1. What are the four types of pavement and crub markings?

A. longitudinal lines, transverse lines, transition lines, and stop lines

B. longitudinal lines, transverse lines, other lines and other markings
C. longitudinal lines, transverse lines, top lines and center line
D. longitudinal lines, transverse line, stop lines, lane lines
2. Message when painted on pavement should be limited to how many words only.
A. 5 words or less C. 3 words or less
B. 4 words or less D. 6 words or less
3. The warrant for the use of safety barriers can be established considering:
I. Front slope or back slope nose and height
II. Unforgiving hazards within the clear zone
III. water hazards within the clear zone
A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. All of the above
4. The color of the pavement marker shall be __ except for the alternative uses of curb marking forprohibition of parking.
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
5. What color of pavement markers is used for no loading and unloading zones?
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
6. What color of pavement markers is used for unbroken portion of no passing lines?
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
7. What color of curb markings is used for prohibition of parking?
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
8. What color of pavement markers is used for bus and PUJ lanes?
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
9. Types of lines used where crossing of the lines is either discouraged or prohibited
A. Solid unbroken line B. oblique lines C. direction linesD. transverse line
10. Lines marked on the payment may be:
A. longitudinal B. transverse C. oblique D. all of the above
11. A line marked on the pavement which consist of line segment with equal lengths separated by uniform gaps is called.
A. broken line B. longitudinal C. transverse D. oblique
12. Pavement markings is essential for the guidance and control of vehicles and pedestrians . Aometimes they are used as a
supplement to other traffic devices such as traffic signals and road signs. They are classified into the following groups.
A. Pavement and curb markings C. Reflectorized markings
B. Object markings D. All of the above
13. Determine the color of pavement markings used in fir zone lane.
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
14. Determine the color of pavement markings, which says keep intersection open markings.
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
15. Determine the color of the curb markings for prohibition of parking.
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
16. Determine the color of the pavement markings for unbroken portion of no passing line.
A. white B. red C. yellow D. blue
17. the color of the pavement markings used in no loading/unloading zone.
A. yellow B. white C. red D. blue
18. The color of pavement markings used for bus and PUJ lanes.
A. yellow B. white C. red D. blue
19. The color of pavement markings used on islands in line of traffic.
A. yellow B. white C. red D. blue
20. The color used in hazard markers to warn road users at location where the producting objects such as bridge, piers, traffic
islands and other permanent objects on or near the roadway.
A. yellow B. white C. red D. black
21. Rods where speed limit is 60 kph or less.
A. Rural roads B. urban roads C. Private roads D. Circumferential road
22. Roads where speed limit is over 60 kph.
 A. rural roads B. urban roads C. private roads D. circumferential roads
23. A centerline is used to separate opposite traffic movements of an undivided roadway and is generally placed centrally on
all roads and bridges ___ m or more in width.
A. 10m B. 12m C. 6m D. 20m
24. A centerline may be marked on an urban or rural road if one or more of the following conditions are met.
A. 2 lane road (greater than 6m in width) carrying an annual average daily traffic (ADT) in excess of 1000 vehicles.
B. 2 lane road (less than 6m but more than 5m in width) carrying an ADT in excess of 300 vehicles.
C. Winding roads with widths of 5m or more
D. all of the above
25. The centerline on a two lane rural road or any other road where the 85th percentile speed (or speed limit) is greater than
60kpgh shal be a broken line.
A. with a min. width of 150mm, and 3 m long with gaps of 9 m spacing.
B. with a min. width of 150mm, and 3 m long with gaps 6m. spacing
C. with a min. width of 150mm, and 3 m long with gaps of 12m spacing.
D. with a min. width of 150mm, and 3 m long with gaps of 10 m spacing.
26. The centerline on a two lane urban road where the 85th percentile speed (or speed limit) is 60 kph or below, shall be
broken line.
A. with a min width of 150 mm, and equal line segments of 3 m long with gaps of 9m spacing
B. with a min width of 150 mm, and equal line segments of 3 m long with gaps of 6m spacing
C. with a min width of 150 mm, and equal line segments of 3 m long with gaps of 10m spacing
D. with a min width of 150 mm, and equal line segments of 3 m long with gaps of 12 m spacing
27. For bridges 5m or more between curbs, centerlines or separation lines shall be:
A. discontinued 30 m from the bridge abutment
B. continued across the bridge
C. discontinued 50 m from the bridge abutment
D. continued 30 m across the bridge
28. For bridges less than 5 m between curbs, the centerlines shall be:
A. discontinued 30 m from the bridges abutment
B. discontinued 50 m from the bridge abutment
C. continued across the bridge
D. continued 30 m across the bridge
29. Lane lines on roads with an 85th percentile aped or speed limit of 60 kph or less have a minimum width of 150kph and 3 m
long and spacing of gaps f:
A. 12m B. 6m C. 10m D. 9m
th
30. Lane lines on roads with an 85 percemtile speed or speed limit in excess of 60 kph shall have a minimum width of 150
mm and 3 m long and spacing of gaps of:
A. 12m B. 6m C. 10m D. 9m
31. Lane lines are generally broken lies except where ane changing is to be discourage (but not prohibited) particularly on
approaches to intersections. As guided lane lines should be used only:
A. where the road is wide enough for two or where lanes of traffic in one direction with a two way annual average
daily traffic (AADT) of 8000 or more, depending on whether parking is permitted
B. at approaches to widened or signalized intersection
C. on divided roads
D. all of the above
32. The standards lane widths for urban traveled lanes.
A. 3.7m B. 3.3m C. 2.5m D. 3.5m
33. The standard lane widths for rural traveled lanes
A. 3.7m B. 3.3 m C. 2.5m D. 3.5m
34. The standard lane width for urban traveled lanes adjacent t curb.
A. 3.3 m B. 2.5m C3.7m D 3.5m
35. The standard lane widths for rural lanes adjacent
A. 3.3 m B. 2.5m C3.7m D 3.5m
36. The standard lane widths for parking lanes for rural and urban lanes.
 A. 3.3 m B. 2.5m C3.7m D 3.5m
37. The center center or inner most lanes of roads without median islands should have a minimum width of ___m in urban
areas.
A. 4m B. 2.5m C. 3m D. 3.5m
38. The center of inner most lanes of roads without median islands should have a minimum width of ___ m in rural areas.
A. 4m B. 2.5m C. 3m D. 3.5m
39. Barrier lines may consist of either:
A. two unbroken lines C. single yellow line with a broken white lines
B. single unbroken yellow lines D. all of the above
40. Lines which should be used where overtaking from both directions of the road and all crossing movements are prohibited.
A. single unbroken white line C. double unbroken yellow lines
B. single unbroken line D. double unbroken white lines
41. Lines which should be used whose overtaking from both directions of the road are prohibited. However crossing
movements are permitted. Vehicles must always keep to the right of the double yellow lines.
A. single unbroken yellow line C. two unbroken yellow lines
B. double unbroken yellow lines D. single yellow line with broken white line
42. Road curb no loading, unloading zone shall be painted with a color of:
A. yellow B. red C. black D. white
43. The road curb for no parking zones shall be painted:
A. yellow B. red C. black D. white
44. A pavement edge line should not reduce the adjacent lane width to less than ___
A. 4m B. 3.5m C. 3m D. 4,5m
45. A pavement line which is used to indicate that portion of a carriageway assigned to through traffic. It is intended to be
crossed by traffic turning at an intersection or entering or leaving an auxiliary lane at its start or finish. This line is generally 1.
M long, 100 mm – 200 mm wide with gaps of 1m.
a. edge line B. continuity line C. no passing line D. climbing line
46. A pavement line used to delineate the edge of the traveled way to distinguish it form the shoulder area.
A. edge line B. continuity line C. no passing line D. climbing line
47. a particular lane used with no passing lines which is associated with the provision of slow moving vehicles or climbing
lanes on one side of a two lane pavement. The centerline of the two lane pavement should be marked with a double unbroken
lines where visibility is restricted for downhill traffic.
A. lane line B. carriageway C. climbing lanes D. transition lanes
48. Pavement lines used to guide traffic safely past obstruction on roadways such as islands, median strips, bridge piers, or
indicate changes in the width of the traveled portion of the roadway, and an increase or reduction in traffic lanes.
A. stop lines B. continuity lines C. transverse line D. transition lines.
49. Pavement markings across the carriageway.
A. stop lines B. continuity lines C. transverse line D. transition lines
50. Types of transverse lines.
A. atop lines and give way lines C. Roundabout holding lines
B. pedestrian crossing markings D. all of the above
51. Stop lines should be place across the appropriate portion of the roadway at positions where vehicles are required to stop
in compliance with a stop sign, traffic signals or any other legal requirement. It is a solid line not less than 300 mm or more
than 400 mm wide on urban roads and up to 600 mm on rural roads. The color of the stop line is:
A. yellow B. white C. red D. black
52. The top lines for a pedestrian actuated signal should be placed ____ m. before the nearest pedestrian crossing line.
A. 2m B. 3m C. 3.5m D. 2.5m
53. Stop lines for railway crossing may be supplemented by the word STOP marked on the carriageway. The distance between
the word STOP and the stop line should be between.
A. 10 to 25 m B. 6 to 10 m C. 4 to 8 m D. 3 to 6m
54. Two types of pedestrian crossing markings
A. zebra and cross walks C. chevron and zebra
B. crosswalks and chevron D. crosswalks and roundabout
55. Holding lines at roundabout shall consists of broken reflectorized line 400 mm wide and 600 mm long with 600 mm gaps.
The color of the holding lines is painted:
A. yellow B . red C. white D. black
56. A pavement line is used to guide vehicles through a turning movement at intersections. They should be designed to
indicate the proper course for turning vehicles without being needlessly confusing to through traffic marking other turns. The
line generally forms an arc and is position on the left hand edge of the turning lane.
A. roundabout lines B. turn lines C. give way lines D. transition lines
57. To ensure that the flow of turning traffic is not impaired, parking near intersections should be prohibited within the
following distance from the boundaries of lateral roads for parallel parking.
A. 6m on both approach and exit sides C. 4m on both approach and exit sides
B. 3m on both approach and exit sides D. 5m on both approach and exit sides
58. To ensure that the flow of turning traffic is not impaired, parking near intersections should be prohibited within the
following distance from the boundaries for an angle parking.
A. 12 m on approached side, 9m on exit side C. 15 m on approached side, 8m on exit side
B. 10 m on approached side, 8m on exit side D. 8 m on approached side, 8m on exit side
59. Two types of parking bay lines;
A. parallel parking and perpendicular parking C. parallel parking and angle parking
B. loading and unloading bay lines D. perpendicular parking and diagonal parking
60. Message when painted on pavement have a color of;
A. white B. black C. yellow D. red
61. A type of barrier lines, which is used where overtaking from both directions of the road and all crossing movements are
prohibited. Vehicles must always keep to the right of the lines.
A. single unbroken yellow line C. single yellow line with broken white lines
B. double unbroken yellow lines D. white separation line
62. A type of barrier lines used where overtaking from both directions of the road are prohibited. However, crossing
movements are permitted and vehicles must always keep to the right of the double yellow lines.
A. single unbroken yellow lines C. single yellow line with a broken white lines
B. double unbroken yellow lines D. white separation line
63. Combination of an unbroken yellow line and a white separation line are used fro vehicles proceeding in the direction
where the unbroken yellow line appears on the right of the markings, but vehicles travelling on the other directions are
permitted to cross this line. These lines have the same regulatory significance as a:
A. single yellow line with broken white lines C. single unbroken yellow lines
B. white separation line D. double unbroken yellow line
64. The following cases where barrier lines should used:
A. As centerline of approaches to signalized intersection and approaches to railway crossing
B. As centerline of multi lane roads where overtaking must be prohibited because of sight restriction
C. No passing zones where there is a restricted sight distance due to horizontal or vertical curves or both
D. all of the above
65. lane lines must not be continued on the following cases;
A. across signalized intersection
B. across side street entrance unless the street is one way street ( going in only)
C. Post the start of the taper at which a multi-lane road narrows down
D. all of the above
66. a parking bay should always be allocated for the disabled at the most convenient area painted with the disabled sign. The
color of the disabled sign 800 mm high and 690mm wide is;
A. red on a white background C. yellow on a red background
B. white on a blue background D. blue on a white background
67. Parking on approach to intersection where traffic signals are operating should be prohibited within a minimum distance of
____ m from the traffic signal.
A. 20m B. 30m C. 25m D. 40m
68. The bus and PUJ lane line is an unbroken yellow line used to separate other vehicles from buses and PUJs. The bus and PUJ
lane line can be supplemented by raised pavement markers on concrete pavements. The line is tapered at the approach to the
signalized intersection. The distance between the taper and the stop line should be determined according to the capacity of the
intersection and should be generally be less than ___m.
A. 180m B. 150m C. 100m D. 200m
69. Type of markings used to guide traffic into the right turning lanes separated by and island such as a corner island at a
signalized intersection is called:
A. chevron marking B. diagonal markings C. curb markingsD. route markings
70 A type of thermoplastic lane marking designed to aid and provide motorist with visual, audio and motion warnings on the
road. They are highly visible horizontal lines on the road that produce a humming sound and ample bumpy ride to the
motorist when ran over. It promotes better traffic safety because it stimulates more the human senses while driving.
A. bumper B. diagonal marking C. rumble trips D. chevron markings
71. The color of the curb markings for parking restrictions shall be of ____ covering tehafec of the curb.
A. solid red color B. solid yellow color C. solid white color D. solid red and yellow color
72. The color of the curb markings for loading, unloading restrictions shall be of ____.
A. solid red color B. solid yellow color C. solid white color D. solid black and yellow color
73.Letters or numeral message used in roads in urban areas shall be at least ____ m long.
A. 3.5m B. 3m C. 2.5m D. 2.0m
74. Letters or numeral messages used in road signs on high speed, highways they must be at least ___ m long.
A. 2m B. 3m C. 4m D. 5m
75. The symbol used to supplement the give-way sign consist of an isosceles triangles having two equal sides of 3.1 m and a
base of 1m. the distance of the symbol from the holding line is between ___ to ___ meters depending on the location and vehicle
speed on the road.
A. 4m to 20m B. 5 m to 25 m C. 3m to 12m D. 6m to 15m
76. Pavement arrows are used for lane use control. They are generally 5m in length on urban roads and 7.5 m on high speed
roads. The color of the pavement arrow is ___.
A. red and yellow B. yellow C. white D. red
77. The first step of pavement arrow should be placed at a distance of 15 m from the stop bar and the subsequent sets should
be placed at ___ ma part.
A. 30m B. 20m C. 25m D. 15m
78. What color of reflectors shall be used on curbs of all island located in the line of traffic flows specially on curbs directly
ahead of traffic at T and offset intersection
A. gold B. yellow C. white D. red
79. Hazard markers either as signs or painted markings are to be used on objects so closed to the edge of the roadway as to
constitute definite hazard. These include such encroachments and underpass piers, abutments, curverts, headwalls, utility
poles and ornament bldgs, other objects which are not likely to be hit unless w vehicle runs off the road, such as guard rails,
trees and rocks must be painted with reflectors having a color of ____.
A. red B. gold C. yellow D. white
80. Design curb parking stalls are marked:
A. where high turn over is expected
B. where parking is not parallel to the curb line
C. where absence of making will cause inefficient use of available space
D. all of the above
81. Which of the following statements is not true for choosing the types of sheet parking?
A. parallel parking is more hazardous than angle parking because of impaired visibility for the unparking driving.
B. parallel parking is preferred over angle parking where the movement of traffic takes priority over the temporary
storage of vehicles or vice versa.
C. angle parking provides more spaces than those parallel parking for the same length of curb space.
D. the most critical maneuver for angle parking (leaving the space = 12 sec) is more quickly and easily completed than
that on the parallel parking (entering the space = 32 sec)
82. Word markings on pavement should not exceed.
A. 4 words B. 2 words C. 3 words D. 5 words
83. In numerical marking guide and pavement letter, the distance between the words should be at least ___ times of the letters
or numerals.
A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
84. For pavement letter and numerical markings guide, which of the following is kept constant?
A. length of letter C. numerals
B. width of letters and grid squares D. all of the above
85. Am example of the numbering system for signs is given as R2-7A(L). What does this sign indicate?
A. a regulation sign C. The sign is the smallest and has a left hand version
B. the sign is the seventh in the series D. all of the above
86. In stopping sight distance, the distance traveled while the driver perceives a hazard, decides to take action, then a acts by
starting to apply the brakes to start slowing down is called.
A. reaction distance B. braking distance C. maneuver distance D. passing sight distance
87. In a stopping sight distance, the distance required for the vehicle to slow down and stop is known as.
A. retain distance B. braking distance C. maneuver distance D. non passing sight distance
88. The reaction time to be used for road safety design as prescribed by the DPWH is equal to ___
A. 2.0 sec B. 2.5 sec C. 3 sec D. 3.5sec
89. Curve parking stalls are marked when
A. high turnover is expected
B. parking is not parallel to the curb line
C. absence of marking will cause inefficient use of all available space
D. all of the above
90. The most critical maneuver time for angle parking is
A. 10 sec B. 20 sec C. 12 sec D. 25 sec
91. The most critical maneuver time for parallel parking is
A. 32 sec B. 20 sec C.12 sec D. 25 sec
92. When the movement of traffic takes priority over the temporary storage f vehicles or vice versa, which type of parking is
preferred to?
A. angle parking B. diagonal parking C. parallel parking D. side parking
93. Which type of parking will provide more spaces for the same length of curb space?
A. angle parking B. diagonal parking C. parallel parking D. side parking
94. Which type of parking is more hazardous because of impaired visibility for the unparking driver?
A. angle parking B. diagonal parking C. parallel parking D. side parking
95. The length of grid squares in a pavement markings is expressed in terms of letter or numerals equal to ___ x, where x is the
length of letter in meters and length of grid squares in mm.
A. 20x B. 25x C. 15x D. 30x
96. The recommended length of the road section where reflectorized thermoplastic rumble strips are to be installed shall be
___ m depending on the advisory speed limit of the road section
A. 15 m to 25m B. 20m to 30m C. 25m to 35m D. 30m to 50 m
97. Placement of reflectorized thermoplastic rumble strips shall be limited to
A. rural locations
B. should not be installed near residential areas
C. should not be placed through pedestrian crossing or on bicycle routes
D. all of the above
98. The color f the reflectorized thermoplastic rumble strips
A. white B. red and yellow C. yellow D. either white or yellow
99. Spacing of reflectorized rumble strips.
A. 250mm to 500mm B. 200mm to 500mm C. 150mm to 200mm D. 200mm to 300mm
100. Width of reflectorized rumble strips
A. 75mm to 125mm B. 50mm to 100mm C. 100mm to 150mm D. 150mm to 200 mm
101. Height of reflectorized rumble strips
A. 6mm to 12mm B. 8mm to 10mm C. 4mm to 13mm D. 5mm to 10 mm
102. Speed limit for road users on high risk pedestrian areas which have different restriction t its speed is ___ kph.
A. 40 B. 50 C. 30 D. 20
103. Speed limit for roads where there are no foot paths and pedestrians ato walk on the road is ___ kph.
A. 40kph B. 30kph C. 20kph D. 50kph
104. Speed limit on roads through built up areas where there are not so many pedestrians or for low risk pedestrians areas is
___ kph.
A. 40kph B. 30kph C. 60kph D. 50kph
105. Speed limits which are appropriate on a high standard duplicated carriageway road where there is only occasional access
from adjoining properties is ___ kph.
A. 60kph B. 120kph C. 80kph D. 100kph
106. Speed limit for a very high standard expressways which have a low crash rate is ___ kph.
A. 60kph B. 75 kph C. 80 kph D. 100kph
107. Speed restrictions signs should be erected on the left and right sides of the road at the start of a new speed zone, then
with the first kilometer, there should be two (2) farther pairs of repeated speed limit signs. After that, repeater signs should be
replaced at a spacing of ___ km.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 1.5 D. 2.5
108. The maximum number of vehicles which have a reasonable expectation of passing over a given section of a lane or a road
way in one direction or in both directions during one hour under prevailing road and traffic condition
A. traffic density B. road capacity C. traffic flow D. traffic volume
109. Ideal capacity of a road in vehicle per hour (vph)
A. 1000 B. 1100 C. 2000 D. 140
110. Turn outs (loading and unloading bays) shall be placed outside the carriageway of our national roads and should be
sufficiently long to accommodate the maximum number of vehicles expected to occupy the space at one time. The desirable
minimum length including transition taper is ___ m but not longer than ___ m to avoid its use as a passing length.
A. 100m, 180 m B. 90m, 180m C. 80m, 160m D. 60m, 185m
111. Minimum width of turnouts (loading and unloading bays) is ___m.
A. 2.6m B. 3m C. 3.6m D. 2m
112. Pedestrian sidewalk or platform shall be provided alongside of the turnout (loading and unloading bays) with a minimum
width of ___ m and in no case shall be lower than the existing sidewalk.
A. 2m B. 1.5m C. 2.5m D. 3m
113. Which of the following is not true regarding locations of a turnout (loading and unloading bays)?
A. turnouts may be placed at least 50m after a road intersection
B. turn outs shall be placed opposite each other
C. minimum distance between two consecutive turnouts in one direction shall not be less than 500m in cities/urban
centers
D. turnouts shall not be placed on or adjacent to horizontal and vertical curves that limit the sight distance in either
direction.
114. Turnouts (loading and unloading bays) shall not be placed opposite each other but shall be placed not less than ___ m
apart
A. 100 B. 30 C. 60 D. 120
115. Pavement thickness of turnout (loading and unloading bays) shall in one case be less than ___ mm for asphalt.
A. 100mm B. 75mm C. 150mm D. 200mm
116. Pavements thickness of turnout (loading and unloading bays) shall in one case be less than __mm for concrete with
supporting base layers.
A. 250mm B. 200mm C.150mm D. 230mm
117. Vehicles parked near intersections can obstruct the flow of turning traffic. Thus parking should be prohibited within the
minimum distance of __ m, on both approach and exits sides from the boundaries of intersection roads for parallel parking.
A. 10m B. 6m C. 12m D. 8m
118. Vehicles parked near intersections can bstruct the flow of turning traffic. Thus parking should be prohibited within the
minimum distance of __ m on the approach side and __ m on exit side for angle parking.
A. 15m 10m B. 14m, 8m C. 12m, 9m D. 10m, 8m
119. The standard sign shape for a stop sign.
A. circle symbol b. rectangular C. octagon D. triangle
120. The standard sign shaep for regulatory signs.
A. equilateral triangle B. octagon C. triangle D circle symbol
121. The standard sign shape used only for pedestrian and school crossing sign.
A. pentagon B. octagon C. equilateral triangle D. rectangle
122. The standard sign shapes used for warning signs.
A. equilateral triangle B. octagon C. rectangle D. circle symbol
123. Standard background color for stop sign.
A. yellow B. white C. black D. red
124. Standard background color for roadwork sign.
A. yellow B. fluorescent yellow greenC. black D. red
125. Standard background color for most signs and legends for some colored background.
A. yellow B. white c. black D. red
126. Standard background color used for signs related to pedestrian movement, school zones and roadwork hazard markers to
give additional emphasis and guidance to vehicle operators.
A. yellow B. fluorescent yellow green C. white D. red
127. Standard sign shape used for directions signs, service signs, roadwork signs, signs for special purposes.
A. square B. octagon C. rectangle D. pentagon
128. The standard sign shape generally used for facility information signs, instruction signs, guide signs and destination of
point of interest.
A. square B. octagon C. rectangle D. pentagon
129. Standard color for signs used as a background color for roadwork signs whose legends relate to personnel working.
A. fluorescent orange B. fluorescent yellow green C. yellow D. red
130. Standard color for signs used as background color for direction signs.
A. fluorescent orange B. red C. yellow D. green
131. Standard blue color for signs used as background color for direction signs.
A. blue B. red C. yellow D. green
132. Standard color for sign used as background color for all tourist facility directional and information signs.
A. blue B. brown C. yellow D. green
133. How many series of letters and numerals are used for the standard specification for road signs?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 D .6
134. Standard letters used for signs are classified as narrow, medium and wide spacing. What does 160DM indicates for
standard letters used for signs
A. 160mm series D letters at medium spacing
B. 160 mm series M at narrow spacing
C. 160mm lower case letters of series D at medium spacing
D. 160mm lower case letters of series D at wide spacing
135. Standard letters used for signs are classified as narrow, medium and wide spacing. What does 90LC means in terms of
letter classification?
A. 90mm lower case letter that are always at wide spacing
B. 90mm lower case letters that are always at narrow spacing
C. 90mm lower case letters that are always at narrow spacing
D. none of the above
136. There are 6 series of letters and numerals ranging from the narrow series A t the broad series F. which letters are not
used on signs which have to be used from moving vehicles as the legibility distance are small.
a. series A B. series C C. series F D. A and B series
137. There are 6 series of letters and numerals ranging from the narrow series A t the broad series F. Which of the following
series is not often used on large signs due to the wide space required?
A. series A B. series B C. series F D. series D
138. Traffic signs are normally located in which part of the road?
A. right side B. left side C. both left and right D. mounted over the road
139. Uniformity of application is an important standardization with respect to design and placement. To be effective, the road
sign should meet the following basic requirements.
I. fulfill a need
II. convey a clear, simple message
III. command attention and respect
IV. give adequate time for proper response
140. To eliminate possible undesirable reflection from the surface of the sign, it should be turned about ___ degrees away from
the normal to the headlight beam when the signs are mounted at right angles to the direction of and facing the traffic they are
going to serve.
A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 5
141. Under what conditions should be considered in the erection of overhead sign displays?
I. traffic volume is at near capacity
II. three or more lanes in each direction
III. restricted signs distance
IV. multi-lane exit
V. large percentage of trucks
VI. street lighting background
VII. high speed traffic
VIII. insufficient space for ground mounted signs
IX. complex or closely spaced intechanges
X. Consistency of signs message location through a series of interchanges
A. I, III, IV and VI only C. VII, IX, and X only
B. III, V, VIII only D. All of the above
142. The slow down accident prone area warning sign shall be rectangular in shape and not less than 1060mm x 600 mm in
size with long axis horizontal. The color of letters and borders shall be ___ on white reflectorized background.
A. green B. black C. blue green D. red
143. The low clearance X.Xm sign shall be rectangular in shape and not less than 1950 mm x 600 mm in size with the long axis
horizontal. It shall be installed in all bridges, underpasses and t=other structures where the vertical clearance above the road
pavement is ___ m or less to warn motorist of the restricted height of the approaching structures.
A. 5.5m B. 5.2m C. 4.8m D. 4.2m
144. The clearance warning signs shall be rectangular in hsape and not less than 1500 mm x 600mm in size with long axis
horizontal. They are installed on structures where signed clearance is ___ m.
A. greater than 4.8 m but not more than 5.5m C. greater than 4.8 m but not more than 5.2m
B. greater than 4.5 m but not more than 5.5m D. greater than 4.5 m but not more than 5.2m
145. Typical methods of supporting overhead signs.
I. cantilever support
II. gantry support
III. butterfly support
IV. all of the above
A. IV B. I and III only C. I, and II only D. II and III only
146. Which of the following signs are not considered as warning signs?
` A. pedestrian and school signs C. horizontal alignment sign
B. route markers D. road width signs
147. Which of the following signs are not considered as classification of guide signs?
A. street name signs B. advance directions sign C. intersection and junction sign D. route markers
148. Which of the following are classified as warning signs?
I. horizontal alignment signs
II. advance warning of traffic control device
III. road with signs
IV. pedestrian and school sign
V. all of the above
A. V B. I, II and IV C. II and IV only D. II, III and IV only
149. In urban areas, advance warning signs should be placed at ___ m in advance of the hazardous area.
A. not less than 50 m or more than 120 m C. not less than 30 m or more than 100 m
B. not less than 20 m or more than 80 m D. not less than 100 m or more than 200 m
150. In rural areas, advance warning signs should be placed at ___ m in advance of the hazardous area.
A. not less than 50 m or more than 200 m C. not less than 75 m or more than 225 m
B. not less than 40 m or more than 150 m D. not less than 60 m or more than 180 m
151. For hazards requiring reduction in speed, the warning sign shall be installed on separate posts placed at a distance of not
less than ___ m apart where V is the 8th percentile.
A. 0.8V B. 0.6V C. 1.2V D. 1.5V
152. The following types of signs such as sharp turn, reverse turn, curve turn, reverse curve, winding road, and hairpin curve
are called.
A. supplementary sign B. horizontal alignment sign C. guide sign D. none of the above
153. The color combination used for information signs, street names signs and kilometer posts.
A. white legend on brown background C. white legend on standard green background
B. white legend on blue background D. black legend on white background
154. The color combination used for advance directions signs, intersection and special direction signs, including signs giving
directions to expressways from the adjacent road and street system.
A. white legend on brown background C. white legend on standard green background
B. white legend on blue background D. black legend on white background
155. The color combination used for signs indicating roadside facilities, services and legends used.
A. white legend on brown background C. white legend on standard green background
B. white legend on blue background D. black legend on white background
156. The color combination used for signs for tourist interest.
A. white legend on brown background C. white legend on standard green background
B. white legend on blue background D. black legend on white background
157. A guide sign should carry not more than ___ lines of legends.
A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4
158. The guid sign should carry not more than ___ destination names.
A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4
159. The guide signs should not carry more than 3 destination names but in special cases it is limited to __ names.
A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4
160. When distance are shown on guide signs, the distance shall be known in ___ increments for distance from 1 km to 4.9 km.
A. 0.5km B. 0.3 km C. 0.2km D. 0.10km
161. When distance are shown on guide signs, the distance shall be shown to the nearest ___ for greater distance.
A. 0.5km B. 1km C. 800km D. 600km
162. When distance are shwn on guide signs, the distance shall be shown in ___ increments for distances from 5 km to 9.5km
a. 0.5km B. 0.75km C. 0.8km D. 0.25km
163. A type of sign used in advanced of an intersection to indicate destinations along eac route leading away from the
intersection, providing prior information on the routes ahead by showing place, names, vows, symbols, and instructions to
indicate directions.
A. warning signs B. advance direction sign C. guide sign D. overhead signs
164. Advance direction signs shall be rectangular in shape, normally with long axis horizontal. They shal=l have reflectorized
with legend, symbols and border on reflectorized ___ background
A. red B. fluorescent orange C. green D. blue
165. Two types of Advance direction signs.
A. service signs and reassurance direction signs C. stack and route markers
B. diagrammatic and route marks D. stack and diagrammatic
166. A type of advance direction signs which shows includes destinations together with appropriate direction arrows and if
required road names and route markers
A. stack B. route markers C. diagrammatic D. service sign
167. Which of the following standard abbreviation is not true for directions signs?
A. RD for road B. ST for street C. HWY for highway D. EXP for expressway
168. Street names sign should be located on posts as near as practical to the intersection so that they are clearly visible to
both pedestrians and rivers. Were the signs erected on the foot way, the height should not be less than ___ m measures to the
bottom of the sign.
A. 2.0m B. 2.2m C. 1.8m D. 2.5m
169. When street name sign are erected in the footway, the height should not be more than ___ m measured to the bottom of
the sign
A. 3.2m B. 2.5m C. 3m D. 2.8
170. Town names signs and name of local geographical interest such as the name of a river shall be rectangular in shape with
long axis horizontal has a color of ___.
A. black legend on white background C. white legend on blue background
B. white legend on green background D. red legend on yellow background
171. Route markers identifies the general direction of arterial roads and national highways that have significance as through
routes This marker when erected and individual sign shall have a size of 310mm x 360mm on national roads, and 410mm x
480mm on expressways and has a color combination of ___.
A. white numerals and border on a blue background
B. white numerals and border on a green background
C. black numerals and border on reflectorized white background
D. black numerals and border on red background
172. At the end of the route, the sign END shall be displaced on the route marker and shall have a color of.
A. black arrows or legend and border on a white background
B. white arrows or legend and border on a green background
C., white legend and border on blue background
D. black legend and border on a yellow background
173. Which of the following is not true regarding the proper location of route markers?
A. in rural areas, no need for route markers
B. at all intersections and junction where motorist need to be assured for the route
C. beyond intersections and junction before which markers have been incorporated in the directional signs
D. just outside the built up area leaving a city or town.
174. The Philippines is one of the 32 member counties of UN-ESCAP. Our country has been assigned the Asian Highway route
member AH26. The route links major seaports and cities in the country comprising most of the Daang Maharlika, which
commence from Loaog, Manila, Legazpi, Matnog (Ferry) Allen, Tacloban (Ormoc Ferry), Cebu, Lilo-an (Ferry), Surigao, Davao,
Cagayan De Oro, General Santos and Zamboanga. What is the total length of AH26?
A. 5415km B. 2950km C. 4218km D. 3517
175. The Asian Highway sign has white reflective letters, numerals and border on retro reflective ___ background.
A. red B. yellow C. green D. blue
176. A traffic instruction sign should not carry long message. The number of lines of message should be ___.
A. not more than 6 B. not more than 5 C. not more than 8 D. note more than 4
177. A traffic instruction sign, which is used where there is a possibility that through traffic may enter a dead end local road
error.
A. DEAD END B. NO ENTRY C. NO THROUGH ROAD D. ROD CLOSED
178. What type of hazard marker is shown in the figure?

A. one way hazard marker B. two way hazard marker C. width marker D. obstruction marker
179. What type of hazard marker is shown in the figure?

A. one way hazard marker B. two way hazard marker C. width marker D. obstruction marker
180. What type of hazard marker is shown in the figure?
A. one way hazard marker B. two way hazard marker C. width marker D. obstruction marker
181. What type of hazard marker is shown in the figure?

A. one way hazard marker B. two way hazard marker C. width marker D. obstruction marker
182.One way Hazard Markers indicate to the approaching driver the direction to be followed if the marker appears in the
driving path. They may point to the left or right as appropriate and are used as follows:
A. delineate an abrupt narrowing of pavement and curve approach just prior to entering an intersection
B. at exposed ends of raised median islands where traffic is required to pass to one side
C. on central island of a roundabout facing entering traffic
D. all of the above
183. Determine the min. length of barrier lines for marking No passing Zone for a vertical curve with a minimum siht distance
of 150m, for roads with capacity of less than 1000 vehicles per day regardless of the speed.
A. 60 B. 75 C. 90 D. 105
184. Which of the following messages when painted on pavement is not allowed.
A. in case of an emergency turn left C. no right turn
B. keep clear D. STOP
185. Because of the high cost of installation and maintenance, the warrant use of raised pavement markers may be considered
only in the following conditions.
I. in hilly areas where fog and rain are frequently the cause of traffic accidents
II. in winding roads
III. in accident prone areas
A. I and III only B. I and II only C. I only D. all of the above
186. Reflective markers placed at regular intervals in gaps along a line may help to define the line particularly at night or
under foggy or wet conditions. The line usually treated in this manner are:
I. Center lines
II. Edge lines
III. Bay lane lines
IV. Parking bay lines
A. I and III only B. III and IV only C. I and II only D. all of the above
220. On open country roads with no blind corners not closely bordered by habitation, the maximum speed for passenger cars
and motorcycles is ___ kph.
A. 80 B. 50 C.60 D. 70
221. On open country roads with no blind corners not closely bordered by habitation, the maximum speed for passenger
motor trucks and buses is ___kph.
A. 60 B. 45 C. 50 D. 80
222. On through streets or boulevards clear of traffic, with no blind corners, when so designated, the maximum speed of
passenger cars and motorcycles is ____ kph.
A. 30 B. 50 C. 40 D. 60
223. On through streets or boulevard clear of traffic, with no blind corners, when so designated, the maximum speed for motor
trucks and buses is ___ kph.
A. 40 B. 30 C. 50 D. 20
224. On city and municipal streets, with light traffic, when not designated through streets, the maximu speed for passenger
cars, maximum speed for passenger cars, motorcycles, motor trucks and buses is ___ kph.
A. 20 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30
225. Through crowded streets, approaching intersection at blind corners, passing school zones, passing other vehicles, which
are stationary or for similar dangerous circumstances, the maximum speed for passenger cars, motorcycles, motor trucks and
buses is ___ kph.
A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50
226. Uniformity of application is as important as standardization with respect to design and placement. Identical conditions
should always be treated with the same type of signs so that the road users can readily anticipate te course of action required.
To be effective the road signs should meet the following basic requirements.
A. fulfill a need
II. command attention
III. convey a clear simple message
IV. command respect
V. give adequate time for proper response
VI. a traffic sign should be perceived and understood by the road users.
A. III, IV, and V only B. II, III, and IV only C. I, II, III, IV and V only D. I, IV, V, and VI only
227. How many series of letters and numerals are used for the standard specification for road signs?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5
228. Standard letter and numerals are used for standard roads signs. What is the meaning of 150 DN?
A. 150 mm series D letters at normal spacing C. 150 mm series D letters at wide spacing
B. 150 m series D letters at medium spacing D. 150 mm series D letters at narrow spacing
229. standard letter and numerals are used for standard road signs. What is the meaning of 120LC?
A. 120mm lower case letters that are always at medium spacing
B. 120 mm lower case letters that are always at wide spacing
C. 120 mm lower case letter that are always at narrow spacing
D. 120 mm lower case letters that are always at normal spacing
230. It should be noted that when all the sign rules have been followed, some visual judgement must be exercised in adjusting
sign element. The following general rules are to be applied when designing the sign face.
I. Cramping of legend is to be avoided
II. Avoid large areas of blank plane particular blank areas not symmetrically disposed across the panel.
III. If there are two list of legends side by side, it is necessary to left justify the left list and right justify the right list.
IV. Elements such as arrows and symbols may sometimes have to be larger than the principal legend would normally
require.
A. I, II, IV only B. II, and III only C. II, III, and IV only D. all of the above
231. The figure shows a standard single support signs in urban areas. Determine the minimum value of lateral placement x and
height y.

A. x = 0.50m, y = 2.2m B. x = 0.6m, y = 2.0m C. x = 0.3m, y =2.5m D. x = 0.40m, y = 3m

232. The figure shows a standard two post support sin in urban area. Determine the minimum value of lateral placement x and
y height.

A. x = 0.4m, y = 2.2m B. x c= 0.5m, y = 2.4m C. x = 0.3m, y = 2m D. x = 0.6m, y = 2.5m

233. The design of overtaking lanes and climbing lanes requires the consideration of the following;
I. initial diverge taper
II. auxiliary lane length
III. end or merge taper
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. all of the above
234. Where long steep grades occur, it is desirable to provide emergency escape ramps. The types of escape ramps are as
follows.
 I. sand pile
II. Descending grade
III. horizontal grade
IV. ascending grade
A. II, III and IV only B. III, IV only C. I and III only D. all of the above
235. On curve alignments, it is advisable to consider the paving of the outside curve shoulder width. Should pasing is a
valuable method of providing:
I. integrity to the pavement
II. width to place edge line pavement markings
III. additional safety to prevent vehicles skidding or drivers losing control in gravel IV. Low maintenance costs
compared width unpaved shoulders.
A. I, II, and III only B. II, III and IV only C. III, and IV only D. all of the above
236. The areas where the state of the road surface condition and good texture of the road surface is particularly important are
where vehicles are required to brake or maneuver suddenly such as
I. on the approach to traffic signals
II. at roundabouts
III. around tight curves
IV. on downhill slopes
A. I, II and IV only B. I, II and III only C. III, IV only D. all of the above
237. If a curve experiencing a number of loss control of crashes, it may be appropriate to provide barrier lines with
reflectorized pavement sutds, edge lines,and chevron hazard signs or guidepost. Other aspects that could contribute to loss of
control on curves are:
I. adverse super elevation
II. poor sight distance
III. poor surface condition
A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, II, and IV only D. all of the above
238. Provision of safety sight distance depends on the characteristics of:
I. driver
II. vehicle
III. environment
IV. traffic enforcer
A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, II, and IV only D. all of the above
239. Sight distance is the length of road visible ahead to the driver at any instance. It has the following lements.
I. driver’s eyesight
II. object height
III. sight distance
IV. braking distance
A. I, II, and IV only B. II, III, and IV only C. I, II, and III only D. all of the above
240. The components of stopping distance:
I. reaction distance
II. braking distance
III. passing sight distance
IV. sight distance
A. II, and IV only B. I, and II only C. I, and IV only D. I, and III
241. The following are the different criteria used for the established of sag vertical curves.
I. headlight sight distance
II. passenger comfort
III. drainage control
IV. general appearance
A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, and IV only D. all of the above
242. Different types of curb gutter are as follows.
I. barrier curb and gutter
II. barrier curb
 III. mountable/drop curb and gutter
IV. mountable/drop curb
A. I, and III only B. II and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. all of the above
243. The basic lane width appropriate for national roads.
A. 3.5m B. 3.35m C. 3.65m D. 4m
244. Delineation is generally provided by the use of the following devices.
I. Pavement markings
II. signs
III. guide posts
IV. reflective delineators
V. lightning
VI. curb and other physical devices
A. I, II, and V only B. II, IV, V and VI only C. III, IV and V only D. all of the above
245. The types if intersection that generally exist on the road network are:
I. unflared and unchannelized intersections ( without widening or traffic islands)
II. flared and unchannelized intersections ( with widening bu without traffic island)
III. Channelized intersections ( traffic islands to guide traffic)
IV. three leg intersections
A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. all of the above
246. The speed of vehicles through an intersection depends on:
I. alignment
II. road environment
III. Traffic volume and composition
IV. traffic control devices
A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. all of the above
247. Principles of good design to reduce the likehood of traffic accidents include:
I. Minimize the speed vehicles at potential collision poits
II. separate movements and points of conflict by channelized or in some situations, prohibit certain movements
(provide for them at other intersections along the route)
III. control movements to reduce the possibility of conflict
IV. clearly define vehicle paths by use of pavements markings
A. I, II, and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
248. Low relative speed conditions at intersection can be obtained by;
I. choosing a layout where conflicting movements cross at right angles less than or equal to 90 degrees.
II. provide layout or alignment that slows down approaching vehicles
III. providing deceleration lanes.
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. all of the above
249. Provision of turning lanes can generally be provided in the following ways.
I. shared turning and through lane
I. flaring and taper
III. separate lane for deceleration and storage
IV. provide auxiliary left and right turning lanes
A. I, III and IV only B. II, III and IV only C. I, II and III only D. all of the above
250. Types of lane arrangement:
I. high entry angle slip lane
II. free flow slip lane
III. low entry angle slip lane
IV. type A slip lane
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. all of the above
251. Thing to avoid in the design of splitter islands.
I. straight approaches on high speed roads
II. central island too small to provide deflection
III. unbalanced traffic flows
 IV. small entrance and exit conditions
A. I, II and IV only B. II, III, and IV only C. I, II and III only D. all of the above
252. It must be recognized that drivers and riders are only human and will sometimes make mistakes and lose control of their
vehicles. The reasons that they mght lose control are:
I.excessive speed
II. fatigue or inattention
III. alcohol and drugs
IV. road conditions
A. I, II and IV only B. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
253. The warrant for the use of safety barriers can be established considering:
I. fore slope and black slope steepness and height
II. unforgiving hazards within the clear zone
III. water hazards within the clear zone
A. I only B. II only C. II, and III only D. all of the above
254. What do you called a dark brown to black cementitious materials in which the predominating constituents are bituments
which occur in nature or are obtained in petroleum processing?
A. cement rock B. talus C. asphalt D. slag
255. A plaster coat or coats applied prior to application of the finish coat is known as:
A. tack coat B. flash coat C. scrath coat D. base coat
256. The penetration test on asphalt cement is used to determine its.
A. density B. elasticity C. hardness D. time of set
257. A pavement that has a wearing surface of bituminous material such as asphalt and its strength depends upon the bearing
capacity of subgrade is known as:
A. flexible pavement B. rigid pavement C. macadam pavement D. asphalt pavement
258. Cracks in concrete pavements due to temperature expansions can be prevented or minimize by:
A. continuous pouring of concrete
B. proper preparation of subgrade
C. providing expansion joints and sectional pouring of concrete
D. insuring proper consistency and strength of concrete mixture
259. A very thin surface treatment of bituminous material which is applied as a final step in the construction of certain
bituminous wearing surfaces of roads is called:
A. prime coat B. tack coat C. seal coat D. over coat
260. The single application of liquid bituminous material to a previously prepared and untreated road base, such as earth,
gravel stabilized soil, or water bound macadam base courses is called is:
A. prime coat B. tack coat C. seal coat D. over coat
261. The single initial application of bituminous material to an existing bituminous Portland cement concrete or block surface
or base is called:
A. prime coat B. tack coat C. seal coat D. over coat
262. Asphalt cement is usually tested for:
A. viscosity B. distillation C. penetration D. all of the above
263. The graded portion of a highway within the top side slope , prepared as a foundation for the pavement structures ad
shoulder is called:
A. roadway B. subgrade C. road bed D. all of the above
264. The ratio of the load of wheel to the contract area or area of imrint as used in the design of pavement is known as:
A. contact pressure B. modulus of subgrade C. inflation pressure D. tire pressure
265. The ratio of contact pressure to tire pressure as used in pavement design is known as.
A. rigidity factor B. inflation C. modulus of subgrade D. relative stiffness
266. The soil base over which the other layers of the pavement are constructed
A. sub-grade B. sub-base C. base course D. wearing course
267. the ratio of the force per unit area required to penetrate a soil mass with a standard circular piston at the rate of 1.25
mm/minute to that required of corresponding penetration of a standard material
A. California bearing ratio C. penetration ratio
B. relative compaction D. sub-grade modulus
268. The grinding action of and impact of tires on road aggregates is called:
A. shearing B. penetration C. abrasion D. crushing
269. The strength test for aggregates used in a mixture of pavement materials is measured by its resistance to.
a. penetration B. shearing C. compact D. crushing
270. Classification of pavements according to their ctructural behavior
A. macadam pavement, concrete pavement C. asphalt and concrete pavement
B. flexible pavements and rigid pavements D. bituminous concrete and water bound macadam road
271. A road made of coarse aggregate mechanical interlocked by rolling and bonded together with screening dust is called
A. water bound macadam road C. rigid pavement
B. flexible pavement D. bituminous pavement
272. An application of hot bitumen material given to the old surface to provide adhesion to the old and new surface is called
A. tack coat B. prime coat C. seal coat D. asphalt coat
273. A layer of stone chippings coat laid over a hot to make the surface water-proof is called:
A. tack coat B. prime coat C. seal coat D. asphalt coat
274. A very thin surface applied over a bituminous pavements, to make it impervious is called:
A. tack coat B. prime coat C. seal coat D. asphalt coat
275. The layered structure placed over a soil sub-grade for forming a road is called:
A. pavement B. sub base C. wearing course D. surface course
276. A pavement which depends on the bearing strengths of its sub grade and sub base
A. cement concrete pavement C. macadam pavement
B. rigid pavement D. flexible pavement
277. A pavement which depends on its flectural strength
A. flexible pavement B. rigid pavement C. asphalt pavement D. macadam pavement
278. the layer of natural oil over which the pavement of a road is laid is called
A. wearing course B. sub grade C. sub base D. base
279. The layer in a road pavement which provides resistance t wear a tear due to traffic is called:
A. base B. sub-grade C. sub base D. wearing course
280. The part of the road structure which is immediately above the subgrade and composed of stone boulders or superior oil is
called
A. base B. sub-grade C. sub-base D. wearing course
281. The layer of the pavement which finally carries the load from the road is
A. base course B. sub-grade C. sub-base D. wearing course
282. The component of the road structure which receives the traffic load and transfers it to the subgrade
A. base course B. sub-grade C. sub-base D. wearing course
283. Disabled sign shall be white 800mm high and 690 mm wide a ___ background
A. blue B. red C. yellow D. green
284. Pavement markings consisting of a cross, the letters RR, a No Passing Zone marking and a double solid top bar at a
distance of 3m to 12m in front of and parallel to the railway line shall be placed on all paved approaches to level or at grade
railroad crossings. Such markings shall be white except the No Passing barrier line, which shall have a color of ___.
A. red B. orange C. yellow D. black
285. Type of marking used to guide traffic into the right turning lanes separated by an island, such as a corner island at a
signalized intersection
A. diagonal B. chevron C. rumble D. crosswalk
286. Type of lines which consists of a two adjacent broken white lines across the carriageway at which drivers must give way
to all traffic
A. give way lines B. bay lines C. turn lines D.holding lines
287. Two types of pedestrian crossing
A. chevron and rumble C. crosswalk and chevron
B. zebra and chevron D. zebra and crosswalk
288. Lines used to guid traffic safely post obstructions on roadways such as is lanes, median strips, bridge piers or indicate
changes in the width of the traveled portion of the roadway andan increase or reduction n traffic lanes.
A. transverse line B. transition line C. longitudinal line D. diagonal line
289. Recommended width of edge lines for an urban road at the other lane width.
 A. 4.0m B. 3.5m C. 3m D. 4.5m
290. Recommended width of edge lines for an expressway of the outer lane width
A. 4.0m B. 3.5m C. 3m D. 4.5m
291. Width of edge lines vary from ___ depending on the available lane width and the prevailing speeds of the vehicles on the
road.
A. 200mm to 300mm B. 150mm to 300mm C. 100mm to 300mm D. 120mm to 240mm
292. Color of edge lines which is a solid line between 100mm and 200mm wide. These lines are used to delineate the edge of
the traveled way to distinguish it from the shoulder area.
A. yellow B. white C. orange D. red
293. The purpose of installing edge lines is generally based on the following:
I. to discourage travel on road shoulders
II. to make driving safer and more assured, particularly at night and during inclement weather by a continuous guide
for the driver
III. to act as a guide past objects which are close to the edge of the pavement and which constitute a hazard.
IV. to prevent parking at or near intersections
A. II, III and IV only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. all of the above
294. What is the standard lane width for parking lanes in urban areas?
A. 2.2m B. 3.7m C. 3.0m D. 2.5m
295. A vehicle the dimension and minimum turning radius of which are larger than almost all vehicles in its class, selected for
the purpose of establishing geometric design controls for that class of vehicles
A. design vehicle B. passenger car C. single unit track D. semi-tailer
296. A local street open at one end only and with special provision for turning around
A. auxiliary street B. approach roadway C. cul-dec-sac street D. dead-end street
297. A local street open at one end only without special provision for turning around.
A. auxiliary street B. emergency street C. dead-end street D. cul-dec-sac street
298. An interchange with one or more highway separation and direct connections for the major turning movements.
A. directional interchange C. trumpet
B. diamond interchange D. colver-leaf
299. An area within a roadway or between roadways from which vehicular traffic is intended to be excluded
A. median B. island C. outer separation D. undercrossing
300. A portion of a divided highway separating the traveled ways for traffcopposite directions.
A. island B. median C. cul-de-sac D. nose
301. An intersection roadway at a highway separation usually on a grade
A. ramp B. median C. traveled way D. interchange
302. The figure shown below is one type of highway intersection at a grade which is commonly known as:

A. partial clover leaf C. rotary intersections roundabout

B. clover leaf D. directional interchange
303. The figure shown is one type of free way interchange which is commonly known as:
A. partial clover leaf B. diamond interchange C. clover leaf D. directional interchange
304. The figure shown is one type of free way interchange which is commonly known as:

A. y-type interhcnage B. directional interchange C. trumpet D. partial clover leaf

305. The figure shown is one type of free way interchange which is commonly known as:

A. diamond interchange B. clover leaf C. y-type interchange D. trumpet interchange

306. The figure shown is one type of channelized interchange which is commonly known as:

A. directional interchange C. through freeway with rotary flyover with roundabout

B. trumpet interchange D. y-type interchange
307. That branch of civil engineering which deals in the location, design, construction, maintenance, economics, financing,
planning and programming of roads.
A. pedology B. transportation engineering C. traffic engineering D. highway engineering
308. A grade separation in which the highway under consideration passes under the intersecting road or railway.
A. overcrossing B. overpass C. skyway D. underpass
309. For phil National roads, maximum grade permitted on curves.
A. 4% B. 6% C. 5% D. 7%
310. Parking sign is a traffic sign classified under
A. regulatory or mandatory sign C. warning or cautionary sign
B. infomatory sign D. warning or mandatory sign
311. No parking is a traffic classified under
A. regulatory or mandatory sign C. warning or cautionary sign
B. infomatory sign D. warning or mandatory sign
312. One way is a traffic sign classified under
A. warning or cautionary sign C. informatory and guiding sign
 B. warning or regulatory sign D. regulatory and mandatory sign

313. The traffic sign shown indicates

A. no overtaking B. no stopping C. prohibited traffic D. no entry for all vehicles

314. The traffic sign shown indicated the following

A. embankment B. parallel road C. narrow bridge D. narrowing road

315. The traffic sign shown indicated the following

A. bicycle lane B. no entry to bicycle C. bicycle crossing D. for disabled person

316. The traffic sign shown indicates the following

A. comfort room C. only men and women allowed

B. no entry for both men and women D. gays not allowed

317. The prohibitive traffic signs shown indicates

A. turn at your own risk B. no right and left turn C. no left turn D. no u-turn

318. The traffic sign shown indicates the following prohibition

A. no u turn B. no left turn C. no right turn D. no entry

319. The traffic sign shown indicates the following prohibitions

A. no overtaking B. prohibited to cars C. prohibited to trucks D. prohibited to traffic

320. The traffic sign shown indicates

A. end of speed limit B. no entry C. no stopping D. end of all indicated prohibition

321. The traffic sign shown indicates

A. min. speed limit B. end of speed limit C. distance to the next municipality D. max. speed limit
322. The traffic sign shown indicates

A. obligation to go straight ahead or to turn right

B. go straight ahead then turn right on the next corner
C. right turn then go straight ahead
D. no right turn straight ahead
323. The traffic sign shown indicates
 A. curve to the right C. dangerous double curve at right
B. turn right then straight ahead D. zigzag curve ahead
324. The traffic sign shown indicates the following

A. school B. pedestrian crossing C. athletic stadium D. running track and field

325. The stop sign shown indicates what type of traffic sign

A. warning sign B. guide sign C. regulatory sign D. prohibitive sign

326. the speed limit sign shown indicates what type of traffic sign

A. warning sign B. guide sign C. regulatory sign D. prohibitive sign

327. What is the standard shape which is used only to warm of existing or possible hazard?

A. diamond B. round C. rectangle D. triangle

328. What is the standard sign shape which is used for regulatory signs with the expectation of stop and yield signs?

A. round B. triangle C. pentagon D. rectangle

329. What is the standard sign shape which is used for guide and information signs?

A. octagon B. triangle C. pentagon D. rectangle

330 what is the standard sign shape which maybe used for recreational area signs?

A. rectangle B. trapezoid C. round D. octagon

335. Joints placed in concrete pavements, whcih are usually placed transversely , at rgular intervals, to provide adequate
expansion space for the slab to expand when the pavement is subjected to an increase in temperature.

A. hinge joint B. contraction joint C. construction joint D. expansion joint

336. Joints usually in concrete pavements, which are usually placed transversely regular intervals acoss the width of the
pavement to release some of the tensile stresses that are induced due to a decrease in temperature

A. hinge joint B. contraction joint C. construction joint D. expansion joint

337. Joints placed in concrete pavements, which are placed transversely across the pavement width to provide suitable
transition between concrete placed at different times or on different days.

A. hinge joint B. contraction joint C. construction joint D. expansion joint

355 – A. A type of rigid pavements which has no temperature steel or dowels for the load transfer. This type of pavement is
used mainly on low – volume highways or when cement stabilized soils are used as sub base materials.
 A. plain concrete pavement B. simply reinforced concrete pavement

C. continuously reinforced concrete pavements D. flexible concrete pavements

355 – B. A type of rigid pavement having dowels for the sale transfer of traffic across joints with these joints spaced at larger
distance than with plain pavements ranging from 10 m to 30 m. Temperature steel is used throughout the slab.

A. plain concrete pavement B. simply reinforced concrete pavement

C. continuously reinforced concrete pavements D. flexible concrete pavements

355 – C. A type of rigid pavement which has no transverse joints, except construction joints or expansion joints when they are
necessary at specific positions such as at bridges. This type of pavement is typically used on high volume high speed roadways.

A. plain concrete pavement B. simply reinforced concrete pavement

C. continuously reinforced concrete pavements D. flexible concrete pavements

355 – D. The measurement of the extent to which a road surface deviates from the plane is called:

A. pavement deflection B. pavement distress C. pavement roughness D. skid resistance

355 – E. Refers to the condition of a pavement in terms of its general appearance

A. pavement deflection B. pavement distress C. pavement roughness D. skid resistance

355 – F. Refers to the structural adequacy of the pavement section.

A. pavement deflection B. pavement distress C. pavement roughness D. skid resistance

355 – G. Describes the effectiveness of a pavement to prevent or reduce skid related crashes.

A crack resistance B. patching resistance C. raveling resistance D. skid resistance

355 – H. The following are the types of stresses that are developed in rigid pavements

A. stress induced by traffic loads C. stress induced by bending

B. stress induced by bending D. all of the above

 CHAPTER TWO

356. It s define as the number of vehicles per unit distance occupying a section of roadway at a given instant time and is
usually measured in vehicles per mile or per km.

A. density B. capacity C. flow D. volume

357. The number of vehicles moving in a specified direction on a given point during specified unit time and is usually
expressed expressed as vehicles per hour or vehicles per day.

A. traffic volume B. traffic capacity C. traffic density D. basic capacity

358. The ability of a roadway to accommodate traffic volume. It is expressed as the maximum number of vehicle in a lane or a
road that can pass a given point in unit time, usually an hour, that is vehicles per hour per lane or roadway.

A. traffic volume B. traffic capacity C. traffic density D. basic capacity

359. The maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a lane or roadway during one hour under the
most nearly ideal roadway and traffic conditions which can possibly be attained.

A. traffic volume B. traffic capacity C. traffic density D. basic capacity

360. The maximum capacity number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a lane or roadway during one hour under
prevailing roadway and traffic conditions.

A. passible capacity B. practical capacity C. basic capacity D. theoretical maximum capacity

361. The maximum number of vehicles that can be pass a given point on a lane or roadway during one hour without traffic
density being so great as to case unreasonable delay, hazard or restrictions to the driver’s freedom to maneuver under the
prevailing roadway and traffic conditions.

A. practical capacity B. possible capacity C. traffic capacity D. theoretical capacity

362. The crossing of two or more traffic streams travelling in the same general direction along a significant path of highway
without the aid of traffic signals.

A. crossover B. cross moving C. weaving D. permanence

363. The instantaneous speed of a vehicle at a specified section or location.

A. average speed B. running speed C. travel speed D. spot speed

364. The average of the spot speeds of all vehicles passing a given point in the highway

A. average speed B. running speed C. travel speed D. spot speed

365. The average speed of vehicles in a certain road length at any time.

A. instantaneous speed B. average speed C. space mean speed D. spot speed

366. The speed distribution of vehicles at a point on the roadway and it is the average of instantaneous speed of observed
vehicles at the spot.
 A. instantaneous speed B. average speed C. space mean speed D. time mean speed

367. The average speed maintained by a vehicle over a particular stretched of road while the vehicle is in motion. This is
obtained by dividing the distance covered by the time during which the vehicle is in motion.

A. spot speed B. running speed C. travel speed D. space mean speed

368. The time travel between the passage of successive vehicles moving in the same lane and measured from head to head as
they pass a point on the road.

A. time headway

B. time of travel at a spot speed

C. tim e of travel at a time mean speed

D. time of travel at a space mean speed.

369. The distance between successive vehicles mving in the same lane measured from head to head at any distance

A. space – headway B. merging C. clear spacing between vehicles D. space between vehicles

370. The time taken from the instant the object is visible to the driver to the instant the brakes are effectively applied

A. reaction time B. perception time C. emotion time D. volition time

371. The time required for a driver to realize that brakes must be applied. It is the time from he instant the object comes on the
line of sight of the driver to the instant he realizes that the vehicle needs to be stopped.

A. reaction time B. perception time C. emotion time D. volition time

372. The time required for comaring the different thoughts regrouping and registering new sensations.

A. reaction time B. perception time C. emotion time D. volition time

373. The time taken of final action

A. reaction time B. perception time C. emotion time D. volition time

374. The time elapsed during emotional sensations and disturbance such as fear, anger or any other emotion feelings with
reference to the situations.

A. reaction time B. perception time C. emotion time D. volition time375. The reaction time to
be used for road safety design is ___ sec.

A. 2.0 B. 1.5 C. 2.5 D. 1.0

376. Distance traveled by the vehicle during the total reaction time.

A. braking distance B. lag distance C. reaction distance D. stopping distance

377. Distance traveled by the vehicle after the application of the brakes until it will stop

A. braking distance B. lag distance C. reaction distance D. stopping distance

378. The distance ahead that must be clear to permit safe passing is called.

A. passing sight distance B. sight distance C. non passing distance D. braking distance

379. The ratio between parallel forces divided by the normal forces is known as:
 A. skid resistance B. coefficient of friction C. coefficient of adhesion and hysteresis D. all of the above

380. Divided arterial highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade separations at
major intersection

A. freeway B. expressway C. parkway D. highway

381. An expressway with full control of access

A. freeway B. expressway C. parkway D. highway

382. An arterial highway for non commercial traffic with full partial control of access and usually located within a park

A. freeway B. expressway C. parkway D. highway

383. One of the provision of safety sight distance depends on the characteristics of the road environment which are as follows

I. road geometry

II. road surface

III. road illumination at night

IV. road capacity

A. I, II and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above

384. One of the provision of safety sight distance depends on the characteristics of the driver of the vehicle which are as
follows.

A. alertness of the driver

II. recognition of the hazard

III. actions available to the driver to stop or to change direction

IV. age of the driver

A. I, III and IV only B. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above

385. One of the provision of safety sight distance depends on the characteristics of the vehicles, which are as follows:

I. type of vehicle car or truck

II. friction between the tire and road

III. eye sight of the river

IV. speed of the vehicles

A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. all of the above

386. Minimum sight distance required for a driver to stop a vehicle after seeing an object in the vehicle’s path without hitting
that object. This distance is the sum of the distance traveled during perception reaction time and the distance traveled during
braking.

A. sight distance B. braking distance C. passing sight distance D. stopping sight distance

387. Minimum sight distance required on a two lane, two way highway that will permit a driver to complete a passing
maneuver without colliding with an opposing vehicle and without cutting off the passed vehicle.
 A. overtaking sight distance C. passing sight distance

B. non passing sight distance D. stopping sight distance

388. The length of super elevation development from zero cross slope to full design super elevation in a circular curve
alignment

A. super elevation runoff B. tangent run off C. transition curve D. tangent distance

389. The length of super elevation development from the normal cross slope to the zero cross slope point on the tangent.

A. transition curve B. tangent run out C. super elevation run off D. tangent distance

390. The location of super elevation development onto circular curves has been continuous concern to designers throughout
the world. Thi concern is due to the fact that design super elevation is not available fro the curve radius at the P.C> This
results in the vehicle experiencing 2 to 3 sec. where lateral acceleration tends to force te driver to adopt a natural spiral curve
during entry and exit. This problem can be prevented by:

A. widen the curve to give drivers this extra width as well as to give additional width fro swift path of large vehicles

B. provide a proportion of super elevation run off. This proportion tends to minimize the adverse effects of lateral
acceleration and improves the safety of the acceleration and improves the safety of the transition from tangent to circular
curve.

C. provide traffic lights at the point of transition from tangent to circular curve

D. provide pavement markings at the point of transition from tangent to circular curve

391. The longitudinal profile along the centerline of the road. It is made up of a series of grades and vertical curves.

A. cross section of portion of the roads on vertical curves C. tangent offset

B. elevation point on the curve D. vertical alignment

392. The average of 24 hour traffic counts collected every day in the year. These counts are used to estimate highway user
revenues, compute accident rates and establish traffic volume trends.

A. average annual daily traffic C. peak hour volume

B. average daily traffic D. vehicle miles of travel

393. The average of 24 hour traffic counts collected over a number of days greater than one but less than a year. These counts
are used fro planning of highway activities, measuring current traffic demand an evaluating existing traffic flow.

A. average annual daily traffic C. peak hour volume

B. average daily traffic D. vehicle miles of travel

394. A measure f travel usage along a section of road. It is the product of the volume (ADT) and the length of roadway in miles
to which the volume is applicable. This measure is used mainly as a base for allocating resources for maintenance and
improvement of highways and to establish highway system usage trends.

A. average annual daily traffic C. peak hour volume

B. average daily traffic D. vehicle miles of travel

395. The maximum number of vehicles that pass a point on highway durig a period of 60 consecutive minutes. This volume is
used for functional classification of highways, geometric design standards selection, capacity analysis, development of parking
regulations.
 A. mean volume B. standard deviation C. peak hour volume D. vehicle miles of travel

PORTS AND HARBORS

597. A wave at a point where the water depth is equal to ½ of the wavelength or greater to be expressed in terms of the
parameters of significant wave.
A. deep water wave B. equivalent depth water wav height
C. Highest wave D. significant wave
598. A hypothetical wave having a wave height and period equal respectively to average values of the wave height and period
of the largest 1/3of all waves in the train as counted in the order of greater wave height.
A. deep water wave B. equivalent depth water wav height
C. Highest wave D. significant wave
599. A maximum wave eight and wave period of the maximum wave height in wave train
A. deep water wave B. equivalent depth water wav height
C. Highest wave D. significant wave
600. The water level that guarantees about 98% of tide is safe to ships seems to be suitable from the expression of the
technical resolution of the international Water Wave Congress. Such water level, which is 0.15 m. ~ 0.4m below MLLW should
be used for design of ports
A. design low tide B. low water level C. residual water level D. high water level
601. Residual water level (RWL) for gravity type is expressed as:
A. 1/3 (HWL-LWL) + LWL C. 1/3 (HWL-LWL)
B. 2/3 (HWL-LWL) + LWL D. 2/3 (HWL-LWL)
602. Residual water level (RWL) for sheet pile type is expressed as:
A. A. 1/3 (HWL-LWL) + LWL C. 1/3 (HWL-LWL)
B. 2/3 (HWL-LWL) + LWL D. 2/3 (HWL-LWL)
603. The datum line for design of port facilities in accordance with charts which is being used by the Phil. Ports Authority
(PPA).
A. LWL B. RWL C. HWL D. MLLW
604. Waves are formed by the frictional drag of wind across the water surface. This is a process of transefring energy from
wind to water. Water particles are moved from their position by the wind, and then returned t the original position by gravity,
which is a restoring force. These waves are called.
A. deep water waves B. significant wave C. gravity waves D. equivalent depth water wave
605. The horizontal distance between two crest of waves:
A. wave period C. wave length
B. average of the highest on third of the waves D. length of trough
606. Shape of the wave and wave speeds are governed by the displacement of water particles and the functions of the
following variables and the function of the following variables.
I. wave length II. Wave depth
III. wave motion IV. Wave shoals
A. I and II only B. I, II and III only C. III and IV only D. all of the above
607. The elevation of the crest above the through of the wave
A. wave length B. wave shoals C. wave period D. wave height
608. The interval for two wave crest to pass the same position in space
A. 2 sec B. 3 sec C. period D. frequency
609. Large waves (long period) can be generated only when the fetch (distance over which the wind blows) is large. Waves
continue to grow after they reach a velocity of ___ of the wind speed, but a decreasing rate.
A. 2/3 B. 1/3 C. ½ D. ¾
610. A change in the dissection of travel of the wave with change in depth of water which distributes wave energy along the
seahorse unevenly is called.
A. wave refraction B. wave diffraction C. wave reflection D. wave frequency
611. The flow of energy along the wave crest in a direction at right angle to the direction of wave travel is called:
A. reflection B. deflection C. refraction d. diffraction
612. A type of wave where the depth is greater than ½ wave length
A. transitional water wave B. shallow water wave C. high water wave D. deep water wave
613. A type of wave where depth is less than ½ of wave length but grater than 1/20 of the wave length
A. transitional water wave B. shallow water wave C. high water wave D. deep water wave
614. A type of water wave where the depth is less than 1/20 of wave length
A. transitional water wave B. shallow water wave C. high water wave D. deep water wave
615. The highest point of the wave is called
A. wave crest B. wave trough C. wave height D. wave length
616. The lowest point of the wave is
A. wave crest B. wave trough C. wave height D. wave length
617. The distance between the highest point and the lowest point of the wave
A. wave crest B. wave trough C. wave height D. wave length
618. The vertical distance of the wave crest and the wave trough
A. wave crest B. wave trough C. wave height D. wave length
619. From the Sine wave curve shown, what do you call the value of “L”?
A. period wave B. frequency wave C. wave height D. wave length
620. From the Sine wave curve shown,w hat is the value of h?
A. length of wave trough B. still water depth C. wave height D. amplitude
621. From the Sine wave curve shown, What do you call the region x?
A. crest length region B. through length region C. transition region D. period
622. From the Sine wave curve shown, what do you call the region y?
A. crest length region B. through length region C. transition region D. period
623. From the wave behavior indicate what zone is covered by the distance x.
A. deep water zone B. shallow zone C. transition zone D. shoaling zone
624. What zone is covered by the distance y?
A. deep water B. shallow zone C. transition zone D. shoaling zone
625. What zone is covered by the distance z?
A. deep water zone B. shallow zone C. transition zone D. shoaling zone
626. The average height of the sea for all stages of the tide obtained from systematic observation of sea level at equal intervals
over a long period of tm along a given coastline is called
A. mean sea level B. mean low level C. mean lower low level D. mean ocean level
627. The process of widening, enlarging, cleaning or deepening of channels in harbors, rivers and canals to maintain the idea
depth of berthing areas due to fast siltation rate is known as:
A. disiltation B. meandering C. dredging D. excavation
628. The periodic rise and fall of sea level in response to the gravitational attraction of the sun and moon as modified by the
earth’s rotation.
A. rational tide B. storm surge C. gravitational tide D. astronomical tide
629. The average of the sea water surface for al stages of the tide over a 19 year period.
A. mean high water B. mean lower lo water C. mean low water D. mean sea level
630. the average height of the lower water over 19 year period
A. mean lower water B. mean lower low c. mean high water d. mean higher high
631. The average height of the lower low water over a 19 year period.
A. mean low water B. mean lower low C. mean high water D. mean higher high
632. The average height of the high waters over 19 year period
A. mean low water B. mean lower low C. mean high water D. mean higher high water
633. The average height of the higher high water over 19 years period
A. mean low water B. mean lower low C. mean high water D. mean higher high water
634. The abnormal rise of the sea level that occurs when a typhoon passes by. This rise above normal level on tis open coast is
due to atmosphere pressure reduction as well as that due to wind stress.
A. pressure tide B. storm surge C tsunami D. astronomical tide
635. Are wave with an extremely long period that mainly occur when there is a sudden large scale sea floor movement usually
associated severe shallow forces earthquake.
A. seiche B. storm surge C tsunami D. astronomical tide
636. A phenomenon involving abnormal oscillations of the water level with a period approximately a few minutes to a few tens
of minutes. It occurs when small fluctuations of the water level are generated by micro scale variations of the
atmospheric pressure by an air from or a low pressure in the outer sea and the components of those oscillations
whose period is the same as a natural period of the harbor are amplified through resonance.
A. seiche B. storm surge C. tsunami D. astronomical tide
637. The flow of seawater in the horizontal direction that accompanies a tidal variation of sea level that accompanies a tidal
variation of sea level and is thus periodic
A. seiche B. storm surge C. tsunami D. tidal wave
638. A mooring method where the chains or whatever used in the mooring are given sufficient lengths to make them slack.
This means that the force restraining the motions of the sloating body is small but nevertheless the mooring system
fulfils the function of keeping the floating body in more or less the same position
A. catenary mooring B. taut mooring
C. dolphin mooring D. mooring method using a universal joint
639. A mooring metos that reduces the motions f the floating bdy greatly with this method mooring lines are given initil
tension so that they do not become slack even when the floating body moves
A. catenary mooring B. taut mooring
C. dolphin mooring D. mooring method using a universal joint
640. With structure for which a part of the floating body is above sea level, winds exerts a force on the structure is called.
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. current drag force D. wind drag force
641. When there is current such as tidal currents these currents will exerts a force on the submerged part of the floating body
this is reffered to as.
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. current drag force D. wind drag force
642. the force exerted by the incident wave son the floating body when the floating body is considered to be fixed in the water
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. current drag force D. wind drag force
643. When waves act on the floating body the center of the floating body’s motion gradually shifts in the direction of the wave
propagation. This force that cases this shifts is called
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. current drag force D. wind drag force
644. When a floating body moves in still water the floating body exerts a force on the surrounding water, and the floating body
receives a corresponding reaction force from the water this force is called
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. wave making resistance D. buoyant force
645. the force that makes a floating body to return to its original position when the floating body moves in still water. This
force is
A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. wave making resistance D. restoring force
646. The force that is generated in order to restrain the motion of the floating body is known as:
A. A. wave exciting force B. wave drift force C. wave making resistance D. restoring force
647. The motion, which cause the ship to rotate about the vertical axis of the boat which is caused by seawater waves.
A. yawning B. pitching C. surging D. heaving
648. The horizontal motion of the ship along its longitudinal axis caused by seawater waves is known as:
A. yawning B. pitching C. surging D. heaving
649. The vertical motion of the ship up and down caused by seawater waves is known as:
A. yawning B. pitching C. surging D. heaving
650. The motion of the ship which tends o rotate the ship about its longitudinal axis due to sea water waves is known as:
A. yawning B. pitching C. rolling D. heaving
651. The motion of the ship which tends to rotate the ship about its traverse axis caused by seawater waves Is known as:
A. yawning B. pitching C. rolling D. heaving
652. The motion of the ship which ends to move horizontally on its sides caused by seawater waves
A. yawning B. pitching C. swaying D. heaving
653. The sedimentary material moved in the littoral zone under the action of wave and current
A. littoral drift B. littoral transport C. wave celerity D. skew
654. The movement of littoral drift
A. littoral celerity B. littoral transport C. littoral brakes D. littoral pitching
655. The movement of the littoral drift parallel to the shore
A. on shore transport B. off shore transport C. short shore transport D. long shore transport
656. The movement of littoral drift perpendicular to the shore
A. on shore transport B. off shore transport C. short shore transport D. long shore transport
657. Longshore sediment moves in either left or right along a coast, corresponding to the direction of incoming waves. The
direction with the larger volume of movement during a year is called:
A. predominant direction C. off shore direction
B. long shore direction D. on shore direction
658. The zone from low tide shoreline to the location of the upper limit of wave wash at high tide is called:
A. on shore B. inshore C. backshore D. foreshore
659. The zone from landward boundary of foreshore to the coastline, where waves will reach during stormy weather is called
A. on shore B. inshore C. backshore D. foreshore
660. The area on the ocean side where waves do not break normally. In cases, the bottom slope is comparatively gentle is
called
A. on shore B. inshore C. backshore D. foreshore
661. The area between the offshore and the low tide shoreline where waves break and long shore bars or step are formed is
called
A. on shore B. inshore C. backshore D. foreshore
662. When a model beach is constructed with natural sand in a wave channel exposed to waves over a long period of time, the
beach profile will approach an equilibrium condition corresponding to the waves acting upon it. This equilibrium
condition of the beach is classified into two types.
A. Step type beach and a bar type C. Bar type beach and a shallow type beach
B. step type beach and shallow type beach D. shallow type beach and through type beach
663. The time of rotation of the earth with respect to the moon and the planets, which is approximately 24 hours and 50
minutes
A. highest astronomical tide C. astronomical tidal day
B. lowest astronomical tide D. ebb tidal day
664. The chart datum for harbor works is generally the:
A. lowest observed water level C. mean tidal high water level
B. lowest astronomical tide D. mean tidal low water level
665. The rise of sea level due to the greenhouse effect between years 2000 and 2050 is assumed to be about
A. 0.25 m to 0.30 m C. 0.06 m to 0.2 m
B. 0.12 m to 0.20 m D. 0.16 m to 0.25 m
666. The rise fall of the water level due to change in the atmospheric pressure is approximately equal to:
A. 0.9 cm rise or fall of the water level for 1m bar fall or rise in atmospheric pressure
B. 0.30 cm rise or fall of the water level for 1m bar fall or rise in atmospheric pressure
C. 0.25 cm rise or fall of the water level for pressure
D. 0.6 cm rise or fall of the water level for 1m bar fall or rise in atmospheric pressure
667. Wind generated waves but are created in the deep ocean at some distance from the port side and the wind that created
them may be too distance to be felt in the port and may have changed its direction by the time waves reach the port
A. long waves B. win waves C. sieching D. swell
668.
669.
670.
671.
672
673.
674.
675.
676.
677
678
679
680. The interval of time between successive crests of the water waves passing a stationary point of reference is called.
A. amplitude B. high water lunitidal interval C. wave period D. lunitidal period
681. In the stability calculation of a gravity type of quay wall, the following should be examined in general
I. sliding of wall
II. bearing capacity of foundation
III. overturning of wall
IV. circular slip and settlement
V. seismic capcity of the wall
A. I, II, III and IV only B. I, II, and III only C. II, III IV and V only D. II, III and IV only
682. When the forward progress of a wave is blocked by a vertical wall, the wave is reflected back upon its course. As a result,
a so called standing wave develops in which the water surges between the obstruction and a distance L/2 away, slopping back
and fourth as in a washbasin. The wave crests are much higher than in the original wave. This form of standing wave
(augmented wave at the wall) is known as:
A. reflection B. diffraction C. clapotis D. iribarren
683. Waves will become ssmaller in the lee of a partial breakwater. That portion of the advancing wave crests, which is not
intercepted by the barrier immediately spreads out into the sheltered area and the wave height shrinks correspondingly. This
lateral dissipation of wave energy is termed as:
A. refraction B. diffraction C. disintegration D. diffusion
684. A wharf built parallel with the shore is called
A. jetty B. quay C. pier D. slip
685. Wharves built at an angle with the shore are called
A. jetty B. quay C. pier D. slip
686. The water area between two adjacent piers is called
A. jetty B. quay C. pier D. slip
687. In some ports, especially where the tidal wave exceeds 10 ft, ships are berthed in an impounding basin, where the water
is kept at constant level by means of lock. Such basins are called
I. Docks
II. pier
III. wharf
IV. jetty
A. I, II and III only B. I, II, and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, III and IV only
688. These structure are intended to protect the land from wave erosion
I. sea wall
II. revetment
III. groins
IV. cofferdam
A. I, II and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I and II only
689. In the stability calculation of a gravity type quay wall, the following matters should be examined in general
I. sliding of the wall
II. bearing capacity of foundation
III. overturning of wall
IV. circular slip and settlement
A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
690. Generally when bollard are pulled upward as show, then what type of bollards are used?
A. single mooring shape B. tee head shape C. sloping lobe D. single pillar
691. At a small quay wall where the mooring ropes may not be pulle upward, then what type of bollards are used?
A. single mooring shape B. tee head shape C. sloping lobe D. single pillar
692. the mooring fitting for mooring ships during a sorm installed at the outside or outside/inside of the berth far from the
water line is called
 A. bitt B. bollard C. cleat D. closed chock
693. The mooring fitting for mooring ships during a storm installed close to the water line of the berth
A. bitt B. bollard C. cleat D. closed chock
694. In design of port and harbor facilities, seismic effects must be taken into consideration. Using the seismic coefficient
method, the seismic force is equal to.
A. (dead weight + surcharge/2) x design seismic coefficient
B. (deadweight + surcharge/2) x design seismic coefficient
C. ( dead weight + surcharge/2) x design seismic coefficient
D. ( deadweight + surcharge/3) x design seismic coefficient
695. The magnitude of surcharge during earthquake designing port and harbor facilities
A. double the surcharge considered without earthquake
B. times 3 of the surcharge considered without earthquake
C. ½ of the surcharge considered without earthquake
D. 1/3 of the surcharge considered without earthquake
696. The surcharge of a pier at ordinary condition is equal to 2.5 tf/m². Compute the surcharge needed for computation during
wave action
A. 0 B. 2.5 C. 1.25 D. 0.83
697. The surcharge of a pier at ordinary condition is equal to 2.5 tf/m². Compute the surcharge needed for, during earthquakes
A. 5 B. 2.5 C. 1.25 D. 0.83
698. The maximum speed of ships entering a harbor entrance should not exceed approximately.
A. 5 knots B. 3 kots C. 2 knots D. 4 knots
699. The length of the stopping distance to bring the ship to a complete stop is equal to
A. 5 times the ships length C. 6 times the ships length
B. 10 times the ships length D. 8 times the ships length
700. A place where ships may wait for their turn at berth, for more favourable weather conditions, or be held back for quartine
inspection
A. main harbor area B. berthing area C. quartine area D. anchorage area
701. The reduction of under keel clearance due to the suction effect induced by the higher current velocity between the sea
bottom and the ship
A. squat B. trim C. aft D. keel
702. The movement in the horizontal plane of a ship moving forward or backward at sea under the impact of current waves
and wind gusts moving is called
A. pitch B. surge C. sway D. yaw
703. The movement in the horizontal plane of ship which tends to rotate the ship about its vertical axis due to impact of
current waves and wind gusts is called
A. pitch B. surge C. sway D. yaw
704. The movement in the vertical plabe of ship which teds to move it up and down due to impact of current waves and wind
gusts is called
A. pitch B. surge C. heave D. roll
705. The movement in the vertical plane of ship, which tends to rotate the ship about its transverse axis due to the impact of
current waves and wind gusts is called
A. pitch B. surge C. heave D. roll
706. The maximum distance from the water level to the highest point of the ship at the prevailing draft
A. air draft B. scantling draft C. designed draft D. ballast displacement
707. The draft for which the structural strength of the ship has been designed
A. air draft B. scantling draft C. designed draft D. trim draft
708. The draft for which the fundamental design parameters of the ship are based
A. air draft B. scantling draft C. designed draft D. trim draft
709. The difference between the aft and the forward draft
A. trim B. bow C. stern D. astern
710. The point at the backend of a ship is called
A. trim B. bow C. stern D. astern
711. The point at the front end of ship is called
 A. portside B. bow C. stern D. starboard
712. The distance from the stern to the midship
A. forward B. bow C. astern D. aft
713. The backward motion of a ship is called
A. ahead B. bow C. astern D. aft
714. The right side of the ship when facing towards the bow of the ship is called
A. portside B. aft C. astern D. starboard
715. Harbors can be boardly classified as
I. natural harbors
II. semi natural harbors
III. artificial harbors
IV. commercial harbors
A. I, II, and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
716. A port is a harbor in which terminal facilities are provided. The different types of ports are as follows
I. ocean port
II. inland port
III. entry port
IV. free port
A. I, II and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
717. Wharves and quays are platforms built parallel to the shore or breakwater within the harbor, to berth vessels for loading
and unloading cargo. They are divided according to the type of wall construction as follows
I. gravity wall
II. piled projection with or without artificial retention of soil
III. sheet pile wall
IV. continuous wall supported by piles
A. I, II amd III only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
718. The structure that protects the harbor from stormy waves and permits calm in the harbor is called
A. dock B. wharf C. break water D. jetty
719. A solid structure, which projects into the sea perpendicular to the shore to berth vessels, is called
A. dock B. wharf C. breakwater D. jetty
720. A platform built in the harbor parallel to the shore and backed up by ground is called
A. dock B. wharf C. breakwater D. jetty
721. A platform built parallel to the shore or breakwater within the harbor to berth vessels is called
A. dock B. wharf C. breakwater D. jetty
722. A rubble mound and or a concrete structure that protects the harbor area from wave action
A. groin B. bulkhead C. breakwater D. jetty
723. A structure for retaining or prevent earth or fill from sliding into water
A. breasting dolphin B. bulkhead C. breakwater D. berth structure
724. The physical configuration of the seabed the measurements of depths of water in the ocean etc and also information
derived from such measurement
A. bathymetry B. oceanography C. hydrology D. fathomology
725. A vertical post to which the eye of a mooning line can be attached
A. bollard B. dolphin C. gravity wall D. tetrapods
726. A shore protection structure usually built perpendicular to the coastline to retard littoral transport of sedimentary
materials
A. groin B. bulkhead C. breakwater D. jetty
727. Harbors are protected water area to provide safe and suitable accommodation for ships for transfer of cargo refueling
repairs etc. They are classified as follows
I. natural harbor
II. semi natural harbors
III. artificial harbors
IV. commercial harbors
A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I and III only D. I and II only
728. A berth structure which projects out into the water from the shore or a berth structure at some distance from the
shoreline is called
A. groin B. bulkhead C. breakwater D. jetty
729. A berth structure projecting out from the shoreline
A. groin B. wharf C. breakwater D. pier
730. A sheltered place where the ship may receive or discharge cargo. It includes the harbor with its approach channels and
anchorage places
A. port B. harbor C. basin D. quay
731. a sheltered place where the ship may receive or discharge cargo. It includes the harbor with its approach channels and
anchorage places
A. port B. quay C. breakwater D. jetty
732. The process by which the direction of incoming waves in shallow water is altered due to the contours of the sea beds
A. diffusion of water waves C. precipitation of water waves
B. dispersion of water waves D. refraction of water waves
733. A platform or deck structure built below the top deck of level and supported on bearing piles. The main function of the
platform is to reduce the lateral soil pressure over the upper portion of the sheet wall
A. sea wall B. quay C. revailing platform D. revetment
734. A berth structure with no direct connection to the shore, at which the ships can berth. Berthing can take place on either
one or both sides of the structure
A. sea island B. breakwater C. relieving platform D. revetment
756. The fixed rail in a railway track which is part of a switch is called
A. stock rail B. wing rail C. check rail D. tongue rail
757. A set of switches in a railway track is called
A. junction B. crossing C. signals D. points
758. The rail joints in which the ends are jointed between two sleepers is called
A. square joint B. suspended joint C. supported joints D. staggered joints
759. The plates which are used to hold two rails together are called
A. fish plates B. gusset plates C. bearing plates D. base plates
760. The fittings used to fix to the wooden sleeper is called
A. fish plates B. clip C. spikes D. chair
761. A layer of broken stone or gravel packed below and around the sleepers is called
A. pandroll B. crosslag C. ballast D. sub grade
762. The different types of rails are as follows
I. flat footed
II. bull headed
III. double headed
IV. single headed
A. I, II, and III only B. I, II, and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. all of the above
763. Fish plates are used to connects of rails in a track. They have a thickness of
A. 15mm B. 20mm C. 30mm D. 25mm
764. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting them are called
A. fish plates B. ballast C. bearing plates D. sleepers
765. A combination of points and crossing by operation of which a train is diverted to another track is known as
A. staggered joints B. turnout C. trailing points D. junction
766. Arrangement made to divert the trains from one track to another is known as:
A. railway point B. railway crossing
C. turn out D. railway junction
767. The overall length of a turnout is the distance between the end of stock rail and
A. heel of crossing B. actual nose of crossing C. throat of crossing D. toe of crossing
768. The phenomenon on misalignment of rails due to the temperature changes is known as
A. hogging B. bucking C. creeping D. bulging
769. A station having lines in four directions is called
A. crossing station B. flag station C. junction station D. diamond junction
770. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of the train is called
A. friction B. tractive resistance C. hauling resistance D. track modulus
771. The rails of the track are placed
A. at an inward slope of 1:10 C. at an inward slope of 1:20
B. at an inward slope of 1:15 D. at an inward slope of 1:25
772. The primary function of the ballast is to:
A. maintain the guage B. provide elasticity C. prevent growth of vegetation D. to reduce creep
773. The resistance to the movement of the train is due to
A. speed of tran B. gradient and curve C. friction and wave action D. all of the above
774. The longitudinal movement of the rails in a track technically is known as
A. hogging B. buckling C. creeping D. none of the above
775. The track which train diverts is known as
 A. turnout B. mainline C. crossing track D. point
776. The distance between two adjoining axles fixed in a rigid frame is known as
A. guage B. wheel base distance C. creep D both A and B
777. When train passes on curves which have no super elevation it will give thrust on the
A. inner rail B. outer rail C. inner side of inner rail D. inner side of outer rail
778. The point of the curved portion of the turnout with the main line rails is called
a. heel of switch B. toe of switch C. throw of switch D. frog
779. The distanc through which the toe of switch moves to accomplish the turnout is called
A. heel of switch B. toe of switch C. throw of switch D. frog
780. The free ends of the switch rails of a turnout is called:
A. heel of switch B. toe of switch C. throw of switch D. frog
781. The ratio of the heel length to heel spread of a turnout is known as
A. frog number B. cross over C. switch angle D. plit angle