Test Booklet Code B Test Booklet Serial No.

MAHARAJA RANJIT SINGH AFPI

14 JANUARY 2024

Marks: 600 Time: 180 minutes

ROLL NO.:____________________ NAME: _____________________________

SIGNATURE: __________________ DATE/TIME: _________________________

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES

1. The question booklet contains English Section (Q 1-40), Mathematics Section (Q 41-120) and
Social Studies (Q 121-150). All questions are compulsory.
2. Before attempting the paper carefully read the Instructions on the Answer Sheet (OMR Sheet)
supplied separately.
3. At the start of the examination, please ensure that all pages of your Test Booklet are properly
printed; your Test Booklet is not damaged in any manner and contains 150 questions. In case
of any discrepancy the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for
replacement of the Test Booklet. No claim in this regard will be entertained at a later stage.
4. An OMR Answer Sheet is being provided separately along with this Test Booklet. Please fill
up all relevant entries like Roll Number, Test Booklet Serial No., Centre Number, etc. in the
spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet and put your signature in the box provided for this
purpose.
5. Make sure to fill the correct Test Booklet Code Serial No. on Side 2 of the OMR Answer
Sheet. If the space for the Booklet Code is left blank or more than one Booklet Code is
indicated therein, it will be deemed to be an incorrect Booklet Code and the Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated. The candidate himself will be solely responsible for all the consequences
arising out of any error or omission in writing the test Booklet code.
6. This Test Booklet consists of ___ pages containing 150 questions & ___ pages for rough
work. Against each question four alternative choices (1), (2), (3), (4) are given, out of which
one is correct. Indicate your choice of answer by darkening the suitable circle with
BLACK/BLUE pen in the OMR Answer Sheet supplied to you separately. USE OF PENCIL
IS STRICTLY PROHIBITED. More than one answers indicated against a question will be
deemed as incorrect response.
7. The maximum marks are 600. Each question carries four (4) marks. There will be negative
marking of minus one (-1) for each incorrect answer.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. Any stray mark or smudge
on the OMR Answer Sheet may be taken as a wrong answer. Any damage to the OMR Answer
Sheet may result in disqualification of the candidate.
9. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the room/hall. The Question Booklet may be retained.
10. Use of Mobile phones, wrist watches and calculators etc. are not allowed.
11. Keep all your belongings outside the Examination Hall. Do not retain any paper except
the ADMIT CARD.
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SECTION-ENGLISH
Directions (Questions 1 to 10). In these questions, you have two brief passages with five questions
following each passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four
alternatives
PASSAGE-1
Keep your watch accurate. For some people, moving up the time on their watch will help them get
up earlier. For others, they will remember that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it
altogether. It may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead instead of five or ten. Keep a
clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time in each room of your house. One of the
easiest ways to run late is simply by not realizing that the time is passing as quickly as it is. Set all
your clocks and watches to the same time. Don’t be an optimist. Things usually take longer than
what you’d expect, even without major delays. If you have a dinner appointment at 7:30 p.m., don’t
think you can work till 7 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on time. Realistically, calculate the
time you will take at each step and then add 10 minutes more to allow for unexpected delays, or
you cannot get your job done in time.
Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don’t hit the snooze button, keep on lying in bed, or
watch TV at the very start of your day. May be you can try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier
than you need. If you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to somewhere away from your
bed; that way, you will have to get up to turn it off. Commit yourself to being 15 minutes early for
everything. If you have to reach your place of work at 8:00, don’t even tell yourself this. Just tell
yourself, “I have to be at work at 7:45.” If you do this, you will be on time even with little unforeseen
delays. You will be on time even with a traffic jam.
1. The narrator does not deny which of the following activity just after waking up:

1. hitting snooze button 2. keep on lying in bed 3. watching TV 4. wake up when you actually
have to
2. It is good to commit yourself _____ for everything.
`
1. to be late 2. to delay 3. to being 15 minutes early 4. to search the last moment
3. The passage highlights:

1. the value of time 2. the importance of being ahead of time

3. the value of being up to time 4. the value of calculating time
4. We should be _____ in approach to time management.

1. optimistic 2. pessimistic 3. realistic 4. utopian

5. One of the major reasons for being delayed is

1. absence of clock, phone or computer 2. overindulging in work

3. not realising that time passes quickly 4. not keeping a margin in the expected time of work
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PASSAGE 2
We give undue importance to our health and the treatment of diseases. A large number of
medicines treat only the symptoms of the disease, and not the root cause. In fact, the cause of many
chronic ailments is still being researched. It is here that Yoga therapy comes to our assistance. Yoga
emphasizes treatment of the root cause of an ailment. It works in a slow, subtle and miraculous
manner. Modern medicine can claim to save a life at a critical stage, but, for complete recovery and
regaining of normal health, one must believe in the efficiency of Yoga therapy.
The Yogic way of life includes a code of ethics, regulations, discipline, combined with prayer
and meditation. Even a discussion of these subjects helps one relieve mental tensions and change
attitudes. Simple asanas help to stretch and relax the whole body and release tensions. The sincere
practice of Yoga postures is beneficial for the mind and body.
The continued practice of Yoga has a profound effect on the inner dimensions of life. Yoga aims at developing
the mental, physical, spiritual and emotional faculties. Other forms of physical exercises, like aerobics, assure
only physical well-being. They have little to do with the development of the soul and mind.
6. How does yoga therapy work?

1. helps one relieve mental tensions and change attitudes

2. helps in developing mental, physical, spiritual and emotional faculties
3. has a code of ethics, regulations, discipline, combined with prayer and meditation
4. in a slow, subtle and miraculous manner
7. How is yoga different from other forms of treatment?

1. It claims to save life at a critical stage. 2. It treats the symptoms of the disease.
3. It treats the root cause of the disease. 4. It assures physical well-being.
8. What does the phrase ‘Chronic ailments’ refer to?

1. diseases which affect the mind 2. diseases that are recurrent and last long
3. diseases which affect the body 4. diseases which get cured in a short time
9. Why is yoga better than physical exercise?

1. it assures physical well-being 2. it aims at developing mental, physical, spiritual &

emotional faculties 3. it does not have anything to do with the development of the mind 4.
it relaxes the body
10. How does sincere practice of yoga benefit us?

1. it is beneficial for the mind and body. 2. it is beneficial to cure diseases

3. it assures physical well-being 4. it combines prayer with meditation
Directions (Questions 11 to 15). Find the correctly spelt word out of the four alternatives
11. 1. acqueisce 2. acquiesce 3. aquiesce 4. acquiesce

12. 1. ingeinous 2. ingenous 3. ingenious 4. inigenious

13. 1. mischievuous 2. mischeivous 3. misichievous 4. mischievous

14. 1. acommodate 2. accomodate 3. accocmodate 4. accommodate

15. 1. sacrilegious 2. sacrelegious 3. sacrilegius 4. sacrilegius

 4

Directions (Questions 21 to 25). Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/phrase in italics in the sentence.
16. He was not playing as he was under the weather.

1.angry 2. studying 3. unwell 4. obstinate

17. Rohan took the scolding with a pinch of salt.

1. seriously 2. to heart 3. casually 4. was very upset

18. He goes to school come rain or shine

1. once in a while 2. rarely 3. when called 4. regularly

19. So many people are trying to quit smoking, I might as well jump on the bandwagon.

1. follow the trend 2. join the smokers 3. learnt to like smoking 4. liked the band
20. In the interview he was beating around the bush.

1.answering questions 2. doing well 3. very frank 4. avoiding saying something

Directions (Questions 16 to 20). In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning: -
21. Clever

1. Studious 2. Ingenious 3. Accomplished 4. Knowledgeable

22. Adjacent

1.Opposite 2. Amazing 3. Courageous 4. Closest

23. Awful

1. Chilly 2. Contaminated 3. Tedious 4. Abominable

24. Comparing

1.speaking 2. collating 3. castigating 4. refusing

25. Likely

1.earliest 2.quickest 3.probable 4. injurious

Directions (Questions 26 to 30). In these questions, choose the word which is the closest opposite in
meaning of the given word.
26. Placid

1. calm 2. sharp 3. adventurous 4.clamorous

27. Economize

1. save 2. waste 3. hoard 4. Deficient

28. Abolish

1.establish 2. annul 3. abrogate 4. renounce

29. Alleviate

1.abate 2.aggravate 3.repungent 4. relieve

30. Barren

1. sterile 2. desolate 3. coarse 4. fertile

 5

Directions (Questions 31 to 32). In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which
can be the appropriate substitute
31. The lowest moment in a particular situation.

1. zenith 2. nadir 3. apogee 4. Acme

32. A 5 line poem with a single stanza whose subject is a short tale or description

1. allegory 2. sonnet 3. limerick 4. elegy

Directions (Questions 33 to 34). Fill in the blanks with a word from amongst the choices given
33. His mother’s health took a ________________ for the worse during the winters.

1. beating 2. turn 3. improvement 4. bend

34. Post elections the Government is _________.

1. constituted 2. declared 3. formed 4. invited

Directions (Questions 35 to 36). Reorder P, Q, R, S to make meaningful sentences.
35. P: our gratitude Q: we have R: to them S: to show

1. QPRS 2.QSRP 3. QSPR 4.PSQR

36. P: had travelled Q: a long way and R: was tired S: last night the old man.

1. SPQR 2. SRPQ 3.SPRQ 4. RQPS

Directions (Questions 37 to 38). Fill the blanks with the appropriate option from the four.
37. Time travel __________ become a reality in the near future

1. ought to 2. should 3. could 4. will

38. However, _______ challenges must be overcome, such as ensuring safety and affordability for
all potential time-travellers

1. most 2. much 3. minor 4. many

Directions (Questions 39 to 40). A part in the following sentences is underlined, which may/may
not be correct. Improve the sentence by choosing one of the options. If no improvement is possible
choose the option accordingly.
39. Everyone remained silent and no one comes forward for the change.

1. has remained 2. am remained 3. no improvement 4. remains

40. Rohit and Renu is planning to take a vacation after a long time.

1. are planning 2. have planning 3. am planning 4. no improvement

 6

SECTION-MATHEMATICS
41. In an examination, a candidate must get 80% marks to pass. If a candidate, who gets
210 marks, fails by 50 marks, find the maximum marks.

1.400 2. 425 3. 325 4. 321

42. 20 + 8 × 0.05
If = 16, where 𝑦 ≠ 40, what is 𝑦 ?
40 − 𝑦

1. 38.725 2. 38.275 3. 38.425 4.38.575

43. 3.79 × 31 + 3.79 × 37 + 3.79 × 32 is equal to

1. 739 2. 379 3. 179 4. 171

44. If 13324 ÷ 145 = 91.9, then what is the value of 133.24 ÷ 9.19?

1. 12.5 2. 1.5 3. 4.5 4. 14.5

45. If 2916 = 54, then what is the value of
29.16 + 0.2916 + 0.002916 + 0.00002916 ?

1. 0.594 2. 5.9994 3. 5.994 4. 5.004

46. y−x
If 1.5x = 0.05y, then what is the value of ?
y+x
1. 0.935 2.1.935 3.0.995 4. 1.995
47. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 sec., 72 sec.,
and 108 sec. respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hrs, then in how
much time will they again change simultaneously?

1. 212 sec 2. 232 sec 3. 432 sec 4. 302 sec

48. In a school, 391 boys and 323 girls have been divided into the largest possible equal
classes, so that each class of boys numbers the same as each class of girls. What is the
number of classes?

1. 19 2. 23 3. 17 4. 7429
49. A sum of Rs. 3115 is divided among A, B and C such that if Rs. 25, Rs. 28 and Rs. 52
be diminished from their shares respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 8 :
15 : 20, then A’s share is

1. Rs 585 2. Rs 675 3. Rs 545 4. Rs 785

2
50. The value of 𝑘 for which - 4 is a zero of the polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 − 𝑥 − (2𝑘 + 2) is

1. 6 2. −6 3. −9 4. 9

51. The tops of two poles of heights 20 m and 14 m are connected by a wire. If the wire
makes an angle of 30○ with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is

1. 6 𝑚 2. 8 𝑚 3. 10 𝑚 4. 12 𝑚

52. ( m + n) + ( m − n)
If x = , n in terms of x and m is equal to
( m + n) − ( m − n)

2𝑚𝑥 2𝑚𝑛 𝑚𝑥 2𝑚𝑥

1. 2. 3. 4.
𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 +1
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53. A contractor undertakes to dig a canal 12 km long in 350 days and employs 45 men.
After 200 days he finds that only 4.5 km of the canal has been completed. Find the
number of extra men he must employ to finish the work in time.

1. 55 2. 60 3. 54 4. 64 days
54. x +y
2 2
1 x + y3
3
If 2 = 2 , then is
x − y2 8 x3 − y 3

5 5 25 125
1. 9 2. 3 3. 4.
9 27

55. 3x + 4 + 3x − 5
If = 9 , then the value of x is equal to
3x + 4 − 3x − 5

1. 0 2. 11 3. 7 4. 10

56. 𝑥 𝑧
If x + y = 2z, then the value of + is
𝑥−𝑧 𝑦−𝑧

1. 3 2. 4 3. 2 4. 1

57. If the 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and –8, respectively, then which term of this
AP is zero?

1. 7th term 2. 6th term 3. 5th term 4. 4th term

58. If ∆ ABC ~ ∆ RPQ, AB = 3 cm, BC = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm, RP = 6 cm and PQ = 10 cm,
then QR is

1. 9 cm 2. 10 cm 3. 6 cm 4. 12 cm
59. A trader bought a car at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it at a 40% increase
on the price he bought it. What percentage of profit did he make on the original price?

1. 8 % 2. 10 % 3. 12 % 4. 5 %
60. A vertical stick 20 m long casts a shadow 10 m long on the ground, at the same time a
tower casts a shadow 50 m long on the ground, the height of the tower is

1. 75 m 2. 100 m 3. 150 m 4. 50 m
2
61. If a + b + c = 10 and ab + bc + ac = 31, then the value of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐2 is
2

1. 69 2. 162 3. 131 4. 38
62. A quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are -3 and 4 is

𝑥2 𝑥
1. 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 12 2. 2 − 2 − 6 3. 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 12 4. 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 24
63. The pair of linear equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 4 and 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 9 has

1. No solution 2. One solution 3. Two solutions 4. Infinitely many

solutions
64. Father’s age is six times the son’s age. Four years hence, the age of father will be four
times his son. The present age of father is

1. 34 years 2. 35 years 3. 36 years 4. 37 years

 8

65. Rahul can row a boat 4 km upstream in 1 hour and 32 km downstream in 4 hours. The
speed of boat in still water and the speed of stream respectively are

1. 10 km/hr&2 km/hr 2. 6 km/hr&4 km/hr 3. 6 km/hr&2 km/hr 4. 10 km/hr&4

km/hr
66. For what value of k, the roots of the equation x2 + 4x + k = 0 are real?

1. 𝑘 ≤ 4 2. 𝑘 ≥ 4 3. 𝑘 < 4 4. 𝑘 > 4
67. A plane left 30 minutes late than its scheduled time and in order to reach the
destination 1500 km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 100 km/h from the
usual speed, then its usual speed is

1. 700 km/hr 2. 300 km/hr 3. 200 km/hr 4.500 km/hr

68. 3
If sin (A + 2B) = and cos (A + 4B) = 0, A > B, and A + 4B ≤ 90○, then A and B
2
are respectively equal to

1. 30° and 15° 2. 45° and 30° 3. 45° and 15° 4. 45° and 60°
4 4
69. If tan A + cot A = 4, then tan A + cot A is equal to

1. - 194 2. 194 3. 234 4.- 234

70. If x sin3 θ + y cos3 θ = sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = y cos θ, then x2 + y2 is equal to

3
1. 2 2. 1 3. 4. 0
4
71. The number of three-digit numbers not divisible by 5 are

1. 720 2. 700 3. 180 4. 120

72. The area of the largest circle that can be drawn in a square of side 14 cm is

1. 145 cm2 2. 154 cm2 3. 125 cm2 4.130 cm2

73. The number of lead balls of diameter 1 cm each that can be made from a sphere of
diameter 16 cm is

1. 7200 2. 4000 3. 4096 4. 4200

74. Rs 1320 is to be divided among 7 men, 11 women and 5 boys such that each woman
may have 3 times as much as a boy, and a man as much as a woman and a boy
together. The amount of money a man receives is

1. Rs 80 2.Rs 60 3. Rs 100 4. Rs 560

75. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2. If 4 litres of water is added to
the mixture, milk and water in the mixture become equal. The quantity of water in the
mixture is

1. 12 litres 2. 10 litres 3. 8 litres 4. 9 litres

76. The least number that must be subtracted from each of 14, 17, 34 and 42 so that the
remainders are in proportion is

1. 2 2. 3 3. 5 4. 6
2
77. If x, y and z are in continued proportion then z : x :: z : ⊡, then ⊡ is

1. y 2. z2 3. y2 4. x2
 9

78. The distance between the points (a cos θ + b sin θ, 0) and (0, a sin θ – b cos θ), is:

1. a2 + b2 2. a 2 + b 2 3. a2 − b2 4. a 2 − b 2
79. A bag contains 6 black balls and some white balls. If the probability of drawing a
white ball from the bag is double that of a black ball, then the number of white balls in
the bag is

1. 10 2. 12 3. 14 4.18
80. 3
The radius of a circular wheel is 1 m. How many revolutions will it make in
4
travelling 11 km?

1. 500 2. 1000 3. 1500 4. 200

81. Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of circle whose centre is
O (2, –3) and B(1, 4).

1. (-2, 10) 2. (3, -12) 3. (-2, 8) 4. (3, -10)

82. If tan x + sin x = m and tan x – sin x = n then m – n2 is equal to
2

1. 4 mn 2. mn 3. 2 mn 4. 3√𝑚𝑛
83. Yash scored 40 marks in a test, getting 3 marks for each right answer and losing 1
mark for each wrong answer. Had 4 marks been awarded for each correct answer and 2
marks been deduced for each incorrect answer, then Yash would have scored 50
marks. How many questions were there in the test?

1. 40 2. 10 3. 20 4. 23
84. The sum of the digits of a two – digit number is 9. If 27 is subtracted from the number,
its digits are interchanged. Which of these is the product of the digits of the number?

1.8 2. 10 3. 12 4. 18
85. If areas of two similar triangles, ∆ABC and ∆XYZ are 1089 cm2 and 1225 cm2
respectively. The length of side XZ is 70 cm. What is the length of side AC?

1. 72 cm 2. 66 cm 3. 60 cm 4. 64 cm
86. The population of a town is 8000. If the males increase by 6% and the females by 10%,
the population will be 8600. Find the number of females in the town.

1. 3000 2. 4000 3. 5000 4. 5100

87. The area of the sector of a circle of radius 6 cm whose central angle is 30○. (Take π
=3.14)

1. 9.42 cm2 2. 8.42 cm2 3. 7.42 cm2 4. 8.42 cm2

88. If 3 is a root of the equation kx – kx – 3 = 0, then the value of k is
2

1
1. 3 2. 4 3. 4. 2
2
89. If the first three terms of A.P. are (3y – 1), (3y + 5) and (5y + 1), then the value of y is

