements: All planets are stars. All stars are galaxies.

Conclusion (I): All stars are planets.
Conclusion (II): All planets are galaxies.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘HAVE’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘3961’.What is the code for ‘V’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 3 B). 6 C). 1
ap D). 4
Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 Five girls P, Q, R, S and T sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only one
girl sits between S and T. P sits to the immediate left of R. P is not an immediate neighbour of S.
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Who sits third to the right of T?

Ans A). P B). R C). Q D). S
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
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(24 + 14− 6) ÷ 2 + 18 × 3 − 20 = 40
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
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Ans A). 20 and 14 B). 2 and 3 C). 20 and 24 D). 14 and 18

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.18 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23, ?, 89, 177, 353, 705
hs

Ans A). 45 B). 47 C). 49 D). 42

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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Q.20 122 is related to 145 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 37 is related to 50. To which of the following is 82
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 –
Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc.. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 98 B). 89 C). 101 D). 96
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is known for his/her books ‘The Algebra of Infinite Justice’, ‘Kashmir: The Case for Freedom’ and
‘Capitalism: A Ghost Story’?
Ans A). Jhumpa Lahiri B). Salman Rushdie C). Arundhati Roy D). Amitav Ghosh
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Few renowned artists of __________ dance style in India are Roshan Kumari, Shovana Narayan, Maya Rao and Kumudini
Lakhia.
Ans A). Chhau B). Manipuri C). Odissi D). Kathak
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Moti Masjid in Agra fort was constructed by which of the following Mughal Emperors?
Ans A). Aurangzeb B). Jahangir C). Akbar D). Shahjahan
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 To get relief from constipation, which of the following is prescribed to be eaten in large amount?
Ans A). Protein B). Meat C). Fish D). Fibre

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 Who among the following was the top run-scorer for India at the 1983 Cricket World Cup final with 38 runs?
Ans A). Kapil Dev B). Mohinder Amarnath C). Sandeep Patil
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D). Krishnamachari Srikkanth
Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 Where was the Intercontinental Football Cup 2023 organised?
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Ans A). Chandigarh B). Bhubaneswar C). Jalpaiguri D). Dispur

Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 In 1974, classical singer Naina Devi was awarded the Padma Shri for her contribution to which of the following singing
styles?
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Ans A). Thumri B). Tappa C). Kajari D). Dadra

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.8 What is the chemical formula for the compound commonly known as 'laughing gas'?
Ans A). NO B). N2O3 C). N2O D). NO2
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Correct Answer: C
B

Q.9 In which of the following religions was the agriculture prohibited for its followers?
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Ans A). Buddhism B). Vaishnavism C). Shaivism D). Jainism

Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), which state has the highest proportion of
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multidimensionally poor people (Headcount Ratio)?

Ans A). Rajasthan B). Bihar C). Odisha D). Jharkhand
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian Arms Act, 1878, was passed?
Ans A). Lord Curzon B). Lord Ripon C). Lord Dufferin D). Lord Lytton
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 According to Economic Survey 2023-24, which of the following states is the largest wheat producing state of India?
Ans A). Assam B). Uttar Pradesh C). West Bengal D). Bihar
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which Article deals with the provisions in case of failure of the constitutional machinery in the State?
Ans A). Article 356 B). Article 448 C). Article 395 D). Article 342
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 The Indian Constitution has adopted the parliamentary form of Government from ___________.
Ans A). USA B). Russia C). Britain D). France
Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 According to average rainfall in India, the Ladakh Union Territory is located in ___________.
Ans A). areas of inadequate rainfall B). areas of low rainfall C). areas of high rainfall D). areas of medium rainfall
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Due to the popularity of Indian clothes in Britain, a law was passed to ban Indian clothes. Which of the following was that
law?
Ans A). Muslin act B). Calso act C). Textile act D). Calico Act
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in teenagers. Here body weight:

Ans A). does not change B). increases slightly C). loses drastically D). increases drastically
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Carbon dioxide plays a vital role in changing the earth's climate, leading to a critical condition known
as ________.
Ans A). Temperature Convection B). Ozone Depletion C). Thermal Conduction D). Greenhouse Effect
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 ‘Navroz’ is celebrated as the new year by which of the following communities?
Ans A). Christian B). Buddhist C). Parsi D). Sikh
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Odissi Guru, ________, received the first Utkal Pratibha Samman 2023 at Bhubaneswar.
Ans A). Ratikant Mohapatra B). Hema Rajagopalan C). Vidhya Subramanian D). Sailaja
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Which of the followings is NOT one of the government accounts of India?
Ans A). Public Accounts of India B). Consolidated Funds of India C). General Provident Fund D). Contingency Fund of India
Correct Answer: C

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Q.22 To mark the 75 years of Indo-Lanka Diplomatic Relations, External Affairs Minister Jaishankar inaugurated the 'Geoffrey
Bawa: It is Essential To be There' Exhibition in March 2023. Who was Geoffrey Bawa?
Ans A). Sri Lankan Architect B). Indian Poet C). Sri Lankan Poet
ap D). Indian Architect
Correct Answer: A
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Q.23 Based on the Tendulkar committee, the National poverty line was defined as which of the following?
i. ₹816 per capita per month for rural areas
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ii. ₹1,000 per capita per month for urban areas.

Ans A). Only ii is correct B). Both i and ii are correct C). Both i and ii are incorrect D). Only i is correct
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Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Amer Fort was built with red sandstone and white marble by which ruler in the 16th century?
ag

Ans A). Raja Jai Singh B). Raja Udai Singh C). Raja Amar Singh D). Raja Man Singh I
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.25 In 2023, Congress MP Shashi Tharoor has been named as the chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on
y

_______________.
B

Ans A). Chemicals and Fertilisers B). Housing and Urban Affairs C). Finance and Health D). External Affairs
Correct Answer: A
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The comedian's jokes were so funny that the audience was laughing uncontrollably.
Ans A). on the ball B). as easy as pie C). in stitches D). in bits and pieces
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Hollow
Ans A). Crafty B). Spurious C). Worthwhile D). Arched
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). apparently B). committee C). foreign D). interupt
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Parallel B). Mediterranean C). Miscellaneous D). Peculliar

Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Personally, Ramesh was ____________ to his villagers than his elder brother.
Ans A). most helpful B). more helpful C). helped D). helpfuller
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Kiara was born in India but she went to ______ university in ________ United Kingdom.
Ans A). a; No article required B). the; No article required C). No article required; the D). a; the
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

My son, who is a cricketer too, is a M.A. from Delhi University.

Ans A). from Delhi University B). is a M.A. C). a cricketer too D). My son, who is
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Until B). Weired C). Vacuum D). Separate
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

Jack probably/ strained his back/ as the box was/ too heavier.
Ans A). as the box was B). strained his back C). too heavier. D). Jack probably
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

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Inanimate
Ans A). Cartoon B). Lifeless C). Inhumane D). Imitate
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

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Knuckle down
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Ans A). To crush someone to the extent that they cannot get up B). To start working or studying hard C). To engage in street fighting
D). To make others do their share of hard work using power
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Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Plain’ from the given sentence.
ag

Mr. Das believes and follows the principle of simple living and high thinking.
G

Ans A). Simple B). High C). principle D). believes

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
B

Because the politician's speech was high-flown and pretentious, it gained popularity.
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Ans A). bombastic B). austere C). schematising D). mnemonic

Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
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A person who eats too much

Ans A). Fatalist B). Sycophant C). Misogamist D). Glutton
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Exclusion of someone from a common group harms the human society.
Ans A). Prohibition B). Submission C). Admission D). Inclination
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who performs daring gymnastic feats

Ans A). Addict B). Acrobat C). Adonis D). Advocate
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

The gift of the gab

Ans A). Just at the last moment B). Life full of quarrels C). Impossible D). The ability to speak easily and confidently
Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
She forbade / him not / to enter that / room.
Ans A). she forbade B). to enter that C). him not D). room.
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

As technology evolves, consumers increasingly _______________________ products with enhanced features and greater
efficiency.

Ans A). demand B). might demand C). has demanded D). were demanding
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

There are so many flies on the food.
Ans A). To hover up in the sky B). Various types of bacteria C). To move from one place to another D). Insects with wings
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
money, for we do not live (3)________ money but on things that money (4)________ buy; ‘goods’ such as food and clothing and
‘services’ such as transport and entertainment. A country’s capacity to produce wealth depends upon many factors, most of which
have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

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Ans A). person B). person’s C). persons’ D). per son
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
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money, for we do not live (3)________ money but on things that money (4)________ buy; ‘goods’ such as food and clothing and
‘services’ such as transport and entertainment. A country’s capacity to produce wealth depends upon many factors, most of which
have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
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other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 22
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Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

Ans A). depended B). depends C). depending D). dependent

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
at

have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). into B). by C). in D). on
Correct Answer: D

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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). ought B). can C). must D). should
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). over B). upon C). with D). in
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Akash, Ajay, Sonia, Anju and Rohit are in a group. The average marks scored by their group is 27. Akash left the group and
now the average of the remaining students is 24. How many marks did Akash score?
Ans A). 32 B). 39 C). 15 D). 35
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The average age of a family consisting of parents and a child five years ago was 27 years. Three years ago, the average age
of parents was 41. The child was born ______ years ago.

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Ans A). 16 B). 4 C). 8 D). 2

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Correct Answer: C

Q.3
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Ans A). 16(R + L) : 9L B). 9(R + L) : 16L C). 16L : 9(R + L) D). 9L : 16(R + L)
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Correct Answer: D

Q.4 If 40% of A is equal to 64% of B, then what will be A : B?

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.5 How much sugar at ₹68/kg should be added to 20 kg of tea worth ₹440/kg so that the mixture be worth ₹130/kg?
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Ans A). 100 kg B). 120 kg C). 80 kg D). 110 kg

Correct Answer: A
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Q.6
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Ans A). 12 cm B). 17 cm C). 21 cm D). 15 cm

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Radha walks to her office 5 km away from home. In the morning, she covers the distance in 1 hour whereas, while returning
home in the evening, she takes 15 more minutes to cover the same distance. Find her average speed (in km/h) during the
two-way journey.
Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B). C). D).

Q.8 A shopkeeper buys two varieties of sugar at ₹120 and ₹80 per kg, respectively, and mixes them in the ratio 2 : 3. He then
sets the marked price of each kg of the blended sugar at 50% above the cost he incurred per kg of the same, and then sold it
after offering a 25% discount on the marked price. At what price (in ₹) did the shopkeeper sell each kg of the blended sugar?
Ans A). 144 B). 114 C). 108 D). 120
Correct Answer: C

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Q.9 The bar graph given below represents the number of students(in thousands), who opted three different specialization during
four given years in a University.

The total number of students in the university in 2021 was 1,60,000; find the percentage of the students who opted for the
given three subjects.
Ans A). 47.35% B). 73.45% C). 45.73% D). 43.75%
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The diameter of a cylinder is equal to its height. If the height of the cylinder is 14 cm, find the total surface area of the

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cylinder.

Ans A). B). C). ap D).

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11
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Ans A). English B). Mathematics C). Science D). Hindi

Correct Answer: B

Q.12 If a boatman can row upstream at 10 km/h and downstream at 12 km/h, then find the ratio of the speed of the boat in still
water and the speed of the current.
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Find the simple interest on ₹36,000 at an annual rate of 22% over an 8 month period.
Ans A). ₹5,270 B). ₹5,290 C). ₹5,275 D). ₹5,280
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 7. Their L.C.M. is 126. Find the sum of the numbers.
Ans A). 60 B). 90 C). 64 D). 69
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 540 B). 580 C). 480 D). 500
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The average weight of a family of 8 members is 56 kg. The grandfather and the grandmother came to visit the family. Now,
the average weight of 10 members of the family is 64 kg. Find the average weight (in kg) of the grandparents.
Ans A). 92 B). 94 C). 96 D). 90
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 750 B). 500 C). 1000 D). 250
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 52.2 B). 51.2 C). 49.2 D). 50.2
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 18% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).

Q.20 Find the selling price of an article (in ₹) if the cost price is ₹4,500 and gain is 5%.

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Ans A). 4,725 B). 5,527 C). 5,175 D). 4,657

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Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 17, 41)

(3, 20, 32)

Ans A). (9, 6, 40) B). (23, 4, 96) C). (7, 16, 14) D). (12, 15, 53)
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting second to the right of B. Only two people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E. G
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is an immediate neighbour of E. A is sitting second to the left of C. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

What is the position of F with respect to G?
Ans A). Third to the right B). Second to the right C). Fourth to the left D). Third to the left
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 425 is related to 85 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 265 is related to 53. To which of the following is 655
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 132 B). 131 C). 136 D). 130
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘PINK’ is coded as 15 and ‘PAINT’ is coded as 24. How will ‘WILDNESS’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 63 B). 52 C). 48 D). 51
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8796, 4392, 1092, 176, ?, −4.4

Ans A). 16 B). 22 C). 38 D). 11.6
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.8 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to

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be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
No motor is a yak.
Some yaks are wipes. ap
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Conclusions:
(I) No wipe is a yak.
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(II) Some wipes are yaks.

Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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D). Only conclusion (I) follows

Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
Statements:
I. All strawberries are fruits.
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II. Some berries are strawberries.

Conclusions:
I. All berries are fruits.
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II. Some fruits are strawberries.

III. No berry is a fruit.
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Ans A). Only conclusion III follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Both conclusions II and III follow. D). Either conclusion I or III follows.
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Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘FOAM’ is coded as ‘9618’ and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘4536’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans A). 4 B). 5 C). 3 D). 6
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
60 + 9 ÷ 63 − 72 × 12 = ?
Ans A). −501 B). −503 C). −502 D). −504
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). U is sitting second to the right of S. Q is sitting third to the left of U. R is sitting fifth to the right of P. T is sitting third
to the left of V. What is the position of S with respect to V?
Ans A). To the immediate left B). Second to the left C). Third to the right
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
ZWT, WUQ, TSN, QQK, ?
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Ans A). MOH B). NOH C). MOG D). NOQ

Correct Answer: B
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Q.15
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Ans
Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

Q.16 EO 19 is related to AK 13 in a certain way. In the same way, UD 17 is related to QZ 11. To which of the following is VH 23
related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RD 18 B). RD 17 C). RC 17 D). QC 17
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
8 − 42 + 104 ÷ 13 × 4 = 18
Ans A). + and × B). ÷ and − C). − and × D). − and +
Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘RISK’ is coded as ‘2369’ and ‘CRAP’ is coded as ‘1876’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 7 B). 6 C). 9 D). 8
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 KQNT is related to QWTZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IOLR is related to
OURX. To which of the following is DJGM related, following the same logic?
Ans A). PJMS B). JPSM C). JPMS D). PJSM
Correct Answer: C

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which property of an element is inversely related to its ionisation energy?

Ans A). Electronegativity B). Atomic mass C). Atomic radius
ap D). Electron affinity
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 According to Census 2011 of India, what was the percentage of Christian communities of the total population in India?
Ans A). 0.4% B). 1.7% C). 0.7% D). 2.3%
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 In which year did the Government of India pass the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
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Ans A). 2003 B). 1999 C). 2005 D). 2001

Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Find the odd one out.

Vacuoles, Nucleus, Ribosomes, Lysosomes
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Ans A). Ribosomes B). Nucleus C). Vacuoles D). Lysosomes

Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 What is the main objective of zero-based budgeting?

Ans A). To assess the effectiveness of each programme and activity with the output B). Establishing a relationship between inputs and outputs
C). Examining the objectives for which funds are provided D). Re-evaluation of all the activities every year when budget provisions are made
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Correct Answer: D

Q.6 What is the maximum amount of home loan the eligible beneficiaries can get under the ‘Mo Ghara’ scheme launched by the
Government of Odisha in May 2023?
Ans A). Upto ₹2 lakh B). Upto ₹5.5 lakh C). Upto ₹3 lakh D). Upto ₹4 lakh
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is taken from the USA's constitution?
Ans A). Removal of Supreme Court Judges B). Parliamentary Privileges C). Prerogative Writs D). Cabinet System
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The layer made up of unconsolidated rock, dust, soil, etc. that is deposited on a bed rock surface like a blanket is known as:
Ans A). Talus B). Regolith C). Scree D). Protolith
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 The famous autobiography ‘Lessons life taught me unknowingly’ is related to:
Ans A). Jhulan Goswami B). Anupam Kher C). Sharad Pawar D). LK Advani
Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 In December 2022, the Parliament passed the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022. This bill aims to make use of
_____.
Ans A). non-fossil fuels B). tungsten filament bulbs in houses C). subsidy on petrol vehicles D). electric vehicles
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Which of the following places in India receive the highest rainfall?
Ans A). Patna B). Guwahati C). Mawsynram D). Imphal
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is credited with single-handedly popularising which musical instrument?
Ans A). Sarod B). Sitar C). Santoor D). Tabla
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Match the army officers of the Mauryan empire in column A with the respective salaries given to them in column B.

Ans A). a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii B). a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii C). a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i D). a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 In a Parliamentary system, who among the following is known as the head of the Government?
Ans A). Prime Minister B). Chief Minister C). Chief Justice D). President
Correct Answer: A

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Q.15 In the year 1946, a three-tiered confederation for transfer of power to India was proposed by the ________.
Ans A). Regulating Act B). Rowlatt Act C). Simon Commission D). Cabinet Mission
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Q.16 In which of the following states is the Alpasi Festival celebrated annually, where a holy bath of the deities in the sea is the
primary attraction?
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Ans A). Kerala B). Andhra Pradesh C). Karnataka D). Telangana
Correct Answer: A
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Q.17 India played its first test match cricket against which of the following countries?
Ans A). England B). West Indies C). Australia D). New Zealand
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT related to Macaulay?

Ans A). He considered Indian and Arab literature inferior to the Western literature. B). Macaulay was an orientalist scholar.
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C). He believed that India is an uncivilised country which needs to be taught the lessons of civilisation.
B

D). He strongly advocated giving English language education to Indians.

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 When was the National Digital Communications Policy launched in India?
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Ans A). 2015 B). 2020 C). 2016 D). 2018

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Pellagra is a deficiency disease that usually occurs due to lack of which of the following nutrients?
Ans A). Vitamin E B). Niacin C). Iodine D). Riboflavin
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 What monumental site in India houses Magan Niwas, Hriday Kunj and Vinoba-Mira Kutir?
Ans A). Sabarmati Ashram B). Ramchandra Mission C). Auroville D). Vinoba Ashram
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 The duration of bouts in each round of the International Boxing Association (AIBA Open Boxing) match for Elite and Youth
Men’s and Women’s Competitions should be __________.
Ans A). 5 minutes B). 2 minutes C). 3 minutes D). 4 minutes
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Who is a famous Kuchipudi Dancer to receive Padma Shri in 2001?

Ans A). Sobha Naidu B). Rekha Raju C). Mukti Mohan D). Padmini
Correct Answer: A

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Q.24 Who among the following rulers introduced the ‘jharokha darshan’ in the Mughal dynasty?
Ans A). Akbar B). Humayun C). Shahjahan D). Aurangzeb
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Pakhu Itu dance is performed by the Apatani tribe of which of the following states?
Ans A). Assam B). Himachal Pradesh C). Arunachal Pradesh D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

____ architect designed ____ modern office building and ____ traditional residential home, showcasing ____ blend of
contemporary and classic architectural styles.
Ans A). An; a; a; a B). A; a; an; a C). An; a; a; an D). An; a; an; a
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fast
Ans A). Barely B). Quick C). Tardy D). Languid
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The athlete's performance was __________, earning him a standing ovation.

Ans A). mediocre B). exceptional C). moderate D). average Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Flash' from the given sentence.

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My cousin Zara, who loves to explore outer space in her free time, once noticed or observed a disc-shaped object blinking

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in the sky.
Ans A). noticed B). observed C). explore D). blinking
Correct Answer: D

Q.5
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Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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I cannot call him directly as I have lost his support.
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Ans A). am out of favour with him B). am in my own light C). am quite at sea with him D). am in character
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Indian Government has launched the National Rural Livelihoods Mission, a _________ programme aimed at reducing
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rural poverty.
Ans A). controversial B). regressive C). flagship D). designer
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
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substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

Suman will be fired if she did not complete the delegated target set by her boss.
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Ans A). No substitution B). if she do not complete the delegated target C). if she had not complete the delegated target
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D). if she does not complete the delegated target

Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
(1) Malini’s family (2) doesn’t know (3) how she bears out (4) the work pressure.
Ans A). the work pressure. B). doesn’t know C). how she bears out D). Malini’s family
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
His skills in programming / are more superior than / most developers / in the company.
Ans A). are more superior than B). His skills in programming C). in the company D). most developers
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A short stay at a place.
Ans A). Xenophobe B). Embargo C). Topiary D). Sojourn
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
A famous economist / says that / the government should do more / for create enough jobs.
Ans A). says that B). for create enough jobs C). A famous economist D). the government should do more
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

Jack along with / his family visited / his aunt living / at America.
Ans A). his family visited B). Jack along with C). at America D). his aunt living
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Sycophant
Ans A). Arrogant B). Uppity C). Fawner D). Independent
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence and select its correct spelling from the given options.

The teacher assessed the student’s flyer for writing.

Ans A). flair B). flare C). fire D). friar
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was born during 16 November 1945.
Ans A). was born by 16 November 1945 B). was born on 16 November 1945 C). was born at 16 November 1945
D). was born in 16 November 1945
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The restaurent's atmosphere was pleasant and inviting.

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Ans A). inviting B). atmosphere C). pleasant D). restaurent's
Correct Answer: D

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Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Vacant
Ans A). Empty B). Brutal C). Full
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Mithya's remarkable generosity extended to everyone she knew.

Ans A). Perfection B). Cowardice C). Awkwardness D). Selfishness

Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Burn the midnight oil
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Ans A). To set things on fire B). To waste time C). To work late into the night D). To sleep early
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
I hope you will excuse me for doing what is only my duty, although it may appear ________.
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Ans A). impertiant B). impertaint C). impertinent D). impertinant

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

One day we saw Kala Nag. The monsoons had burst with all their fury, and it had rained in the night. The earth, which had lain
parched and dry under the withering heat of the summer sun, was teeming ____1___ life. In little pools, frogs croaked. The muddy
ground was littered with ____2___ worms, centipedes and velvety lady-birds. Grass ____3____ begun to show and the banana
leaves glistened bright and glossy green. The _____4___ had flooded Kala Nag’s hole. He sat in an open patch on the lawn. His
shiny black hood glistened in the sunlight. He was big, almost six feet in _____5____ and rounded and fleshy, as my wrist. “Looks like
a King Cobra. Let’s get him."

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). before B). in C). at D). with
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). crawling B). singing C). reading D). talking
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

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Ans A). was B). will C). had D). is

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Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

leaves glistened bright and glossy green. The _____4___ had flooded Kala Nag’s hole. He sat in an open patch on the lawn. His
shiny black hood glistened in the sunlight. He was big, almost six feet in _____5____ and rounded and fleshy, as my wrist. “Looks like
a King Cobra. Let’s get him."
ag

SubQuestion No : 24
G

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). rain B). clouds C). snow D). heat
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Comprehension:
hs

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at

One day we saw Kala Nag. The monsoons had burst with all their fury, and it had rained in the night. The earth, which had lain
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parched and dry under the withering heat of the summer sun, was teeming ____1___ life. In little pools, frogs croaked. The muddy
ground was littered with ____2___ worms, centipedes and velvety lady-birds. Grass ____3____ begun to show and the banana
leaves glistened bright and glossy green. The _____4___ had flooded Kala Nag’s hole. He sat in an open patch on the lawn. His
shiny black hood glistened in the sunlight. He was big, almost six feet in _____5____ and rounded and fleshy, as my wrist. “Looks like
a King Cobra. Let’s get him."

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). length B). weight C). looks D). circles
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The speed of a boat in still water is 8 km/h, while it takes 2 hours for the boat to cover a distance of 20 km downstream.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the stream?
Ans A). 2.5 B). 1.75 C). 2 D). 1.5
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 A dozen oranges cost ₹96, 2 dozen apples cost ₹240 and 4 pineapples costs ₹180. What is the average cost (in ₹) per piece?
Ans A). 12.6 B). 16.2 C). 19.2 D). 12.9

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 The cost of a raw material increased with equal percentage in two years. The price increased to ₹145.20 from ₹120. What is
the equal annual percentage increase?
Ans A). 10.5% B). 10% C). 11.5% ap D). 11%
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.4
Pr
an

Ans A). B).

C). D).
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.5 A rectangular sheet of length 28 cm and breadth 16 cm is folded to meet the edges so that it is made into a cylindrical pipe
in two possible ways – one along the length and the other along the breadth. The larger volume is how much percentage of
y

smaller volume?
B

Ans A). 165% B). 180% C). 185% D). 175%

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
at

Ans A). 280 B). 320 C). 360 D). 260

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.7 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 51.4 B). 50.4 C). 48.4 D). 49.4
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 A merchant gives 800 g instead of 1000 g to a customer. What is the merchant’s percentage profit?
Ans A). 15% B). 25% C). 20% D). 10%
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 A solution of phenyl and water is 28 litres, with phenyl and water in ratio 4 : 3. 21 litres phenyl-water solution which has
phenyl to water ratio as 2 : 1 is added to the 28 litres phenyl-water solution. Again 51 litres phenyl-water solution that has
phenyl to water ratio as 9 : 8 is added to this. What is ratio of water to phenyl in the final mixture?
Ans A). 57 : 43 B). 59 : 41 C). 41 : 59 D). 43 : 57
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 A specific amount of money is loaned out at a simple interest rate, resulting in ₹15,000 in 2 years and ₹20,000 in 4 years. The
rate percentage per annum is:
Ans A). 25% B). 20% C). 18% D). 15%
Correct Answer: A

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Q.11 A train is moving in from north to south direction. It overtakes Raj and Madhur who are walking in the same direction at the
rate of 2 km/h and 4 km/h in 9 sec and 10 sec, respectively. If the train is x metres long, find the value of x.
Ans A). 70 B). 50 C). 30 D). 90
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 The dimensions of a room are 1650 cm × 1350 cm × 900 cm. What should be the size of the longest tape with which the three
dimensions can be measured exactly?
Ans A). 250 cm B). 300 cm C). 200 cm D). 150 cm
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 For 8 innings, a cricketer has an average of 68 runs. In the ninth inning, he scores 220 runs. His average
score increased by (rounded off to the nearest whole number):
Ans A). 85 B). 23 C). 61 D). 17
Correct Answer: D

Q.14

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Si
ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G
B y

Ans A). Mechanical B). Electrical C). Civil D). Computer Science
Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.15
at
M

Ans A). Mumbai B). Delhi C). Patna D). Lucknow

Correct Answer: B

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Q.16 A conical tent is to accommodate 12 persons. Each person must have 5 m2 of the space on the ground and 20 m3 of air to
breathe. The height of the tent should be:
Ans A). 12 m B). 13 m C). 12.5 m D). 22 m
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1580 B). 1660 C). 1560 D). 1620
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Each of the two merchants sell an article for ₹1,000. If Merchant A computes his profit on the cost price, while Merchant B
computes his profit on the selling price, then they both end up making profits of 25%. By how much is the profit made by
Merchant B more than that of Merchant A?
Ans A). ₹45 B). ₹40 C). ₹35 D). ₹50
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 A shopkeeper bought 10 dozen eggs at the rate of ₹5 per egg. 12 eggs broke in transit. He sold the remaining eggs at the
rate of ₹6 per egg. Find his profit percentage.
Ans A). 10% B). 20% C). 15% D). 8%
Correct Answer: D

Q.20

Ans A). 19.404 B). 21.404 C). 20.500 D). 22.500

Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

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CVF, GTJ, KRN, ?, SNV

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Ans A). OPR B). ROQ C). OPS D). PRO
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 ap
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only 3 people sit between D and F when counted from the right of D. E and G are both immediate neighbours of A. B sits
at
immediately to the left of C. Only 1 person sits between B and G when counted from the right of G. What is the position of E
with respect to B?
Pr

Ans A). Second to the left B). Second to the right C). Third to the left D). Third to the right
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.3 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘×’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
16 – 66 + 6 × 26 ÷ 36 = ?
ag

Ans A). 166 B). 186 C). 204 D). 241

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
y

it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
B

statement(s).

Statements:
hs

All sharks are whales.

No whale is a dolphin.
at

Conclusions:
M

(I) No shark is a dolphin.

(II) No dolphin is a whale.

Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Both conclusions I and II follow. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: C

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1, 2, 5, 12, ?, 58, 121

Ans A). 20 B). 25 C). 15 D). 27
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 AB10 is related to CD29 in a certain way. In the same way, KL65 is related to MN84. To which of the following is UV25 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). ZX44 B). WX45 C). WX44 D). ZX45
Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

12 ÷ 2 × 6 – 11 + 12 = ?
Ans A). 6 B). 9 C). 5 D). 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 In a certain code language, 'DEVICE' is coded as ‘EDWHDD’ and 'DENIAL' is coded as ‘EDOHBK’. How will 'DEMAND' be
coded in the same language?
Ans A). EDNBMC B). EDNZOC C). EDLZMC D). EDNBOC
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 In a code language, 'RAM' is written as ‘Q14’ and ‘CAR’ is written as ‘B19’. How will 'MARK' be written in that language?
Ans A). L26 B). M29 C). M30 D). L30
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Si
Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
ap
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
at
Statements:
Pr

Some herbs are trees.

Some trees are plants.
an

Conclusions:
(I) Some herbs are plants.
(II) At least some trees are herbs.
ag

Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion II follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Only conclusion I follows
G

Correct Answer: B
y

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘3618’ and ‘ROAD’ is coded as ‘7462’.What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code
B

language?
hs

Ans A). 6 B). 1 C). 3 D). 8

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.13 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.
M

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

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Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.15 SK −1 is related to OO 3 in a certain way. In the same way, IA 2 is related to EE 6. To which of the following is EO 5 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). AS 9 B). AS 1 C). AS −1 D). AT 9
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Si
(29, 77)
(24, 62)
Ans A). (26, 88) B). (19, 47) C). (22, 86)
ap D). (31, 93)
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.17 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) . Only two
people sit between F and C when counted from the right of F. Only three people sit between B and G when counted from the
Pr

right of G. C sits to the immediate right of G. D sits to the immediate right of A.

Who sits fourth to the right of E?
an

Ans A). D B). G C). F D). A

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘can you swim’ is coded as ‘MQ TO LO’ and ‘He can drive’ is coded as ‘LO AB PQ’. How is ‘can’
coded in that code language?
G

Ans A). MQ B). AB C). TO D). LO

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.19 7 is related to 33 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 41. To which of the following is 14 related
following the same logic?
hs

into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
M

Ans A). 65 B). 67 C). 61 D). 56

Correct Answer: C

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Q.20

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was the founder of Indian Association in Bengal?
Ans A). Chittaranjan Das B). P Ananda Charlu C). Surendra Nath Banerjee D). Rash Behari Bose
Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 Usain Bolt shared the journey of his life in which of the following autobiographies?

Si
Ans A). Let Your Mind Run B). Faster Than Lightning C). Running for My Life D). Race of My Life
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 ap
According to Newland’s Law of Octaves, every eighth element has properties similar to those of the first element. Which of
at
the following elements has properties similar to those of N?
Ans A). P B). Al C). S D). B
Pr

Correct Answer: A

Q.4 ___________ is mainly celebrated by Maharashtrians as New Year's Day.

Ans A). Ugadi B). Pongal C). Gudi Padwa D). Bihu
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.5 Who among the following was sent by Akbar to lead the Mughal army in the Battle of Haldighati which was fought in 1576?
G

Ans A). Raja Man Singh B). Raja Todarmal C). Raja Maharana Pratap D). Raja Medini Rai
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.6 Which Fundamental Right guarantees protection of interests of the minorities in the matter of their language, script or
culture?
hs

Ans A). Right to Equality B). Cultural and Educational Rights C). Right to Freedom D). Right against Exploitation
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.7 Which state finished second in the first edition of the Khelo India Para Games?
M

Ans A). Haryana B). Madhya Pradesh C). Uttar Pradesh D). Rajasthan
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the odd one from the following saltwater lakes on the basis of their formation?
Ans A). Pulicat lake B). Kolleru lake C). Chilika lake D). Sambhar lake
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 If the tax rate increases with the taxable base, then this type of taxation is called:
Ans A). digressive B). progressive C). regressive D). proportional
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 As of February 2024, who among the following is the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Ans A). Jagat Prakash Nadda B). Dharmendra Pradhan C). Harivansh Narayan Singh D). Prakash Javadekar
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 In October 2023, Indrasena Reddy Nallu has been appointed the Governor of which of the following states in India?
Ans A). Goa B). Tripura C). Assam D). Kerala
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Vinod Mankara’s documentary 'Mohinyattathinte Amma' is based on which of the following world renowned Mohiniyattam
dancers?
Ans A). Jayaprabha Menon B). P Madhuri C). Sunanda Nair D). Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Identify the INCORRECT pair (State and Iron-ore producing region) from the following.
Ans A). Odisha - Badampahar B). Karnataka - Kudremukh C). Madhya Pradesh - Ratnagiri D). Chhattisgarh - Bailadila
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque was constructed in around 1197 AD by the sultan of which of the following dynasties of Delhi
Sultanate?
Ans A). Lodhi B). Mamluk C). Tughlaq D). Khalji
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 The microscopic channels, which traverse the cell walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and
communication between them is called:
Ans A). plasmodesmata B). ribosomes C). lysosomes D). desmosomes
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the INCORRECT statement.

Ans A). Functional segments of DNA are called genes.
B). The chromatin material gets organised into rod-shaped chromosomes only when the cell is about to divide.
C). Chromosomes are composed of DNA and carbohydrates.
D). DNA molecules contain the information necessary for constructing and organising cells.
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 According to the Census of India 2011, which states of India have population density more than 1000 persons per sq. km?
Ans A). Bihar and West Bengal B). Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra C). Kerala and Tamil Nadu D). Uttar Pradesh and Haryana

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Si
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Krishnarao Shankar Pandit belonged to which of the following music gharanas?
Ans A). Gwalior gharana B). Atrauli gharana C). Mewati gharana ap D). Agra gharana
Correct Answer: A
at
Pr

Q.19 Which executive system is present in India?

Ans A). Collegiate System B). Parliamentary System C). Both Parliamentary and Presidential System D). Presidential System
an

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.20 Which of the following is the National waterway no. 4 in India?

Ans A). Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal B). The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
G

C). Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry D). The Ganga River between Allahabad-Haldia
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.21 The Irani Cup is a first-class cricket competition played between the winner of the Ranji Trophy and which other team?
Ans A). India A B). Rest of India C). India B D). Board President's XI
hs

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.22 A 5% decrease in poverty by 2007 was one of main objectives of the ________ plan.
Ans A). Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-90) B). Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002) C). Fourth Five-Year Plan (1966-1974)
M

D). Tenth Year Plan (2002-2007)

Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Who among the following launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras?
Ans A). Sucheta Kriplani B). Lokmanya Tilak C). Annie Besant D). Rash Behari Bose
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Tax, known as bhaga, was levied on which of the following during Mahajanapada period of Ancient India?
Ans A). Tax on cultivators B). Tax on merchants C). Tax on artisans D). Tax on cattle breeders
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 In 2022, Arjun Singh Dhurve was honoured with the Padma Shri Award for his contribution in which of the following Indian
folk-dance forms?
Ans A). Baiga B). Laho C). Bihu D). Chhau
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans A). Conscious B). Celebrate C). Outburst D). Entertenment
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

jeopardy
Ans A). mighty B). safety C). strict D). silence
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Gracious
Ans A). Rude B). Mythical C). Keen D). Lonely
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The manager swiftly overtook him, ____________ effortlessly past the skinny Englishman, with a practiced ease.
Ans A). kindling B). dawdling C). sliding D). rendering
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

He is habituated to using words spoken with an unusual amount of venom when it comes to his in-laws.
Ans A). satire B). benevolence C). ambiguousness D). irony
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The success and achievements of a school mostly _________ on its experience and resourcefulness.

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Si
Ans A). credit B). achieve C). begin D). depend
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the following sentence.

The poet was able to compose the long poem in a tranquill atmosphere.
ap
at
Ans A). tranquil B). trankwil C). trancuel D). tranquel
Pr

Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
an

from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

He will be / waiting for me when / I reaches his home.

Ans A). No error B). He will be C). I reaches his home. D). waiting for me when
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

B y

All in the same boat

Ans A). When everyone is dealing with the same situation B). When everyone has to start all over again
hs

C). When a task can be accomplished together D). When everybody is travelling in the same vehicle
Correct Answer: A
at

Q.10 Select the most appropriate verb form to fill in the blank in the given sentence.
M

She ________ her keys on the kitchen counter.

Ans A). lays B). laid C). lying D). lain
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The new/ smartphone is/absolutely best than/ the latest model.
Ans A). The new B). smartphone is C). absolutely best than D). the latest model
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The brave and courageous soldiers / of our motherland / fell into the enemy / and won the battle.
Ans A). and won the battle B). fell into the enemy C). The brave and courageous soldiers D). of our motherland
Correct Answer: B

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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Whenever addressed, she comes ____ and performs her ____in a great way.
Ans A). forth, role B). fourth, roll C). fourth, role D). forth, roll
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.
Self-esteem is an important aspekt of one's self.
Ans A). aspet B). aspikt C). aspect D). aaspet
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

The keys were lies on the table.

Ans A). lying on the table B). No substitution required C). lay on the table D). lie on the table
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Manish has being applying / for colleges / ever since he passed / his entrance test in March.
Ans A). for colleges B). ever since he passed C). manish has being applying D). his entrance test in March
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Based on the situation in the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment.
There are several people who find themselves a dominating person in a group
Ans A). A bone of contention B). A man of his words C). Cock of the walk D). A white elephant
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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Si
The pencil has a tip made of _______.
Ans A). led B). lewd C). lead D). steal
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

ap
at
Jared deliberately set fire to a property and got arrested by the police.
Pr

Ans A). Arson B). Dystrophy C). Insomnia D). Dementia

Correct Answer: A
an

Q.20 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.
ag

The underground railway network, ‘The Tube’ in London is said to be __________ transport in London.
G

Ans A). expensive B). the most expensive C). the expensive D). more expensive
Correct Answer: B
y

Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.

He knew everyone on the island. Whenever his car stopped, half a dozen voices ____ 1 _____ shout out his name. Policemen,
at

with any _____ 3 ____ of Governmental red tape. On arrival, two of our cases containing linen and other things had been ______ 4
____ by the Customs on the curious ground that they were merchandise. So, when we moved out to the villa and the problem of bed
linen arose, Mother told Spiro ______ 5 _____ our cases in the Customs and asked for his advice.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). can B). should C). would D). could
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

He knew everyone on the island. Whenever his car stopped, half a dozen voices ____ 1 _____ shout out his name. Policemen,
agricultural labourers of low social status and priests waved and smiled ____ 2 ____ he passed; everyone greeted him as a brother.
They respected his honesty, and belligerence, and above all, they adored his typically Greek scorn and fearlessness when dealing
with any _____ 3 ____ of Governmental red tape. On arrival, two of our cases containing linen and other things had been ______ 4
____ by the Customs on the curious ground that they were merchandise. So, when we moved out to the villa and the problem of bed
linen arose, Mother told Spiro ______ 5 _____ our cases in the Customs and asked for his advice.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). nor B). so C). as D). thus
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

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Ans A). form B). forum C). from D). farm

Si
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

SubQuestion No : 24
G

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). contributed B). concealed C). confiscated D). collected
y

Correct Answer: C
B

Comprehension:
hs

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at

He knew everyone on the island. Whenever his car stopped, half a dozen voices ____ 1 _____ shout out his name. Policemen,
M

agricultural labourers of low social status and priests waved and smiled ____ 2 ____ he passed; everyone greeted him as a brother.
They respected his honesty, and belligerence, and above all, they adored his typically Greek scorn and fearlessness when dealing
with any _____ 3 ____ of Governmental red tape. On arrival, two of our cases containing linen and other things had been ______ 4
____ by the Customs on the curious ground that they were merchandise. So, when we moved out to the villa and the problem of bed
linen arose, Mother told Spiro ______ 5 _____ our cases in the Customs and asked for his advice.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). within B). about C). from D). behind
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight and thus gains 15%. For a kilogram he
uses a weight of ____ grams.
Ans A). 930.43 B). 830.43 C). 1130.43 D). 869.57
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 750 B). 710 C). 790 D). 690

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.3 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 51.8 B). 50.8 C). 49.8
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
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Ans A). 630 B). 670 C). 590 D). 570

Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 The data for the production of four products P, Q, R and S by four cities A, B, C and D is given in the table.
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Which product has the highest total production by all cities?

Ans A). P B). R C). Q D). S

Correct Answer: C
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Q.6

Ans A). B). D).

C). Correct Answer: A

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Q.7 A mixture contains 8 kg of tea costing ₹295per kilogram and 10 kg of tea costing₹250 per kilogram. The average price per

Ans A). 270

kilogram (in ₹) of the mixture is:
B). 259.60 C). 250.70
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 A solid cuboid with dimensions 2 m × 4 m × 10 m is melted to form small solid cubes of side 8 cm. How many such cubes
can be formed?
Ans A). 1,56,250 B). 1,60,000 C). 1,62,250 D). 1,58,250
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 If two numbers are 6.25% and 25% more than a third number, respectively, then the first number is how much per cent of the
second number?
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Ans A). 95% B). 85% C). 90% D). 80%

Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 A rectangular sheet of paper of length 10π cm and width 5 cm is rolled along its length (width of the sheet becomes the
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height of the cylinder) to form a cylinder. What would be the radius of the cylinder?
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Ans A). 10 cm B). 6 cm C). 5 cm D). 2.5 cm

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Find the value of 5 + 32 ÷ 2 + 6 × 2.5.

Ans A). 40 B). 36 C). 15 D). 34

Correct Answer: B

Q.12 In a school, the average salary of 12 teachers was ₹71,400. If the average salary of the teachers, principal and vice principal
was ₹89,500, then what was the average salary of the principal and vice principal (in ₹)?
Ans A). 1,76,800 B). 2,11,000 C). 1,98,100 D). 1,18,900
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 If 2744 identical small spheres are made out of a big sphere of radius 7 cm, then what is the surface area of each small
sphere?
Ans A). 2π cm2 B). 3π cm2 C). π cm2 D). 4π cm2 Correct Answer: C

Q.14 The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a hostel is 5 : 7. If 40% of boys and 50% of girls are getting scholarships for their
studies, what is the percentage of hostel students who are not getting any scholarships?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 Raman paid ₹18,656 for a mobile phone, after a single discount of 12%. If Raman is given successive discounts of 4% and
8%, then how much Raman would pay?
Ans A). ₹17,238.84 B). ₹13,728.84 C). ₹18,723.84 D). ₹17,283.84
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 68 and 91.
Ans A). 76 B). 77 C). 78 D). 79
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 The simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 23% per annum is ₹11,960 less than the simple interest on the same sum
for 8 years. Find the sum.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Two trains of lengths 125 m and 175 m respectively are running in the same direction at 40 km/h and 22 km/h respectively.
How much time will they take to pass each other completely?
Ans
A). B). C). Correct Answer: B
D).

Q.19 A boat can travel at a speed of 28 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, what is the average speed (in km/h)
of the boat if it travels 192 km downstream, stops there for one hour and then returns to the starting point?
Ans A). 25.6 B). 24.8 C). 36.5 D). 28.5
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 If the cost price of an article is 75% of its selling price, then the profit percent is:
Ans
A). D). Correct Answer: B

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B). C).

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving ap
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Q.1 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting
second to the left of B. F is sitting third to the left of D. B is sitting to the immediate right of E. A is sitting third to the left of
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E. A is sitting to the immediate right of G. What is the position of F with respect to E?

Ans A). Second to the left B). Immediate left C). Third to the right D). Immediate right
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘ train was late’ is coded as ‘ch px zt’ and ‘journey by train’ is coded as ‘fk zt bu’. How is ‘train’
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coded in the given language?

Ans A). zt B). ch C). bu D). px
G

Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
B
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.4 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

55 × 16 − 4 ÷7 + 3 = ?
Ans A). 28 B). 12 C). 38 D). 17
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘solve the puzzle’ is written as ‘sp di cy’ and ‘puzzle is tricky’ is coded as ‘qp vt di’. How is
‘puzzle’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). di
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sp C). cy
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Q.6

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 HLQC is related to KOTF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WTAN is related to
ZWDQ. To which of the following is FXCM related, following the same logic?
Ans A). GZFQ B). HZEO C). IAFP D). IAEO
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

97, 88, 85, 76, 73, ?, 61

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Ans A). 72 B). 64 C). 65 D). 70

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Correct Answer: B

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘GULF’ is coded as ‘7391’ and ‘FANS’ is coded as ‘2438’.What is the code for ‘F’ in the given code
language?
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Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 EJGL is related to INKP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KPMR is related to OTQV.
To which of the following is NSPU related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). RWTY B). RWYT C). WRYT D). WRTY

Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing towards the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
P is an immediate neighbour of both T and U.
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S is sitting second to the right of P.

Immediate neighbours of R are U and Q.
S is not an immediate neighbour of U.
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Who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?

Ans A). R B). V C). U D). S

Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
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Statements: All cocktails are mocktails.

Some cocktails are juices.
Conclusion (I): Some mocktails are juices.
Conclusion (II): Some juices are not cocktails.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Only conclusion I follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follow D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

36÷ 2 + 4× 8 −11× 3 + 28 = 49

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 36 and 28 B). 4 and 3 C). 2 and 4 D). 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

RVQ, OSN, LPK ,IMH, ?

Ans A). FJE B). EFJ C). EJF D). JEF
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
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A). B). C). D).
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 3 is related to 24 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 60. To which ofthe following is 6 related,
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
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performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
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Ans A). 216 B). 230 C). 210 D). 236

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
B

it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All carrots are onions.
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No onion is a tomato.
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Conclusions:
(I) No carrot is a tomato.
(II) All onions are carrots.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Both conclusions I and II follow. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(18, 3, 54)
(21, 4, 84)
Ans A). (4, 8, 39) B). (8, 7, 58) C). (14, 2, 28) D). (3, 11, 53)
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 If four resistances of 4 ohm each are connected in parallel, what will be their effective resistance?
Ans A). 4 ohm B). 1 ohm C). 10 ohm D). 16 ohm
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Bhavnath Mahadev fair is held every year in which of the following places?
Ans A). Jabalpur B). Chennai C). Agra D). Junagarh
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 As per the 2001 Census, what is the specific age, for a person to be called literate?
Ans A). 9 years B). 6 years C). 7 years D). 8 years
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 A section of an active fault that has produced earthquakes in the past but is now quiet and is believed that the fault segment
is capable of producing earthquake on some other basis is known as:
Ans A). Hypocenter B). Seismic Gap C). Epicenter D). Seismic Wave
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 When was the Wildlife Protection Act passed?

Ans A). 1972 B). 1955 C). 1980 D). 1951
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 In July 2023, Tribhuvaneshwar Saran Singh Deo was appointed as Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans A). West Bengal B). Jharkhand C). Chhattisgarh
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 The Mahananda River rising in the ________ is a tributary of Ganga.
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Ans A). Chota Nagpur plateau B). Darjeeling hills C). Kaimur hills D). Nanda Devi peak
Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Which of the following is a traditional game of India?

Ans A). Volleyball B). Kabaddi C). Basketball D). Football
Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 A group of natural substances with variable phenolic structures, which are found in fruits, vegetables, and grains is called:
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Ans A). Hopanoids B). Pectins C). Resins D). Flavonoids

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.10 The Moplah Uprising, an organised opposition of Muslim cultivators, occurred in which modern state of India?
Ans A). Punjab B). Kerala C). Tamil Nadu D). Bihar
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 What is the major purpose of the Salal Dam located on Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir?
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Ans A). Hydroelectricity B). Drinking C). Irrigation D). Navigation

Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Who amongst the following stated the Grameen model of microfinance?
Ans A). Prof. Abhijit Banerjee B). Prof. Muhammad Yunus C). Prof. Amartya Sen D). Dr. Manmohan Singh
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 In February 2023, there have been protests in Punjab to release a group of Sikh prisoners who have been in jail for more
than 30 years since militancy was wiped out in Punjab in the 1990s. What are these prisoners called?
Ans A). Bandi Singhs B). Babbar Bandis C). Khalsa Tigers D). Qaidi Sikhs
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Who is the author of the book called ‘Beneath the Surface: My Story’?
Ans A). Kobe Bright B). Michael Phelps C). Milkha Singh D). Tiger Woods
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 The state religion of Bangladesh is:

Ans A). Christianity B). Hinduism C). Buddhism D). Islam
Correct Answer: D

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Q.16 Which of the following was authored by Harisenacharya?
Ans A). Rajatarangini B). Brihatkatha Kosh C). Brihat Katha Manjari D). Lilavati
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Who among the following was ‘Senani’ in the Rig Vedic period?
Ans A). A war hero B). A tax officer C). A spy D). A priest
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Which among the following is considered the first experiment of Satyagraha by Gandhiji in India?
Ans A). Kheda B). Champaran C). Rowlatt Satyagraha D). Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Who became the first folk artist from India to walk the Cannes red carpet in 2022?
Ans A). Mame Khan B). Swaroop Khan C). Sartaj Khan D). Sarwar Khan
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Sonal Mansingh is a famous proponent of which of the following dance forms?
Ans A). Mohiniyattam B). Manipuri C). Odissi D). Kathak
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 The union list from the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of how many subjects as of May 2024?
Ans A). Ninety three B). Ninety five C). Ninety nine D). Hundred
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Anita Sharma, Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner, is an exponent of ________ dance form.
Ans A). Odissi B). Mohiniyattam C). Sattriya D). Kathakali
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 In weight lifting, when an athlete misses all three attempts in the snatch or the clean and jerk, failing to post a total, it is

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known as _________.

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Ans A). Bombing-out B). Take-off C). Delivery D). Attempt
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Which of the following statements about Viharas is/are correct?

a)Viharas consist of a verandas, cell and hall around the walls of the hall.
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b)Ajanta cave and Nashik cave are important parts of Vihara architecture.
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Ans A). Neither a nor b B). Both a and b C). Only b D). Only a
Correct Answer: B
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Q.25 Which of the following phyla contains Leech?

Ans A). Platyhelminthes B). Coelenterata C). Nematoda D). Annelida
Correct Answer: D
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
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He was so enraged at the article about him that he sued the newspaper.
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Ans A). Generated B). Determined C). Angered D). Enhanced

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Recognise the sentence with the correct transitive verb form of break.
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A. The cyclone broke the window.

B.The window broke.

C. The cyclone caused the breaking of window.
D.The cyclone caused the broken window.
Ans A). C B). A C). B D). D
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

BBC Media has shown exponenteal growth in their revenue this year.
Ans A). exponenteal B). revenue C). media D). year
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Leisure activities are activities that people ___________ in during their free time while they are not working.
Ans A). encourage B). engage C). evaluate D). exempt
Correct Answer: B

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Q.5 Select the option that has used the correct tense.
Ans A). By the time we arrive at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.
B). By the time we arrived at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.
C). By the time we arrives at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.
D). By the time we arriving at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.
Correct Answer: B

It is a common perception / that the rich sometimes / despise poor.

Ans A). No error B). that the rich sometimes C). despise poor. D). It is a common perception
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Searing
Ans A). Mocking B). Pressing C). Freezing D). Thrilling
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Prem is an excellent chess player. He is the _______ student of the class too.
Ans A). most intelligent B). intelligently C). intelligent D). more intelligent
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Boisterous

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Ans A). Noisy B). Benevolent C). Buoyant D). Quiet

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Correct Answer: D

Q.10
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Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The minister went to visit the monuments set up for people who were buried in other countries.
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Ans A). graves B). cemetery C). cenotaphs D). coffins
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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Sushil, who recently joined our school / was awarded the Gold Cup / as he worked hardly / throughout the year.
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Ans A). throughout the year. B). Sushil, who recently joined our school C). was awarded the Gold Cup D). as he worked hardly

Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
B y

His sudden resignation left the company in a very difficult situation and to have to make a hard decision as they scrambled
to find a replacement.
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Ans A). in the dark B). with a silver lining C). between a rock and a hard place D). on cloud nine
Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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The weather was absolutley perfect for the outdoor event.

Ans A). absolutely B). absoultely C). absoluttley D). absolutly
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

an open book
Ans A). someone who gives advice based on theory not practice B). a helpful person C). a person of whom her mother is extremely proud
D). a person or thing that is easy to learn about and understand
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Meticulous
Ans A). Persevering B). Exemplary C). Determined D). Regardless
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
I have never seen so beautiful a landscape than this one.
Ans A). I have never seen
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so beautiful
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landscape D). than this one
By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A post without any remuneration
Ans A). Illegible B). Bigot C). Effeminate D). Honorary
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Corroborate
Ans A). Suggest B). Support C). Contend D). Elaborate
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
Belonging or pertaining to an individual from birth
Ans A). Congregational B). Congenital C). Congruent D). Congenial
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Damaged B). Fantastic C). Expensive D). Forgetfull
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Though people are becoming health-conscious these days, (1)________ simple lifestyle habits they are prone to fatal diseases.
(2)________ a new study published in ‘The Journal of the American College of Cardiology’, (3)________ food more sparingly is linked
to a lower risk of heart disease, heart failure , and ischemic heart disease. A significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease, high
blood pressure, is demonstrated to be correlated (4)________ high sodium intake. As per the research, a person’s individual sodium
intake over time may be predicted by how (5)____ they salt their food. It is found that people who do not put a little additional salt to
their food very often had a much lower risk of heart disease event regardless of lifestyle factors and pre-existing disease.

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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). for B). because of C). because
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Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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to a lower risk of heart disease, heart failure , and ischemic heart disease. A significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease, high
blood pressure, is demonstrated to be correlated (4)________ high sodium intake. As per the research, a person’s individual sodium
intake over time may be predicted by how (5)____ they salt their food. It is found that people who do not put a little additional salt to
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their food very often had a much lower risk of heart disease event regardless of lifestyle factors and pre-existing disease.
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SubQuestion No : 22
B

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans A). According with B). Accordingly C). In according with D). According to
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Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). salt B). salted C). salting D). salt with
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). in B). of C). with D). for
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). soundly B). hefty C). burly D). frequently

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Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The LCM of 140,180 and 240 is:

Ans A). 1008 B). 5000 C). 5040 D). 1680
Correct Answer: C

Q.2

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Ans A). 1980 cm3 B). 27,900 cm3 C). 19,800 cm3 D). 29,700 cm3 Correct Answer: D

Q.3
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A sum of money invested at simple interest becomes 5 times in 12 years. How many times will it become in 27 years?
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Ans A). 12 B). 9 C). 10 D). 11
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 If x : 6 :: 6 : y and x : y :: y : 6, then which of the options below gives the correct values of x and y in that order?
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Ans A). 6 and 6 B). 12 and 12 C). 6 and 12 D). 12 and 6

Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph given below shows the percentage of marks obtained by four students A, B, C and D in Maths, Science and
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English.
B y
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If the full marks in Maths are 150, Science are 100 and English are 140, then find the total marks obtained by Student B in
Maths and Student A in English.
Ans A). 257 B). 247 C). 275 D). 250
Correct Answer: B

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Q.6

Ans A). 286 B). 283 C). 289 D). 280

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Two stations A and B are 1800 km apart. A train starts from A towards B at 7 A.M. at a speed of 100 km/h. Another train starts
from B towards A at 8 A.M. on the same day at a speed of 325 km/h. At what time will they cross each other?
Ans A). 12 P.M. B). 11 A.M. C). 3 P.M. D). 9 A.M.
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The average weight of 20 boys in a class is 65 kg and that of remaining 35 boys is 32 kg. What is the average weight of all
the boys in the class?
Ans A). 56 kg B). 44 kg C). 46 kg D). 48 kg
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 A policeman sees a thief at a distance of 100 m and starts chasing him at a speed of 6 m/s while the thief runs at a speed of
5 m/s. What is the distance (in m) covered by the thief when he is caught?
Ans A). 500 B). 300 C). 600 D). 400
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Out of 8 lecturers of a college, one lecturer retires and at his place a new lecturer of age 32 years joins. As a result, the
average age of lecturers is reduced by 4 years. The age of the retired lecturer is:
Ans A). 64 years B). 63 years C). 65 years D). 62 years
Correct Answer: A

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Q.11 The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the area of the field is 3456 m2, then the cost of fencing

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the field at ₹3.50 per metre is:
Ans A). Rs. 240 B). Rs. 420 C). Rs. 480 D). Rs. 840
Correct Answer: D

Q.12
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By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
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off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?
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Ans A). 8.91 B). 9.91 C). 6.91 D). 7.91

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of 15 articles. The profit percentage in the transaction is:
Ans B). C). D). Correct Answer: A
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A).
G

Q.14 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
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Ans A). 1500 B). 1000 C). 500 D). 2000

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.15 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
hs

Ans A). 4000 B). 3000 C). 1000 D). 2000

Correct Answer: D
at
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Q.16 In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹60/kg and ₹80/kg, respectively, so that, the average cost of the
mixture is ₹75/kg?
Ans A). 3 : 4 B). 2 : 3 C). 1 : 3 D). 1 : 2
Correct Answer: C

Q.17
A tradesman marks his goods 30% more than the cost price. If he allows a discount of , then his gain percentage is:

Ans B). D).

A). C). Correct Answer: C

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Q.18

Ans A). 10% B). 20% C). 15% D). 25%

Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 Due to a fault in the voting machine, the invalid votes are counted in votes of the candidate B, who gets 5 times the invalid
votes. A gets the votes 8 times the invalid votes and wins the election by 28. What is the total number of votes polled?
Ans A). 168 B). 184 C). 196 ap D). 176
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 The average of five numbers, where the difference between any two consecutive numbers is 5, is 215. Find the least number.
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Ans A). 225 B). 215 C). 220 D). 205

Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
G
B y
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C
M

Q.2 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All bars are clubs.
Some bars are gyms.

Conclusions:
(I) Some clubs are gyms.
(II) Some gyms are not bars.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.3 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
18 ÷ 6 + 2 − 3 × 4 = ?
Ans A). 38 B). 32 C). 26 D). 23
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘HEAP’ is coded as ‘7395’ and ‘PEAS’ is coded as ‘9571’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 7 B). 5 C). 1 D). 9
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
pattern.

Ans

A). B).
C).

Correct Answer: A

D).

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Q.6
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Six teachers are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C is an immediate
neighbour of both A and F. E is sitting second to the left of F. D is sitting fourth to the left of C. A is sitting second to the right
of F. Which of the following statements is true?
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Ans A). D is to the immediate right of E. B). F and D are immediate neighbours. C). B is immediate right of F. D). B is immediate left of F.
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 21 is related to 73 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 28 is related to 94. To which ofthe following is 35
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
G

Ans A). 115 B). 105 C). 101 D). 110

Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘INTO’ is coded as ‘2684’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘3567’.What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code
B

language?
hs

Ans A). 3 B). 5 C). 6 D). 4

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 WY 13 is related to UW 16 in a certain way. In the same way, SU 19 is related to QS 22. To which of the following is OQ 17
related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). MO 20 B). MO 19 C). NM 19 D). MN 20

Correct Answer: A

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘TIME’ is coded as 61 and ‘POND’ is coded as 59. How will ‘BLUE’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 68 B). 69 C). 71 D). 72
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘BALE’ is coded as ‘2496’ and ‘LORD’ is coded as ‘3759’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 9 B). 3 C). 2 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
2 ÷ 8 − 25 × 5 + 9 = ?
Ans A). 6 B). 30 C). 27 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ESG, GTK, IUO, KVS, ?

Ans A). MWW B). MWX C). NWX D). NWW
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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A. Some guns are swords.

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B. All swords are onions.
Conclusions:
I. All guns are onions.
II. Some guns are swords.
Ans A). None of the conclusions follow. B). Both the conclusions follow.
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C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting to the immediate right of B. E is sitting third to the left of B. D is the immediate neighbour of E and F. A is
an

sitting to the immediate right of C.

What is the position of G with respect to B?

Ans A). Second to the left B). Second to the right C). Third to the right D). To the immediate left
G

Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
B
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at
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Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.18 18 is related to 60 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 140. To which ofthe following is 33
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans A). 110 B). 95 C). 130 D). 80
Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, ?, 7, 10, 8, 11
Ans A). 5 B). 8 C). 12 D). 9
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 BI 2 is related to EF 5 in a certain way. In the same way, KR 8 is related to NO 11. To which of the following is TI 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). WG 6 B). WF 6 C). WF 8 D). WG 8
Correct Answer: B

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Chapter of Part VI of the Indian Constitution is concerned with the State Legislatures?
Ans A). Chapter II B). Chapter III C). Chapter V D). Chapter VII
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Which of the following dance forms is inspired by the sculptures of the ancient temple of Chidambaram?
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kuchipudi C). Sattriya D). Manipuri
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 As per Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of urban population in India?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Tamil Nadu C). Mizoram D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 In Jain Basti temple of Karnataka, over the garbhagriha is raised a __________ storied nirandhara vimana
with a square griva and sikhara.

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Ans A). eleven B). five C). three D). seven

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Correct Answer: B

Q.5
B). Govardhan Puja C). Bhai Dooj ap
With which of the following festivals does the five-day long festival of Diwali end?
Ans A). Narak Chaturdashi D). Dhanteras
Correct Answer: C
at
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Q.6 In 1974, MS Subbulakshmi became the first Indian musician to win _____________.
Ans A). Grammy Award B). Right Livelihood Award C). Ramon Magsaysay Award D). Pulitzer Prize Award
Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Seleucus Nicator was a contemporary of ______________.

Ans A). Chanakya B). Kanishka C). Ashoka D). Kalashoka

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.8 With which of the following Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution was 11th Fundamental Duty added?
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Ans A). 42nd B). 86th C). 70th D). 53rd Correct Answer: B
B

Q.9 In November 2023, who was re-appointed as the Chairman of the Armed Forces Tribunal?
hs

Ans A). Justice Rajendra Menon B). Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde C). Justice RF Nariman D). Justice NV Ramana
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Neville Steven Joseph D'Souza is associated with which game?

Ans A). Football B). Kabaddi C). Wrestling D). Tennis
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Which of the two following countries were formed as a result of the partition of India?
Ans A). India and Sri Lanka B). India and Pakistan C). India and Bangladesh D). India and Nepal
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 'Straight from the Heart' is an autobiography of the famous cricketer ______________.
Ans A). Sunil Gavaskar B). Madan Lal C). Kapil Dev D). Mohinder Amarnath
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 What is the stump height of a cricket wicket as per international standards?
Ans A). 28 inches B). 29 inches C). 30 inches D). 31 inches
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 The Permanent Settlement introduced by Cornwallis was NOT prevalent in which of the following regions of India?
Ans A). Bengal B). Bihar C). Odisha D). Punjab
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 According to the advancing of monsoon in India, which of the following cities receives rainfall after 15 June every year?
Ans A). Jaipur B). Imphal C). Bengaluru D). Hyderabad
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which of the following sultans of Delhi set up three different markets for different commodities in Delhi?
Ans A). Ghiyasuddin Balban B). Sikandar Lodi C). Muhammad Bin Tughlaq D). Alauddin Khalji
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Who among the following dancers won the prestigious Padma Shree award in the year 2021, for her contribution to folk
dance?
Ans A). Matha B Manjamma Jogathi B). Amubi Singh C). Kumudini Lakhia D). Teejan Bai
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Which state government of India launched the 'Swanirbhar Nari' aimed at making the weavers of the state self-reliant?
Ans A). Bihar B). Chhattisgarh C). Jharkhand D). Assam
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Which Article of the Constitution of India governs the Population Census?
Ans A). Article 179 B). Article 246 C). Article 233 D). Article 128
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Bhakra Dam is built on which of the following rivers?

Ans A). Satluj B). Chenab C). Ravi D). Beas
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 The zone where the earthquake waves are not observed is called:
Ans A). Benthic Zone B). Hypocentre C). Shadow Zone D). Epicentre
Correct Answer: C

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Q.22 Identify the primary characteristic of the Cooperative Development Foundation (CDF) model of SHGs regarding its focus on

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membership from the following.
Ans A). It exclusively targets poor members. B). It excludes women from membership. C). It includes both poor and non-poor members.
D). It exclusively targets non-poor members.
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Q.23 The number of organisms in the population divided by a regular unit of area or volume is called _______.
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Ans A). death rate B). population size C). population density D). birth rate
Correct Answer: C
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Q.24 Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.

Ans A). Boiling is a bulk phenomenon. B). Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena. C). Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
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D). Evaporation causes cooling.

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.25 The iodine value of oil and fat indicates:

Ans A). degree of unsaturation B). degree of saturation C). number of iodine atoms present D). number of C atoms present
B

Correct Answer: A
hs

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Identify the spelling error in the given sentence.

The restaurant offered a diverse menu with a wide renge of culinary options.
Ans A). restaurant B). diverse C). options D). renge
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The charismatic leader's speeches were known for their __________ impact on motivating people to take positive actions.
Ans A). frugal B). profound C). doldrums D). impenitence
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Kumbh Mela (the festival of the sacred Pitcher) is the world's biggest peaceful gathering of pilgrims, with participants
bathing or taking the dip in the _____ river.
Ans A). depth B). profane C). sacred D). shallow
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the option that rectifies the given sentence.

She runs very quick in marathons.
Ans A). She run very quick in marathons. B). She runs very quickly in marathons. C). She run much quickly in marathons.
D). She runs much quickly in marathons.
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.5 Which of the following sentences contains an error in the use of a phrasal verb?
Ans A). The old lady broke down when she heard her son lost his job. B). Try your level best before you decide to give up.
C). Make over the bed daily. It is a good habit. D). Clean out the backyard this weekend.
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in present perfect continuous tense form
Rama is working on this project.
Ans A). Rama has been working on this project since six months. B). Rama has worked on this project for six months
C). Rama is working on this project for six months. D). Rama has been working on this project for six months.
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He climbed of / the steep mountain trail, / his backpack heavy / with supplies for the journey.
Ans A). with supplies for the journey. B). his backpack heavy C). the steep mountain trail, D). He climbed of
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Fragile
Ans A). Florid B). Juicy C). Strong D). Brittle
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Lisa was very excited about her promotion; she was very happy and delighted.
Ans A). on the ball B). on the attack C). on cloud nine D). under the weather
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

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The author's writing was so captivating that readers were enthralled by every word.
Ans A). jaded B). annoyed C). fascinated D). bored
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

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Brought to light
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Ans A). To seem likely B). To burn C). In favour of D). To disclose
Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.
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Detailed examination of something complex

Ans A). Dialysis B). Synthesis C). Symbiosis D). Analysis
G

Correct Answer: D
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A dime a dozen
Ans A). Very common B). Very rare C). To take revenge D). To be in a difficult situation
hs

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Illicit
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Ans A). Illegal B). Integral C). Inessential D). Inaugural

Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

"The architekture of the building is marvellous", said the spectators.

Ans A). Marvellous B). Spectators C). Architekture D). Building

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word to fill in the blank.
Averted
Rohit ______ looking at Sheena’s face while we were talking about domestic violence.
Ans A). avoided B). saw C). confronted D). fostered
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
They may vary and seem very different, but they are not ________.
Ans A). irreconcilable B). irrecincilable C). irrecosilable D). ireconcilable
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The table looks proper in the centre than in the corner.
Ans A). most proper B). properer C). properly D). more proper
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

Along with his friend, he walked till the end of the street and came back immediately.
Ans A). he walked to the B). for came back immediately C). Near with his friend, D). end by the street
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Odious
Ans A). Pleasant B). Acceptable C). Repugnant D). Beautiful
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Hyojeng, a twenty-five-year-old South Korean Youtuber (1)_________since the age of 16. She (2)_______around twenty-five
countries so far. (3)________ India was high on her wish list. She is currently soaking in the energy of Mumbai and planning to
(4)________ more of this beautiful city. Unfortunately, her experience of the city turned sour recently. She was filming on the streets of
Mumbai and two men tried to hug and kiss her, which was captured in her video. The video (5)_________ viral and the Mumbai police
swung into action.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

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Ans A). would have travelled B). have been travelling C). has been travelling D). will be travelling

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Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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Mumbai and two men tried to hug and kiss her, which was captured in her video. The video (5)_________ viral and the Mumbai police
swung into action.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
G

Ans A). will have covered B). has covered C). had been covered D). was covered
Correct Answer: B
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.
at

(4)________ more of this beautiful city. Unfortunately, her experience of the city turned sour recently. She was filming on the streets of
Mumbai and two men tried to hug and kiss her, which was captured in her video. The video (5)_________ viral and the Mumbai police
swung into action.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). Visit B). Visiting C). Moved D). Moving
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). explore B). to be explored C). exploring D). having explored
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). going B). went C). go D). gone
Correct Answer: B

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an
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G
B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A shopkeeper sells goods at the same price rate for which he has bought them, but gives 20% less quantity to the customer.
Find the profit percentage.
Ans A). 20% B). 25% C). 15% D). 30%
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 54 cm. The radius of the sphere is:
Ans A). 111 cm B). 162 cm C). 182 cm D). 166 cm

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 The average height of a group of 50 students is 175 cm. If another group of 40 students with average height of 180 cm is
included, what is the average (in cm, to the nearest cm) of the combined group?
Ans A). 177 B). 178 C). 176 ap D). 174
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 A thief steals a bike at 12.40 p.m. and drives it at 45 km/h. The theft is discovered at 1 p.m. and the owner sets off in a car at
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65 km/h in the direction the thief was heading. The time at which the owner can catch the thief is:
Ans A). 1:30 p.m. B). 2:00 p.m. C). 2:10 p.m. D). 1:45 p.m.
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.5 Three candidates contested an election and obtained 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes, respectively. What percentage of the total
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votes did the losing candidate (last one) get? (Correct to two decimal places)
G

Ans A). 3.89% B). 7.89% C). 6.34% D). 5.57%

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.6 Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. The length of each train is 180 m. If they cross each other
B

in 12 seconds, what is the speed of each train (in km/h)?

Ans A). 36 B). 45 C). 63 D). 54
hs

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 775 B). 735 C). 675 D). 695
M

Correct Answer: B

Q.8

Ans A). 351 B). 66 C). 75 D). 156

Correct Answer: B

Q.9 What is the HCF of 512 and 296?

Ans A). 32 B). 8 C). 37 D). 4
Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 The average age of a class of 65 boys is 14 years. The average age of 20 of them is 14 years,
and the average age of another 15 boys is 12 years. What will be the average age (in years) of
the remaining boys?
Ans A). 15 B). 14 C). 16 D). 17
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 The outer circumference of the top of a large hemispherical iron bowl is 565.2 cm and the bowl is 6 cm thick. What will be
the volume (in cm3) of the iron required to make this bowl? (Use π = 3.14.)
Ans A). 2,85,312.96 B). 2,85,212.96 C). 2,85,132.96 D). 2,85,232.96
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 A trader sells his goods at 25% profit. Had he bought it at 10% more and sold it for ₹75 more, he would have earned a profit
of 25%. The cost price of the goods is:
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The given bar graph shows the income and expenditure (in thousand ₹) of a family in four different years.

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Si
ap
at
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What percentage, more or less, is the total savings of the family in the last two years (2019 and 2020) when compared to the
total savings of the family in the initial two years (2017 and 2018)?
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(Savings = Income – Expenditure)

Ans A). 11.5% less B). 12.5% more C). 10.5% more D). 13.5% less
Correct Answer: B
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Q.14 A group of 9 people can survive on₹8,100 for30 days. How long can a group of 7 people survive on₹8,400?
G

Ans A). 25 days B). 43 days C). 40 days D). 31 days

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.15 A man purchased 3 bags of cement at the rate of ₹2,200 each, 4 bags of cement at ₹2,550 each and 5 bags of cement at the
rate of ₹3,120 each. What is the average cost of one bag of cement?
hs

Ans A). ₹2,700 B). ₹2,805 C). ₹2,800 D). ₹2,623

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.16 Find the simple interest on₹550 for 8 months at 3 paise per rupee per month?
M

Ans A). ₹134 B). ₹131 C). ₹130 D). ₹132

Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 300 B). 360 C). 320 D). 400
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18

Ans A). 300 B). 368 C). 332 D). 259

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 A shop keeper allows a 25% discount and gains 20%. How much of the percentage is above the Marked Price on the Cost
Price?
Ans A). 20% B). 80% C). 50% D). 60%
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 In what ratio wheat at ₹38 per kg should be mixed with wheat at ₹26 per kg so that on selling the mixture at ₹39 per kg, there
would be a profit of 30%?

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Ans A). 1 : 3 B). 3 : 4 C). 2 : 3 D). 1 : 2

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Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1
ap
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
at
SDW, OHS, KLO, GPK ,?
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Ans A). BTG B). CSG C). CTG D). BSG

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘BEAM’ is coded as ‘5791’ and ‘MINT’ is coded as ‘2467’.
What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
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Ans A). 7 B). 1 C). 6 D). 2

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.3 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
B y
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at
M

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

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Statements:
All hens are chickens.
All chickens are eggs.

Conclusions:
(I) All hens are eggs.
(II) All eggs are chickens.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Only conclusion I follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: B

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

89 92 98 107 119 ?
Ans A). 124 B). 114 C). 144 D). 134
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Six players Jadeja, Ashwin, Karthik, Murli, Sarfaraz and Virat are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order) . Virat is sitting to the immediate right of Jadeja. Only Sarfaraz is sitting between Virat and
Murli. Jadeja is an immediate neighbour of Ashwin. Who is immediate neighbour of both Sarfaraz and Karthik?
Ans A). Murli B). Virat C). Jadeja D). Ashwin
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 In a code language, 'RAMESH' is written as 'UAPEVK' and 'TOM' is written as 'WOP'. How will 'MEGHANA' be written in the
same language?
Ans A). QEJKAQA B). PEJKAQA C). QDJKAQA D). PDJKAQA

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

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Ans
Correct Answer: A
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A). C). D).

B).
B y
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Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
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22 × 11 + 13 − 12 ÷ 2 = ?
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Ans A). 35 B). 22 C). 17 D). 13

Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Seven friends, Monu, Abhay, Vicky, Chitti, Deva, Hamza and Sanjay, are attending Hamza’s birthday party and sitting in a
circular arrangement facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order).
Monu is an immediate neighbour of Abhay and Deva.
Abhay is second to the left of Hamza.
Sanjay is one of the immediate neighbours of Hamza.
Chitti is an immediate neighbour of both Deva and Vicky.
Who is sitting third to the left of Monu?
Ans A). Vicky B). Sanjay C). Deva D). Hamza
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(25, 8, 400)
(12, 14, 336)
Ans A). (19, 8, 152) B). (22, 9, 198) C). (17, 11, 189) D). (16, 21, 672)
Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 MAZE is related to QEDI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YMLQ is related to
CQPU. To which of the following is OCBG related, following the same logic?
Ans A). SFGK B). SGKF C). SGFK D). GKSF
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

Q.14 In a code language, 'ARVL' is coded as ‘FOAI’ and 'DOXY' is coded as ‘ILCV’. How will 'MPSB' be coded in that language?
Ans A). QMWY B). RMXY C). QNWZ D). RNXZ
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 181 is related to 417 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 149 is related to 385. To which ofthe following is 262
related, following the same logic?

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 465 B). 474 C). 437
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘barks a lot’ is written as ‘qw er ui’ and ‘the dog barks’ is writtenas ‘op ji er’. How is ‘barks’
writtenin that language?
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Ans A). qw B). er C). ji D). ui

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.
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B y
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Ans
at

Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
13 + 4 × 2 ÷ 5 – 2 = ?
Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 2 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some possums are bisons.
No possum is a wolf.
Conclusions:
[1] All wolves can be bisons.
[2] All bisons are wolves.
Ans A). Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows B). Only conclusion [2] follows C). Only conclusion [1] follows
D). Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 EKQW is related to JPVA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BHNT is related to
GMSX. To which of the following is PVBH related, following the same logic?
Ans A). UABL B). UBGL C). UCGL D). UAGL
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of following silver coins was introduced by Sultan Shamsuddin Iltutmish?
Ans A). Jittal B). Dinar C). Tanka D). Adali
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Wasifuddin Dagar was associated with which of the following classical music genres?
Ans A). Ghazal B). Tarana C). Khyal D). Dhrupad
Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 When was the Lahore declaration signed between India and Pakistan?
Ans A). August 1998 B). December 1991 C). July 1948 D). February 1999
Correct Answer: D

Q.4
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According to Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022, what was the population of the poor in India in 2020?
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Ans A). 128.9 million B). 328.9 million C). 228.9 million D). 428.9 million
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 The part of a temple wherein the main deity of the temple is housed is known as the _______.
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Ans A). Stupa B). Shikara C). Garbha Griha D). Mandap
Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 Sama Chakeva is a folk dance based on the mythological story of the siblings Sama and Chakeva, in which the brother goes
to an extreme extent to save his sister. With which State of India is this folk dance associated?
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Ans A). Assam B). Haryana C). Bihar D). Punjab

Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Which of the following is an autobiography of LK Advani?

Ans A). Exam Warriors B). Wings of Fire C). My Country My Life D). Dare to Dream
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 The ‘Rule of Law’ is a key feature of the Indian Constitution which is a doctrine ascribed to ____________________.
Ans A). Plato B). Adam Smith C). Albert Venn Dicey D). Karl Marx
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Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Who among the following Governor Generals of India wrote about the predicament of Indian weavers, “The bones of the
cotton weavers are scattered on the plains of India”?
Ans A). Sir John Shore B). Lord Amherst C). Lord William Bentinck D). Lord Minto
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 The Dudhsagar waterfall is a major tourist place of ________ State.

Ans A). Goa B). Nagaland C). Meghalaya D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Who became the first woman to win two gold medals in a single Para Asian Games event in 2023?
Ans A). Sheetal Devi B). Neema Rani C). Sarita Devi D). Disha Dhayal
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 In the periodic table, what is the trend for atomic radius as you move from left to right across a period (horizontal row)?
Ans A). Atomic radius remains constant B). Atomic radius increases C). Atomic radius exhibits irregular behaviour D). Atomic radius decreases

Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 Gulabo Sapera, a legendry folk dancer from Kalbeliya tribe, Rajasthan, received Padma Shri in the year ________.
Ans A). 2023 B). 2021 C). 2016 D). 2017
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Which of the following white papers, released by NITI Aayog, is related to Public Health Surveillance in India?
Ans A). Vision 2035 B). Mission Karmayogi C). Dhruv Mission D). Arogya Mission
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Who amongst the following said that the government fiscal policy should be used to stabilise the level of output and
employment?
Ans A). Lionel Charles Robbins B). Alfred Marshall C). Adam Smith D). JM Keynes
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Which of the following options is an example of a decomposer in an ecosystem?

Ans A). Herbivore B). Carnivore C). Fungus D). Producer
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Who among the following social reformers wrote Brahmo Covenant which was a statement of the creed of the Brahmo
Samaj?
Ans A). Keshab Chandra Sen B). Debendranath Tagore C). Raja Ram Mohan Roy D). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In which of the following states is the famous International Sand Art Festival organised, where artists get enthralled by the
diverse thoughts and their elucidation on sand?
Ans A). Odisha B). West Bengal C). Assam D). Bihar
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Which sector uses the groundwater maximally?

Ans A). Educational B). Agriculture C). Industrial D). Domestic

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 The black coating formed on silver jewellery is:
Ans A). Ag2CO3 B). AgNO3 C). AgCl
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.21 The Megalithic site __________ is a site on the river Ghod, a tributary of the Bhima.
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Ans A). Hire benakal B). Inamgaon C). Hallur D). Pottru
Correct Answer: B
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Q.22 Which of the following crops takes almost a year to grow?

Ans A). Ragi B). Soyabean C). Sugarcane D). Groundnut
Correct Answer: C
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Q.23 The strength of Supreme Court has increased to how many judges as of 13 Feb 2023?
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Ans A). 26 B). 28 C). 34 D). 30

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.24 Which state received the Sportstar ACES Best State for the Promotion of Sport award in 2024?
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Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Haryana C). Odisha D). Punjab
Correct Answer: A
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Q.25 The legislative powers in India are divided into three lists, which are the Union List, the State List and the _____________.
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Ans A). Regional List B). Federal List C). Exclusive List D). Concurrent List
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The students were diligently / studying for their exams / for weeks before you arrived.
Ans A). No error B). for weeks before you arrived C). studying for their exams D). The students were diligently
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Identify the ANTONYM pair.

Ans A). Encourage and Support B). Influence and Motivate C). Convince and Persuade D). Dissuade and Encourage
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The artist believes that this new collection of paintings / has being / a masterpiece that / will redefine contemporary art.
Ans A). The artist believes that this new collection of paintings B). a masterpiece that C). has being D). will redefine contemporary art

Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The students demonstrated their excitement by volunteering for community service.

Ans A). anxiety B). ignorance C). freedom D). enthusiasm
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

Polluted air can be dangeros, even if the pollutants are invisible.

Ans A). dangerus B). dangeres C). dangeris D). dangerous
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Which flower do you like best?
Ans A). good B). most good C). better D). the best
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

I should look into my past and decide what the next course of action should be.
Ans A). Prospect B). Introspect C). Disrespect D). Retrospect Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Timid
Ans A). Oppress B). Bold C). Modest D). Humble
Correct Answer: B

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Q.9 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

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His aunt who lives at America brought a lot of gifts for him and his sister.
Ans A). His aunt which lives B). lot of gifts by him
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C). in America brought a D). and her sister
Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
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Sushant looked blue in the face after the marathon.

Ans A). happy B). sad C). exhausted D). good
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

She finally spilled the beans about the surprise party.

Ans A). Dropped a container of beans B). Caused a mess C). Revealed a secret or disclosed information D). Prepared a bean dish
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
After the floods, Uttarakhand was in a _______(ravaged) condition.
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Ans A). ratified B). languid C). restored D). influenced

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
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substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

If she had gone to the party, she could have met Amit.
Ans A). No substitution required B). had go to the party C). have went to the party D). has gone to the party
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

Commodity prices are the dearer in the present economic scenario.

Ans A). quite dear B). dear C). dearest D). No substitution
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

We do not expet Reema to follow all the rules from the first day of work.
Ans A). expect B). expict C). expact D). execpt
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Something that is so extraordinary or unbelievable that it's hard to believe it
Ans A). Horrible B). Incredible C). Ordinary D). Exquisite
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who abstains from any sort of alcoholic drinks
Ans A). Termagant B). Veteran C). Teetotaller D). Samaritan
Correct Answer: C

Alaska in the USA / is the colder / of all the states.

Ans A). is the colder B). of all the states. C). No error D). Alaska in the USA
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The team worked together to execute the challenging task.

Ans A). analyse B). accomplish C). announce D). abandon
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Express B). Excess C). Aresst D). Harass
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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A brigantine is a two-masted sailing vessel (1)_____ fore-and-aft rigging on the mainmast and square rigging on the foremast. The
pirates that (2)______ the Mediterranean in the sixteenth century loved it for its speed and ease of handling. The brigantine

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(3)_________ into a true sailing vessel in the waters of northern Europe. Although the words began to be used interchangeably, it was
(4)_______ from the fully square-rigged brig by its gaff-rigged mainsail. True brigantines, for (5)_____, were defined as having square
topsails above a gaffed mainsail.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). focusing B). predicting C). attending D). featuring
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Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.

A brigantine is a two-masted sailing vessel (1)_____ fore-and-aft rigging on the mainmast and square rigging on the foremast. The
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pirates that (2)______ the Mediterranean in the sixteenth century loved it for its speed and ease of handling. The brigantine
B

(3)_________ into a true sailing vessel in the waters of northern Europe. Although the words began to be used interchangeably, it was
(4)_______ from the fully square-rigged brig by its gaff-rigged mainsail. True brigantines, for (5)_____, were defined as having square
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topsails above a gaffed mainsail.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
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Ans A). transpired B). integrated C). ravaged D). fixed

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A brigantine is a two-masted sailing vessel (1)_____ fore-and-aft rigging on the mainmast and square rigging on the foremast. The
pirates that (2)______ the Mediterranean in the sixteenth century loved it for its speed and ease of handling. The brigantine
(3)_________ into a true sailing vessel in the waters of northern Europe. Although the words began to be used interchangeably, it was
(4)_______ from the fully square-rigged brig by its gaff-rigged mainsail. True brigantines, for (5)_____, were defined as having square
topsails above a gaffed mainsail.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). submitted B). discharged C). evolved D). garnished
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). split B). mourned C). spill D). join
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). instance B). mention C). case D). location
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If the average marks of three batches of 40, 50 and 60 students, respectively, is 50, 60 and 75, then the average marks of all
the students is:
Ans A). 70.00 B). 65.50 C). 63.33 D). 61.25
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 A person sees another person snatching a chain from a lady, at a distance of 300 metres. He starts running and catches the
thief by running at 10 km/h after running a total distance of 1.5 km. The speed at which the thief was running was:

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Ans A). 8.5 km/h B). 9 km/h C). 9.5 km/h D). 8 km/h

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Correct Answer: D

Q.3 The greatest possible length of a scale that can exactly measure a cloth of lengths 250 cm, 420 cm and 710 cm is:
Ans A). 71 cm B). 10 cm C). 460 cm ap D). 170 cm
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 The batting average of a cricket player for 40 innings is 60 runs. His highest score in an innings exceeds his lowest score by
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110 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average score of the remaining 38 innings is 58 runs. Find his highest score.
Ans A). 290 B). 153 C). 220 D). 310
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
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Ans A). 460 B). 380 C). 360 D). 420

Correct Answer: D
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B y
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Q.6

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Ans A). 194 : 201 B). 121 : 291 C). 201 : 194
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 A wholesale dealer announced during the festival season that they are offering 'buy 4 shirts, get one free', then find the net
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discount percentage given by the dealer.

Ans A). 10% B). 20% C). 15% D). 5%
Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 A runner runs 300 metres race in 36 seconds. The runner’s speed in km/h is:
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Ans A). 48 B). 24 C). 30 D). 36

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9
B y

Ans A). 462 B). 284 C). 364 D). 588

Correct Answer: A
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Q.10
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Ans A). 30.68% B). 30.33% C). 38.06% D). 36.08%

Correct Answer: A

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Q.11 An investment grows by 15% in the first month, 20% in the second month, and then decreases by 10% in the third month. If
the initial investment was ₹5000, then the final amount (in ₹) is:
Ans A). 6,420 B). 6,602 C). 6,340 D). 6,210
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Vipul, Ashima, and Priya invested a total of ₹21,000 at 3%, 6%, and 5% per annum, respectively, on simple interest. If at the
end of the year, all three persons received an equal amount of interest, then the amount (in ₹) invested by Ashima is:
Ans A). 5,000 B). 3,000 C). 2,000 D). 4,000
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 When a class of 40 students took a science test, 25 students had an average score of 80, and the remaining students had an
average score of 90. What was the average score of the whole class?
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1400 B). 1480 C). 1440 D). 1380
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 In an amusement park, all rides are equally priced, and the entry ticket for the park costs an additional ₹180. Rohan had 15
rides and paid a total of ₹1,380 for his visit to the park. How much (in ₹) in all would Rohan have to pay for his visit to the
amusement park if he had opted for 20 rides?
Ans A). 1840 B). 1760 C). 1800 D). 1780
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 If the diagonal of a rectangle is 16 cm long and its perimeter is 48 cm long, find the area of the rectangle.
Ans A). 148 cm2 B). 120 cm2 C). 160 cm2 D). 140 cm2 Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The average age of 14 students and their teacher is 18 years. If the teacher's age is excluded, the average reduces by 1 year.

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What is the teacher's age?

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Ans A). 32 B). 35 C). 37 D). 34
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 ap
The cost price of 25 balls is the same as the selling price of 20 balls. Find the profit percentage.
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Ans A). 18% B). 25% C). 15% D). 16.66%
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 19% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
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Ans
Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

Q.20
B y
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Ans A). 704 cm² B). 826 cm² C). 862 cm² D). 628 cm² Correct Answer: A
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(9, 63, 7)
(27, 189, 21)
Ans A). (45, 315, 35) B). (45, 315, 33) C). (45, 310, 35) D). (40, 315, 35)
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 VOJP is related to SLGM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XQLR is related to UNIO.
To which of the following is ZSNT related following the same logic?
Ans A). WPQK B). WPKQ C). PWKQ D). PWQK
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(15 ÷ 3)× 11 + 48 −21 × 2 + 8 = 57

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 15 and 21 B). 21 and 8 C). 11 and 8 D). 15 and 48
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘MANAGE’ is coded as ‘IKEREQ’ and ‘RACE’ is coded as ‘IGEV’. What is the code for
‘SYMPHONY’ in the given code language?
Ans A). CRSLTRCW B). CRSLSQCW C). CRSLTPCW D). CRSLTQCW
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q is an
immediate neighbour of both R and P. M sits second to the left of R. O sits second to the left of M. S is not an immediate
neighbour of O. The position of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in alphabetical order
in a clockwise direction starting from ‘M’?
Ans A). Four B). Seven C). Six D). Five
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
YDY, WGT ,UJO ,SMJ, ?
Ans A). PPD B). PPF C). PPE D). QPE
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans

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A). B). C). D).
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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647 614 581 548 515 ?

Ans A). 491 B). 505 C). 482 D). 402

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.
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Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.10 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Only three people are sitting between C and G when counted from the right of C. E is sitting third to the left of G.
Exactly one person is sitting between E and F when counted from the left of E. D is sitting to the immediate left of B. How
many people are sitting between A and D when counted from the left of A?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 3 D). 1
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 In a certain code language, 'CAREER' is coded as ‘EBTFGS’ and 'CARING' is coded as ‘EBTJPH’. How will 'CENTER' be
coded in the same language?
Ans A). EFPUGS B). DGOVFT C). EFPVGS D). DFPVFT
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 4 is related to 32 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 88. To which of the following is 6 related,
following the same logic?
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 56 B). 36 C). 42 D). 48
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C).
ap D).
at
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Q.14 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
an

statement(s).
ag

Statements:
Some branches are leaves.
Some leaves are cables.
G

Conclusions:
y

(I) Atleast some cables are branches.

(II) Some cables are leaves.

Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
hs

D). Only conclusion (II) follows.

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.15 FD7 is related to KI12 in a certain way. In the same way, PN18 is related to US23. To which of the following is AY21 related
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following the same logic?

Ans A). HF25 B). FD25 C). FD26 D). HF26
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘DONE’ is coded as ‘7139’ and ‘TERM’ is coded as ‘6874’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 6 D). 9
Correct Answer: B

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Statements:
No book is a copy.
All stones are books.

Conclusions:
(I) No copy is a stone.
(II) All books are stones.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a code language, 'HWCY' is coded as ‘KBJH’ and 'REPU' is coded as ‘UJWD’. How will 'AXMQ' be coded in that language?
Ans A). DCTZ B). DBTY C). ECUZ D). CBSY
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
18 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 − 3 = ?
Ans A). 91 B). 83 C). 85 D). 78
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

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ap
at
Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C).

D).
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G
B y

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In 1836, _______ became the Governor General of India.

Ans A). Lord Hastings B). Lord Curzon C). Earl of Auckland D). Robert Clive
at

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 The GV Raja Memorial Trophy, Sir Ashutosh Mukherjee Trophy and Santosh Trophy are related to which of the
following sports in India?
Ans A). Hockey B). Football C). Tennis D). Cricket
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 A disease like COVID-19 is a kind of:

Ans A). Foodborne disease B). Protein Deficiency disease C). Zoonotic disease D). Waterborne disease
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 In February 2023, who was appointed as the new Governor of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans A). Satyadev Narayan Arya B). Kalraj Mishra C). Bandaru Dattatreya D). Shiv Pratap Shukla
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Who is properly known as the ‘Grand Old Lady’ of the Independence Movement?
Ans A). Usha Mehta B). Madam Kama C). Sarojini Naidu D). Aruna Asaf Ali
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which of the following river valleys is NOT known for coal deposits in India?
Ans A). Mahanadi B). Satluj C). Godavari D). Son
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 In 2023, which repository is proposed to be set up in a digital epigraphy museum, with digitisation of one lakh ancient
inscriptions in the first stage?
Ans A). Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions B). Progressive Repository of Indigenous Folklore
C). Amrit Repository of Numismatic Collection D). Indian Repository of Classical Coins Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The amount of dissolved oxygen in water becomes lowest at what time of the day?
Ans A). In the dawn B). In the afternoon C). At night time D). In the evening
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The percentage of sunlight energy absorbed by the green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem is about _______.
Ans A). 2% B). 1% C). 0.5% D). 1.5%
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Who is the author of the novel ‘Life and Death of Sambhaji’ published in the year 2021?
Ans A). Amish Tripathi B). Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni C). Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran D). Rita Banerji
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 As per Census 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of Buddhist population in India?
Ans A). Arunachal Pradesh B). Himachal Pradesh C). Sikkim D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 As per Article 163 of the Constitution of India, any advice tendered by Ministers to the ________ shall not be inquired into in
any court.
Ans A). President B). Chief Minister C). Chief Justice D). Governor
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Chitti Babu is a famous player of which of the following musical instruments?

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Ans A). Mridangam B). Sarangi C). Veena D). Nadaswaran
Correct Answer: C

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Q.14 Which of the following microfinance units were established in India at the time of independence?
Ans A). Grameen Model Banks B). Rural Cooperatives ap
C). Joint Liability Groups D). Self Help Groups
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.15 Which of the following harvest and cultural festivals is celebrated by the Tamil community every year in January?
Pr

Ans A). Pongal B). Makaravillakku C). Vishu D). Theyyam

Correct Answer: A
an

Q.16 The temperature of −273.15°C is called _________.

Ans A). absolute zero temperature B). standard temperature C). zero-point energy D). freezing point of water
ag

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.17 What does Age Structure represent?

Ans A). The number of females per 100 males in a given area at a specified time period
y

B). The number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a specified time period
B

C). The proportion of persons in different age groups relative to the total population
hs

D). A measure comparing the portion of a population composed of dependents with the portion that is in the working age group
at

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 In which of the following cities was the first successful textile mill established in India in the year 1854?
Ans A). Calcutta B). Bombay C). Bhopal D). New Delhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In which year was the first Senior Women's National Football Championship held in India?
Ans A). 1950 B). 1995 C). 1992 D). 2000
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 The last Chalukyan King, defeated by the Rashtrakuta King Dantidurga, was ___________________.
Ans A). Vikramaditya II B). Pulakesin II C). Kirtivarman II D). Vikramaditya I
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 The Early Vedic economy was primarily based on_________ activity.
Ans A). Mining Iron ore B). pastoral C). trading D). agricultural
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 Who among the following is the dance guru from Odisha credited with having revived the Odissi dance form?
Ans A). Vyjayanthimala B). Sujata Mohapatra C). Birju Maharaj D). Kelucharan Mohapatra
Correct Answer: D

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Q.23 Which of the following awards was conferred upon the Chhau dancer Siba Prasad Das in 2022?
Ans A). Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship B). Padma Shri C). Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar D). Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award

Correct Answer: D

Q.24 The Directive Principles of State Policy are influenced by which of the following?
Ans A). Gandhian philosophy B). Rule of Law of England C). American declaration of independence D). French declaration of human rights

Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Select the correct combination of famous palaces and their locations in Rajasthan.
Ans A). Rambagh Palace – Jodhpur B). Lalgarh Palace - Bikaner C). Umaid Bhawan Palace – Udaipur D). Taj Lake Palace – Jaipur

Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please _____ with me for a while
Ans A). bairn B). bear C). bare D). bar
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.
Women and children were often employed in the textile industry during the first centuary of industrialisation.
Ans A). centurie B). century C). centuari D). centuarie
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

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You seem to be mean to your seniors.

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Ans A). apathetic B). modest C). rude D). sympathetic
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. ap
at
Seizing the opportunity, Akhil decided to take the bull with the horns.
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Ans A). take the bull on the horns B). take the bull by the horns C). take the bull at the horns D). take the bull in the horns
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.5 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
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He is truest to his words.

Ans A). truly B). true C). most truly D). truer
Correct Answer: B
G

Q.6 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the following sentence.
B y

In his persuit of excellence, he forgot to take care of his health.

Ans A). pursuit B). persoot C). persuite D). pursuite

Correct Answer: A
at

Sam and Teena / had wondering / what to do this weekend.

Ans A). No error B). what to do this weekend C). Sam and Teena D). had wondering
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The rising interest in and concern about animal welfare resulted in legislative laws and the formation of The Animal
____________ Committee in many nations.
Ans A). Resistant B). Ethics C). Considers D). Customs
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Heba dropped of the club unexpectedly to say hello and catch up.

Ans A). dropped for the club unexpectedly B). dropped besides the club unexpectedly C). dropped by the club unexpectedly
D). dropped between the club unexpectedly
Correct Answer: C

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Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Although our new boss knew he was wrong, he was too obstinate to accept that.
Ans A). Fearless B). Flexible C). Adamant D). Competent
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The sky is covering / with dark clouds and / I hope soon it / will begin to rain.
Ans A). I hope soon it B). The sky is covering C). with dark clouds and D). will begin to rain
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Procrastination
Ans A). Hesitance B). Eagerness C). Timidness D). Hawing
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Identify the word that can replace the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The explorer discovered a hiddden cave deep in the heart of the jungle.
A). hiddenn B). hiden C). hiddeen D). hidden
Ans
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The given sentence is divided into three segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. If there
is no error, select ‘No error’.
The committee has careful / considered the report which you sent us / and has decided to take action.
Ans A). and has decided to take action. B). No error C). considered the report which you sent us D). The committee has careful

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Like a bat out of hell
Ans A). Very fast and wildly B). In a bad situation C). Defeated
ap D). Impossible
at
Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Her austere lifestyle reflected her minimalist approach to living.
Ans A). Luxurious B). Sombre C). Happy D). Giddy
an

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
This is the best novel / I have read, / in a very long time.
G

Ans A). This is the best novel B). No error C). in a very long time D). I have read
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

_________ we gave them was some homemade ice cream.
hs

Ans A). Which B). When C). While D). What

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

at top of your lungs

Ans A). extremely loudly B). extremely silly C). pretend superiority D). exhausted
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
He was studying in the dimmer light.
Ans A). dim B). more dim C). dimmest D). most dim
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Language is a powerful device that (1)____________ communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool
for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. (2)____________ richness of language can be observed in various forms, including
spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a
fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would
be (3)___________, as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore,
language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are (4)____________ into the
vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of
linguistic competence. (5)____________, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human
expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). delays B). qualifies C). experiences D). facilitates
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22
Ans A). A
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
B). An C). No article
ap D). The
at
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
an

Language is a powerful device that (1)____________ communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool
ag

for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. (2)____________ richness of language can be observed in various forms, including
spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a
G

fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would
be (3)___________, as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore,
language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are (4)____________ into the
y

vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of
B

linguistic competence. (5)____________, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human
expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.
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SubQuestion No : 23
at

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). challenger B). challenging C). challenge D). challenges

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). integral B). integration C). integrity D). integrated
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). In order to B). In conclusive C). In spite of D). In any case
Correct Answer: D

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Pr
an
ag
G
B y
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at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A product having an MRP of ₹29,800 is on sale for ₹28,608 in-store. How much of a discount is being offered on the
product?
Ans A). 1% B). 2% C). 4% D). 3%
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 35%?
Ans A). 6.55 B). 7.55 C). 5.55 D). 4.55
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Three students of class VII participated in a race during a school sports day. In a 1 km race, A wins the race with B by 100 m,
and in a 300 m race, B beats C by 50 m. Then in the race of 1 km, with what margin will A beat C?
Ans A). 700 m B). 750 m C). 150 m D). 250 m
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1200 B). 1160 C). 1240 D). 1140
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 A man sold an article for ₹237, there by gaining 18.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:

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Ans A). 200 B). 193 C). 291 D). 281
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 What is the ratio between the area of a square having side of 6 cm and that of the rhombus having diagonals of 8 cm and 6
cm?
Ans A). 3 : 2

Q.7
B). 4 : 5 C). 2 : 5

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D). 3 : 4
Correct Answer: A

The original breadth of a rectangular box is 25 cm. The box was then remade in such a way that its length was increased by
at
30% but the breadth decreased by 20% and the area increased by 100 cm2. What is the length (in cm) of the new box?
Ans A). 100 B). 130 C). 91 D). 109
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 900 B). 860 C). 940 D). 840
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.9 The salary of an employee is reduced by 80% and then the reduced salary is increased by 80%. The percentage loss in the
salary of the employee is:
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The average weight of 30 male workers in a company is 62.5 kg and that of the remaining 20 female workers is 54.5 kg. The
average weight of the total workers in the company is:
y

Ans A). 59.5 kg B). 59.3 kg C). 58.5 kg D). 58.3 kg

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.11
hs
at

Ans A). 7186 B). 7166 C). 7156 D). 7128

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.12

Ans A). 22 min 30 sec B). 27 min C). 18 min D). 4 min 30 sec
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Find the HCF of 90, 230 and 325.

