ASSESSMENT OF STUDENT LEARNING REVIEWER

By Lyca Mae D. Estorco

1. Which of the following objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s taxonomy?

A. Identifies the meaning of item.
B. Identifies the order of the given events.
C. Interprets the meaning of an idea.
D. Improves defective test items.

2. What does a teacher do when she does a norm-referenced interpretation of scores?

a. The teacher describes what should be the performance.
b. The teacher describes group performance in relation to a level of the master set
c. The teacher compares an individual’s score with other scores
d. The teacher uses specified content as its reference
3. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching types of test?
I. The options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
III. The directions must state the basis of matching.
IV. Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B.
A. I, II and III C. I, II and IV
B. II, III and IV I, II, III and IV
4. Which of the following statements are characteristics of imperfect type of matching test?
I. The minimum item is three.
II. The item has no possible answer.
III. More options than descriptions.
IV. Items not necessarily homogeneous.
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. II and IV only
5. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test?
I. Verbal clues and specific determiner.
II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount.
III. Taking statements directly from the book.
IV. Keep true and false statement the same in length.
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV only
6. Which of the following test item can best effectively measure higher order of cognitive learning
objectives?
A. Objective test
B. Achievement test
C. Completion test
D. Extended essay test
7. Here is a test item
“The improvement of basic education should be the top priority of the Philippine government.
Defend or refute this position”.
Under what type of question does this test item fall?
a. Low-level c. Analysis
b. Evaluative d. Convergent
8. Which statements best describe a short-answer test item?
I. It is easy to write test items.
II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured.
III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes.
IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time consuming.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and IV only
D. II, III and IV
SITUATION A. The data on the table below are results of test which was administered to four
subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data answer the questions (9-14).

