Key - 3577818 - 2024-05-07 08 - 07

NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Code R1 8527521718
Physics - Section A 3 A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle

abcda . The work done by the gas along the path bc is:
1 A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road
as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in
the direction shown, which one of the following options
is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on
the wheel, respectively)?
1. 30 J
2. −90 J
3. −60 J
4. zero
4 The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is

1. Point P moves faster than point Q. 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected
2. Both the points P and Q move with equal speed. through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the
3. Point P has zero speed. figure is:
4. Point P moves slower than point Q.
2 Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for (Wavelength
transitions from) (nm))
A. n = 3 to n = 2
2 1 I. 410.2
B. n = 4 to n = 2
2 1 II. 434.1
C. n = 5 to n = 2
2 1 III. 656.3
D. n = 6 to n = 2
2 1 IV. 486.1 1. 6 V
Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. 8 V
below: 3. 10 V
1. A − III, B − IV, C − II, D − I 4. 4 V
2. A − IV, B − III, C − I, D − II
3. A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV 5 In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is Np
=
1
2
.
Ns
4. A − II, B − I, C − IV, D − III The ratio V : V is equal to (the symbols carry their
s p
usual meaning):
1. 2 : 1
2. 1 : 1
3. 1 : 4
4. 1 : 2
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Code R1 8527521718
6 A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at 9 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
point P with the angle of incidence 30 as shown in Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
∘
figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base The potential (V ) at any axial point, at
BC and emerges along the face AC . The refractive 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the
index of the prism is: dipole of dipole moment vector P→ of
Assertion A:
magnitude, 4 × 10 C m, is −6
±9 × 10 V. (Take = 9 × 10 SI
3 1 9
4πε0
units)
2P
V = ± , where r is the distance of
4πε0 r2
Reason R: any axial point situated at 2 m from the
centre of the dipole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is NOT the correct
1.
√5 explanation of (A).
1. 2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2
2.
√3
3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
√3 4.
3. explanation of (A).
2
√5
4.
4
10 In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic
needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as
7 The quantities which have the same dimensions as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is
those of solid angle are: kg m . If the magnitude of magnetic
−6 2
9.8 × 10
1. stress and angle moment of the needle is x × 10 Am ; then the value

−5
2
2. strain and arc of 'x' is:

3. angular speed and stress
4. strain and angle
8 A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed

gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of
water is 0.07 Nm , then the excess force required to
−1
take it away from the surface is:

1. 198 N
2. 1.98 mN
3. 99 N 1. 128π 2
4. 19.8 mN 2. 50π 2
3. 1280π 2
4. 5π 2
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Code R1 8527521718
11 If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit 14 Consider the following Statements A and B and
experiment is replaced by white light, then: identify the correct answer:
there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a
1.
few coloured fringes.
there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded
2.
by a few coloured fringes.
3. all bright fringes will be of equal width.
4. interference pattern will disappear.
12 Given below are two statements: For a solar-cell, the I -V characteristics lies in the IV
A.
Atoms are electrically neutral as they quadrant of the given graph.
Statement I: contain equal number of positive and In a reverse-biased pn junction diode, the current
negative charges. B.
measured in (μA), is due to majority charge carriers.
Atoms of each element are stable and
Statement II:
emit their characteristic spectrum. 1. A is incorrect but B is correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 2. Both A and B are correct.
appropriate answer from the options given below:
3. Both A and B are incorrect.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. A is correct but B is incorrect.
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 15 A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. path maintains:
1. constant acceleration.
13 The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m
2. constant velocity but varying acceleration.
length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's
3. varying velocity and varying acceleration.
modulus, respectively, are 8 × 10 N m
−2
8
and
4. constant velocity.
N m , is:
11 −2
2 × 10
1. 0.4 mm
16 If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct
2. 40 mm
3. 8 mm statements about photon among the following are:
4. 4 mm A. The energy of a photon is E = hν.
B. The velocity of a photon is c.
hν
C. The momentum of a photon, p = c
.
In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and

D.
total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1. A, B, C and D only
2. A, C and D only
3. A, B, D and E only
4. A and B only
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Code R1 8527521718
17 Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo 21 A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm
completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic
A moves with velocity v while body B is at rest before
1 field at the centre of the coil is: (Take permeability of
collision. The velocity of the system after collision is v . 2 free space as 4π × 10 SI units):
−7
The ratio v : v is:

1 2 1. 4.4 T
1. 2 : 1 2. 4.4 mT
2. 4 : 1 3. 44 T
3. 1 : 4 4. 44 mT
4. 1 : 2
22 The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis
18 The graph which shows the variation of ( 1
and passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the
)
2
λ
rod is 2400 g cm . The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:
2
its kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de-Broglie 1. 17.5 cm

wavelength of a free particle): 2. 20.7 cm
3. 72.0 cm
4. 8.5 cm
23 A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a

1. 2.
string with an initial speed of ω rpm. The tension in the
string is T . If speed becomes 2 ω while keeping the
same radius, the tension in the string becomes:
1. 4T
T
2.
4
3. √2T
4. T
3. 4.
24 Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Material) (Susceptibility (χ))
A. Diamagnetic I. χ = 0
19 An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at B. Ferromagnetic II. 0 > χ ≥ −1

Brewster's angle. Then: C. Paramagnetic III. χ ≫ 1
1. the refracted light will be completely polarised. 0 < χ < ε (a small positive
D. Non-magnetic IV.
both the reflected and refracted light will be number)
2.
completely polarised. Choose the correct answer from the options given
the reflected light will be completely polarised but below:
3.
the refracted light will be partially polarised. 1. A − II, B − I, C − III, D − IV
4. the reflected light will be partially polarised. 2. A − III, B − II, C − I, D − IV
3. A − IV, B − III, C − II, D − I
20 At any instant of time t, the displacement of any 4. A − II, B − III, C − IV, D − I
particle is given by 2t − 1 (SI unit) under the influence
of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in
SI unit):
1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 10
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Code R1 8527521718
25 In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance 29 If m represents the motion of a

