TG: @Chalnaayaaar

NEET : Biology
w
Exercise-I
GENETIC MATERIAL, DNA 9. Which element is not found in nitrogenous
1. In eukaryotic cell circular and double stranded base ?
DNA occurs in :- (1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen
(1) Golgibody (3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus
(2) Mitochondria 10. DNA was first discovered by:-
(3) Nucleus (1) Meischer (2) Robert Brown
(4) Ribosome (3) Flemming (4) Watson & Crick
2. Double helix model of DNA which was 11. Nucleic acid (DNA) is not found in:-
proposed by Watson and Crick was of:- (1) Nucleus & nucleolus
(1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA
(2) Peroxysome & ribosome
(3) D-DNA (4) Z-DNA
(3) Mitochondria & plastid
3. If there are 10,000 nitrogenous base pairs in
(4) Chloroplast & nucleosome
a DNA then how many nucleotides are there:
(1) 500 (2) 10,000 12. DNA is not present in :-
(3) 20,000 (4) 40,000 (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
4. Double helix model of DNA was proposed by : (3) Bacteriophage (4) TMV
(1) Watson and Crick 13. A nucleic acid contains thymine or methylated
(2) Schleiden schwann uracil then it should be :-
(3) Singer and Nicholson (1) DNA (2) RNA
(4) Kornberg and Khurana (3) Either DNA or RNA (4) RNA of bacteria
5. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is 14. Prokaryotic genetic system contains :-
made up of :- (1) DNA & histones
(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate (2) RNA & histones
(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate (3) Either DNA or histones
(3) Purine and pyrimidine
(4) DNA but no histones
(4) Sugar and phosphate
15. A N2 - base together with pentose sugar and
6. Substance common in DNA and RNA :-
phosphate forms (or) building - block unit of
(1) Hexose Sugar
(2) Histamine nucleic acid is :-
(3) Thymine (1) Nucleoside (2) Polypeptide
(4) Phosphate groups (3) Nucleotide (4) Amino acid
7. Nucleotide is :- 16. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine N2
(1) N2 - base, pentose sugar and phosphoric base ?
acid (1) Thymine (2) Cytosine
(2) Nitrogen, Hexose sugar and phosphoric (3) Guanine (4) Uracil
acid 17. The purine & pyrimidine pairs of
(3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar complementary strands of DNA are held
(4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric together by :–
acid (1) H - bonds (2) O - bonds
8. Unit of nucleic acids are:- (3) C - bonds (4) N - bonds
(1) Phosphoric acid 18. Number of H - bonds between guanine and
(2) Nitrogenous bases cytosine are :-
(3) Pentose Sugar (1) One (2) Two
(4) Nucleotides (3) Three (4) Four
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 136 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
19. Which purine & pyrimidine bases are paired 29. In the DNA of an animal percentage of
together by H - bonds in DNA ? Adenine is 30 then percentage of Guanine
(1) AC & GT (2) GC & AT will be :-
(3) GA & TC (4) None of the above (1) 40 (2) 30
20. A single stranded DNA is present in:- (3) 20 (4) 70
(1) TMV (2) Salmonella
30. Length of one loop of B- DNA:-
(3)  x 174 (4) Bacteria
(1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm.
21. What is the nature of the 2 strands of a DNA
(3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm.
duplex ?
(1) Identical & Complimentary 31. If base order in one chain of DNA is "ATCGA"
(2) Antiparallel & complimentary then how many no. of H–bond found in DNA
(3) Dissimilar & non complimentary duplex :–
(4) Antiparallel & non complimentary (1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 11
22. On an average, how many purine N2 bases are 32. In DNA purine nitrogen bases are :-
present in single coil of DNA :- (1) Uracil and Guanine
(1) Four (2) Five (2) Guanine and Adenine
(3) Ten (4) Uncertain (3) Adenine and cytosine
23. Distance between two nucleotide pairs of
(4) None
DNA is :-
33. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 34 Å
with :-
(3) 3.4  (4) 34 nm
(1) Peptide bond
24. In a double strand DNA amount of Guanine is
(2) Disulphide bond
35% then what will be the amount of
cytosine:- (3) Hydrogen bond
(1) 70% (2) 15% (3) 30% (4) 35% (4) Phosphodiester bond
25. Chargaaf 's rule is given as :- 34. Short DNA segment has 80 thymine and 90
(1) Purines  Pyrimidines guanine bases. The total number of
(2) A + G = T+ C nucleotides are :-
(3) A+ U = G + C (1) 160 (2) 40
(4) A + T / G + C = Const. (3) 80 (4) 340
26. In RNA , Nucleotides are bonded by :- 35. Prokaryotic DNA is :-
(1) H - bonds (1) double stranded circular
(2) Phospo diester bonds
(2) single stranded circular
(3) Ionic bonds
(3) double stranded linear
(4) Salt linkage
(4) double stranded RNA as nucleic acid
27. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide is not
having :- 36. Nucleoside is :-
(1) Phosphate (1) Polymer of nucleic acid
(2) Sugar (2) Phosphoric acid + base
(3) Phosphate & sugar (3) Phosphoric acid + sugar + base
(4) Nitrogen base (4) Sugar + base
28. Wilkins X-ray diffraction showed the 37. The back bone of RNA is consists of which of
diameter of the DNA helix is :- the following sugar ?
(1) 10 Å (2) 20 Å (1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose
(3) 30 Å (4) 40 Å (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 137 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
38. In a nucleotide H3PO4 binds to which carbon 45. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA
atom of pentose sugar? is known then the sequence in other strand
(1) Only 1st carbon can be predicted on the basis of: –
(2) Only 3rd carbon (1) Antiparallel (2) Complementary
(3) Only 5th carbon (3) Polarity (4) Coiling
(4) Both 3rd and 5th carbon 46. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
39. DNA is acidic due to:- material came from the experiments of :–
(1) Sugar (1) Hershey and Chaese (1952)
(2) Phosphoric acid (2) Frederik Griffith (1928)
(3) Purine (3) Watson and Crick
(4) Pyrimidine (4) Meselson and Stal (1958)
40. RNA contains which of the following base, in
DNA REPLICATION
place of Thymine of DNA ?
(1) Thymine (2) Uracil 47. In process of replication deoxyribonucleoside
(3) Adenine (4) None of these triphosphate:-
41. Genetic information are transferred from (1) acting as substrate
(2) providing energy for polymerisation
nucleus to cytoplasm of cell through :-
reaction
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) acting as an enzyme
(3) Lysosomes (4) ACTH
(4) both (1) and (2)
42. If one strand of double stranded DNA,
48. DNA Replication occurs at :-
consists of the sequence 3'–ATTCGTAC–5',
(1) G0 & G1 (2) G2 - stage
then the complementary sequence must be:–
(3) S – Stage (4) Mitotic phase
(1) 5'–UAAGCAUG–3'
49. A DNA molecule in which both strands have
(2) 3'–TAAGCATG–5'
radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate
(3) 5'–TAAGCATG–3'
in an environment containing non-
(4) 5'–TAAGCATG–3' in the reverse direction
radioactive thymidine. What will be the exact
43. DNA molecule has uniform diameter due to:- number of DNA molecules that contains the
(1) Double stranded radio active thymidine after 3 duplications ?
(2) Presence of phosphate (1) One (2) Two
(3) Specific base pairing between purine and (3) Four (4) Eight
pyrimidine 50. A bacterium with completely radioactive DNA
(4) Specific base pairing between purine and was allowed to replicate in a non- radioactive
purine medium for two generation what % of the
44. Following structure is related to which bacteria should contain radioactive DNA ?
compound? (1) 100 % (2) 50 %
(3) 25 % (4) 12.5 %
51. In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is
GAT, TAG, CAT, GAC what shall be the
sequence of its complementary strand?
