Computers-Introduction, History, Types

1. NetBIOS was introduced in 1983 by which company as an improvement to the

standard BIOS used by Windows-based computers?

Answer: SyteK Inc

Sytek Inc. which is now known as Hughes LAN Systems Inc. had created the
NetBIOS protocol in 1983, later used by Microsoft to make its early networks

2. Which company had developed the software development process framework

called "Rational Unified Process" or RUP?

Answer: IBM

Rational Unified Process (RUP) is an iterative software development process

framework created by the Rational Software Corporation, a division of IBM since
2003.

3. A hybrid computer is the one which exhibits the features of_?

Answer: both analog and digital computer Hybrid computers are those computers
which exhibit features of both the analog computers and digital computers.

4. For which of the following, the term Knowledge Based Information processing
System is being used in recent times?

Answer: Fifth Generation Computers

The term Knowledge based Information Processing Systems (KIPS) is being used
in recent times by the Japanese in context with their efforts towards the fifth
generation of computers. The fifth generation computers are to be powered by
artificial intelligence (AI).

5. Which of the following generation of computers is associated with artificial

intelligence?

Answer: Fifth

The discussion around the Fifth Generation computers includes new computer
programming and architecture; semantics of programming languages; relational
databases, linguistics theory, artificial intelligence, interference systems and so on.

6. The term 128-bit era refers to which of the following?

 Answer: Video game Consoles

The term 128 bit era refers to the sixth generation in the history of the video games
and video game consoles. This started in 1998 by Japanese Sega Dreamcast (DC).
Other companies that joined the bandwagon of 128 bit era include Sony
PlayStation 2 (PS2), Nintendo GameCube (GC), and Microsoft Xbox. The seventh
generation of video game consoles started on November 22, 2005 with the launch
of the Xbox 360. The current Eighth generation of video game consoles started in
2012.

7. First microprocessors were used in which of the following?

Answer: Calculators

The first microprocessors that emerged in the early 1970s were used for electronic
calculators, using binary-coded decimal (BCD) arithmetic on 4-bit words.

8. For his major. role in the development of computer chip Pentium', which Indian
IT expert is called the 'Father of Pentium'?

Answer: Vinod Dham

Vinod Dham is an engineer, entrepreneur and venture capitalist; known as 'Father

of the Pentium Chip' for his contribution to the development of Intel's Pentium
microprocessor.

9. In which year Microsoft was founded?

Answer: 1975

Microsoft was founded by Bill Gates and Paul Allen on April 4, 1975, to develop
and sell BASIC interpreters for the Altair 8800. It rose to dominate the personal
computer operating system market with MS-DOS in the mid-1980s, followed by
Microsoft Windows.

10. What was UNIVAC?

Answer: A computer

Universal Automatic Computer (UNIVAC) was innovated in 1940s that led to the
first commercially Successful computer.

11. ©Brain also known as the first computer virus for MS-DOS was written by two
brothers belonging to which among the following countries?

Answer: Pakistan
 Brain is the first PC virus in the world. It began infecting 5.2" floppy disks in
1986. It was the work of two brothers, Basit and Amjad Farooq Alvi of Pakistan.

12. Which among the following was India's first Teraflop supercomputer?

Answer: PARAM Padma

PARAM Padma was the first Indian Teraflop supercomputer. It is India's first
machine ranked on a worldwide supercomputer list.

13. One nibble is equal to_?

Answer: 4 Bits

In computing, a nibble (often nybble or even nyble to simulate the spelling of byte)
is a four-bit aggregation, or half an octet. AS a nibble contains 4 bits, there are
sixteen possible values, so a nibble corresponds to a single hexadecimal digit (thus,
it is often referred to as a "hex digit" or "hexit").

14. What kind of operations can a computer carry out?

Answer: Arithmetic and Logical

A computer is a device which can carry out sequences of arithmetic and logical
operations automatically with the help of computer programming.

15. Modern computers follow a generalized set of instructions to perform any

function. What are these instructions better known as?

Answer: Programs

Computers follow a generalized set of instructions to perform various functions.

These are known as programs. These let the computers to perform a huge range of
tasks.

16. Which of the following devices use computers as control systems for functioning?

Answer: All of the above

Computers are used in a huge arena of human endeavors and act as a second self to
all of us. These act as control systems in a number of household and industrial
devices like industrial robots, microwave ovens, remote controls, smart phones,
personal computers etc.

17. When were the first digital electronic calculating machines developed?

Answer: During World War II

 During the Industrial Revolution, some mechanical devices were built to automate
long and difficult tasks. The first digital electronic calculating machines were
developed during World War 2,

18. Which of the following is the processing unit of the computer?

Answer: CPU

A modern computer consists of at least one processing element called the Central
Processing Unit or CPU.

19. Which part of the computer carries out the arithmetic and logical operations?

Answer: Processing Element

The processing element caries out the arithmetic and logical operations while the
control unit changes the order of questions in response to stored information.

20. Which of the following are part of the Logical Operations of the computer?

Answer: Greater Than

A computer performs both arithmetic and logical operations. Examples of logical

operations are greater than, less than, equal to, opposite etc.

21. Which of the following comprise the input devices?

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Devices like keyboard and mouse are used to input data and instructions to the
computer and are called the input unit.

22. Which of the following devices comprise the output unit?

Answer: Visual Display Unit

Devices like a printer and visual display unit that are used to provide information to
the user in the desired format are called output unit.

23. Which of the following lies within the CPU?

Answer: Primary Memory

All input data and instructions are stored in the memory which is of two types-
primary memory and the secondary memory. Primary memory resides within the
CPU while the secondary memory is external to it.

24. What are the components of the Central Processing Unit?

 Answer: All of the above

Control Unit, Arithmetic Logic Unit and Memory together are called the Central
Processing Unit or the CPU.

25. Which of the following comprise the hardware components of the computer?

Answer: All of the above

The components of the computer which we can see and touch are called the
hardware components of the computer. They include devices like keyboard, mouse,
printer etc.

26. Which of the following comprise the software components of a computer?

Answer: Programs

The set of instructions or programs that make the computer function using the
hardware parts are called the software. We cannot see or touch software.

27. Which of the following are indisputable characteristics of a computer?

Answer: All of the above

Speed, accuracy and versatility comprise indisputable characteristics of a

computer. In addition, it also has reliability and storage capacity. These are some of
the factors which make it such an important parts of our lives.

28. In a book of which author was the word computer first mentioned?

Answer: Richard Braithwaite.

As per the Oxford English Dictionary, the word "computer" was first used in 1613
in a book called The Yong Mans Gleanings by English writer Richard Braithwait.

29. When did the Online Etymology Dictionary first attested the use of the word
"computer" as one who calculates?

Answer: 1640s

The Online Etymology Dictionary first attested the use of the word "computer" in
the 1640s as one who calculates.

30. Which of the following is seen as the earliest mechanical analog computer?

Answer: Antikythera mechanism

 The Antikythera mechanism is believed to be the earliest mechanical analog
computer. It was designed to calculate astronomical positions.

31. Which of the following devices incorporated a mechanical calendar computer?

Answer: Astrolabe

The astrolabe was invented in the Hellenistic world by Hipparchus. The astrolabe
incorporated a mechanical calendar computer.

32. Who is considered as the father of the computer?

Answer: Charles Babbage

Charles Babbage, an English mechanical engineer and polymath gave the concept
of a programmable computer. He is considered as the "Father of the Computer".

33. What parts did the first Analytical Engine incorporate which made it the first
design for a general-purpose computer?

Answer: All of the above

The Analytical Engine incorporated an Integrated memory, Arithmetic Logic Unit,

Control Flow in form of conditional branching and loops which made it the first
design for a general purpose computer.

34. Who gave the first successful demonstration of use of a simplified. analytical
engine in computing tables in 1888?

Answer: Henry Babbage

The first successful demonstration of the use of a simplified analytical engine in

computing tables in 1888 was given by Henry Babbage.

35. Which of the following is the first example of an electromechanical relay

computer?

Answer: Z2

The Z2, created by a German Engineer Konrad Zuse in 1939, was one of the
foremost examples of an electromechanical relay computer. 36. Which of the
following was considered as the world's first fully automatic digital computer?
Konrad Zuse made the Z3, which was the first fully automatic digital and
electromechanical programmable computer. It was built with 2000 relays.

36. Which was the world's first electronic digital programmable computer?
Answer: Colossus

Colossus was the world's first electronic digital programmable computer which
used a large number of valves.

38. Who had proposed the principle of modern computer in his 1936 paper?

Answer: Alan Turing

The principle of the modern comnputer was proposed by Alan Turing. His seminal
paper "On Computable Numbers" has proposed a device called the Universal
Computing Machine.

39. Which of the following is not the basic capability of a computer?

Answer: Prediction

The basic functions of a computer include speed, accuracy, reliability, adaptability

and storage. A Computer cannot make predictions by itself. It can only make
assessments based on the data which is fed into it.

40. Which of the following is the basic function of a computer?

Answer: All of the above

A computer basically has four different functions. They are input, processing,
storage and accuracy.

41. Which of the following stands for the input function of the computer?

Answer: Receiving or accepting information from outside sources

Input, storage, processing and output are four basic functions of the computer.
Input basically stands for entering data or receiving or accepting information from
outside sources.

42. How are the four main components of a computer interconnected

internally?

Answer: Buses

A general purpose computer has four components like the Arithmetic Logical Unit,
the Control Unit, the memory and input-output devices. These parts are
interconnected by buses.
43. In each of the computer parts, there are many trillions of electrical circuits
which can be turned on or off with the help of an electronic switch. How are
these arranged?

Answer: Logic Gates

Each of the electrical circuits is arranged in logic gates so that one of the circuits
may control the other circuits.

44. What kind of information each of the electrical circuits represents?

Answer: Binary

Each circuit represents a bit (binary digit) information. When the circuit is on, it
represents a "1" and a "0" when it is off in a positive logic representation.

45. A communication system which transfers data between the components

inside a computer or even between computers is known as

Answer: Bus

In computer architecture, a bus is a communication system which transfers data

between the Components inside a computer or Even between Computers.

46. Which of the following is the system bus?

Answer: Bus connecting CPU and Memory

The bus connecting the CPU and memory is one of the defining characteristics of
the system and is known as the system bus. Mostly the CPU and Memory they
work synchronously.

47. Which of the following is not an input device of the computer?

Answer: Sound Card

A Sound card is not an input device of the computer. A trackball is a pointing

device which consists of a ball held by a socket.

48. Which of the following is not an arithmetic capability of a computer?

Answer: Copy and Paste

A computer is much more than an arithmetic number crunching device and

performs many other operations like copy, paste, delete, print etc

49. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages of data processing
in a computer?
Answer: Data Collection- Input Raw Data- - Output Processing of Desertion out
put The correct sequence of stages of data processing is Data Collection-Input Raw
Data-Processing of Data-Information-Output

50. Which of the following indicates where is the computer is in terms of the
program sequence?

Answer: Program Counter

The program counter which is commonly known as the instruction pointer is

actually a processor register that points where a computer is in its program
sequence.

51. Which of the following can change the sequence of instructions to be

fetched by the processor?

Answer: All of the above

Processors usually get instructions from memory but the sequence is usually
changed by placing of a new value in the PC like branches also called jumps,
subroutine calls and returns.

52. Which of the following is a quickly accessible location which is available to

the Central Processing Unit of the computer?

Answer: Processor Register

A processor register is a quickly accessible location which is available to a

computer's CPU. Registers usually consist of a small amount of fast storage and
may be read-only or write-only. 53. Which of the following is a common
property of a computer program?

Answer: Locality of Reference

A highly common property of a computer program is the locality of reference. This

basically refers to accessing of the same values repeatedly and frequently holding
these in registers for improvement of performance.

54. How are registers measured?

Answer: Number of bits

Registers are normally measured by the number of bits they can hold like an 8-bit
register, a 32-bit register etc.

55. Which of the following registers can hold both data and addresses?
Answer: General Purpose Register

A General Purpose Register can hold both Data and Address. This means they are
combined data/address registers.

56. Which of the following are related to finding information from the RAM?

Answer: All of the above

All three i.e. Memory Buffer Register, Memory Data Register and Memory
Address Register represent a collection of storage registers which are located on
They all fetch separate chips from CPU. information from memory.

57. Which of the following is a single integrated circuit on which a CPUs are
typically constructed?

Answer: Microprocessor

CPUS are typically constructed on a single integrated circuit known as the

microprocessor.

58. Which of the following includes Logic Operations?

Answer: All of the above

Logic Operations involve Boolean logic: AND, OR, XOR and NOT. These are
used for creating complicated conditional statements and processing Boolean logic.

59. Which of the following serve as both an input and output devices?

Answer: All of the above

Hard Disk Drives, Floppy Disk, Optical Disc Drives serve as both input and output
devices.

60. Which of the following is are operating systems?

Answer: All of the above

All of the mentioned options are called as Operating Systems.

61. Which of the following comprise commonly used Assembly language?

Answer: ARM

ARM is a commonly used Assembly language. Its full form is known as Advanced
RISC Machine.
62. Which of the following is a Text-based user interface?

Answer: Command-line interface

A text-based user interface is Command-line Interface. It is a text-based

application is one whose primary input and output are based on the text.

63. With which scientist is the discovery of first practical mechanical

calculator associated?

Answer: Blaise Pascal

Blaise Pascal had invented the first practical mechanical calculator. It was called
the Pascaline and was used to help his father who was a tax- collector to solve his
sums.

64. Who had discovered the Boolean algebra?

Answer: George Boole

Englishman, George Boole had invented a new branch of mathematics called the
Boolean algebra. Boolean algebra and the binary code help modern computers to
make simple decisions by comparison of long strings of zeroes.

65. Who was associated with the first large-scale digital computer known as
the Harvard Mark I or the IBM Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator?

Answer: Howard Aiken

The first large-scale digital computer was built by mathematician Howard Aiken
which was sponsored by IBM and thus called as the Howard Mark I or IBM
Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator.

66. What was the name of the first vacuum tube invented by Lee de Forest in
1906?

Answer: Audio

Audio was the first vacuum tube invented in 1906 by Lee de Forest. It was the size
of a person's thumb and glowing red hot like a tiny electric light bulb. This bagged
him the nickname as "the father of radio".

67. Who had developed a computer named "Woz" described as the hacker's
hacker?

Answer: Steve Wozniack

Steve Wozniak was a Californian electronics wizard, had developed a computer of
his own named "Woz" often described as the hacker's hacker.

68. Who had conceived the idea of the first ever Graphical User Interface?

Answer: Alan Kay The idea of the very first Graphical User Interface was
conceived by Alan Kay. It was then pronounced as gooey.

69. What was the special feature of the Apple Lisa computer launched in
1983?

Answer: GUI Desktop

Steve Jobs launched the Apple Lisa in 1983 which was the first widely available
computer with a GUI project. desktop. It was Jobs own version of the Alto

70. Which among of the following was the world's first electronic stored-
program computer?

Answer: Manchester Baby

The Manchester Baby was the world's first electronic stored-program computer
built at Victoria University of Manchester by Frederic C. Wiiliams.

71. Who had designed and constructed the first recognizably modern digital
stored-program computer?

Answer: Maurice Wilkes

Maurice Wilkes had designed and constructed the first recognizably modern
digital stored-program computer.

72. Which of the following was the first commercial computer?

Answer: Ferranti Mark 1

The first commercial computer was Ferranti Mark 1 built by Ferranti and was
delivered to the University of Manchester and was based on Manchester Mark 1.

73. In which computer was magnetic core memory first demonstrated?

Answer: Whirlwind Computer

The first use of magnetic core was demonstrated in the Whirlwind Computer in
1953. Soon after that commercial production of the same began and it was seen in
IBM 704 and Ferranti Mercury. 74. Which f the following was the first
commercial transistor computer?
Answer: Metrovick 950

Metrovick 950 was the first commercial transistor computer.

75. Who among the following had designed and realized the first single-chip
microprocessor?

Answer: All of the above

The first single-chip microprocessor was Intel 4004 was both designed and realised
by Ted Hoff, Federico Faggin and Stanley Mazor at Intel Corp.

76. EDVAC Was one of the earliest electronic computers. What is its full
form?

Answer: Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer

EDVAC or Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer was one of the

earliest electronic Computers. It was binary and a stored-program computer.

77. What kind of data is processed by an analog computer?

Answer: Continuously varying Data

An analog computer is the one which is used to process continuously varying data.
This changeable yet continuous data is generally referred to as the analog data.

78. In which of the following applications are analog computers used?

Answer: All of the above

An Analog computer is used in a variety of industrial and scientific applications

like measurement of electric current, measurement of frequency and also resistance
of a capacitor.

79. How do the Analog computers perform arithmetic operations?

Answer:

With the help of Measurable quantities An analog computer performs arithmetical

operations with the help of measurable quantities like mechanical movement,
rotation of gears etc.

80. What is the meaning of the Greek word anaiogon from which the word
analog has been derived?

Answer: According to a Ratio

 The word analog is derived from the Greek word analog on which means
according to a ratio.

81. An analog computer uses an analog signal which is usually represented as

what?

Answer: Sine Wave

An Analog computer uses an analog signal which can also be represented as a sine
wave or a continuous wave which contains many time-varying quantities.

82. Which of the following are examples of an analog signal?

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Examples of analog signal include sound or human speech over an electrified

copper wire.

83. What does the amplitude of an analog wave measure?

Answer: Intensity

The amplitude of an analog wave is a measure of its intensity which is related to

the highest point called crest and the lowest point called trough.

84. Which of the following are examples of analog computer?

Answer: All of the above

Examples of analog computer include temperature, pressure, telephone lines,

signal frequency, resistance of a capacitor, voltage etc.

85. How is data transmitted in analog computers?

Answer: Continuous Signals

In Analog computers, data is transmitted for operation in the form of continuous

signals.

86. Which is the first programmable analog computer?

Answer: Castle Clock

The castle clock which was a hydro-powered mechanical astronomical clock

which was invented by Al-Jazari was the first programmable analog clock

87. Which of the following comprise vital electronic components of an analog

clock?
 Examples of analog signal include sound or human speech over an electrified
copper wire.

83. What does the amplitude of an analog wave measure?

Answer: Intensity

The amplitude of an analog wave is a measure of its intensity which is related to

the highest point called crest and the lowest point called trough.

84. Which of the following are examples of analog computer?

Answer: All of the above

Examples of analog computer include temperature, pressure, telephone lines, signal

frequency, resistance of a capacitor, voltage etc.

85. How is data transmitted in analog computers?

Answer: Continuous Signals

In Analog computers, data is transmitted for operation in the form of continuous

signals.

86. Which is the first programmable analog computer?

Answer: Castle Clock

The castle clock which was a hydro-powered mechanical astronomical clock which
was invented by Al-Jazari was the first programmable analog clock

87. Which of the following comprise vital electronic components of an analog

clock?

Answer: All of the above

Key electronic components of an analog computer include precision resistors,

multipliers, potentiometers, operational amplifiers, fixed- function generators etc.

88. Which of the following are the core mathematical operations which are
used in an electric analog computer?

Answer: All of the above

The core mathematical operations which are used in an electric analog computer
are- integration, exponentiation, inversion, addition, multiplication, logarithm and
division.
89. A digital computer processes information in which form?

Answer: Discrete form

A digital computer stands for a class of devices which can solve many problems
by processing information in a discrete form. It works on data like magnitude,
symbols, letters etc.

90. In what form is the data expressed in a digital computer?

Answer: Binary

Digital data works on various ends of data which include magnitude, letters,
symbols, etc. and are expressed in binary code i.e. using numbers only in two digits
like 0 and 1.

91. Where are the instructions which are used to run a digital computer
stored?

Answer: Memory

The digital computer works by counting, comparing and manipulating various

digits and their combinations as per the instructions which are stored in the
memory.

92. Which of the following tasks can be performed by a digital computer?

Answer: All of the above

All the tasks mentioned above can be performed by a digital computer like
analyzing vast amount of business data, simulation of global weather patterns,
regulation of operations of machines etc.

93. What are four basic functional elements of a digital computer?

Answer: All of the above

A digital computer system has four basic functional elements like the input-output
equipment, main memory, control unit and the arithmetic logic unit.

94. Who has conceived the first automatic digital computer?

Answer: Charles Babbage

English inventor Charles Babbage is credited with the being the first one to
conceive a successful first automatic digital computer.

95. Who had build the first electronic digital computer?

Answer: John Atanasoff

john V. Atanasoff who is an Ameican mathematician and also a physicist built the
first electronic digital computer.

96. What is the function of a digital component in a hybrid computer?

Answer: Controller

The digital component in a hybrid computer acts as a controller and provides

logical and numerical operations.

97. Which was the first desktop hybrid computing system?

Answer: Hycomp 250

Hycomp 250 was the first desktop hybrid computing system which was released
by Packard Bell in 1961.

98. Which is the primary technical problem associated with hybrid

computers?

Answer:

Reduction of Digital-computer noise The main technical problem associated with

hybrid computers is the reduction of digital computer noise.

99. What controlled the data-processing operations in the Harvard Mark I?

Answer: Both 1 and 3

In Harvard Mark I the data-processing operations are primarily controlled by

electric relays or Switching devices.

100. Who among the following is most likely to operate a personal computer?

Answer: End-user

A personal computer is basically a multipurpose computer which is designed

specifically for individual use. It is thus more likely to be used by an end-user.

101. Personal computers in the 2010s have access to which of the following
kinds of software’s?

Answer: All of the above

Personal Computers in the 2010s as compared to earlier models had access to a
wide range of software’s viz. commercial software’s, freeware, free and open
source software etc.

102. What can possibly be contained by an Integrated Circuit chip?

Answer: All of the above

Most modern microprocessors are usually contained in a single integrated circuit

chip that contains a CPU, memory, peripheral interfaces and even other
components of the computer. These are usually called the systems on a chip.

103. In the history of computing which computer fits the designation as the
first personal computer?

Answer: ENIAC

ENIAC was the first personal computer. It had become operational in 1946.
ENIAC stands for Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer.

104. Who had designed ENIAC?

Answer: John Mauchly

ENIAC was designed by John Mauchly and j. Presper Eckert of University of

Pennsylvania. There were many design engineers who had assisted them.

105. Who had invented the magnetic card system for program storage?

Answer: Pier Giorgio Proton

Pier Giorgio Proton had first developed the magnetic card system for program
storage. It is a type of card which can store data by modification of tiny iron-based
magnetic particles on a band of magnetic material on a card.

106. Which was the earliest commercial, non-kit microcomputer based on a

microprocessor?

Answer: Michal N

Michal was the earliest commercial, non-kit microcomputer based on a

microprocessor. It was built in 1972 and only a few hundred units were sold.
Michal is a series of microcomputers produced by a French company R2E.

107. Which among the following is considered as the first true personal
computer based on the 8- bit Intel 8080 microprocessor?
Answer: Altair 8800

First true personal computer Altair 8800 which was created by Micro
Instrumentation and Telemetry Systems MITS. It was based on 8-bit Intel 8080
microprocessor. It was introduced in 1974.

108. Which of the following machines were referred to as 1977 trinity?

Answer: All of the above

Commodore PET was the first successfully mass marketed personal computer.
Apple II and also TRS-80 all together was referred to as the 1977 Trinity.

109. Which of the following functions are associated with a Workstation?

Answer: All of the above

A workstation is a high-end personal computer which was originally made for

technical, mathematical and scientific applications. They are used for computer-
aided design, drafting and modeling, computation-intensive scientific and
engineering calculations, processing of images etc.

110. Which of the following are characteristics of a gaming computer?

Answer: All of the above

A gaming computer is basically a simple desktop computer which has high-

performance hardware like a powerful video card, memory and processor. These
are essential for the handling of video games. These are called PC games.

111. Which of the following devices usually come with touch screens?

Answer: All of the above

A touch screen is basically an input device which is present on top of an electronic

visual display. It is found in devices like Nintendo Game Consoles, EVMs,
Personal computers, POS systems.