π
x = 5sin(πt + )
3
between terminal A and terminal B is: particle executing simple harmonic motion, the
amplitude and time period of motion, respectively are :
1. 5 m, 2 s
2. 5 cm, 1 s
3. 5 m, 1 s
4. 5 cm, 2 s
30 In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is

moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The
direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in
1. 1 μF solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
2. 0.5 μF
3. 4 μF
4. 2 μF
26 A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as

shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg
and 3 kg, respectively. The blocks slide over a
frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on
block B is :
1. BA and CD
2. AB and CD
3. BA and DC
4. AB and DC
1. 4 N 31 A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the

2. 6 N following truth table:
3. 10 N A B Y
4. zero 0 0 1
0 1 0
27 X → Y −→ Z −→ P −→ Q
+ − −
290
α e β e
1 0 1
82
1 1 0
In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number
and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are: The expression for the output Y is :
¯
¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯
1. 286, 80 1. A ⋅ B + A
2. 288, 82 2. B
¯
¯¯¯
3. 286, 81 3. B
4. 280, 81 4. A ⋅ B + A
¯
¯¯¯
28 In a vernier calipers, (N + 1) divisions of vernier

32 A wire of length
′ ′
l and resistance 100 Ω is divided
scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in
represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is: series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel.
1.
1
100(N +1)
The two combinations are again connected in series. The
2. 100N resistance of this final combination is:
3. 10(N + 1) 1. 52 Ω
4. 1 2. 55 Ω
10N
3. 60 Ω
4. 26 Ω
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Code R1 8527521718
33 The output (Y ) of the given logic gate is similar to Physics - Section B

the output of an/a:
36 The minimum energy required to launch a satellite
of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and
radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the
surface of the earth is:
1. 2GmM
3R
2. GmM
2R
3. GmM
1. NOR gate 3R
2. OR gate 4. 5GmM
6R
3. AND gate
4. NAND gate 37 A small telescope has an objective of focal length
140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm The
34 A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant
The potential difference between the two points C and P object is:
(in V) shown in the figure is: 1. 28
( Take = 9 × 10 SI units)
1
4πϵ0
9
2. 17
3. 32
4. 34
38 The velocity (v)- time (t) plot of the motion of a

body is shown below:
1. 1 × 105
2. 0.5 × 10 5
3. zero
4. 3 × 105 The acceleration (a)- time (t) graph that best suits this
motion is:
35 The mass of a planet is (
th
1
10
) that of the earth and
its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due
to gravity on that planet is:
1. 2.
1. 9.8 ms
−2
2. 4.9 ms
−2
−2
3. 3.92 ms
4. 19.6 ms
−2
3. 4.
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Code R1 8527521718
39 Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW 43 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it
and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in to a battery through a resistor. If i is the current in the
series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The circuit, then in the gap between the plates:
ratio of power outputs for these two cases is: displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in
1. 2 : 9 1.
the same direction as i.
2. 1 : 2 displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in
3. 2 : 3 2.
a direction opposite to that of i.
4. 1 : 1
displacement current of magnitude greater than i
3.
flows but can be in any direction.
40 A force defined by; F = αt + βt acts on a particle
2
4. there is no current.
at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if α
and β are constants, is:
1. αt/β 44 Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the
2. αβt bridge balance :
3. αβ/t
4. βt/α
41 A 10 μ F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz

1. 2.
source as shown in the figure. The peak current in the
circuit is nearly (π = 3.14):
3. 4.
1. 0.93 A
2. 1.20 A
3. 0.35 A
4. 0.58 A
42 A metallic bar of Young's modulus,

Nmand coefficient of linear thermal
11 −2
0.5 × 10
−5 ∘ −1
expansion 10 C length 1 m and area of cross-
section 10 m is heated from 0 C to 100 C without
−3 2 ∘ ∘
expansion or bending. The compressive force developed

in it is:
1. 50 × 10 N 3
2. 100 × 10 N 3
3. 2 × 10 N3
4. 5 × 10 N3
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Code R1 8527521718
45 A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of 47 The following graph represents the T -V curves of
a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to: an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the
A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic. volume) at three pressures P , P and P compared with
1 2 3
B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines.
move the sheet away from the pole with uniform
C.
velocity if it is conducting.
move the sheet away from the pole with uniform
D.
velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.
Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given
below:
1. A and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. C only
4. B and D only Then the correct elation is :
1. P > P > P
1 3 2
46 If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected 2. P > P > P

2 1 3
to a battery are moved close to each other, then: 3. P > P > P

1 2 3
A. the charge stored in it, increases.

4. P > P > P
3 2 1
the energy stored in it, decreases.

48 The property which is not of an electromagnetic
B.
C. its capacitance increases.

wave travelling in free space is that :
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
the energy density in electric field is equal to energy
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
1.
density in magnetic field.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
2. they travel with a speed equal to
1
.
given below: √μ ϵ
0 0
1. A, C and E. only they originate from charges moving with uniform

2. B, D and E. only 3.
speed.
3. A, B and C. only 4. they are transverse in nature.
4. A, B and E. only
49 An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It
is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms
make an angle 60 with each other. The magnetic
∘
moment of this new magnet is:

1. M
2. 2M
3.
M
√3
4. M
50 If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is

increased to thrice its original mass and its length is
made half its original length, then the new time period of
x
oscillation is 2
times its original time period. Then the
value of x is:
1. √2
2. 2√3
3. 4
4. √3
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Code R1 8527521718
Chemistry - Section A 54 Match List I with List II.