Ans A). 2 B). 1 C). 3 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The average mark in an exam was 60. Due to some assessment errors, the marks of 115 students had to be changed from 85
to 50 each, and the new average is 55. The total number of students who appeared in the examination was:
Ans A). 1000 B). 805 C). 902 D). 763
Correct Answer: B

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Q.15

Ans A). 2 to 4 B). 5 to 6 C). 0 to 1 D). 1 to 3

Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The average weight of a certain number of apples in a basket was 0.5 kg. If 10
apples with an average weight of 0.7 kg are removed from the basket and 5 apples
with an average weight of 0.6 kg are added to the basket, then the average weight
of the apples in the basket decreases by 0.1 kg. What was the initial number of
apples in the basket?
Ans A). 21 B). 20 C). 19 D). 18
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 51.2 B). 53.2 C). 50.2 D). 52.2
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 The mean proportional between the numbers p and q is 8. Which of the following pairs of numbers can be the values of p
and q?
Ans A). 12 and 3 B). 16 and 4 C). 12 and 16 D). 10 and 6
Correct Answer: B

Q
.
1
9
Ans A). 31 : 48 B). 33 : 91 C). 48 : 31

Q.20 The following bar graph shows the number of scooters manufactured by 4 different companies, P, Q, R and S, during the
years 2015 - 2017. The x - axis indicates the number of scooters manufactured and the y - axis indicates the companies.

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Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.
Manufacture of scooters by 4 companies

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ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G

In which year(s) was the percentage increase in the manufacturing of scooters as compared to the previous years the
y

maximum for the company R?

Ans A). 2016 and 2017 B). 2015 and 2017 C). Only 2017 D). Only 2016
Correct Answer: D
hs

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
at

SRQ ,ONM, KJI, GFE, ?

Ans A). BAZ B). DCB C). CBA D). ABC

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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Q.3 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘played the piano’ is written as ‘lo le li’ and ‘sparkles a piano’ is coded as ‘lu li la’. How is ‘piano’
coded in that language?
Ans A). li B). la C). le D). lu
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 DJFL is related to HNJP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GMIO is related to KQMS.
To which of the following is IOKQ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). MSUO B). SMUO C). SMOU D). MSOU
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘COKE’ is coded as ‘1357’ and ‘JOKE’ is coded as ‘5673’. What is the code for ‘J’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 5 B). 6 C). 7 D). 3
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 22 is related to 132 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 35 is related to 210. To which of the following is 18
related following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 108 B). 113 C). 110 D). 101
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All actors are singers.
All singers are dancers.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some singers are actors.

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(II) Some dancers may not be singers.

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Ans A). Only I follows B). Both I and II follow C). Only II follows D). Neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same

Ans A). 1 B). 0 C). 2

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order). S is sitting to the immediate left of Q. V is sitting third to the left of S. R is sitting third to the right of T. U is sitting
second to the left of R. How many people are sitting between S and R when counted from the right of R?
D). 4
at
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 PWSO is related to RYUQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MTPL is related to
Pr

OVRN. To which of the following is JQMI related following the same logic?
Ans A). SLOK B). SLKO C). LSKO D). LSOK
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘write this sentence’ is coded as ‘aw pm nl’ and ‘this is mine’ is coded as ‘nl wb cd’. How is ‘this’
coded in that code language?
Ans A). aw B). wb C). nl D). cd
ag

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
G
B y
hs
at

Ans
A). B). C). D).
M

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
Some stones are hurting.
Some stones are beautiful.
Conclusions:
(I) Some beautiful stones are hurting.
(II) Some hurting stones are beautiful.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Only conclusion (II) follows
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
304 ÷ 3 + 55 × 5 − 2 = ?
Ans A). 904 B). 901 C). 902 D). 903
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

348 350 354 360 368 ?

Ans A). 378 B). 374 C). 372 D). 376
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends sitting around a circular dinner table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). E is an immediate neighbour of F. B is sitting second to the left of A. D is sitting to the immediate right of F. Who is
sitting third to the left of A?
Ans A). C B). D C). B D). F
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘PURE’ is coded as ‘3792’ and ‘BURP’ is coded as ‘9537’. What is the code for ‘B’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 9 B). 5 C). 3 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 312 is related to 104 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 363 is related to 121. To which of the following is
375 related, following the same logic?

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Ans A). 125 B). 115 C). 145 D). 135
Correct Answer: A

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Q.20 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
18 ÷ 6 + 5 × 14 − 7 = ?
Ans A). 10 B). 0 C). −5

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D). −10
Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness
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Q.1 What is the frequency (f) of a wave with a period of 0.04 seconds?
Ans A). 50 Hz B). 25 Hz C). 40 Hz D). 100 Hz
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 International Day of Non-violence is observed on ___________.

Ans A). 15 August B). 26 January C). 2 October D). 26 November
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Which of the following wars took place in the year 1761?
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Ans A). Buxar B). Wandiwash C). Panipat III D). Panipat II
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 The Sarda River rises in the ________ glacier in the Nepal Himalayas.
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Ans A). Milam B). Bokhar Chu C). Siachen D). Machoi
Correct Answer: A
B

Q.5 Which of the following iron and steel plants is located in Odisha?
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Ans A). Vijay Nagar B). Rourkela C). Bokaro D). Vishakhapatnam
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 What is the product of the following chemical reaction?

NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3

Ans A). Bleaching powder B). Baking soda C). Gypsum D). Washing soda
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Minor points called 'Yuko' are part of which of the following sports?
Ans A). Boxing B). Skating C). Judo D). Lawn bowls
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 At which sports event in India is the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy awarded?
Ans A). Senior National Kabaddi Championship B). SGFI Games C). Khelo India Youth Games D). National Games of India
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which great Indian classical dancer choreographed the songs for Madhuri Dixit in 'Devdas' and 'Dil To Pagal Hai' movies?
Ans A). Ganesh Hegde B). Prabhu Deva C). Birju Maharaj D). Farah Khan
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Which famous medieval singer was born in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh in the year 1506?
Ans A). Gopal Nayek B). Swami Haridas C). Chaitanya Deva D). Tansen
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 If a citizen is helping the government in protecting the monuments in his/her area, which of the following fundamental duties
is he/she performing?
Ans A). Providing opportunities to obtain education B). Promoting scientific temper C). Valuing and preserving the rich heritage and culture
D). Cherishing and following noble ideas
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 In which year was the first-ever motion to remove a Supreme Court Justice signed by the members of Parliament?
Ans A). 1991 B). 1988 C). 1993 D). 1995
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 Which of the following communicable diseases is caused by bacteria?
Ans A). Cholera B). Malaria C). Dengue D). Influenza
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Suspended solids in water can increase the haziness of the water. Which of the following represents the measurement of
haziness of water?
Ans A). Turbidity B). Solubility C). Salinity D). Viscosity
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 In June 2023, who was appointed as the new Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) chief?
Ans A). Ravi Sinha B). Samant Goel C). Rajiv Kumar D). Arun Kant
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi started his first satyagraha in India against the forced cultivation of indigo by Europeans in which
of the following districts of British India?
Ans A). Buxar B). Kheda C). Champaran D). Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 After the ________ of Hakim Mirza, Kabul was annexed by Akbar and given to Raja Man Singh as ‘jagir’.
Ans A). capture B). death C). victory D). marriage
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In January 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tributes to Savitribai Phule on her birth anniversary. In which field did
Savitribai Phule make significant contributions, as highlighted by Prime Minister Modi?
Ans A). Literature and poetry B). Politics and government leadership C). Education and social reform D). Military strategy and warfare

Correct Answer: C

Q.19 For which English novel was Ruskin Bond honoured with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992?
Ans A). The Blue Umbrella B). A Little Book of Happiness C). The Room on the Roof D). Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Who was the successor of Vima Kadphises in Kushana dynasty?

Ans A). Kujula Kadphises B). Menander C). Kanishka D). Kharavela
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 In which region of Bangladesh do the Chakma people predominantly live, among the country's various indigenous ethnic
groups?
Ans A). Rajshahi Division B). Sylhet Division C). Chittagong Hill Tracts D). Sundarbans Mangrove Forest
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Which Ministry of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)?

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Ans A). Ministry of Rural Development B). Ministry of Labour & Employment C). Ministry of Finance

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D). Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Who received the National Nritya Shiromani award 2019 for promoting Kathak dance form across the world?
Ans A). Jatin Goswami B). Aparna Satheesan C). Anita Sharma
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D). Anindita Neogy Anaam
Correct Answer: D
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Q.24 Which Indian dynasty is associated with the creation of highly skillful bronze sculptures?
Ans A). Chola B). Mughal C). Mauryan D). Pallava
Correct Answer: A
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Q.25 What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the context of National Income Accounting?
Ans A). The total exports of a country B). The total savings of a nation
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C). The total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific period
D). The total income of a country's government
Correct Answer: C
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Mercury is the smallest planet in the solar system.

Ans A). Mercury is smaller than any other planet in the solar system. B). No other planet is as small as Mercury in the Solar System.
C). Mercury is the smallest planet than any other one. D). The most smallest planet in the solar system is mercury.
B

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
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Thousands of people were killed by the train accident that took place last Wednesday.
Ans A). killed in B). killed of C). killed to D). killed from
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Correct Answer: A

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a spelling error.
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This item is in the public domain / and can be used, / copied and modefied / without any restrictions.
Ans A). without any restrictions B). and can be used, C). copied and modefied D). This item is in the public domain
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

World Press Freedom Day will be dedicated to the importance of journalism and freedom in expression in the context of the
current global environmental crisis.
Ans A). freedom from expression B). freedom on expression C). freedom of expression D). freedom at expression
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

In the beauty contest, Parul won the award for being the beautiful one.
Ans A). least beautiful B). more beautiful C). most beautiful D). less beautiful
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Caught in a time warp
Ans A). To avoid talking about what’s important B). To remain unchanged from a time in the past C). To make extra effort
D). To be extremely happy
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The library books were long __________________, their pages bearing the weight of the passage of time.
Ans A). overdate B). overdo C). overdrew D). overdue
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 The bat flew silently through the night, searching for insects to eat. The bat in this context refers to _______.
Ans A). a wooden tool utilised in sports like baseball or cricket B). the act of delivering a forceful strike or hit
C). a measurement unit in digital information systems D). a mammal known for nocturnal flight and insect consumption
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate present tense form of the verb to fill in the blank.

They __________ football every day.

Ans A). plays B). play C). had been playing D). will play
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I remember________ when she used to wash dishes in a restaurant.
Ans A). the business B). the time C). the area D). the profile
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Dolphins are named among the intelligent animals on earth.

Ans A). most intelligent B). intelligenter C). more intelligent D). intelligentest
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). After a tiring day, I had a cup of coffee with Sudhir. B). There is a man sitting beside cat.
C). She saw an excellent episode of the series. D). She asked an easy question, and I took an hour to crack it.
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

My teacher's _______ (stern) warning made all the students quiet and calm.
Ans A). strict B). watchful C). biased D). pliant
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I will try to _______ because he is a good friend of mine.
Ans A). get him off the hook B). avoid him like the plague C). show him the door D). stop him in his tracks
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Samira is a lady who needs extrinsic motivation and will not work on her own.
Ans A). Outward B). Amicable C). Intriguing D). Adventurous
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Identify the word with a spelling error in the following sentence. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
She had swam the English Channel twice.
Ans A). swim B). swimming C). swimmed D). swum
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. ap

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She recieved a beautiful surprise from her partner.
Ans A). Beautiful B). Surprise C). Received D). Partner
Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to _________ our homework by tomorrow.

Ans A). complete B). completing C). completed D). completes

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He was not able to answer as the question was ambiguous.
Ans A). Clear B). Deep C). Superficial D). Unsuitable
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The allowance that is given by a husband to his wife on separation
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Ans A). Matrimonial B). Alimony C). Affianced D). Dowry

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Forests provide essential ecosystem services (1)__________ benefit both the environment and human society. One crucial service is
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carbon sequestration, as forests absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide, helping mitigate climate change. Additionally,
forests regulate water cycles (2)__________ influencing precipitation patterns and maintaining water quality. (3)__________, forests
offer recreational opportunities, cultural significance, and economic benefits through timber production and (4)__________. Thus,
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preserving and sustainably managing forests is imperative for maintaining these (5)__________ ecosystem services.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). than B). that C). then D). this
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Forests provide essential ecosystem services (1)__________ benefit both the environment and human society. One crucial service is
carbon sequestration, as forests absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide, helping mitigate climate change. Additionally,
forests regulate water cycles (2)__________ influencing precipitation patterns and maintaining water quality. (3)__________, forests
offer recreational opportunities, cultural significance, and economic benefits through timber production and (4)__________. Thus,
preserving and sustainably managing forests is imperative for maintaining these (5)__________ ecosystem services.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). off B). about C). by D). between
Correct Answer: C

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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). Moreover B). As long as C). Whatever D). Though
Correct Answer: A

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). ecotourism B). degradation C). deforestation D). industrialisation
Correct Answer: A

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). vitalise B). vitally C). vitality D). v ital
Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 280 B). 320 C). 220 D). 240
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Two trains 280 metres and 260 metres long, respectively, are running towards each other on parallel lines, one at the
speed of 58 km/hr and another at the speed of 50 km/hr. How much time (in seconds) will they take to cross each other?
Ans A). 15 B). 18 C). 17 D). 12

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 A sum of ₹312 was divided among 100 boys and girls in such a way that each boy gets ₹3.60 and each girl ₹2.40. The
number of girls is:
Ans A). 65 B). 60 C). 40 ap D). 35
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 14 cm.
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.5 A trader sells 25 kg of rice at ₹1,400. A customer asks for 15% discount. The shopkeeper agrees to it but instead of 1 kg he
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gives 10% less rice. What is the effective discount that the customer gets (correct to one decimal place)?
Ans A). 5.8% B). 5.7% C). 5.6% D). 5.1%
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
B

Ans A). 840 B). 740 C). 800 D). 760

Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Raman purchased an iron at a cost of ₹2,400 and sold it to Rohan at a loss of 8%. Rohan sold
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it to Soham at a gain of 12.5%. At what price should Soham sell the iron to gain 15%?
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Ans A). ₹2,568.60 B). ₹2,658.60 C). ₹2,856.60 D). ₹2,860.56

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A student's final grade is determined by their final examination scores (weighted at 60%) and a final project score (weighted
at 40%). If the student scores 75 in the final examination and 90 in the project, then the final grade of the student is:
Ans A). 81.5 B). 82.5 C). 82 D). 81
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 The ratio of the base radii of two cylinders is 5 : 6 and the ratio of their corresponding heights is 49 : 36. Find the ratio of
their volumes.
Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B). C). D).

Q.10
Find the simple interest on ₹3,500 at 15% per annum for 5 years.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 As part of the partial work from home process, Amita went to office every 2nd day, Amrita went to office every 3rd day, and
Tosita went to office every 6th day, respectively. All three went to office on 31 October 2021. On how many days did all three
attend office on the same date during the remaining two months of the year?
Ans A). 9 B). 10 C). 11 D). 12
Correct Answer: B

Q.12

Ans A). More, 21% B). Less, 24% C). Less, 21% D). More, 24%
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The ratio of the incomes of Rama and Ganga is 4 : 3 and the ratio of their expenditures is 3 : 2. If each person saves₹2,700,
then find their expenditures, respectively.

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Ans A). ₹8,100 and ₹5,000 B). ₹8,000 and ₹5,000 C). ₹8,100 and ₹5,400 D). ₹8,000 and ₹5,400
Correct Answer: C

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Q.14 In an election between A and B, A gets double the votes of B and wins with a margin of 150 votes. 10% of votes were invalid.

Ans A). 550

What is the total number of votes polled in the election?
B). 600 C). 450
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 51 B). 52 C). 50 D). 49
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16
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Ans A). 90% B). 89% C). 93% D). 87%

Correct Answer: A

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Q.17 The marked price of an article is ₹1,500 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what per cent
above the cost price was the article marked?
Ans
Correct Answer: A
B). C). D).
A).

Q.18 A solid metallic sphere of radius 15 cm is melted and recast into solid spherical balls of radius 3 cm each. What is the ratio
of the surface area of the original sphere to the sum of the surface areas of all the balls?
Ans A). 2 : 7 B). 3 : 8 C). 1 : 5 D). 1 : 3
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The average of nine consecutive integers is 54. The second largest of these numbers is:
Ans A). 57 B). 50 C). 58 D). 59
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 A thief is spotted by a policeman at a distance of 300 m. the policeman chases the thief at speed of 10 km/h and the thief is
running at a speed of 11 km/h, then the distance between them after 12 minutes is:
Ans A). 100 m B). 200 m C). 500 m D). 250 m
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans
Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.2 In a code language, 'FORK' is coded as ‘GLWD’ and 'CAVF' is coded as ‘DXAY’. How will 'TRHA' be coded in that language?
B

Ans A). UOPR B). UONQ C). UNMS D). UOMT

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.4

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.5 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

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Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

22, 31
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26, 35
Ans A). 38, 47 B). 44, 59 C). 48, 52 D). 32, 49
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘CORNER’ is written as ‘REORNC’ and ‘BUDGET’ is written as ‘TEUDGB’. How will ‘DEVICE’ be
written in that language?
Ans A). ECIVED B). EVECID C). EDEVIC D). ECEVID
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
35 × 7 ÷ 6 + 3 − 14 = ?
Ans A). 41 B). 42 C). 35 D). 39
Correct Answer: A

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Statements:
All pens are markers.
Some erasers are pens.

Conclusions:
(I) Some markers are erasers.
(II) All markers are pens.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BDG, EGJ , HJM, KMP, ?

Ans A). PSN B). PNS C). NSP D). NPS
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 JMGI is related to QTNP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GJDF is related to NQKM.
To which of the following is DGAC related, following the same logic?
Ans A). NKJH B). NKHJ C). KNHJ D). KNJH
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

16 ÷ 8 + 13 + 36 × 18 − 3 = ?

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Ans A). 100 B). 98 C). 116 D). 96

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Correct Answer: C

Q.14 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).D sits third
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to the left of E. G sits second to the left of B. Only E sits between F and G. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.Who sits
fourth to the right of C?
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Ans A). A B). D C). E D). B

Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order) . D is an immediate neighbour of both A and F. B is sitting to the immediate right of F. C is sitting second to the left of
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A. G and E both are C’s immediate neighbours and G is not an immediate neighbour of A.
Who is the immediate neighbour of both B and D?
G

Ans A). F B). G C). A D). C

Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 3 is related to 8 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 24 is related to 35. To which of the following is 99 related,
B

following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13
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– Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 80 B). 143 C). 110 D). 120

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 CJ16 is related to EL26 in a certain way. In the same way, MT42 is related to OV52. To which of the following is HO11 related
following the same logic?
Ans A). JQ21 B). JK21 C). KS31 D). JQ31
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 3, 6, 12, 10, 21, 14, ?

Ans A). 25 B). 27 C). 29 D). 30
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some flutes are violins.
Some violins are tablas.
All tablas are sitars.
Conclusions:
(I): Some violins are sitars.
(II): Some flutes are tablas.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘car drive steady’ is coded as ‘mi ku pa’ and ‘steady is safe’ is coded as ‘tu an mi’. How is
‘steady’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). an B). tu C). ku D). mi
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Harshvardhan's ambitions of extending his power to Deccan and South India were stopped by:
Ans A). Vikramaditya B). Pulakesin II C). Rajaraja I D). Ashoka
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 When was India’s first ever budget presented?

Ans A). 1935 B). 1857 C). 1948 D). 1860
Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 The cytoplasmic zone surrounding the Golgi complex possesses no cell organelles. This zone of clear cytoplasm is called:
Ans A). cytosine B). cytochrome C). zone of exclusion
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Which of the following statements is/are correct in context of Buddhist architecture?
i. Uddeshika stupa was created as a memorial.
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ii. Paribhogika stupa contained the buried bodily remains of Buddh

iii. Bharhut stupa is situated in Uttar Pradesh.
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Ans A). Only i and ii B). i, ii and iii C). Only i and iii D). Only i
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 If an Indian citizen is denied entry to a public place because of his caste, which of the following Fundamental Rights is
denied to him?
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Ans A). Right to constitutional remedies B). Right against exploitation C). Right to equality D). Cultural and educational right
Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 ‘Ram Navami’ is celebrated in India to commemorate the:

Ans A). death of Ravana. B). coronation ceremony of Lord Rama as a king. C). return of Lord Rama from forest. D). birth of Lord Rama.
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 In February 2024, who took an oath as the 12th Chief Minister of Jharkhand?
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Ans A). Babulal Marandi B). Arjun Munda C). Champai Soren D). Saryu Rai
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Udit Narayan was conferred the Padma Bhushan in 2016 for which of the following fields?
Ans A). Art - Classical Dance B). Art - Theatre C). Public Affairs D). Art - Playback Singing
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which river is known as ‘Langchen Khambab’ in Tibet?

Ans A). Tista B). Indus C). Sutlej D). Kosi
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Bal Gangadhar described ______ as a diamond of India.

Ans A). Baba Saheb Ambedkar B). Mahatma Gandhi C). Gopal Krishna Gokhale D). Motilal Nehru
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 ‘The Blue Umbrella’, ‘The Cherry Tree’, ‘The Hidden Pool’ are novels written by who among the following authors?
Ans A). Ruskin Bond B). Anant Pai C). Sudha Murthy D). Twinkle Khanna
Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 What is the overarching programme introduced in the Union Budget, 2018-19 by Government of India, for the school
education sector?
Ans A). Right to Education B). Rashtriya Unnat Shiksha Abhiyan C). Sarva Vidya Abhiyan D). Samagra Shiksha
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Who was the highest run scorer in Men’s World Cup cricket - 2019?
Ans A). Rohit Sharma B). Virat Kohli C). DA Warner D). Shikhar Dhawan
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 The approximate number of water molecules present in 9 gm of water is _____.

Ans A). 9.023 × 1023 B). 6.022 × 1023 C). 3.011 × 1023 D). 6.022 × 1022 Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Who among the following was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
Ans A). Annie Besant B). Mahatma Gandhi C). Charles Freer Andrews D). Allan Octavian Hume
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Who among the following was defeated by Babur in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527 CE?
Ans A). Rana Sanga B). Hasan Khan C). Ibrahim Lodi D). Medini Rai
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Where was the inaugural match of the first edition of the Women's Premier League (WPL) organised in the year 2023?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Bengaluru C). Dharamshala D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 ‘Chakyar Koothu’, the folk dance form in which the entire story is presented by a single performer, primarily belongs to
which of the following states?
Ans A). Tripura B). Kerala C). Sikkim D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 Which of the following sectors had the largest percentage of workforce in urban India in the year 2019-2020?
Ans A). Agriculture B). Industry C). Service D). Mining
Correct Answer: C

Q.20
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National Prophylaxis Program, which was launched in 1970 as an immediate remedial measure to address which of the
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following medical conditions /diseases caused by nutritional deficiencies?
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Ans A). Blindness B). Hypercalcemia C). Goitre D). Beriberi

Correct Answer: A
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Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution directs the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor?
Ans A). Article 167 B). Article 153 C). Article 163 D). Article 157
Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 As per the reforms of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023, how many minerals have
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been removed from the list of atomic minerals?

Ans A). 8 B). 3 C). 11 D). 6
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.23 K Kalyanasundaram Pillai was honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, 1999, for his contribution to which of the
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following dance forms?

Ans A). Kuchipudi B). Manipuri C). Bharatnatyam D). Mohiniyattam
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.24 A portion of landmass from the shore line up to the shelf break that is submerged under shallow water is known as:
Ans A). Trenches B). Continental Drift C). Oceanic Basin D). C
ontinental Shelf
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT included in the three main dimensions of the New Industrial Policy, 1991, announced by the
Government of India?
Ans A). Liberalisation B). Privatisation C). Globalisation D). Urbanisation
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 What is the correct substitution for the word ‘screw’ in the idiom ‘Hit the screw on the head’?
Ans A). Bolt B). Crew C). Nail D). Tack
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

She prepares an unique dish in the cooking competition and won it.
Ans A). prepares a unique B). prepared an unique C). No substitution required D). prepared a unique
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.3 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Mosquito means small fly. It has a transmitter segmented body and a _________________ of wings. Male mosquitoes mainly
feed on plant ________________.
Ans A). kind; drink B). set; beverage C). pair; nectar D). couple; liquor
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He had always wanted to work for himself; so, last year he _________ his job at the bank and is now running a tool
business.
Ans A). left B). bereft C). halted D). cleft
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.

Work in this office is done in the _________ way.

Ans A). little efficient B). lesser efficient way C). less efficient D). least efficient
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The chef's delicious recipies are a favourite among the restaurant's patrons.
Ans A). Delicious B). Recipies C). Chef's D). Restaurant's
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.

I graciously welcomed my boss at my birthday party.

Ans A). Bravely B). Cleverly C). Courageously D). Nicely
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Futile
Ans A). Vicious B). Adequate C). Useless
ap D). Thoughtful
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I have lived with my parents / in Mumbai / in a residential flat / yet two years.
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Ans A). yet two years B). in Mumbai C). I have lived with my parents D). in a residential flat
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
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Many fraud companies _____ (deceive) innocent customers and earn millions of dollars.
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Ans A). hamper B). facilitate C). mislead D). resolve

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
B

We have perhaps never seen an ablest series of advocates than these ten standing in a row.
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Ans A). more able B). abler C). the ablest D). most ablest
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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To his surprise, it swung back at his touch.

Ans A). Anger B). Regret C). Shock D). Boredom
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ephemeral
Ans A). Ugly B). Permanent C). Pleasing D). Transient
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
A fox and an hyena were spotted in the animal reserve.
Ans A). A fox B). were spotted in C). and an hyena D). the animal reserve
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). She always cuts out unhealthy snacks. B). The manager cuts the discussion to address an urgent matter.
C). Can you cut through the traffic to get here on time? D). They need to cut down the old tree in the garden.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The questions in part B looks difficult than the questions in part A.

Ans A). difficultier B). difficultly C). more difficult D). most difficult
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Bite the bullet

Ans A). To be the first to attack someone B). To take the blame for something one didn't do C). To buy something with no prior inspection
D). To face up to trouble with fortitude
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The student received an __________ for his outstanding performance.

Ans A). accolad B). acolade C). accolade D). acolayd
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The soldiers are all on their toes and anxiously waiting for the orders to start marching towards the enemy.
Ans A). No substitution required B). all on their toes and anxiously dancing C). all on their fingers and anxiously waiting
D). paying through the nose
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

We have pledged our allegance to the nation.

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Ans A). allegaince B). allegiance C). alegiance D). ellegance
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
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is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
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of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
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Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
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Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
y

has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
B

of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

Ans A). employ B). depart C). inhabit D). engage

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). lifts B). weighs C). counts D). loads
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). beckon B). brokerage C). fair D). intact
Correct Answer: D

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Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another

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female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.

ap
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
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of ocean.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
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Ans A). meet B). horrid C). catch D). communicate

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
G

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
y

is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
B

more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
hs

of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
at

another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). across B). beside C). although D). off
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Simple interest on a given sum for 3 years at a rate of 17% per year is ₹7,140 less than the simple interest on the same sum
for 5 years. Find the sum.
Ans A). ₹23,000 B). ₹20,000 C). ₹21,000 D). ₹22,000
Correct Answer: C

Q.2

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Ans A). 748 B). 734 C). 712 D). 726

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Find the total surface area of hemisphere of radius 6.3 cm.
Ans A). 3,742 cm2 B). 3,777 cm2 C). 374.2 cm2 D). 3,524 cm2 Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
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Ans A). 1200 B). 1300 C). 1260 D). 1220

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.5 The marked price of a table is ₹10,500, and it was sold for ₹9,450. Find the percentage discount for this transaction.
Ans A). 9% B). 9.5% C). 10.5% D). 10%
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 The individual weights (in kg) of six boys are 55, 56, 57, 60, 59 and 55. A new boy joins the group, and the mean weight of
the group becomes 62 kg. Find the weight of the new boy (in kg).
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Ans A). 90 B). 82 C). 92 D). 94

Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 The distribution of fruit consumption in a sample of 85 sixteen-year-old boys is given in the graph below. Study the graph
and answer the question that follows.

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What percentage of these boys ate five or more servings per day? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans A). 20.04% B). 14.32% C). 21.18% D). 17.13%

Q.8 Which of the following is true about average?

ap Correct Answer: C
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Ans A). The average of six consecutive even integers is an even natural number
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B). The average of six consecutive odd integers is an odd integer. C). The average of six consecutive odd integers is an even integer.
D). The average of six consecutive odd integers is an odd natural number.
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9
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G
B y
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Ans A). 2012 B). 2014 C). 2013 D). 2015

Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 The number of schools in a city is directly proportional to the population of the city. In 2020, there were 125 schools and the
population of the city was 1,80,000. In 2023, the number of schools in the city is 180. What is the percentage increase in the
population of the city from 2020 to 2023?
Ans A). 44% B). 42% C). 45% D). 46%
Correct Answer: A

Q.11

Ans A). 942.86 B). 924.86 C). 1036.72 D). 892.55

Correct Answer: A

Q.12 A teacher wanted certain groups of students with exactly 10 or12 or 15 members. What minimum number of students must
be there in the class to make the required groups?
Ans A). 150 B). 120 C). 60 D). 37
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 A man on a tour of 400 km, travels the first 120 km at 80 km/h and the next 150 km at 75 km/h. If he must spend less than 5
hours in the tour, what is the minimum speed at which he has to travel for the remaining distance?
Ans A). 90.21 km/h B). 84.72 km/h C). 86.66 km/h D). 88.56 km/h
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 The average age of four boys Shikhar, Mukesh, Anil, and Anish is 25 years. If the ages of Shikhar, Mukesh, and Anil are 15,
25, and 29 years, then what is the age (in years) of Anish?
Ans A). 32 B). 31 C). 29 D). 30
Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 25%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as to

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make a profit of 50%?
Ans A). 4.8 B). 6.8 C). 5.8
ap D). 3.8
Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 There are 98 women in a group and their average weight is 52 kg. If 7 women of average weight 60 kg leave the group and
two new women of average weight 80 kg join the group, then what will be the new average weight of women in the group
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now?
Ans A). 54 kg B). 56 kg C). 50 kg D). 52 kg
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.17 The ratio 13∶ 15 expressed as a percentage equals:

(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Ans B).
G

A). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
B

Ans A). 780 B). 880 C). 800 D). 840

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.19 If the cost price of a dozen mangoes is the same as the selling price of nine mangoes, then the percentage of loss or gain is:
at

Ans A). C).

D). Correct Answer: D

B).

Q.20 Ajit walks around a circular field at the speed of two rounds per hour, while Mohit runs around it at the speed of 10 rounds
per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 6.30 a.m. Find the time at which they cross each other.
Ans A). 06 : 37 : 50 B). 06 : 37 : 20 C). 06 : 37 : 30 D). 06 : 40 : 00
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
69 − 36 × 6 ÷ 12 + 5 = ?
Ans A). 129 B). 136 C). 128 D). 130
Correct Answer: B

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Q.2

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.3 13 is related to 38 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 44. To which of the following is 26
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 77 B). 71 C). 86 D). 68
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 ADKR is related to CBMP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GXQL is related to IVSJ.
To which of the following is OPYD related, following the same logic?
Ans A). QNAB B). QANB C). QBAN D). BANQ
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘TASK’ is coded as ‘3762’ and ‘CAST’ is coded as ‘2436’. What is the code for ‘K’ in that
language?
Ans A). 2 B). 6 C). 7 D). 4
Correct Answer: C

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Statements:

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Some pizzas are burgers.
Some pizzas are sausages.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some sausages are burgers.
(II) Some sausages are pizzas.
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Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
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D). Only conclusion (II) follows

Correct Answer: D
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statement(s).

Statements:
G

All ants are balls.

All ants are dolls.
B y

Conclusions:
(I) Some balls are dolls.
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(II) All dolls are ants.

Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
at

D). Only conclusion (II) follows.

Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
DKO, GJL, JII, MHF ,?
Ans A). QGB B). PGB C). QGC D). PGC
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.10 BI54 is related to XE64 in a certain way. In the same way, DK76 is related to ZG86. To which of the following is FM43 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). BE35 B). BI53 C). EB35 D). IB53
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

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Ans
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at
Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.12 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F sits third to
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the left of A. D sits to the immediate left of A. C sits second to the right of A. Only E sits between A and C. When counted
from right of A, who sits to the immediate left of B?
B y

Ans A). C B). E C). F D). A

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). R is sitting to
the immediate left of P and immediate right of T. Q is sitting to the immediate left of T. U is sitting to the immediate left of Q.
at

P is sitting to the immediate left of S. Who is sitting to the immediate right of S?

Ans A). T B). R C). U D). Q

Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(34, 22, 63)

(61, 76, 144)
Ans A). (86, 13, 96) B). (45, 41, 93) C). (26, 83, 16) D). (3, 22, 61) Correct Answer: B

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

247 258 280 313 357 ?

Ans A). 426 B). 401 C). 412 D). 388
Correct Answer: C

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Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘HARD’ is coded as ‘1596’ and ‘CARD’ is coded as ‘5689’. What is the code for ‘C’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 5 B). 9 C). 6 D). 8
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘joy salt area’ is coded as 'sd vt de' and ‘area kit care’ is coded as ‘vt fu pv’. How is ‘area’ coded
in the given language?
Ans A). de B). vt C). sd D). fu
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
100 − 4 ÷7 + 5 × 12 = ?
Ans A). 2 B). 6 C). 5 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

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D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
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Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). D).
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B). C).
G
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) was established in the year ________.
at

Ans A). 1948 B). 1973 C). 1985 D). 1960

Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Nife layer of earth is situated in the ________.

Ans A). Mantle B). Crust C). Core D). Lithosphere
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Which of the following crops that spread to northern India in the early years of the 17th century was NOT mentioned in the
Ain-i-Akbari in the lists of crops in northern India?
Ans A). Tobacco B). Wheat C). Arhar D). Jowar
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Who among the following was the first Law and Justice Minister of independent India?
Ans A). John Matthai B). Jagjivan Ram C). BR Ambedkar D). Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the Census of India-2011?
(a) A person aged seven years or above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as
literate.
(b) A person who can only read but cannot write is not literate.
Ans A). Both (a) and (b) are correct B). Only (b) is correct C). Only (a) is correct D). Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 In May 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been awarded the highest honours by the Pacific island nations of Papua
New Guinea and ______________.
Ans A). Tuvalu B). Nauru C). Kiribati D). Fiji
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Which of the following articles mentions about the Appropriation Bills in the state legislature?
Ans A). Article 216 B). Article 204 C). Article 209 D). Article 213
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

Ans A). Rule of Law - Britain B). Procedure Established by Law - Japan C). Concurrent List - Australia D). Function of President - France

Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which of the following statements are correct about Ribosomes?

Statement A: Ribosomes have no membrane.

Statement B: Digestive hydrolytic enzymes are present in Ribosomes.
Statement C: These are called suicidal bags.
Statement D: Ribosomes play an important role in protein synthesis.
Ans A). Only statements A and D B). Only statements A and B C). Only statements A, B and C D). Only statements A and C
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 'Yakshagana', the famous folk dance, is associated with which state?
Ans A). Kerala B). Bihar C). Karnataka D). Manipur
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) was launched by which Ministry of Government of India in the year
2016?

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Ans A). Ministry of Labour and Employment B). Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs C). Ministry of Rural Development D). Ministry of Finance

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Correct Answer: A

Q.12 The College of Fort William was established at ______ under British rule. ap
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Ans A). Calcutta B). Delhi C). Bombay D). Madras
Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 Which of the following is a public sector industry in India?

Ans A). Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) B). Bajaj C). Hindustan Unilever Limited D). Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
an

Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.14 What cellular structure is responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular components and molecules?
G

Ans A). Ribosome B). Mitochondrion C). Lysosome D). Nucleus

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.15 In tennis, what is a 'love' score?

Ans A). The score when the game is tied B). The highest possible score in a game C). The score when a player has zero points
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D). The score when a player wins the first point in a game
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Which city hosted the XXII Commonwealth Games 2022?

Ans A). Glasgow B). Birmingham C). Gold Coast D). Delhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 ‘Getting A Grip: On My Body, My Mind, My Self’ is an autobiography by who among the following tennis icons?
Ans A). Steffi Graf B). Anna Kournikova C). Maria Sharapova D). Monica Seles
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Who is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan 2000 for reviving the Odissi Classical dance form?
Ans A). Kelucharan Mohapatra B). T Balasaraswati C). Pandit Jasraj D). Hari Prasad Chaurasia
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Which of the following was the first subcontinental empire?

Ans A). Satavahana Empire B). Mauryan Empire C). Kushan Empire D). Gupta Empire
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 A molecule with the chemical formula C2H6 is a/an _______ molecule.

Ans A). butane B). propane C). methane D). ethane

Correct Answer: D

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Q.21 What are the three components of the empowerment model in SAPAP of SHGs?
Ans A). Collective empowerment, capital formation, and poverty eradication B). Public resource allocation, capacity building, and microfinance
C). Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building D). Social mobilisation, economic development, and education

Correct Answer: C

Q.22 The famous Qila-i-Kuhna (mosque of the old fort) was built by:
Ans A). Sher Shah B). Alauddin Khilji C). Akbar D). Humayun
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Which of the following states launched Mukhya Mantri Vriksh Sampada Yojana in March 2023?
Ans A). Chhattisgarh B). Punjab C). Karnataka D). Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 In which of the following months is the Tuluni festival celebrated in Nagaland by the Sumi tribe?
Ans A). June B). May C). August D). July
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Which of the following award did Pandit Ravi Shankar win for four times?
Ans A). The Grammy Awards B). The CMA Awards C). The BRIT Awards D). The International Classical Music Awards
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

You know that I am fond of reading / and also that all books are my favourite / but you don’t know that this is one of / my
favourite book.

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Ans A). but you don’t know that this is one of B). and also that all books are my favourite C). my favourite book.
D). You know that I am fond of reading

Q.2 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
ap Correct Answer: C
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The worlds you and I belong to are very defferent.

Ans A). deffirent B). diferent C). deferent D). different

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vague
Ans A). Dissimilar B). Distinct C). Indefinite D). Intact
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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He is the healthy person I have ever met in life.

Ans A). most healthy B). more healthy C). healthier D). healthiest
Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the options given.
Ans A). Neither the boy nor the mother could identify the man. B). Neither the boy nor a mother could identify a man.
C). Neither a boy nor a mother could identify the man. D). Neither a boy nor the mother could identify a man.
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fluctuate
Ans A). Descend B). Steady C). Mitigate D). Wobble
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I could make out from my son's voice that he was _____ as his exam did not go well.
Ans A). abrogated B). confused C). sad D). rejected
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The space or room that is at the top of a building or just below the main roof
Ans A). Dome B). Ceiling C). Stairs D). Attic
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Extensive
Ans A). Abstract B). Limited C). Expensive D). Concrete
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Getting a sudden promotion and increment in my current profile was like _________.
Ans A). a bolt from the blue B). a fish out of water C). a ballpark figure D). a foul play
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Once in a blue moon

Ans A). A regular activity B). A frequent event C). A rare occurrence D). A pleasant surprise
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Chetan's room is clean / than Ram's room because / Chetan cleans it more often than Ram.
Ans A). Chetan cleans it more often than Ram B). than Ram's room because C). Chetan's room is clean D). No error
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

Stephan, however, contrived / to put away / his departure / for eighteen months.
Ans A). Stephan,however,contrived B). his departure C). for eighteen months D). to put away
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error

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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Her decision, / given the complex circumstances, / was too impulsively made.
Ans A). Her decision, B). was too impulsively made. C). No error
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D). given the complex circumstances,
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
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Ans A). Phytoplankton B). Accentuation C). Suppressant D). Supperannuation

Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.
Development does not take place in a vaccum.
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Ans A). vacuum B). vacuuem C). vakum D). vaccim

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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We can observed from the poll that the award is likely to go to the horror movie director this year.
B

Ans A). can observe from B). have been observing of C). are observing of D). had observe from
hs

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Amplify
Ans A). Contract B). Enlarge C). Exert D). Defy
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Expand
Ans A). Inflate B). Protect C). Shrink D). Network
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Our ______ has so many magnificent tourist destinations, with unimaginable potential, yet to ____ fully explored.
Ans A). country; be B). state; been C). national; have D). land; has
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

She went on a quest for ancient things ___(1)____ could have a soul of their own, something ___(2)___ Aladdin's lamp that was
home to a genie. She searched flea markets, met with art dealers and even went to excavation sites. She ___(3)__ searching for
something that would have seen some ancient history when an ___(4)___, ___(5)___, ___(6)____ apothecary table caught her
attention. It was perhaps owned by a __(7)____, ___(8)___, __(9)____ woman who was a wise medic but was deemed a witch.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). that B). who C). which D). whose
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). like B). of C). upstairs D). by
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

She went on a quest for ancient things ___(1)____ could have a soul of their own, something ___(2)___ Aladdin's lamp that was

ap
home to a genie. She searched flea markets, met with art dealers and even went to excavation sites. She ___(3)__ searching for
something that would have seen some ancient history when an ___(4)___, ___(5)___, ___(6)____ apothecary table caught her
attention. It was perhaps owned by a __(7)____, ___(8)___, __(9)____ woman who was a wise medic but was deemed a witch.
at
SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). was B). has been C). were D). is
an

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.

She went on a quest for ancient things ___(1)____ could have a soul of their own, something ___(2)___ Aladdin's lamp that was
y

home to a genie. She searched flea markets, met with art dealers and even went to excavation sites. She ___(3)__ searching for
B

something that would have seen some ancient history when an ___(4)___, ___(5)___, ___(6)____ apothecary table caught her
attention. It was perhaps owned by a __(7)____, ___(8)___, __(9)____ woman who was a wise medic but was deemed a witch.
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SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks numbered 4, 5 and 6 respectively.
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Ans A). heavy; antique; chestnut brown B). antique; heavy; chestnut brown C). antique; chestnut brown; heavy
D). chestnut brown; antique; heavy
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks numbered 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
Ans A). small; old; hunch-backed B). hunch-backed; old; small C). old; small; hunch-backed D). small; hunch-backed; old
Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 390 B). 350 C). 290 D). 310
Correct Answer: B

Q.2

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Ans

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Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

Q.3
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A cylinder with a radius of 12 cm and height of 38 cm is cut parallel to the base into two pieces of different sizes. The total
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surface area of the larger piece formed is 60% of the total surface area of the given cylinder. The smaller piece is melted and
used to create a sphere. Find the radius (in cm) of the sphere.
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Ans
A). C). D). Correct Answer: B
B).
an
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Q.4 In a group of 260 people, one-fourth are women, two-fifth are men and the rest are children.
The average age of women is five-sixth of the average age of men, average age of children is
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one-third of the average age of men. If the average age of men is 48 years, what is the
average age of the group in years?
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Ans A). 42.7 B). 34.8 C). 38.4 D). 32.7

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
at

Ans A). 800 B). 880 C). 780 D). 840

Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 If 12 : x :: x : 27 and 25 : y :: y : 36, where x and y are both positive numbers, then find x : y.
Ans A). 7 : 9 B). 3 : 5 C). 5 : 6 D). 4 : 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 A man bought an article for ₹500 and sold it for ₹600. Find his profit percentage.
Ans A). 40% B). 30% C). 20% D). 10%
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Aniruddh invested ₹15,000 in the shares of a company. The shares rose by 15% one day and fell by 10% on the other day.
What is the current value (in ₹) of Aniruddh’s investment?
Ans A). 15450 B). 15525 C). 15750 D). 15500
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 A and B are running in the same direction at the speeds of 9km/h and 3km/h, respectively,on a circular track of length 27 km.
They will meet again after:
Ans A). 4.5 hours B). 4 hours C). 3.5 hours D). 3 hours
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 In the what ratio must a shopkeeper mix 2 types of rice worth₹80/kg and₹100/kg, so that the average cost of the mixture
is₹95/kg?
Ans A). 1 : 4 B). 1 : 3 C). 1 : 2 D). 2 : 3
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Annual income of five schools (in lakhs)

For school R, income from Miscellanous is what percentage (in%) of income from Donation?
Ans A). 125 B). 75 C). 250 D). 225
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Two classes took the same test. One class of 20 students made an average grade of 85%, the other class of 30 students

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made an average grade of 70%. The average grade for all students across both classes is:

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Ans A). 74% B). 72% C). 76% D). 75%
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 ap
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an

Ans A). 462 cu.cm B). 396 cu.cm C). 588 cu.cm D). 858 cu.cm
Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 Find the ratio of the curved surface areas of two cones if the diameters of the bases are equal and slant heights are in the
ratio 5 : 3.
G

Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 7 : 5 C). 3 : 2 D). 5 : 3

Correct Answer: D
B y
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Q.15 The actual and targeted production (in thousands) of shoes of a company during the last five years are given in the
following bar graph. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows:

The total actual production in 2020 and 2021 is what per cent of the total targeted production in 2021 and 2022? (correct up

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to two decimal places)

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Ans A). 67.59% B). 70.59% C). 80.95% D). 77.67%
Correct Answer: B

Q.16
ap
A car driver covers a total distance of 120 km. He covers the first 80 km at a uniform speed of 50 km/h and the next 40 km at
at
a uniform speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the car is:
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Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).
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Q.17 If the cost price of 30 books is same as the selling price of 20 books, then the gain percentage is:
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Ans A). 50% B). 40% C). 15% D). 25%

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.18 The average weight of 12 students and two teachers is 55 kg. When one teacher weighing 68 kg is included in the group,
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then the average weight of the group (in kg) is:

Ans A). 56 B). 56.5 C). 54.5 D). 55

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.19 The difference between discounts on a bill for ₹22,500 under two schemes, a discount of 40% and two successive discounts
at

of 36% and 4%, is:

Ans A). ₹342 B). ₹356 C). ₹324 D). ₹365
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Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in₹) on ₹940 for 3 years at 5% per annum.
Ans A). ₹142 B). ₹143 C). ₹140 D). ₹141
Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘she is intelligent’ is written as ‘le me re’ and ‘she is studious’ is written as ‘re de me’. How is
‘studious’ written in the given code language?
Ans A). de B). me C). re D). le
Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘MONK’ is coded as ‘1238’ and ‘HONK’ is coded as ‘8326’. What is the code for ‘H’ in that
language?
Ans A). 6 B). 3 C). 2 D). 8
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

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5040, 6064, 6576, 6832, 6960, ?
Ans A). 7472 B). 7024 C). 7088 D). 7216
ap Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 43 is related to 87 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 63 is related to 127. To which of the following is 52
related, following the same logic?
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into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 108 B). 105 C). 111 D). 101
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
G

are interchanged?
4 − 6 × 27 ÷ 72 + 6 = ?
y

Ans A). 9 B). 6 C). 14 D). 1

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(8, 320, 4)
(1, 70, 7)
Ans A). (2, 110, 5) B). (3, 10, 7) C). (2, 40, 2) D). (3, 22, 5)
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). A is sitting
third to the left of B. C is sitting second to the right of F. A is sitting to the immediate left of C. D is not an immediate
neighbour of C.
What is the position of B with respect to E?
Ans A). Immediate right B). Second to the left C). Second to the right D). Immediate left
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

17 ÷ 27 × 7 − 9 + 3 = ?
Ans A). 122 B). 76 C). 34 D). 23
Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C).
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D). Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
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PAX, RCV, TET, VGR, ?

Ans A). XIQ B). XJP C). XJQ D). XIP
Correct Answer: D
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Q.13 In a certain code language, 'FOUR' is coded as '3157' and 'RENT' is coded as '2384'.
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What is the code for 'R' in the given code language?

Ans A). 7 B). 4 C). 2 D). 3
G

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.14 ead the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
R
B

if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
hs

Statements:
All chocolates are juices.
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No juice is a biscuit.
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Conclusions:
(I) No chocolate is a biscuit.
(II) No biscuit is a juice.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Both conclusions I and II follow. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: C

Q.15 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All bags are purses.
No purse is a wallet.
Conclusions
(I) At least some wallets are purses.
(II) No bag is a wallet.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.17 MHLG is related to IDHC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PKOJ is related to LGKF.
To which of the following is SNRM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. OJIN
A). JONI B). JOIN C). OJNI
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 RZ31 is related to TB25 in a certain way. In the same way, JR46 is related to LT40. To which of the following is GO18 related
following the same logic?
Ans A). JP12 B). IQ15 C). JP15 D). IQ12
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19

Ans A). B). C). ap D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.20 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). S is sitting third to the left of V. T is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting fourth to the right of Q. U is sitting
second to the left of P. What is the position of R with respect to T?
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Ans A). Third to the right B). Third to the left C). To the immediate left D). Second to the left
Correct Answer: A
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G

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In September 2023, which Chief Minister of an Indian state won the Lee Kuan Yew Exchange Fellowship for his
B

distinguished contribution to public service?

Ans A). Shivraj Singh Chouhan B). Yogi Adityanath C). Himanta Biswa Sarma D). Naveen Patnayak
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.2 Gulbarga and Bidar style of architecture was patronised by which of the following dynasties?
M

Ans A). Maratha dynasty B). Nanda dynasty C). Tuluva dynasty D). Bahmani dynasty
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Which food is a good source of complete protein?

Ans A). Eggs B). Spinach C). Lentils D). Rice
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The property of rock or soil that indicates the ability of allowing fluids to flow through it is called:
Ans A). Permeability B). Plasticity C). Stability D). Density
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Who among the following was NOT associated with the ‘Prarthana Sabha’?
Ans A). Mahatma Gandhi B). RG Bhandarkar C). Govind Ranade D). Atmaram Pandurang
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Air and National Defence are examples of which of the following goods?
Ans A). Public goods B). Common goods C). Club goods D). Private goods
Correct Answer: A

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Q.7 Captain Hawkins visited India during the reign of:
Ans A). Akbar B). Jahangir C). Babur D). Shahjahan
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which type of molecules show dipole-dipole interaction?

Ans A). Ionic molecules B). Molecules possessing transient dipole C). Molecules possessing permanent dipole D). Non-polar molecules

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapith was founded by Shiv Prasad Gupta and Bhagwan Das in the year _______.
Ans A). 1922 B). 1919 C). 1921 D). 1920
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 From which of the following countries was the concept of the Fundamental Duties borrowed?
Ans A). Australia B). Russia C). Ireland D). USA
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Darshana Jhaveri, a famous Manipuri dancer, was awarded the Padma Shri in which of the following years?
Ans A). 2005 B). 2003 C). 2002 D). 2001
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 For how many days is the Chhat Puja celebrated?

Ans A). Two B). Five C). Four D). One
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The Maukharies ruled over ________ in western Uttar Pradesh, which later on replaced Pataliputra as the political centre of
northern India.
Ans A). Kanauj B). Agra C). Mathura D). Jhansi
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Kishori Amonkar, one of the finest classical singers of Hindustani music, was from which state?
Ans A). Bihar B). Gujarat C). Uttar Pradesh D). Maharashtra
ap Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 'Gaur Maria' dance is performed in which of the following state?
Ans A). Chhattisgarh B). Telengana C). Rajasthan D). Gujarat
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Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Match list I of cell organelles with their functions in list II.
an

List I:
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
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(b) Vacuoles
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondria
G

List II:
(i) for packaging of materials synthesised near the ER and dispatching them to various targets.
y

(ii) generates ATP.

(iii) are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents.

(iv) serve as channels for the transport of proteins.
hs

Ans A). (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii) B). (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) C). (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
D). (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
at

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Identify the INCORRECT pair.

Ans A). Nor Westers - West Bengal B). Bardoisila - Assam C). Blossom Shower - Andhra Pradesh D). Mango Shower - Kerala

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 In which state is the Jhumming cultivation known as Dahiya?

Ans A). Odisha B). Rajasthan C). Andhra Pradesh D). Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 The first ICC Women's T20 Cricket World Cup was hosted by ________.
Ans A). England B). Australia C). South Africa D). India
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Who was named as the president of Shiv Sena (Shinde Group) during the party's national executive meeting in Mumbai in
February 2023?
Ans A). Eknath Shinde B). Sanjay Raut C). Aaditya Thackeray D). Uddhav Thackeray
Correct Answer: A

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Q.21 Who among the following became the first Indian to win a gold medal at the World Athletics Championships event?
Ans A). Murli Shree Sankar B). Neeraj Chopra C). Milkha Singh D). Duti Chand
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution mentions that, “There shall be paid to the Judges of the Supreme Court,
such salaries as may be determined by the Parliament by law, and until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as
are specified in the Second Schedule”?
Ans A). 125 B). 127 C). 124 D). 126
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Who is the writer of the novel ‘A Suitable Boy’?

Ans A). Neel Mukherjee B). Arvind Adiga C). Vikram Seth D). Mahesh Rao
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Which of the following initiatives of the Government of India promises 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to all the
rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work?
Ans A). Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan B). Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
C). National Career Service D). Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Who among the following personalities said, “What I object to is the ‘craze’ for machinery as such. The craze is for what
they call labour-saving machinery. Men go on ‘saving labour’ till thousands are without work and thrown to the open streets
to die of starvation.”?
Ans A). Mahatma Gandhi B). Swami Vivekananda C). Lal Bahadur Shastri D). Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that has used the correct tense.

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Ans A). Yesterday, we will be painting the door when a neighbour stops by to say hello.
B). Yesterday, we are painting the door when a neighbour stop by to say hello.
C). Yesterday, we was painting the door when a neighbour stopping by to say hello.
D). Yesterday, we were painting the door when a neighbour stopped by to say hello.
ap Correct Answer: D
at
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The coaches decided to _____ the regulations more strictly because the candidates were not paying attention during their
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training sessions.
Ans A). enjoy B). provide C). enforce D). supply
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I checked the ____________ to see if it will rain or not.

Ans A). whether B). wither C). wether D). weather

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
at

Although she is virtuous in her deeds, people misinterpret her because of her open and bold nature.
Ans A). sane B). wicked C). moral D). commendable
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Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Separate B). Concieve C). Accessible D). Convenience
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can replace the underlined segment in the given sentence.

No sooner had they left their home that it started raining heavily.

Ans A). their home that it start B). their home than it starts C). there home than it started D). their home than it started
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
Something that has the quality of being easily broken
Ans A). Brittle B). Broken C). Damage D). Hard
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
Sean is notorious for revealing the secrets about the company.
Ans A). Being in bad blood B). Biting the bullet C). Spilling the beans D). Biting the dust
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I have a __________ for reading and want to become a writer when I grow up.
Ans A). tallow B). unity C). dream D). passion
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Solving the riddle given by our teacher is farther beyond our capacity.
Ans A). fair B). fare C). farthest D). far
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

I heard management is planning to transfer me to another department and demote me. I need to confirm if this is true by
hearing it directly from the person involved and from my manager.
Ans A). straight from the horse's mouth B). on pins and needles C). in the seventh heaven D). bearing a grudge
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
There has been / an increase of the number / of road / accidents recently.
Ans A). an increase of the number B). of road C). There has been D). accidents recently
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the option that rectifies the error in the usage of the future tense in the given sentence.

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Shivani go to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

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Ans A). Shivani will go to school tomorrow for prize distribution. B). Shivani has gone to school tomorrow for prize distribution.
C). Shivani had gone to school tomorrow for prize distribution. D). Shivani goes to school tomorrow for prize distribution.
ap Correct Answer: A
at
Q.14 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the underlined word from the options.
He was startled by the loud thander during the storm.
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Ans A). thondar B). thundar C). thunder D). thundre

Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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Osmium is heavy metal in the periodic table.

Ans A). more heavy B). heavier C). the heaviest D). the most heavy
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

B y

Excessive
hs

Ans A). Moderate B). Flow C). Inordinate D). Desirable

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.17 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The scientist made an appauling discovery about the environmental impact of the drug.
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Ans A). apalling B). appaulling C). appalling D). appawling

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He was constantly / gazing on the / crime scene to / find some clues.

Ans A). gazing on the B). He was constantly C). crime scene to D). find some clues
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the most appropriate word from the options to fill in the blank.
Adithya ordered a juicy _________________ cooked to perfection at the highway restaurant.
Ans A). stake B). stink C). steak D). stoke
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence.

The name should also be beneficial to a strong, long-lasting marketing campaign.

Ans A). Desirable B). Detrimental C). Advantageous D). Causal
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was just before noon on June 26, 1975, and my friend and I were out exploring the bustling by-lanes of Delhi’s Karol Bagh, unaware
that the Emergency had been declared, and that it would change our lives in ways we could have never ___1___. Though Indira
Gandhi had herself announced the Emergency in a national broadcast at 8 am, IST, the news took its own time to reach the common
people who went about their business as always. However, two hours into our outing, we ___2___ something was wrong. The
pavement shops began to thin out as we watched and the bigger outlets too looked ready to ___3___; many of them worked behind
half-downed shutters. We were young but fancied ourselves as political animals, which at the time was shorthand for being
passionately anti-Congress and anti-Indira. There was no way we were going to head home without knowing what had happened.
There was already considerable excitement in our small friends’ circle over two ___4___ developments: the June 12, 1975 Allahabad
high court ruling unseating Indira for electoral malpractices and the Congress’s unexpected defeat in the State election in Gujarat. The
Supreme Court had allowed Indira to continue as prime minister but that did not ___5___ our joy; it was a technical reprieve that did
not lessen the political blow she had received.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). undermined B). betrothed C). targeted D). imagined
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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passionately anti-Congress and anti-Indira. There was no way we were going to head home without knowing what had happened.

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There was already considerable excitement in our small friends’ circle over two ___4___ developments: the June 12, 1975 Allahabad
high court ruling unseating Indira for electoral malpractices and the Congress’s unexpected defeat in the State election in Gujarat. The

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Supreme Court had allowed Indira to continue as prime minister but that did not ___5___ our joy; it was a technical reprieve that did
not lessen the political blow she had received.
at
SubQuestion No : 22
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Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans A). sensed B). received C). feigned D). created
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
ag

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

Gandhi had herself announced the Emergency in a national broadcast at 8 am, IST, the news took its own time to reach the common
B

people who went about their business as always. However, two hours into our outing, we ___2___ something was wrong. The
pavement shops began to thin out as we watched and the bigger outlets too looked ready to ___3___; many of them worked behind
hs

half-downed shutters. We were young but fancied ourselves as political animals, which at the time was shorthand for being
passionately anti-Congress and anti-Indira. There was no way we were going to head home without knowing what had happened.
at

There was already considerable excitement in our small friends’ circle over two ___4___ developments: the June 12, 1975 Allahabad
high court ruling unseating Indira for electoral malpractices and the Congress’s unexpected defeat in the State election in Gujarat. The
M

Supreme Court had allowed Indira to continue as prime minister but that did not ___5___ our joy; it was a technical reprieve that did
not lessen the political blow she had received.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). open up B). pop up C). chicken out D). wrap up
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). production B). landmark C). flaws D). mistakes
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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passionately anti-Congress and anti-Indira. There was no way we were going to head home without knowing what had happened.

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). dampen B). adopted C). magnified D). diminished
Correct Answer: A
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G
B y
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at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Lokesh received an amount of ₹10,500 in 5 years, including simple interest, on a principal amount of ₹7,500. What would be
the total amount he receives if the interest rate is increased by 4%?
Ans A). ₹11,500 B). ₹12,595 C). ₹12,550 D). ₹12,000
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 What should be subtracted from 30, 56, 40 and 76 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?
Ans A). 4 B). 10 C). 6 D). 8

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Correct Answer: A

Si
Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 240 B). 180 C). 280
ap D). 200
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 In a jeep driving at a speed of 9 m/s, a thief is fleeing on a straight road. He is being pursued by a police officer riding a
motorbike at a speed of 10 m/s. How long would it take a police officer to apprehend the burglar if there is a 100 m
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instantaneous distance between the vehicle and the motorbike?

Ans A). 102 s B). 100 s C). 95 s D). 98 s
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 An item is listed for ₹450 with 15% trade discount. Find the amount of trade discount.
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Ans A). ₹517.50 B). ₹52.50 C). ₹67.50 D). ₹382.50

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.6 The management batch of a college has two sections, A and B. Section A has 22 students and their average marks are 75,
y

whereas section B has 30 students and their average marks are 60. What are the average marks of the whole batch? (Round
B

off to two decimal places)

Ans A). 65.23 B). 59.34 C). 66.35 D). 58
hs

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.7 Find the least number which when divided by 20,25,35 and 40 leaves remainders 14,19,29and 34, respectively.
Ans A). 1284 B). 1294 C). 1384 D). 1394
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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 In an examination, there are four subjects of 100 marks each. A student scores 78% in the first subject, 75% in the second
subject and 90% in the third subject. She scored 85% in aggregate. Her percentage of marks in the fourth subject is:
Ans A). 95% B). 97% C). 87% D). 81%
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Rajneesh drove his car at a speed of 99 km/h for 2 hours and then he took a rest for one hour. Then, he further drove for 3
hours at a speed of 60 km/h. What was Rajneesh’s average speed (in km/h) during his entire journey?
Ans A). 63 B). 65 C). 69 D). 67
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The average of 17 results is 62. The average of the first eighth is 48 and that of the last eighth is 84, the ninth result is:
Ans A). 2.5 B). −2 C). −1.5 D). 2
Correct Answer: B

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Q.11

Ans A). 17.5% B). 18.2% C). 20.3% D). 24.5%

Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

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an
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G
B y
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What was the percentage (in%) drop in the production of food grains from 1991 to 1992?
at

Ans A). 15 B). 25 C). 30 D). 20

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13

Ans A). B). D).

C). Correct Answer: A

Q.14 A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 352 cm2. Its curved surface area is one-eighth of the total surface area. The
radius (in cm) of the cylinder is:
[Useπ = 22/7]
Ans A). 9 B). 8 C). 11 D). 7
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The cost price of 12 bananas is equal to the sale price of 10 bananas. What is the percentage of profit?
Ans A). 24% B). 12% C). 20% D). 16%
Correct Answer: C

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Q.16 If the height of a triangle is increased by 20% and the base is increased by 12%. What is the new area (in cm2) if the old area
of the triangle was 200 cm2?
Ans A). 234.4 B). 254.4 C). 268.8 D). 216.7
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 11% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B). C). D).

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 680 B). 720 C). 760 D). 660
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 24 boys and a certain number of girls appeared for an exam. The average score of the boys was 42 and the average score of
the girls was 34, while the combined average score was 38. How many girls appeared for the exam?
Ans A). 28 B). 26 C). 30 D). 24
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 A train travels at a speed of 120 km/h. How many metres will it travel in 60 minutes?
Ans A). 145000 B). 135000 C). 120000 D). 140000
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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3 16 66 201 406 ?

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Ans A). 409 B). 410 C). 411 D). 412
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 ap
In a certain code language, ‘bring cold water’ is coded as ‘qh pw ut’ and ‘water is pure’ iscoded as ‘mk zv qh’. How is ‘water’
at
coded in the given language?
Ans A). zv B). qh C). ut D). pw
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Correct Answer: B

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘WILD’ is coded as ‘3197’ and ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘2346’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that
an

language?
Ans A). 9 B). 3 C). 2 D). 6
ag

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BFL, HLR, NRX, TXD, ?

B y

Ans A). JDZ B). DZJ C). ZDJ D). ZJD

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?
at

13 ÷ 4 + 16 × 2 − 21 = ?
M

Ans A). 59 B). 61 C). 65 D). 42

Correct Answer: C

Q.6 13 is related to 104 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 136. To which ofthe following is 23
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 184 B). 138 C). 207 D). 92
Correct Answer: A

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Q.7 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.8 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting second to the left of A. Only one person is sitting between B and C when counted from right of B. E is
sitting third to the right of F. D is sitting to the immediate left of E. The position of how many persons excluding A will
remain unchanged if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from A,
keeping the position of A unchanged?
Ans A). One B). Three C). Two D). None
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

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Statements:
No chair is a recliner.
No recliner is a sofa.
No recliner is a mat. ap
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Conclusions:
(I) No chair is a sofa.
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(II) Some mats are sofa.

Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
an

D). Only conclusion (II) follows.

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.10 394 is related to 242 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 461 is related to 309. To which of the following is
428 related, following the same logic?
G

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
y

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
B

Ans A). 257 B). 261 C). 276 D). 282

Correct Answer: C
hs
at

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘POT’ is coded as ’15-14-19’ and ‘SPLIT’ is coded as ’18-15-11-8-19’. What is the code for
‘PERFORM’ in the given code language?
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Ans A). 15-4-17-6-14-17-12 B). 15-4-17-5-15-17-12 C). 15-4-17-5-14-17-12 D). 15-4-17-5-14-17-13

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
Some hoops are cows.
All cows are bulls.
Conclusions:
(I) Some bulls are hoops.
(II) Some hoops are bulls.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 LIFE is related to NKHG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SLOPE is related to
UNQRG. To which of the following is DUAL related, following the same logic?
Ans A). FWDN B). FXDN C). FXCN D). FWCN
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). T sits to the
immediate right of V. S sits second to the right of Q. U is an immediate neighbour of both V and S. P sits second to the left of
U. Who is sitting to the immediate left of R?
Ans A). S B). Q C). T D). P
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 HP21 is related to XF34 in a certain way. In the same way, KS72 is related to AI85. To which of the following is NV39 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). DL55 B). LD55 C). DL52 D). LD52
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete

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the pattern.

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ap
at
Pr

Ans
an

Correct Answer: D
ag

A). B). C). D).

G
B y

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
hs

interchanged?
60 × 12 − 6 ÷ 4 + 15 = ?
at

Ans A). 11 B). 12 C). 14 D). 13

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.19 In a certain code language, 'JARS' is coded as '3175' and 'SIDE' is coded as '4832'.
What is the code for 'S' in the given code language?
Ans A). 4 B). 8 C). 3 D). 5
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1
ap
Who is the author of ‘Temple Tales: Secrets & Stories of India’s Sacred Places’?
at
Ans A). Shashi Tharoor B). Mulk Raj Anand C). Sudha G Tilak D). Malathi Ramachandran
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Who among the following is the author of the book named 'Streepurushtulna'?
an

Ans A). Tarabai Shinde B). Pandit Ramabai C). Rashasundari Devi D). Sarojini Naidu
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.3 Squash player Anahat Singh belongs to which city in India?

Ans A). Mumbai B). Haryana C). Delhi D). Bengaluru

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.4 In September 2023, at the BRICS Innovation Forum in Moscow, who among the following, who is a Chief Innovation Officer
B

from Telangana, received the World Innovation Award?

Ans A). KT Rama Rao B). T Harish Kumar C). Kalvakuntla Chandrashekar Rao D). Shanta Thoutam
Correct Answer: D
at

Q.5 Which of the following is considered unicellular green algae?

Ans A). Oedogonium B). Cladophora C). Chlamydomonas D). Chlorophyta

Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Which of the following temples is NOT an example of Nagara style of architecture?
Ans A). Lingaraja temple, Bhubaneshwar B). Kailasha temple, Kanchipuram C). Kandariya temple, Madhya Pradesh D). Sun temple, Konark

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest population as per the Census of India 2011?
Ans A). Lakshdweep B). Daman and Diu C). Andaman and Nicobar D). Delhi
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Which of the following pollutants is responsible for the acidification of ocean?
Ans A). Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) B). Carbon monoxide (CO) C). Carbon dioxide (CO2) D). Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a religious festival?

Ans A). Guru Purab B). Gandhi Jayanti C). Good Friday D). Muharram
Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 Dhamma is the __________ word for the Sanskrit word ‘Dharma’.
Ans A). Pali B). Tamil C). Prakrit D). Abahatta
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which of the following is the headquarter of East Central Railway?

Ans A). Hajipur B). Kolkata C). Guwahati D). Kanpur
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 According to Koeppen’s Scheme of climatic regions of India, in which of the following states is the ‘BWhw’ and ‘BShw’ type
climate found?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Bihar C). Rajasthan D). Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 11 August 2023, which
amends the ________________________.
Ans A). Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2017 B). Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2016
C). Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2014 D). Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2015
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 According to the Census of India 2001, how much percentage of the immigrant population was from Sri Lanka?
Ans A). 1.6% B). 2.9% C). 8.1% D). 7.1%
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 VP Dhananjayan and Shanta Dhananjayan were honoured with Rukminidevi Memorial Award in 2009 for which of the
following Indian classical dance forms?
Ans A). Sattriya B). Bharatanatyam C). Odissi D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The Shuddhi Movement to reconvert to the Hindu fold the converts to other religions, was started by which of the following

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organisations?

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Ans A). Dharma Sabha B). Arya Samaj C). Satyashodhak Samaj D). Brahmo Samaj
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 To which state does Indian shooter Abhinav Bindra belong? ap

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Ans A). Uttarakhand B). Madhya Pradesh C). Punjab D). Rajasthan
Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Which of the following was NOT found in the Harappan excavation sites?
Ans A). Dwelling houses B). Public bath C). Public hospital D). Public buildings
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Which of the following are the major objectives of governments engaged in the budgetary process in India?
a. Stabilising the level of aggregate demand in the economy
b. Redistributing incomes of people as per constitutional principles
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c. Floating schemes to appeal to citizens in a democratic way on a regular basis

d. Allocating funds to various economic activities
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Ans A). Only a and b B). All a, b, c and d C). Only a, b and d D). Only a, b and c
B

Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 From which of the following countries has the Indian Constitution borrowed the procedure of making amendments in the
Constitution?
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Ans A). Australia B). Ireland C). Russia D). South Africa
Correct Answer: D
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Q.21 The structure of methanol is CH3OH. This kind of representation is known as _________.

Ans A). complete structural formula B). condensed structural formula C). bond-line structural representation
D). wedge-and-dash representation
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 Lachhu Maharaj has been associated with which dance form?
Ans A). Kathak B). Odissi C). Manipuri D). Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Which raga was composed by music emperor Mian Tansen to bring rain?
Ans A). Mayurapriya B). Megh Pushpa C). Megh Malhar D). Sharvari Tarang
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Muscle cells and muscle fibres are developed from embryonic precursor cells known as:
Ans A). myoblasts B). myocyte C). myofibril D). myonuclei
Correct Answer: A

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Q.25 The Constitution of India has borrowed many provisions from different countries as well as from the Government of India
Act of ___________.
Ans A). 1935 B). 1942 C). 1949 D). 1919
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person or entity that is unable to pay debts.

Ans A). Busted B). Insurgent C). Insolvent D). Recluse
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The meteorological department predicted heavy rain over the coming days.
Ans A). Drizzly B). Light C). Plentiful D). Rare
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

Only the beautiful painting is to be displayed in the exhibition.

Ans A). the most beautiful B). more beautiful C). the much beautiful D). beautiful
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
We / enjoyed lunch / he gave / us.
Ans A). us B). We C). enjoyed lunch D). he gave
Correct Answer: C

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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He couldn't attend the meeting _________ he was sick.

Ans A). so B). because C). although ap D). but
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
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Please bring two bananas and the piece of cake from the market.
Ans A). and the piece of cake B). two bananas C). Please bring D). from the market
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Despite their differences, the counties found common ground and buried the hatchet.
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Ans A). To continue a conflict B). To disagree publicly C). To settle a dispute peacefully D). To seek revenge in the future
Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 Identify the sentence with the adverbial error.

Ans A). She ran the marathon fast incredibly. B). She ran the marathon incredibly fast. C). She ran incredibly the marathon fast.
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D). She ran the incredibly marathon fast.

Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.
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The impacts of climate change on different sectors of society are interelated.

Ans A). interreleted B). enterrelated C). interrelated D). interrilated
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). This is a very difficult task to accomplish. B). A young boy offered her his seat.
C). I wish I had eraser to erase all the mistakes in my life. D). I have a lot of work to complete.
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Rahul speaks fluently English / although he makes / quite a lot of mistakes /while writing.
Ans A). while writing B). quite a lot of mistakes C). Rahul speaks fluently English D). although he makes
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Proficient
Ans A). Glamorous B). Accomplished C). Callous D). Recalcitrant
Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Fatigued
Ans A). Tired B). Furious C). Tricky D). Famous
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

As the orchestra played, the audience was mesmerised by the beautiful melodies.
Ans A). alienated B). dirty C). turbid D). abstracted
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

His dog did not _________ when thieves were slashing the _________ of his precious tree.
Ans A). bark B). shout C). stem D). claw
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

If you don’t have a lump sum to ______ in a fixed deposit, you can surely opt for a long-term recurring deposit.
Ans A). gather B). invest C). publish D). draw
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Green thumb
Ans A). Indulging in corruption B). To visit the vegetable market C). Preparing for war D). Being good at growing plants
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.
Sheetal has been studying engineering for five years, ____________________ countless hours to her coursework.

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Ans A). dedecating B). deddicating C). dedicating D). daidicating
Correct Answer: C

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Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.
His performace in the play was outstanding.
Ans A). play B). outstanding C). His
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D). performace
Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Exactly the same words as were used originally.

Ans A). Factual B). Ornate C). Precise D). Verbatim

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
G

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
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United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
B

for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
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Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
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Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). his B). its C). him D). her
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). at B). after C). off D). on
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 23

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Q.23 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

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Ans A). cacophony B). cadre C). number D). division
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
B y

Ans A). based B). surviving C). living D). rested

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). longer B). lesser C). moreover D). shorter
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A batsman scored the following runs in the last 5 innings. Find his score in the 4th innings if the average score is 43.
Innings Score (in runs)
1st - 92
2nd - 53
3rd - 35
4th - X
5th - 27

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Ans A). 8 B). 4 C). 12 D). 10
Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 A man’s average driving speed for 9 hours is 88 km/hr. During the first five hours of his journey, he drove at 74 km/hr, and
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last two hours he drove at 82 km/hr. What was his average speed (in km/hr) for the sixth and the seventh hour?
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Ans A). 92 B). 120 C). 129 D). 101
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
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Ans A). 340 B). 400 C). 440 D). 360

Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Pure ghee costs ₹100 per kg. After adulterating it with vegetable oil costing ₹50 per kg, a shopkeeper sells the mixture at the
rate of ₹96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two?
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Ans A). 4 : 1 B). 1 : 2 C). 3 : 2 D). 3 : 1

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.5 Three candidates contested an election and received 1234, 8448 and 20180 votes, respectively. What percentage of the total
votes did the winning candidate get? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.6

Ans A). 20.36% B). 18.27% C). 23.25% D). 21.47%

Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.

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Ans A). 600 B). 560 C). 640 D). 540
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 ap
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Ans A). 28 B). 35 C). 24 D). 21

Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 Which of the following options is equal to the radius of the new sphere, if three spheres of radii 5cm, 3cm and 4cm are
melted into form a new sphere?
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Ans A). 5cm B). 8cm C). 6.5cm D). 6cm

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.10 A cone of radius 16 cm and height 12 cm is cut, parallel to the base, at some height closer to the top. If the ratio of the
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heights of the solids is 1∶ 3, then the ratio of the total surface areas of the two solids formed is approximately given by:
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Ans A). 9 : 143 B). 1 : 8 C). 2 : 15 D). 7 : 180

Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 The average weight of 20 boys is 60 kg. Together with 30 girls, the average weight of all boys and girls is 54 kg. What is the
average weight of 30 girls in kg?
Ans A). 54 B). 50 C). 52 D). 55
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 A student's overall grade is determined by their scores in three subjects: Mathematics, English, and Science, with weights
of 40%, 30%, and 30%, respectively. If the student scores 80, 90, and 75 in these subjects, respectively, the overall grade of
the student is:
Ans A). 82 B). 81.5 C). 82.5 D). 81
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 45%?
Ans A). 6.36 B). 8.36 C). 7.36 D). 9.36
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 A shopkeeper offers two schemes, the first being a single discount of 30%, and the second being two successive discounts
of 25% and 5%. What is the difference (in ₹) in the discounts of both the schemes if the customer did the shopping of ₹5,000
each in both the schemes?
Ans A). 67.50
Click B).
To62.50
Join Telegram C).
- 70 D). 65
Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.15 A policeman saw a thief at a distance of 800m. When the policeman started chasing the thief, the thief started running. If the
ratio of the speeds of the policeman to the thief is 3:2, then the distance travelled by the policeman to catch the thief is
Ans A). 1.6 km B). 3.2 km C). 2.4 km D). 2 km
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph represents the average percentage marks obtained in English, Hindi and General Knowledge by
students of four centres (A, B, C and D).

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If the full marks in English is 150, Hindi is 50 and General Knowledge is 200, then find the difference between the total marks
of the centre A and D.
Ans A). 27.5 B). 28.25 C). 29.5 ap D). 25
Correct Answer: A
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Q.17 The ratio of prices of coffee and tea is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their quantities consumed by a family is 7 : 9. Find the ratio of
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expenditures on coffee and tea.

Ans A). 7 : 5 B). 5 : 9 C). 7 : 9 D). 9 : 5
Correct Answer: B
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Q.18 A certain sum of money will be ₹10,800 in 5 years. If simple interest is two-third of the principal, then the rate of interest p.a.
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is equal to:
Ans
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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

B y

Q.19 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 51.8 B). 49.8 C). 50.8 D). 52.8
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 The length and the breadth of the floor of a rectangular hall are 98 feet and 70 feet, respectively. If all persons in the hall are
allotted equal square spaces as workstations, what will be the area of the largest such workstation that can be allotted to
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any user, assuming no space in the hall is left unoccupied?

Ans A). 196 sq. ft B). 144 sq. ft C). 100 sq. ft D). 256 sq. ft
Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain language, 'INCH' is coded as '9631', and 'THIN' is coded as '3269'. What is the code for ‘T’ in 'THIN'?
Ans A). 6 B). 9 C). 2 D). 3
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).Only two
people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E. Only two people sit between F and C. Only three people sit
between E and B. D sits to the immediate left of A. How many people sit between A and G when counted from the left of A?

Ans A). 1 B). 3 C). 4 D). 2

Correct Answer: B

Q.3 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
5 + 3 – 10 × 2 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans A). 15
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13 C). 17
Join Telegram D). 12
- Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

115 117 123 125 131 ?

Ans A). 133 B). 134 C). 135 D). 132
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C is sitting to
the immediate left of A and immediate right of E. E is sitting to the immediate right of B. D is sitting to the immediate left of B
and immediate right of F. A is sitting to the immediate left of G. Who is sitting to the immediate right of G?
Ans A). E B). D C). A D). F
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In a certain code language,‘legs hands ears’ is coded as ‘du ph bq’,‘hands eyes hearts’ is coded as ‘ak fd du’,‘ears hearts
arms’ is coded as ‘fd bq dy’. What is the code for‘eyes’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)

Ans A). fd B). ph C). ak D). du

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

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Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(24 ÷ 6) + (18 × 4) – 54 + 42 = 99
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(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
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Ans A). 24 and 54 B). 54 and 42 C). 4 and 6 D). 18 and 24

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
ag

1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 64, 2)
G

(12, 12, 1)
Ans A). (10, 3426, 7) B). (8, 722, 9) C). (6, 214, 6) D). (4, 256, 4)
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
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Some ants are flies.

All flies are bees.
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Conclusions:
(I): No ant is a bee.
(II): Some ants are bees.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below, to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.12 NUQM is related to PWSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JQMI is related to
LSOK. To which of the following is QXTP related, following the same logic?
Ans A). ZSVR B). SZRV C). ZSRV D). SZVR
Correct Answer: D

Q.13

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Ans
Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.14 ODGM is related to NBFK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TAYP is related to
SYXN. To which of the following is RJFB related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). QHEZ B). PGDD C). PFCC D). RHDC

Correct Answer: A
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Q.15
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Ans A).
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B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘TURF’ is coded as ‘5691’ and ‘RAFT’ is coded as ‘6935’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 3 B). 9 C). 6 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 12 is related to 81 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 24 is related to 153. To which ofthe following is 19
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 129 B). 123 C). 131 D). 125
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

BDG, HJM, NPS, TVY, ?

Ans A). ZBE B). XZC C). ACF D). YAD
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:

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All parrots are eagles.

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Some parrots are ostriches.
Conclusions:
(I) Some eagles are parrots.
(II) Some eagles are ostriches. ap
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Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Only conclusion II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow
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Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following has written the famous novels (originally in Bangla) ‘Devdas’ and ‘Parineeta’?
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Ans A). Rabindra Nath Tagore B). Nabin Chandra Sen C). Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay D). Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.2 In which of the following states is shifting agriculture locally called Penda?
Ans A). Andhra Pradesh B). Orissa C). West Bengal D). Madhya Pradesh
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Analgesic medicines are used for _________________.

Ans A). supporting physiological functions B). correcting deficiencies due to vitamins and nutrients C). reducing pain and in fever
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D). killing or weakening microbes and infections

Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Who among the following was the captain of the Indian cricket team during the 1983 Cricket World Cup event?
Ans A). Sandeep Patil B). Sachin Tendulkar C). Mohinder Amarnath D). Kapil Dev
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT an important function of the Supreme Court?
Ans A). It acts to check on executive authorities and enforce the rule of law B). It maintains federal equilibrium
C). It maintains of land records and revenue collection D). It is the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 The Ebony, Mahogany, Cinchona etc. are trees found in which type of forests in India?
Ans A). Tropical Deciduous Forests B). Thorny Forests C). Mangrove Forests D). Tropical Evergreen Forests
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Who was the first feudatory of Pallavas?

Ans A). Harshvardhan B). Rajendra C). Ashoka D). Vijayalaya
Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 All living organisms on the Earth are made up of carbon compounds. Many years ago, dead and buried plants started slowly
modifying into coal under high temperature and high pressure. This process is called:
Ans A). carbonization B). black gold formation C). peat formation D). composting
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What kind of structures are generally used by Buddhists for containing remains of their monks and nuns?
Ans A). Stupas B). Grihas C). Viharas D). Garbha griha
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Who among the following was the Viceroy of India during the announcement of the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
Ans A). Lord Hastings B). Lord Dalhousie C). Lord Canning D). Lord Curzon
Correct Answer: D

Q.11

Ans A). 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b B). 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c C). 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a D). 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Jaiminiya and Kausitaki dances are mentioned in which of the following?
Ans A). Agamas B). Brahmanas C). Puranas D). Vedas
Correct Answer: B

Q.13
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Ans A). 1-(D); 2 -(C); 3 -(B); 4 -(A) B). 1-(C); 2 -(D); 3 -(A); 4 -(B) C). 1-(A); 2 -(B); 3 -(C); 4 -(D) D). 1-(C); 2 -(A); 3 -(D); 4 -(B)
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Correct Answer: B
B

Q.14 Which of the following is considered as a day of mourning among the Muslim community?
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Ans A). Bakri Eid B). Muharram C). Shab-e-Barat D). Barah Wafat
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.15 As per Planning Commission of India, in 2004–05, the percentage of total population of India below poverty line (Lakadawala
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Poverty Estimates combined) was:

Ans B). C). D).
A). Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Geeta Chandran received the Padma Shri in 2007 who is an acclaimed ________ dancer.
Ans A). Sattriya B). Bharatanatyam C). Odissi D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Who first postulated that cells are generated from pre-existing cells?
Ans A). Jennifer Doudna B). Rudolf Virchow C). William Harvey D). Carl Linnaeus
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Ustad Ghagge Khuda Baksh was associated with which of the following gharanas?
Ans A). Delhi gharana B). Benaras gharana C). Agra gharana D). Gwalior gharana
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down qualifications for the membership of the Parliament?
Ans A). Article 105 B). Article 85 C). Article 84 D). Article 80
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 It is observed that a child's heart rate is 135 times per minute. The beat frequency of heart is ____.
Ans A). 8100 Hz B). 2.25 Hz C). 1.12 Hz D). 135 Hz
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 What is the standard length of an Olympic-size swimming pool?

Ans A). 70 metres B). 50 metres C). 60 metres D). 40 metres
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 As per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index Report 2021, which of the following states has the least population
under poverty?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Sikkim C). Himachal Pradesh D). Punjab
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 In October 2023, Raghubar Das has been appointed the Governor of which of the following states of India?
Ans A). West Bengal B). Maharashtra C). Odisha D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 In January 2023, the Warehouse Development Regulation Authority (WDRA) signed a memorandum of understanding with
_________________ of India to help farmers get low interest rate loans.
Ans A). Bank of Baroda B). Canara Bank C). Union Bank of India D). State Bank of India
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Recreation services are an example of _________.

Ans A). consumer goods B). capital goods C). intermediate goods D). inferior goods
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error

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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

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She was amazed by / the unique architecture of / the Sydney Opera House.
Ans A). No error B). She was amazed by C). the unique architecture of D). the Sydney Opera House

Q.2
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The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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He told / his senior, "I / will sung a song / at the party tonight."
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Ans A). He told B). at the party tonight." C). will sung a song D). his senior, "I
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

There was no one left in the world whom they could call _______.
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Ans A). there's B). their's C). their D). theirs

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Exemplary
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Ans A). Bad B). Ordinary C). Excellent D). Average

Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the expression.
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I begin to pronounce the sequence of words and numbers that will prevent her from giving him a piece of her ____________.
Ans A). mind B). cake C). art D). music
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Committee B). Achieve C). Conscientous D). Necessary

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
The touch-sensitive surface is one of the reasons why tablets and smart phones are so smart. All touchscreens generate an
electric field ______________ the screen. Your finger interferes with the field, and the device's operating system
______________ your touch or swipe.
Ans A). across; follows B). past; attends C). beyond; escorts D). onto; chases
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

The rabbit runs fastly.

Ans A). fastest B). as fast as C). faster D). fast
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The students were captivated by the __________ story told by their teacher.
Ans A). superfluous B). compelling C). mundane D). obsolete
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Deliverence B). Banquet C). Condescend D). Alliteration
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

He is reluctant to do the work.
Ans A). happy B). disposed C). hesitant D). eager
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). It is a obvious that child needs love and attention of parents. B). It is an obvious that child needs love and attention of parents.
C). It is obvious that a child needs love and attention of parents. D). It is the obvious that child needs love and attention of parents.

Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

It's raining cats and dogs.

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Ans A). It's a perfect day for a picnic. B). There are cats and dogs in the rain. C). It's raining very heavily. D). The rain is very light.

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Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. ap

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Ritesh remarked, "Honesty is a great virtue."
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Ans A). Probity B). Rectitude C). Integrity D). Wickedness

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Improbable
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Ans A). Plausible B). Implausible C). Practical D). Tenable

Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Maria was unhappy / because she terribly performed / in the examination / conducted last month.
B y

Ans A). Maria was unhappy B). conducted last month C). in the examination D). because she terribly performed
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
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A room in a hospital used especially for sunbathing or therapeutic exposure to light

Ans A). Sanatorium B). Solarium C). Planetarium D). Podium

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
It is very hottest over here.
Ans A). hotter B). more hot C). hot D). most hot
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
He spoke softly and ____________ (tensely), trying to diffuse the tense situation.
Ans A). madly B). calmly C). furiously D). excitingly
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.
Anuradha travelled to Italy last summer and _____________________ the historic ruins of Rome.
Ans A). acsplored B). explored C). explord D). explaured
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). laudatory B). deeply C). abiotically D). crisply
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). blemish B). disregard C). focus D). dispersion

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Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
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As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
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social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.
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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
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Ans A). inobtrusive B). reticent C). deterring D). motivational

Correct Answer: D
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
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appropriate option to fill in each blank.

As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
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including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
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(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). desire B). listlessness C). apathy D). indolence
Correct Answer: A

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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). laminating B). ruminating C). collaborating D). stagnating
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 880 B). 780 C). 800 D). 840
Correct Answer: D

Q.2

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Ans A). 5% B). 25% C). 15% D). 35%
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 415 B). 375 C). 315 ap D). 335
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Five athletes are weighed consecutively, and after each measurement, their average weight is calculated. If the average
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weight increases by 1.5 kg each time, then how much heavier is the last player than the first player?
Ans A). 18 kg B). 15.5 kg C). 10 kg D). 12 kg
Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 In what proportion must a man mix milk worth₹3.3/litre with milk worth₹1.8/litre so that the mixture may be worth ₹2.4/litre?
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Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 4 : 5 C). 3 : 2 D). 1 : 3

Correct Answer: A
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Q.6
B y
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Ans A). A and D B). Band C C). C and E D). B and D

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and 2021 from five
manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

The ratio of the average production by allmanufacturers in 2021 to the average production by allmanufacturers in 2020 is:
Ans A). 17 : 13 B). 13 : 14 C). 14 : 15 D). 15 : 17

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 Ramesh purchased a piano, marked at ₹18,000 at a successive discounts of 12% and 15%, respectively. Ramesh gave ₹536
as transportation charge and sold it at ₹21,000. What is his gain percentage?
Ans A). 35% B). 40% C). 48% ap D). 50%
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 Rakesh obtained a simple interest of ₹3,195 on a certain principal in 6 years at the rate of 15% per annum. What amount of
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simple interest would he get if he invested ₹1,250 more than the previous principal for 3 years at the same rate of interest?
Ans A). ₹2,255 B). ₹2,160 C). ₹2,050 D). ₹2,400
Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 It takes15 seconds for a 375-m long train to pass a pole. How long will it take to pass a 975-m long platform?
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Ans A). 90 seconds B). 72 seconds C). 54 seconds D). 60 seconds

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11
B y
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Ans
A). C). D). Correct Answer: C
B).
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Q.12 The average age of a class of 39 students is 20 years. If the age of the teacher is included, then the average increases by 6
months. Find the age of the teacher (in years).
Ans A). 30 B). 50 C). 40 D). 45
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 A conical cavity is drilled in a solid circular cylinder of 7 cm height and 48 cm base diameter. The height and base diameter
of the cone are the same as those of the cylinder. What is the total surface area of the remaining solid?
Ans A). 1512π cm2 B). 1076π cm2 C). 1420π cm2 D). 1654π cm2 Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Shankar comes to buy a T-shirt in a showroom. He purchases a shirt which costs ₹1,020 after a discount. He pays his bill in
the form of 50 paise, 20 paise and 10 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 (assume for the sake of the problem). What is the
number of 10 paise coins he used to pay his bill?
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 50.8 B). 49.8 C). 52.8 D). 51.8
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by each one of the numbers 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
Ans A). 9500 B). 9600 C). 9400 D). 9800
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 What is the cost of a tadpole required to make a conical tent with slant height 15 m and height 9 m, when one square meter
tadpole costs ₹147?
Ans A). Rs.67,842 B). Rs.83,160 C). Rs.62,370 D). Rs.49,896
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 When the price of a laptop was reduced by 15%, its sales increased by 10%. What was the net effect on the sale?
Ans A). 6.5% increase B). 6.5% decrease C). 3.5% decrease D). 3.5% increase
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 A thief steels a bike at 10:30 am and drives it at 50 km/hr. But the thief is found after half an hour. The bike owner started to
chase him by another bike at 60 km/hr. The time at which the thief is caught is:
Ans A). 1: 30 pm B). 2: 30 pm C). 12: 30 pm D). 1: 00 pm
Correct Answer: A

Q.20

Ans A). 17,248 m3 B). 12,936 m3 C). 25,872 m3 D). 28,747 m3 Correct Answer: A

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 17 is related to 119 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 31 is related to 217. To which of the following is 32
related, following the same logic?
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(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
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into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 230 B). 226 C). 228 D). 224
Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(37, 58, 100)

(35, 70, 110)

Ans A). (8, 13, 26) B). (74, 33, 12) C). (43, 44, 132) D). (85, 75, 65)
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only one person sits between D and A when counted from the right of D. Only one person sits between A and B. Only one
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person sits between D and G. Only two people sit between E and B, when counted from the right of E. Only one person sits
between F and G.
Who sits third to the right of C ?

Ans A). F B). A C). D D). B

Correct Answer: B

Q.4 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
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be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given
statements.
Statements:
All boxes are glasses. All glasses are cups. Some cups are bottles.
Conclusions:
(I): All boxes are cups.
(II): Some glasses are bottles.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: A

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Q.5 OT11 is related to PU15 in a certain way. In the same way, WB21 is related to XC25. To which of the following is DI31 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). EF53 B). DJ35 C). EJ35 D). EJ53
Correct Answer: C

Q.6

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D).
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Correct Answer: D
G

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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219 222 227 234 ? 254

Ans A). 243 B). 244 C). 241 D). 242

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
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the pattern.
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.10 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
14 ÷ 6 + 9 × 3 − 2 = ?
Ans A). 81 B). 75 C). 83 D). 76
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Q.11 IOZU is related to HNYT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PDYC is related to OCXB.
To which of the following is EJSW related, following the same logic?
Ans A). DIRV B). EIRV C). DIRW D). DJSV
Correct Answer: A

Statements:
Some books are wood.
All wood is fire.

Conclusions:
(I) Some fire is wood.
(II) All books are fire.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GJD ,IHH, KFL, MDP, ?

Ans A). PAT B). OBS C). PBT D). OBT
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘this is book’ is written as ‘lo mo ro’ and ‘this is me’ is written as ‘mo lo po’. How is ‘me’ written in
the given code language?
Ans A). mo B). ro C). po D). lo
Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘FITCH’ is coded as ‘47601’ and ‘DITCH’ is coded as ‘70619’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 7 B). 0 C). 9
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 In a certain code,‘curtain door window’ is coded as ‘la ph ba’,‘lock window key’ is coded as ‘ep zm la’,‘key curtain handle’ is
coded as ‘fd ba zm’. What is the code for ‘curtain’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)
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Ans A). zm B). la C). ep D). ba

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.
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G
B y
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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

Q.18 A, D, K, N, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Z is sitting
third to the right of D. K is not the immediate neighbour of Z. A is sitting second to the left of Z. N is not the immediate
neighbour of A.
Who is the immediate neighbour of both between A and K?
Ans A). D B). Y C). Z D). N
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘complete the task’ is written as ‘je tc xo’ and ‘work is complete’ is coded as ‘xo ig lx’. How is
‘complete’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). xo B). je C). tc D). lx
Correct Answer: A

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Q.20 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
66 × 6 − 15 ÷ 3 + 9 = ?
Ans A). 46 B). 48 C). 47 D). 49
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The transportation mechanism in cells by which food or other useful molecules from the outside are carried inside the cell
is known as _______________.
Ans A). Osmosis B). Fusion C). Endocytosis D). Exocytosis
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 'Unbreakable' is an autobiography of _________________ published in 2013.

Ans A). Abhinav Bindra B). MC Mary Kom C). Milkha Singh D). Geeta Phogat
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 In a laterite soil profile, which of the following elements is present in an excessive amount?
Ans A). Iron B). feldspar C). Nitrogen D). Lime
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The Hathigumpha Inscription was inscribed in which of the following historical regions of India?
Ans A). Suvarnagiri B). Kalinga C). Taxila D). Vaishali
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 When was ‘Nai Chetna-Pahal Badlav Ki’ campaign launched?

Ans A). December 2022 B). March 2023 C). January 2023 D). November 2022

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.6 Which of the following events took place in the year 1928?
Ans A). Kakori Incident B). Bardoli Satyagraha C). Dandi March
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D). Kheda Satyagraha
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Sachin Tendulkar scored his 100th international century against which country?
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Ans A). Australia B). England C). Pakistan D). Bangladesh

Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 In which of the following months is the Konark Dance festival organised in Odisha?
Ans A). January B). March C). December D). June
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 The Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was headed by ____________.
Ans A). Alladi Krushnaswami Ayyar B). Jawaharlal Nehru C). JB Kripalani D). Harnam Singh
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.10 Devendra Fadnavis became the ___________ of the state of Maharashtra on 30th June 2022.
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Ans A). Governor B). Chief Justice of High Court C). Chief Minister D). Deputy Chief Minister
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) was launched in which of the following Five Year plans?
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Ans A). Sixth Five Year Plan B). Eighth Five Year Plan C). Tenth Five Year Plan D). Twelfth Five Year Plan
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Who among the following is known as the 'Mozart of Madras'?

Ans A). Ilaiyaraaja B). MM Kreem C). Shankar Mahadevan D). AR Rahman
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Which of the following para athletes is associated with the javelin throw event?
Ans A). Sharad Kumar B). Pramod Bhagat C). Karamjyoti Dalal D). Devendra Jhajharia
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 ‘Bayalata’ is a famous folk dance of which of the following Indian states?
Ans A). Punjab B). Karnataka C). Himachal Pradesh D). Bihar
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Which of the following States/Union Territories is NOT a part of Indus River Basin?
Ans A). Himachal Pradesh B). Ladakh C). Jammu and Kashmir D). Sikkim
Correct Answer: D

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Q.16 What is the chemical reaction that occurs when sugar is heated and turns into a caramel syrup?
Ans A). Maillard reaction B). Precipitation C). Caramelisation D). Neutralisation
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The number of Rajya Sabha members to be elected from each State of India has been fixed by the _________ Schedule of
the Constitution.
Ans A). Eighth B). Fourth C). Sixth D). Third
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 According to Census 2011 of India, which Union Territory has the second highest percentage of urban population?
Ans A). Delhi B). Puducherry C). Chandigarh D). Daman and Diu
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 As per the treaty of Purandar, how many forts were surrendered by Shivaji to Mughals?
Ans A). 23 B). 11 C). 18 D). 35
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 At what temperature do Celsius and Fahrenheit scales have the same value?
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Where does the cash grants in aid from foreign countries are classified?
Ans A). Tax revenue B). Non-tax revenue C). Revenue expenditure D). Capital receipt
Correct Answer: B

Q.22

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Ans A). a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv) B). a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) C). a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) D). a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
Correct Answer: A
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Q.23 What is the full form of INSAT?

