AIIMS MAY 2001 QUESTIONS

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1) A 65 year old female Kamala gives the history of severe unilateral headache on the right
side and complains of blindness since 2 days .On examination there is a thick cord like
structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/Hr in the first hour. The most
likely diagnosis is

a) Temporal arteritis b) Migraine c) cluster headache d) sinusitis

Ans (a)

2) A 60 year old man complaining of chest pain since 6 hrs is diagnosed as acute MI .
Angiography showed the involvement of anterior descending branch of left coronary
artery The most probable site of involvement is

(a) Anterolateral b) Posterior c) Inferior d) Septal

Ans (a)

3) Pulmonary Kerley B lines are seen in all the following except

(a) Pulmonary edema b) Mitral valve disease c) Interstitial fibrosis d) Broncho nb alveolar
Ca

Ans (d)

4) Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in

(a) ASD b) Small VSD c) MVP d) TOF

Ans (a)

5)In a patient with chronic AF with a regular beat of 60/min, the most probable cause is

a) sleep b) digitalis toxicity c) Sino nodal block d) Hypothyroidism

Ans (b)

6)An HIV positive female has an indurated ulcer over the tongue. Laboratory findings show
growth in cornmeal agar at 20 Degrees, microscopy showing hyphae and growth in human
serum at 37 degrees show budding yeasts. The probable cause is

a)Candida albicans b)Histoplasmosis c)Blastomycosis d) Coccidiodomycosis

Ans (a)
7) Kallu, a 30 year old man, presented with subcutaneous itchy nodules over the left iliac
crest. On examination, they are firm, non tender and mobile .Skin snips contain microfilaria
and adult worms of

a) Loa Loa b) Onchocerca volvulus c) Brugia malayi d) Mansonella perstans

Ans (b)

8)In an ICU patient on invasive monitoring, all are causes of bacterial sepsis except

a)Orotracheal intubation b)Intra arterial line c)Humidified air d)Central venous catheter

Ans (c)

9) In Polycythemia vera, all the following are seen except

a) thrombocytopenia b) increased GI bleed c) thrombosis d) Transient visual loss

Ans (a)

10) A stem cell disorder affecting all the 3 cell lines - platelets, RBC’s and leucocytes is

a) Hemolytic anemia b) Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria c) PNH d) Blackfan Diamond

syndrome

Ans (c)

11) In beta thalassemia, there is

a) increase in Beta chain , decrease in Alpha chain b) decrease in Beta chain, increase
Alpha chain c) decrease in Beta chain, decrease Alpha chain d) Increase in Beta chain,
increase Alpha chain

Ans (d)

12) Non caseating granulomas are seen in all the following except

a) Tuberculosis b) Byssinosis c) Hodgkin’s Lymphoma d) Metastatic carcinoma of lung

Ans (a)

13) All are paraneoplastic syndromes except

a) cerebellar degeneration b) Progressive Multifocal leukoencephalopathy c) Amyotropic

lateral sclerosis d) Opsoclonus myoclonus

Ans (c)

14) In Burkitts lymphoma, translocation seen is

a) 12-14 translocation b) 8-14 translocation c)

Ans (b)

15) Ingestion of arsenic causes

a) Hepatic Ca b) Hepatic adenoma c) Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis d) Hepatic cirrhosis

Ans (c)

16) In malignant hypertension, hyperplastic angiitis is seen in all except

a) Peripancreatic fat b) Kidney c) Heart d) Periadrenal fat

Ans (c)

17) In a chronic smoker, a highly malignant, aggressive and metastatic lung carcinoma is

a) Squamous cell Carcinoma b) Small cell Carcinoma c) Adenocarcinoma d) Large cell

Carcinoma

Ans (b)

18) All are true about Neisseria gonorrhea except

a) Gram positive cocci b) causes stricture urethra c) Involves seminal vesicles and spreads
to epididymis d) drug of choice is Ceftriaxone

Ans (a)

19) A 30 year old male, Kallu, with a history of sexual exposure comes with a painless
indurated ulcer over the penis with everted margins. The diagnosis is

a) Syphilis b) Chancroid ) LGV d) Granuloma inguinale

Ans (a)

20) All are features of peripheral neuritis in a patient with Hansens Disease except

a) Predominant sensory involvement b) Decreased tendon reflexes c) Mutilations d)

Ans (b)

21) A 32 year old male, Kallu, who recently visited a sea coast presented with an ulcer over
the left leg. The probable cause is

(a) Pasturella multocida b) Micrococcus halophilus c) Vibrio vulnificus d)

Ans (a)

22) An 8 year old boy, Kallu, is brought to the casualty with a history of consuming
something while playing outside in a play ground. On examination, there was altered
sensorium, hyperpyrexia, dilated pupils. Most probable cause is
a) Dhatura poisoning b) Organophosphorus poisoning c) Parthenium poisoning d)
Barbiturate poisoning

Ans (a)

23) All the following viruses cause stomach and colon cancer except

a) H pylori b) EB virus c) HBV d) HIV

Ans (c)

24) Which of the following is pathognomonic of renal disease

a) Hyaline casts b) coarse granular casts c) cystine oxalate crystals d) epithelial cells

Ans (c)

25) Hypoglycemia is seen in

a) Acromegaly b) Cushings syndrome c) Hypothyroidism d) Hypopitutarism

Ans (d)

26) A 76 year old male comes with a history of frequent falls and difficulty in looking
downwards and laterally. The diagnosis is

a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Supranuclear palsy c) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis d) Oculomotor

nerve palsy

Ans (b)