(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA
(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine (3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine (4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 138 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
52. Method of DNA replication in which two 60. Okazaki fragments are synthesised on :-
strands of DNA separates and synthesize new (1) Leading strands of DNA only
strands? (2) Lagging strands of DNA only
(1) Dispersive (3) Both leading and lagging strands of DNA
(2) Conservative (4) Complementary DNA
(3) Semiconservative 61. DNA replication includes :-
(4) Non conservative (1) DNA ligase
53. During replication of a bacterial chromosome (2) DNA polymerase and ligase
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin (3) RNA polymerase and ligase
site and :-
(4) All of these
(1) RNA primers are not involved
62. In DNA replication, the primer is :-
(2) is facilitated by telomerase
(1) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(3) moves in one direction of the site
(2) A small ribonucleotide polymer
(4) moves in bi-directional way
(3) Helix destabilizing protein
54. The nature of DNA replication is :-
(4) Enzyme taking part in joining nucleotides
(1) Conservation
(2) Non conservative of new strand
(3) Semi-conservative 63. The strand of DNA, which does not code for
(4) Cyanobacteria anything is referred to as :-
55. The direction of DNA replication is :- (1) Template strand
(1) From 5' end towards 3' end (2) Antisense strand
(2) From 3' end towards 5' end (3) Coding strand
(3) Amino terminus to carboxy terminus (4) Noncoding strand
(4) Carboxy terminus to amino terminus 64. During DNA replication discontinuously
56. Semiconservation replication of DNA was synthesized fragments are later joined by the
proposed by :- enzyme :–
(1) Watson and Crick (1) Ligase (2) DNA polymerage
(2) Bateson and Punnett (3) RNA primer (4) Primase
(3) Messelson and Stahl 65. Replication fork is :–
(4) Avery, McCarty and Mactleod (1) Large opening of the DNA helix
57. Which of the following enzyme is used in DNA (2) Small opening of the DNA helix
multiplication ? (3) Tightly coiled part of DNA helix
(1) RNA polymerase (4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix
(2) DNA endonuclease
66. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Exonuclease
catalyse polymerisation in:–
(4) DNA Polymerase
(1) 3' → 5' direction
58. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is :-
(2) 5' → 3' direction
(1) Conservative and unidirectional
(2) Semi conservative and unidirectional (3) Depend on the nature of template strand
(3) conservative and bidirectional (4) both (1) and (2)
(4) Semi conservative and bidirectional 67. Main enzyme of DNA replication is :–
59. Which of the following enzyme is used to join (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
DNA fragments? (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) Terminase (2) Endonuclease (3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) Ligase (4) DNA polymerase (4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 139 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
RNA, TRANSCRIPTION 76. In three dimensional view the molecule of
68. The Process of copying genetic information t-RNA is:-
from one strand of DNA into Y is termed as Z (1) L-shaped (2) S-shaped
(3) Y- shaped (4) E-shaped
Y Z
77. During transcription, the DNA site at which
(1) Transcription RNA RNA polymerase binds is called ?
(2) RNA Transcription (1) Promoter (2) Regulator
(3) DNA Translation (3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
(4) Replication RNA 78. During transcription, if the nucleotide
sequence of the DNA strand that is being
69. Code in RNA corresponding to AGCT in DNA:- coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide
(1) TACA (2) UCGA sequence in the mRNA would be:-
(3) TCGA (4) AGUC (1) TATGC (2) TCTGG
70. Which of the following is called adaptor (3) UAUGC (4) UATGC
molecule? 79. Which form of RNA has a structure
(1) DNA (2) m-RNA resembling clover leaf ?
(3) t-RNA (4) RNA (1) rRNA (2) hnRNA
71. Which may be attached with Adenine base in (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
RNA ? 80. Which one of the following makes use of RNA
(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine as a template to synthesize DNA ?
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine (1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(2) DNA polymerase
72. In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is
(3) Reverse transcriptase
CAT, TAG , CAT , CAT, GAC what would be the
(4) RNA polymerase
base sequence of its complementary m-RNA?
81. The enzyme responsible for transcription is :-
(1) GUA, GUA, CUG, AUC, CUG
(2) AUG, CUG, CUC, GUA, CUG (1) D.N.A polymerase-I
(3) GUA, AUC, GUA, GUA, CUG (2) R.N.A. polymerase
(4) GUC, CUG, CUG, CUA, CUU (3) Reverse transcriptase
73. The process by which DNA of the nucleus (4) D.NA. polymerase-III
passes genetic information to m-RNA is 82. If the base sequence in DNA is 5' AAAA 3' then
called? the bases sequence in m-RNA is :-
(1) Transcription (2) Translocation (1) 5' UUUU 3' (2) 3' UUUU 5'
(3) Translation (4) Transportation (3) 5' AAAA 3' (4) 3' TTTT 5'
74. A sequence of three consecutive bases in a t- 83. Correct order of molecular weight is :-
RNA molecule which specifically binds to a (1) DNA < r-RNA < t-RNA
complementary codon sequence in m RNA is (2) DNA < m-RNA < r-RNA
known as ? (3) t-RNA < m-RNA < DNA
(1) Triplet (4) t-RNA < DNA < m-RNA
(2) Non - sense codon 84. The genes are responsible for growth and
(3) Anti codon differentiation in an organism through
(4) Termination codon regulation of :-
75. t-RNA attach to larger subunit of ribosomes (1) Translocation
with the help of which loop :- (2) Transformation
(1) DHU – loop (2)   C loop (3) Transduction and translation
(3) Anticodon loop (4) Minor loop (4) Translation and transcription
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 140 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
85. Method by which information reaches from 96. Main enzyme of transcription:–
DNA to RNA is ? (1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) Transcription (2) Translation (2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) Transformation (4) Transduction (3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
86. DNA acts as a template for synthesis of :- (4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) RNA (2) DNA 97. Removal of introns and joining of exons is
(3) Both '1' and '2' (4) Protein called :-
87. Which is soluble RNA :- (1) Capping (2) Tailing
(1) hnRNA (2) rRNA (3) Splicing (4) All
(3) mRNA (4) tRNA
88. Portion of gene which is transcribed but not GENETIC CODE, TRANSLATION
translated is ? 98. A codon in m-RNA has :-
(1) exon (2) intron (1) 3-bases
(3) cistron (4) codon (2) 2-bases
89. The smallest RNA is :- (3) 1-base
(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA (4) Number of bases vary
(3) t-RNA (4) nuclear RNA 99. A DNA strand is directly involved in the
90. The most abundant RNA of cell is :- synthesis of all the following except: -
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (1) Another DNA (2) t-RNA & m-RNA
(3) m-RNA (4) None of these (3) r-RNA (4) Protein
91. One strand of DNA (non template) has base 100. Genetic code was discovered by:-
sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What will be the (1) Nirenberg & Mathei
(2) Kornberg & Crick
sequence of bases in m-RNA ?
(3) Khorana & Kornberg
(1) AGC, CTA, CTA (2) GTC, AGC, CTC
(4) Gamow
(3) CAG. UCG. GAU (4) GAC. TAG. CTA
101. Genetic code was deciphered by
92. Reverse transcription was discovered by :-
enzymatically synthesizing the trinucleotides
(1) Watson and Crick
by:-
(2) Khorana
(1) Watson & Crick (2) Beadle & Tatum
(3) Temin an Baltimore (3) Briggs & King (4) M.W. Nirenberg
(4) Meischer 102. Nirenberg synthesized an m-RNA containing
93. Mature eukaryotic m–RNA is recognised by:- 34 poly-Adenine (A-A-A-A-A-A--) and found a
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end polypeptide formed of 11 poly-lysine this
(2) 7–methyl guanosine at 5' end and proved that genetic code for lysine was :-
polyadenine bases at 3' end (1) one-adenine (2) A-A doublet
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end (3) A-A-A triplet (4) Many adenines
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding 103. 64 Codons constitute genetic code because:-
sequence (1) There was 64 types of amino acid
94. Transcription unit in DNA is composed of :- (2) 64 types of t-RNA
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene (3) Genetic code is triplet
(3) Terminator (4) All (4) There are 64 enzymes
95. In DNA promoter is the site for the initiation 104. Which codon gives signal for the start of
of :- polypeptide (protein) chain synthesis:-
(1) Replication (2) Translation (1) AUG (2) UGA
(3) Transcription (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) GUA (4) UAG
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 141 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
105. The function of non-sense codons is:- 113. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
(1) To release polypeptide chain from polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
m-RNA (UAU) is mutated to UAA :-
(2) To form an unspecified amino acid
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
(3) To terminate the message of a gene-
formed
controlled protein synthesis-
(4) To convert a sense DNA into non-sense (2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
DNA acids will be formed
106. Termination of chain growth in protein (3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
synthesis is brought about by:- formed
(1) UUG, UGC, UCA (2) UCG, GCG, ACC (4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
(3) UAA, UAG, UGA (4) UUG, UAG, UCG formed
107. Genetic code determines: -
114. A sequence of how many nucleotides in
(1) Structural pattern of an organism
messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino
(2) Sequence of amino acids in protein chain
(3) Variation in offsprings acid?