112. In which of the following industries are Touch screens used?

Answer: All of the above

The popularity of smart devices has increased the popularity of touch screens for
both portable and functional electronics. These are found in the medical line, heavy
industries, ATMS, room automation etc.

113. Which of the following are characteristics of Net tops?

Answer: All of the above

Net tops are a special type of desktops introduced by Intel in February of 2008. Net
tops were characterized by lost cost and thin functionality in addition to Intel atom
processor. The latter allows these to consume less power.

114. What are the possible uses of a home theatre PC?

Answer: All of the above

A home theatre PC is a convergence device which is used as a Digital Video

Recorder, digital photo viewer, video player, music player etc.

115. Which of the following is/are characteristics of a laptop?

Answer: All of the above

A laptop is similar to any desktop but is portable with all the hardware and other
peripherals built into a single unit. They have a clamshell design.

116. Which of the following are features of a subnotebook?

Answer: All of the above

A subnotebook has all the features of a standard laptop computer but it has smaller
physical dimensions. They are larger than hand-held computers and usually play on
full-versions of the desktop/laptop 0S.

117. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a desktop replacement

computer?

Answer: Remains fixed and is not mobile

Unlike desktops, the desktop replacement computer has full capabilities of the
desktop computer but is not mobile. They are in the category of a bulkier laptop.

118. Which of the following system is also known as desk notes?

Answer: DTR Computer

A Desktop Replacement computer is also known as desk notes i.e. a combination

of desktop and notebook.

119. Which of the following is generally marketed as a companion device?

Answer: Net book

 A notebook is also called mini notebook as it is a small, lightweight and
inexpensive laptop often marketed as a companion device. It is suited for general
computing tasks and other web-based applications.

120. The term Big Iron was used to describe which of the following kinds of
computers?

Answer: Mainframe Computers

The term Big Iron is used to describe a large, expensive and extremely fast
Mainframe computer.

Computer Components: Hardware

1. The performance of a hard drive or other storage device, meaning how long it
takes to locate a file is called ?

Answer: Access Time

Access time (or Hard Disk Access Time) is the total elapsed time between the
initiation of a particular request for data and receipt of the first bit of that data.

2. A unit of data storage that equals 2 to the 70th power is called?

Answer: Zebibyte

A zebibyte is a unit of data storage. It is equal to 2 to the 70th power, or

1,180,591,620,717,411,303,424 bytes. While a zettabyte can be estimated as
10^21 or 1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 bytes, a zebibyte is exactly
1,180,591,620,717,411,303,424 bytes.

3. A generic name for Intel processors released after the original 8086
processor is

Answer: x86

X86 refers to the instruction set architectures developed by Intel based on the
Intel 8086 microprocessor. As of now, most of the personal Computers and
laptops sold are based on the X86 architecture.

4. V-RAM is used for access of the following?

Answer: Video & Graphics

V-Ram is also known as video Ram. It is a dual ported variant of dynamic

RAM. VRAM is basically RAM integrated in a card for using it for storing
graphical textures, 3D models temporary. It is used for vide0 access and
graphics.

5.. Any piece of data can be returned in a constant time, regardless of its
physical location and whether or not it is related to the previous piece of
data using which of the following?

Answer: RAM

Random-access memory or RAM is a form of Computer memory which is used

to store the Working data and machine code. The RAM make Sure the data is
returned instantly when asked for.

6. What is the name of the digital circuit that performs arithmetic and
logical operations in computers?

Answer: Arithmetic Logic Unit

An arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) is the part of the circuit that performs

Arithmetic and logical operations. It is the part of a computer processor (CPU).
In some processors, the ALU is divided into two units, an arithmetic unit (AU)
and a logic unit (LU).

7. Which of the following Key is not found in normal computers/ laptops?

Answer: Turn key

Turn key is involving the provision of a complete product or service that is

ready for immediate use. It is not found is normal computers.

8. One kilobyte has

Answer: 1024 bytes

The kilobyte is equal to 1024 bytes (210 B), a Common usage. The usage of the
metric prefix kilo for binary multiples rose convenient, because 1024 is
approximately 1000.

9. Which of the following transforms input data into output data?

Answer: CPU

Input data is transformed into output by central processing unit- CPU. It is the
electronic circuit in a computer that executes the instructions that make up a
program. It performs operations specified by the instructions.

10. Which of the following device is a volatile storage?

Answer: RAM

RAM is a temporary memory in a computer. Random-access memory is a form

of computer memory that can be read and changed in any order, typically used
to store working data and machine code. So it is a very volatile storage.

11. What is the use of Digitizer as an input device?

Answer: To Convert graphic and pictorial data into binary inputs

A digitizer is the device which improves touch accuracy is embedded in the

screens of tablets and smart phones. Other devices use a digitizer device such as
a stylus to allow users to specify locations on the display more precisely. There
are three types of touch-screen digitizers: passive, active and dual.

12. What do we call a storage device where the access time is effectively
independent of the location of the data?

Answer: Direct Access Storage Device

A direct-access storage device is a secondary storage device. It is the place

where "each physical record has a discrete location and a unique address". IBM
coined the term DASD as a shorthand describing hard disk drives, magnetic
drums, and data cells.

13. What do we call a CPU that is designed specifically to handle the

communications processing task with main purpose is to off-load
communications processing task from the host computer so that the host
computer can be dedicated for applications and data processing jobs?

Answer: Front-end processor

A front end processor (FEP), or a communications processor, is a small-sized

computer. It interfaces to the host computer a number of networks. They are
SNA, or a number of peripheral devices, such as terminals, disk units, printers
and tape units. a CPU that is designed specifically to handle the
communications processing task with main purpose is to off-l0ad
communications and processing task.

14. What do we call an input/output device on a computer, reserved for

communication between the computer operator or maintenance engineer
and the computer?

Answer: Console
 A console is an input/output device on a computer, reserved for communication
between the computer operator or maintenance engineer and the computer. It is
not a platform like PC.

15. Which among the following is used for denoting the detectable
movement of a computer mouse?

Answer: Mickey

A mickey is a unit of measurement for the speed and movement direction of a

computer mouse. So it is used for denoting the movement of a computer mouse.

16. Which of the following devices produces a permanent human-readable

text of graphic document?

Answer: Printer

A printer is a device which makes a human- readable representation of graphics

or text on paper. A printer is a device that accepts text and graphic output from
a computer and transfers the information to paper, usually to standard size
sheets of paper.

17. Which of the following computer component allows you to connect to

the internet?

Answer: Modem

A modem is a hardware device that converts data between transmission media

so that it can be transmitted from computer to computer. Computer information
is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over telephone lines is
transmitted in the from of analog waves.

18. What is the job of the Mother Board?

Answer: Holds all the circuits and components together

A motherboard is the circuit board found in general purpose microcomputers. It

holds and allows communication between many of the crucial electronic
components of a system, such as the central processing unit and memory, and
provides connectors for other peripherals.

19. What is the full from of ALU?

Answer: Arithmetic Logic Unit

The arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) of a computer system is the place where
the actual execution of the instructions take place during the processing
operations.

20. What is the full form of CPU?

Answer: Central Processing Unit

The control unit and ALU usually are referred to as a processor, or central
processing unit (CPU). The operational speed of the CPU primarily determines
the speed of the computer as a whole.

21. This part of the computer does all of the 'thinking'. It can carry out
billions of instructions per second and gets very hot.

Answer: Processor

A processor is the computer's engine. The CPU is the part that actually does
stuff by following the instructions of the computer program that it's running.

22. Every computer runs an OS software program. What does 0S stand

for?

Answer: Operating System

An operating system is system software that manages computer hardware and

software resources and provides common services for computer programs.

23. A CPU contains which of the following?

Answer: A control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

CPU is the main processing unit of a computer system. It consists of a control

unit and an arithmetic logic unit. A central processing unit (CPU) carries out the
instructions of a computer| program by performing the basic arithmetic, logic,
controlling, and input/output operations specified by the instructions.

24. A computer cannot boot if it does not have which of the following?

Answer: Operating System

An operating system is the most important software that runs on a computer. It

manages the Computer's memory and processes, as well as all of its software
and hardware.

25. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains which of the
following?
Answer: All of the Above

The system unit, also known as a "tower", is the main part of a desktop
computer. It includes the motherboard, CPU, RAM, and other components. A
CPU is only a small part of a system unit.

26. Which of the following is known as the brain of the personal computer?

Answer: Control Unit

Control unit is known as the brain of the computer. The control unit (CU) is a
component of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) that directs the
operation of the processor.

27. A device which is not connected to the CPU is known as which of the
following? Answer: Off-line device

When a computer or other device is not turned on or connected to other devices,

it is said to be "offline. Offline can also mean not being connected to the
Internet.

28. Which of the following store data temporarily and pass it on as directed
by the control unit?

Answer: Register

CPU registers perform a variety of functions, a primary one of which is to offer

temporary storage for the CPU to access information stored on the hard drive.

29. The CPU and memory are located on which of the following?

Answer: Mother Board

A motherboard is the main circuit board found in general purpose

microcomputers and expandable systems. It holds and allows. Communication
between many of the components of the system such as CPU, and memory.

30. What is the full form of SMPS?

Answer: Switched-Mode Power Supply

A switched-mode power supply (SMPS) is an electronic circuit that converts

power using switching devices. They are used in many places in a computer.

31. Which of the following is the smallest high- speed storage area in the
CPU?
 Answer: Register

The register is the smallest high speed storage area in the CPU. All data must be
represented in register before it can not be processed. A register may hold an
instruction, a storage address, or any kind of data .

32. What is the full form of UPS?

Answer: Uninterruptible Power System

A backup UPS i.e. Uninterruptible Power System is often used with computers.
If a UPS is not used with computers, the data stored in the computer is almost
when power is switched off.

33. Monitors, printers, disk drives, keyboard, mouse are included in which
of the following categories?

Answer: Hardware

Monitors, printers, disk drives, keyboard, mouse are Hardware devices.

Hardware devices refer to the physical components .Computer hardware is any
physical device used in or with your machine, whereas software is a collection
of code installed onto your computer's hard drive.

34. Which of the following is a pointing device that uses light to determine
mouse motion?

Answer: Optical Mouse

An optical mouse is a computer mouse which uses a light source, typically a

light-emitting diode (LED), and a light detector, such as an array of
photodiodes, to detect movement relative to a Surface.

35.Which of the following define the information that comes from an external
source and is fed into computer software?

Answer: Input

Whatever goes into the computer is called as input. Input can take a variety of
forms, from commands that are entered from the keyboard to data from another
computer or device.

36. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a
computer system is through the use of which of the following?

Answer: Keyboard
 The keyboard is used as a text entry interface for typing text and
numbers .Keyboard keys typically have characters engraved on them and each
press of a key typically corresponds to a single written symbol.

37. What is the use of Output devices?

Answer: To view or print data

An output device is any device that receives data from a computer. It is any piece
of computer hardware equipment which converts the electronically generated
information into human- readable form.

38.What is the use of the wheel located between the two standard buttons on a
mouse ?

Answer: To scroll

A mouse wheel is a hard plastic or rubbery disc on a computer mouse that is

perpendicular to the mouse surface. It is commonly used for easy scrolling up and
down through a document.

39. Which of the following devices is used for reading bar coded data ?

Answer: Bar Code Reader

A bar code reader is an electronic device that can read and output printed barcodes
to a computer. A barcode reader works by directing a beam of light across the bar
code and measuring the amount of light that is reflected back.

40. Which type of failure occurs because of input device that does not read
data correctly?

Answer: read error

This error appears with such a message "A disk read error occurred. This message
refers to the problem on your hard drive or issues during the process of the reading
disk with the operating system.

41. Which of the following devices provide a means of communication between

a computer and outer world?

Answer: Input/output

The I/0 i.e. the input/output devices provide à means of communication between
the computer and the outer world. They are often referred to as the peripheral
devices sometimes.
42. What is the full form of GUI?

Answer: Graphical User Interface

GUI stands for a graphical user interface. Graphical user interface basically
provides a set of graphical elements on the screen to the users. Commonly used for
point-and-draw devices.

43. Which of the following devices is used for video games, flight simulators,
training simulators and for controlling industrial robots?

Answer: Joystick

Joystick is the device used for the same. It is a point- and-draw device. It has a
click button, a stick, a ball, a socket as well as a light indicator.

44. Which are the input devices that enable direct data entry into a computer
system from source documents?

Answer: Data Scanning devices

They are referred to as data scanning devices. They eliminate the need to key in
text data into the computer. It demands the high quality of input documents.

45. Which of the following clearly define the Trackball ?

Answer: It is a two-dimensional positioning device.

Trackball is two-dimensional positioning device. the trackball is an upside-down

mouse that rotates in place within a socket. The trackball is usually located in front
of the keyboard toward the user.

46. Which of the following is used for 3D positioning and modeling, animation
and other application?

Answer: Space ball

Space ball is a 3D positioning device. Space ball is used as a graphical input

device to enter any graphical data or information. Space ball is based on fixed
spherical ball

47. Which of the following is the device that is constructed with the series of
sensors that detects hand and finger motion?

Answer: Data glove

Data glove senses, detects hand and finger motion. It is an interactive device,
resembling a glove worn on the hand. It also often contains a motion tracker.

48. Which one is the common device used for drawing, painting, or
interactively selecting coordinate positions on an object ?

Answer: Digitizers

Digitizers can be used for drawing, painting and selecting positions. It is any
device which receives analog information and creates a digital representation of it.

49. Document reader and a light pen are classical examples of Which of the
following?

Answer: Input devices

A light pen is a computer input device in the form of a light-sensitive pen. It allows
the user to point to displayed objects or draw on the screen.

50. Which if the following is used to provide hardcopy ?

Answer: Printer

A printer is a peripheral device which makes a persistent human-readable

representation of graphics or text on paper. The best-known non- impact printers
are the inkjet printer.

51. Which of the devices converts drawing, printed text or other images into
digital form ?

Answer: Scanner

Scanner is a device that optically scans images, printed text, handwriting or an

object and converts it to a digital image. Scanners come in hand-held, feed-in, and
flatbed types.

52. What type of device is a digital camera?

Answer: Input

A digital camera is a camera that captures photographs in digital memory. The

history of the digital camera began with Eugene F. Lilly of the Jet Propulsion
Laboratory.

53. In MICR, Which of the following is the meaning of C ?

Answer: Character
 MICR Code is a character-recognition technology used mainly by the banking
industry. Every bank branch is given a unique MICR Code and this helps the RBI
to identify the bank branch and speed up the clearing process.

54. Which of the following computer memory is both static and nonvolatile?
Answer: ROM

Read-only memory is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers and other

electronic devices. Data stored in ROM can only be modified slowly. It consists of
a programmed integrated circuit that doesn't lose data when powered down, making
it nonvolatile.

55. There is an incidence when computer's speed begins to drop. In this

situation which element of memory is likely to be overloaded ?

Answer: RAM

Computer programs and operating systems load into RAM. If it has a lot of
processes running at one time, RAM may become overworked and performance
can suffer.

56. Which of the following clearly defines the word Bus Width?

Answer: It is the number of bits that can be sent to a CPU simultaneously.

The speed of system random-access memory is determined by two factors: bus

width and bus speed. Bus width refers to how many bits of information RAM can
send to the CPU at the same time.

57. When a person turn on your computer, which of the following computer
memory is the first to activate?

Answer: BIOS

BIOS instructions set up the computer and boot the operating system. The BIOS's
primary function is to. handle the system setup process including driver loading
and operating system booting.

58. Which of the following is the another name for Secondary Memory?
Answer: Auxiliary Memory

Auxiliary memory, also known as Secondary memory or External memory, is a

non-volatile memory. Secondary Memory isn't. directly accessible to the CPU
Hake primary storage.
 59. Which of the following is the fastest form of RAM and also the most
expensive so not used as main memory but rather for cache memory?

Answer: SRAM

Static random-access memory is a type of memory that uses bitable latching

circuitry to store each bit. SRAM is volatile in the conventional sense that data is
eventually lost when the memory is not powered.

60. The CPU and Memory are located in which of the following ?

Answer: Mother Board

Motherboard holds and allows communication between many of the crucial

electronic components of a system, such as the central processing unit and
memory, and provides connectors for other peripherals.

61. Which of the following is the memory in CPU that holds program
instructions, input data and the output information produced?

Answer: Primary Memory

Primary memory is computer memory that is accessed directly by the CPU.

Primary memory is the main memory of the computer which can be directly
accessed by the central processing unit,.

62. Which of the following define the meaning of RAM?

Answer: It is a memory which both read and written.

RAM is a memory which is both read and written. Random-access memory is a

form of computer data storage that stores data and machine code currently being
used.

63. Which is the memory that works on time sharing principle in order to
create an illusion of infinite memory space?

Answer: Virtual memory

Virtual memory is that uses hardware and software to allow a computer to

compensate for physical memory shortages by temporarily transferring data from
random access memory (RAM) to disk storage.

64. What is the definition of a nibble?

Answer: A group of 4 bits

 A nibble is a four-bit aggregation. It is also known as half-byte or tetrad. A nibble
can be conveniently represented by one hexadecimal digit.

65. Which of the following is the name given to the number of concentric
circles on a diskette?

Answer: Tracks

The platters of a hard disk have two sides for recording the data. Every surface of
the platter has invisible concentric circles on it. These circles are called tracks.

66. What is the storage element for a static RAM ?

Answer: Flip-flop

The flip flop is an electronic circuit with two stable states that can be used to store
binary data. Flip- flops and latches are fundamental building blocks of digital
electronics systems used in computers and communications.

67. Which of the following consist of the computer main memory?

Answer: RAM and ROM

The main memory in a computer is called Random Access Memory. It is also

known as RAM. This is the part of the computer that stores operating system
software.

68. Which of the following is the use of nano control memory ?

Answer:

Reduce the overall control memory size Nano-RAM is a computer memory

technology. It is developed by Nantero. It is a type of nonvolatile random access
memory. Nantero was founded in 2001, and headquartered in Woburn,
Massachusetts

. 69. Virtual Memory of a computer system has which of the following

characteristics?

Answer: It is as big as maximum addressing capability of the computer

system.

Virtual Memory is an imaginary memory area Supported by some operating

systems. Virtual memory combines computer's RAM with temporary Space on
your hard disk.
70. Which of the following is the another name for the error or bug in
software or hardware?

Answer: Glitch

A glitch is a short-lived fault in a system. Computer glitches are often only a

temporary disruption. The most Common causes are errors within the operating
system and defects in a piece of. software.

71. Which of the following is the ability of a system to jump directly to the
requested data?

Answer: Random Access

Random-access memory is a form of computer data storage that stores data and
machine code currently being used. A random-accesS memory device allows data
items to be read or written in almost the same amount of time irrespective of the
physical location of data inside the memory.

72. Which of the following is responsible for the fixed disk error?

Answer: Incorrect CMOS settings

CMOS is the term usually used to describe the small amount of memory on a
computer motherboard that stores the BIOS settings.

73. What is the full form of ESD?

Answer: Electrostatic Discharge

ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. It is the sudden flow of electricity between
two electrically charged objects caused by contact or an electrical short.

74. Which of the following parts of the systenm is most affected by the ESD
problem?

Answer: Expansion Board

Expansion board is a printed circuit board that can be inserted into an electrical
connector, or expansion slot, on a computer motherboard.

75. What is the term used for verification of a login name and password in
computer terminology?

Answer: Authentication
Authentication is the process of identifying an individual, usually based on a
username and password. Authentication is distinct from authorization

76. What is the full form of ECC Memory?

Answer: Error Correcting Code Memory

ECC stands for Error Correcting Code Memory. It is a memory system that tests
for and corrects errors automatically, very often without the operating system being
aware of it.

77. What is the meaning of SMART Commands in a system maintenance?

Answer: Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology Commands

Modern hard drives have Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology

(SMART) Commands that provide information about internal error conditions,
e.g., spin retry counts, bad sector counts, etc.

78. Which of the following is the other name used for a Daughter Board?

Answer: All of the Above

A daughterboard, daughter card, mezzanine board or piggyback board is an

expansion card that attaches to a system directly. Daughterboard's often have only
internal connections within a computer.

79, Which of the following issues clearly points to the overheating of the
system?

Answer: All of the Above

Overheating of a system can be caused by various reasons. Internal issues in the

circuit board or failure of cooling mechanism can cause it. Abrupt Shut Down of a
system, Blue Screen Crashes, Freezes are some of the issues which shows that
system is overheated.

80. If your computer is overheating, Which of the following things you can do
about it?

Answer: All of the Above

If there is no idea of why your computer started Overheating, open its case and
check that all the fans are running. If CPU is overheating, its heat sink may not be
seated correctly or its thermal paste may be old.
81. Which of the following refer to the error message in a computer system?
Answer: All of the Above

Red Screen of Death may also refer to an error message used on the PlayStation
systems. Blue Screen of Death is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer
system after a fatal system error.

82. Which of the following are the essentials to maintain your computer?

Answer: All of the Above

Followings steps should be taken to maintain computer system: Back up data,

Clean dust from your computer, Clean up your cabling, Organize your installation
disks, Run antivirus and spyware Scans regularly, Clean up your software, Clean
up your OS, Update everything.

83. Which of the following defines the term computer maintenance properly?

Answer: It is the practice of keeping computers in a good state of repair.

Computer maintenance is the practice of keeping computers in a good state of

repair. A computer containing accumulated dust and debris may not run properly.

84. Which of the following acts specifically exempts computer-maintenance

activities, so copies of copyright files may be made in the course of
maintenance provided that they are destroyed afterwards?

Answer: The Digital Millennium Copyright Act

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act leaves computer-maintenance activities.

The copies of copyright files may be made in the course of maintenance provided
and they are destroyed afterwards.

85. A set of changes to a computer program and its supporting data designed
to update, fix, or improve it. What is the name given to this term?

Answer: Patching

A patch is a software update comprised code patched into the code of an

executable program. When major maintenance such as patching is performed, a
backup is recommended as the first step.

86. Which of the following terms is often used for the programs that are used
to find out possible faults in the computer system?

Answer: Diagnostic software

A diagnostic program is a computer program sequence that determines the
operational status within the software, hardware, or any combination there of in a
system.

87. Which of the following models of processing has the master/slave

architecture as a feature?

answer: Shared memory processing

Shared memory is memory that may be simultaneously accessed by multiple

programs .Shared memory is a method by which program processes can exchange
data more quickly than by reading and writing.

88. There is a situation when BIOS cannot read the partition table
information. What is the name given to such an error?

Answer: Invalid drive or drive specification

When BIOS Can not read the partition table information an error is there found to
have Occurred. The error is known as Invalid drive or drive specification.

89. A spare monitor made by a different manufacturer than the original

computer's desktop will work when the original one breaks in any situation.
Which feature of computer design concept makes this possible?

Answer: Standardization

Standardization is the process of implementing and developing technical standards

based on the consensus of different parties. Standardization can help to maximize
compatibility, interoperability, safety, repeatability

90. The smallest unit in which data can be stored is known by which of the
following names?

Answer: Bit

The bit is a basic unit of information. The words bit and binary digit are used
interchangeably. The binary digit can have only one of two values. It may be
physically represented with a two-state device.

91. Which of the following is the data storage device that is used to store very
high resolution video formats?

Answer: Blu Ray

 Blu-ray is a digital optical disc. It is capable of storing several hours of video in
high-definition and ultra high-definition resolution. The name "Blu-ray" refers to
the blue laser which is used to read the disc.

92. The copies of data or program files are always stored as a safety. Which of
the following is the name given to these copies?

Answer: Backups

Backup refers to the copying into an archive file of Computer data so it may be
used to restore the original after a data loss event. The main reason for data backup
is to save important files if a system crash or hard drive failure occurs.

