3/15/24, 7:40 PM

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Competishun
52/6, Opposite Metro Mas Hospital, Shipra Path, Mansarovar

Date: 15/03/2024
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 390

BITSAT-FST-1 (2023-24)

Physics
Single Choice Question

Q1 A system is taken from a given initial state to a given final state along various paths
represented on a P-V diagram. The quantity that is independent of the path is
a) Amount of heat transferred Q b) Amount of work done W c) Q but not W
d) (Q-W)

Q2 Assertion: In case of motion of an ideal fluid in a horizontal tube, where the area of
cross-section is minimum, pressure is maximum.
Reason: Hydrostatic pressure in different ideal liquids at points of different depth can
be same.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not explanation of the
Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q3 The mass of 1 mole of electrons is

a) 9.1 × 10 28 g b) 1.008 mg c) 0.55 mg d) 9.1 × 10–27 g

Q4 In Young's double slit experiment, if the widths of the slit are in the ratio 4: 9, ratio of
intensity of maxima to intensity of minima will be
a) 25 : 1 b) 9 : 4 c) 3 : 2 d) 81 : 16

Q5 A projectile A is projected from the ground. An observer B running on the ground with
uniform velocity of magnitude v observes A to move along a straight line. The time of
flight of A as measured by B is T. The range R of projectile on the ground is
a) R = υT b) R > υT c) R > υT d) Information insufficient to draw inference.

Q6 A body of mass kg is suspended by a string from a rigid support. The body is

pulled horizontally by a force F until the string makes an angle of 30° with the
vertical. The value of F and tension in the string are
a) 19.6 N; 19.6 N b) 9.8 N; 9.8 N c) 9.8 N, 19.6 N d) 19.6 N, 9.8 N

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Q7 The time required for the light to pass through a glass slab (refractive index = 1.5) of
thickness 4 mm is (c = 3 × 108 m s–1, speed of light in free space).
a) 2 × 10 –5 s b) 2 × 10 11 s c) 2 × 10 –11 s d) 10 –11 s

Q8 Identify the figure, which correctly represents the given wave function

a) b)

c) both graphs are possible d) none of the two graphs are possible

Q9 A very broad elevator is going vertically upward with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s
. At the instant when its velocity is 4 m/s, a ball is projected from the floor of the lift
with a speed of 4 m/s relative to the floor at an elevation of 30°. The time taken by the
call to return to the floor is (g = 10 m/s2)
a) b) c) d) 1s

Q10 In LC circuit the inductance L = 40 mH and capacitance C = 100 μF. If a voltage V(t)
= 10 sin (314t) is applied to the circuit, the current in the circuit is given as:
a) 52 cos (314t) b) 10 cos (314t) c) 5.2 cos (314t) d) 0.52 cos (314t)

Q11 On decreasing the wavelength of incident light from 8000 Å to 4000 Å. The intensity
of the scattered light in Rayleigh scattering will become ____ times the initial
scattered intensity.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 16 d) 8

Q12 A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M0 and diameter D0. A particle of mass
m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to
gravity which is equal to
a) b) c) d)

Q13 With a standard rectangular bar magnet the time period of a vibration magnetometer is
4 s. The bar magnet is cut parallel to its length into four equal pieces. The time period
(in second) of vibration magnetometer when one piece is used is (bar magnet breadth
is small)
a) 16 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2

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Q14 Assertion: The average thermal velocity of the electrons in a conductor is zero.
Reason: Direction of motion of electrons are randomly oriented.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not explanation of the
Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q15 A steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension
in the wire so that speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in
dry air at 20°C = 343 m/s ?
a) 206 × 10 4 N b) 306 ×10 1 N c) –206 × 10 4 N d) –306 × 10 4 N

Q16 The law of electromagnetic induction has been used in the construction of
a) Electric motor b) Electric generator c) Galvanometer d) Electric bulb

Q17 A parallel plate capacitor has two square plates with equal and opposite charges. The
surface charge densities on the plates are +σ and –σ respectively. In the region
between the plates the magnitude of the electric field is
a) b) c) 0 d) None of these

Q18 A force is applied to a particle. The work done by the force

when the particle moves from point (0, 0, 0) to point (2, 4, 0) as shown in the figure is

a) b) c) d)

