Kcet Pyq (2024 - 2023)
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riosjerit1234Kcet Pyq (2024 - 2023)
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riosjerit1234PHYSICS
1. An induced current of 2 A flows through a coil. The resistance of the coil is 10 . What is the change in
magnetic flux associated with the coil in 1 ms ?
(A) 0.2 102 Wb (B) 2 102 Wb
(C) 22 102 Wb (D) 0.22 102 Wb
Ans. B
2. A square loop of side length ‘a’ is moving away from an infinitely long current carrying conductor at a
constant speed ‘v’ as shown. Let ‘x’ be the instantaneous distance between the long conductor and side AB.
The mutual inductance (M) of the square loop - long conductor pair changes with time (t) according to which
of the following graphs ?
A a D
v
a a
B a C
x
M M
(A) (B)
t t
M M
(C) (D)
t t
Ans. A
3. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an LCR circuit used for
communication ?
(A) R 20 , L 1.5 H, C 35 F (B) R 25 , L 2.5 H, C 45 F
(C) R 25 , L 1.5 H, C 45 F (D) R 15 , L 3.5 H, C 30 F
Ans. D
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4. In an LCR series circuit, the value of only capacitance C is varied. The resulting variation of resonance
frequency f0 as a function of C can be represented as
f0 f0
(A) (B)
C C
f0 f0
(C) (D)
C C
Ans. C
5. The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with frequency ‘f’ in a series LCR circuit. Then for what
frequency point is the circuit capacitive ?
XC
XL
ABC D f
(A) B (B) C
(C) A (D) C
Ans. C
6. Electromagnetic waves are incident normally on a perfectly reflecting surface having surface area A. If I is
the intensity of the incident electromagnetic radiation and c is the speed of light in vacuum, the force exerted
by the electromagnetic wave on the reflecting surface is
2I A IA
(A) (B)
c c
IA I
(C) 2c (D) 2 Ac
Ans. A
7. The final image formed by an astronomical telescope is
(A) real, erect and diminished (B) virtual, inverted and diminished
(C) real, inverted and magnified (D) virtual, inverted and magnified
Ans. B
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8. If the angle of minimum deviation is equal to angle of a prism for an equilateral prism, then the speed of light
inside the prism is _______________
(A) 3 108 ms 1 (B) 2 3 108 ms 1
3
(C) 3 108 ms 1 (D) 108 ms 1
2
Ans. C
9. A luminous point object O is placed at a distance 2R from the spherical boundary separating two transparent
media of refractive indices n1 and n2 as shown, where R is the radius of curvature of the spherical surface.
4 3
If n1 , n 2 and R = 10 cm, the image is obtained at a distance from P equal to
3 2
4 3
n1 n2
3 R 2
O P C
2R
(A) 30 cm in the rarer medium (B) 30 cm in the denser medium
(C) 18 cm in the rarer medium (D) 18 cm in the denser medium
Ans. A
10. An equiconvex lens of radius of curvature 14 cm is made up of two different materials. Left half and right
half of vertical portion is made up of material of refractive index 1.5 and 1.2 respectively as shown in the
figure. If a point object is placed at a distance of 40 cm, calculate the image distance.
1.5 1.2
(A) 25 cm (B) 50 cm
(C) 35 cm (D) 40 cm
Ans. D
11. A galaxy is moving away from the Earth so that a spectral line at 600 nm is observed at 601 nm. Then the
speed of the galaxy with respect to the Earth is
(A) 500 km s–1 (B) 50 km s–1
(C) 200 km s–1 (D) 20 km s–1
Ans. A
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12. Three polaroid sheets are co-axially placed as indicated in the diagram. Pass axes of the polaroids 2 and 3
make 30º and 90º with pass axis of polaroid sheet 1. If I0 is the intensity of the incident unpolarised light
entering sheet 1, the intensity of the emergent light through sheet 3 is
PA1 30º PA2
90º
PA3
I0
C C C
1 2 3
3I0
(A) Zero (B)
32
3I0 3I0
(C) (D)
8 16
Ans. B
13. In Young’s double slit experiment, an electron beam is used to produce interference fringes of width 1 . Now
the electron beam is replaced by a beam of protons with the same experimental set-up and same speed. The
fringe width obtained is 2 . The correct relation between 1 and 2 is
(A) 1 2 (B) No fringes are formed
(C) 1 2 (D) 1 2
Ans. D
E
14. Light of energy E falls normally on a metal of work function . The kinetic energies (K) of the photo
3
electrons are
2E E
(A) K (B) K
3 3
2E E
(C) 0 K (D) 0 K
3 3
Ans. C
15. The photoelectric work function for photo metal is 2.4 eV. Among the four wavelengths, the wavelength of
light for which photo-emission does not take place is
(A) 200 nm (B) 300 nm
(C) 700 nm (D) 400 nm
Ans. C
4/14
16. In alpha particle scattering experiment, if v is the initial velocity of the particle, then the distance of closest
approach is d. If the velocity is doubled, then the distance of closest approach becomes
(A) 4d (B) 2d
d d
(C) (D)
2 4
Ans. D
17. The ratio of area of first excited state to ground state of orbit of hydrogen atom is
(A) 1 : 16 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 16 : 1
Ans. C
18. The ratio of volume of Al27 nucleus to its surface area is (Given R 0 1.2 1015 m )
(A) 2.1 1015 m (B) 1.3 1015 m
(C) 0.22 1015 m (D) 1.2 1015 m
Ans. D
19. Consider the nuclear fission reaction
1
0 n 92
235
U 144
56 Ba 36 Kr 30 n
89 1
.
Assuming all the kinetic energy is carried away by the fast neutrons only and total binding energies of
235
92U, 144 89
56 Ba and 36 Kr
to be 1800 MeV, 1200 MeV and 780 MeV respectively, the average kinetic energy
carried by each fast neutron is (in MeV)
(A) 200 (B) 180
(C) 67 (D) 60
Ans. D
20. The natural logarithm of the activity R of a radioactive sample varies with time t as shown. At t = 0, there are
N 0 undecayed nuclei. Then N 0 is equal to [Take e 2 7.5 ]
n R
2
3
t (in 10 s)
10
(A) 7,500 (B) 3,500
(C) 75,000 (D) 1,50,000
Ans. C
21. Depletion region in an unbiased semiconductor diode is a region consisting of
(A) Both free electrons and holes (B) Neither free electrons nor holes
(C) Only free electrons (D) Only holes
Ans. B
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22. The upper level of valence band and lower level of conduction band overlap in the case of
(A) Silicon (B) Copper
(C) Carbon (D) Germanium
Ans. B
23. In the diagram shown, the Zener diode has a reverse breakdown voltage of VZ. The current through the load
resistance RL is IL. The current through the Zener diode is
RS
Vo
IZ IL
VZ RL
Vo VZ Vo VZ
(A) RS (B) RL
VZ Vo VZ
(C) R (D) R IL
L S
Ans. D
24. A p-n junction diode is connected to a battery of emf 5-7 V in series with a resistance 5 k such that it is
forward biased. If the barrier potential of the diode is 0-7 V, neglecting the diode resistance, the current in the
circuit is
(A) 1.14 mA (B) 1 mA
(C) 1 A (D) 1.14 A
Ans. B
25. Dimensional formula for activity of a radioactive substance is
(A) M 0 L1T 1 (B) M 0 L1T 0
(C) M 0 L0 T 1 (D) M 1L0 T 0
Ans. C
26. An athlete runs along a circular track of diameter 80 m. The distance travelled and the magnitude of
th
3
displacement of the athlete when he covers of the circle is (in m)
4
(A) 60, 40 2 (B) 40, 60 2
(C) 120,80 2 (D) 80,120 2
Ans. A
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27. Among the given pair of vectors, the resultant of two vectors can never be 3 units. The vectors are
(A) 1 unit and 2 units (B) 2 units and 5 units
(C) 3 units and 6 units (D) 4 units and 8 units
Ans. D
28. A block of certain mass is placed on a rough inclined plane. The angle between the plane and the horizontal
is 30°. The coefficients of static and kinetic frictions between the block and the inclined plane are 0.6 and 0.5
respectively. Then the magnitude of the acceleration of the block is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
30o
(A) 2 ms-2 (B) zero
(C) 0.196 ms -2 (D) 0.67 ms-2
Ans. B
29. A particle of mass 500 g is at rest. It is free to move along a straight line. The power delivered to the particle
varies with time according to the following graph :
12
10
Power P (watt)
8
6
4
2
1 2 3 4 5 6
Time t(s)
The momentum of the particle at t = 5 s is
(A) 2 2Ns (B) 5 2Ns
(C) 5 Ns (D) 5.5 Ns
Ans. C
30. A ceiling fan is rotating around a fixed axle as shown. The direction of angular velocity along.
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(A) ĵ (B) ĵ
(C) k̂ (D) k̂
Ans. D
31. A body of mass 1 kg is suspended by a weightless string which passes over a frictionless pulley of mass 2 kg
as shown in the figure. The mass is released from a height of 1.6 m from the ground. With what velocity does
it strike the ground ?
2 kg
1 kg
1.6 m
(A) 16 ms 1 (B) 8 ms 1
(C) 4 2 ms 1 (D) 4 ms 1
Ans. D
32. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at a height equal to half the radius of the Earth, from its
surface ?
(A) 4.4 ms 2 (B) 6.5 ms 2
(C) Zero (D) 9.8 ms 2
Ans. A
33. A thick metal wire of density and length 'L' is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the wire
due to its own weight is (Y = Young's modulus of the material of the wire)
gL 1 g L2
(A) (B)
Y 2 Y
g L2 1
(C) (D) g L2
Y 4Y
Ans. B
34. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of varying cross-section at a rate of 0.314 m3s 1 . The velocity of
water at a point where the radius of the pipe is 10 cm is
(A) 0.1 ms 1 (B) 1 ms 1
(C) 10 ms 1 (D) 100 ms 1
Ans. C
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35. A solid cube of mass m at a temperature 0 is heated at a constant rate. It becomes liquid at temperature 1
and vapour at temperature 2 . Let s1 and s 2 be specific heats in its solid and liquid states respectively. If L f
and L v are latent heats of fusion and vaporisation respectively, then the minimum heat energy supplied to the
cube until it vaporises is
(A) ms1 1 0 ms 2 2 1 (B) mL f ms 2 2 1 mL v
(C) ms1 1 0 mLf ms 2 2 1 mL v (D) ms1 1 0 mLf ms 2 2 0 mL v
Ans. C
36. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cyclic process MNOM. The work done by the gas
is
P
M
3 P0
P0 N
O
V
V0 3V0
(A) 4.5 P0 V0 (B) 4 P0 V0
(C) 9 P0 V0 (D) 2 P0 V0
Ans. D
37. The ratio of molar specific heats of oxygen is
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.67
(C) 1.33 (D) 1.28
Ans. A
38. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion (SHM), at its mean position
(A) Velocity is zero and acceleration is maximum (B) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero
(C) Both velocity and acceleration are maximum (D) Both velocity and acceleration are zero
Ans. B
39. A motor-cyclist moving towards a huge cliff with a speed of 18 kmh- 1, blows a horn of source frequency
325 Hz. If the speed of the sound in air is 330 ms- 1, the number of beats heard by him is
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 10 (D) 7
Ans. C
40. A body has a charge of 3.2 C . The number of excess electrons it has is
(A) 5.12 1025 (B) 5 1012
(C) 2 1013 (D) 5.12 1013
Ans. C
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41. A point of charge A of 10 C and another point charge B of 20 C are kept 1 m apart in free space. The
electrostatic force on A due to B is F1 and the electrostatic force on B due to A is F2 . Then
(A) F1 2 F2 (B) F1 F2
(C) 2 F1 F2 (D) F1 F2
Ans. B
42. A uniform electric field E 3 105 NC1 is acting along the positive Y-axis. The electric flux through a
rectangle of area 10cm 30cm whose plane is parallel to the Z-X plane is
(A) 12 103 Vm (B) 9 103 Vm
(C) 15 103 Vm (D) 18 103 Vm
Ans. B
43. The total electric flux through a closed spherical surface of radius ‘r’ enclosing an electric dipole of dipole
moment 2aq is (Given 0 permittivity of free space)
q
(A) Zero (B)
0
2q 8r 2 q
(C) (D)
0 0
Ans. A
44. Under electrostatic condition of a charged conductor, which among the following statements is true?
(A) The electric field on the surface of a charged conductor is 2 , where is the surface charge density
0
(B) The electric potential inside a charged conductor is always zero
(C) Any excess charge resides on the surface of the conductor
(D) The net electric field is tangential to the surface of the conductor
Ans. C
45. A cube of side 1 cm contains 100 molecules each having an induced dipole moment of 0.2 106 C m in an
external electric field of 4 NC1. The electric susceptibility of the material is _____ C2 N 1m2 .