93. Which of the following phenomena is used by the Blu Rays to store data?
Answer: Laser

A blue laser is a laser that emits electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength

between 360 and 480 nanometers, which the human eye sees as blue or violet.
Some of the most commercially common blue lasers are the diode lasers used in
BIu-ray applications.

94. What is the name given to the storage device used for storing very small
amounts of data such as small audio and video files?

Answer: Magnetic card

A magnetic card is a type of card capable of storing data. The magnetic card
sometimes called swipe card or magistrate. Magnetic cards are commonly used in
credit cards, identity cards, and transportation tickets.

95. What is the maximum limit of data a Compact Disc can store up to ?
Answer: 750 MB

Compact disc is a digital optical disc data storage device .It was co-developed by
Philips and Sony and released in 1982.These have a diameter of 120 millimeters
and can hold up to about 80 minutes of uncompressed audio or about 750 MB of
data.

96. A floppy disk is a magnetic storage medium for computer systems. What is
the size limit of data to be stored on a floppy disk?

Answer: 360 KB to 2.88 MB

A floppy disk is a type of disk storage composed of a disk of thin and flexible
magnetic storage medium.3 /2-inch floppy disk can store data up to 360 KB.8-inch
floppy disk cab store data up to 2.88 MB.
 97. How many Gigabyte of information a Digital Versatile Disk (DVD) can
store?

Answer: 4.6

DVD is a digital optical disc storage device developed in 1995.The basic types of
DVD are referred to by a rough approximation of their capacity in gigabytes.

98. What is the name given to the device invented by Dr. Bobeck in 1966 for
mass storage of data ?

Answer: Magnetic Bubble Storage

Bubble memory is a type of non-volatile computer memory that uses a thin film of
a magnetic material to hold small magnetized areas. Bubble memory is largely the
brainchild of a single person, Andrew Bo beck.

99. Which of the following is the storage device that uses rigid, permanently
installed magnetic disks to store data ?

Answer: Hard disk

A hard disk drive is an electromechanical data storage device that uses magnetic
storage to store and retrieve digital information. HDDs are the dominant secondary
storage device for general- purpose computers.

100. What is the full form of UDF ?

Answer: Universal disk format

Universal Disk Format (UDF) is a file system for computer data storage for a broad
range of media. UDF is developed and maintained by the Optical Storage
Technology Association (0STA).

101. What is the name given to the most recent storage device technology?
Answer: Floppy Drive

Non-Volatile Memory Express, also known as Name, is a device technology

introduced by Intel in 2007. It standardizes the way that non- volatile memory
devices, such as SSDs, can be connected to a computer.

102. When 8 bits are combined, the resulting unit of storage is known by
which of the following names?

Answer: Byte
The byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits.
The term byte was coined by Werner Buchholz in June 1956.The term octet is used
to specify a size of eight bits

. 103. What is the full form of SSD?

Answer: Solid State Drive

A SSD is a storage medium that uses non-volatile memory as a means of holding

and accessing data.SSD has no moving parts which gives it advantages such as
faster access time, noiseless operation, higher reliability, and lower power
consumption.

104. What is the full form of HVD?

Answer: Holographic Versatile Disc HVD stands for Holographic Versatile Disc.
It has been development by The Holography System Development (HSD) Forum
using a green laser and red writing/reading positioning/addressing laser.

105. There exist a device that stores computer data on a loop of flexible
celluloid-like material. What is the name given to this device?

Answer: Tape Drive A tape drive is a data storage device that reads and writes
data on a magnetic tape. A tape drive provides sequential access storage. Tape
drives can stream data very quickly off a tape.

106. A storage device type that stores computer data after it is turned off. It is
added to a computer beyond the immediately usable main storage. What is the
name given to this device?

Answer: Backing store The term backing storage refers to non-volatile data
storage. Common types of backing storage devices are hard drives, SSD, external
hard disk drives, optical media such as CD or DVD, and flash media such as thumb
drives and memory sticks.

107. How many pins does a Single in-Line Memory Module have?

Answer: 30 or 72

A SIMM, or single in-line memory module, is a type of memory module

containing random-access memory used in computers from the early 1980s to the
late 1990s.It has either 30 pins or 72 pins.

108. Which of the following components of Personal Computer maintains date

and time of the system?
Answer: CMOS RAM

CMOS RAM İS a volatile, low-power complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor.

It is alternatively referred to as Real Time Clock.

109. Which of the following is the another name given to the LCD display?

Answer: TFT

A thin-film-transistor or TFT is a variant of a liquid- crystal display (LCD) that

uses thin-film-transistor (TFT) technology to improve image qualities such as
addressability and contrast.

110. Which of the following is the another name for the Hard Disk Drive?

Answer: Winchester Drive

Winchester Drive is the another term for hard disk drive. The term Winchester
comes from an early type of disk drive developed by IBM that had 30MB of fixed
storage and 30MB of removable storage.

111. What is the full from of a PCI bus?

Answer: Peripheral Component Interconnect

PCI stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect. It is a local computer bus for
attaching hardware devices in a computer. The first version of conventional PCI
found in consumer desktop computers was a 32-bit bus using a 33 MHz bus clock.
112. How many pins are there ona Video Graphics Array connector?

Answer: 15

A Video Graphics Array or VGA connector is a three- row 15-pin connector.VGA

connectors and cables carry analog component of video signals, and VESA Display
Data Channel (VESA DDC) data.

113. Which of the following correctly defines the Digital Visual Interface?

Answer: All of the Above

DVI is a video display interface. It was developed to be an industry standard for

transmitting digital video content to display devices at resolutions as high as 2560
x 1600.

114. What is the full form of a FRU?

Answer: Field Replaceable Unit

FRU stands for Field Replaceable Unit. It is a printed circuit board that can be
quickly and easily removed from a computer and replaced by the user or a
technician without having to send the entire product or system to a repair facility.
115. There is a term called ATX generally used in computer hardware
configuration. Which of the following clearly indicates towards ATX?
Answer: Both a and b

ATX İs the most common motherboard design. An ATX power supply provides a
number of peripheral power connectors and twO Connectors for the motherboard in
the modern systems.

116. Keyboard Layouts are available in many scripts. Which of the following
are of the Latin Scripts?

Answer: All of the Above

Devomark is a Latin type Keyboard. Colemak is a modern alternative to the

QWERTY and Dvorak layouts, designed for efficient and ergonomic touch typing
in English.

117. SysRq (System Request) key is a feature of which of the following type of
keyboards?

Answer: AT Keyboard

System Request is a key on personal computer keyboard. It has no standard use. It

was Introduced by IBM with the PC/AT. It was intended to be available as a
special key to directly invoke low-level operating system functions.

118. Which of the following is a display device in which images are produced
when an electron beam strikes a phosphorescent surface?

Answer: CRT

A cathode ray tube (CRT) is a specialized vacuum tube in which images are
produced when an electron beam strikes a phosphorescent surface. Most desktop
computer displays make use of CRTS.

119. It is a type of printer which can print multiple carbon copies at once.
What is the name of this type of printer?

Answer: Impact Printer

Impact printer refers to printers that work bý banging a head or needle against an
ink ribbon to make a mark on the paper. This includes dot-matrix printers, daisy-
wheel printers, and line printers.
120. There are many types of plotters available. Which of the following is the
type of a plotter?

Answer: Both a and b

There are two main types of plotters - drum and flatbed plotters. Drum plotters
spin the paper back and forth on a cylindrical drum while the ink pens move left
and right. The drum plotters are generally smaller than flatbed plotters.

121. Which of the following are the another names for a PEN Drive?

Answer: All of the Above

Pen Drive is also known as a USB flash drive, thumb drive, pen drive, gig stick,
flash stick, jump drive, disk key. It is a data storage device that includes flash
memory with an integrated USB interface. It is typically removable, rewritable and
much smaller than an optical disc.

122. Which of the following Limit Range of Data Rates a EIDE Cable
supports?

Answer: From 4 MBps to 16.6 MBps

EIDE was developed by Western Digital and an interface used on IBM compatible
computers. EIDE Supports data rates from 4 and 16.6 MBps.

123. Which of the following clearly defines the LGA?

Answer: All of the Above

LGA İS a chip package with a very high density of contacts. LGAS differ from
traditional chips with protruding pins that are inserted into a socket. An LGA chip
has flat pads on the bottom of its package that touch contacts on the motherboard
socket.

124. What is the lowest bus speed on a Pentium IV processor?

Answer: 400MHz The recent Pentium entries are Pentium III and Pentium
4.Pentium 4 are smaller than Pentium lain Pentium III, the bus speed is generally
133 MHz while the bus speed in Pentium 4 is at least 400MHz.

125. Which of the following are the hardware components of the computer
system?

Answer: All of the Above Computer hardware includes the physical, tangible
components of a computer system .It includes CPU, Cabinet, Graphic Card, Sound
Card, Motherboard, Speaker, Keyboard, Mouse, Desktop
 3. Computer Components: Software, 0S and Programming Languages

1. Which of the following languages are directly executable by a computer's

CPU?

Answer: Machine Language

Machine languages are directly executable by a computer's CPU.

2. What is used in most programs that is a part of a program and guides the
user through certain steps?

Answer: Wizard

A software wizard or setup assistant refers to a user interface type that presents a
user with a sequence of dialog boxes that lead the user through a series of well-
defined steps. Tasks that are complex, infrequently performed, or unfamiliar may
be easier to perform using a wizard.

3. Panther (10.3), Jaguar (10.2), Puma (10.1), and Cheetah (10.0) are
examples of what kind of operating system?

Answer: Mac OS

These are names of Mac OS Operating Systems. The names of various Mac OS are
as follows: Mac OS X Public Beta Mac OS X 10.0 Cheetah Mac OSX 10.1 Puma
Mac OS X 10.2 Jaguar Mac OS X 10.3 Panther Mac OS X 10,4 Tiger Mac OS X
10.5 LeopardMac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard Mac OS X 10.7 Lion OS X 10.8
Mountain Lion OS X 10.9 Mavericks OS X Page: 6935000+MCQs [Section-L] -
Computers & IT 10.10 Yosemite OS X 10.11 El Capitan macoS 10.12 Sierra
macos 10.13 High Sierra macos 10.14 Mojave macoS 10.15 Catalina

5. Which of the following was used in programming the first computers?

6. Answer: Machine Language

Machine Language or Machine code is a strictly numerical language which is

intended to run as fast as possible. This was used in the first computers.

5. DDL is used to define the structure of a database, including the tables,

columns, and data types that it contains. Its full form is?

Answer: Data Definition Language

 A data definition or data description language (DDL) is a syntax similar to a
computer programming language for defining data structures, especially database
schemas. DDL statements create and modify database objects such as tables,
indexes, and users. Common DDL statements are CREATE, ALTER, and DROP.

6. Structured programming languages such as C, Cobol and FORTRAN

Were used in which of the following computers?

Answer: Third Generation Computers

The period of third generation was from 1965-1971. The computers of third
generation used Integrated Circuits (ICs) in place of transistors. Structured
programming languages such as C, COBOL and FORTRAN were used in Third
Generation computers.

7. The slogan "Write once, run anywhere" is related to which of the following
programming languages?

Answer: Java

Write once, run anywhere (WORA) slogan was given by Sun Microsystems to
illustrate the cross- platform benefits of the Java language. The idea was that Java
Programmed could be developed on any device, then compiled into a standard byte
code and then could be run on any device which is equipped with Java virtual
machine ((VM).

8.Which among the following is correct about 4GL?

Answer: A programming language

4GL means fourth-generation programming language

9. In a computer file systems which among the following is top or first in

hierarchy?

Answer: root directory

In computer systems (particularly UNIX and UNIX like OS), root directory is the
first and top-most directory in the hierarchy.

10. Which among the following is used for removing a software bug / defect
which is available for free of cost from the software provider?

Answer: patch
 A patch is a collective name of all the changes to a computer program aimed to
update, fix, or improve it including addressing the security vulnerabilities and other
bugs.

11. Which of the following is a suitable term for any programmable content of
a hardware device configurations and data for application-specific integrated
circuits (ASICs), programmable logic devices, etc?

Answer: Firmware

A firmware refers to a computer programme which is "embedded" in a hardware

device and is an essential part of the hardware. It is sometimes also called
embedded software. One example is a TV remote set which has a software
embedded that can understand and control the TV. TV itself has its own firmware
on its motherboard.

12. Which among the following is a high-level language used to develop

software applications in compact, efficient code that can be run on different
types of computers with minimal change?

Answer: cOBOL

COBOL İs a high level labguage used to develop software applications in

compact. It is compiled English-like computer programming language designed for
business use. It object-oriented since 2002.

13. Which of the following audio video formats was developed by Microsoft?
Answer: WMA

Windows Media Audio (WMA) is a series of audio codec’s and their

corresponding audio coding formats developed by Microsoft.

14. "Macintosh" an Operating System is a product of ?

Answer: Apple

The Macintosh was the brand name of the personal computers designed and sold
by Apple Inc. since January, 1984. Since 1998, it was branded as Mac.

15. Which among the following is the correct order in which popular
company Apple released them?

Answer: Mac, iPod, iPhone, iPad

The following is the correct order : 1. Mac was introduced in 19842. Ipod was
introduced in 20013. Iphone was introduced in 20074. Ipad was introduced in 2010
16. Which of the following correctly defines a software?

Answer: Both a and b

Computer software is all the information processed by computer systems, programs

and data. Computer software includes computer programs, libraries and related
non-executable data.

17. Who among the following gave the first theory related to computer
software?

Answer: Alan Turing

The first theory about software prior to creation of computers was proposed by
Alan Turing in his 1935.This eventually led to the creation of the academic fields
of computer science and software engineering.

18. What is the full form of ISV?

Answer: Independent Software Vendor

An independent software vendor or ISV is an organization specializing in making

and selling software. It was designed for mass or niche markets.

19. There is a software that protects a computer against viruses by identifying

and removing any computer virus. What is name of this software?

Answer: Antivirus

Antivirus software, or anti-virus software is a computer program used to prevent,

detect, and remove malware. If properly installed on a computer system, it can
prevent access to computer systems by unwanted computer malwares

20. What is the name given to the program in execution?

Answer: Process

A process is the instance of a computer program that is being executed. It contains

the program code and its activity. A process may be made up of multiple threads of
execution that execute instructions concurrently.

21. Which of the following software’s is used to drive microprocessor-based

systems?

Answer: Assembly Language Program

 An assembly language is any low-level programming language in which there is a
very strong correspondence between the program's statements.

22. Which of the following is the type of a software?

Answer: System Software and Application Software

Software can be grouped into a few broad categories: Application Software System
Software Malicious Software

23. Which of the following is the first layer of software loaded into computer
memory wh starts up?

Answer: Operating System

An operating system is a system software that manages computer hardware and

software resources and provides common services for computer programs.

24. What is the name given to a person who designs the programs in a
software package?

Answer: System Programmer

The programs included in a system software package are called system programs.
The programmers who design them and prepare them are called system
programmers.

25. What is the full form of SDLC?

Answer: Software Development Life Cycle

Software Development Life Cycle is the systematic development of software by

following every stage in the development process namely, Requirement Gathering,
System Analysis, Design, Coding. Testing, Maintenance and Documentation etc.
26. Which of the following are different SDLC Models?

Answer: All of the Above

There are several SDLC models available such as Waterfall Model, Iterative
Model, Spiral model, V- model and Big-bang Model etc.

27. Which of the following defines the Modularization correctly?

Answer: Both b and c

Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discreet

modules, which are expected to carry out task independently.
28. Which of the following are the software analysis and design tools?
Answer: All of the Above

Various system design and analysis tools are DFDS (Data Flow Diagrams),
Structured Charts, Structured English, Data Dictionary, HIPO (Hierarchical Input
Process Output) diagrams, ER (Entity Relationship) Diagrams and Decision tables.

29. What is the full form of CASE tools?

Answer: Computer Aided Software Engineering

CASE Stands for Computer Aided Software Engineering. CASE tools are set of
automated software application programs, which are used to Support, accelerate
and smoothen the SDLC activities.

30. A software is a set of instructions or programs to execute a specific task.

Which one is not a form of software?

Answer: Monitor

Software is a general term for the various kinds of programs used to operate
computers and related devices. Monitor is a hardware component soft the computer
system.

31. Who is the father of Open Source Software?

Answer: Richard Stallman

In 1983, Richard Stallman launched the GNU Project to write a complete operating
system free from constraints on use of its source code.

32. Which of the following programs remains in the memory while other
programs are executing?

Answer: Resident Program

A resident program is a computer program that uses a system call in D0S operating
systems to return control of the computer to the operating system.

33. Which of the following is the software that resides on a single computer
and does not interact with any other software installed in different computer?

Answer: Stand Alone Software

Standalone program is one that run as a separate Computer process, not an add-on
of an existing process. It is an application, which can be run without the need for
installation procedure.
 34. What is plan 9 form the Bell labs?

Answer: Both a and b

Plan 9 from Bell Labs is a distributed operating system. It originated in the

Computing Sciences Research Center (CSRC) at Bell Labs in the mid-1980s.

35. Which of the following Operating systems was designed as a high

dependability OS in which the kernel, device drivers, and application software
were all written in managed code?

Answer: Singularity

Singularity is an experimental operating system built by Microsoft Research

between 2003 and 2010.It was designed as a high dependability OS in which the
kernel, device drivers, and application software were all written in managed code
36. Which of the following names is given to the near-minimum amount of
software that can provide the mechanisms needed to implement an operating
system?

Answer: Both a and b

A microkernel is often abbreviated as u-kernel. It is the near-minimum amount of

software that can provide the mechanisms needed to implement an operating
system.

37.Which of the following correctly define the meaning of the word Kernel?

Answer: It is the set of primitive functions upon which the rest of operating
system functions are built up.

A kernel is the central part of an operating system. The kernel is the lowest level
of the operating system. The kernel is the main part of the operating system and is
responsible for translating the command into something that can be understood by
the computer.

38. Which of the following graphs tell us the correct and appropriate way to
determine the deadlock situation occurrence?

Answer: Resource Allocation Graph

A resource allocation graph tracks which resource s held which process and which
process is wafting for a resource of a particular type. It is very Powerful and simple
tool to illustrate how interacting recesses can deadlock.

39. Which of the following are real time operating System?

Answer All of the Above

A real-time operating system is any operating System tended to serve read-time

applications that Drocess Cata as it comes in. It is an operating System that
guarantees a certain capability within a sped fed time constraint

40. Which of the following are the most important criteria for measuring the
performance of an Operating system?

Answer: Botha and b

The CPU efficiency input decreases as the turnaround time/ waiting time of the
processor increases. it is desirable to have less turnaround time and waiting time
for all processes.

41. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the most widely used in a
time shared operating system?

Answer: Round Robin

Round robin is used in time shared operating System, 35 it is more responsible.

Time slices are assigned to each process in equal portions and in Page 80 circular
order, handling all processes without priority.

42. How many phases does a compiler has?

Answer: 8

The compilation process is a sequence of various phases. Each phase takes input
from its previous stage, has its own representation of source program, and feeds its
output to the next phase of the compiler. There are around 8 phases in compiler.

43. A parser generator takes a grammar as input and automatically generates

source code that can parse streams of characters using the grammar. Which of
the following software tools is a parse generator?

Answer: Yacc

Yacc stands for "yet another compiler compiler. It is the standard parser generator
for the Unix operating system. Yacc generates code for the parser in the C
programming language.

44. An assembler is a program that converts assembly language into machine

code. Which of the following is not a type of assembler ?

Answer: Three pass

 An assembler is a program that translates assembly language into machine
language. There are many types of assemblers .Sore of them are one pass
assembler, two pass assemble, load and go assembler etc.

45. Garnet Operating System was developed to be used in which of the

following devices?

Answer: Both b and c

Garnet OS is also known as Palm Os. It is a discontinued mobile operating system

initially developed for personal digital assistants (PDAs) in 1996. Later versions of
the OS have been extended to support smart phones.

46. There is a technique which uses disk for reading and storing output files.
What is the name given to such a technique?

Answer: Spooling

Spooling is a specialized form of multi- programming for the purpose of copying

data between different devices. Spooling works like a typical request queue where
data, instructions and processes from multiple sources are accumulated for
execution later on.

47. Which of the following is the dominant Operating System in the world?

Answer: Microsoft

The dominant desktop operating system is Microsoft Windows with a market

share of around 82.74%. macos by Apple Inc. is in second place (13.23%), and the
varieties of Linux are collectively in third place (1.57%).

48. Which of the following has the shell as an exclusive feature?

Answer: UNIX

Unix is a family of multitasking, multiuser computer operating systems. The main

features of UNIX include multitasking and portability capabilities.

49. There is a system software which performs the task of resolution of

externally defined symbols. What is the name of such a system software?

Answer: Linker

A linker is a computer program that takes one or more object files generated by a
compiler and combines them into one, executable program. The compiler
automatically invokes the linker as the last step in compiling program.
50. Which of the following are the three different categories that application
software is divided into?

Answer: All of the Above

Application software is computer software designed to perform a group of

coordinated functions, tasks, or activities for the benefit of the user. There are
many kind of app out of which main are general purpose, specialized, mobile app.
51. What is the name given to the Automatic Speech Recognition on Apple
Iphone?

Answer: Siri

Siri is a virtual assistant that is part of Apple Inc.'s iOs. The assistant uses voice
queries and a natural- Page: 83 35000+McOS [Section-L] - Computers & IT
language user interface to answer questions.

52. Which of the following Microsoft applications is used to create a budget?

Answer: Microsoft Excel

Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet developed by Microsoft. It features calculation,

graphing tools, pivot tables, and a macro programming language called Visual
Basic for Applications.

53. Who is known as the father of the electronic spreadsheet?

Answer: Dan Bricking

Daniel Bricking is best known as the co-creator of VisiCalc, the first electronic
spreadsheet. In addition to the spreadsheet, he helped develop one of the first word
processing systems and programmed the most popular prototyping tool of the
MSDOS world.

54. There are many application software packages available at present. Which
of the following is an application software package?

Answer: Both b and c

Red Hat is an American multinational software company providing open-source

software products to the enterprise community. It is not an application software
rather it is a software firm.

55. An application program that gathers user information and sends it to

someone through the Internet is known as?

Answer: Spyware
Spyware is an unwanted software that infiltrates the computing device, stealing
internet usage data and sensitive information and sending it to Someone across
internet.

56. To locate a lost file on your Macintosh, which of the following applications
is used?

Answer: Sherlock

Sherlock app was named after Sherlock Holmes. It was a file and web search tool
created by Apple Inc. an extension of the Mac OS Finder's file searching
capabilities.

57. Which of the following is necessary for an application software to be used

Answer: Software License

A software license is a legal instrument governing the use or redistribution of

software. A software license grants the permission to use one or more copies of
software in ways where such a use would otherwise potentially constitute copyright
infringement of the software owner's exclusive right.

58. What is the full form of PIM?

Answer: Personal Information Manager

PIM stands for Personal Information Manager. It is a type of application software

that functions as a personal organizer. As an information management tool, a PIM
tool's purpose is to facilitate the recording, tracking, and management of certain
types of "personal information".

59. Which of the following is a personal information management software

suite described by its developers as a "Note-to-Self organize"?

Answer: Chandler

Chandler was a personal information management software suite described by its

developers as a "Note-to-Self Organize. It was designed for personal and small-
group task management and calendaring.

60. Which of the following is the Calendar application developed by Mozilla

Foundation?

Answer: Sunbird
 Mozilla Sunbird is a discontinued free and open- source, cross-platform calendar
application that was developed by the Mozilla Foundation. Development of
Sunbird was ended to focus on development of Mozilla Lightning.

61. Which of the following is the Vector Graphics Editor?

Answer: Corel Draw

CorelDraw is a vector graphics editor developed and marketed by Corel

Corporation. It includes the bitmap-image editor Corel Photo- Paint as well as
other graphics-related programs.