Ans A). Indian Navigational Satellite System B). International Navigation Satellite System C). Indian National Standard System
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D). Indian National Satellite System

Correct Answer: D
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Q.24 Under the influence of the Greeks, which of the following art styles flourished in India?
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Ans A). Kandhar B). Gandhar C). Mathura D). Amravati

Correct Answer: B
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Q.25 In which year was the first session of the Indian National Congress held?
Ans A). 1885 B). 1886 C). 1882 D). 1887
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Beat around the bush
Ans A). To speak rashly B). To avoid getting to the point of an issue C). To speak abusively D). To speak convincingly
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The inclusion of Durga Puja in the UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage was only possible due to the arduous
________ of all stakeholders.
Ans A). efforts B). passivity C). affects D). ignorance
Correct Answer: A

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Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The bishop sadly declared that the poor gentleman who was dead was quieter of the community.
Ans A). the quieter B). quiet C). the quietest D). most quiet
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
In addition with / the existing crisis in economy, / the rise of hunger index / is another cause of worry.
Ans A). the rise of hunger index B). the existing crisis in economy C). is another cause of worry D). In addition with
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Hymn B). Machinary C). Idol D). Motto
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The moment James saw Regena, he fell head on to his heels in love with her.
Ans A). heels of the head B). head and heels C). heads in the heels D). head over heels
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Most probably, / he come / to office / next Tuesday.
Ans A). he come B). next Tuesday C). to office D). most probably
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Pacify

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Ans A). Restore B). Negate C). Enrage D). Amuse
Correct Answer: C

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Q.9 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the following options.

The food company promoted newly launched products at affordable prices. ap

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Ans A). The food company will be promoting newly launched products at affordable prices.
B). The food company promotes newly launched products at affordable prices.
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C). The food company had promoted newly launched products at affordable prices.
D). The food company is promoting newly launched products at affordable prices.
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

Reduced price of cooking gas brought happy to the face of every citizen.
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Ans A). happier B). happiest C). happily D). happiness

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.
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Rishi Sunak, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom and Leader of the Conservative Party, was born into Southampton to
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parents of Indian descent who immigrated to Britain from East Africa in the 1960s.
Ans A). was born on B). No substitution required C). was born in D). was born with
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Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

The explorers trekked __________ through the dense jungle.

Ans A). before B). rarely C). ever D). bravely
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word to fill in the blank.

The rainbow arched gracefully across the sky, painting it in __________ (lifeless) hues.
Ans A). vibrant B). spiritual C). ashless D). muted
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My sister Mona / never drinks coffee; / she prefer tea / in the morning.
Ans A). My sister Mona B). never drinks coffee; C). in the morning D). she prefer tea
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The team was gradually realising that the social gatherings were draining.
Ans A). unfruitful B). flippant C). frivolous D). absorbing
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The author's writing style is characterised by a subtle and nuanced use of language.
Ans A). Elegant B). Sturdy C). Delicate D). Elaborate
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Delay
Ans A). Wait B). Lag C). Intervene D). Hasten
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Many biologists have stated the fact that most of the herbs are perinnial and have healing qualities with added flavour.
Ans A). Healing B). Biologists C). Qualities D). Perinnial
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

In order to maintain good governance, every government servant must be held ______ for his/her decisions.
Ans A). accountable B). irresponsible C). flexible D). unaccountable
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The neighbour came in disgoise and attacked her children.

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Ans A). children B). attacked C). neighbour D). disgoise
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
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We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
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underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
we set our weight loss goals.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). resolution B). surprise C). vibrance D). persistence

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
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We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
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weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
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we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). popular B). uncharted C). indistinct D). imprecise
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). dissuades B). speculates C). classifies D). meanders
Correct Answer: C

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). planting B). screening C). landing D). hastening
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
ap
We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
at
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
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we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
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Ans A). wobble B). serendipity C). measure D). evanesce

Correct Answer: C
G
B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If two kinds of resins costing ₹160 per kg and ₹210 per kg are mixed in the ratio of
2 : 3, then find the cost (in ₹) of the mixture per kg.
Ans A). 185 B). 190 C). 200 D). 180
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The average weight of a group of 8 people is 70 kg. After a new person joins the group, the average weight becomes 72 kg.

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What is the weight (in kg) of the new person?

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Ans A). 86 B). 87 C). 89 D). 88
Correct Answer: D

Q.3
ap
at
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
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Ans A). 1125 B). 2250 C). 4500 D). 3000

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 A well with an internal diameter 10 m is dug to a depth of 10 m. Earth taken out of it is spread all around the well to a width
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of 12 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of the embankment?
B

Ans A). 1.12 B). 0.95 C). 1.02 D). 0.88

Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 Refer the following data table and answer the question.
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Day of the week Distance jogged (in kms)

Monday 3.5
Tuesday 4
Wednesday 4.2
Thursday 5.3
Friday 6.1
Saturday 3
Sunday 5.9

If 750 calories are burnt by jogging 6 km, how many calories were burnt in the given week?
Ans A). 3500 B). 3000 C). 2500 D). 4000
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 A person invested a certain sum of money at 6% per annum simple interest and another sum at 8% per annum simple
interest at the same time. After 4 years, he received interest ₹1,560 from both sums. One-fifth of the first sum is equal to
one-sixth of the second sum. Find the total sum invested.
Ans A). ₹5,500 B). ₹6,000 C). ₹5,000 D). ₹4,500
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 150 m. The thief starts running, and the policeman chases him. The thief
and the policeman run at the rate of 8 m/s and 10 m/s, respectively. Find the distance travelled by the thief before being
caught.
Ans A). 600 m B). 500 m C). 550 m D). 700 m
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 A dealer marked the price of an item 30% above the cost price. He allowed two successive discounts of 15% and 20% to a
particular customer. As a result, he incurred a loss of ₹696. At what price did he sell the item to the customer?
Ans A). ₹6,205 B). ₹5,304 C). ₹4,904 D). ₹7,805
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The average of 70 values is 40. If each value is multiplied by 20, what will be the changed average?
Ans A). 1400 B). 90 C). 60 D). 800
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 3 cm and the sum of the areas of the two squares is 225 cm2 .
Find the sum of the perimeter (in cm) of both squares.
Ans A). 84 B). 74 C). 64 D). 94
Correct Answer: A

Q.12

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.13 A length of a violin string varies inversely with respect to the frequency of its vibrations. The frequency of a 14-inch-long
violin string is 450 cycles per second. Find the frequency of a 12-inch violin string.

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Ans A). 515 cycles per second B). 525 cycles per second C). 520 cycles per second D). 510 cycles per second
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 570 B). 670 C). 590 ap D). 630
Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below it.
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an
ag
G
B y
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at
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In which of the following years was the percentage increase in production from the previous year the maximum among the
given years?
Ans A). 1995 B). 1993 C). 1990 D). 1991
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Raima saves 14% from her income of ₹35,000. How much is her expenditure (in ₹)?
Ans A). 28600 B). 32000 C). 34000 D). 30100
Correct Answer: D

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Q.17

Ans A). 100 m B). 200 m C). 150 m D). 350 m

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 A shopkeeper marks his goods k% more than their cost price. If the shopkeeper allows a 20% discount and still gains 25%,
then find the value of k.
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Amithab has scored an average of 72 runs in his six interschool matches. In the next match, he scored 96 runs. What is his
revised average score?
Ans A). 75.3 B). 74 C). 75 D). 75.428
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced to one-third, keeping the height same, what is the ratio of the
volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original?
Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 1 : 2 C). 1 : 9 D). 2 : 4
Correct Answer: C

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting

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third to the left of A. A is sitting second to the left of G. G is sitting to the immediate right of E. B is sitting to the immediate
left of D. What is the position of F with respect to E?
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Ans A). Immediate left B). Immediate right C). Third to the right D). Second to the left
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2
an
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G
B y

Ans
Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘4682’ and ‘BEAM’ is coded as ‘1358’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 5 B). 8 C). 2 D). 3
Correct Answer: B

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Q.4 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

PKQ ,OJP, NIO ,MHN, ?

Ans A). LGN B). LGM C). MGL D). NGL
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are

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interchanged?

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45 × 3 + 9 – 18 ÷ 1 = ?
Ans A). 15 B). 24 C). 6 ap D). 12
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All doors are locks.
Some locks are handles,
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Conclusions:
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(I) All handles are locks.

(II) No door is a handle.
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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion I follows
B

Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 LQ87 is related to VA55 in a certain way. In the same way, QV59 is related to AF27. To which of the following is BG49 related,
at

following the same logic?

Ans A). QL17 B). LQ18 C). LQ17 D). LQ19

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 In a code language, ‘I want food’ is written as ' sickota dongre dujubu’, ‘I want drink’ is written as ‘bluto sickota dujubu',
‘food and drink’ is written as ‘dongre peppin bluto’, then what is the code for the word 'peppin' in this language?
Ans A). and B). drink C). I D). food
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 T, N, S, P, R and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). S is sitting
second to the left of T. Only two people are sitting between S and R. M is not the immediate neighbour of S. P is sitting
second to the right of R.
How many people are sitting between N and M, when counted from the right of N?
Ans A). Four B). Two C). Three D). One
Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

1, 66
1
26, 156
Ans A). 26, 152 B). 18, 108 C). 20, 130 D). 15, 75
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
11 × 7 − 48 + 6 ÷ 37 = 106
Ans A). − and × B). ÷ and + C). + and × D). − and +
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

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D). Correct Answer: A

Q.14 ap
KB 9 is related to ED 2 in a certain way. In the same way, XF 11 is related to RH 4. To which of the following is UH 8 related,
at
following the same logic?
Ans A). OK 3 B). OJ 1 C). OJ 3 D). OK 1
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Correct Answer: B

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘TREE’ is coded as ‘POCD’ and ‘FOOT’ is coded as ‘BLMS’. How will ‘MIND’ be coded in the same
an

language?
Ans A). JEKD B). JFLD C). IFLC D). IEKD
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Correct Answer: C
G

Q.16 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
B y
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at
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Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘apple pen card’ is coded as ‘136’, ‘doctor no apple’ is coded as ‘243’ and ‘card is blocked’ is
coded as ‘695’. How is ‘apple’ coded in the given code language?
Ans A). 3 B). 1 C). 6 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 326 is related to 335 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 419 is related to 428. To which of the following is
566 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 599 B). 571 C). 582 D). 575
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements: All cabbages are roses. All cabbages are tulips.
Conclusions: (I) At least some tulips are roses.
(II) All roses are cabbages.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
255, 248, 241, 234 ,227, ?
Ans A). 220 B). 217 C). 221 D). 207
Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Iron Age site named Tekwada is located in _________.

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Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Maharashtra C). Andhra Pradesh D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B

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Q.2 Rabindranath Tagore referred to ____________ as Nritya Samragini, which translates to 'the empress of dance'.
Ans A). Mrinalini Sarabhai B). Gangu Bai C). Rukmini Arundale ap D). Sitara Devi
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 The term 'Aus', 'Aman' and 'Boro' are associated with which crop in India?
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Ans A). Maize B). Wheat C). Jute D). Paddy

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 How many chances does a high jumper get for overcoming a certain height?
Ans A). Three chances B). Two chances C). Four chances D). Six chances
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Correct Answer: A
G

Q.5 Which of the following is the correct statement about the Rajya Sabha?
Ans A). All the members are directly elected by the people. B). It is known as the Council of the States.
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C). It is known as the lower house of the parliament. D). The term of the members is for 5 years.
B

Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 Which Census decade recorded the highest population growth rate (in terms of percentage) in India?
Ans A). 1961-1971 B). 2001-2011 C). 1971-1981 D). 1941-1951
at

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Who among the following founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal?
Ans A). Warren Hastings B). Robert Clive C). Henry Colebrook D). William Jones
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Which of the following Fundamental Rights entails trafficking of human beings and forced labour?
Ans A). Rights against Exploitation B). Cultural and Educational Rights C). Right to Equality D). Right to Freedom
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The weaker warm storms that grow stronger over time are finally converted into huge storms or hurricanes. Which of the
following climate regions is the origin of such hurricanes?
Ans A). Continental climate region B). Tropical climate region C). Arid climate region D). Semi-arid climate region
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The author of the Hindi novel ‘Kohre Mein Kaid Rang’ is:
Ans A). Kamleshwar B). Govind Mishra C). Uday Prakash D). Chitra Mudgal
Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 In which of the following states is the Bissu Mela organised to thank Santoora Devi for the good harvest?

Ans A). Haryana B). Punjab C). Himachal Pradesh D). Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 In june 2022, Eknath Sambhaji Shinde became the Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans A). Haryana B). Rajasthan C). Maharashtra D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Who among the following founded the 'Satyashodhak Samaj' in 1873?
Ans A). Jyotiba Phule B). Gopal Ganesh Agarkar C). Vinoba Bhave D). Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Which type of loan is supported by MUDRA?

Ans A). Corporate loan B). Real estate loan C). Non-farm loan D). Primary loan
Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 What is the percentage of 's' character in the carbon atom of acetylene?

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Ans A). 33.33% B). 75% C). 50% D). 25%
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 ap
In Union Budget 2023, a sub-scheme of which of the following Yojanas has been proposed with the investment of ₹6,000
at
crore to enable activities of fishermen, fish vendors and micro and small enterprises?
Ans A). PM Fasal Bima Yojana B). PM Matsya Sampada Yojana C). PM Ujjwala Yojana D). PM Mudra Yojana
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Correct Answer: B

Q.17 India launched the ‘National Social Assistance Programme’ in:

Ans A). 2000 B). 1995 C). 1985 D). 1990

Correct Answer: B
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Q.18 Which of the following Mughal emperors issued silver coins in the honour of his wife Mehrunnisa?
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Ans A). Humayun B). Jahangir C). Aurangzeb D). Akbar

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 To which of the following groups do whales belong?

Ans A). Amphibia B). Arthropoda C). Pisces D). Mammalia

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Buddhadev Dasgupta was a famous instrumentalist of which of the following instrument?
Ans A). Sitar B). Surbahar C). Santoor D). Sarod
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Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Who among the following received the Padma Shri 2021 for Panthi folk dance?
Ans A). Radhe Shyam Barle B). Bhuri Bai C). Jagdish Chaudhary D). Gulfam Ahmed
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by _________.

a) an abnormally heavy body weight
b) an intense fear of losing weight
c) a distorted perception of weight
d) trying to lose weight by exercising excessively
Ans A). a and b B). b and c C). a and c D). c and d
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a physiographic division of India?

Ans A). The Peninsular Plateau B). The Himalayan Mountains C). The Northern Plains D). The Tibetan Plateau
Correct Answer: D

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Q.24 Ujjwala was the mascot of which national sports event held in 2023?
Ans A). Khelo India Para Games 2023 B). Khelo India Youth Games 2023 C). National Games 2023 D). Khelo India University Games 2022

Correct Answer: A

Q.25 In Harappan civilisation, cities were planned with the streets generally oriented along the __________ directions.
Ans A). anonymous B). cardinal C). ordinal D). incognito
Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Any declarations or practices of religious antipathy against ethnic minorities in a democratic country should not be
tolerated.
Ans A). Passivity B). Devaluation C). Enmity D). Conformity
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). An intrepid explorer stumbled upon an uncharted cavern deep within the heart of the rainforest.
B). The intrepid explorer stumbled upon the uncharted cavern deep within the heart of the rainforest.
C). An intrepid explorer stumbled upon the uncharted cavern deep within a heart of the rainforest.
D). The intrepid explorer stumbled upon an uncharted cavern deep within a heart of the rainforest.
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Everyone disliked the new CEO, Kushal, but nobody is ready to put themselves in dangerous situation by telling him their

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feelings.

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Ans A). sit on the fence B). rule the roost C). pull a long face D). bell the cat
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 ap
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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Even if an unlaced shoe is spotless, it is not neat.
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Ans A). agile B). soiled C). forged D). requisite

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He pressed the _________ just in time to avoid the accident.
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Ans A). brake B). bike C). break D). beak

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Raju is lazy and smart, but he does not attend the classes.
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Ans A). snobbish B). lax C). industrious D). genius

Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

This mango is bitterer.

Ans A). most bitter B). more bitter C). bitterest D). bitter
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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Conscious B). Receive C). Occurrance D). Believe
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word...

Ans A). Battle B). Comfortable C). Depresed D). Cheerful
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

My brother asked me, "Can I exchange my phone from you?"

Ans A). my phone with yours B). my phone off yours C). my phone since yours D). my phone within yours
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Arrangement B). Kerbstone C). Inflamous D). Subjugator
Correct Answer: C

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Q.12 Read the sentence given below and identify if there is an error in it. The error can be in any segment of the sentence which
are marked A, B, C, and D. Select option D if there is 'No error'.
(A) She sings / (B) the song / (C) beautiful in the party / (D) No error.
Ans A). C B). D C). A D). B
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Most women are facing the same problem when it comes to job satisfaction because of the pay parity in institutions.
Ans A). armchair experts B). a drop in the ocean C). comparing apples to oranges D). in the same boat
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The ancient Greeks and pagans used to worship natural _________ as Gods and Goddesses.
Ans A). impulses B). mixtures C). instincts D). elements
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the grammatically correct sentence..

Ans A). The traffic on a highway was heavy during an evening. B). The traffic on the highway was heavy during the evening.
C). The traffic on the highway was heavy during an evening. D). A traffic on the highway was heavy during an evening.
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am calling to thank you _________ the present you sent.
Ans A). for B). with C). of D). in
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future perfect tense form.

I hope you wash all the clothes before you come into the house again.

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Ans A). I hope you will have washed all the clothes before you come into the house again.

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B). I hope you shall wash all the clothes before you come into the house again
C). I hope you will be washing all the clothes before you come into the house again.
D). I hope you will have wash all the clothes before you come into the house again. ap Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
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Rose painted the most beautifullest picture ever at the art class today!
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Ans A). Rose painted B). picture ever at the C). the most beautifullest D). art class today!
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
one who does something for pleasure
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Ans A). Anarchist B). Atheist C). Hedonist D). Aggressor

Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the most appropriate to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
B

Rohit asked Nita what was the most intriguing book she has read recently.
hs

Ans A). tedious B). arraigned C). encircled D). subdued

Correct Answer: A
at

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Newspapers are like mirrors (1)___________ the diverse facets of society, capturing the voices, stories, and events that define our
shared human experience. They serve as a forum (2)___________ dialogue, debate, and discussion, amplifying voices from all walks
of life and fostering (3)___________ sense of community. Beyond reporting news, newspapers also celebrate achievements, highlight
cultural (4)___________, and showcase human resilience in the face of adversity. They are archives of history, chronicling the
triumphs and trials of generations, and serving as a reminder of how far we have come and how much further we can go. In an age of
digital transformation, newspapers continue to (5)___________, adapting to new mediums while upholding the core values of
journalism: accuracy, integrity, and accountability.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). reflect B). reflects C). reflecting D). reflected
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). into B). on C). for D). by
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23

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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

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Ans A). No article required B). the C). an D). a
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
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cultural (4)___________, and showcase human resilience in the face of adversity. They are archives of history, chronicling the
triumphs and trials of generations, and serving as a reminder of how far we have come and how much further we can go. In an age of
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digital transformation, newspapers continue to (5)___________, adapting to new mediums while upholding the core values of
journalism: accuracy, integrity, and accountability.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
B y

Ans A). richest B). richer C). richness D). richly

Correct Answer: C
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). dissolve B). involve C). evolve D). revolve
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 52.2 B). 49.2 C). 50.2 D). 51.2
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 What is the mean proportional between 9 and 25?

Ans A). 17 B). 15 C). 34 D). 16
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 50%?
Ans A). 6 B). 5 C). 4
ap D). 3
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 The average of some natural numbers is 27. If 69 is added to the first number and 12 is subtracted from the last number, the
average becomes 32.7, then the number of natural numbers is:
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Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 5 D). 10

Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 A shopkeeper sells a notebook that has a marked price of ₹80 at a discount of 8% and gives
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a pen costing ₹8.60 free with each notebook. Even then he makes a profit of 17%. Find the
cost price of each note book correct to two places of decimals.
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Ans A). ₹49.75 B). ₹45.35 C). ₹55.56 D). ₹51.32

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.6 A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 400 metres. When the policeman starts to chase the thief also starts
running. If the speed of the thief is18km/h and that of the policeman 20 km/h, then how far would the thief have run before
he is overtaken?
hs

Ans A). 1.8 km B). 3.6 km C). 9 km D). 2.5 km

Correct Answer: B
at
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Q.7 An iron ball of radius 20 cm is melted and recast into 64 spherical balls of same radius. Find the radius of each spherical
ball.
Ans A). 5 cm B). 8 cm C). 6 cm D). 7 cm
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 The bar graph given below shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer for two consecutive
years, 2021 and 2022.

Total sales of branch B4 for both years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B2 for both years? (up to two decimal
places)
Ans A). 108.82% B). 91.89% C). 85.85% D). 116.47%
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 Pushkar buys an article for ₹27.50 and sells it for ₹28.60. Find his gain percentage.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 530 B). 430 C). 490 D). 450
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Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
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Ans A). 860 B). 900 C). 840 D). 940

Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 The price of a product increased by 20%. After some time, it decreased by 15%. What is the overall percentage change in the
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price?
Ans A). 1% B). 2% C). 4% D). 3%
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.13 Two bicycle riders started at a speed of 7 m/sec and 8 m/sec on a circular path in opposite directions at the same point. If
the circumference of the circle is 300 m, then in what time will they first meet?
hs

Ans A). 24 sec B). 12 sec C). 20 sec D). 30 sec

Correct Answer: C
at
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Q.14

Ans A). 6254.2 gm B). 6252.4 gm C). 5262.4 gm D). 5264.2 gm

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 From a square with area a2 another square made on mid points of the sides of the square is removed. What is the area left in
the square?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The average of five numbers is 206. The average of two of them is 205. The average of another two of those numbers is
207.5. How many numbers can be accurately identified with this information?
Ans A). Two B). None C). One D). Three
Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 There are five persons with weights 58 kg, 38 kg, 45 kg, 34 kg and 55 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of those persons
whose weight is less than the average weight of the five persons?
Ans A). 43 B). 37 C). 41 D). 39
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 x,y and z are divisible by 2,3 and 4, respectively. What is the highest common factor (HCF) of 6x,4y and 3z?
Ans A). At least 36 B). At least 12 C). At least 18 D). At least 16
Correct Answer: B

Q.19

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Ans A). 3 B). 2 C). 1 D). 0
Correct Answer: C

Q.20
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Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
4 ÷ 8 × 2 − 7 +3 = ?
G

Ans A). 15 B). 20 C). 18 D). 16

Correct Answer: B
B y
hs
at
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Q.2 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘will you go’ is written as ‘ht dt gt’ and ‘you can go’ is written as ‘gt st dt’. How will ‘can’ be

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written in the given code language?
Ans A). st B). gt C). dt D). ht
ap Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only three people sit between X and Y when counted from the left of X. Only three people sit between Z and U when counted
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from the right of U. V sits to the immediate right of Z. W is an immediate neighbour of U as well as Y.
Who sits to the second to the left of A?
Ans A). Y B). W C). U D). Z
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Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.5 15 is related to 92 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 18 is related to 110. To which of the following is 7
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
G

Ans A). 76 B). 67 C). 44 D). 56

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
at

into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(8, 38, 11)
(3, 20, 7)
Ans A). (2, 52, 32) B). (1, 26, 12) C). (4, 14, 2) D). (3, 20, 5)
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘does she hear’ is written as ‘mt sp dt’ and ‘hear the music’ is written as ‘rb mt ch’. What is the
code for ‘hear’ in that language?
Ans A). sp B). mt C). ch D). rb
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
135 × 5 – 12 ÷ 11 + 8 = ?
Ans A). 151 B). 121 C). 136 D). 169
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Two
boys sit between B and F when counted either from the right or left of B. One boy sits between A and B when counted from
the right of A. E sits second to the left of A. D sits second to the left of C.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
I. A is an immediate neighbour of D.
II. C is an immediate neighbour of F.
Ans A). Neither I nor II B). Only II C). Both I and II D). Only I
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bowling are billiards.
Some billiards are not chess.
Conclusions:
[1] All chess are bowling.
[2] All billiards are chess.
Ans A). Only conclusion [1] follows B). Only conclusion [2] follows C). Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow
D). Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

4, 10 ,28, 82, 244, ?

Ans A). 730 B). 731 C). 734 D). 732
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.
B y
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at
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Statements:
No child is a man.
No man is an adult.

Conclusions:
(I) Some men are child.
(II) No child is an adult.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Neither conclusion I nor II follow

Correct Answer: D

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘BOAT’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘AIRS’ is coded as ‘2418’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 9 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 In a certain code language, 'SAND' is coded as '2468' and 'WEST' is coded as '3574'.
What is the code for 'S' in the given code language?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 8 D). 7
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Si
ap
at
Pr

Ans
A). B). C). D).
an

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 KPMI is related to LQNJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NSPL is related to OTQM.
To which of the following is RWTP related, following the same logic?
G

Ans A). SXQU B). XSUQ C). SXUQ D). XSQU

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
hs

DXZ, HTV ,LPR ,PLN, ?

Ans A). SHJ B). SHK C). THJ D). THK
at

Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 HOJF is related to IPKG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KRMI is related to LSNJ.
To which of the following is MTOK related following the same logic?
Ans A). NUPL B). UNPL C). NULP D). UNLP
Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 With reference to agriculture in India, the term 'penda' is the name given to ________________.
Ans A). agricultural season B). tea farming C). slash and burn agriculture D). plantation agriculture
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Which of the following states has the lowest child sex ratio according to Census of India, 2001?
Ans A). Uttarakhand B). Haryana C). Kerala D). Himachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Which of the following is the first event in a triathlon?

Ans A). Putting the shot B). Cycling C). Running D). Swimming
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 ‘Ace Against Odds’ is the autobiography of a sports personality playing the game of ___________.
Ans A). Shooting B). Badminton C). Tennis D). Cricket
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 As per Census 2011, which of the following states recorded negative growth in child sex ratio?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Himachal Pradesh C). Punjab D). Haryana
Correct Answer: A

Q.6
The excavated ruins of the Nalanda University indicate that bright red _____ was/were
used in its construction.

Ans A). stone B). bricks C). granite D). marble

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for soil formation?
Ans A). Weathering B). Irrigation C). Degradation D). Mining
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In January 2023, three Indian-origin researchers were among nine scientists named recipients of the
Blavatnik Awardsfor Young Scientists in the UK. Which of the following is NOT one of these three
scientists?
Ans A). Mehul Malik B). Rahul R Nair C). Tanmay Bharat D). Gagandeep Kang
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Shovana Narayan, a Padma Shri recipient, is an exponent of ________.

Ans A). Kuchipudi B). Sattriya C). Bharatanatyam D). Kathak
Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 According to sympatric speciation, the rising of a new species occurs when:
Ans A). one species is separated into different groups due to geologic events like mountain formation
B). organisms from the same species start to show different behavioural characteristics
ap
C). two groups of the same species cannot interbreed among themselves despite living in the same geographic location
at
D). the two groups of organisms from the same species would phenotypically look different
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Despite being eligible for the job of a Legal Officer, Mr. X was not called for an interview for the aforementioned post. Which
of his rights was Mr. X unable to exercise?
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Ans A). Equality before law B). Protection against arrest C). Right to education D). Equality of opportunity
Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 Which of the following cultural festivals of Himachal Pradesh is organised on the auspicious occasion of Basant Panchami
G

at Hadimba Temple?
Ans A). Bisua B). Doongri C). Mopin D). Ziro
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.13 In May 2023, the Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry has extended the deadline of its Smart Cities Mission to
________.
hs

Ans A). June 2027 B). June 2026 C). June 2024 D). June 2025
Correct Answer: C
at
M

Q.14 Where was the Hindustani classical singer Kumar Gandharva born?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Tripura C). Odisha D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who among the following scholars gave reference to the history of Kashmir?
Ans A). Banbhatta B). Kalidas C). Harsha D). Kalhana
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 The author of ‘Arthashastra’ was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
Ans A). Chandragupta Maurya B). Samudragupta C). Chandragupta Vikramaditya D). Ashoka
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 In which of the following years was the Child Marriage Restraint Act passed?
Ans A). 1902 B). 1872 C). 1929 D). 1856
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Sunil Chhetri made history by becoming the first Indian to score a hat-trick in the Hero ISL, which came in the ________
edition.
Ans A). 2015 B). 2014 C). 2013 D). 2016
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 The classical dance form ‘Kathakali’ traces its origin to which of the following states of India?
Ans A). Kerala B). Odisha C). Andhra Pradesh D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 What is the primary function of the excretory system in animals?

Ans A). Respiration B). Removal of waste products C). Digestion D). Reproduction
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Article 157 of the Constitution of India mentions the qualifications required for appointment of the _________________ of a
State.
Ans A). Chief Minister B). Election Commissioner C). Chief Justice of High Court D). Governor
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT an example of public goods?

Ans A). National defence B). Driveway at our home C). Law enforcement D). Access to clean air
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 At which of the following places was the Indian Civil Service Examination held for the first time in India?
Ans A). Calcutta B). Surat C). Allahabad D). Delhi
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 The Pitti Bird Sanctuary is located in which Union Territory/State of India?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Lakshadweep C). Andaman and Nicobar Islands D). Manipur
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Which inorganic compound is known to undergo solid state reaction to form urea?
Ans A). Ammonium cyanate B). Ammonium phosphate C). Ammonium acetate D). Ammonium nitrate
Correct Answer: A

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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the correct option of the given sentence.

Smt. Savithri is wisest than all others in the group.

ap
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Ans A). Smt. Savithri is the wiser than all others in the group. B). Smt. Savithri is wise than all others in the group.
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C). Smt. Savithri is wiser than all others in the group. D). Smt. Savithri is the wise than all others in the group.
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked the students to stay _________ during the exam.
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Ans A). quite B). quiet C). quote D). quit

Correct Answer: B
y

Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
B

improvement required'.
He received the best employee award because he was the more hardworking.
hs

Ans A). hardworking B). most hardworking C). No improvement required D). the hardworking
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Due to _________ 'eve teasing', parents conclude that it is not worth the danger of sending their daughters to school.
Ans A). rectified B). narrow C). localised D). widespread
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The teacher made judicious use of technology to explain a sensitive topic.

Ans A). difficult B). prominent C). prudent D). judgmental
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:

Ramya finished her dissertation early.

Ans A). Ramya had finished her dissertation early. B). Ramya will finish her dissertation early. C). Ramya has finished her dissertation early.
D). Ramya is finishing her dissertation early.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He possesses one of the slimmer handsets in the world.

Ans A). most slim B). slimmest C). most slimmest D). slim
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Exhilerate B). Incorrigible C). Mischievous D). Amendment
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The branches of the tree is very long.

Ans A). had B). was C). are D). has
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Abandoned B). Dangerous C). Celibrate D). Excellent
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank to complete the idiom and make the sentence meaningful.
During the interview, the candidate was challenged to provide chapter and ___________ on his proposed plan.
Ans A). verse B). page C). lines D). cover
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). tendancy B). resistance C). separate D). weather
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word provided in the brackets to fill in the blank.

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The painting exhibited a __________________ blend of colours. (harmonious)

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Ans A). quavering B). polyphonic C). thrilling D). discordant
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the appropriate meaning of the given idiom. ap

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At the drop of a hat
Ans A). Willingness to do something instantly B). Become easily frightened C). Reveal a secret carelessly D). Crying without any reason
Pr

Correct Answer: A
an

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The place where soldiers live
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Ans A). Unit B). Regiment C). Brigade D). Barracks

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

David decided to __________ his old boat to get a new one.

Ans A). sell B). sale C). cell D). ceil

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Chinese government has accepted slower economic development as the ‘new normal’, recognising the need for China
to adopt a new growth model that depends less on fixed investment and exports and more on private consumption,
M

services, and innovation to _____________ economic growth.

Ans A). drive B). exhale C). success D). bridle
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
It is universally acknowledged that trees are indispensable to us.
Ans A). Unusual B). Essential C). Rational D). Fierce
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Yesterday was the worse day of my life.
Ans A). most bad B). ill C). worst D). bad
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Which of the following sentences contains an adverbial error?

Ans A). He sang beautifully at the talent show. B). The teacher spoke clear and concise. C). She writes slowly and steadily.
D). They danced gracefully across the stage.
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It is the mad (1)_______ for speed that is responsible for many motor accidents. Only last year, I (2)_______ what might have been a
(3)_______ accident on Kashmir Road. I was motoring down (4)________ Srinagar; and as I was nearing Kohala, I came upon the
(5)_______ of two cars on the road.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). boredom B). craze C). luck D). block
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). anticipated B). witnessed C). checked D). argued
Correct Answer: B

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(5)_______ of two cars on the road.

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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). fatal B). wonderful C). happening ap D). harmless
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
an

It is the mad (1)_______ for speed that is responsible for many motor accidents. Only last year, I (2)_______ what might have been a
(3)_______ accident on Kashmir Road. I was motoring down (4)________ Srinagar; and as I was nearing Kohala, I came upon the
(5)_______ of two cars on the road.
ag

SubQuestion No : 24
G

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). from B). on C). since D). besides
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Comprehension:
hs

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at

(5)_______ of two cars on the road.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). clatter B). collision C). cluster D). pile
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In an office, the average salary of 22 staff members was ₹81,400. If the average salary of staff and the Vice Chairman was
₹89,600, then how much is the salary of the Vice Chairman (in ₹)?
Ans A). 1,97,300 B). 2,70,000 C). 2,17,000 D). 3,00,000
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans A). 52.6 B). 51.6 C). 50.6 D). 49.6
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Anand wanted to make a cylindrical kaleidoscope of length 30 cm and radius 7 cm. If he is using handmade sheets to make
it, then how much sheet will be required for this?
Ans A). 1520 cm2 B). 660 cm2 C). 1320 cm2 D). 1440 cm2 Correct Answer: C

Q.4 A and B start running simultaneously, around a circular track of 1200 m, in the same direction, at a speed of 8 m/s and 12
m/s, respectively. A and B will meet at the starting point for the first time after:

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Ans A). 80 s B). 150 s C). 300 s D). 100 s

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Correct Answer: C

Q.5 A chef has two cans of acids and water mixture. He combines the contents of both cans in a beaker. The resulting mixture

Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 4 : 5 C). 4 : 7

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has half water and half acid. What is the quantity in which he mixed the contents of can 1 and can 2, given that can 2 has an
acid-to-water ratio of 2 : 3 and can 1 has an acid-to-water ratio of 5 : 3?
D). 3 : 7
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 P sold an article to Q at 11% profit and Q sold it to R at 11% loss. If R paid ₹19,758 for it, then at what price (in ₹) was the
article purchased by P?
Ans A). 19,750 B). 19,500 C). 22,500 D). 20,000
Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 920 B). 900 C). 960 D). 1000
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Correct Answer: C

Q.8 In an election, 750 votes were cast for the two contestants, Bharti and Manya. Bharti defeated Manya by 16% votes. If there
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were no invalid vote, then how many votes did Manya get?
Ans A). 335 B). 430 C). 315 D). 120
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9
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Ans A). 4.8 B). 4.4 C). 3.7 D). 3

Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 In a class, there are 30 boys and 20 girls. The average score of boys in Physics is 92, whereas the average score of girls in
Physics is 83. Find the average score of the whole class in Physics.
Ans A). 89.3 B). 92.6 C). 88.4 D). 96.2
Correct Answer: C

Q.11

Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 3.5 D). 6

Correct Answer: A

Q.12

Ans A). 216 B). 265 C). 162 D). 378

Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Find the HCF of 36 and 84.

Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 18 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.

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Ans A). 480 B). 500 C). 580 D). 540
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 A thief is running away on a straight road on a bike moving at the speed of 28 m/s. A policeman chases him in a car moving
at the speed of 30 m/s. if the instantaneous separation of the bike from the car is 400 m, how long will it take for the
policeman to catch the thief?
Ans A). 200 seconds B). 100 seconds C). 150 seconds
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D). 300 seconds
Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 The simple interest on a sum of₹4,200 at the end of 3 years is₹756. What will be the simple
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interest (in₹) on₹5,400 at the same rate and for the same time period?
Ans A). 972 B). 987 C). 998 D). 980
Correct Answer: A
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Q.17 A sold an article to B at 40% profit and B sold it to C at 15% profit. If C paid ₹4,914 for the article, how much (in ₹, rounded
off to the nearest integer) did A pay for it?
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Ans A). 2,576 B). 3,520 C). 3,250 D). 3,052

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 A shopkeeper offers buy three, get one free; what is the percentage discount being offered by the shopkeeper in this
scheme?
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Ans A). 33.33% B). 30% C). 20% D). 25%

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.19
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Ans A). 54.90 kg B). 45.09 kg C). 59.40 kg D). 50.49 kg

Correct Answer: D
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Ans A). 24 B). 26 C). 22 D). 20

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some bulls are rocks. Some rocks are stones.
Conclusions:
(I): Some bulls are stones.
(II): All stones are rocks.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.2 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.4 FLRX is related to KQWC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GMSY is related to
LRXD. To which of the following is HNTZ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). MDSY

Q.5
B). MSYD C). MSYW

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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D). MSYE
Correct Answer: D
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3, ?, 13, 18, 23, 28, 33
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Ans A). 8 B). 5 C). 7 D). 9

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 In a certain code,

‘pen pencil eraser’ is coded as ‘dy ph mt’,

‘pencil box crayon’ is coded as ‘lp ph st’ and
‘box pen board’ is coded as ‘st bq dy’.
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All the codes are two-letter codes only.

What is 'board' coded as?
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Ans A). lp B). st C). dy D). bq

Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
B y
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Ans
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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8 37 is related to 89 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 43 is related to 101. To which of the following is 28
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 51 B). 71 C). 55 D). 78
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘RENT’ is coded as ‘1957’ and ‘GRIM’ is coded as ‘2469’.What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 9 D). 1
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘derive the formula’ is written as ‘le ro da’ and ‘formula to win’ is writtenas ‘ka wb ro’. How will
‘formula’ be writtenin the given language?
Ans A). wb B). ro C). le D). da
Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘8536’ and ‘MEAN’ is coded as ‘5983’. What is the code for ‘N’ in that
language?
Ans A). 3 B). 5 C). 9 D). 8
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some trees are blue.
All blue is green.

Conclusions:
(I) All trees are blue.
(II) Some trees are green.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) not (II) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people are sitting between E and T when counted from the right of E. Only two people are sitting between R and G. S is
sitting to the immediate left of D. Only two people are sitting between T and R. How many people are sitting between F and S
when counted from the left of F?
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D). Four
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
41 × 1 + 390 − 10 ÷ 15 =?
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Ans A). 75 B). 73 C). 65 D). 55

Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

OSM, LPJ ,IMG, FJD ,?

Ans A). CAG B). CGA C). BAG D). BGA

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.17 TGKP is related to QDHM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XBWL is related to
UYTI. To which of the following is VEAH related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). RAXF B). SBXE C). SBYF D). RAYE

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (‘?’)in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷′ and ‘–‘
are interchanged?
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19 × 7 ÷ 8 × 306 – 17 = ?
Ans A). 32 B). 44 C). 41 D). 36
Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing out to the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is
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sitting second to the left of U. R is sitting third to the right of S. S is an immediate neighbour of V. V is sitting to the
immediate left of P. T is not an immediate neighbour of U.
How many people are sitting between P and Q when counted from the right of P?
Ans A). One B). Four C). Three D). Two
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(4, 9, 26)
(2, 8, 20)
Ans A). (13, 2, 30) B). (30, 5, 49) C). (5, 3, 26) D). (23, 1, 56)
Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In the year of the coronation of Akbar, who among the following was designated as the Wakil of the Mughal kingdom with
the title of ‘Khan-i-Khanan’?
Ans A). Bairam Khan B). Munim Khan C). Hakim Mirza D). Abdur Rahim
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Foods containing fats and carbohydrates are also called ____________.
Ans A). fermented foodsB). energy Telegram
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body buildingPratap
foods Sir Answer: B
Correct
Q.3 Which of the following is a precious mineral?
Ans A). Hematite B). Mica C). Bauxite D). Platinum
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The Betul, Hoshangabad and Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh is a part of which of the following Biosphere
Reserves?
Ans A). Manas B). Seshachalam C). Agasthyamalai D). Pachmarhi
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which of the following is the oldest dated forts in India, as first mentioned in Alexander the Great’s war records, bringing it
to the 4th century BCE?
Ans A). Kangra Fort B). Gwalior Fort C). Kumbhalgarh Fort D). Mehrangarh Fort
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Which of the following is observed on the birthday of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?
Ans A). Constitution Day B). Students’ Day C). Engineers’ Day D). Teachers’ Day
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The Kalidas Samman award is presented by which of the following governments?
Ans A). Manipur B). Madhya Pradesh C). Odisha D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 In November 2023, who was appointed as the President-elect of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and
Industry (FICCI)?
Ans A). Suraj Mahindra B). N Chandrasekaran C). Adi Godrej D). Anish Shah
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which of the following programmes is taken up by the Government of India for improvement of female literacy rates in
India?
Ans A). Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao B). Beti Shikshan, Beti Bachao C). Beti Sikhao, Beti Padhao D). Beti Jagaron, Beti Padhao

Correct Answer: A

Q.10 As per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021, which of the following groups of states is the poorest?
Ans A). Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand B). Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu C). Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand
D). Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana
Correct Answer: C

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Q.11 Which folk dance has its roots in Maharashtra?
Ans A). Garba B). Dandiya C). Bihu D). Lavani
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Ravikirti was the court poet of which ruler?

Ans A). Rajaraja B). Harshavardhana C). Dantidurga
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D). Pulakeshin II
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Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The basic structure of the Indian Constitution stands on the Government of India Act, ___________.
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Ans A). 1950 B). 1942 C). 1935 D). 1949

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 Which of the following is an example of anaerobic activity?

Ans A). Jumping B). Skipping C). Walking D). Swimming
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Select the correct order of processes used for water purification in waterworks.
1. Filtration
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2. Chlorination
3. Suspended impurity sedimentation
4. Solid impurity sedimentation
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Ans A). 2-1-4-3 B). 1-2-3-4 C). 4-3-2-1 D). 4-3-1-2

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Mysore Brothers are known for playing which musical instrument?
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Ans A). Guitar B). Flute C). Mandolin D). Violin

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 In which of the places was Arya Samaj founded?

Ans A). Madras B). Lahore C). Calcutta D). Bombay

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 'Waiting for a Visa' is the autobiography of:

Ans A). Shyama Prasad Mukherjee B). Bhimrao Ambedkar C). Jawaharlal Nehru D). Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 What is the standard length of a cricket pitch?

Ans A). 22 yards B). 24 yards C). 18 yards D). 20 yards
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Which of the following groups of ports are located on the bank of the Bay of Bengal?
Ans A). Haldia and Kandla B). Tuticorin and Cochin C). Haldia and Paradip D). Paradip and New Mangalore
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 What is the name of the scheme launched by the Government of India in 2023 to effectively resolve pending contractual
disputes?
Ans A). Vivad se Adhar II B). Vivad se Janadhar I C). Vivad se Vishwas II D). Vivad se Vishwas I
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Shuddhi movement was initiated by which of the following organisations?

Ans A). Paramhans Mandali B). Arya Samaj C). Satyashodak Samaj D). Ramakrishna Mission
Correct Answer: B

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Q.23 Which financial products are commonly offered by Microfinance Institutions in India?
Ans A). Complex investment options B). Savings, credit and insurance services tailored for low-income individuals
C). Specialised services for multinational corporations D). Exclusive services for high-income individuals
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Which edition of the ODI Cricket World Cup was held in India in 2023?
Ans A). 16th B). 13th C). 14th D). 15th Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution has a provision that ‘all executive actions of the Government of India
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President’?
Ans A). Article 71 (1) B). Article 75 (1A) C). Article 77 (1) D). Article 76 (2)
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Reflect B). Music C). Scari D). Shadow
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Rohit Sharma is better than more other batsman in the world.

Ans A). the best batsmen B). better batsmen C). better than most other batsmen D). as good as the most other batsmen
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The analysis of a person's handwriting to determine his/her personality

Ans A). Numismatics B). Graphology C). Philology D). Calligraphy
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence..

Ans A). Rukmini put a book on an table and sat down. B). Rukmini put an book on the table and sat down.
C). Rukmini put the book on an table and sat down. D). Rukmini put the book on the table and sat down.
Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

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Anupama was a very industrious child and submitted all her assignments on time.
Ans A). laborious B). lazy C). industrial D). intense
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. ap

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I bought a _____ but it is ______.
Ans A). cain; cane B). chip; cheap C). cheap; chip D). cane; cain
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Identify the error in the given sentence.

Ajit got to work earliest than everyone else today.
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Ans A). earliest than B). today C). everyone else D). Ajit got to work
Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The happy and cheerful girls / is always running towards / the ice cream cart in / front of the garden.
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Ans A). the ice cream cart in B). front of the garden C). is always running towards D). the happy and cheerful girls
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Are you sure that you can’t even write a single sentnce properly?
B

Ans A). single B). sentnce C). write D). properly

Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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Maheshwari is three years junior than me.

Ans A). junior than that of me B). more junior than me C). junior than any other to me D). junior to me
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Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Beginer B). Prescription C). Ceremony D). Disappointment
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The branch of geography that studies mountains and their formation

Ans A). Palaeography B). Orthography C). Orography D). Mythography
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The students were __________ for their hard work with certificates and praise.

A). reprimanded B). penalised C). rewarded D). punished

Ans
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). Rahul is very naughty as he is the most young sibling between Rama’s three brothers.
B). Rahul is very naughty as he is the youngest sibling among Rama’s three brothers.
C). Rahul is very naughty as he is the youngest sibling between Rama’s three brothers.
D). Rahul is very naughty as he is the most young sibling among Rama’s three brothers.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The concert was __________ due to the bad weather.

A). celebrated B). continued C). cancelled D). commenced

Ans
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He was very inquisitive and wanted to know each and every detail.
Ans A). Indifferent B). Uncanny C). Indeterminate D). Intelligent
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the most appropriate idiom to replace the underlined segment.
He thinks his new plan will undoubtedly produce the desired result .
Ans A). bear fruit B). go suck a lemon C). sour grapes D). go pear-shaped
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Antique
Ans A). Novel B). Young C). Ancient D). Modern
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

Many orthodox people have a ____(hostile) attitude towards the idea of women getting educated and employed.
Ans A). belligerent B). friendly C). meticulous D). elaborate
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Losing my job turned out to be an unexpected benefit because it pushed me to start my own business, which has been
more successful than I ever imagined.
Ans A). a golden opportunity B). a diamond in rough C). a blessing in disguise D). a mixed blessing
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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The computer can become a threat to man. It can (1)______________ his survival and privacy. It also offers excellent encouragement
for unethical or criminal activities. It can (2)_______________ the unemployment problem as employers prefer the computer and the

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'computer- controlled robots' to humans for obvious reasons. The information storage facility the computer provides has
(3)___________ to collection of personal information about individuals and storage of this information in data banks by several
employing agencies. If care is not exercised (4)__________ data gathering, data integrity may suffer. That is, questionable or

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imperfect methods may be employed; as a result, incorrect or incomplete data may be stored, and this (5)____________ become a
permanent source and used for any given purpose.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
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Ans A). tranformative B). protect C). endanger D). encourage

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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(3)___________ to collection of personal information about individuals and storage of this information in data banks by several
employing agencies. If care is not exercised (4)__________ data gathering, data integrity may suffer. That is, questionable or
imperfect methods may be employed; as a result, incorrect or incomplete data may be stored, and this (5)____________ become a
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permanent source and used for any given purpose.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
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Ans A). control B). improve C). worsen D). beat

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The computer can become a threat to man. It can (1)______________ his survival and privacy. It also offers excellent encouragement
for unethical or criminal activities. It can (2)_______________ the unemployment problem as employers prefer the computer and the
'computer- controlled robots' to humans for obvious reasons. The information storage facility the computer provides has
(3)___________ to collection of personal information about individuals and storage of this information in data banks by several
employing agencies. If care is not exercised (4)__________ data gathering, data integrity may suffer. That is, questionable or
imperfect methods may be employed; as a result, incorrect or incomplete data may be stored, and this (5)____________ become a
permanent source and used for any given purpose.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). involved B). stored C). led D). experienced
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). during B). when C). by D). unless
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). must B). may C). should D). have to
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of side 38 metres, if he runs at a speed
of 6 km/h?
Ans A). 50.1 B). 71.2 C). 61.2 D). 91.2
Correct Answer: D

Q.2

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Ans A). 995 : 761 B). 925 : 605 C). 892 : 731 D). 606 : 925
Correct Answer: D

Q.3

Ans A). 385

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D). 165
Pratap Sir Correct Answer: C
Q.4 The population of a village is increased by 3%. Had there been 122 less, there would have been a decrease of 1%. Find the
original population.
Ans A). 3050 B). 3550 C). 3555 D). 3000
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Aravind purchased a book for Rs.450 and sold it for Rs.500. What is the profit percentage?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.6 What is the average of the first 40 natural numbers?

Ans A). 20.5 B). 50.5 C). 40.5 D). 10.5
Correct Answer: A

Q.7

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.8
Eight persons went to a restaurant for lunch. Seven of them spent ₹80
each on their meals, while the eighth person spent ₹70 more than the
average expenditure of all eight persons. What was the total amount spent
by all the individuals?

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Ans A). ₹640 B). ₹560 C). ₹780 D). ₹720
Correct Answer: D

Q.9
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Ans A). 2 : 1 B). 3 : 1 C). 3 : 2 D). 2 : 3
Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 By selling 120 note books, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 40 note books. Find his gain percentage.
Ans B).
A). C). Correct Answer: D
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D).
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Q.11 A solid sphere of iron having radius 15 cm is to be melted and recast in the shape of a cylindrical pipe having internal and
external radii 4 cm and 6 cm, respectively. Find the length (in m) of the pipe thus formed.
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Ans A). 2.15 B). 2.25 C). 2.45 D). 2.35

Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 The simple interest on a certain deposit at 5.5% per annum is ₹264 in one year. How much additional interest will be earned
in one year on the same deposit at 6.5% per annum?
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Ans A). ₹48 B). ₹47.5 C). ₹46.5 D). ₹49

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 Three different types of pulses costing ₹180, ₹240 and ₹200 per kg, respectively, are mixed in the ratio 1 : 5 : 4. What will be
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the cost for 1 kg of the mixture?

Ans A). ₹200 B). ₹240 C). ₹218 D). ₹206
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 A person walks alonga rectangular field, whose dimensions are 6 km long and 3 km wide. For the first 1 hour, he walks
at a speed of 2 km/hr. After 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Next 1 hour, his speed is decreased to 2 km/hr.
For the next 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Find his average speed (in km/hr).
Ans A). 5 B). 4 C). 3 D). 2
Correct Answer: C

Q.15

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 710 B). 790 C). 750 D). 690
Correct Answer: C

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Q.17

Ans A). 16,100 B). 15,400 C). 15,600 D). 16,300

Correct Answer: C

Q.18

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Ans A). ₹1,444 B). ₹1,432 C). ₹1,428 D). ₹1,438

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Correct Answer: C

Q.19 A tradesman marks his goods at 45% above the cost price but allows a discount of 20% at the time of sale. His gain is:
Ans A). 26% B). 16% C). 25% ap D). 17%
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
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Ans A). 635 B). 715 C). 615 D). 675

Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
G

12 × 2 −6 × 7 + 3× 5× 4 + 10 = 46
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(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
B

Ans A). 3 and 6 B). 2 and 4 C). 7 and 5 D). 12 and 10

Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.
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Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(444, 74, 6)
(666, 37, 18)
Ans A). (80, 11, 8) B). (256, 32, 8) C). (80, 17, 8) D). (96, 17, 8)
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans
an

A). B). C).

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G
B y

Correct Answer: B
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D).
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Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘cake is delicious’ is written as ‘kg fv bu’ and ‘you like cake’ is coded as ‘bu wl ma’. How is ‘cake’
coded in the given language?
Ans A). bu B). fv C). ma D). kg
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F
is sitting second to right of D. C is sitting third to left of F. B is sitting to the immediate right of D. A is not an immediate
neighbour of C. How many people are sitting between E and B when counted from right of E?
Ans A). 2 B). 3 C). 1 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 GN76 is related to UB53 in a certain way. In the same way, KR34 is related to YF11. To which of the following is OV98 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). CJ75 B). JC88 C). JC68 D). CJ78
Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 46 is related to 414 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 52 is related to 468. To which ofthe following is 67
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 624 B). 633 C). 603 D). 658
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ?

Ans A). 46 B). 90 C). 78 D). 81
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.12
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In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘RATS’ is coded as ‘2357’.What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
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Ans A). 6 B). 2 C). 7 D). 5
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Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
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7 × 4− 8 × 2 + 3 × 14 × 5− 9 = 133
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
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Ans A). 14 and 9 B). 7 and 14 C). 9 and 8 D). 2 and 4

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.14 Six people—A, B, C, D, E, and F—are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). A is an immediate neighbour of both E and C. B is an immediate neighbour of both D and C. F is to the immediate
y

right of D.
B

Who among the following is an immediate neighbour of both F and A?

Ans A). C B). B C). E D). D
hs

Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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ABA, BDB, CFC, DHD, ?

Ans A). GJG B). EKE C). EJE D). GJE
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 In this question, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements: All cows are goats. Some goats are lions.
Conclusions:
I. All lions are goats.
II. Some cows are lions.
Ans A). Neither Conclusion I nor II follow. B). Only Conclusion II follows. C). Only Conclusion I follows. D). Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘FINE’ is coded as ‘9632’ and ‘LINE’ is coded as ‘2946’. What is the code for ‘F’ in that language?
Ans A). 9 B). 3 C). 2 D). 6
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘Try to act’ is coded as ‘ZX MN HO’ and ‘act your age’ is coded as ‘CO MB ZX’. How is ‘act’ coded
in that code language?
Ans A). CO B). HO C). ZX D). MB
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 NQRP is related to TWXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EHIG is related to
KNOM. To which of the following is LOPN related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RUTV B). TVUR C). RUVT D). RTVU
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All horses are donkeys.
All donkeys are mules.

Conclusions:
(I) All donkeys are horses.
(II) Some mules are donkeys.
Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion I follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament consists of the President of India and the two Houses of

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Parliament known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha)?

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Ans A). Article 62 B). Article 79 C). Article 67 D). Article 73
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Which edition of the Santosh Trophy event did Karnataka win in the 2022-23 season? ap
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Ans A). 75th B). 73rd C). 78th D). 76th Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Ortho-sulphobenzimide is one of the artificial sweeteners. It is also known as ________.

Ans A). sucralose B). aspartame C). saccharin D). alitame

Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Which of the following is NOT an iron-ore producing belt of India?

Ans A). Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt B). Maharashtra-Goa belt C). Odisha-Jharkhand belt D). Bilaspur-Panipat belt
G

Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which of the following was the capital of the Pallava Dynasty?
B y

Ans A). Aihole B). Badami C). Kanchipuram D). Madurai

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.6 Hareli festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans A). Maharashtra B). Manipur C). Karnataka D). Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 Kamalini Asthana is associated with which of the following dance forms?
Ans A). Manipuri B). Mohiniattam C). K
athak D). Odissi
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Which of the following is referred to as ‘Near Money’?

Ans A). Coins B). Currency notes C). National savings deposits D). Bank money
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 ICC Women's T-20 Cricket World Cup is a/an ________ event.
Ans A). quarterly B). triennial C). biennial D). annual
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Who among the following formed a group of non-violent revolutionaries, the Khudai Khidmatgars (known as Red Shirts)?
Ans A). Abbas Tayabji B). Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan C). Chakravarti Rajagopalachari D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 The founders of Vijayanagar empire, Harihara and Bukka Raya were the ministers of:
Ans A). Kampili B). Kadamba C). Western Chalukya D). Eastern Ganga
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 In May 2023, which Chief Minister was honoured with the Bharat Ratna Dr. Ambedkar award for creating a fear-free state?
Ans A). Yogi Adityanath B). Ashok Gehlot C). Mamata Banerjee D). Arvind Kejriwal
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Identify the group of states that is a part of Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (As of June 2022).
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand B). Haryana and Punjab C). Assam and West Bengal D). Tamil Nadu and Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Which of the following statements with reference to Padma Subrahmanyam is/are correct?
1) Padma Subrahmanyam is a famous Bharatanatyam dancer.
2) She received the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan awards.
3) She was also honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Dance.
Ans A). Only 2 and 3 B). Only 1 and 3 C). Only 1 and 2 D). 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Which percussionist from Maharashtra received Padma Vibhushan 2023?

Ans A). Zakir Hussain B). Swapan Chaudhuri C). Nayan Ghosh D). Yogesh Samsi
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which of the following is an autobiography of Abul Kalam Azad, the first education minister of India?
Ans A). The Story of My Experiments with Truth B). My Country My Life C). India Wins Freedom D). Long Walk to Freedom
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 What is the chemical formula for potassium permanganate?

Ans A). KMn2O7 B). KMnO4 C). K3MnO4 D). K2MnO3
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Which of the following statements about pteridophytes are correct?

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Statements:
A. They include horsetails and ferns.
B. Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders.
C. They are very advanced type of plants on earth, which evolved very recently.
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D. Evolutionarily, they are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues – xylem and phloem.
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Ans A). Only A, B and D B). Only A, B and C C). Only A and C D). Only C and D
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 In July 2023, the District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) in Tirupathur district, Tamil Nadu, achieved a
monumental achievement by constructing 1546 farm ponds in just 30 days, setting a new world record.
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This remarkable initiative was carried out under which government scheme?
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Ans A). Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme B). Mission Amrit Sarovar C). Jal Jeevan Mission
D). Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.20 Bokaro, Burnpur, Rourkela, etc., are famous for development of which of the following industries?
B y

Ans A). Software B). Iron and Steel C). Automobile D). Dairy
Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.21 By which of the following Amendments was the right to property removed from Part III of the Indian Constitution?
at

Ans A). 50th Amendment B). 64th Amendment C). 44th Amendment D). 70th Amendment Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 Which state has the highest population in India as per the projected data of 2024?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Uttar Pradesh C). Bihar D). Kerala
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Divergent plate boundary is a boundary that occurs between two tectonic plates:
Ans A). that are moving towards one another B). where one plate slides beneath the other C). that are sliding horizontally past each other
D). that are moving away from one another
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following pacts suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Ans A). Liaquat–Nehru Pact B). Sirima–Gandhi Pact C). Gandhi-Irwin Pact D). Rajah-Moonje Pact
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Who discovered the Bharhut stupa?

Ans A). James Tod B). Alexander Cunningham C). James Burgess D). James Fergusson
Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word.

My teacher is very diligent.

Ans A). Skilful B). Idle C). Hardworking D). Kind
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Don’t be such an ________; we have plenty of time to complete the task.
Ans A). eat crow B). easy money C). eager beaver D). elephant in the room
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). She usually walks her dog in the park every morning. B). The train leaves the station at 8:00 a.m. every day.
C). They play chess together on weekends. D). He don't like spicy food.
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Scince explores and explains the natural world through observation and experimentation.
Ans A). sience B). sceince C). science D). scinece
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Congenial
Ans A). Trivial B). Pleasant C). Ignorant D). Ethical
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Gandhi’s ways of life, if followed in their entirety, will aid us in the creation of a society of peace and _______.

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Ans A). cacophony B). agitation C). harmony D). discord

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Correct Answer: C

Q.7 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
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It is a fact that / girls' hair is usually / long than the boys' hair.
Ans A). It is a fact that B). long than the boys' hair C). No error D). girls' hair is usually
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Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abundant
Ans A). Elusive B). Ample C). Skimpy D). Rare
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Correct Answer: B
G

Q.9 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
When I was studying Economics in Delhi University, Ritu was senior than me.
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Ans A). senior than me B). in Delhi University C). When I was studying Economics D). Ritu was
Correct Answer: A
B

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Camouflage B). Perseverence C). Exaggerate D). Connoisseur

Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Based on the context of the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

After spending hours working non-stop on the project, the team decided to ___________ and go home.
Ans A). run out of steam B). take it easy C). hit the books D). call it a day
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Elevation
Ans A). Promotion B). Demotion C). Creation D). Presentation
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

In an _____(endeavour) to improve the environment of their society, they planted many trees surrounding the parking area.
Ans A). axiom B). aim C). ecstasy D). epitome
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 Change the following sentence into positive degree.
Ramesh is not stronger than Mahesh.
Ans A). Mahesh is as strong as Ramesh. B). Mahesh is strongest than Ramesh. C). Ramesh is as strong than Mahesh.
D). Mahesh is stronger than Ramesh.
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The company's success is attributed to its __________ business strategies.

C). mundane D). innovative

Ans A). worst B). downtrodden
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Swati came here with the intent of insulting me.

Ans A). to insult me B). off insulting me C). for insulting me D). from insulting me
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Synopsis B). Obliterate C). Pursuit D). Occassionaly
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Neha’s house is far from the city than everyone else’s.

Ans A). further from the city than B). more far from the city to C). farther from the city than D). far from the city to
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

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Chocolate can be ______ without milk; mix cocoa butter, sugar and a puree of fermented, roasted cocoa beans, and you
_______ a perfectly respectable dark chocolate.
Ans A). make; have B). making; have C). made; has
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Select the option that changes the degree of comparison in the given sentence from superlative to positive without
changing the meaning of the sentence.
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Kalpana Ahuja is the tallest girl in the colony.

Ans A). Many girls in the colony are taller than Kalpana Ahuja. B). Kalpana Ahuja is as tallest as other girls of the colony.
C). No other girl in the colony is as taller as Kalpana Ahuja. D). No other girl in the colony is as tall as Kalpana Ahuja.
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
G

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
B y

small peril to herself. It was pointed _____4_____ to her that the _____5_____ was the place for the foot passengers, but she replied,
“I’m going to walk where I like. We’ve got liberty now.”
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). about B). off C). which D). form
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

That was a jolly story _____1_____ Arthur Ransome told the other day in one of his messages from Petrograd, a place in Russia. A
stout old lady was walking __2___ her basket down the middle of a street to the _____3_____ confusion of the traffic and with no
small peril to herself. It was pointed _____4_____ to her that the _____5_____ was the place for the foot passengers, but she replied,
“I’m going to walk where I like. We’ve got liberty now.”

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). beside B). in C). at D). with
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). greet B). grate C). great D). garret
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). in B). by C). so D). out
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

That was a jolly story _____1_____ Arthur Ransome told the other day in one of his messages from Petrograd, a place in Russia. A

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stout old lady was walking __2___ her basket down the middle of a street to the _____3_____ confusion of the traffic and with no
small peril to herself. It was pointed _____4_____ to her that the _____5_____ was the place for the foot passengers, but she replied,
“I’m going to walk where I like. We’ve got liberty now.”
at
SubQuestion No : 25
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). pavement B). road C). market D). bay
an

Correct Answer: A
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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A man bought an article for ₹500 and sold it for ₹400. Find his loss percentage.
Ans A). 25% B). 20% C). 30% D). 100%
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Two numbers are in the ratio of 7:9 and their LCM is 630. Find the numbers
Ans A). 56, 72 B). 77, 99 C). 70, 90 D). 63, 81
Correct Answer: C

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.

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3

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Ans A). 20% B). 10% C). 25%
ap D). 15%
Correct Answ
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 600 B). 520 C). 500 D). 560
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Correct Answer: D

Q.5
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Ans A). 10,437.43 B). 11,282.85 C). 10,182.86 D). 10,128.85

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.6 One train is moving with at twice the speed of a second train. The lengths of the trains are equal. The ratio of the time taken
by these trains to cross each other when moving in the same direction and in opposite directions, respectively, is:
hs

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 A boat can travel at a speed of 42 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr, how much time (in hours and
minutes) will be taken by the boat to go 157.5 km downstream, and then 78 km upstream?
Ans A). 6 h 20 min B). 4 h 45 min C). 5 h 30 min D). 7 h 25 min
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A vessel contains 80 litres of a mixture of alcohol and water in the ratio of 3 : 7. If 40 litres of the mixture is taken out from
the vessel and replaced with 40 litres of water, then the ratio of alcohol and water becomes:
Ans A). 3 : 17 B). 1 : 11 C). 3 : 23 D). 2 : 15
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 48.8 B). 49.8 C). 50.8 D). 51.8
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 There are two groups C and D of a class consisting of 32 and 40 students, respectively. If the average weight of group C is
60 kg and that of group D is 33 kg, then find the average weight of the whole class.
Ans A). 46.5 kg B). 45 kg C). 45.2 kg D). 44 kg
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 b is the sum of two quantities, one of which varies inversely as the square of a2 , and the other of which varies directly as a.
Identify the relationship between a and b if b = 49 when a = 3 or 5.
Ans A). a = 3b B). a = 3b2 − 7/a C). b = 8a + 225/a2 D). b = 2a
Correct Answer: C
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Q.12 If apples and pears in a basket are in the ratio of 5 : 8, then find the percentage of pears (correct to two decimal places) in
the basket.
Ans A). 69.5% B). 63.45% C). 61.54% D). 59.44%
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The below table shows the production of the number of bottles (1 L) of soft drinks of three companies during 2016-2020.
Year A (in lakhs) B (in lakhs) C (in lakhs)
2016 38000 43000 52000
2017 42000 52000 58000
2018 53000 65000 63000
2019 30000 35000 32000
2020 20000 25000 28000
What was the percentage decrease in B's production in 2020 as compared to B's production in 2018 (approximate to two
decimals)?
Ans A). 60% B). 75.50% C). 85.56% D). 61.54%
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The whole surface area of a right circular cone of radius 15 metres and height 8 metres is:
Ans A). D).
B). C). Correct Answer: A

Q.15 The average weight of two persons A and B is 70 kg. Another person C joins A and B and the average weight now becomes
72 kg. If another person D, whose weight is 2 kg less than that of C, replaces A, then the average weight of B, C and D
becomes 70 kg. Find the weight of A (in kg).
Ans A). 75 B). 80 C). 73 D). 74
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The bar graph shows the number of cars and the number of total vehicles in thousands, registered in given months. What
was the total number of vehicles other than cars registered in the given months?

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B y
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Ans A). 48000 B). 54000 C). 55000 D). 52000

Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 665 B). 585 C). 625 D). 565
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Akhil bought two articles at ₹4,500 each. He sold one article at a 12% gain but had to sell the second article at a loss. If he
had suffered a loss of ₹395 on the whole transaction, then what was the selling price of the second article?
Ans A). ₹3,500 B). ₹3,595 C). ₹3,565 D). ₹3,550
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 A cylinder of radius 10 cm and height 30 cm is cut, parallel to the base, into two pieces of different sizes. The total surface
area of the larger piece formed is 70% of that of the given cylinder. The smaller piece is melted and made into a sphere. The
radius (in cm) of the sphere is:
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.20
A sum of money was lent on simple interest. After 7 years it’s simple
interest became of it. Find the rate of interest per annum.
Ans A). 10% B). 12% C). 8% D). 5%
Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans

A). B).
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C).
Pr
an

Correct Answer: A
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G

D).
B y
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Q.3 Seven friends - P, Q, R, A, X, Y, and Z - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
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order). Y is sitting sixth to the right of Q. P is sitting third to the left of Y. A has Q and X as immediate neighbours. Z is to the
immediate right of P.
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Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?

Ans A). Q B). P C). Y D). X
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
25 – 45 × 9 ÷ 5 + 20 = ?
Ans A). 30 B). 35 C). 33 D). 32
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘life is rude’ is written as ‘tp ck gn’ and ‘this isn’t life’ is written as ‘gn dl sb’. How is ‘life’ written
in that code language?
Ans A). ck B). gn C). tp D). dl
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 ? 22 37 57 82
Ans A). 17 B). 20 C). 10 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘COST’ is coded as ‘5971’ and ‘SALE’ is coded as ‘8692’. What is the code for ’S’ in that
language?
Ans A). 8 B). 9 C). 6 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.10 VDIZ is related to ZGKA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HNAS is related to LQCT.

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To which of the following is BJWP related, following the same logic?

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Ans A). DKXR B). ENAS C). FMYQ D). DLZR
Correct Answer: C

Q.11
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Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(5, 14, 24)

(9, 6, 24)
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Ans A). (15, 19, 89) B). (17, 10, 42) C). (21, 23, 55) D). (11, 12, 34) Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
G

121 + 1 – 6 ÷ 16 × 8 = ?
Ans A). 164 B). 132 C). 124 D). 145
y

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.13 CTVU is related to EVXW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BKGI is related to DMIK.
To which of the following is SAEH related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). MPEF B). LOJI C). HYTF D). UCGJ

Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All eggs are chickens.
No chicken is a hen.
Conclusions:
(I) All chickens are eggs.
(II) No egg is a hen.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: A

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

AZB, BYC, CXD, DWE ,?

Ans A). EFU B). GUH C). FVE D). EVF
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D. E and C are immediate neighbours of A. G sits immediately to
the right of F. Only 1 person sits between F and E when counted from the right of E. Who sits immediately to the left of F?
Ans A). G B). A C). B D). D
Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some mats are carpets.
All carpets are sheets.

Conclusions:
(I) Some mats are sheets.
(II) All sheets are carpets.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: A

Q.18

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.19 5 is related to 77 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 137. To which of the following is 3 related,

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following the same logic?

Ans A). 44
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
B). 47 C). 49
ap D). 45
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 In a certain code language, 'HOST' is coded as '2846' and 'TEAM' is coded as '3587'.
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What is the code for 'T' in the given code language?

Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 6 D). 8
Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was awarded the Sansad Ratna Award 2023 and represents the Indian National Congress in Lok
Sabha from West Bengal?
B y

Ans A). Kuldeep Rai Sharma B). Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury C). Sudhir Gupta D). Bidyut Baran Mahato
Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.2 Where is the Kala Ghoda Arts Festival organised every year?
Ans A). Mumbai B). New Delhi C). Chennai D). Bengaluru
at

Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Who wrote the novel ‘Amrit Aur Vish’?

Ans A). Vishnu Prabhakar B). Shreelal Shukla C). Amritlal Nagar D). Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Who inaugurated 'Vibrant Village Program' in april 2023?

Ans A). Ashwini Vaishnav B). Hardeep Puri C). Amit Shah D). Narendra Modi
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The ‘Dhansiri’ and ‘Subansiri’ are the tributaries of ________ River.
Ans A). Sutlej B). Brahmaputra C). Godavari D). Mahanadi
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Why are wealth taxes and gift taxes treated as paper taxes in India?
Ans A). It is not mandatory for the government to collect these taxes. B). They do not generate much revenue in comparison to others.
C). Tax payers need to fill out forms only in paper and submit returns.
D). They are paid only by government employees, members of the Parliament and Legislative assemblies.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 What is the primary role of autotrophic organisms in an ecosystem?
Ans A). Breaking down dead organisms B). Producing organic matter from inorganic substances C). Preying on other organisms for food

D). Converting organic matter into energy

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following water bodies are also known as nurseries of the ocean?
Ans A). Lagoons B). Estuaries C). Dams D). Bogs
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Identify the Kuchipudi dancer, actor and film producer who won the best choreography award at the 68th National Film
Awards 2022.
Ans A). Birju Maharaj B). Ganesh Acharya C). Sandhya Raju D). Remo D'Souza
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Tanras Khan is associated with which of the following gharanas?

Ans A). Delhi gharana B). Benaras gharana C). Agra gharana D). Indore gharana
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 According to the standard definition of Census of India, the marginal worker is a person who works for less than _______
days in a year.
Ans A). 180 B). 173 C). 170 D). 183
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The Banaras session of the Indian National Congress in 1905 was presided over by _________.
Ans A). Mahatma Gandhi B). Subhas Chandra Bose C). Jawaharlal Nehru D). Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The ‘Agaria’ community of the 19th century was associated with which of the following industries?
Ans A). Iron industry B). Cotton textile industry C). Wood industry D). Agro Industry
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Pushyamitra Sunga's capital was at:

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Ans A). Pataliputra B). Kalinga C). Nalanda D). Cuttack
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 What is the charge of an electron? ap

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Ans A). Positive B). Neutral C). Variable D). Negative
Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 Excessive bleeding from wounds may happen due to lack of ____.
Ans A). Vitamin E B). Vitamin A C). Vitamin B12 D). Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 What is the term for a dome-shaped monument that contains sacred relics in Buddhism?
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Ans A). Vihar B). Stambha C). Chaitya D). Stupa

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India propound the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Constitution?
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Ans A). Kesavanad Bharati vs. State of Kerala Case B). Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India Case C). Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab Case
B

D). Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narayan Case

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Anahat Singh is associated with which of the following sports events?
Ans A). Squash B). Chess C). Badminton D). Wrestling
at

Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 Fugdi is famous dance of the state of _________.

Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Uttarakhand C). Punjab D). Goa
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 The Border-Gavaskar trophy is played between _________.

Ans A). India and New Zealand B). India and Pakistan C). India and Australia D). India and England
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Which of the following reports is considered as a piecemeal effort to provide resilience to the successful working of federal
system?
Ans A). Sarkaria Commission B). Kothari Commission C). Thakkar Commission D). Kapur Commission
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 In 1527, Babur defeated Rana Sanga, the Rajput ruler of Mewar in the Battle of ________.
Ans A). Tarain B). Khanwa C). Chanderi D). Panipat
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 According to the Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023, which union territory has the least percentage of poor?
Ans A). Lakshadweep B). Puducherry C). Delhi D). Chandigarh
Correct Answer: B

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Q.25 The North-South National Highway Corridor connects which two UTs/States of India?
Ans A). Jammu and Kashmir - Telangana B). Ladakh - Kerala C). Delhi - Odisha D). Jammu and Kashmir - Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

In the absence of government rule, riots have broken out all over the country and everything is in a state of
complete chaos.
Ans A). Anarchy B). Oligarchy C). Dictatorship D). Monarchy
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The detail given by the instructor was the ______ one.
Ans A). more updation B). most updated C). updating D). updates
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
You can do your work well within the stipulated time and be more productive if you learn to keep video games at the length
of your arm.
Ans A). at arm of his length B). at arm's weight C). at arm of your length D). at arm’s length
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate homophone to fill in the blank.

Looking up, she realised she had swum __________ than she’d thought.
Ans A). farther B). furthest C). farthest D). further
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error

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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

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The recommendations of the committee / regarding changes in the eligibility criteria / was not accept.
Ans A). No Error B). regarding changes in the eligibility criteria C). The recommendations of the committee D). was not accept

Correct Answer: D ap
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Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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He sings good / among all the / contestants in / the singing competition.

Ans A). contestants in B). He sings good C). the singing competition D). among all the
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). humorous B). achieve C). familiar D). paralel

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Consciencious B). Unanimous C). Millennium D). Inconvenience

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.9 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). A myriad of possibilities unfolds when the artist embarks on the journey of creative experimentation.
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B). A myriad of possibilities unfolds when an artist embarks on a journey of creative experimentation.
C). The myriad of possibilities unfolds when the artist embarks on a journey of creative experimentation.
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D). The myriad of possibilities unfolds when an artist embarks on the journey of creative experimentation.
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The prisoners were living in appalling conditions.

Ans A). daring B). ingenuous C). risky D). shocking
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who brings a legal action against someone in court.

Ans A). Sanctimonious B). Numismatic C). Pragmatist D). Plaintiff
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Abstract B). Abscess C). Abstinent D). Absense

Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

There have been numerous attempts made by the citizens to restore parity.
Ans A). No substitution B). Most numerous C). More numerous D). Quite numerous
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the highlighted word in the given sentence.

We enjoyed the gentle breeze that was blowing.

Ans A). violent B). garnished C). modest D). soft
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Siva is a hard worker. He works ___________.
Ans A). bad B). scarcely C). hardly D). hard
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

I could _____ the reason for being _____.
Ans A). bard; barred B). fine; find C). find; fined D). barred; bard
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Siliguri has joined the nation to celebrate the golden jubilee of the first conquest of Mount Everest by an Indian.
Ans A). joins the celebratory nation B). joining the nation celebrate C). No improvement required D). joined the national celebration

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

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Ans A). Our Principal is a great teacher and administrator. B). Our Principal is a great teacher and a great administrator.

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C). Our Principal is a great teacher and an administrator. D). Our Principal is great teacher and administrator.
Correct Answer: A

Q.19
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Select the most appropriate idiom to substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence.
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If the two families could forget their past quarrels forever, both could benefit immensely.
Ans A). cut to the quick B). catch a tartar C). do a good turn D). bury the hatchet
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Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Presumably
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Ans A). Certainly B). Liberally C). Unlikely D). Successfully

Correct Answer: C
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
The habit of reading is highly advantageous to us intellectually, emotionally and spiritually. As one gets into the habit of reading, one
B

gets mental (1)________. It helps us acquire (2)________and attain intellectual (3)_________. Reading takes away our
(4)_________. Reading can bring (5)__________ in our sorrowful times and guide us in our duties.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). coverage B). success C). satisfaction D). exhaustion
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Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The habit of reading is highly advantageous to us intellectually, emotionally and spiritually. As one gets into the habit of reading, one
gets mental (1)________. It helps us acquire (2)________and attain intellectual (3)_________. Reading takes away our
(4)_________. Reading can bring (5)__________ in our sorrowful times and guide us in our duties.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). readiness B). employment C). knowledge D). strategies
Correct Answer: C

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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). creation B). stagnation C). compression D). expansion
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). time B). vigour C). boredom D). concern
Correct Answer: C

SubQuestion No : 25

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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

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Ans A). comfort B). resentment C). lethargy D). oppression
Correct Answer: A

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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A total of 24 men working 7 hours a day can complete a task in 10 days. In how many days will 21 men working9 hours a day
complete the same task?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.2

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Ans A). 12 cm B). 15 cm C). 21 cm D). 18 cm
Correct Answer: C
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G
B y
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Q.3 The following table indicates the distances (in km) travelled by 4 vehicles (A, B, C and D) in 2 days and the bar graph
indicates the time (in hours) taken by the vehicles to travel the distances, respectively. The x - axis indicates the time (in
hours) and the y - axis indicates the vehicles. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

Time taken by 4 vehicles to travel thedistances.

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Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?
ap
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Ans A). Only A and D B). A, C and D C). Only C and D D). Only A and C
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
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Ans A). 670 B). 630 C). 590 D). 570

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Find the area of a parallelogram with a base of 12 m and a height of 20 m.

Ans D).
A). B). C). Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.6 The average of nine consecutive numbers is 45. The largest number among these numbers is:
Ans A). 50 B). 49 C). 48 D). 41
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 The table shows the production of different types of cars (in thousands).
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What is the ratio of the total production of cars of type Q in 2020 and type R in 2022 taken together to the total production of
cars of type S in 2019 and type P in 2021 taken together?
Ans A). 22 : 17 B). 35 : 16 C). 17 : 22 D). 16 : 35
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8
A can contains a mixture of two liquids, grape juice and
pineapple juice in the ratio 13 : 11. When 8 litres of the
mixture is drawn off, and the can is filled with pineapple juice,
the ratio becomes 13 : 14. How many litres of pineapple juice
was initially contained in the can?
Ans A). 14 litres B). 28 litres C). 11 litres D). 33 litres
Correct Answer: D

Q.9

Ans A). 985 g B). 978 g C). 975 g D). 981 g

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Find the HCF of 576,324 and 360

Ans A). 72 B). 108 C). 144 D). 36
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Find the arithmetic mean of 5, 15, 25, 26, and 27.
Ans A). 19.6 B). 18.6 C). 20.6 D). 17.6
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 A shopkeeper buys 15 mobiles and sells 12 mobiles at the cost price of 15 mobiles. If the shopkeeper sells all the mobiles at
the same price at which he sold the 12 mobiles in the first case, what is the profit percentage?
Ans A). 22.5% B). 27.5% C). 20% D). 25%

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 A sum of money amounts to ₹7,436 after 6 years and ₹9,460 after 10 years at the same rate of simple interest. Find the rate
of interest per annum.
Ans A). 12.5% B). 13% C). 11.5% ap D). 12%
Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 A tradesman marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and then allows customers a discount of 15%. What is the profit
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percentage for the tradesman?

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 Find the volume of the largest right circular cone which is inscribed in a hollow cube of length 6 units and is standing on its
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base.
G

Ans A). 18π units3 B). 9π units3 C). 21π units3 D). 10π units3 Correct Answer: A
y

Q.16 If the average of 53 consecutive even numbers is 1280. Find the difference between the smallest and the largest number.
B

Ans A). 24 B). 34 C). 124 D). 104

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Distance between A and B is 1200 km. If they start moving towards each other at same time, they will meet in 24 hrs. If A
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starts 10 hrs after B, then they will meet after another 20 hrs. What are their respective speeds?
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Ans A). 30 km/h, 20 km/h B). 25 km/h, 35 km/h C). 35 km/h, 25 km/h D). 40 km/h, 25km/h
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Raghav covers a distance of 45 km in 1 hour 40 minutes. Assuming he maintains a constant speed throughout his journey,
what is Raghav’s speed (in m/s)?
Ans A). 9 B). 6 C). 7.5 D). 7.2
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The price of a commodity is increased by 20% and then again by 25%. By what per cent should the increased price be
reduced to get back to the initial price?
Ans B). 45% D). 25%
A). Correct Answer: A
C).

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 710 B). 690 C). 790 D). 750
Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Statements:
All kites are eagles.
All eagles are birds.

Conclusions:
(I) All birds are kites.
(II) Some birds are eagles.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: A

Q.2

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

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Ans

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Correct Answer: D

A). B). C).

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D).
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Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘BLUE’ is coded as ‘5193’ and ‘CABS’ is coded as ‘3246’.What is the code for ‘B’ in the given
code language?
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Ans A). 4 B). 6 C). 5 D). 3

Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
G

it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
y

Some horses are goats.

All goats are jackals.

Conclusions:
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(I): Some horses are jackals.

(II): All jackals are goats.
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Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
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D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people sit between E and F when counted from the left of E. Only three people sit between G and D when counted from the
right of D. A sits to the immediate right of G. C is an immediate neighbour of D as well as F.
Who sits second to the left of B?
Ans A). G B). C C). A D). E
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

Q.8 GNJF is related to IPLH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KRNJ is related to MTPL.
To which of the following is OVRN related, following the same logic?
Ans A). QXTP B). XQPT C). QXPT D). XQTP
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

MSN, LRM, KQL, JPK, ?

Ans A). JOI B). JIO C). IOJ D). IJO
Correct Answer: C

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Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D).
G
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Correct Answer: A
B

Q.11
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Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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Q.12

Ans A). − and + B). ÷ and × C). + and × D). + and ÷

Correct Answer: C

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, 12, ?, 144, 720 ,4320, 30240

Ans A). 36 B). 42 C). 40 D). 38
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘MILK’ is coded as ‘5642’ and ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘8425’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that language?
Ans A). 6 B). 8 C). 4 D). 5
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘SOAP’ is coded as ‘4729’ and ‘POSE’ is coded as ‘9257’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans A). 7 B). 2 C). 9 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
(8÷ 2)× 11 −9× 3 + (51÷ 17) × 6 = 30
(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 3 and 6 B). 9 and 11 C). 9 and 6 D). 11 and 6
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 ZMJI is related to UIGG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TIMN is related to OEJL.
To which of the following is PHJI related, following the same logic?

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Ans A). KJED B). KDGG C). KGDF D). GKHF
Correct Answer: B

Q.18
ap
4 is related to 41 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 91. To which of the following is 13 related,
following the same logic?
at
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans A). 131 B). 129 C). 130 D). 127
Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 Five friends, Ashish, Bipin, Chandu, Dinesh and Emmanuel, went on a trek. On the mountain top, they lit a campfire and sat
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around it in a circle facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
It was recalled that there was only one person sitting between Ashish and Chandu, while Chandu himself was sitting second
to the left of Bipin.
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If Dinesh was an immediate neighbour of both Chandu and Bipin, who was sitting to the immediate right of Ashish?
Ans A). Chandu B). Dinesh C). Bipin D). Emmanuel
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.20 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
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number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

18, 29
49, 60
Ans A). 84, 95 B). 88, 79 C). 92, 123 D). 86, 99
Correct Answer: A

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following led the Indian delegation to attend the 56thAnnual General Meeting of the Board of Governors of
Asian Development Bank (ADB) along with Investor/ Bilateral and other associated meetings, in Incheon, the Republic of
Korea, from 2 to 5 May 2023?
Ans A). Meenakshi Lekhi B). Nirmala Sitharaman C). Smriti Irani D). Renuka Singh Saruta
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 According to Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, it is the fundamental duty of every person to uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and ______________________.
Ans A). spirituality of India B). harmony of India C). diversity of India D). integrity of India
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 The process by which a water body gradually becomes enriched with nutrients and minerals, mainly phosphorus and
nitrogen, leading to enormous growth of algae on the surface of the water, thus decreasing the amount of dissolved oxygen
in the water is known as:
Ans A). Eutrophication B). Biomagnification C). Hypoxia D). Bioaccumulation
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Who among the following freedom fighters was associated with the series of nine articles known as ‘New Lamp for Old’?
Ans A). Aurobindo Ghose B). Sardar Ajit Singh C). Bhagat Singh D). Swami Vivekananda
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The Buland Darwaza was the structure built by Akbar at which of the following places in India?
Ans A). Fatehpur Sikri B). Agra C). Lahore D). Delhi
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Who introduced ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?

Ans A). Rajendra Prasad B). Jawaharlal Nehru C). Vallabhbhai Patel D). BR Ambedkar
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Raja and Radha Reddy were awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2000 for giving a new dimension to which dance form?
Ans A). Sattriya B). Odissi C). Kuchipudi D). Manipuri
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 ‘The Best Mistakes of My Life’ is an autobiography of which Indian Actor?

Ans A). Salman Khan B). Shahrukh Khan C). Dilip Kumar D). Sanjay Khan
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which of the following options contains groups of cropping seasons in India?
Ans A). Rabi, Kharif and Zaid B). Rabi, Podu and Zaid C). Rabi, Kharif and Jhum D). Ray, Kharif and Zaid
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 A tunnel that runs through the cell wall between two plant cells is known as:
Ans A). ribosome B). protoplasm C). peroxisome D). plasmodesmata
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which state topped the medal tally at the 37th National Games event held in Goa?
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Ans A). Punjab B). Kerala C). Haryana D). Maharashtra
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Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Thetakudi Harihara Vinayakram, who became the first Carnatic musician to win a Grammy, is known for playing which
an

musical instrument?
Ans A). Kanjira B). Ghatam C). Shehnai D). Mridangam
Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 During the Mauryan society, Megasthenes divided the Indian society into seven distinct groups. In which distinct group
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were the ‘king’s counsellors’ placed?

Ans A). Seventh B). First C). Fifth D). Second

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.14 How many other members are there in the Finance Commission EXCEPT, Chairman?
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Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 3 D). 5

Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Bhangra and Giddha dance forms are associated with which Indian state?
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Ans A). Odisha B). Gujarat C). Punjab D). Maharashtra

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following banking institutions played an instrumental role in financial inclusion through microfinance loans
and their expansion in India?
Ans A). State Bank of India B). Reserve Bank of India C). Central Bank of India D). National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Deodhar Trophy is given in ________.

Ans A). hockey B). football C). tennis D). cricket
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 The elements in Group 17 of the periodic table are known as:
Ans A). noble gases B). alkali metals C). halogens D). transition metals
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Who among the following married the Mughal emperor Jahangir in 1611 and received the title ‘Nur Jahan’?
Ans A). Jahanara Begum B). Hasina Begum Sahiba C). Mehrunnisa D). Mumtaz Mahal
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 What solution should be used to test for the presence of starch in food?
Ans A). Ethylene glycol – water solution B). Magnesium solution C). Talc solution D). Iodine solution
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Which of the following ministries has launched the National Career Service Portal (www.ncs.gov.in) ?

Ans A). Ministry of Education B). Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions C). Ministry of Labour and Employment
D). Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 As per Census 2011, which of the following union territories has the highest percentage of rural population?
Ans A). Puducherry B). Delhi C). Chandigarh D). Daman and Diu
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 On which of the following days is National Integration Day observed?

Ans A). 2 October B). 15 August C). 26 January D). 19 November
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following is not a tributary of Godavari River?

Ans A). Indravati B). Pranhita C). Kameng D). Manjra
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Who among the following are the target beneficiaries for the ‘Vishwakarma Yojana’ launched by Government of India on 17
September 2023?
Ans A). Individuals skilled in traditional folk dance B). Individuals skilled in traditional craftsmanship
C). Individuals skilled in traditional folklore D). Individuals skilled in traditional folk songs Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans A). perceive B). parliment C). pastime D). perseverance

Q.2
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The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Correct Answer: B
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The dancer / performed weird / but the music was / highly enchanting.
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Ans A). highly enchanting. B). performed weird C). The dancer D). but the music was
Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). An intricate dance of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft plays the crucial role in neural communication.
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B). An intricate dance of neurotransmitters in a synaptic cleft plays a crucial role in neural communication.
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C). The intricate dance of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft plays a crucial role in neural communication.
D). The intricate dance of neurotransmitters in a synaptic cleft plays the crucial role in neural communication.
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). If you want to have a sound working knowledge of Japanese, you must read this book.
B). If you want to have an sound working knowledge of Japanese, you must read this book.
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C). If you want to have sound working knowledge of the Japanese, you must read this book.
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D). If you want to have a sound working knowledge of the Japanese, you must read this book.
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

RK Laxman was well-known for his drawings of people in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter.
Ans A). articles B). sketches C). portraits D). caricatures
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans A). The audience applauded the muzicians performance. B). The audiance applauded the musicans performance.
C). The audience applauded the musician's performance. D). The audiance applauded the musician's perfomance.
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of ‘clarify’ in the sentence given below.
The last question of the examination paper confused me when it asked to illustrate the Pythagoras’ theorem with the help of
examples.
Ans A). Last B). Illustrate C). Help D). Confused
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sarvana failed in the examination last week and is in extreme depression these days.
Ans A). In the red B). In cold blood C). In the doldrums D). In the lurch
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

Shylock, the Jewish moneylender, and Antonio, the rich Merchant of Venice loathed each other.
Ans A). lathered B). admired C). abhorred D). latte
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Head in the clouds
Ans A). Being impractical B). Being punctual and sincere C). Working hard D). Thinking about the sky and clouds
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Jurisdiction
Ans A). Governance B). Expression C). Violation D). Descent
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Sushma is one of the smartest girls in the class.

Ans A). Few girls in the class are as smart as Sushma. B). Sushma is the smart girl of the class.
C). Sushma is smarter than any other girls in the class. D). No other girl is as smart as Sushma.
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.

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Bindu asked Arya to fill out for / her so that she could / take care of / her sick father.
Ans A). Bindu asked Arya to fill out for B). her so that he could C). her sick father D). take care of
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The restaurant's menu featured a variety of __________ dishes.
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Ans A). delecious B). delicius C). delicious D). delitious

Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Choose the correct alternative.
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She is late than we expected.

Ans A). latter B). more late C). later D). latest
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I always prefer a small, cosy cottage ______ a high-rise apartment.

Ans A). than B). for C). from D). to

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
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Success demands hard work, diligence and perseverance.

Ans A). indolence B). Coolness C). Trouble D). Effort
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who travels from place to place, especially for work
Ans A). Vagrant B). Nomad C). Pilgrim D). Itinerant
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Choose the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully.
His _______________ is a brilliant student.
Ans A). sune B). sun C). son D). sone
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Woodcutting involves the removal of useless trees first, ________ by medium and finest quality timber trees.
Ans A). followed B). adjusted C). enacted D). compared
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We are familiar with the quote, " "If winter comes, can spring be far ___1___?" Winters are depressing, but we bear because we know
that it will not ___2___ till perpetuity. Spring ___3___ a new life in us. As the spring begins to set itself, the nights become shorter and
the days get longer. Gardens and lawns become colourful, buds ___4___ as flowers, birds chirp and butterflies fly from one flower to
another to ___5____ on the sweet nectar. The dullness is taken over by brightness.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). behind and far B). behind and below C). far behind D). behind
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). hold B). last C). hold on D). rest
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most

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appropriate option to fill in each blank.

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We are familiar with the quote, " "If winter comes, can spring be far ___1___?" Winters are depressing, but we bear because we know
that it will not ___2___ till perpetuity. Spring ___3___ a new life in us. As the spring begins to set itself, the nights become shorter and

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the days get longer. Gardens and lawns become colourful, buds ___4___ as flowers, birds chirp and butterflies fly from one flower to
another to ___5____ on the sweet nectar. The dullness is taken over by brightness.
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SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). imbue B). immerse C). inculcate D). infuses
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
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We are familiar with the quote, " "If winter comes, can spring be far ___1___?" Winters are depressing, but we bear because we know
that it will not ___2___ till perpetuity. Spring ___3___ a new life in us. As the spring begins to set itself, the nights become shorter and
the days get longer. Gardens and lawns become colourful, buds ___4___ as flowers, birds chirp and butterflies fly from one flower to
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another to ___5____ on the sweet nectar. The dullness is taken over by brightness.
B

SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). take out B). come out C). fall over D). pull out
Correct Answer: B
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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). gulp B). food C). gobble D). suck
Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Rohit made a profit of 22% when he sold a jacket for ₹7,930. Find the cost price of the jacket.
Ans A). ₹6,500 B). ₹7,500 C). ₹7,000 D). ₹6,000
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 15 kg of superior quality of wheat is mixed with 5 kg of inferior quality of wheat. The price of superior quality and inferior
quality wheat is ₹80 and ₹60, respectively. Find the average price per kg of the mixture.
Ans A). ₹70 B). ₹65 C). ₹150 D). ₹75

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 230 B). 310 C). 270
ap D). 210
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4
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an
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G
B y

Ans A). 2.2 cm B). 3.5 cm C). 2.9 cm D). 3.8 cm

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 The average age of a husband and wife, and their child 3 years ago, was 27 years, and that of the wife and the child 5 years
ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:
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Ans A). 35 years B). 45 years C). 50 years D). 40 years

Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 Find the LCM of 8, 12, 18, 24 and 36.

Ans A). 64 B). 27 C). 72 D). 36
Correct Answer: C

Q.7

Ans A). 234 B). 239 C). 233 D). 231

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 The average age of a class of 39 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher be included, then the average increases by 3
months. Find the age of the teacher.
Ans A). 26 years B). 27 years C). 24 years D). 25 years
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 The sum of length and breadth of a rectangle is 68 m and the ratio of length and breadth is 11:23. What is the area of the
rectangle (in m2 )?
Ans A). 976 B). 1331 C). 253 D). 1012
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 What is the single equivalent price increase for two successive price increases of 12% and 18% on an article?
Ans A). 32.16% B). 15% C). 30.24% D). 30%
Correct Answer: A

Q.11
Divyansh invested of his capital at 10%, at 20% and the remaining at 30% simple interest
per annum, respectively. If his annual income is₹3,220, then find the capital (in₹).
Ans A). 13,500 B). 17,000 C). 15,300 D). 14,000
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Geeta went to her home town at a distance of 270 km from her house. She started her journey at 10:00 a.m. and reached the
destination at 02:00 p.m. by travelling 20 km by cab at a speed of 60 km/h and 240 km by train running at a speed of 80 km/h.
She covered the remaining distance by an auto to reach her place. What was the speed of the auto?
Ans A). 15 km/h B). 4 km/h C). 20 km/h D). 18 km/h
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 If p is directly proportional to q and is p = 7 when q = 6, then what is the value of p when q = 21?
Ans A). 24.0 B). 24.5 C). 23.5 D). 25.0
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The average age of 40 students in a class is 12 years. The average age of the students increased by 4 months due to 20 new
admissions in the class. The average age of the newly admitted students is:
Ans A). 14 years 6 months B). 14 years C). 13 years 4 months D). 13 years
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 On a 200-m-long circular track, two people start from the same point, at the same time, at speeds of 12 km/h and 15 km/h,
respectively. After how much time will they meet again for the first time if they are running in the same direction?
Ans A). 180 seconds B). 200 seconds C). 240 seconds ap D). 220 seconds
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Maria buys a dress for ₹3,000. She could not decide between a discount of 35% and three successive discounts of 20%, 10%
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and 5%. The difference between both discounts (in ₹) is:

Ans A). 20 B). 68 C). 0 D). 102
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
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Ans A). 240 B). 340 C). 300 D). 260

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18
B y
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Ans A). A B). Both B and C C). B D). C

Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Shikha sells a bookshelf to Vansh at a loss of 5%, Vansh sells the same bookshelf to Swarnima at a profit of 10%, and
Swarnima sells the same bookshelf to Nikhil at a loss of 20%. If Nikhil purchased the bookshelf for ₹16,720, then what was
the cost (in ₹) of the bookshelf for Shikha?
Ans A). 18,000 B). 19,500 C). 21,500 D). 20,000
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 The following bar graph represents the quantity of grains produced in a state in the years 2014, 2015 and 2016. Study the
given bar graph and answer thequestion that follows.

What is the difference in the percentage of wheat production in the year 2014 to the percentage of wheat production in the
year 2016? (Round up to two decimal places)
Ans A). 2.35% B). 1.92% C). 3.45% D). 4.23%
Correct Answer: A

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.
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at
Pr
an
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Ans
Correct Answer: C
G

A). B). C). D).

B y
hs
at
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Q.2 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

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Q.3 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(12, 77, 5)
(21, 87, 3) ap
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Ans A). (17, 401, 9) B). (11, 188, 6) C). (15, 127, 7) D). (12, 197, 3)
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
an
ag
G
B y

Ans
Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘they are smart’ is written as ‘bt mt rt’ and ‘she is smart’ is written as ‘rt kt st’. How is ‘smart’
written in the given code language?
Ans A). mt B). rt C). kt D). st
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 BEAR is related to YBXO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WATCH is related to
TXQZE. To which of the following is LOTUS related, following the same logic?
Ans A). IJQQP B). IKQRP C). ILQRP D). IJRRP
Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if

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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bongos are sitars.
No cymbal is a sitar. ap
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Conclusions:
[1] All sitars are bongos.
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[2] Some bongos are cymbals.

Ans A). Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow B). Only conclusion [1] follows C). Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows
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D). Only conclusion [2] follows

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting second to the right of E. Only one person is sitting between G and R. Only one person is sitting between
G

R and T. F is sitting second to the left of D. D is an immediate neighbour of T. How many people are sitting between S and T
when counted from the left of S?
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Ans A). Three B). Two C). One D). Four

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘JOKE’ is coded as ‘NIOY’ and ‘TRICKY’ is coded as ‘XLMWOS’. What is the code for
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‘SPEAKERS’ in the given code language?

Ans A). WJIUOYVM B). WJHUOYVM C). WJILOYVM D). WJIUOYUM

Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 In a certain code language, 253 stands for ‘chairs are old’, 378 stands for ‘make good chairs’ and 546 stands for ‘lady is old’.
Which of the following stands for ‘are’ in the same code language?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 5 D). 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘−’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
28 ÷ 18 + 6 × 6 − 4 = ?
Ans A). 7 B). 17 C). 9 D). 14
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GKS, MQY, SWE, YCK, ?

Ans A). EIO B). EQW C). EWR D). EIQ
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
45 − 33 ÷ 3 × 4 + 67 = 22
Ans A). ÷ and × B). − and + C). − and × D). + and ×
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 QFRG is related to NCVK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KZZO is related to
HWDS. To which of the following is ETHW related, following the same logic?

