Sample Question Paper

Class XII
044 Biology (2024-25)
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2
marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2
case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5
marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct.
Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.

Q. Question Mark
No s

1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from 1

A. Fully developed foetus only
B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
C. Placenta only
D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be 1

A. 2400
B. 2000
C. 1600
D. 1800

3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine 1

content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this
strand?
A. 23%
B. 32%
C. 36%
D. 73%
4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic 1
acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that
are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide
in the 5’-3’ direction.

A. GCAT
B. CGTA
C. TAGC
D. ATCG
-------------------
For Visual Impaired Students
E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication
in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately
A. 2000 bp/s
B. 4000 bp/s
C. 3000 bp/s
D. 1000 bp/s

5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. 1

In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning
globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is
having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering
from.

Suresh Rajesh

A Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal

Dominant blood disorder linked Recessive trait

B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Thalassemia - Autosomal

Autosomal linked Dominant Recessive blood disorder
trait

C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Thalassemia – Autosomal

Autosomal linked Recessive Recessive blood disorder
trait

D Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal

Dominant blood disorder linked Dominant trait
6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is 1

A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor.

B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator.
C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the
operator.
D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase.

7 Which of the following features shows the mechanism of sex 1

determination in honey-bee?

(i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops
as a female.
(ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female.
(iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes.
(iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)

8 The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be 1

transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand:
3´ ATTGCC 5´
5´ TAACGG 3´

After transcription the mRNA can be represented by:

A. 5´ AUUGCC 3´
B. 5´ AUUGCC 3’
C. 5´ UAACGG 3´
D. 5´ GGCAAU 3´

9 Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas? 1
A. CO
B. CO2
C. NO
D. NO2

10 Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following? 1

A. Increased competition among species
B. Decreased speciation rates
C. Limited morphological diversity among species
D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given
geographical area.
11 Eco R1 cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence 1
of GAATTC is present. The number of nucleotides present in the resultant
sticky ends that will be formed in each of the two strands of DNA after this
enzyme cuts the DNA will be:
Vector DNA Foreign DNA
A. 1&5 5 &1
B. 2&4 4 &2
C. 2&5 5&2
D. 3&4 4&3

12 During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change 1

in the effluent occur due to flocs?
A. Reduction in BOD
B. Increase in BOD
C. Decrease in DO
D. No change in DO or BOD

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13 Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus. 1

Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis.

14 Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes. 1

Reason (R): They act as proof readers and provide energy.

15 Assertion (A): A floating cover placed over the slurry in a biogas plant 1
keeps on rising.
Reason (R): This cover keeps on rising due to the gas produced in the
tank by the microbial activity.

16 Assertion (A): DNA fragments can be isolated by Gel electrophoresis on 1

the basis of their size.
Reason (R): The larger the fragment size, the faster it moves.

Section - B

17 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) A blood test reported negative for hCG.
What does negative hCG imply? Name the tissue which
produces hCG?
 (ii) If a blood test reported positive for hCG in a person, then which
other hormones would also be secreted by the tissue secreting
hCG?
OR
B.
(i) The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperm
during a coitus, however the ovum is fertilized by only one
sperm. How does the ovum block the entry of additional
sperms?
(ii) All copulations will not lead to fertilization. Why?

18 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A. The schematic representation given below shows a DNA strand and
two types of mutations in the DNA strand.

(i) Identify the type of mutation exhibited in I and II.

(ii) Which of the above mutation is more harmful? Give reason.

OR

B. Given below is a schematic representation of a mRNA strand

(i) In the above sequence identify the translational unit in mRNA.

(ii) Where are UTRs found and what is their significance?
19 Given below is the relationship between the HIV levels in the blood and 2
helper T cell count in a person detected with AIDS. Study the relationship
and answer the questions that follow.

A. What kind of relationship is observed in the virus levels and the

immune response after some days of the initial infection?
B. Does it completely clear the virus from the body permanently? Give
reason for your answer.
-------------------
For visually impaired students.
Write the sequence of events that occur when a retrovirus enters a human
being, causing reduction in helper T-cells.

20 A culture plate of Lactobacillus shows blue-coloured colonies and 2

colourless colonies. Explain the principle involved in the formation of such
variance in the colour of colonies.

21 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) It was estimated that if an evergreen forest has a GPP of 400
J/m2/day and 150 J/m2/day worth of carbon dioxide flows out of
that forest, what is the NPP in that forest?
(ii) Explain why pyramids of energy must always be upright.

OR
B.
(i) Assume that, GPP Forest A = GPP Forest B = GPP Forest C,
If Forest A has NPP = 1254 J/m2/day; Forest B, NPP =2157
J/m2/day; and Forest C, NPP = 779 J/m2/day, which one of
these forests has maximum energy loss by respiration? Give
reason.
(ii) Draw an ecological pyramid of number of the following food
chains
a. Grass — Animal —Fleas on the host animal
b. Tree — Insects — Woodpecker
 Section - C

22 The image below shows two germinated seeds X and Y which belong to 3
the same species. Seed X is produced by apomixis whereas seed Y is a
product of sexual reproduction.

A. Write the number of embryo(s), embryo sac(s) and ovules in the

ovary of seed X.
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed
X?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Each Mango fruit contains one seed. Two mango seeds, X and Y were
sown in the soil. From Seed X, 3 plant saplings germinated but from
seed Y only 1 plant sapling germinated.
A. For seed X which is apomictic, calculate the number of:
i) Embryo(s)
ii) Embryo sac(s)
iii) Ovules in this seed’s ovary
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed
X?

23 Name the place in human ovary where the first meiotic division is 3
completed during oogenesis. What are the products of this division? Give
the chromosome number of each type of cells involved in the process.
24 The schematic representation given below shows the concept of Central 3
Dogma.

A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of

nitrogenous bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in a retrovirus? Name the
process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of
DNA is copied into RNA.
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Central Dogma explains the process of DNA transcription and translation.
From DNA mRNA is transcribed and then mRNA is translated into a
polypeptide.
A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of
nitrogen bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in viruses? Name the process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of DNA
is copied into RNA.

25 Describe the steps involved in Southern blot hybridization using 3

radiolabeled VNTR as a probe.

26 Bio-fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality in the soil. 3
Explain the role of three main sources of bio-fertilisers.

27 Explain how PCR technique can be used for amplification of a small 3

amount of DNA template.

28 A. Diagram given below depicts different species of Warbler birds 3

feeding on different regions on a Spruce tree. Explain the mechanism
which helps them to co-exist.
 B. What does Gause‘s exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the
case shown above? Explain.
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. Name and explain the mechanism where two species competing for
the same resource co-exist.
B. What does Gause‘s exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the
above situation? Explain.

Section - D

29 Assuming that within a population of beetles where Hardy Weinberg 4

conditions are met, the colour black (B) is dominant over the colour red
(b). 40% of all beetles are red (bb).
Given this information, answer the questions below:
A. What is the frequency of red beetles? (1)
B. Calculate is the percentage of beetles in the population that are
heterozygous. (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. What is the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals? (1)
OR
D. Assuming that Hardy Wienberg conditions are met in the beetle
population consisting of 1500 beetles. How many beetles would you
expect to be black and red in colour respectively? (1)

30 Given below is the pattern of temperature in a person suffering from a 4

non-viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes. Study the graph and answer
the questions that follow:
 A. Explain the factor(s) responsible for this pattern of temperature. (1)
B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body? (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans? (1)
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the
mosquito’s gut? (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. A non-viral disease that is transmitted by mosquitoes causes recurring
fever in an infected person. Explain giving reason(s). (1)
B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body? (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans? (1)
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the
mosquito’s gut? (1)

Section - E

31 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which the testes fail to descend into
the scrotum. It can also lead to compromised Sertoli cell function and
has an impact on Leydig cell function.
(i) Identify at least 3 parameters of male fertility which get affected due
to cryptorchidism.
(ii) Which process will be affected if mature spermatids are not
released from Sertoli cells?
(iii) Name and explain one assisted reproductive technology (ART
process) in which the sperm/semen is used to assist fertilization.
(iv) Name and explain the assisted reproductive technology that should
be used to complete the development of embryos I and II shown in
the figure given below.
 Embryo I Embryo II
-------------------
For visually impaired students
(iv) An infertile couple decided to use ART to conceive. After IVF they
decided for Embryo transfer of the following 2 embryos. Embryo 1
consisted of 8 blastomeres and Embryo 2 consisted of 16
blastomeres. Name and explain the techniques they should deploy
to complete further development of the given embryos.
OR
B.
(i) Explain the significance of each of the following features present in
plants given below:
a) In rose-bay plant the stamens ripen before the stigma.
b) In certain species of primrose, the flowers have short stamen
and long style.
c) The bisexual flower of mustard exhibits rejection of self-pollen
grain.
(ii) Explain how autogamy is prevented in castor and papaya plant
respectively.

32 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Explain how advent of biotechnology has helped in preventing
infestation by nematodes and thereby increasing crop yield.
OR
B. In the future, genetic therapies may be used to prevent, treat, or cure
certain inherited disorders in humans. Justify the statement with a
suitable example.

33 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity? (Any two reasons)
(ii) Name and explain any two causes that are responsible for the loss
of biodiversity.
OR
B.
(i) Name the two types of desirable approaches to conserve
biodiversity? Explain with examples bringing out the difference
between the two types.
(ii) State the features of a stable biological community?

**********

Marking Scheme
Biology (044)
Class XII (2024 –
 25)

Q. Answer Marks
No.

Section - A

1 B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus. 1

2 B. 2000 1
Formation of one seed requires fertilsation between one pollen grain and
one egg. To produce 1600 seeds, 1600 pollen grains and 1600 eggs will be
required. Each microspore mother cell results in the formation of 4 pollen
grains after one cycle of meiotic division. So, 400 meiotic divisions will result
in the production of 1600 pollen grains. One megaspore mother cell after
one cycle of meiotic division results in the formation of 1 egg; so, 1600
meiotic divisions will take place to form 1600 eggs. Thus, total number of
meiotic divisions required for the formation of 1600 seeds will be 400 + 1600
=2000.

3 A. 23% 1
According to Chargaff’s rules, in DNA, A =T and G=C;
Thus, A +T+G+C =100
Given T = 27% so A=T =27%
Thus A+T = 27 +27 =54%
Thus, G+C =100 – 54 = 46%
Since G = C so G = 46/2 =23%

4 B. CGTA 1
-------------------
For Visual Impaired Students
B. 4000 bp/s
It completes replication process in 18 minutes i.e. 18x 60 seconds.
Rate of polymerization = 4.6 x 106 bp/ 18x 60 s
= 460000/108
= 4259.1bp/s or approximately 4000 bp/sec Thus, the correct option is B.

5 C. 1
Suresh Rajesh
Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal Thalassemia – Autosomal
linked Recessive trait Recessive blood disorder

6 A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. 1

7 A. (i) and (ii) 1

 8 C. 5´ UAACGG 3´ 1

9 B. CO2 1

10 D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given 1

geographical area.

11 A. 1& 5; 5 &1 1

12 A. Reduction in BOD 1

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13 C. A is true but R is false. 1

14 C. A is true but R is false. 1

15 A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. 1

16 C. A is true but R is false. 1

Section - B

17 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) Negative hCG implies no pregnancy (0.5); Placenta. (0.5)
(ii) Human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogen, progestogens, relaxin
(any two) (0.5 x 2 = 1)
OR
B.
(i) A sperm induces changes in the zona pellucida membrane on
contact, blocking entry of other sperms. (1)
(ii) Ovum and sperms should be transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region for fertilization. (1)

18 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) I is point mutation; II is Frame shift (1)
(ii) II as more codons are affected; (0.5)
It is extremely likely to lead to large-scale changes to polypeptide length
and chemical composition/ resulting in a non-functional protein that often
disrupts the biochemical processes of a cell/Incorrect amino acids are
inserted/ often premature termination occurs when a nonsense codon is
read/ Frameshifts have very severe phenotypic effects. (any one) (0.5)
OR
 B.
(i) Translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked
by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon (UAA) and codes for a
polypeptide/ AUG AUC UCG UAA. (1)
(ii) Untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' -end
(before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop codon). They are
required for an efficient translation process. (1)

19 A. As the adaptive immune response gears up, there is a reciprocal 2

relationship between virus levels in the blood and helper T
lymphocytes levels. As the level of helper T levels rises, the virus
levels decline. (1)
B. Several years later, if untreated, HIV patient will lose the adaptive
immune response, including the ability to make antibodies, as
gradually the HIV enters the helper T lymphocytes leading to a
progressive decrease in the number of helper T lymphocytes. (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students.
After getting into the body of the person, the virus enters into
macrophages where the RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral
DNA with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The viral DNA
gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells to
produce virus particles. Macrophages continue to produce virus particles;
in this way they act like HIV factory. (1)
Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates and
produces progeny viruses. The progeny virus released in blood attack
other T lymphocytes leading to a progressive decrease in the number of
helper T-lymphocytes in the body of the infected person. Due to decrease
in the number of helper T lymphocytes, the person becomes immuno-
deficient. (1)

20 • The variation in colour of colonies is due to the principle of 2

insertional inactivation. (0.5)
• In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence
of an enzyme, β-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the
enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. (0.5)
• The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue-coloured
colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. (0.5)
• Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the β -
galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour, these
are identified as recombinant colonies. (0.5)
21 Student to attempt either option A or B. 2
A.
(i) NPP = GPP – R;
Given GPP = 400 J/m2/day
R = 150 J/m2/day
NPP = 400 J/m2/day – 150 J/m2/day = 250 J/m2/day (1)
(ii) Pyramid of energy is always upright. As energy flows from one trophic
level to the next trophic level some amount of energy is lost in each
trophic level in the form of heat. Therefore, the pyramid of energy is
always upright and can never be inverted. (1)
OR
B.
(i) If GPP is equal, then we can manipulate the NPP equation and
solve.
• NPP = GPP – Respiration of plants;
• Respiration of Plants = GPP – NPP.
• This means that the smallest NPP corresponds to the largest
respiration. That is forest C. (1)
(ii)

(a) (b)

(0.5)
(0.5)

Section – C

22 A. Seed X- 3 embryos; 1embryo sac; 1ovule; (0.5 x 3=1.5) 3

B. The nucellar cells grow mitotically and develop into the embryos by
asexual reproduction. (0.5)
C. The plants growing from seed X will have to share the
resources/endosperm so there is a possibility of some plant being
undernourished/; only one plant in seed Y will use the entire endosperm
for its growth or as the plants of seed X are clones they will not show
variation and may succumb to environmental stress;/ plants from seed
Y will have genetic variation and so can show greater adaptability. (1)
 -------------------
For visually impaired students
A. Seed X- 3 embryos; 1embryo sac; 1ovule; (0.5 x 3=1.5)
B. The nucellar cells grow mitotically and develop into the embryos by
asexual reproduction. (0.5)
C. The plants growing from seed X will have to share the
resources/endosperm so there is a possibility of some plant being
undernourished/; only one plant in seed Y will use the entire endosperm
for its growth or as the plants of seed X are clones they will not show
variation and may succumb to environmental stress;/ plants from seed
Y will have genetic variation and so can show greater adaptability. (1)

23 • The first meiotic division is completed in the primary oocyte during 3

oogenesis. (1)
• Then primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division to form a large
haploid secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar body. (1)
• The primary oocyte comprises of 46 chromosomes, whereas
secondary oocyte and first polar body have 23 chromosomes each.
(1)

24 A. During replication, Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA; during 3

transcription, adenine pairs with uracil in RNA. (0.5+0.5)
B. In retrovirus the nucleic acid is RNA and it is used to synthesize DNA;
the process is called reverse transcription. (0.5+0.5)
C. It is a highly energy-rich process/ or as per the need only the gene
coding for a specific protein is transcribed. (1)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. During replication, Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA; during
transcription, adenine pairs with uracil in RNA. (0.5+0.5)
B. In retrovirus the nucleic acid is RNA and it is used to synthesize DNA;
the process is called reverse transcription. (0.5+0.5)
C. It is a highly energy-rich process/ or as per the need only the gene
coding for a specific protein is transcribed. (1)

25 • isolation of DNA, 3
• digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
• separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
• transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic
membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon,
• hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
• detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
(0.5 x 6 =3)
26 The main sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. 3
- The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are formed by the
symbiotic association of Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric
nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant as a nutrient.
Other bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil
(examples Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching the nitrogen
content of the soil. (1)
- Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants
(mycorrhiza). Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
The fungal symbiont in these associations absorbs phosphorus from
soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having such associations show
other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens,
tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant
growth and development. (1)
- Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic
and terrestrial environments many of which can fix atmospheric
nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc. In paddy fields,
cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser. Blue green algae also
add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility. (1)

27 PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. In this reaction, multiple 3

copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesised in vitro using two
sets of primers (small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
complementary to the regions of DNA) and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the
reaction and the genomic DNA as template. (1)
If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of
DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are
made. Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable
DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which
remains active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double
stranded DNA. The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate
with a vector for further cloning. (1)
Each cycle has three steps: (i) Denaturation, (ii) Annealing and (iii)
Extensions. (1)
28 A. 3
• They are able to co-exist by mechanism of ‘resource partitioning’.
• If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid
competition by choosing different foraging patterns.
• MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers
living on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist
due to behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
B.
•
Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely
related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely
• and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
• No (0.5 x 6=3)
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A.
• They are able to co-exist by mechanism of ‘resource partitioning’.
• If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid
competition by choosing different foraging patterns.
• MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living
on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to
behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
B.
• Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely
related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
 indefinitely
• and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
• No (0.5 x 6=3)

Section – D

29 A. Given is bb = q2 = 0.4. 4
To determine q, which is the frequency of the recessive allele in the
population, simply take the square root of q2 which works out to be 0.632
(i.e. 0.632 x 0.632 = 0.4).
So, q = 0.63 (1)
B. As we know that p + q = 1,
then p must be 1 - 0.63 = 0.37. (1)
The percentage of beetles in the population that are heterozygous would
be 2pq.
2 (0.37) (0.63) = 0.47 (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. Given is BB= p2 = (0.37)2= 0.14 (1)
OR
D. As, 1500 is the total population
40% is red population,
hence the number of beetles with red colour will be
1500x0.4= 600 (0.5)
If total population is 1500 and red is 600 then black would be 1500-
600=900 (0.5)

30 A. The rupture of RBCs associated with the release of toxic substance 4

haemozoin is responsible for the chills and fever/recurring every 3 - 4
days. (1)
B.
- The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, bursting the cell and
releasing into the blood. (1)
- Parasite further reproduces asexually in red blood cells. Released
parasite infects new red blood cells. Sexual stages (gametocytes)
develop in red blood cells. (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The infection is caused by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito
which introduces the sporozoites in the human body. (1)
OR
D. Fertilisation and development take place in the mosquito’s gut. (1)

-------------------
 For visually impaired students
A. The rupture of RBCs associated with the release of toxic substance
haemozoin is responsible for the chills and fever/recurring every 3-4
days. (1)
B.
- The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, bursting the cell and
releasing into the blood. (1)
- Parasite further reproduces asexually in red blood cells. Released
parasite infects new red blood cells. Sexual stages (gametocytes)
develop in red blood cells. (1)
Student to attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The infection is caused by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito
which introduces the sporozoites in the human body. (1)
OR
D. Fertilisation and development take place in the mosquito’s gut. (1)

Section – E

31 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i)
• Sperm count decreases, spermatogenesis is impaired;
• Spermatids do not get nourishment to develop into spermatozoa
thus spermiogenesis will be affected;
• Leydig cells synthesize and secrete androgen hormones (like
testosterone) so secretion of androgens will be affected.
(0.5 x 3 = 1.5)
(ii) Spremiation (0.5)
(iii) Artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this technique, the semen
collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially
introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra –
uterine insemination) of the female.
OR
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialised
procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is
directly injected into the ovum. (1)
(iv) The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could be
transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian
transfer); embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus
(IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development.
(1+1)

-------------------
 For visually impaired students
(iv) The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be
transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian
transfer); embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT
– intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development.
(1+1+0.5 mark for ZIFT with full form)
OR
B.
(I)
(i) In rose – bay plant, the time of maturation of stamen and pistil
is not same, the pollen will not be able to germinate on the
stigma. This prevents autogamy in rose-bay. (1)
(ii) Different position and incompatible placement of the
reproductive structure prevent successful pollination and thus
autogamy in primrose. (1)
(iii) Pollen pistil interaction for same species is not possible; this
is a genetic mechanism which prevent the pollen grain from
forming pollen tube on the pistil of the same flower. (1)
(II) The male and female flowers are present in the same plant but
are not in proximity preventing self-fertilization in castor. In
papaya, the male flower and female flowers are in different
plants, it prevents autogamy. (2)

32 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
- Several nematodes parasitize a wide variety of plants and animals
including human beings.
- A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco
plants and causes a great reduction in yield.
- A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was
based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi).
- RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular
defense.
- This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents
translation of the mRNA (silencing).
- The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection
by viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements
(transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
- Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were
introduced into the host plant.
- The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and
anti-sense RNA in the host cells.
- These two RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a
 double stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced the
specific mRNA of the nematode.
- The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a
transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA. The transgenic
plant therefore got itself protected from the parasite. (0.5 x 10 =5)
OR
B.
- Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a
gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes
are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease.
- Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into
the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate
for the non-functional gene.
- The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl
with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial
for the immune system to function.
- The disorder is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine
deaminase.
- In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow
transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement
therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection.
- But the problem with both of these approaches is that they are not
completely curative.
- As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of
the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
- A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced
into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the
patient.
- However, as these cells are not immortal, the patient requires
periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
- However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is
introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a
permanent cure. (0.5 x 10 =5)

33 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i) There are three main reasons for conserving the biodiversity which
have been classified into the following categories: (Any two reasons)
- Narrowly utilitarian arguments. Human beings derive direct
economic benefits from nature, like food, firewood, fibre,
construction material, industrial products (resins, gums, dyes,
tannins, etc.) and medicinally important products.
- Broadly utilitarian arguments. Biodiversity plays a major role in
maintaining and sustaining supply of goods and services from
 various species as well as ecological systems. The different
ecological services provided are:
➢ Amazon forest is estimated to contribute 20 per cent of the total
oxygen in the atmosphere on earth.
➢ Pollinators like bee, bumble bees, birds and bats pollinate plants
to form fruits and seeds.
➢ Aesthetic pleasures like bird watching, spring flowers in full
bloom, walking through the thick forest, waking up to a bulbul’s
song, etc. are some other benefits of the ecosystem.
- Ethical reasons there are thousands of plants, animals and microbes
on this earth which are not useless. Everyone has some intrinsic
value even if it is not of any economic value to us. It is, therefore, our
moral duty to ensure well-being of all the living creatures for the
utilisation of future generations. (1+1)
(ii) There are four major causes of biodiversity loss. These are also
known as ‘The Evil Quartet’. (Any two Ways) (1.5 +1.5)
- Habitat loss and fragmentation Destruction of habitat is the primary
cause of extinction of species. When large-sized habitats are broken
or fragmented due to human settlements, building of roads, digging
of canals, etc., the population of animals requiring large territories
and some animals with migratory habitats declines.
- Over-exploitation When biological system is over-exploited by man
for the natural resources, it results in degradation and extinction of
the resources. For example, Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon
and many marine fishes.
- Alien (exotic) species invasions Some alien (exotic) species when
introduced unintentionally or deliberately, become invasive and
cause harmful impact, resulting in extinction of the indigenous
species. Nile perch, a large predator fish when introduced in Lake
Victoria (East Africa) caused the extinction of an ecologically unique
species of Cichlid fish in the lake.
- Co-extinctions When a species becomes extinct, the plant and
animal species associated with it in an obligatory manner, also
become extinct. For example, if the host fish species becomes
 extinct, all those parasites exclusively dependent on it, will also
become extinct
OR
B.
(i)

(2)
(ii) A stable community should not show too much variation in productivity
from year to year; it must be either resistant or resilient to occasional
disturbances (natural or man-made), and it must also be resistant to
invasions by alien species. (3)

*********************

Page | 24
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL PAPER–1: 2024–2025
CLASS XII
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
TIME: 3 Hrs. MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL PAPER–1: 2024–2025
CLASS XII
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
TIME: 3 Hrs. MAXIMUM MARKS: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section–
C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and
Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
Page | 25
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
 SECTION–A
Q. No. Question Marks
1) In the transverse section of a young anther shown below, identify the correct 1
sequence of wall layers from outside to inside:

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) Middle layers Endothecium Epidermis Tapetum
(b) Tapetum Middle layers Endothecium Epidermis
(c) Epidermis Endothecium Middle layers Tapetum
(d) Endothecium Middle layers Tapetum Epidermis

2) Observe the schematic representation of assisted reproductive technology 1

given below:

Identify the most appropriate technique depicted in the above diagram.

