Question Bank

HRM KMBN 202

1. ….........is the process of forecasting an organization's future demand for, and supply of, the right type of
people in the right number.

A. Recruitment

B. Human resource Management

C. Human resource planning ( Ans)

D. Human capital management

2. Which of the following options is not the factor that hinders with the human resource planning process?

A. Type and quality of forecasting information

B. Time horizon

C. Environmental uncertainties

D. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers (Ans)

3. What is the major issue faced by personnel planning?

A. Type of information which should be used in making forecasting (Ans)

B. Type of people to be hired

C. Multiple position to be filled

D. All of the above

4. …..........is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet the future needs of
the organization.

A. Demand forecasting (Ans)

B. Supply forecasting

C. Environmental forecasting

D. None of the above

5. Which of the below given options are the forecasting techniques?

1. Ratio trend analysis

2. Delphi techniques

3. Staffing projection

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2 (Ans)

D. 1,2 and 3

6. Which of the following factors state the importance of human resource planning?
A. Creating highly talented personnel
B. International strategies
C. Resistance to change and move
D. All of the above (Ans)

7. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with the potential to fill key business
leadership positions in the company is called ______.
a. Highly talented personnel creation
b. Investing in human resources
c. Succession planning (Ans)
d. None of the above

8. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?

a. Semi - Markov Model
b. Resource based Model
c. Markov Model (Ans)
d. Vacancy Model

9. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can be used.

a. Succession planning (Ans)

b. Retirement
c. Designing jobs
d. Inducting new hires
10. What techniques are used while analysing the internal supply?

a. Inflows and outflows

b. Turnover rate
c. Conditions of work and absenteeism
d. All of the above (Ans)

11. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?

a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme (Ans)

12. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?

a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme (Ans)
13. Which of the following is a barrier while doing human resource planning?

a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in strategy formulation (Ans)
b. Implementing human resource information system
c. Managing inventories
d. Supply forecast
14. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.

a. Training (Ans)
b. Recruitment
c. Work quality
d. None of the above

15. Which of these is the most important external factor governing recruitments?

a. Sons of soil
b. Labour market
c. Unemployment rate
d. Supply and demand (Ans)

16. A major internal factor that can determine the success of the recruiting programme is whether or not the
company engages in ______.

a. HRP (Ans)
b. Selection
c. Induction
d. None of the above

17. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified
job applicants.

a. Selection
b. Training
c. Recruitments (Ans)
d. Induction
18. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.

I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development
a. III, II, I, V, IV
b. III, V, I, IV, II (Ans)
c. IV, V, III, I, II
d. II, I, IV, V, III

19. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

a. Direct
b. Indirect (Ans)
c. On payroll
d. None of the above

20. Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?

a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk – ins (Ans)

b. Campus placements
c. Employment exchanges
d. Consultants
21. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them away is
popularly called as __________.

a. Competition
b. Acquisition
c. Poaching (Ans)
d. None of the above

22. ______ is the process of differentiating between applicants in order to identify and hire those with a greater
likelihood of success in
a job.

a. False negative error

b. Training
c. Selection (Ans)
d. None of the above
23. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as many unqualified applications as
possible in order to identify the right candidates.

a. Both negative and positive

b. Positive
c. Negative (Ans)
d. None of the above

24. Selection is now ____ and is handled by the human resource department.

a. Unplanned
b. Outsourced
c. Centralised (Ans)
d. None of the above
25. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined benchmarks.

a. Performance Appraisal (Ans)

b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
d. None of the above
26. What is linked with performance appraisal?

a. Job Design
b. Development
c. Job analysis (Ans)
d. None of the above

27. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?

a. Quality and quantity of output

b. Job knowledge
c. Employee assessment (Ans)
d. None of the above

28. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive advantage?

a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above (Ans)

29. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?

a. Quality
b. What methods of appraisal are to be used (Ans)
c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
30. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called ____.

a. 360 degree feedback (Ans)

b. 180 degree feedback
c. Self - appraisal
d. None of the above

31. Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?

a. Wipro in 1990
b. Godrej Soaps in 1991
c. General Electric, US in 1992 (Ans)
d. None of the above
32. Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

a. Rating Scales (Ans)

b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS

33. Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?

a. Fringe Benefits (Ans)

b. Commitment
c. External equity
d. Motivation
34. What is the alternate name for incentives?

a. Gratuity
b. Paid holidays
c. Payments by result (Ans)
d. None of the above

35. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions -

I. Fringe Benefits ------- A. Stock option

II. Job Context ---------- B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites --------- C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ----------- D. Medical Care

a. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C (Ans)

b. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
c. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
d. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
36. Which of these is a theory of remuneration?