(A) 50 (B) 5
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.05
Ans. Bonus / or best among option according to unit B.
46. A capacitor of capacitance 5 F is charged by a battery of emf 10 V. At an instant of time, the potential
difference across the capacitor is 4 V and the time rate of change of potential difference across the capacitor
is 0.6Vs 1 . Then the time rate at which energy is stored in the capacitor at that instant is
(A) 12 W (B) 3 W
(C) Zero (D) 30 W
Ans. A
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47. E is the electric field inside a conductor whose material has conductivity and resistivity . The current
density inside the conductor is j . The correct form of Ohm’s law is
(A) E j (B) j E
(C) E j .
(D) E j
Ans. C
48. In the circuit shown, the end A is at potential V0 and end B is grounded. The electric current I indicated in
the circuit is
R 2R
+V0 R R R 2R 2R 2R B
A I
R 2R
V0 2V0
(A) (B)
R R
3V0 V0
(C) (D)
R 3R
Ans. D
49. The electric current flowing through a given conductor varies with time as shown in the graph below. The
number of free electrons which flow through a given cross-section of the conductor in the time interval
0 t 20s is
I (in mA)
400
200
t (s)
5 10 15 20 25
(A) 3.125 1019 (B) 1.6 1019
(C) 6.25 1018 (D) 1.625 1018
Ans. A
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50. The I – V graph for a conductor at two different temperatures 100C and 400C is as shown in the figure.
The temperature coefficient of resistance of the conductor is about (in per degree Celsius)
45o
o
30
O
V
(A) 3 103 (B) 6 103
(C) 9 103 (D) 12 103
Ans. A
51. An electric bulb of 60 W, 120 V is to be connected to 220 V source. What resistance should be connected in
series with the bulb, so that the bulb glows properly ?
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 200 (D) 288
Ans. C
52. In an experiment to determine the temperature coefficient of resistance of a conductor, a coil of wire X is
immersed in a liquid. It is heated by an external agent. A meter bridge set up is used to determine resistance
of the coil X at different temperatures. The balancing points measured at temperatures t1 = 0°C and
t2 = 100°C are 50 cm and 60 cm respectively. If the standard resistance taken out is S = 4 Q. in both trials,
the temperature coefficient of the coil is
(A) 0.050 C 1 (B) 0.020 C 1
(C) 0.0050 C 1 (D) 2.00 C 1
Ans. C
53. A moving electron produces
(A) only electric field (B) both electric and magnetic field
(C) only magnetic field (D) neither electric nor magnetic field
Ans. B
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54. A coil having 9 turns carrying a current produces magnetic field B1 at the centre. Now the coil is rewounded
into 3 turns carrying same current. Then the magnetic field at the centre B2 = ____
B1
(A) (B) 9B1
9
B1
(C) 3B1 (D)
3
Ans. A
q
55. A particle of specific charge C kg 1 is projected from the origin towards positive x-axis with the velocity
m
ˆ . The velocity v particle after time t 1 s will be (in ms–1)
10 ms-1 in a uniform magnetic field B 2kT
12
(A) 5 ˆi ˆj
(B) 5 ˆi 3jˆ
(C) 5 3iˆ ˆj (D) 5
3iˆ ˆj
Ans. D
56. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius R carrying current I is 64 times the magnetic field
at a distance x on its axis from the centre of the coil. Then the value of x is
R
(A) 15 (B) R 3
4
R
(C) (D) R 15
4
Ans. D
57. Magnetic hysterisis is exhibited by ________ magnetic materials.
(A) only para (B) only dia
(C) only ferro (D) both para and ferro
Ans. C
58. Magnetic susceptibility of Mg at 300 K is 1.2 105 . What is its susceptibility at 200 K ?
(A) 18 105 (B) 180 105
(C) 1.8 105 (D) 0.18 105
Ans. C
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59. A uniform magnetic field of strength B = 2 mT exists vertically downwards. These magnetic field lines pass
through a closed surface as shown in the figure. The closed surface consists of a hemisphere S1 a right
circular cone S2 and a circular surface S3. The magnetic flux through S1 and S2 are respectively
(A) S1 20Wb, S2 20Wb (B) S1 20Wb, S2 20Wb
(C) S1 40Wb, S2 40Wb (D) S1 40Wb, S2 40Wb
Ans. Bonus / Radius unit is not given
60. In the figure, a conducting ring of certain resistance is falling towards a current carrying straight long conductor.
The ring and conductor are in the same plane. Then the
(A) Induced electric current is zero (B) Induced electric current is anticlockwise
(C) Induced electric current is clockwise (D) Ring will come to rest
Ans. C
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CHEMISTRY
1. Select the correct statement :
(A) Roasting involves heating the ore in the absence of air
(B) Calcination involves heating the ore above its melting point
(C) Smelting involves heating the ore with suitable reducing agent and flux below its melting point
(D) Calcination of calcium carbonate is endothermic
Ans. D
2. NO2 gas is :
(A) Colourless, neutral (B) Colourless, acidic
(C) Brown, acidic (D) Brown, neutral
Ans. C
3. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause depletion of the ozone layer
(B) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of Sun
(C) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes
(D) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation
Ans. D
4. Gold sol in not a :
(A) Macromolecular colloid (B) Lyophobic colloid
(C) Multimolecular colloid (D) Negatively charged colloid
Ans. A
5. The incorrect statement about Hall-Heroult process is :
(A) Carbon anode is oxidised to CO and CO2
(B) Na3AlF6 helps to decrease the melting point of the electrolyte
(C) CaF2 helps to increase the conductivity of the electrolyte
(D) Oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall cell reaction
Ans. D
6. Propanone and Propanal are :
(A) Position isomers (B) Functional isomers
(C) Chain isomers (D) Geometrical isomers
Ans. B
7. Sodium enthanoate on heating with soda lime give ‘X’. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium ethanoate
gives ‘Y’, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are :
(A) Methane and Ethane (B) Methane and Methane
(C) Ethane and Methane (D) Ethane and Ethane
Ans. A
1/9
8. But-1-yne on reaction with dil. H2SO4 in presence of Hg2+ ions at 333 K gives :
(A) (B) CHO
O
O
(C) (D) CHO
Ans. A
9. Biologically active adrenaline and ephedrine used to increase blood pressure contain :
(A) Primary amino group (B) Secondary amino group
(C) Tertiary amino group (D) Quaternary ammonium salt
Ans. B
10. In the reaction
NaNO2 Phenol
Aniline P
Q,
dil. HCl NaOH
‘Q’ is :
(A) C6H5N2Cl (B) ortho-hydroxyazobenzene
(C) para-hydroxyazobenzene (D) meta-hydroxyazobenzene
Ans. C
11. The female sex hormone which is responsible for the development of secondary female characteristics and
participates in the control of menstrual cycle is:
(A) Testosterone (B) Estradiol
(C) Insulin (D) Thyroxine
Ans. B
12. The type of linkage present between nucleotides is :
(A) Phosphoester linkage (B) Phosphodiester linkage
(C) Amide linkage (D) Glycosidic linkage
Ans. B
13. D glucose and D glucose are :
(A) Enantiomers (B) Conformers
(C) Epimers (D) Anomers
Ans. D
14. Which of the following set of polymers are used as fibre?
(i) Teflon (ii) Starch (iii) Terylene (iv) Orlon
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
Ans. C
15. The biodegradable polymer obtained by polymerisation of Glycine and Aminocaproic acid is :
(A) Nylon 6 (B) PHBV
(C) Nylon 2 - Nylon 6 (D) Nylon 6, 10
Ans. C
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CO
16. The compound NH is :
CO
(A) Sucralose (B) Aspartame
(C) Saccharin (D) Alitame
Ans. Bonus
17. Which one of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(A) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (B) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(C) Dodecylbenzene sulphonic acid (D) Dodecylbenzene
Ans. A
18. In the following scheme of reaction,
X
C2H5F
C2H5Cl
Y
CH 2=CH2
Z
C4H10
X, Y and Z respectively are :
(A) AgF, alcoholic KOH and benzene (B) HF, aqueous KOH and Na in dry ether
(C) Hg 2 F2 , alcoholic KOH and Na in dry ether (D) CoF2 , aqueous KOH and benzene
Ans. C
19. 8.8 g of monohydric alcohol added to ethyl magnesium iodide in ether liberates 2240 cm3 of ethane at STP.
This monohydric alcohol when oxidised using pyridinium-chlorochromate, forms a carbonyl compound that
answers silver mirror test (Tollens’ test). The monohydric alcohol is :
(A) butan-2-ol (B) 2, 2-dimethyl propan-1-ol
(C) pentan-2-ol (D) 2, 2-dimethyl ethan-1-ol
Ans. B
20. When a tertiary alcohol ‘A’ C 4 H10 O reacts with 20% H 3 PO 4 at 358 K, it gives a compound ‘B’ (C 4 H 8 ) as
a major product. The IUPAC name of the compound ‘B’ is :
(A) But-1-ene (B) But-2-ene
(C) Cyclobutane (D) 2-Methylpropene
Ans. D
21. PCC is :
(A) K 2 Cr2 O 7 Pyridine
(B) CrO3 CHCl3
(C) CrO3 H 2SO 4
(D) A complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine + HCl
Ans. D
3/9
22. On treating 100 rnL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of the complex CrCl3. 6H2O with excess of AgNO3, 2.86 g of
AgCl was obtained. The complex is :
(A) Cr H 2 O 3 Cl3 .3H 2 O (B) Cr H 2 O 4 Cl2 Cl.2H 2 O
(C) Cr H 2 O 5 Cl Cl2 .H 2 O (D) Cr H 2 O 6 Cl3
Ans. C
23. The complex compounds Co NH 3 5 SO 4 Br and Co NH 3 5 Br SO4 are :
(A) Coordination isomers (B) Geometrical isomers
(C) Optical isomers (D) Ionisation isomer
Ans. D
24. Which of the following statements are true about CoF6
3
ion?
I. The complex has octahedral geometry.
II. Coordination number of Co is 3 and oxidation state is + 6.
III. The complex is sp3d2 hybridised.
IV. It is a high spin complex.
(A) I, II and IV (B) I, III and IV
(C) II and IV (D) II, III and IV
Ans. B
25. A haloalkane undergoes SN 2 or SN 1 reaction depending on :
(A) Solvent used in the reaction (B) Low temperature
(C) The type of halogen atom (D) Stability of the haloalkane
Ans. A
26. 2-Methyl propane can be prepared by Wurtz reaction. The haloalkanes taken along with metallic sodium and
dry ether are :
(A) chloromethane and 2-chloropropane (B) chloroethane and chloromethane
(C) chloroethane and 1-chloropropane (D) chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
Ans. A
27. In the analysis of III group basic radicals of salts, the purpose of adding NH 4 Cl s to NH 4 OH is :
(A) To increase the concentration of OH- ions. (B) To precipitate the radicals of group IV and V.