(A) IUT (B) IUI (C) ICSI (D) ZIFT
3) In Pisum sativum, the flower position may be axial (allele A) or terminal 1
(allele a). What would be the percentage of the offspring with respect to axial
flower position, if a cross is made between parents Aa X aa?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
4) How many different blood groups are possible in a diploid species with 1
ABCO blood grouping system involving IA, IB, IC and IO alleles (IO is
recessive and others are co-dominant)?
Page | 26
 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
5) Study the given diagrammatic representation of Griffith’s experiment to 1
demonstrate transformation in bacteria:

Select the option which is incorrectly representing the experiment:

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
6) Identify the option that gives the correct type of evolution exhibited by the 1
two animals shown, living in the same habitat in Australia.

(a) Convergent Evolution (b) Disruptive Selection

(c) Divergent Evolution (d) Homologous Ancestry
7) During the 1850s in the pre-industrialisation era in England, the expected 1
effect of natural selection on the number of dark-winged moths as compared
to white-winged moths was:
(A) more in number (B) less in number
(C) both were equal in number (D) both were less in number
8) The figure given below shows mode of action of AIDS virus. Which step 1
shows formation of viral DNA from RNA by reverse transcription?

Page | 27
 (a) P
(b) Q
(c) R and S
(d) T
9) The given figure represents a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option 1
for A, B and C respectively.

(a) A is the inlet for cattle dung.

(b) C is the outlet for the release of biogas.
(c) B is the chamber which contains leftover slurry.
(d) All of these
10) The organism used in construction of the first artificial recombinant DNA by 1
Cohen and Boyer in 1972 was:
(a) E. coli (b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Bacillus thuringiensis
11) Who among the following challenged the patent right granted to the 1
University of Mississippi Medical Centre for ‘use of turmeric in wound
healing’?
(a) Mr. Ajay Phadke (b) Ms. Vandana Shiva
(c) Dr. Venugopalan (d) Dr. R.A. Mashelkar
12) The status of the human population reflected in the human age pyramid 1
given below is:
Page | 28
 (a) Declining population (b) Stable population
(c) Expanding population (d) Extinct population
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements–Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13) Assertion (A): In morula stage, cells divide without increase in size. 1
Reason (R): Zona pellucida remains undivided till cleavage is complete.
14) Assertion (A): In an operon, the regulator and operator genes are not 1
associated with the constitutive genes.
Reason (R): Constitutive genes need not be repressed.
15) Assertion: Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improve its nutritional quality 1
by increasing vitamin-B12.
Reason: LAB, when present in human stomach, check disease causing
microbes.
16) Assertion (A): A cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association is a 1
classic example of commensalism.
Reason (R): As grazing cattle move through the field, they stir up and flush
out insects from the vegetation that otherwise might be difficult
for egrets to find and catch.
SECTION–B
17) Attempt either option A or B 2
(A) “Farmers prefer apomictic seeds to hybrid seeds.” Justify giving two
reasons.
OR
(B) Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below:

Terms Part of the plant it represents

(i) Pericarp ‘A’
1
(ii) ‘B’ Cotyledon in seeds of grass family 4x =2
2
(iii) Embryonal axis ‘C’
(iv) ‘D’ Remains of nucellus in a seed

18) Differentiate between Turner’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome. 2

19) What do the forelimbs of whales, bats and cheetah with respect to evolution 2
signify? Provide one such example in plants.

Page | 29
20) Attempt either option A or B 2
(A) Identify A, D, E and F in the diagram of an antibody molecule given
below:

OR
(B)
Study the given diagram of Sewage Treatment Plant (S.T.P.) and answer the
questions that follow:

½×4

(i) Which one of the two 'S.T.P.' (A) or (B) will be more effective in treating
the human excreta in the municipal waste?
(ii) Write the steps followed in carrying the treatment of the sewage in step
(Z), once the BOD of sewage is reduced significantly till it is passed on
to the "anaerobic sludge digesters".
21) Attempt either option A or B
(A) (i) Identify and name the structures ‘A’ and ‘B’ marked in the image
given below: 2

Page | 30
 (ii) State their importance in various biotechnology experiments.
OR

(B) Explain the process by which a bacterial cell can be made ‘competent’ to
take up foreign DNA from its surroundings, using divalent cations and
temperature treatment.
SECTION–C
22) Study the figure below and answer the questions that follow: 3

(a) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represents.

(b) Identify ‘a’ in the figure and mention its function.
(c) Mention the fate of the inner cell mass after implantation in the uterus.
(d) Where are the stem cells located in this embryo and what is their
function?
23) (a) Name two copper releasing IUDs. 3
(b) Explain how do they act as effective contraceptives in human females.
24) Study the pedigree chart given below showing the inheritance pattern of a human trait and
answer the questions that follow:

Page | 31
 (a) Give the genotype of the parents shown in generation I and of the son and daughter shown
in generation II.
(b) Give the genotype of the daughters shown in generation III.
(c) Is the trait sex linked or autosomal? Justify your answer.
25)

(a) Write your observations on the variations seen in the Darwin’s finches
shown above.
(b) How did Darwin explain the existence of different varieties of finches on
Galapagos Islands?

26) Identify a, b, c, d, e and f in the table given below: 3

Sl. Organism Bioactive Molecule Use

No.
1. Monascus purpureus a b
2. c d Antibiotic
3. e Cyclosporin A f

27) (a) Write the scientific name of the nematode that infests the tobacco plants 3
and the part that it infests.
(b) How is Agrobacterium used to protect tobacco plant from this attack?
28) (i) How does the Mediterranean Orchid ‘Ophyrs’ ensure its pollination by 3
bees
without offering any floral reward?
(ii) Explain the kind of population interaction observed in the following
diagram.

SECTION–D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29) Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How does an
expression of gene occur in a cell system and when does it need to occur, and
how the gene expression is regulated in a prokaryote cell system was studied 4
Page | 32
 by the combined efforts of Jacque Monod, the biochemist and Francois
Jacob, the geneticist. For their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and
introducing the concept of “lac operon” they were awarded the Nobel Prize
in 1965.
(a) Why is lac operon said to be a transcriptionally regulated system? 1
(b) It is said that “the lac operon has to be operational at a very low level in the ½
bacterial cell all the time.” Justify.
(c) Why is the regulator gene in lac operon marked as ‘i’ gene? ½
(d) Attempt either subpart D or E.
Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in absence of inducer in the culture 2
medium of the bacteria.
OR
(e) Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in the presence of inducer in the 2
culture medium of the bacteria.
30) The diagram shows the life cycle of a pathogenic protozoan.

(a) Name the parasitic stage that is being transferred from host ‘X’ to host ‘Y’. 1
(b) Write the changes the parasite undergoes in the liver. 1
(c) Write the changes the parasite undergoes when it enters the RBC. 1
(d) Attempt either subpart D or E 1
Trace the changes the parasite undergoes when the host ‘X’ takes its blood
meal from infected host ‘Y’.
OR
(e) At which stage during the life cycle of the pathogen does the host ‘Y’ 1
experience the symptoms of the disease? Name the disease and the toxic
substance responsible for these symptoms.
SECTION–E
31) Attempt either option A or B 5
(A)
(i) Describe the process of megasporogenesis, in an angiosperm.
(ii) Draw a diagram of a mature embryo sac of angiosperm, label it’s any six
parts.
OR
(B) The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (a - i)
in a human female.

Page | 33
 5

(i) Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of
oogenesis it represents.
(ii) Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused
the abovementioned event.
(iii) Explain the changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in
anticipation.
(iv) Write the difference between ‘c’ and ‘h’
(v) Draw a labelled sketch of the structure of a human ovum prior to
fertilization.
32) Attempt either option A or B 5
(A)
(a) Answer the following questions with respect to recombinant DNA
technology:
(i) Why is plasmid considered to be an important tool in rDNA
technology? From where can plasmids be isolated? (Any two sources)
(ii) Explain the role of ‘ori’ and selectable marker in a cloning vector.
(iii) “r-DNA technology cannot proceed without restriction endonuclease”.
Justify.
OR
(b) Answer the following questions based on Bt-crops:
(i) Why do farmers prefer to grow Bt cotton crop than genetically
unmodified cotton crops?
(ii) Name any two insects that are killed by Bt toxin.
(iii) Explain the mechanism by which Bt toxin kills the insects but not
the bacterium which possesses the toxin.
33) Attempt either option A or B
(A)
Draw and explain a logistic curve for a population of density (N) at time (t) 5
whose intrinsic rate of natural increase is (r) and carrying capacity is (k).

OR
(B)
Describe the process of decomposition of detritus under the following heads:
Fragmentation; leaching; catabolism; humification and mineralization.

Page | 34
 MODEL PAPER–1: MARKING SCHEME 2024–2025:

SECTION–A
Q. No. Question Marks
1) Ans. (D) 1
2) Ans. (C)/ ICSI 1
3) Ans. (b) 1
4) Ans. (c) 1
5) Ans. (c) 1
6) Ans. (a) /convergent evolution 1
7) Ans. (B) / less in number 1
8) Ans. (B) 1
9) Ans. (A) 1
10) Ans. (b) / Salmonella typhimurium. 1
11) Ans. (d) / Dr. R.A. Mashelkar. 1
12) Ans. (a) / Declining population. 1
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements–Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13) .Ans. (A) 1
14) Ans. (A) 1
15) Ans. (B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
16) Ans. (A) / A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
SECTION–B
17) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans. 1x2
Hybrid seeds show segregation of characters in the progeny, production of
hybrid seeds are expensive / apomictic seeds would be cheaper if produced,
hybrid seeds have to be produced every year, apomictic seeds brings
homozygosity / apomictic seeds retain desirable characterstics of plants.
(Any Two points)
OR
(B)
Ans.
(i) ‘A’: - Wall of the Ovary. ½x4=2
(ii) ‘B’: - Scutellum.
(iii) ‘C’: - The part of the embryo between Plumule to Radicle.
(iv) ‘D’: - Perisperm.
18)
Page | 35
 Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans.
S. N. TURNER’S SYNDROME S. N. DOWN’S SYNDROME
(i) Absence of one X chromosome/ (i) Trisomy of 21st chromosome/ Extra
44+XO/XO condition/ monosomy of copy of 21st Chromosome. = 1
sex chromosome in females/ 45 with
XO.
(ii) Only females are affected. (ii) Both Male and Female are affected.
(iii) Female sterile/ ovary rudimentary/ (iii)Short stature with small round head/
lack of secondary sexual character/ furrowed tongue and partially open
short stature. mouth/ palm is broad with
characteristic palm crease.
Any one corresponding difference either from (ii) or from (iii) = 1
OR
(B)
Ans. Failure of segregation of chromatids (during cell division), resulting in ½+½
gain or loss of a chromosome (s).
(i) (Gain of an autosome) - Down’s syndrome. ½
(ii) (Loss of a sex chromosome) - Turner’s syndrome. ½
19) Ans. 1
❖ Homologous organs// divergent evolution. 1
❖ Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita/any other suitable
correct example.
20) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans. A- antigen binding site,
D- light chain, 1
E - heavy chain (constant region),
F - disulphide bond. ½+½
OR

(B)
Ans.
(i) S.T.P (B) / B
(ii)
➢ The effluent is passed into the settling tanks ½x4
➢ The bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to settle (sediment is called activated
sludge)
➢ A small part of the ‘activated sludge’ is pumped back into the
aeration tanks as inoculum (for secondary/biological treatment).
21) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans.
(i) ‘A; Circular DNA/Plasmid

Page | 36
 ‘B’ Bacteriophage
(ii) (Plasmid)-Can carry foreign gene into the host cell/acts as cloning ½
vector/has selectable marker/ independent of the control of ½
chromosomal DNA/ high copy number.
(Bacteriophage) -Cloning vector have the ability to replicate in bacterial ½
cells/ independent of the control of chromosomal DNA / high copy number
per cell.
½
OR
(B)
Ans.
Treating bacteria with specific concentration of calcium (ions)which
increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacteria through pores in
its cell wall, recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by ½×4
incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them
briefly at 420C (heat shock), then putting them back on ice.
SECTION–C
22) Ans.
(a) Blastocyst / blastula. ½
(b) Trophoblast, helps in attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall /
endometrium. ½+½
(c) The inner cell mass gets differentiated into ectoderm, mesoderm and
endoderm// as the embryo. 1
(If only three germinal layers / any two layers named = ½, any one name
given = No marks)
(d) The inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have
the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs. ½
23) Ans.
(a) Intra Uterine Devices – CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375. (any two) ½+½
(b) Suppress sperm motility, suppress fertilising capacity of sperms, increase
phagocytosis of sperm within uterus. (any two) 1+1
24) Ans.
(a) Genotype of the parents in generation I:
➢ Male (Fathre) – Aa
➢ Female (Mother) – Aa
➢ Son (Generation II) – Aa
➢ Daughter (Generation II) – aa
(b) Genotype of the daughters in Generation III – Aa & AA/Aa
(c) The trait is autosomal. If it would be ‘X’ linked recessive, mother should be a
carrier/sufferer and father should be sufferer as she should receive one ‘X’ chromosome
with the disease from each parent i.e., father and mother each. // Because if the sex–linked
trait has to appear in the daughter (Generation II), the father must have it; but he does not
show the trait and so it is not sex–linked.
25) Ans.
(a) From the original seed eating features, many other forms with altered ½x3

Page | 37
 beaks arose, enabling them to become insectivorous and vegetarian
finches. ½x3
(b) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area
starting from one point, and literally radiating to other areas of geography (1½+1½)
(habitats), is called adaptive radiation.
26) Ans.
1. (a) Statin
(b) Blood–Cholesterol lowering agent
2. (c) Penicillium notatum ½x6
(d) Penicillin
(In (c) and (d) any other correct organism and its bioactive molecule can
be considered)
3. (e) Trichoderma polysporum
(f) Immunosuppressant.
27) Ans.
(a)
➢ Meloidegyne incognitia ½

➢ Roots ½

(b) By using Agrobacterium vector, Nematode specific genes were

introduced into host plant, introduction of DNA produced both sense and
anti-sense RNA in the host cells this two RNAs being complementary to ½×4
each other form a double stranded RNA (ds RNA), that initiated RNAi
and thus silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode hence parasite
could not survive in transgenic host.
28) Ans.
(i)
The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination
done by a species of bee, one petal of its flower bears an uncanny
resemblance to the female of the bee in size colour and markings, The male ½×4
bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female ‘pseudocopulates’ with the
flower, and during this process is dusted with pollen from the flower and
transfer them to another flower.
(ii)
Brood parasitism, the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and ½ +½
lets the host incubate them.
SECTION–D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29)
(a) Ans.
In presence of lactose repressor protein dose not bind to the operator region 1
(O) and allow RNA polymerase to transcribe the operon.
// //
Page | 38
 In absence of lactose repressor protein bind to the operator region (O) and
prevent RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. 1
Ans.
Presence of Permease enzyme coded by gene ‘y’ is required that allows ½
(b)
lactose to enter the cell for switching on the operon / so that lactose enter
inside the cell.
Ans.
(c) ‘i’ stands for ‘inhibitor/ this gene transcribes repressor protein which binds to ½
the ‘operator’ site and switch off the operon.
Student to attempt either subpart D or E.
Ans.

½x4
(d)

OR
(e) Ans.

½x4

30)
(a) Ans. 1
Sporozoites.
(b) Ans. 1
Undergoes Asexual reproduction.
(c) Ans.
The number increase asexually, parasites ultimately change into ½+½
gametocytes/ undergoes gametogenesis.
(d) Student to attempt either subpart D or E. ½+½
Ans.
Fertilisation and development takes place in host ‘X’, ultimately forming the
infective stage sporozoites.
OR
(e) Ans. ½+½
• Bursting of RBCs

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 • Malaria
• Haemozoin
(Award 1 mark if any two are correct)
SECTION–E
31) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans.
(i) The MMC in the nucellus undergoes meiotic division, results in the
production of four megaspores, one of the megaspores is functional, ½×4
while the other three degenerate.
(ii)

(Any 6 correct Labels) = ½ x 6 ½x6

OR
(B)
Ans.
(i) f, secondary oocyte. ½+½
(ii) estrogen, LH. ½+½
(iii) Endometrium proliferate (glands become cork screw shaped) highly
vascularised, high regeneration anticipating implantation of the ½+½
fertilized ovum.
(iv) ‘c’ is developing follicle while ‘h’ is regressing corpus luteum. ½+½
(v)

(Any two labels)

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 ½+½
32) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans.
(a)(i)
➢ Can act as vector/can self-replicate to form multiple copies/ have 1
selectable markers/ small in size will facilitate insertion / presence of
‘Ori’.
➢ E. coli, Agrobacterium tumefaciens, Salmonella typhi, Bacteria, any
other correct example (any two). ½+½
(ii)

❖ ‘Ori’ – this is a sequence from where replication starts / any piece of

DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate with in the
host cells/controls copy number of linked DNA. 1
❖ Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non-
transformants, and selectively permitting the growth of transformants
during recombinant DNA technology. ½×2

(iii) Restriction endonuclease identifies a specific palindromic sequence of DNA

and cut the DNA at the specific sites in both the host as well in
desired/foreign DNA, thereby creates “sticky ends” facilitating ligation to
½ ×2
form a recombinant DNA.
OR
(B)
Ans.
(b)(i) Bt cotton crop is pest resistant /insect resistant/ with increase productivity
1
(ii) Cotton bollworms/corn borer/tobacco budworm/army worm/ coleopterans
(beetles) / dipterans (flies, mosquitoes)
(Any two) ½ ×2
(iii) BT toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin in the bacterium, but once
the insect ingests this toxin it is converted into an active form, due to the ½×6
alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilizes inactive crystals of toxic
insecticide the activated toxin binds to the surface of the midgut epithelial
cells of the insect, creates pores, that cause cell swelling and lysis and
eventually the death of the insect.
33) Student to attempt either option A or B.
(A)
Ans. A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows initially
a lag phase, this is followed by phases of acceleration and deceleration, and ½x4
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finally an asymptote when the population density reaches carrying capacity
(K), A plot of N in relation to time (t) result in a sigmoid curve (Verhulst–
Pearl Logistic Growth)
𝑑𝑁 𝐾−𝑁 1
= 𝑟𝑁 ( ) =1
𝑑𝑡 𝐾

Where, N = Population density at time t

r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = Carrying capacity

½x4

OR
(B)
Ans.
Fragmentation: Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles.
Leaching: Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon
and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
Catabolism: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler
inorganic substances. 1x5
Humification: It leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous
substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial
action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow
rate.
Mineralization: The humus is further degraded by some microbes and
release inorganic substances by this process.

***********

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 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION
CLASS XII BIOLOGY -MODEL PAPER-2 (2024-25)
BLUE PRINT

Unit MCQ(1) A & R(1) 2M 3M 4M 5M Total

Reproduction 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 2(6) 0 1(5) 16 M

Genetics and 5(5) 1(1) 2(4) 2(6) 1(4) 0 20 M

Evolution

Biology in 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) 1(4) 0 12 M

Human Welfare
Biotechnology 2(2) 0 1(2) 1(3) 0 1(5) 12 M

Ecology 1(1) 1(1) 0 1(3) 0 1(5) 10 M

Total Questions 12 (12) 4(4) 5(10) 7(3) 2(8) 3(15) 33(70M)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION

BIOLOGY-MODEL PAPER-2 (2024-25)
CLASS XII SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
MAX. MARKS: 70 TIME: 3Hrs
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write
the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q.NO MARKS QUESTION
1 1 The type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grains to
the stigma
A. Cleistogamy
B. Xenogamy
C. Chasmogamy
D. Geitonogamy
2 1 Graafian follicle of the ovary secretes which hormone?
A. Relaxin
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Progesterone
Page | 43
 D. None of the above
3 1 If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier
female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is:
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive
4 1 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them
are respectively:
A. Chromosome 21 and Y
B. Chromosome 1 and X
C. Chromosome 1 and Y
D. Chromosome X and Y
5 1 DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3’-5’
phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the
following modifications would you choose?
A. Replace purine with pyrimidines
B. Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxy ribose
C. Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxy ribose
D. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
6 1 In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that:
A. The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
B. It is a multigenic inheritance
C. It is a case of multiple allelism
D. The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
7 1 Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston
bitularia:
A. Stabilising B. Directional C. Disruptive D. Artificial
8 1 Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In
the list given below, identify the infectious diseases. i. Cancer ii. Influenza iii.
Allergy iv. Small pox
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii
(C) iii and iv (D) ii and iv
9 1 The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India
largely due to the efforts of:
A. Gas Authority of India
B. Oil and Natural Gas Commission
C. Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi & Village Industries
Commission
D. Indian Oil Corporation.
10 1 Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:
A. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
B. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
C. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
D. All of the above
11 1 A probe which is a molecule used to locate homologous sequences in a
Page | 44
 mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be:
A. A ssRNA B. A ssDNA
C. Either ssRNA or ssDNA D. Can be ssDNA but not ssRNA
12 1 Which of the following is not a producer?
A. Spirogyra B. Agaricus C. Volvox D. Nostoc
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13 1 Assertion: Use of condom is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases
besides checking pregnancy.
Reason: Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin of the upper arm to
prevent pregnancy
14 1 Assertion: Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large
seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds.
Reason: Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s finches radiated out from South
America main land to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where
they found competitor-free new habitats.
15 1 Assertion: Interferons help in the elimination of viral infections.
Reason: Interferons released by infected cells, reach nearby unaffected cells and
make them resistant to viral infection.
16 1 Assertion: Speciation is a function of time and tropical regions had got a long
evolutionary time for species diversification as compared to temperate regions.
Reason: Temperate regions have undergone frequent glaciations in the past whereas
tropical regions have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
Section-B
17 2 Attempt either option A or B.
A. ‘Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)’ and ‘Gamete Intra Fallopian
Transfer (GIFT)’ are two assisted reproductive technologies. How is one
different from the other?
OR
B. List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.

18 2 Attempt either option A or B.

A. Although a prokaryotic cell has no defined nucleus, yet DNA is not scattered
throughout the cell. Explain.
OR
B. Answer the questions based on the dinucleotide shown below.

Page | 45
 (i) Name the linkage connecting the two nucleotides.
(ii) Identify the 3′ end of the dinucleotide. Give a reason for your answer.
19 2 How would the gene flow or genetic drift affect the population in which either of
them happens to take place?
20 2 i) Which organ of the human body is initially affected when bitten by an infected
female Anopheles! Name the stage of the parasite that infects this organ.
(ii) Explain the events that are responsible for chill and high fever in the patient.
21 2 Attempt either option A or B.
A. Write the functions of
(i) cry IAc gene
(ii) RNA interference (RNAi)
OR
B. Why do the toxic insecticidal proteins secreted by Bacillus thuringiensis kill
the insect and not the bacteria itself?
Section-C
22 3 Give three major differences between polycistronic mRNA and monocistronic
mRNA?
23 3 Read the graph given and correlate the uterine events that take place according to
the hormonal levels on:
i) 6-15 days ii)16-25 days iii)26-28 days

24 3 Draw the diagram of a mature embryo sac and show its 8-nucleate, 7-celled nature.
Show the following parts: antipodals, synergids, egg, central cell, polar nuclei.
25 3 With the help of an algebraic equation, how did Hardy-Weinberg explain that in a
given population the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to
remain the same through generations?
26 3 What are bio fertilisers? A farmer is advised to add a culture of bacterium in the soil
before sowing the crop. Name the bacterium in the culture. How is this bacterium
useful to the crop?
27 3 Recombinant DNA technology is of great importance in the field of medicine. With
the help of a flow chart, show how this technology has been used in preparing
genetically engineered human insulin.
28 3 In a pond, there were 200 frogs. 40 more were born and 20 have died in a year.
Calculate the birth rate and death rate of the population and also mention whether

Page | 46
 the population density is decreasing or increasing.
Section-D
29 4

a) What will be the genotype of the person suffering from this disease?
b) Name the disorder which an infant is suffering from. Mention any 2 the
symptoms the child is likely to develop later in the life.
c) State its cause.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
Or
d) Name the genetic disorder where the karyotype is 47, XXY.
30 4 Large quantities of sewage are generated every day in cities and towns, which is
treated in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) to make it less polluted. Given below is
the flow diagram of one of the stages of STP. Observe the given flow diagram and
answer the questions accordingly.

(a) Why is the primary effluent passed into large aeration tanks?
(b) Write the technical term used for the sediment formed. Mention its significance.
(c) Explain the final step that results in the formation of biogas in the large tank
before the treated effluent is released into water bodies.
Or
(d)What are flocs?
Section-E
31 (a) 5 (b) Development of recombinant DNA technology has opened gates to many
breakthroughs in the fields of medicine and agriculture. This has enabled
scientists to isolate, sequence and manipulate individual genes obtained from
diverse living or dead cells. Given below is a diagram showing the basic
steps involved in genetically modifying an organism. Study the given
diagram and answer the questions that follow:

Page | 47
 (i) Are two different types of restriction endonucleases used, one to cut
the vector DNA and another to cut the desired DNA to be cloned?
Support your answer, giving reason.
(ii) Which enzyme is used at step (X) to integrate the foreign DNA with
the vector DNA?
(iii) What is the term used for step (Y) showing multiple copies of the
foreign DNA being formed in transformed E. coli?
(iv) Draw a diagram of E. coli cloning vector pBR322 to show the
following:
(I) Any one restriction endonuclease site in tetracycline resistance gene
(II) Any one restriction endonuclease site in ampicillin resistance gene.
OR

a) Identify the process given in the diagram. What is the significance of this process
in Biotechnology.
b) Name the enzyme used in this process. What is its special feature?
c) Explain the steps involved in the process.
32 (i) 5 (ii) Mention the Evil quartet responsible for biodiversity loss.
(iii) What are exotic species? Explain with the help of two examples, how the
exotic species disturb the native species of an ecosystem?
Or
(a) What are the three types of ecological pyramids, what information is conveyed
by each pyramid with regard to structure, function and energy in the ecosystem,
explain with diagrams
33 Observe the diagram given below that shows a human ovum surrounded by
a few sperms.
Page | 48
 (i) Describe the role of the part labelled as E and which one of the sperms
would reach the ovum earlier?
(ii) Mention what help the entry of sperm in the ovum and write the changes
occurring in the ovum during the process. Also mention where will the whole
process take place in the female reproductive system?
Or
Study the following illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (A-I) in a
human female and answer the questions that follow.

i) In which of the following figure ovulation is shown. Mention the stage of

oogenesis it represents.
(ii) Give the names of the both ovarian and pituitary hormone that caused the above-
mentioned events?
(iii) What can you infer from the C and H shown in the figure above? Give
any two differences between them. And also explain the changes that occur
in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.

BIOLOGY-ANSWER KEY-MODEL PAPER-2-(2024-25)

CLASS XII SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
Section – A
Q.NO QUESTION MARKS
1 A. Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium 1
2 B. i, ii and iv 1
3 A. a direct relationship 1
4B. exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA 1
5B. Elongation 1
6 B. Co-dominance 1
7A. 42% 1
8 A. latex of Papaver somniferum 1
9 B. The center of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and 1
eventually breakage of flocs.
10 A. Origin of replication (ori) 1

Page | 49
11 D. SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting from deficiency of ADA) 1
12 D. 100 per hour 1
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13 C 1
14 C 1
15 D 1
16 A 1
Section-B
17 (i)“1”: Autogamy,’2’: Geitonogamy and ‘3’: Xenogamy. 2
(ii)Autogamy and geitonogamy.
OR
(a)Viola /oxalis (b)Autogamy

18 The male fruit fly has XY sex chromosomes and produces two types of gametes hence 2
it is called heterogametic while female fowl has ZW sex chromosomes thereby
producing two types of gametes thus, they are called heterogametic. Female fruit fly
has two X chromosomes, i.e., XX and produces similar gametes hence they are called
homogametic. Also, male fowl has two Z chromosomes and produces similar gametes
thus they are called homogametic
Or
α thalassemia β thalassemia
Few α chains are synthesized Few β chains are synthesized
-extra β globin chains produced are
unstable and they form tetramers, - extra α globin chains bind to RBC
which cause abnormal oxygen membrane and damage it.
disassociation curve
-Caused by 2 genes HBA1 and HBA2 - Caused by a genes HBB present on
present on 16th chromosome 11th chromosome
- severity of the disease is directly
proportional to the No. of defective (Any two differences)
genes
19 The sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1. 2
1. Gene migration / Gene flow 2. Genetic drift 3. Mutation 4. Genetic
recombination 5. Natural Selection (Any three)
20 Amoebiasis, Causative organism: The parasite Entamoeba histolytica 2
Symptoms include diarrhoea, nausea, weight loss, fever, chills, abdominal pain, and
bloody or mucous diarrhoea. (any two symptoms)
Amoebiasis is spread through human faeces, contaminated food or water, or person-to-
person contact. It can also be spread by vectors such as flies, cockroaches, and rodents.
21 A. Primary sludge is formed after the sedimentation in primary treatment, 2

Page | 50
 activated sludge is the sediment formed from effluent after secondary treatment
which contains bacterial flocs. A part of this is used as inoculum which is
pumped back into the aeration tanks.
OR
B. In order to make the bacterial cells competent, they are first treated with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium. It increases the efficiency with
which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall. This is followed by heat
shock treatment
Section-C
22 When lactose is not present, the repressor protein binds to the operator region, blocking 3
RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes. When lactose is present, it
binds to the repressor protein and forms allolactose, which dissociates from the
operator region. This allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and transcribe
the structural genes. The resulting polycistronic mRNA is then translated to form
enzymes for lactose metabolism.
23 In the given diagram, 3
A – Spermatogonium
B – Primary spermatocyte
C – Secondary spermatocyte
D – Spermatid
E – Spermatozoa
F – Sertoli cell
24 The seeds of some grasses develop without fertilisation. It may be because a diploid 3
egg cell develops into an embryo directly (without undergoing meiosis and syngamy)
or some diploid cells of nucellus or integument surrounding the embryo sac, protrude
inside and develop into embryos. This phenomenon of developing embryo and seeds
without fertilisation is called apomixis and such seeds produced are referred to as
apomictic.
25 Steps: Capping: When mRNA comes out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm, it may be 1
degraded by RNase. So, to the 5’ end of hnRNA, methylguanosine triphosphate is
added as a cap. RNA spilicing: hnRNA contains non-coding sequences called introns,
which do not take part in translation. A pair of spliceosomes cut and remove the introns
and join all exons in sequence. Exons are retained in the mature mRNA as they code 1
for proteins. Tailing: Around 200-300 adenylate residues are added at the 3’end of
RNA. It is done at the end of transcription, to protect the mRNA molecule from 1
enzymatic degradation in the cytoplasm.
26 ADA deficiency is caused by a deletion of the ADA gene, which makes the enzyme 3
adenosine deaminase. This enzyme is important for the immune system to
function. Gene therapy is a technique that corrects defective genes by replacing them
with normal genes. In the case of ADA deficiency, the therapy involves growing
lymphocytes from the patient's blood, introducing a functional ADA cDNA into the
lymphocytes, and returning the lymphocytes to the patient.
Other treatments for ADA deficiency include bone marrow transplantation and enzyme
replacement therapy. Gene therapy doesn't provide a permanent cure because
genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal. Patients require periodic
infusion of cells
Page | 51
27 Recombinant bacteria are distinguished from non-recombinants by chromogenic 3
substance through a process called insertional inactivation
In this process, a recombinant DNA (rDNA) is inserted into a gene that codes for a
specific protein, like the enzyme β-galactosidase. This insertion inactivates the gene,
resulting in the absence of the enzyme's production.
When a chromogenic substrate is present, non-recombinant bacteria produce colored
colonies, while recombinant bacteria produce white colonies. This makes it easy to
identify the two types of bacteria.
28 The carrying capacity of a species in a habitat is the maximum population size that the 1
environment can support, given the available resources. The logistic growth model is 1
considered more realistic because it models the effect of carrying capacity on
population dynamics in a way that accounts for limited resources 1
29 (a) it controls the transcription of genes involved in lactose metabolism 1
Or
because the letter "i" comes from the word "inhibitor 1
b) A low level of lac operon occurs due to the absence of formation of permeases.
Permeases are necessary for the transport of lactose from medium into cells. Due to the
failure of transport of lactose into the cell, it will not act as inducer.
c) Lac Operon diagram 2
30 (a) Methane gas is predominant in biogas 1
(b) Organic waste is put into a sealed tank, called a digester, where anaerobic 2
bacteria consume the waste and produce biogas.
(c) Biogas production can reduce wastewater pollution and conserve nutrients that 1
can be used as fertilizer
Or
(d) Methanogens
Section-E
31 Steps: Isolation of source DNA from the selected plant/animal/bacteria. 5
Isolation of desirable gene from the source DNA.
Using specific RE the DNA is cut and the desirable gene is obtained.
This gene has sticky ends Cut and open vector DNA (plasmid DNA) using the same
RE
Insertion of foreign gene into the plasmid with the help of DNA ligase to form
recombinant DNA (rDNA) or hybrid plasmid
Insertion of rDNA into host cell: A suitable host cell like E. Coli is taken and into this
hybrid DNA is inserted. (The bacteria with plasmid DNA are known as transformant
a) Multiplication of gene: when the bacteria reproduce, the hybrid plasmid present in it
also get replicated.
Or
(i)In band D, DNA fragments are smaller than those on band C. The fragments separate
according to their size through the sieving effect provided by the gel. So, the smaller
fragments move farther away than the larger ones.
(ii) B is anode end in the diagram as DNA fragments are moving towards this end.
(iii) Gel containing DNA fragments are stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to
UV radiation. Orange colour bands of DNA become visible.
32 i. Earthworms are farmer’s friend because these help in fragmentation of detritus 5
Page | 52
 and loosening of the soil. Both these processes are helpful for the
decomposition of dead organic matter at a faster rate into inorganic substances
like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients. These can be used by crop plants for
their growth.
ii. Fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, mineralisation processes-
explanation
OR
➢ India is one of the twelve megadiversity regions of the world with 8.1% of
genetic resources of the world. Since, India is placed in the tropical part of the
world it exhibits more species diversity than the regions of temperate zones.
India, with much of its land area in the, tropical latitudes, has more than 1200
species of birds. Greenland, Norway is away from tropics, so it exhibits less
biodiversity.
➢ Differences between genetic and species biodiversity are as follows:

o Genetic Diversity o Species Diversity

➢ It is related to the number of ➢ It is related to the number

genes and their alleles found in and distribution of species
organisms. found in an area.

➢ It is a trait of a species. ➢ It is a trait of community.

➢ It influences biotic adaptability

➢ It influences interactions and
and distribution of species in
stability of the community.
diverse habitats.
33 a) Growing ovarian follicles, Oestrogen 5
b) Graafian Follicle, Follicle stimulating hormone
c) Released ovum, ovulation
Or

The formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
microsporogenesis-Explanation.
Microspores are arranged as tetrad. As the anthers mature and dehydrate, they
dissociate from each other and develop into mature pollen grains. Pollen grains or the
male gametophytes are released by dehiscence of anther.

******************
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 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, HYDERABAD REGION
Model Question Paper -3 (2024-25)
Class XII Maximum Marks: 70
Biology (044) Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each;
and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct.
Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q.No. QUESTIONS MARKS
1 Consider three plants with the following modes of pollination: 1
Plant P: autogamy
Plant Q: xenogamy
Plant R: geitonogamy
Which of the above case/s is/are most likely to NOT show genetic variation in
the offspring?
A. only P B. only Q C. only P and R D. only Q and R
2 Which of the following is an indicator of a reproductively unhealthy society? 1
A .increase in infant mortality rate
B. decline in maternal mortality rate
C. widespread awareness of contraceptive methods
D. detection and cure of sexually transmitted diseases
3 If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is ATTCGATG, then the 1
sequence of bases in mRNA will be _______________
(A) TAAGCTAC (B) UAAGCUAC
(C) ATTCGATG (D) AUUCGAUG.

4 A plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce ______ kinds of gametes 1

A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
5 In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by _____ 1
A. glycosidic bonds
B. phosphodiester bond
C. peptide bonds
D. hydrogen bonds.
6 In a certain species of insects, some have 13 chromosomes, and the others 1
have 14chromosomes.The 13 and 14 chromosome bearing organisms are
Page | 54
 A. males and females, respectively
B. females and males, respectively
C. all males
D. all females
7 Some herbivorous organisms such as giraffes and brachiosaurus are known to 1
have evolved long necks which helps them access food that is not available to
other shorter herbivores.
Which of the following type of evolution do the statements shown above
describe?
A. co-evolution
B. microevolution
C. divergent evolution
D. convergent evolution
8 The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells 1
from further infection is ___
A. serotonin B. colostrum C. interferon D. histamine.
9 BOD of wastewater is estimated by measuring the amount of 1
A. total organic matter
B. biodegradable organic matter
C. oxygen evolution
D. oxygen consumption
10 Nihal said that bacteria are never used as a host to clone recombinant DNA for 1
Antibiotic production.
Is his statement correct and why?
A. Yes, because antibiotics kill host bacterial cells.
B. No, because antibiotics only kill cells other than bacterial cells.
C. No, because the foreign DNA or the host bacterial cell is resistant to the
antibiotic being produced.
D. Yes, because host bacterial cells do not have the machinery to allow the
growth of an antibiotic obtained from other microbes.
11 The main objective of production of pest resistant GM crops is to ___ 1
A. encourage eco-friendly pesticides
B. reduce pesticide accumulation in food chain
C. eliminate pests from the field without the use of manual labour
D. retain maximum nutritional content in the crop that would be otherwise
consumed by pest
12 The hot spots of biodiversity conservation are characterized by: 1
A. High endemicity and high threat of extinction
B. Low endemicity and high threat of extinction
C. High endemicity and low threat of extinction
B. Low endemicity and low threat of extinction
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A
is true but R is false. D. A is False but R is true
13 Assertion (A): During pregnancy, the level of several hormones like 1
Page | 55
 estrogens,progestogens, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc are increased several
folds in the maternal blood.
Reason (R): Increased production of these hormones is essential for supporting
the foetal growth, metabolic changes in the mother, and maintenance of
pregnancy
14 Assertion (A): 3 codons do not code for any amino acids. 1
Reason(R): They function as stop codons.
15 Assertion (A): Not all the microbes are harmful, several microbes are useful to 1
man in diverse ways.
Reason (R): Microbes are used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo-shoot to
make food.
16 Assertion (A): In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer 1
in number.
Reason(R): Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the
availability of organisms which serve as food at the lower level
Section – B
17 Write any two ways by which apomictic seeds may be developed in 2
angiosperms.
OR

State ONE characteristic of a pollen grain that can help students identify:
(a) a water-pollinated pollen grain (b) an animal-pollinated pollen grain.
18 The diagram below shows the sequence of amino acids in part of a 2
haemoglobin molecule.

a) If the base T* was substituted with A, how would it affect the haemoglobin
chain?
b) Name the condition and the effects associated with the above substitution.
OR
Explain why do the sons of Hemophillic father never suffer from this trait if
the mother is normal.

19 Name any four enzymes of DNA replication and mention their functions. 2
20 A patient who has been undergoing chemotherapy is suffering from blood 2
coagulations around central venous catheters that have been used to
administer the related drugs.
(a) Suggest one possible enzyme that could be considered for administration,
with the aim of potentially restoring proper blood flow.

Page | 56
 (b) Based on (a), mention the micro-organism that it is produced from.
21 Write the two specific ‘cry’ genes that encode the proteins which control 2
cotton boll worms.
OR
Mention any two transgenic biological products and their uses.
SECTION-C
22 Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an 3
angiosperm ? Mention the function of each one of them:
(a) Germ pore
(b) Sporopollenin
(c) Generative cell
23 The figure given below shows 3 sperms A, B and C. 3
a) Which one of the three sperms will gain entry into the ovum?
b) Describe the associated changes induced by it on P and Q.

24 A doctor after conducting certain tests on a pregnant woman advised her to 3

undergo M.T.P., as the foetus she was carrying showed trisomy of 21st
chromosome.
(a) State the cause of trisomy of the 21st chromosome.
(b) Why was the pregnant woman advised to undergo M.T.P. and not to
complete the full term of her pregnancy ? Explain.
25 Answer the given question with the help of given diagram. 3

(a) Name the molecule M that binds with the operator.

(b) Mention the consequence of such binding
(c) What will prevent the binding of the molecule M with the operator gene?
Mention the event that follows.
26 (a) Name the causative agents of pneumonia and common cold. 3
(b) How do these differ in their symptoms ?
(c) Mention two symptoms common to both.
27 State whether each of these statements given below is/are true or false. Justify 3
your answer.
(a) Plasmids with a single restriction site are preferred over those with multiple

Page | 57
 sites for the same enzyme during the cloning process.
(b) The tumour-inducing (Ti) plasmid can be extracted from Agrobacterium
tumifaciens cells and used as it is for cloning a foreign gene.
28 List six advantages of “ex-situ” approach to conservation of biodiversity. 3
SECTION-D( CASE BASED QUESTION)
29 The figure given below shows white winged and dark winged moth present on 4
a tree trunk with variable lichen growth (a) in unpolluted area and (b) in
polluted area

(a) Which variety of moth is likely to survive in each of these two conditions.
(b) Justify your answer in the above question in each of these two conditions.
(c) Name the phenomena explained in the above figures.
OR
(c) Give an example of evolution resulting due to anthropogenic activities.
30 The graph given below shows the levels of antibodies against a pathogen over 4
a period of 30 years in a person's body.

(a) What do the 2 peaks mean?

(b) Explain the reason behind the difference in the size of the 2 peaks.
(c) How can the above shown phenomena be useful to human being?
OR

(c) Name any one instance where performed antibodies are injected into the
body of patients.
SECTION-E
31 a) List the three hormones produced in women only during pregnancy. What 5
happens to the levels of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy ?
b) Draw a sectional view of a human ovary and label primary follicle, tertiary
follicle, Graafian follicle and corpus luteum in it.
OR
(a) IVF is a very popular method these days that is helping childless couples to
bear a child. Describe the different steps that are carried out in this technique.
(b) Would you consider Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) as an IVF ?
Give a reason in support of your answer.
32 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is an in-vitro technique used to amplify 5
Page | 58
 nucleic
acid sequences. The conditions and duration of each step in PCR are as
follows:
- Step 1 at 94 °C for 2 min
- Step 2 at 50-65 °C for 30 seconds
- Step 3 at 72 °C for 5 min
(a) Give TWO reasons why amplification using PCR can be better than
amplification in-vivo using plasmids.
(b) At which step does the denaturation of DNA take place? How does this
occur?
(c) What would be the result of the PCR reaction if step 2 does not occur?
(d) At what step would PCR be important in rDNA technology?
OR
a) Explain why vectors that have restriction site/s within a marker gene are
preferred, for recombinant DNA technology.
b) What causes adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
c) What are the THREE methods that are currently used for the treatment of
ADA?
d) What is the problem with the methods described in (b)? How can this
Problem be overcome?
33 (a) What does an ecological pyramid represent ? State any two limitations that 5
these pyramids have.
(b) Describe an inverted pyramid of biomass with the help of an example.
OR
Ecological relationships between organisms play an important role in the
biodiversity of the region. In some cases, they benefit the diversity while in
others cause a subsequent reduction in it.
(a) A significant reduction in the predator population causes species
abundance in the prey species. Is this statement TRUE? Give a reason to
support your answer.
(b) Barnacles, sticky crustaceans and the blue whale are in a commensal
relationship where barnacles use blue whales for transport. How would the
extinction of either species cause a change in biodiversity?
(c) In which type of ecological relationship can the extinction of one species
lead
to the extinction of the other species?
(d) What is the term used to describe the phenomenon describe in (c) called?

Page | 59
 MARKING SCHEME OF MODEL QUESTION PAPER -3
CLASS: XII SUBJECT: BIOLOGY MAX MARKS: 70

Q No ANSWER MARK
DISTRIB
UTION
1 C 1
2 A 1
3 D 1
4 D 1
5 B 1
6 A 1
7 D 1
8 C 1
9 D 1
10 D 1
11 B 1
12 A 1
13 A 1
14 A 1
15 A 1
16 A 1
17 Apomictic seeds in angiosperms can develop through two primary 2
mechanisms: 1. Diploid egg cell development where a diploid egg cell
forms without meiosis and develops into an embryo without fertilization,
and 2. Adventive embryony where surrounding cells of the embryo sac,
like nucellar cells, start dividing and develop into embryos instead of the
egg cell.

OR

1 mark for each correct answer: (a) The pollen grain will have a
mucilagenous covering to avoid getting wet. (b) The pollen grains will
have a sticky exterior. [Accept any other valid answer]
18 a) CTT would become CAT which codes for valine. Thus, valine would 2
replace glutamic acid at that point. [0.5] b) Sickle cell anaemia [0.5], the
mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization [0.5] leading to
the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated
sickle like structure. [0.5]

OR

A son of a haemophilic father will never suffer from haemophilia if the

mother is normal because haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder,
meaning the defective gene is located on the X chromosome, and since a Page | 60
father only passes his Y chromosome to his son, he cannot transmit the
 haemophilia gene to him; the son inherits his X chromosome solely from
his mother, so if she is normal, he will not have the disease
19 1.DNA helicase: 2
Unwinds the double-stranded DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between
base pairs, creating a replication fork.
2.DNA primase:
Synthesizes short RNA primers on the template strand, providing a
starting point for DNA polymerase to begin adding nucleotides.
3.DNA polymerase:
Adds new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand by following the base
pairing rules, extending the DNA chain from the 3' end of the primer.
4.DNA ligase:
Joins Okazaki fragments together on the lagging strand by forming
phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.
20 A) streptokinase b) extracted from Streptocoocus species of bacteria 2
21 cry I AC and cry II AB for cotton bollworm 2
OR
Transgenic biological products:
1. Alpha-1- Antitrypsin human protein used to treat emphysema
2. human alpha lactalbumin containing cow milk from transgenic cow
Rosie useful for human infant consumption.
22 In a male gametophyte of an angiosperm, the following structures are 3
present:
1.Germ pore
Located on the pollen grain's exine layer, where sporopollenin is absent.
The germ pore allows the pollen grain's contents to move into the pollen
tube. It also helps form the pollen tube and release male gametes during
fertilization.
2.Sporopollenin
A pigment found on the outer surface of pollen grains. It's one of the most
resistant organic materials known, able to withstand high temperatures
and strong acids and alkali.
3.Generative cell
One of the two cells inside the pollen grain, which gives rise to male
gametes through mitosis.
23 a) Sperm A [0.5] 3
b) In the figure given, Sperm ‘A’has come in contact with the zona
pellucida layer (P) of the ovum (Q), it will induce changes in the
membrane that will block the entry of additional sperms (B and C). Thus,
it ensures that only one sperm can fertilise the ovum. [0.5]
• The secretions of the acrosome of sperm A will help it to enter into the
cytoplasm of the ovum (Q) through the zona pellucid (P) and the plasma
membrane, this will induce the completion of the meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte (Q). [1]
• The second meiotic division in Q being unequal will result in the
formation of a second polar body and a haploid ovum. Then, the haploid
Page | 61
 nucleus of the sperm ‘A’ and that of the ovum (Q) will fuse together to
form a diploid zygote. [1]
24 a) The reason Trisomy is the non-disjunction of 21st chromosome during 3
gamete formation.(during meiosis ) 1M
b) the foetus is suffering from Down’s syndrome so it is advisable to
terminate the pregnancy. 1M any two symptoms of Down’s syndrome 1M
3
25 a) Repressor 1m
b) prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.1m
c) presence of inducer(lactose), 0.5m lactose bind to repressor and
removes it from the operator region, thus RNA polymerase transcribes the
operon. 0.5m
26 a)The common cold is caused by rhinoviruses, while pneumonia can be 3
caused by a variety of organisms, the most common type of bacterial
pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. 1m
b) Symptoms of the common cold include a runny or stuffy nose,
headache, cough, and loss of smell or taste. Symptoms of pneumonia
include wheezing, troubled breathing, chills, and cough. 1m
c) A cough is a symptom common to both the common cold and
pneumonia. 1m
27 True [0.5 marks] - Plasmids with a single restriction site get cut at only 3
one site increasing the possibility of obtaining a cloned vector rather than
those with multiple cleaving sites for the same enzyme. [1 mark] [Accept
any other valid answer]
(b) - False [0.5 marks] - Plasmids extracted from the bacteria cannot be
used as it is as the pathogenic genes need to be removed before it can be
used as a vector. [1 mark]
28 Ex-situ conservation strategies helps- 3
1.To conserve those animals that have become extinct in wild but can be
maintained in zoological parks.
2.To preserve gametes of threatened species in viable condition through
cryopreservation.
3.To propagate threatened plants via tissue culture.
4.To grow plants with recalcitrant seeds in orchards where all possible
varieties are maintained.
5.To grow plants with recalcitrant seeds in orchards where all possible
varieties are maintained.
6.To conserve seeds of commercially important plants in seed banks.
7.To save endangered or threatened plant that needs urgent measure to
save it from extinction in botanical gardens.
(any 6 points 0.5*6)
29 a) in A – white winged in B- dark winged (0.5*2) 4
b) pre industrialisation era had lighter colour tree trunk but in post
industrialisation era tree trunks became dark due to deposition of soot
which made white colour moth more visible to predators. 2m
c) Natutal selection OR antibiotic resistant bacteria/pesticicide resistant
insect/pest. 1m
Page | 62
30 a) primary immune response and secondary immune response 0.5*2m 4
b) primary immune response is due to initial exposure to antigen, it is
slow and produces less number of antibodies but produces memory B and
T-lymphocytes. During subsequent infections to same antigen leads to
secondary immune response which is quick and produces more antibodies
with the help of memory cells so more effective to neutralise the antigen.
2m
c) Vaccination/Immunisation
OR
Tetanus antitoxin/ Antivenom injection for snake bites. 1m
31 a) human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and relaxin 5
only produced during pregnancy. Levels of estrogen and progesterone
increase in pregnant women blood. 0.5*4=2m
b) diagram 1m + each correct labelling 0.5*4=2m

OR
a) In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves several key steps: ovarian
stimulation with medication to produce multiple eggs, egg retrieval from
the ovaries, sperm collection, fertilization of the eggs in a lab, embryo
culture, and finally, the transfer of one or more embryos into the woman's
uterus. 3m
b) No Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is not IVF technique as
inthis method Ovum is collected from suitable donor and transferred into
fallopian tube of female, thus the fertilisation of the ovum occurs in the
fallopian tube of the female. It is In-Vivo method. 2m
32 (a) 1 mark each for the following:
- PCR is faster than the generation time of many microbes.
- An origin of replication is not required for PCR as is required in
plasmids.
[Accept any other valid answer]
(b) 0.5 marks each for the following: 5
- Step 1
- Heat causes denaturation of DNA.
(c) No DNA would be amplified OR the reaction would stop.
(d) PCR would be an important step just before the process of ligation,
done
before transformation into the required host.
Page | 63
 OR
a) 1 mark each for the following:
- When a target gene gets inserted into a marker gene which has a
restriction
site, it inactivates the production of the marker
2
Competency Focused Practice Questions | Biology | Grade 12 20
- The absence of a characteristic that was coded for by the marker is
useful in
the detection of cells with the recombinant vectors.
[Accept any other valid answer]

b) ) ADA is caused due to the deletion of the gene coding for adenosine
deaminase.
(c) 0.5 marks each for the following methods:
- bone marrow transplantation
- enzyme replacement therapy
- gene therapy
(d) 0.5 marks for each of the following:
Problem - all three methods are not completely curative.
Way to overcome - introducing the gene coding for ADA from marrow
cells into
early embryonic cells could permanently cure the disorder.

33 a) An ecological pyramid represents the distribution of energy or biomass

among different trophic levels in an ecosystem, visually showing how
energy decreases as you move up the food chain; however, its limitations :
1) not accurately depicting complex food webs 5
2) not considering the same species existing at multiple trophic levels
within an ecosystem 3M
b) An inverted pyramid of biomass occurs when the biomass of primary
producers (like phytoplankton in an ocean) is significantly less than the
biomass of the primary consumers (like zooplankton) at the next trophic
level, meaning the "base" of the pyramid is smaller than the levels above
it; a prime example is a marine ecosystem where the small biomass of
phytoplankton supports a much larger biomass of fish that feed on them.
2M

OR

(a) 1 mark for each of the following:

- TRUE
- Reduction of the predator population will allow the prey population to
survive,
grow and reproduce, thereby increasing their abundance.
Page | 64
 (b) 1 mark each for the following:
- If the blue whale becomes extinct, the barnacles may slowly become
extinct/population may decline significantly as they depend on the blue
whale
for transport in search of food and a stable living place.
- If the barnacles become extinct, it may not impact the diversity of blue
whales
and they were not dependent on barnacles for survival.
(c) mutualism
(d) co-extinction

**********************

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER-4
BLUE PRINT
UNIT NAME OF THE UNIT QUESTION TYPE/MARKS TOTAL

MCQ(1) A&R SAI(2) SAII(3) CBQs LAQ

Qs(1) s

VI REPRODUCTION 2(1) 1(1) 1(2) 2(3) - 1(5) 16

VII GENETICS&EVOLUTION 2(1) 1(1) 1(2) 2(3) 1(4) 1(5) 20

VIII BIOLOGY IN HUMAN 3(1) - 1(2) 1(3) 1(4) - 12

WELFARE

IX BIOTECHNOLOGY &ITS 1(1) 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) - 1(5) 12

APPLICATIONS

X ECOLOGY & 4(1) 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) - - 10

ENVIRONMENT

TOTAL 12(1) 4(1) 5(2) 7(3) 2(4) 5(3) 70

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER-4 (2024-2025)
CLASS-XII SUBJECT- BIOLOGY (044)
MAX.MARKS-70 MARKS TIME-3 HOURS
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS-
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.

Page | 65
 (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write
the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q.n Question Mark
o s
1 During microsporogenesis in maize plant, a microspore mother cell with 22 1
chromosomes divides to give rise to the microspore tetrad. What will be the ploidy
of the pollen grains formed from this microspore tetrad?
(a) n (b) 2n (c) 3n (d) 4n

2 Which of the following statements is/are correct about ZIFT and GIFT as methods 1
of helping conception in cases of infertility?
P) ZIFT can help where the female is unable to form a viable ovum.
Q) ZIFT uses methods of in vitro fertilisation.
R) GIFT involves the injection of one's own ovum into the body.
S) GIFT uses in vivo fertilisation method.
(a) only P (b) only P and R (c) only Q, R and S (d) all - P, Q, R and S

3 Moths are generally either dark or light in colour. Dark moths excel in dark 1
environments, while light moths thrive in bright environments. Intermediate-
coloured moths are disadvantaged, lacking effective camouflage in either setting.
Which type of natural selection does this phenomenon exemplify?
(a) directional (b) stabilising (c) disruptive
(d) The phenomenon described does not exemplify natural selection.

4 Grass hoppers are insects that follow the XO type of sex determination. Which of 1
the following statements is ALWAYS TRUE about this type of sex determination?
(a) Eggs that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.
(b) Eggs that have an X chromosome will give rise to a female grass hopper.
(c) Sperms that have an X chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.
(d) Sperms that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.

5 A substrate is the surface on which an organism lives or survives on. Which of the 1
following acts as the substrate that provides energy in a detritus food chain?
(a) sunlight (b) green plants (c) decomposers (d) dead organic matter

6 A biocontrol agent to be part of an integrated pest management should be 1

(a) species-specific, symbiotic, no negative impacts on non-target insect
(b) free living, broad spectrum, impacting non-target insect
(c) species-specific, narrow spectrum, no negative impact on non-target insect (d)
non specific, broad spectrum, impacting non-target insect

Page | 66
7 In which of the following diseases is/are the parasites transmitted to a healthy 1
individual through the bite of a female mosquito?
P) Malaria Q) Ascariasis R) Filariasis
(a) only P (b) only P and Q (c ) only P and R (d) all - P, Q and R

8 What does I in the restriction enzyme named 'Hin S2 I' indicate? 1

(a) It cuts after the first nucleotide in the restriction site.
(b) It is the first enzyme isolated from strain S2 of the bacterium.
(c) There is definitely more than one enzyme isolated from the same bacterium.
(d) There is only one enzyme that can be used to digest a plasmid from strain S2
for the bacterium.
9 A stable community is usually resistant to invasion by alien species. Which of the
following would NOT be affected in a stable community due to this resistance?
(a) species richness (b) productivity (c ) co-extinction (d) total biomass

10 Identify the molecule(A) shown below and select the right option giving its source 1
and use:

Molecule (A) Source Use

(a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates dopamine transport
(b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant,slows body functions
(c) Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
(d) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

11 In which of the following is competition MOST LIKELY to occur?

P) related species in the same environment
Q) related species in different environments
R) unrelated species in the same environment
S) unrelated species in different environments
(a) only P and Q (b) only P and R (c) only Q and S (d) only P, Q and R

12 An ecology student says that in marine food chains where the pyramid of biomass 1
is inverted, the 10% rule of energy transfer is not applicable. Is the statement
CORRECT and why?
(a) No, because every level still gets 10% of the energy from the lower level.
(b) Yes, because there are more consumers and so more energy is transferred.
(c) No, because the pyramid of biomass can never be inverted for any food chain.
(d) Yes, because there is lower biomass of producers in these food chains so less
energy is transferred.
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
Page | 67
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion (A)-An angiosperm flower represents the modified condensed shoot 1
which performs the function of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R)-The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls
and megasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively.
14 Assertion (A) - A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood groups. 1
Reason (R)- When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO blood groups, they
both express their own types.
15 Assertion (A) –Bacteriophage vectors are more advantageous than Plasmid 1
vectors.
Reason (R)- Bacteriophage vectors can easily detected at the time of cloning
experiments.
16. Assertion (A): In the absence of a predator, the prey population growth will always 1
be exponential.
Reason (R): Exponential growth is when the resources and the environment allow
an organism to realise fully its innate potential to grow in numbers.
Section - B
17 Attempt either option A or B 2
A. Given below are the pictures- A-fore limb of man, B-wing of the bat and
C-wing of insect. Based on your observations, Form one pair of homologous
organs and one pair of analogous organs from them giving appropriate reasons.

OR

B. Given below is the karyotype of an individual.

Page | 68
 (a) What are the characteristic reproductive and physical features of such an
individual?
(b) What is the category of such disorders called? How is it caused?
18 A biotechnologist wants to grow a variant of the lactobacillus species in a 2
bioreactor. Lactobacillus is an anaerobic bacterium commonly used as a starter
culture for dairy products. Shown below is a bioreactor she/he had in her/his
laboratory.

(a) Identify ONE component that should definitely NOT be present in the reactor
to grow the lactobacillus species. Justify.
(b) Explain TWO quantities that the sensors in the bioreactor should monitor.

19 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.The menstrual cycle can be divided into 4 phases: menstrual phase, follicular
phase, ovulation phase, luteal phase. During the follicular phase, hormones are
released in good amounts. (a)Name two pituitary hormones released during this
phase.(b) State TWO events that are triggered by the surge of one of these
hormones.
OR
B.A doctor says that the placenta produces relaxin which plays a crucial role
during pregnancy.
(a) Is she correct? If correct, justify/If not correct, provide proper reason.
(b) Name TWO other hormones secreted by the placenta during pregnancy.

20 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.In a patient, a mass of cells removed from the liver was found to be producing
large amounts of the enzyme pepsin. In the same patient, a tumor was found in the
stomach.
(a) What property of a tumor can be identified based on the statements above?
Give a reason to support your answer.
(b) What are tumors exhibiting the property identified in (a) called? How will
these identified tumors affect liver cells?
OR
B.AIDS is a disease caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and,
over time, this causes an individual to become immuno-deficient. The virus
attaches itself to an animal cell where the viral genome replicates and produces
more virus particles.
Page | 69
 (a) Name the process of HIV virus infecting an animal cell, and the cell(s) that are
most likely to be targeted?
(b) Why is the integration of the viral genome with the host genome important for
the virus to form new virus particles?
21 (a) A coral reef can be regarded as an ecosystem. Mention any TWO reasons. 2
(b) The net primary productivity (NPP) of a coral reef is approximately 2000 g
C/m2/year and the gross primary productivity (GPP) is 4000 g C/m2/year.
Calculate the respiration losses (R) of this ecosystem.
Section - C
22 Attempt either option A or B. 3

A.Reema was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis after burning her face on a lamp.
Multiple sclerosis is the most common demyelinating disease in which the
insulating covers of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord are damaged. This
damage disrupts the ability of parts of the nervous system to transmit signals. As
per reports, she regained much of her brain function including her vision through
stem cell therapy.

(a) Which part of Reema's body could these stem cells have been sourced from?
(b) Write stepwise, how would stem cell therapy have helped Reema?
OR
B. Today, many genetic disorders can be detected using a single cell from an
embryo. This helps in planning the child's health care in advance, and in some
cases even treating the disorder while the baby is still in the womb.

(a) Identify a biotechnological technique that can be used to amplify the small
DNA sample from a single cell. Write the steps.
(b) Can the technique identified in (a) be used to detect the presence of RNA
viruses? Justify.

23 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted by 3

the government of India with the intension of reducing the incidence of illegal
abortion and consequent maternal mortality and morbidity. According to this act, a
pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered grounds within a certain
period of pregnancy on the opinion of one/two registered medical practitioner(s).

(a)According to this act, which is the suitable period for carrying out MTP during
pregnancy on certain considered grounds on the opinion of one registered medical
practitioner?
(b)State the special condition where the opinion of two registered medical
practioners is needed to decide that ground exists for carrying out MTP.
(c)Mention TWO grounds for such terminations of pregnancies.

24 Each Mango fruit contains one seed. Two mango seeds, X and Y were sown in the 3
soil. From Seed X, 3 plant saplings germinated but from seed Y only 1 plant
sapling germinated.
Page | 70
 A. For seed X which is apomictic, calculate the number of:
i) Embryo(s) ii) Embryo sac(s) iii) Ovules in this seed’s ovary
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed X.

25 Hershey and Chase performed several experiments to find the chemical nature of 3
the genetic material that is present in all organisms.

(a) What did Hershey and Chase use in their experiment to verify genetic material?
(b) List the steps they followed to verify it.
(c)Which molecule did they prove as the genetic material?

26 Shown below is a pedigree of an individual X who is suffering from a genetic 3

disease. Use the pedigree to answer the questions that follow:

(a) Complete the following statement about this disease:

The trait for the disease is linked to ___________ (X-chromosome/ Y chromosome
/ autosome) and is __________ (dominant/recessive).
(b) Give a reason to support your answer to (a).
(c) Identify the genotypes of individuals R and S marked in the pedigree.

Page | 71
27 Identify A,B,C,D,E and F in the following table- 3

S.no Name of the microbe Product Function/Purpose

obtained
1 Trichoderma polysporum A immunosuppressive agent in
organ-transplant patients

2 B Statins blood-cholesterol lowering

agents
3 Streptococcus Streptokinase C

4 D Swiss cheese large holes due to

production of a large amount
of CO2
5 Penicillium notatum Penicillin E
6 F dried spores kill the caterpillars of the
/toxin pest

3
28 The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows
a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move
away from the equator towards the poles. Ecologists and evolutionary biologists
have proposed various hypotheses. Give three hypotheses for explaining why
tropics show greatest levels of species richness.

Section – D

29 Regulation of gene expression may occur at various levels. In eukaryotes, the

regulation could be exerted at (i) transcriptional level (formation of primary
transcript), (ii) processing level (regulation of splicing), (iii) transport of mRNA
from nucleus to the cytoplasm, (iv) translational level. In prokaryotes, control of
the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene
expression. A geneticist, Francois Jacob and a biochemist, Jacque Monod were
first to elucidate a transcriptionally regulated system-lac operon in prokaryotes.

1
a. How do you define the term operon. And what does lac refer to? 1
Page | 72
 b. What does ‘i’ stand for? And write its function in lac operon.

Attempt either subpart c or d

2
c. State the role of each of the following- o, p, z, y, a in lac operon. Which of
them is responsible for switching on and off of the operon.
OR =4
d. Identify and Mention the role of any two of the following -A, B , C in
functioning of the lac operon.
30 Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a
few of these exposures result in disease. This is due to the fact that the body is able
to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to
fight the disease-causing organisms, conferred by the immune system is called
immunity. Immunity is of two types: (i) Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired
immunity. Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the
time of birth. Acquired immunity, on the other hand is pathogen specific. It is
characterised by memory. This means when our body encounters a pathogen for
the first time it produces a response called primary response. Subsequent encounter
with the same pathogen elicits a secondary or anamnestic response. This is
ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter.

a.How are primary response and secondary or anamnestic responses carried out? 1
b. Which of the above responses will be carried out with more intensity and why? 1

Attempt either subpart c or d.

c. State active immunity and passive immunity. Which type of immunity will act
when- i.“Infectious organisms gains access into body during natural infection” and
ii.“The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother fed to an infant during
lactation” . 2
OR
d.Mention the principle of immunisation or vaccination. How do vaccines act in =4
case of deadly infections like tetanus or in case of snake bite? Name the type of
immunisation
SECTION E

31 Attempt either option A or B.

A i.With the help of a schematic diagrams only, compare spermatogenesis and
oogenesis in humans. (Highlight the main differences).
ii. Label the parts A to D in the given diagram of human sperm. Also write the
functions of any two from A,C and D.

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 OR
B.i. IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy
and/or space children. It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception
in India. List different types of IUDs presently available and state the mode of
action of each type.
ii.Give the hormonal composition of the oral contraceptives used by human
female.Explain how does it act as a contraceptive?
32 Attempt either option A or B. 5
A.The picture given below shows Darwin’s finches found in Galapagos islands.

I.a. Write your observations on the variations seen in Darwin’s finches shown
above.
b. Name and define this phenomena.
c. Give another example of this phenomena.
II. Who proposed the embryological support for evolution? Mention the proposed
observations of this theory. Name the evolutionary biologist who disproved this
theory.
OR
B.i. Given below is a DNA sequence and the genetic code. Answer the questions
based on these, assuming no post-transcriptional or post-translations modifications
will take place. -3’ TACATGCCGTACTGTACC 5’
(a) Write the nucleotide sequence that will be obtained on transcription of this
DNA sequence.
(b) Will translation of this sequence take place? Give a reason to support your
answer.
(c) What is the amino acid sequence that will be formed? Identify the sequence of
the first tRNA.
ii. Based on the image given below answer the questions that follow:

a. Which technique, commonly used in forensic studies such as paternal

testing, is depicted in the image?
b. What is the basic principle that the technique identified in (a) is based on?

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33 Attempt either option A or B. 5
A.Explain the steps involved in the production of genetically engineered
insulin.Also show it with the help of a diagram Mention the main challenge
encountered by Eli Lily company during its production. How did they overcome
it?
OR
B.Tobacco plants are damaged severely when infested with Meloidegyne
incognitia. Name and explain step wise, the strategy that is adopted to stop this
infestation.

MODEL QUESTION PAPER-4 MARKING SCHEME

CLASS-XII SUBJECT- BIOLOGY (044)

Q.No. Answers Marks

1 (a) n 1
2 (c) only Q, R and S 1
3 (c) disruptive 1
4 (d) Sperms that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male grass 1
hopper
5 (d) dead organic matter 1
6 (c) species-specific, narrow spectrum, no negative impact on non-target 1
insect
7 (c) only P and R 1
8 (b) It is the first enzyme isolated from strain S2 of the bacterium. 1
9 (b) productivity 1
10 (d) A-Morphine , Papaver somniferum ,sedative and pain killer 1
11 (b) only P and R 1
12 (a) No, because every level still gets 10% of the energy from the lower 1
level.
13 (c) A is true but R is false. Correct statement of reason is-The fertile 1
leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls and
megasporophylls which bear anthers and ovules respectively.
14 (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.IA ,IB, 1
i are multiple alleles .IA and IB are codominant.
15 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
Bacteriophages are better because of their high number per cell and high
copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cell.
16 (d) A is false, but R is true. 1
17 A- Pair of homologous organs: A and B, same structure developed 1/2x4=2
along different directions due to adaptations to different needs.
Pair of analogous organs: B and C, different structures evolving for the
same function and hence having similarity
OR
B--such an individual will have overall masculine characters,
development of breasts(gynaecomastia) is expressed.

Page | 75
 -individuals are sterile.
-klinefelter’s syndrome
-presence of an additional copy of X chromosome XXY/ 47
chomosomes.
18 (a) The air inlet/sparger should be absent. - Since lactobacillus is 1+1=2
anaerobic, it may not thrive well if oxygen is present.
(b) any two quantities such as: - A sensor should monitor temperature as
bacteria are likely to die if the temperature fluctuates. - Dissolved
oxygen should be measured to ensure anaerobic conditions are
maintained.
19 A (a) FSH, LH. (b) rupture of Graafian follicle, release of ovum 1+1=2
OR
B.(a)No she is not correct. - Relaxin is produced by the ovaries and not
the placenta.
(b) any two of the following: - human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
human placental lactogen (hPL) - estrogens - progestogens
20 A.(a) metastasis - Pepsin is produced mainly by the stomach cells, so the 1+1=2
tumor may have metastasised from the stomach to the liver.
(b) malignant tumors . They will disrupt the normal functioning of the
liver cells. / [Accept any other valid answer]
OR
B.(a) reverse transcription of the viral RNA to cDNA. the animal cells
affected are macrophages and Helper T –lymphocytes.
(b) If the viral DNA continues to stay in the cytoplasm, it can get
degraded by enzymes in the cytoplasm. [Accept any other valid answer]
21 (a)It is a self-sustaining system as corals and other organisms that live 1+1=2
on the reef produce their own food through photosynthesis, and the reef
itself provides a stable habitat for the organisms that live there.
[Accept any other valid answers]
(b) GPP - R = NPP , 4000 - R = 2000 R = 2000 g C/m²/year
22 A.(a)bone marrow OR preserved embryonic stem cells from Reena's ½+1.5+1=3
umbilical cord.
-Steps of stem cell therapy.
(b) Stem cells are capable of differentiating into all types of tissues and
organs. - Replacing the damaged nerve cells with healthy nerve cells that
have differentiated from the stem cells can help in treating the diseased
condition.
OR
B.(a)Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) - It can be used to detect very
small quantities of nucleic acid sequences as would be the case with
DNA from a single cell.
-Steps of PCR technique.
(b)Yes, it can be used. - PCR can be used to amplify/detect any
nucleotide sequence.
23 (a) 12 weeks of pregnancy. ½ +½+2=3
(b) Pregnancy lasted 12 weeks but fewer than 24 weeks.
Page | 76
 (c) The grounds for such termination of pregnancies are: (i) The
continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of
the pregnant woman or of grave injury physical or mental health;
or (ii) There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it
would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be
seriously handicapped
24 A. Seed X- 3 embryos; 1embryo sac; 1ovule; ½ x 3 =1½
B. The nucellar cells grow mitotically and develop into the embryos by
asexual reproduction. ½
C. The plants growing from seed X will have to share the
resources/endosperm so there is a possibility of some plant being 1
undernourished/; only one plant in seed Y will use the entire endosperm
for its growth or as the plants of seed X are clones they will not show
variation and may succumb to environmental stress;/ plants from seed Y
will have genetic variation and so can show greater adaptability.
25 (a) Bacteriophages, E.coli cells, 35S, 32P 1
(b) Infection, blending and centrifugation. 1½
(C) DNA is the genetic material and not proteins ½
=3
26 (a) X-chromosome - recessive ½+ ½
(b) It is appearing in both males and females but more in males which
need only one X chromosome for the trait to be expressed. The trait is ½ +½
being expressed in only in some children/small fraction and so is likely
to be recessive. [Accept any other valid answer.]
(c) R: XoX , S: XY ½+ ½ =3
27 A- Cyclosporin A, B- Monascus purpureus , C- Clot buster , ½ X6=3
D- Propionibacterium sharmanii, E- Antibiotics,F- Bacillus thuringiensis
28 (a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions 1X3=3
subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have
remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a
long evolutionary time for species diversification, (b) Tropical
environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more
constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche
specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity and (c) There is
more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher
productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity
29 a.Arrangement of polycistronic structural gene regulated by a common 1
promoter and regulatory genes is referred to as operon.
lac-Lactose
b. i gene -regulatory gene and codes for the repressor of the lac operon 1
c .o-operator, p-promoter, three structural genes (z, y, and a).
o.operator switches on and off. ½ x4=2
OR
A-Lactose, substrate inducer. /B- beta-galactosidase (β-gal), hydrolysis
of lactose to glucose and galactose. /C- permease, increases 1+1=2
permeability of the cell to β-galactosides.(any two)
Page | 77
30 a.The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the 1
help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e., B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
b. primary response is of low intensity. Secondary response is highly 1
intensified. This is ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have
memory of the first encounter
c. When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of
living or dead microbes or other proteins, antibodies are produced in the 1+1
host body- active immunity. When ready-made antibodies are directly
given to protect the body against foreign agents-passive immunity i.
active immunity ii. passive immunity.
OR
-The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property ½ x4=2
of ‘memory’ of the immune system.
-Tetanus- we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies, or
antitoxin (a preparation containing antibodies to the toxin).
- Snakebites-the injecting preformed antibodies against the snake
venom.
- Passive immunisation-

31 A.i. Schematic diagrams of Spermatogenesis and oogenesis highlighting

differences-

3+2=5

ii.A-Acrosome-is filled with enzymes that help fertilisation of the

ovum,B-Neck,C-Middle piece-possesses numerous mitochondria, which
produce energy for the movement of tail,D-Tail- facilitate sperm
motility essential for fertilisation.
OR
B.i. Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as
-the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop),
-the copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and
-the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20).
-IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions
released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
The hormone releasing IUDs, make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
ii. OCs-progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations. They are
used in the form of pills. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21
days starting preferably within the first five days of menstrual cycle.
After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be
Page | 78
 repeated in the same pattern till the female desires to prevent conception.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of
cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
32 I.a- there were many varieties of finches in the same island and all
evolved from same ancestor on the island itself. From the original seed-
eating features, many other forms with altered beaks arose, enabling
them to become insectivorous and vegetarian finches. 1x5=5
b.This process of evolution of different species in a given geographical
area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of
geography (habitats) is called adaptive radiation. Darwin’s finches
represent one of the best example.
c. Australian marsupials. A number of marsupials, each different from
the other evolved from an ancestral stock, but all within the Australian
island continent.
II.a. -proposed by Ernst Heckel based upon the observation of certain
features during embryonic stage common to all vertebrates that are
absent in adult.
- was disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer who noted that embryos never
pass through the adult stages of other animals
OR
B.i. a.5’AUG UAC GGC AUG ACA UGG 3’
b. yes - since the mRNA begins with a start codon
c.- MET-TYR-GLY-MET-THR-TRP - tRNA sequence: UAC
ii.a. DNA profiling/DNA fingerprinting
b. Each individual has a unique pattern of mini-satellites or repeated
DNA called VNTRs.
33 A-In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a pro-
hormone (like a pro-enzyme, the pro-hormone also needs to be
processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone)
which contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. This C peptide is
not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation into
insulin. The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA
techniques was getting insulin assembled into a mature form. In 1983,
Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences
corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them
in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were
produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds
to form human insulin.

OR
B.RNA interference (RNAi). RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic
organisms as a method of cellular defense. This method involves

Page | 79
 silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule
that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing). The
source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection by
viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements (transposons)
that replicate via an RNA intermediate. Using Agrobacterium vectors,
nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant . The
introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense
RNA in the host cells. These two RNA’s being complementary to each
other formed a double stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus,
silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. The consequence was that
the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific
interfering RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from
the parasite

*******************
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL PAPER-5
BLUE PRINT

UNIT MCQ(1M) AR(1M) SA1(2M) SA2(3M) CB(4M) LA(5M) TOTAL

UNIT VI 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 2(6) 0 1(5) 7(16)

UNIT VII 5(5) 1(1) 2(4) 2(6) 1(4) 0 11(20)

UNIT VIII 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) 1(4) 0 6(12)

UNIT IX 2(2) 0 1(2) 1(3) 0 1(5) 5(12)
UNIT X 1(1) 1(1) 0 1(3) 0 1(5) 4(10)

TOTAL 12(12) 4(4) 5(10) 7(21) 2(8) 3(15) 33(70)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL PAPER -5 (2024-25)
CLASS XII 044 BIOLOGY
Max. MARKS: 70. TIME: 3 HRS
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Page | 80
 Section A

1 What happen to haploid megaspores formed by megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm [1]
plant:

A) Upper three degenerate and lower one produce embryo sac

B) All four produce 4 embryo sac

C) Upper 2 degenerate and lower two produce embryo sac

D) Upper one produce embryo and lower 3 degenerate

2 Biogas is mainly formed of: [1]

A) CH4

B) CO2

C) N2

D) O2

3 Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from: [1]

A) dry land to wet land

B) land to water

C) fresh water to sea water

D) water to land

4 Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its [1]
chromosomal abnormality/linkage?

A) Erythroblastosis foetal is - X - linked

B) Down’s syndrome - 44 autosomes +XXY

C) Colour blindness - Y - linked

D) Klinefelter’s syndrome - 44 autosomes +XXY

5 It is observed that, the species diversity decreases as we [1]

A) move away from equator to poles

B) move from deserts to rain - forests

C) move along the equator

D) move towards equator from poles

Page | 81
6 The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is called: [1]

A) Ovulation phase

B) Proliferative phase

C) Luteal phase

D) Follicular phase

7 The improved trait that is found in the genetically modified transgenic crop Golden rice is: [1]

A) High vitamin - A content

B) High lysine content

C) Insect resistant

D) High protein content

8 Opium is obtained from: [1]

A) Colchicum

B) Cinchona

C) Cedrus deodara

D) Papaver somniferum

9 If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of [1]
N15 /N 15 : N 15 /N 14 : N 14 /N 14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would be:

A) 1:1:0

A) 0:1:3

C) 0:1:7

D) 1:4:0

10 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion [1]
which can be drawn for the character

A) The trait under study could not be colour blindness

B) The female parent is heterozygous

C) The male parent is homozygous dominan

D) The parent could not have had a normal daughter for this character

Page | 82
11 T.O. Diener discovered a: [1]

A) Infectious protein

B) Free infectious DNA

C) Free infectious RNA

D) Bacteriophage

12 In Gel Electrophoresis, fragments are moved from: [1]

1. Anode to Cathode

2. Cathode to Anode

3. Negative to Positive

4. Positive to Negative

A) 1, 4

B) 1, 3

C) 2, 4

D) 2, 3

13 Assertion (A): Female Drosophila is homogametic [1]

Reason (R): Both sex chromosomes of female are similar.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

14 Assertion (A): Embryos formed by in - vitro fertilization is used for embryo transfer in test [1]
tube baby program.

Reason (R): Such transfer to assist those females who cannot conceive.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Page | 83
 C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

15 Assertion (A): An ecosystem can be visualized as a functional unit of nature. [1]

Reason (R): Living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding
physical environment in the ecosystem.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

16 Assertion (A): Inflammatory response is produced in the body after some infections. [1]

Reason (R): This is one type of defence mechanism.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

Section B

17 Name the source of cyclosporine - A. How does this bioactive molecule function in our [2]
body?

OR

Name the hosts and the site where the following occur in the life cycle of a malarial
parasite:

(a) Formation of gametocytes

(b) Fusion of gametocytes

18 Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral [2]
infection. Explain the principle of any one of them.

OR

Explain how sticky ends are obtained in a DNA segment. Write their importance in DNA
technology.

19 Recall the experiments done by Frederick Griffith, Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, where [2]
DNA was speculated to be the genetic material. If RNA, instead of DNA was the genetic
material, would the heat - killed strain of Pneumococcus have transformed the R - strain
Page | 84
 into virulent strain? Explain.
20 Water lily is an aquatic plant, yet it shows entomophily. Why? [2]

OR

The diagram given below shows the events occurring in an ovary during Oogenesis in a
human female.

1. Identify X . Mention the time when the process occurs in a human female.

2. Identify Y . When and how is it formed?

3. Name the hormone produced by Z .

21 You are asked to find the genotype of a pea plant bearing violet flowers, growing in your [2]
school garden. Give your explanation to get the solution.
Section C

22 What are biofertilizers? Describe their role in agriculture. Why are they preferred to [3]
chemical fertilizers?
23 Given below is the diagram of the sectional view of human ovum just after ovulation: [3]

1. Name the part labelled ‘a’.

2. What is the function of‘a’?

3. Mention the site of fertilisation in the fallopian tube of the human female where the
ovum and sperm meet exactly.

24 Draw schematically a single polynucleotide strand Provides labels and directions. [3]
25 Egrets are often seen along with grazing cattle. How do you refer to this interaction? Give [3]
reason.
26 Write the functions of the following: [3]

1. Acrosome

2. Nucleus

Page | 85
 3. Middle piece

27 How did Louis Pasteur successfully demolish the popular theory of spontaneous [3]
generation? What were his conclusions?
28 Gene expression can be controlled with the help of RNA molecule. Explain the methodwith [3]
an example.
Section D

29 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]

The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder up to three
generations of a family. Observe the chart and answer the questions that follow.

1. Is the disease sex - linked or autosomal as per the chart? Give reasons in support of
your answer.

2. Is it a recessive or a dominant disorder?

3. Write the genotypes of the individuals C , D and H .

OR

If the female D marries a normal man, what will be the probability of their daughter
being a sufferer of this disease?

30 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Malaria and dengue fever are major mosquito - borne public health problems in tropical
countries. The authors report a malaria and dengue co - infection in an 11 - year - old boy
who presented with sustained fever for 10 days. The physical examination revealed a
flushed face, injected conjunctivae and left submandibular lymphadenopathy. His
peripheral blood smear showed few ring - form trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum.
His blood tests were positive for dengue NS - 1 antigen and IgM antibody, and negative for
IgG antibody. After the initiation of antimalarial treatment with artesunate and mefloquine,
his clinical condition gradually improved. However, he still had low - grade fever that
persisted for 6 days. Finally, he recovered well without fluid leakage, shock or severe
bleeding.

1. Name the fish that help in eradication of mosquito larvae.

2. What is the reason of symptoms of malaria?

3. Name the body parts and host in which following events takes place in life cycle of
plasmodium.

Page | 86
 a. asexual reproduction

b. sexual reproduction.

OR

Name some vector borne diseases and their vector.

Section E

31 Study the figures given below of the development of megaspore in an angiosperm and [5]
answer the questions that follow:

1. Describe the developmental events in the nucellus of the ovule. What is this type of
development of megaspore referred to as?

2. How many free nuclear mitotic divisions will the functional megaspore undergo to
form a mature embryo sac?

3. Describe the structure of a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant.

OR

1. Draw the sectional view of a seminiferous tubule of human. Label its any six parts.

2. Name the pituitary hormones involved in the process of spermatogenesis. State their
functions.

32 Study the given flow chart and answer: [5]

1. Name and explain the defence mechanism used.

2. In which plant it has been done?

3. Name the pathogen.

Page | 87
 4. Name the vector used in this technique.

OR

Gene therapy is an experimental technique that uses genes to treat or prevent disease. In the
future, this technique may allow doctors to treat a disorder by inserting a gene into a
patient’s cells instead of using drugs or surgery. Clinical gene crucial for the immune
system to function therapy is given to a 4 years old patient for an enzyme that is

Observe the therapeutical flow chart and give the answer to the following:

1. Complete the missing steps (B) and (D)

2. Identify the disease to be cured.

3. Why the above method is not a complete solution to the problem?

OR

4. Scientists have developed a method to cure this disease permanently. How?

33 1. What is population density? Why are ecologists interested in measuring it? [5]

2. Write the different ways of measuring population density. Explain any two with the
help of specific examples.

OR

Write a short note on the pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.

MODEL PAPER - 5 (2024-25)

Marking scheme
Section A

1 A [1]

2 A [1]

3 D [1]

4 D [1]

Page | 88
5 D [1]

6 C [1]

7 A [1]

8 D [1]

9 C [1]

10 B [1]

11 C [1]

12 D [1]

13 A. [1]

14 A [1]

15 A [1]

16 A [1]

Section B

17 The source of cyclosporine - A is Trichoderma polysporum (Fungus).1 [2]

Cyclosporine- A is an immunosuppressant medication and natural product. It is
used by mouth and injection into a vein for rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, Crohn's
disease, nephrotic syndrome, and in organ transplants to prevent rejection.1

OR

(a) RBCs of human 1

(b) intestine of female anopheles. 1

18 Two diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection are - [2]
i)
Recombin
ant DNA
technolog
y
ii)Polymer
ase Chain
Reaction
(PCR)
PRINCIP
LE OF
PCR -

Page | 89
 Amplifies a specific nucleic acid sequence exponentially producing billions of
copies. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the
symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of
their nucleic acid by PCR.

OR

Restriction enzymes cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the
palindrome site, between the same two bases on the opposite strands, this leaves
the single stranded portions at the ends, these overhanging stretches are sticky
ends.

When foreign DNA and vector DNA is cut by the same restriction enzyme, the
resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’ and, these can be
joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligase

19 RNA is less stable than DNA and hence, DNA replaced RNA as the genetic [2]
material in the living world. If RNA was the genetic material in Griffith’s
experiment, it would have been destroyed by heat. Thus, the heat killed strain of
Pneumococcus could not have transformed the R-strain into virulent strain.

20 Water lilies have waxy bowl shaped flower to float on water and have coloured [2]
flower to attract insects therefore in spite of being an aquatic plant its pollination
is entomophilous and hydrophily is not possible.
OR

a. Primary follicle
Primary follicle develops during fetal stage.

b. Secondary Oocyte
At follicular phase/ between 6-13 day of menstrual cycle secondary oocyte formed.

Tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division and this
unequal division results in a large haploid secondary Oocyte and a tiny first
polar body.

c. Hormone Z is Progesterone

21 Genotype of pea plant bearing violent flower is [2]

Carry a test cross / cross the violet flower bearing plant with the white flower
bearing plant / cross the violet flower bearing plant with the homozygous
recessive plant.

If the progeny has 100% violet flowers, the unknown genotype is homozygous
dominant.

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 If the progeny has 50% violet flower and 50% white flower, then the unknown genotype is
heterozygous dominant.
Section C

22 Biofertilizers are the living organisms that promote the growth of plants [3]
by replenishing the nutrients in the soil. These include bacteria, fungi
and cyanobacteria.
Role of biofertilizers in agriculture are as follows:

i. Some biofertilizers such as Rhizobium bacteria live in symbiotic

association with plants. They live within the root nodules of leguminous
plants. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen and enrich the nitrogen
content of the soil.
ii. Fungi such as Glomus forms a symbiotic association with plants
(mycorrhiza) by absorbing phosphorus and passing it to plants.
iii. Cyanobacteria such as Nostoc and Anabaena fix atmospheric nitrogen and
act as biofertilizers especially in paddy fields.
Biofertilizers are preferred over chemical fertilizers a
farmer relies on biofertilizers then chemical fertilizers
because

i. Chemical fertilizers significantly increase the soil pollution and

reduce the quality of soil, cause water pollution, when it drains into
nearby water bodies, after rain.
ii. Overuse of chemical fertilizer makes the soil infertile.

23 i. The part labelled ‘a’ is Zona Pellucida. [3]

ii. The function of ‘a’: It is an inner, thick and non-cellular layer, which gets
digested by acrosin secreted by sperm, to help its entry inside the egg.
After penetration of sperm, Zona pellucida becomes harden due to cortical
reaction, to prevent the entry of additional sperms.
iii. The fertilization takes place mostly in the ampullary-isthmic junction of the
fallopian tube (oviduct).
24 [3]

25 Commensalism [3]
- As egrets move, the cattle stir up and flush out from the vegetation the

Page | 91
 insects which otherwise might be difficult for the egrets to find and catch.
Thus, the egrets are benefited while the cattle are neither benefited nor
harmed.

26 Functions: [3]
1. Acrosome: It contains proteolytic and Lysosomal enzymes known as
Sperm lysins like acrosin and hyaluronidase. These enzymes
digest the outer covering of ova and thus help to penetrate the egg
(ovum) at the time of fertilization.
2. Nucleus: The nucleus of the sperm contains DNA as the genetic
material. During fertilization nucleus of sperm fuses with the female egg
nucleus. The genetic material of the sperm and ova nucleus help in the
inheritance of characters to the offspring.
3. Middle piece: It contains spiral mitochondria. These mitochondria generate
energy for the movement of sperm.

27 He used particular type of flasks in his experiment. [3]

His flasks were pre-sterilised and heat-killed yeast culture was kept in them.

- One flask was kept closed and the other was left open.
- He showed that in the closed pre-sterilised flask, life did not come from
the killed yeast, in the other flask that was kept open, life appeared from
killed yeast. This dismissed the theory of spontaneous generation.
- He concluded that life can come from pre-existing life.

28 25. Gene expression can be controlled by using RNA molecule. The [3]
technology is called RNA interference or RNA. It is used to block the
expression of certain genes and also referred to as gene silencing.
During this process a complementary RNA to the mRNA being produced
by the gene is introduced into the cell. This RNA binds to the mRNA
making it double stranded and, therefore, stops translation. Resistance
to nematode Meloidogyne incognita in tomato has been achieved by
this method.

SECTION- D

29 Sex linked disorder. [4]

More males are affected in the family as males have only one X chromosome
which if affected expresses.

Recessive disorder
C -XXc; D- XXc; H- XXc

Page | 92
 OR

Probability 0%

30 Gambusia fish. [4]

After sporozoite infection when RBC ruptures a toxic substance haemozoin
is released which cause chilling and high fever.
liver cell of human
RBC of human
OR

Dengue, Chikungunya, Vector – Aedes mosquitoes.

SECTION -E

31 i. Megasporogenesis refers to the development of megaspores from the [5]

megasporocyte, the cell that undergoes meiosis. Meiosis of the
megasporocyte nucleus results in the formation of four haploid
megaspore nuclei. In most taxa, meiosis is followed by cytokinesis,
resulting in four megaspore cells.
ii. In the final round of mitosis 8 haploid nuclei are produced. Hence, the
functional megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic divisions to form eight celled
mature embryo sac.
iii.

Page | 93
 Pituitary hormones: -Luteinising hormone (LH), -follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
LH: It acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
FSH: It acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors which help
in the process of spermiogenesis.

32 i. RNA interference (RNAi) [5]

ii. Tobacco plant
iii. Meloidogyne incognita (nematode)
iv. Agrobacterium tumefaciens vector.
Or

Step (B): Lymphocytes are grown in the culture medium.

Step (D): Infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes into patients.

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

As genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal, the patient requires the
periodic infusion of cells.

If the gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells
at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

33 Population density means a number of individuals present per unit area, [5]
population density can be measured by determining the population size.
Ecologists are interested in measuring population density for the following
reasons:

a. The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the habitat.

b. Ecological processes such as the outcome of competition with another

species, the impact of a predator or the effect of pesticide application can be
easily evaluated in terms of change in the population size.

The different methods to study population size are as follows:

a. Percent cover or Biomass: In an area with 200 Parthenium plants and only
one banyan tree with a large canopy, the density of banyan tree is small but
Page | 94
 does not reflect its important role in the community. Here the percent cover or
biomass is a more meaningful method of assessing population density.

b. Total number: It involves the counting of organisms in the given area.

c. Relative density: In this method, there is no need to count the organisms

individually. Example, the number of fishes caught per trap gives the measure
of their total density m a given water body.

i. d. Indirect assessment: The tiger census is based on pugmarks and

faecal pellets. (Or)
Pyramid of Numbers: This pyramid shows the number of individuals at
different trophic levels. Producers are kept at the bottom of the pyramid;
followed by primary consumers, secondary consumers, and so on. In
most of the cases, the shape of the pyramid bottoms heavy. Generally,
the pyramid is upright but in some cases, this pyramid can be inverted in
shape.

Pyramid of Biomass: This pyramid shows the biomass (in terms of dry weight)
at different trophic levels. Producers are kept at the bottom of the
pyramid; followed by primary consumers, secondary consumers, and so
on. In most of the cases, the shape of the pyramid bottoms heavy.
Generally, the pyramid is upright but in some cases, this pyramid can be
inverted in shape

***********************
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION
CLASS XII BIOLOGY (044) MODEL PAPER-6
BLUE PRINT
UNIT MCQ A/R SA 1 SA 2 CBQ LA TOTAL

UNIT VI 2 (2) 1 (1) 1 (2) 2 (6) 1 (5) 7 (16)

UNIT VII 5 (5) 1 (1) 2 (4) 2 (6) 1 (4) 11 (20)

UNIT VIII 2 (2) 1 (1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 6 (12)

UNIT IX 2 (2) 0 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (5) 5 (12)

UNIT X 1 (1) 1 (1) 0 1 (3) 1 (5) 4 (10)

TOTAL 12 (12) 4 (4) 5 (10) 7 (21) 2 (8) 3 (15) 33 (70)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION

Page | 95
 CLASS XII BIOLOGY (044) PAPER - 6
TIME ALLOWED: 3 Hrs MAXIMUM MARKS:70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) All questions are compulsory
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section D has 2 Case Based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION A
Q.No Question Mark
1 Read the given statements.
i. Outer exine is made up of sporopollenin.
ii Inner intine is pectocellulosic in nature.
iii Generative cell is bigger and contains abundant food reserve.
iv Vegetative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the generative cell.

Which of the given statements are not true regarding structure of pollen
grain?
A (i) and (ii) only
B (ii) and (iii) only
C (iii) and (iv) only
D (i) and (iv) only
2 Complications due to various STIs may lead to
A pelvic inflammatory diseases
B still births
C ectopic pregnancies
D all of these.
3 Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be
transmitted together and are called
A allelomorph
B identical genes
C linked genes
D recessive genes
4 The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with a
pyrimidine base leads to, in the DNA double helix
A the antiparallel nature
B the semi-conservative nature
C uniform width throughout DNA
D uniform length in all DNA.
5 A tobacco plant heterozygous for a recessive character is self-pollinated and
1200 seeds are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the
parental genotype?

Page | 96
 A 1200
B 600
C 300
D 450
6 The three codons which result in the termination of polypeptide chain synthesis are
A UAA, UAG, GUA
B UAA, UAG, UGA
C UAA, UGA, UUA
D UGU, UAG, UGA
7 In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with
an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with
weights from 2 to 2.5 or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking
place?
A Cyclical selection
B Directional selection
C Stabilising selection
D Disruptive selection
8 Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?
A Wine
B Whisky
C Rum
D Brandy
9 Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column 1 Column 2
a Sporozoites i Infectious form of
Plasmodium
b Filariasis ii Aedes mosquito
c Typhoid iii Wuchereria
d Chikungunya iv Widal test
A a–(iv), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iii)
B a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
C a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
D a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii)

10 If you want to recover many copies of the target DNA, you will choose a vector
A which does not have origin of replication
B which does not have cloning site
C whose origin supports high copy number
D which has only one restriction site.
11 Bt toxin genes have been expressed in plants in order to provide resistance against
(i) lepidopterans and fungi
(ii) animals and bacteria
(iii) bacteria and fungi
(iv) coleopterans and dipterans
(v) lepidopterans

Page | 97
 A (ii) and (iii)
B (i), (ii) and (iv)
C (iii) and (v)
D (iv) and (v)
12 Pyramid of biomass for a grazing food chain represents
A gradual decrease in biomass from apex to base
B gradual decrease in biomass from producers to the tertiary consumers
C gradual increase of the biomass from producers to the tertiary
consumers
D no change in biomass.
Question No. 13 to 16 consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason(R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C A is true and R is false
D A is false but R is true
13 Assertion: In ovarian cycle corpus luteum is an exocrine gland.
Reason: It secretes Progesterone.
14 Assertion: Eukaryotic mRNA requires post transcription processing for
formation of functional mRNA
Reason: Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra nonfunctional segments called
introns
15 Assertion: External parasitism is generally marked by less
specialization than internal parasitism.
Reason: The structure of an internal parasite is usually very complex possessing
suckers, reproductive organs, etc.
16 Assertion: In malaria, a person experiences chill and high fever recurring every
three to four days.
Reason: This is caused by release of haemozoin with the rupture of liver cells.

SECTION B
Q.No Question Marks
17 Pollen banks are playing a very important role in promoting plant breeding 2
programme the world over.
How are pollens preserved in the pollen banks also, how are such banks benefitting
our farmers? Write any two ways.
OR
What is amniocentesis? How is it misused?
18 A pregnant human female was advised to undergo MTP. It was diagnosed by her
doctor that the foetus she was carrying has developed from a zygote formed by an
XX-egg fertilized by a Y- carrying sperm. Why was she advised to undergo MTP?
OR
Study the pedigree chart and answer.. Is the trait recessive or dominant? Autosomal
or sex-linked ?
Page | 98
19 (a) State Hardy Weinberg Law with its expression.
(b) List any two factors that can disturb the genetic equilibrium.
20 A patient with a viral infection is showing symptoms such as cough, nasal
congestion, sore throat, and tiredness and is diagnosed with the common cold.
(a) Mention the causative agent and the mode of spreading of the disease that could
result in the above symptoms and the disease.
(b) Arrange the respiratory regions from most to least concentration of virus
particles and the infected cells: trachea, bronchioles, and alveoli. Justify your
answer.
21 Bacterial cells offer certain advantages over plant or animal cells that make them an
easy choice for the production of many recombinant molecules. State TWO such
advantages.
OR
What are transgenic animals? Explain any TWO ways in which such animals
can be beneficial to humans.

SECTION C
Q.No Question Marks
22 In angiosperms, the male gametophyte has a simple structure while the female
gametophyte has a much more complex structure with multiple supporting cells in
it. How does such a structural difference help each gametophyte perform their
functions better?
23 Hormones play a crucial role in maintaining balance in living systems through
feedback loops. This means that release of a hormone regulates
(increases/decreases) its further release in the body. One such example is oxytocin
in the female reproductive system. Explain the feedback loop for oxytocin by
answering the following questions.
(i) From where is oxytocin released?
(ii) At what stage of pregnancy do oxytocin levels peak?
(iii) Is the feedback mechanism for oxytocin positive or negative in nature?
24 (i) Name the enzyme that catalyses the transcription of hn RNA
(ii) Why does hn RNA need to undergo changes? List the changes hn RNA
undergoes (iii) where in the cell such changes take place?
25 Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in its ‘switched off’ position.
Label (i) The Structural genes (ii) Repressor bound to its correct position
(iii) Promoter gene (iv) Regulator gene
26 A group of researchers want to study a protein's involvement in promoting contact

Page | 99
 inhibition.
(a) Suggest a type of cells into which they can express this protein, allowing them
to evaluate the extent of its functional capabilities. Give a reason to support your
answer.
(b) Mention any TWO factors that can lead to the formation of cells identified in
(a)
27 (a) What causes adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
(b) What are the THREE methods that are currently used for the treatment of
ADA?
(c) What is the problem with the methods described in (b)? How can this
problem be overcome?
28 A small town has a population of 10,000 people. In the past year, there were 250
births and 970 deaths in the town.
(a) Calculate the birth rate per thousand for the given population.
(b) Calculate the death rate per thousand for the given population.

SECTION D
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
Q.No Question Marks
29 Sewage refers to the municipal wastewater generated every day in the cities and
towns .Human excreta is the major component of it. It contains large amount of
organic matter and microbes out of which many are known to be pathogenic in
nature. Hence, it cannot be discharged into natural water bodies such as rivers,
streams etc. directly. Before the disposal this water has to be treated at STP. In
order to make it less polluting the treatment of wastewater is done by
heterotrophic microbes that are naturally found in the sewage.
1. Which of the following is known as physical treatment?
a. Primary treatment
b. Secondary treatment
c. Tertiary treatment
d. All of the above
2. What are flocs? How are they formed?
3. The sediment in the biological treatment is also called
a. Primary sludge
b. Secondary sludge
c. Activated sludge
d. non-activated sludge
OR
Biogas is a mixture of
a. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide
b. methane, carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulphide
c. Nitrogen dioxide and methane
d. Ammonium chloride, methane and hydrogen sulphide
30 When the reptiles came down, mammals took over the earth. There were
mammals in South America, which resembled some of the modern day
mammals. But due to continental drift, they disappeared whereas the pouched
Page | 100
 mammals of Australia flourished and evolved into the various forms of pouched
mammals that we see today. The most successful story is the evolution of man
with language skills and self-consciousness.
(i)Evolution of man is believed to have taken place in
A. Central America B. Australia C. Asia D. Africa
(ii) Mention TWO characteristic features that were the reasons for the
successful existence of mammals on earth.
(iii) What is wrong about evolution?
A Evolution is slow and continuous process of change
B All diversity of organisms has risen due to evolution
C Evolution is due to natural selection only
D Evolution is die to variations arising from changes in genetic material
OR
Which of the following is most important for speciation?
A Seasonal isolation B Reproductive isolation C Behavioural isolation
D Tropical isolation

SECTION E
Q.No Question Marks
31 With the help of schematic representations list down THREE differences between
oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

OR
The embryo sac represents the female gametophyte in a flowering plant.
(a) What are the constituents of the egg apparatus in the embryo sac?
(b) What is the ploidy of the cells of the egg apparatus?
(c) The formation of the embryo sac involves mitotic divisions that are "free
nuclear" till the 8-celled stage. What does the term "free nuclear" mean?
(d) The filiform apparatus at the micropylar end forms an important part of the
embryo sac. What is the importance of the filiform apparatus?

32 Tobacco is cultivated in several regions. However, its production was limited by

disease which is caused by a nematode Meloidegyne incognitia. Tobacco plants
infected by the nematode showed great reduction in the yield. To prevent this
infestation a defense mechanism has been adopted
(a) Explain the step-by-step process of this novel strategy to prevent the
infestation of tobacco plants
(b) Name the biotechnological process described in (a) and also the vector used
( c) Give a reason why it is the appropriate process to be used in this case.
OR
Vectors containing the foreign DNA have to be forced into host cells that are made
competent to do so.
(a) Explain why DNA vectors CANNOT pass through the cell membrane like
other molecules such as oxygen.
Page | 101
 (b) What is the common method to make the bacterial cells to take up the
recombinant DNA? Explain.
(c) Which method is more suitable for plant cells to take up DNA.

33 Describe the many steps involved in decomposition.

OR

In the adjacent population growth curve:-

(i) What is the name given to curves (A) & (B)?
(ii) Give the expressions to curves A and B
(iii) In absence of predators, which curve “A” or “B” would appropriately
depict the prey population?
(iv) When does curve ‘B’ change into curve ‘A’?

MODEL PAPER- 6 (23024-25)

MARKING SCHEME
SECTION A
Q.No Answer/ Value points Marks
Awarded
1 A 1
2 D 1
3 C 1
4 C 1
5 C 1
6 B 1
7 C 1
8 A 1
9 D 1
10 C 1
11 D 1
12 B 1
13 D 1

Page | 102
14 B 1
15 C 1
16 A 1

SECTION B
Q.No Answer/ Value Points Marks
Awarded
17 Cryopreservation in liquid nitrogen -196 degrees. 1
Plant breeding, growing hybrid varieties. 1
OR
Prenatal test o find out any genetic disorders.
Misused to know the sex of the foetus and harm it if were a girl. 1

1
18 Develop into klinefelter male child. 1
Have feminine characters, gynecomastia and sterile. (Any two) 1
OR
Autosomal and recessive
1 +1
19 Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle stating that the genetic variation 1
in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the
absence of disturbing factors.
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be disturbed by a number of forces,
including mutations, natural selection, genetic recombination, genetic drift,
and gene flow.(Any Two) 1
20 Rhinoviruses 1
Trachea, Bronchioles and alveoli 1
21 Have plasmid DNA-Extra chromosomal and replicating. 1
They can multiply on their own. (Any other relevant point) 1
OR
Correct definition.
Any two ways 1
1
SECTION C
22 The pollen grain needs to be transferred to the stigma. Hence, smaller size 1+2
makes it easier for the movement. - The ovule develops into the seed and
supports the growing embryo. The supporting cells provide nourishment to
the growing embryo.
23 (i) Pituitary 1
(ii) Just before parturition and increases during labour 1
(iii) Positive
1
24 (i) RNA Polymerase II 1
(ii) Splicing , Tailing and capping. 1
(iii) In the nuclear region
Page | 103
 1
25 TB Pg No. 101 Fig 5.14 1 +2
26 (a) Tumor/Cancerous cells - Expressing them in tumour cells will help in 1
identifying their ability to promote contact inhibition as these cells already
have lost that property. (b) Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays ,
2
Non-ionizing radiations like UV rays , Chemical carcinogens , Infection by
oncogenic viruses. (Any Valid answer)
27 (a) Mutation in ADA gene 1/2
(b) ADA deficiency can be cured by (1) Bone marrow transplantation
(2) Enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the 1 + ½
patient by injection..
(3) Gene therapy- lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a
culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector)
is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to
the patient.
( c) But the problem with both of these approaches that they are not
completely curative However, as these cells are not immortal, the patient
requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
However, if the gene is isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is
3
introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.
28 (a) Births x 1000/ Total population =25 2
(b) deaths x 1000? Total population = 97
SECTION D
29 1. a 1
2. Mesh like structures 1
Formed by the association of bacterial and fungal filaments
1
in biological treatment of sewage.
3. c
OR 1
a
1
30 (i) d 1
(ii) Adaptability, complex brain structure, ecological diversiy and diverse 2
diet patterns. (Any Valid Answer)
(iii) c
OR
1
b
1
SECTION E
31 Schematic representations of oogenesis and spermatogenesis. 2
Any valid THREE differences between the processes. 3
OR
(a) Egg cell and 2 synergids
(b) Egg cell – haplod, synergids – haploid 1
1
Page | 104
 (c) A process where a cell’s nucleus divides multiple times without the 2
formation of a cell wall resulting in multiple nuclei in the cytoplasm. 1
(d) It guides pollen tube into the embryo sac.
32 (a) This decreasing in yield is prevented by RNAi (interference) strategy. 3
(b) This prevents translation of a specific mRNA silencing due to 1
formation of complementary dsRNA molecule.
(c) Source of complementary RNA is from infection by RNA viruses or
mobile genetic elements or transposons. 1
(d) Using Agrobacterium vectors nematode specific gene is introduced
which forms both sense anti antisense RNA or complememtary .
(e) It initiates the RNAi and silence the specific nematode.
(f) The parasite cannot survive in the transgenic host so the plant will be
protected.
(b) RNAi , Agrobacterium
(c) It silences specific mRNA to prevent the nematode from infecting plants.
OR
(a) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, which is negatively charged. Cell 2
membrane or plasma membrane is hydrophobic. It mainly comprises lipids
which do not allow hydrophilic molecules such as DNA to cross the cell
membrane 2
(b) Treating with a bivalent cation like calcium ion. Heat shock treatment. 1
( c) Biolistic gene gun.
33 Fragmentation: Organisms called detritivores fragment debris into smaller 1
pieces.
• Leaching: Water-soluble inorganic nutrients enter the soil horizon through
1
leaching and then precipitate as salts that are inaccessible to plants.
• Catabolism: Enzymes from bacteria and fungi break down waste into basic
inorganic compounds.
• Humification is the process by which humus, an amorphous substance with a 1
dark colour, accumulates. This decomposes at an incredibly slow rate and is
very resistant to microbial action. 1
• Mineralization: Some microorganisms further decompose the humus, which
1
causes the mineralization process to release inorganic nutrients.
OR
(i) A – Exponential Growth curve, B – Logistic Growth curve 1
(ii) Exponential Growth curve – dN/dt =rN 1
Logistic Growth curve – dN/dt = rN( K-N/K) 1
(iii) Curve A . In the absence of predators the prey population will grow 1
enormously in a short duration of time.
1
(iv) When unlimited resources are available

@@@@@@@@@@@@@

Page | 105
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-7 (2024-25) BLUE PRINT
CLASS: XII DURATION :3 Hrs

SUB: BIOLOGY(044) Max.Marks:70

S.NO LESSON MCQ AR VSA SA CB LA Total

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
1 FLOWERING PLANTS 1(1) 1(3) (2)4
2 HUMANREPRODUCTION 1(1) 1(3) (2)4
3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 1(1) 1(2) 1(5) (3)8
4 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE 2(1) 1(2) 1(3) (4)7
5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 2(1) 1(2) 1(3) (4)7
6 EVOLUTION 1(1) 1(1) 1(4) (3)6
7 HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES 1(1) 1(2) 1(4) (3)7
8 MICROBES IN HUMANWELFARE 1(1) 1(1) 1(3) (3)5
BIOTECHNOLOGY; PRINCIPLES AND
9 PROCESSES 1(1) 1(5) (2)6
10 BIOTECHNOLOGY-APPLICATIONS 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) (3)6
11 ORGANISMS & POPULATION 1(5) (1)5

12 ECOSYSTEM 1(1) 1(1) (2)2

13 BIODIVERSITY 1(3) (1)3

Total 12(1) 4(1) 5(2) 7(3) 2(4) 3(5) 33(70)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA HYDERABAD REGION

Model Paper-7
ClassXII Max.Marks:70
044 Biology(2024-25) Time:3 Hrs

GeneralInstructions:
(i) Allquestionsarecompulsory.
(ii) Thequestionpaperhasfivesectionsand33questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5
questions of 2marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks
each; Section– D has 2case-based questions of 4 marks each; and
Section–E has 3 questions of 5markseach.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been
provided
Page | 106
 insomequestions.Astudenthastoattemptonlyoneofthealternativesinsuch
questions.
(v) Wherever necessary,neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section –A
Q.No.1to12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct.
Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q.No Question Marks

1 The correct sequence of the various phases of menstrual cycle is, 1

A) Follicular phase, ovulatory phase, luteal phase
B) Ovulatory phase, follicular phase, proliferative phase
C) Follicular phase, ovulatory phase, proliferative phase
D)Luteal phase, ovulatory phase, follicular phase

2 Natural methods of contraception work on the principle of avoiding 1

chances of ovum and sperm meeting. It includes;
a). Periodic abstinenceb). Condoms
c). Coitus interruptusd). Lactational amenorrhea
A) a&b only
B) b&c only
C) a, b&c
D) a, c&d
3 When is it possible for a woman to be colorblind? 1
A) The father has normal vision and the mother is a carrier;
B) The father has normal vision and the mother is colorblind;
C)The father is colorblind and the mother has a normal vision;
D) The father is colorblind and the mother is a carrier.

4 Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and 1

choose the correct option:

Column I Column II
1) Dominance (i)Many genes govern a single character
2)Codominance ii)In a heterozygous organism only one
allele expresses itself
3) Pleiotropy iii)In a heterozygous organism both alleles
express themselves fully
4) Poly genic iv)A single gene influences many characters
inheritance
A) 1- ii, 2–i, 3 - iv, 4 - iii
B) 1 -ii, 2 - iii, 3 - iv, 4 - i
C) 1 -iv, 2 - i, 3 - ii, 4 - iii
D) 1- iv, 2 - iii, 3 - i, 4 - ii

Page | 107
5 Study he given flowchart shows the concept of reverse central dogma.
Enzymes used in this processes A,B, and C are respectively are:
1

A. A- DNA dependent DNA polymerase,B- RNA dependent DNA

polymerase, C-DNA dependent RNA polymerase
B. A- DNA dependent DNA polymerase, B- DNA dependent RNA
polymerase, C- RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C. A- DNA dependent RNA polymerase, B- DNA dependent DNA
polymerase, C-RNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. A- RNA dependent DNA polymerase, B- DNA dependent RNA
polymerase, C-RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
6 The given figure represents the process of transcription in bacteria 1

Select the option which correctly labels A, B and C.

(A) A-DNA, B - RNA, C - Rho factor
(B) A-RNA, B - RNA polymerase, C - Rho factor
(C) A-RNA, B - RNA polymerase, C - Sigma factor
(D) A-DNA, B - DNA polymerase, C- Sigma factor

Page | 108
 7. The illustration shows the comparative anatomy of vertebrate forelimbs. 1
This is evidence for:

A). Co-evolution B). Convergent evolution

C). Divergent evolution D). Genetic drift

8. Smack is chemically ...[a].... which is white and odorless and crystalline 1

in nature? This is obtained by ...[b].... Here [a] and [b] refer to;
(A) [a]–diacetylmorphine [b]acetylation of morphine
(B) [a]–morphine [b]–acetylation of hashish
(C) [a]–stimulant [b]–acetylation of morphine
(D) [a]–hallucinogen [b]–acetylation of hashish

9. Match the following list of bio active substances and their roles: 1

i) Statin a) Removal of oil stains

ii) Cyclosporin b) Removal of clots from blood
A vessels
iii) Streptokinas c) Lowering of blood cholesterol
e
iv) Lipase d) Immuno suppressive agent

Choose the correct match:

(A) i—b, ii—c, iii—a, iv—d
(B) i—d, ii—b, iii—a, iv--c
(C) i—d, ii—a, iii—b, iv—c
(D) i—c, ii—d, iii—b, iv—a
10. The enzyme (I) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells 1
and enzyme (II) for isolating genetic material from fungus.
Choose the correct pair of options from the following:
A ) (I) Cellulase (II) Protease
B) (I)Cellulase (II) Chitinase
C) (I) Chitinase(II) Lipase
D) (I) Cellulase (II) Lipase

Page | 109
11 Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of 1
early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
A). Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique
B). Recombinant DNA TechnologyC). Serum and Urine analysis
D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique

12 Which of the following statements is not correct? 1

A) The pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright
B) The pyramid of biomass in a sea is upright
C) The pyramid of numbers in a sea is inverted
D) Pyramid of energy is always upright

QuestionNo.13 to16 consist of two statements–Assertion(A) and Reason (R) .Answer the
Questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion(A):Corpus luteum degenerates if the ovum remains 1
unfertilized.
Reason(R): Corpus luteum secretes progesterone which maintains
the pregnancy.
14 Assertion(A):Genetic drift has a greater impact on small populations 1
compared to large populations.
Reason(R):Small populations have less genetic variation, making
them more susceptible to genetic drift.
15 Assertion(A):Yeast such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used 1
in baking industry
Reason(R):Carbon-dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread
dough to rise by thermal expansion
16 Assertion(A): In a terrestrial ecosystem detritus food chain is a major 1
conduit for energy flow
Reason(B): Solar energy is the direct source of energy supply in a
detritus food chain.
Section -B

Page | 110
17 Attempt either Option A or Option B 2
A: A microsporangium has 200 microspore mother cells. How many
male gametes will be produced by it?
OR
B. How flowers prevent self-pollination? Explain with the help of any
Four strategies developed by them.

Page | 111
18 i)Name the cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype 2
(genotype unknown) is crossed with the recessive parent.
ii)What is the purpose of conducting such a cross.

19 AttempteitheroptionAorB. 2
A:i) Mention the polarity of DNA strands a---b & c---d shown in the
replicating fork given below
ii) Name the strand which is synthesized continuous and the strand
that is synthesized in fragments

OR

B:Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Label

i)Promoter ii) Terminator iii) Templet strand iv ) Leading strand

20. a) Identify the chemical structure and name the drug obtained from it. 2

b) write its chemical name.How does it affect the body of the abuser.
21 Attempt either option A or B. 2
A) In the following diagram of the lac operon, an operon for inducible
enzymes, Identify component Y and enzymes E1,E2,E3

OR
B) i) What does pBR322 stand for?
ii) What is the significance of Ori in pBR322.

Page | 112
 Section -C
22 I .Identify and label the parts A,B,C,D in the given anatropous ovule 3

II. Write one function each of parts labeled as A and C.

23 In the figure given below, parts A and B show the level of hormones 3
which influence the menstrual cycle. Study the figure and answer
the questions that follow:

(a) Name the organs which secrete the hormones represented in

Parts A and B.
(b) State the impact of the hormones in part B on the uterus of
the human female during 6 to 15 days of menstrual cycle?
(c) State the role of estrogen and progesterone in females?
.
24 3
Study the picture given below and answer the questions;

a).Name and define the process shown in above picture

b).Name the three steps invoved in this process and define

c)Name the codons which terminates the aboveprocess.

Page | 113
25 Mention one application for each of the following: 3
(a) Passive immunization
(b) Colostrum
(c) Cytokinin-barrier
26 How do mycorrhizae act as biofertilizers? Explain. Name a genus of fungi 3
that forms a mycorrhizal association with plants.
27 The diagram given represents the schematic structure of proinsulin, which 3
changes to fully functional insulin.

i)State the change pro insulin undergoes to become functional insulin

ii)Name the modern scientific technique used for the production of human
insulin
iii)How are two polypeptide chains of fully functional insulin held together
28 Hotspots are regions of exceptionally high biodiversity. But they have 3
become regions of accidental habitat loss too. Name two hot spots of our
country. Why are they called ‘Hotspots’?
Section –D

29 A population of moths exhibit variations in wing coloration, with some 4

having light colored wings,others dark-colored wings. Researchers have
noticed that the wing coloration of moths is related to their ability to
blend in with the surrounding tree bark.
Given this information ,answer the questions below:
A) In the given case study, what does wing coloration represent in the
Moth population? 1
A. Genetic variation B. Environmental adaptation
C. Selective pressure D. Intraspecific competition
B) Based on the information provided in the case study, what can be
inferred about the evolutionary significance of wing coloration in
the moth population? 2
Attempt either subpart C or D.
A) What environmental change caused the peppered moth to change
from a light color to a darker color? 1
OR
B) What does it mean by Industrial melanism

Page | 114
30 Given below is a sewage treatment plant.Read the passage 4

India's sewage treatment infrastructure faces significant challenges.

According to CPCB, only 30% of India's sewage is treated, with the
remaining 70% flowing into rivers, lakes, and oceans. The government
has initiated programs However, implementation remainedslow .
Given this information, answer the questions below:
A. Which government program aims to improve sewage infrastructure
along the Ganges River? 1m
B. What according to you are two major challenges in implementing
effective sewage treatment in India? 2m
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. Which organisms play major role in treating millions of gallons of
sewage water as on today. 1m
D. What according to you is ‘ RRR’ principle in sewage treatment 1m

Section -E

Page | 115
31 A: i) Study the diagram and answer the following question: 5

a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’. 1m

b) State the function of interstitial cells. 1m
ii) show the schematic representation of spermatogenesis 3m
Attempt either option A or B

B: i) Study the diagram of section of ovary and answer the

following question

a). Label the parts A to D 1m

ii) Show the schematic representation of Oogenesis 4m
32 A: The picture given below shows the technique used for 5
generating multiple copies of the gene of interest

Page | 116
 (a) What is the technique called? 1
(b) Name the reactions at step I, step II and step III. 3
(c.) Explain the principle underlying this technique. 1

33 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Identify and explain the relationship between:

i) Cuscuta growing on a hedge plant
ii) Interaction between Clown fish and Sea anemone
ii) Egg laying relationship between a crow and a cuckoo
iii) Wasp visiting Fig tree
iv) When cattle trample on grass, the grass is crushed
OR

B. Why is the sobriquet ‘The Evil Quartet’ used in the context of

biodiversity? Name the members of this quartet. Why do we
grieve for the genes when a species is lost?

**********

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION

MQP- 7 Marking Scheme
Class: XII Max.Marks:70 M
Subject: Biology (044) Duration:3 Hrs

s.no. Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 D 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

117 | P a g e
7 C 1

8 A 1

9 D 1

10 C 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 C 1

17 A microsporangium has 200 microspore mother cells. How 2

many male gametes will be produced by it?
A) No of pollen grains produced by the 200 mmc
200x 4= 800 pollen grains - 1m
Each pollen grain carries two male gametes
800x 2=1600 male gametes- 1m
OR
Strategies evolved lay flowers to prevent self-pollination
4X¼=2m

i) Pollen release & stigma receptivity – not synchronised

(ii) Stigma and anther – placed at different positions

(iii) Self-incompatibility
(iv) Production of unisexual flowers
18. Test cross ½m 2
Example ½m
Purpose- 1m

19. Polarity of DNA strand 2

A ) i) a-b is 3'--> 5' ½m
c-d has polarity 5'--> 3'. ½m
ii) Leading and Lagging ½+½

20. Morphine ½m 2
Smack ½m
Di acetyl morphine 1m

118 | P a g e
21. Y- Inducer(lactose) ½ 2
E 1 -β-Galactosidase ½
E 2 –Permease ½
E 3-Transacetylase ½

22. A – Micropyle B – Outer integument 4X ½=2 3

C – Inner integument D – Embryo sac
Correct Function of part A,C ½+½=1
23. i) Pituitary ii) Ovary 2X ½ =1 3
b)Endometrium of uterus regenerates through
proliferates 1
c) Estrogen is the hormone that regulates the menstrual
cycle while progesterone is the hormone that supports
pregnancy 2X ½ =1

24. a) Translation and definition- 1m 3

b) three steps with definition- 1½ m
c) Stop codons- ½m

25. (a) Provide preformed antibodies / anti-toxins for quick 3

response in case of infection by deadly microbes(tetanus) or
snake bite =1
(b) Provides passive immunity / antibodies / Ig A to new
born =1
(c) Protection of non-infected cells from further viral
infection =1

26. Fungi form symbiotic association with plants called 3

Mycorrhiza. 1m
Help to absorb phosphorus from soil and provides to the plant.
It also provides resistance to root borne pathogens and
increases plant growth. Thus, it acts as a bio fertilizer. 1m
The fungi belonging to the genus – Glomus form mycorrhizal
associations 1m
27. Removal of C peptide -1m rDNA technology-1m 3
Disulphide bond /S-S bond 1m
28. Two biodiversity hotspots in India are the Western Ghats and 3
the Himalayas ½+½
They are called biodiversity hot spots as they show-
(i) High level of species richness. 1m
(ii) High degree of endemism 1m

29. case study, each correct answer carry 1m /2m/1m 4

119 | P a g e
30. A) Namami Ganga 4
B) Funds/Technology/Awareness
c)Microbes/ Reduce Reuse Recycle where possible
1m /2m/1m
31. a)A=Secondary spermatocyte, B=Spermatozoa ½+½ 5
b)Interstitial cells (Leydig cells) synthesize and secrete
androgens (testicular
hormones) 1m
ii) schematic diagram with label 3m
OR

i)Correct answer 1m
ii)schematic diagram with label 4m

32. i) Polymerase chain Reaction 1m 5

ii) Each step-
1+1+1=3m
iii) the ability of DNA polymerase to synthesize new strands
of DNA that are complementary to a template strand - 1m

33. Relevant answer with explanation 1+1+1+1+1 5

OR
The term ‘Evil Quartet’ is used to refer to the cause of the loss of
biodiversity. 1m
The members of the quartet are:
i)Habitat loss and fragmentation: When due to various human
activities, large habitats are broken up into smaller fragments
(the animals requiring large territories such as elephants, are
getting affectedand their populations decline).

(ii) Over-Exploitation: When the need for a resource becomes

greed. e.g., overexploitation of passenger pigeons led to its
extinction. Also marine fish are on the brink of being
endangered due to overexploitation.

(iii) Alien Species Invasion: Introduction of an intentional or

unintentional species to a nearby area may disturb the
harmony of existing species. e.g., Eichhornia after its
introduction posed a big threat to the native species.

(iv) Co-extinction: Extinction of one species invariably leads to

the extinction of another when they are associated with each
other in an obligatory way.ex: When a host species becomes
extinct, the obligate parasites that depende on it also die.
1+1+1+1
120 | P a g e
 @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 8 (2024-25)
Blue print

CLASS XII 044 BIOLOGY

Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

MCQ A/R 2 Marks 3 Marks 4 Marks 5Marks Total

marks

UNIT I 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 2(6) 0 1(5) 16

UNIT II 5(5) 1(1) 2(4) 2(6) 1(4) 0 20
UNIT III 2(2) 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) 1(4) 0 12
UNIT IV 2(2) 0 1(2) 1(3) 0 1(5) 12
UNIT V 1(1) 1(1) 0 1(3) 0 1(5) 10
12(12) 4(4M) 5(10) 7(21) 2(8) 3(15) 33(70 )

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER -8
Class XII Biology (044) (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks
each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based
questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

121 | P a g e
 Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and
write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q. Question Mark s
No

1 Which of the following is not a copper-releasing IUD? 1

a. LNG 20
b. CuT
c. Lippes Loop
d. a and c

2 To produce 400 seeds, the number of mitotic divisions required will be 1

A. 400
B. 200
C. 1 0 0
D. 5 0

3 Among the following characaers,which one was not considered by Mendel 1

In his experiments on pea
A. Stem - tall or Dwarf
B. Trichomes - glandular or non-grandular
C. Seed - green or yellow
D. Pod - inflanted or constricted
4 1
Which one of the following pairs pairs of codons is correctly matched with their
function or the signal for the particular amino-acid ?

A. GUU, GCU - Alanine

B. UAG, UGA - Stop
C. AUG, ACG - Start/ methionine
D. UUA/UCA - Leucine

5 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a 1
poly-peptide simultaneously . such strings of ribosomes are termed as
A. Plastidome
B. Polyhedral bodies
C. Polysomse
D. Nucleoseome

122 | P a g e
6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is 1

A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor.

B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator.
C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the
operator.
D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase.

7 Name given to fossil hominid of shivalik hills in india is 1

A. Ramapithecus
B. Australopithecus
C. Pithecanthropus
D. Indhratherium

8 Carcinoma arises from the 1

A . Epithelial cells

B. Bone Marrow
C. Pigment containing Cells
D. Blood cells

9 Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by 1

A. a machine
B. a bacterium that produce methane gas
C. a bacterium that produce a large amount of carbon dioxide
D. a fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabloic activities
10 1
The usage of agarose derived from seaweeds is

a. Spectrophotometry
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. PCR
d. Tissue culture

123 | P a g e
11 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with ADA 1
deficiency? (Adenosine Deaminase)

A. Radiation Therapy

B. Gene Therapy

C. Radiation Therapy

D. Immunotherapy

12 The geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of 1

A. Ecosystem

B. Landscape

C. Population

D. Biotic community

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13 1
Assertion (A): An angiospermous flower represents the modified condensed shoot
which performs the function of sexual reproduction.

Reason (R):The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into

microsporophylls and megasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers
respectively

14 1
Assertion (A): In four -O' clock or snapdragon plant, a cross between a
homozygous white-flowered individual and a homozygos red-flowered one
produces pink-flowered plants.

Reason (R): In these plants, the flower colour is determined by three alleles.

124 | P a g e
15 1
Assertion (A): Toddy is a traditional drink of some part of south India.

Reason (R): Toddy is made by fermenting sap from sugarcane.

16 1
Assertion (A): The base of each pyramid represents the top level consumer.

Reason (R): The apex of pyramid represents the top level consumer.

Section - B
17 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A. Differentiate between Antherozoid and Egg cell.

OR
B. (i) In some species of Asteraceae and grasses, seeds are formed without
fusion of gametes. Give the scientific term for such type of reproduction.
(ii) Which hormone is involved in induction of parturition?

18 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A. What is co-dominance, give an example.

OR

B. Birds have evolved from reptiles. How does paleontology provide evidence in
support of this statement .

125 | P a g e
19 2
Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important
products:

(i) Aspergillus niger - (a) Lactic acid

(ii) Acetobacter aceti - (b) Butyric acid

(iii) Clostridium butylicum - (c) Acetic acid

(iv) Lactobacillus - d) Citric acid

20 2

i. Name the enzyme to cut the DNA and the enzyme to join a DNA piece in
the above diagram.

126 | P a g e
21 Attempt either option A or B. 2
A.
(i) It was estimated that if an evergreen forest has a GPP of 400
J/m2/day and 150 J/m2/day worth of carbon dioxide flows out of
that forest, what is the NPP in that forest?
(ii) Explain why pyramids of energy must always be upright.

OR
B.
(i) Assume that, GPP Forest A = GPP Forest B = GPP Forest C, If
Forest A has NPP = 1254 J/m2/day; Forest B, NPP =2157
J/m2/day; and Forest C, NPP = 779 J/m2/day, which one of
these forests has maximum energy loss by respiration? Give
reason.
(ii) Draw an ecological pyramid of number of the following food
chains
a. Grass — Animal —Fleas on the host animal
b. Tree — Insects — Woodpecker

Section - C

22 3

1.Label A,B, C and D in the following schematic representation of oogenesis.

127 | P a g e
 2. How many eggs are released by human female in a month?

23 3

a) On which day the Graafian follicle ruptures to release the ovum? What is it
called?
b) When does the level of Progesterone rise?
c) From where is Progesterone secreted?

128 | P a g e
24 The schematic representation given below shows the concept of Central Dogma. 3

A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of

nitrogenous bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in a retrovirus? Name the process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of DNA is
copied into RNA.

25 1) Mentions the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment. 3

2) What is the scientific name of pea plant ?

26 3

1. Name the biogas ?

2. What are the other gases that are produced
3. Label the B & C
27 3
1. ---------- and ------------ are two main processes used in downstream
processing.

2. Name the enzyme that is used to dissolve cell wall of bacteria and plant.

3. A rDNA is inserted in the coding sequence of an enzyme and which inactivates

129 | P a g e
 the gene. Give the term for that.

28 3

1) What do you find in the picture?

2) Mutualists should co-evolve. Why?
3)Why do you call them mutualists?

Section - D
29 The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder up to 4
three generations of a family. Observe the chart and answer the questions that
follow.

(i) Is the diseae sex-linked or autosomal as per the chart ? give reasons in
support of your answer.
(ii) Is it a recessive or a dominant disorder?

130 | P a g e
 (iii) Write the genotype s of the individuals C, D and H
OR
The diagram shows shows the life cycle of a pathogenic protozoan

(i) Name the parasite stage that is being transferred from host X to the Y
(ii) Write the changes the parasite undergoes in the liver .
(iii) Write the changes the parasite undergoes when it enters the RBC
(iv) Trace the change the parasite undergoes when the host “X ‘takes its blood
meal from the infected host ‘ Y”

30 4

1) Why do you find big holes in the piece of cheese

shown in the diagram?
2) Name the type of cheese.
3) Name two types of cheese.

131 | P a g e
 Section - E

31 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Differentiate between:

1. Epicotyl and hypocotyl

2. Coleoptile and coleorrhiza
3. Integument and testa
4. Perisperm and pericarp
5. Tapetum and Endothecium

OR
(i) What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed
formation in self-incompatible species?
(ii) What is bagging technique? How is it helpful in a plant breeding
programme?

32 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. i. linear DNA fragment and a plasmid has three restrictions sites for
ECORI, how many fragments will be produced from linear DNA and
plasmid respectively
ii.

1. Name the steps A, B and C

2. Give the purpose of each step?
3. State the contribution of bacterium Thermus aquaticus in this process.
OR

B. Explain the different approaches used in the treatment of a person

suffering from Adenosine Deaminase(ADA) deficeiency..

132 | P a g e
33 Attempt either option A or B. 5
A.
(i) ‘ In situ’ conservation can help endangered /threated species. Justify the
statement.
(ii) List any four techniques where the principle of ex situ conservation of
biodiversity has been employed.
OR
B.
(i) Define decomposition and describe the process and products of
decomposition.

**********
MARKING SCHEME FOR MQP-8
CLASS XII BIOLOGY

Q.NO ANSWERS MARKS

DISTRIB
UTION
1. D . a and c 1

2 B. 200
3 B Trichomes - glandular or non-grandular 1
4 C AUG, ACG - Start/ methionine

5 C Polysomse 1
6 A present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. 1

7 A Ramapithecus 1
1
8 A.Epithelial cells

9 C a bacterium that produce a large amount of carbon dioxide 1

1
10 B Gel electrophoresis 1
1
11 B Gene Therapy 1

12 C Population

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 1
13 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1

14 C A is true but R is false 1

15 C A is true but R is false. 1

16 D A is False but R is true. 1

17 2
Antherozoid - male gamete
Egg cell - female gamete
OR
Apomixes
Oxytocin
18 When alleles express themselves equally,. Blood group AB 1
OR 1
Archaeopteryx is connecting link

19 i - d 1
ii - c
Iii - b
Iv - a 1+1

20 Restr. Enzyme ECORI , ligase

1+1

21 I. 250 j/m2 2
II. Energy alaways reduces from producers to top
consumwers
OR
I. Forest B
II. Diag of age pyramids
. I. A oogonia 2
22 B primary oocyte
C seconadary oocyte
D. Ovum
Ii. Only one ovum

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23 (a) During 14 th day , ovulation 1+1+1
(b) During luteal phase
(c) Corpus luteum

24 (a) DNA to DNA and absence of uracil 1+1+1

(b) Reverse transcription
(c) Some are coding and non- coding sequences

25
1. it shows more variations - 7 pairs
2. Less fife cycle
3. Very cheap 2+1
4. Easily availsble
2) Pisum sativum

1
26 1. Methane gas 3
2. Other gases - H2S ,CO2,
3. B - slueery C - tank

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27 1. Purification and separation 3
2. Lysozyme and cellulase
3. Insertional inactivation
28 1. Fig fruit and insect 3
2. Both species gets develops simultaneously
3. Both species gest bbefit
29.A .Insufficient information 4
Or
B i. sporozoite
Ii. Asexual reproduction & multiples
Iii. Asexual reproduction & multiples and rupture of RBC
Iv. Y - female anopheles mosquito picks gametocytes
along with blood and fertilisation occrs inside moasquito

30. 1. Holes due to release of CO2 during fermation by bacteria 2+1+1

2. Swiasscheese
3. Roquetfortcheese and swis cheese
31. 1. Epicotyl - part of embryonal axis above level of cotyledons and
hypocotyl- below the level of cotyledon
2. Coleorhrhiza enclosed sheath surrounding radicle
Coleoptile - enclosed sheath surrounding plumule
3. testa - outer layer of seed where a stegmen is inner layer of seed
4. Perisperm - residual, persistent nucellus is the perisperm where
pericarp
5. Tapetum- innermost layer of microsporangium where as
endothecium is protective layer.
OR
Self-in compatibility:

1. In angiosperms, self-incompatibility is a phenomenon that

prohibits self-fertilization or inbreeding.
2. It is a genetic mechanism that prevents self-fertilization by
suppressing pollen germination or pollen tube growth.
3. It is a critical outbreeding mechanism that prevents autogamy
and results in allogamy.
4. It has been observed in over 300 species across 70 families.
5. It also prevents inbreeding depression caused by self-pollination.

ii. The bagging technique is a plant breeding method that involves

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 covering a flower's stigma with a bag to prevent contamination from
unwanted pollen. The technique is used to ensure that the stigma is
pollinated with pollen from the desired male parent.

32 1. Number of fragments of linear DNA = 4 Number of fragments of

plasmid = 3.
2. 1. A - Denaturation
B -Annealing
C - Extention
2.Denaturationis unwinding of DNA , annealing is adding new
strands with primers and extention helps in formation of complete
strands
3, Taq polymerase that remain active even at high temperature

OR
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency is a disorder that
can be treated with three approaches:
•

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)

•

This is the primary treatment for ADA-SCID, and a matched

sibling donor transplant is a successful option with high survival
rates. Mismatched parental donor transplants have a poor
survival outcome.

Enzyme replacement therapy (ERT)

•

This involves injecting functional ADA enzyme into the

patient. Children cured by ERT need periodic treatment.
•

•
Gene therapy (GT)
•
This involves introducing a functional ADA gene into the
patient's lymphocytes and then infusing them back into the
patient.
•

.
33 1. Yes, in-situ conservation can help endangered and threatened

137 | P a g e
 species because it protects them in their natural habitats:
•

Preserves genetic diversity

•

In-situ conservation helps maintain the diversity of species at the gene

level. This can lead to evolutionary adaptations
2. The four techniques

1. Cryo preservation

2. Eggs can be fertilised in vitro

3. It can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions

OR
The conversion of complex organic matter into simpler molecule.

The five steps of decomposition are:

• Fragmentation: Detritivores, such as earthworms, break down detritus
into smaller pieces
• Leaching: Water-soluble nutrients are released into the water and seep
into the soil
• Catabolism: Bacteria and fungi break down complex molecules into
simpler molecules using enzymes
• Humification: A dark-colored colloidal substance called humus forms
on the soil
• Mineralization: Humus is degraded by microbes, releasing inorganic
nutrients into the soil

@@@@@@@@

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 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGHATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-9
CLASS XII TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044) MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

BLUE PRINT

UNIT SECTIO SEC- SECT SECTI SECTION E Total

NA B ION ON D LA-5M MAR
VSA -1M SA- C Case KS
2M SA- based- ALLOT
3M 4M TED
Reproduction 1 (4
Unit I 3 (1Mark) 2 (2mark) marks 1 (5mark) 16
)
Genetics &Evolution
4 (1 mark) 1 (2mark) 3 (3mark) ------- 1 (5mark) 20
Unit II
Biology & HumanWelfare 1 (4
3 (1mark) 1 (2mark) 1 (3mark) ------- 12
Unit III marks)
Biotechnology & Its
Application 2 (1mark) 1 (2mark) 1 (3mark) ------- 1 (5mark) 12
Unit IV
Ecology &
environment 4 (1mark) ------ 2 (3mark) ------ ------- 10
Unit V
2
Questi 3
5 7Questio
16 Questions ons x Questions
Questions ns x 3
TOTAL x 1 mark =16 4 x 5 marks 70
x 2 marks marks =
marks marks =
=10 marks 21 marks
=8 15 marks
marks

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGHATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER-9
CLASS XII SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044)
TIME ALLOWED : 3 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7
questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has
to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

139 | P a g e
 Section A
1 A man - made ecosystem is: [1]
A) Man does not make ecosystem
B) More in diversity
C) More stable than natural ecosystem
D) Less in diversity
2 The specialized procedure to form an embryo in a laboratory in which a sperm is directly [1]
injected into the ovum is called:
a) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
b) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
c) Intra - uterine insemination
d) Gamete intrafallopian transfer
3 Hot spots are places where: [1]
a) High degree of habital loss
b) High degree of species richness
c) High degree of endemism
d) All of these
4 During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change in the effluent [1]
occur due to flocs?
A. Reduction in BOD
B. Increase in BOD
C. Decrease in DO
D. No change in DO or BOD

5 Some ethical standards are required to: [1]

a) Managing natural resources
b) Evaluate the morality
c) Get proper compensation
d) Manage new GMOs
6 An example of endomycorrhiza is : [1]
a) Glomus
b) Nostoc
c) Agaricus
d) Rhizobium
7 Pedigree analysis is a study of particular traits in: [1]
a) Two species
b) Two families
c) Several generations
d) Two - generation only
8 What was the mixture of gases used in chamber marked A? [1]

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 a) Oxygen O2, ammonia (NH 3 ), hydrogen H 2, and water H 2 O
b) Methane(CH4 ) v, ammonia(NH 3 ), hydrogen H 2 and water H 2 O
c) Oxygen O2 , ozone O 3 , hydrogen H 2 , and water H 2 O
d) Oxygen O2 , ozone O 3 , hydrogen H 2
9 Which of the following is most stable ecosystem? [1]
a) Desert
b) Mountain
c) Grassland
d) Forest
10 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion [1]
which can be drawn for the character

a) The trait under study could not be colour blindness

b) The female parent is heterozygous
c) The male parent is homozygous dominant
d) The parent could not have had a normal daughter for this character
11 Which of the following seeds have remained alive for the longest period? [1]
a) Yucca gigantea
b) Mangifera indica
c) Striga asiatica
d) Phoenix dactylifera
12 In Gel Electrophoresis, fragments are moved from: [1]

3. Anode to Cathode
4. Cathode to Anode
5. Negative to Positive
6. Positive to Negative
a) 1, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 2, 3
13 Assertion (A): Copper - containing IUDs are very effective for emergency [1]
contraception.
Reason (R): Copper ions are toxic to the sperms.

141 | P a g e
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
14 Assertion: A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle which digested by it. [1]
Reason: Methanogens bacteria in rumen help in the breakdown of cellulose.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
15 Assertion (A): Producers are also known as transducers. [1]
Reason (R): Herbivores are called key industry animals.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
16 Assertion (A): First time Darwin used the phrase survival of the fittest . [1]
Reason (R): The survival of the fittest is the result of natural selection.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
17 Write any two biochemical / molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral [2]
infection. Explain the principle of any one of them.
18 Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic cell. [2]

Fill up the blanks (1, 2, 3, 4) left in the sequence.

19 In the diagram given below, show the path of a pollen tube from the pollen on the stigma [2]
into the embryo sac. Name the components of egg apparatus.

20 In the given figure, give the name and functions of parts labelled A and B. [2]

142 | P a g e
21 A farmer was advised to use viruses for species - specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal [2]
applications. To which genus do these viruses belong and which specific category of
pathogens can they be used for?
OR
7. Differentiate between humoral and cell mediated immune response.
8. Why is a patient who has undergone organ transplant put on
immunosuppressants? Explain.
Section C
22 Study the mRNA segment given below, which is complete and to be translated into a [3]
polypeptide chain and answer the following questions:

9. Write codons ’A’ and ’B’.

10. What do they code for?
11. How is the peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome?
23 List any four symptoms of Down’s syndrome. What is the basis of this disorder? [3]
24 Explain the difference between commensalism and mutualism types of interactions, with [3]
the help of a suitable example of each.
25 The image below elaborates enzyme - replacement therapy. [3]

12. Explain enzyme - replacement therapy to treat adenosine deaminase deficiency.

13. Mention two disadvantages of this procedure.
26 Seeing a crowd of students in one corner of the school, the Principal rushed to see the [3]
matter and found some children beating and chasing a small monitor lizard. On seeing
the Principal, all the children fled to their classes except Alok who requested the
Principal to arrange for some medical assistance for the injured animal. The Principal
rewarded the student.
a) Was Alok an indisciplined boy who did not run to the class on seeing the Principal?
What values does the act promote?
b) How do endangered species differ from vulnerable species?
c) Mention the factors resulting in loss of biodiversity / extinction.
OR
The species diversity of plants (22 percent) is much less than that of animals (72
percent). What could be the explanations to how animals achieved greater
diversification?
27 State Hardy - Weinberg Principle and give the algebraic equation for the distribution of [3]
genotypes.

143 | P a g e
28 14. It is generally observed that the children who had suffered from chickenpox in [3]
their childhood may not contract the same disease in their adulthood. Explain
giving reasons the basis of such an immunity in an individual. Name this kind of
immunity.
15. What are interferons? Mention their role.
Section D
29 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Study the figure given:

16. Pick out the name of cells that undergo spermiogenesis. (1)
17. Name A, B, C and F. (1)
18. Give ploidy of B and E. (2)
OR
Mention the function of F cell. (2)
30 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The pathogen of a disease depends on RBCs of human for growth and reproduction. The
person with this pathogen suffers with chill and high fever.

a. Identify the disease. (1)

b. Name the pathogen. (1)

c. What is the cause of fever? (2)

OR
Represent the life cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically. (2)

Section E
31 A flower of the brinjal plant following the process of sexual reproduction and produces [5]
360 viable seeds

144 | P a g e
 .
Answer the following questions giving reasons.
a. How many ovules are minimally involved?

b. How many megaspore mother cells are involved?

c.What is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land on stigma for pollination?

or
How many male gametes are involved in the above case?
Or
Describe the process of megasporogenesis in angiosperms until 8 nucleate stage. (5)

32 Describe Frederick Griffith experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae. Discuss the [5]

conclusion he arrived at.
Or
a.How did Meselson and Stahl reach the conclusion that DNA replication
is semi - conservative while working with E. coli in their experiment?

b.Explain the contribution of Taylor and his colleagues in DNA replication

in flowering plants.

33 Recombinant DNA (rDNA) is a technology that uses enzymes to cut and paste together [5]
DNA sequences of interest. The recombined DNA sequences can be placed into vehicles
called vectors that ferry the DNA into a suitable host cell where it can be copied or
expressed.
a.A bacterial cell is shown in the figure given below. Label the part ‘A’
and ’B’. Also, mention the use of part A in rDNA technology.

b.Suppose a linear DNA fragment and a plasmid has three restriction sites
for EcoRl. How many fragments will be produced from linear DNA and
plasmid, respectively?

Or
Illustrate the design of a bioreactor. Highlight the difference between a flask in your
laboratory and a bioreactor which allows cells to grow in a continuous culture system.

145 | P a g e
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER-9 MARKING SCHEME
CLASS XII SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044)
________________________________________________________________
ANSWER KEY
SL NO ANSWER VALUE
POINT
1 D) Less in diversity 1
2 B)Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection 1
3 D) All of these 1
4 A) Reduction in BOD 1
5 B) Evaluate the morality 1
6 A) Glomus 1
7 C) Several generations 1
8 B) Methane(CH4 ) , ammonia(NH 3 ), hydrogen H 2 and water H 2 O 1
9 D) Forest 1
10 B) The female parent is heterozygous 1
11 D) Phoenix dactylifera 1
12 D) 2, 3 1
13 B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
14 A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation 1
for assertion..
15 B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
16 D) A is false but R is true. 1
17 Two diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection are-
i) Recombinant DNA technology
ii) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) ½ +½ =
PRINCIPLE OF PCR -
Amplifies a specific nucleic acid sequence exponentially producing billions of
copies. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the
symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by
amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR. 1
=2
18 1- RNA polymerase 2 - hn 3- m 4 - polyAtail. ½ X4=
19 1

Synergids and egg cell are the components of egg apparatus. 1

=2

146 | P a g e
 20 A.=Trophoblast-Gets attached to the endometrium and draws nutritive material 1
secreted by uterine endometrial gland.
B.= Inner cell mass – Differentiates as Embryo. 1
=2
21 a. Nucleo polyhedron virus
b. Insects /arthropods 1+1=2
OR
a. Humoral Immune response
Elicited / Carried out by B-lymphocytes , which produce antibodies in
the blood in response to a pathogen.
Cell mediated immune response
Elicited /Carried out by T- lymphocytes,which help the B-cells to ½ +½ =
produce antibodies /or destroy pathogen by themselves. 1
b. Patients are put under immunosuppressant to prevent T-cells from
recognizing foreign tissue / graft as ‘non self’ and prevent =2
rejection.

22
i. A-AUG,B-UAA/UAG/UGA
ii. AUG codes for methionine. UAA / UAG / UGA do not code for any amino
acid, but brings about termination of polypeptide synthesis.
iii. In the large subunit of ribosome, there are two sites in which subsequent
amino acids bind to and come close enough for the formation of peptide 1 x 3 =
bond. It is catalysed by the enzyme called peptidyl transferase.