62. Which of the following are the features of a Spreadsheet?

Answer: Rows and Columns

A spreadsheet is an interactive computer application for organization, analysis and

storage of data in tabular form. The program operates on data entered in cells of a
table.

63. Which of the following is the form designer software application?

Answer: All of the Above

Pendragon Forms is a robust forms designer and mobile data collection software.
Hand Base takes the fields defined and creates a data entry screen automatically.
64. Which of the following is the numerical computing software for scientists
and mathematicians?

Answer: MATLAB

MATLAB is a multi-paradigm numerical computing environment and proprietary

programming language developed by Math Works. It is the easiest and most
productive software environment for engineers and scientists.

65. Which of the following is the location information application software?

Answer: ArcGIS

ArcGIS is a geographic information system. It i used for working with maps and
geographic information. It is used for creating and using maps, compiling
geographic data, analyzing mapped information etc.

66. What is the name given to the application which only runs on one
platform, increasing the desirability of that platform?

Answer: Killer App

 A new and popular application arises which only runs on one platform, increasing
the desirability of that platform. This is called a killer application or killer app.

67. What is the name given to the specialized application that is build for a
specific business?

Answer: Vertical Application

A vertical application is a specialized system that is built for a specific business.

These applications require domain expertise and generally are not used by multiple
groups or business units.

68. Which of the following are the Educational Software’s?

Answer: All of the Above

There are many types of educational software’s. Some of them are Dictionaries,
Encarta, Britannica, MATLAB, Google Earth, NASA World Wind etc.

69. Which of the following clearly defines the Ripple effect?

Answer: It is a phenomenon where a change in one piece of a software system

affects other area of the Ripple effect states that a change to a single variable will
have effect on the rest of a program. It provides a measure of the program's
complexity.

70. Which of the following issues are related to the Software aging? Answer:
Both a and b

Software aging refers to progressive performance degradation of a software system

due to exhaustion of operating system resources, fragmentation and accumulation
of errors.

71. What is a Headless Software?

Answer: It is a software working on a device without GUI.

Headless software is a software capable of working on a device without a graphical

user interface. Such software receives inputs and provides output through other
interfaces like network or serial port.

72. What are the terms used for Technical Debt?

Answer: Both a and b

Technical debt is a concept in software development. It reflects the implied cost of
additional rework caused by choosing an easy solution now instead of using a
better approach.

73. Which of the following are the other terms used for Software Decay?

Answer: All of the Above

Software Decay is also known as software rot, code rot, bit rot, software erosion,
software decay or software entropy. It is a slow deterioration of software
performance over time.

74. What is full form of the YAGNI principle used in software system
designing?

Answer: You are not gonna need it.

You aren't gonna need it or YAGNI is a principle of extreme programmg that states
a programmer should not add functionality unti! deemed necessary.

75. What does the term SQALE stands for?

Answer: Software Quality Assessment based on Lifecycle Expectations

SQALE stands for Software Quality Assessment based on Lifecycle Expectations.
It is a method to support the evaluation of a software application source code. It is
a generic method, independent of the language and source code analysis tools.

76. Which of the following is the another term used for Software hosting?

Answer: All of the Above

Hosted, on-demand, cloud computing, software as a service all mean the same
thing. Organizations host their software and data externally with a provider and can
access it over the internet from anywhere at any time.

77. What is the name given to the program capable of running on any
computer regardless of the operating system?

Answer: Applet

An applet is a program capable of running on any computer regardless of the

operating system. Many applets can be downloaded from various sites on the
Internet.

78. What is the name given to the malicious software that is considered to fall
between normal software and a virus?
Answer: Grey Ware

Greyware is a term for which all other malicious software such as adware,
spyware, trackware, and other malicious code and maliious shareware fall under.
79. Which of the following is the name given tO the illegal copy of software?
Answer: Bootleg A bootleg is an illegal copy of software that purchased from the
developer or retail store. It is synonymous with piracy, and there are many lawS
which prohibit and restrict the sale of bootleg software.

80. What is the name given to any software that is included with a new
computer, hardware, or other software program?

Answer: Both a and b

Bundle ware, pre-installed software, Bundled software is any software that is

included with a new computer, hardware, or other software program. Bundled
software is included at no additional cost to the user.

81. Which of the following is the term used for Nirvana Graphical Editor?

Answer: NEdit

Nedit is also known as the Nirvana editor. It is a graphical text editor for the X
Window System. It is primarily used for editing source code.

82. Which of the following is the term used to describe software that is pre-
packaged by the developer of the product?

Answer: Off-the-shelf

Off-the-shelf is a term used to describe software or hardware that is pre-packaged

by the developer of the product. For example, Microsoft Office is a Commercial
off-the-shelf product that is a packaged software solution for businesses.

83. What is full form of PEGI?

Answer: Pan-European Game Information PEGI Stands for Pan-European game

information. It is rating system based on existing systems in Europe that is used on
computer and video games and other computer software.

84. Which of the following is the term used for the way in which multiple
teams of developers collaborate on a software project?

Answer: Agile
Agile development methods are a set of procedures that dictate the ways in which
multiple teams of developers collaborate on a project. The term "agile software
development" was introduced in 2001

. 85. What does the SCCM stands for?

Answer: System Center Configuration Manager

SCCM stands for System Center Configuration Manager. SCCM is a software

management suite provided by Microsoft that allows users to manage a large
number of Windows based computers.

86. What is the name given to the computer software that is still in the early
testing phase?

Answer: Alpha Software

Alpha software is computer software that is stil in the early testing phase. It is
functional enough to be used, but is unpolished and often lacks many of the
features.

87. Which of the following terms is used for a software that is built from an
existing program?

Answer: Brownfield

Brownfield software development is software that is built from an existing

pr0gram. It may be contrasted with "Greenfield" development, which involves
creating a software program from scratch.

88. What is the term used for computer software that is undergoing testing
and has not yet been officially released?

Answer: Beta Software

Beta software refers to computer software that is undergoing testing and has not
yet been officially released. The beta phase follows the alpha phase.

89. Which of the following is the scripting and programming language

developed by John .H. Thompson for use in Adobe Director?

Answer: Lingo

Lingo is a verbose object-oriented scripting language developed by John H.

Thompson for use in Adobe Director. Lingo is used to develop desktop application
software, interactive kiosks, CD-ROMs and Adobe Shockwave content.
90. Who among the following developed the LISP programming language
family?

Answer: John McCarthy

John McCarthy was an American computer scientist. McCarthy was one of the
founders of the discipline of artificial intelligence. He coined the term "artificial
intelligence" and developed the LISP programming language family

. 91. Who among the following invented the FORTRAN language?

Answer : J .w. Backus

John Warner Backus was an American computer scientist. He invented and

implemented FORTRAN which is the first widely used high- level programming
language. He was the inventor of the Backus-Naur form (BNF).

92. Which of the following programming languages is designed to connect

simple HTML pages to a database?

Answer: Cold Fusion

ColdFusion Markup Language is commonly known as CFML. It is a scripting

language for web development.CFML augments standard HTML files with
database commands, conditional operators, high-level formatting functions, and
other elements to produce web applications.

93. Which of the following languages was first conceived by Alain

Colmerauer?

Answer: Prolog

The most characteristic features of the programming language Prolog are its built-
in support for unification and backtracking. It was developed by Alain Colmerauer.

94. Which of the following are the two categories of the Low Level
Languages?

Answer: Machine Level and Assembly Level Language

In case of Low-level languages, the programmer is able to tune the code to be

smaller or more efficient. There are two types of low-level languages. Machine
Language which is a language that is directly interpreted into the hardware.
Assembly Language is slightly more user-friendly language that directly
corresponds to machine language.

95. What is the full form of BASIC?

Answer: Beginners Instruction Code AII Purpose Symbolic

BASIC Stands for Beginners All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code. It is a family
of general-purpose, high-level programming languages whose design philosophy
emphasizes ease of use.

96. What does the COMAL Stands for?

Answer: Common Algorithmic Language

COMAL stands for Common Algorithmic Language. It is a computer

programming language developed by Benedict Lofstedt in 1973. COMAL was one
of the few structured programming languages that was available for and
comfortably usable on 8-bit home computers.

97. Which of the following languages is widely known for the use of turtle
graphics?

Answer: LOG0

Logo is an educational programming language. The name was coined by Furzier.

Logo is widely known for its use of turtle graphics, in which commands for
movement and drawing produced line or vector graphics.

98. Which of the following programming languages was designed for the use
in Healthcare Industry?

Answer: MUMPS

MUMPS stands for Massachusetts General Hospital Utility Multi-Programming

System. It is a general- purpose computer programming language originally
designed in 1966 for the healthcare industry.

99. Which of the following is one among the time- sharing programming
languages?

Answer: Joss

Joss stands for johnnies Open Shop System. It was one of the very first interactive,
time-sharing programming languages. JOSS was developed by J. Clifford Shaw.
100. Which of the following is true about ADA?

Answer: Both a and b

ADA is a structured & Object Oriented based High level Programming

language.ADA language was designed for embedded and real time systems.:
 4. Database Management

1. Structured Query Language (SQL) is used in the following?

Answer: Create, Modify & Query Databases

Structured Query Language (SQL) is a standard computer language for relational

database management and data manipulation. SQL is used to create, modify and
query Databases.

2. Which among the following are not Objects in Access Database?

Answer: Pivot table

Databases in Access are composed of four objects: tables, queries, forms, and
reports. Microsoft Access Pivot Table Database allowed to select one row heading,
one column heading, and one filter field. It has been removed in Access 2016.

3. Which of the following is used as an application programming interface

with RDBMS?

Answer: SQL

With relational DBMSs known as RDBMSS, the Application programming

interface is SQL.SQL a standard programming language for defining, protecting
and accessing data in a RDBMS.

4. What is the full form of IMDBMS?

Answer: In-Memory database management system

IMDBMS stands for In-memory database management system. It provides faster

response times and better performance. It is a database management system that
predominantly relies main memory for data storage, management and
manipulation.

5. Which of the following DBMS is well-suited for data warehouses that have a
large number of similar data items?

Answer: Columnar database management system CDBMS stands for management

system. It well-suited for data warehouses that have a large number of similar data
items.
6. Which of the following are the advantages of using a DBMS?

Answer: All of the Above

Data abstraction and independence A DBMS provides following advantages: Data

security A locking mechanism for concurrent access An efficient handler to
balance the needs of multiple applications using the same data The ability to
swiftly recover from crashes and errors, including restart ability and recoverability
Robust data integrity capabilities Logging and auditing of activity.

7. Who among the following is known as the father of the DBMS?

Answer: E.F.Codd

Dr E.F.Codd is also known to the world as the 'Father of Database Management

Systems'. He had propounded 12 rules which are in-fact 13 in number. The rules
are numbered from zero to twelve. According to him, a DBMS is fully relational if
it abides by all his twelve rules.

8. Which among the following are the basic components of a relational

database model?

Answer: All of the Above

In the relational database model, data is stored in relations, more commonly

known as tables. Tables, records (sometimes known as tuples), and fields
(sometimes known as attributes) are the basic Components of a RDBMS.

9. Who among the following is the father of MysQL?

Answer: Michael Wideneus

Michael Widenius is known as the Father of MySQL. He is the main author of the
original version of the open-source MySQL database and a founding member of
the MysQL AB company.

10. What is the name given to the skilled and trained professional who directs
all activities related to an organization's database?

Answer: Database administrator

A database administrator is a specialized computer systems administrator who

maintains a successful database environment by directing or performing all related
activities to keep the data secure.

11. Which among the following are the database languages?

Answer: All of the Above

There are many types of Database Languages. A few among them are - Data
Definition Language. DDL stands for Data Definition Language, Data
Manipulation Language, Data Control Language etc.

12. Which language is used to make changes made by the DML statement?
Answer: Transaction Control Language

Transaction Control Language is used to run the changes made by the DML
statement.(TCL) commands are used to manage transactions in the database.

13. What is the name given to the view of database that appears ta appears to
an application program?

Answer: Subschema

The subschema is the logical description of that section of the database which is
relevant and available to an application. A subschema is a subset of the schema and
inherits the same property that a schema has.

14. Which of the following are the objects in Microsoft Access?

Answer: All of the Above

Databases in MS Access are composed of four objects. These are tables, queries,
forms, and reports. Together, these objects allow us to enter, store, analyze, and
compile data according to the wish.

15. There are many types of database models .Which among the following are
those types ?

Answer: All of the Above

A database model is a type of data model that determines the logical structure of a
database and fundamentally determines in which manner data can be stored,
organized and manipulated. Types of database models are Hierarchical database
model, Relational model, Network model, Object oriented database model, Entity-
relationship model, Document model, Entity-attribute-value model,Star schema
etc.

16. Which of the following are the examples of ORDBMS?

Answer: All of the Above

 Examples of ORDBMSs include PostgresQL developed by the PostgresQL Global
Development Group,0racle Database by Oracle Corporation, Informix by
IBM,SQL Server by Microsoft and Greenplum Database by Pivotal Software etc.

17. Data query languages are computer languages used to make queries in
databases and information systems. Which among the following are the Query
Languages?

Answer: All of the Above

Atomize is the graph query language for the Open Cog graph data base. Cipher is a
query language for the Neo4j graph data base . Data log is a query language for
deductive databases.

18. ACID is a set of properties of database transactions intended to guarantee

validity even in the event of errors, power failures etc. What is the full form of
ACID?

Answer: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

Andreas Reuter and Theo Harder coined the acronym ACID for Atomicity,
Consistency, Isolation, and Durability. In the context of databases, a sequence of
database operations that satisfies the ACID properties is called a transaction.

19. Which of the following are being managed by a database management

systems

Answer: All of the Above

The DBMS manages three important things: the data, the database engine and the
database schema. The database schema defines the database's logical structure.

20. Which of the following is the final step when it a has determined that a
transaction has been completed successfully?

Answer: Commit

A commit is the final step in the successful completion of a previously started

database change as part of handling a transaction in a computing system.

21. What is the name given to the undoing of partly completed database
changes?

Answer: Rollback

A rollback is the undoing of partly completed database changes when a database

transaction is determined to have failed.
22. What is the full form of BLOB?

Answer: Binary Long Object

BLOB stands for Binary Large Object. In SQL, BLOB can be a general term for
any data of type long varbinary, long varchar, or long watcher. It is also a specific
term for data of type long varbinary.

23. There is a situation in which resources are held by two or more

connections that are each needed by the other connections. What is the name
given to such a situation?

Answer: Deadlock

Deadlock is a situation in which resources are held by two or more connections that
are each needed by the other connections so that they are stuck in an infinite wait
loop.

24. What is the name given to the library of related functions that are not
loaded into memory until they are called by the application program?

Answer: DLL

Dynamic Link Library is the library of related functions that are not loaded into
memory until they are called by the application program. All RDM APIs are
contained in DLLS on those operating systems that support them.

25. Which of the following statements in SQL are considered as Data

manipulation language?

Answer: All of the Above

In SQL, Such statements as UPDATE, INSERT and DELETE are considered

DML. Some people also lump the SELECT statement in the DML classification.
26. What is the name given to the computing infrastructure close to the
sources of data?

Answer: Edge Computing

Edge computing refers to the computing infrastructure at the edge of the network,
close to the sources of data. Edge computing reduces the communications
bandwidth needed between sensors and the datacenter.

27. Who among the following proposed the R-tree for the first time?

Answer: Anton in Guttmann

 R-trees are tree data structures used for spatial access methods. The R-tree was
proposed by Anton in Guttmann in 1984 and has found significant use in both
theoretical and applied contexts.

28. What is the full form of IEC?

Answer: International Commission

IEC stands for International Electro technical Commission. Along with the ISO,
the IEC controls the SQL standards and many others as well.

29. Which of the following is the attribute which can be used to uniquely
identify a row of data in a given table?

Answer: Secondary Key Electro technical

A primary key is a single attribute, or combination of attributes, which can be used

to uniquely identify a row of data in a given table. Common primary keys include
vendor ID, user ID, email address, or combination of attributes considered together
such as first name, last name, and city of residence, all considered together as a
single entity.

30. The CAP Theorem concludes that it is not possible for a distributed
computer system to provide three guarantees at the same time. Which of the
following are among these three guarantees?

Answer: All of the Above

The CAP Theorem consists three following terms: Consistency states that each
computer node contain all of the same data at the same time. Availability states that
each database request is responded to as either successful or failure. Partition
tolerance states that the database system continues operating even when not all
nodes are connected to to one another and suffer communication issues.

31. Which of the following is true regarding the process of Sharding?

Answer: Both a and b

Sharding is a type of database partitioning that separates very large databases the
into smaller, faster, more easily managed parts called data shards. The word shard
means a small part of a whole.

32. Which of the following is the term used to describe the process of
forecasting in data?

Answer: Data Mining

Data mining is the process of discovering patterns in large data sets. It involves
methods at the intersection of machine learning, statistics, and database systems.

33. Which among the following is the term given to the three rules to find
logically implied functional dependencies?

Answer: W. Armstrong's Axioms

The three rules given by Armstrong are knoWn as Armstrong's axioms. It refers to
the sound and complete set of inference rules that is used to test logical implication
of functional dependencies.

34. Which of the following are found in abundance in a relational database?

Answer: Tables

In Relational model, data is stored in tables and is represented in form of tuples.

RDBMS is used to manage Relational database. Relational database is a collection
of organized set of tables related to each other, and from which data can be
accessed easily.

35. What is the full form of RAID?

Answer: Redundant Array of Independent Disks RAID stands for Redundant

Array of Independent Disks. It is a data storage virtualization technology that
combines multiple physical disk drive components into one or more logical units
for the purposes of data redundancy, performance improvement, or both.

36. Which of the following is used to represent a Weak entity set?

Answer: Double Diamond

In a relational database, a weak entity is an entity that cannot be uniquely

identified by its attributes alone. It must use a foreign key in conjunction with its
attributes to create a primary key

. 37. Which of the following form is based on the concept of functional

dependency?

Answer: 3NF

The table is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R is non-transitively dependent

or directly dependent on every super key of R.

38. Which of the following is the most commonly used operation in relational
algebra for projecting a collection of records from a relation?

Answer: Select
Select is used to view the tuples of the relation with or without some constraints.
This operation is used to select rows from a table that specifies a given logic, which
is called as a predicate. The predicate is a user defined condition to select rows of
user's choice.

39. What is the name given to the special type of stored procedure that
automatically executes when an event occurs in the database server?

Answer: Trigger

A database trigger is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to

certain events on a particular table or view in a database. The trigger is mostly used
for maintaining the integrity of the information on the database.

40. What is the name given to the situation where the lock waits only for a
specified amount of time for another lock to be released?

Answer: Lock Timeout

The Lock Timeout event class indicates that a request for a lock on a resource. It
has timed out because another transaction is holding a blocking lock on the
required resource.

5. Computer Networks, Networking Technologies & Devices

1. A network that is connected to the Internet, but uses encryption to scramble

all the data sent through the Internet is called ?

Answer: Virtual Private Network

A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public

network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public
networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private
network. Applications running on a computing device, e.g., a laptop, desktop,
smart phone, across a VPN may therefore benefit from the functionality, security,
and management of the private network, Encryption isa common, though not an
inherent, part of a VPN connection.

2. Which Microsoft-based technology was built to link desktop applications to

the World Wide Web?

Answer: ActiveX
ActiveX is a software framework created by Microsoft that adapts its earlier
Component Object Model (COM) and Object Linking and Embedding (OLE)
technologies for content downloaded from a network, particularly from the World
Wide Web. It is used till IE11 but not Microsoft Edge.

3. The terms Good put, Throughput and Maximum throughput are most
closely associated with which among the following in computers?

Answer: Bit Rate

The bit rate is the number of bits that are conveyed or processed per unit of time in
computing and telecommunication. For example 1 kbit/s refers to 1000 bits/s while
1MBPS means one million bits per second. One byte per second (1 B/s)
corresponds to 8 bit/s.

4. Which of the following networking is used when centralized management is

desired or if there is little room for cabling?

Answer: Passive Optical Local Area Networking Passive optical LANS or

POLANS are adapted to indoor network architectures, and can decrease the amount
of cable and equipment required to deploy a network. POLANS are ideal if there is
little room for cabling.

5. Which one of the following is a discontinued computer network operating

system developed by Novell, Inc.?

Answer: Netware

NetWare is a discontinued computer network operating system developed by

Novell, Inc. It uses IPX network protocol.

6. What is the full form of DHCP?

Answer: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol DHCP stands for Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol. It is a client/server protocol that automatically provides an
Internet Protocol host with its IP address and other related configuration
information.

7. Which of the following is the name given to the computers on a

network?

Answer: Nodes

A computer network is a set of connected computers. Computers on a network are

called nodes. The connection between computers can be done via cabling, most
commonly the Ethernet cable, or wirelessly through radio waves.
8. What is the name given to the technique of connecting computers?

Answer: Topology

Computer networks can be broken down historically into topologies, which is a

technique of connecting computers. The most common topology today is a
collapsed ring.

9. System Area Network is used to provide high- speed connection in which of

the following environments?

Answer: All of the Above

System Area Network is used to explain a relatively local network that is designed
to provide high- speed connection in server-to-server applications, storage area
network and processor-to-processor applications. The computers connected on a
SAN operate as a single system at very high speeds.

10. Which of the following are the primary ways to enable LAN Connections?

Answer: Both a and b

Ethernet and Wi-Fi are the two primary ways to enable LAN Connections. Ethernet
is a specification that enables computers to communicate with each other. Wi-Fi
uses radio waves to connect computers to the LAN.

11. Which of the following is true about Fiber Distributed Data Interface?

Answer: All of the Above

Fiber Distributed Data Interface is a set of ANSI and ISO standards for data
transmission on fiber optic lines in a local area network that can extend in range up
to 200 km. The FDDI protocol is based on the token ring protocol. An FDDI local
area network can support thousands of users.

12. Which of the following LAN technologies uses a token-bus scheme?

Answer: ARCNET

ARCNET İs a LAN technology that uses a token-bus scheme for managing line
sharing among the workstations and other devices connected on the
LAN.ARCNET İS one of four major LAN technologies, which also include
Ethernet, token ring and FDDI.

13. Which of the following is the connectivity range of a Personal Area

Network?
Answer: 10 meters

A Personal Area Network is smallest network which is very personal to a

user.PAN has connectivity range up to 10 meters. PAN may include wireless
computer keyboard and mouse, Bluetooth enabled headphones, wireless printers
and TV remotes.

14. Which of the following are examples of Access network?

Answer: All of the Above

An access network is a type of network which physically connects an end system

to the immediate router on a path from the end system to any other distant end
system. Examples of access networks are ISP, home networks, enterprise networks,
ADSL, mobile network, FTTH etc.

15. Which one of the following is the first scientist to bring the idea of
Personal Area Network?

Answer: Thomas Zimmerman

Thomas Zimmerman was the first research scientist to bring the idea of the
Personal Area Network. Personal Area Network covers an area of 30 feet

16. Which one of the following is not an example of WAN?

Answer: Ethernet

In MAN, various LANS are connected to each other through a telephone exchange
line. The most widely used protocols in MAN are RS- 232, Frame Relay, ATM,
ISDN, OC-3, ADSL, etc.

17. Which among the following correctly defines a Wide Area Network?

Answer: All of the Above

A Wide Area Network is not limited to a single location, but it spans over a large
geographical area through a telephone line, fiber optic cable or satellite links.

18. Which of the following is the reference model used for internetworking ?

Answer: OSI

An interconnection between public, private, commercial, industrial, or government

computer networks can also be defined as internetworking. The reference model
used for internetworking is Open System Interconnection(osI).
19. What is the full form of CSMA?

Answer: Carrier Sense Multiple Access

The most common access method of the bus topologies is CSMA or Carrier Sense
Multiple Access, It is a media access control used to control the data flow so that
data integrity is maintained so that the packets do not get lost.