Ans A). APLZ B). BQLA C). BPMZ D). CRKB

Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements: All crocs are frogs. All crocs are turtles.
Conclusions:
(I) All turtles are frogs.
(II) At least some frogs are crocs.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
25000, 5000, 1000, 200, 40, ?
Ans A). 16 B). 8 C). 12 D). 20
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). E
is sitting second to the left of C. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and B. F is sitting third to the right of A.
How many people are sitting between D and C when counted from the left of D?
Ans A). 3 B). 4 C). 2 D). 1
Correct Answer: C

Q.19

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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.20 ap
12 is related to 61 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 76. To which of the following is 16
at
related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). 88 B). 81 C). 84 D). 86

Correct Answer: B
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G

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following raw materials is NOT used to prepare the baking soda?
B

Ans A). H2O B). Na2CO3 C). NaCl D). NH3

Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 In the South Indian temples, the pyramidal tower is called the _________.
at

Ans A). vahan B). mandapa C). vimana D). shikhara

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 What is the duration for which a member of a House of Legislature of a State is, without permission of the House, absent
from all meetings, thereof the house may declare his seat vacant?
Ans A). 180 days B). 90 days C). 30 days D). 60 days
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Who among the following was the famous ruler of the Gauda Kingdom?
Ans A). Grahavarman B). Rajyavardhan C). Shashanka D). Rudradaman
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 What is the main purpose of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
Ans A). Regulating tax collection B). Investigating and reporting on financial transactions C). Formulating the national budget
D). Enforcing government policies
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Eutrophication is a condition where excessive growth of algal bloom occurs on the surface of a water body because of
abundant nutrients. Which of the following are the key nutrients for eutrophication?
Ans A). Phosphorus and iron B). Nitrogen and potassium C). Phosphorus and nitrogen D). Iron and nitrogen
Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.
Ans A). The development of the cotton textile industry in Britain led to the decline of Indian textile producers.
B). Cotton clothes made in England had driven Indian clothes out of the markets of Europe and America in the beginning of the 20th century.
C). The Sale and Devang communities of South India were famous for weaving.
D). The first cotton textile mill in India was established in Bombay in 1854.
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 The famous Jain temple of Dilwara, built by Solanki rulers, is located at which place?
Ans A). Mount Abu B). Ajmer C). Jaipur D). Surat
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 In December 2023, which former Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) CEO and MD joined the Indian Institute of Technology
Bombay (IIT Bombay) as Head of Translational Research and Entrepreneurship?
Ans A). Subramaniam Ramadorai B). Natarajan Chandrasekaran C). Rajesh Gopinathan D). FC Kohli
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 ‘Dollu Kunitha’ is primarily a folk dance of which of the following Indian states?
Ans A). Goa B). Kerala C). Tamil Nadu D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Who among the following was the first President of Indian National congress?
Ans A). Dadabhai Naoroji B). Womesh Chandra Banerjee C). George Yule D). Badruddin Tyabji
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which of the following States/Union Territories is included in the ‘Areas of Inadequate Rainfall’ of India?
Ans A). Andaman and Nicobar Islands B). Haryana C). Ladakh D). Meghalaya
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13 Which of the following countries hosted the ACC Under-19 Asia Cup cricket in the year 2023?

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Ans A). Pakistan B). UAE C). India D). Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 ap
According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of rural population?
at
Ans A). Assam B). West Bengal C). Uttar Pradesh D). Bihar
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.15 Coimbatore, which is located in the state of ________, is famous for the cotton textile industry.
Ans A). Andhra Pradesh B). Tamil Nadu C). Kerala D). Karnataka
an

Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The Parliamentary form of Government is a key feature given in the Indian Constitution and its provisions are detailed in
ag

Articles _____________ of Part V (Chapter II).

Ans A). 124 to 168 B). 211 to 236 C). 170 to 203 D). 79 to 122
Correct Answer: D
y

Q.17 Hampi Utsava is a colourful cultural festival that emulates the ethos and grandeur of which of the following empires?
B

Ans A). Chalukya B). Vijayanagara C). Kadamba D). Satavahana

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.18 In June 2023, which state Government launched a project named ‘Pride’ to provide employment opportunities to the
at

transgender community in diverse and innovative sectors?

Ans A). Rajasthan B). Goa C). Sikkim D). Kerala

Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Which of the following is a molecular compound?

Ans A). CaO B). CO2 C). NaCl D). MgSO4
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 In India, documented by a study, in which level of education is the majority of the population unemployed?
Ans A). Primary school B). Graduate and post-graduate C). Middle school D). Matriculates
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Mangalampalli Balamuralikrishna was an Indian Carnatic singer born in Sankaraguptam village of which state?
Ans A). Karnataka B). Tamil Nadu C). Kerala D). Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Which of the following are edible polysaccharides?

Ans A). Methyl cellulose, chitin and actin B). Sucrose, glucose and cellulose C). Cellulose, chitin and myosin
D). Starch, alginates, pectins and chitosans
Correct Answer: D

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Q.23 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Hungry Tide’?
Ans A). Ruskin Bond B). RK Narayan C). Mulk Raj Anand D). Amitav Ghosh
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Odissi dancer ____________ was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2022 in the dance category.
Ans A). Shubhada Varadkar B). Niranjan Rout C). Kumkum Mohanty D). Debi Vasu
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 In the year 2010, Commonwealth Games was hosted by which of the following countries?
Ans A). Canada B). Australia C). England D). India
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

'Hold someone's feet to the fire'
Ans A). Agree upon a shared venture with full conviction B). Take big risks without knowing the consequences C). Think over a new proposal
D). Insist that someone fulfil their promises or obligations
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Affiliate B). Affliction C). Anxious D). Apraisal
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The practice of having two or more spouses at the same time was quite common in the olden days.
Ans A). Patricide B). Patriarchy C). Polygamy D). Parochialism
Correct Answer: C

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Q.4 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
It is easiest to stay calm than to protest.
Ans A). more easier B). the easier C). easy
ap D). easier
Correct Answer: D
at
Pr

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Active community involvement _____________ a sense of belonging and contributes to the overall well-being of society.
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Ans A). collects B). forgets C). fails D). fosters

Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 Select the appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I haven't seen him _______ last week.

Ans A). since B). to C). for D). beyond

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
hs

The mellow tune of the flute soothes me.

Ans A). quiet B). harsh C). golden D). lyrical

Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 The given sentence has an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

India is not on war with Pakistan.

Ans A). at Pakistan B). for Pakistan C). not at D). not of
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A hospital's hygine is the standard against which cleanliness is measured.

Ans A). hygiene B). hygene C). higenie D). hygeine
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Sloppy
Ans A). Untidy B). Humid C). Dashing D). Rough
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Some types of ________ suck blood.

Ans A). leach B). latch C). leech D). leak
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that has a grammatical error.
He will have to / knuckle up really seriously, / if he wants to / crack the upcoming deal.
Ans A). crack the upcoming deal. B). He will have to C). knuckle up really seriously D). if he wants to
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The miracle of resurection is not medically proven.

Ans A). ressurrection B). resurrection C). resurrecsion D). ressurection
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

Such specifications have revived our designers and manufacturers, whereas this new arrangement will free them.
Ans A). restrain B). senior C). swatted D). productive
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Nagamani, a brave student, lodged a F.I.R. against the criminal.
Ans A). a F.I.R. B). student, lodged C). against the criminal D). Nagamani, a brave
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

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Disposed
Ans A). Minded B). Retained C). Detained D). Pretended

Q.17
ap
Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.
Correct Answer: B
at
We had to study a poem of lamentation, especially for the dead, written by Thomas Gray.
Pr

Ans A). an essay B). a report C). an elegy D). an account

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
ag

The team with a high motivation level succeeded in its project despite of the challenges it faced.
G

Ans A). The team with B). a high motivation level C). despite of the challenges it faced. D). succeeded in its project
Correct Answer: C
y

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom that can complete the given sentence.
B

Recent research says that most of our cottage industries lack finance. Thus, they are ____________.
hs

Ans A). taking somebody for a ride B). thrown out of gear C). worn and torn D). under a cloud
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
M

This boy performed / extremely good / in the / dance competition.

Ans A). in the B). dance competition C). extremely good D). This boy performed
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Throughout human history, there have been numerous, strange and unexplainable events that have occurred on our (1)______. From
mysterious disappearances to bizarre natural phenomena, these (2)_____ continue to captivate our imagination and spark curiosity.
On 30 June 1908, a massive explosion (3)______ in the remote Tunguska region of Siberia. The (4)_____ of the explosion is still
debated, but it is believed to have been caused by a meteor or comet. Another fascinating phenomenon, the Bermuda Triangle is a
region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean where ships and planes have mysteriously (5)________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). home B). planet C). country D). neighbourhood
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). changes B). events C). advent D). adventures
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). conspired B). came about C). appeared D). took place
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
Throughout human history, there have been numerous, strange and unexplainable events that have occurred on our (1)______. From
mysterious disappearances to bizarre natural phenomena, these (2)_____ continue to captivate our imagination and spark curiosity.
at
On 30 June 1908, a massive explosion (3)______ in the remote Tunguska region of Siberia. The (4)_____ of the explosion is still
Pr

debated, but it is believed to have been caused by a meteor or comet. Another fascinating phenomenon, the Bermuda Triangle is a
region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean where ships and planes have mysteriously (5)________.

SubQuestion No : 24
an

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). commencement B). stages C). cause D). beginning

Correct Answer: C
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

Throughout human history, there have been numerous, strange and unexplainable events that have occurred on our (1)______. From
hs

mysterious disappearances to bizarre natural phenomena, these (2)_____ continue to captivate our imagination and spark curiosity.
On 30 June 1908, a massive explosion (3)______ in the remote Tunguska region of Siberia. The (4)_____ of the explosion is still
at

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). invisible B). disappeared C). besotted D). concealed
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 During the evening patrolling, a policeman noticed a thief snatching a lady’s mobile phone at a distance of 200 m. The thief
starts running at a speed of 15 km/hr. If the policeman is chasing him at a speed of 16 km/hr, then the time taken to catch the
thief is:
Ans A). 18 minutes B). 12 minutes C). 24 minutes D). 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 A television costs₹20,500 for a trader. He fixes its marked price as₹24,000 and gives a discount of 15%.He further gives a
discount of 5%for cash payment. Find his percentage of profit or loss.
Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).

Q.3 The average of 42 numbers is 25 and that of other 28 numbers is 40. What is the average of all the numbers?
Ans A). 31 B). 70 C). 69 D). 30
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 1000 B). 375 C). 1500 D). 750
Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 When 80% of a number is added to 80, the result is the same number. Find the number.

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Ans A). 420 B). 380 C). 320 D). 400
Correct Answer: D

Q.6

ap
at
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Ans A). 3696 B). 3256 C). 3854 D). 3145

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.7 The perimeter of a rhombus is 160 cm and one of its diagonals has a length 50 cm. Find the area (in cm2) of the rhombus.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.8 The average of runs scored by a player in 22 innings is 40 runs. How many runs should he score in the 23rd innings so that
his average is increased by 6 runs?
G

Ans A). 148 runs B). 178 runs C). 188 runs D). 158 runs
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.9 In a box, Refrigerator covers and Washing Machine covers are in the ratio of 7 : 11. If the Washing Machine covers are 660,
how many Refrigerator covers are there?
B

Ans A). 430 B). 410 C). 420 D). 400

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.10
at

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A
M

Q.11 P, Q and R start running around a circular track and complete one round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds, respectively. In how
much time will they meet again at the starting point?
Ans A). 16 min 30 sec B). 16 min 50 sec C). 11 min 30 sec D). 11 min 50 sec
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Aditya bought a mobile for ₹21,500 and sold it for ₹18,500. Find the loss percentage (up to two decimal places) in the
complete process.
Ans A). 10.69% B). 12.38% C). 13.95% D). 11.25%
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13

Ans A). 1678 B). 1898 C). 1520 D). 1799

Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
4

Ans A). 17.5 cm B). 19 cm C). 31.5 cm D). 25 cm

Correct Answer: D

Q.15 A borrows ₹7,500 for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of 9% for the first
year, 10% for the second year and 6% for the next two years. What is simple interest paid by A and B in total (in ₹)?
Ans A). 4,275 B). 4,175 C). 4,725 D). 4,545
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 The given bar given shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ lakh) of 5 companies (A, B, C, D, and E) in the year 2022. Study
the graph and answer the question that follows.

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Si
ap
at
Pr
an
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Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2022?
Ans A). B B). E C). C D). D
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.17 Find the HCF of the numbers 216, 360 and 504.
y

Ans A). 72 B). 108 C). 252 D). 180

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.18 There are two types of dal. Type 1 dal costs ₹100 per kg and type 2 dal costs ₹120 per kg, respectively. If both the dal are
mixed in the ratio 2 : 3, find the cost of the mixed dal per kg.
hs

Ans A). ₹110 B). ₹115 C). ₹114 D). ₹112

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 1120 B). 1020 C). 1080 D). 1040
Correct Answer: C
M

Q
.
2
0
Ans A). B). C).

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 UKCT is related to QGYP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LPBR is related to
HLXN. To which of the following is DGYJ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). ZCUF B). XBUF C). ZBSF D). YCSE
Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: A

D).

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Q.4
ap
In a certain code language, ‘SANE’ is coded as ‘5168’ and ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘6437’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given
code language?
at
Ans A). 3 B). 1 C). 5 D). 6
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(8, 24, 12)

(16, 20, 5)
Ans A). (21, 88, 16) B). (17, 75, 18) C). (13, 24, 8) D). (19, 57, 12)
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.6 What should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the given series?

5 ,15, 45, 135 ,405 ,?

Ans A). 1215 B). 1255 C). 1315 D). 1125

Correct Answer: A

Q.7 I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). J sits fourth
hs

to the right of I. K sits to the immediate right of J. L sits to the immediate right of I. N sits fourth to the left of M. M is not an
immediate neighbour of K. How many people sit between O and N when counted from the right of O?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 5 D). 3
at

Correct Answer: D

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
M

interchanged?
14 ÷ 12 − 2 + 2 × 16 = ?
Ans A). 18 B). 42 C). 24 D). 20
Correct Answer: A

Q.9

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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Q.10 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All jugs are taps.
Some taps are hats.
Conclusions:
(I) Some taps are jugs.
(II)All hats are jugs.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Find the missing term in the below series:

B2, C3, E5, G7, __, M13, Q17.
Ans A). I10 B). K11 C). J10 D). H7
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: A

Q.13

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if

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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some potatoes are tomatoes.
No tomato is an onion. ap
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Conclusions:
(I) Some tomatoes may be potatoes.
(II) No potato is an onion.
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Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow B). Only conclusion I follows C). Only conclusion II follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
ag

3–2÷8×4+2=?
Ans A). 8 B). 5 C). 14 D). 17
Correct Answer: B
G

Q.16 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 40, 7)
(12, 65, 5)
Ans A). (3, 14, 3) B). (6, 24, 2) C). (2, 10, 3) D). (9, 41,5)
hs

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 DG 25 is related to FH 21 in a certain way. In the same way, GI 19 is related to IJ 15. To which of the following is MI 24 related,
at

following the same logic?

Ans A). OK 20 B). OJ 20 C). PJ 20 D). PO 20
Correct Answer: B
M

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘2465’ and ‘PLAN’ is coded as ‘3759’. What is the code for ‘P’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 5 B). 6 C). 7 D). 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘MELT’ is coded as ‘6284’ and ‘TUNE’ is coded as ‘9758’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans A). 8 B). 4 C). 5 D). 9
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Exactly three people are sitting between A and B when counted from the right of A. Exactly two people are sitting
between D and G when counted from the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. D is sitting to the immediate left of
B. Exactly three people are sitting between E and F when counted from the right of E. B and E are not immediate
neighbours. How many people are sitting between E and G when counted from the right of E?
Ans A). 2 B). 1 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 0.25 g of an organic compound, on treatment with fuming nitric acid followed by AgNO3, gave 0.22 g of AgBr. The
percentage of bromine in the compound is ______.
Ans A). 34.04% B). 88.00% C). 37.45% D). 50.00%
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Rani ki Vav is a UNESCO world heritage monument, situated in which of the following states?
Ans A). Haryana B). Gujarat C). Maharashtra
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Karnataka
Pratap
CorrectSir
Answer: B
Q.3 Bathukamma festival is celebrated in which of the following states?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Telangana C). Manipur D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 What is the collection of Vedic hymns or ‘mantras’ called?

Ans A). Samhita B). Smriti C). Shruti D). Upanishad
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Usha Barle, who won Padma Shri 2023, is popularly associated with which genre of music?
Ans A). Lavani B). Pandwani C). Panihari D). Kajari
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 In which of the following years India hosted the Women's Asia Cup ODI Cricket?
Ans A). 2005 B). 2007 C). 2004 D). 2006
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Alarmel Valli was associated with which of the following dances?
Ans A). Odissi B). Bharatanatyam C). Kathak D). Manipuri
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 When protein-rich gelatinous egg white is heated, it turns to solid white due to:
Ans A). Protein Denaturation B). Emulsification C). Fermentation D). Gluten Formation
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 In which of the following states are the Nor Westers known as ‘Bardoisila’?
Ans A). Bihar B). Assam C). Odisha D). Goa
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A)Balshastri Jambhekar started the first Anglo- Maratha newspaper - ‘Durpun’, in 1832.
B)He is remembered as the father of Marathi journalism.
C)Balshastri Jambhekar published the first Marathi monthly magazine - ‘Digdurshun’ in 1840.
Ans A). Only B B). Only A C). Both A and B D). A, B and C
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Identify the correct statement with reference to the Padma awards.
Ans A). The Padma award can be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name
B). The total number of Padma awards to be given in a year should not more than 150. C). The Padma Awards are given annually.
D). The names of the awardees are never published in the Gazette of India.
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Which of the following is NOT a component of revenue receipt?

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Ans A). Amount borrowed from World Bank B). GST C). Fees paid for the registration of property D). Grant received by UNESCO

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Correct Answer: A

Q.13 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the population growth rate in Kerala?
Ans A). B). C). D).
ap Correct Answer: A
at
Q.14 In April 2023, who was appointed as the chairman of the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) by the centre?
Ans A). Arvind Kumar B). Arun Sinha C). Anil Dhasmana D). Ajit Doval
Pr

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Which of the following is an example of the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent?
Ans A). Tomb of Tansen B). Safdarjung's tomb C). Humayun’s tomb D). Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah
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Correct Answer: C

Q.16 According to the Census 2011, what was the annual population growth rate of India (in percentage)?
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Ans A). 1.97% B). 2.16% C). 2.22% D). 1.64%

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.17 The Indian Forest Service was created under the All India Service Act, 1951 in ______.
Ans A). 1954 B). 1966 C). 1060 D). 1957
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.18 Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry is included in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
B

Ans A). Article 48 B). Article 47 C). Article 46 D). Article 45

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 In which of the following Indian states is the M.A. Chidambaram Stadium located?
Ans A). West Bengal B). Kerala C). Karnataka D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 The famous English novel ‘Em and the Big Hoom’ is written by:
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Ans A). Esther David B). Amitav Ghosh C). Jerry Pinto D). Shashi Tharoor
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT an element of weather?

Ans A). Temperature B). Humidity C). Plants D). Rainfall
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Which of the following organisms is used in bread and alcohol industries?
Ans A). Clostridium B). Nitrobacter C). Yeast D). Penicillium
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 In Union Budget 2023-24, annual production of 5 MMT under Green Hydrogen Mission is to be targeted by the year
___________ to facilitate transition of the economy to low carbon intensity.
Ans A). 2032 B). 2030 C). 2023 D). 2027
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 The Prime Minister in India is ________.

Ans A). a nominal executive B). the real executive C). the Supreme Commander of Armed Forces D). the head of the judiciary

Correct Answer: B

Q.25 According to the Census of India-2011, what is the share of workforce engaged in the agriculture sector?
Ans A). 54.6% B). 65.3% C). 48.9% D). 45.8%
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.

Wedding is an auspicious _______ for all.

Ans A). occassion B). occation C). occasion D). ocassion
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Commence
Ans A). Subvert B). Exert C). Start D). Escort
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 In the given sentence, one of the four underlined words is incorrectly spelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

She dabbled in drawing and painting, but scalpture was her favourite medium.
Ans A). drawing B). favourite C). dabbled D). scalpture
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I couldn't believe how _______ the math problem was; it took me hours to solve it.
Ans A). good B). complicated C). simply D). easily
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:
Sarah and Fidha entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
Ans A). Sarah and Fidha are entering into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
B). Sarah and Fidha will enter into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
C). Sarah and Fidha had entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
D). Sarah and Fidha were entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

When Mr. Bhanot was told a few years back that he needed to lose _____ or face health problems, he transformed his life
with the _________ of a personal trainer.
Ans A). weight; help B). money; instructions C). wait; assistance D). patience; guidance
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Confession is good for the soul ________________ after the soul has been claimed.

Ans A). since B). though C). still D). even

Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She was a , __astronaut.

Ans A). smart, tall, Indian

Q.9
B). tall, smart, Indian

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

C). smart, Indian, tall
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D). tall, Indian, smart
Correct Answer: A
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Callous
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Ans A). Augment B). Desolate C). Tender D). Beguile

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Species
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Ans A). Whole B). Type C). Detail D). Multiply

Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Tranquil
Ans A). Composed B). Serene C). Shabby D). Unquiet
G

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Identify the word with a spelling error in the following sentence. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
y

In Shakespeare’s play ‘Hamlet’, Hamlet’s flaw is defined as procrustineition.

Ans A). pracrostination B). procristineition C). procrustination D). procrastination

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
hs

Select the correct alternative.

Mary is the quieter student of the class.
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Ans A). quiet B). most quiet C). more quiet D). quietest
Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 Select the sentence with the most appropriate comparative degree.
Ans A). She is the talent of all musicians in the orchestra. B). She is the talentedest musician in the orchestra.
C). She is more talented musician in the orchestra. D). She is the most talented musician in the orchestra.
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a grammatical error.

Ms. Malathi is old much to join a college now.

Ans A). a college now B). to join C). Ms. Malathi is D). old much
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Let the cat out of the bag
Ans A). To buy a cat and a bag B). To reveal a secret C). To not allow a cat into the bag D). To release a cat out of a bag
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Based on the situation in the sentence, choose the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.
You cannot _________________ before replicating your successes and achievements multiple times; otherwise, people will
deem your success a stroke of dumb luck.
Ans A). play devil's advocate B). sit on the fence C). cut to the chase D). rest on your laurels
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the correct indefinite article to fill in the blank.

My neighbour is ______ passionate photographer.

Ans A). one B). an C). a D). the
Correct Answer: C

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Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the sentence given below.

Surrounded by lush greenery, the house stood _____________ (submissively) atop a hill.
Ans A). Silently B). Civilly C). Magically D). Proudly
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Shebna decided to take a break in social media, but she found it difficult to disconnect completely.

Ans A). a break of social media B). a break from social media C). a break up social media D). a break down social media
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and (1)__________ society, and promoting
national development. Providing universal (2)__________ quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on
the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national integration, and cultural
preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way (3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents
and resources for the good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________ the highest
population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to provide high-quality educational opportunities to them
will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). just B). much C). such D). more
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

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Ans A). access at B). access to C). access from D). access for
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and (1)__________ society, and promoting
national development. Providing universal (2)__________ quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on
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the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national integration, and cultural
preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way (3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents
and resources for the good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________ the highest
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population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to provide high-quality educational opportunities to them
will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). outcome B). output C). result D). forward
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.

the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national integration, and cultural
preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way (3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents
B

and resources for the good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________ the highest
population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to provide high-quality educational opportunities to them
will determine the future of our country.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
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Ans A). of B). from C). at D). for

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). will have B). were having C). might had D). can has
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A earns ₹88 per hour and works for 10 hours. B earns ₹95 per hour and works for 8 hours. The ratio of per day wages of A to
B is:
Ans A). 19 : 21 B). 19 : 22 C). 21 : 19 D). 22 : 19
Correct Answer: D

Q.2
A person borrow some money on simple interest. After 15 years, the simple interest will be of the

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borrowed amount. What is the rate of interest per annum?

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 Rajeev saves 75% of his monthly income. If his monthly expenditure is ₹37,500, then his monthly saving (in ₹) is:
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Ans A). 1,12,500 B). 1,20,250 C). 1,10,500 D). 1,11,500

Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Water in a conical flask with radius 7 cm and height 48 cm is poured into a cylindrical flask with radius 14 cm. The water
level in the cylindrical flask is:
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Ans A). 2 cm B). 4 cm C). 3 cm D). 5 cm

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.5 John has scored 60% in statistics and 70% in mathematics. A weightage of 2 is given to statistics and a weightage of 4 is
given to mathematics. Which of the following expressions represents the weighted average of the two scores?
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Ans
B

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D
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D).
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Q.6 Raj prepares a 60 gm mixture by combining two ingredients X and Y. The cost of ingredient X is ₹80 per 5 gm, and the cost
of ingredient Y is ₹80 per 10 gm. Ingredients X and Y are mixed in a manner that the cost of the resulting mixture is ₹14 per
gm. What is the quantity of ingredient X (in gm) in the mixture?
Ans A). 30 B). 45 C). 15 D). 60
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 24 cm contains liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical container of diameter
8 cm and height 12 cm. What is the number of containers that are necessary to empty the bowl?
Ans A). 45 B). 50 C). 48 D). 39
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 15 kg rice costing ₹60 per kg and 8 kg rice costing ₹55 per kg are mixed with 7 kg rice costing ₹40 per kg. Find the average
per kg price of mixed rice.
Ans A). ₹56 B). ₹45 C). ₹54 D). ₹48
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 The diagonals of two squares are in the ratio of 5 : 6. What is the ratio of their areas?
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 9 D). 6
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
Ans A). 7.18 B). 8.18 C). 6.18 D). 5.18
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The average height of 50 students in a class was 105 cm. A group of five students with an average height of 95 cm were
admitted to this class. What is the average height (in cm) of the class of 55 students? (correct to the nearest integer)
Ans A). 104 B). 100 C). 105 D). 102
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Which of the following options is equal to the LCM of 12, 36, 72, 144, 288 and 576?
Ans A). 72 B). 576 C). 144 D). 288
Correct Answer: B

Q.14

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Ans A). Monday B). Wednesday C). Friday
ap D). Tuesday
Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 A tradesman marks his goods 25% above the cost price and allows his customers 12% reduction on their bills. What
percentage profit does he make?
Ans A). 11% B). 12% C). 10% D). 9%
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 465 B). 485 C). 565 D). 525
Correct Answer: D
G
B y
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M

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Q.17
The bar graph presents the quantity of biscuits exported (in lakh tons) and their value (in crore ₹) over
the given years.

What was the percentage increase in value of the biscuits exported from 1985 to 1987 (correct to 2

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decimal places)?

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Ans A). 44.22% B). 44.36% C). 44.25% D). 48.48%
Correct Answer: D

Q.18
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In a scheme, a shopkeeper offers 4% discount if you buy three or more products. Ritu buys three bottles of guava juice for
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₹330. If the shopkeeper still makes a profit of 10%, find the profit he would make if had sold it without discount (rounded off
to 2 decimal places).
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Ans A). 15.74% B). 14.58% C). 15% D). 15.28%

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 Walking at a speed of 5.4 km/h, Rohit takes 40 minutes to reach his school from his home. What time will he take if he walks
8 km/h?
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Ans A). 25 minutes B). 24 minutes C). 23 minutes D). 27 minutes

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
y

Ans A). 565 B). 525 C). 465 D). 485

Correct Answer: B
hs

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 DBCA is related to HDFB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BACD is related to
DBFH. To which of the following is FDAC related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). LBGH B). LEFG C). LPTG D). LHBF

Correct Answer: D

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘PAID’ is coded as ‘3195’ and ‘GRAB’ is coded as ‘2346’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). R is sitting third to the right of D. Only one person is sitting between G and E when counted from the left of G. S is
sitting to the immediate right of T. Only one person is sitting between G and T when counted from the right of G. Who is
sitting third to the right of F?
Ans A). D B). T C). S D). G
Correct Answer: B

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Statements:
All shirts are pants.
All pants are watches.

Conclusions:
(I) All pants are shirts.
(II) All shirts are watches.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Both conclusions I and II follow C). Only conclusion II follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘CASH’ is coded as ‘2486’ and ‘HIRE’ is coded as ‘3257’.What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 7 B). 3 C). 6 D). 2
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the
same order). F is an immediate neighbour of both B and C. D is sitting second to the right of B. A is sitting to the immediate
right of D. Who among the following is sitting to the second to the left of F?
Ans A). A B). B C). D D). E
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

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Si
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Ans
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Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

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G

Q.8 18 is related to 74 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 22 is related to 90. To which of the following is
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25 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
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constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.

Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 106 B). 100 C). 102 D). 104

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
35 + 60 ÷ 12 × 4 − 12 = 203
Ans A). − and + B). + and × C). ÷ and × D). − and ×
Correct Answer: C

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Q.10 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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Ans

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A). B). C).
ap D).
at
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Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
ADG, JMP, SVY, BEH, ?
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Ans A). LNQ B). KNQ C). LMO D). KMO

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.13 DZRG is related to HDOD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LHLA is related to PLIX.
To which of the following is TPFU related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). YUBQ B). YTDS C). XTCR D). WSCQ

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
M

5 + 625 − 25 × 75 ÷ 65 =?
Ans A). 165 B). 135 C). 145 D). 125
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘WANT’ is coded as ‘8163’ and ‘THAN’ is coded as ‘3468’. What is the code for ‘H’ in that
language?
Ans A). 1 B). 3 C). 4 D). 8
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some plants are spices.
No spice is a lentil.
Conclusions:
(I) Some lentils are plants.
(II) Some spices are plants.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: A
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Q.17 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

14, 30, 93, 470, 3297, ?

Ans A). 36278 B). 23086 C). 29682 D). 36267
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘FOIL’ is coded as ‘1974’ and ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘7291’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 9 B). 1 C). 2 D). 7
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 21 is related to 189 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 35 is related to 315. To which of the following is 43

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related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 387 B). 385 C). 397 D). 395
Correct Answer: A
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who became the first woman to command the Armed Forces Transfusion Centre, Delhi Cantt, which is the largest blood
transfusion centre of the Armed Forces in Nov 2023?
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Ans A). Col Sunita BS B). Lt Col Pooja Thakur C). Col Shaliza Sharma D). Major Anjali Bhagwat
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.2 In which of the following classical dance forms are the actors’ faces painted to symbolise the type of character they are
playing?
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Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Odissi C). Kathakali D). Kathak

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 In 1992, which organisation launched Self Help Group – Bank Linkage Programme?
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Ans A). SEBI B). NABARD C). SBI D). RBI

Correct Answer: B

Q.4 In which of the following states is the Bhadaravi Poonam Mela organised every year in the Nilkanth Mahadev temple
premises in Babra?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Himachal Pradesh C). Uttarakhand D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 As per the Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) Act, 2003, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister,
shall NOT exceed:
Ans A). 20% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha B). 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha
C). 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha D). 25% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Which of the following cities is known as the Steel City in India?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Jamshedpur C). Patna D). Ranchi
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Indian classical musician, Ustad Rashid Khan was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2022 for his contribution to which of the
following music categories?
Ans A). Hindustani classical music B). Folk music C). Qawwali D). Carnatic music
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In a metro station, it was observed that on an average 20 people per minute were using the escalator to reach at a height of
15 metres. Calculate the power of the escalator assuming the average mass of people to be 50 kg and acceleration due to
gravity to be 10 m/s2.
Ans A). 1.25 kW B). 2.5 kW C). 15 kW D). 150 kW
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 When was the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar, an award given by the Sangeet Natak Akademi to outstanding artists
under 40 who have demonstrated talent in the fields of music, dance and theatre, started?
Ans A). 2010 B). 2006 C). 2008 D). 2002
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Who among the following was the pioneer of 'Bhoodan Movement'?
Ans A). Acharya Vinoba Bhave B). Vallabh bhai Patel C). Bhimrao Ambedkar D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 In Dholavira, which of the following materials is extensively used as a building material?
Ans A). Granite B). Stone C). Bricks D). Cement
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 The concept of Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of _____________.
Ans A). Britain B). USA C). Australia D). Russia
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 What is the rank of Sri Lanka in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023?

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Ans A). 69 B). 80 C). 60 D). 95

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Correct Answer: C

Q.14 What is the primary acid found in citrus fruits like oranges and lemons?
Ans A). Lactic acid B). Tartaric acid C). Citric acid ap D). Acetic acid
Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 In which state are the Gua and Noamundi iron ore mines located?
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Ans A). Maharashtra B). Jharkhand C). Chhattisgarh D). Karnataka

Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 The climatic diversity of India is characterised by its distinctiveness, and one of the following factors does NOT contribute
to it is ______________.
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Ans A). longitudinal extent B). latitudinal extent C). topography D). vegetation
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.17 The rock-cut temple of Shiva built by Krishna I is found at which of the following places?
y

Ans A). Ellora B). Kannauj C). Manyakhet D). Mahabalipuram

Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Consider the following statements in the context of the Vedas.

1.The Vedas are called Shruti.
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2.The Rigveda consists of ten Mandalas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Ans A). Neither 1 nor 2 B). Only 2 C). Both 1 and 2 D). Only 1
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which Article of the Constitution of India provides provision for appointment of the same person as the Governor for two or
more states?
Ans A). Article 158(2) B). Article 157 C). Article 158 D). Article 153
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 In which of the following year did India win the ICC T20 Men's Cricket World Cup?
Ans A). 2012 B). 2009 C). 2007 D). 2010
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which of the following government initiatives focuses on skill development to reduce open unemployment among youth in
India?
Ans A). PM KUSUM B). Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) C). Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
D). Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Correct Answer: D

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Q.22 How many titles did West Bengal win in the Santosh Trophy events up to the 2022-23 season?
Ans A). 29 B). 30 C). 32 D). 15
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Who among the following Governor-Generals declared 'Sati' practice as illegal?
Ans A). Lord Canning B). Lord Lytton C). Lord Dalhousie D). Lord William Bentinck
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following fictional towns is mentioned in the English novel ‘In Custody’ written by Anita Desai?
Ans A). Kanthapura B). Mirpore C). Malgudi D). Lilliput
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 A particular cell present in the excretory system of flatworms, which helps them removing waste materials is the:
Ans A). flame cell B). lacis cell C). passage cell D). cnidoblast cell
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

If I was a king, I would have tried my best to remove poverty from my country.
Ans A). on my country B). my best by remove poverty C). If I were a king, D). I would has tried
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The manager decided to disclose a secret and address the issue at the team meeting.
Ans A). spill the beans B). bury the hatchet C). hit the nail on the head D). sweep it under the rug
Correct Answer: A

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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The blanket gifted by my granny is softer and cozy.

Ans A). more soft B). soft C). softly apD). softest
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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They was / celebrating their / Silver wedding anniversary / next month in Dubai.
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Ans A). They was B). next month in Dubai C). celebrating their D). Silver wedding anniversary
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.
G

Almost as wide as he was tall, he had a voracious appetite for food and drink and a rollicking personality to match.
Ans A). vehement B). imminent C). insatiable D). venerable
y

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.6 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
hs

The police informed the statesman that the goons were up to something mischievious.
at

Ans A). mischievous B). mischevious C). mischeivous D). mischevous

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The unexpected guest at the party was a bull in a China shop.
Ans A). careless and damaging B). influential and meticulous C). careful and compassionate D). leisurely and relaxed
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

By next summer, they will be _____ their house.

Ans A). renovating B). renovates C). renovate D). renovated
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She treats her juniors _____ contempt.

Ans A). by B). with C). in D). for
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Oppertunity B). Appearance C). Immigration D). Astronaut
Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Chaotic
Ans A). Confused B). Dressed C). Obscure D). Systematic
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The given sentence has an error. Select the option that rectifies the error.

The students were asked to turn up their assignments by Friday.

Ans A). their assignment by Friday B). The students asked to C). asked turn up their assignments D). turn in their assignments

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Out of spirits
Ans A). Gloomy B). Cheerful C). Hurt D). Obsolete
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Illuminate’ from the given sentence.
The toughest and most typical question in the examination was to elucidate a particular theory related to friction in physics.
Ans A). Elucidate B). Typical C). Particular D). Theory
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Everyone in the room was in a jolly and relaxed mood.

Ans A). No substitution required B). most jolly C). jollier D). more jollier
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.

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Urban people have a bombastic lifestyle, which is very different from those of rural folks.
Ans A). Hollow B). Pretentious C). Delusive D). Common
ap Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans A). Efficient B). Boundary C). Illustration D). Occassion
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Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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The new employee is really trying to fit in, but sometimes he feels out of place and uncomfortable.
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Ans A). a diamond in the rough B). a bird of a feather C). a fish out of water D). a needle in a haystack
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.19 Select the word segment from the given options that substitutes the highlighted word segment correctly and completes the
sentence meaningfully: -
B y

Each of the participants were given a certificate.

Ans A). have given B). was given C). are given D). have been given
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Captivity
Ans A). Liberty B). Ethnicity C). Entity D). Authenticity
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In recent years, the central and state governments in India have been taking special steps to __1__ foreign companies to invest in
India. Industrial zones, called Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being __2__. SEZs have world-class facilities, including electricity,
water, roads, transport, storage, recreational, and educational facilities. Companies that set up production units in the SEZs do not
have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. The government has also __3__ flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign
investment. In recent years, the government has allowed companies to __4__ many of these provisions. Instead of hiring workers on a
regular basis, companies hire workers 'flexibly' for short periods when there is __5__ pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost
of labour for the company. However, some foreign companies are not satisfied, and they are demanding more in labour laws, citing the
need for greater operational efficiency.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). fulfil B). attract C). deplore D). abhor
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). dismantled B). set up C). obeyed D). wound up
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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SubQuestion No : 23

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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). winked B). allowed C). invited
ap D). suffered
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In recent years, the central and state governments in India have been taking special steps to __1__ foreign companies to invest in
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India. Industrial zones, called Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being __2__. SEZs have world-class facilities, including electricity,
water, roads, transport, storage, recreational, and educational facilities. Companies that set up production units in the SEZs do not
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have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. The government has also __3__ flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign
investment. In recent years, the government has allowed companies to __4__ many of these provisions. Instead of hiring workers on a
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regular basis, companies hire workers 'flexibly' for short periods when there is __5__ pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost
of labour for the company. However, some foreign companies are not satisfied, and they are demanding more in labour laws, citing the
need for greater operational efficiency.
B y

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
hs

Ans A). flounder B). ignore C). distort D). effect

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
M

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). intense B). inadequate C). mechanical D). artificial
Correct Answer: A

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1050 B). 1090 C). 1010 D). 990
Correct Answer: A

Q.2

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Ans A). 65 : 42 B). 9 : 5 C). 58 : 55 D). 17 : 13

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 The average weight of 16 containers is 80 kg. If 8 new containers are added, the new average increases by 2.5 kg. The
average weight of the 8 new containers is:
Ans A). 87.5 kg B). 82.5 kg C). 87 kg D). 160 kg
Correct Answer: A
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Q
.
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4
Ans B). C).
A). D).
B y

Q.5
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Ans A). 14 B). 7 C). 21 D). 28

Correct Answer: D

Q
M

.
6
Ans A). 22 kg B). 18 kg C). 15 kg

Q.7 The cost price of some table lamps is ₹25,000. The shopkeeper will get ₹15,000 more If he sells these table lamps for ₹1,200
per lamp instead of ₹900 per lamp. Find the selling price of 23 table lamps if he earned 21% profit.
Ans A). ₹14,917 B). ₹13,915 C). ₹12,919 D). ₹12,585 Correct Answer: B

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Q.8

Ans A). 975 B). 790 C). 820 D). 680

Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 16 cm.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 460 B). 420 C). 380 D). 360
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 A train 315 m long is running at a speed of 54 km/h. What time will it take to cross a pole on its route?
Ans A). 18 s B). 19 s C). 21 s D). 20 s
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The mean of the first 7 odd prime numbers is (rounded off to two decimal places):
Ans A). 7.91 B). 5.41 C). 8.61 D). 10.71
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Find the LCM of 9, 21 and 63

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Ans A). 72 B). 63 C). 3 D). 9
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 A’s salary increases by 60% and then decreases by 30%. On the whole, A’s salary is increased by ______?
Ans A). 48%

Q.15
B). 30% C). 12%

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D). 72%
Correct Answer: C

A solid metal cone of height 30 cm and radius of base 10 cm is melted in to the form of a solid sphere. Find the radius of the
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sphere (in cm).
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 Find the average of the the first 15 multiples of 5.

Ans A). 40 B). 30 C). 35 D). 45

Correct Answer: A

Q.17
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If the cost price of an article is 70.5% of its selling price, what is the profit percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal
place)?
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Ans A). 42.7% B). 51.6% C). 41.8% D). 39.5%

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q
.
1
hs

8
Ans A). 30% B). 10% C). 20% D). 40%
Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Find the fourth proportional of 4a + 7, 11a + 3 and 6a if a = 2.

Ans A). 20 B). 15 C). 25 D). 30

Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Ravi walks a circular track of 1680m in circumference. If the speed of Ravi is 140m/min, then the time to cover one round is
equal to:
Ans A). 8 min B). 14 min C). 10 min D). 12 min
Correct Answer: D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 FRNQ is related to LXTW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XJFI is related to DPLO.
To which of the following is VHDG related, following the same logic?
Ans A). BMNJ B). BJMN C). MNJB D). BNJM
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(18, 16, 34)
(21, 43, 64)
Ans A). (32, 10, 42) B). (39, 10, 53) C). (22, 41, 73) D). (23, 12, 76)
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Six people—A, B, C, D, E, and F—are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). A is an immediate neighbour of both E and F. C is second to the left of F. B is not is an immediate neighbour of E.
What is the position of D?
Ans A). Immediate left of A B). Immediate left of C C). Second to the right of B D). Immediate left of F
Correct Answer: B

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Q.4 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘car is fast'’ is written as ‘gq ip eb’ and ‘fast and furious’ is writtenas ‘hp qm ip’. How is ‘fast’
writtenin the given language?
Ans A). ip B). eb C). gq D). hp
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: All papers are files. All files are secret.
Conclusions:
(I) All papers are secret.
(II) All secrets are files.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) are follow . B). Only conclusion (II) is follow . C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is follow .
D). Only conclusion (I) is follow .
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘LOST’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘4562’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans A). 2 B). 5 C). 4 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 127 is related to 218 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 10.To which of the following is 29
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 –

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Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then

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performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 63 B). 67 C). 66 D). 68
Correct Answer: C

Q.9
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

EFD, JKI, OPN, TUS, ?

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Ans A). EVF B). GUH C). YZX D). EFU
Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 JJDA is related to QQKH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ENHE is related to
LUOL. To which of the following is TTNK related, following the same logic?
Ans A). AUAR B). AAUR C). AURA D). URAA
Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.

Statements:
All oranges are apples.
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Some apples are kiwis.

Conclusions:
y

(I) Some oranges are not kiwis.

(II) All apples are oranges.
B

Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion II follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Only conclusion I follows
hs

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).
at
M

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits third
to the right of A. D sits third to the right of G. E is an immediate neighbour of both A and F. C sits third to the right of F. How
many people sit between E and D when counted from the right of E?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 3 D). 1
Correct Answer: B

Q.14

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
56 ÷ 8 × 45 + 4 − 23 = 164
Ans A). − and × B). ÷ and × C). − and + D). + and ×
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘EXIT’ is coded as ‘1937’ and ‘ZERO’ is coded as ‘6829’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 8 B). 2 C). 1 D). 9
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

13 − 3 ÷ 4 − 9 ÷ 10 − 3 × 20 + 5= ?
Ans A). 86 B). 111 C). −15 D). 101
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A).

Correct Answer: D
B). C).

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Q.20 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
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33, 37, 46, 62, 87, ?

Ans A). 124 B). 122 C). 123 D). 121
Correct Answer: C
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In 2018, Ganesh and Kumaresh Rajagopalan won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Carnatic instrumental music. For
playing which instrument did they win this award?
G

Ans A). Violin B). Sarod C). Veena D). Sarangi

Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Which of the following diseases is detected by the Widal test?

Ans A). Pneumonia B). Typhoid C). Diphtheria D). Influenza

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.3 In which language was 'Mudraraksha' play written by Vishakhadatta?

Ans A). Telugu B). Tamil C). Hindi D). Sanskrit

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 What does M stand for in BHIM-UPI?

Ans A). Monetary B). Mobile C). Money D). Monthly
Correct Answer: C
M

Q.5 As per Census 2011, what is the literacy rate of India?

Ans A). 65.46% B). 74.04% C). 82.14% D). 70%
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Constipation could be a sign that the person in suffering from a lack of ___________.
Ans A). Calcium B). Dietary Fibre C). Vitamin D). Protein
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country's constitution?
Ans A). The Constitution of the United States B). The Constitution of Ireland C). The Constitution of the United Kingdom
D). The Constitution of the Soviet Union
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 In which of the following years did Lord Curzon announce the partition of Bengal?
Ans A). 1905 B). 1914 C). 1900 D). 1909
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a qualification/eligibility to become the President of India?
Ans A). Must be a citizen of India B). Must be qualified for election as a member of the house of the people
C). Must have completed the age of thirty-five years D). Must hold any office of profit
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Losoong festival is predominantly celebrated in Sikkim by which of the following tribes?
Ans A). Bhil B). Khasi C). Kurumba D). Bhutia
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which is the largest agro-based Industry of India?

Ans A). Tea industry
B). Cotton textile
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-Edible oil industry By Gagan
Maths D). Sugar industry
Pratap
CorrectSir
Answer: B
Q.12 Which of the following dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate finally annexed Jaunpur into the empire of Delhi Sultanate?
Ans A). Lodi dynasty B). Khalji dynasty C). Tughlaq dynasty D). Sayyid dynasty
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The property by virtue of which carbon can form a C-C covalent bond is called _______.
Ans A). allotropy B). covalency C). tetravalency D). catenation
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 ________ received Padma Shri 2017 award for being an exponent of Nagpuri folk dance Jhumar.
Ans A). Laishram Birendrakumar Singh B). Purushottam Upadhyay C). Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair D). Mukund Nayak
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who wrote the novel 'The Catcher in the Rye'?

Ans A). HG Wells B). Ernest Hemingway C). Mark Twain D). JD Salinger
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Which of the following events and their hosts is correctly matched?
Ans A). ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2011 – Australia and New Zealand B). ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2015 – India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
C). ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2019 – England and Wales D). ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2007 – England
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The Panchpatmali mineral deposit region is located in which state from the following?
Ans A). Haryana B). Odisha C). Himachal Pradesh D). Rajasthan
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In 2023, the Government of India has proposed to set up how many new ‘Waste to Wealth’ plants under GOBARdhan?
Ans A). 250 B). 500 C). 450 D). 300
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Tirot Sing was the leader of which of the following revolts?
Ans A). Khasi uprising B). Sanyasi Revolt C). Poligars’s Revolt D). Singpho’s Rebellion
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 To which state does the Indian tennis player Sumit Nagal belong?
Ans A). Odisha B). Maharashtra C). Haryana D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which Indian Member of Parliament was given the 'India UK Outstanding Achievers Honour' in January 2023?
Ans A). Haji Fazlur Rehman B). Hemant Shriram Patil C). Raghav Chadha D). Hanuman Beniwal
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 ___________ dance is embedded in the stories from the epics Mahabharata, Ramayana and Puranas.

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Ans A). Kathakali B). Kuchipudi C). Sattriya D). Odissi
Correct Answer: A

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Q.23 The Dravidian style of temple architecture can be largely seen from which part of India?
Ans A). Western India B). Northern India C). Eastern India D). Southern India

Q.24 In India, who introduced the idea of the poverty line for the first time?
ap Correct Answer: D
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Ans A). Dadabhai Naoroji B). Dr. BR Ambedkar C). Mahatma Gandhi D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.25 Layers of varying thickness are found in which type of rock?

Ans A). Igneous rock B). Sedimentary rock C). Metamorphic rock D). Volcanic rock
Correct Answer: B
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.
ag

Anybody can solve this problem if he tried.

Ans A). if they were tried B). if they try C). because they try D). for they tried
G

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Intractable
Ans A). Defiant B). Proper C). Versatile D). Compliant
B

Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
hs

Constant efforts to achieve something

Ans A). Recant B). Perseverance C). Euphemism D). Perspicacious
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
M

It is all one whether I go today or tomorrow.

Ans A). together B). in one piece C). just the same D). proper
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My mother always __________________ to help people.
Ans A). turns a deaf ear B). takes a rain check C). goes the extra mile D). breaks the bank
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Universal high-quality education is the best way forward for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and
resources for the good in the individual, the society, the country and the world.
Ans A). good on the individual B). good of the individual C). good for the individual D). good by the individual
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

That scientist worked relentlessly to improve the instrument for measuring electric current.
Ans A). thermometer B). ammeter C). calculator D). compass
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following words is a synonym of 'Evanescent'?

Ans A). Exemplary B). Imitation C). Delicious D). Fleeting
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans A). The athlete ran quickly across the finish line. B). The athelete ran quicly across the finish line.
C). The athlet ran quicly across the finnish line. D). The athlete ran quickley across the finish line.
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error of the underlined word.

Preserving our planet's biodiversity is essential for the health and susteinability of ecosystems and human life.
Ans A). susteinabelety B). sustainability C). sustainabelity D). sustanbility
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Recluse
Ans A). Closeness B). Solitary C). Sociable D). Candid
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). It is too stranger to see a guy shouting in the mall without any reason.
B). It is too stranger to see a guy shout in the mall without any reason.
C). It is too stranger to see a guy shouting in the mall beside any reason. D). It is strange to see a guy shouting in the mall without any reason.

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Identify the sentence with an error with respect to the use of present tense.
Ans A). She singing romantic songs. B). She sings romantic songs. C). She has been singing songs. D). She has sung romantic songs.

Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). Having belief in yourself is the big key to success. B). Having belief in yourself is the most bigger key to success.
C). Having beliefs in yourself is the bigger key to success. D). Having belief in yourself is the biggest key to success.
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

It is being asked why there has been no _________ taken yet.
Ans A). action B). distribution C). simplification D). attribution
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). lying B). tabular C). written D). calender
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

They reinvested in their trades and indulged in unobtrusive consumption at home.
Ans A). Faint B). Preposterous C). Conspicuous D). Obscure
Correct Answer: C

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Q.18 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error

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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Spanish person are well known worldwide / for their warm hospitality / and food.
Ans A). No error

Q.19
B). and food C). for their warm hospitality

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D). Spanish person are well known worldwide

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
Correct Answer: D
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Indeed, Jack is one of the clever men I have ever met.
Ans A). clever B). the cleverest C). most clever D). cleverer
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The street is crowded. You could easily get lost in this _________.
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Ans A). maze B). faze C). phase D). maize

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.
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SubQuestion No : 21
B

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). had made B). make C). made D). makes
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
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suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). clear B). decreased C). relieve D). increase
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). his B). their C). her D). your
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). more B). most C). high D). least
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). amongst B). at C). of D). into
Correct Answer: A

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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A train moving at the same speed passes two bridges of length 900 m and 486 m in 110 seconds and 70 seconds,
respectively. The length of the train (in m) is:
Ans A). 283.5 B). 225.7 C). 253.8 D). 238.5
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 A boat is rowed down along a river 21km in 3 hours and against a river 14km in 7 hours. Find the speed of the boat and the
river.
Ans A). 4.5 km/h and 2.5 km/h B). 3.2 km/h and 4.8 km/h C). 6.4 km/h and 4.6 km/h D). 2.6 km/h and 4.8 km/h
Correct Answer: A

Q.3
Rohit invested a sum of money at simple interest and it became double itself in years. The rate of interest per annum
was:
Ans C). D).
A). B). Correct Answer: D

Q.4 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 2500 B). 3000 C). 750 D). 1500

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 The average weight of 11 persons is increased by 4.5 kg when one of them, whose weight is 50.5 kg, is replaced by a new
person. The weight of the new person is:
Ans A). 90.5 kg

Q.6
B). 95.5 kg C). 100 kg

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D). 98.5 kg
Correct Answer: C

The average of five numbers is 62. The average of the first two numbers is 48 and that of the last two numbers is 52. What is
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the third number?
Ans A). 110 B). 100 C). 95 D). 105
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 A shopkeeper purchases oil at ₹50/litre and sells the same at ₹54/litre. While selling, he gives 900 ml of oil instead of 1 litre.
What is his profit percentage?
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.8 An ice-cream cone with a lid has a total surface area equal to the area of another circle of certain radius. If the radius of the
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circle is equal to average of the slant height and the radius of the cone, then the ratio of the slant height of the cone to the
radius of the circle is:
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Ans A). 3 : 1 B). 2 : 3 C). 3 : 2 D). 1 : 3

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
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Ans A). 320 B). 220 C). 280 D). 240

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Find the LCM of 120, 200 and 225.

Ans A). 1200 B). 2400 C). 1800 D). 1735

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11
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Ans A). 30 cm B). 50 cm C). 40 cm D). 60 cm

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The difference between successive discounts of 28% followed by 25% and 10% followed by 5% on the marked price of a pen
is ₹63. The marked price of the pen is:
Ans A). ₹150 B). ₹331 C). ₹165 D). ₹200
Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
3
Ans A). 2 :3 B). 21 : 16 C). 3 :2 D). 6 :7

Q.14 A hemispherical bowl with an internal radius of 27 cm is full of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped bottles
of diameter 12 cm and height 13.5 cm. The number of bottles required to empty the bowl is:
Ans A). 27 B). 29 C). 25 D). 21
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Sam purchased 20 dozen toys at the rate of ₹375 per dozen. He sold each of them at the rate of ₹33. What was his profit
percentage?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.16 What should be added to each of the four numbers 5, 19, 7 and 25 to make them proportional?
Ans A). 2 B). 3 C). 1 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.17

Ans A). 28% B). 39% C). 42% D). 33%

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 The average of 41 numbers is 62. The average of the first 18 numbers is 65.5, and the average of the last 24 numbers is 61.5.
If the 18th number from the beginning is excluded, then what is the average of the remaining numbers?

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Ans A). 60.725 B). 61.325 C). 61.625 D). 60.5

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Correct Answer: A

Q.19 A girl spends 76% of her income. If her income increases by 18% and her expenditure increases by 25%, then what is the
percentage increase or decrease in her savings? (Correct to one decimal place)
Ans A). Decrease by 4.2% B). Increase by 5% C). Decrease by 3.8%
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D). Increase by 3.6%
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20
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B y
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Ans A). 80% B). 96% C). 16% D). 18%

Correct Answer: C
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Statements:
Some desktops are monitors.
No monitor is a television.

Conclusions:
(I) Some desktops are televisions.
(II) Some monitors are desktops.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Only conclusion (I) follows.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘have good food’ is coded as ‘ti ma ka’ and ‘nutritious food healthy’ is coded as ‘ka lu pe’. How is
‘food’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). ma B). lu C). ka D). ti
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
69 – 24 ÷ 4 × 6 + 13 = ?
Ans A). 86 B). 72 C). 70 D). 68
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All gardens are museums.
All museums are parks.
Conclusions:
(I) Some museums are gardens.
(II) All gardens are parks.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘LIVE’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘3215’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that language?
Ans A). 8 B). 3 C). 5 D). 2
Correct Answer: D

Q.7

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order).Only 2 people sit between A and D when counted from the right of D.B and C are both immediate neighbours of G.F
sits to the immediate left of E.Only 1 person sits between C and E when counted from the left of C.
How many people are sitting between G and D when counted from the right of G?
Ans A). 3 B). 4 C). 2 D). 1
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Sunita, Lokesh, Babita, Isha, Akram, Alok and Kiran are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily

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in the same order). Sunita is an immediate neighbour of Babita. Lokesh sits 2nd to the right of Babita. Isha sits 4th to the
right of Akram. Alok sits 3rd to the right of Lokesh. Isha sits 2nd to the left of Alok. Who sits third to the right of Babita?

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Ans A). Alok B). Isha C). Lokesh D). Kiran
Correct Answer: B

Q.10
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4 is related to 17 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 5 is related to 26. To which of the following is 10 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
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performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 99 B). 121 C). 103 D). 101
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).
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Ans
G

A). B). C). D).

B y

Correct Answer: C
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Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
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800, 700, 600, 500, 400, ?

Ans A). 399 B). 789 C). 656 D). 300
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Correct Answer: D

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
ISC, GPF, EMI, CJL, ?
Ans A). AGO B). BGP C). BGO D). AGP
Correct Answer: A

Q.14

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.15 RXPL is related to OUMI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TZRN is related to
QWOK. To which of the following is PVNJ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). SMGK B). MSGK C). SMKG D). MSKG
Correct Answer: D

Q.16

Ans A). ÷ and × B). − and + C). ÷ and − D). + and ×

Correct Answer: C

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Q.17 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.18

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.19 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number
triad that is different from the rest.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Ans A). (5, 10, 100) B). (9, 18, 320) C). (8, 16, 256) D). (3, 6, 36)
Correct Answer: B

Q.20

Ans A). 7PM5 B). 8PL6 C). 5OM7

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‘4KC2’ is related to ‘6MA4’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘3MN4’ is related to ‘5OL6’. To which of the following is ‘5NO3’
related following the same logic?
D). 6MO7
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Correct Answer: A
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 ‘Dashain’ and ‘Tihar’ are popular festivals of which neighbouring country of India?
Ans A). Sri Lanka B). Nepal C). Pakistan D). Bangladesh
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 Right of a prisoner to speedy trial will be categorised in which of the following Fundamental Rights?
Ans A). Right against Exploitation B). Right to Life C). Right to Constitutional Remedies D). Right to Equality
Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 All natural earthquakes take place in the:

Ans A). Lithosphere B). Hydrosphere C). Biosphere D). Asthenosphere

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.4 In which of the following years did Alexander invade Punjab and in which of the following years did he die?
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Ans A). 320 BC and 323 BC B). 326 BC and 323 BC C). 326 BC and 327 BC D). 323 BC and 328 BC
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In which of the following states is Aoleang Monyü celebrated, which is an ancient spring festival celebrated by all Konyaks
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in the month of April?

Ans A). Bihar B). Telangana C). Odisha D). Nagaland
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Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which of the following is an example of a private sector Industry?

Ans A). Life Insurance Corporation B). Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited C). Steel Authority of India Limited D). Tata Iron and Steel Company

Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Which specific chemical can be applied to achieve staining of chromosomes?

Ans A). Ethanol B). Hydrochloric acid C). Acetocarmine D). Methanol
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Which chronicler of the medieval age recognised that Raziyya was more able and qualified than all her brothers?
Ans A). Fakhrul-Mulk-Isami B). Minhaj-i-Siraj C). Muhammad Junaidi D). Taj-ud-din
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 If after being bitten by a mosquito, the person is detected as being malaria positive, which of the following will hold true?
A. The person did not have a balanced diet.
B. The mosquito was carrying plasmodium.
C. The mosquito was suffering from malaria.
D. The person was not vaccinated as a child.
Ans A). A B). D C). B D). C
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Which of the following Indian tribal dances is prevalent in the Araku Valley near Visakhapatnam?
Ans A). Dhimsa B). Bagurumba C). Jhumur D). Bardo Chham
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Which Article of the Indian Constitution has provisions for the appointment of High Court Judges?
Ans A). Article 252B). Article 202
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Article 119
Pratap Sir
Correct Answer: C
Q.12 Which of the following is NOT the principle laid down by the OECD about budgetary governance?
Ans A). It does not allow the citizen to participate in budgetary debates.
B). The execution of the budget must be proactively planned, managed, and monitored.
C). Design the capital budgeting framework to meet national development needs.
D). Alignment of budgets with medium-term strategic priorities of the government.
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 In February 2024, who was sworn in as the first woman Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court?
Ans A). Sujata Manohar B). Ranjana Desai C). Gyan Sudha Mishra D). Ritu Bahri
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which of the following countries won the maximum number of T20 Women's Cricket World Cup titles?
Ans A). England B). India C). Australia D). West Indies
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Which of the following Acts provided for a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes?
Ans A). The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 B). Government of India Act, 1912 C). Age of Consent Act, 1891 D). Indian Partnership Act, 1932

Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which of the following fields is NOT covered by the National Eminence Award?
Ans A). Literature B). Theatre C). Dance D). Music of all forms and origin
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Carnatic singer Bombay Jayashri has been selected for which music award in 2023?
Ans A). Sangita Kalanidhi B). Sangeetha Kalasarathy C). Sangeetha Kalasikhamani D). Sangeetha Choodamani
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Epic Poem, Savitri, described by its author as ‘A Legend and a Symbol’, was written by _____.
Ans A). Bal Gangadhar Tilak B). Aurobindo Ghosh C). Mahatma Phule D). Baba Saheb Ambedkar
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 iGOT Karmayogi is an integrated online training platform to provide continuous learning opportunities
to ______________ in order to upgrade their skills.
Ans A). Journalists B). Individual Civil Service Officials C). Lawyers D). Unorganised Workers
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 ‘Once a Dancer’ is the autobiography of ________________.

Ans A). Yamini Krishnamurthy B). Audrey Hepburn C). Allegra Kent D). Sudha Chandran

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Correct Answer: C

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Q.21 Which track and field event has a water jump?
Ans A). Decathlon B). Cross country running C). Steeplechase D). Hurdles running
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 JJ Thomson is known for developing which model in 1898? ap

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Ans A). Gold foil model B). Plum pudding model C). Double-slit model D). Oil drop model
Correct Answer: B
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Q.23 Who excavated the Chira Tope stupa at Taxila?

Ans A). James Mill B). James Princip C). Alexander Cunningham D). John Marshall
Correct Answer: D
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Q.24 The Zaskar and the Nubra are tributaries of which river?
Ans A). Mahanadi B). Ganga C). Indus D). Kaveri
Correct Answer: C
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Q.25 According to the Census of India 2011, what is the population density of India?
Ans A). 375/km2 B). 388/km2 C). 382/km2 D). 360/km2
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Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
B

The government is developing a new test in the recruitment and training of teachers in the upcoming session.
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Ans A). in recruitment and training on teachers B). of the recruitment and training of teachers C). for the recruitment and training of teachers
D). for recruitment or training of teachers
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.
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The fleets of Anthony were not merely defeated, also destroyed by Augustus Caesar.
Ans A). not only defeated, but also destroyed B). only defeated, and destroyed C). merely defeated, however destroyed
D). merely defeated, though destroyed
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The car, with all its features, were meticulously designed.

Ans A). it's features, were meticulously B). its features, was meticulously C). its features, have meticulously D). No substitution required

Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

How can one justify sending sound waves into space when they cannot travel through a vacum?
Ans A). vaccum B). vacuum C). vacume D). vaccuum
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.

The restaurant's specialtiy is seafood.
Ans A). specialtiy B). restaurant's C). seafood D). The
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Her fear of public speaking was a major hurdle in her career.

Ans A). Obstacle B). Support C). Encouragement D). Stimulus
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher encouraged students to cultivate a __________ attitude towards learning, embracing challenges as
opportunities for growth.
Ans A). stagnant B). complacent C). redundant D). resilient
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the context of the following sentence.

The palm is a native of Malaysia. We can find them in groves.

Ans A). A type of soil B). A pamphlet C). A type of tree D). Inner surface of the hand
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
When they left for Mexico, their house was in good condition than it is now.
Ans A). more good B). excellent C). best D). better
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 In the given sentence, one of the four underlined words is incorrectly spelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The scientific community gave credance to the new research findings after rigorous testing and validation.
Ans A). credance B). rigorous C). validation D). community
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Identify the sentence with an error in the use of simple present tense.
Ans A). We brush our teeth daily. B). He go to school every day. C). She walks every morning. D). You do yoga every morning.

Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Preserve
Ans A). Maintain B). Consume C). Complain D). Ignore
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He took the right decision at that time.
Ans A). Someone’s liberty and freedom B). Something which is correct C). Something which is invalid D). A particular direction

Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

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She received / an award / for her work / in a engineering field.
Ans A). She received B). in a engineering field. C). an award D). for her work
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Select the appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The bride has an exquisite face.

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Ans A). Average B). Plain C). Beautiful D). Ugly
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part.
Select the correct alternative.
Kanha National Park in MP is the dense forest in India.
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Ans A). densest B). more denser C). denser D). most dense
Correct Answer: A
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There is only one way / to have a happier marred life / and I will learn it soon.
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Ans A). and I will learn it soon. B). There is only one way C). No error D). to have a happier marred life
Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

We hear the judges from their ________ that only CNG buses should run in Delhi.
Ans A). melting pot B). ivory tower C). look sharp D). square meal
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Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate phrase that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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The question paper was very easy to complete.

Ans A). the last straw B). fair and square C). a piece of cake D). a snowball effect
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

The Nile is the _________ river in the world.

Ans A). most long B). long C). longest D). longer
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

How environmental problems ____1_____ different groups is a function of social inequality. Social status and power determine the
_______2____ to which people can insulate themselves from environmental crises or overcome them. In some cases, their ‘solutions’
may actually worsen environmental disparities. In Kutch, Gujarat, where water is scarce, richer farmers have ____3____ in deep bore
tubewells to tap groundwater to irrigate their fields and grow cash crops. When the rains fail, the earthen wells of the poorer villagers
run dry and they do not even have water to drink. At such times, the moist green fields of the rich farmers seem to mock them. Certain
environmental concerns sometimes appear to be universal concerns, not particular to ____4_____ social groups. For instance,
______5_______ air pollution or protecting biodiversity seems to be in the public interest. A sociological analysis shows, however, that
how public priorities are set and how they are pursued may not be universally beneficial.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). Partial B). Effect C). Adopt D). Affect
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). Extent B). Various C). Scope D). Expanse
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). Invested B). Licensed C). Capitalised D). Provided
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

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tubewells to tap groundwater to irrigate their fields and grow cash crops. When the rains fail, the earthen wells of the poorer villagers

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run dry and they do not even have water to drink. At such times, the moist green fields of the rich farmers seem to mock them. Certain
environmental concerns sometimes appear to be universal concerns, not particular to ____4_____ social groups. For instance,
______5_______ air pollution or protecting biodiversity seems to be in the public interest. A sociological analysis shows, however, that
how public priorities are set and how they are pursued may not be universally beneficial.

Q.24
SubQuestion No : 24
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
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Ans A). Specific B). Exactly C). Restriction D). Indefinitely
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.
an

tubewells to tap groundwater to irrigate their fields and grow cash crops. When the rains fail, the earthen wells of the poorer villagers
run dry and they do not even have water to drink. At such times, the moist green fields of the rich farmers seem to mock them. Certain
environmental concerns sometimes appear to be universal concerns, not particular to ____4_____ social groups. For instance,
G

______5_______ air pollution or protecting biodiversity seems to be in the public interest. A sociological analysis shows, however, that
how public priorities are set and how they are pursued may not be universally beneficial.
y

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
B

Ans A). Abdicating B). Increasing C). Reducing D). Manipulating

Correct Answer: C
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If the average of the first 15 multiples of 9 is x, then x is:

Ans A). 72 B). 68 C). 114 D). 78
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Reena buys an iron for ₹900 and sells it at a loss of 12%. What is the selling price of the iron?
Ans A). ₹763 B). ₹658 C). ₹825 D). ₹792
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 660 B). 680 C). 760 D). 720
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The price of an article is reduced by 40% and its sale is increased by 80%. Find the net effect on revenue.
Ans A). 8% increase B). 10% increase C). 10% decrease D). 8% decrease
Correct Answer: A

Q.5

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Ans A). 116.81 m2 B). 117.81 m2 C). 114.81 m2 D). 115.81 m2 Correct Answer: C

Q.6
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A student saves an average of ₹4,000 per month for the first three months. How much should be saved (in ₹) on an average
per month over the next 9 months to average ₹4,375 per month over the whole year?
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Ans A). 4000 B). 4500 C). 4200 D). 4187.5
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7
an

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8
G

Ans A). 20% B). 15% C). 35% D). 10%

Correct Answer: A

Q.9 If the HCF of 156 and 96 is expressible in the form of 156 × 12 + 96A, then the value of A is:
y

Ans A). −19.735 B). 19.735 C). −19.375 D). 19.375

Correct Answer: C

Q.10
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at
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Ans A). 376 : 295 B). 576 : 595 C). 295 : 376 D). 595 : 576
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of interest for 12 years and that for 15
years?
Ans A). 4 : 5 B). 2 : 5 C). 3 : 4 D). 2 : 3
Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 A metallic sphere with a radius of 35 cm is melted and subsequently transformed into several small solid cones, each
having a diameter of 14 cm and a height of 4 cm. How many cones are formed as a result of this process?
Ans A). 825 B). 875 C). 900 D). 850
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 The speed of a car is 81 km/hr. The distance covered by the car in 24 seconds is:
Ans A). 540 m B). 560 m C). 270 m D). 280 m
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 420 B). 480 C). 520 D). 440
Correct Answer: B

Q
.
1
5
Ans A). 13 : 9 B). 9 : 13 C). 7 : 13 D). 13 : 7

Q.16 The speed of a boat in still water is 12 km/h and the stream flows at a speed of 3 km/h. The distance travelled in the boat
downstream in 24 minutes is:
Ans A). 6 km B). 4 km C). 5 km D). 7 km
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel of a country during the years 2013 to 2017.

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What is the percentage of the total imports for the years 2013, 2015 and 2017 to the exports for all the years taken together
(correct to one decimal place)?

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Ans A). 54.7% B). 51.6% C). 53.8% D). 52.4%
Correct Answer: D

Q.18

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A shopkeeper offered following four different discount schemes for buyers on an item.

A. Two successive discounts of 8%

B. A discount of 11% followed by a discount of 5%.
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C. Successive discounts of 13% and 3%
D. A discount of 16%.
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If Rajiv wants to purchase the item from this shop at minimum price, he should opt for the discount scheme:
Ans A). C B). B C). A D). D
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.19 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans A). 49.4 B). 50.4 C). 48.4 D). 51.4
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20
A jar contains a mixture with 45% syrup. A portion of this mixture is
replaced by another mixture containing 30% syrup. The new mixture is
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found to have 34% syrup. What is the ratio in which these mixtures should
be mixed to obtain the new mixture?
B y

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
at

JLF, KOI, LRL, MUO, ?

Ans A). MXT B). OYR C). NRY D). NXR
Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘BUYS’ is coded as ‘5173’ and ‘YOLK’ is coded as ‘6458’.What is the code for ‘Y’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 5 B). 8 C). 6 D). 7
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

13 21 33 49 ? 93
Ans A). 74 B). 69 C). 82 D). 79
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.6

Ans A). − and + B). + and × C). ÷ and × D). − and ÷

Correct Answer: D

Q.7 JA 88 is related to OF 77 in a certain way. In the same way, DT 55 is related to IY 44.To which of the following is LH 33 related
following the same logic?

Ans A). XD 77 B). QM 22 C). NU 25 D). OS 22

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Six students Amit, Shivam, Dinesh, Kamlesh, Nihar and Roshan are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Amit is sitting to the immediate right of Shivam. Dinesh is sitting second to the right of
Shivam. Nihar is an immediate neighbour of both Dinesh and Roshan. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Roshan?
Ans A). Nihar B). Shivam C). Amit D). Kamlesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 PUQV is related to RWSX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JOKP is related to
LQMR. To which of the following is MRNS related, following the same logic?
Ans A). OTPU B). TOUP C). TOPU D). OTUP
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 Given below are two sets of numbers. In each set of numbers, a certain mathematical operation on the first number results
in the second number. Which of the options follows the same operation as given in the question?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(21, 10)
(87, 43) ap
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Ans A). (55, 21) B). (18, 7) C). (27, 13) D). (25, 9)
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).Only 2
people sit between G and A when counted from the right of G.Only 2 people sit between E and D when counted from the
right of E.E is an immediate neighbour of A.Only 2 people sit between B and C when counted from the left of C.
What is the position of F with respect to B?
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Ans A). 2nd to the left B). 3rd to the right C). 2nd to the right D). 3rd to the left Correct Answer: A

Q.12
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Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
B y
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Statements:
No crow is a parrot.
No parrot is sparrow.

Conclusions:
(I) No crow is a sparrow.
(II) No parrot is a crow.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: B

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Q.15

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

7 + 5 ÷ 4 + 5 ÷ 36 − 4 × 7 = ?
Ans A). 31 B). 13 C). 53 D). 15
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 10 is related to 99 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 195. To which of the following is 22
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 463 B). 473 C). 453 D). 483
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘BASE’ is coded as ‘2416’ and ‘SOUP’ is coded as ‘3719’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 1 B). 6 C). 3 D). 2
Correct Answer: A

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Statements:
All lakes are rivers.
All rivers are dams.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some dams are lakes.
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(II) All rivers are lakes.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Correct Answer: B

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘find this clue’ is written as ‘ak dh fk’ and ‘clue for you’ is written as ‘sg fk bo’. How is ‘clue’
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written in the given language?

Ans A). fk B). sg C). ak D). dh
Correct Answer: A
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As per the World Happiness Index 2023, which of the following countries secured the highest rank?
y

Ans A). Nepal B). Sri Lanka C). Pakistan D). Bangladesh
Correct Answer: A
B

Q.2 Atmospheric temperature usually decreases with altitude, but sometimes this phenomenon gets reversed in the
troposphere. This phenomenon is known as _________.
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Ans A). Temperature Inversion B). Adiabatic Lapse Rate C). Global Warming D). Temperature Convection
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 What is the name of the German Chancellor who visited India in February 2023?
Ans A). Angela Markel B). Olaf Scholz C). Willy Brandt D). Wilhem Steinberg
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Correct Answer: B

Q.4 In the final match of the Asian Games _________ held in Jakarta, Indonesia, India secured gold by defeating South Korea
with a score of 2-1 in football.
Ans A). 1962 B). 1966 C). 1970 D). 1958
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 As per the Constitution of India, every Governor, before entering upon his office, will make and subscribe an oath in the
presence of the ________.
Ans A). Chief Minister B). President C). Chief Justice of India D). Chief Justice of the High Court
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 The famous novel ‘The house of blue mangoes’ is written by:
Ans A). Romila Thapar B). Shashi Tharoor C). David Davidar D). Anees Salim
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 ‘Alarippu’ is the first dance item of which of the following Indian classical dance forms?
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kuchipudi C). Kathakali D). Odissi
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Which of the following are recognised as final goods while estimating the gross domestic product in India?
a. Wheat purchased for making roti in a house
b. Wheat purchased for making roti in a hotel
c. Tea bags used to make tea in a house
d. Tea bags used to make tea in a university hostel canteen
Ans A). Only a and b B). Only b and c C). Only b and d D). Only a and c
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 The Tunga and Bhadra are tributaries of which river?

Ans A). Narmada B). Tapti C). Krishna D). Godavari
CorrectSir
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Answer: C
Q.10 When did India declare itself a Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state with the adoption of the Constitution?
Ans A). 14 November 1952 B). 2 October 1949 C). 15 August 1947 D). 26 January 1950
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Diwan-i-Am, containing the marble canopy ornamented with beautiful panels of pietra dura work, is a part of which
monument?
Ans A). Bibi ka Makbara B). Red Fort C). Taj Mahal D). Humayun Tomb
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which of the following is a crop grown in Rabi season in India?

Ans A). Soyabean B). Maize C). Wheat D). Rice
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The 'Secular' word in the Indian Constitution was added to the constitution by __________ Constitutional Amendment Act.
Ans A). 42nd B). 44th C). 46th D). 48th Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Who among the following Portuguese travellers visited the Vijayanagar empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya?
Ans A). Domingo Paes B). Nicolo de Conti C). Ludovico de Varthema D). Athanasius Nikitin
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Who among the following social reformers established the ‘Prarthana Samaj’ in Bombay in 1876?
Ans A). Gopal Hari Deshmukh B). Bal Gangadhar Tilak C). Atmaram Pandurang D). Ganesh Agarkar
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Who among the following founded his Kuchipudi Art Academy at Madras in 1963?
Ans A). Kamalakar Kameshwar Rao B). Lakshmi Narayan Shastri C). Raja Reddy D). Vempati Chinna Satyam
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Which of the following characteristics was used by Aristotle to classify animals?
Ans A). Specialised organs B). Types of body cells C). Habitat D). Photosynthesis
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The 2011 census was the ____________ official survey conducted in India.
Ans A). 16th B). 14th C). 15th D). 18th Correct Answer: C

Q.19 As on February 2024, who among the following is the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways?
Ans A). Giraj Singh B). Prahlad Joshi C). Sarbananda Sonowal D). Hardeep Singh Puri
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 If the Glycemic Index (GI) of a specific food is from 70 to 100, then the type of that food is:

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Ans A). Low-GI food B). High-GI food C). Medium-GI food D). Extremely low-GI food
Correct Answer: B

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Q.21
In badminton, how high above the ground is the net positioned at the centre?
Ans A). 4

Q.22
feet B). 5 feet C). 6 feet
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D). 5.5 feet Correct Answer: B

In 1905, Hindus and Muslims tied ‘Rakhi’ on each other’s hands to show their unity and their protest against the _________.
at
Ans A). Partition of Punjab B). Rowlatt Act C). Morley-Minto Reforms D). Partition of Bengal
Correct Answer: D
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Q.23 Which of the following statements are correct postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory?
A. All matter is made up of atoms. These atoms participate in chemical reactions.
B. Atoms might be created or destroyed during a chemical reaction.
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C. Atoms of different elements vary in mass and chemical properties.

D. Compounds are combination of atoms in the ratio of whole or fractional numbers.
E. A compound will always have constant relative number and kind of atoms.
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Ans A). A, B, D B). B, C, D C). A, C, E D). B, D, E

Correct Answer: C

Q.24 The famous Sanskrit grammar book 'Mahabhasya' was written by:
G

Ans A). Bharatmuni B). Vedvyas C). Panini D). Patanjali

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.25 Hariharan was conferred the Padma Shri in 2004 for his contribution to which of the following fields?
B

Ans A). Medicine B). Sports C). Art - Music D). Civil Service
Correct Answer: C
hs

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
at

The scientific study of the structure and form of animals and plants
M

Ans A). Zoology B). Morphology C). Biology D). Botany

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Annual B). Technical C). Regulator D). Machenical
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She ______ the book to her friend.
Ans A). laned B). leant C). lend D). lent
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The beutiful flowers bloomed in the garden.
Ans A). beautifull B). beiutiful C). beautiful D). beautifuul
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

We talked over the matter for two hours; unfortunately, we could not reach a decision.
Ans A). Argued B). Quarrelled C). Debated D). Discussed
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length about approximately 6650 km.
B). The Nile is the long river in the world with a length about approximately 6650 km.
C). The Nile is the most long river in the world of a length of approximately 6650 km.
D). The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length of approximately 6650 km.
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Like a dying duck in a thunderstorm

Ans A). Fearful or scared of water B). Dejected or hopeless C). Bad swimmer or practitioner D). Harmful or vigilant
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Amit, the stand-up comedian, delivered a hilarious performance.

Ans A). spleen B). ideological C). serious D). pertinent
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options..
Ans A). A lot of books and notes place in order look most fascinating. B). A lot of books and notes placed in order look fascinating.
C). A lot of books and notes placed on order looks most fascinating. D). A lot of book and notes placed in order looks most fascinating.

Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The train is running / late by six hours / so it / cannot make over the time.
Ans A). so it B). cannot make over the time C). late by six hours D). The train is running
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The writer's __________ prose resonated with readers, evoking powerful emotions.
Ans A). banal B). sporadic C). mundane D). eloquent
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher emphasised the importance of ___________ correct grammar and punctuation in our writing.
Ans A). used B). uses C). using D). use
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Gold is much costly than any other metal.
Ans A). most B). most costlier C). many D). more
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

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The orator declared that the women are ___________ than the men.

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Ans A). most intelligent B). intelligenter C). more intelligent D). intelligent
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

Jack always looks handsome, even if he is a __________ out of style. ap

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Ans A). little B). more little C). less D). least
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Pr

High-altitude climbing poses significant risks due to factors like altitude sickness, hypothermia and extreme weather
conditions.
an

Ans A). inconsequential B). magnificent C). plentiful D). tempestuous

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined segment in the given sentence.
ag

It's important to bring up sensitive topics in a respectful manner.

Ans A). Strong B). Drowsy C). Cordial D). Considerate
G

Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The croissant was _________, as was the coffee.
y

Ans A). eloquent B). excellent C). ambitious D). inferior

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Idle
Ans A). Unoccupied B). Unsafe C). Ungrateful D). Uneasy
Correct Answer: A
at

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Doves _________ in the sky above me.

Ans A). sore B). shore C). sour D). soar
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It is true that strangers meeting for the first time seem to feel ____1____ if they do not engage _____ 2_____ small talk. Usually, this
is ______3______ and even necessary if strangers are to size each other up. But, this small talk aside, what are some _____4______
rules for general conversation?
In the first place, certain _____5_____ should be taboo. Kitchen topics, bus time-tables and other dull or specialised things should be
barred from general discussion.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). discomforts B). comforting C). uncomfortable D). comforts
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). by B). on C). from D). in
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). happy B). comedy C). harmless D). remedy
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). eliminating B). alimentary C). illuminative D). elementary

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Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
It is true that strangers meeting for the first time seem to feel ____1____ if they do not engage _____ 2_____ small talk. Usually, this
is ______3______ and even necessary if strangers are to size each other up. But, this small talk aside, what are some _____4______
rules for general conversation?
at
In the first place, certain _____5_____ should be taboo. Kitchen topics, bus time-tables and other dull or specialised things should be
barred from general discussion.
Pr

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). subjects B). books C). objects D). essays
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Correct Answer: A
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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The ratio of per kg market price of rice to that of wheat flour is 7 : 9 and the ratio of their quantities consumed by a family is
9 : 11. Find the ratio of the family’s expenditure on rice to that on wheat flour.
Ans A). D).
B). C). Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 760 B). 660 C). 720 D). 680
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Find the average of the numbers 1, −1, 0 and 2.

Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 0.5 D). 1.5
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 580 B). 480 C). 540 D). 500
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is:
Ans
A). C). D). Correct Answer: C
B).

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Q.6

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an
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Ans A). 11230 B). 13690 C). 12320 D). 10290

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.7 The given graph shows the production of food grains of a country in different years. Study the graph and answer the
question that follows.
hs
at
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The percentage increase in production from 2010 to 2011 was (Rounded off to 2 decimal places):
Ans A). 7.46% B). 6.38% C). 5.12% D). 4.23%
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 By selling an item for ₹ 125, S earns 12% profit. What is the cost of the item (in ₹)? (Correct up to 2 decimal digits)
Ans A). 111.16 B). 111.61 C). 116.61 D). 116.16
Correct Answer: B

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Q.9 After how many years will a sum of ₹8,925 at simple interest fetch a total amount of ₹12,941.25 at the rate of 9% per annum?
Ans A). 6 years B). 5 years C). 3 years D). 4 years
Correct Answer: B

Q.10

Ans A). 26 cm B). 50 cm C). 34 cm D). 42 cm

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by each one of the numbers 12, 15 and 18 is:
Ans A). 10010 B). 10015 C). 10080 D). 10020
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 In an experiment to determine the refractive index of water, a student took five sets of observations and got the values for
the refractive index of water as 1.32, 1.37, 1.36, 1.39 and 1.31. What is its average value?
Ans A). 1.36 B). 1.33 C). 1.35 D). 1.34
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The price of a book is first increased by 10% and then again by 20%. If the price of the book after both increments is ₹33,
then the original price (in ₹) of the book is:
Ans A). 30 B). 32 C). 33 D). 25
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 If the speed of a boat going downstream is 40 km/h and its speed going upstream is 20 km/h, then find the speed of the
stream (in km/h).
Ans A). 10 B). 15 C). 20 D). 40
Correct Answer: A

Q.15

Ans A). ₹7,574.28 B). ₹7,745.28 C). ₹5,774.28 D). ₹7,547.28

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 Find the curved surface area of the cylinder which has a height of 25 m and a base of radius 7 m.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.17 ap
Suman travels the first 330 km by train at a speed of 110 km/hr and the next 165 km by bus at 55 km/hr. Ignoring the buffer
time between different modes of travel, the average speed (in km/hr) for her tour was:
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Ans A). D).
B). C). Correct Answer: B
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Q.18 The average score in the Mathematics exam of a class of 60 students is 52. A group of 8 boys with an average score of 40
left the class and another group of 10 boys with an average score of 43 joined the class. What is the new average score of
the class? (correct to one decimal place)
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Ans A). 55.7 B). 52.1 C). 53.9 D). 50.5

Correct Answer: B
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Q
.
1
G

9
Ans A). ₹650 B). ₹672 C). ₹655 D). ₹6
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Q.20 In an NCC camp, the average weight was 72 kg. If 5 cadets having average weight 76 kg leave and 11 cadets of average
B

weight 79 kg join the group, the average weight of the cadets in the group increases by 0.6 kg. The number of cadets,
initially in the group was:
Ans A). 81 B). 91 C). 89 D). 85
hs

Correct Answer: C
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘–’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
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99 + 9 – 19 × 59 ÷ 29 = ?
Ans A). 153 B). 179 C). 189 D). 169
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements:
Some pigs are frogs.
All bats are pigs.
Conclusions:
(I) At least some bats are frogs
(II) All pigs are bats.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Only conclusion (I) follows C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D). Only conclusion (II) follows
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘pass the ball’ is coded as ‘bq tr vl’ and ‘ball is red’ is coded as ‘hx vo bq’. How is ‘ball’ coded in
the given language?
Ans A). tr B). vl C). bq D). hx
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 8 is related to 62 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 119. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 423 B). 223 C). 123 D). 323
Correct Answer: B

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Q.5 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: D

D).

Q.6 EMHD is related to GOJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IQLH is related to KSNJ.
To which of the following is LTOK related following the same logic?
Ans A). NVMQ B). NVQM C). VNMQ D). VNQM
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

17, 32, 93, 460, 3213, ?

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Ans A). 28908 B). 35332 C). 22484 D). 25696
Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All vases are portraits.
Some portraits are flowers.
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Conclusions:
(I) All flowers are vases.
(II) Some flowers may be portraits.
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Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follow C). Only conclusion II follows D). Both conclusion I and II follow

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.10 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(17, 10, 95)

(2, 11, 21)

Ans A). (20, 16, 26) B). (19, 18, 30) C). (10, 6, 56) D). (24, 18, 128)
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘under the impression’ is written as ‘ly ga po’ and ‘first impression matters’ is writtenas ‘ka mo
po’. How will ‘impression’ be writtenin that language?
Ans A). ly B). po C). mo D). ka
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B sits
second to the right of E, who is second to the right of C. G sits third to the left of D, who is not an immediate neighbour of F.
A sits second to the right of D.
What is the position of E with respect to C?
Ans A). Immediate right B). Second to the right C). Immediate left D). Second to the left
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 IRIG is related to OXOM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, DLEC is related to JRKI.
To which of the following is SBUS related, following the same logic?
Ans A). YHAY B). YHYA C). AYHY D). AYYH
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
EVD, ITH ,MRL ,QPP, ?
Ans A). UMT B). UNT C). UNS D). UMS
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting around a table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B
is to the immediate right of F, and A is to the immediate right of B. E is an immediate neighbour of both F and D, while G is
an immediate neighbour of both D and C.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?
Ans A). B B). E C). D D). C
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 In a certain code language, 'FIRE' is coded as '9571' and 'ROAD' is coded as '2146'.
What is the code for 'R' in the given code language?

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Ans A). 1 B). 7 C). 6 D). 2
Correct Answer: A

Q.20

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What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
16 ÷ 4 + 18 − 14 × 7 = ?
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Ans A). 52 B). 62 C). 48 D). 65
Correct Answer: C
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What is the specific field of study focused on examining extinct animals?
Ans A). Gemology B). Economic geology C). Palaeontology D). Glaciology
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 In which of the following years was India the host of Women's T20 World Cup Cricket?
Ans A). 2016 B). 2012 C). 2014 D). 2010
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 The All-India Kisan Sabha was founded in Lucknow in April _______ with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the president.
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Ans A). 1936 B). 1934 C). 1935 D). 1937

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.4 Match the columns.

Column A (Plant Group) Column B (Example)
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i. Bryophyta a. Rose
ii. Pteridophyta b. Pine
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iii. Gymnosperms c. Mosses

iv. Angiosperms d. Selaginella
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Ans A). i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d B). i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a C). i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D). i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 As per the Periodic Labour Force data 2023, which of the following states recorded the highest unemployment rate in urban
areas for the age group 15 years and above?
Ans A). Chhattisgarh B). Himachal Pradesh C). Rajasthan D). Kerala
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 The Sun Temple at Konark, the Khajuraho Temple in Madhya Pradesh and the recently constructed Ram Temple in Ayodhya
are examples of temples designed in which style of temple architecture?
Ans A). Nagara B). Vesara C). Hoysala D). Dravida
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Which of the following leaders died after being hit by sticks while protesting against the Simon Commission?
Ans A). Chandra Shekhar Azad B). Bal Gangadhar Tilak C). Bhagat Singh D). Lala Lajpat Rai
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 ‘NISHTHA’ stands for ____________.

Ans A). National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Assessment
B). National Inauguration for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement
C). National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement
D). National Inauguration for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Assessment
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Under which of the following Articles is Right to Equality mentioned?

Ans A). Articles 14-18 B). Articles 1-4 C). Articles 10–12 D). Articles 19–22
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 Who among the following appoints the Acting Chief Justice in the absence of the Chief Justice of India?
Ans A). President B). Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court C). Prime Minister D). Council of Ministers
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 The condition when the amount of dissolved oxygen in a water body is alarmingly decreased is called:
Ans A). hypothermia B). anoxia C). hypoxia D). acidification
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Which among the following data was used to compute the estimates in the national Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
Baseline Report?
Ans A). Economic Survey data B). National Census data C). Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey data
D). National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4)
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 In Union Budget 2023-24, an aspirational Blocks Programme covering how many blocks has been launched?
Ans A). 300 B). 250 C). 450 D). 500
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Padma Shri awardee (2023) Guru K Kalyanasundaram Pillai is an exponent of which of the following classical dance genres?
Ans A). Sattriya B). Kathak C). Kathakali D). Bharatnatyam
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 A famous hill station 'Ranikhet' is located on which mountain?

Ans A). Eastern Ghats B). Himalaya C). Western Ghats D). Aravali
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 In badminton, how high above the ground is the net positioned at the edges?
Ans A). 5.1 feet B). 5.3 feet C). 5.2 feet D). 5.4 feet
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 ‘Running for My Life: One Lost Boy’s Journey from the Killing Fields of Sudan to the Olympic Games’ an autobiography
depicting the struggle for life to success in life is written by who among the following personalities?
Ans A). Noah Lyles B). Jesse Owens C). Lopez Lomong D). Arnold Palmer
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Vangpui Kut festival is organised for _______ days in Mizoram to celebrate the glory of Mizo culture and traditions.
Ans A). 2 B). 5 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Which of the following represents the chemical formula for sulphur hexafluoride?
Ans A). S2F6 B). SF6 C). SF2 D). S6F
Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 Which type of tea in large amount is exported from India to importing countries?

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Ans A). Herbal tea B). Regular tea C). Green tea D). Black tea
Correct Answer: D

Q.21
B). Feroz Shah Bahmani C). Muhammad Shah ap
The founder of Bahmani kingdom who assumed the title of ‘Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah’ was _________.
Ans A). Hasan Gangu D). Ahmad Shah
Correct Answer: A
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Q.22 Who among the following musicians was a member of Navratnas of Akbar?
Ans A). Nizamuddin Auliya B). Naubat Khan C). Tansen D). Amir Khusrau
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Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Kudumbashree is a poverty eradication and women empowerment programme. In which state of India does this programme
operate?
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Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Andhra Pradesh C). Kerala D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: C
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Q.24 Which Indian classical dance form has composition in Meitei language?
Ans A). Sattriya B). Chhau C). Manipuri D). Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: C
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Q.25 Which of the following statements is/are true about the Iron Age?
1 The establishment of large cities took place on the basis of sizeable surplus.
2 The ceramic associated with this age was Painted Grey Ware.
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3 The Indus Valley Civilization flourished during the Iron Age

Ans A). Only 2 and 3 B). Only 1 and 2 C). All 1, 2 and 3 D). Only 1
Correct Answer: B
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
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By definition, making a pictogram is to present and visualise data.

Ans A). To make a pictogram by definition B). Pictogram is making a definition C). In making a pictogram, the definition
D). The purpose of a pictorgram
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The princepal of the college announced his early retirement today.

Ans A). princepil B). principel C). princeaple D). principal
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
It was an interesting chat with an European gymnast that changed my mindset towards the sport.
Ans A). an European gymnast that changed B). It was an interesting C). my mindset towards the sport D). chat with
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.
Hunny is _____ person in his family.
Ans A). more taller B). tall C). taller D). the tallest
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 If someone mentions that 'the ball is in your court', what does this idiom imply?
Ans A). It's time for a break. B). It's your turn to make a decision or take action. C). It's time to play a sport. D). It's a reference to tennis.

Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Harmony
Ans A). Discord B). Accord C). Unity D). Concord
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I have been / looking by my / cream sweater for / a few weeks now.
Ans A). a few weeks now B). cream sweater for C). I have been D). looking by my
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She _______ to be understood by the society.
Ans A). chased B). hunted C). sought D). looked
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). tangible B). navigate C). lascivious D). rhetericol
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Rain cats and dogs
Ans A). Doing something pointless B). Very rarely C). Do something unplanned D). Raining heavily
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Food prices in Switzerland are expensiver to the rest of Western Europe.

Ans A). the most expensive than B). more expensive than C). as expensiver to D). more expensive to
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The speaker requested the audience to pay _________.

Ans A). ears B). attention C). silence D). activeness
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which of the following options is similar in meaning to the given word?
Pensive
Ans A). Troubled B). Talkative C). Thoughtful D). Tired
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The council never _________ the new complex to be constructed, nor did local residents.
Ans A). occurred B). refreshed C). wanted D). liked
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

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How long / have you / been learn / English now?

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Ans A). been learn B). How long C). have you D). English now
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The negotiations were conducted in an amicable atmosphere, leading to a peaceful resolution.
Ans A). Agreeable B). Serene C). Cordial
ap
D). Hostile
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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Overfishing and destructive fishing practices threaten the sustainability of marine resources and ecosystems.
Ans A). Indefensibility B). Equanimity C). Reasonableness D). Justifiability
Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
A conscious understanding of the environmental issues can bring positive changes in human life.
ag

Ans A). Mechanical B). Reflex C). Mindful D). Beware

Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Rectify the error in the given sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options provided.
G

The chord of my voilin is not tuned properly.

Ans A). violin B). voilen C). woilin D). wiolin
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.20 Select the correct option of the given sentence.

Vishnu is the more courageous than all other boys in the class.
hs

Ans A). Vishnu is much more courageous than all other boys in the class. B). Vishnu is most courageous than all other boys in the class.
C). Vishnu is the most courageous than all other boys in the class. D). Vishnu is more courageous than all other boys in the class.
at

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The ship struck the iceberg (1) _____ its side while it was still moving forward. In a few (2)_____, six great holes were made in the
steel. Water rushed in, not in one place, but in separate places covering the Titanic hundred feet. The steel doors were therefore
(3)_____ . Captain Smith soon understood that (4)______ could save the ship. He ordered the wireless officer to send out the ship’s
position and the letters CQD, which is the call for help. It told the world that the Titanic was (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). under B). above C). beyond D). with
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). weeks B). days C). moments D). years
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). painted B). useless C). burnt D). complete
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). enemies B). all C). nothing D). everything
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). victorious B). reaching C). sinking D). floating
Correct Answer: C

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G
B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the average of all odd numbers between 10 and 30.
Ans A). 10 B). 20 C). 30 D). 40
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The HCF of 1.75, 5.6 and 7 is:

Ans A). 0.35 B). 3.5 C). 0.07 D). 0.7
Correct Answer: A

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Q.3

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Ans A). 942.1 B). 1200.5 C). 1000.3
ap D). 1177.5
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 The area of a rhombus with diagonals of lengths 4 cm and 5 cm, respectively, is:
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Ans A). 10 cm2 B). 4.5 cm2 C). 20 cm2 D). 40 cm2 Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 The number of marbles in three bags is in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. If 12 marbles are added to each bag, then the ratio changed to
8 : 11 : 14. The total number of marbles in the beginning was:
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Ans A). 216 B). 162 C). 200 D). 126

Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 Tannish travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/h, from B to C at 15 km/h and from C to D at 30 km/h. If AB = BC = CD, then
find Tannish’s average speed for the whole journey.
y

Ans A). 22 km/h B). 20 km/h C). 21 km/h D). 19 km/h

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.7 The diameter of a solid sphere is 3 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 8 mm. The length of the wire is:
Ans
Correct Answer: C
at

A). B). C). D).

Q.8 A trader sells an item at 25% profit. Had he bought it at 15% more and sold it for₹147 more, he would have earned a profit of
30%. Find the cost price of the item.
Ans A). ₹650 B). ₹600 C). ₹450 D). ₹525
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 By selling a TV set for₹26,000, a seller earns 30% profit. If the production cost is increased by 10%, what should be the new
selling price of a set so as to gain 15% profit?
Ans A). ₹28,300 B). ₹25,300 C). ₹30,300 D). ₹26,300
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 A family of seven minors and some adults has an average wheat consumption of 11.10 kg. The average consumption for
minors is 5.5 kg per person, and for adults, it is 16 kg per person. Find the number of adults in the family.
Ans A). 5 B). 6 C). 10 D). 8
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 The average of five numbers is 38. If one number is excluded, their average is 36. Find the excluded number.
Ans A). 38 B). 49 C). 41 D). 46
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 640 B). 600 C). 560 D). 540
Correct Answer: B

Q
.
1
3
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer:

Q.14
The simple interest on a sum is of the principal for 21 years. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

(Rounded to two decimal places)

Ans A). 3.97 B). 3.21 C). 4.26 D). 2.56
Correct Answer: D

Q.15

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Ans A). A2 B). A3 C). A4 D). A1

Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
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Ans A). 760 B). 660 C). 680 D). 720

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.17 The average weight of 40 athletes and 5 trainers is 72 kg. When six more athletes of average weight 65 kg are included in the
group, what is the average weight (in kg) of the group? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
B y

Ans A). 65.21 B). 69.37 C). 72.25 D). 71.18

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 The given bar graph represents the number of residents living in a society during the past five years. Study the graph
carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the per cent decrement in the number of residents in 2021 as compared to the previous year? (correct up to two
decimal places)
Ans A). 50.24% B). 46.58% C). 44.58% D). 53.42%

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 A shopkeeper marks his good 12% above the cost price and allows a discount of 8.5% on the
marked price. Find his profit or loss percentage.
Ans A). Profit 2.48% B). Profit 4.65% C). Loss 4.65%
ap D). Loss 2.48%
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 A man riding his bike covers 960 m in 64 sec. What is his speed in km/hr?
Ans A). 50 B). 54 C). 64 D). 15
Correct Answer: B
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 11 is related to 45 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 13. To which of the following is 6 related
G

following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
B y

Ans A). 28 B). 25 C). 23 D). 26

Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Only two people are sitting between S and G when counted from the right of S. Only two people are sitting between E
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and T when counted from the left of E. R is sitting second to the right of G. T is not an immediate neighbour of R. D is not an
immediate neighbour of G. Who is sitting to the immediate left and to the immediate right of F, respectively?
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Ans A). T and G B). G and T C). G and S D). T and S

Correct Answer: A

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘paint the wall’ is written as ‘jh dw qp’ and ‘wall of honour’ is written as ‘fh ut dw’. How is ‘wall’
written in the given language?
Ans A). qp B). ut C). dw D). jh
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

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Q.5 LRPN is related to SYWU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IOMK is related to
PVTR. To which of the following is GMKI related, following the same logic?
Ans A). TNPR B). NTRP C). NTPR D). TNRP
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.7 TCKS is related to WFNV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YHPX is related to
BKSA. To which of the following is HPXG related, following the same logic?
Ans A). KSJL B). KSAJ C). SKKA D). KSJA
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 ead the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
R

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if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

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statement(s).