A. Reinforcement
B. Labour Market
C. Agency

a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C (Ans)
d. A, B & C
37. _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials

a. External equity
b. Individual equity
c. Internal equity (Ans)
d. All of the above
38. Who are the two main stakeholders in an organisation?

a. CEO and top management

b. Employers and employees (Ans)
c. Executives and owners
d. None of the above

39. Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction?

a. Strikes
b. Grievances
c. Turnover
d. Job dissatisfaction (Ans)

40. Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?

a. Business strategy (Ans)

b. Cost of living
c. Legislations
d. Society
41. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

a. Employee participation
b. Pay secrecy
c. Comparable worth
d. All of the above (Ans)

42. Which of the wage concept is higher than fair wage?

a. Minimum wage
b. Living wage (Ans)
c. Team based pay
d. None of the above
43. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal?

a. Minimise inventory costs

b. Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones

c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour (Ans)

d. None of the above

44. Which performance appraisal methods consumes a lot of time?
a. Essay method (Ans)
b. Rating Scales
c. Critical incident
d. Tests And Observation
45. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or supervisory positions?

a. Psychological Appraisals
b. Assessment Centres (Ans)
c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
d. 360 degree feedback
46. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?

a. Performance interview
b. Archiving performance data
c. Use of appraisal data
d. All of the above (Ans)

47. What is the main objective of job evaluation?

a. Job is rated before the employee is appointed to occupy

b. It is not compulsory
c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials (Ans)
d. None of the above
48. Which of these options is one of the non - analytical methods of job evaluation?

a. Job - grading method (Ans)

b. Point ranking method
c. Factor comparison method
d. None of the above
49. Which of these is an alternate to job evaluation?

a. Wage survey
b. Employee classification
c. Decision Bank Method (Ans)
d. None of the above

50. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.

a. Training
b. Development (Ans)
c. Education
d. All of the above
51. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?

a. Removing performance decencies (Ans)

b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
d. None of the above
52. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?

a. Improves morale

b. Helps people identify with organisational goals (Ans)

c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination

d. None of the above

53. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?

a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication

b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer (Ans)
d. None of the above

54.Which of this is a step in training process?

a. KSA deficiency
b. Provide proper feedback
c. Obstacles in the system
d. Use of evaluation models (Ans)

55. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs assessment?

a. Consideration of current and projected changes (Ans)

b. Rating scales
c. Interviews
d. Questionnaires

56. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends that are likely to affect these goals.

a. Organisational Support
b. Organisational analysis (Ans)
c. Person analysis
d. Key skill abilities analysis

57. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?

a. Assessment makes training department more accountable (Ans)

b. Higher training costs
c. Loss of business
d. Increased overtime working
58. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?

a. Television (Ans)
b. Job rotation
c. Orientation training
d. Coaching
59. _______ are variable rewards granted to employees according to variations in their performance.

a. Remuneration
b. Perks
c. Fringe Benefits
d. Incentives (Ans)
60. Which of the below given options is a pre - requisite for an effective incentive system?

a. Increased need for planning

b. Co-operation of workers
c. Management's commitment to the cost and time necessary to administer incentive schemes
d. All of the above (Ans)

61. In ________, bonus paid to a worker is equal to 50% of time saved multiplied by rate per hour.

a. Rowan Plan
b. Barth Scheme
c. Bedaux Plan
d. Hasley Plan (Ans)
62. What is the percentage of bonus received by a worker against the number of points earned?

a. 50%
b. 75% (Ans)
c. 25%
d. None of the above
63. In Taylor's differential piece rate system an inefficient worker is paid only ___ of the piece rate.

a. 120%
b. 75%
c. 80% (Ans)
d. None of the above

64. __________ is the process of collecting job related information.

a. Job analysis (Ans)

b. Job design
c. Methods of collecting job data
d. None of the above
65. Which of the following details is mentioned in job specification?

a. Materials and forms used

b. Location
c. Hazards
d. Physical skills (Ans)

66. Which of the following is a benefit of job analysis?

a. Laying the foundation for performance appraisal

b. Laying the foundation for safety and health
c. Laying the foundation for employee hiring
d. All of the above (Ans)

