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CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 5. Which of the following would be most adversely
affected by a nonfasting sample?
1. Purest type of reagent water is: a. HDL
a. Type I b. Cholesterol
b. Type II c. Triglycerides
c. Type III d. LDL
d. Type IV
6. Which of the following apoproteins is responsible for
2. Which of the following is NOT an alcoholic drink? receptor binding for IDL and the chylomicron remnant
a. Soju produces in fat transport?
b. Wine a. Apo A1
c. Fruity brandy b. Apo C
d. Root beer c. Apo E
d. Apo B
3. Which of the following is considered a lipid?
a. Chylomicrons 7. Which of the following blood samples would serve best
b. LDL to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to
c. Cholesterol preserve lipoproteins?
d. HDL a. EDTA plasma sample
b. Heparin plasma sample
c. Citrate plasma sample
d. Fluoride plasma sample
4. Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all
the lipoproteins and it is composed of50% proteins?
a. HDL
8. Degree of syringe when performing phlebotomy
b. Chylomicrons
c. Triglycerides Answer: 15-30 degrees
d. LDL
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9. Which of the following tumor markers is used to 13. Which lipoprotein migrants farthest from the anode
monitor persons with breast cancer for reaccurance of during electrophoresis?
disease?
Answer: Chylomicron
Answer: CA-15-3
14. What type of error is observed from days 10-16 in this
10. Solve for Fahrenheit to Celsius
control chart?
Given: 99.2 F
Answer: Trend
Formulas:
C= (F – 32) x 0.556
F = (C x 1.8) + 32
Solution: C = (99.2 – 32) x 0.556 = 37.36
11. Which westgard rule is considered only as a “warning
rule”, and would not result in the rejection of a run?
Answer: 1(2s)
12. A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglyceride and
a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of
immediate concern because of its association with
which of the following conditions?
Answer: Pancreatitis
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MICROBIOLOGY and PARASITOLOGY 4. Which type of biological safety cabinet is seen in the
picture below?Identify the BSC:
1. Which of the following bacteria should be considered a. BSC I
important pathogens when reading gram-stained b. BSC II
smears of soft tissue abscess? c. BSC III
a. Streptococcus pneumonia d. BSC IV
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Staphylococcus aureus
2. The best specimen for the isolation of Bordetella
pertussis is which of the following?
a. Throat swab
b. Sputum
c. Nasopharyngeal swab (aspirates)
5. IMVIC of E.coli
d. Anterior nose swab
Answer: ++--
3. The organism most commonly associated with otitis
media infections is associated with which of the 6. Profuse watery diarrhea (rice water stools) leading to
following positive test results? dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration and
a. Coagulase hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the
b. VP hallmark of which toxin activity?
c. Optochin
d. Bacitracin Answer: Cholera toxin
7. Trophozoite forms of amoeba are found in what type
of stool specimen?
Answer: Watery
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8. Identify the parasite whose ova is shown in the picture
Answer: Trichuris trichiura
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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 4. What part of a microscope is replaced to convert a bright
field to a dark field microscope?
1. Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in urine. Which colors a. Polarizing filter
indicate glycosuria?
b. A split aperture
a. Blue, green and yellow
c. Iris diaphragm
b. Green, yellow and orange
d. Condenser
c. Orange and red
d. Blue and green
5. One of the following is a diluent for CSF WBC?
a. 3% HAc
2. Which urine clarity described as few particulates, print
easily seen through newsprint? b. HABA
a. Very cloudy c. 0.1 HCL
b. clear d. 10% H2S04
c. Hazy
d. Cloudy 6. Which reagent is necessary for cytocentrifugation of CSF to
increase the cell yield?
a. LISS
3. Which form of biliburin is detectable in urine?
b. 30% Albumin
a. Conjugated
c. 10% albumin
b. Unconjugated
d. NSS
c. Biliverdin
d. All forms
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7. A urine sample has a specific gravity of 1.005, what is the 10. In manual, routine urinalysis, how are squamous epithelial
appropriate term for this condition? cells reported?
a. Oligosthenuria a. Average number /0 HPF
b. Hyposthenuria b. Few, moderate, many, abundant / LPF
c. Isosthenuria c. Few, moderate, many, abundant / HPF
d. Hypersthenuria d. Present / none seen
8. After a 12 round boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red in 11. Which of the following are the designated fire hazard flash
color. Other than blood, what could cause points?