20. What is the name given to the wireless network communication over short
distances using radio or infrared signals?

Answer: Botha and b

Wireless Local Area Networks is sometimes referred to as local area wireless

network. It provide wireless network communication over short distances using
radio or infrared signals instead of traditional network cabling.

21. Which of the following networking hardware can operate at anyone of the
seven layers of the open systems interconnection model?

Answer: Gateway

Gateways are distinct from routers or switches in that they communicate using
more than one protocolh6k and can operate at any of the seven layers of the open
systems interconnection model.

22. Which of the following networking devices forwards data packets between
computer networks?

Answer: Router

A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer

networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

23. In the 0SI model, Bridging is performed in which of the following layers?
Answer: Data Link Layer

In the OSI model, bridging is performed in the data link layer. A network bridge is
a computer networking device that creates a single aggregate network from
multiple communication networks or network segments.

24. Which of the following networking devices is used for delivery of messages
between VPN nodes?

Answer: VPN connector

A VPN concentrator is a type of networking device that provides secure creation of
VPN connections and delivery of messages between VPN nodes.

25. What is the full form of HIDS?

Answer: Host Based Intrusion Detection System A host-based intrusion detection

system is an intrusion detection system that is capable of monitoring and analyzing
the internals of a Computing system as well as the network packets on its network
interfaces.

26. Which of the following device distributes network traffic across a number
of servers?

Answer: Load Balancer

A load balancer is a device that actS as a reverse proxy and distributes network or
application traffic across a number of servers. Load balancers are used to increase
capacity and reliability of applications

27. What is the name given to the electronic device that receives a signal and
retransmits it at a higher level?

Answer: Repeater

Repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it at a higher

level onto the other side of an obstruction, So that the signal can cover longer
distances.

28. What is the name given to the device that converts between two different
types of transmission for interoperation?

Answer: Protocol Convertor

A Protocol Converter is a device used to convert standard or proprietary protocol

of one device to the protocol suitable for the other device or tools to achieve the
interoperability.

29. Which of the following devices has high bandwidth?

Answer: Switch

A network switch is a computer networking device that connects devices on a

computer network by using packet switching to receive, process, and forward data
to the destination device.

30. Which one of the below is known as the Multi- Port Repeater?
Answer: Hub

A hub, in the context of networking, is a hardware device that relays

communication data. A hub sends data packets to all devices on a network.

31. Which one of the following made up a layer 3 Switch?

Answer: Both b and c

A layer 3 switch is a switch and a router built together for fast performance. A
router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer
networks.

32. What is the full form of NIC?

Answer: Network Interface Card

NIC stands for Network Interface Card. It is used to connect the computer to the
external network. It will normally have a PCI connector to connect to one of the PC
expansion slots.

33. Which of the following is used to connect computers and other end user
devices to networking devices such as hubs & switches?

Answer: Both b and c

Straight-Through cable is also referred to as a "patch cable." Straight-through cable

is used to Connect computers and other end user devices to networking devices
such as hubs & switches

. 34. Which one of the following sends data packets to all devices on a network
regardless of any MAC addresses?

Answer: Hub

A hub is a hardware device that relays communication data. A hub sends data
packets to all devices on a network. The hub allow system administrators to
monitor data passing through and to configure each port.

35. Which one of the following devices converts digital signal to analog signal
and vice versa?

Answer: Modem

Modem is a device that converts digital signal to analog signal as a modulator and
analog signal to digital signal as a demodulator. Asynchronous modem uses start
and stop bit for synchronization instead of clock.
36. Which of the following hubs can store, amplify, split and retransmit the
received signals?

Answer: Active Hub

Active hub can store, amplify, split and retransmit the received signals. It requires
additional electronic circuit for performing different functions.

37. What are the other names for a Network Interface Card?

Answer: All of the above

A Network Interface Card is circuit board or a card that allows computers to

communicate over a network via cables or wirelessly. Every network adaptor is
assigned a unique 48-bit Media Access Control address, which is stored in ROM to
identify themselves in a network.

38. Which type of bridge is used on token ring networks?

Answer: All of the Above

Source route bridge is used on token ring networks. Bridge derives the entire path
of the frame embedded in the header of the frame and decides how to forward the
frame through out the network till it reaches its destination.

39. Which of the following are the basic functions of a gateway?

Answer: All of the Above 4

A gateway performs many function. Some of them are Protocol translation,

network address translation and DHCP service. It is used to route the traffic from
one network to another and to connect LAN to WAN or VPN.

40. Which one of the following routers sits on the periphery of the network?
Answer: Both band c

An access router is a router that sits at the periphery of a network. It is also known
as edge router. It Contrast with "core router," which is a router that resides in the
middle of the network.

41. What do we call the time it takes for an entire message to completely
arrive at the destination from the time the first bit is sent out from the Source?

Answer: Latency

The latency or delay defines how long it takes for entire message to Completely
arrive at the destination from the time the first bit is sent out from the source.
42. Which of the following represents Latency?

Answer: propagation time +transmission time +queuing time + processing

delay

It can be said that the Latency is made of four components: propagation time,
transmission time, queuing time and processing delay. Latency =propagation time
+transmission time +queuing time + processing delay

43. What is the actual measurement of data that can be sent over network?

Answer: Throughput

The throughput is the actual measurement of data that can be sent over network. It
is different from Bandwidth which is the maximum amount of data that can travel
through a network.

44. What is the maximum amount of data that a channel can transmit called
as?

Answer: Bandwidth

The term bandwidth refers to the maximum amount of data that a channel can
transmit. For example if the bandwidth of a Fast Ethernet network is a maximum of
100 Mbps then this network can send 100 Mbps or less depending on various
factors.

45. What is the time needed by each device on a network, to hold the message
before processing. called as?

Answer: Queuing time

The time needed for each intermediate or end device to hold the message before it
can be processed. The queuing time is not constant as it changes with the load
imposed on the network.

46. Which of the following represents the Transmission time?

Answer: Message size/Bandwidth

The transmission time, is the amount of time from the beginning until the end of a
message transmission. It depends on the size of the message and the bandwidth of
the channel. Transmission time =Message size/ Bandwidth

47. Which of the following represents a nibble data?

Answer: 4 bits
 Nibble refers to the half of an eight-bit byte or four binary digits. Byte is a group
of bits (8 bits) used to represent a character. A byte is considered as the basic unit
of measuring memory size in computer.

48. Which of the following represents wave?

Answer: Periodic analog signal sine

The sine wave is the most fundamental form of a periodic analog signal. A periodic
signal completes a pattern within a measurable time frame, called a period, and
repeats that pattern over subsequent identical periods.

49. What will be the bandwidth of a periodic signal if it is decomposed into

five sine waves with frequencies of 100, 300, 500, 700 and 900 Hz?

Answer: 800 Hz

Bandwidth = Highest frequency - Lowest frequency. In this case, bandwidth will

be equal to 900Hz-100 Hz i.e. 800Hz.

50. Which of the following factors affect the data rate?

Answer: All of the above

Data rate depends on three factors: 1. The bandwidth available 2. The level of the
signal in use 3. The quality of the channel (the level of noise)

51. Which of the following represents bit length?

Answer: Propagation speed * bit duration

The bit length is the distance one bit occupies on the transmission medium. It is
given by the formula: Propagation speed * bit duration.

52. Which of the following can be the source of data?

Answer: All of the above

Typically the source of data is a computer, but it can be any other electronic
equipment such as telephone handset, video camera, etc, which can generate data
for transmission to some destination.

53. Which of the following device is used to convert the native data into
signal? Answer: Modem

As data cannot be sent in its native form, it is necessary to convert it into signal.
This is performed with the help of a transmitter such as modem.
54. What is the length of each character in ASCII code?

Answer: 7-bit

ASCII code is used to represent digital data. In ASCII code, each character is
represented by a 7-bit code.

55. What do we call the time required to send one single bit?

Answer: Bit interval

The bit interval is the time required to send one single bit. It, along with bit rate, is
used to describe the digital signals.

56. What is the number of bit interval per second known as?

Answer: Bit rate

The bit rate is the number of bit interval per second. This mean that the bit rate is
the number of bits send in one second, usually expressed in bits per second.

57. Which of the following uses digital signaling, which is inserted in the
transmission channel as voltage pulses?

Answer: Base-band

Base-band signaling is defined as one that uses digital signaling, which is inserted
in the transmission channel as voltage pulses.

58. What is the loss of signal's energy due to resistance of the medium known
as?

Answer: Attenuation

Attenuation is the loss of signal's energy due to resistance of the medium. It is not
the same as Distortion which is the alteration of the signal due to different
propagation speeds.

59. What is the alteration of the signal due to differing propagation speeds of
each of the frequencies called as?

Answer: Distortion

Distortion is the change in the waveform of the signal due to noise. It is the
alteration of the signal due to differing propagation speeds of each of the
frequencies.
 60. Which of the following noise may occur when signals at different
frequencies share the same transmission medium?

Answer: Intermediation noise

When signals at different frequencies share the same transmission medium, the
result may be intermediation noise. Signals at a frequency that is the sum or
difference of original frequencies or multiples of those frequencies will be
produced.

6. Wired, Wireless Technologies, Internet, Browsers, Apps, Cloud Computing

1. What is the full form of ADSL?

Answer: Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line

Asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL) is a type of digital subscriber line

technology. It is a data communications technology which enables faster data
transmission. It uses copper telephone lines.

2. An Auto responder is a automatically replies to e-mails?

Answer: Program on mail server that

An auto responder is a computer program that automatically answers e-mail sent

to it. They can be very simple or quite complex. The first auto responders were
created within mail transfer agents that found they could not deliver an e-mail to a
given address.

3.A DSLAM is a device used by Internet Service Providers (ISPs) to route

incoming DSL connections to the Internet. What is its correct full form?

Answer: Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer

A digital subscriber line access multiplexer is a network device which is located in

telephone exchanges. It connects multiple customer digita! subscriber line
interfaces to a high-speed digital communications channel using multiplexing
techniques.

4. Which among the following defines web2.0 most precisely?

Answer: A Series of technological improvements in World Wide Web

It is the second stage of internet. Web 2.0 refers to websites that emphasise user-
generated content, ease of use, participatory culture and interoperability (i.e.,
compatible with other products, systems, and devices) for end use

5. BSNL, Reliance, Shaw cable, AOL, Tata Indicom all can be kept in which
one of the following groups?

Answer: ISP

all are internet service providers

6. What is HTTP 404?

Answer: An error message indicating server not found

The HTTP 404, 404 Not Found, 404, Page Not Found, or Server Not Found error
message is Hypertext Transfer Protocol standard response code. In computer
network communications it indicates that the browser was able to comnmunicate
with a given server but server cant find it.

7. What is the full form of W3C?

Answer:

World Wide Web Consortium The World Wide Web Consortium is the main
international standards organization for the World Wide Web. It was Founded in
1994.The consortium is made up of member organizations.

8. ADSL data communications technology uses which of the following for

faster data transmission?

Answer: Copper telephone Lines

Asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL) is a type of digital subscriber line

(DSL) technology. It is a data communications technology that enables faster data
transmission using copper telephone lines than a conventional voiceband modem
can provide.

9. What would be the number of bytes, transferred at the rate of 1 Kilobit per
second?

Answer: 125

kilobit per second (symbol kbit/s or kb/s, often abbreviated "kbps") is a unit of data
transfer. The rate equal to 1,000 bits per second. It is 125 bytes per seCond.

10. Dynamic Adhoc Wireless Networks (DAWN) usually come under

Answer: 5G

The DAWN Dynamic Ad-hoc Wireless Networks project is developing a general

theory of complex and dynamic wireless communication networks. It Comes under
5G.

11. Which among the following has been standardized in the IEEE 802.3
specification?

Answer: Ethernet

Ethernet is a system for connecting a number of computer systems. It forms as

LAN(local area network) with standard protocols. It was standardized in the IEEE.

12. While browsing internet, what do we call the area of storage that
compensates for the different speeds of data flow or timings of events by
temporarily holding a block of data that is waiting to be processed?

Answer: Buffer

Buffering refers to downloading a certain amount of data before starting to play

the music or movie. It manages the downloading data and temporarily holds the
data as well.

13. Which among the following was the first operational packet switching
network, and the predecessor of the Internet?

Answer: ARPANET

The Advanced Research Projects Agency Network or ARPANET was the first
wide-area packet- switching network with distributed control. It is the predecessor
of Internet. It is one of the first networks to implement the TCP/IP protocol suite
which became the technical foundation of the Internet.

14. Which among the following is the essential character of the ADSL
Internet Connections?

Answer:

High Download Rate, Low upload Rate ADSL - asymmetric digital subscriber line
is a type of broadband communications technology used for connecting to the
Internet. ADSL allows more data to be sent over existing copper telephone lines. It
is characterized by High download rate and low upload rate.

15. In context with the dotted number format used in the IPv4 , which among
the following is NOT possible?
Answer: 259.1.1.268

Please note that the above arrangement is known as dotted quad' and in any of the
4 figures, the value can not exceed 256. So correct option is C

16. Which among the following is NOT a web browser?

Answer: MeeGo

MeeGo is not a web browser. It is a discontinued Linux distribution hosted by the

Linux Foundation, using source code from the operating systems Mobil and
Maemo.

17. Which of these has the highest transmission capacity?

Answer: Optical fibers

Optical fibers have around 26,000 times more transmission capacity than twisted-
pair cable and Coaxial cables have around 80 times more transmission capacity
than twisted pair cables.

18. Which of these standards is used to define Ethernet based networks?

Answer: IEEE &02.3

IEEE 802.3 is a set of standards put forth by the Institute of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers (IEEE) that define Ethernet-based networks as well as the
name of the working group assigned to develop these standards.

19. Which of these standards is used to define Fiber Optic connections?

Answer: IEEE 802.8

The IEEE 802.8 defines the LAN standard for fiber optic media used in token
passing computer networks like FDDI.

20. Which of these standards is used to define higher layer LAN protocols?

Answer: IEEE 802.1

IEEE 802 standard is a family of IEEE standards dealing with local area networks
and metropolitan area networks. IEEE 802.1 deals with higher layer LAN
protocols.

21. Which of these network topologies has every computer and network
device connected to single cable?

Answer: Bus
Bus topology is a network type in which every computer and network device is
connected to single cable. It is ideal for small networks.

22. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a Tree network topology?

Answer: Error detection is difficult

One of the advantages of TREE network topology is that the error detection is
easily done. Also, it is easy to manage and expand.

23. Which of these network topologies have all the network nodes connected
directly to each other?

Answer: Mesh

Mesh topology is a point-to-point connection to other nodes or devices. All the

network nodes are directly connected to each other.

24. Which of the following is an advantage of using Ring network topology?

Answer: Network is not affected by high traffic In Ring topology, each computer
is connected to another computer, with the last one connected to the first. Exactly
two neighbors are there for each device. The advantage of using a Ring network
topology is that the network is not affected by high traffic.

25. Which of these networks usually have all the Computers connected to a
hub?

Answer: Star

In Star topology, all the computers are connected to a single hub through a cable.
This hub is the central node and all others nodes are connected to the central node.

26. Which of the following transmission medium has categories named as RG-
58, RG-59 and RG-11?

Answer: Coaxial cables

There are three categories of coax cables namely, RG-59 (Cable TV), RG-58 (Thin
Ethernet), and RG-11 (Thick Ethernet). RG stands for Radio Government.

27. Which of the following cables work on the properties of light?

Answer: Fiber optics

Fiber Optic works on the properties of light. When light ray hits at critical angle it
tends to refracts at 90 degree. This property is the basis of fiber optics.
28. Which of these standards is defined by IEEE 802.3ab?

Answer: Gigabit Ethernet over copper wiring

IEEE 802.3ab, which is also known as 1000BASE-T, is a standard for Gigabit

Ethernet over copper wiring.

29. What do we call the network design containing more than one topology?

Answer: Hybrid

A network structure whose design contains more than one topology is said to be
hybrid topology. Hybrid topology has all the merits and demerits of all the
incorporating topologies.

30. What does the number 10' depict in 10BASE-T?

Answer: 10 Mbps

Traditional Ethernet uses 10BASE-T specifications. The number '10' depicts

10Mbps speed, BASE stands for baseband, and T stands for Thick Ethernet.

31. What does NIC stand for?

Answer: Network Interface card

NIC stands for Network Interface card. A network interface card (NIC) is a
hardware component which is installed on a computer so that it can connect to a
network.

32. What role does fibers play in Optical Fiber cables?

Answer: Both a and b

Fibers are used instead of metal wires because signals travel along them with less
loss. Also, fibers are immune to electromagnetic interference, a problem from
which metal wires suffer excessively. In addition, Fibers are also used for
illumination and imaging.

33. Who invented the Twister pair cables?

Answer: Alexander Graham Bell

Twisted-pair cabling was invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1881. It is a type

of wiring in which two conductors of a single circuit are twisted together for the
purposes of improving electromagnetic compatibility.
 34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using twisted paired cables for
transmitting data?

Answer: Delay Skew

Twisted paired cables are cost-effective and easy to install. But different pairs
within the cable have different delays, due to different twist rates that are used to
minimize crosstalk between the pairs.

35. What is the bandwidth limit for CAT5e cable?

Answer: upto 1 Gbps

CAT5e can support upto 1 Gbps speeds. It was made as an improvement over
CAT5 cables which can support data transmission upto 10OMbps.

36. What is the bandwidth limit for CAT2 cable?

Answer: upto 4 Mbps .

CAT2 or Category 2 cable supports speeds upto 4Mbps. It is used mostly for token
ring networks. It is an improvement over Category 1 cable which supports speed up
to 1 Mbps.

37.Which of these IEEE standards represent wireless local area network?

Answer: 802.11

The IEEE 802.11, which is a part of the IEEE 802 set of LAN protocols, defines
the standards for implementing wireless local area network.

38. Which of these is not an unguided mode of transmission?

Answer: Optical Fiber

In unguided transmission, no physical medium is required for the transmission of

electromagnetic signals. There are 3 major types of unguided mode of transmission
- Infrared, Radiowaves and Microvwaves.

39. Which of these waves is most commonly used by wireless mouse to

communicate?

Answer: Infrared

Infrared waves are used for communication for very short distances. These are
most commonly used in TV remotes, wireless mouse, keyboard, printer, etc.

40. What is the full form of Wi-Fi?

Answer: Wireless Fidelity

WI-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is a local area wireless technology. It allows
an electronic device to transfer data or connect to the internet using radio waves.
41. Which of the following devices can help to extend the range of a wireless
router?

Answer: Wireless repeater

Wireless repeater is used to extend the range of a wireless router. A repeater

receives wireless signals and amplifies the strength of the signals, and then re-emits
them.

42. Which of the following hardware device is essential for a computer to

connect to a wireless network?

Answer: Wireless adapter

Wireless adapters are those hardware devices which are installed inside computers
to enable wireless connectivity. If a computer does not have a wireless adapter, it
will not be able to connect to a router in order to access the Internet.

43. Which of the following network protocol are described by GSM?

Answer: 2G

GSM is a standard developed to describe the protocols for second-generation (2G)

digital cellular networks used by mobile devices such as mobile phones and tablets.

44. What is the full form of GSM?

Answer: Global System for Mobile

GSM stands for Global System for Mobile. Before this it was known as Group
Special Mobile. As GSM increases its global presence, the term was changed to
Global System for Mobile.

45. What do we call the process of transferring a mobile station from one base
station to another?

Answer: Hand off

Hand off is the process of transferring an active cal or data session from one cell in
a cellular network to another or from one channel in a cell to another..

46. UMTS is a standard for which of the following networks?

Answer: 3G

UMTS stands for Universal Mobile Telecommunications Service. It is a third-

generation (3G) broadband, packet-based transmission of text, digitized voice,
video, and multimedia. It transfers data at rates up to 2 megabits per second
(Mbps).

47. Which of the following techniques is used by UMTS?

Answer: CDMA

UMTS uses wideband code division multiple access (W-CDMA) radio access
technology which offers greater spectral efficiency and bandwidth to mobile
network operators.

48. What is the maximum data transfer speed offered by Bluetooth 4.0?

Answer: 24 Mbps

The maximum data transfer speed offered by Bluetooth 4.0 is 24 Mbps. It is same
as the speed offered by Bluetooth 3.0.

49. Which of the following radio signals are used by 1G networks?

Answer: Analog

The radio signals used by 1G networks are analog. While the radio signals used by
the 2G networks are digitals. This is one of the main differences between 1G and
2G.

50. Which of the following is a standard for 1G network?

Answer: AMPS

AMPS or the Advanced Mobile Phone System is a standard for 1G mobile

network which was in use in North America and Australia.

51. What do we call the handoff in which there is a break in the connection on
the cellular network?

Answer: Hard handoff

Hard Handoff refers to an actual break in the connection while switching from one
cell or base station to another. The switch takes place so quickly that it can hardly
be noticed by the user.
52. What is the maximum download speed offered under LTE-Advanced
standard?

Answer: 1 Gbps

The maximum download speed offered under LTE- Advanced standard is 1 Gbps.
The LTE advanced is the 10the version of LTE.

53. Where does the bending of EM waves occurs in the atmosphere?

Answer: Ionosphere

The phenomenon of bending of electromagnetic waves occurs in lonosphere and

they are diverted towards the earth. This is helpful in skywave propagation.

54. Which of these factors affect the line of sight communication?

Answer: Both a and b

The line of sight communication is affected by (a) the line of sight distance (b) the
curvature of the earth. The space waves are used for line of sight communication
such as television broadcast, microwave link and satellite communication.

55. What should be the minimum antenna size for a signal with the
wavelength (in meter) ?

Answer: A/4

An Antenna is needed for both transmission and reception. /4 should be the

minimum antenna size (in meter) for a signal with the wavelengthà.

56. Which of the following IEEE standards ZIGBEE is based on?

Answer: IEEE 802.15.4

Zigbee is an IEEE 802.15.4-based specification. It is a low-power, low data rate,

and close proximity (i.e., personal area) wireless ad hoc network.

57. Which university was connected for the first time with the Stanford
Research Institute under ARPANET?

Answer: University of California

The first ARPANET link was established between the University of California, Los
Angeles (UCLA) and the Stanford Research Institute.

58. What does ARPANET Stand for?

Answer: Advanced Research Projects Agency Network

ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Network. It was the
first network to implement the TCP/IP protocol suite.

59. Which of the following switching methods was used by ARPANET?

Answer: Packet-switching

The Advanced Research Projects Agency Network or as it is called as ARPANET

was an early packet- Switching network and the first network to implement the
TCP/IP protocol suite.

60. In which year ARPANET Was shut down?

Answer: 1990

The ARPANET, which was initially funded by the Advanced Research Projects
Agency (ARPA) of the United States Department of Defense, was shutdown and
dismantled in the year 1990.

61. Which of these provided the first online service to offer electronic mail
capabilities to personal computer users?

Answer: CompuServe

CompuServe was the first service to offer electronic mail capabilities and technical
support to personal Computer users. They started the service in 1979.

62. Which of the following countries had a packet- Switching network called
as 'CYCLADES?

Answer: France

The CYCLADES packet switching network was a French research network. It was
the first network to make the hosts responsible for reliable delivery of data, rather
than the network itself.

63. Which of these is an ITU-T standard protocol suite for packet-switched

wide area network (WAN) communication?

Answer: X.25

X.25 is an ITU-T standard protocol suite for packet- Switched wide area network
(WAN) communication. Unlike ARPANET, it was available for business use.
64. Which of these networks is used for communication between bulletin
board systems?

Answer: FidoNet

FidoNet is a worldwide computer network that is used for communication between

bulletin board systems (BBSes). It is used a store-and-forward system to exchange
private (email) and public (forum) messages.

65. What is the name of the first computer virus, that affected ARPANET?
Answer: Creeper

Creeper is the first network computer virus, which infected Arpanet in 1971. Bob
Thomas created Creeper as an experimental self-duplicating program that was
intended not to inflict damage on, but to illustrate a mobile application.