List I List II
51 The reagents with which glucose does not reason to (Process) (Conditions)
give the corresponding test/products are: A. Isothermal
I. No heat exchange
A. Tollen's reagent process
B. Schiff's reagent II. Carried out at constant
C. HCN B. Isochorio process
temperature
D. NH OH 2 C. Isobaric process III. Carried out at constant volume
E. NaHSO 3
D. Adiabatic
Choose the correct options from the given below:- Iv. Carried out at constant pressure
process
1. A and D
2. B and E
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
3. E and D
:
4. B and C
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
52 The energy of electron in the ground state (n = 1) 3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
for He ion is-xJ , then that for an electron in n = 2 4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
+
state for Be ion in J is :

3+
55 For the reaction 2 A ⇌ B + C, K = 4 × 10 . At

−3
1. − x
9
c
2. −4x a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is :

M.
−3
3. − x
4
[A] = [B] = [G] = 2 × 10
9
4. −x Then, which of the following is correct?

1. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
53 Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction? 2. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
3. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
1. 2KClO + I → 2KIO + Cl
3 2 3 2
4. Reaction is at equilibrium.
2. H + Cl → 2HC
2 2
3. BaCl + Na SO → BaSO + 2NaCl

2 2 4 4
4. Zn + CuSO → ZnSO + Cu 4 4
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Code R1 8527521718
56 Match List I with List II. 58 Identify the correct reagents that would bring about
List II (Type of the following transformation.
List I (Complex)
isomerism)
A.
[Co(NH3 )
5
(NO2 )] Cl2 I. Solvate isomerism
B. [Co(NH 3) (SO4 )] Br 1. (i) BH

5
II. Linkage isomerism 3
(ii)H2 O2 / OH
C. (iii) PCC
[Co(NH3 ) ] [Cr(CN)6 ]
6
III. Ionization isomerism 2. (i) BH 3
⊖
(ii)H2 O2 / OH
D. [Co(H 2 O)6 ] Cl3
IV. Coordination (iii) alk. KMnO 4
(iv) H O3
+
3. (i) H O/H
2
+
Choose the correct from the options given below : (ii) PCC
1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
4. (i) H O/H +
2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

2
(ii) CrO
3. A-II, B-IV, G-III, D-I 3
4. A-II, B-III,G-IV, D-I
57 In which of the following processes entropy

increases?
A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from
130 K to 0 K.
C. 2NaHCO → Na CO
3( s)
+ CO
2 + H O
3( s) 2( g) 2 (g)
D. Cl2( g)
→ 2Cl (g)

:
1. A, B and D
2. A, C and D
3. C and D
4. A and C
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Code R1 8527521718
59 Match List I with List II. 60 In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are
List II NOT equal?
List I 1. H
(Reagents/ + I ⇌ 2HI
(Reaction) 2( g) 2( g) (g)
Condition) 2. CO + H O ⇌ CO
(g) 2 (g) 2( g)
+ H2( g)
I. 3. 2BrCl ⇌ Br(g)+ Cl 2( g) 2( g)
4. PCl ⇌ PCl + Cl
A. 5( g) 3( g) 2( g)
61 Which one of the following alcohols reacts

instantaneously with Lucas reagent?
1.
B.
2.
II.CrO 3
C. 3.
KMnO4
III. 4. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 OH
KOH, Δ
D.
IV.
(i)O3
(ii)Zn − H2 O

:
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
4. A-IV,B-I, C-III, D-II
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Code R1 8527521718
62 Given below are two statements : 66 Fehling solution 'A' is

The boiling point of three isomeric 1. alkaline copper sulphate
Statement I : pentanes follows the order 2. alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane (Rochelle's salt)
When branching increases, the molecule 3. aqueous sodium citrate
attains a shape of sphere. This results in 4. aqueous copper sulphate
smaller surface area for contact, due to
Statement II : 67 Match List I with List II.
which the intermolecular forces between
the spherical molecules are weak, thereby List II
List I
lowering the boiling point. (Number and types of bond/s
(Molecule)
between two carbon atoms)
In the light of the above statements, choose the most A. ethane I. one σ − bond and two π − bonds
appropriate answer from the option given below: B. ethene II. two π-bonds
carbon
C. molecule, III. one σ-bond
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C2
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. ethyne IV. one σ − bond and one π − bond
63 Given below are two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
alkylation reaction.
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Gabriel synthesis.
answer from the option given below :
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 68 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
1.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
64 The E° value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more

positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+ due to
change of
1. d5 to d2 configuration 2.
2. d4 to d5 configuration
3. HF
65 On heating some solid substances change from solid
to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The
technique used for the purification of such solid 4.
substances based on the above principle is known as
1. Sublimation
2. Distillation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallization
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69 The highest number of helium atoms is in: 73 A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14
1. 4 u of helium has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:
2. 4 g of helium 1. 2-methyl pentane
3. 2.271098 L of helium at STP 2. 2, 3-dimethylbutane
4. 4 mol of helium 3. 2, 2-dimethylbutane
4. n-hexane
List II 74 The Henry's law constant KH values of three gases
List I
(Conversion)
(Number of Faraday (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10-5 and 35 kbar,
required) respectively. The solubility of these gases in water
A. 1 mol of H2O to O2 I. 3F follow the order:
1. B > C > A
B. 1 mol of M nO to M n
− 2+
II. 2F
4
2. A > C > B
1.5 mol of Ca from molten 3. A > B > C
C. III. 1F
CaCl2 4. B > A > C
D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3 IV. 5F
Choose the correct answer from the options given 75 The compound that will undergo S
1
N reaction with
below: the fastest rate is
1. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
2. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
3. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I 1. 2.
4. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
71 Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT

show -2 oxidation state?
1. Se 3. 4.
2. Te
3. Po
4. O
72 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of

the following ions?
A. Ti3+
B Cr2+
C. Mn2+
D. Fe2+
E. Sc3+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. A and E only
2. B and C only
3. A and D only
4. B and D only
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Code R1 8527521718
76 The most stable carbocation among the following is 79 Given below are two statements :
: Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16
elements follow the order
H O > H Te > H Se > H S.
2 2 2 2
Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is

1. expected to have lower boiling point than the other
members of the group but due to the presence of
extensive H-bonding in H2O, it has higher boiling point.
2. 1. Both statement I and statement II are false.
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3.
80 Arrange the following elements in increasing order
of first ionization enthalpy:
Li, Be, B, C, N
below:
1. Li<B<Be<C<N
4. 2. Li<Be<C<B<N
3. Li<Be<N<B<C
4. Li<Be<B<C<N
77 Given below are two statements : 81 Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be
3+
Statement I : Both [Co(NH ) ] and calculated if one knows the value of

[ CoF ]
3−
3 6
6
1. Probability of collision.
Complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic 2. Orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
behaviour. 3. Rate constant at two different temperatures.
3+
Statement II : [Co(NH ) ] is diamagnetic whereas 4. Rate constant at standard temperature.