(4) Constancy of morphological trait (1) Three (2) Four
108. m - RNA is attached with :- (3) One (4) Two
(1) E.R. (2) Ribosome 115. A strand of DNA has following base sequence
(3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome 3'–AAAAGTGACTAGTGA–5'.
109. Sometimes the starting codon is GUG in place On transcription, it produces an m–RNA which
of AUG, GUG normally code for:-
of the following anticodon of t–RNA recognizes
(1) Valine (2) Glycine
the third codon of this mRNA?
(3) Methionine (4) Tyrosine
110. Which one of the following triplet codes, is (1) AAA (2) CUG
correctly matched with its specificity for an (3) GAC (4) CTG
amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or 116. Which one of the following statement is true
'stop' codon ? for protein synthesis (translation) ?
(1) UCG – Start (1) Amino acids are directly recognized by
(2) UUU – Stop wm-RNA
(3) UGU – Leusine (2) The third base of the codon is less specific
(4) UAC – Tyrosine
(3) Only one codon codes for an amino acid
111. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
(4) Every t-RNA molecule has more than one
GTP molecule is needed in :-
(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA amino acid attachment site
(2) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with 117. Translation is the process in which: -
mRNA (1) DNA is formed on DNA template
(3) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl- (2) RNA is formed on DNA template
met tRNA (3) DNA is formed on RNA template
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome (4) Protein is formed from RNA message
with initiation complex 118. In a polypeptide chain of 125 amino acids, if
112. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed
the 25th codon is mutated to UAA, then :-
to the :-
(1) A polypeptide of 124 amino acid is formed
(1) First member of a codon
(2) Second member of a codon (2) A polypeptide of 25 amino acid is formed
(3) Entire codon (3) A polypeptide of 24 amino acid is formed
(4) Third member of a codon (4) Any of the above can be possible
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 142 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
119. The first codon discovered by Nirenberg and 128. A gene containing multiple exons and at least
Mathii was :- one intron is termed as :-
(1) CCC (2) GGG (3) UUU (4) AAA (1) split gene (2) operator gene
120. t-RNA attaches, amino acid at its :- (3) synthetic gene (4) epistatic gene
(1) 3' end (2) 5' end 129. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of
(3) Anticodon (4) Loop a polypeptide chain is called :-
121. Out of 64 codons only 61 codes for the 20 (1) Promotor gene (2) Structural gene
different amino acids. This character of (3) Regulator gene (4) Operator gene
genetic code is called :- 130. What does "lac" refer to, in what we call the
(1) Degeneracy lac operon ?
(2) Non ambiguous nature (1) Lactose
(3) Universal (2) Lactase
(4) Overlapping (3) Lac insect
122. Anticodons are found in :- (4) The number 1,00,000
(1) m RNA (2) t RNA 131. Which of the following is not produced by E.
(3) r RNA (4) In all coli in the lactose operon ?
123. One-gene-one enzyme hypothesis was (1)  galactosidase
proposed by:- (2) Transacetylase
(1) Beadle and Tatum (3) Lactose dehydrogenase
(2) Jacob and Monod (4) Lactose permease
(3) Lederberg 132. A functional complex comprising a cluster of
(4) Watson and Crick genes including structural gene, a promoter
124. Which of the following RNA play structural gene, an operator gene and a regulator gene
and catalytic role during translation? was discovered by :-
(1) m-RNA (2) t-RNA (1) Beadle and Tatum (1958)
(3) r-RNA (4) All (2) Watson and crick (1953)
125. Transfer of genetic information from a (3) Jacob and Monad (1961)
polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino (4) Britten and Davidson (1961)
acid is :– 133. Who explained the operon model for the first
(1) Replication time?
(2) Transcription (1) Francois Jacob
(3) Translation (2) Jacques Monod
(4) Reverse transcription (3) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod
126. Translation refers to the process of :– (4) Beadle & Tatum
(1) Polymerisation of nitrogen bases 134. The accessibility of promotor regions of
(2) Polymerisation of nucleotides prokaryotic DNA by RNA polymerase is in
(3) Polymerisation of nucleosides many cases regulated by the interaction of
(4) Polymerisation of amino acids some protein with sequences termed as :–
(1) Promoter (2) Operator
GENE REGULATION (3) Regulator (4) Cistron
127. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 135. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
synonymously because:– referred to as :–
(1) One cistron contains many genes (1) Positive regulation
(2) One gene contains many cistrons (2) Negative regulation
(3) One gene contains one cistron (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) One gene contains no cistron (4) None
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 143 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
136. Which is incorrect? 143. Mutations are generally :-
(1) i-gene codes for the repressor of lac (1) Dominant
operon (2) Recessive
(2) z-gene codes for the beta-galactosidase
(3) Codominant
(3) y-gene codes for transacetylase
(4) three gene products are required for (4) Incompletely dominant
metabolism of lactose 144. Genetic or gene mutations occur in :-
137. Which is the primary step for regulation of (1) DNA
gene expression, in eukaryotes? (2) RNA
(1) Transport of m-RNA from nucleus to the (3) Protein
cytoplasm (4) RNA & protein both
(2) Translational level
145. Which of the following undergoes change in
(3) Processing level
(4) Transcriptional level mutation?
138. Find out the correct sequence of structural (1) Chromosome (2) Structure of gene
gene in lac operon :- (3) Sequence of gene (4) Any of the above
(1) y, a, z (2) a, z, y 146. The locus of point mutation is generally :-
(3) z, y, a (4) z, a y (1) Gene (2) Chromosome
(3) Centromere (4) Nucleus
MUTATION
147. In the octaploid wheat (56), the haploid (n)
139. The concept of sudden genetic change which and basic numbers (x) of chromosomes are:-
breeds true in an organism is visualized as ? (1) n = 21, x = 7 (2) n = 28, x = 7
(1) Natural selection (3) n = 7 x = 28 (4) n = 7, x = 21
(2) Inheritance of acquired characters 148. The smallest unit of genetic material which
(3) Mutation upon mutation produce a phenotypic effect is:
(4) Independent assortment
(1) Mutons (2) Recon
140. Mutation is :-
(3) Gene (4) Cistron
(1) An abrupt or discontinuous change which
149. Ultimate source of genetic variation is (OR)
is inherited
the process which provides raw material for
(2) A factor for plant growth
evolution is:-
(3) A change which affects parents only and is
never inherited (1) Sexual reproduction
(4) A change which affects the offspring of F2 (2) Meiosis
generation (3) Mutation
141. The exchange of chromosomal parts between (4) Independent assortment
non homologous pairs of chromosome :- 150. Type of gene mutation which involves
(1) Crossing over/Transduction replacement of purine with pyrimidine or
(2) Translocation vice versa (OR) The substitution of one type
of base with another type of base is :-
(3) Inversion
(1) Transduction (2) Transversion
(4) Transition
(3) Translocation (4) Transcription
142. Which of the following can be called a
151. The minimum requirement for mutation is:-
mutation?
(1) Change of triplet codon
(1) The halfing of the chromosome number at
meiosis (2) Change in single nucleotide
(2) The doubling of the chromosome after (3) Change in whole DNA
syngamy (4) Change in single strand of DNA
(3) The possession of an additional 152. Mutations are :-
chromosome (1) Always useful (2) Mostly useful
(4) All the above (3) Never useful (4) Rarely useful
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 144 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
153. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of :- 162. After a mutation at a genetic locus the
(1) Frame shift mutation character of an organism changes due to the
(2) Point mutation change in :-
(3) Segmental mutation (1) protein structure
(4) Gibberish mutation (2) DNA replication
154. The most striking example of frame shift (3) protein synthesis pattern
mutation was found in a disease called :- (4) RNA transcription pattern.