(C) To suppress the dissociation of NH4OH. (D) To introduce Cl- ions.
Ans. C
28. Solubility product of CaC2O4 at a given temperature in pure water is 4 109 mol L1 . Solubility of CaC2O4
2
at the same temperature is :
(A) 6.3 105 mol L1 (B) 2 105 mol L1
(C) 2 104 mol L1 (D) 6.3 104 mol L1
Ans. A
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29. In the reaction between moist SO2 and acidified permanganate solution :
2
(A) SO 2 is oxidised to SO4 (B) SO 2 is reduced to S
MnO is reduced to Mn
4
2
MnO 4 is oxidised to MnO 4
2
(C) SO 2 is oxidised to SO3 (D) SO 2 is reduced to H 2S
MnO 4 is reduced to MnO 2 MnO 4 is oxidised to MnO 4
Ans. A
30. Which one of the following properties is generally not applicable to ionic hydrides ?
(A) Non-volatile (B) Non-conducting in solid state
(C) Crystalline (D) Volatile
Ans. D
31. Which one of the following nitrate will decompose to give NO2 on heating ?
(A) NaNO3 (B) KNO3
(C) RbNO3 (D) LiNO3
Ans. D
32. Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed ?
(A) CCl4 (B) SiCl 4
(C) GeCl 4 (D) SnCl 4
Ans. A
33. 0.48 g of an. organic compound on complete combustion produced 0.22 g of CO2. The percentage of C in the
given organic compound is :
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 12.5 (D) 87.5
Ans. C
34. In the given sequence of reactions, identify 'P, 'Q', 'R' and'S' respectively.
P Q R S
CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH Br CH CH C6 H 6
| |
Br Br
(A) Br2 , Alc. KOH, NaOH, Al2 O 3 (B) HBr, Alc, KOH, CaC 2 , KMnO 4
(C) HBr, Alc. KOH, NaNH 2 , Red hot iron tube (D) Br2 , Alc. KOH, NaNH 2 , Red hot iron tube
Ans. D
35. The first chlorinated organic insecticide prepared is :
(A) Gammexane (B) Chloroform
(C) COCl2 (D) DDT
Ans. D
36. Which of the following crystals has the unit cell such that a b c and 90o , 120o ?
(A) Zinc blende (B) Graphite
(C) Cinnabar (D) Potassium dichromate
Ans. B
5/9
37. MnO exhibits :
(A) Ferrimagnetism (B) Antiferromagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism (D) Paramagnetism
Ans. B
38. The number of atoms in 4.5 g of a face-centred cubic crystal with edge length 300 pm is :
(Given density = 10 g cm3 and N A 6.022 1023 ) .
(A) 6.6 1020 (B) 6.6 1023
(C) 6.6 1019 (D) 6.6 1022
Ans. D
39. Vapour pressure of a solution containing 18 g of glucose and 178.2 g of water at 100°C is :
(Vapour pressure of pure water at 100°C = 760 torr)
(A) 76.0 torr (B) 752.4 torr
(C) 7.6 torr (D) 3207.6 torr
Ans. B
40. A mixture of phenol and aniline shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. This is due to the formation of:
(A) Polar covalent bond
(B) Non-polar covalent bond
(C) Intermolecular Hydrogen bond
(D) Intramolecular Hydrogen bond
Ans. C
41. Which one of the following pairs will show positive deviation from Raoult’s Law?
(A) Water - HCl (B) Benzene - Methanol
(C) Water - HNO3 (D) Acetone - Chloroform
Ans. B
42. How many Coulombs are required to oxidise 0.1 mole of H2O to oxygen?
(A) 1.93 105 C (B) 1.93 104 C
(C) 3.86 104 C (D) 9.65 103 C
Ans. B
43. A current of 3 A is passed through a molten calcium salt for 1 hr 47 min 13 sec. The mass of calcium
deposited is : (Molar mass of Ca 40g mol1 )
(A) 6.0 g (B) 2.0 g
(C) 8.0 g (D) 4.0 g
Ans. D
44. The value of ‘A’ in the equation m om A C is same for the pair :
(A) NaCl and CaCl2 (B) CaCl2 and MgSO4
(C) NaCl and KBr (D) MgCl2 and NaCl
Ans. C
6/9
45. For the reaction, A B, E a 50 kJ mol1 and H 20kJ mol1. When a catalyst is added, Ea decreases
by 10 kJ mol1. What is the Ea for the backward reaction in the presence of catalyst?
(A) 60kJ mol1 (B) 40 kJ mol1
(C) 70kJ mol1 (D) 20 kJ mol1
Ans. A
46. For the reaction PCl5 PCl3 Cl 2 , rate and rate constant are 1.02 104 mol L1 s1 and
3.4 105 s1 respectively at a given instant. The molar concentration of PCl5 at that instant is :
(A) 8.0mol L1 (B) 3.0molL1
(C) 0.2mol L1 (D) 2.0mol L1
Ans. B
47. Which one of the following does not represent Arrhenius equation?
Ea
(A) log k log A (B) k A e Ea /RT
2.303RT
Ea
(C) ln k ln A (D) k A eEa /RT
RT
Ans. D
48. Identify the incorrect statement :
(A) Values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order compared to values of true solution
(B) Tyndall effect is observed only when diameter of the dispersed particles is not much smaller than
wavelength of incident light
(C) Colour of colloidal solution depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the dispersed particles
(D) Brownian movement is due to balanced bombardment of molecules of dispersion medium on colloidal
particles
Ans. D
49. For the coagulation of positively charged hydrated ferric-oxide sol, the flocculating power of the ions is in the
order :
4 4
(A) PO34 SO24 Cl Fe CN 6 (B) Cl SO 24 PO34 Fe CN 6
4 4
(C) SO24 Cl PO34 Fe CN 6 (D) Fe CN 6 PO34 SO24 Cl
Ans. D
50. For which one of the following mixtures is composition uniform throughout?
(A) Sand and water (B) Grains and pulses with stone
(C) Mixture of oil and water (D) Dilute aqueous solution of sugar
Ans. D
51. The energy associated with first orbit is He+ is
(A) 0J (B) 8.72 10 18 J
(C) 4.58 10 18 J (D) 0.545 10 18 J
Ans. B
7/9
52. A metalloid is
(A) Bi (B) Sb
(C) P (D) Se
Ans. B
53. A pair of isoelectric species having bond order of one is:
(A) N2, CO (B) N2, NO+
(C) O 22 ,F2 (D) CO, NO+
Ans. C
54. Identify the wrong relation for real gases
Videal an 2
(A) Z V (B) Pideal Preal
real V2
a
(C) Vreal Videal nb (D) p 2 V b RT
V
Ans. A & C
55. From the diagram
J
A 2B
J
r H for the reaction C A is
(A) +35J (B) –15J
(C) –35J (D) +15J
Ans. C
56. The transition element ( 5%) present with lanthanoid metal in Misch metal is:
(A) Mg (B) Fe
(C) Zn (D) Co
Ans. B
57. Match the following:
I. Zn2+ i. d8 configuration
II. Cu2+ ii. colourless
III. Ni2+ iii. 1.73BM
I II II
A i ii iii
B ii iii i
C ii i iii
D i iii ii
Ans. B
8/9
58. Which of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorreect?
(A) Lanthanoids are silvery white soft metals
(B) Samarium shows +2 oxidation state
(C) Ce+4 solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in titrimetric analysis
(D) Colour of Lanthanoid ion in solution is due to d–d transition
Ans. D
59. The correct decreasing order of boiling point of hydrogen halides is
(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (B) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(C) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (D) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
Ans. C
249 48
60. The synthetically produced radioactive noble gas by the collision of 98 Cf with 20 Ca is
(A) Radon (B) Radium
(C) Oganesson (D) Xenon
Ans. C
9/9
BIOLOGY
1. The typical ‘lub-dub’ sounds heard during heartbeat are produced due to
(A) Closure of semilunar valves
(B) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(C) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
(D) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
Ans. C
2. The functional unit of contraction is a
(A) Portion of myofibril between two successive Z-lines
(B) Portion of myofibril between two successive M-lines
(C) Centre of the H-zone
(D) Centre of the I-band
Ans. A
3. Match the parts of the brain given in List I with their functions given in List II.
List I List II
(Parts of the brain) (Functions)
1. Medulla oblongata p. Body temperature
2. Hypothalamus q. Olfaction
3. Cerebral cortex r. Respiration
4. Limbic system s. Motor function
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q (B) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
(C) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r (D) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q
Ans. D
4. Hydra reproduces asexually by producing
(A) Zoospores (B) Conidia
(C) Buds (D) Gemmule
Ans. C
5. When male and female gametes are morphologically distinct, the condition is known as
(A) Homogametes (B) Heterogametes
(C) Hermaphrodites (D) Sexual dimorphism
Ans. B
6. The role of Filiform apparatus in synergids is to
(A) Protect the egg apparatus (B) Endosperm formation
(C) Guide the entry of pollen tube (D) Prevention of gamete entry
Ans. C
7. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(A) Xenogamy (B) Autogamy
(C) Cleistogamy (D) Geitonogamy
Ans. D
1/7
8. Match the content of List I with List II :
List I List II
1. Polyembryony p. Black pepper
2. Perisperm q. Banana
3. False fruit r. Lemon
4. Parthenocarpy s. Apple
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q (B) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
(C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r (D) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
Ans. A
9. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta ?
(A) Progestogen (B) hCG
(C) Estrogen (D) LH
Ans. D
10. In human females, the endometrium of uterus consists of
(A) Smooth muscle (B) Glandular layer
(C) Adipose layer (D) Cartilaginous layer
Ans. B
11. If two primary spermatocytes and two primary oocytes undergo meiosis simultaneously, what will be the
ratio of spermatozoa and ova produced at the end of the gametogenesis ?
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 6 : 2 (D) 1 : 2
Ans. B
12. The Government of India legalised MTP with some strict regulations in the year
(A) 1951 (B) 1961
(C) 1971 (D) 2001
Ans. C
13. The process in which a small part of the vas deferences is removed or tied up through a small incision, is
called
(A) MTP (B) Vasectomy
(C) Tubectomy (D) GIFT
Ans. B
14. Test cross in Pea plant is
(A) A cross between F2 tall plant and recessive parent
(B) A cross between F2 dwarf plant and recessive parent
(C) A cross between F2 tall plant with dominant parent
(D) A cross between two F1 plants
Ans. A
15. The genotype ratio of incomplete dominance is
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 : 2 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Ans. B
2/7
16. Find the incorrect statement among the following :
(A) In sex linked recessive traits the gene is transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of male
progeny
(B) Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation
(C) Individuals affected by Down’s Syndrome will have congenital heart defect and are more intelligent
(D) Turner’s Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one X-chromosome
Ans. C
17. In a dihybrid cross between a true breeding round yellow seeded and true breeding wrinkled green seeded
pea plant, the ratio of segregation of round and wrinkled seed traits in F2 is
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 (D) 3 : 3
Ans. B
18. Following representation P, Q and R denote few steps of Griffith Experiment. Identify the correct one(s).
P. R strain Inject into mice Mice die
Q. S strain (Heat killed) Inject into mice Mice die
R. R strain Inject into mice Mice die
(A) P only (B) R only (C) P and R (D) Q and R
Ans. B
19. In tRNA the region that binds with mRNA is
(A) Anticodon loop of tRNA (B) Amino acid acceptor end of tRNA
(C) Amino acyl synthetase loop of tRNA (D) Ribosomal binding loop of tRNA
Ans. A
20. The mRNA has Untranslated Regions (UTRs)
(A) At 3’-end beyond Terminator codon
(B) At 5’-end before AUG
(C) At both 3’-end and 5’-end beyond Terminator codon and before AUG respectively
(D) AUG and Terminator codon flanks the UTR
Ans. C
21. In Structural gene, the template DNA strand has nucleotide sequences 3’-ATGCATGCATGCATGC-5’.
Find the correct and complimentary nucleotide sequence on coding strand.