3 6
3−
[CoF ] is paramagnetic.
6
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 82 Arrange the following elements in increasing order
answer from the options given below: of electro negativity
1. Both statement I and statement II are false. N, O, F, C, Si
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false Choose the correct answer from the options given below
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. :
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 1. Si < C < O < N < F
2. O < F < N < C < Si
78 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 3. F < O < N < C < Si
mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium 4. Si < C < N < O < F
hydroxide left unreacted is equal to :
1. 250 mg
2. Zero mg
3. 200 mg
4. 750 mg
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Code R1 8527521718
83 Match List I with List II. 85 Which plot of In k vs I

is consistent with Arrhenius
T
List I List II equation?
Quantum Number Information provided
m
A. l I. shape of orbital
B. ms II. size of orbital
orientation of 1. 2.
C. l III.
orbital
orientation of spin
D. n IV.
of electron
:
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 3. 4.
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

List I List II
(Compound ) (Shape/geometry) Chemistry - Section B
A. NH3 I. Trigonal Pyramidal
B. BrF5 II. Square planar 86 The work done during reversible isothermal
C. XeF4 III. Octahedral expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from
pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is :
D. SF6 IV. Square Pyramidal
( Given R = 2.0 cal K-1 mol-1)
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: 1. -413.14 calories
1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 2. 413.14 calories
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 3. 100 calories
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4. 0 calorie
87 Identify the correct answer.

1. BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.
2. Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
3. Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO ion.
2−
4. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
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88 Major products A and B formed in the following 90 A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and
reaction sequence, are remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula
of X is :
( Given atomic mass of A=64; B=40; C=32u)
1. ABC3
2. AB2C2
3. ABC4
4. A2BC2
91 Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic

1. qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group
number from ) to VI.
A. Al3+
B.Cu2+
C. Ba2+
2. D. Co2+
E. Mg2+
1. B, C, A, D, E
2. E, C, D, B, A
3. E, A, B, C, D
3.
4. B, A, D, C, E
92 Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at

equilibrium with concentrations of
4. N = 3.0 × 10 M, O = 4.2 × 10 M and
2
−3
2
−3
NO = 2.8 × 10 −3
2NO
g ⇌ N g + O (g)
( ) 2( ) 2
If 0.1 mol L-1 of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what

will be degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at
equilibrium?
89 The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic 1. 0.0889
is 2. 0.8889
1. Ce3+ and Eu2+ 3. 0.717
3+
2. Gd and Eu 3+ 4. 0.00889
3. Pm3+ and Sm3+
93 The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature
4. Ce4+ and Yb2+
changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of
activation.
Given R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1, log 4 = 0.6021
1. 380.4 kj/mol
2. 3.80 kj/mol
3. 3804 kj/mol
4. 38.04 kj/mol
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94 During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution ( 97 For the given reaction:
Ferrous ammonium sulphate ), which of the following
acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?
1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
2. Dilute nitric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid
4. Dilute hydrochloric acid
'P' is
95 Identify the major product C formed in the
following reaction sequence: 1.
2.
1. butylamine
2. butanamide
3. α− bromobutanoic acid 3.
4. propylamine
96 Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing

9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper 4.
sulphate for 100 seconds is : (Given : Molar mass of
Cu: 63gmol IF = 96487 C)
−1
1. 0.315 g
2. 31.5 g 98 Given below are two statements :
3. 0.0315 g 3+
Statement I: [Co(NH ) ] is a homoleptic complex
3
6
4. 3.15 g whereas [Co(N H ) Cl ] is a heterleptic complex
3 4 2
+
Statement II: Complex [Co(N H ) Cl ] has only one

3 6 2
3+
kind of ligands but [Co(N H ) Cl ] has more than one

3 4 2
+
kind of ligands
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
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Code R1 8527521718
99 The plot of osmotic pressure (π) vs concentration 103 Match List I and List II
(molL
−1
) for a solution gives a straight line with slope
List I List II
25.73 L bas mol-1. The temperature at which osmotic Two or more
pressure measurement is done is: A. alternative forms of a (i) Back Cross
(Use R = 0.083 Lbarmol K )
−1 −1 gene
Cross of F1 progeny
1. 310°C
B. with homozygous (ii) Ploidy
2. 25.73°C
3. 12.05 °C recessive parent
4, 37°C Cross of F1 progeny
C. with any of the (iii) Allele
100 The products A and B obtained in the following parents
reactions respectively are Number of
3ROH + PCl → 3RCl + A 3
D. chromosome sets in (iv) Test cross
ROH + PCl → RCl + HCl + B
5
plant
1. POCl and H PO
3 3 4
2. H PO and POCl
3 4 3
below:
3. H PO and POCl
3 3 3
1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
4. POCl and H PO
3 3 3
2. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
3. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
B iology -1-S
ection A
4. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
104 Identify the set of correct statements:

101 Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free
lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin: The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce
A:
1. promotes abscission of mature leaves only, nectar.
2. does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants. B: The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water.
3. can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains
C:
4. promotes apical dominance are protected from wetting.
Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and
D:
102 Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic ribbon like.
compound found in living tissues, is an example of: In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried
E:
1. Phospholipids passively inside water.
2. Glycerides
3. Carbohydrates Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. Amino acids below:
2. A, C, D and E only
3. B, C, D and E only
4. C, D and E only
105 List of endangered species was released by:

1. WWF
2. FOAM
3. IUCN
4. GEAC
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106 What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only 109 Given below are two statements:
gene of interest which is transferred into an alien Bt toxins are insect group specific and
organism? Statement I:
coded by a gene cry IAc.
The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B.
A:
independently in the progeny cells of the organism. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion
It may get integrated into the genome of the Statement II: by the insect the inactive protoxin gets
B:
recipient. converted into active form due to acidic
It may multiply and the inherited along with the host pH of the insect gut
C:
DNA.
The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
D: answer from the options given below:
chromosome.
E: It shows ability to replicate. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
3. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
below:
1. D and E only
2. B and C only
110 A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by
3. A and E only the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to
4. A and B only upstream and down stream end:
1. Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
107 Which of the following are required for the dark 2. Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
3. Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
reaction of photosynthesis?
4. Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
A: Light
B: Chlorophyll
C: CO2
111 In the given figure, which component has thin
outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?
D: ATP
E: NADPH
below:
1. B, C and D only
2. C, D and E only
3. D and E only
4. A, B and C only
108 The type of conservation in which the threatened

species are taken out from their natural habitat and 1. D
placed in special setting where they can be protected and 2. A
given special care is called: 3. B
1. Biodiversity conservation 4. C
2. Semi-conservative method
3. Sustainable development 112 Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular
4. in-situ conservation
point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
1. 6 bp
2. 4 bp
3. 10 bp
4. 8 bp
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113 Identify the type of flowers based on the position 117 Which one of the following can be explained as the
of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the basis of Mendel's Law of dominance?
ovary from the given figures (a) and (b) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the
A:
other is recessive.
Alleles do not show any expression and both the
B: characters appear as such in F generation.
2
C: Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
The discrete unit controlling a particular character is
D:
called factor.
The expression of only one of the parental characters
E:
is found in a monohybrid cross.
1. (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous Choose the correct answer from the options given
2. (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous below:
3. (a) Perigynous; (b)Perigynous 1. A, C, D and E only
4. (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous 2. B, C and D only
3. A, B, C, D and E
114 Which of the following is an example of 4. A, B and C only
actinomorphic flower?
1. Cassia 118 Match List I with List II
2. Pisum List I List II
3. Sesbania A. Rhizopus (i) Mushroom
4. Datura B. Ustilago (ii) Smut fungus
C. Puccinia (iii) Bread mould
115 Which one of the following is not a criterion for
D. Agaricus (iv) Rust fungus
classification of fungi?
1. Mode of nutrition
2. Mode of spore formation Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. Fruiting body below:
4. Morphology of mycelium 1. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
2. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
3. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
116 The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logisitic growth is
4. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
dN K − N
= rN [ ]
dt K 119 Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by
From this equation, K indicates: malonate is a classical example of:
1. Biotic potential 1. Feedback inhibition
2. Carrying capacity 2. Competitive inhibition
3. Population density 3. Enzyme activation
4. Intrinsic rate of natural increase 4. Cofactor inhibition
120 Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully

developed parenchyma cells is an example for
1. Rediffrentiation
2. Dediffrentiation
3. Maturation
4. Diffrentiation
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121 A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed 126 Tropical regions show greatest level of species
with red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of richness because
phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny? Tropical latitudes have remained relatively
1. Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants A: undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time
2. Only pink flowered plants was available for species diversification.
3. Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants B: Tropical environments are more seasonal.
4. Only red flowered plants
C: More solar energy is available in tropics.
122 In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant D: Constant environments promote niche specialization.
over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the E: Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
genotype of black seed plant, with which of the
following genotype will you cross it? Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. bb below:
2. Bb 1. A, C, D and E only
3. BB/Bb 2. A and B only
4. BB 3. A, B and D only
4. A, B and E only
123 Match List I with List II
List I List II
List I List Ii
A. Clostridium butylicum I. Ethanol
A. Nucleolus I. Site of formation of glycolipid
Saccharomyces
B. II. Streptokinase B. Centriole II. Organization like the cartwheel
cerevisiae
Trichoderma C. Leucoplasts III. Site for active ribosomal RNA
C. III. Butyric acid D. Golgi apparatus IV. For storing nutrients
Polysporum
D. Streptococcus sp. IV. Cyclosporin-A
Choose the correct answer from the options give below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
below: 2. A-lII, B-IV, C-II, D-I
1. A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I 3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II 4. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
4. A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV 128 Identify the part of the seed from the given figure
which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.
124 How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are
required for every molecule of CO fixed in the Calvin
2
cycle?
1. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
125 The capacity to generate a whole plant from any

cell of the plant is called:
1. Micropropagation
2. Differentiation
3. Somatic hybridization 1. B
4. Totipotency 2. C
3. D
4. A
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129 Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of 133 The lactose present in the growth medium of
chromosomes during bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:
1. Metaphase 1. Acetylase
2. Anaphase 2. Permease
3. Telophase 3. Polymerase
4. Prophase 4. Beta-galactosidase
130 Given below are two statements: 134 Bulliform cells are responsible for
Chromosomes become gradually visible 1. Protecting the plant from salt stress.
Statement I: under light microscope during leptotene 2. Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
stage. 3. Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
The begining of diplotene stage is 4. Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
Statement II: recognized by dissolution of
synaptonemal complex. 135 The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
1. Niacin
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 2. Flavin
answer from the option given below: 3. Haem
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False 4. Zinc
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
3. Statement I is False but Statement II is True Biology -1-S ection B
136 Read the following statements and choose the set
131 Given below are two statements: of correct statements:
Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is A sexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate
Statement I: A:
dead tissue. zoospores.
Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but B: Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
Statement II: presence of xylem vessels is the
Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is
characteristic of angiosperms. C:
either mannitol or laminarin.
The major pigments foods are chlorophyll a, c and
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct D:
carotenoids and xanthophyll.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False E: covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of
3. Statement I is False but Statement II is True algin.
132 These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity below:
loss: 1. B, C, D and E only
A: Over exploitation 2. A, C, D and E only
B: Co-extinction 3. A, B, C and E only
C: Mutation 4. A, B, C and D only
D: Habitat loss and fragmentation
E: Migration
Choose the correct option:
2. A, B and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, C and D only
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Code R1 8527521718
137 Match List I with List II 140 In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity
List I List II (NPP) of first trophic level is 100x (kcal m ) yr ,
−2 −1
A. Robert May I. Species-Area relationship what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of
Long term ecosystem the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?
Alexander von 1. x (kcal m ) yr
−2 −1
B. II. experiment using out door
Humboldt
plots 2. 10x (kcal m ) yr
−2 −1
Global species diversity at 3.