1. - 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 2
 10

90. In an A.P., if a18 – a14 = 32, then the common difference is

1. 8 2. - 4 3. - 8 4. 5
91. The angle of elevation of the sun if the length of the shadow of a tower is √3 times that
of its height is
1. 30○ 2. 45○ 3. 60○ 4. 90○
92. A chord of a circle of radius 10cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the area of
the corresponding minor segment. (use 𝜋 = 3.14)
1. 20.5 cm2 2. 30 cm2 3. 28.5 cm2 4. 25.5 cm2
93. If a rectangular piece of paper of dimensions 60cm x 88cm is rolled to form a hollow
circular cylinder of height 60 cm, then find the radius of the cylinder.
1. 16 cm 2. 14 cm 3. 4 cm 4. 25 cm
94. 504 cones, each of diameter 3.5 cm and height 3 cm, are melted and recast into a
metallic sphere, then the diameter of the sphere is
1. 18 cm 2. 12 cm 3. 14 cm 4. 21 cm
95. The average score of boys in the examination of a school is 71 and that of the girls is
73. The average score of all students of the school in the examination is 71.8, then the
ratio of number of boys to the number of girls who appeared in the examination.
1. 3 : 2 2. 1 : 2 3. 2 : 3 4. 2 : 1
96. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1,2,3 and 4. Another number y is
selected at random from the numbers 1,4,9,16, then the probability that product of x
and y is less than16 is
1. 0.75 2. 0.5 3. 0.25 4. 0.02
97. Three cards of spades are lost from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards
are well shuffled and then a card was drawn at random from them. What is the
probability that the drawn card is of clubs?

23 1 10 13
1. 2. 3. 4.
49 4 49 49
98. If the lines 3x + 2ky = –3 and 2x + 5y + 2 = 0 are coincident, then k is
15 1 2 7
1. 2. 3. 4.
4 4 5 5
99. AOBC is a Rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length
of the diagonal is

1. 34 cm 2. √34 cm 3. √24 cm 4. 24 cm
100. 4 men and 6 boys can together finish a piece of work in 5 days while 3 men and 4 boys
can finish it in 7 days. Find the time taken by 1 man alone to finish the work.

1. 20 days 2. 35 days 3. 25 days 4. 70 days

 11

101. A quadratic equation whose sum and product of roots are 5 and – 1 respectively, is
6

1. 6x2 – 5x – 6 = 0 2. 6x2 + 5x – 6 = 0
2
3. 6x + 5x + 6 = 0 4. 6x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
102 If the nth term of an AP is 7 – 4n, then its common difference is

1. 4 2. – 4 3. 7 4. – 7

103 The number of multiples of 4 between 10 and 250 is

1. 50 2. 40 3. 60 4. 30

104 The sum of first n terms of an AP is 3n2 + 5n, then 164 is its

1. 24th term 2. 27th term 3. 26th term 4. 25th term

105 The product of a man’s age 5 years ago and 5 years from now is 600. His present age is

1. 20 years 2. 25 years 3. 30 years 4. 35 years

106 The sum of the powers of the prime factors in 108 × 192 is

1. 5 2. 7 3. 8 4. 12
107 If the area of a sector is one twelfth that of the complete circle, then the central angle of
the circle is

1. 30° 2. 25° 3. 45° 4.60°

108 If tan θ + cot θ = 2, then the value of tan2θ + cot2θ is
.
1. - 2 2. 1 3. - 1 4. 2
109 If 7 sin θ + 3 cos θ = 4, then tan θ is equal to
2 2

.
1 1 1 1
1. 2. 3. 4.
√3 √2 2 4
110 A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of cards. What is the probability that the
. card drawn is neither a king nor a queen?

11 11 12 11
1. 2. 3. 4.
26 13 13 52
111 The ratio of the volumes of a cube to that of the sphere which will fit inside the cube is
.
1. 6 ∶ 𝜋 2. 4 ∶ 𝜋 3. 5 ∶ 𝜋 4. 3 ∶ 𝜋
112 The marks attained by 40 students in a short assessment is given below where a and b
. are missing. If the mean of the distribution is 7.2, then the values a and b respectively
are

Marks 5 6 7 8 9
No. of students 6 a 16 13 b

1. 2, 3 2.1, 6 3. 2, 5 4. 1, 4
 12

113. A cylinder of radius 2 cm and height 12 cm is melted and converted into a sphere. The
radius of the sphere so formed is

1. 3 cm 2.4 cm 3. 6 cm 4. 8 cm
114. The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 50 m longer when the
Sun’s elevation is 30○, than when it was 60○. The height of the tower is

1. 25√3 m 2. 20 m 3. 20√3 m 4. 25 m
115. Find the value of k for which the roots of the equation 3x – 10x + k = 0 are reciprocal
2

of each other.
1. 2 2. 3 3. 1 4. – 1
116. Consider the following frequency distribution:

Class 0–5 6 – 11 12 – 17 18 – 23 24 – 29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11
The upper limit of the median class is

1. 17 2. 17.5 3. 18 4. 18.5
117. Which term of the A.P. 3, 15, 27, 39, …… will be 120 more than its 21 term ?
st

1. 28th 2. 29th 3. 30th 4. 31st

118. A circular brooch is made of silver wire and consists of 5 diameters of 35 mm each
forming sectors of equal dimensions. The total length of silver wire required is

1. 396 mm 2. 285 mm 3. 325 mm 4. 258 mm

119. If the sum of the roots of an equation is 6 and one root is 3 − 5 , then the equation is:

1. 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 3 = 0 2. 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 4 = 0
3. 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 2 = 0 4. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 4 = 0
120. The value of x for the quadratic equation 6 x + 7 − (2 x − 7) = 0 is

1. 5 2. 7 3. 6 4. 3
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SECTION-SOCIAL STUDIES
121. Who amongst the following cannot chair the joint session of Parliament: -

1. The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

2. The Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha.
3. The Vice President of India.
4. Any MP of either house who is present in Parliament on the day of the joint session.
122. Which of the following statements are true of the 104 Constitutional Amendment
Act 2019: -

A. Nominating members of Anglo-Indian community by the President was abolished

B. Time limit for reservations of SCs & STs in Lok Sabha & State Legislative
Assemblies was extended indefinitely.
C. The Bill sought to amend Article 224 of the Constitution.
D. It came into effect on 26 Jan 2020.

1. All the above 2. A, B & C 3. A, C & D 4. A, B & D.

123. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections
or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least _____________ in the Lok
Sabha is recognized as a national party.

1. One seat 2. Two seats 3. Three seats 4. Four seats

124. The Union Territory of Puducherry comprises of ______ parts.

1. Four 2. Three 3. Two 4. One

125. The State Animal of Punjab is

1. Horse 2. Sambar Deer 3. Black Buck 4. Spotted Deer

126. _________ is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting
structures compulsory for all houses across the state.

1. Karnataka 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Maharashtra 4. Andhra Pradesh

127. Koyna Dam is one of the largest dams located in ________.

1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Rajasthan 4. Maharashtra

128. In 1987, a movement called Kittiko-Hachchiko (meaning pluck and plant) started
a non-violent protest, where people plucked the eucalyptus plants and planted
saplings of trees that were useful to them. This movement took place in the state
of _______.
1. Maharashtra 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Gujarat
129. The RTI Act of ________ is a landmark legislation passed by our Parliament.
Under this Act, citizens can seek information from Government offices pertaining
to different activities.

1. 2001 2. 2005 3. 2007 4. 2000

130. Which of the following country is an example of a multi-party system?

1. India 2. New Zealand 3. Canada 4. All of them

131. Name the Multipurpose project built on Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir.

1. Bhakra Nangal 2. Tehri Project 3. Sardar Sarovar 4. Salal Project

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132. The retreating monsoon withdraws itself from

1. The West Coast to the East Coast 2. North-East India to the West Coast

3. The north to the south 4. North-West India to Bengal and then to Kerala
133. Choose the INCORRECT pair from the following

Place Leader
1. Delhi Bahadur Shah Zafar
2. Kanpur Peshwa Baji Rao I
3. Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal
4. Jhansi Rani Laxmi Bai
134. The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of _______.

1. Monitory democracies 2. Direct democracies 3. Representative democracies

4. Constitutional democracies.
135. Consider the following statements and see which all are true: -

A. The President of India is a part of the Parliament of India.

B. The President of India is not a member of either of the houses of Parliament.
C. The President of India relinquishes the membership of any house of which he/she
was member before taking over as President.
D. The President is not part of the Parliament.

1. All of the above 2. Only A & B 3. Only A, B & C. 4. Only A, B & D.

136. Which one of the following is a major benefit of a joint production between a
local company and a Multi-National Company?

1. MNC can bring the latest technology in the production. 2. MNC can control the
increase in the price. 3. MNC can buy the local company. 4. MNC can sell the
products under their brand name.
137. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up to

1. Make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration
economies.
2. To enhance productivity and improve the rate of growth in the manufacturing
industry.
3. Providing employment in all sectors of the economy
4. Industrially develop rural centres surrounded by a huge agricultural rural hinterland.
138. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual
work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day.
Which type of employment is this an example?

1. Under employment 2. Seasonal employment 3. Over employment

4. Cyclical employment
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139. Which of the following statements is TRUE for Gross Domestic Product?

1. It is the value of all goods and services produced in the country.

2. It is the value of all goods and services produced by the residents of the country.
3. It is the value of final goods and services produced by residents of a country.
4. It is the value of final goods and services produced in the country.
140. Which of the following statements are true about political parties?

1. The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party was
lower in India than in many advanced countries like Canada and Japan.
2. Over the last three decades, the proportion of those who report to be members of
political parties in India has gone down steadily.
3. The proportion of those who say they feel ‘close to a political party’ has also gone
down in India.
4. None of the above.
141. Which of the following statements is true?

1. A legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake

in the system.
2. Prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes; moral
reasons emphasise the very act of power sharing as valuable.
3. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise and
who have to live with its effects.
4. All of the above.
142. _________ is a violent conflict between opposing groups within a country that
becomes so intense that it appears like a war.

1. Civil war 2. Proxy war 3. Colonial war 4. None of the above

143. Which of these statements about the service sector in India is INCORRECT?

(a) Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people.

(b) The service sector has become the most important in terms of Employment.
(c) As economies grow, first the service sector grows, followed by the primary and
secondary sectors, respectively.
(d) Many workers in the country are working in the primary sector, producing only
about one-sixth of the GDP.

1. a, b, d 2. b, c & d 3. a & d 4. b & c

144. Which one of the following is an example of a Cultivable Wasteland?

1. Gross cropped area 2. Uncultivable land 3. Barren wasteland 4. Current fallow

land
145. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below: –

• develops in areas with high temperatures and heavy rainfall

• is low in humus content
• found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

1. Forest soil 2. Yellow soil 3. Black soil 4. Laterite soil

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146. Choose the non-market economic activities from the options given below: -

(a) Vilas sells fish in the village market

(b) Vilas cooks’ food for his family
(c) Sakal works in a private firm
(d) Sakal looks after his younger brother and sister

1. (a) & (b) 2. (c) & (d) 3. (a) & (c) 4. (b) & (d)
147. In the Upper and Middle Ganga plains, two different types of alluvial soils have
developed, viz, Khadar and Bhangar.

Consider the following statements about these soil types and choose the correct ones.

A. Khadar is the new alluvium while Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium.
B. Khadar soil contains calcareous concretions while Bhangar soil completely lacks it.
C. The sand content in this soil decreases from west to east.

1. A, B and C 2. A and B 3. B and C 4. A and C

148. _________ is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold
power in the government.

1. Pressure group 2. Political party 3. Interest group 4. Business lobby

149. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?

1. Renewable 2. Biotic 3. Flow 4. Non-renewable

150. Consider the following statements: -

A. The President under Article 118 (3) of the Constitution makes rules to regulate the
procedure of the Joint Sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
B. The hour upon which a joint session may be adjourned is determined by the
President.
C. The quorum to constitute a joint session shall be one-tenth of the total numbers of
members of both houses of Parliament.

How many of the above statements are true?

1. Only one 2. Only two. 3. All three 4. None

END OF PAPER
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MAHARAJA RANJIT SINGH ARMED FORCES PREPARATORY INSTITUTE

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MAHARAJA RANJIT SINGH ARMED FORCES PREPARATORY INSTITUTE

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MAHARAJA RANJIT SINGH ARMED FORCES PREPARATORY INSTITUTE

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