27) The commonest side effect of cisplatin in a patient using it for esophageal carcinoma is

a) ATN b) Thrombocytopenia c) Hepatic failure d) Cardiomyopathy

Ans (a)

28) The most common late CNS complication of HIV is

a) Dementia b) Ataxia c) Seizures d) Delirium

Ans (a)

29) In a patient with acute liver failure, the best prognostic indicator is

a) Serum albumin b) Serum AFP c) Serum bilirubin d) Factor V estimation

Ans (d)

30) The commonest hepatotropic virus causing increased chronic carrier state is

a) HEV b) HAV c) HBV d) HCV

Ans (d)

31) Regarding Addisonian pigmentation, all are true except

a) involves moles and scars b) involves palmar creases c) does not involve oral mucosa d)
involves sole pads

Ans (c)

32) In an HIV positive patient with tuberculosis, all are true except

a) decreased cavitation b) increased sputum positivity c) highly variable tuberculin test d)

decreased fibrosis

Ans (b)

33) In essential hypertension, changes seen in the heart are

a) cardiac cell hyperplasia b) cardiac cell hypertrophy c) increase in the mitochondrial

number d)

Ans (b)

34) In a 32 year old male presenting with the following blood chemistry : Na+ 135, K+ 5.0,
HCO3- 14.0, Cl- 116, PO4 5.0, SO4 5.0, Mg 2.0, Ca 8.0, the anion gap is

a) 10 b) 15 c) 13 d) 20

Ans (a)

35) Pyramidal tract involvement with absent ankle jerk is seen in

a) Frederick’s ataxia b) Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord c) Lathyrism d)

Tabes dorsalis

Ans (b)

36) A patient with BHP underwent TURP and developed altered sensorium. The cause is

a) Hyponatremia b) Hypernatremia c) Hypomagnesemia d) Hypokalemia

Ans (a)

37) A patient of BHP underwent TURP under bupivacaine spinal anesthesia. One hour later,
he developed nausea, vomiting and altered sensorium. The cause possibly is

a) Hypernatremia b) Water intoxication c) Bupivacaine overdose d) Rupture Bladder

Ans (b)

38) Neuroblastoma differs from Wilm’s tumor radiologically by all except

a) same location b) intraspinal extension c) calcification d) aorta and IVC are not eroded
but pushed aside

Ans (d)

39) A 60 year old male, Kallu, on CT scan was found to have a solid tumor involving the
inferior vena cava and renal vein. The tumor was within the Gerota’s fascia. All the following
can be done except

a) chest X-ray to rule out pulmonary metastasis b) pre-operative radiotherapy is not

favorable c) IVC invasion is inoperable d) pre-operative biopsy is not indicated

Ans (c)

40) A male patient, Kamal, aged 50 years presents with gradually progressive hard scrotal
swelling on the right side. All the following can be done except

a) inguinal exploration b) chest Xray to rule out pulmonary metastasis c) CT abdomen d)

biopsy through the scrotal skin

Ans (d)

41) Orhcidectomy is done in all the following except

a) male breast cancer b) filarial epididymo-orchitis c) seminoma testes d) prostate cancer

Ans (b)

42) The treatment of choice in congenital hydrocele is

a) Eversion of the sac b) Excision of the sac c) Herniotomy d) Lord’s procedure

Ans (c)

43) In a patient with pheochromocytoma, all the following are seen except

a) diarrhea b) orthostatic hypotension c) episodic hypertension d) weight gain

Ans (d)

44) Splenectomy is done in all the following except

a) splenic abscess b) hereditary spherocytosis c) sickle cell anemia d) myelofibrosis

Ans (c)

45) A patient with recurrent attacks of cholelithiasis had, on ultrasound examination , a

dilated CBD of 1 cm. The next best line in management is

a) ERCP b) PTC c) intravenous cholangiogram d) cholecystostomy

Ans (a)
46) A 40 year old male, Kallu, a chronic alcoholic, diagnosed as cirrhosis presents with a
lump in the right lobe of the liver. Serum AFP levels are not elevated. The diagnosis is

a) fibrohyperplasia b) hepatocellular carcinoma c) hepatocellular adenoma d)secondary

from carcinoma colon

Ans (a)

47) A 60 year old male diagnosed to have carcinoma stomach had, on CT scan of the
abdomen, a mass measuring 4x4 cm in the antrum with involvement of celiac nodes and
right gastric nodes. The management of choice is

a) palliative b) subtotal gastrectomy c) total gastrectomy d) chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Ans (b)

48) A 70 year old male, Kamal, presents with lower GI bleed for the last 6 months. On
sigmoidoscopic examination, there is a hard non-obstructing mass of 4 cms about 3 cms
above the anal verge. The treatment of choice is

a) anterior resection b) abdominoperineal resection c) defunctioning anastomosis

d) colostomy

Ans (b)

49) A 14 year old girl, Salu, a regular swimmer presents with sudden onset of pain abdomen,
abdominal distension and fever of 390, but without obliteration of the liver dullness. The
diagnosis is

a) ruptured typhoid ulcer b) ruptured ectopic pregnancy c) primary bacterial peritonitis d)

UTI with PID

Ans (c)

50) Left sided pulmonary hypertension is best treated by

a) splenectomy b) central spleno-renal shunt c) portocaval shunt d) distal lienorenal shunt

Ans (b)

