1) Altitude tolerances PFD 1 or PFD 2 during a ground check is

a) +- 20ft.
b) +-30ft.
c) +- 37ft

2) Pack flow control is:

a) Automatic and Manual
b) Automatic only
c) Dependent on APU bleed

3) Maximum cabin positive differential pressure:

a) 8.6 PSI
b) 8.06 PSI
c) 9.0 PSI

4) Aircraft on ground, APU running, APU (supplying) bleed ON. The flow control
valve regulates:
a) At maximum flow
b) At normal flow
c) At low flow
d) Flow control is not controlled by the aircrafts Mass Flow Controllers

5) With aircraft parked, external horn sounds, Blower and Extract FAULT lights
are ON. Fault is:
a) Avionic Ventilation low pressure
b) Avionics Ventilation duct overheat
c) All of the above (both A and B)

6) In which conditions does the Pack Flow Control deliver high flow whatever the
crew selects?
a) Single Pack operation
b) APU Bleed in use
c) Both of the above

7) The FMGS consists of the following main components:

a. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 FCU
b. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 1 FCU
c. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 ECAM
d. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 ECAM – 1 FCU

8) When Take-off mode is engaged:

a) A/THR automatically engages and is active
b) A/THR automatically engages but is not active
c) A/THR automatically become armed and become active after 5 sec
d) A/THR does not automatically engage and the engines are controlled by the last thrust
target

9) Following an IDG 1 over temperature:

a) Generator 1 is automatically de-energized and re-energized as soon as temperature
goes back to normal
b) Generator 1 is automatically disconnected and is reconnected as soon as temperature
goes back to normal
c) Generator 1 is manually disconnected by pressing the guarded “IDG 1” push button

10) With APU running, the external power is connected and selected “ON”:
a) AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 will now be supplied from external power
b) AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 supplied by the APU
c) AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 wiil now be supplied by GEN1 and GEN2
d) AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 wiil now be supplied by batteries

11) What does the Engine & APU Fire Test PB verify:
a) The detection system loop circuit integrity
b) The squib circuits and the bottle pressure of extinguishing system
c) Both a and b

12) When the Engine Fire push button is pushed, what aircraft systems are
isolated:
a) Fuel, Electricity, Air
b) Fuel, Hydraulic, Air
c) Fuel, Air, Electricity, Hydraulic

13) Where are the engine fire detectors located?

a) On the fan
b) On the core
c) On the pylon
d) All of the above
Where are the engine fire detection loops located?
A. In the pylon, fan and core
B. In the core and gearbox
C. In the fan and turbine

14) How many fire detectors does the APU fire detector system consist of:
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Four
 15) How can a Thermal Discharge of the APU Fire bottle be detected when no
electrical power is connected:
a) By the FDU
b) By the ECAM
c) By the Red Disc Indicator

16) The Agent push button on the Engine Fire Panel is active when:
a) The corresponding “DISCH” light is on
b) Engine fire PB illuminates
c) Engine fire PB is pressed and released

17) Flight control surfaces are all

a) Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated
b) Electrically activated and hydraulically controlled
c) Electrically controlled and hydraulically controlled (depending on the controls)

18) In Alternate law, High speed stability replaces High speed protection.
a) True
b) False

19) Speed brake extension is inhibited if :

a) SEC 1 and SEC 3 both have faults
b) Thrust levers above MCT
c) Flaps are in configuration FULL
d) ALL the above

20) In Alternate law, the Pitch attitude protection and the Bank angle protection are
lost
a) True
b) False

21) When a low level is detected in the inner fuel tank cell:
a) Transfer valves close automatically to isolate the inner cell
b) The booster pumps are restarted to suck fuel from the outer cell
c) Transfer valves open automatically to admit fuel to the inner cell

22) What happens if you extend the slats with fuel in the centre tank and Auto
mode is selected (on the ‘Fuel’ overhead panel?
a) Centre tank pumps stop
b) Centre tank pumps start
c) Wing tank pumps start

23) The power transfer unit allows:

a) The green system to power the yellow and blue systems
b) The yellow system to power the blue system and vice versa
c) The green system to power the yellow system and vice versa

24) Which hydraulic circuit supplies the alternate braking system:

a) Green
b) Yellow
c) Green and Yellow

25) The ram air turbine provides hydraulic power to the:

a) Blue system
b) Green and yellow systems
c) Blue and yellow systems

26) Which hydraulic systems are equipped with fire shut-off valve ?
a) Blue and green
b) Green and yellow
c) Blue, green and yellow

27) If Green HYD press is lost:

a) Yellow HYD press takes over automatically to supply the ALT brakes, antiskid is lost
b) Yellow HYD press takes over automatically to supply the ALT brakes, antiskid is avail
c) ALT brakes and antiskid are lost

A. ALT brakes and antiskid are lost

B. Yellow HYD press takes over automatically to supply the ALT braking system
C. Blue HYD press takes over automatically to supply the ALT braking system

28) With both engines stopped, how is it possible to pressurize the Green system?
a) By the green engine pump
b) By the yellow engine pump and the PTU
c) Cannot be pressurized
d) By the yellow electric pump and the PTU

29) HYD system accumulator helps to maintain a constant pressure by covering

transient demands during normal operation.
a) True
b) False

30) The Blue electric pump in AUTO position operates:

a) In flight or on ground if one engine is running
b) In flight or on ground as long as external power is connected or APU running
c) In Flight only

31) Pitot heating operates:

a) At low power on ground ; and normal power in flight
b) In flight only
c) On ground above 80 kts.

32) Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

a) Pitots and AOA
b) Pitots and TAT
c) Pitots, Static Ports, TAT, AOA

33) How are the probe heat and window heat systems activated ?
a) Automatically after one engine starts or manually from control PB.
b) Automatically after one engine starts, when the control PB is selected “ON”
c) Automatically when the control PB is selected “ON” and outside air temperature is less
than 1 degree Celsius

34) When an engine anti-ice valve is open:

a) The N2 of the associated engine decreases
b) N2 increases and N1 limit is automatically reduced
c) There is no change in N1 or N2 limit
d) The N2 increased and N1 limit is automatically reduced

35) The wing anti-ice shut off valves are controlled (in normal operation) by:
a) 1 wing anti-ice push button
b) 2 wing anti-ice push buttons
c) Automatically

36) On the ground, what happens when you set the wing anti-ice push button to
“ON” ?
a) The wing anti-ice valves do not open
b) The wing anti-ice valves remain open
c) The wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only

37) Blue text on the upper ECAM memo section indicates:

During ECAM actions, blue text on the EW/D ECAM section indicates:
a) The fault is Class 1
b) A failure needing awareness
c) An action to be carried out

38) If the Upper ECAM display is lost, the E/WD automatically transfers to Lower
ECAM display, But if a system display is required:
a) It displays automatically.
b) Press and hold the relevant system P/B (Max 3 minutes).
c) Press the RCL button.
 39) The T/O MEMO appears :
a) 2 minutes after second engine start.
b) At least one engine is running when T.O CONFIG is pressed.
c) Either one of the above.

40) If the ECAM Control Panel (ECP) fails, the CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC and
ALL pushbuttons remain operative:
a) Yes.
b) No.

41) The Speed Trend Pointer appears on the Speed scale when the A/C
acceleration is:
a) Is greater than 2 knots.
b) Is greater than 5 knots.
c) Is greater than 10 knots.

42) Which one of the hydraulic systems actuates Landing gear and doors ?
a) Green
b) Green in normal and yellow in case of loss of the green system
c) Yellow

43) When the aircraft is flying faster than 260kt, a safety valve automatically cuts
of hydraulic supply to the landing gear.
a) True
b) False

44) Which information does the ADR part of the ADIRU process?
a) Track, Ground speed, Attitude
b) Barometric altitude, Angle of attack, Flight path vector
c) Temperature, Speed & Mach, Angle of attack

45) In normal operations, ADIRU 1 supplies information to the:

a) Captain’s PFD and the First Officer’s ND
b) Captain’s ND and the First Officer’s PFD
c) Captain’s PFD and ND
d) First Officer’s PFD and ND

46) ADIRU 3 receives TAT information from the :

a) Captain’s TAT sensor
b) First Officer’s TAT sensor
c) Captain’s and First Officer’s TAT sensors
d) Stand-by TAT sensor
 47) What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on the ADIRS
(overhead panel) CDU:
a) A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference
b) No present position entry after 10 minutes
c) Alignment has been completed

48) Air Data Modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from:
a) All pitot probes & static ports
b) The pitot probes only
c) The static ports only
d) The Captain and First Officer pitot probes and static ports only

49) The FADEC has :

a) 1 channel.
b) 2 channels (redundancy).
c) 3 channels.

50) In Automatic Engine Start, the FADEC will initiate Abort and Recycle of start:
a) In-flight only.
b) On ground and In-flight.
c) On ground only.

51) If the Thrust Lever is set between two detents, The FADEC will select the rating
limit corresponding to:
a) The higher detent.
b) The lower detent.
c) The actual thrust lever position.

52) For Engine Start, both igniters will fire when master switch is set to ON :
a) On ground only with manual start and always in-flight.
b) On ground only
c) In-flight only.

53) The blue circle on the N1 indicator is:

a) The N1 preset limit
b) The current N1
c) Correspondence to the thrust lever position

54) Manual start sequence is recommended for the following cases:

a) Engine stall, EGT over limit, Low start air pressure.
b) High airfield elevation, hot air conditions, Engine with degraded EGT margin.
c) All of the above.
 55) Maximum operating Speed/Mach is:
a) 350kt / M.82
b) 340kt / M.80
c) 340kt / M.81
d) 350kt / M.80

56) Engines running. Ready to taxi. A message appears: “CHECK GW”. Access to
init-B page is no longer available. On which page is it possible to insert the
correct GW?
a) T/O performance page
b) Progress page
c) Fuel Prediction page

57) “SELECT OFFSIDE RANGE/MODE” and “MAP NOT AVAIL” messages appear
on co-pilot side ND:
a) The IRSs have not reached complete alignment
b) Single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at the same Range
and Mode
c) The flight plan entered in the Captain’s FMGC has not been transferred into co-pilot’s
FMGC

58) Where can we find the procedure and tables for Computer reset? ANSWER:
abnormal and emergency in FCOM and QRH
a) In FCOM, Abnormal & Emergency
b) In FCOM, Supplementary Techniques and in the QRH
c) Only in the QRH
d) In Abnormal & Emergency and in the QRH
Alternate answers:
A. In Abnormal & Emergency sections in the QRH
B. In FCTM Supplementary procedures and in the QRH
C. Only in the AFM
D. In FCOM, Abnormal & Emergency chapter only

59) The LOC Pb on the FCU is pressed to arm LOC mode, this mode is used for?
(a) Performing a published localizer approach.
(b) Tracking a VOR beam during an approach.
(c) Performing Non Precision Approaches VOR I ADF I RNAV.
(d) Performing a published Localizer approach or approaching on an ils before
intercepting the glideslope

60) According to SOP’s during a decelerated approach, when is the approach

phase activated?
a) Passing 10,000 ft
b) Anytime
c) Cleared for the approach
 d) Approximately 15NM away from the approach (from the landing threshold)

61) The auto retraction system ensure :

a) Slats retract when the speed reaches 210kt
b) Flaps& slats retract when the speed reaches 210kt
c) Flaps (& slats) retract when the speed reaches alpha floor
d) Flaps retract when the speed reaches 210kt

62) Roll control is achieved by :

a) Ailerons
b) Ailerons and rudder
c) Ailerons , rudder and spoilers
d) One ailerons and 4 outer spoilers on each wing

63) During an automatic start, if a hot start is detected:

a) The first action is ENG MASTER Switch “OFF”
b) FADEC will abort the start
c) FADEC will reschedule the fuel flow

64) Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the wing
tanks occurs when the inner compartment quantity decreases to:
a) 250kg
b) 450kg
c) 750kg
d) 5000kg

65) On the overhead pressurization panel, the fault illuminate when:

a) SYS 1 or SYS2 fails
b) Dual IRS fault
c) SYS1 and SYS 2 fail
d) No landing elevation from the FMGS

66) Does the trim air provide the warm air or the cold air to the air conditioning
system?
a) Cold air
b) Warm air
c) Warm and cold air

67) Independent FMGC operation is :

a) Only one FMGC can operate at a time
b) FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC2 is standby
c) Each FMGC’s only provide information to it’s own onside peripherals
d) FMGC’s operate according to master / slave principal
 68) Which item does not require both pilot confirmations prior to selection?
a) ENG master switch
b) Agent squib Pb
c) IDG Pb
d) IR selector switch

69) The fuel tank inerting system is used for :

a) Reduce the inertia created by the wing tip flutter
b) Prevent cavitations in the fuel lines
c) Increase the fuel capacity in the fuel tanks
d) Reduce the flammability of the fuel in the center tank

70) If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W
STRG switch in the ON position:
A: The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the brake system
does malfunction.
B: The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.
C: The crew must manually select alternate brakes.
D: All of the above.:

71) During cockpit preparation , when is a complete alignment not required on the
ADIRS :
a) Whenever there is no crew change
b) Before the first flight of the day
c) When NAVAIDS coverage is poor
d) Only when residual ground speed shows grater than 5 kt

72) Select the correct sequence of take off speeds (lowest first ):
a) VMGC-V1-VMU – VR – VMCA – V2
b) VMGC - VR – VMU – V1 – VMCA – V2
c) V1- VMGC- VMU – VR – V2 – VMCA
d) V1 – VR – V2 – VMU – VMGC

73) Continuous Ignition will be selected ON if:

a) Manually selected in-flight while ENG MASTER is ON if engine is running.
b) Engine flame out is detected.
c) After recycling ENG MODE Selector to NORM and back to IGN/START after engine
start on ground.
d) All of the above.

74) In normal operation, with the two MCDU showing the same page, a
modification made by the pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to MCDU 2:
a) Directly
b) Via FMGC 1
c) Via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
d) Via FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and RMP 2
 75) The V/S mode is active. to disengage it , one of these (statements) is not
correct :
a) Push the V/S
b) Push the ALT knob
c) Pull the ALT knob
d) Press EXPD Pb

76) After T/O the auto pilot can’t be engaged below:

a) 80ft
b) 50ft
c) 400ft
d) 100ft

77) ILS APPR LOC only. The engagement of both auto pilots is possible:
LOC only APPR. The engagement of both auto pilots is possible:
a) When “LAND” illuminates green on FMA
b) As soon as the LOC has been intercepted
c) After APPR PB switch is pressed and illuminates
d) Not possible for Non Precision approaches

78) During departure setup , it is possible to present the following on the FCU :
a) AP
b) V/S
c) Speed
d) Heading

79) Fire detection in the APU will cause :

a) Auto shutdown and discharges agent on the ground only
b) Auto fire extinguishing on the ground only
c) Auto shutdown on the ground only
d) Auto shutdown in the air

80) The agent push button on the engine fire panel is armed when:
a) the corresponding DISCH light is on
b) engine fire Pb illuminate
c) engine fire Pb is pressed and released

81) What happens in the event of a single ELAC failure?

A: ELAC functions are transferred the SEC’s.
B: ELAC functions are transferred to FAC’s.
C: SEC functions are transferred the ELAC’s.
D: The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

82) During prelimnary cockpit prepration , what the minimum battery voltage that
ensure a charge above 50% :
a) 115VAC
b) 32V
c) 110AH
 d) 25.5V

83) Minimum control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be controlled with a
max bank angle of 5° if one engine fails, the other at T/O power (approach flap
setting) is :
a) VA
b) VMCL
c) VMCG
d) VMCA

84) SUMMARIES exist for :

a) Triple IR fault
b) G+B HYD failure
c) Dual FMGC fault
d) Emergency descent

85) In flight, if both AC1 and AC2 busses are not powered:
a) The RAT will automatically deploy
b) The Static Inverter will power the AC busses
c) Both batteries will power the DC essential bus
d) The RAT should deploy manually

86) After an engine failure in curies at FL360 and no constraining obstacle below,
what speed should be set for the descent :
a) M0.78
b) M0.82
c) GD
d) 370KT/ 350 kts

87) What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and
horizontal stabilizer?
A: SEC 1
B: FAC 1
C: ELAC 2
e) FMGC1

88) A battery fault light will illuminate when:

A: The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage.
B: Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level.
C: Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate.

89) With PTU switch in AUTO:

a) The PTU runs automatically when diff press between green and blue sys is more
than 500 PSI
b) As (a) above, but PTU switch must be selected ON position
c) PTU is inhibited during first engine start

90) The Window Heat Computer provides 2 heating levels for the windshield:
a) High level above 20,000 ft ; Low level below 20,000 ft
b) High level in flight ; Low level on ground
c) High level in icing conditions ; Low level in other conditions

91) During engine start, DU failure indicates electrical power interruption. You
must:
a) Continue the start normally.
b) Select APU bleed off.
c) Immediately abort the start by turning off the Master Switch and perform a dry crank.

92) What does the ND symbol mean:

a) Descent path intercept
b) LS GS intercept
c) Flight path discontinuity
d) Single engine descent

93) During engine failure with damage (no fire) the engine is considered “secure”
when?
a) Setting affected thrust lever to IDLE
b) ENG master switch set OFF
c) Both agents Pb have been pushed
d) First agent Pb has been pushed

94) During ECAM actions, PF in responsible:

a) Flying the aircraft
b) Navigation
c) Communication
d) All of them

95) A constrain in amber on the MCDU indicate :

a) FMGC has calculated the constraint can be met
b) FMGC not able to calculated the constraint
c) The pilot missed the constraint
d) The constraint has been inserted incorrectly

96) The engine nacelle is anti iced by :

a) Air bleed from the low pressure compressor
b) Electrically
c) Air bleed from high pressure compressor
 97) Hydraulic system faults light illuminate under various conditions, the fault light
will extinguish unless:
Hydraulic system faults light illuminate under various conditions of
malfunctions. The respective light will extinguish if the switch is placed OFF
except in conditions of:
a) Pump low pressure ‘
b) Reservoir low level
c) Reservoir overheat

98) From where does the hydraulic reservoirs drive air for pressurization :
a) Reservoirs are not pressurized
b) Using ambient air passed through a venture
c) From engine 2 IP bleed duct
d) Engine 1 HP bleed air upstream of the normal pneumatic system in normal
conditions

99) With both engines stopped , how is it possible to pressurize the green system :
a) By the green engine pump
b) By the yellow engine pump and the PTU
c) Cannot be pressurized
d) Via the PTU and the yellow electric pump

100) Green dot speed correspond to :

a) Engine out oprating speed in clean configuration
b) Best lift ratio speed
c) 1.5 ˣ weight (tones) + 85

101) During flaps or slats locked , the PF must immediately?

a) Pull SPD knob
b) Ask for ECAM actions
c) Declare MAYDAY
d) Disconnect A/THR

102) Select the correct statement :

a) DMC1 supplies data to PFD1&2
b) DMC1 supplies data to PFD1- ND1- E/WD
c) DMC1 supplies data to ND1&2

Extra questions:

A constraint in White on the PFD and MCDU indicates:

A. The constraint has been inserted incorrectly
B. FMGC has calculated the constraint can be met
C. The pilot has intentionally disregarded the constraint
D. FMGC has calculated the constraint cannot be met
During cockpit preparation the PF is checking what under the item “Battery Check”?
A. The battery frequency
B. The battery temperature
C. The battery voltage
D. The charging relay and battery capacity

With the Engine Fire push button released, what aircraft systems are isolated from that
engine:
A. Pneumatic, Fuel, and Electrical
B. Fuel and Electric
C. Pneumatic, Fuel, Electrical and Hydraulic

Ground spoilers use:

A. Spoilers 1,2,3,4,5
B. Spoilers 1,2,3,4
C. Spoilers 1,2,3
D. Spoilers 2,3,4

During a roll, yaw control is:

A. Computed via the FAC’s and sent to one of two electrical motors
B. Computed via the FAC’s and sent to one of three hydraulic motors
C. Computed via the SEC’s and sent to one of three hydraulic motors
D. Computed by the ELAC’s and sent to one of three hydraulic motors via the FAC’s

An altitude that is below the optimum produces a significant fuel penalty:

A. Approximately 7% for each 4000ft
B. Approximately 5% for each 4000ft
C. Approximately 10% for each 6000ft

The zone temperature selector controls:

A. The pack flow control valve
B. The hot air pressure regulating valve
C. The pack outlet temperature and Trim Air valves

Primary (normal) elevator control is commanded by:

A. ELAC 2
B. ELAC 1
C. SEC 1 or 2
D. ELAC 1 for left elevator and ELAC 2 for right elevator

In the hydraulic system, Priority valves:

A. Will by pass the filters in case of blockage
B. Are shut OFF valves
C. Are used to cut off hydraulic power to heavy load users in the event of low hydraulic
press
Which parts of the wing leading edge are anti-iced:
A. Slats 1+2+3 (inner slats)
B. Slats 3+4+5 (outer slats)
C. Slats 1+2+5

Which one of the LGCIUs sends signal to the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?
A. LGCIU2
B. LGCIU1
C. LGCIU 1 or LGCIU 2 in case of loss of LGCIU1

What is the capacity of each Battery?

A. 110Ah
B. 23Ah
C. 115VAC
D. 28V

Green dot speed below 20,000ft equals:

A. 2x weight (tones) + 85
B. 1.5x weight (tones) + 85
C. 2x weight (tones) + 80