such color? a. 0 to 4
a. Urobilinogen b. A to D
b. Myoglobin c. 0 TO 10
c. Haptoglobin d. A,B,C
d. Biliburin
12. Identify the urinary crystals shown in the picture below:
9. What causes the normal color of feces? a. Hippuric acid
crystals
a. Pancreatic enzymes
b. Uric acid
b. Muscle fibers c. Triple phosphate
c. Urobilin
d. Cellulose
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13. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast and oil droplets may be
accomplished by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
14. A urine volume of less than 400 mL/day in adults is
termed
Answer: Oliguria
15. Which of the following is the characteristics appearance of
WBCs observed in hypotonic urine?
Answer: Glitter cell
16.Hand washing
Answer: Downward position
17. If a chemical gets into the person’s eyes
Answer: Flush the area with cool water for at least 15
minutes
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HEMATOLOOGY 4. As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in
most cases
1. Acceptable limits of a control value must fall. a. Increases
a. Within +-1 standard deviation of the mean b. Decreases
b. Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean c. Remains the same
c. Within +-2 standard deviations of the mean
d. Within +-3 standard deviations of the mean
5. What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone
marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm
2. Which characteristics is inaccurate with respect to the in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent,
anticoagulant K3 EDTA? and basophilic cytoplasm?
a. Removes ionized calcium (Ca2+) from fresh whole a. Rubrilast (pronormoblast)
blood by the process of chelation b. Reticulocyte
b. Is used for most routine coagulation studies c. Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
c. Is most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology d. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)
d. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered
evacuated tubes
6. If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed,
hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin
3. If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic a. S
examination of a Wrigght-stained preparation, possible b. F
causes include that c. A
a. The staining time was too long d. C
b. The stain was too basic
c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time
was too short
d. The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was
too long
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7. If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or 10. An acute leukemia can be described as being
shape using scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes a. Of short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in
deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical the peripheral blood
score would be b. Of short duration with many immature
a. 1+ leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood
b. 2+ c. Of short duration with little alteration of leukocytes of
c. 3+ the peripheral blood
d. 4+ d. Of long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in
the peripheral blood
8. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits
sensitivity f one population of red blood cells to 11. The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of
a. Warm antibodies persons with multiple myeloma is
b. Cold antibodies a. Albumin
c. Complement b. Globulin
d. Either A or B c. IgG
d. Bence Jones
9. Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell
preparation in the diagnosis of SLE? 12. The cellular ultrastructural component(s) unique to the
a. Rheumatoid arthritis factor platelet is (are)
b. ANA test a. Cytoplasmic membrane
c. Complement fixation test b. Glycocalyx
d. Antibody smith test c. Mitochondria
d. Microtubules
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13. The abbreviation laser stands for 16. In the photo-optical method, the change in light
a. Light-associated simulated emission of radiation transmission versus the _____ is used to determine the
b. Largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation activity of coagulation factors or stages.
c. Light amplified by stimulated emission of a. Amount of patient’s plasma
radiation b. Amount of test reagent
d. Liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation c. Time
d. Temperature
14. Which parameters are calculated rather than directly
measured? 17. Neither the aPTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of
a. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width a. Platelet factor 3
b. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count b. Factor VII
c. Leukocyte count and hematocrit c. Factor VIII
d. Platelet count and platelet volume d. Factor IX
15. The delta check method of quality control 18. The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test
a. Uses the patient’s own data to monitor is to provide _____ to the assay
population values a. Kaolin
b. Uses batches of 20 samples to track MC, MCH, and b. Fibrinogen
MCHC values c. Phospholipoprotein
c. Compares the patient’s leukocyte and platelet counts d. Thrombin
with his or her previous results
d. Monitors the patient’s values within two SDs of the
mean 19. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the
activation of ____ in the early stage
a. Factor II
b. Factor I
c. Factor XII
d. Factor V
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20. The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic 23. In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are
pathway is larger than normal will be to the ___ of the normal
a. Factor X activation distribution curve
b. Factor II activation a. Right
c. Factor I activation b. Left
d. Factor XIII activation c. In the middle
21. What is the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte 24. Two standard deviations (2SD) from the mean in
count? normal distribution curve would include
a. New methylene blue a. 99% of all values
b. Phyloxine B b. 95% of all values
c. Solution lyses erythrocytes and darkens the cells to be c. 75% of all values
counted d. 68% of all values
22. What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic 25. The bevel of the needle should be held ____ in the
for the Westergren method performance of a venipuncture
a. The diluting solution lyses erythrocytes with propylene a. Sideways
glycol and contains sodium carbonate and water b. Upward
b. The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte c. Downward
settling d. In any direction
c. Ferrous ions are oxidized to the ferric state
d. The diluting solution is either 1% hydrochloric acid or
2% acetic acid 26. A blue top tube is drawn for coagulation studies, the
sample is a short draw result may be:
a. Falsely shortened
b. Hemophilia A
c. Unable to be obtained
d. Falsely prolonged
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27. Pappenheimer bodies 31. What is the basic hematologic defect seen in patients
a. DNA with thalassemia major?
b. RNA a. DNA synthetic defect
c. Iron deposits b. Hgb structure
d. Precipitated hemoglobin c. Beta-chain synthesis
d. Hgb phosphorylation
28. Sickle cell disorders are:
a. Hereditary, intracorposcular RBC defects 32. Stressed platelets or reticulated platelets are:
b. Hereditary, extracorposcular RBC defects
Answer: larger than normal
c. Acquired, intracorposcular RBC defects
d. Acquired, extracorposcular RBC defects
33. Formula of Absolute Lymphocyte Count = Total
leukocyte count x % lymphocyte count divide by 100
29. Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
a. Response to inflammation
b. Neoplastic processes
c. Aplastic anemia 34. Which growth factor is produced by the kidneys and is
d. Red cell regeneration used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?
Answer: EPO
30. Hereditary pyropikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell
membrane defect characterized by: 35. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by
a. Increased pencil-shaped cells protein S?
b. Increased oval macrocytes
c. Misshapen budding fragmented cells Answer: Factor Va and VIIIa
d. Bite cells
36. Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production
of:
Answer: Thromboxane A2
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37. Identify the abnormal RBC shown in the picture below
Answer: Stomatocyte
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ISBB
4. An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on
1. What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were
pregnant has a positive antibody screen? repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was
a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if negative. On the next donation, the screening test was
necessary negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should
b. No need to do anything until 30 weeks gestation be:
c. Administer RhIg (Rh immune globulin) a. Accepted
d. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells b. Deferred
c. Told that only plasma can be made from his donation
d. Told to comeback in 6 months
2. A donor bag is half filled during donation when the
blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action
a. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if blood 5. All of the following are routinely performed on a cord
flow does not resume, withdraw the needle blood sample, except:
b. Remove the needle immediately and discontinue the
donation Answer: Antibody screen
c. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the
needle 6. FFP is used to treat the following, except:
d. Withdraw the needle and perform a second
Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
venipuncture in the other arm
7. What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux
3. A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS,
causes positive test results?
1+ at 37C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the
most likely problem Answer: Perform a saline replacement technique
a. Combination of antibodies
b. Cold antibody
c. Rouleaux
d. Test error
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8. A patient with joint swelling and pain tested negative
for serum rheumatoid factor (RF) by both latex
agglutination and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) methods. What other test would help establish
a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in this patient?
Answer: Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP)
antibody
9. Which of the following is the primary indication for
transfusion of packed RBCs?
Answer: Increase oxygen carrying capacity
10. Triggers classical pathway
Answer: IgM
11. Major cell in peripheral circulation
Answer: Neutrophil
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HTMLE 7. COR is not issued to individuals less than ___ yrs old
Answer: 21 years old
1. Ratio of fixative to tissue
Answer: 20:1 8. Physiological cell death
Answer: Apoptosis
2. The actual concentration of formaldehyde in a “10%
formalin” solution is 9. Accelerates fixation
Answer: 4% Answer: Microwave oven
3. The PRC is a three-man commission attached to
Answer: DOLE
4. Which of the following is NOT a continuing education
activity
Answer: Vlogs
5. Which of the following is the most widely used fixative
in electron microscopy?
Answer: Glutaraldehyde
6. Which of the following causes the characteristics foul
smell produced by cadavers?
Answer: Cadaverine
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