66. Who was the first head of the state to send an email?

Answer: Queen Elizabeth II

In 1976 Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom sent an email on Arpanet,

becoming the first head of state to do So.

67. In which year the Computer Science Network started functioning?

Answer: 1981

The Computer Science Network (CSNET) was a computer network that began
operation in 1981 in the United States. The CSNET project was funded by the
National Science Foundation for an initial three- year period from 1981 to 1984.

68. In which year the Domain Name System was invented?

Answer: 1983

Domain Name System was invented in 1983. Paul Mockapetris invented the
Domain Name System (DNS) thus expanding the internet

. 69. Which of these was the split off version of ARPANET for the military
use?

Answer: MILNET

MILNET was the name given to the part of the ARPANET internetwork
designated for unclassified United States Department of Defense traffic. MILNET
was physically separated from the ARPANET in 1984.

70. Who invented the World Wide Web?

Answer: Tim Berners-Lee

Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web in 1989. HTML documents were
transmitted over the Internet by a web server to web browsers using Uniform
Resource Locators.

71. Which of these organizations was created to manage IP address spaces?

Answer: ICANN

ICANN was created in 1998 to manage IP address space and DNS root zone. The
Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a nonprofit
organization responsible for coordinating the maintenance and procedures of
several databases related to the namespaces and numerical spaces of the Internet.

72. In which year NSFNET program was established?

Answer: 1985

NSFNET stands for National Science Foundation Network. It was a program

which was sponsored by the National Science Foundation (NSF) beginning in 1985
to promote advanced research and education networking in the United States.

73. Which of these is known as the first search engine?

Answer: Archie

The Archie search engine is known to be the first search engine. It was developed
in 1991 and was followed by WAIS and Gopher.

74. Which of these protocols is considered as the effective predecessor of the

World Wide Web?

Answer: Gopher

The Gopher protocol is an application layer protocol which is designed for

distributing, searching, and retrieving documents over the Internet. The Gopher
ecosystem is considered as the effective predecessor of the World Wide Web.

75. Which country funded the ARPANET project?

Answer: United States of America

ARPANET was developed under the direction of the U.S. Advanced Research
Projects Agency (ARPA) in 1969. It was the network that became the basis for the
Internet. 76. In which year, SMTP was developed? Answer: 1982 Simple Mail
Transfer Protocol (SMTP) was developed in 1982. It is an Internet standard for
email transmission. Extended SMTP is the protocol in widespread use today.
77. What does ISDN stand for?

Answer: Integrated Services Digital Network

ISDN stands for Integrated Services Digital Network. It establishes the connection
using the phone lines which carry digital signals instead of analog signals.

78. Which of the following internet connections serves only textual matter of a
web page?

Answer: Shell connection

In Shell Connection, the user will get only textual matter of a Web Page as it does
not support Graphics display or multimedia files.

79. What does DSL stand for?

Answer: Digital Subscriber Line

DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line. It is a form of broadband connection as it

provides connection over ordinary telephone lines.

80. Which of the following device encodes and decodes the analog signals in a
dial-up connection?

Answer: Modem

Computer information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over

telephone lines is transmitted in the form of analog waves. A modem converts
between analog and digital forms.

81. What do we call the process of limiting bandwidth consumption by users?

Answer: Bandwidth Shaping

Bandwidth Shaping refers to a tool used by ISPs to limit or direct bandwidth

consumption by users. Bandwidth shaping is also called bandwidth allocation or
referred to as a bandwidth management tool.

82. What is meant by the terms connect time'?

Answer: Amount of time user is logged in to a remote computer

The amount of time a user is logged in to a remote computer is called as connect

time. This becomes important in as many online services charge users per connect
time.
83. Schools often use an approach in creating a limited browsing environments
for the students to access. What is this approach known as?

Answer: Walled Garden

A walled garden refers to a browsing environment that controls the information and
Web sites the user is able to access. ISPS use this method in order to keep the user
navigating only specific areas of the Web.

84. Which of these terms refer to the technology that is used to effectively
double the data transfer speed?

Answer: Channel bonding

Channel bonding refers to the technology that combines two telephone lines into a
single channel, effectively doubling the data transfer speeds. For example, bonding
two modems of 56Kbps together would give you a 112 Kbps Internet connection.
85. Which of these devices is installed in the computer to plug a network cable
coming from the modem?

Answer: Network Interface card

A computer must have a network card installed to be able to plug a network cable
coming from the modem, router or gateway.

86. Which of these devices are used to send the data to a particular
destination?

Answer: Switch

A Switch learns about MAC address connected to each port and will only send
data on that port that is addressed to those MAC addresses.

87. What is the address given to each computer on the Internet known as?

Answer: IP address

Internet is a global network of computers each computer connected to the Internet

must have a unique address. This address is known as an IP address.

88. Which of the following is not true about Internet access through satellites?

Answer: Slower than dial up connection

It is faster than dial-up but slower than DSL. It can be used anywhere around the
world and gets affected by rain and snow.
89. Which of the following is correct about Digital Subscriber Line?

Answer: All of the above

A Digital Subscriber Line is always on and is faster than Dial-up. In DSL, Internet
and phone can be used in the same time.

90. What do we call the networking hardware that allows data to flow from
one discrete network to another?

Answer: Gateway

A gateway is a multi-use device that includes a modem and a router, all in one. It
allows data to flow from one discrete network to another.

91. Which of these form the basis of the ios type of internet connection?

Answer: Satellite

IoS stands for Internet over Satellite. It allows the user to access the Internet via a
satellite that orbits the earth.

92. Which of these software’s is necessary to view web pages on the internet?

Answer: Web Browser

It is important to have a web browser installed on the computer to access the

internet. This is a software program that allows viewing of web pages and
navigating the Internet

93. What is the name given to the companies providing internet services?

Answer: ISP

ISP stands for Internet Service Providers. Internet Service Providers are companies
that connect the common public to the Internet services.

94. Which of these hardware devices is used to perform traffic directing

function on the internet?

Answer: Router

A router is a computer networking device that forwards data packets between

computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

95. Which among the following is the cheapest type of internet connection?

Answer: Dial-up
 Dial-up internet connection is the cheapest method to connect to the Internet. But
it is a very slow connection and the quality is also not very good. The Internet
speeds range from 2400 bps to 56 Kbps.

96. Which of these internet connections is always connected to the internet?

Answer: DSL

DSL stands for digital subscriber line. It is a type of internet connection which is
always connected to the Internet. So, in this case, we don't have to dialup to
connect.

97. Which of these is a connection-oriented network protocol?

Answer: TCP

TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol. It is a connection oriented protocol

and offers end-to-end packet delivery. TCP acts as a backbone for Connections.

98. What does UDP stand for?

Answer: User Datagram Protocol

UDP stands User Datagram Protocol. It is a connectionless and unreliable

protocol. It doesn't require making a connection with the host to exchange data.

99. Which of the following layer of the OSI model is used by the TCP for its
operation?

Answer: Transport layer

TCP operates at the transport layer of the oSI model. TCP provides reliable
transport, in that if a segment is dropped, the sender can detect that drop and
retransmit that dropped segment.

100. Which of these Internet protocols work at the Application layer?

Answer: FTP

FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It works at the Application layer. It enables
the uploading and downloading of files from a remote host.

101. Which of these is not correct about Trivial File Transfer Protocol?

Answer: it is safer than FTP

 TFTP does not have the security capability or the level of functionality that FTP
has. TFTP does not offer is directory navigation. TFTP uses UDP to transfer the
files.

102. Which port is used by HTTP?

Answer: 80

HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It uses port 80 to communicate

whereas HTTPS used port number 443 for communication.

103. Which port is used by SMTP?

Answer: 25

SMTP Stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. SMTP is a protocol that defines
how mail messages are sent between hosts. It uses port number 25 to send
messages.

104. Which port is used by the Network News Transport Protocol?

Answer: 119

The Network News Transport Protocol or NNTP uses the port 119. NNTP is
similar to the SMTP protocol used for sending email messages, but it is designed
specifically for newsgroup articles.

105. Which of these protocols is used by TFTP for data transport?

Answer: UDP

TFTP or Trivial File Transfer Protocol makes use of UDP for data transport. Each
TFTP message is carried in separate UDP datagram.

106. Which of these protocols is used for monitoring networks and network
components?

Answer: SNMP

SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is a TCP/IP protocol

for monitoring networks and network components.

107. What is the length of addresses used by IPv4?

Answer: 32-bit
 IPV4 uses 32-bit addresses. This limits the address space to 232 addresses. IPv4
addresses are written in the dot-decimal notation, which consists of four Octets.
108. Which of these protocols is used to login into a remote computer?

Answer: Telnet

Telnet is a protocol used to log in to remote Computers. terminals over the Internet
or a TCP/IP Computer network. Telnet uses the port 23.

109. Which of these protocols is used to retrieve email messages from a mail
server?

Answer: IMAP

The Internet Message Access Protocol or IMAP is an Internet standard protocol

used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server. The default
port used is 143.

110. Which of these ports is used by POP3?

Answer: 110

Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) is an application-layer protocols used for electronic

messaging across the Internet. POP3 transfers e-mail messages over TCP port 110.

111. Which of these protocols is used to manage the membership of Internet

Protocol multicast groups?

Answer: IGMP

The Internet Group Management Protocol is a communications protocol used to

manage the membership of Internet Protocol multicast groups.

112. Which of these protocols is used to querying and modifying directory

services running over a network?

Answer: LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, or LDAP is a networking protocol for

querying and modifying directory services running over the network.

113. Which of these ports is used by SNMP?

Answer: 161
 The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to manage networks
which is used to monitor, configure and control network devices. It uses port
161/162.

114. Which of these network protocol is used to synchronize the time of a

server to another server?

Answer: NTP

The Network Time Protocol is used to synchronize the time of a computer client
or server to another server or reference time source such as a radio or satellite
receiver or modem.

115. Which of these protocols is used by network components to find other

devices in the same broadcast domain?

Answer: ARP

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is an Internet layer protocol that helps the
network Components find other devices in the same broadcast domain.

116. Which of these was the first vweb browser to handle all HTML 3
features?

Answer: UdiwwW

UdiWWW was the first web browser that was able to handle all HTML 3 features.
UdiWww was created for the UDINE Project (Universal Document Information
and Navigation Environment), which started in 1992.

117. In which year the Internet Explorer version 1 was released?

Answer: 1995

Microsoft released the Internet Explorer version in the year 1995. By 1999,
Internet Explorer was owning 99% of the browser market.

118. Which of these rendering engines is used by Chrome web browser?

Answer: Blink

Initial versions of Chrome use WebKit as the rendering engine. But Google
eventually forked it to create the Blink engine. Now all Chrome variants except
iOS use Blink.

119. Which of these web browsers has the largest market share presently,
across all platforms?
Answer: Chrome

As per W3Counter's browser stats for january 2019, Google Chrome has a 62%
worldwide browser market share across all platforms.

120. Which of these is not the name of a web browser?

Answer: RAT K-

Meleon, Amaya and Konqueror are the names of web browsers which were in use
in the 90s. Amaya was considered a "lightweight'" browser.

121. Which of the following is the oldest web browser still in general use?
Answer: Lynx

Lynx is a customizable text-based web browser for use on cursor-addressable

character cell terminals. Presently, it is the oldest web browser still in general use.
It was launched in 1992 and still has active development.

122. When was Chrome web browser launched?

Answer: 2008

Chrome or Google Chrome was first released in 2008 for Microsoft Windows, and
was later ported to LinuX, macOS, iOS, and Android.

123. Which of these tech company owns FirefoX web browser?

Answer: Mozilla

Firefox is an open-source web browser developed by Mozilla Corporation. It is

available for Windows, macoS, Linux, BSD and many other operating systems.
124. Which of these layout engines was used by Opera before it transitioned to
Blink?

Answer: Presto

Presto was developed by Opera Software for use in Opera. Its development was
stopped as Opera transitioned to Blink layout engine.

125. What is the codename given to Edge web browser?

Answer: Spartan

Microsoft Edge is codenamed as Spartan. It is a web browser developed by

Microsoft. It was first released for Windows 10 in 2015 and then for Android and
i0S in 2017.
126. Which was the final version of Internet Explorer before it got
discontinued?

Answer: 11

Microsoft Internet Explorer version 11 was the eleventh and final version of the
browser. It was officially released in 2013 for Windows 8.1.

127. Which of these was the first browser for the classic Mac operating
system?

Answer: Samnba

Macaws, also known as Samba, was the web browser launched in1992 which was
meant to run on Macintosh computers. It was the first web browser for any non-
Unix operating system.

128. Which of these is known as India's first web browser?

Answer: Epic

Epic web browser was launched by a Bangalore- based software firm, Hidden
Reflex. Epic is based on the Mozilla platform.

129. Which of these layout engines was used in Internet Explorer 4? Answer:
Trident

Trident is a browser engine which was developed by Microsoft for use in the
Windows versions of Internet Explorer 4 to Internet Explorer 11.

130. What is the name of the first web broNser?

Answer: World Wide Web

The first web browser was called as WorldWideWeb. It was invented in 1990 by
Sir Tim Berners-Lee. It was later renamed to Nexus.

131. Which of these was the first browser to display images inline with text?

Answer: Mosaic

Mosaic was the first web browser to display images inline with text instead of
displaying images in a Separate window.

132. Which of these was the first web browser for Microsoft Windows?

Answer: Cello
 Cello was the first web browser to run on the Microsoft Windows. Cello is an
early graphical web browser for Windows 3.1 and it was developed by Thomas R.
Bruce.

133. Which of these was the first browser to have a graphical user interface?

Answer: Erwise

Erwise was the first browser with a graphical user interface, developed as a student
project at Helsinki University of Technology and released in April 1992, but
discontinued in 1994

134. What was "Mosaic" in the initial history of World Wide Web?

Answer: Web Browser

Mosaic was one of the first web browsers and the first "popular" web browser with
a graphical user interface that could be operated by an average person. It was this
browser which accelerated the spread of the internet and resulted in internet boom
of 1990s.

135. In which year, the First International Conference on the World-Wide

Web was organized ?

Answer: 1994

first International Conference on the World-Wide We or WwW1 was also the first
meeting of World Wide Web Conference. It was held on May 25 to 27, 1994 in
Geneva, Switzerland.

136. Which of the following is not a feature of Cloud Computing services?

Answer: One time Fixed Payment

Cloud Computing is an on-demand delivery of Compute, storage, applications, and

other IT infrastructure with metered payment based on Usage, Banks can scale and
employ resources as needed and pay for what is used without large uptront capital
investments. Thus, payments as per wse is the key and basic feature of cloud
computing. The fundamental difference between CC and traditional IT is that in the
cloud model, banks pay only for the resources consumed instead of investing
heavily on data centers and servers before using them.

137. The phrase "Cloud Computing" was first time used in context with a
project of which two organizations?

Answer: IBM and Google

 The phrase "Cloud Computing" originated in a collaboration project between IBM
and Google.

138. What are Software as a Service (Saas), Platform as a Service (Paas) and
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) in context with Cloud Computing?

Answer: Delivery Models

Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS) and Infrastructure as a

Service (laaS) are three broad delivery models or service models.

139. The cloud service providers may provide applications, storage,

bandwidth, virtual machines etc. to service many banks using a multi-tenant
model. what term is used for this kind of arrangement?

Answer: Resource Pooling

Resource Pooling is one of the essential features of cloud computing. Resource

pooling means that the cloud service provides pool the resources such as
applications, storage, bandwidth, virtual machines etc. to service many banks using
a multi-tenant model.

140. Which of the following is not a cloud computing service provider?

Answer: Intel

Intel itself is not a could service provider. However, Intel powers cloud services
with compatible processors, networking components, and solid- state drives, along
with its rich portfolio of enabling technologies and solutions.

141. Which of the following is an open source platform for creating and
maintaining a cloud service?

Answer: Open stack

OpenStack is an open source platform for creating and maintaining a cloud

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). 142. A Hybrid Cloud consists of a combination
of which of the following? Answer: Public Cloud and Private Cloud Hybrid Cloud
consists of a combination of both private cloud and public cloud features.

143. Cloud Bursting is related to which of the following in Cloud Computing?

Answer: Scalability

Cloud Bursting is a model in which application running in a private cloud

bursts/scales automatically into a public/community cloud based on the scalability
needs
144. Cloud Computing applications can be accessed by?

Answer: Common Internet protocols and network standards

Cloud Computing applications are accessed by common Internet protocols and

networking standards.

145. What is the name of Cloud developed by Institute for Development and
Research in Banking Technology?

Answer: Indian Bank Community Cloud

Indian Bank Community Cloud (IBCC) is a community cloud offering CBS, e-

mail, Mobile Banking, eKYC and e-learning, et. IBCC is set up by IDRBT, the
first community cloud for banking industry in the world and is currently being
managed by its subsidiary IFTAS.

7. Websites, Blogs, Search Engines& Social Medig

1. Alerts are mostly appear in

Answer: Dialog box

A dialog box is a small area on a screen through which the user interacts with the
computer. User is either asked to provide information or commands using this. The
alerts also appear in this.

2. A file which has not been altered, compressed, or manipulated in any way
by the computer is called?

Answer: raw file

Araw file is a collection of unprocessed data. This is a file which is not altered or
manipulated. It is the original file that is generated initially.

3. The word bandwidth is also used to mean

Answer: amount of data transferred

Bandwidth refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted in a fixed amount
of time. For digital devices, the bandwidth is usually expressed in bits per second
(bps) or bytes per second.

4. Microsoft first introduced an operating environment named Windows in

which year?
Answer: 1985

Microsoft introduced an operating system named Windows on November 20,

1985. It is a graphical operating system shell for MS-DOS in response to the
growing interest in graphical user interfaces (GUIS).

5. 32 bit operations were introduced for the first time by Microsoft in

Answer: windows 3.11

Windows 3.11 was released on November 8, 1993. It added many feature

improvements over Windows 3.1.32 bit operations were introduced for the first
time by Microsoft.

6. Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is
malfunctioning or not operating correctly due to machine failures?

Answer: Down time

Downtime is the time period when a system is unavailable. Downtime or outage

duration refers to a period of time that a system fails to perform its primary
function.

7. Which among the following is NOT a search engine?

Answer: Wolfram Alfa

Wolfram Alfa is a computational knowledge engine or answer engine and not a

search engine. Goodle, Baidu and yaho0 are the search engines as a person can
search anything on web using these.

8. Who is the founder of Wikipedia?

Answer: Jimmy wales

Jimmy Wales is an American-British Internet entrepreneur. He is a co-founder of

the online encyclopedia Wikipedia. It was founded in 2001.

9."Don't be evil" was the informal corporate motto of which of the following
internet giants?

Answer: google

"Don't be evil" was used in Google's corporate code of conduct and was
considered to be an informal motto. However, it has been removed now off the
code of conduct.
10. Which of the following blogging platform was first launched by Pyra
Labs?

Answer: Blogger

Blogger is the platform founded by Pyra Labs in 1999. Google acquired it in 2003.
WordPress is a free and open-Source content management system by wordpress
foundation. Twitter is an American microblogging and social networking service
founded in 2006. 11. In the Windows XP, what does XP stands for? Answer:
Experience Windows XP is an operating system introduced in 2001. It is from
Microsoft's Windows. The "XP" in Windows XP stands for experience. Microsoft
called the XP release its one of the most important product.

12. News websites deliver customized 'feeds' of content to their readers via
RSS, which stands for:

Answer: Really Simple Syndication

Real Simple Syndication (RSS) is the term used to refer the collection of Web feed
formats. They provide updated or shared information in a standardized way. They
deliver customized 'feeds' to the customers.

13. In which year WhatsApp was acquired by Facebook?

Answer: 2014

WhatsApp was acquired by Facebook in February 2014 for approximately

US$19.3 billion. Currently Whatsapp has a user base of over 1 billion.

14. Which of the following is an employment- oriented social media network?

Answer: Linkedin

Linkedin is a business and employment-oriented service which is mainly used for

professional networking, including employers posting jobs and job seekers posting
their CVs.

15. Which of the following is a famous blogging platform?

Answer: All of the above

A blog is referred to a discussion or informational website published on the Web.

Blogger, WordPress and Tumbir are some of the famous blogging platforms.

16. Which of these is a server side scripting language?

Answer: PHP
PHP stands for Hypertext Preprocessor. It is a programming language primarily
designed for web development to create dynamic web pages.

17. With which of the following websites is Jimmy Wales associated?

Answer: Wikipedia

Jimmy Wales is an American Internet entrepreneur. He is best known as the co-

founder of Wikipedia. He also runs the for-profit web hosting company Wikia.

18. Which of the following is a famous social bookmarking website?

Answer: Stumbleupon

Social bookmarking website is a site where users share other content from the
Internet and rate and comment on the content. Stumbleupon and Digg are some
examples.

19. Which of the following website provides email service?

Answer: All of the above

Webmail is a site that provides a e-mail service. Gmail, Yahoo and Hotmail are
some of the popular e-mail service providers.

20. Which of the following is an e-commerce website?

Answer: All of the above

An e-commerce site is a site offering goods and services for online sale and
enabling online transactions for such sales. Examples are Amazon.com,
Flipkart.com and Alibaba.com.

21. What is the full form of XML?

Answer: Extensible Markup Language

XML stands for Extensible Markup Language. It is a markup language that defines
a set of rules for encoding documents in a format which is both human-readable
and machine readable.

22. What is meant by DOM?

Answer: Document Object Model

DOM means DoCument Object Model. It represents the page so that programs can
change the document structure, style, and content.
23. Which of the following language is designed specifically for Web site
animation?

Answer: Actionscript

ActionScript is an object-oriented programming language which is designed

specifically for Web site animation. It was originally released with Macromedia
Flash 4.

24. Which of these is a social media networking website?

Answer: All of the above

Some of the examples of social media networking websites are Facebook,

Whatsapp, YouTube, Instagram, Twitter, Reditt etc.

25. Which country has a search engine called as Baidu?

Answer: China

Baidu search engine belongs to Baidu, Inc. which is a Chinese multinational

technology company specializing in Internet-related services and products and
artificial intelligence.

26. Which of these companies is considered as one of the Big four technology
companies?

Answer: Facebook

Big Four technology companies of the world includes Google, Amazon, Apple and
Facebook. The Big Four are sometimes referred to as GAFA.

27. Which of these companies own the search engine Bing?

Answer: Microsoft

Microsoft launched Bing on June 1, 2009. On July 29, 2009, Yahoo! and Microsoft
agreed on a deal in which Yahoo! Search would be powered by Microsoft Bing
technology.

28. In which year Google search engine was launched?

Answer: 1998

Google search engine was launched in 1998. It is the most visited website in the
world. It was founded by Larry Page and Sergey Brin.

29. Which of these is a Russian search engine?

Answer: Yandex

Yandex is a Russian search engine. Quiho0360 belongs to China and Naver search
engine belongs to South Korea. AOL İS a web portal and online service provider
based in New York City.

30. Where is the headquarters of Facebook located?

Answer: California

Facebook is a US-based online social media and Social networking service

company. The headquarters of facebook is located in Menlo Park, California.

31. Which was the first smartphone launched by Nokia?

Answer: Nokia 9000 communicator The Nokia 9000 Communicator,

which was launched in 1996, was the first smartphone launched by Nokia., It is
considered to be the second smartphone in the market following the HP OmníGo
700LX.

32. Which of these operating system is used in Apple iPhone 6?

Answer: ios

iOS is developed by Apple Inc and it presently powers many of the Apple's mobile
devices, including the iPhone, iPad, and iPod Touch. 33. Which was the last
smartphone from Nokia? Answer: Nokia 808 Preview Symbian is a mobile
operating system which is now discontinued. The Nokia 808 Preview in 2012 was
officially the last smart phone from Nokia.

34. When was the first-generation iphone launched?

Answer: 2007

The first-generation iphone was launched in the year 2007. Since then many
models of iphone have been released with various new features.