SL ANSWER VALUE
NO POINTS
23 21. Foursymptoms of Down's syndrome are: ½ x 4 =
(a) Feeble minded 2
(b) Retarded growth
(c) Rounded face and broad forehead
(d) Permanently open mouth.

It is an autosomal aneuploidy or 21 trisomy. In this case the egg possesses 1

24 chromosomes instead of 23 and the offspring has 47chromosomes. (45 +
XY in male, 445 + XX in female) instead of 46. =3
24 Commensalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is
neither harmed nor benefitted. 1½
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch, and barnacles growing on the back
of a whale benefit while neither the mango tree nor the whale derives any apparent
benefit.

Mutualism: This interaction confers benefits on both the interacting species. 1½

Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and =3

147 | P a g e
 photosynthesizing algae or cyanobacteria.
Similarly, the mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and the roots of higher
plants.
The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while
the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding carbohydrates.
25 In enzyme replacement therapy, the patient is given functional ADA (AdenosineDeaminase) 2
by injection.
Hereditary disease can be corrected by gene therapy. It is a collection of methods
that allows correction or replacement of defective genes.
The first gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old girl with Adenosine
Deaminase (ADA) deficiency . It is caused due to the deletion of gene for adenosine
de aminase.
Disadvantages ½ +½
i. The patient does not completely recover from the disease. =3
ii. It needs periodic injections of the enzyme to the patients.
26 Ans- a) No. Alok was a brave and courteous boy. He expressed his love for animals,
commitment towards natural resource conservation. 1
Ans-b)
Endangered species (when population of a species reduces to a level which poses
immediate danger of extinction, e.g. one horn rhinoceros, great Indian bustard, musk
deer etc)
Vulnerable species (species whose population have greatly reduced and may
be endangered species in future if the causative factors continue to operate. E.g 1
Asiatic wild ass, black buck, spotted deer, golden langur etc)
Ans-c)
(i) Habitat loss and fragmentation 1
(ii) Overexploitation
(iii) Alien species invasion =3
(iv) Co-extinction

Animals have achieved greater diversification due to following reasons:

• Compared to plants, animals have increased size and genetic variation. 3
• Also the animals possess complex nervous system to control and coordinate
various body activities.
• Animals possess receptor organs for receiving various environmental
stimuli and able to respond against them.
• Animals have the ability of locomotion which is absent in plants.
Due to above reasons, animals have shown greater adaptations to different climatic
and geographical locations leading to evolution of more diverse species.

27 This principle states that allele frequencies in a population are static and is constant from generation to 1
generation.
Thus the gene pool remains a constant which is also called as genetic equilibrium. The distribution of
genes is described by the relationship

148 | P a g e
 A2+2a+a2=1 2
Where A2 represents the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype.
2Aa represents the frequency of the heterozygous genotype and
a2 represents the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype.
=3
28 i. During the first encounter with pathogen (chickenpox) specific antibodies ( by 2
humoral immune response) are produced to counter the attack.
During this attack, memory cells are also produced. Due to this, on subsequent exposure
to the same pathogen, the immune response is more rapid and intense. That is why second
exposure to the chickenpox does not cause disease. It is known as acquired immunity of
the body.
ii. Interferons are a special kind of proteins secreted by virus-infected cells .These 1
protects the healthy cells from the virus attacks.
=3
29 22. i. D- Spermatids 1
ii. A- Spermatogonium
B- Primary spermatocyte 1
C –Secondary spermatocyte
F - Sertoli cells
iii. B - Diploid , E-Haploid 2
=4
Or
Provide nourishment to germ cells.

30
i.Malaria
ii. Different species of Plasmodium viz P.vivax, P Malariaeand, P.falciparum.
iii. Malaria is caused by the toxins (haemozoin) produced in the human body by the 4
malarial parasite. This toxin is released by therupturing of RBCs.
OR
Life cycle of Plasmodium:

31 i. The minimum number of ovules would be 300 as 300 viable seeds are formed. 5

149 | P a g e
 ii. 300 megaspore mother cells were involved.
iii. The minimum number of pollen grains that must have been involved is 300.
iv. The number of male gametes involved in seed formation is 300, while the seeds
involved in endosperm formation are 300.
Or
Mass of parenchymatous cells named as nucellus differentiates into primary
archesporial cells. This archesporial cell divide by periclinal division to form Parietal
cell (it is outer) and inner sporogenous cell.
Sporogenous cell directly acts as Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) with denser
cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus which undergo meiosis (Megasporogenesis) to
form four haploid megaspores know as megaspore tetrad.
Out of these three micropylar megaspores degenerate while chalazal megaspores
further grow to form female gametophyte i.e.Embryosac. Such growth is known as
monosporic development.
Functional megaspore divides by three free mitotic divisions to form 8-nucleate or 7-
celled embryo-sac (known as female gametophyte). The development of haploid
megaspore from megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis.

Figure: Different stages in the development of embryo-sac from a

megaspore

32 Bacterial Transformation 5
• It was performed by Frederick Griffith (1928) on the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae
(bacteria responsible for causing pneumonia)
• This bacteria has two strains - S - type (Smooth, virulent and mucus coat with) - can
cause pneumonia. R-type (rough, a virulent, without mucus coat) can not cause
pneumonia.
• Mice infected with S-type of cells die from pneumonia.
• Mice infected with R-type of cells do not develop pneumonia.
• Griffith observed that heat killed S-cells didn't kill the mice.
• When a mixture of heat heat-killed and live R-cells was injected then mice died.
Moreover, he recovered living S bacteria from the dead mice.
• Thus he concluded that some transforming material transferred from the heat killed S-
type cells had enabled the R-type cells to synthesize mucus coat and become virulent

150 | P a g e
 and this must be due to the transfer of genetic material
• Oswald Avery, Colin Mac Leod and Maclyn Mc Carty (1933-44) later discovered that
DNA from the heat killed S-cells had transformed the R-strain of Bacteria.
• They conducted biochemical characterization of transforming principle by using
proteases, RNases and DNases.
• They observed that proteases and RNases did not affect transformation, but DNase
inhibited the transformation. They concluded that DNA is the genetic material.

Or
1. Meselson and Stahl conducted a pivotal experiment in 1958 to determine the mechanism of DNA
replication. They used isotopes of nitrogen to label DNA in E. coli.
a) They grew E. coli in a medium containing heavy nitrogen (N-15), allowing the bacteria
to incorporate this isotope into their DNA, resulting in heavy DNA.
b) After sufficient growth, they transferred the bacteria to a medium with light nitrogen (N-14).
This allowed new DNA strands to be synthesized with the lighter nitrogen.
c) They then extracted the DNA and subjected it to density gradient centrifugation. The heavy
DNA (N-15) would settle lower in the gradient compared to the lighter DNA (N-14).
d) After one generation in the N-14 medium, they found that all the DNA had an intermediate
density, indicating that it contained both heavy and light nitrogen. This result suggested that
each DNA molecule consisted of one old (heavy) strand and one new (light) strand.
e) After two generations, they observed a mixture of light and intermediate density DNA, further
supporting the semi-conservative model.
The combination of these results led Meselson and Stahl to conclude that DNA replication is semi-
conservative: each newly formed DNA molecule consists of one original strand and one newly
synthesized strand.
2. Taylor and his colleagues worked on Viciafaba/fababeans, using radioactive thymidine to prove
that DNA in the chromosomes also replicates semi conservatively.
33 i. In the above bacterial cell, i.e. A is plasmid B is chromosomal DNA. The plasmid is used 5
as a vector in rDNA technology.
ii. If the enzyme EcoRl acts on both linear DNA and plasmid DNA, each having three
recognition sites, the restriction enzyme will generate 3 fragments from plasmid DNA (as
it is circular) and 4 fragments from linear DNA.
Or
Description of Bioreactor: There are two types of Bio reactors:
a. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor.

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 b. Sparged stirred–tank bioreactor through which sterile air bubbles are sparged.
i. It is a cylindrical structure with a curved base.
ii. A stirrer is present for even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the reactor.
iii. There is an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, a
temperature control system,etc.
iv. There is a sampling port through which small volumes of culture can be taken out
periodically.

A flask in a laboratory cannot be used for producing recombinant DNA on a large

scale. Unlike a bioreactor; a flask cannot be used to grow culture continuously.

*************
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGHATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-10 (2024–2025)
CLASS XII TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044) MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

BLUEPRINT

MARKS SEC-A SEC-B SEC-C SEC-D SEC-E

UNIT ALLOTT Case
VSA -1M SA-2M SA-3M LA-5M
ED based-4M
Reproduction 1
16 3 (1Mark) 2 (2mark) 1 (5mark)
(Unit I) (4 marks)
Genetics & Evolution 3
20 4 (1 mark) 1 (2mark) ------- 1 (5mark)
( Unit II) (3mark)
Biology & Human
1 1
Welfare 12 3 (1mark) 1 (2mark) -------
(3mark) (4 marks)
(Unit III)
Biotechnology & Its 1
12 2 (1mark) 1 (2mark) ------- 1 (5mark)
Application (Unit IV) (3mark)
Ecology & Environment 2
10 4 (1mark) ------ ------ -------
(Unit V) (3mark)
16 7Questio 2 3
5 Questions
Questions x ns x 3 Questions x Questions
TOTAL 70 x 2 marks
1 mark =16 marks = 4 marks = 8 x 5 marks
=10 M
M 21 M marks = 15 M

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 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGHATHAN: HYDERABAD REGION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 10
CLASS XII SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044)
TIME ALLOWED : 3 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2
marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-
based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks
each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Q. Section A Marks
N Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the
o choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as
the answer to these questions.
1 How many pollen mother cells should undergo meiotic division to 1
produce 36 pollen grains?
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d)12
2 Vasectomy, one of the contraceptive methods, is performed on: 1
a) Males only
b) Only pregnant females
c) Females only
d) Both males and females
3 Which of the following represent the sex determination in many 1
birds.
a) XX-XY TYPE b) ZZ-ZW TYPE
c) XX-XO TYPE d) XX-YY TYPE
4 If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a 1
transcription unit is 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in
its RNA transcript would be;
a) 5’ – AUGAAUG – 3’ b) 5’ – UACUUAC – 3’
c) 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’ d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’
5 At which stage during evolution did human use hides to protect 1
their bodies and buried their dead?
a) Homo habilis b) Neanderthal man
c) Java man d) Homo erectus
6 ‘Heroin’ (drug) is synthesized by; 1
a) nitration of morphine b) Glycosylation of morphine
c) methylation of morphine d) acetylation of morphine
7 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide? 1
a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Trichoderma harzianum

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 c) Nucleoppolyhedrovirus(NPV) d) Xanthomonas campestris
8 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel 1
during gel electrophoresis?
a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
b) Negatively charged fragments do not move .
c) Positively charged fragments move to the farther end.
d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
9 Gene introduced in the first transgenic cow is ; 1
a) human α-lactalbumin
b) β-1-antitrypsin
c) α-1-antitrypsin
d) Cry 1 Ac
10 A tight one-to-one relationship between many species of fig tree 1
and certain wasps is an example of;
a) commensalism b) parasitism
c) amensalism d) mutualism
11 Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a 1
particular time called;
a) standing crop b) biomass c) living substance d) Protoplasm
12 Which of the following is an example of ex situ conservation? 1
a)Sacred groves b) National park
c) Biosphere reserve d) Seed bank
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion(A): The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity 1
within scrotum.
Reason(R): Muscles in scrotum helps to maintain lo temperature
of testes necessary for spermatogenesis.
14 Assertion(A): Hugo de Vries said mutations cause speciation. 1
Reason(R): Mutations are slow directional changes.
15 Assertion(A): Histamine is related to allergic and inflammatory 1
reactions.
Reason(R):Histamine is a vasodilator.
16 Assertion(A): In most ecosystems, pyramid of biomass is upright. 1
Reason(R): The producers are more in biomass than herbivores in
an ecosystem.
Section B
17 In a flowering plant, a microspore mother cell produces four male 2
gametophytes while a megaspore mother cell forms only one

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 female gametophyte. Explain.
18 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis. 2
19 Discuss the role of enzyme DNA ligase plays during DNA 2
replication.
Or
Show DNA replication with the help of a diagram only.
20 Write the basis of naming the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. 2
21 Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow; 2

a) Name the parts labelled ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the molecule shown above.
b) Name the type of cells that produce this molecule.

SECTION – C
22 a) Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and 3
terminator on the basis of any hypothetical template strand .
b) Write the RNA strand transcribed from such transcription unit
along with its polarity.

23 Study the given pedigree chart and answer the questions that 3
follow: ( use ‘A’ and ‘a’ as alleles)

(a) Is the trait recessive or dominant?

(b) Is the trait sex-linked or autosomal?
(c) Give the genotypes of the parents shown in generation I and
their third child shown in generation II and the first grandchild
shown in generation III.

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 OR
Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disorder in humans. The
pedigree chart given below shows the inheritance of Haemophilia
in a family. Study the pattern of inheritance and answer the
questions that follow.

(a) Give all the possible genotypes of the members 4, 5 and 6 in

the pedigree chart.
(b) A blood test shows that the individual 14 is a carrier of
haemophilia.
(c) The member numbered 15 has recently married the member
numbered 14. What is the probability that their first child will be a
haemophilic male.? Show with the help of Punnett square.

24 While creation and the presence of variation is directionless, 3

natural selection is directional as it is in the context of adaptation.
Comment.
25 A patient complains of suffering from constipation, stomach ache, 3
stool with blood clots and excess mucus. The physician diagnosed
it as amoebiasis, after stool test.
i) Write the scientific name of the microbe identified in the
stool sample.
ii) How do you think, the patient must have contracted it?
iii) Write your suggestions to the patient top avoid infection
in future.
26 Two children A and B aged 4 and 5 years respectively visited a 3
hospital with a similar genetic disorder. The girl A was provided
enzyme-replacement therapy and was advised to revisit
periodically for further treatment. The girl B was, however given a
therapy that did not require revisit for further treatment.
i. Name the ailments the two girls were suffering from.
ii. Why did the treatment provided to girl A require repeated
visits?

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 iii. How was the girl B cured permanently?
27 Define decomposition and describe the process of decomposition. 3
28 How did Dr. David Tilman relate experimentally, the stability of a 3
community and its species richness? Explain.
Section D
29 Assisted Reproductive Technology refers to treatment and 4
procedures that aim to achieve pregnancy. These complex
procedures may be an option for people who have already gone
through various infertility treatment options, but still have not
achieved pregnancy.
The main type of ART is In Vitro Fertilization(IVF). IVF involves
extracting a woman’s eggs, fertilizing the eggs in the laboratory
and then transferring the resulting embryos into the woman’s
uterus through the cervix. ART success rates vary in the context
of patient and treatment characteristics, such as age, infertility
diagnosis, number of embryos transferred, type of ART procedure,
use of techniques such as ICSI and history of previous births,
miscarriages and ART cycles.

i.A woman whose womb is used as a substitute for the biological

mother to nurse the embryo is called;
a) interrogate mother b) surrogate mother
c) Paternal mother d) Maternal mother

ii. The stage of cells at which it is transferred into the uterus after
induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is;
a)embryo at 4 blastomeres stage
b) embryo at 2 blastomeres stage
c)morula
d)zygote

iii.Expand ZIFT & GIFT.

or
Expand ICSI & IUT.
30 Once Ganga asked Sandhya about her adrenaline and steroid 4
medication. Sandhya told Ganga that she is allergic to pollens and
mites. Sandhya also mentioned that she became allergic due to
the protected environment provided to her in early life. Upon
further conversation, Ganga discussed that she is suffering from
an autoimmune disease.
i. Name the antibody which is produced in response to
allergens.
ii. Mention any two symptoms of allergic reactions.
iii. How adrenaline and steroids would help Ganga to relieve

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 allergy?
iv. What is an autoimmune disease?
Or
Give two examples of autoimmune diseases.
Section E
31 How is oogenesis marked different from spermatogenesis with 5
respect to the growth till puberty in the humans?
Or
i.Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of the steps that
you would follow to ensure that the seeds are formed only from the
desired sets of pollen grains. Name the type of experiment that you
carried out.
ii. Write the importance of such experiments.
32 Answer the following questions based on Hershey and Chase’s 5
experiments.
i. Name the kind of virus they worked with and why?
ii. Why did they use two types of culture media to grow
viruses in? Explain
iii. What was the need for using a blender and later a
centrifuge during their experiments?
State the conclusion drawn by them after the experiments.
OR
a. Explain a monohybrid cross taking Seed coat colour as a
trait in Pisum sativum. Work out the cross upto F2-
generation.
b. State the laws of inheritance that can be derived from
such a cross.
c. How is the phenotypic ratio of F2 – generation different in
a dihybrid cross?
33 Genetic Engineering has great demand these days across the 5
globe. What do you understand by Genetic engineering? List the
steps involvd in rDNA technology.
OR
Highlight five areas, where biotechnology has influenced our lives.

MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 10

CLASS XII SUBJECT-BIOLOGY (044)
TIME ALLOWED : 3 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS: 70
ANSWER KEY
SL NO ANSWER Marks
1 c) 9 1

2 a) Males only 1

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3 b)ZZ-ZW TYPE 1
4 a) 5’ – AUGAAUG – 3’ 1

5 b) Neanderthal man 1
6 d) acetylation of morphine 1

7 d) Xanthomonas campestris 1

8 e) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. 1

9 e) human α-lactalbumin 1
10 d) mutualism 1

11 a) standing crop 1
12 d) Seed bank 1

13 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1

14 C. A is true but R is false. 1
15 B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A 1

16 B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A 1

17 Microspore mother cell undergo meiosis and form microspore tetrad. 1

Later these microspores separate from each other and each microspore
develops into a male gametophyte.
1
Whereas, megaspore mother cell divides by meiotic division to produce
four megaspores.From these, three degenerate while the one undergoes
further development and mitotic divisions to produce female
gametophyte.

18 Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis 1+1

It is a process of formation of It is a process of transformation
sperms from immature germ of a non-motile spermatid to a
cells motile spermatozoa.
Each spermatogonium produces No change in number of cells as
four spermatids only one spermatid develops into
a spermatozoa.
19 DNA ligase facilitates the joining of Okazaki fragments in lagging DNA 1+1
strands together by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bond. It
also plays a role in repairing single-strand breaks in duplex DNA.
Or

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20 First letter comes from the Genus and the next two letters come from ½ x 4=2
the specific epithet of prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated, R
is derived from the name of strain. Roman number following the names
that indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated from that
strain of bacteria.
21 a) a–Antigen binding site b–Light chain ½ + ½ ½+½
b) B-lymphocytes (B-cells). 1mark 1
22 a) any correct transcription unit 1 ½ M 1½ x
b) correct m RNA strand based on the template 1 ½ M 2=3
23 (a) Dominant. ½ 3
(b) Autosomal. ½
(c) Genotype of parents in generation I – Female – aa and Male – Aa.
Genotype of third child in generation II - Aa. 1m
Genotype of first grandchild in generation III - Aa. 1m
OR
(a) Genotypes of member 4 – XX or XX h ½
Genotypes of member 5 – XhY½
Genotypes of member 6 – XY ½
(b) The probability of first child to be a haemophilic male is 25%.1 mark for
Punnet square + ½ for probability
24 The creation and the presence of variations is directionless in regard 1 ½
that they occur randomly and spontaneously. The variations which are
helpful in the adaptations of an organism towards its surroundings
would be passed onto next generations.
Natural selection is the most critical evolutionary process, which can be 1 ½
considered directional as it leads to only one path that is selection and
perpetuation of better adapted individuals. Natural selection leadsto
survival of the fittest and disappearance of all those organisms which
dop not fit in the prevailing environmental conditions.

25 i.Entamoeba histolytica.

ii.The patient would have contracted it through contaminated food and

1
water.
1
iii.In order to avoid such an infection, the patient must take care to
avoid uncovered food as the infection spreads through houseflies. 1

26 i) Both girls suffer from adenosine deaminase deficiency dur to 1

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 probable deletion of gene that codes for ADA production.
ii) Girl A was treated with injections of functional ADA or bone marrow
transplant. These techniques are not completely curative as these
lymphocytes are not immortal and require repeated treatment. 1
iii) Girl B was treated using gene therapy where the gene isolate from
marrow cells producing ADA was introduced into cells at an early
embryonic stage f a possible permanent cure.
1

VALUE
SL NO ANSWER
POINTS
27 Defining decomposition. ½M
Mentioning Fragmentation, Leaching, Catabolism, Humification and ½+
Mineralisation ½ M each = 2 ½ M 2½

28 Dr. Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots 1+1+1
provided some tentative answers on the relation of stability of
acommunity and its species richness.
He showed that stability of a community depends on its species richness
by using outdoor plots. Each plot had a different number of species.
Tilman found that plots with more species showed less year-to-year
variation in total biomass.
He also showed experimentally that increased diversity contributed to
higher productivity.
29 i. B (surrogate mother) 1
ii. C, morula
iii. EXPANDING ZIFT AND GIFT 1 MARK EACH 1
OR
EXPANDING ICSI AND IUT 1 MARK EACH
2

VALUE
SL NO ANSWER
POINTS
30 i.Ig E 1
ii. Watery eyes, running nose, wheezing, sneezing ( any two)
iii. Adrenaline and steroids help to suppress histamine and serotonin from
the mast cells upon the entry of allergens in body. Thus, the allergic 1
symptoms are either suppressed or reduced.
iv. auto immune diseases are those in which the body begin to attach self- 2
cells.
Or
Rheumatoid arthritis, Addison’s disease.
31
Differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis: 1x5=5M

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 Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
It begins and gets completed in the It begins in the ovary and is
testis only completed in the female
reproductive tract.
It is not a cyclic process, it occurs It is a cyclic process, completed
continuously every 28/29 days
Spermatogonia change to primary Oogonia change to primary oocytes
spermatocytes
A primary spermatocyte divide to A primary oocyte divides to form
form two secondary spermatocytes the secondary oocyte and one polar
body.
The secondary spermatocyte A secondary oocyte divides to form
divides to form two spermatids. one ootid and one polar body.
A spermatogonium forms four An oogonium forms one ovum.
spermatozoa.
OR
Artificial hybridization is carried out to ensure that seeds are formed from
the desired set of pollen grains. 3+2

Steps to be followed: ( 3 Marks)

Emasculation
↓
Female flower is obtained
↓
Emasculated flower is enclosed in a bag made up of butter paper or
plastic(Bagging)
↓
Mature and viable pollen grains are collected from desired male plants
↓
Bag is opened and pollengrins are dusted on the stigma
↓
Bag is replaced immediately
↓
Artificial pollination takes place
ii. Importance: ( 2 Marks)
a) Creation of new genetic recombination with better qualities b)
Incorporation of a large number of desirable characters into a single
variety.

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SL NO ANSWER VALUE
POINTS
32 iv. They worked with bacteriophage, i.e., viruses that infect bacteria. These
viruses were used because during infection, they transfer their genetic 1+1
material into bacteria.
v. They used two types of culture media, so as to compare that which one
out of DNA and Proteins gets transformed from virus to bacteria and act
1
as genetic material.
vi. A blender and centrifuge was used to open up the bacterial cells and
viral particles. So, that genetic material could be visualized.
1
vii. Conclusion: It is confirmed that DNA is the genetic material.
OR 1
a. In a monohybrid cross, when homozygous dominant and homozygous
recesive parents are crossed, F1-hybrid would be heterozygous for the trait
and would express the dominant allele.

2
b. The bybrid is heterozygous containing both alternative alleles( Y and y) but
only one trait, i.e., yellow colour appeared and green colour trait is
suppressed in F1 generation.
This shows that yellow seed colour is dominant over the green seed colour
trait. This explains Mendel’s law of dominance. 1
c. Phenotypic ratio in F2 – generation,
Yellow seeds: Green seeds ( 3 :1) in monohybrid cross and in dihybrid cross it
is 9:3:3:1.

33 Genetic engineering is a manipulation of genetic material in vitro. It 1+4

involves the techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material(DNA and
RNA), to introduce the host organisms and there by change the phenotype
of the host organism.
Steps involved in rDNA technology:
I. Isolation of the genetic material.
II. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
III. Separation and isolation of a desired DNA fragment.

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 IV. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
V. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector.
VI. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host.
VII. Obtaining or culturing the foreign product.
OR
I. It has provided us with genetically modified crops of better quality and
1Mx5
high nutrient value.
II. It has made available better and safer recombinant vaccines.
III. It has helped to develop transgenic animals that can produce human
proteins.
IV. It has enabled gene therapy for curing genetic diseases.
V. Environment pollution has also been taken care of with the help of
genetically engineered microbes.

&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&

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