67. Arrange the following steps in the job analysis process in a chronological order.

A. Gather information
B. Job specification
C. Strategic choices
D. Process information
E. Job description

a. ABCDE
b. CADEB (Ans)
c. CBADE
d. EDCBA

68. Match the following categories of work with the type of information mentioned in job analysis.

1. Job context ---------- A. Physical characteristics

2. Work activities ------- B. List of machines and tools used

3. Machines, tools and equipments used ----- C. Behaviours required on the jobs

4. Personal requirements --------- D. Social Context

a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A (Ans)
b. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
c. 1-A,2-D,3-C,4-B
d. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A

69. Which are the factors by which the process of job design can be affected?

a. Organisational
b. Environmental
c. Behavioural
d. All of the above (Ans)

70. Which of the following is an organisational factor affecting the process of job design?

a. Social and cultural expectations

b. Ergonomics
c. Feedback
d. None of the above (Ans)

71. Which of these activities are not included in the scope of human resource management?

a. Job analysis and design

b. Motivation and communication
c. Safety and health
d. Organizational structure and design (Ans)

72. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____

a. Definitions and functions

b. Scope and orientation (Ans)
c. Functions and objectives
d. None of the above
73. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____

a. Definitions and functions

b. Scope and orientation (Ans)
c. Functions and objectives
d. None of the above

74. Which of the following is not an objective of the Human Resource Management Function?

a. Societal objectives
b. Political objectives (Ans)
c. Personal Objectives
d. Organisational Objectives
75. __________ is the process by which employers transfer routine or peripheral work to another organisation
that specialises in that work and can perform it more efficiently.

a. Farming out
b. Production Management
c. Compensation
d. Outsourcing (Ans)

76. Which of these is a HR Model?

a. The Guest Model (Ans)

b. Open - System Theory
c. Mc Gregor's theory X and theory Y
d. None of the above
77. In which year did the term HRM emerge?
a. 1970 (Ans)
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1999
78. What is the role of a Human Capital Manager?
A. Unlearn old skills and acquire new skills
B. He or she seeks to fine-tune HR policies and practices to fir the culture
C. It is the responsibility of a centralised or a decentralised department.
a. Both A & C
b. A, B and C
c. Both A & B (Ans)
d. B & C

79. Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a __________
a) Safe workplace (Ans)
b) Land
c) Insurance
d) Estimation

80. Which of the following is evolved in staffing?

1. Termination
2. Estimation of workload
3. Personnel appointments and placements
4. All of the above (Ans)
81. What is defined as a record of outcomes resulting from a particular job or an activity at a specific time?
1. Evaluation
2. Work function
3. Performance (Ans)
4. None of the above
82. A/An __________ is a plan or a program scheme that helps to motivate an individual or a group to deliver
outstanding performance.
1. Promotion Scheme
2. Incentive Scheme (Ans)
3. Reward
4. None of the above
83. A/An __________ is considered to be a vertical move in terms of rank and responsibilities.
1. Appraisal
2. Reward
 3. Increment
4. Promotion (Ans)
84. Which of the following provides necessary information for job evaluation?
1. Job Enrichment
2. Job Description (Ans)
3. Job Ranking
4. Job Enlargement
85. What do you understand by the written record of duties, responsibilities, and conditions of a job?
1. Job enrichment
2. Job ranking
3. Job enlargement
4. Job description (Ans)
86. What is meant by the factual statement of the duties and responsibilities?
1. Job analysis
2. Job specification
3. Job evaluation
4. Job description (Ans)
87. Which of the following are one of kind of skills inventory, regression, replacement charts, Markov analysis?
1. Training plan
2. Retention plan
3. Redundancy plan
4. Forecasting methods (Ans)
88. Which of the following statements about the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 is incorrect?

a) Employers are under a duty to act reasonably when managing health and safety matters.
b) Employers are under an obligation to carry out formal risk assessments.
c) Employers should not take account of the costs of reducing risks when health and safety risks are identified.
(Ans)
d) Employers must maintain written policy statements on health and safety matters.

89. Which of the following statements about union-appointed health and safety representatives is not
accurate?

a) Managers can play a role in selecting the reps. (Ans)

b) Reps have the right to carry out inspections of machinery.
c) Reps must be provided with facilities to carry out their job.
d) Reps have the right to paid time off to attend training events.

90. Which of the following is not a requirement of the COSHH regulations?

a) To carry out risk assessments.

b) To control access to hazardous substances.
c) To carry out health surveillance.
d) To send managers on an HSE approved training programme. (Ans)

91. What are the two types of notice that health and safety inspectors can issue when they are unhappy with
what they find at an employers' premises?

a) Prohibition notices and violation notices.

b) Prohibition notices and improvement notices. (Ans)
c) Improvement notices and investigation notices.
d) Improvement notices and violation notices.