Statements:
All cups are plates.
Some plates are glasses.
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Conclusions:
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(I) Some cups are not glasses.

(II) Some glasses are not plates.
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Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
G

30 − 10 ÷ 63 × 9 + 15 =?
Ans A). 80 B). 85 C). 90 D). 87
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Correct Answer: B
B
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Q.10 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: C

D).

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Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

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Ans
Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘ONLY’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘NICE’ is coded as ‘7534’.What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code
B

language?
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Ans A). 4 B). 7 C). 2 D). 6

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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WSF, BUK ,GWP ,LYU, ?

Ans A). RZY B). RBZ C). QAZ D). PAY

Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(11, 19, 8)
(14, 29, 15)
Ans A). (7, 35, 23) B). (16, 28, 12) C). (18, 21, 7) D). (22, 25, 9)
Correct Answer: B

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Statements:
Some glasses are cups.
All cups are plates.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some plates are glasses.
(II) All cups are glasses.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘i know you’ is written as ‘mo rc tp’ and ‘do they know’ is written as ‘hk mo be’. How is ‘know’
written in the given code language?
Ans A). mo B). tp C). rc D). be
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only 3 people are sitting between A and D when counted from the right of A. B is sitting 2nd to the left of D. F is sitting
immediate to the right of C. E is not an immediate neighbour of D. What is the position of F with respect to G?
Ans A). 3rd to the left B). 2nd to the right C). 2nd to the left D). 3rd to the right Correct Answer: D

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

226 231 236 241 246 ?

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Ans A). 254 B). 252 C). 253 D). 251
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
57 − 19 × 18 + 9 ÷ 45 = 18
Ans A). ÷ and − B). ÷ and × C). + and ÷ apD). + and ×
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 In a certain code language, 'GOLF' is coded as '6428' and 'OPEN' is coded as '7653'.
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What is the code for 'O' in the given code language?

Ans A). 7 B). 4 C). 5 D). 6
Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which red and buff sandstone is the tallest tower in India built in the thirteenth century?
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Ans A). Shaheed Minar B). Chand Minar C). Jhulta Minar D). Qutub Minar
B

Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 The people of Himachal Pradesh make channels to bring water from a glacier or rainwater to villages for the function of
mainly irrigation. These channels are locally known as:
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Ans A). Khadins B). Guls or Kuls C). Johads D). Baori
Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 In which year was the microfinance movement formally launched in India on a pilot basis?
Ans A). 1992 B). 2010 C). 2000 D). 1980
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Who among the following founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara, called Nagalapuram, after his mother?
Ans A). Sadasiva Raya B). Achyuta Deva Raya C). Krishna Deva Raya D). Rama Raya
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 In which sport is the term 'Dolphin Kick' commonly used?

Ans A). Swimming B). Javelin Throw C). Long Jump D). High Jump
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Which of the following novels is based on Malgudi, a fictional town in south India?
Ans A). The Guide B). My Days C). A Suitable Boy D). Sacred Games
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 In which of the following years did India NOT win an Olympic gold medal in hockey?
Ans A). 1956 B). 1960 C). 1952 D). 1948
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Which of the following states is characterised by salt marshes known as 'Rann'?
Ans A). Jharkhand B). Maharashtra C). Punjab D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Who among the following wrote a book called ‘Indica’ based on his travels and experiences in Mauryan India?
Ans A). Strabo B). Pliny C). Megasthenes D). Diodorus
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 In which of the following states is the Jawara dance performed on the occasion of a successful harvest?
Ans A). Punjab B). Madhya Pradesh C). Haryana D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Who among the following was a leader of Garam Dal, a group of radical nationalists?
Ans A). Dadabhai Naoroji B). Gopal Krishna Gokhale C). Bipin Chandra Pal D). Surendranath Banerjee
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Who among the following presides over the meeting of the Council of Ministers in a state?
Ans A). Chairman of the Legislative Council B). Chief Minister of the state C). Chief Secretary of the state
D). Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a function of mesosomes?

Ans A). Increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content B). Locomotion C). Respiration
D). DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Who was sworn in as the Governor of Chhattisgarh in February 2023?

Ans A). Ramesh Bais B). Satyadev Narayan Arya C). Biswabhusan Harichandan D). Anusuiya Uikey
Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 Which of the following Khayal artists is the founding father of Lalit Kala Kendra of the University of Pune?
Ans A). Bhimsen Joshi B). Ravi Shankar C). Shiv Kumar Sharma D). Kishan Maharaj
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which of the following is NOT a hydroelectric power plant?

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Ans A). Bhakra Nangal Hydel Project B). Damodar Valley Hydel Project C). Sambhar Lake Hydel Project D). Kopili Hydel Project
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 Which of the following is an alarming effect of thermal pollution in water bodies?
Ans A). The amount of dissolved oxygen decreased significantly B). Changes in turbidity C). The random changes in pH values
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D). Increasing amount of carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.18 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what was the proportion of population in
multidimensional poverty (Headcount Ratio) in rural India in 2019-2021?
B y

Ans A). 19.28% B). 24.12% C). 12.32% D). 14.96%

Correct Answer: A
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Q.19 According to Census 2011 of India, which metropolitan city has the highest population?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Kolkata C). Chennai D). Delhi
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 An Ummathat folk dancer from Karnataka ________ had been honoured with Padma Shri in 2023.
Ans A). Rani Karnaa Nayak B). Rani Machaiah C). Devika Rani D). Sharan Rani Backliwal
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Who among the following was the founder of 'Bhoodan Yajna' in India?
Ans A). Subhas Chandra Bose B). Vinoba Bhave C). Vallabhbhai Patel D). Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 Which part of a flower develops into a seed?

Ans A). Stamen B). Petal C). Ovule D). Pistil

Correct Answer: C

Q.23 In December 2023, which eminent agricultural economist from Kerala was conferred the
distinguished title of ISAE Fellow 2023 by the Indian Society of Agricultural Economics (ISAE)?
Ans A). Chanda Nimbkar B). Suman Sahai C). Dr. P Indira Devi D). Sulochana Gadgil
Correct Answer: C

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Q.24 Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the following?
‘Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to
apply these principles in making laws.’
Ans A). Article 40 B). Article 30 C). Article 35 D). Article 37
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Madhavpur Fair in Gujarat is a _______ day long event to celebrate Lord Krishna's marriage with Rukmani.
Ans A). four B). two C). five D). three
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Ahuja is a cleverest lawyer.
Ans A). clever B). most clever C). cleverer D). more clever
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Curse
Ans A). Criticise B). Abuse C). Praise D). Comment
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

She always wears dresses of _________ fashion.

Ans A). late B). the latter C). latest D). the latest
Correct Answer: D

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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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The discussion led by the scientist was very ___________.
Ans A). informative B). more informative C). information
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required,
select 'No substitution required'.
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Manisha had a great feeling for those who were junior than her.
Ans A). junior to B). junior of C). junior from D). No substitution required
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Wolves’ teeth are larger and strong than dog’s teeth.

Ans A). stronger B). more strong C). the stronger D). strongest
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Native' from the given sentence.
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Mr. Smith believes that various tribes are the indigenous habitants of various corners of the world; unlike his
contemporaries who have a viewpoint regarding an alien or foreign invasion.
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Ans A). Foreign B). Indigenous C). Alien D). Invasion

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Anticipate
Ans A). Predict B). Accuse C). doubt D). Conceal
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A few students have condemned the latest project of preparing teaching aids as a waste of money.
Ans A). Contradicted B). Doomed C). Applauded D). Consolidated
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Crocodile tears
Ans A). An irrevocable step B). ToTo
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of grief
Correct Answer: D
Q.11 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The magician performed a magnificant trick.

Ans A). magneficent B). magnificante C). magnificient D). magnificent
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Michael Jackson is known as the King of Pop. He ________ his own genre of music, Pop. His music is spreading its
influence and popularity ________ the world.
Ans A). dominates; around B). command; besides C). controls; beside D). presides; round
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A blue-eyed boy
Ans A). an unperceived observer B). a miser C). an unwelcome intruder D). one who is favourite
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Ceased' to fill in the blank.

He was _______ from his job because of his misconduct.

Ans A). terminated B). continued C). commenced D). progressed
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to complete the given sentence in the present perfect continuous tense.

The company ___________________ working towards achievements in curbing slackness and fostering development.
Ans A). have been B). are being C). is being D). has been
Correct Answer: D

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Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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The sharpshooter _________ dead a man-eating tiger after it allegedly killed nine people in the last few days.
Ans A). fixed B). threw C). shot D). killed

Q.17
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Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.
Correct Answer: C
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The reorganisation of daily life wrought by industrialisation had effects that weakened the material basis for the
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instietutions of the family and the community.

Ans A). instetusion B). instetuitions C). instetutions D). institutions
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Correct Answer: D
G

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If you don’t
find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
He missed the college bus / because he woke up / unpardonably lately in the morning.
B y

Ans A). because he woke up B). he missed the college bus C). no error D). unpardonably lately in the morning
Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.
at

The sceneries in Darjeeling are breathtaking.

Ans A). scenery in Darjeeling were B). sceneries in Darjeeling is C). sceneries in Darjeeling had been D). scenery in Darjeeling is
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Correct Answer: D

Q.20 One of the four words in bold in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The detectives uncovered a conspirasy to overthrow the government.

Ans A). conspirasy B). overthrow C). uncovered D). detectives
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Worldwide illiteracy rates have (1)_________ declined in the last few decades. One of the major reasons for this decline is the sharp
increase in literacy rates (2)_________ young women, which is a result of specific (3)_________ designed to increase educational
opportunities for girls. (4)_________, there are still an estimated 771 million illiterate adults in the world, about two-thirds of whom are
(5)_________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). thirdly B). wearily C). consequently D). consistently
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). between B). over C). among D). against
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

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Worldwide illiteracy rates have (1)_________ declined in the last few decades. One of the major reasons for this decline is the sharp
increase in literacy rates (2)_________ young women, which is a result of specific (3)_________ designed to increase educational

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opportunities for girls. (4)_________, there are still an estimated 771 million illiterate adults in the world, about two-thirds of whom are
(5)_________.
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SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

Ans A). campaigns B). companions C). camisole D). champions
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

opportunities for girls. (4)_________, there are still an estimated 771 million illiterate adults in the world, about two-thirds of whom are
B

(5)_________.

SubQuestion No : 24
hs

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

Ans A). Whenever B). Otherwise C). Thus D). However

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). man B). woman C). child D). women
Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 920 B). 1000 C). 960 D). 900
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 A shopkeeper sold the Refrigerator and the Geyser set together for ₹30,400, thereby making a profit of 25% on the
Refrigerator and 10% on the Geyser. By selling them together for ₹30,700, he would have made a 10% profit on the
Refrigerator and 25% on the Geyser. Now, if the Geyser is sold at 17% profit, then the selling price (in ₹) of the Geyser is:

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Ans A). 14,380 B). 12,130 C). 16,380 D). 17,510

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Correct Answer: C

Q.3
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Ans A). 10 : 5 : 9 B). 10 : 5 : 7 C). 5 : 10 : 9 D). 5 : 10 : 7
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 51.6 B). 50.6 C). 52.6 D). 49.6
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 A 735 m long train passes through a 225 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
Ans A). 54 km/h B). 66 km/h C). 72 km/h D). 82 km/h
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Correct Answer: C

Q.6
B y
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Ans A). 66 B). 42 C). 54 D). 35

Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 The ratio of the I class and II class AC train coach fares between two stations is 5 : 3, and that of the number of passengers
travelling between the two stations by I class and II classes AC coach is 3 : 10. If on a particular day ₹37,080 is collected
from passengers travelling between the two stations, then find the amount collected from second class AC coach
passengers.
Ans A). ₹24,720 B). ₹27,420 C). ₹20,247 D). ₹22,047
Correct Answer: A

Q.8
Find the ratio in which tomatoes worth ₹45/kg can be mixed with tomatoes
worth ₹60/kg, so that the mixture will be worth ₹54/kg.
Ans A). 3 : 7 B). 3 : 5 C). 2 : 3 D). 2 : 5
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 A batsman scores 152 runs in his 15th inning, which increases his average score by 5 runs. Find the average score per
inning of the batsman after the 15th innings.
Ans A). 85 B). 41 C). 77 D). 82
Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 A shopkeeper offers 38% discount on a certain item. He announces an additional 15% discount to a customer for paying
cash. A customer paid a cash amount of ₹2,108 for that item. What is the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A). 3,560 B). 3,800 C). 4,200 D). 4,000
Correct Answer: D

Q.11
In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix sugar at ₹30/kg and ₹32.5/kg so that
by selling the mixture at ₹34.1/kg, he may get 10% profit?
Ans A). 3 : 2 B). 5 : 4 C). 4 : 3 D). 2 : 1
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 The following table shows the marks obtained by five students in five different subjects. Study the table carefully and
answer the question that follows.
The maximum marks in each subject = 100.
Subject/Student A B C D E
Jacob 56 44 40 33 35
Arjun 90 94 62 86 74
Ashwin 66 72 64 84 92
Rashad 78 42 66 48 76
Neha 58 54 48 72 88

What is the difference between the total marks obtained by Ashwin in all subjects together and that of the total marks
obtained byNeha in all subjects together?
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 A well with an internal diameter of 8 m is dug to a depth of 12 m. The earth taken out of it is spread all around the well to a
width of 8 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m) of the embankment?

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Ans A). 1.0 B). 2.2 C). 1.5 D). 1.3
Correct Answer: C

Q.14
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The bar graph given below shows the earnings of three LIC agents (in rupees lakh) from LIC commission during the year
2018 to 2022. The total earnings of agent A is what per cent of the total earnings of agent C during the year 2020 to 2022?
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
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Ans A). 96.98% B). 91.38% C). 93.18% D). 98.13%

Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Simplify the following expression.

(5×5+5−5×5+5−5×5)+(5×5)÷5(2+3)
Ans A). 25 B). 10 C). 20 D). 5
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 2250 B). 6000 C). 4500 D). 9000
Correct Answer: C

Q.17

Ans A). 12 cm B). 9 cm C). 8 cm D). 7 cm

Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 Arun has taken some money as loan on simple interest for 6 years. The money lender levied interest at 4% per annum for
the first 2 years, at 8% per annum for the next 3 years and at 12% per annum for the period beyond 5 years. If Arun clears
his loan by paying ₹5,472, then what was the sum (in ₹) he had taken as loan?
Ans A). 3,800 B). 6,840 C). 3,040 D). 12,436
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 A shopkeeper sells an item at a profit of 25% and dishonestly uses a weight that is 30% less than the actual weight. Find his
total profit percentage.
Ans A). 23% B). 42% C). 78.57% D). 65.75%
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 A car covers the first 12 km distance at a speed of 30 km per hour, the next 15 km distance at a speed of 45 km/h and the
next 20 km distance at a speed of 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the car.
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Statements:
No bat is a wicket.
No wicket is a glove.

Conclusions:
(I) No bat is a glove.
(II) No wicket is a bat.

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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Both conclusions I and II follow. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: A

Q.2
ap
In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘1245’ and ‘OURS’ is coded as ‘4216’. What is the code for ‘Y’ in that
at
language?
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Ans A). 4 B). 6 C). 1 D). 5

Correct Answer: D

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
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RSP ,TQN ,VOL, XMJ, ?

Ans A). YKH B). AKH C). ZKH D). YLH
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Correct Answer: C
G

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
B

and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(2, 70, 82)

(26, 17, 53)

Ans A). (36, 42, 90)
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B). (79, 12, 141) C). (71, 78, 122) D). (54, 88, 152) Correct Answer: D

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘PORK’ is written as ‘7358’ and ‘CREW’ is written as ‘1693’. How is ‘R’ written in that code
language?
Ans A). 5 B). 6 C). 3 D). 9
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically
complete?

19 ,33, 21, 30 ,23 ,27, ?, 24 ,?

Ans A). 23, 25 B). 28, 25 C). 25, 27 D). 25, 26
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 QBON is related to UFSR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, FCLT is related to JGPX.
To which of the following is AOGS related, following the same logic?
Ans A). BQJW B). CQIU C). ERJV D). ESKW
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is sitting to
the immediate right of U and immediate left of S. S is sitting to the immediate left of T. Q is sitting to the immediate right of T
and immediate left of R. Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
Ans A). T B). U C). P D). S
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 5 is related to 120 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 24. To which of the following is 2 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 13 B). 7 C). 6 D). 11
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 GI23 is related to SU31 in a certain way. In the same way, MO56 is related to YA64. To which of the following is SU78 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). GE68 B). EG68 C). EG86 D). GE66
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
60 × 10 + 12 ÷ 4 − 16 = 74
Ans A). − and + B). ÷ and × C). + and × D). − and ×
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
84 – 112 × 8 + 15 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans A). 45 B). 63 C). 57 D). 53
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
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A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14
B
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.15 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some watches are belts.
Some belts are ties.

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Conclusions:
(I) Some watches are ties.
(II) Some belts are watches.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusion II follows
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C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Both conclusion I and II follow
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
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G
B y

Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

Q.18 U, V, W, X, Y, K and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .
Only two people live between W and X when counted from the left of X.U sits third to the left of K.V sits to the immediate
right of K.V sits second to the left of W.Y is not an immediate neighbour of U.
Who sits third to the right of A?
Ans A). U B). V C). W D). K
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘WOLF’ is coded as ‘4729’ and ‘FLEW’ is coded as ‘9254’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans A). 4 B). 9 C). 2 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

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Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Article states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and
institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem?
Ans A). 51A (a) B). 52 C). 14 D). 54 (b)
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Which of the following statements about phylum Arthropoda are correct?
A. Animals of Arthropoda have joint appendages.
B. They have compounds eyes.
C. These make up the majority of all animals on earth.

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D. The mode of reproduction in all Arthropods is vegetative.

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Ans A). Only C and D B). Only B, C and D C). Only A and C D). Only A, B and C
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 ap
Which of the following is the principal strategy adopted by National Literacy Mission for the eradication of illiteracy?
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Ans A). Total Literacy Campaign B). Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan C). Education Guarantee Scheme D). Alternative and Innovative Education
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Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The construction of Humayun's tomb was completed by:

Ans A). Zeenat Mahal B). Mah Chuchak Begum C). Rahmat Banu Begum D). Biga Begum
Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 The Patli Dun is associated with which physiographic division of India?
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Ans A). The Coastal Plains B). The Peninsular Plateau C). The Indian Desert D). The Himalayan Mountains
Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.6 Consider the following statements in the context of the Mughal Rule.
1. The Mansabdari System was introduced by Akbar in 1571.
2. The Second Battle of Panipat was fought in 1556.
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3. Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar was a contemporary of Babur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Ans A). Only 2 B). Both 1 and 2 C). Both 2 and 3 D). 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Who built Sudarshan lake in Junagarh?

Ans A). Skandgupta B). Chandra Gupta C). Pushyagupta D). Bhanugupta
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Which of the following dance categories is NOT considered for an award of the Sangeet Natak Akademi?
Ans A). Manipuri B). Vilasini Natyam C). Kuchipudi D). Kathak
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Which of the following personalities had the key role in fighting against the British East India Company in the Battle of Porto
Novo?
Ans A). Hyder Ali B). Maharaja Ranjit Singh C). Alamgir-II D). Gopala Nayaker
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 What is the primary function of the notochord in chordates?

Ans A). Locomotion B). Support C). Digestion D). Respiration

Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 Manipuri Raas Leela, a renowned form of classical dance, was created by:
Ans A). Birju Maharaj B). Siddhendra Yogi C). Sage Bharata D). Maharaja Bhagyachandra
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 In February 2023, UNICEF India announced the appointment of which celebrated Bollywood star as a National Ambassador
for Child Rights?
Ans A). Pankaj Tripathi B). Aamir Khan C). Pankaj Kapoor D). Ayushmann Khurrana
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Fuels that are derived from fossils are preserved only in which kind of rocks?
Ans A). Metamorphic rocks B). Volcanic rocks C). Plutonic rocks D). Sedimentary rocks
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the imbalanced chemical equation from the following.

Ans A). 10 KClO3 + 3 P4 → 3 P4O10 + 10 KCl B). 6 HClO4 + P4O10 → 4 H3PO4 + 6 Cl2O7 C). 3 CaCl2 + 2 Na3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6 NaCl
D). 3 Hg(OH)2 + 2 H3PO4 → Hg3(PO4)2 + 6 H2O
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Yashodhara Dalmia is the author of which famous book?

Ans A). Paintings in the Kangra Valley B). Ajanta C). The Painted World of the Warlis D). Indian Art
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Who among the following was appointed as the director-general in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation in February
2023?
Ans A). Ajay Kumar Bhalla B). Rajiv Gauba C). Vikram Dev Dutt D). Pramod Kumar Mishra
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Which of the following does NOT figure among the themes of 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav'?

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Ans A). Health@75 B). Ideas@75 C). Actions@75 D). Resolve@75
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 Which country hosted the Football World Cup, 2022?
Ans A). UAE B). Argentina C). France ap D). Qatar
Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Who explained the system of classifying musical instruments into Tata, Sushira, Avanaddha and Ghana in his treatise 'Natya
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Shastra' in the early 2nd century?

Ans A). Bharata Muni B). Bhairav C). Sarngadeva D). Swami Haridas
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 Which of the following statements is true about Micro Finance institutions?
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Ans A). Type of banking service provided to employed B). Service provided to High income people only
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C). Majority of microfinancing operations occur in developing countries D). Can provide jumbo loan
Correct Answer: C
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Q.21 What is the rank of India in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023?
B

Ans A). 115 B). 120 C). 105 D). 111

Correct Answer: D
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Q.22 In which year did India first participate in the Paralympic Games?
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Ans A). 1964 B). 1972 C). 1968 D). 1980

Correct Answer: C
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Q.23 Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and duties of the Attorney-General of India?
Ans A). Article 74 B). Article 80 C). Article 76 D). Article 81
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Which of following organisations sought to revive Vedic learning and combine it with modern education in the sciences?
Ans A). Arya Samaj B). Satyashodhak Samaj C). Brahmo Samaj D). Prarthana Samaj
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 In which state is the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known as ‘Dahiya’?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Himachal Pradesh C). Andhra Pradesh D). Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Nylon was among the first synthitic fibre made by man and is known for its toughness, strength and resistance to oil and
grease.
Ans A). toughness B). strength C). resistance D). synthitic
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement'.

The name, Khajuraho, has probably been derived from the word ‘Khajoor’, meaning date palm.
Ans A). be derived into B). derive at C). derives into D). No improvement
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

The robbers stabbed him by a sharp knife and he started bleeding profusely on the spot.
Ans A). The robbers stabbed her B). but he started bleeding C). profusely from the spot D). with a sharp knife
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Tom will _________ the document to the office tomorrow.

Ans A). mall B). meal C). mail D). male
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

You have spoilt / the little chance you / had at succeeding.

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Ans A). the little chance you B). had at succeeding. C). You have spoilt D). No error

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Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.
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The vital role played by women at home and in the struggle for freedom, advanced the case for female emancipation soon
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after the war was over.
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Ans A). freedom B). bondage C). utility D). objectivity

Correct Answer: A

Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
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That question is / much difficult / but this one is / very easy.

Ans A). That question is B). very easy. C). much difficult D). but thisone is
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Correct Answer: C
G

Q.8 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

B y

The magician's performance was (captivating) and held the audience spellbound.
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Ans A). Boring B). Fascinating C). Enchanting D). Gripping

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). B). C). D).

I went to watch a play with one of my friends. A famous poet wrote that poem. A dog likes sunlight. He resides near an university.

Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Thief B). Believe C). Recieve D). Relief
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I will not be able to ___________ my assignment in time.

Ans A). complete B). completes C). completed D). completing
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word.

His eloquent speech moved the audience to tears.

Ans A). Vernacular B). Inarticulate C). Angry D). Expressive
Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

The grapes taste sweetest.

Ans A). more sweeter B). sweeter C). sweet D). most sweeter
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The intersection of nature conservation and social justice is evident in efforts to ensure that marginalised communities and
other backward classes should have equal access to natural reserves.
Ans A). Manifest in actions to redesign B). Unclear in initiatives to safeguard C). apparent in endeavours to guarantee
D). obvious in attempts to recollect
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Her amicable nature made it easy for her to forge positive relationships.
Ans A). Sad B). Aggressive C). Friendly D). Attentive
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The play was shortened by the ___________ of two scenes.
Ans A). omission B). addition C). ommision D). insirtion
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

As 'brutal' is synonymous to 'harsh' , 'naive' is synonymous to ________.
Ans A). simple B). hospitable C). wise D). worldly
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

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Hornet's nest
Ans A). A difficult task B). A bee's nest C). A troublesome or hazardous situation D). A house built with great difficulty
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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The manager complained that Sheetal's email was not up to the standard for the company.
Ans A). up to the mark B). an uphill task C). up and doing D). under the nose
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No
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improvement required’.

Mukta requested Nikita to share the picture taken during the wedding.
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Ans A). will requests Nikita to share B). requesting Nikita to share C). requested Nikita for share D). No improvement required
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Correct Answer: D
B

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
at

Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
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lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). defer B). refer C). differ D). prefer
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). fattest B). largest C). broadest D). poorest
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 23

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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

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Ans A). Historically B). Abysmally C). Fanatically D). acrobatically
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension: ap
at
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
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larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
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1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.
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SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

Ans A). recipes B). records C). regiments D). residues

Correct Answer: B
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
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appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). relevance B). resistance C). residence D). remembrance
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The given table shows the number of students studying Computer Science Engineering and Data Structures from six
colleges.Study the table to answer the question that follows.

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What percentage of the students in college A5 study Data Structures out of the students studying CSE and DS?
Ans A). 42% B). 52% C). 46% D). 54%
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 In an election between two candidates, one person got 35% of the votes and lost by 6 votes. Assuming that there were no
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invalid votes, what was the total number of votes?

Ans A). 50 B). 30 C). 18 D). 20
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 A chair was sold for ₹8,601 after giving two successive discounts of 8.5% and 6%. Find the marked price.
B y

Ans A). ₹9,848 B). ₹10,000 C). ₹9,000 D). ₹9,612

Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 360 B). 460 C). 380 D). 420
at

Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 Sunita borrows ₹5,500 for 3 years at 6.5% per annum simple interest. She immediately lends it to Vedanshi at 9.3% per
annum simple interest for 3 years. Find her gain (in ₹) in the transaction per year.
Ans A). 154 B). 149 C). 157 D). 161
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 In a ration shop, there is a certain amount of cereals to distribute to 42 families for 15 days. If 48 kg of cereals can be
distributed to 30 families for 7 days, then the quantity of cereals already in the shop was:
Ans A). 96 kg B). 112 kg C). 144 kg D). 84 kg
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 In a circular race of 1100 m, P and Q start from the same point, at the same time and at speeds of 36 km/h and 63 km/h,
respectively. When will they meet again for the first time on the track if they are running in the opposite direction?
Ans A). 40 s B). 10 s C). 20 s D). 27 s
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans A). 51.4 B). 50.4 C). 52.4 D). 49.4
Correct Answer: B

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Q.9 How much water should be added to a 30 l mixture of milk and water, which currently has a ratio of 7 : 3, so that the
resultant mixture contains 40% water?
Ans A). 6 l B). 3 l C). 4.25 l D). 5 l
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1165 B). 1265 C). 1225 D). 1185
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Reeta buys 90 kg potatoes and sells them at a profit equal to the cost price of 40 kg potatoes.
Find her profit percentage.
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.12 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 35%?
Ans A). 0.75 B). 1.75 C). 2.75 D). 3.75
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 51.4 B). 52.4 C). 49.4 D). 50.4
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The LCM of 3,4 and 5 is:

Ans A). 20 B). 60 C). 30 D). 48
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 The bar graph shows the number of books published by a company in different years. In which year(s) the number of books
published is more than the average number of books published in the mentioned years?

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B y

Ans A). Only 2020 B). 2014, 2016, 2018 and 2020 C). 2016, 2018 and 2020 D). 2018 and 2020
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 The mean of five numbers is 55. If one of the numbers is excluded, the mean gets reduced by 5. Which of the following is the
excluded number?
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Ans A). 55 B). 65 C). 75 D). 50

Correct Answer: C

Q.17 If the total surface area of a hemisphere is 192π cm2, then the radius of the base of the hemisphere is:
Ans A). 64 cm B). 8 cm C). 16 cm D). 4 cm
Correct Answer: B

Q.18

Ans A). 92.4 B). 616 C). 4106.6 D). 95.2

Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 A cylindrical glass with a diameter of 20 cm is having the juice to a height of 9 cm. An ice cube of size 8 cm is amerced in it
completely. How much will the juice level rise in the glass? (Use π = 3.142 and answer correctly up to the nearest mm)
Ans A). 63 mm B). 17 mm C). 16 mm D). 163 mm
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 A motor car starts with a speed of 60 km/h and increases its speed after every two hours by 15 km/h. In how much time will
it cover a distance of 450 km?
Ans A). 5 hours B). 9 hours C). 6 hours D). 2 hours
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
62 − 36 + 18 ÷ 6 × 3 = ?

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Ans A). 27 B). 17 C). 62 D). 107
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘LEAD’ is coded as ‘4186’.
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language? ap
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Ans A). 8 B). 3 C). 4 D). 1
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Seven friends - Asha, Sreeja, Mamata, Ramya, Hema, Jaya, and Mohini - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre
(but not necessarily in the same order). Ramya is sitting fourth to the right of Asha. Mamata sits third to the left of Ramya.
Jaya has Sreeja and Mamata as immediate neighbours. Hema is sitting to the immediate right of Ramya.
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Who is sitting second to the left of Mohini?

Ans A). Hema B). Sreeja C). Asha D). Ramya
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Correct Answer: D
G

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
RJX, PNV, NRT, LVR ,?
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Ans A). JZQ B). KAP C). JZP D). KZP

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.6 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
hs

110 + 54 × 9 − 13 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans A). 130 B). 144 C). 114 D). 136
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
9, 45, 225, 1125, 5625, ?
Ans A). 4679 B). 2799 C). 7689 D). 28125
Correct Answer: D

Statements:
All Excels are Words.
All Words are PowerPoints.

Conclusions:
(I) All PowerPoints are Excels.
(II) At least some Words are Excels.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Both conclusion I and II follow C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Only conclusion I follows

Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 In a code language, 'PRETTY' is written as 'BIVGGK' and 'JOYFUL' is written as 'OLBUFQ'. How will 'EXOTIC' be written in
the same language?
Ans A). XBLGRV B). SCLGRV C). SBLGRV D). XCLGRV
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.11 35 is related to 105 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 51 is related to 153. To which of the following is 72
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 210 B). 212 C). 214 D). 216
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete

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the pattern.

ap
at
Pr
an

Ans
Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

G
B y

Q.13
hs
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘LINK’ is coded as ‘4175’ and ‘NICK’ is coded as ‘7419’. What is the code for ‘C’ in the given
language?
Ans A). 7 B). 1 C). 4 D). 9
Correct Answer: D

Statements:
All bats are mammals.
No mammal is a fish.

Conclusions:
(I) No bat is a fish.
(II) Some fishes are mammals.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Only conclusion (II) follows. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 EJIA is related to FKJB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZDCU is related to AEDV.
To which of the following is OTSK related, following the same logic?
Ans A). LTPU B). PULT C). PUTL D). PTLU
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 D, E, F, L, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). R sits
second to the right of D. L sits to the immediate left of D. T sits third to the left of L. F sits third to the left of S. Neither E nor
S is an immediate neighbour of R. What is the position of S with respect to R?
Ans A). Fourth to the left B). Third to the right C). Fifth to the right D). Second to the right
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
25, 77
28, 86
Ans A). 34, 104 B). 35, 103 C). 35, 104 D). 34, 103
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans

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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.20
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MIPL is related to OKRN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PLSO is related to
RNUQ. To which of the following is HDKG related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). FJMI B). JFIM C). FJIM D). JFMI
Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The official journey of 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav' commenced on:

Ans A). 15th August 2022 B). 14th April 2021 C). 12th March 2021 D). 14th August 2022 Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Rank the following states in ascending order, based on their population density, as per Census 2011.
B

Tripura, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland

Ans A). Meghalaya-Tripura-Nagaland-Manipur B). Nagaland-Manipur-Meghalaya-Tripura C). Meghalaya-Tripura-Manipur-Nagaland

D). Nagaland-Tripura-Manipur-Meghalaya
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 In which of the following states can the 'Loo' phenomenon be observed?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Goa C). Tamil Nadu D). Manipur
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Who is literate according to the Census of India?

Ans A). A person above 14 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.
B). A person above 5 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.
C). A person above 7 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.
D). A person above 18 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Which of the following awards and recognitions was NOT received by Vempati Chinna Satyam?
Ans A). Kalidas Samman B). Honorary doctorate C). Sangeet Natak Akadami Award D). Padma Shri
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 The East India Company lost all its administrative powers with the enforcement of ___________.
Ans A). The Regulating Act, 1773 B). The Charter Act of 1853 C). The Government of India Act, 1858 D). The Indian Councils Act, 1892

Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 A three-time Olympian, PT Usha broke the Asian Games record in four events (200 m, 400 m, 400 m hurdles and 4 × 400 m
relay) in ____________.
Ans A). New Delhi, 1982 B). Beijing, 1990 C). Seoul, 1986 D). Hiroshima, 1994
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 In which state of India is the Telaiya dam located?

Ans A). Bihar B). Jharkhand C). Madhya Pradesh D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the contingency fund of India?
Ans A). It is established under Article 267. B). It is issued on behalf of the President of India. C). It is for emergencies.
D). Allowances and emoluments of the President are charged under it.
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The autobiography of which of the following famous Indian musicians is titled ‘My Life, My Music’?
Ans A). Shivkumar Sharma B). Zakir Hussain C). Bismillah Khan D). Ravi Shankar
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 As of February 2023, who is the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways?
Ans A). Dharmendra Pradhan B). Mansukh Mandaviya C). Nitin Gadkari D). Ashwini Vaishnav
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Who does NOT fall under the executive of the Indian Union?
Ans A). Council of Ministers B). President C). Chief Justice of India D). Prime Minister
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Which of the following dances is performed in Goa during the festival Ganesh Chaturthi?
Ans A). Tarangmel B). Dhalo C). Fugdi D). Dhangar
Correct Answer: C

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Ans A). Frequency of ꞵ-rays emitted B). Frequency of X-rays emitted C). Frequency of γ-rays emitted D). Frequency of α-rays emitted
Correct Answe
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Q.15 At which Olympic games did India receive its first Olympic medal in a shooting event?
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Ans A). London 2012 B). Beijing 2008 C). Athens 2004 D). Tokyo 2022
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 When a river reaches a low lying plain, it continues erosion of soil as well as deposition and as a result of both these factors
another river channel develops and later it is detached from the main river forming a U-shaped lake; this is called:
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Ans A). a canal B). an estuary C). a gulf D). an oxbow lake
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Fa-Hsien, a Chinese Buddhist Pilgrim, began his journey back home (China) from ________.
Ans A). Bengal B). Prayag C). Taxila D). Arikamedu
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.18 When was the first-round table Conference started by the British Government in London?
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Ans A). November 1932 B). December 1931 C). November 1930 D). December 1929
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Which of the following is the role of fibre in the diet?

Ans A). Promoting digestion and bowel regularity B). Regulating body temperature C). Enhancing taste of food D). Providing quick energy

Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Lalita J Rao is associated with which of the following gharanas?

Ans A). Kirana gharana B). Jaipur gharana C). Agra gharana D). Benaras gharana
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which of the following is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution?

Ans A). Division of Powers B). single citizenship C). Written Constitution D). Bicameralism
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 'Rajatarangini', a vivid account of the kings of Kashmir, was composed by Kalhana in the ______ language.
Ans A). Arabic B). Urdu C). Sanskrit D). Persian
Correct Answer: C

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Q.23 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A with column-B?

Ans A). i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d B). i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a C). i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D). i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Sultan Ghari tomb is situated to west of the Qutub in Delhi is like a fortress within a walled enclosure with bastions on the
comers, with its ____________ grave chamber underground.
Ans A). squarish B). pentagonal C). rectangular D). octagonal
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 'The Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework 2.0' is to evaluate how many cities across India?
Ans A). 120 B). 32 C). 70 D). 100
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). B).
Alka bought new pair of shoes for the party. He was an honest engineer by profession.

C). Suhas has a younger brother and an elder sister. D).

Correct Answer: A
It was a huge zoo with an elephant enclosure.

Q.2 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
His remarks made the matter worse.

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Ans A). Added fuel to the fire B). Spilled the beans C). Made a splash D). Killed two birds with one stone
Correct Answer: A

Q.3
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The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The athletes / trained tirelessness / to prepare for / the upcoming competition.

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Ans A). to prepare for B). trained tirelessness C). The athletes D). the upcoming competition
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECT spelling in the given sentence.
Pleasee allow me to start.
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Ans A). Pleeasse B). Pleesse C). Please D). Pleasse

Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The storm caused extensive damage to homes, ___________ many families homeless.
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Ans A). to leave B). leave C). is left D). leaving

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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He is / an expert / in / an English literature.

Ans A). He is B). in C). an English literature D). an expert
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Grease someone's palm

Ans A). To flatter someone B). To beat someone C). To abuse someone D). To bribe someone
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The elusive moon peeked from behind the clouds, illuminating the earth with its gentle glow.
Ans A). glowing up the earth for B). empowering the earth via C). lighting up the earth with D). encouraging the earth with
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Admittance B). Admissible C). Admission D). Admited

Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

He was suspended from the party due to his suspiscious activities.

Ans A). Suspicius B). Suspitious C). Suspeceous D). Suspicious
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ambrosial
Ans A). Faithful B). Pleasing C). Vengeful D). Malodorous
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Frugal
Ans A). Cheap B). Profligate C). Thrifty D). Happy
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Those who have died cannot be brought back to life.

Ans A). Resurrect B). Retract C). Abstract D). Extract
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hermetic
Ans A). Intelligible B). Obnoxious C). Lucid D). Esoteric
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

she had garnered the information from various books.

Ans A). Criticised B). Implemented C). Dispersed ap D). Liberated
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.
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He was lying at / his bed when he / saw the snake entering / through the window.
Ans A). through the window B). his bed when he C). He way lying at D). saw the snake entering
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Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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She is learning / to play the guitar / to pursue her passion / for the music.
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Ans A). for the music. B). to play the guitar C). to pursue her passion D). She is learning
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

A raven, which you know is black as coal, was envious of the swan, because her feathers are as white as the purest snow.
hs

Ans A). feathers is a white as B). feathers were as white as C). feathers is as white as D). feathers was a white as
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vivid
Ans A). Varied B). Soothing C). Bright D). Dull
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Do you know the purpose of a fire extinguisher? It helps to put up with an engulfing fire, in case of an emergency.
Ans A). run away with B). turn over C). stand out D). put out
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Khashaba Jadhav was the independent India's first individual olympic medallist. There (1) _________ some firsts that stay in history
forever. The one held by Khashaba Jadhav is one such first. He might have been referred to as the Pocket Dynamo, but his deeds
dwarfed those of far (2) _________ athletes in his sport. Just a couple of years after India had become a Republic, Jadhav took part in
the 1952 Olympics at Helsinki, Finland. As funding sportspersons weren't really a (3) _________ for a country just finding its feet,
Jadhav’s trip to Helsinki was actually funded by the public. Jadhav however, (4) _________ his way to fame, becoming independent
India's first individual Olympic medal winner. He (5) _________ bronze in the bantamweight category.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.]
Ans A). is B). was C). were D). are
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.]
Ans A). smaller B). big C). small D). bigger
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.
Khashaba Jadhav was the independent India's first individual olympic medallist. There (1) _________ some firsts that stay in history
forever. The one held by Khashaba Jadhav is one such first. He might have been referred to as the Pocket Dynamo, but his deeds

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dwarfed those of far (2) _________ athletes in his sport. Just a couple of years after India had become a Republic, Jadhav took part in
the 1952 Olympics at Helsinki, Finland. As funding sportspersons weren't really a (3) _________ for a country just finding its feet,
Jadhav’s trip to Helsinki was actually funded by the public. Jadhav however, (4) _________ his way to fame, becoming independent
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India's first individual Olympic medal winner. He (5) _________ bronze in the bantamweight category.
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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.]
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Ans A). priority B). posteriority C). supremacy D). subsequence

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
Khashaba Jadhav was the independent India's first individual olympic medallist. There (1) _________ some firsts that stay in history
forever. The one held by Khashaba Jadhav is one such first. He might have been referred to as the Pocket Dynamo, but his deeds
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dwarfed those of far (2) _________ athletes in his sport. Just a couple of years after India had become a Republic, Jadhav took part in
B

the 1952 Olympics at Helsinki, Finland. As funding sportspersons weren't really a (3) _________ for a country just finding its feet,
Jadhav’s trip to Helsinki was actually funded by the public. Jadhav however, (4) _________ his way to fame, becoming independent
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India's first individual Olympic medal winner. He (5) _________ bronze in the bantamweight category.

SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.]

Ans A). buckled-under B). wrestled C). Lazed D). Surrendered

Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.]
Ans A). lulled B). constructed C). claimed D). forgave
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The sum of two natural numbers is 80 and their HCF is 10. How many such pairs of numbers are possible?
Ans A). 7 B). 3 C). 2 D). 8
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Ankur sells a box to Sunita earning a profit of 20%. Sunita sold it to Mohit with a 9% profit. Mohit sold it to Anjali for ₹24,525
thereby gaining 25%. At what price (in ₹) did Ankur buy the box?
Ans A). 20000 B). 17000 C). 15000 D). 12000
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Find the curved surface area and total surface area, respectively, of a cylinder of radius of base 28 m and height 40 m.
Ans A). 7000 m2 and 11,968 m2 B). 7040 m2 and 11,968 m2 C). 7040 m2 and 11,768 m2 D). 7040 m2 and 11,008 m2 Correct Answer: B

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Ans A). 9% B). 6% C). 4%
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Q.5 P and Q walk along a circular track in opposite directions. P completes two rounds of the track in 1 minute and Q completes
three rounds of the track in the same time. They start from the same point and walk for 2 minutes. How many times will they
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meet on the track between start time and end time?

Ans A). 10 B). 8 C). 9 D). 11
Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 At a health club, 56% of the members are women and 44% of the members are men. If the average age
of the men is 35 years and the average age of the women is 30 years, what is the average age (in years) of
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all the members?

Ans A). 33.5 B). 32.8 C). 32.2 D). 34.9

Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Anirudh bought an old mobile for ₹18,000 and spent 5% of the cost price on its repairing and then sold it for ₹21,735. Find
the profit percentage earned by Anirudh.
B

Ans A). C). D).

B). Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
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Ans A). 380 B). 460 C). 420 D). 360

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans A). 51.2 B). 49.2 C). 52.2 D). 50.2
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12.5% p.a. for 3 years and 6 months is ₹6,750 less than the principal. Find
out the principal.
Ans A). ₹10,650 B). ₹12,000 C). ₹10,000 D). ₹12,350
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 A metallic cone of radius 12 cm and height 36 cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 3 cm each. How many spheres
are there?
Ans A). 74 B). 58 C). 34 D). 48
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 50.6 B). 49.6 C). 52.6 D). 51.6
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13

Ans A). 30 B). 35 C). 25 D). 40

Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Find the average of all the numbers between 21 and 70 which are divisible by 3 and leave the remainder 2.
Ans A). 45.5 B). 65.5 C). 55.4 D). 55.6
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 The following bar graph shows the failure rates per thousand for different electric components:

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Failure rate of Printed circuit board is what percentage of Capacitors?

Ans A). 154% B). 65% C). 61% D). 165%
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Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
G

Ans A). 660 B). 700 C). 740 D). 640

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 A car travels at a uniform speed of 45 km/h for 210 km and then travels for 420 km at a uniform speed of 70 km/h. What is the
B

average speed of the car during the entire journey?

Ans
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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.18 The price of a pencil is increased by ₹2 this year and ₹2 in the previous year. The price of a pencil is now 30% more than the
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price in the previous to the previous year. How much is the price of the pencil now in ₹?
Ans A). 17.33 B). 13.33 C). 14.33 D). 15.33
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 A container has 72 litre of pure milk. One–third of the milk is replaced by water in the container. Again, one–third of the
mixture is extracted and an equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
Ans A). 4 : 5 B). 3 : 4 C). 1 : 2 D). 2 : 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.20

Ans A). 1232 m2 B). 1231 m2 C). 1233 m2 D). 1230 m2 Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
92 + 36 – 28 + (42 ÷ 3) – (22 × 4) = 10
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans A). 42 and 36 B). 3 and 4 C). 36 and 28 D). 22 and 28
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pens are razors.
All razors are creams.

Conclusions:
(I) All pens are creams.
(II) All creams are razors.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Both conclusion I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). E is sitting fourth to the left of F. A is sitting third to the left of E. G is sitting third to the right of D. C is sitting to the
immediate left of D. B is sitting second to the left of F.

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What is the position of F with respect to A?

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Ans A). Second to the left B). To the immediate left C). Fourth to the right D). To the immediate right
Correct Answer: B

Q.5
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In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

23, 230
46, 460
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Ans A). 84, 410 B). 35, 620 C). 24, 120 D). 52, 520
Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
DHC, GKF, JNI, MQL, ?
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Ans A). QTO B). QVQ C). PTO D). PUP

Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘GOLF’ is coded as ‘1286’ and ‘WOLF’ is coded as ‘6428’. What is the code for ‘W’ in that
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language?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 6 D). 8
Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
at
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Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘TIME’ is written as ‘3629’ and ‘BEND’ is written as ‘4582’. How is ‘E’ written in that code
language?
Ans A). 2 B). 9 C). 5 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 In a certain code language, 'BEST' is coded as '9715' and 'CLUB' is coded as '8762'.
What is the code for 'B' in the given code language?
Ans A). 6 B). 9 C). 2 D). 7
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

42, 48, 54, 60, 66, ?

Ans A). 70 B). 72 C). 71 D). 73
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between A and B when counted from the left of A. Both G and F are immediate neighbours of A. C sits immediate
to the left of E. Only 2 people sit between D and G when counted from the right of D. How many people sit between E and F
when counted from the left of F?
Ans A). 1 B). 3 C). 2 D). 4
Correct Answer: C

Q.14

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Ans
Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.15 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
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if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
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Statements:
B

Some gums are candies.

No candy is a ball.
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Conclusions:
(I) Atleast some candies are gums.
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(II) No ball is a gum.

Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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D). Only conclusion (I) follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 4 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 48. To which of the following is 7 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 23 B). 21 C). 28 D). 24
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 OGMI is related to LDJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SKQM is related to PHNJ.
To which of the following is VNTP related, following the same logic?
Ans A). KSMQ B). SKMQ C). SKQM D). KSQM
Correct Answer: C

Q.18

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
39 ÷ 3 − 11 + 45 × 17 = 171
Ans A). + and ×
Click ToB).Join
÷ and ×
TelegramC). -
− and + D). − and ×
Maths By Gagan Correct Answer: D
Pratap Sir
Q.20 OD 11 is related to KH 15 in a certain way. In the same way, ID 5 is related to EH 9. To which of the following is LK 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). HO −3 B). HO 7 C). HP 7 D). HO 3
Correct Answer: B

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Padma awardee Arjun Singh Dhurve is related to which of the following folk dances?
Ans A). Baiga B). Garba C). Chhau D). Raslila
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Which of the following awards is NOT conferred for excellence in dance?
Ans A). Sangeet Natak Akademi Award B). Kalidas Samman Award C). Lalit Kala Akademi Award D). Padma Shree Award
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 The ‘Rath Yatra’ festival of Puri is celebrated as the sacred journey of which of the following Hindu deities?
Ans A). Lord Brahma B). Lord Rama C). Lord Jagannath D). Lord Shiva
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Which of the following are the amounts of nutrients in a keto diet?
Ans A). Only taking high number of vitamins and minerals B). High protein and fat, carbohydrates in a low amount
C). High amount of fat, adequate protein and low carbohydrate D). High carbohydrate, proper amount of protein and low fat
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The element with atomic number 59 lies in which block of the Periodic Table?
Ans A). The s-block B). The f-block C). The p-block D). The d-block
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Which book has been authored by Rabindra Bharali?

Ans A). Indie 101 B). The Forgotten Forms of Hindustani Music C). The Music Room D). Music to my Ears
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Andal was one of the most famous women ___________ saints.

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Ans A). Sufi B). Alvar C). Nayanar D). Tantric
Correct Answer: B

Q.8
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The original non-metamorphic rock that undergoes profound physical or chemical changes leading to the formation of a
metamorphic rock is known as:
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Ans A). Regolith B). Bedrock C). Protolith D). Laterite
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty mentioned in the Indian constitution?
Ans A). To obey parents and discharge our family responsibilities
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B). To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, National Anthem
C). To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
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D). To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.10 Which bonding material was mainly used to join the stones or bricks of 'The Great Bath' of the Harappan Civilisation?
Ans A). Gypsum Mortar B). Mud Mortar C). Gauged Mortar D). Lime Mortar
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT a cropping season in India?

Ans A). Kharif B). Zaid C). Rabi D). Fang

Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 In January 2023, who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Bihar for the ninth time?
Ans A). Tejaswi Yadav B). Sushil Modi C). Nitish Kumar D). Lalu Yadav
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Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A with column-B?
Column-A (Name of Vitamin) Column-B (Deficiency Diseases)
i. Vitamin A a. Scurvy
ii. Vitamin D b. Beriberi
iii. Vitamin B1 c. Rickets
iv. Vitamin C d. Night Blindness

Ans A). i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b B). i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a C). i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D). i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Who is the chairman of the State Planning Board?

Ans A). Advocate General B). Governor C). Chief Minister D). Speaker
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Magnolia and Laurel trees are found in which type of forest in India?
Ans A). Tropical Thorn Forests B). Montane Forests C). Mangrove Forests D). Tropical Deciduous Forests
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the total population of India?
Ans A). 1.41 billion B). 98.6 billion C). 1.11 billion D). 1.21 billion
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 In 1927, where was the conference against colonial oppression and imperialism, in which Jawaharlal Nehru participated on
behalf of Indian National Congress, held?
Ans A). Bruges B). Leuven C). Antwerp D). Brussels
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Duare Ration Scheme, which has been deemed legally void by the high court, was launched by which of the following
states?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). West Bengal C). Madhya Pradesh D). Punjab
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Which reform was initiated by Lord Ripon for the welfare of labourers?
Ans A). The Financial Decentralisation B). The Factory Act C). The Vernacular Press Act D). The Educational Reforms
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The Ashokan inscriptions of Afghanistan are written in Aramaic and ________ scripts.
Ans A). Greek B). Devanagari C). Sharda D). Ol Chiki
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 As per Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest child sex ratio (in the age group of 0-6 years)?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Kerala C). Mizoram D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Who became the first Indian woman to be inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame?
Ans A). Purnima Rau B). Diana Edulji C). Mithali Raj D). Jhulan Goswami
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 How many gold medals did Maharashtra win to top the medal tally at the 37th National Games event held in Goa?
Ans A). 80 B). 69 C). 79 D). 72
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Who among the following personalities from the Carnatic Music correctly represent the ‘Trinity of Carnatic Music'?
Ans A). Purandardas, Annamacharya and Tyagaraja B). Manambuchavadi Venkatasubbayyar, Tyagaraja and Muthuswami Dikshitar
C). MS Subbalakshmi, DK Pattammal and ML Vasanthakumari D). Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri
Correct Answer: D

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Q.25 Revenue account includes items related to the _______.
Ans A). previous financial year B). next financial year C). all of the given options D). current financial year
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
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Select the correct alternative.

The speech you made today was sillier and irrelevant.
Ans A). silliest B). silly C). most silly D). more silly
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Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
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substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

She showed this plant and talked about it’s medicinal properties.
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Ans A). its medicinal properties B). their medical properties C). it’s medical proprieties D). it's medical properties
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

B
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Diligent
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Ans A). Lazy B). Industrious C). Noisy D). Positive

Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the given word.

Merciful
Ans A). Cunning B). Mild C). Cruel D). Magical
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The given sentence is divided into three segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. If there
is no error, select ‘No error’.
She learnt / how to play a piano / when she was in Class 6th.
Ans A). when she was in Class 6th. B). No error C). She learnt D). how to play a piano
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'isolated' from the given sentence.

A Greek mythological story says that Echo was the most beautiful nymph who lived in the lovely and lonely mountains of
Greece and is believed to be garrulous too.
Ans A). Garrulous B). Lonely C). Beautiful D). Lovely
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

She always wears a bizzare combination of clothes.

Ans A). Bizarre B). Bizaar C). Bizzar D). Bizare
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The act of transferring one's authority to another

Ans A). Mediary B). Agency C). Assignee D). Delegation
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

“It’s really __________ to incorporate changes at the last minute,” she said.
Ans A). difficulty B). difficulties C). difficult D). most difficult
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Despite the setbacks, the team decided to persevere and keep working on the project, believing it could be a _______ for
their company.
Ans A). game-changer B). beat around the bush C). needle in a haystack D). wild goose chase
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

The judge declared that the red car went ___________ than the blue car.
Ans A). more far B). farther C). far D). farthest
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

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It is worth noting that the possible from him being voted as the class monitor is next to zero.

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Ans A). possibility at him B). possibly of him C). possibility of him D). possible of him
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 ap
Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the highlighted words in the given sentence.
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His sudden departure left us in a difficult situation; it was like he suddenly took away important support from us.
Ans A). pulled the rug out B). hit the nail on the head C). got his act together D). hit the sack
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Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans A). Ocassion B). Acommodate C). Embarrassment D). Recieve

Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

An axe to grind
G

Ans A). Bitterly hostile B). To tackle a problem in a bold and direct fashion C). To make a supreme effort
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D). To have a selfish reason that influences the actions

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B
Necessary Cuorse Consider Personal
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Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. One of them contains an error. Select the segment that
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contains the error from the given options.

She has been speaking / to him on / the subject / many times.
Ans A). She has been speaking B). to him on C). many times D). the subject
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'yelling' in the given sentence.

The shouting and exclaiming gestures of Smita led to the whispering regarding her behaviour, and everyone in the party
started monitoring her.
Ans A). whispering B). monitoring C). shouting D). exclaiming
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in simple future tense form.

I loved.
Ans A). I will love. B). I had loved. C). I love. D). I shall be loving.
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Evasive
Ans A). Obscure B). Elusive C). Truthful D). Chaotic
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In a small village, lived a milkmaid ______1______ sold the milk that she ____2_____ from her cows. She _____3_____ carry the
milk in a big mud pitcher. One day, as she was walking _____4_____ the big pitcher full of milk on her head, she started to imagine all
the things she wished to do with the money she would _____5______ from selling the milk.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). whose B). which C). who D). that
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). bought B). brought C). got D). drank
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23

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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

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Ans A). should B). will C). can D). would
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
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Ans A). with B). on C). in D). by

Correct Answer: A
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

the things she wished to do with the money she would _____5______ from selling the milk.

SubQuestion No : 25
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). catch B). dig C). earn D). throw

Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The marked price of an item is 50% more than its cost price. The shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 10% and
15%. What is his profit percentage?
Ans A). 15% B). 15.75% C). 12.75% D). 14.75%
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 40% and its height is increased by 75%, its volume will be decreased
by:

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Ans A). 65% B). 57% C). 37% D). 35%

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Correct Answer: C

Q.3 The average of 11 consecutive numbers is 30. The smallest number among these is:
Ans A). 25 B). 28 C). 18 ap D). 12
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
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off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 25%?

Ans A). 3.73 B). 2.73 C). 4.73 D). 5.73
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5
In how many years will ₹4,000 invested at the rate of 18% per annum
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simple interest amounts to ₹5,800?

Ans A). 2 B). 2.5 C). 3 D). 3.5

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.6 Express 29.5% as a ratio in the simplest form.

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
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Ans A). 580 B). 680 C). 640 D). 600

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 If 5 + x, 2x + 7, 6x + 9 and y are in proportion when x = 2,then find the value of y.

Ans A). 45 B). 28 C). 33 D). 42
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 320 B). 360 C). 280 D). 260
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 An item was sold for ₹40 with a profit of 15%. If it were sold for ₹36, then what would have been the percentage of profit or
loss? (rounded off to 1 decimal places).
Ans A). Profit 4.7% B). Loss 4.5% C). Loss 3.7% D). Profit 3.5%
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 On a circular race track of 2500 m, Sahil and Reena are running in the same direction at speeds of 27 km/h and 45 km/h,
respectively. After how much time will they meet each other for the first time?
Ans A). 450 seconds B). 500 seconds C). 480 seconds D). 530 seconds
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Three cubes of sides 1 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm are melted to form a new cube. Find one-fourth of the surface area of the new
cube.
Ans A). 111.5 cm2 B). 121.5 cm2 C). 101.5 cm2 D). 131.5 cm2 Correct Answer: B

Q.13 The average of 7 numbers is 10.8. If the average of the first three be 10.5 and that of the last three is 11.4, find the value of
the middle number.
Ans A). 9.5 B). 9.9 C). 9.8 D). 9.7
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The following bar graph shows the export and import of goods (in lakh numbers) of a company in consecutive years 2018 to
2022. What will be the growth percentage for imports from 2018 to 2021? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

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Ans A). 83.33% B). 88.53% C). 94.63% D). 76.53%
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and its successive number would be: ap
at
Ans B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
A).
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Q.16 The lengths of two sides of a parallelogram are 6 cm and 20 cm. What is the sum of the squares of the diagonals of the
parallelogram (in cm2 )?
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Ans A). 728 B). 782 C). 872 D). 800

Correct Answer: C
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Q.17
B y
hs
at
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Ans A). 267 B). 287 C). 217 D). 317

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The average of 10 observations is 46. It was realised later that an observation was misread as 42 in place of 142. Find the
correct average.
Ans A). 54 B). 45 C). 65 D). 56
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Two trains of lengths 108 metre and 112 metre are running at speeds of 45 km/h and 54 km/h, respectively, towards each
other on parallel tracks. In how many seconds will they cross each other?
Ans A). 8 seconds B). 10 seconds C). 12 seconds D). 9 seconds
Correct Answer: A

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Q.20 The average age of 6 children and their father is 13 years, and this average is reduced by 4 years if the father is excluded.
How old is the father?
Ans A). 38 years B). 41 years C). 37 years D). 42 years
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

BCD, FGH, JKL, NOP, ?

Ans A). QSR B). QRS C). RQS D). RST
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘ORANGE’ is written as ‘LIZMTV’ and ‘PURPLE’ is written as ‘KFIKOV’. What is the code for
‘MAGENTA’ in the given code language?
Ans A). NZTVMGZ B). NZSVMGZ C). NZTVMHZ D). NZTVNGZ
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
263, 268, 278, 293, 313, ?
Ans A). 340 B). 338 C). 339 D). 341
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

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85, 75

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Ans A). 66, 56 B). 54, 52 C). 36, 32 D). 42, 31
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 ap
In a certain code language, ‘she can sing’ is written as ‘dq tk dp’ and ‘sing with me’ is writtenas ‘az dq js’. How is ‘sing’
writtenin the given language?
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Ans A). tk B). dq C). dp D). az
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Correct Answer: B

Q.6 S, U, B, J, E, C and T are sitting around a circular table facing the center (but not necessarily in the same order). C is sitting
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to the immediate right of T. U is an immediate neighbour of both T and E. Only one person is sitting between C and S when
counted from the right of C. B is sitting to the immediate left of E. Who are the immediate neighbours of J?
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Ans A). U and B B). S and E C). S and C D). B and E

Correct Answer: C
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logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:
Some metres are litres.
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No litre is a gram.
Conclusions
at

(I) Some grams are not metres

(II) All grams being metres is a possibility.
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Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

17 – 9 + 20 × 4 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans A). 15 B). 26 C). 1 D). 20
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘rose are similar’ is written as ‘ki ko ku’ and ‘rose has thorns’ is coded as ‘ke ki ka’. How is ‘rose’
coded in that language?
Ans A). ku B). ko C). ki D). ka
Correct Answer: C

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Q.10 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some books are notes.
All notes are copies.

Conclusions:
(I) Some books are copies.
(II) No books is copies.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 AS 9 is related to UU 2 in a certain way. In the same way, BT 6 is related to VV −1. To which of the following is HG 9 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). BG −2 B). AI 2 C). AJ 2 D). BI 2
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Si
Ans
A). B). C).
ap D). Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
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the pattern.
an
ag
G
y

Ans
Correct Answer: D
B
hs

A). B). C). D).

at
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Q.14 TOVR is related to UPWS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QLSO is related to
RMTP. To which of the following is NIPL related following the same logic?
Ans A). OJQM B). OJMQ C). JOMQ D). JOQM
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 23 is related to 62 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 37 is related to 104. To which ofthe following is 19
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 42 B). 57 C). 50 D). 38
Correct Answer: C

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Q.16

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). D).
B). C).

Q.17 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
39 + 3 ÷ 12 − 33 × 11 =?
Ans A). 5 B). 3 C). 4 D). 6
Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order),

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having their breakfast. U is sitting exactly between Q and S and is third to the right of T. R is sitting to the immediate left of
S. Who is the immediate neighbour of both P and R?
Ans A). S B). Q C). T
ap D). U
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘written on paper’ is written as ‘ma rc gp’ and ‘paper and pen’ is writtenas ‘hk ma bo’. How will
‘paper’ be writtenin that language?
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Ans A). hk B). gp C). bo D). ma

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
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G
B y
hs
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Ans
Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the author of the autobiography 'Lone Fox Dancing: My Autobiography'?
Ans A). Khushwant Singh B). Brij Mohan Kaul C). Ruskin Bond D). John Dalvi
Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 In which of the following years did the battle of Plassey take place?
Ans A). 1776 B). 1787 C). 1796 D). 1757
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma is associated with which of the following dances?
Ans A). Odissi B). Kathakali C). Kuchipudi D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 _________ was/were the mascot(s) of the Women’s Asian Hockey Champions Trophy in 2023.
Ans A). Hansa B). Juhi C). Blaze and Tonk D). Yashi
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Sanchi stupa was rediscovered in the year ________ by General Henry Taylor.
Ans A). 1819 B). 1818 C). 1817 D). 1816
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 In November 2023, who was appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner of India?
Ans A). Heeralal Samariya B). Randeep Guleria C). Rajiv Gauba D). Arvind Subramanian
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Stunted growth, which is common in children growing up in extreme poverty, is a sure sign of ____________.
Ans A). Lack of Clothing B). Sleep Deprivation C). Undernutrition D). Lack of Housing
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Which Indian actress from the following, is also a popular dancer and received the Smita Patil Memorial award for her role in
the movie Damini?
Ans A). Madhuri Dixit B). Jaya Prada C). Rekha D). Meenakshi Seshadri
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 In which of the following cities was the headquarters of Theosophical Society established in British India?

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Ans A). Ayanavaram B). Adyar C). Ashok Nagar D). Alandur
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 ap
If the server manages to land a legal serve and the receiver is unable to return the ball, it is known as an ace and the server
gets the point. Which of the following sport is referred here?
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Ans A). Tennis B). Wrestling C). Boxing D). Shooting
Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 At which of the following places is the Lalbagh Flower Show organised, where thousands of flower varieties are put on
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display in different forms with a particular theme (which changes every year) during the exhibition?
Ans A). Patna B). Hyderabad C). Patiala D). Bengaluru
Correct Answer: D
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Q.12 According to Census of India 2011, which is the largest religious community in India?
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Ans A). Christians B). Muslims C). Hindus D). Sikhs

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.13 The Narora ________ Power Station is located in Uttar Pradesh.

Ans A). Natural Gas B). Wind C). Atomic D). Thermal
Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 Which of the following Union Territories of India marks the lowest poverty in National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A
Progress Review 2023?
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Ans A). Puducherry B). Lakshdweep C). Delhi D). Chandigarh

Correct Answer: A

Q.15 To which of the following classes of compounds does cyclohexane belong?

Ans A). Non-benzenoid aromatic compound B). Heterocyclic compound C). Benzenoid aromatic compound D). Alicyclic compound

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Groundwater is an important source of water. The top level of the groundwater layer is called:
Ans A). sea level B). water table C). underground water D). well
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Women's Reservation Bill 2023 [The Constitution (One Hundred Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023] was introduced in
Lok Sabha on __________________.
Ans A). 20 Sep 2023 B). 22 Sep 2023 C). 21 Sep 2023 D). 19 Sep 2023
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution mentions about the relations between the Union and the States?
Ans A). Part VIII B). Part XI C). Part X D). Part VII
Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 Where of the following was Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s Home Rule Movement active?
Ans A). Bihar B). Maharashtra C). Madras D). Punjab
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 When did Bindusara ascend the Maurya throne?

Ans A). 297 BCE B). 299 BCE C). 321 BCE D). 301 BCE
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT a service of micro finance institution?

Ans A). Micro saving B). Micro deposit C). Micro loan D). Micro insurance
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 Which Hindustani classical musician is credited with popularising the Sarangi as a solo classical instrument?
Ans A). Pandit Jnan Prakash Ghosh B). Pandit Ravi Shankar C). Pandit Ram Narayan D). Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the promotion of international peace and security?
Ans A). Article 47 B). Article 44 C). Article 51 D). Article 49
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 The ‘Mangla’ oil field is located in which district of Rajasthan?

Ans A). Kota B). Jaipur C). Bharatpur D). Barmer
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 By what name is the species of Scaphopoda Mollusca 'Dentalium' commonly known?
Ans A). Tusk shells B). Heart clam C). Head foot D). Duck mussel
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She had a ______ for creating beautiful artwork.

Ans A). mode B). post C). trigger
ap D). talent
Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.

Reading between the lines

Ans A). Understanding a deeper or hidden meaning B). Avoiding reading and engaging in gossips C). Taking things literally D). Reading a book
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Correct Answer: A
G

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Meticulous
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Ans A). Negligent B). Precise C). Careless D). Random

Correct Answer: B
B
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The sudden plot twist in the story added an element of __________ that kept readers on the edge of their seats.
at

Ans A). ambiguity B). redundancy C). monotony D). predictability

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The soldiers / sacrifice their lives / to guarding / the nation and its boundaries.
Ans A). The soldiers B). the nation and its boundaries C). to guarding D). sacrifice their lives
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Belligerent B). Eficcient C). Tournament D). Parliament
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
One who is a newcomer
Ans A). Neophyte B). Polyglot C). Narcissist D). Nepotist
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

The teacher commended the student for his (diligent) efforts.
Ans A). Lazy B). Hardworking C). Industrious D). Conscientious
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
She is an epitome of grace.
Ans A). Example B). Admirer C). Believer D). Destroyer
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The dog / eager wagged / its tail when / it saw its owner.
Ans A). The dog B). it saw its owner C). eager wagged D). its tail when
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
Roma was the dearest child of her parents.
Ans A). At sixes and sevens with her parents B). The apple of her parents’ eyes C). The star of her parents’ eyes
D). The body and soul of her parents
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans A). The librarian told the childern to return their books by Fryday. B). The librarian told the children to return their books by Friday.
C). The libraian told the childrean to return their books by Friday. D). The liberian told the childrean to return their boooks by Friday.

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
The ________(sarcastic) comments by her husband made her feel uncomfortable, and she decided to walk out of the
relationship.
Ans A). gracious B). ruinous C). ambiguous D). harmonious
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Change the following into superlative degree.

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Si
She is taller than other girls in the class.
Ans A). No other girl in the class is as tall as she. B). In the class she is taller than other girls. C). She is tall girl in the class.
D). She is the tallest girl in the class. ap Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
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The 100-year-old banyan was blown off in the storm last night.
Ans A). was blown off B). The 100-year-old banyan C). last night D). in the storm
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.
ag

According to Mr. Sharma / the news have come / as another blow / to the family members.
Ans A). the news have come B). as another blow C). According to Mr. Sharma D). to the family members
G

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Majority of communication satelites are placed in geostationary orbits around the earth, which means that their speed
matches the rate of its rotation.
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Ans A). Satelites B). Communication C). Rotation D). Geostationary

Correct Answer: A
at
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The speaker delivered an engaging speech that inspired the audience.

Ans A). dreary B). important C). captivating D). unnecessary
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The teacher called up the class due to the sudden snowstorm.

Ans A). called off the class B). called out the class C). called on the class D). called in the class
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

Meerut is farthest from Delhi.

Ans A). farther B). far C). more farther D). most farthest
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Despite her background role in the past, Ms Navalnaya has always been a crucial supporter of (1)....... husband and was instrumental
in getting him out of Russia for (2)....... treatment when he was poisoned with Novichok nerve agent in 2020. She has been (3)...........
as the 'First Lady' of the Russian opposition. And Alexei said himself that he could not continue his increasingly desperate and one-
sided fight against the Kremlin without her. Their very public love story and family life - they have two children - (4)......... seen as an
inspiration for their supporters. Yulia Ambrosimova was born in Moscow in 1976, daughter of the respected scientist Boris
Ambrosimov. As economics graduate, she had a career in banking but (5)........ her job to bring up their two children when Alexei rose
to prominence as an opposition politician.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). her B). their C). hers D). them
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22

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Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

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Ans A). slow B). crazy C). urgent D). interesting
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

sided fight against the Kremlin without her. Their very public love story and family life - they have two children - (4)......... seen as an
inspiration for their supporters. Yulia Ambrosimova was born in Moscow in 1976, daughter of the respected scientist Boris
ag

Ambrosimov. As economics graduate, she had a career in banking but (5)........ her job to bring up their two children when Alexei rose
to prominence as an opposition politician.
G

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
B y

Ans A). described B). detected C). deleted D). changed

Correct Answer: A
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). is been B). has been C). was being D). will been
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). keep back B). broke down C). gave up D). brought about
Correct Answer: C

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ap
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Pr
an
ag
G
B y
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at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q
.
1

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 In a math exam, two students scored 95, six students scored 90, three students scored 80, and one student scored 50. What
was the average score of the class?
Ans A). 85 B). 82 C). 96.25 D). 78.75
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 The diameter of a hollow hemisphere is 30 cm. Water is filled in it up to its brim. When spherical lead shots each of radius
0.75 cm are dropped into the hemisphere, two-fifth of the water flows out. How many lead shots were dropped into the
hemisphere?
Ans A). 1575 B). 2250 C). 1600 D). 1380
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 The following bar graph represents the flow of funds of XYZ India Pvt. Ltd from 2015-2020. Calculate the percentage of

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average rate (approx.) of the increase in funds from 2015-2017.

Si
ap
at
Pr
an
ag

Ans A). 16% B). 15% C). 32% D). 30%

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.5 The radii of the bases of two cylinders and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3 and 9 : 8, respectively. Find the ratio of their
curved surface areas.
Ans A). 3 : 2 B). 4 : 5 C). 2 : 3 D). 5 : 6
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.6 A grocer wishes to sell a mixture of two varieties of rice worth ₹48 per kg. In what ratio must he mix the rice to reach this
selling price when the cost of one variety of rice is ₹42 per kg and the other is ₹60 per kg?
Ans A). 1 : 2 B). 2 : 1 C). 3 : 2 D). 2 : 3
hs

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
at

off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?

Ans A). 6.64 B). 3.64 C). 5.64 D). 4.64
Correct Answer: B
M

Q.8 In a circular race of 1 km, two persons X and Y start with the speed of 9 km/h and 18 km/h, respectively, at the same time
from the same point. When will they meet for the first time at the starting point when running in the same direction?
Ans A). 400 sec B). 360 sec C). 180 sec D). 240 sec
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Two athletes X and Y are jogging on a circular path whose circumference is 500 m. Athlete X jogs at a speed of 18 km/h and
Y jog at 9 km/h, jogging in opposite directions. The time at which they will meet for the first time is:
Ans A). 66.66 s B). 50 s C). 200 s D). 27.77 s
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The money invested by Gopal at simple interest amounts to ₹16,150 in 3 years and to ₹16,540 in 4 years. What was the
principal amount invested by him?
Ans A). ₹11,150 B). ₹16,150 C). ₹18,150 D). ₹14,980
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Refer to the following data table and answer the question. The maximum marks for each subject is 100.
Subjects Marks Scored
Math 83
Science 51
Hindi 68
English 62
Sanskrit 71

Seven marks are to be deducted from each subject because of poor attendance. What will be the net average marks scored
by the student?
Ans A). 67 B). 56 C). 60 D). 65
Correct Answer: C
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Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 375 B). 500 C). 800 D). 750
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 In the first 24 matches, a cricket player averages 60 runs. The overall average for all 32 matches is 80. Determine the
average for the last 8 matches.
Ans A). 140 B). 110 C). 120 D). 130
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 A vendor bought candies at ₹5 each. At what price must he sell to make 20% profit?
Ans B). C). D).
A). Correct Answer: A

Q.15

Ans A). 182 B). 137 C). 152 D). 91

Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Arjun mixed three different oils to form a mixture costing ₹25 per litre. The ratio of the three varieties of oil was 1 : 5 : 2.
What is the cost (per litre in ₹) of the second variety if the cost per litre of the first and third varieties was ₹20 and ₹30,
respectively?
Ans A). 25 B). 28 C). 26 D). 24
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 240 B). 200 C). 160 D). 140
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 A man’s working hours per day were increased by 10% and his wages per hour were increased by 5%. By how much per
cent were his daily earnings increased?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
9
Ans A). 10 B). 12 C). 3 D). 8

Q.20

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Ans A). 1260 B). 360 C). 105 D). 1155
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
ap
at
46, 44, 40, 38, 34, 32, ?
Ans A). 26 B). 28 C). 30 D). 24
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 In a code language, 'ZHBN' is coded as ‘BEFI’ and 'LFWJ' is coded as ‘NCAE’. How will 'HVDK' be coded in that language?
Ans A). KSIF B). KTJD C). JSHF D). JTHD
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.3 VOAH is related to YPBK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, RGDS is related to
UHEV. To which of the following is IBXC related, following the same logic?
ag

Ans A). MDYG B). NEZF C). LCYF D). KCZD

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.4 Six employees Dhiraj, Roshan, Satish, Pawan, Tarun and Niraj are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Satish is sitting to the immediate right of Pawan. Niraj is sitting second to the left of Satish.
Tarun is sitting to the immediate left of Niraj. Only Tarun is sitting between Niraj and Roshan. Who is sitting between Satish
and Roshan?
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Ans A). Pawan B). Niraj C). Dhiraj D). Tarun

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.5 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.
hs
at
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.6 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .
Only C sits between G and E. E sits third to the left of F. D sits to the immediate left of F. B is not an immediate neighbour of
E.
Who sits second to the right of A?
Ans A). D B). C C). F D). B
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘BUSY’ is coded as ‘8642’ and ‘SIDE’ is coded as ‘7536’.What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 7 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘i am infinite’ is written as ‘la ma ra’ and ‘universe is infinite’ is written as ‘ra ba ta’. How is
‘infinite’ written in the given code language?
Ans A). ra B). la C). ma D). ba
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 TVRM is related to VUPN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ROEP is related to
TNCQ. To which of the following is KOCB related, following the same logic?
Ans A). NMAC B). MNAC C). MNBC D). NMBC
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All puppies are dogs.
All dogs are animals.
Conclusions:
I. All animals are puppies.
II. Some dogs are not puppies.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion I follows

Correct Answer: B

Q.11 In a code language, 'JSCQ' is coded as ‘MNJH’ and 'BYTE' is coded as ‘ETAV’. How will 'SEWX' be coded in that language?
Ans A). VZDO B). VXDM C). WXEM D). WZEO
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 10 is related to 6 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 8. To which of the following is 24 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 16 B). 15 C). 11 D). 13
Correct Answer: D

Statements:
Some mugs are cups.
No paper is a mug.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cups are mugs.
(II) No paper is a cup.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(38, 31, 47)

(42, 35, 51) ap
at
Ans A). (33, 24, 30) B). (29, 21, 39) C). (54, 47, 63) D). (46, 40, 49)
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

24 × 12 – 5 ÷ 2 + 7 = ?
an

Ans A). 3 B). 8 C). 5 D). 7

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
ag

25 − 63 ÷ 3 + 7 × 5 = 11
Ans A). − and × B). + and ÷ C). + and − D). ÷ and −
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

DEF, JKL, PQR, VWX, ?

Ans A). YZB B). UWZ C). ZBE D). BCD

Correct Answer: D

Q.18
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at
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Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Thermohaline Circulation directly influences which of the following crucial environmental factors all over the world?
Ans A). Natural resources B). The climate C). Pollution in the air D). The landforms
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Name the social reformer of Bengal who played crucial role in the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act 1856.
Ans A). Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar B). Rabindranath Tagore C). Satyendra Nath Bose D). Swami Vivekananda
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Teejan Bai is associated with which of the following dances?

Ans A). Bagurumba B). Garba C). Jhumar D). Pandvani
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Several biological processes are catalysed by enzymes. Digestive enzymes are present in which part of the cell?
Ans A). Ribosome B). Golgi complex C). Mitochondria D). Lysosomes
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 What is the name of the process of organic matter being broken down into simpler compounds by decomposers?

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Ans A). Decomposition B). Photosynthesis C). Respiration D). Fermentation
Correct Answer: A

Si
Q.6 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Swaran Singh Committee?
Ans A). The committee was established during Indira Gandhi's Government
B). The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act was based on its recommendations.
D). The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976. ap
C). It suggested nine items as duties of the citizens.

Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Chip, Condor, Duff and Driver are some of the terms used in ________.
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Ans A). Horse Polo B). Golf C). Chess D). Swimming
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which ruler succeeded Chandragupta Maurya in 297 BCE?

Ans A). Kumaragupta B). Bindusara C). Ashoka D). Kanishka

Correct Answer: B

Q.9 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the highest sex ratio?
ag

Ans A). Andhra Pradesh B). Karnataka C). Tamil Nadu D). Kerala
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.10 In 2023, the Government of India proposed 'Amrit Dharohar Scheme' to be implemented over the next _______________ to
encourage optimal use of wetlands and enhance bio-diversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism opportunities and income
generation for local communities.
y

Ans A). Seven Years B). Two Years C). Three Years D). Five Years
B

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 In which of the following books has the author described the horrors of the holocaust and the Second World War?
hs

Ans A). The Diary of a young girl B). I know why the caged bird sings C). Dreams from my father D). Long walk to freedom
Correct Answer: A
at

Q.12 Who among the following received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award 2022 for Kuchipudi dance?
Ans A). Kumkum Lal B). Makhan Chandra Borah C). Charan Girdhar Chand D). Smita Rajeshbhai Shastri
Correct Answer: D
M

Q.13 Among the following Para athletes, which athlete is associated with the High Jump event?
Ans A). Avani Lekhara B). Deepa Malik C). Ajeet Singh Yadav D). Mariyappan Thangavelu
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 M Balamuralikrishna was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1991 for which of the following fields?
Ans A). Hindustani music B). Jazz music C). Carnatic music D). Folk music
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 The Union Territory of Puducherry is located in which of the following river basins?
Ans A). Yamuna B). Kaveri C). Mahanadi D). Karishna
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.13 g of water after complete combustion. The percentage composition of hydrogen is
_____.
Ans A). 11.11% B). 52.00% C). 5.78% D). 4.58%
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Which house is considered as lower house in State Legislature?

Ans A). Vidhan Parishad B). Lok Sabha C). Rajya Sabha D). Vidhan Sabha
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Who built an elegant two-storey ‘ship palace’ between two reservoirs named Jahaaz Mahal?
Ans A). Sultan Muhammad Bin Tughlaq B). Sultan Ghiyasuddin Khilji C). Sultan Alaud-Din Khalji D). Sultan Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Who among the following was the Sultan of Delhi when Bahmani kingdom was founded in 1347 CE?
Ans A). Mubarak Shah Khalji
B). Bahlul Lodi C). Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq D). Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap CorrectSir
Answer: D
Q.20 According to Census of India 2011, in which of the following Union Territories was the sex ratio recorded at 1037 females
per 1000 males?
Ans A). Andaman and Nicobar Islands B). Puducherry C). Chandigarh D). Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 In which of the following cities of India was the first successful textile mill established?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Chennai C). Ludhiana D). Kolkata
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Which of the following Acts was provided for the establishment of a federal court in India?
Ans A). The Regulating Act of 1773 B). The Government of India Act of 1935 C). The Indian Councils Act of 1909
D). The Government of India Act of 1919
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT included in the national income?

Ans A). Income received by a person as a donation B). Income received by a household for the use of their entrepreneurial skill
C). Income received by a person for the use of his capital D). Income received by a household for the use of their land
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Jon Beel mela is held every year in which of the following states?
Ans A). Haryana B). Arunachal Pradesh C). Assam D). Telangana
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Proposed in 2023-24, which section of the Income Tax Act of 1961 exempts senior citizens aged 75 years and above from
filing income tax returns?
Ans A). Section 139A B). Section 234C C). Section 80c D). Section 194P
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ephemeral
Ans A). persistent B). Fleeting C). Durable D). Permanent
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The arrangements of the little boy’s birthday party were _________ nice. We could not help but appreciate it.
Ans A). little B). many C). extremely D). few
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.
Despite his busy scheuduel, Rohit managed to complete the assignment on time.

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Ans A). schedule B). scedhule C). scheudul D). schedeule
Correct Answer: A

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Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The method and practice of teaching

Ans A). Pedagogy B). Objective C). Strategy ap
D). Learning
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 Select the most appropriate set of words to fill the blanks.
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I was trying to __________ a pen to sign a form as my brother had been ___________ Rupees 500 for breaking the traffic
rules.
Ans A). fined; find B). find; fined C). fined; fined D). find; find
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is the old tree in the colony.

Ans A). oldest B). older C). most old D). elder
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Occurrence B). Manoevre C). Consistent D). Embarrassment
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.8 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
B

correct.

This novel is more interesting of all in the library.

Ans A). most interesting B). the more interesting C). the most interesting D). interesting
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.9 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
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The house seemed much far than she expected.

Ans A). farthest B). farther C). farer D). more far
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Identify the ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

The athlete's (languid) performance disappointed the fans as well as coaches.
Ans A). Relaxed B). Listless C). Vigorous D). Lethargic
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

They have a few juice in the jar.

Ans A). least B). lesser C). little D). fewer
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
A square peg in a round hole
Ans A). a person who is criminal by nature B). a person who fits the job C). a person who is bankrupt D). a person who does not fit the job

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words

A policy that separates people on the basis of race

Ans A). Apostasy B). Apartheid C). Apostle D). Apiary
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Abhay's humility towards the poor and needy people of his locality is really admirable.
Click To Join
Ans A). Arrogance Telegram C).
B). Amicability - Sincerity
Maths By D).Gagan
Modesty Pratap Sir
Correct Answer: A
Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

While I was teaching the elder one, the younger one take an opportunity and ran away.
Ans A). the younger one took an opportunity and ran away B). the younger one will take an opportunity and ran away
C). the younger one has taken an opportunity and ran away D). No substitution
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.

Feel the pinch
Ans A). Give pain B). Raise quality C). Experience hardship D). Demand something
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Raman is as worse as Raju in solving mathematical problems.

Ans A). bad B). worst C). worsen D). best
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The town, where Haruki lived, stood in imminent danger of tidal waves.
Ans A). prominent B). eminent C). impending D). immaculate
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is the cheap saree in my collection.

Ans A). most cheapest B). more cheap C). cheapest D). cheaper
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Detrimental B). Regimental C). Fundementel D). Transcendental
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

There lived in a town in Russia a bootmaker named Martin. He lived in a small room, half sunk _____1_____ the level of the street,
with one window which ______2_____ on the street. He had lived in the same room for many years and knew many people. There
was _____3_____ a pair of boots in the town and in the country for many miles _____4_____ that had not once or twice passed
_____5_____ his hands.

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SubQuestion No : 21

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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). beyond B). inside C). below D). amidst
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.

There lived in a town in Russia a bootmaker named Martin. He lived in a small room, half sunk _____1_____ the level of the street,
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with one window which ______2_____ on the street. He had lived in the same room for many years and knew many people. There
was _____3_____ a pair of boots in the town and in the country for many miles _____4_____ that had not once or twice passed
_____5_____ his hands.

SubQuestion No : 22
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Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans A). opened B). aimed C). touched D). arrived
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.

There lived in a town in Russia a bootmaker named Martin. He lived in a small room, half sunk _____1_____ the level of the street,
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_5_ his hands.

SubQuestion No : 23
hs

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). hardly B). besides C). always D). now
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). round B). around C). below D). above
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). off B). through C). at D). in
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In a group of 200 members, 45% are teenagers and the remaining are adults. The average weight of the whole group is 62
kg. If the average weight of teenagers is 56 kg, then the nearest integral value of the average weight of adults is ________.
Ans A). 84 kg B). 65 kg C). 79 kg D). 67 kg
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 The HCF of 21 and 49 is:

Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 1 D). 2

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 The difference between the selling prices with 19% profit and 11% loss is Rs.454.50. What is the cost price of the item?
Ans A). Rs.1,520 B). Rs.1,505 C). Rs.1,525
ap D). Rs.1,515
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4
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B y
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Ans A). 51,240 B). 45,230 C). 41,360 D). 48,250

Correct Answer: A

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Q.5 A person spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 15% and expenditure decreases by 10%, then what
percentage increase will occur in his savings?
Ans A). 67.5% B). 47.5% C). 90% D). 22.5%
Correct Answer: C

Q.6

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The diameter of a hollow hemisphere is 40 cm. Water is filled in it up to its brim. When spherical lead shots each of diameter
0.8 cm are dropped into the hemisphere, three-fifths of the water flows out. How many lead shots were dropped into the
hemisphere?
Ans A). 30500 B). 35700 C). 37500 D). 35500
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A speed of 16 km/h is the same as:(Up to 1 place of decimal)

Ans A). 4.4 m/sec B). 8.4 m/sec C). 2 m/sec D). 8 m/sec
Correct Answer: A

Q.9

Ans A). 16.5 B). 21 C). 18.5 D). 17.5

Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹,

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rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
Ans A). 3.55 B). 5.55 C). 6.55 D). 4.55

Q.11
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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Correct Answer: A
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Ans A). 460 B). 540 C). 440 D). 500
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Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
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Ans A). 600 B). 560 C). 640 D). 540

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 Gagandeep marks his goods 50% above the cost price and offers a discount of 25% on the marked price to his customers.
What is the percentage gain of Gagandeep?
G

Ans A). 12.5% B). 12.0% C). 13.0% D). 13.5%

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.14 What will be the average of all the odd numbers from 11 to 71 (both inclusive)?
hs

Ans A). 39 B). 47 C). 41 D). 31

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.15 S gets 78, 75, 68, 64 and 58 marks in Hindi, English, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics, respectively. What are his average
marks per subject?
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Ans A). 68.8 B). 66.8 C). 68.6 D). 66.6

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 If a man takes 36 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/h, then the distance covered by him is:
Ans A). 3 km B). 2 km C). 3.6 km D). 2.5 km
Correct Answer: C

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Q.17

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Ans A). 26% more B). 26% less C). 34% more D). 34% less
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 ap
A cooperative society increases the annual rate of simple interest from 10% to 16½
%, then the yearly income of a person increases by ₹1,077.70. The simple interest
at
(in₹) on the sum at 10% for four years will be:
Pr

Ans A). 9,120.3 B). 6,632 C). 16,580 D). 8,240

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19 The average of the first twelve multiples of 11 is:

Ans A). 71.5 B). 68.5 C). 69.5 D). 70.5

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.20 The weight of a sphere is jointly proportional to the cube of its radius and the density of the material of which it is made. The
radii of two spheres are 17 : 8 and the densities of materials 3 : 4. If the weight of the second sphere be 40 kg, then the
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approximate weight of the first sphere is:

Ans A). 96 kg B). 287.87 kg C). 123.26 kg D). 230 kg

Correct Answer: B
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
-553, -532, -511, -490, -469, ?
Ans A). 458 B). -448 C). -458 D). 448
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘RESHMA’ is coded as ‘XJEPBO’ and ‘PRITHAM’ is coded as ‘JXEQFOM’. How will ‘GOURI’ be
coded in that language?
Ans A). FDRLD B). FORLC C). EORLD D). FORLD
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
X sits third to the left of Y. W sits second to the left of V. Only Y sits between A and W. U is not an immediate neighbour of X.
Who sits fourth to the right of Z?
Ans A). W B). Y C). A D). U
Correct Answer: D

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Q.4 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some rhinos are birds. All penguins are birds.
Conclusions:
(I): Some rhinos are penguins.
(II): All birds are penguins.

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Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: B

Q.6
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Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow. C). Only Conclusion (II) follows.
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D). Only Conclusion (I) follows.

Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
at

12 ÷ 13 + 128 – 343 × 49 = ?
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Ans A). 54 B). 45 C). 35 D). 53

Correct Answer: C

Q.8

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.9

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.10 NUQM is related to PWSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JQMI is related to
LSOK. To which of the following is FMIE related, following the same logic?
Ans A). HOKG B). OHGK C). OHKG D). HOGK
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the following
series?

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Ans
Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.12
B y

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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NRT, JNP, FJL, BFH, ?

Ans A). XDF B). XBD C). XZS D). XAD
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘LIME’ is coded as ‘4826’ and ‘FOLD’ is coded as ‘9378’. What is the code for ’L’ in that language?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 8 D). 7
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
7, 27
11, 43
Ans A). 15, 59 B). 15, 58 C). 14, 59 D). 14, 58
Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.17 S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only four
people are sitting between S and W when counted from the right of S. Only one person is sitting between W and Y when
counted from the left of W. Only two people are sitting between S and X when counted from the left of S. Only two people are
sitting between U and Y when counted from the left of U . Only one person is sitting between U and V when counted from
the left of V. Who is sitting to the immediate right of X ?
Ans A). W B). V C). S D). Y
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 FLLC is related to HNNE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, AFFW is related to CHHY.
To which of the following is PVVM related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RXXO B). XXRO C). ROXX D). XXOR
Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘–’ are interchanged?
24 + 3 ÷ 8 × 2 – 6 =?
Ans A). 6 B). 18.75 C). – 6 ap D). 4
Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 28 is related to 168 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 39 is related to 234. To which of the following is 43
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related following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
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Ans A). 222 B). 215 C). 217 D). 258

Correct Answer: D
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G

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Match the following parties with their reserved symbols and choose the INCORRECT one among the following:
B

Ans A). National People’s Party – Book B). Bahujan Samaj Party – Elephant C). All India Trinamool Congress – Sickle
hs

D). Nationalist Congress party – Clock

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.2 What do you call the body cavity that is lined by mesoderm?
M

Ans A). Coelom B). Diploblasts C). Radial symmetry D). Triploblasts
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 With reference to provinces under Mauryan dynasty, which of the following pairs is correct?
Ans A). Dakshinapatha (South) - Ujjain B). Uttarapatha (North) - Suvarnagiri C). Avantiratha (West) - Taxila D). Prachyapatha (East) - Toshali

Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Meher had two large chunks of coal. She set fire to the first chunk and broke the second one into pieces. Help Meher
understand what kind of changes happened to the two chunks of coal at the end of the activity by choosing all the
applicable statements.
A. Both chunks of coal underwent physical changes only.
B. The changes were reversible for the first chunk of coal only.
C. Only physical changes took place for the second chunk of coal.
D. Both chunks of coal underwent chemical changes only.
E. The first case is an example of chemical changes.
Ans A). Only D B). Only A and B C). Only B and D D). Only C and E
Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 As per the 2011 census, which of the following union territories had the lowest population?
Ans A). Andaman and Nicobar Islands B). Chandigarh C). Puducherry D). Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 With which of the following organisations was Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher of Hindu College of Calcutta,
associated?
Ans A). Paramahansa Mandali B). Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam C). Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha
D). Young Bengal Movement
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 In which of the following empires of South India was the Kamalapuram tank built in the 15th century?
Ans A). Vijayanagara B). Bidar C). Bijapur D). Chola
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In May 2023, who was sworn in as the new Central Vigilance Commissioner of India?
Ans A). GC Murmu B). Amit Khare C). Suresh N Patel D). PK Srivastava
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Gangubai Hangal, a renowned Indian music personality, is recognised for her contributions in which of the following fields?
Ans A). Rabindra Sangeet B). Hindustani Classical Music C). Sufi Music D). Ghazal Singing
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 On 19 July 2023, who was appointed as the 25th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard?
Ans A). BS Raju B). Rakesh Pal C). K Natarajan D). VK Singh
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Which of the following National Waterways (NW) is associated with the Udyogamandal and the Champakkara canals?
Ans A). NW-10 B). NW-3 C). NW-5 D). NW-25
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 In basketball, how many points are awarded when a basket is scored from outside the 6.25-metre line?
Ans A). Five points B). Six points C). Three points
ap D). Two points
Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 In which of the following states is the Mamallapuram Utsav celebrated?
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Ans A). Kerala B). Tamil Nadu C). Uttarakhand D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Most of the Harappan sites are primarily divided into _________ parts.
an

Ans A). six B). four C). eight D). two

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 What is the role of a commercial bank in the economy?

Ans A). To print and issue currency B). To set interest rates for the entire banking system
y

C). To provide financial services, such as accepting deposits, lending money and facilitating payments D). To regulate the money supply
B

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.16 Which of the following is NOT considered as a Fundamental Duty?

Ans A). To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture B). To uphold and protect secularism
C). To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
M

D). To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Scissor style and Western Roll are the techniques used in:
Ans A). long jump B). high jump C). triple jump D). pole vault
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Large tidal waves caused by an underwater earthquake or volcanic eruption are known as a _________.
Ans A). hurricane B). tsunami C). typhoon D). tornado
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 As a part of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922, the angry peasants had set ablaze the police station of which place?
Ans A). Kakori B). Dhaka C). Dandi D). Chauri Chaura
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Which of the following rivers flows north of the Tropic of Cancer in India?
Ans A). Mahanadi B). Tapi C). Penganga D). Yamuna
Correct Answer: D

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Q.21 The Huttari dance, observed as an annual tradition, is a leisurely performance that takes place during the harvesting season
in _____________.
Ans A). Telangana B). Karnataka C). Odisha D). Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 What is the study of the interactions between living organisms and their environment called?
Ans A). Biology B). Geology C). Chemistry D). Ecology
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 If labour is employed in a job but is not actually utilised for the production of goods and services, it is known as:
Ans A). seasonal unemployment B). educated unemployment C). disguised unemployment D). urban unemployment
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Which Kuchipudi dancer received National Nritya Shiromani Award 2022?
Ans A). Anita Sharma B). Anindita Neogy Anaam C). Aparna Satheesan D). Jatin Goswami
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 The God of Small Things is a novel authored by whom among the following authors?
Ans A). Fakira B). Rohinton Mistry C). Arundhati Roy D). Shashi Tharoor
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Despite the challenges, / the team is determined to / completed / the project on time and within budget.

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Ans A). completed B). Despite the challenges C). the team is determined to D). the project on time and within budget

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Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The military operation was part of a conspiracy against national security.
ap
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Ans A). Enthusiasm B). Motivation C). willfulness D). Plot
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiom to replace the underlined segment in the given sentence.
an
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We were asked to vote for the candidates by raising our hands to indicate voting for or against a proposition.
Ans A). changing hands B). tipping our hands C). getting out of hand D). a show of hands
G

Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Ritu is a diligent girl who looks after her aged parents.

Ans A). stupid B). lethargic C). innocent D). hardworking

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ally
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Ans A). Enemy B). Infamy C). Dreamy D). Gloomy

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the segment with the grammatical error.
I was surprised / to see my / daughter, Manya, riding her / new bicycle confident.
Ans A). new bicycle confident B). daughter, Manya, riding her C). to see my D). I was surprised
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The irrational fear of snakes

Ans A). Xenophobia B). Ophidiophobia C). Necrophobia D). Nomophobia
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I agreed with your assessment.

Ans A). Supported B). Rejected C). Doubted D). Disagreed
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 select the most appropriate idiom/phrase to fill in the blank and complete the sentence.

It was all _________________. He did not really mean what he said.

Ans A). tongue in cheek B). blue in the face C). tuck in D). a storm in a tea cup
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Identify the preposition that needs to be omitted to correct the sentence.

They live near to the park.

Ans A). to B). live C). near D). They
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Sacrilege B). Committee C). Assesment D). Exaggeration
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). The responsibility is given to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.
B). The responsibility was given to each student to keep quiet during the seminar.
C). The responsibility was given to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.
D). The responsibility was give to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The _________ model who can be selected for this advertisement is Meera Narayan.
Ans A). more better B). most best C). most good D). best
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to

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substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Manisha set apart with her friends to explore the countryside.

Ans A). set in B). set out C). set aside
ap
D). No substitution required
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Select the option with the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The delta of river ____________ looks like a bird's foot because a lot of sediment is carried into the calm sea water.
an

Ans A). Missisippi B). Mississipi C). Mississippi D). Mississipppi

Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). The company came up with a brilliant marketing strategy. B). She always comes down with a cold in winter.
C). He came across an interesting article while researching. D). We came in the meeting room quietly.
Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the context of the following sentence.
hs

We should go to the Himalayas this spring.

Ans A). A water body B). A season C). Coiled metal D). To jump
Correct Answer: B
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Q.18 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.

In the first half century after U.S. independence, a major preportion of the nation's labour force shifted from the agricultural
to the manufacturing sector.
Ans A). priposon B). proportion C). prepotion D). preposion
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Cuba is known as the sugar bowl of the world. It is part of the Caribbean _____________. This country _______________ a
lot of sugar in the decade of 1960s.
Ans A). sector; created B). region; produced C). stretch; processed D). area; cropped
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

How long have you been _________ these contact lenses?
Ans A). swimming B). wearing C). prevailing D). seeing
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A weed is an untamed plant that (1)______ where it is not wanted, usually among gardens or crops. The majority of weeds are
(2)________. While some are toxic to horses and cattle, others harm mature crops by (3)________them of water, sunlight, soil and
minerals. There are various ways that weeds (4)______. They are (5)_______ transported from one location to another as trash, dust
or fodder.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). perfects B). spreads C). evolves D). amends
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). dangerous B). delicates C). grace D). vices
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.

A weed is an untamed plant that (1)______ where it is not wanted, usually among gardens or crops. The majority of weeds are

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(2)________. While some are toxic to horses and cattle, others harm mature crops by (3)________them of water, sunlight, soil and
minerals. There are various ways that weeds (4)______. They are (5)_______ transported from one location to another as trash, dust
or fodder.
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SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). depriving B). relieving C). spoiling D). digesting
an

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.