(1) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Colour blindness DNA FINGERPRINTING,
(3) Laesh-Nyhn Syndrome HUMAN GENOME PROJECT
(4) Thalassemia 163. DNA finger printing was invented by :–
155. A nutritionally wild type organism, which (1) Kary Mullis (2) Alec Jeffery
does not require any additional growth (3) Dr. Paul Berg (4) Francis Collins
supplement is known as :- 164. Which one of the following pairs of terms/
(1) Holotype (2) Auxotroph names mean one and the same thing ?
(3) Prototroph (4) Phenotype (1) Gene pool - genome
156. Given below is the representation of a kind of (2) Codon - gene
chromosomal mutation : (3) Cistron - triplet
What is the kind of mutation represented? (4) DNA Fingerprinting - DNA profiling
165. Which step does not involve in DNA finger
printing ?
(1) deletion (1) Southern blotting
(2) duplication (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) inversion (3) Restriction enzyme digestion
(4) reciprocal translocation (4) Northern blotting
157. The "cri-du-chat" syndrome is caused by 166. The technique of transferring DNA fragment
change in chromosome structure involving:-
separated on agarose gel to a synthetic
(1) Deletion (2) Duplication
membrane such as nitrocellulose is known as-
(3) Inversion (4) Translocation
(1) Northern blotting
158. A class of mutation induced by addition or
(2) Southern blotting
deletion of a nucleotide is called :-
(3) Western blotting
(1) Missense (2) Non-sense
(4) Dot blotting
(3) Substitution (4) frame shift
167. Western blotting is used for the identification of
159. Chromosomes with genes abcdefg becoming
(1) DNA (2) RNA
abedcfg is :-
(3) Protein (4) All the above
(1) duplication (2) deletion
168. The approximate number of genes contained
(3) translocation (4) inversion
in the genome of Kalpana Chawla was :-
160. Gene mutation is :-
(1) 40,000 (2) 30,000
(1) change in the number of chromosome
(3) 80,000 (4) 1,00,000
(2) mutation in the phosphodiester linkage
(3) mutation in the chromosomes 169. The transfer of protein from electrophoretic
(4) change in the sequence of nitrogenous gel to nitrocellulose membrane is known as :-
bases (1) transferase
161. Chromosome number 2n-1 is an example of:- (2) northern blotting
(1) trisomy (2) euploidy (3) western blotting
(3) polyploidy (4) monosomy (4) southern blotting
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 145 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
170. Which of the following is not associated with 172. Which step is not correct in DNA finger
HGP ? printing ?
(1) Bioinformatics (1) Isolation of DNA
(2) Cloning vectors BAC & YAC
(2) Digestion of DNA by DNA ligase enzyme
(3) Automated DNA sequencers
(4) VNTR (3) Separation of DNA by electrophoresis
171. In density gradient centrifugation , the bulk (4) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
DNA forms _______ while satellite DNA forms 173. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:
_______. (1) DNA tests for identity & relationships
(1) Major peak; Minor peak (2) Forensic studies
(2) Minor peak; Major peak (3) Polymorphism
(3) Major peak; Major peak
(4) All of the above
(4) Minor peak; Minor peak

EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 4 1 4 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 3 1
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 2 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 2
Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Answer 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 2
Question 74 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 1 3 4 2 3 1
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 76 104 105
Answer 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 1 4 3 3 1 3
Question 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 1 3 2 4 3 3 1
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Answer 1 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 3 3 2 2
Question 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 3 2
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
Answer 2 4 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 4 4 1 2 4 4
Question 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173
Answer 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 4
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 146 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Exercise-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET

AIPMT 2006 8. Molecular basis of organ differentiation
depends on the modulation in transcription
1. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
by:-
decided by the sequence of:-
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA (1) RNA polymerase
(3) cDNA (4) rRNA (2) Ribosome
2. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was (3) Transcription factor
postulated by:- (4) Anticodon
(1) R. Franklin 9. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:-
(2) Hershey and Chase
(1) Result in transcription
(3) A. Garrod
(2) Polymerize in the 3'-to-5' direction and
(4) Beadle and Tatum
3. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is forms replication fork
approximately:- (3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm replication
(3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm (4) Polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and
4. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means explain 3'-to-5' DNA replication
that :- 10. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are :-
(1) one strand turns anti-clockwise (1) Parallel
(2) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands,
(2) Discontinuous
at their ends, share the same position
(3) Antiparallel
(3) the phosphate groups at the start of two
DNA strands are in opposite position (4) Semiconservative
(pole) 11. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and
(4) one strand turns clockwise basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are :-
5. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by (1) n = 7 and x = 21
the :-
(2) n = 21 and x = 21
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal
(3) n = 21 and x = 14
Y-bearing sperm
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5 (4) n = 21 and x = 7
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome AIPMT 2008
6. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has 12. Which of the following nitrogen base is not
been obtained by crossing wheat with:– found in DNA?
(1) Rye
(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine
(2) Pearl millet
(3) Guanine (4) Uracil
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Barley 13. Polysome is formed by :-
(1) A ribosome with several subunits
AIPMT 2007
(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a
7. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a linear arrangement
developing organism, is association with :- (3) Several ribosomes attached to a single
(1) Developmental mutations
mRNA
(2) Differential expression of genes
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(3) Lethal mutations
(4) Deletion of genes endoplasmic reticulum
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 147 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
14. Which one of the following pairs of AIPMT 2009
nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly 19. What is not true for genetic code ?
matched with the category mentioned against (1) It is unambiguous
it? (2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-
(1) Guanine, Adenine – Purines contiguous fashion
(2) Adenine, Thymine – Purines (3) It is nearly universal
(3) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines (4) It is degenerate
20. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a
(4) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
defined order in a transcription unit is
15. In the DNA molecule :-
called:-
(1) the proportion of Adenine in relation to (1) Capping (2) Splicing
thymine varies with the organism (3) Tailing (4) Transformation
(2) there are two strands which run 21. Semiconservative replication of DNA was
antiparallel one in 5' →3' direction and first demonstrated in :-
other in 3' → 5' (1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) the total amount of purine nucleotides
(3) Escherichia coli
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
equal
22. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and
(4) there are two strands which run parallel discovered unequivocally that a genetic code
in the 5' →3' direction is a "triplet" ?
16. Which one of the following pairs of codons is (1) Beadle and Tatum
correctly matched with their function or the (2) Nirenberg and Mathaei
signal for the particular amino acid ? (3) Hershey and Chase
(1) AUG,ACG – Start/Methionine (4) Morgan and Sturtevant
(2) UUA, UCA –Leucine 23. Point mutation involves :-
(3) GUU, GCU –Alanine (1) Deletion
(2) Insertion
(4) UAG, UGA – Stop
(3) Change in single base pair
17. Which of the following bond is not related to
(4) Duplication
nucleic acid ?
(1) H-bond AIPMT 2010
(2) Ester bond 24. Select the two correct statements out of the
(3) Glycosidic bond four (a-d) given below about lac operon:
(4) Peptide bond (a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
18. Haploids are more suitable for mutation repressor and inactivated
studies than the diploids. This is because :- (b) In the absence of lactose the repressor
(1) Haploids are more abundant in nature binds with the operator region
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
than diploids
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
(2) All mutations, whether dominant or
Jacque Monod
recessive are expressed in haploids The correct statements are :-
(3) Haploids are reproductively more stable (1) (b) and (d)
than diploids (2) (a) and (b)
(4) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more (3) (b) and (c)
effectively than in diploids (4) (a) and (c)
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 148 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
25. Satellite DNA is useful tool in :- 31. Which one of the following is a wrong
(1) Forensic science statement regarding mutations?
(2) Genetic engineering (1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
(3) Organ transplantation (2) Change in a single base pair of DNA does
(4) Sex determination
not cause mutation
26. The one aspect which is not a salient feature
of genetic code, is its being :- (3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
(1) Universal frame-shift mutations.