(A) 5’-ATGCATGCATGCATGC-3’ (B) 3’-GCATGCATGCATGCAT-5’
(C) 5’-TACGTACGTACGTACG-3’ (D) 3’-TACGTACGTACGTACG-5’
Ans. C
22. Read the following statements :
Statement I : All vertebrates develop a row of vestigial gill slits during embryonic stage.
Statement II : Embryos always pass through the adult stages of other animals
Which of the following options is correct with reference to these statements?
(A) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(C) Both Statements I and II are correct
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Ans. A
3/7
23. Stanley Miller simulated the conditions of pre-biotic earth using spark-discharge apparatus. Which organic
compounds were observed by him on analysing the end product of his experiment?
(A) Pigments (B) Fats
(C) Nitrogen bases (D) Amino acids
Ans. D
24. Most ape-like ancestral primate was
(A) Dryopithecus (B) Ramapithecus
(C) Australopithecus (D) Neanderthal man
Ans. A
25. The principle of vaccination is based on which property of immune system?
(A) Memory (B) Specificity
(C) Diversity (D) Plasticity
Ans. A
26. Genome of HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help of an enzyme called
(A) DNA Polymerase (B) RNA Polymerase
(C) Reverse Transcriptase (D) DNA Ligase
Ans. C
27. Read the following statements :
Statement I : Morphine is obtained by acetylation of Heroin.
Statement II : Cannabinoids are known for their effect on cardiovascular system.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to these statements?
(A) Both Statement I and II are correct
(B) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Ans. C
28. Mule is the result of
(A) Out-crossing (B) Cross-breeding
(C) Interspecific hybridization (D) Out-breeding
Ans. C
29. Identify the bacterial disease among the following :
(A) Brown rust of wheat (B) Tobacco mosaic disease
(C) Black rot of crucifers (D) Late blight of potato
Ans. C
30. Match the nutrients given in List I with the source in List II :
List I List II
1. Vitamin A p. Bitter gourd
2. Single cell protein q. Beans
3. Vitamin C r. Carrots
4. Protein s. Spirulina spp
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) 1- p, 2 - q, 3 - r, 4 - s (B) 1 - r, 2 - s, 3 - p, 4 - q
(C) 1 - p, 2 - r, 3 - s, 4 - q (D) 1 - q, 2 - s, 3 - p, 4 - r
Ans. B
4/7
31. The chemical substances which are produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other
microbes are known as
(A) Statins (B) Streptokinases
(C) Cyclosporins (D) Antibiotics
Ans. D
32. Select the correct statement from the following :
(A) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacteria found in the rumen of cattle
(B) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria
(C) Biogas is pure methane
(D) Activated sludge in sediment tanks is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
Ans. D
33. Which of these enzymes is required to cleave a plasmid ?
(A) Ligase (B) Endonuclease
(C) Exonuclease (D) Polymerase
Ans. B
34. DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus is
(A) Thermolabile (B) Thermophobic
(C) Exonuclease (D) Thermostable
Ans. D
35. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to Ampicillin is transferred into E. coli cells, host cells
become transformed into Ampicillin resistant cells. What happens when these E. coli are grown on medium
containing Ampicillin ?
(A) Non-transformants will grow and transformants will die
(B) Non-transformants will die and transformants will grow
(C) Both non-transformants and transformants will die
(D) Both non-transformants and transformants will grow
Ans. B
36. Which of the following is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction ?
(A) PCR (B) ELISA
(C) rDNA technology (D) Gel Electrophoresis
Ans. B
37. Which among the following is used to treat Emphysema ?
(A) Human Hormone Antitrypsin (B) Human Interferon
(C) Human protein Antitrypsin (D) Human Lactalbumin
Ans. C
38. Homeostasis is a condition where the organisms
(A) Maintain a constant internal environment in an everchanging external environment
(B) Do not maintain a constant internal environment
(C) Change their internal environment according to their external environment
(D) Change their internal environment when the external environment is constant
Ans. A
5/7
39. Which of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (B) Absence of adhesive organs or suckers
(C) Loss of digestive system (D) High reproductive capacity
Ans. B
40. Match the type of adaptation given in List I with their examples given in List II. Select the option showing
correct combination.
List I List II
(Type of adaptation) (Examples)
1. Biochemical adaptation p. Desert lizards
2. Behavioural adaptation q. Deep sea fishes
3. Physiological adaptation r. Opuntia
4. Morphological adaptation s. Kangaroo rats
(A) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p (B) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
(C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r (D) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
Ans. C
41. The annual net primary productivity of the biosphere is approximately
(A) 170 billion tons (B) 55 billion tons
(C) 170 million tons (D) 55 million tons
Ans. A
42. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is
(A) Rocks (B) Soil solution
(C) Detritus (D) Atmosphere
Ans. A
43. The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is
(A) Phytoplanktons Scrubs Free floating hydrophytes Rooted hydrophytes Grasses Trees rees
(B) Phytoplanktons Free floating hydrophytes Rooted hydrophytes Trees Scrubs
(C) Free floating hydrophytes Scrubs Phytoplanktons Rooted hydrophytes Grasses Trees
rees
(D) Phytoplanktons Rooted hydrophytes Free floating hydrophytes Reed swamps Marsh
meadows Scrubs Trees
Ans. D
44. A strict protection of biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinction by almost
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 35%
Ans. C
45. Identify the incorrect match with respect to recently extinct animals and their place of extinction according
to IUCN Red List.
(A) Dodo-Mauritius (B) Quagga-Africa
(C) Thylacine-Australia (D) Steller’s Sea Cow-North America
Ans. D
6/7
46. According to the hypothesis proposed by environmental biologists, a relatively constant environment in tropics
promotes
(A) Niche specialization and lesser species diversity.
(B) Niche specialization and greater species diversity.
(C) Niche diversity and lesser species specialization.
(D) Niche diversity and greater species specialization.
Ans. B
47. In the prevention of air pollution, the role of scrubber is to remove
(A) Particulate SO2 (B) Liquid SO2
(C) Gaseous SO2 (D) Liquid SO3
Ans. C
48. Match List I wit h List II and choose the correct answer.
List I List II
1. Nitrogen rich fertilizers p. Ozone depletion
2. Carbon dioxide q. Eutrophication
3. Carbon monoxide r. Greenhouse effect
4. CFC s s. Air pollutant
(A) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r , 4-s (B) 1-q, 2-r , 3-s, 4-p
(C) 1-r, 2-s , 3-p, 4- q (D) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4- r
Ans. B
49. Which of the following exhibits haplodiplontic lifecycle ?
(A) Fucus (B) Chlamydomonas
(C) Gelidium (D) Ectocarpus
Ans. D
50. Identify the phylum which shows the following characteristics :
(1) Animals are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical and diploblastic
(2) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
(3) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
(4) Reproduction only by sexual modes.
(A) Coelenterata (B) Mollusca
(C) Arthropoda (D) Ctenophora
Ans. D
51. When a flower has both stamens and carpels it is described as
(A) Asexual (B) Unisexual
(C) Bisexual (D) Dioecious
Ans. C
52. Ciliated epithelial cells are present in
(A) Kidneys (B) Intestines
(C) Blood Vessels (D) Bronchioles
Ans. D
7/7
53. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to vacuoles ?
(A) It is membrane bound and contains storage proteins and lipids.
(B) It is membrane bound and contains water and excretory substance.
(C) It lacks membrane and contains air.
(D) It lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances.
Ans. B
54. Exoskeleton of Arthropods is made up of unique complex polysaccharide known as
(A) Hyaluronic Acid (B) Chitin
(C) Waxes (D) Cellulose
Ans. B
55. The enzyme Recombinase is required at which stage of Meiosis I ?
(A) Pachytene (B) Zygotene
(C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis
Ans. A
56. The water potential of pure water is
(A) One (B) More than one
(C) Zero (D) Less than zero
Ans. C
57. Match the pigments given in List I with their colour in chromatogram given in List II.
List I List II
(Pigments) (Colour in chromatogram)
1. Chlorophyll ‘b’ p. Yellow orange
2. Carotenoids , q. Orange red
3. Chlorophyll 'a' r. Yellow
4. Xanthophylls. s. Blue green
t. Yellow green
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) 1-s, 2-t, 3-r, 4-q (B) 1-t, 2-p, 3-s, 4- r
(C) l-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-t (D) 1-t, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s
Ans. B
58. Which is the intermediate compound that links the end product of Glycolysis wit h TCA Cycle ?
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvic Acid
(C) OAA (D) Citric Acid
Ans. A
59. Auxins : Apical dominance : : Gibberellins_______________.
(A) Adventitious shoot formation (B) Accelerates abscission
(C) Closure of stomata (D) Bolting
Ans. D
60. The term Uremia refers to
(A) Accumulation of Urea in blood. (B) Presence of Glucose in the urine.
(C) Accumulation of Uric acid in blood. (D) Accumulation of Uric acid in kidneys.
Ans. A
8/7
CODE : B-4
KCET – 2023 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER KEY
(HELD ON SUNDAY 21ST MAY 2023)
PHYSICS
1. The torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in uniform magnetic field is zero, when the angle between the
dipole axis and the magnetic field is _____.
(A) 60o (B) 90o
(C) Zero (D) 45o
Ans. C
2. The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field at a place is 3 105 T . If the dip at that place is 45o , the
resultant magnetic field at that place is
3
(A) 3 105 T (B) 3 2 10 5 T
2
3
(C) 3 105 T (D) 10 5 T
2
Ans. B
3. A proton and an alpha-particle moving with the same velocity enter a uniform magnetic field with their
velocities perpendicular to the magnetic field. The ratio of radii of their circular paths is
(A) 4 :1 (B) 1: 2
(C) 2 :1 (D) 1: 4
Ans. B
4. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter of range 0 to 5mA . The galvanometer resistance
is 90 and the shunt resistance has a value of 10 . If there are 50 divisions in the galvanometer-turned-
ammeter on either sides of zero, its current sensitivity is
(A) 2 104 A / div (B) 1 105 div / A
(C) 2 104 div / A (D) 1 105 A / div
Ans. B
1/9
CODE : B-4
5. A positively charged particle of mass m is passed through a velocity selector. It moves horizontally
2mv
rightward without deviation along the line y with a speed v . The electric field is vertically downwards
qB
and magnetic field is into the plane of the paper. Now, the electric field is switched off at t 0 . The angular
m
momentum of the charged particle about origin O at t is
qB
y
q v
O x
E
B
mE 3
(A) Zero (B)
qB 2
mE 2 2mE 2
(C) (D)
qB3 qB3
Ans. A/None
6. The Curie temperatures of Cobalt and iron are 1400 K and 1000K respectively. At T 1600 K , the ratio of
magnetic susceptibility of Cobalt to that of iron is
7 5
(A) (B)
5 7
1
(C) (D) 3
3
Ans. D
7. An ideal transfomer has a turns ratio of 10. When the primary is connected to 220 V,50 Hz ac source, the
power output is
(A) Equal to power input (B) Zero
th
1
(C) 10 times the power input (D) the power input
10
Ans. A
8. The current in a coil changes from 2A to 5A in 0.3s . The magnitude of emf induced in the coil is 1.0 V .
The value of self-inductance of the coil is
(A) 0.1mH (B) 10mH
(C) 1.0 mH (D) 100 mH
Ans. D
2/9
CODE : B-4
9. A metallic rod of length 1 m held along east-west direction is allowed to fall down freely. Given horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field BH 3 105 T . The emf induced in the rod at an instant t = 2s after it
is released is ( Take g 10ms 2 )
(A) 3 10 4 V (B) 6 103 V
(C) 6 104 V (D) 3 10 3 V
Ans. C
10. A square loop of side 2 cm enters a magnetic field with a constant speed of 2cm s 1 as shown. The front
edge enters the field at t = 0s. Which of the following graph correctly depicts the induced emf in the loop?