Q19 A small bar magnet is placed with its axis at 30° with an external magnetic field of
0.06 T experiences a torque of 0.018 Nm. The minimum work required to rotate it
from its stable to unstable equilibrium position is:
a) 6.4 × 10 –2 J b) 9.2 × 10 –3 J c) 7.2 × 10 –2 J d) 11.7 × 10 –3 J

Q20 The speed of revolution of a particle performing circular motion is halved and its
angular speed is doubled. The centripetal acceleration becomes:
a) remains unchanged b) halved c) doubled d) four times

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Q21 A body of mass 10 kg acted upon by two forces of equal magnitude of 10 N making
an angle of 60 ° with each other. What is its acceleration?
a) b) c) d)

Q22 Two absolute scales A and B have triple points of water defined to be 200 A and 350
B. What is the ratio of TA and TB ?
a) 4/7 b) 3/7 c) 1/7 d) 7/1

Q23 A uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal table. Two point
masses m and 2m, moving in the same horizontal plane with speed 2υ and υ,
respectively, strike the bar (as shown in the figure) and stick to it after collision.
Denoting angular velocity (about the centre of mass), total energy and velocity of
centre of mass by ω, E and υc, respectively, after collision, which of the following
options is incorrect?

a) υc = 0 b) c) d)

Q24 Let Fpp, Fpn, and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the net force by a proton on a proton,
by a proton on a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively. Neglect
gravitational force. When the separation is 1 fm.
a) F pp > F pn = F nn b) F pp = F pn = F nn c) F pp > F pn > F nn d) F pp < F pn = F nn

Q25 There are n1 photons of frequency υ1 in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam
there are n2 photons of frequency υ2. Then the correct relation
a) b) c) d)

Q26 According to Band Theory of Solids, what can be said about the relationship between
band–gap width and the tendency of material to conduct electricity?
a) The greater the band-gap width the less conductive is the material.
b) The lesser the band–gap width the more insulating is the material.
c) The greater the band–gap width the more conductive is the material.
d) None of the above.

Q27 A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of
5000 A. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity
will be observed at
a) 3000 Å b) 4000 Å c) 5000 Å d) 6000 Å

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Q28 A particle is performing a linear simple harmonic motion of amplitude 'A'. When it is
midway between its mean and extreme position, the magnitudes of its velocity and
acceleration are equal. What is the periodic time of the motion?
a) b) c) d)

Q29 The dimensional formula of electric flux is

a) [M 1 L 1 T –2 ] b) [M 1 L 3 T –3 A –1 ] c) [M 2 L 1 T –2 A –2 ] d) [M1 L–3 T3 A1]

Q30

The motion of the car along a straight path is shown in the above figure. The car starts
from O and reaches at point C, back to point A. The distance and the magnitude of the
displacement are, respectively.
a) 160 m, 40 m b) 90 m, 50 m c) 120 m, 40 m d) 140 m, 100 m

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Chemistry
Single Choice Question

Q31 Amongst the following statements regarding adsorption, those that are valid are:
(a) ΔH becomes less negative as adsorption proceeds.
(b) On a given adsorbent, ammonia is adsorbed more than nitrogen gas.
(c) On adsorption, the residual force acting along the surface of the adsorbent
increases
(d) With increase in temperature, the equilibrium concentration of adsorbate increases.
a) (d) and (a) b) (b) and (c) c) (a) and (b) d) (c) and (d)

Q32 Chlorobenzene reacts with in dry ether to give a compound which further
reacts with ethanol to yield

a) phenol b) benzene c) ethyl benzene d) phenyl ether.

Q33 An element is in M3+ form. Its electronic configuration is [Ar]3d1, the ion is
a) Ca 2 + b) Sc+ c) Ti 4+ d) Ti3+

Q34 EAN of the elements (*) are equal in :

a) b)

c) d)

Q35 From the given molecules, which is/are optically active?

a) b) c) d) All of these

Q36 The product formed in the following reaction are:

a) C6H5OH and CH3I b) C6H5I and CH3OH c) C6H5I and CH3I
d) C6H6 and CH3OI

Q37 Which of the following is not a semi synthetic polymer?

a) cis-polyisoprene b) Cellulose nitrate c) Cellulose acetate
d) Vulcanised rubber

Q38 The structure representing the Zwitter ion form of glycine is:
a) b) c) d)

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Q39 Match the following:

The correct match for A, B, C and D, respectively, is:

a) iv, i, ii, iii b) i, ii, iii, iv c) iv, i, iii, ii d) i, iv, iii, ii

Q40 Bromine monochloride (BrCl) decomposes into bromine and chlorine according to
reaction 2BrCl(g) Br2(g) + Cl2(g), KC = 32 at 500 K. If initially, pure BrCl is
taken at concentration 3.3 × 10–3 mol L–1, what is its molar concentration in the
mi×ture at equilibrium state?
a) 1.23 × 10 –2 mol L –1 b) 2.8 × 10 –4 M c) 3.54 × 10 –3 mol L –1
d) 4.76 × 10 –1 mol L –1

Q41 A graph of molar conductivity of three electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH) is plotted
against

Which of the following options is correct?

a) b) c)

d)

Q42 Which of the following has intramolecular hydrogen bonding?

a) H 2 O b) o–nitrophenol c) NH 3 d) CH3COOH

Q43 The forward rate constant for the reversible gaseous reaction C2H6 2CH3 is
3.14 × 10+2 s–1 at 200 K. What is the rate constant for the backward reaction at this
temperature, if 10–5 moles of CH3 and 100 mol of C2H6 are present in 10 L vessel at
equilibrium?

a) 1.57 × 1014 L mol–1 s–1 b) 3.14 × 1015 L mol–1 s–1 c) 1.57 × 107 mol–1 s–1
d) 3.14 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1

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Q44 The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half reactions are given
against each

Which is the strongest reducing agent?

a) Fe2+(aq) b) H2(g) c) Cr(s) d) Zn(s)

Q45 Which of the following drug is an analgesic?

a) Sulfaguanidine b) Novalgin c) Analgin d) Both novalgin and analgin

Q46 The correct order of stability for the following alkoxides is:

a) (B) > (A) > (C) b) C) > (B) > (A) c) (C) > (A) > (B) d) (B) > (C) > (A)

Q47 Which of the following atomic and physical properties of hydrogen is false?
a) Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (melting point/K)
b) Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium; (boiling point/K)
c) Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium; (density/ gL –1 )
d) Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (% relative abundance)

Q48 The major product in the reaction is

CH3CH2C ≡ CH Product

a) b) c)

d)

Q49 The set representing the correct order of ionic radii is

a) Li + > Be 2+ > Na+ > Mg 2+ b) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
c) Mg 2+ > Be 2+ > Li + > Na+ d) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+

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Q50 The colour of calcium hydroxide is ____.

a) black b) white c) red d) green

Q51 The structure of H2O2 is:

a) Spherical b) Non - planar c) Planar d) Linear

Q52 In balancing the half reaction, , the number of electrons that must be
added is-
a) 2 on the right b) 2 on the left c) 3 on the right d) 4 on the left

Q53 Steam reacts with iron at high temperature to give hydrogen gas and Fe3O4 (s).
The correct expression for the equilibrium constant is
(The reaction is: 3Fe(s) + 4H2O (steam) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2 (g))

a) b) c) d)

Q54 The second law of thermodynamics states that, _____.

a) all machines have an efficiency unity
b) energy can neither be created nor destroyed
c) all spontaneous processess are thermodynamically irreversible
d) heat can be completely converted into work without leaving changes in the
system

Q55 At what temperature most probable speed of O2 molecules have the same value of root
mean square speed of O2 molecules at 300 K ?
a) 150 K b) 600 K c) 750 K d) 450 K

Q56 Which one of the following cannot exist?

a) H 2 b) c) He2 d)

Q57 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct?

a) b)
n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s = n = 3, l = 3, m = +3, s =

c) d) n = 4, l = 2, m = +2, s = 0
n = 6, l = 0, m = +1, s =

Q58 Law of combining volumes was given by

a) Dalton b) Tswett c) Gay-Lussac d) Einstein

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Q59 Which of the following solutions will have pH close to 1.0 ?

a) b)
100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH

c) d)
10 mL HCl + 90 mL NaOH 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH

Q60 Reduction of nitroalkanes with Sn/HCl yields _____.

a) acid b) alcohol c) amine d) diazo compounds

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English
Single Choice Question

Q61 Most large retail stores of all goods and brands hold discount sales in the month of
November. The original idea of price reduction campaigns in November became
popular when it was realised that the sales of products would generally slow down
following the Diwali rush, were it not for some incentive. The lack of demand could
be solved by the simple solution of reducing prices.
There is now an increasing tendency among major chains of stores across the country
to have their 'November sales' begin before Diwali. The idea behind this trend is to
endeavour to sell the maximum amount of stock at a profit, even if that may not be at
the maximum profit.
Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above?
a) The incidence of “early' November sales results in lower holdings of stocks with
the corollary of lower stock holding costs.
b) Demand is a function of price; as you lower price, demand increases.
c) Major stores seem to think it makes sense to have the November sales campaigns
pre-Diwali.
d) The major department stores do not worry as much about profit maximization as
they do about sales maximization.