A weed is an untamed plant that (1)______ where it is not wanted, usually among gardens or crops. The majority of weeds are
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(2)________. While some are toxic to horses and cattle, others harm mature crops by (3)________them of water, sunlight, soil and
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minerals. There are various ways that weeds (4)______. They are (5)_______ transported from one location to another as trash, dust
or fodder.
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SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). breach B). propagate C). entertain D). extension

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). rare B). frequently C). consequence D). every
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 800 B). 840 C). 740 D). 760
Correct Answer: A

Q.2

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Ans A). 25 B). 28 C). 22 D). 21

Q.3
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A banner at a garment shop advertises 'Buy 2 and get 5'. The shopkeeper has marked all the shirts at the same amount.
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Gaurav was his relative and the shopkeeper gave him an additional discount of 2% on the total bill. Gaurav purchased 5
shirts and paid ₹1,274. What is the marked price of each shirt?
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Ans A). ₹520 B). ₹260 C). ₹630 D). ₹650

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 What will be the average of the odd numbers from 1 to 51, both inclusive?
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Ans A). 24 B). 26 C). 25 D). 26.5

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5
B y
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.6 The average of first 9 whole numbers is:

Ans A). 3 B). 4.5 C). 5 D). 4
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The salary of a worker is first increased by 30% and later reduced by 28.5%. What is the net change in his salary?
Ans A). 9.05% decrease B). 7.05% decrease C). 6.05% increase D). 8.05% increase
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Aman, Bheema and Rehman play cricket, the ratio of Aman's runs to Bheema's runs and Bheema's runs to
Rehman's runs is 5 : 4. They make together 549 runs. How many runs did Rehman make?
Ans A). 132 B). 158 C). 108 D). 144
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Find the ratio in which rice worth ₹7.20/kg should be mixed with rice worth ₹5.70/kg to produce a mixture worth ₹6.30/kg.
Ans A). 2 : 3 B). 1 : 3 C). 3 : 4 D). 4 : 5
Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 Raghu lends ₹9,600 and ₹11,800 at simple interest to two different persons for the same time at the rate of 7% per annum
and 8% per annum, respectively. If he had received ₹9,696 as total interest from both, find the time period for which the
amounts were lent.
Ans A). 10 years B). 8 years C). 6 years D). 12 years
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 A policeman sees a thief at a distance of 50 m and starts chasing him at a speed of 7 m/s, while the thief runs at a speed of 5
m/s. What is the distance (in m) covered by the thief when he is caught?
Ans A). 125 B). 150 C). 175 D). 100
Correct Answer: A

Q.12
A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 4%. If he had bought the article
at 5% less and sold it at ₹30 more, then he would have made a profit of
12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the article?
Ans A). 1,232 B). 1,200 C). 1,260 D). 1,250
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The average weight of 14 persons out of 16 persons is 75 kg. The total weight of the remaining two persons is 48 kg more
than the average weight of all 16 persons. Find the average weight of the remaining two persons.
Ans A). 66.6 kg B). 48.6 kg C). 54.6 kg D). 60.6 kg
Correct Answer: D

Q.14

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 A vendor bought a certain number of bananas at 6 for ₹5 and sold them at 4 for ₹3. Find his loss percentage.
Ans A). 12% B). 10% C). 8% D). 15%

Q.16
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A spherical ball of iron is to be produced. If the radius of the ball is 3 cm and weight of iron per cm3 is 30g,what would be
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the weight of the ball?
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Ans A). 1080π g B). 104π g C). 1040π g D). 108π g

Correct Answer: A
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Q.17
The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I
and Exam II.Study the bar graph carefully to answer the question that
follows.

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If the marks obtained by Suresh in Exam-I were increased by 14% of the
original marks, what would be his new approximate percentage in Exam-I
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if the maximum marks in Exam-I were 140?
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Ans A). 41% B). 38% C). 57% D). 47%

Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students (A,B,C,D and E) in different
subjects. (Maximum marks are given beside subjects)
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B y
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How many more or fewer marks did Student A obtain in English, as compared to the marks obtained by Student E in the
same subject?
Ans A). 20 less B). 15 less C). 20 more D). 15 more
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 725 B). 1850 C). 1125 D). 2250
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 A man travelled from Tirupati to Tirumala at the speed of 20 km/h and walked back at the speed of 4 km/h. If the whole
journey took 24 hours, then find the distance (in km) between Tirumala and Tirupati.
Ans A). 20 B). 25 C). 80 D). 30
Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a code language, 'PINK' is coded as ‘WFUH’ and 'DORM' is coded as ‘KLYJ’. How will 'BUGI' be coded in that language?
Ans A). JROF B). KSNE C). KSOE D). IRNF
Correct Answer: D

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Q.2 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some Jeans are Pants
No Pant is a Shirt
Some Shirts are T-shirts
Conclusions:
1. Some T-shirts are Shirts
2. Some T-shirts are Jeans
Ans A). Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow B). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows C). Only conclusion 2 follows D). Only conclusion 1 follows

Correct Answer: D

Q.3 HLTE is related to DHPA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VBNW is related to RXJS.
To which of the following is MUXK related, following the same logic?
Ans A). IQTG B). IQSF C). JRUG D). IPSF
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 90 × 5 – 4 + 10 = ?
Ans A). 30 B). 35 C). 29 D). 37
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘JUGS’ is coded as ‘3715’ and ‘GOLD’ is coded as ‘6524’. What is the code for ‘G’ in that
language?
Ans A). 5 B). 6 C). 1 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same

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order). F is sitting second to the left of C. E is the immediate neighbour of A and C. G is sitting third to the right of D.

What is the position of B with respect to G?

Ans A). Second to the left B). To the immediate right C). Second to the right ap D). Third to the right
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
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96 × 8 − 15 ÷ 5 + 100 = 37
Ans A). − and ÷ B). × and − C). ÷ and × D). × and +
Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
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the pattern.
G
B y
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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E. A and D are both immediate neighbours of G. B sits immediate
to the right of C. Only 1 person sits between B and D. How many people sit between A and E when counted from the right of
A?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 1 D). 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 79 is related to 164 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 98 is related to 183. To which ofthe following is 112
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 197 B). 187 C). 182 D). 195
Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Statements:
All apples are mangoes.
No mango is a kiwi.

Conclusions:

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(I) No apple is a kiwi.

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(II) No kiwi is a mango.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Both conclusion I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: B ap
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Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘HOME’ is coded as ‘5317’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘6528’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given
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code language?
Ans A). 8 B). 5 C). 7 D). 6
Correct Answer: B
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Q.14 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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CEB, GHE, KKH, ONK, ?

Ans A). TQO B). TQN C). SQO D). SQN
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
B
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Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

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Q.16 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730, 2188
Ans A). 21 B). 28 C). 38 D). 20
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 AFKO is related to CHMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ILRS is related to KNTU.

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To which of the following is BDGI related, following the same logic?

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Ans A). HDJI B). DFIK C). RTUI D). SIND
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 ap
20 is related to 401 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 226. To which of the following is 18
related, following the same logic?
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(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc.. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 364 B). 352 C). 325 D). 346

Correct Answer: C
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Q.20
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Hindi novel 'Jhutha Sach' is written by:

Ans A). Yashpal B). Jaishankar Prasad C). Shrilal Shukla D). Premchand
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 'Attolu Eidu' is the cultural festival of which of the following union territories?
Ans A). Jammu and Kashmir B). Dadra and Nagar Haveli C). Andaman and Nicobar Islands D). Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 According Census 2011 of India, which of the following union territories has the second highest literacy rate?
Ans A). Lakshadweep B). Chandigarh C). Daman and Diu D). Andaman and Nicobar
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Chand Minar at Daulatabad is a 210-feet-high tapering tower divided into _____ storeys.
Ans A). four B). six C). three D). five
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Which of the following is a natural indicator for acid and base?
Ans A). Curry tree B). China rose C). Fungi D). Algae
Correct Answer: B

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Q.6 Which treatise of Indian classical music was composed by Pandit Sharanga Deva?
Ans A). Sangeet Makarand B). Sangeet Samay Saar C). Sangeet Ratnakar D). Sangeet Tarang
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 The Indian reformer Jyotirao Phule was primarily critical of which social evil of the Indian society?
Ans A). Poverty B). Sati System C). Child Marriage D). Caste Discrimination
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Which of the following states has bicameral (two houses) state legislature?
Ans A). Karnataka B). Goa C). West Bengal D). Punjab
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

A) 1833 Charter Act has changed the designation for Governor-General of Bengal, renamed as Governor-General of India.
B) Lord William Bentick was the first Governor General of India.
Ans A). Neither A nor B B). Only B C). Only A D). Both A and B
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 What is the term used for the line that a raider must cross to score points in Kabaddi?
Ans A). Baulk line B). Half line C). Bonus line D). Centre line
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Identify the personality on the basis of the given clues:

i) She is an acclaimed Bharatanatyam dancer.
ii) She is the recipient of Padma Shri 2016 award.
Ans A). Padmaja Reddy B). Pratibha Prahlad C). Padma Sharma D). Aruna Mohanty
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which of the following folk dances is conducted during the Bwisagu Festival?

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Ans A). Bhortal B). Jhumur C). Bagurumba D). Bihu dance
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Cyanobacteria belong to the domain of:

Ans A). Primary Consumers B). Producers C). Decomposers
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.14 On 10 April 2023, the Government of India launched tourism infrastructure and amenities in the __________________
villages through the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’.
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Ans A). Border B). Desert C). Hill D). Coastal

Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 In which year did Rohan Bopanna become world number one in the Men's Doubles category of Lawn Tennis?
Ans A). 2015 B). 2024 C). 2017 D). 2023
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Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The oceanic trenches or the narrow depressions on the seafloor are formed by reason of:
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Ans A). tsunamis B). thermohaline circulation C). tidal currents D). tectonic activity
Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 In the number 0.002609, the number of significant figures is ______.

Ans A). four B). seven C). six D). three

Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). It is non-justiciable. B). There is clear difference between Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties.
C). Fundamental Duties are both civic and moral in nature. D). They are enforceable by law and can be challenged in court.
Correct Answer: D

Q.19

Ans A). A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 B). A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 C). A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 D). A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what is the percentage of the total
population who are multidimensionally poor (Headcount Ratio) in Bihar state?
Ans A). 36.12% B). 45.98% C). 40.54% D). 33.76%
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Which of the following rivers flows through Madhya Pradesh?

Ans A). Shyok B). Sharda C). Bhima D). Betwa
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Who is National Security Advisor of India as of July 2023?

Ans A). Rajnath Singh B). Ajit Doval C). Rajiv Gauba D). Sanjeev Sanyal
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Which port situated at the head of Gulf of Kutch has helped to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port?
Ans A). Haldia B). Kolkata C). Kandla D). Kochi
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 What are the three components of the empowerment model in SAPAP of SHGs?
Ans A). Social mobilisation, economic development, and education B). Collective empowerment, capital formation, and poverty eradication
C). Public resource allocation, capacity building, and microfinance D). Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building of the poor

Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Harappa, one of the sites of the Harappan culture, was found in which of the following states of pre-independent India?
Ans A). Punjab B). Balochistan C). Sindh D). United Province
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My mother said / that the thief / Ramesh will learnt / his lesson soon.
Ans A). Ramesh will learnt B). his lesson soon. C). My mother said ap D). that the thief
Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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James is just an old eccentric.

Ans A). Ordinary B). Follower C). Cranky D). Humble
Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
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After the match, / the stadium was the messiest / it’s ever been.
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Ans A). No Error B). it’s ever been C). After the match D). the stadium was the messiest
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

According to the chairman, his proposal was ___________ than Mr. Jackson’s.
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Ans A). worse B). worst C). bad D). ill

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in phrasal verb.

Gita got onto / the book / she was reading / this morning.
Ans A). she was reading B). this morning C). Gita got onto D). the book
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The tailor was called to stitch the long loose gowns worn by priests and choristers.
Ans A). frocks B). cassocks C). petticoats D). tuxedos
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The explorer's adventuros spirit led to the discovery of an ancient civilisation.

Ans A). Ancient B). Adventuros C). Discovery D). Explorer's
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.

Entrepreneurial endeavours drive economic growth and innovation, empowering individuals to bring their ideas to fruition.
Ans A). pursuits manipulates economic success B). ventures contribute to economic flourishing C). actions spur economic recession
D). projects discourage economic prosperity
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

I had to choose the best of the two options available.

Ans A). good of B). better of C). better than D). best than
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

I started feeling tired as I had been working for a long time and so I decided to call the day.
Ans A). be a day for calling B). call it a day C). be called a day D). call off the day
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The farmer stood by the roadside stand to sell his _________.
Ans A). volume B). consequence C). productivity D). produce
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

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Her candid remarks were a (refreshing) change from the usual diplomatic responses.

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Ans A). Bracing B). Invigorating C). Revitalising D). Stale
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence. ap
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He is a lazy person.
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Ans A). hardworking B). perfect C). casual D). popular

Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Wolfia is the tiny plant in the world.
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Ans A). tinier B). tiniest C). most tiny D). more tiny
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Abodomen B). Abolished C). Adverse D). Annoyed

Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

He is going to _________ the campaign against excessive use of _________ in local production units.
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Ans A). combat B). spice C). protest D). lead

Correct Answer: D
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Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please turn off the lights _________ leaving the house.

Ans A). before B). between C). during D). amid
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Consensus B). Conceive C). Disapoint D). Disappear
Correct Answer: C

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Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sree did not go to work today, as she was feeling a bit under the weather.

Ans A). feeling nervous B). feeling tired C). feeling excited D). feeling ill
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The family members described their dream home's architectural elegance.

Ans A). coarseness B). fortitude C). grandiosity D). gleam
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1..
Ans A). auspicious B). malicious C). cautions D). rigorous

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Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:

each blank. ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
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philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
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describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2..
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Ans A). above B). over with C). throughout D). along with
Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
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philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3..
Ans A). secure B). shield C). embed D). shift
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4..
Ans A). discarded B). demean C). dejected D). defrosted
Correct Answer: A

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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5..
Ans A). endeavour B). shirk C). slacken D). doodle
Correct Answer: A

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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average monthly pocket money of Ram and Shyam is ₹2,460, Shyam and Manohar is ₹2,380 and Manohar and Ram is
₹2,760. Find the monthly pocket money of Ram alone.
Ans A). ₹2,048 B). ₹2,840 C). ₹2,408 D). ₹2,480
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 If the diameter of a hemisphere is 14cm, then the total surface area of the hemisphere is
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Three bells toll at intervals of 12, 15 and 18 minutes, respectively. If all the three bells toll together at 8 a.m., when will they
toll together next?
Ans A). 8 a.m. B). 11 a.m. C). 3 p.m. D). 10 a.m.
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee in the ratio of 5: 6: 8. If the total amount of money in the bag is
₹420,find the number of coins of type1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee are:
Ans A). 212,232,312 B). 210,252,336 C). 216,252,292 D). 208,272,352
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 The marked price of a washing machine is ₹15,000. A retailer buys it at ₹11,250, after getting

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two successive discount of 15% and another rate which is illegible. What is the second
discount rate?

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.6 ap
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Ans A). 708 B). 704 C). 700 D). 712

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Rahul sells an article at 8% above its cost price. If he had bought it at 5% less than what he had paid for it and sold it at ₹8
less, he would have gained 12%. Find the cost price of the article.
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Ans A). ₹650 B). ₹550 C). ₹700 D). ₹500

Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 If the price of a commodity is increased by 10% and 20% successively, what is the net percentage increase/decrease in its
price, if it is further decreased by 25%?
Ans A). 1% Decrease B). 5% Decrease C). 5% Increase D). 1% Increase
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Correct Answer: A

Q.9
B y
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Ans A). 2nd hour B). 1st hour C). 3rd hour D). 4th hour Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1000 B). 960 C). 900 D). 920
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 12 solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid cylinder of 16 cm diameter and 4 cm height. The diameter of
each sphere is:
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.12 If the average of nine numbers is 360, then what is the sum of the nine numbers?
Ans A). 3420 B). 1620 C). 40 D). 3240
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 A money lender lent out ₹40,000 in two parts, one at 7% p.a. and the other at 6% p.a.. If the total annual simple interest on
the amount is ₹2,550, what is the amount of money lent at 7%?
Ans A). ₹21,000 B). ₹18,000 C). ₹15,000 D). ₹26,000
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 3000 B). 1500 C). 4000 D). 6000
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Two sections A and B of class VIII consist of 42 and 38 students, respectively. If the average marks of section A is 400 and
that of section B is 320, find the average marks of the whole class.
Ans A). 360 B). 576 C). 362 D). 310
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Study the below graph carefully and answer the question.

What is the percentage increase in the price of Diesel from April to July (rounded off to one digit after decimal)?

Ans A). 69.5% B). 88.8% C). 76.5% D). 89.3%

Correct Answer: B

Q.17 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 25%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 50%?
Ans A). 6.9 B). 5.9 C). 4.9 D). 3.9
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 400 m. The thief starts running at a speed of 8 km/h and the policeman
chases him at a speed of 9 km/h. What is the distance between them after 18 minutes?
Ans A). 200 m B). 300 m C). 150 m D). 100 m
Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
9
Ans A). 3175 m B). 3125 m C). 3100 m

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Q.20 In Class I there are 12 students of average age 20 years, and in Class II there are 16 students of average age 23 years. What
is the average age (approximately) of both the classes?
Ans A). 17.6 years B). 20.7 years C). 21.7 years D). 15.3 years

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

ap Correct Answer: C
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Q.1 POEN is related to LKAJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, RADIUS is related to
NWZEQO. To which of the following is LOGIC related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). HKCEY B). HKCFY C). GKCEY D). HGCFY

Correct Answer: A

Q.2 LJPN is related to SQWU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JHNL is related to
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QOUS. To which of the following is OMSQ related, following the same logic?
Ans A). VTZX B). TVZX C). TVXZ D). VTXZ
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
G
B y

Ans
A). B). C). D).
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Correct Answer: B
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statements.

Statements:
All doors are locks.
Some doors are keys.

Conclusions:
(I) Some locks are keys.
(II) Some keys are doors.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Only conclusion II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘I like music’ is written as ‘mo ro go’ and ‘can I go’ is writtenas ‘ho mo bo’. How is ‘I’ writtenin the
given language?
Ans A). go B). bo C). mo D). ho
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
9 × 2 −(150 ÷ 5) + 24 + (32÷ 8) × 6 + 15 = 71
(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 5 and 6 B). 2 and 6 C). 9 and 6 D). 5 and 15
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

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Ans

A). B). C).

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Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Seven colleagues (L, M, N, O, P, Q, R) are sitting around a circular meeting table, all facing towards the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). O is sitting to the immediate right of L, while P is sitting to the immediate left of L. Only Q is
sitting between R and N, and another one of R’s immediate neighbours is M, who is also an immediate neighbour of O.
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Which two of the following are not immediate neighbours?

Ans A). Q and N B). P and N C). O and R D). R and M
Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 2 is related to 9 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 65. To which of the following is 8 related,
following the same logic?
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Ans A). 517 B). 515 C). 511 D). 513

Correct Answer: D

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘you may laugh’ is coded as ‘CD EJ KO’ and ‘may I go’ is coded as ‘TK PO EJ’. How is ‘may’
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coded in that code language?

Ans A). EJ B). PO C). CD D). TK
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
5, 16, 60, 236, 940, ?
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Ans A). 678 B). 3756 C). 4678 D). 6899

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Lalla, Bablu, Mahesh, Abdul, Arif, Surekha and Kiku are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily
in the same order). Lalla sits 2nd to the right of Bablu. Mahesh sits 3rd to the left of Abdul. Arif sits to the immediate left of
Abdul. Surekha is an immediate neighbour of Bablu. Kiku is not an immediate neighbour of Surekha. Who sits third to the
right of Abdul?
Ans A). Lalla B). Kiku C). Surekha D). Bablu
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
102 − 36 + 59 ÷ 4 × 2 = ?
Ans A). 10 B). 5 C). 20 D). 15
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 In a certain code language, 'GET' is coded as ‘50’ and 'CAB' is coded as ‘76’. How will 'RUN' be coded in the same language?
Ans A). 28 B). 29 C). 30 D). 31
Correct Answer: B

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Statements:
All laptops are desktops.
No desktop is a computer.

Conclusions:
(I) No laptop is a computer.
(II) Some computers are desktops.
Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.17 In a code language, 'XCMY' is coded as ‘AHPD’ and 'PGVK' is coded as ‘SLYP’. How will 'JOCH' be coded in that language?
Ans A). PSDN B). NRFK C). MTFM D). LTDL
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 11 is related to 57 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 72. To which of the following is
17 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 89 B). 85 C). 83 D). 87
Correct Answer: D

Q.19

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

Ans A). DUA

TQQ, PRM, LSI, HTE, ?
B). EUB C). DUB
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D). EUA
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Correct Answer: A
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which state in India has the highest population density as per the 2011 census?
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Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Uttar Pradesh C). West Bengal D). Bihar
Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Who among the following started the Khilafat Movement against the British government?
Ans A). Syed Nabiullah and MA Ansari B). Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali C). Syed Raza Ali and Muhammad Ali Jinnah
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D). Maulana Mazharul Haque and Mian Abdul Aziz

Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Which of the following country’s official language is Sinhala?

Ans A). Maldives B). Sri Lanka C). Myanmar D). Nepal
Correct Answer: B
B

Q.4 Who among the following Dance Gurus got Padma Vibhushan in the year 2000?
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Ans A). Ileana Citarist B). Kelucharan Mohapatra C). Bipin Singh D). Birju Maharaj
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Who among the following authors wrote ‘Kamayani’, ‘Dhruvswamini’, ‘Kankal’, ‘Titli’, ‘Skandagupta’, ‘Lahar’ and ‘Mamta’?
Ans A). Jaishankar Prasad B). Suryakant Tripathi Nirala C). Bhisham Sahni D). Krishna Sobti
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 There shall be a/an ________ with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his
functions.
Ans A). Council of Ministers B). Attorney General for India C). Parliament D). Council of States
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans A). Chlorine has the highest electron affinity, while fluorine has the highest electronegativity.
B). Fluorine has the highest electron affinity, while chlorine has the highest electronegativity.
C). Fluorine has the highest electron affinity and the highest electronegativity.
D). Fluorine has the highest electron affinity, while bromine has the highest electronegativity.
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In which game are terms like break, cannons, cue, potting, and kissed commonly used?
Ans A). Golf B). Polo C). Billiards D). Chess
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Who was sent as an envoy to China during the time of Muhammad bin Tughluq?
Ans A). Ziauddin Barani B). Al-Biruni C). Hasan Nizami D). Ibn Battuta
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Who has been appointed as the 'UPI Safety Ambassador' by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to enhance
safety awareness on digital payment platforms in November 2023?
Ans A). Taapsee Pannu B). Ayushmann Khurrana C). Pankaj Tripathi D). Rajkummar Rao
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which Indian city hosted the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy event in 2023?
Ans A). Ranchi B). Bhubaneshwar C). Bhopal D). New Delhi
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Who is known to have revived Bharatnatyam dance form in its modern version today?
Ans A). Mallika Sarabhai B). Rukmini Devi C). T Balasaraswati D). Yamini Krishnamurthy
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Megasthenes was an ambassador who was sent to the court of which Indian ruler by the Greek ruler, Seleucus Nicator?
Ans A). Ashoka B). Chandragupta C). Bindusara D). Pushyamitra Shunga
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Who among the following founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 with the help of MG Ranade?
Ans A). Gopal Krishna Gokhale B). Mahatma Gandhi C). Bal Gangadhar Tilak D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 On 25 August 2023, which State Government expanded its ongoing 'Breakfast Scheme' for students of
classes 1 to 5, studying in 31,008 government schools across the State?
Ans A). Jharkhand B). Tamil Nadu C). Karnataka D). Goa
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Which chemical compound is commonly utilised as a preservative in tomato sauce?

Ans A). Green Tea Extract B). Carnosic Acid C). Vinegar D). Sodium Benzoate
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 The Guindy National Park is located in which state?

Ans A). Rajasthan B). Tamil Nadu C). Madhya Pradesh D). Maharashtra
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In which Indian state do we find caves named after elephant statues found in it?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Karnataka C). Maharashtra D). Odisha
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which country was a major importer of dye intermediates and castor oils from India in 2022-23?
Ans A). Japan B). Belgium C). China D). Brazil
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 The Krebs cycle of aerobic respiration is carried out within which of the following cell organelles?
Ans A). Lysosome B). Spirogyra C). Nucleus D). Mitochondria
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 When the pH value of soils is more than 7.5, they are considered to be:
Ans A). slightly acidic soils B). alkaline soils C). strongly acidic soils D). neutral soils
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 The cultural sport of Maharashtra, 'dahi-handi' is associated with which festival?

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Ans A). Krishna Janmashtami B). Ramanavmi C). Holi D). Ganesh Chaturthi

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Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Which of the following dance performances begins with the Kelikottu?
Ans A). Kathakali

Q.24
B). Odissi C). Kathak

The budget of the central government is known as the ______.

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D). Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: A
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Ans A). union budget B). annual exposed budget C). state budget D). revised budget
Correct Answer: A
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Q.25 What writ means ‘We Command’?

Ans A). Certiorari B). Habeas Corpus C). Mandamus D). Prohibition
Correct Answer: C
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

We went to Bowbazaar in Kolkata to see the buildings for the lodging and accommodation of soldiers.
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Ans A). barracks B). paddocks C). hostels D). mints

Correct Answer: A

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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The company decided / to phase up its / outdated technology / and embrace innovation.
B

Ans A). and embrace innovation. B). The company decided C). outdated technology D). to phase up its
Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fabricate
at

Ans A). Construct B). Garments C). Fascinate D). Floral

Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fantastic
Ans A). Fanciful B). Practical C). Graceful D). Delicate
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
You must adhere to the rules of this place.
Ans A). Comply B). Strict C). Remember D). Aware
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

After coming from a long journey he said, “It feels so _________ to be home”.
Ans A). better B). good C). much good D). best
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A word, number , or other figure that looks the same when viewed (or rotated) upside down .
Ans A). Anadiplosis B). Alliteration C). Anagram D). Ambigram
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The sports teacher saw across the game and punished the students who were cheating in the game.
Ans A). underneath B). through C). beside D). beneath
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word…

Ans A). Vigilante B). Masquerade C). Squadroun D). Caricature
Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Piquant
Ans A). Bitter B). Bland C). Delicious D). Delectable
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Choronology B). Competent C). Soliloquy D). Protein
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in the usage of
indefinite articles.
We have invited / our friends / for a / dinner.
Ans A). dinner B). We have invited C). our friends D). for a
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the idiom that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the given sentence meaningfully.
The negotiations reached a point where both parties had to (confront the consequences of their actions) and make tough
decisions.
Ans A). face the music B). break a leg C). cut corners D). get cold feet
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a grammatical error.
If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Mohan is still confused about his higher studies.

Ans A). No error B). Mohan is still C). his higher studies D). confused about
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Postuer B). Gesture C). Culture D). Lecture
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
My old car was pressed into service as an emergency vehicle for my ailing grandmother.
Ans A). Cared for by old people B). Asking for special maintenance C). To use for a particular purpose when a special need occurs.
D). Used to take someone to the hospital
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Ramya would gladly help Manya if you had asked her.

Ans A). is to gladly help B). will gladly help C). was to have gladly helped D). would have gladly helped

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). The hard disc of a computer on a desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.
B). A hard disc of the computer on the desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.
C). The hard disc of the computer on the desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.
D). The hard disc of a computer on the desk needs to be repaired at an earliest.
ap Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
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Gregarious
Ans A). Sociable B). Isolated C). Introverted D). Reserved
Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The manager had / thrown up the / drunk people sitting / inside his office premises.
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Ans A). drunk people sitting B). inside his office premises C). thrown up the D). The manager had
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
G

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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(3)______ which to us is truly (4)______. But after some millions of years of this arboreal paradise, their numbers increased to the
point where the supply of coconuts was no longer (5)________.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
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Ans A). descended B). ascended C). recommended D). extended

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Man, it would seem, has (1)______ from arboreal apes. They lived a happy life in tropical forests, eating coconuts when they were
hungry, and throwing them at each other when they were not. They were (2)______ occupied in gymnastics and acquired an
(3)______ which to us is truly (4)______. But after some millions of years of this arboreal paradise, their numbers increased to the
point where the supply of coconuts was no longer (5)________.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). perpetually B). professionally C). bisectionally D). conspiratorially
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). civility B). density C). agility D). variability
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). disappointing B). boring C). astonishing D). frightening
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). deficient B). delicate C). adequate D). consecrate
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The rate of nickel plating on a metal is ₹50 / m2. If the cost of nickel plating on a curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is
₹600, find the cost of nickel coating on the total surface area of this hemisphere.
Ans A). ₹900 B). ₹800 C). ₹700 D). ₹1,000
Correct Answer: A

Q.2
For what sum will the simple interest at per annum be 210 in years?

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Ans A). ₹1,600 B). ₹1,980 C). ₹2,250 D). ₹2,400
Correct Answer: D

Q.3
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The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school is 7 : 9. If the number of girls in the school is 189, then the
number of boys in that school is:
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Ans A). 105 B). 147 C). 168 D). 126
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 The salary of T in January, February and March is ₹15,000 per month. His salary in July, August, September, October,
November and December is ₹30,000 per month. His average salary per month for the year is ₹27,000. What is his salary (in ₹)
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in April, May and June per month?

Ans A). 33000 B). 25000 C). 31000 D). 28000
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 A shopkeeper claims that he sells rock salt at ₹23 per kg, which costs him ₹25 per kg. But he gives 800 g instead of 1,000 g.
What is his percentage profit or loss?
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Ans A). Profit of 8% B). Loss of 3% C). Loss of 5% D). Profit of 15%
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.6 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
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what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
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Ans A). 6 B). 8 C). 7 D). 9

Correct Answer: D
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Q.7

Ans A). 4 B). 3 C). 5 D). 2

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans A). 48.4 B). 49.4 C). 51.4 D). 50.4
Correct Answer: B

Q.9

Ans B).

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C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.10

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Ans A). 67.10% B). 61.71% C). 60.71% D). 50.71%

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 How many seconds does Tiwari take to cover a distance of 600 m if he runs at a speed of 10 km/h?
Ans A). 212 B). 205 C). 216 D). 200
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The perimeter of a rhombus is 68 cm and one of its diagonals is 30 cm. Its area is:
Ans A). 250 cm2 B). 230 cm2 C). 245 cm2 D). 240 cm2 Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 52 B). 50 C). 49 D). 51
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 A conical tent of height 8 m and radius 15 m is to be built in a tracking camp. How much area of cloth is needed?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 600 B). 640 C). 680 D). 580
Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 700 B). 660 C). 640 D). 740
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Riya sold two packets of detergent at ₹96 each. On one packet she gains 20% and on the other, she loses 20%. The net gain
or loss in the complete process is:
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The average of nine numbers is 6. When three new numbers are included, the average of the twelve numbers becomes 7.5.
The average of three new numbers is:
Ans A). 8 B). 12 C). 12.5 D). 11.5
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 A shopkeeper offered following four different discount schemes for buyers on an item.
A. Two successive discounts of 8%.
B. A discount of 11% followed by a discount of 5%.
C. Successive discounts of 13% and 3%
D. A discount of 16%.
Which discount scheme should be opted for getting the item at minimum price?
Ans A). D B). B C). C D). A
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Ramesh sold a watch to Rahul at a gain of 10%, and Rahul sold it to Arun at a loss of 10%. If Arun paid ₹1,800 to Rahul, then
for how much did Ramesh sell it to Rahul?
Ans A). ₹2,500 B). ₹2,000 C). ₹3,000 D). ₹3,500
Correct Answer: B

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans
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A). B). C).

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B y

Correct Answer: A
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D).
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Q.2 Select the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.3 According to a code language, 256 means ‘they are nice’, 637 means ‘we are rude’ and 358 means ‘rude and nice’. What is
the code for ‘nice’ in the same code language?
Ans A). 7 B). 8 C). 5 D). 3
Correct Answer: C

Q.4

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.5 9 is related to 83 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 13 is related to 171. To which ofthe following is 15

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related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 227 B). 225 C). 235 ap D). 231
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 WN 22 is related to AR 29 in a certain way. In the same way, MD 19 is related to QH 26. To which of the following is EV 35
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related following the same logic?

Ans A). ZI 42 B). IZ 42 C). DK 42 D). KD 42
Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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483 502 521 540 559 ?

Ans A). 562 B). 573 C). 586 D). 578

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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M

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(7, 40, 9 )
(9,71, 10)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (11, 106, 5) B). (5, 12, 18) C). (13, 150, 19) D). (8, 49, 12)
Correct Answer: C

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Statements:
All trees are branches.
Some branches are leaves.

Conclusions:
(I) All leaves are branches.
(II) All leave are trees.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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Q.12
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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XDZ, THV, PLR, ?, HTJ
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Ans A). LPN B). LPO C). KPO D). MPN

Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statement(s).
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Statements:
All laptops are speakers.
Some laptops are desktops.
B y

Conclusions:
(I) Some speakers are desktops.
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(II) Some desktops are not laptops.

Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 KGNI is related to LHOJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GCJE is related to HDKF.
To which of the following is OKRM related, following the same logic?
Ans A). PLNS B). PLSN C). LPSN D). LPNS
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Seven people C, H, A, P, T, E and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). T is sitting to the immediate right of E and to the immediate left of R. Only one person is sitting between E and C
when counted from the left of E. Only one person is sitting between R and H when counted from the right of R. Who is
sitting to the immediate left of C?
Ans A). A B). E C). P D). H
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 In a certain code language, 'N E W S ' is coded as '2 @ 3 #' and 'D E W S' is coded as '4 @ 3 #". What is the code for 'D' in
that language?
Ans A). 3 B). 2 C). @ D). 4
Correct Answer: D

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Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘eat your food’ is written as ‘wb hs lg’ and ‘food is tasty’ is writtenas ‘sw lj hs’. How is ‘food’
writtenin the given language?
Ans A). hs B). lg C). li D). sw
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
56 – 14 × 7 ÷ 22 + 63 = ?
Ans A). 35 B). 37 C). 63 D). 13
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given
equation.
12 * 3 * 4 = 6 * 8 * 8
Ans A). ×, −, ×, + B). ×, +, −, × C). ×, +, ×, − D). +, ×, −, +
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in
the same order). Exactly three people are sitting between E and B when counted from the right of E. C is sitting second to
the left of B. A is sitting to the immediate right of D. E and F are not neighbours. How many people are sitting between C and
A when counted from the right of C?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 3 D). 1
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Republic Day parade is held every year at Kartavya Path, in which of the following cities?

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Ans A). New Delhi B). Dispur C). Jaipur D). Bangalore
Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 What is the term for the maximum population size that an environment can sustain indefinitely?
Ans A). Carrying capacity B). Ecological niche C). Pioneer species ap D). Biotic potential
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 According to Census 2011 of India, which Indian state has the highest urban population percentage?
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Ans A). Maharashtra B). Kerala C). Mizoram D). Goa

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 In the Vedic period, education was begun with which of the following?
Ans A). Grihastha B). Vanaprastha C). Upanayana D). Niyoga
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 In which neighbouring country of India is the Haa Summer Festival celebrated?
Ans A). Afghanistan B). Bhutan C). Sri Lanka D). Maldives
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Correct Answer: B
B

Q.6 Who among the following is appointed as the chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
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Ans A). YV Reddy B). Dr Vijay Kelkar C). Arvind Panagariya D). NK Singh
Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 The memoir of which of the following actors is titled ‘Unfinished’?

Ans A). Priyanka Chopra B). Deepika Padukone C). Katrina Kaif D). Alia Bhatt
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 On 16 February 2023, who was sworn in as the new Governor of Sikkim at Raj Bhawan, Gangtok?
Ans A). Pawan Chamling B). Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil C). Lakshman Prasad Acharya D). Ganga Prasad
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Which of the following Harappan cities was found without a citadel?
Ans A). Kalibangan B). Banawali C). Chanhudaro D). Lothal
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 What is the year of foundation of the Women’s Indian Association (WIA)?
Ans A). 1927 B). 1917 C). 1907 D). 1937
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Which of the following Acts was the first intervention by the British government in the East India Company’s territorial
affairs?
Ans A). The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 B). The Charter Act of 1813 C). The Regulating Act, 1773 D). The Charter Act of 1793
Correct Answer: C

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Q.12 In which of the following groups of States and Union Territories is ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known as ‘Dipa’?
Ans A). Rajasthan and Andaman & Nicobar Islands B). Chhattisgarh and Lakshadweep C). Odisha and Puducherry
D). Chhattisgarh and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 A person with a very low count of red blood cells is medically known to have _______.
Ans A). Anaemia B). Jaundice C). Goitre D). Scurvy
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 To which position in the Mughal administration under Akbar does Diwan-i-Ala refer?
Ans A). Finance Minister B). Court Writer C). Defence Minister D). Prime Minister
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 With which Kathak gharana was Pandit Janki Prasad affiliated?
Ans A). Jaipur B). Rajgarh C). Lucknow D). Benaras
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Mukhya Mantri Sikho Kamao Yojana was launched by which of these state governments?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Maharashtra C). Madhya Pradesh D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Sitara Devi was a classical dancer of India who used to perform _____________.
Ans A). Kathak B). Kathakali C). Sattriya D). Odissi
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 When did the Hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand make his Olympic debut?
Ans A). 1936, Berlin B). 1924, Paris C). 1928, Amsterdam D). 1932, Los Angeles
Correct Answer: C

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Q.19 Which dance guru of Kuchipudi dance got Padma Bhushan in 1998?

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Ans A). Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam B). Sonal Mansingh C). Shobana Chandrakumar Pilai D). Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra

Correct Answer: A
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Q.20 The space-filling model emphasises the relative size of each atom based on its _______.
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Ans A). covalent radius B). ionic radius C). fixed radius for all atoms D). van der Waals radius
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Australia won the Men’s T20 World Cup Cricket in 2021 defeating New Zealand by ______.
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Ans A). 10 wickets B). 10 runs C). 8 wickets D). 8 runs

Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 What is the primary objective of Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) in India?

Ans A). To provide financial services to large corporations

B). To offer financial assistance and services to low-income individuals and entrepreneurs C). To generate profits for shareholders
B

D). To fund government projects

Correct Answer: B
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Q.23 ‘Doabs’ are found in which physical feature of India?

Ans A). The Peninsular Plateau B). The Himalayan Mountains C). The Northern Plains D). The Coastal Plains
Correct Answer: C
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Q.24 The Indian Constitution originally consisted of how many Articles?

Ans A). 395 B). 595 C). 345 D). 495
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Water from melting snow or rainfall or the spring drains downwards through an area of land and finally gets mixed into a
large water body like river or ocean. This area of land is called:
Ans A). Bay B). Estuary C). Drainage Basin D). Delta
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Catch someone’s eye

Ans A). To irritate or annoy someone intentionally B). To physically capture someone's gaze and hold it, making them unable to look away
C). To attract someone's attention or to be noticed by them D). To surprise someone with unexpected behaviour
Correct Answer: C

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Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Search B). Multiple C). Creative D). Revaeled

Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Much of the beauty and glory of life have disappeared.

Ans A). Much of the B). beauty and glory C). of life D). have disappeared.
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Mohit have appreciated Riya for her hard work.

Ans A). had appreciating B). No substitution required C). have appreciates D). has appreciated
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

Among the three little cats, the first was __________ and the second was smaller.
Ans A). small B). more small C). most small D). most smallest
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

While threatening the integrity of Universal values, the campaign to spread democracy will not suceed.
Ans A). Suucced B). Succeed C). Sucseed D). Succsed
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANOTNYM of the word 'zest' in the given sentence.

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The peppy and energetic music of the DJ was able to remove the passivity and dullness present in the party.
Ans A). remove B). dullness C). energetic
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.
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Sonali uses a soft mattress to sleep.

Ans A). flabby B). cushiony C). hard D). spongy
Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Baker's Dozen
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Ans A). Choosing quality over quantity B). One unit extra with one dozen C). A pile of bread D). When shopkeepers put something extra
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Correct Answer: B
B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite facing numerous challenges, the team successfully _________________ the project ahead of schedule.
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Ans A). had completed B). has been completed C). completed D). will be completed
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He is the friendly man in the group.

Ans A). most friendly B). friendlier C). more friendly D). friendliest
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
This is one of best movies I have ever seen.
Ans A). one of best B). This is C). I have ever seen D). movies
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Stories are how we make ______________________ of our lives and of the world.

Ans A). sensitivity B). sense C). innate D). sagacious

Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error of the underlined word.

The historic cathedrel stood as a symbol of faith and architectural marvel, drawing visitors from around the world.
Ans A). cathidrel B). cathedril C). cathidral D). cathedral
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fondness
Ans A). Liking B). Mistake C). Brilliance D). Dislike
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

She asked if he could recount a moment when he felt completely serene.

Ans A). turbulent B). pacific C). hilarious D). derogatory
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Departing or having departed from a country to settle elsewhere

Ans A). Emigrant B). Excommunicate C). Immigrant D). Native
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Although experts are worried / that retail inflation is rising / at a steep rate, / the crisis will soon blow away.
Ans A). that retail inflation is rising B). at a steep rate C). the crisis will soon blow away D). Although experts are worried
Correct Answer: C

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Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

In the absence of her parents, the little girl felt ________ (lonely).
Ans A). collectively B). crowded C). alone ap D). sociable
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
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A room for cleaning and storing dishes and cooking utensils and for doing messy kitchen work.
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Ans A). Dormitory B). Scullery C). Sanatorium D). Overlay

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
The (1)______ life in Kashmir was drawing to its end after three (2)______ months. Miss Joan was leaving a week earlier than Mrs.
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Rhodes, and about two days before she left, I took her alone to the hotel for dinner. We walked to the hotel in (3)______ silence, a
B

silence so heavy that I could (4)______ breathe. The hotel seemed to be far away and yet not far (5)______.

SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.=
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Ans A). tonetic B). romantic C). biquadratic D). mucolytic

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The (1)______ life in Kashmir was drawing to its end after three (2)______ months. Miss Joan was leaving a week earlier than Mrs.
Rhodes, and about two days before she left, I took her alone to the hotel for dinner. We walked to the hotel in (3)______ silence, a
silence so heavy that I could (4)______ breathe. The hotel seemed to be far away and yet not far (5)______.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.=
Ans A). anonymous B). analogous C). jealous D). glorious
Correct Answer: D

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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.=
Ans A). direct B). perfect C). select D). slack
Correct Answer: B

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.=
Ans A). hardly B). loudly C). gladly D). gradually
Correct Answer: A

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silence so heavy that I could (4)______ breathe. The hotel seemed to be far away and yet not far (5)______.

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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.=
Ans A). thorough B). overweigh C). clough ap D). enough
Correct Answer: D
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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the square of its radius. Two wires
of the same material have the same resistance and their radii are in the ratio of 7 : 8. The corresponding lengths of the wires
are 147 cm and L cm, respectively. Find the value of L.
Ans A). 168 B). 192 C). 128 D). 158
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in 4 different subjects. Maximum marks for each subject is

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100.

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What is the average of total marks obtained by all five students in subject V?
B

Ans A). 69.2 B). 72.7 C). 68.8 D). 65.3

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 A shopkeeper mixes three types of seeds worth ₹240, ₹258 and ₹252 in 3 : 1 : 2. Average cost of the mixture is:
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Ans A). ₹245 B). ₹248 C). ₹246 D). ₹247

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 A car’s radiator should contain a solution of 52% antifreeze. A motorist has 8 litres of 40% antifreeze. How many litres
(rounded off to 2 decimal places) of 95% antifreeze liquid should he add to his solution to produce a 52% antifreeze?
Ans A). 1.92 B). 3.45 C). 4.26 D). 2.23
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 390 B). 490 C). 410 D). 450
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 15% less than the true weights and makes a profit of 20%.
Find his total gain percentage.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.7 If a sum doubles itself on certain rate of simple interest in 10 years, then at the same rate of interest, the sum will become 4
times itself in:
Ans A). 20 years B). 30 years C). 25 years D). 40 years
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8

Ans A). 450 cm2 B). 50 cm2 C). 350 cm2 D). 264 cm2 Correct Answer: D

Q.9

Ans A). 18 B). 42 C). 21 D). 12

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 The outer circumference of the top of a large hemispherical iron bowl is 565.2 cm and the bowl is y cm thick. If the total
surface area of the bowl is 98,988.5 cm2, then what is the value of y? (Use π = 3.14.)
Ans A). 3.5 B). 4 C). 6 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Sandeep sold an overcoat for ₹8,784 and made a profit of 22%. Determine the original cost of the overcoat.
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.12 A trader gains 44% after selling an item at 25% discount on the printed price. What is the ratio of the cost price and the
printed price of the item?

Ans A). 25 : 48 B). 35 : 48 C). 48 : 25 D). 48 : 35

Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 In a school, class 11th has three sections A, B and C. There are 30 students in Section A, 36 students in Section B, and 40
students in Section C. The average marks scored by the students in Section A, Section B and Section C in the Mathematics
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annual exam are 90, 85 and 70, respectively. Find the average marks scored by the whole class, correct to two places of
decimals.
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Ans A). 58.07 B). 80.57 C). 58.70 D). 80.75
Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance of 12 km at the
same speed?
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Ans A). 10 minutes B). 11 minutes C). 12 minutes D). 20 minutes

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 35 kg is:
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Ans A). 51.8 B). 50.8 C). 49.8 D). 48.8

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.16 A man on a tour travels first 120 km at 48 km/h and the next 120 km at 80 km/h. The average speed for the first 240 km of the
tour is:
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Ans A). 64 km/h B). 60 km/h C). 66 km/h D). 72 km/h

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 The graph shows the number of students who appeared and passed in class XII final exams in a school in different years.

In which year is the percentage of students passed with respect to students appeared the highest?
Ans A). 2022 B). 2019 C). 2021 D). 2020
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Determine the smallest number which when divided by 20, 15 and 30 leaves remainder 6 in each case.
Ans A). 36 B). 66 C). 56 D). 96
Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 During the first year, the population of a village increased by 5%, and during the second year, it reduced by 6%. At the end of

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the second year, its population was 35,532. What was the population at the beginning of the first year?
Ans A). 38,000 B). 36,000 C). 37,568 D). 34,567
Correct Answer: B

Q.20
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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
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Ans A). 490 B). 390 C). 410 D). 450
Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 E, F, G, H, L, K, and M are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). K sits to
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the immediate left of F. Only two people sit between K and L when counted from the left of K. Only two people sit between M
and E when counted from the right of E. E sits to the immediate right of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of F. Who is
sitting to the immediate right of G?
G

Ans A). M B). H C). L D). F

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
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35 ÷ 4 + 6 − 3 × 12 = ?
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Ans A). 39 B). 28 C). 35 D). 29

Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 11 is related to 106 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 146. To which of the following is 19
related following the same logic?

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Statements:
All bags are duffles.
All duffles are containers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some containers are duffles.
(II) All bags are containers.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
12 × 3 – 5 ÷ 4 + 11 = ?
Ans A). 11 B). 14 C). 12 D). 13
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(284, 238)
(271, 225)
Ans A). (212, 166) B). (297, 246) C). (185, 135) D). (252, 196)
Correct Answer: A

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Q.7 MK14 is related to QO19 in a certain way. In the same way, XV31 is related to BZ36. To which of the following is RP52 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). ED43 B). VT57 C). ST58
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.8
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
G

All roses are lilies.

No rose is a sunflower.
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Conclusions:
B

(I) All lilies are roses.

(II) No lily is a sunflower.
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Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion I follows
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

DBF, HFJ, LJN, PNR, ?

Ans A). TRV B). SQU C). QOS D). FDH
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

41, 48, 55, 62, 69, ?

Ans A). 77 B). 75 C). 74 D). 76
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.14
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Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
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Ans
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A). B). C).

B y
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Correct Answer: C
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D).

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘SNOW’ is written as ‘7358’ and ‘BLEW’ is written as ‘1293’. How is ‘W’ coded in the given
language?
Ans A). 9 B). 1 C). 8 D). 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 BMGC is related to GRDZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LWAW is related to
QBXT. To which of the following is VGUQ related, following the same logic?

Ans A). ALRN B). ZKSM C). BKRO D). BMQN

Correct Answer: A

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Q.17 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between C and E when counted from the right of C. Only 1 person sits between E and G when counted from the
left of E. F sits immediate to the left of D. Only 2 people sit between B and F when counted from the left of B. How many
people sit between G and B when counted from the left of G?
Ans A). 0 B). 3 C). 4 D). 1
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 In a code language, 'STATION' is coded as '18' and 'JOURNALS' is coded as '20'. How will 'GOLDMEDAL' be coded in the
same language?
Ans A). 28 B). 22 C). 44 D). 72
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

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Correct Answer: B

Q.20
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In a certain code language, ‘system is backbone’ is written as ‘sdf wer tce’ and ‘backbone is you’ is coded as ‘tce kpo wer’.
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What is the meaning of the code ‘sdf’ in the given language?
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Ans A). you B). system C). backbone D). is

Correct Answer: B
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which state is the Kaiga Nuclear Power Project located?

Ans A). Bihar B). Karnataka C). Assam D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.2 Which element is known for having the highest electronegativity on the periodic table?
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Ans A). Carbon B). Oxygen C). Fluorine D). Hydrogen

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 As per the Census 1951, the female literacy rate in India was:
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Theravada is known as the official religion of which of the following neighbouring countries of India?
Ans A). Afghanistan B). Bangladesh C). Pakistan D). Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which virus is responsible for causing common cold?

Ans A). Coronavirus B). Hepatitis A C). Rhinovirus D). Influenza
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Which of the following dance awards is organised by the National Institute of Indian Classical Dance?
Ans A). Bharata Shastra Nritya Praveena B). Abhinandan Saroja C). Natya Shiromani National D). Sanatan Sangeet Sanskriti

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 How many central banks can a country have?

Ans A). Four B). One C). Three D). Two
Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 What is the rate of movement of tectonic plate boundaries?
Ans A). 1-2 mm per year B). 1-2 m per year C). 2-5 km per year D). 1-2 inch per year
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which Rigvedic God is considered an intermediary between God and men?
Ans A). Indra B). Agni C). Varuna D). Yama
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The Uttarakhand Public Services (Horizontal Reservation for Women) Bill, 2022 provides how much reservation to women?
Ans A). 25% B). 45% C). 20% D). 30%
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 After the decisive battle of Plassey of 1757, who among the following was declared as the Nawab of Bengal by the British?
Ans A). Mir Qasim B). Mir Jafar Ali Khan C). Mansur Ali Khan D). Murshid Quli Khan
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which of the following is written by Mulk Raj Anand?

Ans A). The Guide B). Untouchable C). The Blue Umbrella D). The White Tiger
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Ranjani Hebbar was associated with which of the following fields?
Ans A). Hindustani music B). Bhajan C). Carnatic music D). Folk music
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 At which of the following places is the tomb of Sher Shah Suri situated?
Ans A). Sasaram B). Rajgir C). Sultanpur D). Bargaon
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Akbar’s first expedition towards Deccan was sent to Ahmednagar under the leadership of Prince Murad and

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_______________.

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Ans A). Birbal B). Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan C). Adham Khan D). Man Singh
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Which of the following Biosphere reserves is located in Uttarakhand? ap

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Ans A). Panchmarhi B). Nanda Devi C). Nilgiri D). Dihang-Dibang
Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Padma Subramanyam, Alarmel Valli, Yamini Krishnamurthy and Anita Ratnam are distinguished practitioners of
____________.
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Ans A). Odissi B). Kuchipudi C). Kathak D). Bharatanatyam

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 In the year 1930, the Salt Satyagraha was led by who among the following?
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Ans A). Jawaharlal Nehru B). Subhas Chandra Bose C). Mahatma Gandhi D). Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 Which of the following countries won its 8th Men's Asian Cup cricket title in 2023?
B

Ans A). Pakistan B). India C). Sri Lanka D). Bangladesh
Correct Answer: B
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Q.20 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in ‘Liberty’ as per the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
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Ans A). Faith and worship B). Thought C). Trust and hope D). Expression
Correct Answer: C
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Q.21 In February 2023, who was appointed as the CEO of NITI Aayog?
Ans A). Iyer Parmeshwaran B). Monali Jaiswal C). Geetika Srivastava D). BVR Subrahmanyam
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Based on the number of chambers in the heart, select the odd one from the following.
Ans A). Turtle B). Chameleon C). Crocodile D). Frog
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 In which of the following years was the 11th Fundamental Duty added in the Indian Constitution through the 86th
Amendment Act?
Ans A). 2002 B). 1986 C). 1976 D). 1982
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 What does the term 'deuce' signify in tennis?

Ans A). A let B). A tied score at 40-40 C). The final point in a game D). A fault in serving
Correct Answer: B

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Q.25 A regal ceremony in the form of Beating Retreat ceremony on the evening of _____________ marks the end of Republic Day
celebrations.
Ans A). 28th January B). 27th January C). 29th January D). 26th January Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Oblegation B). Overview C). Opponent D). Ointment
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Applicants who are younger and prettier than you will continue appliying.
Ans A). younger B). applicants C). prettier D). appliying
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Select the option that corrects the error in the given sentence.
She performed bad in the exam.
Ans A). bad B). good C). goodly D). badly
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The late secretary of our society was known for his ruthless treatment of all the security personnel of the society.
Ans A). Startled B). Fragile C). Compassionate D). Brutal
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the most appropriate word opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the underlined word in the given sentence.

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Aunty Hema gave us her candid opinion on the skit we performed on Children’s Day.

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Ans A). strong B). frank C). prejudiced D). intelligent
Correct Answer: C

Q.6
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Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
An eucalyptus tree in my backyard acts as a landmark for many to reach my house.
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Ans A). in my backyard B). to reach my house C). acts as a landmark for many D). An eucalyptus tree
Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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The fresh air / in the garden relaxes / the minds of children as / the environment is cleaner.
Ans A). The fresh air B). the environment is cleaner C). the minds of children as D). in the garden relaxes
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fetid
B y

Ans A). Fragrant B). Fatigued C). False D). Fatal

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
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I have a vague memory of meeting her many years ago.

Ans A). evident B). pellucid C). Hazy D). Symbolic

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to _______ our essays for spelling and grammar errors.
Ans A). revise B). advise C). recognise D). revolve
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The act of talking to oneself, often audibly
Ans A). Monologue B). Dialogue C). Soliloquy D). Solitude
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Show
Ans A). Cover B). Exhibit C). Register D). Display
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He hardness ever / complains about / his workload because / he enjoys his job.
Ans A). he enjoys his job B). his workload because C). He hardness ever D). complains about
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Your sibling accidentally broke your favourite vase. Which of the following idioms might you use to tell them not to worry
about it?
Ans A). "Don’t cry over spilt milk!" B). "Shallow brooks are noisy" C). "Bite the bullet!" D). "You’re walking on air!"
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I dream of a country where even the least talented person has the ________ to earn a living.
Ans A). landmark B). opportunity C). priority D). admit
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the option that will correct the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no correction is required, select No
correction needed.

Naveen is as tall as Rocky.

Ans A). the tallest B). taller than C). tall as D). No correction needed
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

How can someone / walk this farthest / just for / peace of mind?
Ans A). walk this farthest B). just for C). peace of mind D). How can someone
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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The humble surroundings of our company ______ creativity amongst the newly recruited employees.
Ans A). banished B). connected C). filed
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
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We agree that Professor Revanth is very knowledgeable, but we do not like attending his classes because he always keeps
blowing the trumpet .
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Ans A). sounding the trumpet B). the blow of a trumpet C). blowing his own trumpet D). the sound of the trumpet
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A) Exaggerate
B) Accommodate
C) Exuberant
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D) Perservere
B

Ans A). C B). A C). B D). D

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an
issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.
Ans A). employable B). employability C). appointed D). appoint
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an
issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.
Ans A). voicelessly B). hardly C). equally D). abruptly
Correct Answer: C

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
Ans A). spirit B). competitive C). spiritual D). relaxed
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

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each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an

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issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.
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SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.

Ans A). will be B). have been C). has been D). is
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Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
B

government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.
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SubQuestion No : 25
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.

Ans A). insignificant B). perennial C). appetite D). momentary

Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The demand and production for five businesses V, W, X, Y, and Z are shown in the accompanying chart, which illustrates
them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

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The difference between average demand and average production of the four companies (V, W, X, Y) taken together, is:
Ans A). 100 B). 75 C). 50 D). 125
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
B

Ans A). 340 B). 260 C). 240 D). 300

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3
at
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Ram borrowed ₹20,000 at 6% per annum and ₹25,000 at 8% per annum, for the same duration. He had to pay ₹9,600 in all as
interest. What is the time period?
Ans A). 5 years B). 3 years C). 4 years D). 2 years
Correct Answer: B

Q.5

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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Q.6 If Mohan’s income is 20% less than Arvind’s income, then how much per cent is Arvind’s income more than Mohan’s
income?
Ans A). 30% B). 20% C). 15% D). 25%
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 A train travelling at a speed of 36 km/h crosses a pole in 24 sec. What is the length of the train?
Ans A). 1.5 m B). 300 m C). 240 m D). 30 m
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 3465, respectively. If one of the two numbers is 693, what is the other number?
Ans A). 315 B). 75 C). 55 D). 65
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 A clothing store announces a discount scheme 'Buy one shirt and get 40% off on another shirt of the same price'. What is
the profit percentage of the store, given that each shirt has a cost price 60% below the marked price?
Ans A). 60% B). 120% C). 100% D). 80%
Correct Answer: C

Q.10

Ans A). 20.8 B). 24.8 C). 24.5 D). 25

Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. If the length of each train is 150 m and they cross each

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other in 15 sec, find the speed of each train (in km/hr).
Ans A). 18 B). 24 C). 36 D). 42
Correct Answer: C

Q.12
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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
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Ans A). 640 B). 540 C). 600 D). 560
Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 In an examination, the average score of a student was 71.9. If the student would have got 28 more marks in English, 22 more
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marks in Mathematics, 16 more marks in Computer Science, 14 more marks in History, 10 less marks in Hindi, and retained
the same marks in other subjects, then the average score would have been 80.65. How many subjects were there in the
examination?
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Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 9 D). 6

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.14
What is the ratio in which product A, costing ₹70 per 100 grams, should be
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mixed with product B, costing ₹100 per 100 grams, so that on selling the
B

mixture at ₹1.20 per gram, a profit of 25% is achieved?

Ans A). 9 : 2 B). 13 : 2 C). 2 : 9 D). 2 : 13

Correct Answer: D
at
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Q.15 The average weight of X, Y and Z is 67 kg. The average weight of X and Y is 64 kg and that of Y and Z is 52 kg. The weight of
Y (in kg) is:
Ans A). 31 B). 33 C). 30 D). 28
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 If 80 workers took 25 days to finish a task,how many days will it take to finish the same task if 20 more workers join?
Ans A). 12 B). 16 C). 8 D). 20
Correct Answer: D

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Q.17 The x and y co-ordinates of six points are tabulated as below. Observe the table carefully and answer the given question.
Points X-co-ordinate Y-co-ordinate
A 15 42
B 20 46
C 18 44
D 16 48
E 21 50
F 22 52

Find the distance between F and C.

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.18 400 chickooes were bought at ₹1280 per hundred and were sold at a profit of ₹980. Find the selling price (in ₹) per dozen of
chickooes.
Ans A). 193 B). 173 C). 183 D). 198
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The area of a right-angled triangle is 80m2. If its perpendicular is equal to 20 m, then find its base.
Ans A). 4 m B). 3 m C). 6 m D). 8 m
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Mr Rao purchased a laptop for ₹45,000. After a few months, as his office provided another laptop, he sold it at a loss of 12%
to Mrs Sharma. After one year, she sold it to an engineering student for a profit of 12%. What is the amount the student had
to pay?
Ans A). ₹45,000 B). ₹34,848 C). ₹44,352 D). ₹56,448
Correct Answer: C

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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1
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In a certain code language, 'ABROAD' is coded as ‘WZLIYZ’ and 'ADVISE' is coded as ‘VHREWZ’. How will 'AGENDA' be
coded in the same language?
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Ans A). ZWNVUZ B). ZTWMWY C). ZWMVTZ D). ZTVMWZ
Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 EBHD is related to IFLH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JGMI is related to NKQM.
To which of the following is OLRN related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). PSVR B). SPVR C). PSRV D). SPRV

Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 Six persons – Rahul, Ram, Ranjan, Reena, Rohit and Rupali – are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not
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necessarily in the same order. Rupali is sitting second to the right of Ram, who is Reena’s immediate neighbour. Rohit is not
an immediate neighbour of Reena. Rahul is an immediate neighbour of both, Rupali and Ram.
Who is sitting second to the left of Ram?
B y

Ans A). Reena B). Rupali C). Rahul D). Ranjan

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
at
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷ ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
88 ÷ 18 × 28 + 4 − 14 =?
Ans A). 8 B). 18 C). −2 D). 28
Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All irons are heaters.
Some irons are fans.

Conclusions:
(I) Some heaters are fans.
(II) All fans are irons.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Both conclusion I and II follow

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 3, 6 ,11, 18 ,?
Ans A). 31 B). 29 C). 27 D). 30
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘zebra tool bean’ is coded as 'rj pi ki' and ‘bean knife army’ is coded as ‘ko jm pi’. How is ‘bean’
coded in the given language?
Ans A). ko B). rj C). pi D). ki
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F
is sitting third to the right of C. D is sitting second to the left of F. A and E are immediate neighbours. E is sitting second to
the right of B.
How many people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E?

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Ans A). 3 B). 1 C). 4 D). 2

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Correct Answer: A

Q.10 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
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number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
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and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

246, 123
448, 224
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Ans A). 624, 312 B). 102, 226 C). 325, 96 D). 444, 66
Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
G
B y
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at
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Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

Q.12

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.14 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 40 × 5 – 4 + 5 = ?
Ans A). 11 B). 31 C). 13 D). 15
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘BIRD’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘DOPE’ is coded as ‘5679’.What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code
language?

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Ans A). 6 B). 8 C). 5 D). 7
Correct Answer: A

Q.16
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Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.
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an
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Ans
Correct Answer: A
G
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A). B). C). D).

B
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Q.17 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
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if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some tables are plates.
Some tables are spoons.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some spoons are plates.
(II) Some plates are tables.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Only conclusion (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 UD 1 is related to OF −6 in a certain way. In the same way, IX 6 is related to CZ −1. To which of the following is MJ 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). GL −4 B). GM 4 C). GN −4 D). GK 4
Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 18 is related to 91 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 27 is related to 136. To which of the following is 45
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 234 B). 238 C). 226 D). 222
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

HXS, JVQ, LTO, NRM, ?

Ans A). PPM B). PNQ C). PPK D). OPD
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The modern-day __________ was molded by the renowned Tanjore Bandhu, consisting of the four Nattuvanars: Ponnayya,
Vadivelu, Sivanandam and Chinnayya.
Ans A). Mohiniyattam B). Bharatanatyam C). Kathakali D). Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Who became the first female armless archer to win a medal at the Para World Championship event, 2023?
Ans A). Seema Devi B). Shreya Devi C). Shikha Devi D). Sheetal Devi
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Which of the following options represents the correct flow of energy in an ecosystem?

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Ans A). Sunlight → Herbivores → Carnivores → Producers B). Sunlight → Carnivores → Producers → Herbivores

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C). Sunlight → Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores D). Sunlight → Herbivores → Producers → Carnivore Correct Answer: C

Q.4
the gas if the pressure is decreased to 2 × 104 Pa?
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At 10 × 104 Pa pressure and 300 K temperature, the volume of 0.09 mol CO2 gas is 22.4 × 10−3 m3. What will be the volume of
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Ans A). 56.3 × 10−3 m3 B). 112.0 × 10−3 m3 C). 37.4 × 10−3 m3 D). 28.1 × 10−3 m3
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Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In 1990, who established Nrityagram, a dance school in Bengaluru?

Ans A). Madhavi Mudgal B). Protima Gauri Bedi C). Mukti Mohan D). Rekha Raju
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 The ___________ scheme, that covers artisans related to 18 fields, was included under the 'Payments Infrastructure
Development Fund' ('PIDF') scheme by the Reserve Bank of India in October 2023.
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Ans A). PM USHA B). PM Ullas C). PM Vishwakarma D). PM Swanidhi

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.7 Who among the following formed an organisation to support widow remarriage in Madras Presidency?
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Ans A). V Chidambaram Pillai B). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar C). C Rajagopalachari D). Veereshlingam Pantulu
Correct Answer: D
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Q.8 Which of the following Articles entails “Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment”?
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Ans A). Article 15 B). Article 17 C). Article 14 D). Article 16

Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Sawai Gandharva was associated with which of the following gharanas?
Ans A). Kirana gharana B). Benaras gharana C). Agra gharana D). Indore gharana
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The partition of ___________was annulled in 1911.

Ans A). Burma B). Punjab C). United Provinces D). Bengal
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Who is the author of ‘The story of My Experiments with Truth’?

Ans A). BR Ambedkar B). MK Gandhi C). Paramahansa Yogananda D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which state in India has the largest scheduled tribe population as per the 2011 Census?
Ans A). Odisha B). Madhya Pradesh C). Jharkhand D). Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: B

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Q.13 In which state is the Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Power Project located?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Rajasthan C). Tamil Nadu D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 As per Census 2011, which of the following is the most populated city in India?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Chennai C). Kolkata D). Delhi
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 In the State Legislature, _______________ is subject to dissolution.

Ans A). Council of States B). Legislative Assembly C). Legislative Council D). House of People
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 What is the chemical name for the compound responsible for the cooling sensation in mint leaves?
Ans A). Ethanol B). Menthol C). Caffeine D). Capsaicin
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans A). Harappan culture spread only to Sindh and Punjab. B). The script of the Harappan culture has been deciphered by historians.
C). At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits. D). Granaries in the Indus Valley Civilization were found in Harappa only.

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 To control the prices, which of the following Sultans of Delhi set up three different markets for different commodities in
Delhi?
Ans A). Alauddin Khalji B). Muhammad bin Tughlaq C). Ghiyasuddin Balban D). Shamsuddin Iltutmish
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 The second largest dome in the world was built in India and is still standing strong. Which dome is being spoken about

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here?

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Ans A). GlampEco B). Teela C). Gol Gumbaz D). Calico Dome
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 For which of the following minerals are Jharia and Raniganj known?
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Ans A). Marble B). Coal C). Copper D). Gold
Correct Answer: B
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Q.21 Identify the correct match in the context of microfinance.

Ans A). Muhammad Yasir - Grameen Bank - Bangladesh B). Muhammad Yasir - Grameen Bank - Pakistan
C). Muhammad Yunus - Grameen Bank - Pakistan D). Muhammad Yunus - Grameen Bank - Bangladesh
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Correct Answer: D

Q.22 What was the name of the official torch for the Khelo India University Games 2022?
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Ans A). Ujala B). Mitra C). Samarth D). Shakti

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.23 In March 2023, who was appointed as Chairperson of Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA)?
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Ans A). Subodh Jaiswal B). Suresh N Patel C). Tushar Mehta D). Deepak Mohanty
Correct Answer: D
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Q.24 Losar festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans A). Chhattisgarh B). Andhra Pradesh C). Goa D). Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 The percentage of pore space between the particles inside a rock or soil is called:
Ans A). Porosity B). Density C). Salinity D). Permeability
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

A good lawyer / always looks in the / case before he / attends court.

Ans A). attends court B). always looks in the C). case before he D). A good lawyer
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On the back foot

Ans A). In a relaxed state B). C). D).
Correct Answer: C
Situated farther away At a disadvantage In a hurry
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Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

According to Greek mythology, Sipylus is holier city of Lydia.

Ans A). the holiest B). most holiest C). the holier D). most holy
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Before the internet was available on mobile, I read often books for entertainment and information.
Ans A). for entertainment and information. B). was available on mobile C). Before the internet D). I read often books
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Gloomy
Ans A). Sticky B). Vain C). Dismal D). Buoyant
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

They decided to /start their journey / towards the hills / in midnight.

Ans A). They decided to B). start their journey C). in midnight D). towards the hills
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Predicament
Ans A). Solution B). Docile C). Mess D). Redeem
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate superlative adjective form to fill in the blanks.

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What’s ___ book you’ve ever read?
Ans A). interesting B). the most interesting C). more interesting D). the interesting

Q.9 Select the most appropriate present tense form of the verb to fill in the blank.
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__________ they like sweets?
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Ans A). Do B). Had C). Has D). Does

Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

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We ___________________ to follow the traffic rules.

Ans A). aut B). aught C). ought D). oght

Correct Answer: C
B
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Obsequious
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Ans A). Ordained B). Obliterate C). Ostracised D). Obstinate

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The sink is clogged due to solid materials.
Ans A). A pipeline for water supply B). A container which holds water C). A large fixed container to wash hands or utensils D). To drown in water

Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully..

The ______ on the wall was beautifully painted.

Ans A). pictur B). picture C). picter D). pickchure
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite his initial ___________, he eventually agreed to join the team.

Ans A). enthusiasm B). reluctance C). determination D). compassion
Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Industrialisation gives even the least talented person a chance to ______________ his livelihood.
Ans A). Live B). Give C). Earn D). Break
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

A grand function was organised to honour the person who had died for a noble cause.
Ans A). martyr B). volunteer C). prophet D). philanthropist
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The investigating team smelled a ___________________ in the suspect's defence.
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D
cat bat dog rat

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Synchronous B). Inadvertant C). Effeminate D). Blatant
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

Mr. Wilson is elder than he looks.

Ans A). older then B). elder to C). elder for D). older than
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Awful B). Awsome C). Bitter D). Barren

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Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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Opera refers (1)_______ a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content (2)________ conveyed to the
audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. (3)___________contrast, in musical theatre
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an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music (4)_________ a lesser role. The drama in opera is (5)________ using the
primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
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Ans A). on B). for C). to D). with

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
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an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music (4)_________ a lesser role. The drama in opera is (5)________ using the
primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). is B). were C). are being D). are
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Opera refers (1)_______ a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content (2)________ conveyed to the
audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. (3)___________contrast, in musical theatre
an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music (4)_________ a lesser role. The drama in opera is (5)________ using the
primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). For B). In C). Under D). Beside
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). plays B). playing C). play D). played
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). presenting B). presented C). being present D). present
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A person buys a horse for 15 pounds. After one year, he sells it for 20 pounds. After one year, again he buys the same horse
for 30 pounds and sells it for 40 pounds. What is the overall profit percentage for that person over both the transactions?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.2 A policeman can catch a thief in fifteen minutes when the distance between them is 2 km. If the policeman starts chasing the
thief at 9:00 a.m. and he catches the thief at 9:40 a.m., what was the initial distance between the thief and the policeman?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.3

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Ans A). 4 B). 3 C). 6 D). 5
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 A class of 42 students took a Physics test. 18 students had an average score of 95. The other students had
an average score of 73. What is the average score (rounded off to one decimal place) of the whole class?
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Ans A). 79.6 B). 86.1 C). 90.7 D). 82.4

Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 The average of 8 numbers 127, 432, p, 89, q, 99, 842 and 76 is 221 and the numbers p and q are two-digit numbers. If the
units digit of p is one less than that of q and tens digit of q is one less than that of p, then the sum of the digits of p is:
Ans A). 14 B). 12 C). 13 D). 11
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.6 Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 2400. Their HCF is:
y

Ans A). 60 B). 40 C). 30 D). 25

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 180 B). 140 C). 220 D). 120
hs

Correct Answer: A

Q.8 A person marks his goods x% above the cost price and allows a discount of 28% on the marked price. If his profit is 22.4%,
at

then the value of x is:

Ans A). 50 B). 80 C). 30 D). 70
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 By selling an article for ₹880, a shopkeeper gains 10%. What would his gain percentage be if he sells the article for ₹900?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Arman leaves ₹2,17,600 to be divided among four sons, three daughters and five nephews. If each daughter receives 3 times
as much as each nephew and each son receives 5 times as much as each nephew, how much does each son receive?
Ans A). ₹18,200 B). ₹32,000 C). ₹36,000 D). ₹25,600
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 The milk and water in two buckets P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 3 and 1 : 4, respectively. In what ratio are the liquids in both
the buckets mixed to obtain a new mixture in a third bucket R containing 50% milk and 50% water?
Ans A). 7 : 9 B). 4 : 7 C). 7 :13 D). 12 : 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 When the price of an article was reduced by 10% its sale increased by 60%. What was the net effect on the revenue?
Ans A). Decrease of 24% B). Increase of 44% C). Decrease of 44% D). Increase of 24%
Correct Answer: B

Q.13

Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

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Q.14

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Kumar took a loan from a bank at the rate of 9.5% per annum at simple interest. After 6 years he had to pay ₹3,705 as
interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:
Ans A). ₹2,100 B). ₹5,800 C). ₹8,200 D). ₹6,500
Correct Answer: D

Q.16

Ans A). 6 B). 7 C). 8 D). 9

Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
7
Ans A). 75.8 kg B). 76.8 kg C). 78.8 kg D). 77.8 kg

Q.18 If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 25% and the height is increased by 25% to form a new cylinder, what is the
percentage decrease in new volume (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)?
Ans A). 27.5% B). 29.69% C). 40.2% D). 39.5%
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1010 B). 990 C). 1090 D). 1050
Correct Answer: D

Q.20

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Ans A). 46.75% B). 43.75% C). 56.25% D). 43.25%

Correct Answer: B
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
B y
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Ans
M

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 In a certain language, ‘this college bag is expensive’ is coded as ‘br od hy jh pb’ and ‘your bag looks very heavy’ is coded as
‘mh sa tn dl od’. How is ‘bag’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). jh B). br C). od D). mh
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘sold the painting’ is written as ‘ju ri gi’ and ‘directors sold business’ is coded as ‘hu fe ju’. How
is ‘sold’ coded in that language?
Ans A). ju B). hu C). ri D). fe
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 11 is related to 127 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 70. To which ofthe following is 14
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans A). 217 B). 240 C). 194 D). 202
Correct Answer: D

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Statements:
Some pillows are curtains.
No curtain is a bedsheet.

Conclusions:
(I) All pillows can never be bedsheets.
(II) Some curtains are not pillows.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Both conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

18, 37
22, 45
Ans A). 24, 72 B). 26, 53 C). 25, 57 D). 27, 59
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 Find the missing term in the following series:

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MM, LO, KQ, __, IU, HW.
Ans A). JS B). JP C). KS D). KP
Correct Answer: A

Q.9
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Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
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Ans
Correct Answer: B
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A). B). C). D).

B y
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Q.10 A, C, F, E, B, U and P are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
F is sitting third to the right of E. P is sitting third to the left of A. U is sitting third to the right of C. E is an immediate
neighbour to the left of P. C is not an immediate neighbour of P. Who among the following is sitting third to the right of U?
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Ans A). E B). P C). B D). A

Correct Answer: C
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Q.11

Ans

A). C). D).

B).

Correct Answer: A

Q.12 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
6÷3×2+1–2=?

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Answer: D
Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘listen to music’ is written as ‘fd si lr’ and ‘you should listen’ is writtenas ‘lr ep wi’. How is ‘listen’
writtenin the given language?
Ans A). wi B). ep C). lr D). fd
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
•Some mats are yolks.
•Some toys are mats.
Conclusions:
(I)Some mats are jute.
(II)Toy is a yolk.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘quip area flash’ is coded as 'er to pg' and ‘bacon quip bonus’ is coded as ‘to my te’. How is
‘quip’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). pg B). er C). to D). my
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting to the
immediate left of G and immediate right of E. J is sitting to the immediate right of H and immediate left of I. H is sitting to the
immediate right of G. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?
Ans A). H B). F C). J D). I
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 JK 3 is related to MH 6 in a certain way. In the same way, OD 11 is related to RA 14. To which of the following is RD 14
related, following the same logic?
Ans A). UB 19 B). UA 14 C). UZ 17 D). UA 17
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

31 × 961 ÷ 155 – 73 + 54 = ?
Ans A). 24 B). 22 C). 44 D). 42
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 MKQO is related to TRXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOM is related to RPVT.
To which of the following is HFLJ related, following the same logic?

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Ans A). OMSQ B). OMQS C). MOQS D). MOSQ
Correct Answer: A

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Q.20 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6 ,7, 9, 13, 21, ?

Ans A). 40 B). 38 C). 37
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D). 39
Correct Answer: C
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As per National Multidimensional Poverty Index report 2023, what is the poverty rate of India (2019-21)?
Ans A). 20.89% B). 14.96% C). 20.61% D). 15.47%
Correct Answer: B
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Q.2 Which of the following groups of plants are categorised as cryptogams?

Ans A). Gymnosperms and Angiosperms B). Pteridophyta and Angiosperms C). Thallophyta and Gymnosperms
D). Bryophytes and Thallophyta
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.3 Which physical feature of India is known for its lateritic soil which supports plantation crops?
Ans A). Chhota Nagpur Pleateau B). Western Ghats C). The Himalayas D). Malabar Coast
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.4 Select the correct order of the following metals in terms of their increasing reactivities.
Ans A). Au, Cu, Mg and K B). K, Cu, Mg and Au C). K, Mg, Cu and Au D). Au, Mg, Cu and K
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5
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Ans A). 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c B). 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a C). 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a D). 1 - c, 2 - a,3 - b

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Who among the following assumed the position of Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) in May 2023?
Ans A). Praveen Kumar Srivastava B). Rajiv Gauba C). Rajeev Sinha D). Amitabh Kant
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index of India: A Progress Review 2023, which of the following states
has the LOWEST percentage of population being multidimensionally poor?
Ans A). Manipur B). Rajasthan C). Sikkim D). West Bengal
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 In which year was the Shri Mahila SEWA Sahakari Bank established?
Ans A). 1971 B). 1974 C). 1975 D). 1972
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 In 1973, the first female high court judge of India Anna Chandy published her autobiography ____________________ in
Malayalam.
Ans A). The Test of My Life B). Playing it My Way C). Atmakatha D). The Race of My Life
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Kathakali, one of the classical dance forms, is performed primarily in which state of India?
Ans A). Kerala B). Tamil Nadu C). Punjab D). Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 Where was the India House established to work for India’s liberation from British possession?
Ans A). London B). San Francisco C). Kabul D). Berlin
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?
Ans A). Independent Bodies B). Elections to the Panchayats C). Cooperative Societies D). Foreign Policy
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Which of the following languages was used by the Sangam poets for composing the texts?
Ans A). Kannada B). Tamil C). Telugu D). Malayalam
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of deposition and compaction of fragments of rocks of various sizes. This
process is called:
Ans A). liquefaction B). weathering C). lithification D). lacoliths
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Who received 'Sangeet Natak Akademi' award 2022 for his/her contribution in the field of Kathak?
Ans A). Shobha Koser B). Rajendra Gangani C). Nalini and Kamalini Asthana D). Jagdish Gangani
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 The religious festival, 'Easter' is celebrated by which community?

Ans A). Muslim community B). Christian community C). Parsi community D). Jain community
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 The elliptical shapes in temple architecture in Dravidian style are known by which of the given terms?
Ans A). Vrita B). Nasi C). Gajaprishta D). Ayatasra
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 In which year did Roshan Mistry become the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games medal when she took the silver in
the 100-m sprint?
Ans A). 1954, Asian Games B). 1951, Asian Games C). 1958, Asian Games D). 1962, Asian Games
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 What is the meaning of the term 'drop shot' in tennis?

Ans A). A powerful overhead shot B). A shot that hits the lines on the court C). A powerful service D). A shot played softly and close to the net

Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Indian classical vocalist and Padma Vibhushan awardee Kishori Amonkar belongs to which of the following gharanas?
Ans A). Agra gharana B). Mewati gharana C). Indore gharana D). Jaipur gharana
Correct Answer: D

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Q.21 Which of the following organisations was established in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang?

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Ans A). Veda Samaj B). Poona Sarvajanik Sabha C). Prarthana Samaj D). Satya Sodhak Samaj
Correct Answer: C

Q.22

Ans A). Karnataka B). Gujarat C). West Bengal

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Which of the following location has NOT been selected for setting up the seven PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and
Apparel (PM MITRA) Park for the textile sector announced by the Government of India in March 2023?
D). Maharashtra
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Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Which of the following is a NOT a natural fibre crop grown in India?
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Ans A). Cotton B). Hemp C). Jute D). Polyester

Correct Answer: D

Q.24 What is denatured alcohol?

Ans A). Pure Ethanol B). Ethanol mixed with little methanol C). Pure Methanol D). Propanol
Correct Answer: B
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Q.25 Who was appointed as the governor of Bengal by Sultan Balban after the revolt and subsequent death of Tughril Beg?
Ans A). Zafar Khan B). Bughra Khan C). Khizr Khan D). Mahmud Khan
Correct Answer: B
G

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
As he is not satisfied / with the jury’s decision, / he appeal / in the higher court.
B

Ans A). he appeal B). with the jury’s decision C). in the higher court D). as he is not satisfied
Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
at
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He received an honarary degree for his contributions.

Ans A). Honorary B). Honnary C). Honnaary D). Honnorary
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the option that has an error in the usage of the present perfect tense.
Ans A). I have completed my task. B). Ravi has completed his project. C). Ravi has complete his homework.
D). Rashi has completed her homework.
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Occurred B). Questionnaire C). Peculiar D). Mischievious
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Skeleton in the cupboard

Ans A). An interesting and thoughtful fact B). A famous and hidden fact C). A popular and known fact D). An embarrassing and hidden fact

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

I regret / in notify that / the model you want/ is out of stock.

Ans A). the model you want B). is out of stock C). I regret D). in notify that
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Through thick and thin

Ans A). To pass through thick and thin air B). To be supportive in both good and bad times C). To possess both thick and thin clothes
D). To travel through thick and thin clouds
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Sculpter B). Pursuit C). Almighty D). Stampede
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No
improvement required’.

When Shina reached the bus stand, she realised that she has left her wallet at home.
Ans A). No improvement required B). she had left her wallet C). she leaves her wallet D). she had been left her wallet
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). He is famous for all his contributions for weekly magazines. B). He is famous for all his contributions to weekly magazines.
C). He is more famous for all his contributions for weekly magazines. D). He is more famous for all his contributions to weekly magazines.

Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The corporator gathered heaps of curses, and his misdeeds can never be forgiven by the people.
Ans A). Consequences B). Arguments C). Transgressions D). Confrontation
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word

It is a betterment of his work.

Ans A). Popularity B). Growth C). Improvement D). Worsening
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Sarah said that she hates it when people ______ at her.

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Ans A). stare B). star C). steer D). stair
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Mary appeared for the test. She was waiting anxiously for the test result.
Ans A). a piece of cake B). hitting the nail on the head C). on pins and needles
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D). jumping through hoops
Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.

A medicine to counteract the effect of another medicine

Ans A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C
Alimony Antibiotic Antidote Anticoagulant
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Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains grammatical error(s).

At the zoo, a curious child / fed an elephant some peanuts, / while enthusiastic group of the visitors / watched in
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amazement.
Ans A). At the zoo, a curious child B). while enthusiastic group of the visitors C). fed an elephant some peanuts D). watched in amazement.
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Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

B y

Contaminate
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Ans A). Clean B). purify C). Excel D). Pollute

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 From the given options, identify the sentence which is in the positive degree.
Ans A). I have a greater idea in this regard. B). His brother is an intelligent boy. C). She is the most beautiful girl of the class.
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D). They are playing hockey with longer sticks.

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The ambiguous statement of the leader raised criticism among the public.
Ans A). Confusing B). Disorganised C). Clear D). Puzzled
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

From contacting our loved ones to buying groceries for our daily needs, mobile phones fulfilled our every requirement
during the COVID-19 pandemic. Not only during the pandemic, but mobile phones have also ________ our needs since the
time of their invention.
Ans A). exasperated B). served C). annoyed D). incensed
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was Saturday evening last week. My parents and younger sister had (1)_______ to my uncle's house to (2)______the day. I had
stayed back to prepare for a class test. At 5:00 p.m, someone (3)_____the door bell. To my shock and dismay, one of my distant
relatives, Mr. Sinha (4)______ standing with his suitcase. I had to call him in most unwillingly. He was a big bore and nothing less than
a chatterbox. I asked his preference (5)____ coffee and tea.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.++))
Ans A). gone B). went C). go D). going
CorrectSir
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Answer: A
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.++))
Ans A). spent B). spend C). spends D). spending
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.++))
Ans A). ring B). rings C). rang D). rung
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.++))
Ans A). were B). was C). been D). is
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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It was Saturday evening last week. My parents and younger sister had (1)_______ to my uncle's house to (2)______the day. I had
stayed back to prepare for a class test. At 5:00 p.m, someone (3)_____the door bell. To my shock and dismay, one of my distant

a chatterbox. I asked his preference (5)____ coffee and tea.

SubQuestion No : 25
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relatives, Mr. Sinha (4)______ standing with his suitcase. I had to call him in most unwillingly. He was a big bore and nothing less than
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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.++))
Ans A). between B). among C). on D). around
Correct Answer: A
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The area (in cm2) of circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 12 cm is:
Ans A). 24π B). 72π C). 144π D). 36π
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 220 m. He chases the thief when he started running the moment he saw the
police. The thief and policeman run at the rate of 9 km/h and 11 km/h respectively. How much distance policeman has to
cover for catching the thief?

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Ans A). 1.21 km B). 0.86 km C). 0.98 km D). 1.48 km

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Correct Answer: A

Q.3
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What is the difference between the average of prime numbers between 30 and 50 and the average of multiples of 3 between
20 and 50?
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Ans A). 5.3 B). 3.2 C). 4.5 D). 2.6
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1040 B). 960 C). 1000 D). 940
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Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
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The given bar graph shows the number of students enrolled in institutes A and B during 5 years (2018 to 2022).
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B y
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What is the percentage of the total students enrolled in institute A in year 2019 and 2020 to that of the total students enrolled
in institute B? (Correct to one decimal place)
Ans A). 41.2% B). 43.5% C). 38.6% D). 40.1%
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 1390 B). 1350 C). 1290 D). 1310
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 The monthly incomes of Selva for 3 months of a year are ₹19,500, ₹21,500 and ₹22,000. What is Selva’s average income per
month for these 3 months?
Ans A). ₹21,000 B). ₹21,500 C). ₹20,500 D). ₹20,000
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
Ans A). 4.67 B). 2.67 C). 1.67 D). 3.67
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 A and B start running on a circular race track whose length is 3240 m. A and B start from the same point and at the same
time, but in opposite directions. If A runs at a speed of 10 m/s and they cross each other 3 minutes after they start running,
then what is B’s speed (in m/s)?
Ans A). 8.5 B). 9 C). 7.5 D). 8
Correct Answer: D

Q.10

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ap
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Ans A). 3AA B). 2AA C). AA D). 5AA
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 The average of all the numbers between 8 and 68 that are divisible by 9 is:
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Ans A). 31.5 B). 36 C). 33 D). 40.5

Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 If the numbers X + 2, X + 5, 2X − 3 and 3X − 5 are in proportion, then which of the following pairs of values is possible for X?
Ans A). 3 and 2 B). 5 and 3 C). 5 and 1 D). 4 and 2
G

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 A number is increased by 24% and then decreased by 25%. What is the net increase or decrease percentage?
B

Ans A). Decrease 8% B). Increase 7% C). Increase 8% D). Decrease 7%

Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 Ram borrows a sum of ₹24,000 from his friend Soham on 31December 2021 on the condition that he will return the same
at

after one year with simple interest at 18% per annum. However, Ram is able to return the money on 1August 2022. What
amount does Ram have to return to Soham?
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Ans A). ₹25,520 B). ₹26,250 C). ₹25,250 D). ₹26,520

Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Ramesh Chandra purchased 360 bulbs for ₹18 each. However, 20 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The
remaining were sold at ₹20 each. Find the gain or loss per cent.
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.16

Ans A). 8 B). 10 C). 12 D). 16

Correct Answer: B

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Q.17 Rakesh marks an item for ₹5,400 and offers two successive discounts of 15% and 5%, respectively. What is the selling price
of the item?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.18 The LCM of 16,20 and 24 is:

Ans A). 260 B). 135 C). 180 D). 240
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 The average weight of 5 persons sitting in a boat is 28 kg. If the average weight of the boat and the persons sitting in the
boat is 56 kg, what is the weight of the boat?
Ans A). 122 kg B). 232 kg C). 196 kg D). 242 kg
Correct Answer: C

Q.20

Ans A). 440 m2 B). 607 m2 C). 572 m2 D). 2157 m2 Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘I Love biryani’ is written as ‘qs vx pg’ and ‘biryani was good’ is written as ‘vx pm ed’. How is
‘biryani’ written in the given code language?
Ans A). ed B). vx C). qs D). pm
Correct Answer: B

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Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘do it correctly’ is written as ‘nq sd fo’ and ‘Please do this’ is written as ‘rt fo in’. How is ‘do’
written in the given code language?
Ans A). rt B). sd C). fo
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). D is sitting second to the left of B. Exactly two people are sitting between B and A when counted from the right of B.
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G is sitting to the immediate left of A. F is not an immediate neighbour of C. What is the position of G with respect to D?
Ans A). Second to the left of B). Third to the right of C). Second to the right of D). Third to the left of
Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
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JBM, MEJ, PHG, SKD, ?

Ans A). WNB B). WNA C). VNC D). VNA

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
hs

310 × 2 − 3 ÷ 40 + 170 = ?
at

Ans A). 105 B). 129 C). 151 D). 142

Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only one person sits between Y and X when counted from the left of X. A sits third to the right of U. V sits third to the left of
W. A sits to the immediate right of V. Z is not an immediate neighbour of V.
How many people sit between Z and X when counted from the right of Z?
Ans A). Three B). Two C). One D). Four
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some cameras are radios.
All radios are routers.
Conclusions:
(I): Some cameras are routers.
(II): No camera is a router.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: B

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Q.8 In a code language, 'JASMINE' is coded as '213' and 'TULIP' is coded as '234'. How will 'CHAMELI' be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 153 B). 143 C). 157 D). 148
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
25 + 20 × 10 ÷ 2 − 5 = ?
Ans A). 10 B). 19 C). 26 D). 39
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 EHJD is related to LOQK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GJLF is related to
NQSM. To which of the following is ILNH related, following the same logic?

Ans A). SPUO B). SPOU C). PSUO D). PSOU

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘POST’ is coded as ‘3854’ and ‘TIPS’ is coded as ‘5648’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?
Ans A). 4 B). 3 C). 8 D). 6
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 PS 41 is related to KN 47 in a certain way. In the same way, TW 30 is related to OR 36. To which of the following is VY 27
related following the same logic?
Ans A). QT 33 B). TQ 33 C). LH 33 D). HL 33
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 22 is related to 43 following a certain logic. Following the same logic,35 is related to 69. To which of the following is 81
related, following the same logic?

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into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Ans A). 161 B). 160 C). 163 D). 162
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 ap
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
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G
y

Ans
B

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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736, 689, 642, 595, 548 ?

Ans A). 511 B). 499 C). 481 D). 501
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
10, 49
14, 69
Ans A). 17, 88 B). 18, 88 C). 18, 89 D). 17, 89
Correct Answer: C

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Q.17

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some cameras are phones.
No phone is a laptop.

Conclusions:
(I) Some phones are cameras.

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(II) Some laptops are phones.

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Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion I follows C). Only conclusion II follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: B
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Q.19
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Ans
Correct Answer: A
B). C). D).
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A).
B y

Q.20 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which athletics event did Eldhose Paul win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games 2022?
Ans A). Javelin Throw B). Shot Put C). Long Jump D). Triple Jump
Correct Answer: D

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Q.2 The Swaraj party was formed within _________ with the thought of contesting elections to enter the legislative councils with
a view to obstructing the governance of the colonial government.
Ans A). Indian National Congress B). The Unionist Party C). Independent Labour Party D). All India Muslim League
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 How does salt contribute to the preservation of food?

Ans A). By acting as an antioxidant. B). By inhibiting the growth of microorganisms through osmosis. C). By reducing the pH of the food.
D). By promoting the Maillard reaction.
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 The 'Mahawat' term is associated with which season in North-West India?
Ans A). Post Monsoons rainfall B). Summer rainfall C). Winter rainfall D). Rainy season
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 In his autobiography, Babur described his interest in planning and laying out formal gardens, placed within rectangular
walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels. These gardens are known as _________ .
Ans A). Chahar Bagh B). Saat Bagh C). Teen Bagh D). Panch Bagh
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Which of the following Census decades in India recorded the highest crude death rate?
Ans A). 1941-1951 B). 1931-1941 C). 1911-1921 D). 1991-2001
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which of the following Articles is automatically suspended when an emergency is declared on the grounds of external
aggression?
Ans A). Article 35 B). Article 22 C). Article 32 D). Article 19
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Rita Mustaphi who is honoured with Mcknight Fellowship of 2023 for her excellent innovation in which of the following

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Indian Dance Forms?

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Ans A). Kathakali B). Manipuri C). Yakshagana D). Kathak
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 ap
Padma Shri Pandit Rajeev Tharanath, the famous ________________ player is from the state of Karnataka.
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Ans A). flute B). sarod C). violin D). sitar
Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 At 1 bar pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of hydrogen gas is 2.27 litre. What will be the volume if the pressure is kept
at 0.2 bar?
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Ans A). 12250 cm3 B). 11350 cm3 C). 11.35 cm3 D). 10270 cm3 Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Which of the following is NOT a private sector industry in India?

Ans A). Dabur Industries B). Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) C). Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) D). Bajaj Auto Ltd.

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.12 Select the correct sentence about the water table.

Ans A). The lower level of the groundwater layer is called water table. B). Water cannot be found below the water table.
C). The water table varies from place to place. D). The water table cannot be changed at a given place.
at

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Brahmo Samaj, the theistic movement within Hinduism, was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the year ________.
Ans A). 1839 B). 1856 C). 1879 D). 1828
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The English novel ‘Morning Face’ is written by:

Ans A). RK Narayan B). Vikram Seth C). Mulk Raj Anand D). Anita Desai
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 If the body of an animal can be divided into two indistinguishable left and right halves through only one plane, then it
possesses:
Ans A). bilateral symmetry B). centre of symmetry C). asymmetricity D). radial symmetry
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which volume of the ‘Akbar-Nama’ is known as Ain-i-Akbari and deals with Akbar’s administration, household, army and the
revenues and geography of his empire?
Ans A). Second B). Fourth C). Fifth D). Third
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Kelucharan Mohapatra is associated with which of the following dances?

Ans A). Fugdi B). Odissi C). Dumhal D). Bihu
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.18 Before the introduction of Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), what type of surveys did the National Statistical Office
(NSO) conduct for employment and unemployment indicators in India?
Ans A). Biennial surveys B). Decennial surveys C). Quinquennial surveys D). Monthly surveys
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Under Article 165, the Governor appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be the
_________ for the State.
Ans A). Chief Minister B). Attorney General C). Comptroller Auditor General D). Advocate-General
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Who among the following was a contemporary of Buddha, but is not considered the first founder of the religion?
Ans A). Rishabhanath B). Bhadrabahu C). Arishtanemi D). Mahavira Swami
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 The shotgun (in the shooting sport) is a ________ gauge having a calibre of 18.5-millimetres (The gauge is a unit of
measurement for firearms).
Ans A). 10 B). 18 C). 15 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Who among the following was appointed as the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in May 2023?
Ans A). Praveen Sood B). Debadatta Chand C). Shantanu Roy D). Rakesh Asthana
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Which day is celebrated as International Day of Non-Violence?

Ans A). 31st October B). 31st January C). 2nd October D). 15th August Correct Answer: C

Q.24 The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 4 August 2023, which repeals the
_____________________________.

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Ans A). Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2007 B). Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008

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C). Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2009 D). Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2006
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Which of the following is the main objective of the DWCRA model of SHGs? ap
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Ans A). To provide education opportunities for rural children B). To provide housing support for rural families
C). To provide self-employment opportunities for rural women D). To provide healthcare services to rural women
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Correct Answer: C
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that does NOT contain an adverb.

Ans A). He never forgets his homework. B). Maya was quite absent-minded during class today. C). Rohit loves chocolate.
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D). She ran swiftly to catch the thief.

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Can you please stop continuously complaining about the student's shortcomings?
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Ans A). Grunting B). Crying C). Whining D). Jesting

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Identify the word that can replace the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.
The bakery is known for its scrumptous pastries, especially the cinnamon rolls.

A). scrumptuos B). scrumptiouss C). scrummptiouss D). scrumptious

Ans
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Happiness B). Indoulgent C). Veneration D). Forgotten
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Select the word segment that substitutes the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully.

The movie was (mostly over) when we entered the hall.

Ans A). most done B). almost over C). more done D). most over
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We all ____________ at the sky as it was full of stars that night.
Ans A). Gazed B). Packed C). Hooked D). Saw
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets.

Despite facing numerous challenges, her [tenacious] determination never faded one bit.
Ans A). gentle B). confused C). weak D). stubborn
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To throw caution to the wind
Ans A). To do something with care and attention B). To give answer with utmost attention C). To do something without worrying about risk
D). To roam here and there aimlessly
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

John’s coffee is hot than Jack’s.

Ans A). most hot B). hotter C). more hotter D). hottest
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hanging by a thread.
Ans A). To be perilously close to failing, dying, or resulting in a bad outcome B). Crude and lacking sophistication
C). To do something very risky D). To avoid danger or trouble
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The news of her promotion left her feeling buoyant, with a sense of accomplishment and pride in her work.
Ans A). Cheerful B). Peculiar C). Dour D). Shy
Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
How would you describe your ideal vacation destination?

Ans A). reproving B). instant C). faulty ap D). gloomy

Correct Answer: C
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.
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An adventurer packed _____ backpack and _____ assortment of survival gear for the challenging trek through the
wilderness.
an

Ans A). an; an B). a; a C). a; an D). an; a

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I need to ________ my shoelaces before going out.
G

Ans A). tie B). tye C). thai D). thigh

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.15 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
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He looked extremely smart and handsomest in the black suit.

Ans A). handsomer B). handsomely C). handsome D). most handsome
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The politician's speech was an attempt to mitigate the concerns of the citizens.
Ans A). Aggravate B). Understand C). Establish D). Lessen
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

After the heavy rains last Thursday, the water in the river raised another three feet.
Ans A). rose another three feet B). will raise another three feet C). risen another three feet D). raise another three feet
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Yesterday, / my surgeon / operate on my knee.
Ans A). No error B). Yesterday C). my surgeon D). operate on my knee
Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 Select the option that has an error in the use of present tense.
Ans A). The painter is painting the wall right now. B). The mother cooks delicious food for her children.
C). I am observing your mischievous activities for half an hour. D). I have performed all my duties with utmost sincerity.
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
Comprehensiveness constitues wisdom and many examples from history illustrate this fact.
Ans A). Comprehensiveness B). Constitues C). Wisdom D). Illustrate
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In the realm of literature, metaphors and similes are like (1) ________ tools for writers. They serve to (2) ________ the reader's
understanding and make the text more (3) ________. However, it's crucial for writers to (4) ________ use them, as excessive
figurative language can (5) ________ the clarity of the writing.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). indispensable B). inoperative C). believable D). concision
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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figurative language can (5) ________ the clarity of the writing.

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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). flaw B). cavitate C). abdicate ap D). illuminate
Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
an

figurative language can (5) ________ the clarity of the writing.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
y

Ans A). meaning B). ambiguity C). substantiality D). vivid

Correct Answer: D
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
M

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). spatially B). indiscriminately C). judiciously D). pathetically
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). clarify B). simplify C). enhance D). detract from
Correct Answer: D

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B y
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.2 A 296-m long train is running at a speed of 72 km/h. In how much time will it pass a 144-m long bridge?

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Ans A). 30 seconds B). 25 seconds C). 22 seconds D). 27.5 seconds

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Correct Answer: C

Q.3
Ans A). 50
Find the average of the first 10 natural numbers.
B). 5.5 C). 55.5 ap D). 50.5
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 A library has an average number of 768 visitors on Monday, and 258 visitors on others day. Find the average number of
visitors per day in a month of 30 days, beginning with Tuesday.
Ans A). 362 B). 263 C). 236 D). 326
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Correct Answer: D

Q.5 At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 12 years?
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Ans C). 12% D). 18%

Correct Answer: B
G

A). B).
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Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
B

Ans A). 640 B). 740 C). 660 D). 700

Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
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Ans A). 1085 B). 1165 C). 1065 D). 1125

Correct Answer: D

Q.8 A supermarket gives two successive discounts on a mobile phone marked ₹19,000. The first discount given is 14%. If the
customer pays ₹15,048 for the phone, then what was the second discount (rounded up to two decimal points)?
Ans A). 9.26% B). 8.00% C). 7.91% D). 7.51%
Correct Answer: C

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Q.9 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the annual exam average marks for five sections of class XI in Biology, Mathematics and
Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

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B). 459 : 457 C). 59 : 37
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Find the ratio between the average marks of five sections scored in Biology to the average marks scored in Chemistry.
Ans A). 2 : 5 D). 1 : 3
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their HCF is 4. Then, their LCM is:
Ans A). 24 B). 28 C). 38 D). 48
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11
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B y
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Ans A). 55% B). 40% C). 45% D). 50%

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The average of a non-zero number and its square is 7 times the number. The number is:
Ans A). 14 B). 91 C). 7 D). 13
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 The length of a rectangle is four-fifths of the side of the square, whose area is 1225 units2. What is the area (in units2) of the
rectangle if the breadth is 12 units?
Ans A). 336 B). 225 C). 300 D). 425
Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 In a factory, the average monthly salary of 25 unskilled workers is ₹11,950, that of 20 mechanics is ₹24,000 and that of 5
supervisors is ₹35,000. The average monthly salary of all the employees is:
Ans A). ₹19,180 B). ₹19,225 C). ₹19,055 D). ₹19,075
Correct Answer: D

Q.15
तेल के एक अर्ध-गोलाकार पात्र के किनारे की गोलाई 396 cm है। पात्र का आयतन खाली है। इस तेल को 2.1 cm त्रिज्या वाले छोटे अर्ध-

गोलाकार कटोरे में स्थानांतरित करना है। कितने कटोरों की आवश्यकता होगी?
(π = 22/7 लीजिए)
Ans A). 27000 B). 18000 C). 9000 D). 900
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 A trapezium has parallel sides 6 units and 10 units. Other two opposite sides are of same length 8 units and two diagonals
are of equal length. What is the area of the trapezium (in square units)?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.17 A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹450.30 with a loss of 21%. What is the cost price (in ₹)of the article?
Ans A). 429 B). 570 C). 521 D). 485
Correct Answer: B

Q.18

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Ans A). 6768 B). 6876 C). 6678 D). 6687
Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 A dealer made some profit by selling a laptop for ₹88,000, which is equal to the amount of loss incurred on selling the same

B). 25% C). 20%

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laptop for ₹72,000. If he had sold the laptop for ₹96,000, then his profit percentage would have been:
Ans A). 31.7% D). 37.5%
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 A thief is 150 metres away from a policeman. If the speed of the thief is 93 km/h and the speed of the policeman is 108 km/h,
then the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief is:
Ans A). 32 seconds B). 40 seconds C). 38 seconds D). 36 seconds
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Correct Answer: D
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1
B y

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.2 HN74 is related to TZ55 in a certain way . In the same way, XD60 is related to JP41. To which of the following is ZF55 related,
at

following the same logic?

Ans A). LR36 B). RL46 C). RL36 D). LR46
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Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.

Conclusions (I): Some pens are pencils.

Conclusions (II): Some pens are papers.

Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
Correct Answer: C

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Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(10, 360, 3)
(12, 720, 5)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (11, 956, 8) B). (13, 1009, 7) C). (8, 576, 6) D). (17, 816, 3)
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

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Ans
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A). B). C). D).
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Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘get a driver’ is written as ‘ki jo hu’ and ‘better get out’ is writtenas ‘ji hy ki’. How is ‘get’ writtenin
the given language?
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Ans A). ki B). jo C). ji D). hy

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.8 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
12, 16, 22, 32, ?
y

Ans A). 45 B). 44 C). 46 D). 47

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘will you go’ is coded as ‘rp zs tu’ and ‘you come here’ is written as ‘ar cm tu’. How is ‘you’ coded
in that code language?
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Ans A). rp B). zs C). tu D). ar

Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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Ans
Correct Answer: A
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B). C).
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A). D).
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Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
B

SWS, TUQ, USO, VQM, ?

Ans A). WOL B). WOK C). VOK D). VOL
hs

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘3571’ and ‘TAGS’ is coded as ‘4685’. What is the code for ‘G’ in that
language?
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Ans A). 8 B). 3 C). 4 D). 5

Correct Answer: D

Q.14 CHUM is related to DJVO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NOPA is related to
OQQC. To which of the following is DYIE related, following the same logic?
Ans A). EAJG B). CCHI C). DBHG D). CBGI
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B is sitting
second to the right of A and to the immediate left of C. C is sitting second to the left of D. F is sitting to the immediate right
of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. How many people are sitting between D and A when counted from the left of A?
Ans A). One B). Three C). Two D). None
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

22 × 484 ÷ 44 – 93 + 12 = ?
Ans A). 68 B). 38 C). 83 D). 86
Correct Answer: C

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Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
41 ÷ 6 + 99 × 3 − 9 = ?
Ans A). 220 B). 224 C). 222 D). 226
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All books are racks.
All tables are books.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some racks are tables.
(II) All racks are books.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Six persons P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 and P6 sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same
order). P2 sits second to the left of P5. One person sits between P2 and P6 when counted from the left of P2. P3 and P2 are
not neighbours of P5 and P4, respectively.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. One person sits between P1 and P6 when counted from the right of P1.
II. P3 is an immediate neighbour of P2.
Ans A). Both I and II B). Neither I nor II C). Only II D). Only I
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 11 is related to 65 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 90. To which of the following is 21

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related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 114 B). 112 C). 115 D). 113
Correct Answer: C
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which dynasty defeated the Kanva dynasty?

Ans A). Sunga Dynasty B). Kushan Dynasty C). Sakas Dynasty D). Satavahana Dynasty
G

Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Which of the following best represents the Revenue Deficit?

Ans A). Primary Deficit + Fiscal Deficit B). Revenue Expenditure + Revenue Receipts C). Primary Deficit – Fiscal Deficit
D). Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 The non-metallic mineral mica is used in which of the following industries?
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Ans A). Cement industry B). Steel industry C). Glass industry D). Electrical industry
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Which virus is responsible for causing AIDS?

Ans A). Herpes simplex virus (HSV) B). Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) C). Human papillomavirus (HPV) D). Influenza virus

Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India emphasises the participation of workers in the management of
industries?
Ans A). Article 42B B). Article 44C C). Article 46D D). Article 43A
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which of the following two properties of metals are exploited to prepare very thin sheets of silver to decorate sweets?
Ans A). Ductility and lustre B). Malleability and sonorous C). Lustre and sonorous D). Malleability and lustre
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 What is the quorum of the Lok Sabha at the time of the Presidential address, which is held at the opening of each session of
the Lok Sabha?
Ans A). One-third B). One-tenth C). One-twelfth D). One-fourth
Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 As of July 2023, who was the Member of Parliament from the parliamentary constituency of Varanasi?
Ans A). Narendra Modi B). Rajnath Singh C). Smriti Irani D). Yogi Adityanath
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh was founded by ___________.

Ans A). Mohammad Ali Jinnah B). Muzaffar Ahmed C). Sir Syed Ahmed Khan D). Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Panch Mahal, a palace in Fatehpur Sikri, was built by the Mughal Emperor ________.
Ans A). Jahangir B). Babar C). Akbar D). Shah Jahan
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 The Jhaveri Sisters are known for keeping alive the temple tradition of which of the following classical dances of India?
Ans A). Sattriya B). Kathakali C). Manipuri D). Kathak
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The historical novel, 'Train to Pakistan' was written by:

Ans A). Shashi Tharoor B). Arundhati Roy C). Khushwant Singh D). Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The Indravati National Park is located in which state?

Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Tripura C). Chhattisgarh D). Rajasthan
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Emani Sankara Sastry and Doraiswamy Iyengar are both associated with which musical instrument?
Ans A). Flute B). Veena C). Ghatam D). Violin
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states is least urbanised?

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Ans A). Chhattisgarh B). Bihar C). Uttar Pradesh D). Himachal Pradesh

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Correct Answer: D

Q.16
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Ans A). Both 1 and 2 B). Both 1 and 3 C). Only 2 D). Only 3
G

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 The navigable portion of Barak River in India is the 121 km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga, which was declared as
B

______ in the year 2016.

Ans A). NW-5 B). NW-8 C). NW-16 D). NW-10
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 Against which of the following were ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ used as the means of protest and struggle, for the first time in
India?
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Ans A). Rowlatt Act B). Partition of Bengal C). Simon Commission D). Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 A hockey ground is rectangular in shape, measuring 91.4 m in length and ______ in width.
Ans A). 50 m B). 55 m C). 60 m D). 70 m
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The National Population Register was created under the provisions of _______ and ______.
a. the Citizenship Act, 1965
b. the Citizenship Rules, 2004
c. the Citizenship Act, 1955
d. the Citizenship Rules, 2003
Ans A). a; c B). a; b C). b; d D). c; d
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 In May 2023, the Supreme Court interpreted which article related to the governance structure of Delhi, which outlines the
principles of federalism, participatory democracy and collective responsibility?
Ans A). Article 226 B). Article 323A C). Article 243B D). Article 239AA
Correct Answer: D

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Q.22 Nishagandhi festival is celebrated in which of the following states?
Ans A). Uttarakhand B). Jharkhand C). Maharashtra D). Kerala
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Which Bharatanatyam dancer is the recipient of one of India’s top civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan 1977?
Ans A). Yamini Krishnamurthy B). Kelucharan Mohapatra C). T Balasaraswati D). Mallika Sarabhai
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Where was the inaugural season of Ultimate Kho-Kho League held in 2022?
Ans A). Bhusawal B). Thane C). Pune D). Amravati
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Which of the following options correctly matches Column-A with Column-B?

Ans A). i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a B). i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a C). i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b D). i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment.
Despite the difficulties, Sarah started her business with great energy and hard work,and performed remarkably well in the
industry.

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Ans A). hit the ground running B). hit the hay C). spilled the beans D). let sleeping dogs lie

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Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The mother told the child to erase the extra dots from the given graph.
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Ans A). Create B). Shatter C). Delete D). Efface
Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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She oftenly goes / shopping with / her friends / on Saturdays.

Ans A). her friends B). on Saturdays C). She oftenly goes D). shopping with
Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
G

substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

No sooner had she enter her apartment than she found a bouquet of flowers on her table.
B

Ans A). No substitution B). No sooner did she entered her apartment than C). No sooner did she enter her apartment than
D). No sooner has she enter her apartment than
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future continuous tense form.
Shall I meet you soon?
M

Ans A). Shall I have met you soon? B). Shall I be meeting you soon? C). Will we be meeting soon? D). Will I be meeting you soon?

Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The rules of behaviour which guide one in a formal situation
Ans A). Affidavit B). Protocol C). Bargain D). Impropriety
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Cautios B). Anxious C). Curious D). Bashful
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The company ran about of stock due to unexpectedly high demand for the product.

Ans A). ran out of stock due to B). ran around of stock due to C). ran across of stock due to D). ran on of stock due to
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
Enthusiasm is one of those vital elements that transforms an indivdual and his failures into victories and success.
Ans A). Success B). Indivdual C). Victories D). Failures
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Disclaimer on products in the markets saves manufacturer from unusual results on usage.
Ans A). Guarantee B). Approval C). Clause D). Acceptance
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate degree to fill in the blank.

Doctors should never be ___________ than others when patients come for their treatment.
Ans A). least caring B). more caring C). most caring D). less caring
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The panel submited the findings to the ministry.

Ans A). submittad B). submittd C). sumitted D). submitted
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Clear the decks

Ans A). To draw something down B). To take something away C). To remove unnecessary things for further work
D). Prepare for an event or course of action by dealing with anything that might hinder progress
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Identify the error in the following sentence.

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The zoo is under the street from the temple.

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Ans A). zoo B). temple C). from D). under
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. ap

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The order will be operational from 1st of November.
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Ans A). considered B). provoked C). scrapped D). effective

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.
an

A student becomes / dearer to the teachers / via participating and actively working / towards the glory of the school.
ag

Ans A). A student becomes B). dearer to the teachers C). via participating and actively working D). towards the glory of the school.
G

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
B

He was appointed as the Manager.

Ans A). Dismissed B). Disordered C). Assigned D). Disappointed
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
M

Her team played exceptionally more well in the competition.

Ans A). No substitution required B). well C). most well D). more well
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I have never _________ this kind of pain before surgery.
Ans A). experienced B). practised C). trained D). dedicated
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The doctor made a tentative diagnosis as he did not have the reports of her blood tests.
Ans A). provisional B). tedious C). hazardous D). obsolete
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Indian villages showcase the country's rich culture and customs. Most Indians live in villages, (1)_______ agriculture, modest living
and close-knit communities are the norms. Villagers wake up to roosters crowing and farm (2)_____ day. Farming is the main
employment, and generations labour (3)____ the same land. Traditions, communal events and a slower pace (4)_____ village life
from metropolitan life. Villagers' togetherness and shared duty make it part of India's identity, (5)_____ the lack of contemporary
conveniences.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). where B). what C). which D). when
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). all B). towards C). before D). after
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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Indian villages showcase the country's rich culture and customs. Most Indians live in villages, (1)_______ agriculture, modest living
and close-knit communities are the norms. Villagers wake up to roosters crowing and farm (2)_____ day. Farming is the main
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employment, and generations labour (3)____ the same land. Traditions, communal events and a slower pace (4)_____ village life
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from metropolitan life. Villagers' togetherness and shared duty make it part of India's identity, (5)_____ the lack of contemporary
conveniences.

SubQuestion No : 23
an

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). on B). with C). at D). in

Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
B

Indian villages showcase the country's rich culture and customs. Most Indians live in villages, (1)_______ agriculture, modest living
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and close-knit communities are the norms. Villagers wake up to roosters crowing and farm (2)_____ day. Farming is the main
employment, and generations labour (3)____ the same land. Traditions, communal events and a slower pace (4)_____ village life
at

from metropolitan life. Villagers' togetherness and shared duty make it part of India's identity, (5)_____ the lack of contemporary
conveniences.
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SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). compare B). balance C). distinguish D). equate
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). in spite B). beside C). instead of D). despite
Correct Answer: D
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A sum of ₹717 becomes ₹874.74 in 5 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 3.1%,
then what will be the simple interest (in ₹) of ₹717 in 5 years?
Ans A). 211.115 B). 268.875 C). 279.125 D). 201.135
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The rate of oil is increased by 12% every year. The rate in the next year would be ₹125.44 per litre. What is the difference
between the prices (in ₹) per litre of the oil in the last year and this year?
Ans A). 14.5 B). 17.5 C). 15.5 D). 12
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 The average of 10 numbers is 29. The average of the first 6 numbers is 22 and that of the last 6 numbers is 32. What is the
average of the 5th number and the 6th number?
Ans A). 20 B). 27 C). 17 D). 24
Correct Answer: C

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Q.4

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Ans A). 262 B). 261 C). 259 D). 260

Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 A, B and C start running around a circular track and complete one round in 16, 20 and 28 seconds, respectively. In how
B

much time will they meet again at the starting point?

Ans A). 220 seconds B). 310 seconds C). 510 seconds D). 560 seconds
hs

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
at

Ans A). 540 B). 500 C). 480 D). 580

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Sohan buys 16 oranges for ₹80 and sells 30 oranges for ₹168. Find the percentage of his profit.
Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 The difference between successive discounts of 25% followed by 12% and 20% followed by 15% on the marked price of a
saree is ₹50. The marked price of the saree is:
Ans A). ₹625 B). ₹1,250 C). ₹5,000 D). ₹2,500
Correct Answer: D

Q.9

Ans A). 14 cm B). 12 cm C). 15 cm D). 13 cm

Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The average of 5 consecutive natural numbers is 7. Which is the largest number among these?
Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 10 D). 9
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 1000 B). 1500 C). 750 D). 375
Correct Answer: C
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Q
.
1
2
Ans A). 35,705 B). 25,575 C). 18,775 D). 41,560
Cor

Q.13 The average of 11 numbers is 17. If the average of the first five numbers is 16 and the average of the last five numbers is 19,
then the sixth number is:
Ans A). 15 B). 12 C). 17 D). 14
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Find the HCF of 10, 35 and 55.

Ans A). 25 B). 15 C). 10 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Find the total surface area of a cone having base radius 49 cm and slant height 61 cm.
Ans A). 15,900 cm2 B). 16,040 cm2 C). 15,940 cm2 D). 16,940 cm2 Correct Answer: D

Q.16 A cylinder has curved surface area equal to area of the flat surfaces of the cylinder. If the diameter of the cylinder is r units,
then the total surface area of the cylinder (in square units) will be _____.
Ans A). C). Correct Answer: C
B). D).

Q.17 A thief saw a policeman from a distance of 300 m and started running. At the same time, the policeman started chasing the
thief. If the speed of the thief is 12 km/h and that of the policeman 15 km/h, then the distance (in km) covered by the
policeman to catch the thief is:
Ans A). 1.0 B). 2.0 C). 1.5 D). 2.5
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 There are 20 cricket balls in the showroom. Among these 20 balls, some are yellow and some are white. The average cost of
all the balls is ₹75. If the average cost of yellow balls is ₹80 and that of white is ₹60, then the number of yellow balls is:

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Ans A). 15 B). 6 C). 14 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

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Q.
19

Ans A). 30% B). 45% C). 50% ap D). 25%

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20
The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I
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and Exam II.Study the graph carefully to answer the question that follows.
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B y
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The marks obtain by Naveen in Exam-II are what per cent of the total
marks obtained by all five students in Exam-II?
Ans A). 25% B). 28.5% C). 31.5% D). 35%
Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 When the signs + and ÷ as well as the numbers 5 and 10 are interchanged, which option will be the correct one?
Ans A). 3 + 5 ÷ 10 = 2 B). 5 + 10 ÷ 2 = 4 C). 5 ÷ 1 + 10 = 1 D). 6 ÷ 10 + 5 = 6
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘SLAM’ is coded as ‘4918’ and ‘LAME’ is coded as ‘2184’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given
language?
Ans A). 1 Click To B).Join
9 TelegramC).-8 Maths By Gagan
D). 4 Pratap Sir
Correct Answer: B
Q.3 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.4

Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow. C). Only Conclusion (II) follows.
D). Only Conclusion (I) follows. Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘FROM’ is coded as ‘7519’ and ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘2146’.What is the code for ‘M’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 7 B). 2 C). 1 D). 9
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
HCJ, JGL, LKN, ? , PSR
Ans A). MST B). OOP C). NOP
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D). NQP
Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 Seven friends - L, M, N, O, D, E, and F - are seated around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). O is sitting fifth to the right of L. M has F and O as immediate neighbours. N and L are immediate neighbours of E.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of D?
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Ans A). O B). M C). L D). F

Correct Answer: A
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Q.8 JHMK is related to PNSQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NLQO is related to
TRWU . To which of the following is QOTR related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). UWZX B). UWXZ C). WUZX D). WUXZ

Correct Answer: C
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Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Statements:
All shirts are pants.
Some shirts are watches.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pants are watches.
(II) Some watches are not shirts.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: D

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Q.11 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.12 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). E sits
second to the right of A. B sits fourth to the right of D. F is an immediate neighbour of E and G. Who sits third to the right of
C?
Ans A). E B). F C). D D). G
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 4 is related to 34 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 7 is related to 61. To which of the following is 11 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 98 B). 99 C). 97 D). 88
Correct Answer: C

Q.14

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Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B).
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C). D).
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Q.15 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
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into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(15, 14, 13)
(12, 10, 8)
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Ans A). (11, 22, 12) B). (10, 12, 8) C). (15, 15, 15) D). (13, 11, 7)
Correct Answer: C
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Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
B

28, 31, 36, 43, 54, ?

Ans A). 65 B). 64 C). 67 D). 66

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.17 In a code language, 'PORTER' is written as 'RVYALP' and 'REMOTE' is written as 'ELTVAR'. How will 'CLOUDY' be written in
the same language?
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Ans A). YTVBKC B). YSVBKC C). XSVBKC D). XTVBKC

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(54 ÷ 18)× 5 + 9 × 2 −45 + 12 × 3 = 57

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 18 and 9 B). 2 and 5 C). 5 and 3 D). 9 and 12
Correct Answer: A

Q.19

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.20 DA2 is related to GD10 in a certain way. In the same way, SP7 is related to VS35. To which of the following is JG10 related
following the same logic?
Ans A). GF70 B). MJ70 C). GF50 D). MJ50
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

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Q.1 In 2017, who became the first Indian singer to make it to Delhi's Madame Tussauds Museum?
Ans A). Sunidhi Chauhan B). Kavita Krishnamurthy C). Shreya Ghoshal D). Alisha Chinai
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Vitamin D is synthesised using sunshine, by the:

Ans A). skin B). mouth C). blood veins D). leg
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 In which weight category did Nitu Ghanghas win the IBA Women's World Boxing Championship event, 2023?
Ans A). 75 kg B). 50 kg C). 48 kg D). 81 kg
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 As on 31st October 2023, the youngest member of parliament (in terms of age) in the 17th Lok Sabha, Chandrani Murmu,
represents which political party?
Ans A). Bharatiya Janata Party B). Indian National Congress C). Aam Admi Party D). Biju Janata Dal
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 The institution like Lokpal or Lokayukta (Ombudsman) was first created in which of the following countries?
Ans A). New Zealand B). Norway C). Britain D). Sweden
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which of the following structures has the IUPAC name 7-hydroxy-5-methylheptan-2-one?
Ans

A).
B).

Correct Answer: B
D).
C).

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Q.7 What is the title of Sania Mirza's autobiography?
Ans A). Changing India B). Ace Against Odds C). Wings of Fire
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D). The Test of My Life
Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Which of the following was the capital of Vatsa Mahajanapada?
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Ans A). Kausambi B). Ahichchatra C). Ujjayini D). Vaishali

Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association established in the year 1928?
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Ans A). Agra B). Kanpur C). Delhi D). Lahore

Correct Answer: C
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Q.10 In june 2023, which state government among the following has announced the 'Shakti' scheme for free bus travel for women
and trans people within the state?
G

Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Telangana C). Kerala D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: D
y

Q.11 According to Article ____, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of
State funds.
B

Ans A). 30 B). 28 C). 29 D). 27

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.12 Which structure within the nucleus contains genetic information in the form of DNA?
at

Ans A). Ribosome B). Chromosome C). Nucleolus D). Vacuole

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 Which of the following is the first planned industrial city in India?
Ans A). Indore B). Chandigarh C). Navi Mumbai D). Jamshedpur
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT a commercial bank?

Ans A). State Bank of India B). The Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India Bank C). Development Bank of Singapore
D). National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who among the following received the Nritya Kalanidhi for the year 2022?
Ans A). Kalyanasundaram Pillai B). Geeta Chandran C). Chitra Visweswaran D). Bragha Bessell
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Bhamidipati Srivalli Rashmika is associated with which game?

Ans A). Lawn Tennis B). Kho-Kho C). Badminton D). Football
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 In which of the following years was a Hindu College in Benaras established to impart education from the ancient Sanskrit
texts?
Ans A). 1794 B). 1791 C). 1801 D). 1790
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Which festival is celebrated at Sabarimala temple, on the occassion of Makar Sakranti?
Ans A). Ugadi
Click ToB). Join
Makaravilakku
Telegram -C). Maths
Onam D). Vishu
By Gagan Pratap Sir
Correct Answer: B
Q.19 Former Indian actress Vyjayanthimala was trained in which classical dance form?
Ans A). Manipuri B). Odissi C). Sattriya D). Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Who among the following was the first sultan of Delhi Sultanate to visit the Ajmer shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti?
Ans A). Ghiyasuddin Balban B). Jalaluddin Khalji C). Muhammad bin Tughlaq D). Khizr Khan
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 In which year was Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (Scheme) announced by the Government of India?
Ans A). 2013 B). 2014 C). 2010 D). 2012
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 In Kerala and coastal area of Karnataka the pre-monsoon shower is known as ______.
Ans A). Kalbaisakhi B). Bardoisila C). Mango shower D). Blossom shower
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 According to the Human Development Index 2023-24, what is the rank of India?
Ans A). 132 B). 130 C). 134 D). 129
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Plutonic rocks are formed when lava cools ______.

Ans A). in the core B). in the asthenosphere C). in the crust D). at the surface
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Drains exiting from Mohenjo-Daro had ________ doors that were probably closed at night to prevent vagrants or negative
elements from entering the city through that access.
Ans A). wooden B). sandstone C). mud D). iron
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

This was not only exciting but rewarding because I was able to experience adventure for the first time in my life.

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Ans A). This was not only exciting but also rewarding B). This was not only excited but also rewarding C). No substitution

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D). This was not only exciting but also rewarded
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the given phrase.
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She was on cloud ________ after receiving the scholarship.
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Ans A). ten B). seven C). nine D). eight

Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the option that has used the correct tense.
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Ans A). He realised he had forgotten his keys after he had leave the house.
B). He realised he had forgotten his keys after he had left the house. C). He realised he had forgotten his keys after he has leave the house.
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D). He realised he had forgotten his keys after he was left the house.
Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The Lal Chowk is a large open square surrounded by mansions of the wealthiest classes than educated ones.
B y

Ans A). wealthy B). wealthier C). more wealthier D). the wealthy
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

Macbeth believed the witches’ _________ about his future.
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Ans A). tyrany B). questionaire C). prophecy D). suprise

Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
She often goes for a walk / with her dog / in the night.
Ans A). in the night B). No error C). She often goes for a walk D). with her dog
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

She is the most active and the more energetic social worker in our team.
Ans A). the most B). the much C). very D). most
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

We rely on Hiren because he is most intelligent than many other boys in our school quiz team.
Ans A). less intelligent B). least intelligent C). only intelligent D). more intelligent
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom for the highlighted text in the given sentence.

The company was rapidly deteriorating when the chairman and some top officials were accused of fraud.
Ans A). head over heels B). hell in a handbasket C). hitting the sack D). holding your horses
Correct Answer: B

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Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
Army officers are given training to decipher the secret messages sent during war time.
Ans A). Decode B). Encode C). Defy D). Decide
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Excessive
Ans A). Scarce B). Cute C). Dirty D). Exorbitant
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the word segment that can substitute the bracketed words correctly and complete the sentence meaningfully.
(My husband and I) are from Varanasi.
Ans A). Either of us B). Both of us C). Everyone of us D). Each one of us
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). subterfuge B). sufficient C). succlucent D). sanguinity

Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher __________ the students to think critically about the topic.
Ans A). acquiesced B). admonished C). advised D). assented
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Insist
Ans A). Barge B). Urge C). Rebut D). Wage
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

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She has taken / nothing from yesterday / and is feeling / nauseatic now.

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Ans A). nauseatic now B). She has taken C). nothing from yesterday D). and is feeling
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

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Boisterous
Ans A). Quiet B). Noisy C). Cheerful D). Bossy
Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.
an

There is an increasing number of people who do not believe in the existence of God.
ag

Ans A). seers B). cynics C). fugitives D). atheists

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The strongest suit of documentary theatre lies not only in political insight and ignorance, but also in the variety of aesthetic
y

approaches it makes possible.

Ans A). Mistake B). Perspicuity C). Discrimination D). Acumen

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.20 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans A). The gardener planted colourfull flowers in the gardin. B). The gardner planted colorful flowers in the gardin.
at

C). The gardener planted colourful flowers in the garden. D). The gardner planted colorfull flowers in the garden.
Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

As 2023 closes as the warmest year on (1)_______________, there is growing global concern about the rise
of extreme weather (2)________________ such as floods, droughts and heatwaves. The atmosphere and
oceans are warming due to increasing (3)______________ of greenhouse gases, largely caused by burning
fossil fuels. This has led to a greater risk of (4)___________________ rainfall and flooding. For every 1°C rise
in average global temperature, the atmosphere can hold an extra 7% water vapour. When the right
atmospheric 'triggers' are in place, this extra water vapour is (5)________________ as intense rainfall.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). record B). C). D).
Correct Answer: A
absence blankness erasure

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). B). events C). D).
Correct Answer: B
quietude idleness inertness

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). B). C). D). emissions
Correct Answer: D
retentions collections immersions

Comprehension:

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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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As 2023 closes as the warmest year on (1)_______________, there is growing global concern about the rise
of extreme weather (2)________________ such as floods, droughts and heatwaves. The atmosphere and
ap
oceans are warming due to increasing (3)______________ of greenhouse gases, largely caused by burning
fossil fuels. This has led to a greater risk of (4)___________________ rainfall and flooding. For every 1°C rise
in average global temperature, the atmosphere can hold an extra 7% water vapour. When the right
at
atmospheric 'triggers' are in place, this extra water vapour is (5)________________ as intense rainfall.
Pr

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
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Ans A). B). C). extreme D).

Correct Answer: C
moderate gentle average
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.

As 2023 closes as the warmest year on (1)_______________, there is growing global concern about the rise
y

of extreme weather (2)________________ such as floods, droughts and heatwaves. The atmosphere and
B

oceans are warming due to increasing (3)______________ of greenhouse gases, largely caused by burning
fossil fuels. This has led to a greater risk of (4)___________________ rainfall and flooding. For every 1°C rise
in average global temperature, the atmosphere can hold an extra 7% water vapour. When the right
atmospheric 'triggers' are in place, this extra water vapour is (5)________________ as intense rainfall.
hs
at

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
M

Ans A). B). released C). D).

Correct Answer: B
ensnared detained confiscated

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Out of his monthly income, Mr. Sharma spends 24% on house rent and 70% on household expenses and saves the balance.
If every month, he saves ₹1,200, then what is his monthly income?
Ans A). ₹20,000 B). ₹32,000 C). ₹27,000 D). ₹25,000
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 210 B). 290 C). 190 D). 250

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 C.P. of 21 books is equal to S.P. of 20 books. What is the gain percentage?
Ans
A). B). C). ap D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach my destination in 2 hrs. If I increase my speed by 2 km/h, how early would I reach my
destination?
Ans A). 100 min B). 50 min C). 40 min D). 20 min
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Correct Answer: D

Q.5 In a class of 40 students the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5. If the average marks scored by the boys in Science is 70 and the
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average marks scored by the whole class in Science is 60, then find the average marks scored by the girls in Science.
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Ans A). 54 B). 56 C). 52 D). 50

Correct Answer: A
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Q.6 The sum of the radii of spheres A and B is 14 cm, the radius of A being larger than that of B. The difference between their
B

surface areas is 112 π cm2 . What is the ratio of the volumes of B to A?

Ans A). 27 : 64 B). 64 : 27 C). 64 : 25 D). 25 : 64

Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Rahul and Rohit start running on a circular track (of length 360 m) from the same point simultaneously with a speed of 3 m/s
and 4 m/s. After how much time from the start, they will meet again at the starting point?
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Ans A). 2 minutes B). 12 minutes C). 6 minutes D). 3 minutes

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Manoj buys 1 kg tomato for ₹80 and sells it for ₹90. He also uses a weight of 800 gm in place of 1 kg. What is Manoj’s actual
profit percentage on the sale of 1 kg tomato?
Ans A). 40.625% B). 12.5% C). 37.5% D). 25%
Correct Answer: A

Q.9

Ans A). 21 B). 35 C). 28 D). 24

Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 The average marks obtained by 75 students in a certain examination is 38. Find the total marks.
Ans A). 4294 B). 113 C). 1406 D). 2850
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 In a stationary shop, a pen is marked as ₹80 and it is sold at a discount of 15%. The shopkeeper also offers a special
discount of ₹8 on the pen. Find the cost price of the pen if the shopkeeper earns a profit of 20%.
Ans A). ₹62 B). ₹60 C). ₹75 D). ₹50
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans A). 255 B). 315 C). 275 D). 355
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Refer the following data table and answer the question.

What was the increase in the height (in cm) of the child from the 7th birthday to the 8th birthday?

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Ans A). 5 B). 8 C). 6 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

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Q.14 In an examination, the average marks obtained by 15 students was 96, by 12 other students was 84 and by 13 other students

Ans A). 83.3

was 68. Find the average marks of all 40 students.
B). 87.6 C). 68.5
ap D). 78.6
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 If the height of a triangle is 45 cm and base is 70 cm, then the area of the triangle is:
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 The speeds of three trains are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7. What is the ratio of the time taken by them to travel the same distance?
Ans
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A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

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Q.17 ₹7,000 becomes₹7,567 in 2 years at simple interest at a certain rate percentage. Find the principal amount
(in₹) that will become₹24,050 in 5 years at the same rate of interest.
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Ans A). 24,000 B). 18,300 C). 20,000 D). 12,500

Correct Answer: C
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Q.18 The HCF of 204 and 1547 is:

Ans A). 17 B). 15 C). 18 D). 19

Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 The demand and production for five businesses, V, W, X, Y, and Z, are shown in the accompanying chart, which illustrates
them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

If the demand of company Z is k times than that of company W, then find the value of k.
Ans A). 5 B). 7 C). 8 D). 6
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans A). 50 B). 49 C). 52 D). 51
Correct Answer: A

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

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Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
111 – 1 + 36 ÷ 2 × 12 = ?
Ans A). 144 B). 160 C). 120 ap D). 106
Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 Adesh, Rinki, Narendra, Priya, Kiara, Sahil, and Lakshmi are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
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necessarily in the same order).

Kiara sits third to the left of Sahil. Rinki sits to the immediate right of Priya, who sits with Sahil. Adesh sits second to the
right of Lakshmi.
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Who is sitting to the immediate left of Adesh?

Ans A). Narendra B). Rinki C). Kiara D). Sahil
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 FH 61 is related to JL 69 in a certain way. In the same way, QS 76 is related to UW 84. To which of the following is LN 46
related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). PR 54 B). NK 56 C). CG 51 D). HU 52

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.4 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
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at
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘EVIL’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘BEAD’ is coded as ‘4816’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 5 B). 8 C). 1 D). 3
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All apricots are buns.
All buns are sweet.
Conclusions
(I) Some apricots are sweet.
(II) Some buns are apricots.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Only conclusion (I) follows
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Correct Answer: D

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Q.8 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

15 ÷ 15 – 30 + 225 × 25 = ? ap
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Ans A). 426 B). 246 C). 236 D). 146
Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Seven friends - M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). O is sitting third to the right of S. N is sitting second to the right of O. Q is an immediate neighbour of both M and S.
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P is an immediate neighbour of both O and N.

Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
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Ans A). O B). N C). M D). S

Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘2684’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘3598’.What is the code for ‘O’ in the given
code language?
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Ans A). 5 B). 3 C). 6 D). 8

Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.
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Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘FEEDING’ is coded as ‘ECBDJPJ’ and ‘SURFACE’ is coded as ‘RSOFBEH’. How will ‘MIGRATE’
be coded in the same language?
Ans A). LGDRBVH B). LHDRBUH C). LGCRCUI D). LGERBVG
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(6, 24, 36)

(8, 11, 25)
Ans A). (18, 2, 47) B). (2, 14, 20) C). (5, 19, 30) D). (15, 23, 34)
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

CEH, FHK, IKN, LNQ, ?

Ans A). NPS B). OQT C). MOP D). PRU
Correct Answer: B

Q.15

Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. B). Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow. C). Only conclusion (I) follows.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
Correct Answer: A

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Q.16 KRAV is related to GNWR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, UBKF is related to
QXGB. To which of the following is IPYT related, following the same logic?
Ans A). PELU B). LUPE C). ELUP ap D). ELPU
Correct Answer: C
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Q.17 12 is related to 139 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 284. To which ofthe following is 18
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related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
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Ans A). 324 B). 309 C). 312 D). 319

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
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12, 18, 36, 90, 252, ?

Ans A). 738 B). 876 C). 800 D). 789

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.19
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In December 2023, who became the first women Chief of Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) in India?
Ans A). Archana Ramasundaram B). Vimla Mehra C). Nina Singh D). Rashmi Shukla
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 The autobiography, 'An Autobiography' by Jawaharlal Nehru is also known as ______________.
Ans A). My Idea of Education B). The Accidental Prime Minister C). Toward Freedom D). The Unfinished Innings
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 In which of the following states is the groundnut fair, ’Kadalekayi Parishe’ celebrated on the last Monday of the Karthika
month of the Hindu calendar?
Ans A). Kerala B). Tamil Nadu C). Madhya Pradesh D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The earthquakes that are generated due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices are known as:
Ans A). Collapse earthquakes B). Explosion earthquakes C). Tectonic earthquakes D). Reservoir-induced earthquakes
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Which of the following gases is generally used to flush bags of chips by the manufacturers?
Ans A). Compressed air B). Oxygen C). Carbon dioxide D). Nitrogen
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In the year 1940, the national games were hosted by which of the following cities?
Ans A). Lahore B). Lucknow C). Patiala D). Bombay
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Who among the following was the founder of 'Satnami movement' in the central India?

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Ans A). Ghasidas B). Narayan Guru C). Saint Haridas D). Jyoti Rao Phule
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 What does a budget deficit indicate?
Ans A). The government is saving for future projects ap
B). The government is not allocating enough funds for public services
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C). Government revenue exceeds government spending D). Government spending exceeds government revenue
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 In which of the following years was the state of Golconda finally annexed into the Mughal empire?
Ans A). 1697 B). 1687 C). 1685 D). 1690
Correct Answer: B
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Q.10 Palkigundu Minor Rock Edicts of Ashoka are located in _________.

Ans A). Telangana B). Tamil Nadu C). Karnataka D). Maharashtra
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 The Great Granary was one of the largest granaries in the _______________.
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Ans A). Egyptian Civilization B). Mesopotamian Civilization C). Harappan Civilization D). Mayan Civilization
B

Correct Answer: C
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Q.12 Who among the following Indian dancers was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 1971, who was also known as the
father of modern Indian dance?
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Ans A). Pandit Durga Lal B). Uday Shankar C). Kelucharan D). Pandit Birju Maharaj
Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 As on February 2024, Nitish Kumar is the 9th time Chief Minister of which state?
Ans A). Odisha B). Chattisgarh C). Bihar D). Jharkhand
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 In the 1974 edition of the Guinness Book of Records, which playback singer was mentioned as the most recorded artist
in human history?
Ans A). Pulapaka Susheela B). Lata Mangeshkar C). KS Chithra D). Alka Yagnik
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 What is the female literacy rate in India, as per the 2011 census?
Ans A). 66.44% B). 64.66% C). 65.46% D). 65.64%
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Forward Bloc was founded in 1939-40 by which of the following leaders?
Ans A). Subhash Chandra Bose B). Rash Behari Bose C). Jawahar Lal Nehru D). Chittaranjan Das
Correct Answer: A

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Q.17 Dandiya Raas is a famous dance form of which state?
Ans A). Punjab B). Uttar Pradesh C). Chhattisgarh D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Which of the following is/are the highest judiciary in India?

Ans A). District Courts B). Supreme Court C). High Courts D). Parliament
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 The Mayurbhanj District in Odisha is a part of which Biosphere Reserve from the following?
Ans A). Dehang Debang B). Similipal C). Pachmarhi D). Nokrek
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 As per Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, what is the total length of National Highways in India as of November
2022?
Ans A). 1,85,633 kilometres B). 1,45,897 kilometres C). 1,86,908 kilometres D). 1,44,634 kilometres
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Which of the following neighbouring countries of India is most populous?

Ans A). Bangladesh B). Afghanistan C). Bhutan D). Pakistan
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Who among the following athletes was conferred with the Arjuna Award, 2021 by President Ram Nath Kovind?
Ans A). Dutee Chand B). Arpinder Singh C). Tajinder Pal Singh Toor D). Swapna Barman
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Bicameralism B). Integrated Judiciary C). Single Citizenship D). All India Service
Correct Answer: A

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Q.24 When a sailor jumps out of a rowing boat, the boat moves backwards. This represents:

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Ans A). the First law of motion B). the Third law of motion C). rectilinear motion D). the Second law of motion
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 ap
When the body is deprived of energy from food, which of the following tissues is used to feed on its own?
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Ans A). Nervous tissue B). Collenchyma tissue C). Epithelial tissue D). Adipose tissue
Correct Answer: D
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
A lot of social work is hindered due to corrupt politicians.
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Ans A). Obstructed B). Collided C). Helped D). Abided

Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

The dog is the most faithful animal.

Ans A). The dog is more useful than any other animal. B). The dog is the faithful animal. C). No other animal is as faithful as the dog.
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D). The dog is the only faithful animal.

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
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from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

My mother is 51 years old, / and my uncle is 48 years old. / So my mother is old than my uncle.
Ans A). My mother is 51 years old, B). and my uncle is 48 years old. C). So my mother is old than my uncle. D). No error
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Based on the context of the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Siri was feeling ____________ after receiving praise from her professor for completing the project ahead of schedule.
Ans A). under the weather B). in the dark C). in the same boat D). on top of the world
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

My sister is allergic with peanuts, so be cautious when preparing her meal.

Ans A). so be cautious B). when preparing her meal. C). allergic with peanuts D). My sister is
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
The mountain peak offers a breathtaking view, a striking contrast to the ___________(peculiar) scenery below.
Ans A). beautiful
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Toordinary
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odd
Sir Correct Answer: B
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Regal
Ans A). Majestic B). Ordinary C). Modest D). Humble
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The poet had to draw on his fancy to write all his sonnets.
Ans A). use his clothes B). use his memory C). use his imagination D). use his money
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'opacity' in the given sentence.

The diminishing and deteriorating visibility in winter leads to the revival of accident cases on the highway.
Ans A). visibility B). diminishing C). revival D). deteriorating
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

She tried not to embarras her friend by bringing up the awkward incident at the party.
Ans A). embarress B). emberrass C). embarass D). embarrass
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Shyam approached an leading psychologist for his treatment of anxiety and depression.
Ans A). for his treatment B). of anxiety and depression. C). an leading psychologist D). Shyam approached
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

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Our team lost the game / only because of / a mistake / with one of our players.

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Ans A). Our team lost the game B). with one of our players C). only because of D). a mistake
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 ap
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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Ramgopal is having a very big house in Mumbai.
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Ans A). having B). have C). has D). were having
Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Her presentation was both informative and __________.

Ans A). entertainer B). entertain C). entertainingly D). entertaining

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. Select 'no article' if no article is required.
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The doctor asked the patient to have _____ MRI scan of his brain.
B

Ans A). an B). a C). no article D). the

Correct Answer: A
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Q.16 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
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Select the correct alternative.

They had a least celebration on her birthday.
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Ans A). less B). most less C). little D). lesser
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
A person who does not believe in the institution of marriage
Ans A). Nihilist B). Misogamist C). Masochist D). Misogynist
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The board will look into the matter.
Ans A). A union of workers B). A member of a family C). A group of members of a company D). A group of elected politicians

Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Unnecessary B). Argument C). Misinterpret D). Exagerate
Correct Answer: D

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Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A) Occasion
B) Privilege
C) Bizzare
D) Definitely
Ans A). C B). A C). B D). D
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Speaking is a powerful tool (1)________ human communication. It allows us to convey thoughts, emotions and ideas to others.
Effective speaking (2)_________ not only the words we choose but also our tone, body language and overall presentation. Public
speaking, in particular, can be (3)______ a skill and an art, enabling individuals to inspire, educate and persuade audiences.
(4)________ it is a casual conversation with a friend or a formal presentation to a large group, the ability to express (5)_________
clearly and confidently through speaking is a valuable skill that can greatly impact our personal and professional lives.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). at B). on C). for D). with
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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speaking, in particular, can be (3)______ a skill and an art, enabling individuals to inspire, educate and persuade audiences.

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(4)________ it is a casual conversation with a friend or a formal presentation to a large group, the ability to express (5)_________
clearly and confidently through speaking is a valuable skill that can greatly impact our personal and professional lives.

Q.22
SubQuestion No : 22
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
ap
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Ans A). involves B). involve C). involving D). involved
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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speaking, in particular, can be (3)______ a skill and an art, enabling individuals to inspire, educate and persuade audiences.
(4)________ it is a casual conversation with a friend or a formal presentation to a large group, the ability to express (5)_________
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clearly and confidently through speaking is a valuable skill that can greatly impact our personal and professional lives.
B

SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). and B). both C). until D). though
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Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). Neither B). Whereas C). Because D). Whether
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). itself B). ourselves C). themselves D). herself
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 33% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

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Q.2 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

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The bar-graph given below shows the average marks scored by six students (A, B, C, D, E and F) in Mathematics, Physics
and Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

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.
G
B y
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Find the difference between the total marks scored by B in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry to the total marks scored
by F in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
Ans A). 12 B). 21 C). 24 D). 42
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 How long (in years) will it take for a sum of money invested at 4% per annum on simple interest to increase its value by
30%?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Two trains start at the same time from two stations and travel towards each other with speeds of 72 km/h and 84 km/h,
respectively. When they cross each other, it is found that one train has covered 108 km more than the other. What is the
distance (in km) between the two stations, and after how many hours will they meet, respectively?
Ans A). 1440; 10 B). 1244; 8 C). 1404; 9 D). 1084; 7
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 58 more than the average of these numbers. Find the largest number.
Ans A). 33 B). 27 C). 37 D). 31
Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 A sum was deposited at a certain rate of simple interest for 4 years. If it had been a 5% higher rate of interest, then it would
have amounted to ₹5,200 more. The sum deposited is:
Ans A). ₹10,400 B). ₹13,000 C). ₹26,000 D). ₹25,000
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 A solid sphere of radius 9 cm is melted to form a hollow, right circular cylindrical tube of length 12 cm and external radius
15 cm. The thickness (in cm) of the tube is:
Ans A). 1 B). 4 C). 3 D). 2
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 The average marks of 60 students was found to be 48. Later on, it was discovered that a score of 68 was misread as 56. Find
the correct average corresponding to the correct score.
Ans A). 54.2 B). 44.2 C). 40.8 D). 48.2
Correct Answer: D

Q.9

Ans A). 6 cm B). 10 cm C). 12 cm D). 8 cm

Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The salary of a person was reduced by 20%. By what percentage should his reduced salary be raised so as to bring it at par
with his original salary?
Ans A). 22% B). 20% C). 25% D). 30%
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 In an examination, the average marks of the student in class were 85.4. If the student had got 8 more marks in History, 12
more marks in Science, 10 more marks in Computer Science, 15 less marks in Hindi and retained the same marks in other

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subjects, then the average would have been 87.9. How many subjects were there in the examination?

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Ans A). 8 B). 6 C). 5 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 The greatest number which exactly divides the numbers 38, 95 and 171 is: ap
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Ans A). 19 B). 21 C). 9 D). 13
Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 The marked price of an article is ₹1,680 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what percentage
above the cost price was the article marked?
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Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).
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Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
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Ans A). 760 B). 800 C). 840 D). 740

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.15 The ratio between the monthly incomes of P and Q is 7 : 6 and the ratio between their expenditures is 6 : 5. If they save ₹480
hs

each, then find P’s monthly income.

Ans A). ₹2,880 B). ₹2,400 C). ₹6,240 D). ₹3,360

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.16

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.17 Amar buys a wall clock for ₹300 and sells it for ₹200. Find his percentage loss.
Ans A). 32.33% gain B). 30.33% loss C). 33.33% loss D). 31.33% gain
Correct Answer: C

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Q.18

Ans A). 26.32% B). 19.25% C). 21.15% D). 22.93%

Correct Answer: D

Q.19 There are five baskets- A, B, C, D and E. Each basket has rings in it and the average number of rings in all five baskets is 42.
If basket D is removed, the average number of rings in the remaining baskets is 38. How many rings are there in basket D?

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Ans A). 42 B). 58 C). 38 D). 64

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Correct Answer: B

Q.20
ap
A man travels a certain distance at 10 km/h and returns to the starting point at 8 km/h. The total time taken by him for the
entire journey is one and a half hours. The total distance (in km) covered by him is:
at
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C
Pr

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 OM 13 is related to RP 17 in a certain way. In the same way, WU 19 is related to ZX 23. To which of the following is IG 14
ag

related, following the same logic?

Ans A). KJ 17 B). LJ 18 C). KJ 18 D). LJ 17
G

Correct Answer: B
y

Q.2 E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). I sits third to
B

the left of J. E is an immediate neighbour of both G and H. G sits third to the right of J. F sits second to the right of I. What is
the position of K with respect to H?
hs

Ans A). Third to the left B). Second to the left C). Third to the right D). Immediate right
Correct Answer: A
at

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘FITS’ is coded as ‘ULID’ and ‘GIFT’ is coded as ‘IUZD’.
M

What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?

Ans A). U B). I C). Z D). D
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 In a code language, 'MBXL' is coded as ‘OXZH’ and 'FKRG' is coded as ‘HGTC’. How will 'LUGS' be coded in that language?
Ans A). OPJN B). OQJP C). NPIN D). NQIO
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
8 − 4 + 144 ÷ 16 × 27 = 14
Ans A). + and × B). − and + C). ÷ and − D). × and −
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FOM, ILJ, LIG, OFD, ?

Ans A). SCB B). RCA C). SCA D). RCB
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

234 × 6 − 6 ÷ 66 + 60 = ?
Ans A). 365 B). 322 C). 375 D). 329
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 A, B, L, N, S, T and Z are seven candidates sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order), for a group discussion. L is sitting third to the left of N. N is sitting exactly between T and B. Z is an immediate
neighbour of B and is sitting third to the left of S. Z is also an immediate neighbour of A. Who is sitting second to the left of
N?
Ans A). S B). L C). A D). Z
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.10 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first

ap
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
at
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Pr

2, 108
1
20, 180
an

Ans A). 30, 290 B). 18, 156 C). 14, 125 D). 25, 225
Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
G
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some babies are humans.
All babies are animals.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some animals are humans.
(II) All animals are babies.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Only conclusion (II) follows.
D). Only conclusion (I) follows.
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘KNOW’ is coded as ‘2846’ and ‘WIDE’ is coded as ‘5729’.What is the code for ‘W’ in the given
code language?
Ans A). 9 B). 5 C). 6 D). 2
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
86, 91, 101, 116, ?
Ans A). 126 B). 159 C). 134 D). 136
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All belts are wallets.
Some wallets are glasses.

Conclusions:
(I) Some belts are glasses.
(II) Some glasses are not wallets.
Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.16

r
Si
ap
at
Pr

Ans
an
ag

A). B). C). D).

G
y

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.17 6 is related to 77 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 116. To which of the following is 11
hs

related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
at

Ans A). 143 B). 142 C). 132 D). 141

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘BEND’ is written as ‘ADMC’ and ‘FISH’ is written as ‘EHRG’. How will ‘EVIL’ be written in that
language?
Ans A). FWJM B). DUJM C). DWHK D). DUHK
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 AI10 is related to YG12 in a certain way. In the same way, BJ20 is related to ZH22. To which of the following is CK30 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). BC22 B). BI22 C). AB32 D). AI32
Correct Answer: D

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Q.20 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series if it were to be continued?

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following national leaders of India inaugurated the first Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samman Samaroh held in Ujjain
in 1958?
Ans A). Jawaharlal Nehru B). Lal Bahadur Shastri C). Rajendra Prasad D). Sardar Patel
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 In rat-hole mining, which of the following minerals is mined?

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Ans A). Bauxite B). Nickel C). Gold D). C
oal
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Which of the following statements is/are correct temples of Khajuraho?

a) Equal importance is given to human experience and spiritual pursuit. ap
at
b) Jain and Hindu temples are also found at Khajuraho.
c) Chausanth Yogini temple is one of the important temples here.
Pr

Ans A). All a, b and c B). Only a and b C). Only c and a D). Only b and c
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.4 Which of the following festivals is celebrated in the month of Chaitra?

Ans A). Dussehra B). Ramnavami C). Diwali D). Janmashtami
ag

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.5 Gluten formation is observed in various foods like pasta, noodles, pizzas, and bread. Gluten occurs when two specific
proteins are mixed with water. Name the two proteins responsible for gluten formation.
y

Ans A). Glutenin and Casein B). Glutenin and Albumin C). Glutenin and Glycine D). Glutenin and Gliadin
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.6 The village servants or functionaries, who constituted of groups of families in Vijayanagar empire, were called __________.
hs

Ans A). vellalars B). ayagars C). nayakas D). amaranayakas

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.7 Where is the headquarters of the West Central Railway Zone?

Ans A). Jabalpur B). Hubli C). Maligaon D). Bilaspur

Correct Answer: A

Q.8 On 11th December 2022, who among the following took over as the Deputy Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans A). Mukesh Agnihotri B). Jairam Thakur C). Shiv Pratap Shukla D). Vikramaditya Singh
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 The famous folk dance 'Dholacha Nach' is performed in which state?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Rajasthan C). Madhya Pradesh D). Bihar
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 The position of the President in the Indian Political system is that of a ________.
Ans A). Dictator B). Nominal Executive C). Real Executive D). King
Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 Which of the following is an example of a physical change? In this example, there is no change in chemical composition of
matter.
A: Coal changing into coal ash on burning
B: Preparing a sweet drink by mixing sugar in water
C: White washing walls using a solution of lime and water
D: Mixing salt and lemon juice in a beaker
Ans A). Only A B). Only C C). Only D D). Only B
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Which state lies in the rain shadow region of the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Gujarat C). Goa D). Kerala
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Which of the following is/are an example of a non-tax revenue receipt?

Ans A). Disinvestment B). Interest income C). Income tax D). External commercial borrowings
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) was launched by the Government of India in the year ________.
Ans A). 2016 B). 2012 C). 2005 D). 2022
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Which of the following Hindi novels is written by Vishnu Prabhakar?

Ans A). Vinayak B). Ardhnarishwar C). Mujhe Chand Chahiye D). Kyapa
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 In which season of the Ultimate Kho-Kho League tournament was Ramji Kashyap awarded the Player of the tournament?
Ans A). Season 2 B). Season 1 C). Season 3 D). Season 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War was fought in the year ________.

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Ans A). 1797 B). 1796 C). 1800 D). 1799
Correct Answer: D

Q.18
Ans A). Gujarat Giants B). Royal Challengers Bangalore C). Delhi Capitals
ap
Which team won the first edition of the Women's Premier League (WPL) event in the year 2023?
D). Mumbai Indians
at
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.19 Literal meaning of 'megalith' is _____________________.

Ans A). a cave B). a huge shelter C). a mortuary D). a big stone
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.20 What approach did Dadabhai Naoroji use to calculate the Poverty Line?
ag

Ans A). Prisoner menu B). Export-import data C). Industrial output D). Agricultural productivity
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.21 For which song did Tanvi Shah become the first Indian woman to win a Grammy Award in 2010?
y

Ans A). Vande Mataram B). Bharat Ki Beti C). Jai Ho D). Ae Watan
B

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.22 At which of the following places was the first Singh Sabha founded in 1873?
Ans A). Lahore B). Amritsar C). Multan D). Jullundur
at

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.23 In 2023, the philanthropic organisation Carnegie Corporation of New York placed Ajay Banga, the
President of ______, on its annual 'Great Immigrants' list. This list consists of honourees who have
enriched and strengthened America and its democracy through their contributions and actions.
Ans A). European Union B). World Bank C). Asian Development Bank D). African Union
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Who was the Prime Minister when the 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated into the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Indira Gandhi B). Atal Bihari Vajpayee C). Lal Bahadur Shastri D). Gulzari Lal Nanda
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 The Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change maintains a log of all the endangered species of India along
with their conservation status. What is the name of this book?
Ans A). The Book of Endangered Species B). Indian Life Catalogue C). The Black Book D). Red Data Book
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Always keep in mind leaner bodies need more calories than fattest ones.
Ans A). fat B). more fatter C). the fattest D). fatter
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

I did not like his bossy attitude.
Ans A). idiosyncratic B). sensible C). controlling D). benevolent
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
We ________ to keep you informed of any delay to your expected delivery date.
Ans A). endevour B). endevor C). endeavour D). endavour
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

I have never had and never will be dependent on him.

Ans A). has never been B). never has C). never been D). was never being
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

He devoted his entire life to the study of the human mind.

Ans A). physics B). psychology C). philology D). physiology
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECT spelling in the given sentence.
If you try to conwince people that money is not very important, then you are barking up the wrong tree.

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Ans A). convince B). conveence C). canvince D). convincee
Correct Answer: A

Q.7
ap
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If I wrote an email / to my boss now, / he will react / by yelling at me tomorrow in the morning.
at
Ans A). to my boss now, B). he will react C). by yelling at me tomorrow in the morning. D). If I wrote an email
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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
an
ag

Rahul was angry of his brother as he broke his pen.

Ans A). from B). of C). on D). at

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
hs
at

We often go camping, but I have never been to that particular part of town or country before.
M

Ans A). neck of the woods B). knock on wood C). get it in the neck D). risk one's neck
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank .

The company's decision to relocate had a negative ___________ on its employees.

Ans A). accommodation B). establish C). effect D). conclusion
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom from the alternatives.

Rajiv will understand some day that all his friends are fair weather friends.
Ans A). A friend who stays only when times are convenient B). True friends help you when you need them
C). A friend who meets you only during pleasant weather D). Friends generally have similar characteristics
Correct Answer: A

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Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Collapse
Ans A). Surprise B). Jump C). Side D). Fall
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans A). They have an information about the event. B). The cat is sleeping on a mat. C). She is an artist at a local gallery.
D). Can you bring me the keys to the car?
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined word.
The old library had a musty smell from years of neglect.
Ans A). casual B). foggy C). stale D). fresh
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

compassionate

Ans A). cruel B). confident C). hardworking D). disciplined

Correct Answer: A

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If the players don’t wear sunscreen, / their faces will / get reddest.
Ans A). get reddest B). their faces will C). No error D). If the players don’t wear sunscreen,

Q.17
ap
Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Correct Answer: A
at
Effective responses of climate change are imperative to protect the world’s children and fulfil their rights.
Pr

Ans A). responses to climate change B). responses from climate change C). responses at climate change D). responses with climate change
an

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

When we _____________ ourselves, we activate a variety of psychological processes that help us achieve our objectives
and improve our overall well-being.
G

Ans A). doubt B). demolish C). believe in D). linger

Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
hs

The kitten's playful behaivor brought joy to the entire family.

Ans A). Kitten's B). Joy C). Behaivor D). Playful
at

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Brave
Ans A). Boundless B). Dim C). Cowardly D). Earthly
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In the contemporary times, sports and games are emerging as one of the brightest careers. It expects to ___1___ at a very high moral
plane. It demands honesty and transparency. Sports further demand continuous practice, hard work and ___2___ training. One must
understand that sport not only has physical benefits but also ___3___ concentration and inner strength. Not only this, one who plays
feels that ____4___ overall personality has undergone a change for better. Besides, social connectivity or networking, games develop
___5___ spirit in players.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). dwell B). operate C). desynchronise D). decide
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). relentless B). paltry C). abated D). faltering
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). deteriorates B). controls C). boosts D). underlines
Correct Answer: C

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Si
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ap
In the contemporary times, sports and games are emerging as one of the brightest careers. It expects to ___1___ at a very high moral
at
plane. It demands honesty and transparency. Sports further demand continuous practice, hard work and ___2___ training. One must
understand that sport not only has physical benefits but also ___3___ concentration and inner strength. Not only this, one who plays
Pr

feels that ____4___ overall personality has undergone a change for better. Besides, social connectivity or networking, games develop
___5___ spirit in players.
an

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
ag

Ans A). their B). one's C). it's D). his

Correct Answer: B
G

Comprehension:
y

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
hs

feels that ____4___ overall personality has undergone a change for better. Besides, social connectivity or networking, games develop
___5___ spirit in players.
M

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). captaincy B). companionship C). sportsmanship D). leadership
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If 40 : 35 :: 35 : x, find the value of x.

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.2 A man buys 15 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.32, then his profit percentage is:

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Ans A). 8% B). 50% C). 23% D). 32%
Correct Answer: D

Q.3
B). 55 km/h C). 60 km/h
ap
A vehicle moves at 65 km/h for 4 hours before slowing down to 52 km/h for the next 2.5 hours. Calculate the average speed.
Ans A). 61.25 km/h D). 58.5 km/h
Correct Answer: C
at
Pr

Q.4 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities: P, Q, R and S.
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

The maximum number of accidents in all cities are due to vehicles of type:
Ans A). Y B). X C). Z D). X and Z both
Correct Answer: C

Q.5

Ans A). 72.75 B). 74.75 C). 74.25 D). 72.25

Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.6 When a number is first increased by 18% and then decreased by 18%, the change in the number is ____________.
Ans A). 3.24 % decrease B). 0% C). 3.24% increase D). 32.4% increase
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach the destination in 2 hours. If I increase my speed by 5 km/h, how early would I reach
my destination?
Ans A). 50 min B). 30 min C). 20 min D). 40 min
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 In an office having 160 staff members, 40% are females and the remaining are males. The average weight of females is 58 kg
and that of males is 63 kg. Find the average weight of all staff members.
Ans A). 58 kg B). 68 kg C). 79 kg D). 61 kg
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 450 B). 600 C). 150 D). 300
Correct Answer: D

Q.10

Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.11 The average age of a man and his son is 48 years. The ratio of their ages is 5 : 3. What is the son's age?
Ans A). 35 years B). 36 years C). 38 years D). 34 years

r
Correct Answer: B

Si
Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 540 B). 600 C). 640
ap D). 560
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.13 A printer with a marked price of ₹9,000 is offered on successive discounts of 30%, 20%, and 15%. Identify the printer's
selling price.
Pr

Ans A). ₹4,264 B). ₹4,250 C). ₹

4,284 D). ₹
4,274
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.14 A person lent a sum of ₹30,000 on simple interest for 12 years, with an interest rate of 8% per annum for the first 4 years,
10% per annum for the next 3 years, and 15% per annum for last 5 years. How much interest (in ₹) will he earn at the end of
ag

12 years?
G

Ans A). 38000 B). 41100 C). 40200 D). 40800

Correct Answer: B
y

Q.15 The average of seven consecutive natural numbers is 56. The greatest number among them is:
B

Ans A). 58 B). 59 C). 61 D). 60

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.16 A man sold his bicycle for ₹810 losing two-fifth of its cost price. What is the loss percentage?
at

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A
M

Q.17 The average score of 12 girls in a test was 16.5 and that of 18 boys in the same test was 16. The average score of girls and
boys taken together in the same test was:
Ans A). 16.2 B). 16.4 C). 16.7 D). 16.1
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 What is the radius of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 8.4 cm ?
Ans A). 4.1 cm B). 4.2 cm C). 2.2 cm D). 2.1 cm
Correct Answer: B

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Q.19

Ans A). 7500 B). 6800 C). 8400 D). 6300

Correct Answer: D

Q.20 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm,then the length of each median is:
Ans
B). C). D). Correct Answer: C
A).

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

r
Si
ap
at
Pr
an

Ans
ag
G

A). B). C). D).

B y
hs

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.2 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). B is sitting second to the left of C. Only two people are sitting between B and D. D is an immediate neighbour of C. A
M

is sitting third to the right of F. E is sitting to the immediate left of G.

What is the position of E with respect to B?
Ans A). To the immediate right B). Third to the right C). To theimmediate left D). Second to the left
Correct Answer: D

Q.3

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.4 The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first
number. Select the pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

1, 88
1
14, 112
Ans A). 16, 128 B). 28, 226 C). 24, 196 D). 19, 151
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘you are a good friend’ is coded as ‘es an pz fd mq’ and ‘his friend is very kind’ is coded as ‘ck
mq pn ag sb’. How is ‘friend’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). fd B). mq C). es D). ck
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘MOTH’ is coded as ‘2514’ and ‘TOME’ is coded as ‘1453’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans A). 1 B). 4 C). 3 D). 5
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 13 is related to 103 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 71. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 119 B). 117 C). 109 D). 112
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 OJNI is related to GBFA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QLPK is related to IDHC.
To which of the following is VQUP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1.
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NIMH A). NIHM B). INHM C). INMH

Q.10 In a code language, 'ROASTER' is coded as '96' and 'GUM' is coded as '41'. How will 'ARTIST' be coded in the same
language?
G

Ans A). 88 B). 77 C). 82 D). 87

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.11 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.12 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(12÷ 3) × 18 - 2× 4 + 42÷ 6 = 69
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans A). 3 and 6 B). 18 and 12 C). 3 and 4 D). 2 and 6
Correct Answer: D

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Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
Ans A). 177 B). 127 C). 576 D). 168
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 JQMT is related to PWSZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HOKR is related to
NUQX. To which of the following is FMIP related, following the same logic?
Ans A). OSLV B). OLSV C). LOSV D). LSOV
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’

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are interchanged?

Ans A). 52
29 × 841 ÷ 87 + 37 – 59 = ?
B). 25 C). 65
ap D). 55
Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
No soap is a lotion.
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No lotion is a conditioner.
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Conclusions:
(I) No soap is a conditioner.
(II) Some conditioners are lotions.
B y

Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Both conclusion I and II follow
hs

Correct Answer: A
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Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AEH, DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?
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Ans A). NRU B). MQT C). MQX D). PQT

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Six persons – L, M, N, O, P and Q – are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same
order. O is sitting second to the left of Q. P is not an immediate neighbour of Q. M is sitting second to the right of L. N is
sitting to the immediate right of Q.
Who is an immediate neighbour of both, L and N?
Ans A). M B). O C). P D). Q
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
No lizard is a snake.
All lizards are reptiles.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some reptiles are snakes.
(II) All reptiles are lizards.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Only conclusion (II) follows. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of these state governments has implemented PESA act in November 2022?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Punjab C). Madhya Pradesh D). Rajasthan
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 The national animal of Nepal is:

Ans A). snow leopard B). cow C). camel D). tiger
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 The cold subarctic climate region possesses forest lands having conifers as main vegetation. These forest lands are known
as:

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Ans A). Mangrove B). Savanna C). Taiga D). Tundra
Correct Answer: C

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Q.4 With reference to medieval history, consider the following statements.

2. One of the important dynasties which ruled in northern India was Gurjara-Pratiharas. ap
1. The founder of the Chola dynasty called the ‘Imperial Cholas’ was Vijayalaya (9th century AD).

3. Palas ruled in western India and Rashtrakutas ruled in southern India in the early years (750 -1000).
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Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
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Ans A). 1 and 2 only B). 1 and 3 only C). 2 only D). 1 only
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are true for the Religious Festivals in India?
1.Losar festival is majorly celebrated by Buddhist community of India.
2.Navroz festival is majorly celebrated by the Parsi community of India.
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3.Saga Dawa is majorly celebrated by the Muslim community of India.

Ans A). Only 1 B). Both 1 and 2 C). Only 2 D). Both 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.6 Birju Maharaj is related to which of the following classical dance forms?
B

Ans A). Kathakali B). Kathak C). Garba D). Bharatanatyam

Correct Answer: B
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Q.7 Which of the following peaks is NOT located in India?

Ans A). Guru Shikar B). Nanda Devi C). Dhaulagiri D). Mahendragiri
Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 In which year did John Dalton present his atomic theory, the second part of which states that all atoms of a particular
element are equal?
Ans A). 1808 B). 1811 C). 1825 D). 1800
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Padma Bhushan awardee Mogubai Kurdikar was associated with which of the following music styles?
Ans A). Hindustani Classical music B). Theatre music C). Jazz music D). Folk music
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Who among the following elect(s) the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha in India?
Ans A). Members of Vidhan Parishad B). President C). Members of Vidhan Sabha D). Governor
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Who is the author of the historical fiction novel ‘The Mauryan: The Legend of Ashoka’?
Ans A). Chetan Bhagat B). Komal Bhanver C). Sanjeev Sanyal D). Amish Tripathi
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Which of the following is an informal group consisting of 4 to 10 individuals who seek loans against mutual guarantee?
Ans A). Rural cooperatives B). Self-help group C). Grameen model bank D). Joint liability group
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Who has been appointed as the new Chief of the Special Protection Group (SPG) by the centre in November 2023?
Ans A). Rakesh Asthana B). Ashok Kumar Mishra C). Anil Kumar Dhasmana D). Alok Sharma
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which state in India hosted the 77th edition of the Santosh Trophy?
Ans A). Arunanchal Pradesh B). Madhya Pradesh C). Himanchal Pradesh D). Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Which of the following vitamins includes cobalt as an essential component?

Ans A). Vitamin B12 B). Vitamin A C). Vitamin E D). Vitamin D
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Who among the following was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?
Ans A). Sarojini Naidu B). Annie Besant C). Sucheta Kriplani D). Aruna Asaf Ali
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 ________ was awarded, Padma Shri in 1970 for his contribution to the field of Kuchipudi dance.
Ans A). Mushtaq Husain Khan B). Sthanam NarasimhaRao C). V Satyanarayana Sarma D). Dwaram Venkataswami Naidu
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The construction of Mehrangarh fort of Jodhpur was initiated during the reign of which ruler?
Ans A). Maharawal Jaswant Singh B). Rao Bika C). Rao Jodha D). Sawai Man Singh
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The major carbohydrate of milk is

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Ans A). lactose B). Fructose C). starch D). maltose
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Who became the Nawab of Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan in the year 1756?
Ans A). Shuja-Ud-Daulah B). Siraj-Ud-Daulah C). Saadat Ali Khan
ap D). Wazir Ali
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.21 Which of the following iron and steel plants is located in Jharkhand?
Ans A). Durgapur B). Salem C). Vijay Nagar D). Bokaro
Correct Answer: D
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Q.22 What is a 'double fault' in tennis?

Ans A). Serving two faults in a row B). A serve that goes out of bounds C). A fault called by the linesman
D). A serve that hits the net and goes into the correct service box
G

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.23 The 11th Fundamental Duty to the Indian Constitution was added in the year ____________ by the 86th Constitutional
B

Amendment Act.
Ans A). 2001 B). 2002 C). 2000 D). 2004
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.24 Which of the following Census recorded negative population growth in India?
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Ans A). 1971 B). 1991 C). 2011 D). 1921

Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Kharavela was an important ruler of which dynasty?

Ans A). Sunga Dynasty B). Vardhan Dynasty C). Gupta Dynasty D). Chedi Dynasty
Correct Answer: D

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.
After the storm passed, the sun emarged from behind the clouds.

Ans A). emergad B). amergad C). emerged D). amarged

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The assignment was _________ early in the morning.
Ans A). do B). doe C). dew D). due
Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The way Sonam performs live on stage can be called the _________ one.
Ans A). perfectable B). more perfect C). most perfect D). mostly perfect
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

Grapple
Ans A). Wrestle B). Grumble C). Clasp D). Release
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the meaningful and correctly spelt word from the given options to fill in the blank.

The oceans cover more than 70% of the Earth's surface, making them the largest _______________ on the planet.
Ans A). habitat B). hybrid C). habitude D). habit
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Bureaucracy B). Lieutanant C). Rendezvous D). Augment

Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He is a complete novice when it comes to driving a car.
Ans A). Expert B). Zealous C). Amateur D). Swindler
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
Don’t fight over such a trivial issue.

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Ans A). Complex B). Controversial C). Insignificant D). Tricky
Correct Answer: C

Q.9
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Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
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The pineapple dessert was so delicious that we couldn’t help eat it.
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Ans A). so delicious that we couldn’t helping eat it B). so that delicious we couldn’t help eating it C). No substitution
D). so delicious that we couldn’t help eating it
Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
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correct.

Smart watches are the last gadgets used by younger generations.

Ans A). latest B). the latest C). later D). the later
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Straight from the horse's mouth

Ans A). Directly from the person involved B). Directly eating from the provider C). Giving no expression at all D). Rumours begin at home
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My sister performed / brilliant / in the competition / yesterday.

Ans A). in the competition B). brilliant C). yesterday D). my sister performed
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the option that corrects the Phrasal Verb (appearing in bold letters) in the given sentence.

The burglarsbroke offmy neighbour's house when they were away.

Ans A). broke into B). broke down C). broke away D). broke with
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word.

They want to bifurcate the states.

Ans A). Divide B). Combine C). Examine D). Support
Correct Answer: B

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My brother plays the guitar _________ than I do.

Ans A). best B). good C). well D). better
Correct Answer: D

Whenever she is coming / here, she brings / many gifts for everyone.
Ans A). No Error B). here, she brings C). Whenever she is coming D). many gifts for everyone.
Correct Answer: C

Ravi said that / his red jacket is / the cheaper than all other jackets.
Ans A). No error B). Ravi said that C). the cheaper than all other jackets. D). his red jacket is
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The author's use of vivid imagery ___________ the reader's senses, making the story come alive.
Ans A). dulls B). heightens C). actions D). confuses
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Straight from the horse's mouth
Ans A). Hearing something that is untrue or a lie B). Hearing something from a reliable and credible source

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C). Hearing something that is difficult to understand D). Hearing something coming from a horse's mouth
Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He is an intelligent person who always thinks before he ______________. ap

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Ans A). acted B). acts C). acting D). act
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank:
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In the realm of literature, words are the (1) ____________ of creation, and authors are the (2) ____________ of meaning. They
skillfully weave stories with (3) ____________ narratives that can (4) ____________ the depths of human emotion. A well-crafted
novel can (5) ____________ readers into its world, making them forget the passage of time.
G

SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). mundane B). isolate C). tools D). convey

Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank:

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). direction B). keepers C). coward D). vibrators
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). vivid B). defrost C). mundane D). convey
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). teacher B). sailor C). banker D). pilot
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

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In the realm of literature, words are the (1) ____________ of creation, and authors are the (2) ____________ of meaning. They
skillfully weave stories with (3) ____________ narratives that can (4) ____________ the depths of human emotion. A well-crafted
novel can (5) ____________ readers into its world, making them forget the passage of time.

SubQuestion No : 25 ap
at
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). immerse B). isolate C). install D). repel
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Correct Answer: A
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G
B y
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at
M

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1
What sum of money (in₹)will produce ₹75 as simple interest in 4 years at %per annum?

Ans A). 1,200 B). 1,250 C). 1,240 D). 1,210

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 If 5 litres of vinegar containing 20% of water is mixed with 10 litres of vinegar containing 5% of water, then what percentage
of the new vinegar mixture is water?
Ans A). 20% B). 11.11% C). 10% D). 15%
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 16 women can finish a task in 20 days and 20 men take 32 days to finish the same task. How many days will 8 women and 16

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men take to finish the same task?

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Ans A). 16 B). 32 C). 10 D). 20
Correct Answer: D

Q.4
ap
A solid sphere of radius 12 cm is melted and cast into small spherical balls, each of diameter 2.4 cm. Find the number of
balls thus obtained.
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Ans A). 1000 B). 980 C). 1050 D). 500
Correct Answer: A
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Q.5
an
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Ans A). 2310 cu.cm B). 2000 cu.cm C). 3087 cu.cm D). 465 cu.cm
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 110 B). 90 C). 150 D). 190
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.7 The HCF of 28,35 and 42 is:

Ans A). 3 B). 7 C). 11 D). 5
hs

Correct Answer: B
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Q.8 Find the number of lead balls of diameter 4 cm each that can be made from a sphere of diameter 24 cm.
Ans A). 432 B). 108 C). 144 D). 216
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Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1020 B). 1120 C). 1040 D). 1080
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 A man rows downstream 27 km and upstream 18 km, taking one hour each time. What is the speed of the current?
Ans A). 4.5 km/h B). 6 km/h C). 1.5 km/h D). 9 km/h
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 A’s income and expenditure are in the ratio 5 : 4. If his total savings are ₹56,000, what is his expenditure in ₹?
Ans A). 4,42,000 B). 2,42,000 C). 2,24,000 D). 2,44,000
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The average age of a mother and her daughter is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 9 : 5, respectively. Find the daughter's
age (in years).
Ans A). 30 B). 35 C). 20 D). 25
Correct Answer: A

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Q.13 A man covers a total distance of 100 km on bicycle. For the first 2 h, the speed was 20 km/h and for the rest of the journey, it
came down to 10 km/h. The average speed will be:
Ans
D). Correct Answer: C
B). C).
A).

Q.14 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer for two consecutive years,
2021 and 2022.

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What is the difference between the average sales (in thousands) of all the five branches in 2021 and 2022?
Ans A). 18.4 B). 15.4 C). 16.4
ap D). 17.4
Correct Answer: D
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Q
.
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1
5

Ans A). 18 B). 27 C). 45 D). 36

Correct A

Q.16 If the cost price of a house is 86% of the selling price, then what is the profit percentage, correct up to two decimals?
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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B
G

Q.17 A shopkeeper marked the price of a commodity at ₹37,000 more than the actual cost. If the shopkeeper allowed a 15%
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discount, it would fetch ₹ 7,500 more than if he allowed a 20% discount. Find the cost price.
B

Ans A). ₹1,23,000 B). ₹1,50,000 C). ₹1,31,000 D). ₹1,13,000

Correct Answer: D
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Q.18
at
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Ans A). March B). January C). April D). February

Correct Answer: D

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Q.19 A start from X at 9:00 A.M. and reaches Y at 1:00 P.M., on the same day, B also starts from Y at 9:00 A.M. and reaches X at
3:00 P.M. on the same day, following the same route as A. At what time do the two meet?
Ans A). 11:30 A.M. B). 11:12 A.M. C). 11:24 A.M. D). 10:00 A.M.
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 If a reduction of 10% in the price of rice enables a person to obtain 22 kg more for ₹250, then the original price of the rice per
kg is:
(correct to two decimal place)
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). A sits
second to the left of D, who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G, who is not an immediate neighbour of E. B
sits second to the right of G.
What is the position of B with respect to C?
Ans A). Immediate left B). Second to the left C). Immediate right D). Second to the right
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

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A). B). C). D).

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Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.
an
ag
G
y

Ans
Correct Answer: D
B
hs

A). B). C). D).

at
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Statements:
No bed is a chair.
No chair is table.

Conclusions:
(I) No bed is a table.
(II) Some tables may be chairs.
Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow B). Only conclusion II follows C). Only conclusion I follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: D

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (‘?’) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷′ and ‘–‘
are interchanged?
18 × 72 – 3 ÷ 2 + 11 = ?
Ans A). 32 B). 20 C). 24 D). 31
Correct Answer: B

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Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘please fill this’ is written as ‘km tu dk’ and ‘this is book’ is written as ‘dk pu sy’. How is ‘this’
written in the given language?
Ans A). py B). km C). tu D). dk
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AAA, BCD, CEG, DGJ, ?
Ans A). EIM B). FGK C). EHN D). FIK
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘BLAME’ is coded as ‘YOZNV’ and ‘GLAZE’ is coded as ‘TOZAV’. What is the code for ‘PRAKASH’
in the given code language?
Ans A). KIZPZHT B). KIZPZHS C). KJZPZHS D). KIZQZHS
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 WGQA Is related to XHRB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HRBL is related to
ISCM. To which of the following is GQAK related, following the same logic?
Ans A). HRKM B). HRBL C). HTBM D). HRBM
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

13, 26, 39, 52, 65, ?

Ans A). 78 B). 79 C). 77 D). 80
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). B is sitting third to the right of D. G is sitting second to the left of A. E is sitting to the immediate right of G. Only
three people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. The
position of how many persons will remain unchanged except A if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical
order in anti-clockwise direction, starting from A and keeping the position of A unchanged?
Ans A). Two B). None C). Three D). One
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if

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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All cats are dogs.
No cat is a horse.
Conclusions:
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at
(I): No dog is a horse.
(II): No horse is a cat.
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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: A
an

Q.13 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.
ag
G
B y

Ans
hs

Correct Answer: D
at

A). B). C). D).

Q.14 9 is related to 37 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 13. To which of the following is 8 related,
following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 33 B). 35 C). 29 D). 31
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 45 is related to 85 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 63 is related to 121. To which ofthe following is 58
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 116 B). 101 C). 111 D). 106
Correct Answer: C

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Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘COAT’ is coded as ‘3571’ and ‘PAIN’ is coded as ‘4238’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans A). 2 B). 3 C). 7 D). 8
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘KIDS’ is coded as ‘97&5’ and ‘DESK’ is coded as ‘R759’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 5 B). R C). 9 D). 7
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(16÷ 4) × 6 + 26 −48 + 9× 8 = 154

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans A). 26 and 48 B). 16 and 48 C). 4 and 8 D). 6 and 9
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 KINL is related to QOTR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NLQO is related to
TRWU. To which of the following is PNSQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1.

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VTYW A). VTWY B). TVWY C). TVYW

Section : General Awareness

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Q.1 Indian classical singer, Kesarbai Kerkar belonged to which of the following gharanas?
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Ans A). Agra gharana B). C). Delhi gharana D). Benaras gharana
Correct Answer: B
Jaipur-Atrauli gharana
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Q.2 National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Programme, introduced in the Union Budget 2023, aims to eliminate sickle
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cell genetic transmission by the year _____________.

Ans A). 2049 B). 2045 C). 2040 D). 2047
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.3 Which of the following autobiographies is written by the former Indian Judge Leila Seth?
y

Ans A). Challenges of Governance: An Insider’s View B). On Balance: An Autobiography C). Justice for the Judge: An Autobiography
B

D). In Pursuit of Justice: An Autobiography

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.4 Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a scheme launched in 2015 for providing loans up to ________ lakh to the non-
corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
at

Ans A). 5 B). 2 C). 10 D). 8

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.5 Which of the following groups of organisms are more vulnerable to the acidification of ocean?
Ans A). Marine mammals B). Marine reptiles C). Marine algae D). Calcifying organisms
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In which year did Guru Indira PP Bora receive the Padma Shri Award?
Ans A). 2019 B). 2018 C). 2021 D). 2020
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 The SEWA Cooperative Bank was first initiated in ________ in the year ________.
Ans A). Ahmedabad; 1974 B). Varanasi; 1974 C). Ahmedabad; 1984 D). Varanasi; 1984
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 The Talcher Thermal Power Station is located in which state?

Ans A). Andhra Pradesh B). Rajasthan C). Bihar D). Odisha
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which element is located in Group 18 of the periodic table and is known for its lack of chemical reactivity?
Ans A). Oxygen B). Chlorine C). Fluorine D). Helium
Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 The Ananda Pagoda is a famous festival of which neighbouring country of India?
Ans A). Pakistan B). Myanmar C). Maldives D). Afghanistan
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Match the columns.

Ans A). i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b B). i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a C). i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a D). i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 To remain healthy and disease free, taking a balanced diet is very important. A balanced diet is:
Ans A). a diet that contains adequate amount of protein and fat B). a diet that contains appreciable number of vitamins and minerals
C). a diet that contains sufficient amount of all the nutrients that the human body needs to grow properly
D). a diet that contains adequate amount of carbohydrates
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 The president of which country was the chief guest at the Indian Republic Day Ceremony of 2023?
Ans A). Lebanon B). Sudan C). Morocco D). Egypt
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 During which of the following Prime Minsters' leadership were Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Jawahar Lal Nehru B). Atal Bihari Vajpai C). Indira Gandhi D). Lal Bahadur Shastri
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the composition of the Legislative Council?
Ans A). Article 168 B). Article 171 C). Article 181 D). Article 169
Correct Answer: B

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Q.16 In which city was the 141st session of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) inaugurated in India?
Ans A). Delhi B). Chennai C). Prayagraj D). Mumbai

Q.17
ap Correct Answer: D

At which of the following places the written form of teachings of Jainism in which they are presently available, were written
at
around 1500 years ago?
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Ans A). Pataliputra B). Shravanabelagola C). Valabhi D). Mathura

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The title of ‘Chief of the Merchants’ or ‘Malikut-Tujjar’ was conferred on Mahmud Gawan by which of the following Bahamani
an

kings?
Ans A). Mohammad Shah B). Humayun Shah C). NizamuddinAhmad III D). Bahman Shah
Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.19 Who among the following Indian leaders was the first member to be elected to the British Parliament?
G

Ans A). Motilal Nehru B). Dadabhai Naoroji C). Bhikaji Cama D). Lala Hardayal
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.20 In which Indian city is the DY Patil Cricket Stadium located?

Ans A). Navi Mumbai B). Pune C). Aurangabad D). Nashik
Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.21 Which of the following is the zonal headquarter of North Eastern Railway?
at

Ans A). Allahabad B). Kolkata C). Gorakhpur D). Hubli

Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 Who among the following signed the Treaty of Allahabad in August 1765 with the Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II, the
Mughal Emperor?
Ans A). Earl Mountbatten B). Robert Clive C). William Bentick D). Warren Hastings
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 The Kamakshi Saunsthan temple of Goa is crowned with the ________ two-storied tower and with a golden Kalash perched
on its Shikhar.
Ans A). pentagonal B). circular C). hexagonal D). octagonal
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Which of the following Indian classical dance forms was developed by Siddhendra Yogi?
Ans A). Dandiya B). Kathakali C). Kuchipudi D). Kathak
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 In February 2023, which Indian-American was appointed as the CEO of YouTube?
Ans A). Anjali Sud B). Vivek Ramaswamy C). Neal Mohan D). Satya Nadella
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

One must not be proud of his achievements.

Ans A). of one's achievements B). off his achievements C). for one's achievements D). by his achievements
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

spontaneous
Ans A). dirty B). deliberate C). scarce D). separate
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
She speaks / so soft that / hardly anyone / can hear her.
Ans A). hardly anyone B). can hear her C). so soft that D). She speaks
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Sometimes, the nicknames of children, given to them by their loved ones in childhood, give them a true sense of
embarresment, especially when they are called by those names in front of others.
Ans A). emberressment B). embrrassment C). embarrassment D). embarresmint
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Select the meaningful and correctly spelt word from the given options to fill in the blank.

Regular physical exercise improves cardiovascular health, reducing the risk of heart disease and ________________.

Ans A). strike B). stock C). struck D). stroke

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for the woman to take the details of the case.

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B). Since yesterday, a policeman had been waiting for a woman to take the details of the case.

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C). Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for a woman to take a details of the case.
D). Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for the woman to take a details of a case.
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. ap

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Entangle
Ans A). Intrude B). Engross C). Trap D). Enlarge
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Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
an

I concur with the decision of our principal, when he says that students who display indiscipline should be dismissed from
the institute irrespective of their academic achievements.
ag

Ans A). credit B). differ C). promote D). coincide

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
y

After school, we / went home and / told our respective parents / off the incident.
B

Ans A). went home and B). told our respective parents C). After school, we D). off the incident
Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To look black
at

Ans A). To roll on ice B). To seem unfavourable C). To give an approving expression D). To cry bitterly
Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Select the most appropriate expression that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
The watchman tried every possible way to catch the thief of the hostel.
Ans A). explored every avenue B). arrived at the eleventh hour C). cut the cackle D). called it a day
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Taciturn B). Outsource C). Stubbal D). Particulate
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Ritu was still standing in the queue when the film was starting.
Ans A). film begins B). film had began C). film starts D). film started
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Ans A). D B). B C). C D). A

Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap SirCorrect Answer: C
Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The company faced a downturn in profits due to economic uncertainties.
Ans A). Surge B). Recession C). Decline D). Plunge
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

My manager thanked the staff for there continued dedication and support.
Ans A). No substitution required B). for their continued C). for there continuous D). for they're continued
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

While the stock market experiences volatility, financial analysts ___________________ market trends and provide
investment advice.

Ans A). have monitored B). were monitored C). monitored D). monitor
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am thinking about colouring my ___________.

Ans A). heir B). hare C). hair D). air
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
We never expected most from her.
Ans A). much B). little C). more D). many
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

After the long and tedious project, Sarah felt like she was at the limit of her patience.

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Ans A). end of her rope B). tip of the iceberg C). crossroads D). finishing line

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Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:

ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at
Westminster Abbey's 1._________ was one of Edward the Confessor's greatest accomplishments as king of England from 1042 to
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1066. Edward was King Ethelred's son and he had a lot of pressure as his father was known to be an incompetent ruler. The Danes
drove Edward from England, and he lived in exile in Normandy. According to legend, Edward promised that if he could make it back to
his realm in safety, he would travel to St. Peter's in Rome. Upon his return and 2.______ in Winchester in 1042, he discovered that he
could not abandon his subjects. He was freed from his pledge by the Pope, but only if he established or 3.___________ a monastery
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dedicated to St. Peter. As a result, Westminster Abbey was constructed in the Norman 4._________. He believed that London was not
the 5._________ place to built the Minster. Hence, a location known as 'Westminster' was discovered to be to the west of the
metropolis.
ag

SubQuestion No : 21
G

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). geometry B). construction C). configuration D). arrangement
y

Correct Answer: B
B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
at

drove Edward from England, and he lived in exile in Normandy. According to legend, Edward promised that if he could make it back to
his realm in safety, he would travel to St. Peter's in Rome. Upon his return and 2.______ in Winchester in 1042, he discovered that he
could not abandon his subjects. He was freed from his pledge by the Pope, but only if he established or 3.___________ a monastery
dedicated to St. Peter. As a result, Westminster Abbey was constructed in the Norman 4._________. He believed that London was not
the 5._________ place to built the Minster. Hence, a location known as 'Westminster' was discovered to be to the west of the
metropolis.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). coronation B). inauguration C). dethronement D). personification
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Westminster Abbey's 1._________ was one of Edward the Confessor's greatest accomplishments as king of England from 1042 to
1066. Edward was King Ethelred's son and he had a lot of pressure as his father was known to be an incompetent ruler. The Danes
drove Edward from England, and he lived in exile in Normandy. According to legend, Edward promised that if he could make it back to
his realm in safety, he would travel to St. Peter's in Rome. Upon his return and 2.______ in Winchester in 1042, he discovered that he
could not abandon his subjects. He was freed from his pledge by the Pope, but only if he established or 3.___________ a monastery
dedicated to St. Peter. As a result, Westminster Abbey was constructed in the Norman 4._________. He believed that London was not
the 5._________ place to built the Minster. Hence, a location known as 'Westminster' was discovered to be to the west of the
metropolis.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). decorate B). update C). fix D). renovation
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). style B). dub C). label D). designate
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ap
Westminster Abbey's 1._________ was one of Edward the Confessor's greatest accomplishments as king of England from 1042 to
at
1066. Edward was King Ethelred's son and he had a lot of pressure as his father was known to be an incompetent ruler. The Danes
drove Edward from England, and he lived in exile in Normandy. According to legend, Edward promised that if he could make it back to
Pr

his realm in safety, he would travel to St. Peter's in Rome. Upon his return and 2.______ in Winchester in 1042, he discovered that he
could not abandon his subjects. He was freed from his pledge by the Pope, but only if he established or 3.___________ a monastery
dedicated to St. Peter. As a result, Westminster Abbey was constructed in the Norman 4._________. He believed that London was not
an

the 5._________ place to built the Minster. Hence, a location known as 'Westminster' was discovered to be to the west of the
metropolis.
ag

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
G

Ans A). appropriate B). seize C). allot D). annex

Correct Answer: A
B y
hs
at
M

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.2 A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹2,500 in three years and ₹3,000 in five years. What is the rate of interest

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(correct up to two decimal places)?
Ans A). 15% B). 13.56% C). 14.29% D). 14.25%
ap Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 The marked price of a speaker is ₹520 and the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% and still he gains 17%. If no discount is
allowed, then find the gain percentage.
Pr

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
an

Q.4 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.
ag

The bar graph given below gives the data of production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by 3 different companies X, Y and Z over
the years 2015 to 2018.
G

Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes)

B y
hs
at
M

In which year was the percentage of production of company Y to the production of company Z the maximum?
Ans A). 2018 B). 2017 C). 2015 D). 2016
Correct Answer: A

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Q.5 A policeman travelling at a speed of 120 km/h chases a thief 5000 m away from him, and travelling at a speed of 100 km/h.
What is the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief?
Ans A). 20 min B). 10 min C). 15 min D). 13.5 min
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans A). 1220 B). 1260 C). 1200 D). 1300
Correct Answer: B

Q.7

Ans A). 1940 B). 1980 C). 1960 D). 2000

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Mihir buys a toy for ₹70 and sells it for ₹90. What is his gain percentage?
Ans A). 28.57% B). 35.62% C). 25.25% D). 20%
Correct Answer: A

Q.9

Ans A). ₹8,600 B). ₹8,800 C). ₹8,000 D). ₹8,400

Correct Answer: B

Q.10 The average salary of all 50 employees including 5 officers of a company is₹855. If the average salary of the officers

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is₹2,550, find the average salary of the remaining staff of the company.

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(Rounded to the nearest integer.)
Ans A). ₹637 B). ₹657 C). ₹677 D). ₹667
Correct Answer: D

Q.11
ap
Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
at
Ans A). 185 B). 225 C). 265 D). 165
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.12 Using the factor method of HCF, which of the following is the HCF of 160 and 256?
an

Ans A). 40 B). 32 C). 16 D). 64

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.13 Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at speeds of 120 km/hr and 80 km/hr,
respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km more than the other. What is the distance (in km)
G

between the two stations?

Ans A). 387 B). 300 C). 268 D). 452

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.14
at

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D
M

Q.15 In a hospital, 60% of the patients are men, 25% of the patients are women, and 15% of the patients are children. If the
average age of the men is 40 years, that of the women is 36 years, and that of the children is 8 years. What is the average
age of all the patients?
Ans A). 24.3 years B). 34.2 years C). 32.4 years D). 23.4 years
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Harsha obtained 72, 63 and 81 marks (out of 100) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry, respectively. What is the average of his
marks?
Ans A). 84 B). 81 C). 63 D). 72
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 In an election there were only two candidates, Geeta and Shyama. Geeta received 15% of the total votes and Shyama
received 8700 votes. 60% of the voters did not cast their vote to either of the two candidates. Find the total percentage of
votes that Shyama received, assuming that all the votes cast were valid.
Ans A). 22% B). 23% C). 24% D). 25%
Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 The marked price of a mobile phone at a showroom is ₹25,000 and is sold at successive
discounts of 20%, 15% and 10%. Find its selling price.
Ans A). ₹15,000 B). ₹15,300 C). ₹14,960 D). ₹14,000
Correct Answer: B

Q.19

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Ans A). 354 B). 314 C). 374 D). 334
Correct Answer: D

Q.20
ap
The average score of 30 students (boys and girls only) in a class test was 16.2 and that of 18 boys in the same test was 16.
at
The average score of girls in the same test was:
Pr

Ans A). 16.3 B). 16.5 C). 16.1 D). 16.7

Correct Answer: B
an

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given series.
G
B y
hs

Ans
Correct Answer: C
at
M

A). B). C). D).

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Q.2 Select the option that will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given figure series.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.3 11 is related to 78 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 43. To which of the following is 31
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 159 B). 249 C). 145 D). 218

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Correct Answer: D

Si
Q.4 In a code language, 'KITE' is written as 'PRGV' and 'MARBLE' is written as 'NZIYOV'. How will 'DOLPHIN' be written in the
same language?
Ans A). WMOKSRM B). XMOKSRM C). WLOKSRM ap D). XLOKSRM
Correct Answer: C
at
Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
an

Statements:
No sunflower is a lily.
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No lily is a rose.

Conclusions:
G

(I) No sunflower is a rose.

(II) No rose is a lily.
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Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Both conclusion I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows
B

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
at
M

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All schools are colleges. No college is a university.
Conclusions:
(I): No school is a university.
(II): All colleges are schools.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Only conclusion I follows. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘let us go’ is coded as ‘ck ru tb’ and ‘please go away’ is coded as ‘tb mg du’. How is ‘go’ coded in
that code language?
Ans A). tb B). mg C). ru D). du
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

7 + 8 – 24 × 6 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans A). 15 B). 8 C). 11 D). 16
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 In a code language, 'VGAL' is coded as ‘BEGJ’ and 'XQEB' is coded as ‘DOKZ’. How will 'HTSO' be coded in that language?
Ans A). NRYM B). MRZL C). NQYL D). MSZK
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

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TCU, UFP ,VIK, WLF ,?

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Ans A). XPA B). XOA C). XOB D). XOC
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 ap
Seven executives of a law firm (P, Q, R, S, T, U and V) are sitting at a circular table for a meeting, everyone facing towards
the center(but not necessarily in the same order)
at
P is an immediate neighbor of both U and S
Q is sitting to the immediate right of S, and is one of the immediate neighbors of T
Pr

V is sitting second to the right of T.

Who is sitting second to the left of U?
an

Ans A). T B). Q C). R D). V

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘gre pul sep’ means ‘eat the sofa’, ‘pul pra sem’ means ‘clear my sofa’ and ‘gre boi nad’ means
‘the great river’. What is the code for ‘the’ in the same code language?
G

Ans A). pul B). gre C). sep D). nad

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.14 BZ7 is related to GE15 in a certain way. In the same way, PN13 is related to US21. To which of the following is IG12 related
following the same logic?
hs

Ans A). PM20 B). PN21 C). NL20 D). NL21

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
M

6 16 27 39 52 ?
Ans A). 64 B). 65 C). 67 D). 66
Correct Answer: D

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Q.16 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C).

Correct Answer: B

D).

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Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘−’ and ‘ + ‘ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are
interchanged?

Ans A). 1
15 − 4 + 9 × 3 ÷ 6 = ?
B). 12 C). 18 ap D). 10
Correct Answer: A
at
Pr

Q.18 E, F, G, H, P, S, and T are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F sits
second to the right of T. P sits to the immediate left of S. Only one person sits between P and G when counted from the left
of P. H sits third to the right of E.How many people are sitting between H and P when counted from the right of H?
an

Ans A). None B). One C). Three D). Two

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
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(18, 108, 12)

(33, 198, 22)

Ans A). (42, 254, 28) B). (42, 252, 26) C). (40, 252, 28) D). (42, 252, 28)
hs

Correct Answer: D
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Q.20 TW21 is related to ZC66 in a certain way. In the same way, UX33 is related to AD78. To which of the following is MP45 related,
following the same logic?
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Ans A). VS90 B). SV90 C). SV80 D). VS80

Correct Answer: B

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which book has been authored by Shovana Narayan and Geetika Kalha?
Ans A). Dancing in the Family B). Indian Mythology through Classical Dance C). Dance Gestures: Mirror of Expressions
D). Cultural Rhythms in Emotions
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 The rock-cut caves in Karnataka, mainly at Badami and Aihole, were built under the patronage of the ______.
Ans A). Mauryas B). Cholas C). Chalukyas D). Guptas
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in case of
unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development?
Ans A). Article 41 B). Article 12 C). Article 20 D). Article 32
Correct Answer: A
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Q.4 Which of the following statements about the Ozone layer are true?

Statement A: It is found in the stratosphere.

Statement B: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for ozone hole.
Statement C: Ozone layer is found around 15–30 km above the earth’s surface.
Statement D: Ozone layer is expected not to recover anymore now.
Ans A). Only statements A and B B). Only statements A and D C). Only statements A, B and C D). Only statement B, C and D

Correct Answer: C

Q.5 In which of the following sessions of Congress did the Party issue a call to celebrate 26th January as ‘Purna Swaraj Day’?
Ans A). Madras 1927 B). Lahore 1929 C). Delhi 1923 D). Karachi 1931
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Padma Subrahmanyam is associated with which dance form?

Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Manipuri C). Chhau D). Kathak
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 In 2023, Government of India has announced to set up a/an ______________ DigiLocker for use by MSMEs, large businesses
and charitable trusts to store and share documents online securely.
Ans A). Company B). Macro C). Entity D). Bond
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Oak and chestnut trees are found in which type of forest in India?
Ans A). Tropical deciduous forests B). Thorn forests C). Mangrove forests D). Montane forests
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions of Earth’s volcanoes are most explosive?
Ans A). Caldera B). Lapolith C). Dykes D). Flood basalt provinces

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.10 What is the term 'ace' commonly associated within sports?

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Ans A). A perfect shot in golf B). A high jump technique in athletics C). Scoring a goal in soccer D). A fast serve in tennis
Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 Lokrang, a five-day festival organised by the Madhya Pradesh Adivasi Lok Kala Academy, begins on ________________
every year.
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Ans A). 26th January B). 22nd March C). 24th July D). 26th September Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 The Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant is located in which state?

Ans A). Rajasthan B). Maharashtra C). Gujarat D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.13 Vani Jairam, who won Padma Bhushan 2023, belongs to which state?
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Ans A). Gujarat B). Tamil Nadu C). Madhya Pradesh D). Maharashtra
Correct Answer: B
B

Q.14 A four-carbon chain with a triple bond is called _________.

Ans A). butene B). butanal C). butyne D). butanol

Correct Answer: C
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Q.15 At the time of its adoption, the Constitution contained 395 Articles and ________ Schedules.
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Ans A). 11 B). 9 C). 8 D). 7

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 A factory set up in my area is causing huge deforestation. Which of the following can we expect to see in the near future?

A) Lowering of ground water

B) Lower temperatures
C) Frequent rain
D) Arrival of new animals
Ans A). C B). B C). A D). D
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 According to Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the Finance Commission needs to be appointed for every
________________.
Ans A). two years B). five years C). one year D). three years
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 The last Mughal emperor of India was:

Ans A). Aurangzeb B). Akbar II C). Bahadur Shah II D). Shah Jahan
Correct Answer: C
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Q.19 At the ____________, Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian to win a gold medal in javelin throw.
Ans A). Asian Games, 2022 B). Asian Games, 2014 C). Asian Games, 2010 D). Asian Games, 2018
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 A famous organisation Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is related with which of the following states?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Gujarat C). Haryana D). Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 How many Pillar Edicts or Major Pillar Edicts (PEs) of Ashoka are found?
Ans A). Fourteen B). Two C). Nine D). Seven
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 In which year was the first Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) conducted in India?
Ans A). 1901 B). 2001 C). 1911 D). 2011
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 In May 2023, who was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner?

Ans A). Samuel Joseph B). Praveen Kumar Srivastava C). Ram Manohar Singh D). Dayal Yadav
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Who among the following is the author of the book, 'A History of British India'?
Ans A). Renley B). Grenville Austin C). Bentham D). James Mill
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Bharatanatyam dancer ________ received the Natya Kala Sarathy award from Sri Parthasarathy Swami Sabha in 2023 at
Chennai.
Ans A). Srekala Bharath B). Sreedevi Unni C). Hema Rajagopalan D). Vidhya Subramanian
Correct Answer: A

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Section : English Language and Comprehension

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Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

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Hire
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Ans A). Engage B). Enhance C). Engross D). Endure

Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
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The teacher's encouragment motivated the students to excel in their studies.

Ans A). Motivated B). Teacher's C). Excel D). Encouragment

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The professor's __________ lecture was filled with complex concepts.

Ans A). lucyd B). lucid C). lucide D). lucied Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the highlighted text in the given sentence.
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The minister was in partnership with the queen in poisoning the King.
Ans A). in cahoots B). run amok C). in the blues D). at one's beck and call
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes was dirtier. B). She was not allow to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirty.
C). She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirtier. D). She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirty.

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

You need to rest the ________ before baking the bread.
Ans A). doe B). lard C). dough D). paste
Correct Answer: C

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Q.7 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Pankaj is a better cook.
Ans A). more good B). goodest C). good D). best
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:
Rachel and Rahul joined forces on a project and successfully completed it within a month.
Ans A). Rachel and Rahul are joining forces on a project and successfully completing it within a month.
B). Rachel and Rahul should join forces on a project and successfully complete it within a month.
C). Rachel and Rahul will join forces on a project and successfully complete it within a month.
D). Rachel and Rahul have joined forces on a project and successfully completed it within a month.
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The teacher asked the students to remain ____, but the noise continued to ____. She finally had to raise her voice to gain
control.
Ans A). still; elevate B). silent; ascend C). quit; rise D). calm; escalate
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Choose the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully.
The citizens of Iraq wanted _______________ after years of war.
Ans A). peice B). pease C). piece D). peace
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
To accept the gauntlet
Ans A). To accept a challenge B). To suffer financial loss C). To suffer a great insult D). To accept failure
Correct Answer: A

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Si
Q.12 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.

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Martin Luther King Jr. started a crusade for discrimination ________ African Americans. He relied on peaceful
demonstrations and demonstrators. His most famous march was a powerful rally of about 250,000 people in Washington in
1963, where he ________ one of the most famous speeches in history.
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Ans A). opposed; dropped B). versus; brought C). counter; dispatched D). against; delivered
Correct Answer: D
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The team captain inquired of his teammates _________ they preferred to choose batting as their initial option.
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Ans A). B). whether C). D).

Correct Answer: B
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weather whither wither

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
B

I still / do not understand / why he did not / reply my email.

Ans A). why he did not B). I still C). reply my email D). do not understand
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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Shirin came off with a brilliant idea to solve the problem.

Ans A). came up with a brilliant idea B). came off on a brilliant idea C). came off to a brilliant idea D). came up in a brilliant idea

Correct Answer: A

Q.16 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Their chance of winning is slimmest.
Ans A). slimly B). slimmer C). most slim D). slim
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Inferior
Ans A). Superior B). Substandard C). Beautiful D). Mediocre
Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence.
Ans A). The secondary section of the school is located at the end of the street.
B). The secondary section of a school is located at the end of a street. C). A secondary section of the school is located at an end of the street.
D). The secondary section of a school is located at an end of the street.
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Is he ready to risk his acredation for the greater good?

Ans A). accraditation B). acreditation C). accreditation D). accredation
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The Prime Minister will address the nation tomorrow.
Ans A). To greet people B). A postal code for sending letters C). A landmark D). To deliver a speech
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Employers, nowadays, are (1)_______ on team-building as it proves to be useful in being more productive. So, they create occasions
for the employees to spend time together. Some employees are sick (2) ________ office festival parties with mandatory dress codes
and fun competitions. Some others (3)____ of having to forcibly bond with colleagues during after-work happy hours when they would
rather be at home. A French court (4)____ recently that one very much has the right to be boring at the workplace. Seven years after
Mr. T was fired from his company for not participating in fun activities, which included going out for drinks after work once a week, the
court said that Mr. T was merely exercising his ‘freedom of expression’. It added that the company’s culture of fun (5)________ Mr. T
‘s fundamental right to ‘dignity and respect of private life’. However, employers and HR personnel insist that team-bonding initiatives
are crucial to the workplace and the employees too feel the same if they want promotions.

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SubQuestion No : 21

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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). has focused B). focuses C). focusing
ap D). focus
Correct Answer: C
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Employers, nowadays, are (1)_______ on team-building as it proves to be useful in being more productive. So, they create occasions
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for the employees to spend time together. Some employees are sick (2) ________ office festival parties with mandatory dress codes
and fun competitions. Some others (3)____ of having to forcibly bond with colleagues during after-work happy hours when they would
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rather be at home. A French court (4)____ recently that one very much has the right to be boring at the workplace. Seven years after
Mr. T was fired from his company for not participating in fun activities, which included going out for drinks after work once a week, the
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court said that Mr. T was merely exercising his ‘freedom of expression’. It added that the company’s culture of fun (5)________ Mr. T
‘s fundamental right to ‘dignity and respect of private life’. However, employers and HR personnel insist that team-bonding initiatives
are crucial to the workplace and the employees too feel the same if they want promotions.
B y

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
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Ans A). with B). from C). for D). of

Correct Answer: D
at

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). tired B). has tired C). are tired D). have tired
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). is ruled B). have ruled C). has ruled D). was ruled
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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SubQuestion No : 25

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Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). violate B). violated C). will violate
ap D). is violated
Correct Answer: B
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Pr
an
ag
G
B y
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at
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If the number of working staff in the company is increased by 20% and the salary per head is decreased by 20%, then the
percentage of change in the total salary is:
Ans A). decrease of 20% B). increase of 20% C). decrease of 4% D). increase of 4%
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Pankaj bought a watch at a price range from₹1,500 to₹3,000 which are sold at prices ranging
from₹2,500 to₹3,500. If Pankaj sells such 10 watches, then the greatest possible profit (in ₹) he

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made with the transaction is:

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Ans A). 19,000 B). 23,854 C). 21,765 D). 20,000
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 ap
The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities: P, Q, R and S.
Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
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Pr
an
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B y
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The correct increasing order of the cities as per the total number of accidents by all types of vehicles is:
Ans A). R, P, Q, S B). S, R, Q, P C). R, Q, P, S D). S, R, P, Q
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 A 250-metre-long train running at a speed of 100 km/h crosses another train coming from the opposite direction at a speed
of 62 km/h in 10 seconds. What is the length of the second train?
Ans A). 230 metres B). 200 metres C). 240 metres D). 270 metres
Correct Answer: B

Q.5
A sum of ₹12,000 becomes double at simple interest in 7 years at a certain
rate of simple interest. Find the time (in years) it takes for the amount to
become ₹60,000 at the same rate of interest.
Ans A). 28 B). 30 C). 20 D). 25
Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 A spherical metal ball is melted into a shape of cylinder mounted by a cone such that the base of cone exactly overlaps the
top base of cylinder. The diameter of the cylinder and sphere is 4.2 m each. What is the height (in m) of the cone if the height
of cylinder is 1.4 m?
Ans A). 0.7 B). 1.4 C). 4.2 D). 2.1
Correct Answer: C

Q.7

Ans A). 1260 B). 1575 C). 630 D). 180

Correct Answer: A

Q.8

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ap
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Ans A). 90.25% B). 85.36% C). 92.04% D). 82.07%
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Correct Answer: C

Q.9 If a conical vessel is of height 12cm and radius 6cm, then the volume of the conical vessel is
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.10
G
B y
hs

Ans A). 885 B). 890 C). 895 D). 880

Correct Answer: A
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Q.11 The average of 7 numbers is 55. If the first 4 numbers are 48, 62, 135 and 74, then what will be the
average of the remaining numbers?
Ans A). 22 B). 31 C). 25 D). 19
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 A retailer announces a discount of 25% for selling a mobile phone marked at ₹48,000. The cost price of the mobile phone is
45% below the marked price. He offers a further discount of 7.5% if the buyer returns his old mobile phone. What is the ratio
of the profit percentages of the retailer with the return of the old mobile phone scheme to that of without the return of the
old mobile phone, respectively?
Ans C).
A). B). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Two trains of lengths 310 m and 340 m, respectively, are 285 m apart. They start moving towards each other on parallel
tracks, at the speeds of 151 km/h and 155 km/h, respectively. In how much time will the trains cross each other completely?
Ans A). 13 s B). 10 s C). 11 s D). 12 s
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Find the number that must be added to the terms of the ratio 11 : 29 to make it equal to 11 : 20.
Ans A). 12
ClickB).To
10
Join TelegramC).-11 Maths By Gagan
D). 9
Pratap Sir Correct Answer: C
Q.15 A right circular solid metallic cone is 7.2 cm high and radius of its base 3.5 cm. It is melted and recast into two right circular
solid metallic cones equal in all respects, each with base radius 2.1 cm and height ‘h’. What is the value of ‘h’ (in cm)?
Ans A). 14 B). 10 C). 21 D). 12
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 A shopkeeper of a subsidised canteen mixed three varieties of rice, X, Y and Z, in the ratio of 4 : 1 : 3 to make a packet of 4
kg of rice. The cost prices per kg of X, Y and Z varieties of rice are ₹2, ₹4 and ₹6, respectively. What is the cost price (in ₹) of
the packet of rice?
Ans A). 10 B). 15 C). 30 D). 18
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans A). 390 B). 290 C). 310 D). 350
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 The average weight of 6 children increases by 1.5 kg when a new child comes in place of one of them weighing 12 kg. The
weight of the new child is:
Ans A). 21 kg B). 14 kg C). 22 kg D). 14.5 kg
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 The average height of a group of 10 students is 172 cm. Two more students of height 178 cm and 165 cm joined the group
and 3 students of average height 160 cm leave the group. What is the new average height (in cm, rounded off to 1 decimal
place) of the group after the changes?
Ans A). 174.6 B). 170.5 C). 175.9 D). 169.7 Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 640 B). 660 C). 700 D). 740
Correct Answer: C

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Si
Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1
B). 5 + 15 × 4 = 50 C). 5 × 4 + 10 = 40 ap
Which of the following equations is correct by interchanging the ‘+’ and ‘×’ signs and the ‘4’ and ‘5’ numbers?
Ans A). 20 + 5 × 4 = 85 D). 10 × 4 + 5 = 60
Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
an

392 × 7 − 2 ÷ 12 + 80 = ?
Ans A). 0 B). 2 C). 8 D). 4
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘DAYS’ is coded as ‘3917’ and ‘YOLK’ is coded as ‘2496’.What is the code for ‘Y’ in that
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language?
Ans A). 1 B). 4 C). 2 D). 9
y

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.4 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
hs

the pattern.
at
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Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.5 4 is related to 70 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 518. To which ofthe following is 6 related,
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 226 B). 219 C). 222 D). 216
Correct Answer: C
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Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘YATCH’ is coded as ‘RTMVA’ and ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘VTM’. What is the code for ‘ANAMOLIES’ in
the given code language?
Ans A). TGTEHEBXL B). TGTFGEBXL C). TGTFHEBXL D). TGSFHEBXL
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

118 122 130 142 158 ?

Ans A). 178 B). 182 C). 186 D). 166
Correct Answer: A

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Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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ap
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an
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Ans
A). B). C). D).
G

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.10 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.11 LO15 is related to OR30 in a certain way. In the same way, SV25 is related to VY50. To which of the following is TW35 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). WZ70 B). WA70 C). WZ17 D). AZ17
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All arrows are swords.
Some swords are dragons.
Conclusions
(I) Some swords are arrows.
(II) Some dragons are not swords.
Ans A). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow C). Only conclusion (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Exactly three people are sitting between E and B when counted from the right of E. Both G and D are immediate
neighbours of F. C is sitting to the immediate left of A. D and E are not sitting next to each other. The position of how many
persons will remain unchanged, excluding A, if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order, in clockwise
direction, starting from A?
Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 4 D). 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1, and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:

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No Doctor is a Nurse

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Some Nurses are Patients
Some Patients are Medicines
Conclusions:
1. Some Patients are not Doctors
2. Some Nurses are Medicines ap
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Ans A). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows B). Only conclusion 1 follows C). Only conclusion 2 follows D). Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow
Pr

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits
an

second to the left of F, who is third to the left of D. C sits third to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of E. A
sits second to the right of B.
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Who is immediate right of E?

Ans A). A B). D C). G D). B
G

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 NLRP is related to USYW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOM is related to RPVT.
y

To which of the following is GEKI related, following the same logic?

Ans A). NLPR B). LNRP C). NLRP D). LNPR

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
at

RJK, PMI, NPG, LSE, ?

Ans A). KVD B). KWC C). JVC D). KVC

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 In a certain code language, 'MINT' is coded as '9735' and 'NEAR' is coded as '4568'.
What is the code for 'N' in the given code language?
Ans A). 3 B). 5 C). 6 D). 4
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘6482’ and ‘SANE’ is coded as ‘7691’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 8 B). 7 C). 6 D). 9
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 19 is related to 39 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 1 is related to 3. To which of the following is 3 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans A). 7 B). 9 C). 11 D). 8
Correct Answer: A

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which is the jet stream that brings Western disturbances in India?
Ans A). Easterly jet stream B). Westerly jet stream C). South polar jet stream D). North polar jet stream
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Aparna Satheesan, a recipient of 2021 Abhinandan Saroja National award by National Institute of Classical Dance, is an
exponent of ________ and Kuchipudi.
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kathak C). Manipuri D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 According to Census of India 2011, which pair of states recorded the highest population density (persons/km2) in India?
Ans A). Bihar and Kerala B). West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh C). Bihar and West Bengal D). Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Identify the place where the West Central Railway Zone headquarters is located.
Ans A). Jabalpur B). Jodhpur C). Bhopal D). Jaipur
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Which of the following Rashtrakuta rulers performed the ceremony called ‘Hiranya Garbha’?
Ans A). Krishna I B). Dantidurga C). Govind III D). Dhruva I
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Who can exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes in Lok Sabha?
Ans A). Speaker of Lok Sabha B). President C). Prime Minister D). Vice President
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 The autobiography of Sam Pitroda is called:

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Ans A). In the afternoon of time B). Dreaming Big: My Journey to Connect India C). The Substance and The Shadow D). Beyond the lines

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Correct Answer: B

Q.8 ap
On which of the following dates did the British Empire transfer its powers to the Constituent Assembly in India?
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Ans A). 2nd October B). 15th August C). 14th November D). 26th January Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 The Right to Freedom of Religion is covered under which Articles of the Constitution of India?
Ans A). Articles 25-28 B). Articles 21-24 C). Articles 29-32 D). Articles 24-27
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Correct Answer: A

Q.10 A little child is a very picky eater and hates drinking milk and milk products. When he lost his baby tooth, permanent teeth
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took a very long time to come up in its place. What could be the probable reason behind this?
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Ans A). Vitamin Deficiency B). Sugar Deficiency C). Calcium Deficiency D). Protein Deficiency
Correct Answer: C
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Q.11 The 'Quit India Movement' was launched under the leadership of __________________________.
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Ans A). Jawaharlal Nehru B). Mahatma Gandhi C). Subhash Chandra Bose D). Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 On May 23, 2023, who assumed the position of Chairperson at the Competition Commission of India?
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Ans A). Subhash Chandra Garg B). Neha Bhatia C). NK Singh D). Ravneet Kaur
Correct Answer: D
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Q.13 Which of the following Indian philosophical systems and its widely acknowledged proponents is INCORRECTLY paired?
Ans A). Yoga - Patanjali B). Purva Mimansa - Jaimini C). Nyaya - Gotama D). Vaisheshika - Vyasa
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Which of the following statements is/are true about public goods?
I. Rivalrous in consumption
II. Non-excludability
III. Positive marginal cost
Ans A). Only I B). Only II and III C). Only I and III D). Only II
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Which of the following folk dances of Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal region is on the Representative List of the
Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
Ans A). Kummi B). Chhau C). Karma Naach D). Dadra
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Where did the IBA Women's World Boxing Championships 2023 take place in India?
Ans A). Mumbai B). New Delhi C). Kolkata D). Bengaluru
Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 The rifle (in the shooting sport) is single-loaded in _________-millimetre calibre (the inner diameter of a gun barrel), which is
used across all events.
Ans A). 5.6 B). 4.8 C). 4.5 D). 5.1
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 In Harappan civilisation, which material was NOT used in the construction of buildings?
Ans A). Wood B). Burnt mud-bricks C). Iron D). Gypsum mortar
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted in which year by the Government of India?
Ans A). 2001 B). 2013 C). 2008 D). 2005
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 As of July 2023, how many products were notified under the 'One District, One Product' scheme as per the
information provided by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Government of India?
Ans A). 132 B). 125 C). 135 D). 137
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Vibration or wave caused by the sudden movement of tectonic plates within the earth that can travel through and around the
earth is called:
Ans A). Seismic Wave B). Main Shock C). Foreshock D). Upheaval
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Which of the following agreements led Mahatma Gandhi to attend the Second Round Table Conference?
Ans A). Gandhi Irwin Pact B). Poona Pact C). Lucknow Pact D). Pact of Paris
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems on Earth?
Ans A). Geothermal heat B). Tidal energy C). Wind D). Sunlight

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.24 Who was the progenitor of the prolific Jaipur-Atrauli gharana?
Ans A). Ustad Alladiya Khan B). Ustad Vilayat Khan C). Ustad Ali Akbar Khan
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.25 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.20 g of CO2 after complete combustion. The percentage composition of carbon is
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_____.
Ans A). 4.60% B). 21.82% C). 80.00% D). 78.18%
Correct Answer: B
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Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The philanthropist's __________ donations significantly improved the quality of life in the community.
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Ans A). substantial B). meagre C). parsimonious D). redundant

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Peaceful B). Lovable C). Joyful D). Faithfull

Correct Answer: D
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She is ___________ of spiders.

Ans A). interest B). afraid C). fear D). frightening
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Dig up dirt
Ans A). To uncover negative information about someone or something. B). Find and disclose evidence C). Enquire about a missing person
D). Hide and protect vital evidence
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Following weeks of intense training, the athlete ____________________ in the championship.

Ans A). were competing B). have been competing C). competed D). have competed
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans A). Obedence B). Aggravate C). Fabulous D). Tremendous
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

These are the works of a great poet Tagore.

Ans A). These are the works of that great poet Tagore. B). These are the works of an great poet Tagore.
C). These are the works of this great poet Tagore. D). These are the works of the great poet Tagore.
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence.

The state played only a modest part in the outstanding advancement of modern morality.
Ans A). Unimpressive B). Boastful C). Moderate D). Humble
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

She is an indepandent writer.

Ans A). Independent B). Indipendant C). Indipendent D). Independant
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

When pigs fly

Ans A). In unity B). In due course of time C). Just impossible D). Correct approach
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the most appropriate homophone to fill in the blank.While learning to drive, Shivani met with an accident because she

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couldn't hit the _________________.

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Ans A). break B). brake C). brick D). brack
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 ap
Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined word.
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"He was notorious for his avaricious behaviour, always seeking ways to accumulate more wealth."
Ans A). notorious B). greedy C). sloth D). generous
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Correct Answer: B

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
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The residents of Rameswaram / about the 1940s were quite / orthodox, but were also / tolerant of other communities.
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Ans A). about the 1940s were quite B). orthodox, but were also C). The residents of Rameswaram D). tolerant of other communities
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We are planning to see an _________________ perform a symphony.

Ans A). opera B). orchestra C). actor D). actress
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The cat likes to _________ in the sun during the afternoon.

Ans A). lye B). lei C). lie D). lay
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The movie was so boring that I fell _________.

Ans A). slept B). sleep C). asleep D). sleeping
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options.

After months of / meticulous planning and hard work, / a team successfully launched / their innovative product to the
market.
Ans A). their innovative product to the market. B). a team successfully launched C). meticulous planning and hard work, D). After months of

Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Dr. Oppenheimer is the exceptional movie of all the movies in recent times.
Ans A). of all the movies B). Dr. Oppenheimer is C). in recent times D). the exceptional movie
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Cacophony
Ans A). Discord B). Noise C). Dissonance D). Harmony
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans A). A salesman insisted that the payment against an purchase should be done by using the bank card.
B). The salesman insisted that the payment against the purchase should be done by using a bank card.
C). The salesman insisted that a payment against the purchase should be done by using an bank card.
D). A salesman insisted that a payment against a purchase should be done by using a bank card.
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In terms of technical difficulty, Nanga Parbat, the world's ninth (1)_____ peak, competes with K2. The first (2)_____ to the summit
follows a narrow ridge. The 15,000-foot Rupal Face, a single wall of rock and ice, is located on the mountain's southern side. Climbers
have dubbed the Nanga Parbat, which (3)______ as ‘naked mountain’, ‘Killer Mountain’. This gives Annapurna a (4)______ of 32%,
making it the most statistically dangerous of the world’s 8,000-metre peaks. It is an avalanche-prone area with some technical
difficulty. Climbers’ misery is (5)_______ by insufficient local support, in addition to unpredictable weather and inaccessibility.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

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Ans A). deepest B). lengthiest C). highest D). fattest
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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making it the most statistically dangerous of the world’s 8,000-metre peaks. It is an avalanche-prone area with some technical
difficulty. Climbers’ misery is (5)_______ by insufficient local support, in addition to unpredictable weather and inaccessibility.
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SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
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Ans A). rise B). ascent C). lift D). launch

Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
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each blank.
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have dubbed the Nanga Parbat, which (3)______ as ‘naked mountain’, ‘Killer Mountain’. This gives Annapurna a (4)______ of 32%,
making it the most statistically dangerous of the world’s 8,000-metre peaks. It is an avalanche-prone area with some technical
difficulty. Climbers’ misery is (5)_______ by insufficient local support, in addition to unpredictable weather and inaccessibility.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). transliterates B). transposed C). translates D). transcribes
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). economic rate B). frailty rate C). fatality rate D). mortal rate
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). perfectly B). increasingly C). exacerbated D). worst
Correct Answer: C

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of production of items: W, R and T by four companies: S, D, F and G as percentage of their total
productions.

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G
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If the total productions of F and S are 2000 and 3000, respectively, the difference in the productions of R by these
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companies is:
Ans A). 200 B). 250 C). 150 D). 100
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.2 A certain shopping site gave successive discounts of 20% and 30% on purses during a new year sale. What is the actual
discount received by the customer?
Ans A). 41% B). 47% C). 44% D). 39%
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 The average age of the 28 boys in a class is 16 years and that of the 26 girls is 15 years. The approximate average age (in
years) for the whole class is:
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.4 A shopkeeper sells one-fourth of his items at a loss of 12%, one-third of the remaining items at a profit of 44%, and the rest
at a loss of 7%. What is his overall profit/loss percentage?
Ans A). 2% loss B). 4.5% gain C). 4.5% loss D). 2% gain
Correct Answer: B

Q.5
Calculate the simple interest on ₹36,000 at per annum for a period of 7 months.

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

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Q.6 A thief Rohan is spotted by a policeman Ramesh from a distance of 250 m. When they see each other, they start running.
How much distance is covered by Rohan, who is running at the speed of 20 km/h, before being caught by Ramesh, who is
running at the speed of 25 km/h?
Ans A). 2 km B). 3 km C). 1 km D). 4 km
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 The radius of a circle is equal to the side of a square. The perimeters of the square and circle are in the ratio 7 : 11, then the
ratio of the areas will be:(Use π = 22/7)
Ans A). 14 : 22 B). 22 : 14 C). 22 : 7 D). 7 : 22
Correct Answer: D

Q.8

Ans A). 15% B). 40% C). 25% D). 35%

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 2000 B). 1500 C). 3000 D). 750
Correct Answer: B

Q.10

Ans A). 11889 B). 12689 C). 11368 D). 12672

Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Two trains start at the same time from Agra and Meerut and proceed towards each other at speeds of 16 km/h and 32 km/h,

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respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 64 km more than the other. The distance between the

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two stations is:
Ans A). 192km B). 176km C). 208km D). 156km
Correct Answer: A

Q.12
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The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 35 kg is:
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Ans A). 50.2 B). 52.2 C). 51.2 D). 49.2
Correct Answer: A
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Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 36 kg is:
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Ans A). 51.4 B). 52.4 C). 50.4 D). 49.4

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14
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B y
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Ans A). Pure Sciences Programme, 2003 B). Architecture Programme, 2005 C). Computer Science Programme, 2004
D). Architecture Programme, 2004
Correct Answer: B
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Q.15 Annu buys a dress from an online designer portal during a festival sale, marked at a price of ₹9,600. She gets a 15% festive
discount and a further 10% discount on checkout as it is her first order from the site. How much did she actually pay for the
dress?
Ans A). ₹7,934 B). ₹7,344 C). ₹7,554 D). ₹8,160
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 A shopkeeper mixes three types of pulses costing₹88/kg,₹72/kg and₹62/kg in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 3. The
average cost (in₹) of the mixture per kg is:
Ans A). 89 B). 84 C). 77 D). 97
Correct Answer: C

Q.17

Ans A). 9,380 B). 9,015 C). 8,950 D). 9,000

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Find the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 2 m 25 cm, 2 m 70 cm, 3 m 15 cm.
Ans A). 15 cm B). 45 cm C). 25 cm D). 35 cm
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 420 B). 480 C). 440 D). 520
Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 26. If the difference between the numbers is 352, then find the smallest number.
Ans A). 840 B). 480 C). 832
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Correct Answer: B
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving
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Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘SAND’ is coded as ‘5749’.What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code
language?
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Ans A). 2 B). 9 C). 4 D). 5

Correct Answer: C
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Q.2 UMSO is related to RJPL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QIOK is related to NFLH.
To which of the following is MEKG related, following the same logic?
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Ans A). BJDH B). BJHD C). JBHD D). JBDH

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 Six players Jadeja, Ashwin, Karthik, Murli, Sarfaraz and Virat are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Virat is sitting to the immediate right of Jadeja. Only Sarfaraz is sitting between Virat and
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Murli. Jadeja is an immediate neighbour of Ashwin. Who is immediate neighbour of both Sarfaraz and Jadeja?
Ans A). Ashwin B). Murli C). Karthik D). Virat
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
24 ÷ 6 + 18 × 9 – 2 = ?
Ans A). 122 B). 166 C). 155 D). 144
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

13, 24, 75, 296, 1485, ?

Ans A). 8916 B). 7430 C). 8904 D). 7420
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
75 ÷ 27 × 27 + 93 − 20 = ?
Ans A). 5 B). 2 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 KL42 is related to PQ50 in a certain way. In the same way, RS52 is related to WX60. To which of the following is DE62 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). IG17 B). IK17 C). JI70 D). IJ70
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 146 is related to 208.4 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 112 is related to 174.4. To which of the following is
135 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans A). 197.4 B). 179.4 C). 188.4 D). 192.4
Correct Answer: A

Q.9

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Find the missing term in the below series:

F, I, K, N, P, ?, U.
Ans A). S B). T C). R D). V
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

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Ans
Correct Answer: D
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.12 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q sits
second to the right of M. P sits third to the left of M. N is an immediate neighbour of S and P. R is not an immediate
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neighbour of P. Who sits third to the left of R ?

Ans A). O B). N C). M D). S

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
A. Some dogs are frogs.
B. Some swans are dogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some frogs are swans.
II. No dogs are swans.
Ans A). Both the conclusions follow. B). None of the conclusions follow. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Only conclusion I follows.

Correct Answer: B

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘GAVE’ is coded as ‘7485’ and ‘CAGE’ is coded as ‘4589’. What is the code for ‘C’ in that
language?
Ans A). 9 B). 8 C). 5 D). 7
Correct Answer: A

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Q.15 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All Mangoes are Kiwis
All Kiwis are Guavas
No Guava is an Apple
Conclusions:
1. All Apples are Mangoes
2. Some Guavas are Apples
Ans A). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows B). Only conclusion 1 follows C). Only conclusion 2 follows D). Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.17 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans
G

Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.18

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: D
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Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(10, 8, 65)
(16, 6, 81)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (7, 5, 20) B). (12, 4, 114) C). (5, 15, 65) D). (4, 9, 16)
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘5279’ and ‘META’ is coded as ‘7942’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans A). 9 B). 5 C). 7 D). 4
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The concept of the Self-Help Group Bank Linkage Program was introduced by:
Ans A). SIDBI B). RBI C). NABARD D). SBI
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 In which year did India host the FIFA U 17 Women's Football World Cup?
Ans A). 2021 B). 2020 C). 2022 D). 2019
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Which famous monument of Vijayapura has a Whispering Gallery, where subtle sounds can be heard clearly even from a
distance of 37 metres?
Ans A). Gol Gumbaz B). Saath Kabar C). Gagan Mahal D). Upli Buruj
Correct Answer: A

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Q.4 ___________ was an Indian mandolinist who was a master composer of the Carnatic style of classical music.
Ans A). Kunnakudi Vaidyanathan B). Narasimhan Ravikiran
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C). Uppalapu Srinivas D). R Prasanna
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 In which of the following dance performance is the main percussion instrument Edakka used?
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Ans A). Odissi B). Kathak C). Mohiniattam D). Bharatanatyam

Correct Answer: C

Q.6 The Government of India in collaboration with ___________ has launched the Skills on Wheels mission in Oct 2023 for
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equipping rural youth with employable skills.

Ans A). IndusInd Bank B). NABARD C). ICICI Bank D). HDFC Bank
Correct Answer: A
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Q.7 Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports
by a sportsperson over a period of the previous four years. In 2021, the awardee for para shooting was:
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Ans A). Neeraj Chopra B). Chanu Saikhom Mirabai C). Avani Lekhara D). Anju Bobby George
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.8 Who appointed the ‘Hunter Commission’ for Educational Reforms in 1882?
Ans A). Robert Lytton B). Lord Ripon C). Lord Ellenborough D). John Lawrence
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 What is the tenure of a Governor?

Ans A). 2 years B). 5 years C). 6 years D). 10 Years
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Which of the following statements is/are true about the Cholas?
1 The capital of the Chola kingdom was Tanjore.
2 Vikram Chola had in his veins the blood of the Cholas and Eastern Chalukyas.
3 Rajendra I Chola is known as Gangaikonda Chola.
Ans A). Only 1 and 3 B). All 1, 2 and 3 C). Only 1 and 2 D). Only 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 How many artists are selected for the one-time Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award, 2022?
Ans A). 100 B). 75 C). 86 D). 60
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Which of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress was headed by Sarojini Naidu?
Ans A). Lahore, 1929 B). Karachi, 1931 C). Kanpur, 1925 D). Madras, 1927
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13 Which local storm is also known as 'Kalbaisakhi'?
Ans A). Mango Shower B). Nor Westers C). Blossom Shower D). Loo
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Which festival is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Prophet Muhammad?

Ans A). Eid-ul-fitr B). Milad-un-nabi C). Shab-i-barat D). Id-ul-zuha
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Which substance is commonly added to tap water to make it safe for drinking by killing harmful microorganisms?
Ans A). Iron B). Fluoride C). Calcium D). Chlorine
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Which of the following sectors engaged the largest percentage of women workers in the year 2019-2020?
Ans A). Industry B). Mining C). Service D). Agriculture
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Which region in India has the highest concentration of Iron and Steel Industry?
Ans A). Deccan Plateau B). Chotanagpur plateau C). Aravali region D). Telangana Plateau
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 During the framing of the Indian Constitution, the Constituent Assembly held a total of eleven sessions, with sittings spread
over for how many days?
Ans A). 180 B). 165 C). 115 D). 132
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 The title of the autobiography of famous cricketer of Pakistan Imran Khan is:
Ans A). Goal B). My Fight / Your Fight C). All Round View D). Game Changer
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20 Why will a person weigh more at the north or south pole?
Ans A). Due to Earth’s distance from the sun B). Due to variation in centrifugal force of earth with latitude
C). Due to variation in centripetal force of earth with altitude
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D). Due to variation in centripetal force of earth with latitude
Correct Answer: B
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Q.21 For most of the ecosystem, what is the primary source of energy?
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Ans A). Wind B). Water C). Sunlight D). Geothermal energy
Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 Which poet composed the Allahabad Prashasti of Samudragupta?

Ans A). Vatsbhatti B). Banabhatta C). Vasul D). Harisena
Correct Answer: D
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Q.23 Which Indian state's cabinet approved the proposal for recommending the inclusion of the Kui language in the eighth
G

schedule in July 2023?

Ans A). Karnataka B). West Bengal C). Odisha D). Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
B

Q.24 According to the census of India 2011, which union territory of India has the highest literacy rate?
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Ans A). Delhi B). Lakshadweep C). Puducherry D). Chandigarh

Correct Answer: B
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Q.25 In which of the following types of regions, is the maximum temperature variation observed between a day and the same
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night?
Ans A). Coastal area B). Island C). Desert D). Peninsula
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Autumn leaves shuffled beneath him as he wandered through the quiet forest.
Ans A). rustled underfoot B). crushed around C). moved to another place D). died over
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The ___________ of the novel kept me hooked from the beginning to the end.
Ans A). archaic B). settlement C). orchestra D). plot
Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
His artwork is / more intricate / than any artist / in the gallery.
Ans A). more intricate B). in the gallery C). than any artist D). His artwork is
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Appease
Ans A). Pacify B). Force C). Aggravate D). Appeal
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
They worked / very hardly / on their project / for several weeks.
Ans A). for several weeks B). on their project C). very hardly D). They worked
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the given idiom.

That’s great! You keep everything under your _________________.

Ans A). eyes B). thumb C). legs D). hands
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.

Before retiring, Kaul had been teaching physics at the university for three __________________.
Ans A). decades B). decimals C). decadents D). edecamals
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Poverty is the urgent concern in India today.

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Ans A). urgenter B). urgentest C). more urgent D). most urgent
Correct Answer: D

Q.9
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The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
He has / no / influence about / me.
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Ans A). influence about B). he has C). me. D). no
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans A). Conscientiousness B). Accommodate C). Exaggerate D). Persevrence
an

Correct Answer: D
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Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The land that is best suitable for growing crops
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Ans A). Arable B). Barren C). Fruitful D). Rustic

Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Benevolent
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Ans A). Eminent B). Malevolent C). Violent D). Opulent

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am not going to pay a ________ for this broken CD.

Ans A). scent B). cent C). sent D). send
Correct Answer: B

Manoj has a bigger / farmhouse of one hundred / hectares near the city.
Ans A). farmhouse of one hundred B). Manoj has a bigger C). No error D). hectares near the city.
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

My hands are full
Ans A). To dislike someone B). To be very busy C). To panic D). To go directly towards something
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Whim
Ans A). Antiquity B). Factualness C). Bloodiness D). Fancy
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Q.17 Select the most appropriate word segment that can replace the underlined part in the sentence.

The two thieves divided the looted money with themselves.

Ans A). among themselves B). of themselves C). off themselves D). between themselves
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Hypocrisy B). Cruelly C). Luggage D). Secresy
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The water near the coast was shallower and clean.
Ans A). shallowest B). the shallowest C). shallow D). more shallow
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Destroy
Ans A). Ruin B). Delight C). Decline D). Fabricate
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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In general, compared to mammals of comparable size, birds often have smaller brains. Ostrich brains are approximately 1.5 inches in

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width, the study found. Additionally, their average brain weight is almost 17 times lower than that of the three other 4._____. When
comparing the brain-to-body weight ratio of the other birds, the ostrich's brain was lighter than their body weight.
Some other facts concerning these birds are what set them apart. All other birds have three or four toes; this magnificent creature has
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only two. Ostriches bend their knees in a forward orientation; thus, they kick forward rather than backward. Furthermore, ostriches do
not require water because they produce some of it internally and obtain the 5._______ from the plants they consume.
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SubQuestion No : 21
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Q.21 Select the most appropriate option for blank 1.

Ans A). bigger B). biggest C). more big D). big
Correct Answer: B
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G
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The eye of an ostrich is larger than its brain. Of all birds, ostriches have the 1.________ eyes. Their eyes are the size of a pool ball,
B

measuring around 2 inches in diameter. Their size is five times greater than that of human eyes. Ostriches have excellent vision, so
their enormous eyes aren't just for show. Because of their height and keen 2.________, the birds can see well over great distances,
enabling them to identify potential 3._________ before they approach.
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In general, compared to mammals of comparable size, birds often have smaller brains. Ostrich brains are approximately 1.5 inches in
width, the study found. Additionally, their average brain weight is almost 17 times lower than that of the three other 4._____. When
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comparing the brain-to-body weight ratio of the other birds, the ostrich's brain was lighter than their body weight.
Some other facts concerning these birds are what set them apart. All other birds have three or four toes; this magnificent creature has
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only two. Ostriches bend their knees in a forward orientation; thus, they kick forward rather than backward. Furthermore, ostriches do
not require water because they produce some of it internally and obtain the 5._______ from the plants they consume.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option for blank 2.
Ans A). vision B). delusion C). illusion D). allusion
Correct Answer: A

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The eye of an ostrich is larger than its brain. Of all birds, ostriches have the 1.________ eyes. Their eyes are the size of a pool ball,
measuring around 2 inches in diameter. Their size is five times greater than that of human eyes. Ostriches have excellent vision, so
their enormous eyes aren't just for show. Because of their height and keen 2.________, the birds can see well over great distances,
enabling them to identify potential 3._________ before they approach.
In general, compared to mammals of comparable size, birds often have smaller brains. Ostrich brains are approximately 1.5 inches in
width, the study found. Additionally, their average brain weight is almost 17 times lower than that of the three other 4._____. When
comparing the brain-to-body weight ratio of the other birds, the ostrich's brain was lighter than their body weight.
Some other facts concerning these birds are what set them apart. All other birds have three or four toes; this magnificent creature has
only two. Ostriches bend their knees in a forward orientation; thus, they kick forward rather than backward. Furthermore, ostriches do
not require water because they produce some of it internally and obtain the 5._______ from the plants they consume.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option for blank 3.
Ans A). quarry B). tours C). predators D). victims
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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width, the study found. Additionally, their average brain weight is almost 17 times lower than that of the three other 4._____. When

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comparing the brain-to-body weight ratio of the other birds, the ostrich's brain was lighter than their body weight.
Some other facts concerning these birds are what set them apart. All other birds have three or four toes; this magnificent creature has

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only two. Ostriches bend their knees in a forward orientation; thus, they kick forward rather than backward. Furthermore, ostriches do
not require water because they produce some of it internally and obtain the 5._______ from the plants they consume.
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SubQuestion No : 24
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Q.24 Select the most appropriate option for blank 4.

Ans A). species B). property C). case D). typical
Correct Answer: A
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Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

The eye of an ostrich is larger than its brain. Of all birds, ostriches have the 1.________ eyes. Their eyes are the size of a pool ball,
y

measuring around 2 inches in diameter. Their size is five times greater than that of human eyes. Ostriches have excellent vision, so
B

their enormous eyes aren't just for show. Because of their height and keen 2.________, the birds can see well over great distances,
enabling them to identify potential 3._________ before they approach.
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SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option for blank 5.
Ans A). each B). every C). lesser D). remainder
Correct Answer: D

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Ramesh bought a watch for Rs.460 and sold it for Rs.414. Find his percentage of loss
Ans A). 11% B). 10% C). 5% D). 20%
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 450 B). 1200 C). 900 D). 1800
Correct Answer: C

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Q.3 If 49 : x :: x : 81 and 64 : y :: y : 169, where x and y are both natural numbers, then find the value of 2x + 3y.
Ans A). 312 B). 126 C). 348 D). 438

Q.4
ap Correct Answer: D

The given bar graph shows the distribution of the total expenditure (in hundreds) of a school under various expense heads
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in the year 2022.
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G
B y
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The total amount of expenditure of the school is how many times of its expenditure on advertisement?
Ans A). D).
B). C). Correct Answer: B

Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans A). 50 B). 51 C). 49 D). 52
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 The difference between simple interests on a certain sum at the annual rate of 6% for 6 years and 8% for 8 years is ₹1,176.
What is the sum?
Ans A). ₹3,800 B). ₹4,000 C). ₹4,400 D). ₹4,200
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 A man covers 30 km by car at a speed of 60 km/h and another 20 km by cycle. His whole journey is completed in 3 hours.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the cycle?
Ans A). 10 B). 12 C). 8 D). 6
Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 7cm and 5cm, respectively, the area of the rectangle is:
Ans A). 28 cm2 B). 35 cm2 C). 30 cm2 D). 12 cm2 Correct Answer: B

Q.9 The product of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. If the difference between the two numbers is 2, then find the numbers.
Ans A). 5 and 3 B). 6 and 4 C). 2 and 4 D). 8 and 6
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the marks obtained by three students: A, B and C in Mathematics, Chemistry and Physics.
Maximum marks for each subject is 100.

What is the difference in the average marks per student in Mathematics and Physics, respectively?

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Ans A). 8 B). 6 C). 8.5 D). 6.5
Correct Answer: A

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Q.11

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Ans A). 28082 cm2 B). 28028 cm2 C). 20828 cm2 D). 20882 cm2 Correct Answer: B
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Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
an

Ans A). 200 B). 400 C). 800 D). 600

Correct Answer: B
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Q.13
G
y

Ans A). 16632 B). 14856 C). 18821 D). 17838

Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 The average score of boys in an examination in a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The
average score of the school is 71.8. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls that
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appeared in the examination is:

Ans A). 4 : 3 B). 3 : 2 C). 3 : 4 D). 2 : 3

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 A person can complete a journey in 21 hours. He covers the first one-third of the journey at the speed of 40 km/h and the
remaining distance at the speed of 60 km/h. What is the total distance of his journey?
Ans A). 720 km B). 1080 km C). 360 km D). 1140 km
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 The height of Aaryan was 120 cm. After 1 year,his height increased by 15%, and in the next 1 year, his height increased by
16%. What will be the height (in cm) of Aaryan after the second years?
Ans A). 161.08 B). 150.56 C). 160.08 D). 138
Correct Answer: C

Q.1
7

Ans A). 20% B). 45% C). 40% D). 25%

Correct Answer: D

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Q.18 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans A). 49.6 B). 50.6 C). 52.6 D). 51.6
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 In a group of sports persons, 20 wrestlers have an average weight of 90 kg, while some athletes have an average weight of
68 kg. If the average weight of all sports persons is 78 kg, then the number of athletes is:
Ans A). 24 B). 52 C). 39 D). 30
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 By selling a book for ₹480 at marked price, a shopkeeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shopkeeper allows a
discount of 10% on the marked price. What is his gain per cent during the sale?
Ans A). 16% B). 8% C). 12% D). 18%
Correct Answer: B

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 GNEE is related to JQHH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BHYY is related to
EKBB. To which of the following is QXOO related, following the same logic?
Ans A). RRAT B). ATRR C). RRTA D). TARR
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

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Ans
ap Correct Answer: C
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A). B). C). D).

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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘JUMP’ is coded as ‘4682’ and ‘MIND’ is coded as ‘3741’.What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code
language?
G

Ans A). 3 B). 8 C). 7 D). 4

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.4 A, E, I, O, U, S and K are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). K is to the
immediate right of O. E is the immediate neighbour of both O and S. I is neither an immediate neighbour of S nor A. Who sits
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to the immediate right of U?

Ans A). K B). A C). I D). S
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

36, 39, 44, 51, 60, 71, 84, ?

Ans A). 97 B). 95 C). 99 D). 90
Correct Answer: C

Statements:
Some doors are rocks.
All rocks are woods.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some woods are doors.
(II) All woods are rocks.
Ans A). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow B). Only conclusion (II) follows C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D). Only conclusion (I) follows
Correct Answer: D

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Q.7 2 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 43. To which of the following is 9 related,
following the same logic?

Q.8 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘–’ and ‘÷‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
70 ÷ 90 – 10 + 20 × 80 = ?
Ans A). –30 B). –40 C). –45 D). –10
Correct Answer: A

Statements:
Some salaries are bonus.
All wages are bonus.

Conclusions:
(I) Some salaries are wages.
(II) All bonus are wages.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow. C). Only conclusion (I) follows.
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same

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order). D is sitting second to the left of F. A is sitting third to the right of B. C is sitting to the immediate right of D. Only two

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people are sitting between F and G. How many people are sitting between C and G when counted from the left of G?
Ans A). Four B). Two C). One D). Three
Correct Answer: D

Q.11
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Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
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the pattern.
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an
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G

Ans
Correct Answer: C
B y

A). B). C). D).

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Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are
interchanged?
81 × 3 - 9 ÷ 3 + 2 = ?
Ans A). 3 B). 56 C). 52 D). 2
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the pattern that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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Q.14 In a certain code language,‘shirt pant coat’ is coded as ‘ek ph bq’,‘coat jacket sweater’ is coded as ‘ek lh to’,‘jacket shirt
watch’ is coded as ‘fd bq lh’. What is the code for‘coat’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)
Ans A). to B). lh C). ek D). bq
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 12 is related to 61 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 76. To which of the following is
18 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 97 B). 95 C). 91 D). 93
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘black dark night’ is coded as ‘ck th lp’ and ‘dark cloudy sky’ is coded as ‘eg lp sc’. How is ‘dark’
coded in the given language?
Ans A). sc B). eg C). lp D). th
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

AGK, FLP, KQU, PVZ, ?

Ans A). UAE B). UEA C). VGY D). UES
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 CMGW is related to XHDT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SCAQ is related to
NXXN. To which of the following is ISUK related, following the same logic?

Ans A). EORG B). DNRH C). CMRG D). ENSH

Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Pr
an
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Ans
G

A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

B y

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘WEAR’ is coded as ‘PI1O’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘I4OP’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
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Ans A). P B). O C). I D). 4

Correct Answer: D
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The 9th Asian Games was hosted by which of the following countries?
Ans A). India B). China C). South Korea D). Japan
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 A child is a picky eater. He does not consume milk at all and barely eats other kinds of food. When he started losing his
baby teeth, they were not getting replaced with new teeth. This can be solved by giving him ___________.
Ans A). vitamin B complex B). carbohydrate-rich food C). calcium supplements D). vitamin C
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 An Indian Parliamentary delegation led by Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, Coal and Mines ______________________
visited Brazil from 11 to 13 June 2023.
Ans A). Virendra Kumar B). Narayan Rane C). Pralhad Joshi D). Arjun Munda
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Kala Ramnath belonged to which of the following gharanas?

Ans A). Agra gharana B). Kirana gharana C). Mewati gharana D). Indore gharana
Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 Anuradhapura, the old capital of Sri Lanka, was destroyed by which of the following dynasties of South India in the 10th
century AD?
Ans A). Rashtrakuta B). Chalukyas of Badami C). Chalukyas of Vengi D). Chola
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 As per Article 157 of the Constitution of India, a person needs to complete the age of ____________ years to be appointed as
Governor.
Ans A). 35 B). 32 C). 45 D). 41
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Which writ is issued by the High Court or Supreme Court when a lower court considers a case going beyond its
jurisdiction?
Ans A). Prohibition B). Mandamus C). Habeas Corpus D). Quo warranto
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Every year, Karthik Purnima marks the end of a livestock fair in Pushkar, where the main animal on display is:
Ans A). cow B). horse C). buffalo D). camel
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which of the following organisations in India provides facilities for acquisition of satellite data and its processing?
Ans A). National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) B). Forest Research Institute (FRI) C). Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS)
D). Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Which of the following Indian cities was the host of the ICC Men's World Cup final cricket match in 2023?
Ans A). Mumbai B). Chennai C). New Delhi D). Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which of the following is included in the estimation of Gross National Product?

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Ans A). Pension payments B). Sale of new shirts C). Sale of securities D). Sale of used cars
Correct Answer: B

Q.12
Ans A). 13 March 1919 B). 13 April, 1919 C). 13 April, 1918
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When was the Jallianwala Bagh massacre brought into action by the Britishers in Amritsar?
D). 23 April, 1918
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Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.13 In January 2023, the Chief Minister's Residential Land Rights Scheme (Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu Adhikar Yojana) was
launched in which Indian state?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Haryana C). Punjab D). Uttar Pradesh
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.14 The Citadel area has a huge mud ________ platform, which is 6 m high and underlies all the construction.
Ans A). stone B). rock C). wood D). brick
G

Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who is the author of the English novel ‘Voting at Fosterganj’?

B y

Ans A). Akshat Gupta B). Ruskin Bond C). RK Narayan D). Sudha Murty
Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 The revival of the art form in the late 1940s was spearheaded by maestros such as Kelucharan Mohapatra and Raghunath
Dutta in the field of ____________.
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Ans A). Manipuri B). Odissi C). Sattriya D). Chhau

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 The Indus Water Treaty took place in ________ between India and Pakistan.
Ans A). 1970 B). 1960 C). 1955 D). 1965
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Kanaka Raju, who kept the tribal folk dance Gussadi alive, was honoured with which of the following civilian awards of India
in 2021?
Ans A). Padma Vibhushan B). Bharat Ratna C). Padma Shri D). Padma Bhushan
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 What is the atomic number of uranium (U)?

Ans A). 104 B). 94 C). 90 D). 92
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 What was the unemployment rate of Gujarat in November 2021?

Ans A). 1.4% B). 4.4% C). 3.4% D). 2.4%
Correct Answer: A

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Q.21 Which of the following periods in India is also associated with the Iron Age?
Ans A). Palaeolithic Age B). Neolithic Age C). Later Vedic Age D). Harappan Age
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 As per Census 2011, which of the following states has the lowest child sex ratio?
Ans A). Punjab B). Haryana C). Rajasthan D). Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Tsunami is a natural disaster that originates from the ocean. The cause of Tsunami in the ocean is:
Ans A). The movement of tectonic plates under the ocean B). The alarmingly increasing amount of acid in water
C). The presence of excessive carbon dioxide in the water D). The accumulation of high amount of radioactive pollutants in the ocean

Correct Answer: A

Q.24 The planned large-scale disruption of rail communications and the seizure of arms in Bengal were undertaken under the
leadership of ________.
Ans A). Aurobindo Ghose B). Surendranath Banerjee C). Chittaranjan Das D). Jatin Mukherjee
Correct Answer: D

Q.25 Select the INCORRECT statement regarding Ozone.

Ans A). Ozone is formed from oxygen in the presence of ultraviolet radiation. B). Ozone (O3), like oxygen, is a life-supporting gas.
C). Ultraviolet radiation causes skin cancer. D). Ozone is a deadly poison
Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

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A serpent having many heads in Greek mythology

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Ans A). Hydra B). Python C). Cobra D). Eopsin
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. ap

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The plan was very ____________ and took a lot of time to develop.
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Ans A). being elaborate B). elaborate C). elaborates D). elaboration
Correct Answer: B
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Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

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Throw in the towel

Ans A). To prepare to fight B). To cause an activity or process to continue

C). To take responsibility for a situation while another person is temporarily absent D). To give up or surrender Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
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Whoever got the few answers correct has to leave the room.
Ans A). fewer B). fewest C). more fewer D). most few
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Please hang with for two minutes while I finish cleaning the utensils.
Ans A). Please hang with B). while I finish cleaning C). the utensils D). for two minutes
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Select the most appropriate antonym for the word provided in the bracket to fill in the blank.
The professor delivered a ___________________ lecture on quantum physics. (simplified)
Ans A). Refined B). Plain C). Lengthy D). Complex
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans A). The sceintist discovered a new palnet in the galaxy. B). The scientist discovred a new planet in the galexy.
C). The scientist discovered a new planet in the galaxy. D). The scienetist discovered a new planet in the galaxy.
Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The car which I bought last year was cheap than my bike.
Ans A). last year B). The car C). was cheap than my bike D). which I bought
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Infnite B). Novelist C). Throw D). Eternal
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The vegetation in this area of the forest is very dense.

Ans A). Spatial B). Spare C). Spruce D). Sparse
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

Her profile was complete on the company website.

Ans A). uploaded B). created C). incomplete D). received
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Identify the error in the usage of the future tense in the given sentence and choose the correct sentence from the following
options.

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Parvati finish the painting in one hour.

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Ans A). Parvati has been finishing the painting in one hour. B). Parvati was finished the painting in one hour.
C). Parvati will finish the painting in one hour. D). Parvati had been finishing the painting in one hour.

Q.13
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Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Correct Answer: C
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My aunt came from Switzerland by the flight which was landing at 5:00 a.m. yesterday.
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Ans A). Switzerland by the B). My aunt came from C). at 5:00 a.m. yesterday. D). flight which was landing
Correct Answer: D
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Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

With the increasing reliance on digital systems, ensuring robust cybersecurity measures is _______________ to protect
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against online threats.

Ans A). superfluous B). extraneous C). impartial D). paramount

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hamper
Ans A). Gift B). Hinder C). Irritate D). Pamper
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
(1) We knocked across (2) early on Saturday (3) to enjoy (4) the beautiful weather.
Ans A). the beautiful weather. B). to enjoy C). early on Saturday D). We knocked across
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The interns explained the whole issue to the coordinator in a nutshell.

Ans A). in a secret way B). in a brief manner C). in an uncertain way D). in a discouraging manner
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Credeble B). Devoted C). Explosive D). Creative

Correct Answer: A

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Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Adi had not only assisted her by giving evidence in the case but also provided many examples to prove her point in the
court.
Ans A). assisted not only her by B). assisted her not only by C). assisted not only by her D). assisted her only not by
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

A buzzing ______ can ____ dangerous.
Ans A). deer; dear B). be; bee C). bee; be D). dear; deer
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Until that moment, every director in Hollywood had accepted as gospel (1)_______ that the audience should not be taxed too much.
Welles struck a (2)_______ at these beliefs, without displaying the slightest of qualms. Visually, 'Citizen Kane' was shot with a harsh
sharpness which (3)_____ every scene. Traditionally, every make-up man and cameraman in Hollywood had to keep a careful
(4)_______ on the appearance of the heroine. Welles refused to follow this (5)_____ in the case of his own heroine. For the first time,
dialogue was presented in its realistic form.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1
Ans A). blasphemy B). truth C). followers D). Bible
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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Until that moment, every director in Hollywood had accepted as gospel (1)_______ that the audience should not be taxed too much.
Welles struck a (2)_______ at these beliefs, without displaying the slightest of qualms. Visually, 'Citizen Kane' was shot with a harsh

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sharpness which (3)_____ every scene. Traditionally, every make-up man and cameraman in Hollywood had to keep a careful
(4)_______ on the appearance of the heroine. Welles refused to follow this (5)_____ in the case of his own heroine. For the first time,
dialogue was presented in its realistic form.
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SubQuestion No : 22
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Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2

Ans A). blew B). blow C). bellow D). blue
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Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
G

Until that moment, every director in Hollywood had accepted as gospel (1)_______ that the audience should not be taxed too much.
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Welles struck a (2)_______ at these beliefs, without displaying the slightest of qualms. Visually, 'Citizen Kane' was shot with a harsh
B

sharpness which (3)_____ every scene. Traditionally, every make-up man and cameraman in Hollywood had to keep a careful
(4)_______ on the appearance of the heroine. Welles refused to follow this (5)_____ in the case of his own heroine. For the first time,
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dialogue was presented in its realistic form.

SubQuestion No : 23
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Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3

Ans A). promoted B). permitted C). prevented D). permeated

Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4
Ans A). nose B). eye C). ear D). leg
Correct Answer: B

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5
Ans A). practicals B). practice C). prose D). practise
Correct Answer: B

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A bought an item for ₹384 and sold it for ₹576, and B bought another item for ₹1,254 and sold it for ₹1,672. What is the ratio
of gain percentage of A to gain percentage of B?
Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

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Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.

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Ans A). 990 B). 1010 C). 1090 D). 1050
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 ap
If the radii of two right circular cylinders are in the ratio of 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio of 5:4, then find the ratio of
their curved surface areas?
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Ans C).
A). B). D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.4 A class teacher conducted a unit test in the class. If out of 25 students, 11 students' average score is 77 and rest 14
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students' average score is 69, then the weighted average score is:
Ans A). 70.29 B). 74.65 C). 68.54 D). 72.52
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.5 The average of 20 results is 15 and the average of other 25 results is 24. What is the average of all the results?
Ans A). 22 B). 39 C). 40 D). 20
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.6 When x is added to each of 2, 3, 30 and 35, then the numbers obtained in this order are in proportion. What is the second
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largest part in the proportion?

Ans A). 40 B). 30 C). 35 D). 45
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.7 A bicycle goes 11 metres in 9 seconds. Find its speed in km/h.

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8 How long (in months) will it take a sum of money invested at 5% per annum on simple interest to increase its value by
22.5%?
Ans A). 50 B). 44 C). 48 D). 54
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 After successive discounts of 26% and 22.5%, an item was sold at a profit of 24%. If the cost price of the item was ₹925,
what was the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A). 2,000 B). 1,975 C). 2,200 D). 2,250
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Ravish had ₹1,500 with him. Sunaina had 24% more money than what Ravish had, while Sanatan had 10% less money that
what Sunaina had. How much money did Sanatan have?
Ans A). ₹1,674 B). ₹1,664 C). ₹1,764 D). ₹1,774
Correct Answer: A

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Q.11

Ans A).
Correct Answer: D
B). C). D).

Q.12 Monthly incentives (in ₹) of three employees Rohit, Juli and Ankit of a company during three months are given in the
following table. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of incentives received by Juli and Rohit in May?

Ans A). 89 : 60 B). 60 : 89 C). 10 : 17 D). 17 : 10
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans A). 600 B). 560 C). 540 D). 640
Correct Answer: A

Q.14

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Ans A). 19140 B). 33000 C). 18140
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 A park has an average number of 420 visitors on Sunday and 120 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a
month of 30 days beginning with Sunday, is:
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Ans A). 160 B). 150 C). 270 D). 170

Correct Answer: D
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Q.16 Among three numbers, the second number is half of the first number and the third number is 4 less than the second
number. If the average of the first and third numbers is 16, what is the second number?
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Ans A). 16 B). 12 C). 10 D). 18

Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 The given graph shows the production of food grains by a state (in 1000 tons) over the years from 1989 to 1996. Study the
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graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

B
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In how many of the given years was the production of food grains more than the average production of the given years?
Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 3 D). 1
Correct Answer: B

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Q.18 A dealer mixes 26 kg of a variety of tea at ₹200 per kg with 30 kg of another variety of tea at ₹360 per kg, and sells the
mixture at ₹300 per kg. His profit percentage is:
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.19 If two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 50 km/h and 30 km/h, respectively, find the
relative speed if they are running in the same direction.
Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

Q.20 ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 62 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 14.3 cm and CM = 17.7 cm. The
area of the quadrilateral ABCD is:
Ans A). 982 cm2 B). 902 cm2 C). 992 cm2 D). 900 cm2 Correct Answer: C

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

HKR, DGN, ZCJ ,VYF, ?

Ans A). RBK B). RUB C). RBY D). RFG
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A
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Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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216 219 224 227 232 ?

Ans A). 235 B). 233 C). 234 D). 236
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.4 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
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sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
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constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.

Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
9, 43
13, 63
Ans A). 17, 83 B). 18, 82 C). 17, 82 D). 18, 83
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘ZERO’ is coded as ‘2468’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘5679’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that
language?
Ans A). 8 B). 9 C). 5 D). 6
Correct Answer: D

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Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.7 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
G sits to the immediate left of B. A sits to the immediate left of D. D sits second to the left of E. C sits third to the left of B.
How many people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D?
Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 3 D). 4
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 In a code language, 'PARENT’ is written as 'PWRANT' and 'SING' is written as 'SENG'. How will 'TERMINATE' be written in the
same language?
Ans A). SERMANWTA B). TERMANWTA C). SARMENWTA D). TARMENWTA
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
6 × 4− (60 ÷ 5) + 15 + (33÷ 3)× 2 = 59
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans A). 2 and 4 B). 2 and 5 C). 6 and 5 ap D). 5 and 15
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10
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G

Ans
B y
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A). B). C). D).

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Correct Answer: B

Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

15 + 9 ÷ 2 – 63 × 3 = ?
Ans A). 33 B). 18 C). 12 D). 25
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 8 is related to 33 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 45. To which of the following is 24
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 99 B). 97 C). 98 D). 95
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘7913’ and ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘8672’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?

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Ans A). 8 B). 3 C). 7 D). 6

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Correct Answer: C

Q.15
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A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between A and C when counted from the right of C. B sits 2nd to the left of C. F sits immediate on the right of D. E
is not an immediate neighbour of C. Who sits immediate to the right of A?
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Ans A). D B). G C). E D). F
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Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
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it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
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All juices are burgers.

Some burgers are chocolates.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some burgers are juices.
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(II) Some juices are chocolates.

Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Both conclusions I and II follow C). Only conclusion I follows D). Only conclusion II follows
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.17
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Ans A). Only Conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only Conclusion (II) follows. Correct Answer: D

Q.18 EJ68 is related to OT55 in a certain way. In the same way, KP47 is related to UZ34. To which of the following is QV29 related,
following the same logic?
Ans A). FA16 B). AF16 C). AF20 D). FA20
Correct Answer: B

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Q.19 EJDI is related to CHBG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JOIN is related to HMGL.
To which of the following is NSMR related, following the same logic?
Ans A). PQKL B). PQLK C). LQKP D). LQPK
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘rep sho pel’ means ‘goats are bleating’; ‘sho jin ken’ means ‘goats and cows’ and ‘met rep pi’
means 'dogs are mad'. What is the code for ‘are’ in that code language?
Ans A). sho B). met C). rep D). pi
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 _______, which translates to 'dance of the enchantress,' stands out as one of the most captivating expressions in the Indian
classical dance repertoire.
Ans A). Kuchipudi B). Mohiniyattam C). Manipuri D). Kuttiyatam
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 What is the player who sits at the centre of the rectangular field in Kho Kho called?
Ans A). Defender B). Captain C). Chaser D). Master
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 The Bara Imambara in Lucknow was built in the year 1784 by ________.
Ans A). Jahangir B). Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula C). Akbar D). Nawab Siraj-ud-Daula
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Which of the following states in India had the LOWEST poverty ratio in 2011-2012 as per the Economic Survey 2013-14,
released by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India?

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Ans A). Haryana B). Kerala C). Gujarat D). Karnataka

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Correct Answer: B

Q.5 How much amount is provided per month as assistance to the female head of the family under the Gruha Lakshmi Scheme
launched by the Karnataka Government in July 2023?
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Ans A). ₹3,500 B). ₹2,000 C). ₹5,000 D). ₹1,500
Correct Answer: B
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Q.6 Who among the following is the author of the famous novel,‘One Amazing Thing’?
Ans A). Amitav Ghosh B). Khushwant Singh C). Sonali Dev D). Chitra Banerjee Divakurni
Correct Answer: D
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Q.7 Which of the following is the national fruit of Sri Lanka?

Ans A). Mango B). Strawberry C). Jackfruit D). Orange

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.8 In which the following sports do caddies play the role of helper for the player?
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Ans A). Cycling B). Golf C). Boxing D). Shooting

Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Who among the following Mughal emperors had a great interest in paintings?
Ans A). Shahjahan B). Humayun C). Babur D). Jahangir
at

Correct Answer: D
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Q.10 Chhath Puja falls in which month of the Hindu calendar?

Ans A). Jyeshtha B). Ashadha C). Kartika D). Phalguna
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 What is the salt measurement in hypersaline lagoons?

Ans A). 30 to 35 B). Less than 5 C). Less than 100 D). More than 100
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Name the Sri Lankan Buddhist text that provides details of the Mauryan empire.
Ans A). Parishishtaparvan B). Ashokavadana C). Dipavamsa D). Divyavadana
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Shree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP), founded in 1903, to carry on the work of social reform was active in
which of the following states?
Ans A). Assam B). Bihar C). Punjab D). Kerala
Correct Answer: D

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Q.14 Who among the following became the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Science and Technology,
Environment, Forests and Climate Change as on 30th September 2023?
Ans A). Neeraj Shekhar B). Satish Chandra Dubey C). Surendra Singh Nagar D). Jairam Ramesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The ‘Servants of India Society’ was founded by which of the following freedom fighters?
Ans A). Mahatma Gandhi B). Motilal Nehru C). Gopal Krishna Gokhale D). Chittaranjan Das
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following is the quality of the public goods?

Ans A). Non-rivalrous B). Excludable C). Rivalrous D). Non-divisible
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 According to the Indian calendar, the March and April months are known as ___________.
Ans A). Asvina-Kartika B). Jyaistha-Asadha C). Chaitra-Vaisakha D). Magha-Phalguna
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Which of the following is the legislative organ of the Union Government?
Ans A). Parliament B). Executive C). Judiciary D). State Executive
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Which of the following statements about the Sangeet Natak Akademi is/are true?
1. The Sangeet Natak Akademi has been functioning as the apex body of the performing arts in the country.
2. The main objective of the Akademi is to coordinate and collaborate with the government and performing artists.
3. The Sangeet Natak Akademi comes under the Ministry of Culture of the government of India.
Ans A). Only 2 and 3 B). Only 1 and 3 C). Only 1 and 2 D). 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Which of the following are building blocks of proteins?

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Ans A). Amino acids B). Bases C). Cells D). Acids

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Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Which of the following is a NOT a feature of the Indian Parliamentary form of Government?
Ans A). Dissolution of the Lower House B). Leadership of the Prime Minister ap
C). Non membership of the ministers in Legislature
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D). Majority party rule
Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 Under which category did Ricky Kej secure his third Grammy award?
Ans A). Best Immersive Audio Album B). Best Audio Album of the year C). Song of the year D). Best Contemporary Instrumental Album
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.23 What is the process of a substance changing directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the liquid state called?
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Ans A). Sublimation B). Fusion C). Evaporation D). Condensation

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.24 Which type of coal is found in Damodar valley?

Ans A). Anthracite B). Lignite C). Bituminous D). Peat
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.25 What is the total length of 'Atal Tunnel', which is located in Himachal Pradesh state?
Ans A). 9 kilometres B). 9.02 kilometres C). 9.5 kilometres D). 9.8 kilometres
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Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We should always _________ our best to help others.

Ans A). does B). done C). do D). did
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans A). The carpenter kept furniture in the backyard of his house. B). The carpenter kept the furniture in a backyard of his house.
C). The carpenter kept a furniture in the backyard of his house. D). The carpenter kept the furniture in backyard of his house.

Correct Answer: A

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Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who loves music

Ans A). Chromatophilic B). Discophile C). Melophile D). Astrophile
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
John searched thoroughly but could not find his coat nowhere in the house.
Ans A). but could not B). find his coat C). John searched thoroughly D). nowhere in the house.
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The company implemented a new __________ to improve efficiency.

Ans A). stratagy B). strateji C). strategie D). strategy
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

UNESCO’s mission is to contribute to the building of a culture of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development
and intercultural dialogue with education, the sciences, culture, communication and information.
Ans A). intercultural dialogue in education B). intercultural dialogue by education C). intercultural dialogue through education
D). intercultural dialogue from education
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Whimsical

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Ans A). Practical B). Fickle C). Illogical D). Confident
Correct Answer: A

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Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.
Jump on the bandwagon
Ans A). To oppose the idea of a group gaining popularity B). To jump to a conclusion
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D). To join or support something which is gaining popularity
Correct Answer: D
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word to fill in the blank.
Desist
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Every Indian should ____ from acts of corruption.

Ans A). show B). pledge C). refrain D). insist
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Correct Answer: C
G

Q.10 Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

During the _____ of Queen Victoria, England made all-round progress.

B y

Ans A). rain B). rein C). rhine D). reign

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
at

The Rungrado is the large football stadium in the world.

Ans A). most largest B). more larger C). larger D). largest
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: C
Somnambulism Chauvinism Noctummbulism Alcoholism

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) had _________ that the city would witness rainfall on Thursday.
Ans A). prolong B). manifest C). forecast D). contest
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Where have you ______ all this time?

Ans A). been B). bean C). bine D). bin
Correct Answer: A

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Q.15 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

Participating in the marthon was a challenging experience.

Ans A). marethon B). marathon C). merethon D). mereton
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Pay off old scores

Ans A). To clear one's debt B). To be successful C). To have one's revenge D). To score good marks
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill the blank.

The strike, that the truck association called, caused a minor _________ of food in our village.
Ans A). dearth B). availability C). less D). leak
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Avoid
Ans A). Pursue B). Reflect C). Accept D). Evade
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Mahira is an more efficient and hardworking employee of her company.

Ans A). No substitution required B). Mahira is the efficient C). Mahira is an efficient D). Mahira is the more efficient
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

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If we want to promote national integrity in our country, then we must desist our tendency of taking up with others.

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Ans A). looking down upon B). bringing forward C). coming round D). setting out
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension: ap
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In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
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great only because of his labours. (4)________ comes from work. The secret to success is this. Nobody can advance without labour.
It truly is the (5)_______ idea of existence. Without it, life is even less meaningful.
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SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
G

Ans A). mortals B). creatures C). lives D). histories

Correct Answer: C
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.
at

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). bear B). support C). embrace D). promote
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Our (1)_____ revolve around our work. For the most part, males have to labour with their hands in order to (2)_____ themselves. But
everyone needs to work in some (3)_____. It provides honour and credit to us. Nothing in life can be accomplished without it. Man is
great only because of his labours. (4)________ comes from work. The secret to success is this. Nobody can advance without labour.
It truly is the (5)_______ idea of existence. Without it, life is even less meaningful.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). measurement B). magnitude C). volume D). capacity
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). Remedy B). Glory C). Boast D). Shame
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). uproar B). secondary C). demean D). fundamental
Correct Answer: D

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ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

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Ans A). 9900 m2, 103950 m3 B). 8600 m2, 105850 m3 C). 9500 m2, 113550 m3 D). 7660 m2, 93990 m3
ap Correct Answer: A
at
Q.2 The average of 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120 and 140 is:
Ans A). 85 B). 70 C). 80 D). 90
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Correct Answer: C

Q.3
an
ag
G

Ans
A). B). C). D).
B y

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.4 Rice worth ₹84 per kg and ₹96 per kg is mixed with a third variety of rice in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth ₹99 per
kg, the price of the third variety per kg is:
at

Ans A). ₹108 B). ₹115 C). ₹112 D). ₹110

Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 440 B). 520 C). 480 D). 420
Correct Answer: C

Q.6
:
Ans A). 10% B). 8% C). 12% D). 6%
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 If 45% of the sum of the two numbers is equal to 60% of the difference between the two numbers, find the ratio of the
smallest number to the greatest number.
Ans A). 4 : 3 B). 3 : 4 C). 7 : 1 D). 1 : 7
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 The amount of profit and loss will be the same if an article is sold at ₹19,125 and ₹14,625. Find the percentage of profit if an
article is sold at ₹19,125.
Ans C).
A). B). D). Correct Answer: B
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Q.9 Marks (out of 100) of four students in Hindi, English and Mathematics are given in the following table. Study the table
carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the overall percentage marks obtained by Shilpee in the given three subjects?
Ans A). 77% B). 80% C). 78% D). 79%
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 1500 B). 2000 C). 750 D). 3000
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Rakesh travels the first 320 km by train at a speed of 80 km/hr and the next 250 km by bus at 50 km/hr. Ignoring the buffer
time between different modes of travel, the average speed (in km/hr) for his tour was:
Ans B).
A). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The average income of 25 persons is ₹2,400 and that of another 20 persons is ₹1,500. The average income of all of them
together is:
Ans A). ₹2,100 B). ₹2,150 C). ₹2,000 D). ₹1,950
Correct Answer: C

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Q.13 The scale of a map is given as 1:250. Two cities are 6.5 km apart on the map. The actual distance between them is

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Ans A). 1250 km B). 1625 km C). 1200 km D). 1000 km
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 ap
at
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Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).
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Q.15 Air is leaking from a spherical-shaped advertising balloon at the rate of 24 cubic feet per minute. If the radius of the balloon
ag

is 8 feet, how long would it take for the balloon to empty? Round your answer to the nearest minute. Use the approximate of
value of π, that is 3.14.
G

Ans A). 89 minutes B). 80 minutes C). 65 minutes D). 94 minutes

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.16 A boat can travel at a speed of 13 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, find the time taken by the boat to
go 68 km downstream.
hs

Ans A). 4 hours B). 3 hours C). 6 hours D). 5 hours

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.17 A shopkeeper normally gives a discount of 40%. To increase his sale before off season, he announces an additional
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discount of 4% upto a specific date. How much additional discount (in ₹) will a customer get on an item marked for ₹500?
Ans A).
B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

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Q.18 The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and 2021 from five
manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

What is the percentage by which the total production of all manufacturers in the year 2021 exceeds the total production of
manufacturers in the year 2020? (Round to the nearest integer)

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Ans A). 42% B). 31% C). 38% D). 29%
Correct Answer: B

Q.19
Ans A). ₹488 B). ₹379 C). ₹424
ap
On selling a book for ₹348, a shopkeeper loses 13%. In order to gain 22%, he must sell that book for:
D). ₹369
at
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.20 The average of six numbers is 30. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 28. Find the excluded number.
Ans A). 30 B). 36 C). 35 D). 40
Correct Answer: D
an

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
G

28 − 4 × 5 + 36 ÷ 9 + 2 × 3 = 53
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
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Ans A). 28 and 36 B). 5 and 3 C). 4 and 9 D). 2 and 9

Correct Answer: D
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Q.2 192 is related to 38 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 270 is related to 51. To which of the following is 258
related, following the same logic?
at

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘CREATE’ is coded as ‘84’ and ‘FLOP’ is coded as ‘56’. What is the code for ‘PURPOSEFULLY’ in
the given code language?
Ans A). 170 B). 142 C). 168 D). 117
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
•All hands are legs.
•Some hands are eyes.
Conclusion (I): All legs are hands.
Conclusion (II): Some legs are eyes.
Ans A). Neither Conclusion I nor II follows B). Only Conclusion I follows C). Only Conclusion II follows D). Both Conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer: C
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Q.5 NKBI is related to PIDG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SMFG is related to UKHE.
To which of the following is UPQR related, following the same logic?
Ans A). WRSD B). WNSP C). TRDW D). YGBF
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is sitting
fourth to the right of N. Q is sitting third to the left of O. M is sitting to the immediate right of Q. R is sitting to the immediate
right of N. How many people are sitting between P and S when counted from the left of S?
Ans A). 3 B). 4 C). 1 D). 2

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Correct Answer: C

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Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

Ans A). KNT

CHK, GKO, ? , OQW, STA
B). LOT C). LOS ap D). KNS
Correct Answer: D
at
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Q.9 Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
an
ag
G
B y

Ans
Correct Answer: A
hs

A). B). C). D).

at
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Statements:
All lions are cheetahs.
Some cheetahs are tigers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tigers are not cheetahs.
(II) All cheetahs are lions.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Both conclusions I and II follow C). Only conclusion II follows D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer: D

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Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.12 RQ 45 is related to TS 50 in a certain way. In the same way, UX 19 is related to WZ 24.To which of the following is CF 68
related following the same logic?

Ans A). ST 55 B). NT 45 C). NV 37 D). EH 73

Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

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(2, 19, 7)

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Ans A). (3, 35, 5) B). (8, 22, 4) C). (6, 40, 3) D). (5, 20, 6)
Correct Answer: B

Q.14
ap
A, B, C, L, M, Y and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C sits
at
fourth to the left of M. Only one person sits between L and Y when counted from the left of L. Only one person sits between
Y and X when counted from left of Y. Only two people sit between A and Y when counted from the right of A.Who sits third to
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the right of B?
Ans A). A B). L C). C D). X
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, 76, ?, 199

Ans A). 125 B). 123 C). 130 D). 127

Correct Answer: B
y

Q.16 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
B

16 − 4 × 2 ÷ 3 + 6= ?
hs

Ans A). 24 B). 12 C). 8 D). 16

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.17
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘use the force’ is coded as ‘gp sb cn’ and ‘force is strong’ is coded as ‘hv sk gp’. How is ‘force’
coded in that language?
Ans A). sk B). gp C). cn D). hv
Correct Answer: B

Q.19

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

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Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The ________ Polo Club is the home of the Ezra Cup event, the world’s oldest polo tournament, started in 1880.
Ans A). Delhi B). Jaipur C). Calcutta D). Hyderabad
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) envisaged by the Central Government is called
_____________.

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Ans A). Seed Scheme B). Mission Karmayogi C). Sahakar Mitra Scheme D). Seva Nidhi Scheme
Correct Answer: B

Q.3
ap
In a food chain of Algae-Shrimp-Fish-Bird, if the energy available at the bird is 4 kJ, then the energy available at the shrimp
is:
at
Ans A). 400 kJ B). 4000 kJ C). 4 kJ D). 0.04 kJ
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.4 Who is the first Indian Female Dancer to receive the highest Padma award, Padma Vibhushan?
an

Ans A). Madhavi Mudgal B). Shobha Naidu C). Sonal Mansingh D). Sanjukta Panigrahi
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.5 The Directive Principles of State Policy are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, but they are not
enforceable by any court. This concept is mentioned in which Article?
G

Ans A). Article 37 B). Article 32 C). Article 38 D). Article 49

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.6 Which of the following instruments is played by Shreya Bhattacharjee, an eminent musician from Assam?
Ans A). Sitar B). Tabla C). Flute D). Violin
hs

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.7 According to the census of India 2011, which union territory from the following has the highest sex ratio?
Ans A). Chandigarh B). Lakshadweep C). Daman and Diu D). Puducherry
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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 'Waiting for a Visa' is a 20-page autobiography of _________________.

Ans A). Jawahar Lal Nehru B). Sadar Vallabhbhai Patel C). Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar D). Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Which of the following Commissions was set up to investigate the incident of Jallianwala Bagh in 1919?
Ans A). Sadler Commission B). Hunter Commission C). Simon Commission D). Peel Commission
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Name the Union territory with the lowest density of population as per Census of India 2011.
Ans A). New Delhi B). Lakshdweep C). Andaman and Nicobar Islands D). Daman and Diu
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which of the following is an artificial port in India?

Ans A). Mumbai port B). Chennai port C). Kolkata port D). Deendayal port
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 In Maikal hills, which of the following minerals is deposited?

Ans A). Copper
Click B).
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C). Bauxite D). Coal
- Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: C
Q.13 Which of the following possesses the largest isolated single cell?
Ans A). Ostrich egg B). Human brain C). Amoeba D). Blue whale
Correct Answer: A

Q.14
Find the acceleration (in m/s2) of a body which accelerates from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 2
seconds.
Ans A). 5 m/sec2 B). 7.5 m/sec2 C). 10 m/sec2 D). 2.5 m/sec2 Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Who presides over the House in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker in the Indian political system?
Ans A). Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B). Chairperson so nominated C). President D). Prime Minister
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Which of the following dance forms emotes a play through dancing in which the song is customarily in Manipravala
language?
Ans A). Kathak B). Mohiniattam C). Sattriya D). Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 The Home Rule League Movement of Bal Gangadhar Tilak had its base across Karnataka and Maharashtra, but excluding
which of the following?
Ans A). Nagpur B). Poona C). Berar D). Bombay
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Which of the following is the residential place of Buddhist priests?

Ans A). Vihara B). Stupa C). Stambha D). Chaitya
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Which festival commemorates the death of Hussain Ibn Ali?

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Ans A). Shab-i-baraat B). Eid-ul-fitr C). Milad-un-nabi D). Muharram
Correct Answer: D

Q.20
B). Garo hills C). Khasi hills
ap
The Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world. It is located in which hills?
Ans A). Maikala hills D). Jaintia hills
Correct Answer: C
at
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Q.21 Which of the following national income aggregates is generally recognised as National Income of a country?
Ans A). Net National Product at Market Prices B). Net National Product at Factor Cost C). Gross National Product at Market Prices
an

D). Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.22 From which state in India did the legendary volleyball player Jimmy George hail?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Odisha C). Kerala D). Telangana
G

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.23 Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director General of the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in June
B

2023?
Ans A). Amarendu Prakash B). Ajay Yadav C). Janardan Prasad D). Ashwani Kumar
hs

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.24 Pulakeshin II was the famous ruler of which of the following dynasties?
Ans A). Maitraka B). Gauda C). Chalukya D). Vakataka
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Correct Answer: C

Q.25 For the development of agriculture, a new department, Diwan-i-Amir-Kohi was established by which of the following Sultans
of Delhi?
Ans A). Muhammad Bin Tughlaq B). Alauddin Khalji C). Shamsuddin Iltutmish D). Ghiyasuddin Balban
Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Hektic B). Gentle C). Brilliant D). Kinetic
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is mentally ill

Ans A). Mercenary B). Psychiatrist C). Lunatic D). Psychologist
Correct Answer: C

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Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The company's new product received affirmative feedback from customers.

Ans A). critical B). positive C). detailed D). reflective
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She told me / her name but / I'm not remembering / it now.

Ans A). She told me B). I'm not remembering C). it now D). her name but
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
He bought strange vintage car on auction from the customs department.
Ans A). He bought B). strange vintage car C). on auction D). from the customs department
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the most appropriate phrase to replace the underlined word.

She is feeling unwell today, so she will not be going to work.

Ans A). head in the clouds B). face like thunder C). chase rainbows D). under the weather
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Just when they reach the airport, the flight had departed from the runway.

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Ans A). Just when they have reached B). After they just reach C). Just they reach D). Just before they reached

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Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

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Sathish remained unwavering in the face of the assaulting gang, standing as resolute as ________.
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Ans A). steel B). still C). stall D). steal
Correct Answer: A
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Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
an

sentence.

She confided in me on her anxious, whispering her secrets between sips of coffee.
ag

Ans A). on her anxiousness B). about her anxious C). about her anxiety D). regarding herself’s anxiousness
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

B y

As long as I live, I shall be obliged to my Uncle.

Ans A). grateful B). pleased C). thankless D). indebted

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.11 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
M

I had never saw/ such a sight/ before I visited Switzerland.

Ans A). No error B). before I visited Switzerland. C). such a sight D). I had never saw
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please bring some milk from ______ refrigerator in the kitchen.
Ans A). the B). a C). an D). No article required
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Though Amal took continuous medication, he was not able to __________________ his injury.
Ans A). heal B). heel C). hail D). hill
Correct Answer: A

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Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Wine glass is very fragile; you must handle it with care.
Ans A). Resilient B). Sturdy C). Delicate D). Rough
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined idiom/phrase in the given sentence.
The salesman informed the customers that if they had any questions, they could drop a line.
Ans A). send a brief letter B). complain against him C). call his secretary D). come back with the items
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Tara has been playing / cricket with her friends / since noon.
Ans A). Tara has been playing B). Since noon C). No error D). Cricket with her friends
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

Surprisingly!/ dark chocolates/ are most bitterer/ in taste.

Ans A). Surprisingly! B). dark chocolates C). in taste. D). are most bitterer
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

His business was so successful that Mark was able to _________ at the age of 50.
Ans A). admit B). give up C). succeed D). retire
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The permisible limit of vehicle speed has been increased in India by the Road Transport Corporation.

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Ans A). permissible B). parmissible C). parmitted D). permisibble
Correct Answer: A

Q.20
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Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

As the roller coaster reached its highest point, a surge of addrenalline coursed through her veins, making her heart race
at
with excitement.
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Ans A). adrennaline B). adrineline C). adrenaline D). adreneline

Correct Answer: C
an

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
ag

each blank.
G

possible. We are deeply concerned for our students. The teacher is the _____ 4_____ important person in the school, for on her or
B

him depends the future welfare of mankind. As the society is disintegrating, these schools must be centres for the regeneration ____
5___ the mind.
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SubQuestion No : 21
at

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans A). affirm B). confirm C). conform D). control

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

These letters are not intended to dominate your way of thinking or to persuade you to _____ 1____ to the way the writer thinks or
feels. It is really a dialogue ______ 2_____ two friends talking about their problems. You must have observed the state of our society,
and that there must be a _____ 3______ transformation in the way human beings live, their relation to each other, and in every way
possible. We are deeply concerned for our students. The teacher is the _____ 4_____ important person in the school, for on her or
him depends the future welfare of mankind. As the society is disintegrating, these schools must be centres for the regeneration ____
5___ the mind.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). behind B). unless C). between D). before
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). radical B). radial C). avoidable D). highly
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

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Ans A). much B). not C). more D). most

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Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
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possible. We are deeply concerned for our students. The teacher is the _____ 4_____ important person in the school, for on her or
him depends the future welfare of mankind. As the society is disintegrating, these schools must be centres for the regeneration ____
5___ the mind.
ag

SubQuestion No : 25
G

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). under B). although C). of D). off
y

Correct Answer: C
B
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M

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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Two trains of lengths 110 m and 100 m are running towards each other on parallel lines at the speed of 50 km/h and 58 km/h,
respectively. How long will they take to cross each other after they meet?
Ans A). 4 seconds B). 5 seconds C). 6 seconds D). 7 seconds
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 The average weight of Rakesh and his five friends is 62 kg. If Rakesh is 6 kg heavier than the average weight of his five
friends, then find the weight of Rakesh.
Ans A). 67 kg B). 62 kg C). 68 kg D). 61 kg
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 For a sum of ₹15,000 the rate of interest of 8.5% per annum simple interest, find the interest earned (in ₹) in 5 years 3
months.
Ans A). 21,693.75 B). 21,375 C). 6,375 D). 6,693.75
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans A). 50.2 B). 49.2 C). 51.2 D). 52.2
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 The quantity of milk ordered on the first, second, third and fourth day of a four day ceremony is in the proportion of 30 litres,
24 litres, 35 litres and ‘x’ litres, respectively. Find the quantity of milk (in litres) ordered on the fourth day.

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Ans A). 30 B). 32 C). 28 D). 26

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Correct Answer: C

Q.6 If a semi-circular plot has radius 100 m, find its perimeter. (Use π = 3.14)
Ans A). 414 m

Q.7
B). 828 m C). 514 m

A dealer sells his goods at 5% loss on cost price but uses 12

ap
D). 500 m
Correct Answer: C

% less weight. Find his percentage of loss or gain.

at
Ans
A). Gain 7 % B). Gain 8 % C). Loss 8 % D). Loss 7 % Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.8 A shop has two promotional offers: buy three shirts, get one shirt free, or a 25% discount on the marked price. If a customer
buys five using both offers, what discount will he get all together?
an

Ans A). 30% B). 50% C). 25% D). 27.5%

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.9 What is the HCF of 513,1134 and 1215?

Ans A). 27 B). 81 C). 3 D). 19
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.10 Which of the following equations is correct?

Ans A).
B). C).
B y

D). Correct Answer: C

Q.11 If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 12% and its denominator is diminished by 8%, then the value of the fraction is
. Find the original fraction.
at

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The average of two numbers is 13.5 and the square root of their product is . Find the numbers.
Ans A). 13 and 14 B). 12 and 15 C). 11 and 16 D). 10 and 17
Correct Answer: B

Q.13

Ans
Correct Answer: A
A). B). C). D).

Q.14 A train increases its regular speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the actual time taken by
the train on the journey?
Ans A). 110 min B). 120 min C). 150 min D). 180 min
Correct Answer: D

Q
.
1
5
Ans A). B). C). D).

Q.16 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 12% per year rate of interest?
Ans A). 1000 B). 2000
Click To Join Telegram C).-500Maths By D).Gagan
1500
Pratap
CorrectSir
Answer: A
Q.17

Ans A). 93.6% B). 90.3% C). 88.9% D). 91.1%

Correct Answer: D

Q.18 A solid hemisphere of radius 12 cm is melted into N identical cones, each of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm. What is the value
of N?
Ans A). 12 B). 8 C). 10 D). 15
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans A). 1020 B). 920 C). 980 D). 940
Correct Answer: C

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Q.20

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at
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an
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G
B y
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Ans A). 693 B). 558 C). 957 D). 782

Correct Answer: A
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Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Statements:
All papayas are oranges.
Some oranges are apples.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some apples are oranges.
(II) Some papayas are apples.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows B). Only conclusion II follows C). Bothconclusion I and II follow D). Only conclusion I follows

Correct Answer: D

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘GOES’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘3457’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 4 B). 5 C). 2 D). 3
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

24 × 576 ÷ 72 – 108 + 91 = ?
Ans A). 18 B). 20 C). 2 D). 12
Correct Answer: B

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Q.6 A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing out to the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). D

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is sitting to the immediate left of A and third to the right of H. B is sitting third to the right of F. F is the immediate neighbour
of C and G. C is sitting third to the right of A.
Who is sitting fourth to the right of A?
Ans A). H B). B C). D
ap
D). C
Correct Answer: A
at
Q.7
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Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.8 ‘RJ 17’ is related to ‘QL 19’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘CP 12’ is related to ‘BR 14’. To which of the following is ‘OJ 22’
an

related following the same logic?

Ans A). PK 23 B). QJ 22 C). NL 24 D). NK 21
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.9 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
10, ?, 46, 94, 190, 382, 766
G

Ans A). 18 B). 24 C). 22 D). 20

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’
y

are interchanged?
78 − 6 ÷ 6 + 2 × 8 = ?
B

Ans A). 9 B). 7 C). 4 D). 0

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘MONKEY’ is coded as ‘BHNQRP’ and ‘NAP’ is coded as ‘SDQ’. What is the code for ‘JUTEBAG’
in the given code language?
at

Ans A). JDEHWXM B). JDEHUXM C). JDEHWXN D). JDEKWXM

Correct Answer: A
M

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B sits to
the immediate left of E. C sits to the immediate left of F. F sits second to the left of G. D sits third to the left of E.

Who sits third to the left of A?

Ans A). B B). F C). G D). E
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘you read book’ is written as ‘hm rn op’ and ‘book is good’ is written as ‘cf am rn’. What is the
code for ‘book’ in that language?
Ans A). cf B). op C). am D). rn
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
8, 72
11, 99
Ans A). 15, 125 B). 21, 123 C). 19, 131 D). 17, 153
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 3 is related to 40 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 5 is related to 66. To which of the following is 10 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 125 B). 129 C). 127 D). 131
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 CDFG is related to FGIJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MNPQ is related to PQST.
To which of the following is HIKL related, following the same logic?
Ans A). KLNP B). KLNO C). JKNO D). LKNO
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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Si
Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some tomatoes are potatoes.
No potato is an onion.
Conclusions:
(I) Some potatoes are not tomatoes.
ap
at
(II) No tomato is an onion.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows B). Neither conclusion I nor II follows C). Both conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusion II follows
Pr

Correct Answer: B

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
an

XCW, UGS, RKO ,?, LSG

Ans A). OMN B). OLO C). OOM D). OOK
ag

Correct Answer: D
G

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Jallianwala Bagh is located in which city?

Ans A). Ludhiana B). Ambala C). Amritsar D). Chandigarh

Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Children’s Day in India is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of _________.
hs

Ans A). Dr. APJ. Abdul Kalam B). Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru C). Dr. BR Ambedkar D). Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.3 Both, Rajesh Prasanna and Rishabh Prasanna are associated with which musical instrument?
Ans A). Flute B). Mandolin C). Guitar D). Piano
Correct Answer: A
M

Q.4 The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana was implemented through which organisation?
Ans A). Employees Provident Fund Organisation B). HDFC Bank C). Reserve Bank of India D). Life Insurance Corporation
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Which of the following was the mascot of the 37th National Games?
Ans A). Ammu B). Chhaua C). Savaj D). Moga
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which brick-made minaret holds the record for being the world's tallest tower at 73 metres?
Ans A). Minaret of Turin (Italy) B). Qutb Minar (India) C). Minaret of Jam (Afghanistan) D). Kalyan Minaret (Uzbekistan)
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Vinod Kevin Bachan has been selected for the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2021, for his contribution to which
Indian dance form?
Ans A). Chhau B). Odissi C). Kathak D). Sattriya
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a drawback of the barter system?

Ans A). Lack of a common unit of value B). Surplus goods are replaced with other goods C). Difficulty in contractual payments
D). Double coincidence of wants
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Chili peppers produce a burning sensation in any tissue with which they come into contact. What is the compound
responsible for this?
Ans A). Formic acid B). Acetic acid C). Lycopene D). Capsaicin
Correct Answer: D

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Q.10 Identify the tributary of the Brahmaputra River from the following.
Ans A). Burhi Dihing B). Barakar C). Kali Ganga D). Hindan
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 The First Battle of Panipat (1526) marked the beginning of:
Ans A). French East India Company's rule in India B). Mughal's Rule in India C). British East India company's rule in India
D). Sultanat's rule in India
Correct Answer: B

Q.12 Which among the following dynasties originated from the Yueh-chih tribe of China?
Ans A). Guptas B). Satavahanas C). Parthians D). Kushanas
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 How many fundamental duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976?
Ans A). Ten B). Eleven C). Fifty teen D). Thirteen
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Limestone is composed of:

Ans A). sodium carbonate B). calcium carbonate C). iron oxide D). aluminium oxide
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 The novel ‘Pinjar’ that was later converted into a motion picture was written by:
Ans A). Krishna Sobti B). Ismat Chugtai C). Amrita Pritam D). Dharamveer Bharati
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Who among the following social reformers ruled out the practice of Sati on the basis of Hindu religious texts?
Ans A). Jyotiba Phule B). Raja Ram Mohan Roy C). Swami Vivekanand D). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 How many covalent bonds are present between the constituent atoms in the molecules of Butane and Hexane, respectively?
Ans A). 13 and 19 B). 11 and 19 C). 14 and 20 D). 10 and 16
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Which edition of 'Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana' has been announced in union budget 2023?
Ans A). 4.0 B). 2.0 C). 5.0 D). 3.0
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 What is the term for the gradual, sequential changes in species composition in an ecosystem over time?
Ans A). Adaptation B). Extinction C). Succession D). Evolution
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Which of the following classical dance styles manifests the element of sky?

r
Ans A). Manipuri B). Kathakali C). Kathak D). Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: B

Si
Q.21 Which of the following amendments, made in September 2023, is known as 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam'?
Ans A). 104th

Q.22
B). 128th C). 106th

Which state hosted the 6th edition of Khelo India Youth Games in 2024?
ap
D). 105th Correct Answer: B
at
Ans A). Telangana B). Tamil Nadu C). Kerala D). Karnataka
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.23 The Hugli industrial region is located in which state?

Ans A). Telangana B). Karnataka C). Gujarat D). West Bengal
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.24 As per Census 2011, what is the average female literacy rate in India?
Ans A). 74.34% B). 60.76% C). 82.45% D). 65.46%
Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.25 Which Article of the Constitution of India describes a key feature of ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ that grants the right to vote
to citizens, above the age of 18 years in India?
G

Ans A). Article 367 B). Article 352 C). Article 315 D). Article 326
Correct Answer: D
y

Section : English Language and Comprehension

I thought of this idea / just when you called / me yesterday.

Ans A). just when you called B). I thought of this idea C). No error D). me yesterday
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Fish live in aquariums and pigs live in _________.
M

Ans A). stables B). dens C). sties D). kennels

Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Mountaineering requires a combination of physical strength,endurance, technical skill and mental fortitude.
Ans A). excitement B). persistence C). enthusiasm D). timidity
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The man had committed a grave offence so he was granted bail.

Ans A). trivial B). dignified C). serious D). solemn
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank to complete the idiom and make the sentence meaningful.
Her company's new product launch was a real ___________________ squib.
Ans A). dirty B). deaf C). dear D). damp
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Radha stepped backward to avoid the incoming traffic.

Ans A). Forward B). Affront C). Beside D). Behind
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). B). C). D).
Correct Answer: D
Strengthen Cleansing Comparison Naviggetion

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Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Scatter B). Resort C). Riside D). Scarf

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please pass _________ the salt.

Ans A). my B). mine C). I D). me
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The given sentence is divided into three segments. One of them may contain a grammatical error. Select the option that has
the segment with the error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.
Meenu looks/ much better/ today.
Ans A). No error B). much better C). Meenu looks D). today.
Correct Answer: A

My cousin thinks that / English is difficult / than other subjects.

Ans A). than other subjects B). No error C). My cousin thinks that D). English is difficult
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

It was an insight / and determination of the lady doctor / that people were / able to lead a normal life.
Ans A). that people were B). able to lead a normal life C). It was an insight D). and determination of the lady doctor
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Pull someone’s leg

Ans A). To avert a great danger B). To physically pull the legs of a person C). To take a situation seriously or earnestly
D). To tease or play a joke on someone
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Ramesh is fond at playing guitar in his free time.
Ans A). for B). on C). of D). in
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

r
I did not _______ that he would ______ the offer.

Si
Ans A). except; accept B). bate; bait C). bait; bate D). expect; accept
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.

ap
at
Thank you for this jar of asorted cookies.
Ans A). esorted B). essorted C). asoted D). assorted
Pr

Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future continuous tense form
I shall come again in the afternoon for lunch.
an

Ans A). I will be coming again in the afternoon for lunch. B). I shall have come again in the afternoon for lunch
C). I shall be coming again in the afternoon for lunch. D). I will come again in the afternoon for lunch.
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A majority of Indians prefer to use the Internet for ______________ booking and other financial services.
G

Ans A). attending B). accessing C). improving D). dispersing

Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Only when the floods get _________ will world governments begin to act.
B

Ans A). lucky B). worse C). frequently D). gullible

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Attract
at

Ans A). React B). Rear C). Recur D). Repel

Correct Answer: D
M

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
To forgive an injury is often (1)_______ to be a sign of weakness; it is really a sign of (2)___ . It is easy to allow oneself to be carried
away by resentment and hate into an act of (3)______; but it takes a strong character to restrain those natural passions. The man who
(4)______ an injury proves himself to be the superior of the man who wronged him, and puts the wrong-doer to shame. (5)___ may
even turn a foe into a friend.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). considered B). given C). allowed D). granted
Correct Answer: A

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). usefulness B). intelligence C). strength D). aptitude
Correct Answer: C

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SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). jurisprudence B). overabundance C). noncompliance D). vengeance
Correct Answer: D

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). forgives B). achieves C). involves D). contrives
Correct Answer: A

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). Fondness B). Coyness C). Boldness D). Forgiveness
Correct Answer: D

r
Si
ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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