( Take clockwise direction positive)
2 cm
B = 0.5 T
10 cm
e e
2 104 V 2 104 V
0 1 t 0 1 t
(A) 5 6 (B) 5 6
e e
2 104 V 2 104 V
5 6 5 6
0 t 0 t
(C) 1 (D) 1
Ans. B
11. In series LCR circuit at resonance, the phase difference between voltage and current is
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) Zero (D)
Ans. C
3/9
CODE : B-4
3
12. An equiconvex lens made of glass of refractive index has focal length f in air. It is completely immersed
2
4
in water of refractive index . The percentage change in the focal length is
3
(A) 400% decrease (B) 300% increase
(C) 400% increase (D) 300% decrease
Ans. B
13. A point object is moving at a constant speed of 1ms 1 along the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length
10cm. The speed of the image is also 1ms 1 , when the object is at ___ cm from the optic centre of the lens.
(A) 20 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) 15
Ans. A
14. When light propagates through a given homogeneous medium, the velocities of
(A) Primary wavefronts are greater than or equal to those of secondary wavelets.
(B) Primary wavefronts and wavelets are equal
(C) Primary wavefronts are larger than those of secondary wavelets
(D) Primary wavefronts are lesser than those of secondary wavelets
Ans. B
15. Total impedance of a series LCR circuit varies with angular frequency of the AC source connected to it as
shown in the graph. The quality factor Q of the series LCR circuit is
Z
2Zmin
Zmin
rad.s1
100 200 300 400 500 600
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 0.4 (D) 2.5
Ans. D
16. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric field to the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is of the
order of
(A) 105 ms 1 (B) 108 ms 1
(C) 108 ms 1 (D) 105 ms 1
Ans. B
17. For a point object, which of the following always produces virtual image in air?
(A) Convex mirror (B) Biconvex lens
(C) Concave mirror (D) Plano-Convex lens
Ans. A
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CODE : B-4
18. For a given pair of transparent media, the critical angle for which colour is maximum?
(A) Blue (B) Violet
(C) Green (D) Red
Ans. D
19. In the Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment, as the impact parameter increases, the scattering angle
of the alpha particle
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Remains the same (D) Is always 90°
Ans. A
20. Three energy levels of hydrogen atom and the corresponding wavelength of the emitted radiation due to
different electron transition are as shown. Then.
E3
3
E2
1 2
E1
(B) 2
1 3
(A) 2 1 3
1 3
(C) 3 (D) 1
1 2 2 3
1 2 2 3
Ans. B
21. An unpolarised light of intensity I is passed through two polaroids kept one after the other with their
I
planes parallel to each other. The intensity of light emerging from second polaroid is . The angle
4
between the pass axes of the polaroids is
(A) 60° (B) 30°
(C) 45° (D) 0°
Ans. C
22. In the Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light passing through each of the two double slits is
2 102 Wm2 . The screen-slit distance is very large in comparison with slit-slit distance. The fringe width
is . The distance between the central maximum and a point P on the screen is x . Then the total
3
light intensity at that point is
(A) 2 102 Wm2 (B) 16 102 Wm2
(C) 8 102 Wm 2 (D) 4 102 Wm2
Ans. A
23. A 60 W source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 662.5 nm. The number of photons emitted per
second is
(A) 5 106 (B) 2 109
(C) 5 1017 (D) 2 1020
Ans. D
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CODE : B-4
24. In an experiment to study photo-electric effect the observed variation of stopping potential with frequency of
incident radiation is as shown in the figure. The slope and y-intercept are respectively
Stopping
Potential
(VO)
o
Frequency of
Incident
Radiation(v)
h h
(A) , (B) h, h 0
e e
h h 0 hv
(C) , (D) , 0
e e e
Ans. C
25. A full-wave rectifier with diodes D1 and D2 is used to rectify 50 Hz alternating voltage. The diode D1
conducts ________ times in one second.
(A) 75 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 25
Ans. B
26. The truth table for the given circuit is
A
Y
B
A B Y A B Y
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
(A) 0 1 1 (B) 0 1 1
0 0 1 0 0 0
A B Y A B Y
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 0
(C) 0 1 0 (D) 0 1 1
0 0 1 0 0 1
Ans. A
27. The energy gap of an LED is 2.4 eV. When the LED is switched ‘ON’, the momentum of the emitted
photons is
(A) 1.28 1011 kg.m.s1 (B) 0.64 1027 kg.m.s1
(C) 1.28 1027 kg.m.s1 (D) 2.56 1027 kg.m.s 1
Ans. C
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CODE : B-4
28. In the following equation representing decay, the number of neutrons in the nucleus X is
210
83 Bi X e1 v
(A) 125 (B) 84
(C) 126 (D) 127
Ans. C
29. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest emits an alpha particle. If the Q value of reaction is 5.5 MeV,
calculate the value of kinetic energy of alpha particle.
(A) 7.4 MeV (B) 4.5 MeV
(C) 6.5 MeV (D) 5.4 MeV
Ans. D
30. A radioactive sample has half-life of 3 years. The time required for the activity of the sample to reduce to
1
th of its initial value is about
5
(A) 15 years (B) 5 years
(C) 10 years (D) 7 years
Ans. D
31. When a p-n junction diode is in forward bias, which type of charge carriers flows in the connective wire?
(A) Protons (B) Holes
(C) Free electrons (D) Ions
Ans. C
32. A ball of mass 0.2kg is thrown vertically down from a height of 10m. It collides with the floor and loses 50%
of its energy and then rises back to the same height. The value of its initial velocity is
(A) 196 ms-1 (B) 20 ms-1
(C) Zero (D) 14 ms-1
Ans. D
33. The moment of inertia of a rigid body about an axis
(A) Depends on the positions of axis of rotation (B) Does not depend on its size
(C) Does not depend on its mass (D) Does not depend on its shape
Ans. A
34. Seven identical discs are arranged in a planar pattern, so as to touch each other as shown in the figure. Each
disc has mass ‘m’ radius R. What is the moment of inertia of system of six discs about an axis passing
through the center of central disc and normal to plane of all discs?
mR 2 mR 2
(A) 55 (B) 85
2 2
(C) 27mR 2 (D) 100mR 2
Ans. A
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35. The true length of a wire is 3.678cm. When the length of this wire is measured using instrument A, the
length of the wire is 3.5 cm. When the length of the wire is measured using instrument B, it is found to have
length 3.38 cm. Then the
(A) Measurement with B is more accurate and precise
(B) Measurement with A is more precise while measurement with B is more accurate
(C) Measurement with A is more accurate and precise
(D) Measurement with A is more accurate while measurement with B is more precise
Ans. D
36. A body is moving along a straight line with initial velocity v0. Its acceleration a is constant. After t seconds,
its velocity becomes v. The average velocity of the body over the given time interval is
v 2 v02 v 2 v 02
(A) v (B) v
at 2at
v 2 v 02 v 2 v02
(C) v (D) v
at 2at
Ans. B
37. A particle is in uniform circular motion. Related to one complete revolution of the particle, which among the
statements is correct?
(A) Average speed of the particle is zero
(B) Average velocity of the particle is zero
(C) Average acceleration of the particle is zero
(D) Displacement of the particle is zero
Ans. A
38. A body of mass 10kg is kept on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the body and
the surface is 0.5. A horizontal force of 60N is applied on the body. The resulting acceleration of the body is
about
(A) 6 ms-2 (B) Zero
(C) 1 ms-2 (D) 5 ms-2
Ans. C
39. The P – V diagram of a Carnot’s engine is shown in the graph below. The engine uses 1 mole of an ideal gas
as working substance. From the graph, the area enclosed by the P – V diagram is
[The heat supplied to the gas is 8000 J]
A
1600
B
1200
D
P(kPa)
800
C
400
1.25 2.5 3.75 5.0 6.25
3
V(cm )
(A) 3000 J (B) 1000 J
(C) 1200 J (D) 2000 J
Ans. A
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CODE : B-4
40. When a planet revolves around the Sun, in general, for the planet
(A) Kinetic and potential energy of the planet are constant.
(B) Angular momentum about the Sun and aerial velocity of the planet are constant.
(C) Linear momentum and linear velocity are constant.
(D) Linear momentum and aerial velocity are constant.
Ans. B
41. A stretched wire of a material whose Young’s modulus Y 2 1011 Nm 2 has Poisson’s ratio 0.25. Its lateral
strain 103 . The elastic energy density of the wire is
(A) 4 105 J m 3 (B) 8 105 J m 3
(C) 16 105 J m 3 (D) 1 105 J m 3
Ans. C
42. A closed water tank has cross-sectional area A. It has a small hole at a depth of h from the free surface of
A
water. The radius of the hole is r so that r . If Po is the pressure inside the tank above water level,
and Pa is the atmospheric pressure, the rate of flow of the water coming out of the hole is
[ is the density of water]
P0
h
2r
H
2 Po Pa
(B) r gh
2
(A) r 2 2gH
2 Po Pa
(D) r 2gh
2
(C) r 2 2gh
Ans. D
43. 100 g of ice at 0o C is mixed with 100 g of water at 100o C . The final temperature of the mixture is
[Take Lf 3.36 105 J kg 1 and Sw 4.2 103 J kg 1k 1 ]
(A) 50o C (B) 1o C
(C) 40o C (D) 10o C
Ans. D
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CODE : B-4
44. In the situation shown in the diagram, magnitude of q << |Q| and r >> a. The net force on the free charge
–q and net torque on it about O at the instant shown are respectively
[p= 2aQ is the dipole moment]
-q
p
r
B
A +
–Q O +Q
a a
1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ
(A) 4 r 2 k, 4 r 3 i (B) 4 r 3 i, 4 r 2 k
0 0 0 0
1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ 1 pq ˆ
(C) 4 r 3 i, 4 r 2 k (D) 4 r 2 k, 4 r 3 i
0 0 0 0
Ans. C
45. Pressure of ideal gas at constant volume is proportional to ____.
(A) Total energy of the gas (B) Average kinetic energy of the molecules
(C) Force between the molecules (D) Average potential energy of the molecules
Ans. A
46. A block of mass m is connected to a light spring of force constant k. The system is placed inside a damping
medium of damping constant b. The instantaneous values of displacement, acceleration and energy of the
block are x, a and E respectively. The initial amplitude of oscillation is A and ' is the angular frequency of
oscillations. The incorrect expression related to the damped oscillation is
1 2 btm d2 x dx
(A) E kA e (B) m b kx 0
2 dt 2 dt
b k b2
(C) x Ae m
cos 't (D) '
m 4m 2
Ans. C
47. The speed of sound in an ideal gas at a given temperature T is v. The rms speed of gas molecules at that
temperature is v rms . The ratio of the velocities v and v rms for helium and oxygen gases are X and X’
X
respectively. Then is equal to
X'
5 21
(A) (B)
21 5
21 5
(C) (D)
5 21
Ans. D
10 / 9
CODE : B-4
48. A positively charged glass rod is brought near uncharged metal sphere, which is mounted on an insulated
stand. If the glass rod is removed, the net charge on the metal sphere is
(A) 1.6 1019 C (B) Positive charge
(C) Negative charge (D) Zero
Ans. D
49. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C1 with a dielectric slab in between its plates is connected to a
battery. It has a potential difference V1 across its plates. When the dielectric slab is removed, keeping the
capacitor connected to the battery, the new capacitance and potential difference are C2 and V2 respectively.