35. What is the name given to Android 7.0 version?

Answer: Nougat

Android 7.0 is named as "Nougat It is the seventh major version of Android and
was officially released on August 22, 2016.

36. Which company has developed Pixel smartphone?

Answer: Google
Pixel is an android smartphone designed, developed and marketed by Google. It
was announced by Google in 2016 and served as the first smartphones in the
Google Pixel hardware line.

37. Which was the first built-in camera phone by Nokia?

Answer: Nokia 7650

The Noia 7650 was the first Nokia phone with a built-in camera and thus its
imaging capabilities was widely marketed. It was introduced in 2001.

38. Which of these is an Indian smart phone manufacturer?

Answer: Karbonn

Karbonn Mobiles is an Indian mobile device manufacturing company. It was

founded in March 2009. It sells feature phones, smart phones, tablets and mobile
phone accessories.

39. Which of these has been used as a tagline by Apple phones?

Answer: Think Different

"Think different" was an advertising slogan used by Apple. It was used in a

television commercial, several print advertisements but was discontinued in 2002.

40. Which country Xiaoni mobile belongs to?

Answer: China

Xiaomi Corporation is a Chinese electronics company having its headquarters in

Beijing. Xiaomi makes smartphones, mobile apps, laptops, and related consumer
electronics.

41. Which of the following is an audio streaming platform app?

Answer: Spotify

Spotify is an audio streaming platform app. It was launched on 7th October 2008.
It provides music and podcasts from record labels and media companies.

42. What is the name of iPhone's virtual assistant?

Answer: Siri

Siri is a virtual assistant that is part of Apples mobile phones and gadgets. It uses
voice queries and a natural-language user interface to assist the Users.
43. Which of the following is not a gaming app?

Answer: Line

Line is a free android app for instant communications on electronic devices such as
smart phones, tablet computers, and personal Computers.

44. In which year Google play was launched?

Answer: 2012

Google Play brought together the Android Market, Google Music, and the Google
eBook store under one brand and was launched on March 6, 2012.

45. Who among the following is the co-founder of Snapchat?

Answer: Evan Spiegel

Snapchat is a chat and messaging app that was created by Evan Spiegel, Bobby
Murphy, and Reggie Brown. It was launched in 2011.

46. Which of these apps are available in Opera mobile store?

Answer: All of the above

Opera Mobile Store is a platform independent app store which was launched in
2011. It has mobile apps for ios, Java, BlackBerry 0S, Symbian, i0S, and Windows
Mobile, and Android based mobile phones.

47. What does Google Play store offers?

Answer: All of the above

Google Play store includes Google Play Books, Google Play Games, Google Play
Movies & TV, Google Play Music. It was launched in 2012.

48. Which was the Nokia's first smart phone running Windows operating
system?

Answer: Lumia 800

Nokia Lumia 800 is a smart phone from Nokia which was Nokia's first device to
run the Windows Phone operating system.

49. What is Push to talk feature?

Answer: allows the user to be heard only while the talk button is held
 Push to talk, available on some mobile phones, is a feature that allows the user to
be heard only while the talk button is held. It is similar to a walkie-talkie.

50. What is the full form of PUC?

Answer: Personal Unblocking Code

A personal unblocking code is used in mobile phones to reset a personal

identification number that has been lost or forgotten. It is also known as a personal
unlocking key.

8. Microsoft Windows &Office

1. Alerts are mostly appear in

Answer: Dialog box

A dialog box is a small area on a screen through which the user interacts with the
computer. User is either asked to provide information or commands using this. The
alerts also appear in this.

2. A file which has not been altered, compressed, or manipulated in any way
by the computer is called?

Answer: raw file

A raw file is a collection of unprocessed data. This is a file which is not altered or
manipulated. It is the original file that is generated initially.

3.Which among the following key is used for checking grammar and
spelling?

Answer: F7

F7 is the key to check grammar and spellings in a document. Ribbon at start also
can be used to check spellings.

4. Microsoft first introduced an operating environment named Windows in

which year?

Answer: 1985

Microsoft introduced an operating system named Windows on November 20,

1985. It is a graphical operating system shell for MS-DOS in response to the
growing interest in graphical user interfaces (GUIS).

5. 32 bit operations were introduced for the first time by Microsoft in

Answer: windows 3.11

Windows 3.11 was released on November 8, 1993. It added many feature

improvements over Windows 3.1. 32 bit operations were introduced for the first
time by Microsoft.

6. While working on Microsoft Word, which among the following is the

command for "Undo"?

Answer: Cntrl +Z

Undo is an interaction technique which is implemented in many computer

programs. Cntrl +Z is the is for Undo in Microsoft word.

7. In the Windows XP, what does XP stands for?

Answer: Experience

Windows XP is an operating system introduced in 2001. It is from Microsoft's

Windows. The "XP" in Windows XP stands for experience. Microsoft called the
XP release its one of the most important product.

8. What is Microsoft Windows XP?

Answer: It is an operating system

Microsoft Windows XP is an operating system. It is a version of Windows

operating system introduced by Microsoft in 1985.

9. What is meant by NTFS?

Answer: New Technology File System

NTES Stands for New Technology File System. It is the file system that the
Windows NT operating system uses for storing and retrieving files on a hard disk.

10. Which of these versions of Windows introduced overlapping windows?

Answer: Windows 2.03

Windows 1.0 does not allow overlapping windows but windows are tiled only.
Windows 2.03 changed the OS from tiled windows to overlapping windows.

11. Which version of Windows introduced support for native 32-bit

applications?

Answer: Windows 95
 Windows 95 was the first version of windows introduced support for native 32-bit
applications, plug and play hardware, preemptive multitasking, long file names of
up to 255 characters, and provided increased stability over its predecessors.

12. Which was the first purely 32-bit version of Windows?

Answer: Windows NT

Windows NT was the first purely 32-bit version of Windows, whereas Windows
3.1x and Windows 9x, were 16-bit/32-bit hybrids.

13. When was the first version of Windows released?

Answer: 1985

Windows 1 was released in November 1985. The development of Windows was

spearheaded by Microsoft founder Bill Gates.

14. What happens when Windows Key + D is pressed in Windows?

Answer: It minimizes the open window

Pressing the Windows Key and the letter 'D' together will minimize any
program/window that is on the screen at the time.

15. Which of these is the default text editor for Windows operating system?
Answer: Notepad

Notepad is a simple text editor for MS Windows. It is a basic text-editing program

which enables computer users to create documents.

16. Which key combination can make the Windows operating system reboot?

Answer: Ctrl + Alt + Del

Ctr-Alt-Delete is the combination of keyboard keys in MS Windows that the

computer user can press at the same time to terminate an application task or to
reboot the operating system.

17. What is the use of Start button in Ms Windows?

Answer: All of the above

The Start button allows the PC users to access their computer programs, start
applications, access device settings or shut down the computer.

18. When was Start button first released in Windows?

Answer: Windows 95

The Start button was first introduced in Microsoft Windows 95 and has been
featured in all releases of Windows since then.

19. Which key is pressed during startup to advanced boot options in Windows
98?

Answer: F8

Pressing the F8 key or holding down the F8 key in Windows 98 during startup can
open a menu of advanced boot options.

20. Which of these folders in Windows is used by browsers to cache web

pages?

Answer: Temporary Internet Files

Temporary Internet Files is a Microsoft Windows folder which contains Web page
content that is stored on your hard disk. Web browsers like Chrome, Edge etc. uses
this folder to cache pages and other multimedia content fromn visited websites.

21. Which web browser comes pre-installed with MS Windows 10?

Answer: Edge

Microsoft Edge is a web browser developed by Microsoft. It was first released for
Windows 10 and Xbox One in 2015. Later, it was released for Android and iOS in
2017.

22. What is the name of Virtual Assistant included in MS Windows 10?

Answer: Cortana

Cortina is a virtual assistant created by Microsoft for Windows 10, Windows 10

Mobile, Windows Phone 8.1, Invoke smart speaker, IOS, Android, Windows
Mixed Reality, Amazon Alexa etc.

23. Where are files moved in Windows after deletion?

Answer: Recycle Bin

Recycle Bin in Windows is temporary storage for files that have been deleted but
not yet permanently erased from the file system.

24. Which was the first version of Windows made available for purchase from
the Windows Marketplace?
Answer: Windows Vista

Windows Vista was made available for purchase and download from the Windows
Marketplace. it was the first Windows to be made available through a digital
distribution platform.

25. Which of these keys combination will open the start menu in Windows?

Answer: Ctrl + Esc

When the Ctrl key is pressed with the Esc Key in Windows, it opens the start
menu. It is a shortcut method to launch the start menu.

26. What will happen if Shift + Delete key combination is pressed after
selecting a file in Windows?

Answer: The file gets deleted permanently When "Shift+Delete" keys are used
together after selecting any file from the PC, the file will get erased permanently
from the computer system.

27. What do we call the pictogram that represents a specific program on

desktop?

Answer: Icon

In Windows, an icon is a pictogram or a small picture displayed on a computer

screen in order to help the user navigate a computer system.

28. When was MS Excel launched for Windows os?

Answer: 1987

Microsoft released the first version of Excel for the Mac OS in 1985, and the first
Windows version in November 1987. It is a spreadsheet editor.

29. Which of these is a word processor included in MS Office?

Answer: MS Word

Microsoft Word is a word processor which is included in Microsoft Office. The

first version of Word was released in 1983 and it was for the MS- DOS operating
system.

30. Which of these MS Office products is primarily used for note taking?

Answer: One note

 MS One note is a note taking program that gathers handwritten or typed notes,
drawings, Screen clippings and audio commentaries. With this software, notes can
be shared with other users Over the Internet.

31. Which of these MS Office product is an upgrade of Microsoft's Skype for

Business?

Answer: Microsoft Teams

Microsoft Teams is a unified communications platform that combines features like

workplace chat, video meetings, file storage and application integration. It is
considered as an upgrade from Microsoft Skype for Business.

32. What is Microsoft Project's proprietary file format?

Answer: .mpp

Microsoft Project is a project management software product that is developed and

sold by Microsoft. Microsoft Project's proprietary file format is .mpp.

33. Which of MS Office program is a graphics editor?

Answer: MS Paint

Microsoft Paint is a simple graphics editor that comes with all versions of
Microsoft Windows. It is a part of MS Office family.

34. Which of these is not an MS Office web service?

Answer: Drop box

Drop box is a file hosting service that offers cloud storage, file synchronization,
personal cloud, and client software. It is operated by the US- based company Drop
box, Inc.

35. Which of these is not an MS Office product?

Answer: Open Office

Open Office is a discontinued open-source office suite. Sun open-sourced the Open
Office software in July 2000 as a competitor to MS Office.

36. Which of the following software’s was not included in the first version of
MS Office?

Answer: MS Access
MS Office was announced in 1988 and the first version of Office contained
Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and Microsoft PowerPoint.

37. Which of these MS Office product is a DBMS software?

Answer: MS Access

Microsoft Access is a database management system (DBMS) from Microsoft and a

part of MS Office suite. It combines the relational Microsoft Jet Database Engine
with a graphical user interface and software-development tools.

38. What is Office Lens?

Answer: A document scanner

Office Lens, is an image scanner optimized for mobile devices. It captures the
document via the camera and then straightens the document portion of the image.
39. Which of these MS Office products is used to create slideshows?

Answer: MS PowerPoint

MS PowerPoint a presentation program used to create slideshows that can be

displayed on-screen and shown by the presenter or printed out on transparencies or
slides.

40. Which of these programs is a spreadsheet editor?

Answer: MS Excel

MS Excel a spreadsheet editor that was first released in 1985 for Mac Os. The first
Windows version (numbered 2.05 to line up with the Mac) was launched in
November 1987.

41. With which version of Microsoft Office, the MS OneNote became a core
component?

Answer: Microsoft Office 2013

OneNote was initially introduced as a standalone app but it eventually became a

core component of Microsoft Office; with the release of Microsoft Office 2013.

42. What is the use of Microsoft publisher?

Answer: All of the above

 Microsoft publisher is a desktop publishing app. It is mostly used for designing
brochures, labels, calendars, greeting cards, business cards, newsletters, web site,
and postcards.

43. What features Microsoft Outlook offer?

Answer: All of the above

Microsoft Outlook is a personal information manager that includes an e-mail

client, calendar, task manager and address book.

44. Which of these Microsoft Office apps can be used for conferences and
meetings in real time?

Answer: Skype for Business

Skype for Business is an integrated communications client for conferences and

meetings in real time it is the only Microsoft Office desktop app that does not have
the "Microsoft" prefix in its name.

45. Which of these HTML editors was a part of MS Office 2003?

Answer: Microsoft FrontPage

Microsoft FrontPage Was a WYSIWYG HTML editor and website administration

tool. It was included as part of the Microsoft Office suite from 1997 to 2003.

46. Which of these HTML editors replaced Front Page in MS Office?

Answer: Expression Web

Microsoft Expression Web is an HTML editor and general web design software. It
is a component of the discontinued Expression Studio by Microsoft.

47. Which of these is a diagram and flowcharting app from Microsoft?

Answer: Visio

Microsoft Visio is a diagramming and vector graphics application which was

launched in 1992. It is a part of the Microsoft Office family.

48. Which key combination is used for manual page break?

Answer: Shift + Enter

Page break can be manually inserted in the MS Word document by pressing SHIFT
+ ENTER key. It is same as using page break option from the insert tab.
49. Which of the following file extension is used in MS Word 2003?

Answer: .doc

DOC or doc is a filename extension for word processing documents which were
created in Microsoft Word 97 - 2003 versions.

50. What is the text styling feature of MS Word known as?

Answer: WordArt

The text styling feature of MS Word is known as WordArt. It allows users to make
the text more noticeable and more flashy.

51. Which of the following key combination is used to create a new document
in MS Word?

Answer: Ctrl + N

Ctrl + N is the key combination used to create a new document in Microsoft Word.
Also, the new document can be created from the File option.

52. Which of these key shortcut will change the case of selected text in MS
word?

Answer: Shift + F3

When Shift+F3 key combination is pressed, it changes the case. Any selected text,
or the word upon which the toothpick cursor flashes gets affected when the Shift+
F3 is pressed.

53. Which menu option has the option to print document in MS Word?
Answer: File

Print and Print preview are given under the File menu in MS Word. Also, Ctrl + P
is a shortcut which lets the users print the current document.

54. What is the maximum font size available in MS Word from the dropdown
list?

Answer: 72

The maximum font size available in MS Word from the dropdown list is 72.
However, a greater size value for a font can be added manually.

55. What is Ctrl +Q used for in MS Word?

Answer: To remove the paragraph formatting

 Ctrl + Q is a shortcut key combination which used to remove paragraph formatting
in MS Word. It removes line space and paragraph space.

56. What is Ctrl + R used for in MS Word?

Answer: it right-aligns the selected text

Ctrl + R is used in MS Word to right-align the selected text or selected paragraph.

It is same as using the alignment options from the Formatting toolbar.

57. Which menu in MS Word contains the 'Restrict Editing' option?

Answer: Review

Selecting Restrict Editing provides authors with options to limit options within the
document. This option can also be accessed through the Review tab in the Protect
toolbox

58. Which key shortcut is used to move a Word to the right of the cursor?
Answer: Ctrl +>

Ctrl +> (right arrow) moves one word to the right. It is a shortcut for quick editing
to move the position of one word, Ctrl +

59. Which menu option is used to add Header and Footer in a document?
Answer: Insert

Insert tab is used to insert page breaks, tables, illustrations, links, header and footer,
text and symbols etc.

60. Which menu option can be used to number pages in MS Word?

Answer: Insert

Pages can be numbered by clicking the Insert menu and then selecting Page
Numbers option. Various options are available for page numbering.

61. Which menu option in MS word has the 'Track Changes' feature?

Answer: Review

Track changes option can be turned on or off. It is available in the Review menu.
On the Review tab, in the Tracking group, the Track Changes button is available.

62. Which menu option in MS Word contains the Ruler option?

Answer: View Menu

 Ruler option is available under View menu. To see the rulers, choose View and
select the Ruler check box.

63. Which of the following can be inserted in MS Word?

Answer: All of the above

Various items such as Picture, Clipart, Charts etc. can be inserted in MS Word. All
these options are available from Insert menu in MS Word.

64. Which of the following feature is not available in MS Word?

Answer: PHP coding

PHP coding is not supported in MS Word. It is a Word processing software and

cannot decode programming languages like PHP.

65. Which key combination is used to select the entire document?

Answer: Ctrl + A

Ctrl + A is used to select the entire document. Ctrl + S is used to save the
document. Ctrl + E is used to centre align the document.

66. Which menu option in MS Excel has the option to sort the data?

Answer: Data

The Data menu option has the option to sort the data. The Data tab in MS Excel
contains the Sort & Filter group which can be used to sort the data.

67. How can a cell be activated in MS Excel?

Answer: All of the above

A cell in a sheet of MS Excel can be activated by pressing TAB key, by pressing

arrow keys or by clicking the cell in the sheet.

68. Which is the correct formula for SUM function in MS Excel Answer:
=SUM (A1:A5)

The SUM function in MS Excel adds the arguments you enter in the SUM formula.
The correct example of SUM formula is =SUM A1:A5). LICO pursers &IT

69. What is the use of VLOOKUP function in MS Excel?

Answer: to find things in a table

VLOOKUP is an Excel function that is used to find things in a table or a range by
row. VLOOKUP stands for Vertical Lookup and it supports approximate and exact
matching, and wildcards for partial matches.

70. Which button in MS Excel is clicked to calculate the sum of a series of

numbers?

Answer: Auto sum

When AutoSum option is clicked in MS Excel, it automatically enters a formula

(that uses the SUM function) to sum the numbers.

71. What is the default file extension of MS Excel files?

Answer: .xls

XLS file extension icon is the default MS Excel file extension. XLS is a file
extension for a spreadsheet file format created by Microsoft for use with Microsoft
Excel.

72. What do we call a function inside a function?

Answer: Nested function

A function inside a function is known as Nested function. A nested function takes

another function as an argument to compute the result. putters tat

73. Which of these tools is available in MS Excel?

Answer: All of the above

Spelling, Thesaurus and Research tools are available in MS Excel. All these tools
are available under the Review menu of MS Excel.

74. Which of the key combination is used to move to the bottom of the column
in MS Excel?

Answer: Ctrl + Down Arrow

When the Ctrl key is pressed with the Down Arrow, the last cell of the column
qets activated. It is a shortcut to move to the bottom of the column in MS Excel.

75. Which of the key combination is used to hide a selected row?

Answer: Ctrl +9

Ctrl + 9 is used to hide a selected row. When a row is selected and Ctrl +9 key is
pressed, the row gets hidden.
76. What is the use of 'Ctrl +;' key combination in MS Excel?

Answer: Inserts current date

CTRL +; key combination inserts the current date in the selected cell. When the
Ctrl key is pressed with (semi colon) key, the current date gets inserted.

77. How to insert current time in a cell in MS Excel?

Answer: By pressing Ctrl + Shift +:

The current time can be inserted in an active cell by pressing 'Ctrl+ Shift + :'. The
Ctrl +; key combination inserts current date.

78. How can entire column be selected in MS Excel?

Answer: By pressing Ctrl+ Space

By pressing Ctrl + Space, all the cells of the active column gets selected. This a
shortcut to select all the cells in a column.

79. Where is the Insert function button located in MS Excel?

Answer: Under Formulas Menu

Ms Excel supports a wide variety of built-in functions that can be used when
building formulas. The Insert Function button is located on the Formula bar.

80. What is the shortcut to insert a comment in MS Excel?

Answer: Shift + F2

Shift + F2 inserts a comment in MS Excel. When a cell is active, pressing Shift and
F2 button will allow entering comment in that cell.

81. What does Auto fill feature of MX Excel do?

Answer: Fill cells with data that follows a pattern

MS Excel's AutoFill feature is used to fill cells with data that follows a pattern or
that is based on data in other cells. Microsoft Excel's AutoFill feature makes data
entry efficient.

82. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a cell?

Answer: LEN
If there is a need to count the total characters in a cell, it can be done by using the
LEN function. To use the function, enter =LEN(cell) in a cell or in the formula bar
and press Enter.

83. What is the use of Shift + F11 in MS Excel?

Answer: Inserts a new sheet

When Shift andF11 key is pressed together, a new sheet is inserted in MS Excel. It
is a quick way to add a new sheet

. 84. Which function in MS Excel will be used to convert miles into

Kilometers?

Answer: Convert

The Convert function will convert miles into kilometers. Excel's convert function
("=CONVERT()") Converts a measurement from one unit to another.

85. Which of these is a shortcut to add a border to the selected cell in MS

Excel?

Answer: CTRL+ Shift+&

CTRL + Shift + & is used to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel. It is a
shortcut to add border to the active cell.

86. What is the maximum zOom percentage available in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: 400%

The maximum zoom percentage available in MS PowerPoint is 400%.We can

zoom the slides up to 400% in Microsoft PowerPoint.

87. What are transitions in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: Special effects added to the slides

Transitions in slides are the motion effects that Occur in Slide Show view when
we move from one slide to the next during a presentation.

88. What is the default file extension of MS PowerPoint 2003?

Answer: .ppt

A PPT file is an editable slide show created by Microsoft PowerPoint 2003. The
default file format in PowerPoint version 2007 or newer is.pptx.

89. Which of these files can be inserted in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: All of the above

All of the above files can be inserted in MS PowerPoint. On Home tab of the
ribbon, under Insert, click Picture > Picture from File. Navigate to the location of
the animated GIF you want to add

90. Under which menu in MS PowerPoint option to add images in a slide is

available?

Answer: Insert

The option to add images in a slide is available under the Insert menu in the MS
PowerPoint. Various types of images can be inserted in MS PowerPoint.

91. Which of the following cannot be inserted in an MS PowerPoint slide?

Answer: All of the above can be inserted Picture, WebPages, Sounds, Charts,
Shapes, Clipart and other items can be inserted in an MS PowerPoint slide using
the Insert menu option.

92. What is motion path in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: An animation entrance effect

Motion paths are animation effects that move slide objects in a sequence to tell an
effective story. It is available under the Animation menu.

93. Which of these keys is used to vein the slideshow in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: F5

F5 is used as the shortcut key tO view the slideshow in MS PowerPoint. Also, the
slideshow can be run from the slideshow menu.

94. Which of these keys combination will insert a hyperlink in MS

PowerPoint?

Answer: Ctrl + K

Ctrl + K is used to insert a hyperlink in MS PowerPoint. When Ctrl and K keys are
pressed together, insert hyperlink dialog box opens up.

95. Which of these key shortcuts will change the case of the selected text?
Answer: Shift + F5

Shift + F5 shortcut changes the text case. When this key combination is pressed,
the case of the selected text changes.

96. How can an existing presentation be opened in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: Ctrl + 0

Ctrl + O is the key shortcut to open an existing presentation in MS PowerPoint.

Ctrl + N is used to open a new blank presentation.

97. Which of these keys will end the slideshow?

Answer: Esc

ESC key is used to end the slideshow. It is a shortcut to end the current slideshow.
The F5 is used to start the slideshow.

98. What is trigger used for in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: initiate a sequence of animations by clicking on a specific object

Triggers allow users to initiate a sequence of animations by clicking on a specific

object on the slide rather than simply clicking yOur mouse.

99. What is 'Fly in' in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: Animation effect

"Fly in' is a custom animation effect in MS PowerPoint makes the Text or other
objects fly in a slide during MS PowerPoint presentation.

100. How can all the text in all the slides be selected in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: By clicking Ctrl +A in Outline view

All the text in all the slides can be selected in MS PowerPoint by clicking Ctrl + A
in Outline view. All the slides can be selected by clicking Ctrl + A in Slides view.

101. What is the best way to add a background image to all the slides?

Answer: By editing the master slide

By editing the master slide, we can add a background image to all the slides. It
helps in giving a uniform appearance to all the slides.

102. What do we call a file in MS PowerPoint which is a pattern of a group of

slides that can be used for a presentation?

Answer: Template

A PowerPoint template is a pattern or blueprint ofa slide or group of slides that

you save as a .potx file. Templates can contain layouts, colours, fonts, effects,
background styles, and even content.
103. What do we call the boxes in the slides that contain content in them?

Answer: Placeholder

In Microsoft PowerPoint, placeholders are boxes with dotted borders that contain
content and reside within a slide layout.

104. How can we ungroup selected groups in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: By pressing Ctrl + Shift + G

To group shapes, pictures, or WordArt objects in MS PowerPoint, select the items

that needs to be grouped, and press Ctrl+G. To ungroup a group, select the group,
and press Ctrl+Shift+G.

105. How can we copy the attributes of an object in MS PowerPoint?

Answer: By Pressing Ctrl + Shift + C

We can copy the attributes of an object in MS PowerPoint by pressing Ctrl + Shift

+ C. For pasting the attributes to an obịect, we will select an object and then press
Ctrl+Shift+V.

106. Which of these datatypes in MS Access allows alphabets, numbers and

special characters?

Answer: Short Text

Short text is a datatype which includes Text or combinations of text and numbers,
including numbers that do not require calculating.

107. Under which menu there is an option to export data in MS Access?

Answer: External Data

Data can be exported the data from table, query, form, and report objects etc. The
option to export the data in MS Access is given under the External Data tab.

108. Which of the following are types of MS Access Database object?

Answer: All of the above

Databases in Access are composed of many objects but the major objects are
Tables, Queries, Forms and Reports.

109. What is a Macro in MS Access?

Answer: tool that allows to automate tasks

 A Macro is a tool that allows the users to automate tasks and add functionality to
the forms, reports, and controls in MS Access.

110. Which function in MS Access gives the number of time intervals between
two specified dates?

Answer: DateDiff()

The Date Diff() Function is another very popular date/time function. The DateDiff
Function returns a Variant (long), specifying the number of time intervals between
two specified dates.

111. Which of the following functions in MS Access is used to reverse the

string?

Answer: StrReverse()

The StrReverse() function reverses a string and returns the result. The format to
use this function is 'SELECT StrReverse("a string") AS StringReverse'.

112. Which of the following functions returns a string that contains the value
of an operating system environment variable?

Answer: Environ()

The Environ() function returns a string that contains the value of an operating
system environment variable:

113. Which of these MS Access functions check whether the expression is a

Null value?

Answer: IsNull()

The IsNull() function checks whether the expression is a Null value. This function
returns a Boolean value whether the value is true or false.

114. Which of these MS Access functions return the current user?

Answer: CurrentUser()

CurrentUser() is the MS Access function which return the current user. This
function returns the name of the current database user.

115. What is the use of Randomize function in MS Access?

Answer: It initializes the rnd function's random- number generator
Randomize uses number to initialize the Rnd function's random-number generator,
giving it a new seed value

116. What is MS Access?

Answer: A RDBMS

Microsoft Access is a low cost relational database management system (RDBMS)

from Microsoft that combines the relational Microsoft Jet Database Engine with a
graphical user interface and software-development tools.

117. What is If function in MS Access?

Answer: Immediate If

The IIf() Function is an atbbreviation for "Immediate If" and this function
evaluates an expression as either true or false and returns a value for each.

118. How many numnber of characters can be entered in a field name in MS

Access 2010?

Answer: 64

Number of characters in a field name in MS Access 2010 can be 64. Number of

fields in a table can be a maximum of 255.

119. Which of these is the extension of MS Access 2007 database file?

Answer: .accdb

An .accdb file is a database created with Microsoft Access 2007 or later. It

typically contains data organized into tables and fields and may also include
custom forms, SQL queries, and other data. ACCDB files replaced .MDB files.

120. What is the size of currency data type?

Answer: 8 bytes

Currency data type includes currency values and numeric data used in
mathematical calculations involving data with one to four decimal places.

121. What is the shortcut key to switch between the field names and properties
panels in table design view?

Answer: F6
 The F6 key is used to switch between the windows, or between design panes
properties / etc. in the Microsoft Access.

122. What does OLE in MS Access stand for?

Answer: Object Linking and Embedding

OLE stands for Object Linking and Embedding. It is a proprietary technology

developed by Microsoft that allows embedding and linking to documents and other
objects.

123. Which MS Access feature is used to copy a control's formatting?

Answer: Format Painter

The Format Painter tool of MS Access is used to apply exactly the same
formatting to several controls repeatedly.

124. What do we call the columns of a table in Microsoft Access?

Answer: Fields

A field in MS Access is a piece of information related to a single person or thìng.

Related fields are grouped together to form a record.

125. What is the use of Cascade Delete option in MS Access?

Answer: Deletes all records automatically when the record is deleted in the
parent table

Cascade Delete option means that if a record from one table is deleted,
corresponding records in the other table are also deleted.

126. Which of the following is the correct format for an email?

Answer: abc@def.com

The general format of an email address is local- part@domain.. An address

consists of two parts. The part before the @ symbol (local-part) identifies the name
of a mailbox.

127. Which protocol is used for fetching e-mail from a mailbox?

Answer: POP3

POP3 is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held by the

Internet server. Periodically, the mail-box is checked on the server and download
any mail, probably using POP3.
128. Who invented the first email program?

Answer: Ray Tomlinson

Raymond Samuel Tomlinson is internationally known and credited as the inventor

of email. He implemented the first email program on the ARPANET System. 129.
What does BCC mean? Answer: Blind carbon copy BCC stands for "blind
carbon copy." Unlike with CC, no one but the sender can see the list of BCC
recipients.

130. Which of these is not an email service provider?

Answer: WhatsApp

Gmail, Yahoo, Rediff, Hotmail, Outlook are some of the email service providers.
WhatsApp is an instant messaging mobile application.

131. What do we call the files sent in an email?

Answer: Attachments

A computer file that is sent together with an email message is known as

attachment. It can be an image, document or any other file.

132. Which do we call the dangerous programs that can get downloaded by
opening E-mail attachments?

Answer: Virus

Viruses can easily be transferred from one computer to another through sending
mails. This is the most common way used nowadays. They may Come as an
attachment along with the emails.

133. What do we call the unsolicited or undesired e-mails?

Answer: SPAM

Email spam, also known as junk email, is unsolicited messages sent in bulk by
email (spamming).Most email spam messages are commercial in nature.

134. Which of these folders in Gmail will contain The emails which are
composed but not yet sent?

Answer: Drafts

A draft is simply an email message which hasn't been yet sent. It's not the same
thing as an email waiting to be sent.
135. What does SMS stand for?

Answer: Short Message service

SMS (short message service) is a text messaging service component of most

telephone, internet, and mobile-device systems.

136. What is the character limit for a single SMS?

Answer: 160

The communication protocols allows users to send and receive messages of up to

160 alpha-numeric characters to and from GSM mobiles.

137. When was the first SMS sent?

Answer: 1992

The first-ever text message was sent December 3, 1992, by software engineer Neil
Papworth, to Vodafone director Richard Jarvis, who received the SMS on his
husky Orbitel 901 cell phone.

138. What was the first SMS sent?

Answer: Merry Christmas

The First Text Message Celebrates 25 Years. The first text message was
transmitted Dec. 3, 1992. Engineer Neil Papworth typed "merry Christmas" on a
computer and sent the first SMS message to the cellphone of Vodafone director
Richard Jarvis

139. What does MMS stand for?

Answer: Multimedia Messaging Service

Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS) is a standard way to send messages that

include multimedia content to and from a mobile phone over a cellular network.

140. Which of the following files can be sent through an MMS?

Answer: All of the above

MMS can delivera variety of media, including up to forty seconds of video, one
image, a slideshow of multiple images, or audio.

141. What is the part of the email address before '@'symbol known as?

Answer: Username
 The part before the @ symbol identifies the name of a mnailbox and is often the
username of the recipient, e.g., robertsmith. The part after the @ symbol (domain)
is a domain name.

142. What happens usually when we delete an email?

Answer: It is moved to the trash folder

In almost all email programs deleting an email message actually means moving it
to a special folder - typically called "trash" or "deleted items".

143. What is an Outbox in the email service?

Answer: Copies of email are kept here which are to be sent

An Outbox is a place on a computer where copies of email messages that you are
going to send are kept.

144. What is the email attachment size limit in Gmail?

Answer: 25 MB

Users can send up to 25 MB in attachments. If the file is greater than 25 MB,

Gmail automatically adds a Google Drive link in the email instead of including it
as an attachment.

145. What is the full form of MIME?

Answer: Multi-Purpose Internet Mail Extensions

MIME (Multi-Purpose Internet Mail Extensions) is an extension of the original

Internet e-mail protocol that lets people use the protocol to exchange different
kinds of data files on the Internet: audio, video, images, application programs, and
other kinds, as well as the ASCII text handled in the original protocol, the Simple
Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP).

9. Computer Security - Various Attucks and Malware

1. Which among the following is not a security / privacy risk?

Answer: Spam

Spam is any kind of unwanted, unsolicited digital communications. They are sent
in bulk. The Spam today is becoming a serious threat.
 2. Now a days Wishing has become a criminal practice of using social
engineering over which of the following?

Answer: Mobile Phones

Voice phishing or Vishing is a form of criminal phone fraud. It is using social

engineering over the telephone system. It is to gain access to private personal and
financial information for the purpose of financial reward.

3. When some unidentified / unknown person / firm sends you mail in a

trustworthy /lucrative way asking for sensitive banks and online payment
information, this is a case of_?

Answer: Phishing

Phishing is a cybercrime in which a target or targets are contacted by email,

telephone or text message by someone. They pose as a legitimate institution to lure
individuals into providing sensitive data. They take information like banking and
credit card details, and passwords.

4. Which among the following is the most common source of Viruses to the
hard disk of your computer?

Answer: Incoming Email

Incoming emails is the most common source of Viruses to the hard disk of a
computer. Hackers are using e mail for attacking a computer. The incoming email
is the most venerable way.

5. Most of the internet banking sites provide which of the following feature to
reduce the risk of keystroke logging for the password entry?

Answer: Virtual keyboard

Keystroke logging, often referred to as keylogging is the action of recording

(logging) the keys struck on a keyboard. It is typically a covert thing, so that person
using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored. Data can then
be retrieved by the person operating the logging program. Virtual Keyboard
reduces the risk of keystroke logging for the password entry.

6. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be

aware of the "Dictionary attack"?

Answer: It is used to determine a password

 A dictionary attack is a method of breaking into a password-protected computer or
server. It is done by systematically entering every word in a dictionary as a
password. A dictionary attack is used as an attempt to decrypt a message or
document.

7. Symantec is the maker of which among the following popular antivirus

software?

Answer: Norton

Symantec is an American consumer software Company now known as Norton Life

Lock. It is the make of famous software Norton.

8. What do we call a malicious computer program which pretends to be a

useful application?

Answer: Trojan horse

A Trojan horse is a malicious computer program which pretends to be a useful

application. Trojans generally do not attempt to inject themselves into other files or
otherwise propagate themselves.

9.What do we call the attack that focuses on capturing small packets from
the network transmitted by other computers and reading the data content?

Answer: Eavesdropping

Eavesdropping is the unauthorized real-time interception of a private

communication, such as a phone call, instant message, videoconference or fax
transmission. It focuses on capturing small packets from the network transmitted
by other computers and reading the data content in search of some information.

10. What do we call the malicious computer programs that gains root or
administrative access to the computer?

Answer: Rootkits

A rootkit is a clandestine computer program designed to provide continued

privileged access to a computer while actively hiding its presence.

11. What do we call an attack which overwhelms a system's resources so that

it cannot respond to service requests?

Answer: denial-of-service attack

A denial-of-service attack overwhelms a system's resources so that it cannot

respond to service requests. A Double denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is also an
attack on system's resources, but it is launched from a large number of other host
machines that are infected by malicious software controlled by the attacker.

12. Which of these is an XSS attack?

Answer: to run scripts in the victim's web browser or scriptable application

XSS attacks use third-party web resources to run scripts in the victim's web
browser or scriptable application.

13. What do we call a malware that blocks access to the victim's data and
threatens to publish or delete it unless money is paid?

Answer: Ransom ware

Ransom ware is a type of malware that blocks access to the victim's data and
threatens to publish or delete it unless a ransom is paid.

14. Which of these virus infects a software program and causes a series of
actions to begin automatically when the program is opened?

Answer: Macro virus

Macro viruses attach to an application's initialization sequence. When the

application is opened, the virus executes instructions before transferring control to
the application. These viruses infect applications such as Microsoft Word or Excel.

15. What do we call a malware computer program that replicates itself in

order to spread to other computers?

Answer: Worms

Worms differ from viruses in that they do not attach to a host file, but are self-
contained programs that propagate across networks and computers. It is a
standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to
other computers.

16. Which of these is a program is used to install viruses on computers?

Answer: A Dropper

A dropper is a program used to install viruses on Computers. In many instances,

the dropper is not infected with malicious code and, therefore might not be detected
by virus-scanning software.
17. What do we call a malicious program that is appended to an application
and is triggered by a specific event, such as a logical condition or a specific
date and time?

Answer: Logic bomb

A logic bomb is a type of malicious software that is appended to an application and

is triggered by a specific event, such as a logical condition or a specific date and
time.

18. What is the name of the attack which happens when a malefactor executes
a SQL query to the database via the input data from the client to server?

Answer: SQL injection attack

SQL Injection (SQLi) is a type of an injection attack that makes it possible to

execute malicious SQL statements. It is a common issue with database- driven
websites. It occurs when a malefactor executes a SQL query to the database via the
input data from the client to server.

19. What is the attack called where the hackers look for insecure websites and
plant a malicious script into the source code?

Answer: Drive-by attack

Drive-by downloads are a common method of spreading malware. Cybercriminals

look for insecure web sites and plant a malicious script into the source code.

20. What is the technique called as by which an attacker illicitly impersonates

another machine by manipulating IP packets to gain unauthorized access?

Answer: IP Spoofing

IP Spoofing is a technique used to gain unauthorized access to machines, whereby

an attacker illicitly impersonates another machine by manipulating IP packets.

21. Which of these malicious programs collect information about users and
sends the data to a remote user?

Answer: Spyware

Spyware is a type of malicious program that is installed to collect information

about users, their computers or their browsing habits. It tracks everything that the
user does without his/her knowledge and sends the data to a remote user.

22. What do we call the attack which is made against hash algorithms that are
used to verify the integrity of a message, software or digital signature?
Answer: Birthday attacks

Birthday attacks are made against hash algorithms that are used to verify the
integrity of a message, software or digital signature. The birthday attack refers to
the probability of finding two random messages that generate the same Message
Digest (MD) when processed by a hash function.

23. What are the viruses that rewrite themselves completely each time they are
to infect new executables, known as?

Answer: Metamorphic virus

To avoid being detected by emulation, some viruses rewrite themselves completely

each time they are to infect new executables. Viruses that utilize this technique are
said to be in metamorphic code.

24. What is Keylogging attack?

Answer: action of recording the keys struck on a keyboard

Keystroke logging is also known as keylogging or keyboard capturing. It is the

action of recording the keys struck on a keyboard, typically covertly, so that person
using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored.

25. What is Code Red?

Answer: A Computer worm

Code Red was a computer worm observed on the Internet in 2001 and it launched
DOS attack on White House's website. It attacked computers running Microsoft's
IIS web server.

10. Application of Computers and IT in Various Fields

1. Which among the following is not a payment card technology?

Answer: All of them are payment card technologies

EMV is a payment method based upon a technical standard. It is for smart

payment cards and for payment terminals and automated teller machines which can
accept them. EMV originally stood for "Europay, Master card, and Visa", the three
companies which created the standard. The Magnetic strip cards, smart cards and
Fleet cards are the different technologies available.

2. Which among the following can be called an electronic check ?

Answer: Debit card

Electronic cheek is a form of payment system. In this funds from customer's

account are transferred to the merchants account over the ACH (Automated
clearing House) network. Debit card is one such payment as the customers funds
are transferred.

3. Core Banking Solutions are developed to perform_?

Answer: All of the above

Core banking is a banking service provided by a group of networked bank branches

as a single unit. It is where customers may access their bank account and perform
basic transactions from any of member branch offices

4 The terms "push and pull services in context with the Banking are used in
which among the following generally?

Answer : Mobile Banking

M: Banking. refers to sms sending on without requests

5. Which among the following is an example of "Card not present transaction

in context with the Credit Debit Cards?

Answer Both 2 &3

ct present transaction S payment card risen ate niter the catch deer s not Coaly
resent the c2rd for American’s visual Editor zee time that an orcas given and ate at
person using record online resign barking an use this

6 "Internet escrow is a term most commonly related to which of the

following?

Answer Amerce Escrow as fracas Tart

nervy an asset s red Dyadic arty on beach two other parts 2 coerce tic to asset of
merchant before

7. How may banks are promoting the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCaj?

Answer 19

The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organization for

operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It is promoted by 10
banks.
8. Which of these cards allows its holder to buy goods and services based on
the holder's promise to pay for these goods and services?

Answer: Credit cards

A credit card is a small plastic card issued to Users as a system of payment. It

allows its holder to buy goods and services based on the holder's promise to pay for
these goods and services.

9. Which of these is a type of E-banking?

Answer: All of the above

E- Banking stands for Electronic Banking. It includes various services such as

Electronic Bill Payments, Cheque Truncation System, M-Banking etc.

10. What is meant by CTS?

Answer: Cheque Truncation System

Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for quicker cheque clearance. As the term proposes,
truncation is the course of discontinuing the flow of the physical cheque in its way
of clearing.

11. Which is the correct full form of RTGS?

Answer: Real Time Gross Settlement

Real-time gross settlement (RTGS) systems are specialist funds transfer systems
where the transfer of money takes place from one bank to any other bank on a "real
time".

12. Which of the following money transfer system involves waiting period?
Answer: NEFT Peers

NEFT transfers funds in timed batches, while RTGS and IMPS are real-time
transfer modes. NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer.

13. What is the full form of SWIFT?

Answer: Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications

The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT)

provides a network that enables financial institutions worldwide to send and
receive information about financial transactions in a secure, standardized and
reliable environment.
14. Which of these is a correct UPI virtual address?

Answer: abc@sbi

Virtual Payment Address or VPA is a unique ID you need to create in order to

send and accept money via UPI.

15. What serviced do BHIM mobile app offer?

Answer: All of the above

You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or
scanning their QR with the BHIM app or via their account numbers. Money can be
requested through the BHIM app from UPI ID. Balance in the account can be
checked too.

16. What is the difference between IMPS and NEFT?

Answer:

IMPS is available 24*7 whereas NEFT is available during NEFT business hours
IMPS is managed by NPCI whereas NEFT is managed by RBI. IMPS is available
24*7 whereas NEFT is available during NEFT business hours. IMPS is a real time
transfer system whereas NEFT İs not.

17. Which of the following are the features of Core banking Solutions?

Answer: All of the above

Core Banking Solution (CBS) is networking of branches, which enables.

Customers to operate their accounts, and avail banking services from any branch of
the Bank on CBS network, regardless of where he maintains his account.

18. Which of these is not referred as Plastic money?

Answer: 1 Rupee note

Plastic money is the generic term for all types of bank cards, credit cards, debit
cards, smart cards, etc.

19. What is the length of ATM card Pin?

Answer: 4 digits

Usually all the debit cards, credit cards and mobile phones require a pin to unlock
them. The length of ATM card is four digits.

20. Which of the following can be used to access the E-banking services?
Answer: All of the above

The Electronic banking or e-banking services can be accessed via Personal

computer, PDA, mobile phones, ATM etc.

21. What is SSL?

Answer: Secure Sockets Layer

SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer. The usage of SSL technology ensures that all
data transmitted between the web server and brOwser remains encrypted.

22. How is a debit card different from a credit card?

Answer: With Debit card,

money is deducted from the account when performing a transaction A debit card is
similar to a credit card, but unlike a credit card, the money is immediately
transferred directly from the cardholder's bank account when performing a
transaction.

23. What do we call those ATMS where hardware is owned by service

provider, but cash management and network connectivity is provided by
sponsor bank?

Answer: Brown label ATM

Brown Label ATM is sharing cost concept. In Brown Label ATM hardware is
owned by service provider, but cash management and network connectivity is
provided by sponsor bank.

24. What is the Indian government's initiative to link Jan Dhan accounts,
Mobile numbers and Aadhar cards of Indians called as?

Answer: JAM trinity

JAM (short for Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) trinity refers to the government of India
initiative to link Jan Dhan accounts, Mobile numbers and Aadhar cards of Indians
to plug the leakages of government Subsidies.

25. Which of these is an advantage of Internet Banking over traditional

banking?

Answer: All of the above

All of the above i.e. Low cost banking, Anytime Anywhere banking and Instant
Transfer of Funds are some of the advantages of Internet Banking over traditional
banking.

26. What is the full form of ATM?

Answer: Automated Teller Machine

An automated teller machine (ATM) is an electronic telecommunications device

that enables customers of financial institutions to perform various financial
transactions.

27. Which of these services are usually provided by ATMs?

Answer: All of the above

Various financial transactions, such as cash withdrawals, deposits, transfer funds,

or obtaining account information, at any time are available through ATMS.

28. Which organization developed BHIM Application?

Answer: NPCI

The BHIM mobile app was developed by the National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI). It is based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

29. Which of the following is not true about Bharat Interface for Money
(BHIM) app?

Answer: Through BHIM app, a maximum of Rs 5,000 is allowed per

transaction.

Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) provides fast, secure, reliable medium to make
digital payments through your mobile phone using UPI (Unified Payment
Interface) platform via Mobile App and USSD (Unstructured Supplementary
Service Data) platform via *99# service.

30. What is the name of the new Blockchain-based payment platform of the
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

Answer: Vajra

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is set to launch its new block-
chain based platform, which is named as Vajra'. The new payment platform will be
based on 'Distributed Ledger Technology' (DLT). The platform is expected to make
the payments secure and the transactions would be stored in a decentralized
database. The bank nodes after receiving the requests from the Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) will process them on the Vera platform.

31. Which of the following is most correct word for accessing secure online
banking functions through a mobile device's browser?

Answer: WAP Banking

WAP Banking refers to accessing secure online banking functions through a

mobile device's browser. It is different from true mobile banking in which banking
is done through an app installed locally in device.

32. What is the code devised to access mobile banking without internet
connection via the USSD?

Answer: *99#

Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD) allows users without a smart

phone or data/internet connection to use mobile banking through the *99# code.
USSD-based mobile banking can be used for fund transfers, checking account
balance, generating bank statement, among other uses. The main objective of the
innovative *99# payments service is to allow financial inclusion of the under
banked and economically weaker sections of the society, and integrate them into
mainstream banking. The *99# service is also known as National Unified USSD
Platform (NUUP).

33. Which of the following can work as access points in banking?

Answer: All of above

Access points are places or capabilities that are used to initiate or receive a
payment. Access points can include bank branch offices, ATMs, terminals at the
POS, agent outlets, mobile phones, and computers.

34. What is the USSD code for Query Service on Aadhaar Mapper (QSAM)?

Answer: *99*99#

OSAM (Query Service on Aadhaar Mapper) service helps user in knowing their
Aadhaar Seeding status with their bank account. This service provided by NPCI
can be availed by dialing *99*99#. With this, the user can know whether his/her
AADHAAR number is seeded/linked to any bank account number or not. If yes,
then with which bank and when it was last updated.

35. Mobile Money Identifier is a 7 digit number that facilitates fund transfer
in mobile banking. Which of these bodies issues MMID?
Answer: Banks

Mobile Money Identifier is a 7 digit number, issued by banks. MMID is one of the
input which when clubbed with mobile number facilitates fund transfer.
Combination of Mobile no. & MMID is uniquely linked with an Account number
and helps in identifying the beneficiary details. Different MMIDS can be linked to
same Mobile Number.