(2) Specific (4) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
(3) Degenerate aberrations.
(4) Ambiguous
27. Which one of the following does not follow NEET-UG 2013
the central dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Chlamydomonas 32. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in
(2) HIV which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac
(3) Pea Y-gene?
(4) Mucor (1) Lactose permease and transacetylase
(2) -galactosidase
AIPMT (Pre.) 2012 (3) Lactose permease
28. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length
(4) Catalase
Polymorphism are the methods for: -
33. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
(1) DNA sequencing
(2) Genetic fingerprinting endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
(3) Study of enzymes separated by :-
(4) Genetic transformation (1) Restriction mapping
(2) Centrifugation
AIPMT (Mains) 2012 (3) Polymerase chain reaction
29. What is it that forms the basis of DNA (4) Electrophoresis
Fingerprinting?
(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
and grooves of the fingerprints. AIPMT 2014
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly 34. Commonly used vectors for human genome
repeated short DNA segments sequencing are :-
(3) The relative proportions of purines and (1) T-DNA
pyrimidines in DNA (2) BAC and YAC
(4) The relative difference in the DNA
(3) Expression Vectors
occurence in blood, skin and saliva
30. Read the following four statements (A-D): (4) T/A Cloning Vectors
(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with
uracil. AIPMT 2015
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is 35. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded,
referred to as positive regulation. 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
(C) The human genome has approximately
The percentages of the other three bases
50,000 genes.
expected to be present in this DNA are :-
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
disease. (1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
How many of the above statements are right? (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(1) Four (2) One (3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(3) Two (4) Three (4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 149 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
36. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of NEET-I 2016
E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :- 42. Which of the following is required as
(1) Negative and inducible because repressor inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
protein prevents transcription (1) Glucose
(2) Negative and repressible because (2) Galactose
repressor protein prevents transcription (3) Lactose
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of (4) Lactose and galactose
-galactosidase can switch off 43. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single
transcription strand of RNA is known as :-
(4) Positive and inducible because it can be (1) Polysome
induced by lactose (2) Polymer
37. The movement of a gene from one linkage
(3) Polypeptide
group to another is called :-
(4) Okazaki fragment
(1) Duplication
44. Which of the following is not required for any
(2) Translocation
of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting
(3) Crossing over
available at present?
(4) Inversion
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
Re-AIPMT 2015
(2) Zinc finger analysis
38. Which of the following biomolecules does
(3) Restriction enzymes
have a phosphodiester bond?
(4) DNA–DNA hybridization
(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
45. Which one of the following is the starter
(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
codon?
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG
(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide
39. Which one of the following is not applicable
NEET-II 2016
to RNA?
46. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove
(1) Chargaff's rule
semiconservative mode of chromosome
(2) Complementary base pairing
replication on : -
(3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(1) Drosophila melanogaster
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
40. Satellite DNA is important because it :- (2) E. coli
(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA (3) Vinca rosea
replication (4) Vicia faba
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle 47. The equivalent of a structural gene is :-
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in (1) Operon (2) Recon
population and also the same degree of (3) Muton (4) Cistron
polymorphism in an individual, which is 48. Which of the following rRNAs acts as
heritable from parents to children structural RNA as well as ribozyme in
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in bacteria?
all members of the population (1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5.8 S rRNA
41. Identify the correct order of organisation of (3) 5 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA
genetic material from largest to smallest :- 49. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is :-
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (1) Ligase
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide (2) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene (3) Lysozyme
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide (4) Ribozyme
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 150 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
50. A molecule that can act as a genetic material 56. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments
must fulfill the traits given below, except :- are used to elongate:-
(1) It should be unstable structurally and (1) The lagging strand towards replication
chemically fork.
(2) It should provide the scope for slow (2) The leading strand away from replication
changes that are required for evolution fork.
(3) It should be able to express itself in the (3) The lagging strand away from the
replication fork.
form of 'Mendelian characters'
(4) The leading strand towards replication
(4) It should be able to generate its replica
fork.
51. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
57. Which of the following RNAs should be most
transcription on one strand of the DNA which abundant in animal cell ?
is called the :- (1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA
(1) Alpha strand (3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA
(2) Antistrand 58. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
(3) Template strand movement on agarose gel during gel
(4) Coding strand electrophoresis ?
52. The mechanism that causes a gene to move (1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther
from one linkage group to another is called:- it moves
(1) Translocation (2) Positively charged fragments move to
(2) Crossing-over farther end
(3) Inversion (3) Negatively charged fragments do not
(4) Duplication move
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it
moves
NEET(UG) 2017
59. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:-
53. The final proof for DNA as the genetic (1) Within nucleolus
material came from the experiments of :- (2) Prior to fission
(1) Hershey and Chase (3) Just before transcription
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (4) During S phase
(3) Hargobind Khorana 60. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:-
(4) Griffith (1) Fungi (2) Animals
54. DNA fragments are:- (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
(1) Negatively charged 61. The association of histone H1 with a
(2) Neutral nucleosome indicates:-
(3) Either positively or negatively charged (1) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin
depending on their size
Fibre.
(4) Positively charged
(3) The DNA double helix is exposed.
55. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for (4) Transcription is occurring.
a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base
at position 901 is deleted such that the length NEET(UG) 2018
of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many 62. The experimental proof for semiconservative
codons will be altered? replication of DNA was first shown in a:-
(1) 11 (2) 33 (1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
(3) 333 (4) 1 (3) Plant (4) Virus
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 151 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
63. Select the correct match :- 69. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :-
(1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus (1) Genes expressed as RNA
pneumoniae (2) Polypeptide expression
(2) Alfred Hershey and – TMV (3) DNA polymorphism
Martha Chase (4) Novel DNA sequences
(3) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum 70. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
and F. Stahl with their respective products :-
(4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
Jacques Monod (b) z gene (ii) Permease
64. Select the correct Match :- (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
65. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
strand of a gene. What will be the
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
mRNA ?
NEET(UG) 2019 (Odisha)
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA 71. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced
66. All of the following are part of an operon by the following stretch of DNA ?
except :- 3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5'
(1) an operator TEMPLATE STRAND
(2) structural genes 5'TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND
(3) an enhancer (1) 3'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG5'
(4) a promoter (2) 5'UACGUACGUACGUAC3'
(3) 3'UACGUACGUACGUAC5'
NEET(UG) 2019 (4) 5'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG3'
72. Match the following RNA polymerase with
67. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are :-
their transcribed products :-
(1) Adenine and thymine
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
(2) Adenine and guanine
(b) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
(4) Cytosine and thymine
Select the correct option from the following :
68. Under which of the following conditions will
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
there be no change in the reading frame of
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
following mRNA ?
73. From the following, identify the correct
5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3'
combination of salient features of Genetic
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position Code :-
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position (1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
(3) Insertion of A and G and 4th and 5th (2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
positions respectively (3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th (4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-
positions ambiguous
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 152 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
74. Which scientist experimentally proved that 80. The first phase of translation is :-
DNA is the sole genetic material in (1) Recognition of an anti-codon
bacteriophage ? (2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(1) Beadle and Tautum (3) Recognition of DNA molecule
(2) Messelson and Stahl (4) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3) Hershey and Chase
81. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
(4) Jacob and Monod
fragments can be visualized with the help of :-
75. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes,
(1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
the RNA polymerase I transcribes :-
(2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(1) mRNA with additional processing,
capping and tailing (3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs (4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) rRNAs–28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19)
(4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
76. What initiation and termination factors are 82. The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material
involved in transcription in prokaryotes ? was used by :-
(1)  and , respectively (1) Franklin
(2)  and , respectively (2) Meischer
(3)  and , respectively (3) Chargaff
(4)  and , respectively (4) Mendel
83. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a
NEET(UG) 2020 nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:-
77. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) 2'C pentose sugar
(1) Adenine does not pair with thymine (2) 3'C pentose sugar
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two (3) 5'C pentose sugar
H-bonds
(4) 1'C pentose sugar
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
84. E.coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and
H-bond
completes the process of replication within
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through
18 minutes; then the average rate of
three H-bonds
78. If the distance between two consecutive base polymerisation is approximately: -
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base (1) 2000 base pairs/second
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical (2) 3000 base pairs/second
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the (3) 4000 base pairs/second
length of the DNA is approximately: - (4) 1000 base pairs/second
(1) 2.7 meters (2) 2.0 meters 85. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human
(3) 2.5 meters (4) 2.2 meters genome as well as DNA finger printing ?
79. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of (1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
DNA helix during transcription: - (2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase (3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
(3) DNA helicase (4) DNA polymerase (4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 153 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
NEET(UG) 2021 91. Which of the following RNAs is not required
86. Complete the flow chart on central dogma:- for the synthesis of protein?
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(3) rRNA (4) siRNA
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; 92. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule,
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein what will be the percentage of Thymine,
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; Guanine and Cytosine in it?
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(1) T : 20; G : 30; C : 20
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(2) T : 20; G : 20; C : 30
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(3) T : 30; G : 20; C : 20
(4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation;
(4) T : 20; G : 25; C : 25
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
NEET(UG) 2022
87. Identify the correct statement:-
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate 93. Read the following statements and choose the
is added to the 3' end of hnRNA. set of correct statements: -
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
terminate the process of transcription in (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally
bacteria. active
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively
is copied to an mRNA. charged DNA in nucleosome
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
of prokaryotes. (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of
88. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the DNA helix
process of transcription in eukaryotes? Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) given below:
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA (1) (a), (c), (d) Only (2) (b), (e) Only
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (3) (a), (c), (e) Only (4) (b), (d), (e) Only
(4) Transcribes only snRNAs 94. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:-
89. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying (1) DNA finger printing
differences in some specific regions in DNA (2) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger
sequence, called as :- printing
(1) Satellite DNA (3) Translation
(2) Repetitive DNA (4) Genetic mapping
(3) Single nucleotides 95. The process of translation of mRNA to
(4) Polymorphic DNA proteins begins as soon as :-
90. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has (1) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters
“Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation mRNA
and Termination in the process of (2) Both the subunits join together to bind
transcription in prokaryotes? with mRNA
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) The tRNA is activated and the larger
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
(3) DNA Ligase (4) The small subunit of ribosome encounters
(4) DNase mRNA
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 154 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
96. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for Choose the correct answer from the options
sequencing the whole genome of an given below :
organism, followed by assignment of function (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
to different segments, the methodology (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
adopted by him is called as:- (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(1) Gene mapping (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2) Expressed sequence tags 101. Given below are two statements: -
(3) Bioinformatics Statement I:
(4) Sequence annotation DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only
97. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its in one direction, that is 5' → 3'
product can not bind the inducer molecule. If Statement II :
growth medium is provided with lactose, During replication of DNA, on one strand the
what will be the outcome? replication is continuous while on other
strand it is discontinuous.
(1) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) z, y, a genes will not be translated
the correct answer from the options given
(3) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter
below :
region
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Only z gene will get transcribed correct
98. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
what will be the approximate number of base incorrect
pairs ? (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(1) 6.6 × l09 bp (2) 3.3 × 106 bp is incorrect
(3) 6.6 × 106 bp (4) 3.3 × l09 bp (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
99. Ten E.coli cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated is correct
in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 102. Match List-I with List-II :-
List-I List-II
minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA
(a) Bacteriophage (i) 48502 base
totally free from 15N ?
 ×174 pairs
(1) 40 cells (2) 60 cells
(b) Bacteriophage (ii) 5386
(3) 80 cells (4) 20 cells
lambda nucleotides
100. Match List - I with List - II :- (c) Escherichia coli (iii) 3.3 × 109 base
List - I List - II pairs
(a) In lac operon (i) transacetylase (d) Haploid content (iv) 4.6 × 106 base
i gene codes for of human DNA pairs
(b) In lac operon (ii) permease Choose the correct answer from the options
z gene codes for given below:
(c) In lac operon (iii)b-galactosidase (1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
y gene codes for (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(d) In lac operon (iv) Repressor (3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
a gene codes for

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 155 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
103. If DNA contained sulphur instead of 104. In lac operon, z gene codes for :-
phosphorus and proteins contained (1) -galactosidase
phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would (2) Permease
have been the outcome of Hershey and Chase (3) Repressor
experiment? (4) Transacetylase
(1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(2) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in
bacterial cells
(3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial Cells

EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 2 2 2 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 1
Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer 4 4 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 3
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Answer 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 4 3 3
Question 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer 1 2 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 2
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104
Answer 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 3 1
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 156 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
w
Exercise-III Master Your Understanding

EXERCISE-III(A) (NCERT BASED QUESTIONS) 7. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus

1. Match the following :- was first identified by:-
(A)  × 174 (i) 48502 bp (1) Wilkins and Franklin
(B) Lambda phage (ii) 5386 Nucleotides (2) Watson and Crick
(C) E. Coli (iii) 6.6 x 109 bp (3) Friedich meischer
(D) Human somatic cell (iv) 4.6 x 106 bp (4) Altmann
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii) 8. Double helix model of DNA proposed by
(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) Watson and crick was based on:-
(3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (1) X-ray diffraction data of Meischer
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i) (2) X-ray crystallography data of Wilkins and
2. Which of the following pyrimidine base is Franklin
common in both DNA and RNA:- (3) X-ray diffraction data of Watson and Crick
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine (4) X-ray diffraction data of Chargaff
(3) Cytosine 9. Regarding to features of double helix structure
(4) Thymine of DNA which of the following is wrong?
3. In nucleoside which of the following bond (1) Two polynucleotide chains have
exists between sugar and nitrogenaous base:- antiparallel polarity
(1) Phosphodiester bond (2) The bases in two strands are paired
(2) Hydrogen bond through phosphodiester bonds
(3) Phosphoester bond (3) Adenine form two hydrogen bonds with
(4) N-glycosidic bond thymine
4. By which of the following bond phosphoric (4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
acid remain linked with 5' carbon of sugar in 10. In addition to hydrogen bonding which of the
one nucleotide:- following feature confers stability to helical
(1) Phosphoester bond structure?
(2) Phosphodiester bond (1) Phosphodiester bond
(3) N-Glycosidic bond (2) Pairing between one purine and one
(4) Hydrogen bond pyrimidine
5. The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is (3) Glycosidic linkage between sugar and
formed due to:- nitrogenous base
(1) Sugars and nitrogenous bases (4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the
(2) Phosphates and nitrogenous base other
(3) Nitrogenous bases and histones 11. Which of the following is responsible for
(4) Sugar and phosphates constant distance between two polynuclestide
6. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an chains in DNA?
additional – OH group at which of the (1) Antiparallel polarity of two
following position? polynucleotide strands
(1) 2' position of deoxyribose (2) Hydrogen bonding
(2) 1' position of ribose sugar (3) Pairing between one purine and one
(3) 3' position of ribose sugar pyrimidine
(4) 2' position of ribose sugar (4) All the above
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 157 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
12. Phosphoric acid remain associated with 20. Regarding to Meselson and Stahl experiment
which of the following carbon of sugar in a for semi conservative nature of DNA
nucleotide ? replication select out the wrong statement: -
(1) 1st (2) 3rd (1) 15N of 15NH4Cl was incorporated in DNA
(3) 4th (4) 5th and other compounds
13. In there are 3.3 x 109 bp present in genome, (2) 15N & 14N can be differentiate on the basis
then what would be the length of the DNA of of radioactive activity
any somatic cell? (3) Heavy and normal DNA molecules could
(1) 1.1 meter (2) 2.2 meter be distinguished by CsCl density gradient
(3) 3.3 meter (4) 6.6 meter centrifugation
14. Positive charge and basic nature of histone is (4) 15N used in 15NH4Cl was not a radioactive
due to abundance of:-
isotope
(1) Lysines and tryptophanes
21. If normal E. Coli is allow to grow for 80
(2) Arginines & threonines
minutes in 15NH4Cl medium then what would
(3) Lysines and arginines
be the proportion of hybrid and heavy density
(4) Tryptophanes and threonines
DNA molecules:-
15. Negative charge of DNA is due to which of the
following constituent:- (1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1 (3) 14 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
(1) Sugar 22. Semiconservative replication of DNA in
(2) Nitrogenous base chromosomes was proved by:-
(3) Phosphoric acid (1) Meselson & Stahl by using 15NH4Cl
(4) Hydroxyl group (–OH) present on sugar (2) Taylor by using 15NH4Cl
16. A typical nucleosome contains how much (3) Meselson & Stahl by using tritiated
amount of DNA? thymidine
(1) 100 bp (2) 146 bp (4) Taylor by using tritiated thymidine
(3) 200 bp (4) 346 bp 23. How much duration of time required for
17. In a mammalian somatic cell how many replication of 4.6 x 106pb in E.coli?
nucleosomes are present? (1) 83 minutes (2) 18 minutes
(1) 6.6 x 109 (2) 3.3 x 109 (3) 2 minutes (4) 3 hrs
(3) 3.3 x 107 (4) 3.3 x 105 24. What is the rate of polymerisation in E.coli?
18. Which of the following is actual sequence of (1) 20,000 bp per second
packaging of DNA in eukaryotic cells? (2) 2000 nucleotides per second
(1) DNA → Chromatin → Nucleosome → (3) 2000 bp per minute
Chromosome (4) 2000 bp per second
(2) DNA → Nucleosome → Chromosome 25. During replication large amount of energy get
→ Chromatin
exhausted. The source of this energy is :-
(3) DNA → Nucleosome → Chromatin →
(1) Deoxy ribonucleotide triphosphophate
Chromosome
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside monoplosphate
(4) DNA → Chromosome → Chromatin
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
→ Nucleosome
19. The packaging of chromatin at higher level (4) Both 1 and 2
requires additional set of proteins that is 26. Regarding to direction of DNA replication
known as:- select out the correct one :-
(1) Histone proteins (1) 5' → 3' Template – continuous synthesis
(2) NHC proteins (2) 3' → 5' Template – discontinuous synthesis
(3) Homeotic proteins (3) 3' → 5' Template – continuous synthesis
(4) Domain proteins (4) 5' → 3' Template – synthesis leading strand
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 158 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
27. Which of the following scheme of replication 32. Which of the following r-RNA show structural
fork is true? as well as catalytic role in bacteria :-
(1) 16s rRNA (2) 23s rRNA
(1) (3) 5s rRNA (4) 28s rRNA
33. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiments of :-
(1) Griffith
(2) Avery, Macleod & Mccarty
(2) (3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Watson and Crick
34. Radioactive (35S) was detected in:-
(1) Supernatant (2) Sediment
(3) (3) Both (4) Either 1 or 2
35. Which of the following is not a criteria for
determination of genetic material?
(1) Ability of replication
(2) Chemically and structurally stable
(4)
(3) It should be non mutable
(4) Ability to express itself in from of
28. Which of the following feature of RNA make it Mendelian characters
labile and easily degradable? 36. Which of the following is responsible for
(1) Single stranded nature short life span and fast rate of mutation and
(2) 2'–OH group on sugar evolution?
(3) Phosphodiester bond (1) Presence of DNA
(4) Absence of Hydrogen bond (2) Presence of highly reactive RNA
29. Regarding to RNA which of the following (3) Double stranded genetic material
feature is wrong? (4) Single stranded genetic material
(1) Catalytic property 37. A transcription unit in DNA is defined
(2) Labile and easily degradable primarily by three regions in DNA. These
(3) Absence of thymine regions are:-
(4) Presence of methylated uracil (1) Promoter, regulator and structural gene
30. Which of the following reason is suitable to (2) Promoter, structural gene and terminator
explain that RNA is best for expression of (3) Promoter, regulator and terminator
characters? (4) Promoter, regulator and operator gene
(1) It shows catalytic properties
38. In transcription unit promoter and
(2) Presence of 2'–OH group on ribose sugar
terminator are determined on the basis of :-
(3) It can directly code for the synthesis of
(1) Coding strand (2) Template strand
protein
(3) Noncoding strand (4) Antisense strand
(4) Presence of uracil
39. In eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes those
31. An adapter molecule that would on one hand
DNA sequences that appear in mature or
read the code and on the other hand would
processed RNA are known as :-
bind to specific amino acids is:-
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (1) Introns (2) Exons
(3) t-RNA (4) hm-RNA (3) Recons (4) Mutons
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 159 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
40. Which of the following exclusive property of 46. Which of the following mutation forms the
transcription found in RNA-polymerase? genetic basis of proof that codon is a triplet
(1) Initiation (2) Elongation and it is read in a continuous manner?
(3) Termination (4) Processing (1) Chromosomal structural mutations
41. What is the length and constituent base of tail (2) Chromosomal numerical mutations
in functional m-RNA? (3) Substitutional mutation
(1) Poly U – 200-300 bp (4) Frame shift insertion or deletion
(2) Poly A – 200-300 bp mutation
(3) Poly C – 200-300 nucleotides 47. Change in a single base pair of DNA can be
(4) Poly A – 200-300 nucleotides
termed as:-
42. DNA dependent RNA polymerases mediated
(1) Chromosomal aberrations
synthesis of RNA over DNA called
(2) Point mutation
transcription. About it which of the following
(3) Genomatric mutation
statement is wrong:-
(4) Aneuploidy
(1) In bacteria m-RNA does not required any
processing to become active 48. Which of the following cell cycle event is
(2) In eukaryotes there is clearcut division of responsible for aneuploidy based
labour in RNA polymerases chromosomal disorders?
(3) Absence of introns in RNA of eukaryotes (1) Failure of G1 phase
is reminiscent of antiquity (2) Failure of DNA replication in s-phase
(4) RNA polymerase - III is responsible for (3) Failure of segregation/Disjunction
synthesis of sn-RNA (4) Failure of movement of chromosomes
43. At which of the following levels, regulation of 49. Which of the following cell cycle event is
gene expression in eukaryotes do not occur: - responsible for polyploidy phenomenon:-
(1) Transcription level (1) Failure of karyokinesis
(2) Processing level (2) Failure of cytokinesis
(3) Transport of ribosomal subunits from (3) Failure of segregation
nucleus to cytoplasm level (4) Failure of non-disjunction
(4) Translation level 50. Regarding to role of RNA in protein synthesis
44. In prokaryotes predominant site for control find out the odd one:-
of gene expression is the :- (1) m-RNA - provides the template
(1) Control of rate of processing of primary transcript
(2) t-RNA - brings amino acids
(2) Control of rate of transcription initiation
(3) r-RNA - read genetic code
(3) Control of transport of m-RNA from
(4) sn-RNA splicing
nucleus to cytoplasm
51. A m-RNA also has some additional sequences
(4) Control of Translation
that are not translated called UTR. The
45. Which of the following was not involved in
deciphering of genetic code? function of UTR is :-
(1) Physicist George Gamow's permutation (1) Charging of t-RNA
combination of 43 bases (2) Formation of peptide bond
(2) H.G. Khorana's based synthesis of RNA (3) Helps in efficient translation
molecules with defined combination of (4) Helps in translocation
bases 52. The t-RNA move away from ribosomes after
(3) Severo ochoa enzyme for polymerising translocation of ribosome in relation to m-
DNA with defined sequences RNA, is known as :-
(4) Marshall Nirenberg's cell free system for (1) Acylated t-RNA (2) Peptidyle t-RNA
protein synthesis (3) Deacylated t-RNA (4) Charged t-RNA
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 160 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