51) A 28 year old male, Mallu, a chronic alcoholic, presents with sudden onset of epigastric
pain that is radiating to the back. All the following can be seen except

a) hypocalcemia b) increased serum amylase c) low serum lipase d) increased LDH

Ans (c)

52) A 28 year old male patient is brought to the casualty with severe hypotension following a
car accident. On examination no external bleed or injuries are seen. The cause of
hypotension is possibly

a) intrathoracic and abdominal bleed b) fracture rib c) intracranial bleed d) neurogenic

shock
Ans (a)

53) On prenatal ultrasound examination, the diagnostic feature of congenital diaphragmatic

hernia is

a) absence of gas bubble under the diaphragm b) mediastinal shift with normal heart axisc)
peristalsis in the thoracic cavity d) a cyst behind the left atrium

Ans (c)

54) A 40 year old male, Kallu, a chronic smoker, presents with claudication and a medial leg
ulcer. For the past one month, he gives a history of rest pain. All the following can be used to
relieve the rest pain except

a) Omentoplexy b) conservative amputation c) lumbar sympathectomy d) femoropopliteal

bypass

Ans (c)

55) A male patient aged 30 years following a road traffic accident presents with fracture of
4th to 10th ribs and respiratory distress. He is diagnosed to have flail chest and PaO2 is <
60%. The treatment of choice is

a) fixation of ribs b) strapping of the chest c) IPPV with oral intubation d) tracheostomy

Ans (c)

56) A post-operative patient presents with duodenal leak and peritonitis with massive
contamination. The appropriate management of choice is

a) duodenostomy + feeding jejunostomy + peritoneal lavage b) total parenteral nutritionc)

duodenojejunostomy d) four quadrant peritoneal lavage

Ans (a)

57) A 52 year old male executive is seen in the casualty with hypotension, vomiting bright
red blood at home and in the hospital. There is no previous suggestive history. The
estimated blood loss is around 2 liters. The diagnosis is

a) esophageal varices b) gastritis c) duodenal ulcer d) Mallory-Weiss tear

Ans (c)

58) All are true about the right kidney except

a) it is related to the duodenum b) it is lower than the left kidney c) the right renal vein is
shorter than the left d) right kidney is preferred over the left for transplantation

Ans (d)

59) Grade IV esophageal varices, on barium swallow appears as

a) a thick band b) mucosal folds above the carina c) mucosal folds below the carina
Ans (?)

60) A female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and colonic
polyps. Her sister also has the same history. The diagnosis is

a) Peutz-Jeghers’ syndrome b) Carcinoid c) melanoma d) villous adenoma

Ans (a)

61) The commonest site of carcinoma prostate is

a) Transitional zone b) Central zone c) Peripheral zone d) Anterior zone

Ans (c)

62) Dissociative sensory loss is seen with

a) Tabes dorsalis b) Syringomyelia c)

Ans (b)

63) In a patient with raised IgA levels, the commonest finding is

a) proteinuria b) GI bleed c) hematuria d) hypertension

Ans (c)

64) In a patient with choledochal cyst, bile diversion into the small intestine is contraindicated
because of risk of

a) malignancy b) recurrent cholangitis c) pancreatitis d) increased gall stones

Ans (a)

65) Thyrotoxicosis differs from malignant hyperthermia by

a) muscle rigidity b) CPK c) hypothermia d)

Ans (b)

66) In a female with sudden onset of severe headache, on CT, a diagnosis of subarachnoid
hemorrhage was made. The most common site of subarachnoid hemorrhage is

a) subdural venous sinuses b) middle meningeal artery c) Berry aneurysm rupture d)

basilar artery

Ans (c)

67) Chamavati, a 30 year old female from rural Assam with a history of chronic tobacco
chewing since 15 years of age, presents with difficulty in opening the mouth. On oral
examination, no ulcer is seen. The diagnosis is
a) non-ulcerative carcinoma of buccal mucosa b) submucous oral fibrosis
c)Temporomandibular joint arthritis

Ans (b)

68) A 40 year old female patient, Chamavati, presents with a lump that is gradually
increasing in the parotid region. On oral examination, the tonsil was pushed medially. On
biopsy, pleomorphic adenoma was diagnosed. The appropriate treatment is

a) Superficial parotidectomy b) Lumpectomy c) Enucleation d) Conservative total dissection

Ans (a)

69) A female patient, 45 years of age, with a family history of breast carcinoma showed
diffuse microcalcification on mammography. On biopsy, intraductal carcinoma in situ was
found. The appropriate management is

a) simple mastectomy b) quadrantectomy c) radical mastectomy with axillary sampling d)

chemotherapy with CMF regime

Ans (c)

70) Tram track appearance on CT scan of the head is seen in

a) Sturge Weber syndrome b) von Hippel Lindau disease c) Tuberous sclerosis d)

neurofibroma

Ans (a)

71) A patient presents with minimal pleural effusion on the right side. The best method to
detect this would be

a) right side chest Xray b) Left sided chest Xray c) Left lateral decubitus chest Xray d) Right
lateral decubitus chest Xray

Ans (d)

72) A 40 year old farmer with a history of recurrent attacks of porphyria complains of itching
when exposed to the sun and maculopapular rash on sun-exposed areas. His symptoms are
exaggerated in the summer. The diagnosis is

a) Seborrheic dermatitis b) Contact dermatitis c) Psoriasis d) Porphyria cutanea tarda

Ans (d)

73) An 8 year old boy presents with a well defined annular lesion over the buttock with
central scarring that is gradually progressing over the last 8 months. The diagnosis is

a) annular psoriasis b) lupus vulgaris c) tinea corporis d)

Ans (b)

74) In adult polycystic kidney, all are true except

a) Cysts are seen in the liver, spleen and the pancreas b) Hematuria occurs
c) Hypertension is rare d) Autosomal dominant transmission is seen
Ans (c)

75) In thymoma, all are seen except

a) red cell aplasia b) hyperalbuminemia c) hypogammaglobulinemiac) Hypertension is rare

d) Autosomal dominant transmission is seen

Ans (c)

75) In thymoma, all are seen except

a) red cell aplasia b) hyperalbuminemia c) hypogammaglobulinemia d) myasthenia gravis

Ans (b)

76) An adult presents with oval scaly hypopigmented macules over the chest and the back.
The diagnosis is

a) Leprosy b) Lupus vulgaris c) Pityriasis versicolor d) Lichen planus

Ans (c)

77) The characteristic nail finding in lichen planus is

a) pitting b) pterygium c) Beau’s lines d) Hyperpigmentation of the nails

Ans (b)

78) In an 8 day old child with no history of consanguinity in the parents, the mother reports
blisters and peeling off of the skin at the site of handling and pressure. There was a similar
history in the previous child which proved to be fatal. The diagnosis is

a)Bullous pemphigoid b) Congenital syphilis c) Congenital epidermolysis bullosa d)etterer-

Siwe disease

Ans (b/d)

79) The most common complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is

a) dislocation of the lens b) phakomorphic glaucoma c) uveitis d)

Ans (a)

80) A 14 year old boy complains of pain during reading . On examination, his both eyes are
normal and vision with non Snellen’s reading is 6/5. He still complains of pain on occluding
one eye. The diagnosis is

a) myopia b) pseudomyopia c) hyperopia d) emmetropia

Ans (b)
81) A 16 year old boy complains of pain in the right eye. After refractometry , he was
prescribed a + 3.5 D sphere lens. The cover test is normal. There is no heterophoria. The
diagnosis is

a) organic amblyopia b) anisometric amblyopia c) emmetropic amblyopia d) toxic

amblyopia

Ans (?)

82) A patient complains of pain in both eyes with congestion, blurring of vision, photophobia
and mucopurulent discharge since one day. Many cases have been reported from the same
community. The causative agent is probably

a) adenovirus b) enterovirus 70 c) herpes simplex d)

Ans (b)

83) A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of
ciliary congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior
chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is

a) phakomorphic glaucoma b) phakolytic glaucoma c) phakotoxic glaucoma

d)phakoanaphylactic uveitis

Ans (d)

84) A 60 year old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of
floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is

a) vitreous hemorrhage b) retinal detachment c) central retinal artery occlusion d) cystoid

macular edema

Ans (a)

85) A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with
intense itching and ropy discharge. The diagnosis is

a) vernal conjunctivitis b) phlyctenular conjunctivitis c) trachoma d) viral conjunctivitis

Ans (a)

86) A 25 year old lady presents with severe sudden onset of pain, corneal congestion,
photophobia and deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. Xray pelvis
shows sacroiliitis. The diagnosis is

a) anterior uveitis b) posterior uveitis c) intermediate uveitis d) scleritis

Ans (a)

87) A 30 day old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive
lacrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a
large cornea and corneal haziness. The diagnosis is
a) megalocornea b) keratoconus c) congenital glaucoma d) Hunter’s syndrome

Ans (c)

88) In high spinal anesthesia, seen are

a) hypotension and bradycardia b) hypotension and Tachycardia c) hypertension and

bradycardia d) hypertension and tachycardia

Ans (a)

89) A patient selected for surgery who was induced with thiopentone i.v through one of the
antecubital veins complains of severe pain of the whole hand. The next line of management
is

a) give i.v propofol through the same needle b) give i.v ketamine through the same needle
c) give i.v lignocaine through the same needle d) leave it alone

Ans (c)

90) A patient who was on aspirin for a long period was selected for an elective surgery. What
should be done?

a) stop aspirin for 7 days b) infusion of fresh frozen plasma c) infusion of platelet
concentrate d) go ahead with the surgery maintaining adequate hemostasis

Ans (a)

91) A patient in the ICU was on invasive monitoring with intraarterial cannulation through the
right radial artery for the last 3 days. Later, he developed swelling and discoloration of the
right hand. The next line of management is

a) stellate ganglion block b) brachial block c) radial nerve block on the same side d)
application of lignocaine jelly over the site

Ans (a)

92) A 3 year old child with severe sensorineural deafness was prescribed hearing aids, but
shows no improvement. The next line of management is

a) cochlear implant b) fenestration surgery c) stapes mobilization d)

Ans (a)

93) A 4 year old girl diagnosed as having multiple juvenile papillamotosis of the larynx
presents to the casualty with mild respiratory distress. The next line of management is

a) tracheostomy b) microlaryngoscopy c) broad spectrum antibiotics d) systemic steroids

Ans (b)

94) A 28 year old female presents to the casualty with gradually increasing respiratory
distress since 4 days. She gives history of hospitalization and mechanical ventilation with
orotracheal intubation for 2 weeks. Now, she was diagnosed as having severe tracheal
stenosis. The next line of management is

a) tracheal resection and end to end anastomosis b) tracheal dilatation c) systemic steroids
d)laser excision and stent insertion

Ans (d)

95) A 30 year old male, following excision of the 3rd molar for dental caries presents with
trismus, fever of 39.50 and swelling pushing the tonsil medially and spreading laterally
posterior to the middle sternocleidomastoid. The diagnosis is

a) parapharyngeal abscess b) retropharyngeal abscess c) Ludwig’s angina d) submental

abscess

Ans (a)

96) A 20 year old male, following a road traffic accident was brought to the casualty. His right
leg is shortened, internally rotated and adducted. The diagnosis is

a) fracture neck of femur b) anterior dislocation of the hip c) posterior dislocation of the hip
d) trochanteric fracture of the femur

Ans (c)

97) An 8 year old boy presents with a gradually progressing swelling and pain since 6
months over the upper tibia. On Xray, there is a lytic lesion with sclerotic margins in the
upper tibial metaphysis. The diagnosis is

a) Osteogenic sarcoma b) Osteoclastoma c) Brodie’s abscess d) Ewing’s sarcoma

Ans (c)

98) An 8 year old boy with a history of fall from 10 feet height complains of pain in the right
ankle. Xrays taken at that time are normal without any fracture line. But after 2 years, he
developed a calcaneovalgus deformity. The diagnosis is

a) undiagnosed malunited fracture b) avascular necrosis talus c) tibial epiphyseal injury

Ans (c)

99) A 6 year old boy has a history of recurrent dislocation of the right shoulder . On
examination, the orthopedician puts the patient in the supine position and abducts his arm to
90 degrees with the bed as the fulcrum and then externally rotates it but the boy does not
allow the test to be performed. The test done by the orthopedician is

a) apprehension test b) sulcus test c)

Ans (a)

100) Regarding bone remodelling, all are true except

a) osteoclastic activity at the compression site b) osteoclastic activity at the tension site c)
osteoclastic activity and osteoblastic activity are both needed for bone remodelling in cortical
and cancellous bones d) osteoblasts transforms into osteocytes

Ans (?)

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101) A child is spinned around by his father by holding both hands. While doing this the child
started crying and does not allow his father to touch his elbow.The diagnosis is

a) pulled elbow b) radial head dislocation c) Annular ligament tear d) Fracture olecranon
process

Ans (a)

102)The structures piercing the clavipectoral fascia are all except:

a) Cephalic vein b) Thoraco acromial artery c) Lateral pectoral nerve d) Lateral pectoral
artery

Ans (d)

103) Crossed oculomotor palsy is seen in occlusion of

a) Anterior cerebral artery b) Middle cerebral artery c) Posterior cerebral artery d)

Superior cerebral artery

Ans (c)

104) Erection of penis is mediated by all the following except

a) Nervi erigentes b) Pudendal nerve c) Sacral plexus d) Hypogastric plexus

Ans (d)

105) Active transport of chemicals across the cell membrane is mediated by:

a) Channel protein b) Carrier protein c) G protein d) Na+- K+ ATPase.

Ans (b)

106) In a patient with respiratory rate of 14/min, tidal volume of 500 ml with a vital capacity
7000ml, the alveolar ventilation/minute is

a) 2000 ml b) 4900ml c) 7000ml d) 7700ml.

Ans (b)

107) During sigmoidoscopy, if the rectum is inflated with gas, increased peristalsis is seen in
a) Whole intestine b) Distal colon c) Proximal colon d) Whole colon

Ans (?)

108) In an unacclimatised person suddenly exposed to cold, the physiological effect seen is

a) Hypertension b) Tachycardia c) Shift of blood from shell to core d) Non shivering

thermogenesis

Ans (?)

109) Spuriously high BP is noted in all the following except

a) Obesity b) Thick calcified vessels c) Small cuff d) Auscultatory gap

Ans (a)

110) Cerebellar herniation presents with all the following except

a) Loss of consciousness b) Autonomic disturbances c) Neck stiffness d) Pupil dilatation

Ans (c)

111) Positive feedback is seen in all the following except

a) LH Surge b) Stimulation of the gastric secretion by histamine and gastrin c) thrombolytic

activity in the coagulation cascade d) Entry of Ca into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Ans (d)

112)Vitamin K is needed for the post translational modification of

a) Carboxylation b) Methylation c) Hydroxylation d) Transketolation

Ans (a)

113) Amber codon refers to

a) Initiating codon b) Mutant codon c) Stop codon d) Codon coding for multiple amino
acids

Ans (?)

114) At physiological pH, the most stable amino acid is

a) Histidine b) Lysine c) Arginine d) Leucine

Ans (a)

115) In cystinuria, amino acids excreted are all the following except:

a) Ornithine b) Arginine c Lysine d) Histidine

Ans (d)

116) Dietary triglycerides are transported by

a) Chylomicrons b) LDL c) VLDL d) HDL

Ans (a)

117) In which of the following reaction, thiamine is not used

a) Alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA b) Glucose to pentose c) Oxidative decarboxylation

of Alpha keto amino acids d) Lactate to pyruvate

Ans (d)

118) In chromatography, mass movement of the substances is seen in

a) Electrophoresis b) Diffusion c) Osmosis d) Paper chromatography

Ans (a)

119) The type of chromatography in which proteins are bound to another substance is

a) Hydrophobic chromatography b) Absorption ( Affinity ) chromatography

Ans (b)

120) The end-product of citric acid cycle used in detoxification of ammonia in brain is

a) Oxaloacetate b) Alpha keto glutarate c) Succinate d) Citrate

Ans (b)

121) Right parietal lobe lesions cause all the following except

a) ideomotor apraxia b) Self neglect

Ans (?)

122) Investigation of choice for blood grouping in old blood stain on the cloth is

a) Precipitin test b) Benzidine test c) Acid dilution test d) Hemin crystals

Ans (d)

123) Interleukin secreted by the macrophages stimulating lymphocytes is

a) IL 1 b) INF Alpha c) TNF Alpha d) IL 6

Ans (a)
124) Following injection of lymphokines, the same class of immunoglobulins are produced.
This is referred to as

a) Clonal selection b) Class switching c) d)

Ans (a)

125) A patient receiving allopurinol requires dose reduction of

a) 6 mercapto purine b) cyclophosphamide c) Azathioprine d) Cimetidine

Ans (a)

126) An elderly hypertensive has diabetes mellitus and bilateral renal artery stenosis. The
best management is

a) Enalapril b) Verapamil c) Beta blockers d) Thiazides

Ans (a)

127) A female suffering from psychosis, taking phenothiazines now complains of sudden
onset of high grade fever, muscle rigidity and altered sensorium. The diagnosis is

a) Malignant hyperthermia b) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c) Tardive dyskinesia

d)akathesia

Ans (b)

128) A patient on cisapride for Barrets ulcer suffers from pneumonia. The physician
prescribes erythromycin. Which of the following is the correct statement

a) Increase the dose of cisapride needed b) Increase the dose of erythromycin needed c)
Increased risk of Ventricular arrythmias present d) Decreased bioavailability of cisapride

Ans (c)

129) A 60 year old male comes to the casualty with acute retention of urine since 12 hours.
On examination there was distended bladder . His son gives a history of taking some drugs
by the patient since 2 days as he is suffering from depression . The most likely drug is

a) Amitryptiline b) Chlorpromazine c) Haloperidol d)

Ans (a)

130) Kallu, a 22 year old male suffers from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity ,
excitement and spending excessive money excessively for the past 8 days. The diagnosis is

a) Acute mania b) Acute psychosis c) Schizophrenia d) Psychosexual disorder

Ans (a)
131) Rathi, a 26 year old female diagnosed to be suffering from depression now for the past
2 days had suicidal tendencies, thoughts and ideas. The best treatment is

a) Amitryptiline b) Selegiline c) Haloperidol + Chlorpromazine d) ECT

Ans (d)

132) Kallu, a 22 year old single unmarried man is suffering from sudden onset of 3rd person
hallucinations for the past 2 weeks. He is suspicious of his family members and had
decreased sleep and appetite. The diagnosis is

a) Schizophrenia b) Acute psychosis c) Acute mania d) Delirium

Ans (b)

133) A 60 year old male suffering from auditory hallucinations is says that people staying
upstairs are talking about him and conspiring against him. He dropped a police complaint
against them but the allegations were proved to be wrong. The diagnosis is

a) Schizophrenia b) Depression c) Dementia d) Delusional disorder

Ans (a)

134) In India the commonest cause of juvenile onset of DM is

a) MODY b) Fibrocalcific pancreatopathy c) Gall stones d) IDDM

Ans (b)

135) A neonate has central cyanosis and short systolic murmur on the 2nd day of birth. The
diagnosis is

a) TGV b) TOF c) VSD d) ASD

Ans (a)

136) An 8 year old female child following URTI developed maculopapular rash on the face
spreading onto the trunk which cleared on the 3rd day without desquamation and tender post
auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is

a) Measles b) Rubella c) Erythema infectiosum d) Kawasaki disease(Mucocutaneous LN

Syndrome)

Ans (b)

137) A 4 month old HIV positive child following URTI ,developed sudden onset of
breathlessness. The chest Xray shows hyperinflation. The O2 saturation was greater than
90%. The treatment of choice is

a) Nebulized acyclovir b) i.v Ganciclovir c) Ribavirin d) Cotrimoxazole

Ans (c)
138) All of the following are features of systemic juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis except

a) Rash b) fever c) Hepato Splenomegaly d) Uveitis

Ans (d)

139)A child climbs with alternate steps , builds a tower of 8-9 cubes , tells “I” but not his
name and cannot say his age and sex. The probable age is

a) 24 Months b) 36 Months c) 30 Months d) 48 Months

Ans (c)

140) A child suffering from acute diarrhea is brought to the casualty and is diagnosed as
having severe dehydration with pH of 7.23 , Serum Na -125 , Serum K- 3 , Hco3 16. The
best IV fluid of choice is

a) 3% saline b) Normal saline c) N/3 saline + 10 % dextrose d) N/3 saline + 5% dextrose

Ans (?)

141) A child with recent onset of URTI after 2 days presents with acute onset of
breathlessness, cough and fever. All of the following can be given except

a) Antibiotics b) Antipyretics c) O2 inhalation d) Morphine

Ans (d)

142)A 6 month old child having severe dehydration comes to the casualty with weak pulse
and unrecordable BP. Repeated attempts in gaining IV access has failed. The next best step
is

a) Venesection b) Jugular vein catheterization c) Intraosseous IV Fluids d) Try again

Ans (c)

143) A 6 year old child with acute onset of fever of 104 F developed febrile seizures and was
treated. To avoid future recurrence of seizure attacks what should be given

a) IV diazepam infusion over 12 Hrs b) Paracetamol 400 mg + Phenobarbitone daily

c)pararacetamol 400 mg 6th Hrly d) Oral diazepam 6th Hrly

Ans (c)

144 ) An 8 year old child suffering from recurrent attacks of polyuria since childhood
presents to the paediatrics OPD. On examination, the child is short statured, vitals and BP
are normal. Serum Cr 6 Mg %, HCO3 16 mEq , Na 134, K 4.2 On USG bilateral small
kidneys The most likely diagnosis is

a) Polycystic Kidney disease b) Medullary cystic Kidney disease c) Nephronophthisis d)

Reflux nephropathy

Ans (c)
145) A 40 year old male presents with recurrent bouts of vomiting since 9 months because
of pyloric obstruction. The compensatory biochemical change is

a) Respiratory acidosis b) Respiratory alkalosis c) Metabolic acidosis d) Paradoxical

aciduria with hypo natremia and hypo chloremia

Ans (d)

146)A diabetic female at 40 weeks of pregnancy delivered a baby by elective CS. Soon after
birth the baby developed respiratory distress. The diagnosis is

a) Hyaline membrane disease b) Transient tachypnea of the newborn c) Congenital

diaphragmatic hernia d) Tracheo esophageal fistula

Ans (a)

147)All are prognostic indicators of PIH except

a) Serum Uric acid b) Low platelets c) Serum Na d) Elevated liver enzymes

Ans (c)

148) In a woman on subdermal progesterone implant , the menstrual abnormality seen is

a) Amenorrhea b) Menorrhagia c) Metrorrhagia d) Polymenorrhoea

Ans (c)

149) Kalavathi ,a 29 year old nulliparous woman complains of severe menorrhagia and lower
abdominal pain since 3 months. On examination, there is a 14 weeks size uterus with fundal
fibroid . The treatment of choice is

a) Wait and watch b) Myomectomy c) GnRH analogues d) Hysterectomy

Ans (c)

150) A pregnant lady in the first trimester presented with random blood glucose of 177 mg /dl
The treatment is

a) Insulin b) glipizide c) Phenformin d) Sulfonylurea

Ans (a)

151) In a non-diabetic high risk pregnancy, the ideal time for NST monitoring is

a) 24 Hrs b) 48 Hrs c) 72 Hrs d) 96 Hrs

Ans (?)

152) A woman comes with postdated pregnancy at 42 weeks. The initial evaluation should
be
a) USG b) Induction of labor c) Review previous menstrual history d)

Ans (c)

153) In pregnancy, the most common cause of transient Diabetes Insipidus is

a) Severe pre-eclampsia b) Multiple pregnancy c) d)

Ans (a)

154) A 26 year old nulliparous woman is on oral contraceptive pills. She is currently
diagnosed as having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which anti-tuberculous drug decreases the
effect of OCP’s?

a) Rifampicin b) INH c) Pyrazinamide d) Ethambutol

Ans (a)

155) The drug that inhibits uterine contractility causing pulmonary edema is

a) Ritodrin b )Nifedipine c) indomethacin d) Atabusin

Ans (a)

156) Post-coital test detects all of the following except

a) Sperm count b) Sperm abnormality c) Fallopian tube block d) Cervical factor

abnormality

Ans (c)

157) A 48 year old female suffering from severe menhorragia (DUB) underwent
hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and
breast are normal, but x ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Estrogen-Progesterone d) None

Ans (a/c)

158) A pregnant female, 38 years old, had a child with Downs syndrome. How do you
assess the risk of Down’s asyndrome in the present pregnancy?

a) Chorionic villus biopsy b) Maternal alpha feto protein levels c) Maternal hCG d) USG

Ans (a)

159) A 28 year old female with a history of 8 weeks amenorrhea complains of vaginal
bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On USG examination, there is gestational sac with
absent fetal parts. The diagnosis is
(a) corpus luteum cyst b) ectopic pregnancy c) Incarcerated abortion d)Threatened
abortion

Ans (c)

160)Kamla, a 48 year old lady underwent hysterectomy. On the seventh day, she developed
fever, burning micturiton and urinary dribbling . She can also pass urine voluntarily. The
diagnosis is

a) uretero-vaginal fistula b) vesico-vaginal fistula c) Urge incontinence d) Stress

incontinence

Ans (a)

161)A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of
abdominal pain and distension with ascites. The probable cause is

a) Hyperstimulation syndrome b) Uterine rupture c) Ectopic pregnancy rupture d) Multi

fetal pregnancy

Ans (a)

162) A woman at 8 months of pregnancy complains of abdominal pain and slight vaginal
bleed. On examination, the uterine size is above the expected date with absent fetal heart
sounds. The diagnosis is

a) Hydramnios b)Uterine rupture c) concealed hemorrhage d) active labor

Ans (c)

163) In a woman having a previous history of Caesarian section, all of the following are
indications for trial labor except

a) Occipito posterior position b) fetal distress c) breech presentation d) Mid pelvic

contraction

Ans (b)

164) All are indicators for the assessment of the nutritional program except

a) Weight and height of the preschool child b) Prevalence of low Birth weight less than 2.5
kg in community c) Nutritional assessment of the preschool child d) Prevalence of pregnant
mothers having Hb < 11.5 g% in the 3rd trimester

Ans (d)

165) A concept directed against prevention of risk factors of CAD is

a) Primordial prevention b) Secondary prevention c) Health education d) Primary

prevention

Ans (a)
166) In a community, the specificity of ELISA is 99% and sensitivity is 99%. The prevalance
of the disease is 5/1000. Then, the positive predictive value of the test is

a) 33% b) 67% c) 75% d) 99%

Ans (a)

167) In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20000 exposed to smoking, 200 developed
cancer , and among 40000 people unexposed, 40 developed cancer. The relative risk of
smoking in the development of cancer is

a) 20 b) 10 c) 5 d)15

Ans (b)