92.What type of personal injury claim is most common in the UK?

a) Breach of contract
b) Negligence (Ans)
c) Breach of statutory duty
d) Harassment

93. What term is used to describe the doctrine where by an employer is held legally responsible for injuries
sustained at work even if wholly blameless?

a) Reasonable foreseeability
b) Voluntary assumption of risk
c) Vicarious liability (Ans)
d) Differential risk

94. Under which type of claim is it necessary to show that an employee has suffered 'oppressive and
unacceptable' treatment 'of an order which would sustain criminal liability'?

a) Protection from Harassment Act (Ans)

b) Negligence leading to stress
c) Constructive dismissal
d) Breach of statutory duty

95. On average what proportion of damages won in personal injury claims is spent on legal fees?

a) 55%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 80% (Ans)

96. Which of the following does not appear in the Working Time Regulations 1998?

a) 11 hours rest in 24 hours

b) 1 hour for lunch (Ans)
c) 24 hours rest in every 7 days
d) 20 minutes rest in every period of 6 hours' work
97. The Working Time Regulations 1998 do not apply to:

a) Self employed (Ans)

b) Workers
c) Employees
d) Agency workers

98. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) Those who decide their own working patterns are exempt from the Working Time Regulations.
b) On-call time spent sleeping at the place of work counts as working time.
c) Time spent travelling to work counts as working time.
d) Time spent on rest breaks counts as working time. (Ans)

99. Which of the following statements about annual leave entitlements is incorrect? :

a) is not obligatory to take.

b) consists of 28 days plus bank holidays. (Ans)
c) is added on to the end of maternity leave.
d) the worker cannot be given payment in lieu.
100. How HRM has become a highly specialised job?

(a) It is concerned with obtaining and maintaining a satisfied work force.

(b) It maximises the output and satisfaction of the employees. (Ans)

(c) Promote group satisfaction and individual development.

(d) Optimum utilisation of man-power by motivation and improving the efficiency.

101. What should be the strategy of HRM?

(a) Making the long-term and short-term planning.

(b) Planning the optimum level of manpower.

(c) Introducing training programmes to personnel.

(d) All the above. (Ans)

102. The factual statement of the duties and responsibilities of a specific job is known as _____________.

(a) job description (Ans)

(b) job specification

(c) job analysis

(d) job evaluation

103. Who has said that HRM is not a one shot deal?

(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor

(c) Terry (Ans)

(d) McFarland

104. Skills inventory, replacement charts, Markov analysis, regression analysis all are types of ____________.

(a) redundancy plan

(b) training plan

(c) retention plan

(d) forecasting methods (Ans)

105. Trade unions and employee association, Industrial relation, employee participation and empowerment
are procurement functions of a manager which comes under________.

(a) integration function (Ans)

(b) procurement function

(c) development function

(d) behavioural function

106. “Human resource management” involves the elements of

(a) planning, organising, and controlling

(b) planning, organising and coordinating

(c) leading, directing and coordinating

(d) all of the above (Ans)

107. Which pair in order of sequences represents the first and last steps in a T&D programme?

(a) determination of T&D needs, and evaluation of T&D programme (Ans)

(b) determination of T&D needs, and designing the T&D programme

(c) designing T&D programme, and implementing it

(d) evaluating of T&D programme, and implementing it

108. Career development involves

(a) conscious determination of career aspirations and potentialities of employees and matching them with the
organisation’s needs (Ans)

(b) providing counselling to students to choose their careers

(c) providing information to students about opportunities of employment

(d) determining the potentialities of students for a suitable career

109. When an employee expresses organisationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions, then
it is known as_______________ .

(a) emotional labour (Ans)

(b) displayed emotions

(c) felt emotions

(d) moods

110. Grievance redressal, discipline, collective bargaining are_______________ of HRM.

(a) integration function

(b) procurement function

(c) development function

(d) behavioural function (Ans)

111. Who is generally known as “the father of modern management theory”?

(a) Henry Fayol (Ans)

(b) Frederick W. Taylor

(c) Frank Gilbreth

(d) Chester Bernard

112. T&D programme in international HRM should give due attention to

(a) promotion of efficiency of personnel in the host country

(b) understanding of the cultural environment of the host country

(c) improvement of technical expertise

(d) all of the above (Ans)