53. The repressor of the operon is synthesized :- 60. Regarding to salient features of human
(1) All the time genome select out the incorrect one:-
(2) Certain time (1) Human genome contains 3164.7 million
(3) Non constitutively nucleotide bases
(4) None of these (2) Human genome contain 30,000 genes
(3) y-chromosome has largest number of
54. HGP was closely associated with the rapid
genes
development of a new area in biology called
(4) 1.4 million locations are associated with
as :- SNPs
(1) Biofortification 61. Match the following :-
(2) Bioinformatics A. SNPs i 3164.7 million
(3) Biomining B. Genes of ii 1.4 Million
(4) Biotransformation chromosome No. 1
55. Which of the following is not a goal of HGP? C. Total No. of Human iii 30000
(1) Identify all the approximately 20,000– genes
25,000 genes D. Total nucleotides of iv 2968
(2) Store this information in database human genome
A B C D
(3) Restrict the related technologies so that
(1) ii iii iv i
other sector do not benefited with it
(2) ii iv iii i
(4) Address the ethical, legal and social issues (3) ii iv i iii
56. The human genome project was coordinated (4) iv ii iii i
by :- 62. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a
(1) U.S. department of energy population at high frequency, it is referred
(2) National institute of health as:-
(3) Sanger centre (1) DNA polyploidy
(4) Both 1 and 2 (2) DNA polymorphism
57. Which of the following organism was not (3) DNA redundancy
used as model organism is human genome (4) Sequence annotation
project ? 63. Due to high degree of polymorphism, size of
(1) Arabidopsis VNTR varies from :-
(1) 0.1 – 2 kb (2) 0.1 – 2000 kb
(2) Caenorhabdities elegans
(3) 0.1 – 20 kb (4) 0.1 – 200 kb
(3) Rice
64. What is the basis of heredity?
(4) Hyacinthus orientalis
(1) Variations
58. Approach of HGP focused on identifying all
(2) Inheritance
the genes that expressed as RNA is known as:-
(3) Genetics
(1) Expressed sequence tags
(4) Recombination
(2) Sequence annotation 65. Which of the following is not the feature of
(3) Polymerase chain reaction human genome?
(4) Dermatoglyphics (1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code
59. Automated DNA sequencers worked on the for protein
principle of a method developed by:- (2) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene (231)
(1) Watson (3) Repetitive sequences make up very large
(2) Chargaff portion of human genome
(3) Frederick sanger (4) The functions are unknown for over 50%
(4) Singer and Nicolson of the discovered genes
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 161 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
66. The sequence of which chromosome was 71. Consider the following sequence on
completed in May 2006? m–RNA AUGGCAGUGCCA. Assuming that
(1) Chromosome number 1 genetic code is overlap then how many
(2) Chromosome number 2 number of codon may be present on this
(3) Chromosome number 5 genetic code :-
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 11
(4) Chromosome number 10
72. A normal DNA molecule is continuously
EXERCISE-III(B) (ANALYTICAL QUESTIONS) replicate in N15 medium than what is the % of
lighter DNA in 4th generation?
67. A point mutation which involves change of
(1) 12·5% (2) 25% (3) 0% (4) 6·25%
A→G, C→T, C→G and T→A in DNA are :-
73. Find out the sequence of binding of the
(1) Transition, Transition, Transversion, following amino acyl – t–RNA complexes
Transversion during translation to an m–RNA transcribed
(2) Transition, Transversion, Transition, by a DNA segment having the base sequence.
Transversion 3' ATACCCATGGGG 5'. Choose the answer
(3) Transversion, Transition, Transversion, showing the correct order of alphabets:–
Transition
(4) None of the above
(a)
68. A segment of DNA has a base sequence : AAG,
GAG, GAC, CAA, CCA–, Which one of the
following sequence represents a frame shift
mutation :-
(b)
(1) AAG, GAG, GAC, CAA, CCA–
(2) AAG, AGG, ACC, AAC, CA–
(3) ACG, GAG, GAC, CAG, CC–
(4) AAG, GCG, GAC, CAG, CC–
(c)
69. If the DNA-codons are ATGATGATG and a
cytosine base is inserted at the beginning
which of the following would be the result:-
(1) A non-sense mutation
(d)
(2) CA, TGA, TGA, TG
(3) CAT, GAT, GAT, G
(4) C, ATG, ATG, ATG (1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c
70. A completely radioactive double stranded (3) a, b, d, c (4) b, a, c, d
DNA molecule undergoes two round of 74. KHORANA synthesized two RNAs (a) with
replication in a non-radioactive medium. repeat sequence of AB and (b) with repeat
What will be the radioactive status of the four sequence of ABC the polypeptides coded by
daughter molecules ? (a) and (b) are respectively :-
(1) Homopolypeptides in both (a) and (b)
(1) All four still contain radioactivity
(2) Heteropolypeptides in both
(2) Radioactivity is lost from all four
(3) Homopolypeptide in (a) & heteropoly
(3) Out of four, three contain radioactivity peptide in (b)
(4) Half of the number contain no (4) Heteropolypeptide in (a) & homopoly
radioactivity peptide in (b)
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 162 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
75. Which of the following m–RNA will be (c) In codon first two bases are more specific
translated completely ? (d) In codons, third base is wobble
(A) 5' AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA 3' (e) Codon is nearly universal
(B) 5' AUG AUA UUG CCC UGA 3' (1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, d
(C) 5' AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA 3' (3) a, c, d (4) a, c, d, e
81. Both the strand of DNA are not copied during
(D) 5' AUG UAC AGU AAC UAG 3'
transcription because :-
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (D)
(1) If both strands act as a template, they
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D) would code for RNA with different
76. In a m–RNA sequence of N2–base is 5' AUG sequence
GUG CUC AAA' 3'. What is the correct (2) The two RNA molecules, if produced
sequence of anticodons which recognizes simultaneously would be complementary
codons of m–RNA ? to each other, hence would form a double
stranded RNA
(3) They would code, for RNA molecules with
same sequences
UUU GAG UAC CAC (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) 82. The salient features of B-DNA are :–
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chain
(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c (ii) Back bone is constituted by sugar and
(3) c, d, b, a (4) d, c, b, a nitrogen base
77. Suppose evolution on earth has occurred in (iii)Two chains have parallel polarity
such a way that there are 96 amino acids (iv)Bases in two strands are paired through
instead of 20. DNA has 12 different types of H-bonds
bases and DNA synthesis occur in the same (v) The two chains are coiled in a left handed
way as today. The minimum number of bases fashion
per condon would be:- (1) i, iv, v (2) i, iv
(3) i, ii, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 3
83. Which is incorrect for genetic code:–
78. Assume that their are 6 types of nitrogen
(i) The codon is triplet
bases available and 40 types of amino acid are (ii) 64 codons code for amino acids
available for protein synthesis, then in (iii) Genetic code is unambiguous
genetic code each codon made up by (iv) Genetic code is nearly universal
minimum how many nitrogen bases ? (v) AUG has dual functions
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) only ii (2) ii & iii
(3) 5 (4) 2 (3) iii, iv + v (4) All are correct
79. In a segment of DNA 3.2 kilobases are 84. Which is correct ?
present. If DNA segment has 820 adenine (i) t-RNA has an anticodon loop that has
molecules, then what will be number of bases complementary to the codon
cytosine ? (ii) t-RNA has an amino acid acceptor end
(1) 1560 (2) 1480 (iii) t-RNA are specific for each amino acid
(3) 780 (4) 740 (iv) For initiation, there is specific t-RNA that
80. Which statement is correct ? is referred to as initiator t-RNA
(a) Degeneracy of code is related to, third (v) For termination there is specific t-RNA
member of codon that is referred to as terminator t-RNA
(b) Single codon, codes for more than one (1) i, ii (2) i, ii, iii
amino acid (3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 163 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology
85. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac 86. DNA fragments separated by gel
operon cannot grow in medium containing electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct
only lactose as the source of energy because:– statement :-
(1) They cannot synthesize functional
betagalactosidase
(2) They cannot transport lactose from the
medium into the cell
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in
(1) Band 3 contains more positively charged
these cells
DNA molecule than 1
(4) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do
(2) Band '3' indicates more charge density
not utilize lactose
than 1 and 2
(3) Band 1 has longer DNA fragment than 2
and 3
(4) All the bands have equal length and
charges but differ in base composition

Exercise-III ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 3 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 4 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 3
Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 3
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Answer 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 2
Question 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Answer 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 1 3 1 3
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 164 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Important Notes

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

 Digital www.allendigital.in [ 165 ]

 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEET : Biology

Important Notes

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 166 ] www.allendigital.in  Digital