Then,
(A) V1 V2 ,C1 C 2 (B) V1 V2 ,C1 C 2
(C) V1 V2 ,C1 C 2 (D) V1 V2 ,C1 C 2
Ans. B
50. A cubical Gaussian surface has side of length a = 10 cm. Electric field lines are parallel to x-axis as shown.
The magnitudes of electric fields through surfaces ABCD and EFGH are 6kNC1 and9kNC1 respectively..
Then the total charge enclosed by the cube is Take 0 9 10 Fm
12 1
Y
A E
D H
F
X
B
C G
Z
(A) –1.35 nC (B) 0.27 nC
(C) –0.27 nC (D) 1.35 nC
Ans. B
51. Electric field at a distance ‘r’ from an infinitely long uniformly charged straight conductor, having linear
charge density is E1 . Another uniformly charged conductor having same linear charge density is bent
into a semicircle of radius ‘r’. The electric field at its centre is E2. Then
(A) E1 E 2 (B) E1 rE 2
E1
(C) E 2 rE1 (D) E 2
r
Ans. A
11 / 9
CODE : B-4
52. Five capacitors each of value 1F are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent capacitance between
A and B is
1 F 1 F
A 1 F B
1 F 1 F
(A) 2 F (B) 5 F
(C) 3 F (D) 1F
Ans. D
53. A uniform electric field vector E exists along horizontal direction as shown. The electric potential at A is VA.
A small point charge q is slowly taken from A to B along the curved path as shown. The potential energy of
the charge when it is at point B is
x
A B
E
(A) q Ex VA (B) qEx
(C) q VA Ex (D) q VA Ex
Ans. C
54. Ten identical cells each emf 2V and internal resistance 1 are connected in series with two cells wrongly
connected. A resistor of 10 is connected to the combination. What is the current through the resistor?
(A) 0.6 A (B) 1.2 A
(C) 1.8 A (D) 2.4 A
Ans. A
55. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B in the following circuit is
2 2 2
A
2 2 2
B
2 2 2
(A) 0.05 (B) 5
(C) 0.5 (D) 5.5
Ans. D
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CODE : B-4
56. A charged particle is subjected to acceleration in a cyclotron as shown. The charged particle undergoes
increase in its speed
(A) Inside D1 , D 2 and the gaps (B) Only inside D1
(C) Only in the gap between D1 and D 2 (D) Only inside D 2
Ans. C
57. The resistance of a carbon resistor is 4.7 k 5% . The colour of the third band is
(A) Violet (B) Orange
(C) Gold (D) Red
Ans. D
58. The four bands of a colour coded resistor are of the colours gray, red, gold and gold. The value of the
resistance of the resistor is
(A) 8.2 5% (B) 82 5%
(C) 5.2 5% (D) 82 10%
Ans. A
59. A wire of resistance R is connected across a cell of emf and internal resistance r. The current through the
circuit is I. In time t, the work done by the battery to establish the current I is
(A) IRt (B) I 2 Rt
2 t
(C) It (D)
R
Ans. C
60. For a given electric current the drift velocity of conduction electrons in a copper wire is v and their mobility
is . When the current is increased at constant temperature
(A) vd decreases, remains the same (B) vd remains the same, decreases
(C) v d increases, remains the same (D) v d remains the same, increases
Ans. C
13 / 9
CODE : D-4
KCET – 2023 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER KEY
(HELD ON SUNDAY 21ST MAY 2023)
CHEMISTRY
1. Compounds P and R in the following reaction are
i CH3MgBr
CH3CHO ii H O
P
conc.H 2SO4
heat
Q
i B2 H 6 R
3
ii H 2O2 /OH
(A) Metamers (B) Identical
(C) Position isomers (D) Functional isomers
Ans. C
2. Aniline does not undergo
(A) Friedel-Craft reaction (B) Bromination
(C) Nitration (D) Sulphonation
Ans. A
3. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces an aromatic compound A which on treatment with con.
HNO3 gives B. A and B respectively are,
(A) Iodobenzene, l-Iodo-4-nitrobenzene (B) Phenol, Picric acid
(C) Methanol, Ethanoic acid (D) Picric acid, Phenol
Ans. B
OH
NaOH (i) CO2 (i) (CH 3CO) 2 O
4.
A B
Y (Major product)
(ii) H+ (ii) H +
Y in the above reaction is
(A) Cumene (B) Picric acid
(C) Salicylaldehyde (D) Aspirin
Ans. D
5. A better reagent to oxidize primary alcohols into aldehyde is :
(A) Acidified K 2 Cr2 O 7 (B) CrO 3
(C) PCC (D) Alkaline KMnO 4
Ans. C
6. In the reaction :
i SnCl HCl
C 6 H 5 CN 2
ii H O
X
con.KOH
Y Z
3
Formation of X, formation of Y and Z are known by
(A) Wolff-Kishner reduction, Wurtz reaction. (B) Stephen reaction, Cannizaro reaction
(C) Rosenmund reduction, Cannizaro reaction (D) Clemmensen reduction, Sandmeyer reaction.
Ans. B
Page No.: 1
CODE : D-4
7. In the reaction :
+ +
NH 2 N 2 Cl N 2 BF4 NO 2
P Q R
P, Q and R respectively are :
(A) NaNO 2 dil.HCl, BF3 ,Cu NaNO 2 (B) NaNO3 dil.HCl, F2 ,Cu NaNO 3
(C) NaNO 2 dil.HCl, HBF4 ,Cu NaNO 2 (D) NaNO 2 con.HCl, F2 , Cu NaNO 3
Ans. C
8. Thyroxine produced in the thyroid gland is an iodinated derivative of
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Threonine (D) Lysine
Ans. A
9. Sucrose is dextrorotatory but after hydrolysis the mixture show laevorotation, this is because of
(A) Recemic mixture is formed.
(B) Laevorotation of fructose is more than dextrorotation of glucose.
(C) Laevorotation of glucose is more than dextrorotation of fructose.
(D) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar
Ans. B
10. The correct order of match between column X and column Y is :
X Y
I. Vitamin A i. Muscular weakness
II. Vitamin D ii. Increased blood clotting time
III. Vitamin E iii. Night-blindness
IV. Vitamin K iv. Osteomalacia
(A) I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i (B) I - iii, II - iv, III - i, IV - ii
(C) I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - i (D) I - ii, II - i, III - iii, IV - iv
Ans. B
11. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymers ?
(A) Phenol and formaldehyde
(B) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
(C) Ethylene glycol and pthalic acid
(D) Caprolactum and 1,3- Butadiene
Ans. B
Page No.: 2
CODE : D-4
12. Match the List-I with List-II in the following
List-I List-II
(a) (CH 2 CH) n
1.Caprolactum
CH 3
2.Vinyl chloride (b) (CH 2 CH) n
C 6 H5
3.Styrene (c) (CH 2 CH) n
Cl
O
4.Propene (d) (C(CH 2 )5 N)n
H
(A) 1-d,2-c, 3-a,4-b (B) 1-d,2-c, 3-b,4-a
(C) 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b (D) 1-a,2-d,3-c,4-b
Ans. B
13. Which one of the following is a non-narcotic analgesic ?
(A) Aspirin (B) Morphine
(C) Heroin (D) Codeine
Ans. A
14. Receptors are proteins and crucial to body communication process. These receptors are embedded in
(A) Endocrine gland (B) Chromosomes
(C) Cell membrane (D) Protein
Ans. C
2 rd
15. A gas at a pressure of 2 atm is heated from 25 °C to 323 °C and simultaneously compressed to of
3
its original value. Then the final pressure is
(A) 2 atm (B) 4 atm
(C) 1.33 atm (D) 6 atm
Ans. D
16. Lattice enthalpy for NaCl is + 788 kJ mol–1 and Hº 784 kJ mol 1. Enthalpy of solution of NaCl is
Hyd
(A) –572 kJ mol–1 (B) –4 kJ mol–1
(C) + 572 kJ mol–1 (D) +4 kJ mol–1
Ans. D
17. At 500 K, for a reversible reaction A 2 g B2 g 2AB g in a closed container, K C 2 105. In the presence
of catalyst, the equilibrium is attaining 10 times faster. The equilibrium constant KC in the presence of
catalyst at the same temperature is
(A) 2 10 10 (B) 2 10 5
(C) 2 10 4 (D) 2 10 6
Ans. B
Page No.: 3
CODE : D-4
18. A weak acid with pKa 5.9 and weak base with pKb 5.8 are mixed in equal proportions pH of the resulting
solution is
(A) 7 (B) 7.05
(C) 7.005 (D) 7.5
Ans. B
19. Temperature of 25 ºC in Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale respectively are
(A) 45 ºF and 260.15 K (B) 47 ºF and 312.15 K
(C) 77 ºF and 298.15 K (D) 17 ºF and 298.15 K
Ans. C
20. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the ion 32
16 S2 respectively are
(A) 18, 16, 16 (B) 16, 16, 16
(C) 16, 18, 16 (D) 16, 16, 18
Ans. D
21. The correct order of first ionisation enthalpy of given elements is
(A) C < B < Be < Li (B) Li < Be < B < C
(C) Li < B < Be < C (D) Be < Li < B < C
Ans. C
22. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT ?
(A) Bond length of O2 < Bond length of O22 (B) Bond order of O2 > Bond order of O22
(C) Bond length of O2 > Bond length of O22 (D) Bond order of O2 < Bond order of O22
Ans. D
23. IUPAC name of the compound is
(A) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetra methylethene (B) 2, 3 – dimethyl butene
(C) 2, 3 – dimethylbut-2-ene (D) 2, 3 – dimethyl butyne
Ans. C
24. Among the following:
:
I II III IV V
The set which represents aromatic species is
(A) II and III (B) I , II and IV
(C) I, II and III (D) III, IV and V
Ans. B
25. Which one of the following gases converts haemoglobin into carboxy haemoglobin ?
(A) NO (B) CO2
(C) CO (D) O2
Ans. C
Page No.: 4
CODE : D-4
26. What is the oxidation number of S in H2S2O8?
(A) +7 (B) +6
(C) +5 (D) +4
Ans. B
27. A 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide is
(A) '50 volume' hydrogen peroxide (B) '100 volume' hydrogen peroxide
(C) '30 volume' hydrogen peroxide (D) '10 volume' hydrogen peroxide
Ans. B
28. A pair of amphoteric oxides is
(A) BeO, MgO (B) BeO, ZnO
(C) Al2O3, Li2O (D) BeO, BO3
Ans. B
29. The composition of water gas is
(A) CO g H 2 O g (B) CO g H 2
g
(C) CO g N 2
g
(D) CH 4 g
Ans. B
30. The swelling in feet and ankles of an aged person due to sitting continuously for long hours during travel, is
reduced by soaking the feet in warm salt water. This is because of:
(A) Edema (B) Diffusion
(C) Reverse Osmosis (D) Osmosis
Ans. D
w w
31. A sample of water is found to contain 5.85% of AB (molecular mass 58.5) and 9.50% XY2
w w
(molecular mass 95). Assuming 80% ionisation of AB and 60% ionisation of XY2 , the freezing point of water
sample is
[Given : K f for water 1.86 K kg mol1 , Freezing point of pure water is 273 K and A, B and Y are monovalent
ions]
(A) 280.44 K (B) 281.75 K
(C) 264.25 K (D) 265.56 K
Ans. C
32. Match the column A (type of crystalline solid) with the column B (example for each type):
A B
P. Molecular Solid i. SiC
Q. Ionic Solid ii. Mg
R. Metallic Solid iii. H2O
S. Network Solid iv. MgO
(A) P - ii, Q - iv, R - iii, S - i (B) P - iii, Q - iv, R - ii, S - i
(C) P - iii, Q - i, R - ii, S - iv (D) P - iv, Q - iii, R - ii, S - i
Ans. B
Page No.: 5
CODE : D-4
o
33. A metal crystallises in a body centered cubic lattice with the metallic radius 3 A . The volume of the unit
cell in m3 is
(A) 6.4 1029 (B) 4 10 10
(C) 64 1029 (D) 4 10 29
Ans. A
34. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems - The ratio of radii in simple cubic, body centered cubic
and face centered cubic unit cells is
1 3 2 1 1
(A) a: a: a (B) a : 3a : a
2 2 2 2 2
1 3 1
(C) 1a : 3a : 2a (D) a: a: a
2 4 2 2
Ans. D
35. Dimerisation of solute molecules in low dielectric constant solvent is due to :
(A) Co-ordinate bond (B) Ionic bond
(C) Hydrogen bond (D) Covalent bond
Ans. C
36. For a reaction, the value of rate constant at 300 K is 6.0 105 s 1 . The value of Arrhenius factor A at
infinitely high temperature is :
6 105
(A) (B) 6 105
300
(C) 6 105 e Ea /300R (D) e Ea /300R
Ans. B
37. The rate constants k1 and k 2 for two different reactions are 1016 e 2000/T and 1015 e 1000/T respectively..
The temperature at which k1 k 2 is :
1000
(A) K (B) 1000 K
2.303
2000
(C) K (D) 2000 K
2.303
Ans. A
38. During the electrolysis of brine, by using inert electrodes,
(A) Na deposits on cathode (B) Cl 2 liberates at anode
(C) O 2 liberates at anode (D) H 2 liberates at anode
Ans. B
Page No.: 6
CODE : D-4
39. Consider the following 4 electrodes
A : Ag 0.0001M / Ag s ;B : Ag 0.1M / Ag s
C : Ag 0.01M / Ag s ;D : Ag 0.001M / Ag s ;E Ag /Ag 0.80 V.
Then reduction potential in volts of the electrodes in the order
(A) A > D > C > B (B) A > B > C > D
(C) B > C > D > A (D) C > D > A > B
Ans. C
40. The resistance of 0.1 M weak acid HA in a conductivity cell is 2 103 Ohm. The cell constant of the cell is
0.78 C m 1 and m of acid HA is 390 S cm2 mol–1. The pH of the solution is
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 3.3 (D) 4.2
Ans. B
41. In which one of the following reactions, rate constant has the unit mol L–1 s–1.
(A) 2NO g O 2g 2NO2g
(B) Decomposition of HI on the surface of Gold
(C) Acid catalysed hydrolysis of CH 3 COOCH 3
(D) CHCl3 Cl2 CCl4 HCl
Ans. B
42. For the formation of which compound in Ellingham diagram G becomes more and more negative with
increase in temperature ?
(A) ZnO (B) Cu 2 O
(C) CO (D) FeO
Ans. C
43. Which of the following compound does not give dinitrogen on heating ?
(A) NH 4 NO 3 (B) NH 4 2 Cr2 O 7
(C) Ba N 3 2 (D) NH 4 NO 2
Ans. A
44. Aqueous solution of raw sugar when passed over beds of animal charcoal, it becomes colourless. Pick the
correct set of terminologies that can be used for the above example.
Adsorbent Adsorbate Process
A AnimalCharcoal ColouringSubstance Adsorption
B ColouringSubstance Animal Charcoal Adsorption
C Solution of Sugar AnimalCharcoal Sorption
D AnimalCharcoal Solution of Sugar Absorption
Ans. A
Page No.: 7
CODE : D-4
45. For Freundlich adsorption isotherm, a graph of log (x/m) Vs. log (P) gives a straight line. The slope of line
and its Y-axis intercept respectively are
1 1
(A) log ,log K (B) ,K
n n
1 1
(C) log ,K (D) , log K
n n
Ans. D
46. When FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water gives a sol ‘X’. When FeCl3 is added to NaOH aq solution,
gives sol ‘Y’.
X and Y formed in the above processes respectively are
(A) Fe2 O3 .xH 2 O / Cl and Fe2 O3 .xH 2 O / OH (B) Fe2 O3 .xH 2 O / Fe3 and Fe2 O3 .xH 2 O / OH
(C) Fe2 O3 .xH 2 O / OH and Fe 2 O3 .xH 2 O / Fe3 (D) Fe2O3.xH 2O / H and Fe2O3 .xH 2O / Na
Ans. B
47. The reducing agent in the given equations :
4 Ag s 8 CN aq 2H 2 O aq O 2g 4 Ag CN 2 4 OH aq
aq
2
2 Ag CN 2 Zn s Zn CN 4 2Ag s
aq aq
(A) H 2 O (B) CN
(C) Zn (D) O 2
Ans. C
48. Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to melting point of a transition element?
(A) Mn > Fe (B) Ti > V
(C) V > Cr (D) Cr > Mn
Ans. D
49. aMnO 4 bS2 O32 H 2O xMnO 2 ySO42 zOH a and y respectively are
(A) 3 ; 6 (B) 8 ; 8
(C) 8 ; 3 (D) 8 ; 6
Ans. D
50. Which formula and name combination is INCORRECT?
(A) CoCl 2 en 2 Cl - Dichloridodiethylenediammine cobalt (II) chloride
(B) Co NH 3 4 H 2 O Cl Cl 2 - Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride
(C) K 3 Al C2 O 4 3 - Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
(D) Pt NH3 2 Cl NO 2 - Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (II)
Ans. A
Page No.: 8
CODE : D-4
51. Which of the following system in an octahedral complex has maximum unpaired electrons?
(A) d 4 (low spin) (B) d7 (high spin)
(C) d9 (high spin) (D) d6 (low spin)
Ans. B
52. The correct decreasing order of basicity of hydrides of Group - 15 elements is
(A) AsH 3 SbH 3 NH 3 PH 3 (B) NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3
(C) SbH 3 AsH 3 PH 3 NH 3 (D) PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 NH 3
Ans. B
53. Which one of the following oxoacids of phosphorus can reduce AgNO 3 to metallic silver?
(A) H 4 P2 O 6 (B) H 3 PO 4
(C) H 3 PO 2 (D) H 4 P2 O 7
Ans. C
54. In solid state, PCl5 is a/an
(A) Ionic solid with PCl4 and PCl6
(B) Covalent solid present in the form of P2 Cl10
(D) Ionic solid with PCl6 and PCl4
(C) Octahedral structure
Ans. A
55. In which one of the following pairs, both the elements does not have n 1 d10 ns 2 configuration in its
elementary state?
(A) Hg,Cn (B) Cu, Zn
(C) Zn,Cd (D) Cd, Hg
Ans. No Answer
56. CH 3 CH CH CH2 OH
PCC
CH3 CH CH CHO
Hybridisation change involved at C 1 in the above reaction
(A) sp 2 to sp3 (B) sp to sp 2
(C) sp3 to sp (D) sp3 to sp 2
Ans. D
Page No.: 9
CODE : D-4
57. If a didentate ligand ethane 1, 2 diamine is progressively added in the molar ratio en : Ni ::1:1, 2 :1,3 :1 to
2
Ni H 2 O 6 aq solution, following co-ordination entities are formed.
2
I. Ni H 2 O 4 en -pale blue
aq
2
II. Ni H 2 O 2 en 2 aq
-blue/purple
2
III. Ni en 3 aq
-violet
The wavelength in nm of light absorbed in case of I and III are rsepctively
(A) 310 nm and 500 nm (B) 600nm and 535nm
(C) 475 nm and 310 nm (D) 300 nm and 475nm
Ans. B
58. Which of the following is an organometallic compound?
(A) CH 3 COO 2 Ca (B) CH 3 ONa
(C) CH 3COONa (D) CH 3CH 2 MgBr
Ans. D
59. A pair of compounds having the same boiling points are
(A) Benzene and naphthalene (B) butan and 2 ol and butan 2 ol
(C) cis but-2-ene and trans but-2-ene (D) n-hexane and neo-hexane
Ans. B
60. Identify A, B and C in the sequence:
CH3CH 2 Br
KCN
alc
A
LiAlH4
B
HNO3
0o C
C
(A) CH 3 CH 2 CN,C 2 H 5 OH,C 2 H 5 N 2 Cl (B) CH 3CH 2 CN,CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 ,C 2 H 5 OH
(C) CH 3CH 2 CN,CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 ,CH 3CH 2 CH 2 OH (D) CH 3 CH 2 NC, CH 3 CH 2 OH, CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
Ans. C
Page No.: 10
BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following is abbreviated as ZIFT?
(A) Zygote Intra Fallopian Tube (B) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(C) Zygote Inter Fallopian Tube (D) Zygote Inter Fallopian Transfer
Ans. B
2. An example for hormone releasing IUD is
(A) Lippes loop (B) LNG - 20
(C) Implant (D) Multiload 375
Ans. B
3. MTPs are considered relatively safe during
(A) 180 days of pregnancy (B) Second trimester
(C) First trimester (D) 24 weeks of pregnancy
Ans. C
4. Which of the following statements is corret?
(A) Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem.
(B) Thalassemia is a qualitative problem.
(C) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
(D) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.
Ans. C
5. ‘Gene-mapping’ technology was developed by
(A) Sturtvent (B) Tschermak
(C) Mendel (D) Correns
Ans. A
6. Find the correct statement.
(1) Generally a gene regulates a trait, but sometimes one gene has effect on multiple traits.
(2) The trait AB-blood group of man is regulated by one dominant allele and another recessive allele. Hence
it is co-dominant.
(A) Both Statements (1) and (2) are correct. (B) Statement (1) is correct.
(C) Both the Statements are wrong. (D) Statement (2) is correct.
Ans. B
1/7
7. From the following table, select the option that correctly characterizes various phases of menstrual cycle :
Menstruation phase Follicular phase Luteal phase
(A) Menses L.H. Surge Regenration of endometrium
(B) Matured follicle Regression of corpus luteum Ovulation
(C) Regeneration of endometrium High level of progesterone Developing corpus luteum
(D) Menses Developing corpus luteum Follicle maturation
Ans. A
8. In one of the hybridisation experiments, a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent
are crossed for a trait. (Plant shows Medelian inheritance pattern)
(A) Dominant parent trait appears in F1 generation and recessive parent trait appears in F1 and F2 generations.
(B) Dominant parent trait appears in F1 generation and recessive parent trait appears in F2 generation.
(C) Dominant parent trait appears in F2 generation and recessive parent trait appears only in F1 generation
(D) Dominant parent trait appears in both F1 & F2 generations, recessive parent trait appears in only F2
generation.
Ans. D
9. Histone proteins are positively charged because they are rich in basic amino acid residues
(A) Arginine and Phenylalanine (B) Arginine and Alanine
(C) Arginine and Proline (D) Arginine and Lysine
Ans. D
10. Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they are split genes because
(A) Exons are interrupted by Introns. (B) They contain Exons only.
(C) Introns are interrupted with Mutons. (D) They contain Introns only.
Ans. A
11. The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by
(A) Hershey and Chase (B) Watson and Crick
(C) Jacob and Crick (D) Francois Jacob and Jaques Monad
Ans. D
12. Which of these is NOT an example for Adaptive radiation?
(A) Placental mammals (B) Darwin’s finches
(C) Long-necked Giraffe (D) Australian marsupials
Ans. C
13. In a population of 800 rabbits showing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive individuals
was 0.16. what is the frequency of heterozygous individuals?