Subject Ritz’s Score Mean Standard Deviation

English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
9. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the performance of the group?
A. English
B. Music
C. Mathematics
D. PE
10. What type of learner is Ritz?
A. Bodily Kinesthetic
B. Logical
C. Musical
D. Linguistic
11. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed poorly in relation to the group performance?
A. English C. Mathematics
B. Music D.PE
12. In which subject the scores most dispersed?
A. English C. Mathematics
B. Music D. PE
13. In which subject the scores less dispersed?
A. English C. Mathematics
B. Music D. PE
14. Which statement best describe normal distribution?
A. Only few got average scores.
B. The mean, the median are equal.
C. Negatively skewed distribution.
D. Most of the scores lies at one end.
15. Standard deviation is to measure of Variation as is to Measures of central tendency.
A. Quartile deviation C. Range
B. Mean deviation D. Mode
16. What type of measure of variation easily affected by the extreme scores?
A. Range C. Inter- quartile range
B. Mean D. Standard deviation
17. Which measure/s of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores?
A. Median C. Mode
B. Mean D. Mean and Median
18. Adrian’s score in Statistics quizzes are as follows: 96, 90, 85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82. What is the
mean value?
A. 83.25 C. 85.25
B. 84.25 D. 86.25
19. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 89, 78, 89, 85, 85, 89, 75, 90, 95, and 95. What
characteristics best described the distribution?
A. Normally distributed C. Bimodal
B. Unimodal D. Multi-modal
20. A type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the rater who avoids
both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as average.
A. generosity error C. logical error
B. severity error D. central tendency error
21. What error committed by the rater if he overate the performance of the student/s?
A. generosity error C. logical error
B. severity error D. central tendency error
22. What error committed by the rater if the lower end of the scale is favored?
A. generosity error C. logical error
B. severity error D. central tendency error
23. Which of the following assessment techniques best assess the objective” plans and design an
experiment to be performed”.
A. Paper and pencil test C. Checklist
B. Rating scale D. Essay
24. Which measures of variation is the most stable?
A. Range C. Quartile deviation
B. Inter- quartile range D. Standard deviation
25. Teacher Leila conducted a short quiz to get feedback on the learning progress of the learners
after discussing the lesson on “multiplication of rational expressions”. This type of assessment
is classified as a:
A. Placement Assessment C. Diagnostic assessment
B. Formative Assessment D. Summative Assessment
26. Which of the following statements is NOT included in constructing table of specification?
A. Decide on the content areas to be included.
B. Decide on the number of test item per content.
C. Decide the skills to measure in each content.
D. Decide on the number of answer sheets needed.
27. Teacher Gina is talking about “grading on the curve“in a teacher’s assembly. This means that
she’s referring to what type of grading system?
A. Cumulative method of grading.
B. Norm- reference grading
C. Criterion- reference grading
D. Combination of B and C
28. The computed value of r= 0.95 in Mathematics and English. What does this imply?
A. Mathematics score is not related to English score.
B. English score is moderately related to Mathematics score.
C. Mathematics score is highly positive related to English score.
D. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics score.
29. Teacher Jean will conduct a test “to measure her student’s ability to organize thoughts and
present original ideas”. Which type of test is most appropriate?
A. Modified true-false test item C. Short answer test
B. Completion type of test D. Essay test
30. Teacher Hyacinth conducted 25 items test in Algebra. Students’ scores were as follows: 20,
12, 13, 14, 15, 14, 20, 22, 20, 22, 23, 23, 24, 25, 25. Which measure/s of central tendency
does score 20 represent?
A. Mode only C. Median and Mode
B. Mean D. Mean, Median and
Mode C.
31. What type of a multiple choice test is this?
5: 15 as 4: . A. 12 B. 15 C. 16 D. 18
A. Completion type
B. Analogy
C. Solving problem
D. Short answer test
32. Teacher Jay constructed a matching type of test. In this column A of description are
combination of current issues, government agencies, data of events and government
officials. Which guidelines of constructing matching type of test NOT FOLLOWED?
A. Arrange the descriptions in alphabetical order.
B. Make the descriptions equal in length.
C. Make the descriptions homogeneous.
D. Make the descriptions heterogeneous.
33. Which statement is true about normal curve?
A. The scores are concentrated at the left side of the distribution.
B. The scores are concentrated at the right side of the distribution.
C. There are more high scores than scores.
D. The value of the mean is equal to the value of the median.
34. Which characteristics best described the given score distribution? The scores are: 22, 23, 24,
24, 24, 25, 26, 26, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45.
A. Multi-modal C. Normally distributed
B. Bimodal D. skewed to the left
35. Which is true when the standard deviation is small?
A. The scores are concentrated near the mean value.
B. The scores are spread apart within the mean value.
C. The scores concentrated at the right end of the distribution.
D. The scores are concentrated at the left end of the distribution.
36. All of the given statements are best practices of preparing multiple-choice test items EXCEPT:
A. Stem should be stated in positive form.
B. Use the stem that could serve as a short-answer item.
C. Underline words or phrases in the stem to give emphasis.
D. Shorten the stem so that options can be written longer.
37. What is the best way to develop math concept?
a. Solving problems using multiple approaches
b. Solving problems by looking for correct answer
 c. Learning math as applied to situations, such as being a tool of science
d. solving problems by applying learned formulas