168) A person wants to visit a malaria endemic area of low level chloroquine resistant
falciparum malaria. The best chemoprophylaxis is

a) Chloroquine b) Proguanil + Chloroquine c) Sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine d) Mefloquine

Ans (d)

169) A 35 year old male suffering from sudden onset of high grade fever. On malarial slide
examination, all stages of the parasite are seen with schizonts of 20 microns size with 14-20
merozoites per cell and yellow brown pigment. The diagnosis is

a) Plasmodium falciparum b) Plasmodium vivax c) Plasmodium malariae d) Plasmodium

ovale

Ans (b)

170) A child after consuming food in a party complaints of vomiting and diarrhea within 1-5
hours. The diagnosis is

a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus c) Clostridium Perfringens d) Clostridium

Botulinum

Ans (a)

171) Culex tritaenorrhyncus transmits

a) Dengue fever b) Yellow fever c) KFD d) Japanese encephalitis

Ans (b)

172) For the disposal of the hospital refuse, the bag made by cadmium is not used because
incineration of the bag causes poisonous toxic fumes evolution. The color of the bag is

a) Black b) Red c) Blue d) Yellow

Ans (?)
173) Berkesonian bias refers to

a) Different rates of admission to the hospital b) Interviewers bias

Ans (?)

174) A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident presents to the casualty with
contaminated wound over the left leg. He has received his complete primary immunization
before preschool age and received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of the following
can be done except

a) Injection of TT b) Injection of human antiserum c) Broad spectrum antibiotics d) Wound

debridment and cleaning

Ans (a)

175) A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having a population of one lakh. Out of
20,000 slides examined, 500 turned out to be malaria positive. The annual parasite index is

a) 20% b) 5/1000 Population c) 0.5% d).4%

Ans (b)

176) For a typhoid endemic country like India, the immunization of choice is

a) TAB Vaccine b) typhoral 21A oral vaccine c) monovalent vaccine d)

Ans (b)

177) Kallu, a 22 yr old male had an outing with his friends and developed fever of 38.5
degree C, diarrhea and vomiting following eating chicken salad. 24 hours back, two of his
friends developed the same symptoms. The diagnosis is

a) Salmonella enteritis poisoning b) Bacillus cereus c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Vibrio

cholera

Ans (?)

178) Simple randomization is done for

a) Every person has an equal and known chance of selection

Ans (c)

179) In a normal distribution curve, the true statement is

a) Mean = SD b) Median =SD c) Mean =2 Median d)Mean = Mode

Ans (a)

180)On prescription of oral pills to the user, the health worker will ask about the following
except
a) Number of live children b) calf tenderness c) Headache d) Swelling of the feet

Ans (a)

181) A patient of paucibacillary tuberculoid leprosy completed 6 months of multidrug therapy.

The response to therapy is good, but the lesion has not healed completely. According to the
WHO criteria , which of the following should be done?

a) Stop treatment and watch b) Continue the treatment for 6 more months c) Continue
Dapsone for 2 more months d) Test for drug resistance

Ans (a)

182) General fertility rate is a better measure of fertility than the crude birth rate because the
denominator includes

a) 15-45 years of age female. b) Midyear population c) Total woman population d) Married
woman population

Ans (a)

183) A patient with sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis is on ATT for the last 5 months
but the patient is still positive for AFB in the sputum. This case refers to

a) New case b) Failure case c) Relapse case d) Drug defaulter

Ans (a)

184) Under the baby friendly hospital initiative program, all of the following can be done
except

a)Breast feeding started 1-4 hours after birth b) Mother and the child are kept together for
24 hours of the day c) Feeding on demand d) Exclusive breast feeding without any other
food is preferred upto 4 months

Ans (a)

185) In India. all are direct causes of maternal mortality except

a) Cardiac disease b) Eclampsia c) Hemorrhage d) Abortion

Ans (5)

186) In a group of 100 children, the weight of a child is 15 Kg. The standard error is 1.5
Kg.Which one of the following is true

a) 95% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 Kg b) 95% of all children weigh between
13.5 and 16.5 Kg c) 99% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 Kg d) 99% of all
children weigh between 13.5 and 16.5 Kg.

Ans (a)
187) Malaria incidence in a village in the year 2000 is 430, 500, 410, 160, 270, 210, 300,
350, 4000, 430, 480, 540. Which of the following is the best indicator for assessment of
malaria incidence in that village by the epidemiologist?

a) Arithmetic mean b) Geometric mean c) Median d) Mode

Ans (a)

188) In which of the following are granulomas not seen

a) Wegeners Granulomatosis b) Giant cell arteritis c) Microscopic polyangiiitis d) Chrug-

Strauss vasculitis

Ans (a)

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he standard error is 1.5 Kg.Which one of the following is true

a) 95% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 Kg b) 95% of all children weigh between
13.5 and 16.5 Kg c) 99% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 Kg d) 99% of all
children weigh between 13.5 and 16.5 Kg.

Ans (a)

187) Malaria incidence in a village in the year 2000 is 430, 500, 410, 160, 270, 210, 300,
350, 4000, 430, 480, 540. Which of the following is the best indicator for assessment of
malaria incidence in that village by the epidemiologist?

a) Arithmetic mean b) Geometric mean c) Median d) Mode

Ans (a)

188) In which of the following are granulomas not seen

a) Wegeners Granulomatosis b) Giant cell arteritis c) Microscopic polyangiiitis d) Chrug-

Strauss vasculitis

Ans (a)

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