113. International staffing does not give much emphasis on the consideration of

(a) cultural adaptability

(b) global experience

(c) family flexibility

(d) political consciousness (Ans)

114. The objectives of workers’ participation in management do not ordinarily include

(a) promotion of collective bargaining (Ans)

(b) promotion of industrial harmony

(c) promotion of industrial democracy

(d) promotion of productivity

115. The advantages of staffing from amongst the host country nationals generally do not include

(a) reduction of language barriers

(b) reduction of living cost

(c) greater control over the activities of the organisation (Ans)

(d) better understanding of host country’s laws and regulations

116. The primary goal of HRD is –

a. To increase productivity of workers / and organisational profitability

b. Improve workers’ skill and enhance motivation, to prevent obsolesces at all levels

c. prevent obsolescence and increase organisational profitability only

d. Both (a) + (b) (Ans)

117. Key Performance Areas means –

a. Areas which are within the responsibility of the role (Ans)

b. Areas which the management has demarcated to be performed by employee

c. Areas for strengthening of skills and attitudes

d. All above

118. Career path planning is affected by –

a. Employee preference

b. Employee requirements

c. Employee preference/employees requirement and structure of the organisation (Ans)

d. Both (a) + (b)

119. Training method commonly used, for employee in banks is –

a. On the job training

b. Classroom Training (Ans)

c. Off the job training

d. Vestibule Training

120. Training evaluation is measured by –

a. Goal based / Goal free / Responsive

b. Systems / professional review / quasi-legal

c. Goal based / systems / responsive

d. Both (a) + (b) (Ans)

121. The term industrial relations means –

a. Relationship between Management and Labour

b. Relationship between organisation and employees

c. Relationship that grows out of employment

d. All above (Ans)

122. Functions of the personnel management can be described as –

a. Managerial

b. Operative

c. Developmental

d. Both (a) + (b) (Ans)

e. All above

123. Job Rotation can be defined as –

(a) Lateral transfer of employees among a number of different positions and tasks within jobs which requires
different skills and responsibilities

(b) It helps to understand the different steps into creating a product or delivery

(c) It permits individuals to gain experience in various phases of the business

(d) All of the above (Ans)

124. In an organisation initiating career planning, the career path model would essentially form the basis
for
1. Placement
2. Transfer
3. Rotation
4. All of the above (Ans)

125. Performance development plan is set for the employee by his immediate boss.
1. Employer

2. Department Head
3. Immediate boss (Ans)
4. Any of the above
126. The ________ programme once installed must be continued on a permanent basis.
1. Job evaluation (Ans)
2. Training & Development
3. Recruitment
4. All of the above
Que:1 Human resource management emphasis-
a. Development of people
b. Punishment of people
c. Adoption of people
d. None of these
Ans: a
Que:2 Human resource management is amalgam of-
a. Job analysis, recruitment and selection
b. Social behaviour and business ethics
c. Organisational behaviour, , personal management and industrial relation
d. Employer and employees
Ans: c
Que:3 Planning, organizing and controlling of procurement, development, compensation, integration
of human resources to the end that objectives of individual, organisation and society are achieved
given by-
a. Storey
b. Flippo
c. Vetter
d. F.W. Taylor
Ans: b
Que:4 Operative functions of HRM includes-
a. Procurement, development, compensation & motivation
b. Maintenance
c. Integration and emerging trends
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que:5 Basic managerial functions of HRM are-
a. Planning, organising, staffing
b. Planning, organising and co-ordinating
c. Planning, organising, directing and controlling
d. None of these
Ans: c
Que: 6 Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a. HRM is a strategic management functions
b. Under HRM employee is treated as resource
c. HRM is the management of skills, talent and abilities
d. HRM lacks the organisation to achieve its goals
Ans: b
Que:7 Following are the characteristics of HRM except-
a. Pervasive function
b. Interdisciplinary function
c. Integrating mechanism
d. Job oriented
Ans : d
Que: 8 Challenges faced by Human resource management includes-
a. Technological changes, workforce diversity, globalisation
b. Productivity, career planning
c. Compensation management
d. Downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme
Ans: a
Que: 9 The process of familiarizing the new employees to the organization rules and regulations is
known as-
a. Placement
b. Induction
c. Recruitment
d. Selection
Ans: b
Que: 10 Human resource management means-
a. A method which an organisation collects, maintains and reports information on people and jobs
b.The process of integrating the employees’ needs and aspirations with
organizational needs
c. The process of bringing people and organisation together so that the goals
of each are achieved
d.The efforts to make life worth living for workers
Ans: c
Que: 1 Training process is-
a. Short term
b. Medium term
c. Long term
d. None of these
Ans: a
Que: 2 OJT stands for-
a. On the job training
b. On the job technique
c. On the job technology
d. Off the job training
Ans: a
Que:3 On the job training includes-
a. Coaching
b. Conference
c. Understudy
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que: 4 In ------training, a training centre is set-up and actual job conditions are duplicated or
simulated in it-
a. Classroom
b. Apprenticeship
c. Internship
d. Vestibule
Ans: d
Que:5 -----is the process of imparting or increasing knowledge or skill of an employee to do a
particular job.
a. Training
b. Development
c. Motivation
d. Leadership
Que: 6 Methods of training and development are-
a. Off the job
b. On the job
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Ans: c
Que:7 ----is a device or situation that replicates job demands at on the job site.
a. Brainstorming
b. Simulation
c. Artificial intelligence
d. Transactional analysis
Ans: b
Que: 8 Management development –
a. Is a short term in nature
b. Focuses on employees’ current job
c. Is an informal activity
d. Aims at overall development of a manager
Ans: d
Que:9 Off the job training method includes:
a. Vestibule training
b. Syndicate
c. Sensitivity training
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que: 10 Simulation technique of off the job method includes:
a. Role playing
b. In-basket exercise
c. Case study
d. Management game
e. All of these
Ans: e
Que:1 Relative worth of a job is known by-
a. Job design
b. Job analysis
c. Job evaluation
d. Job change
Ans: c
Que:2 Methods of job evaluation are-
a. Qualitative method
b. Quantitative method
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Ans: c
Que: 3 Quantitative job evaluation method are-
a. Ranking method
b. Point rating method
c. Factor comparison method
d. Both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
Que: 4 Qualitative job evaluation method are-
a. Ranking
b. Grading
c. Point Rating
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (d)
Que: 5 Process of studying and collecting information about a job is known as-
a. HRP
b. Job design
c. Job analysis
d. Job evaluation
Ans: (c)
Que: 6 Jobs analysis results in-
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job evaluation
d. All of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Que: 7 Job description is a statement containing items like-
a. Job title, location and duties
b. Machines, tools and equipment
c. Materials, working conditions and hazards.
d. All of these.
Ans: (d)
Que: 8 ..............is a factual statement of tasks & duties involved in a job.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job Analysis
d. Job evaluation
Ans: (a)
Que: 9 Job Specification is a statement of-
a. Min qualification required for o job
b. Technical job requirement
c. Machines to be used
d. None of these
Ans. (a)
Que:10 Job analysis is helpful in-
a. HRP, recruitment and selection
b. Training and development
c. Job evaluation and performance appraisal
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que: 11 ------ arranges the job in numerical order from highest rank to lowest rank on the basis of
duties and responsibilities.
a. Ranking method
b. Grading method
c. Point rating method
d. Factor comparison method
Ans: a
Que: 12 ----- a predetermined groups or classes are established and jobs are assigned to each
classification:
a. Ranking method
b. Grading method
c. Point rating method
d. Factor comparison method
Ans: b
Que: 13 ----- the more compensable factor a job possess the more points are assigned to it:
a. Ranking method
b. Grading method
c. Point rating method
d. Factor comparison
Ans: c
Que:14 ------ few key jobs are selected and compared in terms of common factors:
a. Factor comparison method
b. Ranking method
c. Grading method
d. Point rating method
Ans: a
Que: 15 ------- is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an employee excellence in matters
pertaining to his present job and his potential for a better job.
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation and motivation
c. Training and Development
d. Performance indicator
Ans: a
Que: 16 Traditional method of performance appraisal includes -
a. Confidential reports
b. Paired comparison method
c. Free form or easy method
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que: 17 Modern method of performance appraisal are:
a. Assessment centre method
b. Management by objectives
c. BARS ( Behaviourally anchored rating scale)
d. All of these
Ans: d
Que: 18 -------is a performance appraisal technique in which appraisers rate critical employee
behaviour.
a. MBO
b. BARS
c. BOS
d. BOSS
Ans: b
Que: 19 ------ is a performance appraisal technique that involves agreement between employee and
manager on goals to be achieved in a given period.
a. Rating scales
b. BARS
c. BOS
d. MBO
Ans: d
Que: 20 The combination of peer,superior, subordinate and self-review appraisal is known as-
a. 360° appraisal
b. Human resource accounting system
c. All round review
d. Feed forward
Ans: a