38. After reading an essay. Teacher B wants to help sharpen her students’ ability to interpret.
Which of these activities will be most appropriate?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences (not sure)
c. Getting the main idea
d. Listing facts separately from opinion
39. Which of the following statement refers to criterion-reference interpretation?
A. Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics.
B. Luis computed the problem solving faster than his classmates.
C. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes.
D. Lovely’s test score is higher than 95% of the class..
40. Which of the following is an example of norm-reference interpretation?
A. Lord’s test score is higher than 89% of the class.
B. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes.
C. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words.
D. Mark solves 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes.
41. Which of the following learning outcomes is the most difficult to assess objectively?
1. A concept 3. An appreciation
2. An application 4. None of the above
How can you improve the test item?
A. Rewrite the stem to statement form
B. Remove the indefinite articles “a” and “an” from the options.
C. Change the option “none of the above” with an interpretation.
D. Change the numbers in the options to letters.
42. What is the main advantage of using table of specification (TOS) when constructing periodic
test.
A. It increases the reliability of the test result.
B. It reduces the scoring time.
C. It makes test construction easier.
D. It improves the sampling of content areas.
43. The main objective of testing in teaching is:
A. To assess students learning and the effectiveness of instruction.
B. To assess the effectiveness of teaching methods used.
C. To evaluate the instructional materials used.
D. To evaluate the performance of the teacher in that particular lesson.
44. The instructional objectives is very important in test construction when they are stated
in terms of:
A. Teacher activities. C. stated in general terms.
B. Learning activities. D. student performance.
45. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words be avoided
in constructing multiple-choice test?
A. Increase the difficulty of the test item.
B. More difficult to construct options.
C. Might be overlooked.
D. Stems tend to be longer.
46. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a major concern when using:
A. Teacher-made diagnostic test.
B. Norm-reference summative test.
C. Criterion-reference formative test.
D. Mastery achievement test.
47. Which of the following statement is an advantage of multiple-choice test items over
essay questions?
A. Provide assessment of more complex learning outcomes.
B. It emphasis more on the low level of learning outcomes.
C. Provide more extensive sampling of the content area.
D. Requires more time in preparing the test items.
48. When a test is lengthened, the reliability is likely to ?
A. Increase C. not determined
B. Decrease D. both A and B
49. All of the following best describe interpreting norm-reference scores EXCEPT:
A. Percentile rank C. Grade Equivalent scores
B. Standard scores D. raw scores
50. Which of the following statements describe performance based assessment?
 I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills.
II. Encourages the application of learning to “real life” situation.
III. Measure broad range of contents.
A. I only C. III only
B. I and II D. I, II and III
51. Teacher Adrian conducted item analysis and he found out that more from the lower group
got the test item number 6 correctly. This means that the test item .
A. Has a low reliability
B. Has a high validity
C. Has a positive discriminating power
D. Has a negative discriminating power
52. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution?
A. Most of the scores are below the mean value.
B. Most of the scores are above the mean value.
C. The mean is less than the median.
D. The mean, the median and the mode are equal.
53. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean. What is the
graphical representation of the score distribution?
A. Skewed to the left C. scores are normally distribute
B. Skewed to the right D. positively skewed
54. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution?
A. The value of mean and median are equal.
B. Most examinees got scores above the mean.
C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score.
D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode.
55. In a normal distribution a T- score of 80 is .
A. Two SD’s below the mean C. three SD’s below the mean
B. Two SD’s above the mean D. three SD’s above the mean
56. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is more likely .
A. Normally distributed C. skewed to the right
B. Skewed to the left D. leptokurtic
57. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out that significantly greater number from
the upper group of the class got test item number 10 correctly. This means that the test
item .
A. Has a negative discriminating power
B. Has a positive discriminating power
C. Has low reliability
D. Has high validity
58. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This imply that .
A. She surpassed in performance 7% of the group.
B. She got a score of 93.
C. She answered 93 items correctly.
D. She surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow examinees.
59. Which instructional objective below is the highest level of Bloom’s Taxonomy?
A. Define fraction
B. Explain the different rules of addition of fractions
C. Add fractions correctly
D. Determine the steps in solving fractions
60. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
A. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.
B. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.
C. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.
D. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.
61. Which of the following statements best describes the incorrect options in item analysis?
A. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score.
B. Determining the highest score
C. Determining the effectiveness of distracters
D. Determining the cut of score
62. When points in a scatter diagram are spread evenly in all directions this means that:
A. The correlation between two variables is positive.
B. The correlation between two variables is low.
C. The correlation between variables is high.
D. There is no correlation between two variables.
63. Roel’s score in Science test is 89 which is equal to 95th percentile. What does this mean?
A. 95% of Roel’s classmates got scores lower than 89.
B. 95% of Roel’s classmates got scores higher than 89.
 C. Roel’s score is less than 89% of his classmates.
D. Roel’s score is higher than 95% of his classmates.
64. Which applies when there are extreme scores?
A. The median is very reliable measure of central tendency.
B. The mean will be very reliable measure of central tendency.
C. There is no reliable measure for central tendency.
D. The mode will be the most reliable measure of central tendency.
65. In a normal distribution, about how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD to +1SD?
A. 15.73% C. 49.86%
B. 34.13% D. 68.26%
66. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which competency did her students find greatest
difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of .
A. 0.25 C.0.75
B. 0.15 D. 1.00
67. Teacher Lawrence gave a test in Mathematics. The facility of item No. 10 is 75%. The best way
to describe item No. 10 is .
A. very easy C. average item
B. easy item D. difficult item
68. At the end of the school year, all third year students presented their portfolio in English
subject. Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were asked to view and give their
comments regarding what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was organized?
A. Exhibits C. Conference
B. Program D. Seminar
69. The point of departure of an inter-quartile range which indicate the spread of the
scores is .
A. Upper limit C. mean
B. Median D. range
70. The admissions office of a certain university conducted a qualifying test five batches of
examinees. The number of qualifiers and their mean scores are presented below.
Batch number Number of qualifiers Mean score
Batch I 20 94
Batch II 10 85
Batch III 15 92
Batch IV 25 87
Batch V 10 95
What is the mean score of the entire group of qualifiers?

A. 90.44 B. 90.60 C. 5.66 d. 92.00

71. Joseph’s score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation above the mean of his group and 2
standard deviation above mathematics. What does this mean?
A. He excels both in Science and in Mathematics.
B. He is better in Mathematics than in Science.
C. He is better in Science than in Mathematics.
D. He does not excel in both subjects.
72. The criterion of success in Teacher Ofel objective is that “the students must be able to get 80%
of the test items correctly”. Luis and 24 other students in the class answered only 20 out of 25
items correctly. This means that teacher Ofel .
A. Attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem solving drills.
B. Did not attain her lesson objective because her students lack of attention.
C. Attained her lesson objective.
D. Did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students are concerned.
73. The grading system of Department of Education is averaging. What is the average final grade of
Andie in English for four grading periods?
English First Second Third Fourth Final rating
grading grading grading grading
90 88 93 95 ?
A. 91.5 C. 94.00
B. 92.25 D. 95.00
74. The grading method which gives weight to the present grade and the previous grade of the
student such as (Third grading grade) + (Fourth grading grade) = Final Grade is
called .
A. Averaging
B. Criterion reference
C. Norm reference
D. Cumulative
75. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done?
 A. Make the stem short and clear
B. Make the options homogeneous
C. Make it grammatically correct
D. Make the options equal in length

Situation B. (Item Number 76 to 81)

Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on
the results of a try-out test in English. The letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer.

Item No. 10 A* B C D
Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2

76. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer?
A. Lower group C. can’t be determined
B. Upper group D. either lower group or upper group
77. The table shows that the item analyzed has .
A. Positive discriminating power
B. Negative discriminating power
C. High validity index
D. High reliability index
78. Based on the table in situation C, which is the most effective distracters?
A. Option A. C. Option C
B. Option B D. option D
79. Based on the table in situation C, which distracters should be revised?
A. Option A. B. Option B C. Option C D. option D
80. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation C?
A. Very easy C. moderately difficult
B. Easy D. difficult
81. What is discriminating index of item number 6 in Situation C?
A. 3% B. 6% C. 7% D. 50%
82. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
A. They emphasize on process as well as product.
B. They also stress on doing, not only knowing.
C. Essay test are example of performance-based assessment.
D. They emphasize only on process.
83. Teacher Ritz wrote of Michael.” When Michael came to class this morning, he seemed very
tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no
interest in what was being discussed. This was very unusual for he has been eager to
participate and often monopolizes the class discussion. What Teacher Ritz wrote is an example
of a/an .
A. Anecdotal report C. personality report
B. Observation report D. incidence report
84. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher .
A. Considers students’ suggestions in testing
B. Gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test
C. Gives students real-life tasks to accomplish
D. Includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures.
85. If teacher Jerick Ivan want to test his students’ synthesizing skills. Which of the following has
the highest diagnostic value?
A. Completion test C. Essay test
B. Performance test D. Multiple-choice test
86. Which of the following statement about marking on a normative basis?
A. The normal distribution curve should be followed
B. Most of the students got low scores.
C. Most of the students got high scores.
D. The grading should based from the given criteria.
87. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44. This means that .
A. More students from the upper group got the item correctly.
B. More students from the lower group got the item correctly.
C. Equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group.
D. The test item is very easy.
88. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the discrimination index is 0.33. What should the
teacher do with this item?
A. Reject the item C. revise the item
 B. Retain the item D. make the item bonus
89. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15. This means that .
A. More students from the upper group got the item correctly.
B. More students from the lower group got the item correctly.
C. Equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group.
D. The test item is very difficult.

90. The score distribution of set A and set B have equal mean but with different SD’s Set A has SD
of 2.75 while Set B has SD of 3.25. Which statement is TRUE of the score distributions?
A. Majority of the scores in set B are clustered around the mean.
B. Majority of the scores in set A are clustered around the mean than in set B.
C. Scores in set A are more widely scattered.
D. The scores of set B have less variability than the scores in set A.

91. About how many percent of the cases fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal curve.
A. 99.72 B. 95.44 C. 68.26 D. 34.13
92. In research analysis of variance utilizing the F-test is the appropriate significance test to
measure between:
A. Frequency C. Two means only
B. Median D. Three or more means
93. Skewed score distribution means:
A. The scores are normally distributed.
B. The mean and the median are equal.
C. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal.
D. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end and the distribution.

94. Which of the following describe norm-referenced statement?

A. Gabby performed better in spelling than 88% of his classmate.
B. Gabby was able to spell 94% of the words correctly.
C. Gabby was able to spell 94% of the words correctly and spelled 38% words out of
50 correctly.
D. Gabby spelled 38 words out of 50 correctly.
95. What type of validity is needed when you test course objectives and scopes?
A. Construct C. concurrent
B. Criterion D. content

96. Teacher Anne gives achievement test to her 30 students. The test consists of the 25 items. She
wants to compare her students’ performance based on the test result. What is the appropriate
measure for the position?
A. Percentage C. Z-score
B. Percentile rank D. standard nine

97. Teacher V give a 100 items multiple-choice test three students make scores of 94, 89 and 75,
respectively, while the other 27 students in the class make scores ranging from 33 to 67. The
measure of central tendency which is best describes for this group of 30 students is:
A. Mean and median C. Mode
B. Mean D. Median
98. With assessment of affective learning in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
a. Cloze test c. Reflective writing
b. Moral dilemma d. Diary entry
99. A test item has a difficult index of 0.89 and a discrimination index of 0.44. What should the
teacher do?
a. Reject the item c. Make it a bonus item
b. Retain the item d. Make it a bonus item and reject it

100. The test results revealed that a great majority of the students failed. What is the best
action that an effective teacher should take to insure that learning will
take place?
a. re-teach the items that are heavily missed c. give a more difficult test
b. analyze the difficulty, then test again d. scold the pupils
 ANSWER KEY
1. D 68. C
35. A
2. C 69. A
36. D
3. A 70. A
37. A
4. C 71. C
38. B
5. A 72. D
39. C
6. D 73. A
40. A
7. C 74. D
41. A
8. D 75. B
42. D
9. C 76. A
43. A
10. D 77. A
44. D
11. B 78. B
45. C
12. C 79. C
46. B
13. D 80. C
47. C
14. B 81. A
48. A
15. C 82. D
49. D
16. A 83. B
50. D
17. D 84. C
51. D
18. C 85. B
52. B
19. C 86. A
53. B
20. D 87. A
54. C
21. A 88. C
55. B
22. B 89. B
56. B
23. A 90. B
57. B
24. D 91. A
58. D
25. B 92. D
59. D
26. D 93. D
60. C
27. B 94. A
61. B
28. C 95. D
62. B
29. D 96. B
63. A
30. A 97. D
64. A
31. C 98. A
65. D
32. D 99. B
66. A
33. D 100. A
67. C
34. B