(A) 0.84 (B) 0.4
(C) 0.36 (D) 0.48
Ans. D
2/7
14. In male heterogametic type of sex determination
(A) Male parent produces dissimilar gametes. (B) Male parent produces similar gametes.
(C) Males do not produce gametes. (D) Female parent produces dissimilar gametes.
Ans. A
15. Identify the symptoms of pneumonia.
(A) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
(B) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough, headache
(C) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite
(D) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
Ans. B
16. THe variety of Okra, Pusa Sawani is resistant to which of the following insect pests?
(A) Shoot & Fruit borer (B) Aphids
(C) Cereal leaf beetle (D) Jassids
Ans. A
17. With respect to Inbreeding, which among the following is not true?
(A) It helps in elimination of less desirable genes.
(B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity.
(C) It helps to evolve a pure line in an animal.
(D) It helps in accumulation of superior genes.
Ans. B
18. Identify from the following a pair of better yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
(A) Jaya and Kalyan Sona (B) Jaya and Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika (D) Sonalika amd Ratna
Ans. B
19. In MoET technique fertilized eggs are transferred into surrogate mother in which of the following stage?
(A) 8-32 celled stage (B) 2-4 celled stage
(C) 16-32 celled stage (D) 8-16 celled stage
Ans. A
20. Roquefort cheese is ripened by
(A) Virus (B) Bacterium
(C) Yeast (D) Fungi
Ans. D
21. Four students were assigned a science project to find out the pollution levels of lakes in their surrounding.
AFter analysing the quality of water samples, the BOD values were found as follows :
Which among the following water samples is highly polluted?
(A) 6 mg/L (B) 0.6 mg/L (C) 0.16 mg/L (D) 0.06 mg/L
Ans. A
22. The toxic substance 'haemozoin' responsible for high fever and chill, is released in which of the following
diseases?
(A) Malaria (B) Dengue
(C) Typhoid (D) Pneumonia
Ans. A
23. Which of these is NOT a method to make host cells 'component' to take up DNA?
(A) Biolistics (B) Micro-injection
(C) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors (D) Elution
Ans. D
3/7
24. Select the correct statement from the following :
(A) The first step in PCR is heating which is used to separate both the strands of gene of interest.
(B) Genetic engineering works only on animals and not yet successfully used on plants.
(C) DNA from one organism will not band to DNA from other organism.
(D) There are no risk factors associated with r-DNA technology.
Ans. A
25. Choose the incorrect statement with reference to Kangaroo rat.
(A) Uses minimal water to remove excretory products.
(B) Found in North American desert.
(C) Eliminates dilute urine.
(D) Meets is water requirements through internal fat oxidation.
Ans. C
26. Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing
(A) Aestivation (B) Diapause
(C) Migration (D) Hibernation
Ans. D
27. Match Column - I with Column - II. Select the option with correct combination.
Column - I Column - II
1 Standing state p. Mass of living material at a given time.
2 Pioneer species q. Amount of nutrients in the soil at a given time.
3 Detritivores r. Species that invade a bare area.
4 Standing crop s. Breakdown detritus into smaller particles.
(A) 1 - q, 2 - r, 3 - s, 4 - p (B) 1 - q, 2 - r, 3 - p, 4 - s
(C) 1 - p, 2 - s, 3 - r, 4 - q (D) 1 - p, 2 - r, 3 - s, 4 - q
Ans. A
28. PCR is used for
(A) DNA digestion (B) DNA isolation
(C) DNA amplification (D) DNA ligation
Ans. C
29. The toxic heavy metals from various industries which cause water pollution, normally have a density
(A) more than 7.5 g/cm3 (B) more than 5 g/cm3
(C) more than 12.5 g/cm3 (D) more than 15 g/cm3
Ans. B
30. Identify the correct option showing the relative contribution of different green house gases to the total
global warming.
(A) CFC 6%,CO 2 60%,Methane 20%, N 2 O 14%
(B) CFC 14%,CO 2 60%, Methane 20%, N 2 O 6%
(C) CFC 14%,CO 2 60%, Methane 6%, N 2 O 20%
(D) CFC 20%,CO 2 60%, Methane 14%, N 2 O 6%
Ans. B
4/7
31. A flower has 10 stamens each having bilobed dithecous anther. If each microsporangium has 5 pollen
mother cells, how many pollen grains would be produced by the flower?
(A) 800 (B) 200 (C) 1600 (D) 400
Ans. A
32. During transcription the DNA stand with 3' 5' polarity of the structural gene always acts as a template
because
(A) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse polymerisation in bioth the directions.
(B) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation 5' 3' directions.
(C) Nucleotides of DNA strand with 5' 3' are transferred to mRNA.
(D) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation 3' 5' directions.
Ans. B
33. According to David Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments, the total biomass in plots with more species
shows,
(A) Average variation from year-to-year. (B) Less variation from year-to-year.
(C) No variation from year-to-year. (D) High variation from year-to-year.
Ans. B
34. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the flow of energy between various components of the food
chain.
(A) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on leaves.
(B) The amount of energy available at each trophic level is 10% of previous trophic level.
(C) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat to the environment.
(D) Energy flow is unidirectional.
Ans. A
35. Find out the correct match.
Disease Pathogen Main organ affected
A Filariasis Common round worm Smallintestine
B Ringworm Fungus Skin
C Dysentery Pr otozoa Liver
D Typhoid Bacteria Lungs
Ans. B
36. Match the following columns and choose the correct option :
Column - I Column - II
1. Haemophilusinfluenzae p. Malignant malaria
2. Entamoeba histolytica q. Elephantiasis
3. Plasmodium falciparum r. Pneumonia
4. Wuchereria bancrofti s. Amoebiasis
1 2 3 4
A s p q r
B q r s p
C r p q s
D r s p q
Ans. D
5/7
37. From the following tools / techniques of genetic engineering, identify those which are required for cloning a
bacterial gene in animal cells and choose the correct option :
I. Endonuclease II. Ligase
III. A. tumefaciens IV. Microinjection
V. Gene gun VI. Lysozyme
VII. Cellulase VIII. Electrophoresis
(A) I, III, IV, V, VII (B) II, III, V, VII, VIII
(C) II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII (D) I, II, IV, VI, VIII
Ans. D
38. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option from the following :
Column - I Plant groups Column - II Examples
1. Bryophyta p. Pinus
2. Gymnosperm q. Adiantum
3. Algae r. Sphagnum
4. Pteridophyta s Ectocarpus
1 2 3 4
A q p s r
B s r q p
C q s p r
D r p s q
Ans. D
39. Flame cells present in the members of platyhelminthes are specialized to perform,
(A) Respiration and Excretion (B) Osmoregulation and Circulation
(C) Respiration and Osmoregulation (D) Osmoregulation and Excretion
Ans. D
40. Identify the floral formula of plant belonging to potato family.
(A)
,P3 3 ,A33 , G 3
(B) , K5 ,C5 A5 ,G 2
(C) , K 5 ,C5 ,A91 , G1
(D) ,K10 , C10 , A10 ,G2
Ans. B
41. When the vascular cambium is present between the xylem and phloem, then the vascular bundle is called
(A) Endarch (B) Exarch
(C) Closed (D) Open
Ans. D
6/7
42. The function of Typhlosole in earthworm is
(A) Transportation
(B) Grinding of soil particles
(C) Increasing the effective area of absorption in the intestine
(D) Grinding of decaying leaves
Ans. C
43. Select the correctly matched pair of organisms with their order.
(A) Homo, sapiens : Poales
(B) Triticum, aestivum : Sapindales
(C) Mangifera, indica : Primata
(D) Musa, domestica : Diptera
Ans. D
44. Match List-I and List-II with respect to proteins and their functions and select the correct option.
List - I List - II
1. Collagen p. Fightsinfectious agents
2. Tryp sin q. Hormone
3. Insulin r. Enzyme
4. Antibody s. Intercellular ground substance
(A) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-q, r-s
(C) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-p (D) 1-s, 2-q, 3-r, 4-p
Ans. A
45. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called,
(A) Bivalent (B) Pentavalent
(C) Univalent (D) Triad
Ans. A
46. Match column-I with column-II. Select the option with correct combination.
Column - I Column - II
1. Hypertonic p. Two molecules move in the same
directiona across the membrane.
2. Capillarity q. External solution is more concentrated
than cellsap.
3. Symport r. Water loss in the form of droplets.
4. Guttation s. Ability of water to rise in thin tubes.
(A) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r (B) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
(C) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r (D) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
Ans. C
47. Toxicity of which micronutrient induces deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium ?
(A) Manganese (B) Zinc
(C) Boron (D) Molybdenum
Ans. A
7/7
48. Considering the stroke volume of an adult healthy being is 70 mL, identify the cardiac output in one hour from
the following :
(A) 302.4 Lit/hour (B) 5.04 Lit/hour
(C) 50.40 Lit/hour (D) 30.24 Lit/hour
Ans. A
49. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is
(A) Osmoregulation and movements (B) Excretion and osmoregulation
(C) Digestion and excretion (D) Digestion and respiration
Ans. B
50. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a
(A) Vasoconstricter (B) Check on Renin-Angiotension mechanism
(C) Hypertension inducer (D) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensiion mechanism
Ans. B
51. The vibrations from the ear drum are tansmitted through ear ossicles to
(A) Tectorial membrane (B) Cochlea
(C) Auditory nerves (D) Oval window
Ans. D
52. Bamboo species flowers
(A) Once in lifetime (B) Every year
(C) Twice in 50 100 years (D) Once in 12 years
Ans. A
53. In Bryophyllum, the adventitious buds arise from
(A) Shoot apex (B) Leaf axil
(C) Leaf base (D) Notches in the leaf margin
Ans. D
54. Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by fusion of
(A) One polar nucleus and male gamete (B) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
(C) Two polar nuclei and two male gamete (D) Ovum and male gamete
Ans. B
55. Identify the option showing the correct labelling for p, q, r and s with reference to the conducting system of
the human heart.
8/7
(A) p-Bundle of His, q-SAN, r-Interventicular septum, s-AVN
(B) p-SAN, q-AV N, r-Bundle of His, s-Interventicular septum
(C) p-Interventicular septm, q-AVN, r-Bundle of His, s-SAN
(D) p-AVN, q-SAN, r-Interventicular septum, s-Bundle of His
Ans. B
56. In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia
minora above the urethral opening is called
(A) Clitoris (B) Hymen
(C) Vagina (D) Mons pubis
Ans. A
57. Consider the following statements with reference to female reproductive system:
Statement 1: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience
Statement 2: The sex of the foetus is determined by the father and not by the mother.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(A) Statement 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is corret
(B) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong
(C) Both Statement 1 and Statememt 2 are wrong
(D) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
Ans. D
58. The male sex accessory ducts include,
(A) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens
(B) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle
(C) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
(D) Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas deferens
Ans. C
59. With reference to human sperm, match the List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
1 Head p Filled with enzyme
2 Acrosome q Contains mitochondria
3 Middle piece r Sperm motility
4 Tail s Contains haploid nucleus
Choose the correct option from the following:
(A) 1 - q, 2 - s, 3 - r, 4 - p
(B) 1 - s, 2 - p, 3 - q, 4 - r
(C) 1 - r, 2 - q, 3 - s, 4 - p
(D) 1 - s, 2 - r, 3 - p, 4 - q
Ans. B
60. Which pair of the following cells in the embryo sac are destined to change their ploidy after fertilization?
(A) Central cell and antipodals (B) Antipodals and synergids
(C) Egg cell and central cell (D) Synergids and egg cell
Ans. C
9/7
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