Q62 Read the paragraph and choose a suitable summary from the given options:
The Rainforest Alliance, an ethical certification organisation, has now stripped a
group of Assam Company's plantations of its green frog seal. The Assam Company
said the loss of its certification was because of a 'minor error' on one estate 'Hajua'
while spraying a plant extract, which it understood did not require personal protective
equipment. It said that because the Assam Company estates operate in a 'single
cluster', the other estates were automatically decertified.
a) The green frog seal is imperative for tea plantations to ensure demand from
companies as it testifies to their ethical conduct.
b) Minor errors may sometimes have far reaching consequences as the Assam
Company has realised.
c) Ethical conduct of business also includes the treatment of their staff. The Assam
Company's green frog seal was revoked recently due to negligence in observing
safety of employees.
d) A minor error in wearing protective gear has resulted in revocation of the Assam
Company's green frog seal. An incident on one estate O has resulted in
decertification of all the other estates held by the company.
Q63 Directions: In the question given below, a sentence with a blank is given. Choose the
alternative that completes the sentence grammatically and contextually.
It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you ____ it.
a) didn't have to do b) hadn't to do c) mightn't have done d) mustn't have done

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Q64 In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.
Hospital services across the capital ____ for three hours due to the strike.
a) were disrupted b) had been disrupted c) are disrupted d) have disrupted

Q65 Directions: In the following question, a word is given. Choose the option that is the
most opposite in meaning to the given word.
Prohibition
a) Vindication b) Vigour c) Consent d) None of these

Q66 Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word: 'CALUMNY'
a) Apology b) Eulogy c) Enjoyment d) Reservation

Q67 Choose the correct meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence. State
policies were based on appeasement.
a) Equality b) Democracy c) Pacification d) Aggravation

Q68 Choose the option which is nearest to the meaning of the given word: She is really a
fantastic girl.
a) Wonderful b) Charming c) Beautiful d) Intelligent

Q69 A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives
suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active
Voice.
Our task will be completed before sunset.
a) We have to complete our task before sunset.
b) We must complete our task before sunset.
c) We will complete our task before sunset.
d) Our task shall be completed before sunset.

Q70 Directions: In the following question, a sentence is divided into some parts.
Choose the part which is grammatically or contextually incorrect. In case there is no
error, choose 'No error' as your answer.
The little child (A)/ was sitting closely (B)/ beside (C)/ his teacher (D)/ No error (E)
a) A b) B c) C d) D

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Logical Reasoning
Single Choice Question

Q71 Dr. R.P. Singh said to his assistant, 'I go to see this patient at his residence after every
3.30 hours. I have already gone to the patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go
at 1.40 p.m.' At what time this information was given to the compounder by the
doctor?
a) 10.10 b) 11.30 c) 11.20 d) 8.50

Q72 Select the related letters/words/numbers from the given alternatives.

XXIV : 48 :: XIV : ?
a) 28 b) 4 c) 14 d) 30

Q73 Find the missing number.

13, 25, 51, 101, 203, _
a) 405 b) 406 c) 407 d) 409

Q74 Find the missing letter marked by ?

–3, 4, 23, 60, 121?
a) 22 b) 212 c) 205 d) None of these

Q75 Rearrange the jumbled letters to make a meaningful word and then select the different
one.
a) PAGER b) ANGOM c) AYAPPA d) WARST

Q76 In each of the following options, four terms/words have been given, out of which
three are alike in some manner and one is different. Choose the odd one out.
a) Nephrology b) Entomology c) Astrology d) Mycology

Q77 Ashok said, “This girl is the wife of grandson of my Mother" Who is Ashok to the
girl?
a) Husband b) Father c) Grandfather d) Father-in-law

Q78 Anil introduces Rohit as the son of the only brother of his father's wife. How is Rohit
related to Anil?
a) Son b) Brother c) Uncle d) Cousin

Q79 Three different positions of a dice are shown below. How many dots lie opposite 2
dots?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

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Q80 Which number is on the face opposite to 6?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5

Q81 Four players P, Q, R, and S are standing a playfield in such a way that Q is to East of
P, R is to the south of P and S is to the North of P. In which direction of Q is S
standing?
a) North b) South c) North-West d) South-East

Q82 A man is facing south. He turns 45° clockwise and then 90° anti-clockwise. What is
his new direction?
a) South-East b) South c) West d) South-West

Q83 In each of the following questions, select the answer figure that will fit in the blank
space in the question figure, maintaining the pattern in the proper sequence.

a) b) c) d)

Q84 In the following question, find out the answer figure which completes the problem
figure matrix:

a) b) c) d)

Q85 In a certain code, CERTAIN is coded as XVIGZRM, SEQUENCE is coded as

HVJFVMXV, then how would MUNDANE be coded?
a) NFMWZMX b) NFMWZMV c) NFMXZMV d) Can’t be determined

Q86 If O = 16, FOR = 42, then what is FRONT equal to?

a) 61 b) 65 c) 73 d) 78

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Q87 In the question below series of groups of letters are given. What will be the nest term
in the series?
a) IJX b) IGX c) JGW d) IGU

Q88 In the following question, there is a letter series in which one term is missing. Find
out the missing term from the given options.
GTZ, FSY, ERX, DQW, ?
a) VCP b) VPC c) CPV d) CVP

Q89 Complete the given pattern by choosing the correct alternative.

a) b) c) d)

Q90 Which one of the answer figures shall complete the given question figure?

a) b) c) d)

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Mathematics
Single Choice Question

Q91 If f(x) and g(x) are periodic functions with period 7 and 11, respectively. Then, the
period of.
is
a) 222 b) 433 c) 1155 d) None of these

Q92
Let , then log P is equal to
a) b) c) 2 d) 1

Q93
If (where [⋅] denotes the greatest integer function), then

a) f(x) is continuous at x = 0 b) c) d)

Q94 The angle of intersection of y = ax and y = bx, is given by:

a) b) c) d) None of these

Q95 The system of equations 2x + y – 5 = 0, x – 2y + 1 = 0, 2x – 14y – a = 0, is consistent.

Then, a is equal to
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) None of these

Q96 Let A be the set of all 3 × 3 symmetric matrices all of whose entries are either 0 or 1,
five of these entries are 1 and four of them are zero. Then the number of matrices in A
is
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

Q97 The minimum value of

f(x) = sin–1 x + cos–1 x + tan–1 x + cot–1 x + cosec–1 x + sec–1 x is , then the value of
μ is
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 2.5

Q98 The differential equation for the family of curves x2 + y2 – 2ay = 0, where a is an
arbitrary constant is
a) (x 2 – y 2 ) ⋅ y' = 2xy b) 2(x 2 + y 2 ) ⋅ y' = xy c) 2(x 2 – y 2 ) ⋅ y' = xy
d) (x 2 + y 2 ) ⋅ y' = 2xy

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Q99 The image of the point (1, 2, 3) in lie is

a) b) c) (1, 3, 2) d) (3, 1, 2)

Q100 The equation of the plane through the points (1, 2, 3), (–1, 4, 2) and (3, 1, 1) is
a) 5x + y + 12z – 23 = 0 b) 5x + 6y + 2z – 23 = 0 c) x + 6y + 22 – 13 = 0
d) x + y + z – 13 = 0

Q101
Let . (where c is constant of
integration) then the value of 3 m – 2 n is:
a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

Q102 If , and are the position vectors of the vertices A, B and

C, respectively of ΔABC. The position vector of the point where the bisector of ∠A
meets BC is
a) b) c) d)

1/x = b1/y = c1/z and a, b, care in geometrical progression, then x, y, z are in

Q103 lf a
a) AP b) GP c) HP d) None of these

Q104 If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – p(x + 1) – q = 0, then the value of
is
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) None of these

Q105
a) b) c) d)

Q106
The integral value of

a) π b) c) 2π d) 0

Q107 The argument of the complex number is (where )

a) b) c) d)

Q108 The number obtained after dividing the number formed by the last three digits of
256
17 by 100 is
a) 6.81 b) 7.81 c) 7.71 d) 6.71

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Q109
The value of is

a) b) c) d) None of these.

Q110
The expression simplifies to:

a) (1 + cos2 x) b) sin2 x c) –(1 + cos2 x) d) cos2 x

Q111 The vertices of a triangle are A(0, 0), B(0, 2) and C(2, 0), then find the distance
between its orthocentre and circumcentre.
a) units b) c) units d) None of these
units

Q112 If a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 , a 5 and a 6 are six arithmetic means between 3 and 31, then a6 – a5 and
a1 + a6 are respectively equals to
a) 5 and 34 b) 4 and 35 c) 4 and 34 d) 4 and 36

Q113 If 2x – 4y = 9 and 6x – 12y + 7 = 0 are common tangents to the circle, then radius of
the circle is
a) b) c) d)

Q114 The age distribution of workers in a factory is as follows:

If 15% of the total strength starting from the lowest age group is retrenched and 20%
of the total strength from the highest age groups is given premature retirement, then
the range of age of workers retained in the factory is
a) 20 – 36 b) 28 – 44 c) 28 – 52 d) 36 – 52

Q115 PA and PB are the tangents drawn to y2 = 4ax from point P. These tangents meet y-
axis at the points A1 and B1, respectively. If the area of ΔPA1B1 is 2 sq. units, then
locus of P is
a) (y 2 + 4ax)x 2 = 16 b) (y 2 – 4ax)x 2 = 8 c) (y 2 – 4ax)x 2 = 16 d) None of these

Q116 The Boolean expression ((p q) (p ~q)) (~p –q) is equivalent to

a) (~p) (~q) b) (~p) (~q) c) p (~q) d) p q

Q117 The radius of a right circular cylinder increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/min, and the
height decreases at the rate of 0.2 cm/min. The rate of change of the volume of the
cylinder, in cm/min, when the radius is 2 cm and the height is 3 cm is
a) –2π b) c) d)

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Q118 How many 5 digit telephone numbers can be constructed using the digits 0 to 9, if
each number starts with 67 and no digit appears more than once?
a) 335 b) 336 c) 338 d) 337

Q119
If , then is equal to
a) b) c) d)

Q120 From the top of a hill h meter high, the angles of depressions of the top and the
bottom of a pillar are a and fi respectively. The height (in meter) of the pillar is
a) b) c) d)

Q121

a) b) c)

d)

Q122
If for AX = B, and then X is equal to –

a) b) c) d)

Q123 The area enclosed between the curves y = sin2 x and y = cos2 x in the interval 0 ≤ x ≤
π is –
a) 2 sq. unit b) c) 1 sq. unit d) None of these
sq. unit

Q124 The values of p and q so that the function

is continuous x = 0 is

a) b) p = 0, c) d)

Q125 Let y = y(x) be solution of the differential equation ,with y(0) = 0. If

then the value of a is equal to:

a) b) c) 2 d)

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Q126 If y = f(x) satisfies the condition

f(x) = f(4 – x) x (0, 4), f(x) = f(14 – x) x ∈ [4, 10]

Then the area bounded by y = f(x), x = 0. x = 10 and the x-axis is

a) b) c) d) None of these

Q127 The equation of a hyperbola is . If is a point from which

perpendicular tangents can be drawn to the hyperbola and distance between both the
foci of the hyperbola is 10, then its eccentricity is
a) b) c) d)

Q128 How many different words can be formed by jumbling the letters in the word
'MISSISSIPPI' in which no two S are adjacent?
a) b) c) d) None of these

Q129 For two events A and B if and , then

a) b) c) d) All of the above
P(B) =

Q130 If , then locus of z is

a) An ellipse b) A parabola c) A straight line d) A circle

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Answer Key
Academy JEE Best Educational ERP/LMS Solution

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. D D C A A C C A B A

Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. C C C A A B B D C A

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. B A B D C A A A B A

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. C B D A C A A C A B

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. C B B D D B A B D B

Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. B D B C D C A C D C

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. A C A A C B C A C B

Que. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. B A A B D C D D C C

Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans. C A D A B D C C D B

Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. C A D B D D C A C B

Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

Ans. C A A B A B C A B B

Que. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

Ans. A C B B C B D B A A

Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

Ans. A D C D A C B C D D

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