100x
C. Paul Ehrlich III. (kcal m
−2
) yr
−1
about 7 million 3x
x
D. David Tilman IV. Rivet popper hypothesis 4. (kcal m
−2
) yr
−1
10

141 Which of the following are fused in somatic
below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 1. Somatic embryos
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2. Protoplasts
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 3. Pollens
4. Callus
138 Given below are two statements:
In C plants, some O binds to RuBisCO,
Statement I: 3 2
List I List II
hence CO fixation is decreased.
2
Citric acid
In C plants, mesophyll cells show very A. I. Cytoplasm
4
cycle
little photorespiration while bundle
Statement II: B. Glycolysis II. Mitochondrial matrix
sheath cells do not show
photorespiration. Electron
Intermembrane space
C. transport III.
of mitochondria
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct system
answer from the option given below: D. Proton gradient IV. Inner mitochondrial membrane
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
3. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True 2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
139 The DNA present in chloroplast is: 4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
1. Circular, double stranded
2. Linear, single stranded
3. Circular, single stranded
4. Linear, double stranded
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Code R1 8527521718
143 Match List I with List II 145 Identify the correct description about the given
List I List II figure:
A. Frederick Griffith I. Genetic code
Francois Jacob & Semi-conservative mode of
B. II.
Jacque Monod DNA replication
Har Gobind
C. III. Transformation
Khorana
D. Meselson Stahl IV. Lac operon

below:
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
144 Match List I with List II Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with
List I List II 1.
mucilaginous covering.
(Types of stamens ) (Example) 2. Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
A. Monoadelphous I. Citrus 3. Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
B. Diadelphous II. Pea Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers
C. Polyadelphous III. Lily 4.
with well exposed stamens
D. Epiphyllous IV. China-rose
Choose the correct answer from the options given List I List II
below:
A. GLUT-4 I. Hormone
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III B. Insulin II. Enzyme
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Intercellular ground
C. Trypsin III.
4. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III substance
Enables glucose transport
D. Collagen IV.
into cells

below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
147 Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which

does not involve oxidation of substrate.
1. Succinic acid → Malic acid
2. Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
3. Isocitrate → α - ketoglutaric acid
4. Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
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Code R1 8527521718
148 Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the Biology - 2 - Section A

following plant growth regulators, increases the
length of stem .Thus, increasing the yield? 151 Match List I with List II:
1. Gibberellin
2. Cytokinin List I List II
3. Abscisic acid Provides additional space
4. Auxin 1. Pons I. for Neurons, regulates
posture and balance
149 Match the following 2. Hypothalamus II.
Controls respiration and
List I List II gastric secretions
A. Rose I. Twisted aestivation Connects different regions
3. Medulla III.
of the brain
B. Pea II. Perigynous flower
4. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells
C. Cotton III. Drupe
D. Mango IV. Marginal placentation
below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. A-III , B-IV, C-II, D-I
below: 2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 152 Which of the following is not a component of
Fallopian tube?
150 Which of the following statement is correct 1. Isthmus
regarding the process replication in E. coli ? 2. Infundibulum
The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses 3. Ampulla
1.
polymerization in one direction, that is 5' → 3' 4. Uterine fundus
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
2. polymerization in 5' → 3' as well as the 3' → 5' 153 The " Ti plasmid " of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
direction. stands for
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses 1. Tumor independent plasmid
3.
polymerization in 5' → 3' direction. 2. Tumor inducing plasmid
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses 3. Temperature independent plasmid
4. 4. Tumour inhibiting plasmid
polymerization in one direction which is 3' → 5'.
Page: 25
Code R1 8527521718
154 Match List I with List II: 156 Match List I and List II:
List I List II List I List II
Expiratory reserve 1. Lipase I. Peptide bond
volume + Tidal volume + 2. Nuclease II. Ester bond
1. Expiratory capacity I.
Inspiratory reserve 3. Protease III. Glycosidic bond
volume
4. Amylase IV. Phosphodiester bond
Tidal volume +
Functional residual
2. II. Expiratory reserve
capacity Choose the correct answer form the options given
volume
below:
Tidal volume + 1. A-III, B-II, C-I,D-IV
3. Vital capacity III. Inspiratory reserve 2. A-II, B-IV, C-I,D-III
volume 3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Expiratory reserve 4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4. Inspiratory capacity IV. volume + Residual
volume 157 Given below are some stages of human evolution.
Arrange the in correct sequence. (Past to recent)
Choose the correct answer from the options given A. Homo habilis
below: B. Homo sapiens
1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I C. Homo neanderthalensis
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III D. Homo erectus
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III the options given below :
1. B-A-D-C
155 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 2. C-B-D-A
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 3. A-D-C-B
FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in 4. D-A-C-B
Assertion (A):
female and Leydig cells in male.
Growing ovarian follicles secrete 158 Which of the following are Autoimmune
estrogen in female whole interstitial disorders?
Reason (R):
cells secrete androgen in male human A: Myasthenia gravis
being. B: Rheumatoid arthritis
C: Gout
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct D: Muscular dystrophy
answer from the options given below: E: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
1. given below :
explanation of (A).
1. A, B, & E only
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. B, C & E only
3. (A) is False but (R) is True 3. C, D & E only
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4. A, B & D only
4.
explanation of (A).
Page: 26
Code R1 8527521718
159 Match List I with List II: 162 Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c.
List I List II Identify the correct matching pair along with their
A. Common cold I. Plasmodium location in human body:
B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid
C. Widal test III. Rhinoviruses
D. Allergy IV. Dust mites

