DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
Roll No.: Maximum Marks: 180
Maximum Time: 120 minutes
CLASS
12
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
General Instructions for Candidates
1. Read all instructions carefully. This Question Paper comprises of two sections:
Section I: Multiple Intelligence Test (40 questions) [20 minutes]
Section II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (60 questions) [90 minutes]
2. Write Your Roll Number on the box provided above and in OMR Sheet.
3. 10 Min will be provided to fill the OMR Sheet before the start of Exam.
4. Students must fill all the personal details carefully in the OMR Sheet
5. Read all the instruction on OMR sheet as well before start of exam.
Instructions for Section I
1. Students will be allocated maximum of 20 min to complete this section.
2. Questions in Section I do not carry any marks.
3. Answering all questions in Section I is compulsory.
4. You need to answer all the question in this section, truthfully based on
your preference. fake responses will lead to misinterpretation of your
intelligence type.
5. Multiple Intelligence Report shall be provided on the basis of Section I.
Instructions for Section II
1. Students will be allocated maximum of 90 min to complete this section.
2. Question in Section II carry 3 Marks Each.
3. Answering all questions is not compulsory in Section II.
4. For each correct answer student will be awarded 3 marks and for each
incorrect answers, 1 mark would be deducted.
5. For unanswered questions, no mark would be awarded or deducted.
6. Rank will be provided on the basis of Section II.
7. Use of calculator, mobile phones or log tables is not permitted.
8. There is only ONE correct answer. Choose only ONE option for an answer.
9. Fill the required details clearly on Answer (OMR) Sheet & do not overwrite.
10. Rough work should be done in the blank space provided on the last page.
11. Return both Answer & Question sheet to the invigilator at the end of the exam.
12. Any use of unfair means in the test will result in termination of the candidate.
Instructions for filling OMR Sheet
1. Fill the OMR sheet using HB Pencil only.
2. To mark your choice of answers, Darken the circles completely in the
Answer (OMR) Sheet corresponding to the question you are answering.
3. Darken only one circle, and keep rest of the sheet clean.
4. In case if wrong circle is darkened, completely erase the markings.
5. Ensure all personal details are filled in OMR Sheet before starting the
exam.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
1
SECTIONI Que. 40
MULTIPLE INTELLIGENCE TEST
SECTIONII Que. 60
APTITUDE TEST
LOGICAL REASONING HISTORY
POLITICAL SCIENCE GEOGRAPHY
MULTIPLE INTELLIGENCE TEST
Section I: Multiple Intelligence Test 21. To learn something new, I need to just get on and
Directions : (1 to 35) These are general statements. You try it.
have to mark options A, B, C or D in the OMR 22. I often see clear images when I close my eyes.
sheet as per your preference. 23. I don’t use my fingers when I count.
A = Mostly Disagree 24. At school I loved / love music lessons.
B = Slightly Disagree 25. I find ball games easy and enjoyable.
C = Slightly Agree 26. My favourite subject at school is / was Maths.
D = Mostly Agree 27. I always know how I am feeling.
28. I keep a diary.
1. I can play a musical instrument. 29. My favourite subject at school was / is Art/ Draw
2. I often have a song or piece of music in my head. ing.
3. I find it easy to make up stories. 30. I find pleasure in reading.
4. I have always been very coordinated. 31. It upsets me to see someone cry and not be able
5. Music is very important to me. to help.
6. When I tell a lie it’s very convincing. 32. I prefer team sports.
7. I play a sport or dance. 33. Singing makes me feel happy.
8. I am a very social person and like being with 34. I am happy spending time alone.
other people. 35. My friends always come to me for emotional
9. I find graphs and charts easy to understand. support and advice.
10. I find it easy to remember quotes or phrases.
11. I can always recognize places that I have been Directions : (36 to 40) These are general statements.
before, even when I was very young. You have to mark options A, B, C or D in the
12. When I am concentrating I tend to draw pictures. OMR sheet as per your preference.
13. I find mental arithmetic easy. A = Very Frequently
14. At school one of my favourite subjects is / was B = Occasionally
English. C = Rarely
15. I like to think through a problem carefully, con D = Very Rarely
sidering all the consequences.
16. I love physical sports and scary rides. 36. I use computer.
17. I enjoy individual sports best. 37. I use internet for studies.
18. I find it easy to remember telephone numbers. 38. I play games on computer.
19. I set myself goals and plans for the future. 39. I watch movies on computer.
20. I can tell easily whether someone likes me or 40. I wish to use computers for overall knowledge
dislikes me. enhancement.
2
SECTIONII : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE
QUESTIONS 1 TO 15: LOGICAL REASONING
1. If 'A' is coded as 1, 'B' as 2, and so on, what will be 7. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is
the code for the word "CAT"? the daughterinlaw of my mother.” How is the woman
(A) 3, 1, 20 related to the man?
(B) 3, 2, 20 (A) Aunt
(C) 3, 1, 19 (B) Sister
(D) 3, 2, 19 (C) Mother
(D) Daughter
2. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20,
30, ? 8. In a certain code language, 'ADULT' is written as
(A) 40 'TLUDA'. How will 'BRAIN' be written?
(B) 42 (A) NIBAR
(C) 44 (B) NARBI
(D) 48 (C) NIARB
(D) NIRAB
3. In a certain code language, ‘HOUR’ is written as
‘SULO’. How is ‘TIME’ written in that code? 9. A clock is showing 2:30. What is the angle
(A) RLZO between the hour and minute hands?
(B) QJLD (A) 90°
(C) UMJV (B) 105°
(D) THLO (C) 120°
(D) 135°
4. Arrange the following words in a logical
sequence: 10. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, what
1. Travel day will it be 3 days after tomorrow?
2. Hotel (A) Monday
3. Sightseeing (B) Tuesday
4. Arrival (C) Wednesday
5. Departure (D) Thursday
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
(B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 11. If ROPE is written as 6821, CHAIR as 73456,
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 then SHORE is written as:
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 (A) 72684
(B) 72685
5. If '3 + 2 = 7', '4 + 5 = 19', '5 + 6 = 31', then '7 + 8 (C) 75284
= ?' (D) 75484
(A) 55
(B) 56 12. In a family of six members P, Q, R, S, T, and U,
(C) 63 there are two married couples. T is a teacher and the
(D) 65 father of R. U is the grandfather of R and is married to
Q. S is the mother of P. How is P related to T?
6. Select the odd one out: (A) Son
(A) Potato (B) Daughter
(B) Carrot (C) Cousin
(C) Tomato (D) Granddaughter
(D) Beetroot
13. What comes next in the sequence: ABCD, BCDE,
CDEF, DEFG, ____?
3
(A) ABCD 15. A is older than B. C is younger than A but older
(B) DEFA than B. D is younger than A and C but older than B.
(C) EFGH Who is the youngest?
(D) FGHI (A) A
(B) B
14. In a sequence of numbers: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, what (C) C
is the next number? (D) D
(A) 38
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 41
QUESTIONS 16 TO 30: HISTORY
16. Who was the founder of the Maurya Dynasty? (B) C. Rajagopalachari
(A) Ashoka (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Chandragupta Maurya (D) Sardar Patel
(C) Bindusara
(D) Bimbisara 22. The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched
in which year?
17. The term "Indigo Rebellion" is associated with (A) 1920
which region? (B) 1928
(A) Bengal (C) 1930
(B) Punjab (D) 1932
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan 23. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by which
British official?
18. The First War of Independence in India took (A) Lord Dalhousie
place in which year? (B) Lord Wellesley
(A) 1847 (B) 1857 (C) Lord Canning
(C) 1867 (D) 1877 (D) Lord Curzon
19. Who was the author of the book "The Discovery 24. The Partition of Bengal was annulled in which
of India"? year?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (A) 1905
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) 1911
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose (C) 1919
(D) Rabindranath Tagore (D) 1927
20. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on 25. The Harappan Civilization is also known as
which date? which of the following?
(A) 13th March 1919 (A) Vedic Civilization
(B) 13th April 1919 (B) Indus Valley Civilization
(C) 13th May 1919 (C) Mesopotamian Civilization
(D) 13th June 1919 (D) Egyptian Civilization
26. The 'Divide and Rule' policy was initiated by
which British Viceroy?
(A) Lord Curzon
21. Who was the first GovernorGeneral of (B) Lord Minto
independent India? (C) Lord Dufferin
(A) Lord Mountbatten (D) Lord Wellesley 4
29. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed between
27. The NonCooperation Movement was called off which parties?
after which incident? (A) Marathas and British
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (B) French and British
(B) Chauri Chaura Incident (C) Nawab of Bengal and British
(C) Khilafat Movement (D) Mysore and British
(D) Simon Commission
28. Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha? 30. The Simon Commission arrived in India in which
(A) Mahatma Gandhi year?
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (A) 1927
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose (B) 1928
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) 1929
(D) 1930
QUESTIONS 31 TO 45: POLITICAL SCIENCE
(A) Right to Education
31. Which body is responsible for the conduct of (B) Right to Work
elections in India? (C) Promotion of International Peace
(A) Parliament (D) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Election Commission 37. The term "Panchayati Raj" refers to which level
(D) President of India of government?
(A) Central (B) State
32. Which of the following is a feature of a federal (C) Local (D) District
system?
(A) Single government 38. The United Nations was established in which
(B) Division of powers year?
(C) Unitary government (A) 1919 (B) 1945
(D) Presidential system (C) 1950 (D) 1965
33. The term "Cold War" refers to the tension 39. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
between which two superpowers? with the Fundamental Rights?
(A) USA and Germany (A) Article 19
(B) USA and USSR (B) Article 32
(C) USSR and China (C) Articles 12 to 35
(D) USA and Japan (D) Article 51
34. Which date was the Indian Constitution adopted? 40. Who among the following was the first woman
(A) 15th August 1947 Prime Minister of India?
(B) 26th January 1950 (A) Pratibha Patil
(C) 26th November 1949 (B) Indira Gandhi
(D) 2nd October 1947 (C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sonia Gandhi
35. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice President 41. Which of the following is an example of a
(D) Speaker pressure group?
(A) BJP
(B) INC
36. Which of the following is NOT a part of the (C) FICCI
Directive Principles of State Policy? (D) Lok Sabha 5
43. The NITI Aayog was established to replace which
42. The term "NonAligned Movement" was coined by institution?
which leader? (A) Planning Commission
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Finance Commission
(B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Election Commission
(C) Nelson Mandela (D) Law Commission
(D) Fidel Castro
44. Which of the following is a permanent body?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) State Assembly
(D) Municipal Corporation
45. The Right to Information Act was passed in which
year?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2005
(D) 2010
QUESTIONS 46 TO 60: GEOGRAPHY
46. Which of the following statements best 50. What does the term 'population composition'
describes the scope of Human Geography? refer to?
(A) It focuses on the study of the environment. (A) The total number of people in an area
(B) It studies the interrelationship between (B) The age, sex, and other characteristics of a
humans and their environment. population
(C) It is the study of natural landscapes. (C) The total land area available for human
(D) It only focuses on urban development. settlement
(D) The rate of population growth
47. Who is considered the father of Human
Geography? 51. Which one of the following represents a sex
(A) Immanuel Kant ratio?
(B) Carl Ritter (A) 1000:900
(C) Ptolemy (B) 1000:800
(D) Vidal de la Blache (C) 1000:700
(D) 1000:1100
48. Which of the following countries has the
highest population density? 52. Which of the following is an indicator of
(A) India human development?
(B) China (A) Life expectancy
(C) Bangladesh (B) Education levels
(D) Japan (C) Income levels
(D) All of the above
49. Which of the following factors influences the
distribution of the population? 53. Which of the following countries has the
(A) Climate highest Human Development Index (HDI)?
(B) Natural resources (A) Norway
(C) Economic opportunities (B) India
(D) All of the above (C) China
(D) Bangladesh
6
54. Which of the following is an example of a 58. Which of the following is an example of a
primary activity? tertiary activity?
(A) Mining (A) Fishing
(B) Banking (B) Teaching
(C) Manufacturing (C) Oil extraction
(D) IT services (D) Agriculture
55. Which type of farming is characterized by the 59. Which of the following is considered a
practice of shifting cultivation? quaternary activity?
(A) Intensive subsistence farming (A) Mining
(B) Extensive commercial farming (B) Software development
(C) Nomadic herding (C) Education
(D) Shifting cultivation (D) Retailing
56. Which of the following industries is an 60. Which of the following is NOT a major export
example of a secondary activity? commodity of India?
(A) Agriculture (A) Tea
(B) Fishing (B) Iron ore
(C) Manufacturing (C) Petroleum products
(D) Forestry (D) Wheat
57. Which of the following factors does NOT
influence the location of industries?
(A) Availability of raw materials
(B) Labor supply
(C) Cultural heritage
(D) Transport facilities
7
ROUGH WORK