below:
4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (a) Skeletal - Biceps
(a) Skeletal - Triceps
(b) Involuntary -
1. (b) Smooth - Stomach 2.
160 Match List I with List II: (c) Cardiac - Heart
intestine
List I List II (c) Smooth - Heart
A. Axoneme I. Centriole (a) Involuntary - Nose
(a) Smooth - Toes
tip
B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella 3. 4. (b) Skeletal - Legs
(b) Skeletal - Bone
C. Crista III. Chromosome (c) Cardiac - Heart
(c) Cardiac - Heart
D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria
163 Match List I with List II:
List I
below: List II
(Sub Phase of
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (Specific characters)
Prophase I)
2. A-II ,B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Synaptonemal complex
A. Diakinesis I.
4. A-IV,B-III, C-II, D-I formation
Completion of
161 Match List I with List II: B. Pachytene II. terminalisation of
chaismata
List I List II
Chromosomes look like
A. Pleurobrachia I. Mollusca C. Zygotene III.
thin threads
B. Radula II. Ctenophora
Appearance of
C. Stomochord III. Osteichthyes D. Leptotene IV.
recombination nodules
D. Air bladder IV. Hemichordata
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
below: 1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Page: 27
Code R1 8527521718
164 Match List I with List II: 167 The following diagram showing restriction sites in
List I List II E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y'
A. Down's syndrome I. th genes :
11 chromosome
B. α -Thalassemia II. ′
X
′
chromosome
C. -Thalassemia III. st
β 21 chromosome
Klinefelter's th
D. IV. 16 chromosome
syndrome

below:
1. A-II, B-III,C-IV, D-I
2. A-III, B-IV,C-I, D-II
3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 1. number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein
involved in the replication of Plasmid.
165 Which of the following statements is incorrect? The gene 'X' is 'for protein involved in replication of
2.
1. Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type, Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y' is
2. 3.
cultures. responsible for antibiotic resistance.
Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance tor
3. 4. antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the
delivery system and foam control system.
A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for replication of Plasmid.
4.
achieving the desired product.
168 Given below are two statements:
166 Match List I with List II: Statement I:
The presence or absence of hymen is not
List I List II a reliable indicator of virginity.
A. Pterophyllum I. Hag fish The hymen is torn during the first coitus
Statement II:
only.
B. Myxine II. Saw fish
C. Pristis III. Angel fish
D. Exocoetus IV. Flying fish
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
below: 3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-III 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 169 Consider the following statements:
4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A. Annelids are true coelomates
B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates
C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates
D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates
below:
1. A only
2. C only
3. D only
4. B only
Page: 28
Code R1 8527521718
170 Given below are statements: 173 Match List I with List II:
In the nephron, the descending limb of List I List II
Statement I: loop of Henle is impermeable to water Adjacent vertebrae,
and permeable to electrolytes. A. Fibrous joints I.
limited movement
The proximal convoluted tubule is lined Humerus and Pectoral
by simple columnar brush border B. Cartilaginous joints II. girdle, rotational
Statement II:
epithelium and increases the surface area movement
for reabsorption. Skull, don't allow any
C. Hinge joints III.
movement Knee,
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion
answer from the options given below :
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
below:
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
171 Following are the stages of cell division : 4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A. Gap 2 phase
B. Cytokinesis 174 Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
C. Synthesis phase
1. Testosterone
D. Karyokinesis
2. Progesterone
E. Gap I phase
3. Glucagon
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options
4. Cortisol
given below :
1. E-B-D-A-C
2. B-D-E-A-C 175 Following are the stages of pathway for
3. E-C-A-D-B) conduction of an action potential through the heart:
4. C-E-D-A-B A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
172 In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:
E. SA node
1. 10th segment Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the
2. 8th and 9th segment options given below :
3. 11th segment 1. A-E-C-B-D
th
4. 5 segment 2. B-D-E-C-A
3. E-A-D-B-C
4. E-C-A-D-B
Page: 29
Code R1 8527521718
176 Match List I with List II : 180 Match List I with List II:
List I List II List I List II
A. Non-medicated IUD I. Multiload 375 Effective sedative in
A. Cocaine I.
Copper releasing surgery
B. II. Progestogens
IUD B. Heroin II. Camnabis sativa
Hormone releasing C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum
C. III. Lippes loop
IUD D. Marijuana IV. Papaver somniferum
D. Implants IV. LNG-20
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
below: 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
177 Which of the following is not a natural/traditional
List I List II
contraceptive method? A. Typhoid I. Fungus
1. Periodic abstinence
B. Leishmaniasis II. Nematode
2. Lactational amenorrhea
3. vaults C. Ringworm III. Protozoa
4. Coitus interruptus D. Filariasis IV. Bacteria
178 Which one is the correct product of dependent Choose the correct answer from the options given
RNA polymerase to the template? below:
3'TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5' 1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
1. 5'AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3' 2. A-III, B-I, C.PN, D-II
2. 5'AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3' 3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. 5'ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3' 4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. 5'AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3'
179 Which one of the following factors will not affect List I List II
the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. α − 1 antitrypsin I. Cotton bollworm
1. Genetic drift B. Cry IAb II. ADA deficiency
2. Gene migration C. Cry IAc III. Emphysema
3. Constant gene pool
Enzyme replacement
4. Genetic recombination D. IV. Corn borer
therapy

below:
1. A-III, B-I, G-II, D-IV
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Page: 30
Code R1 8527521718
183 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Biology - 2 - Section B
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Breast-feeding during initial period of 186 Match List I with List II:
Assertion (A): infant growth is recommended by
List I List II
doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Unicellular glandular
Colostrum contains several antibodies A. I Salivary glands
epithelium
Reason (R): absolutely essential to develop
resistance for the new born baby. Compound
B. II Pancreas
epithelium
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Goblet cells of alimentary
C. Multicellular III
appropriate answer from the options given below: canal
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the not the Endocrine glandular Moist surface of buccal
1. D. IV
correct explanation of (A) epithelium cavity
2. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
3. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
below:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
4.
explanation of (A). 2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
184 The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the 4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
example of the
1. Natural selection 187 Choose the correct statement given below
2. Convergent evolution regarding juxta medullary nephron.
3. Divergent evolution Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in
4. Adaptive radiation 1.
the outer portion of the renal medulla.
Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep
185 Which of the following factors are favourable for 2. into medulla.
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical
1. High pO and Lesser H concentration
+
3.
2
nephrons.
2. Low pCO and High H concentration
+
2
Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns
3. Low pCO and High temperature 4.
2
of Bertini.
4. High pO and High pCO
2 2
Page: 31
Code R1 8527521718
188 Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with 190 Given below are two statements:
respect to spermatogenesis. Bone marrow is the main lymphoid
Statement I: organ where all blood cells including
lymphocytes are produced.
Both bone marrow and thymus provide
Statement II: micro environments for the development
nd maturation of T-lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most

1. ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis. 191 Given below are two statements:
2. FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis. Gause's competitive exclusion principle
3. ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis. states that two closely related species
Statement I:
4. FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis competing for different resources cannot
exist indefinitely.
189 Match List I with List II : According to Gause's principle, during
List I List II competition, the inferior will be
Statement II:
Heart muscles are eliminated. This may be true if resources
A. P wave I. are limiting.
electrically silent
Depolarisation of
B. QRS complex II. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
ventricles.
C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Repolarisation of
D. T-P gap IV. 2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
ventricles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
below:
1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Page: 32
Code R1 8527521718
192 Match List I with List II: 194 As per ABO blood grouping system the blood
List I List II group of father is B , mother is A and child is O .
+ + +
Excess secretion of Their respective genotype can be

A. Exophthalmic goiter I. cortisol, moon face A. I i/I i/ii
B A
& hyperglycemia B. I I /I I /ii

B B A A
Hypo-secretion of thyroid C. I I /iI /I i

A B A B
B. Acromegaly II. hormone and stunted D. I i/I i/I i

A B A
growth. E. iI /iI /I I
B A A B
Hyper secretion of thyroid Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
C. Cushing's syndrome III. hormone & protruding eye given below:
balls. 1. B only
Excessive secretion of 2. C & B only
D. Cretinism IV. 3. D & E only
growth hormone.
4. A only
below: 195 Match List I with List II :
1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III List I List II
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A. RNA polymerase III I. snRNPs
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Termination of
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV B. II. Promotor
transcription
C. Splicing of Exons III. Rho factor
193 Match List I with List II related to digestive
D. TATA box IV. SnRNAs, tRNA
system of cockroach.
List I List II
The structures used below:
A. I. Gizzard
for storing of food. 1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Ring of 6-8 blind 2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. tubules at junction of II. Gastric Caeca 3. A-IV, B-III; C-I, D-II
foregut and midgut. 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Ring of 100-150
yellow coloured thin 196 Match List I with List II:
C. filaments at junction III. Malpighian tubules List I List II
of midgut and
A. Mesozoic Era I. Lower invertebrates
hindgut.
B. Proterozoic Era II. Fish & Amphibia
The structures used
D. IV. Crop C. Cenozoic Era III. Birds & Reptiles
for grinding the food.
D. Paleozoic Era IV. Mammals
below: Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV below:
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Page: 33
Code R1 8527521718
197 Given below are two statements: 200 The following are the statements about non-
The cerebral hemispheres are connected chordates:
Statement I: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
The brain stem consists of the medulla B. Notochord is absent.
Statement II: C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
D. Heart is dorsal if present.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most F. Post anal tail is absent.
appropriate answer from the options given below: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. A, B & D only
Both Statement I is correct but Statement II is 2. B, D & E only
2.
incorrect. 3. B, C & D only
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 4. A & C only
198 Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, Fill OMR Sheet*

select the correct sequential steps:
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation. *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate. where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
C. Release of products. filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken. for the questions in the test.
E. Substrate binding to active site.
below:
1. A, E, B, D, C
2. B, A, C, D, E CLICK HERE to get
3. E, D, C, B, A
4. E, A, D, C, B FREE ACCESS for 2
199 Given below are two statements: days of ANY
Statement I:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both
double membrane bound organelles.
NEETprep course
Inner membrane of mitochondria is
Statement II: relatively less permeable, as compared to
chloroplast.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most

Page: 34

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NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Physics - Section A 3 A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle

4 The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is

2 Match List I with List II.

1. stress and angle moment of the needle is x × 10 Am ; then the value

2. strain and arc of 'x' is:

8 A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed

take it away from the surface is:

In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and

The ratio v : v is:

its kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de-Broglie 1. 17.5 cm

23 A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a

19 An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at B. Ferromagnetic II. 0 > χ ≥ −1

25 In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance 29 If m represents the motion of a

30 In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is

26 A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as

1. 4 N 31 A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the

28 In a vernier calipers, (N + 1) divisions of vernier

33 The output (Y ) of the given logic gate is similar to Physics - Section B

38 The velocity (v)- time (t) plot of the motion of a

41 A 10 μ F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz

42 A metallic bar of Young's modulus,

expansion or bending. The compressive force developed

B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

46 If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected 2. P > P > P

to a battery are moved close to each other, then: 3. P > P > P

A. the charge stored in it, increases.

the energy stored in it, decreases.

C. its capacitance increases.

1. A, C and E. only they originate from charges moving with uniform

moment of this new magnet is:

50 If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is

Chemistry - Section A 54 Match List I with List II.

state for Be ion in J is :

55 For the reaction 2 A ⇌ B + C, K = 4 × 10 . At

2. −4x a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is :

4. −x Then, which of the following is correct?

3. BaCl + Na SO → BaSO + 2NaCl

B. [Co(NH 3) (SO4 )] Br 1. (i) BH

2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

4. A-II, B-III,G-IV, D-I

57 In which of the following processes entropy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

61 Which one of the following alcohols reacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

62 Given below are two statements : 66 Fehling solution 'A' is

64 The E° value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more

71 Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT

72 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of

Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is

Statement I : Both [Co(NH ) ] and calculated if one knows the value of

Statement II : [Co(NH ) ] is diamagnetic whereas 4. Rate constant at standard temperature.

83 Match List I with List II. 85 Which plot of In k vs I

84 Match List I with List II.

87 Identify the correct answer.

4. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.

91 Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic