1.

The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:

A. Napoleonic system
B. Continental system
C. Common law system
D. General law system
E. Proper law system

2. The dispute between individuals is covered by the law:

A. Napoleonic
B. Civil
C. Criminal
D. Administrative
E. All above-named

3. Cases between the state and the individual are covered by the law:
A. Napoleonic
B. Civil
C. Criminal
D. Administrative
E. All above-named

4. Prosecutor does not work on:

A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
E. Civil case

5. Prosecutor is the part of:

A. administrative case
B. Suicide case
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

6. Plaintiff is the part of:

 A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
E. Civil case

7. Offences against public interest are involved in:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

8. Public safety and security of the state is the subject of:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

9. "Beyond reasonable doubt" is a principle of:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

10. "The balance of probabilities" is a principle for:

A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
E. Civil case
11. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

A. Regular witness
B. Judge
C. Professional witness
D. Expert witness
E. Eye witness

12. The factual medical evidence is given by:

A. Regular witness
B. Judge
C. Professional witness
D. Expert witness
E. Eye witness

13. An affidavit is a:

A. CSI recording
B. Report from the scene
C. Medical report
D. Sworn statement
E. Non above-mentioned

14. "Examination in chief" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness
C. The opposing lawyer
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

15. Confirming the truth of the facts in the statement is an aim of:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief
 D. Cross examination
E. Re-examination

16. "Cross examination" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness
C. The opposing lawyer
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

17. "Re-examination" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness
C. The opposing lawyer
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

18. The facts and opinions given will be tested in:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief
D. Cross examination
E. Re-examination

19. To clarify information but not introduce new topics is the aim of:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief
D. Cross examination
E. Re-examination

20. The old forensic adage for witnesses is:

A. "dress up, stand up, speak up and shut up"

 B. "dress up, stand up, speak up and smile up"
C. "dress up, stand up, sit down and shut up"
D. "dress up, hands up, speak up and hands down"
E. "stand up, speak up, shut up and sit down"

21. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

A. Patient autonomy
B. Non-maleficence
C. Poverty
D. Dignity
E. Honesty

22. International codes of medical ethics are adopted by:

A. WHO
B. UN
C. WMA
D. GMA
E. UNICEF

23. "Respect a competent patient's right to accept or refuse treatment" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

24. "Always exercise independent professional judgment" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned
25. "Maintain the highest standards of professional conduct" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

26. "Not allow your judgment to be influenced by personal profit or unfair discrimination" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

27. "Certify only that which you have personally verified" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

28. "Not receive any financial benefits solely for prescribing specific products" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

29. "Respect the rights and preferences of patients, colleagues and other health professionals"
is:

A. Duty of a physician in general

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
 E. All above-mentioned

30. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged vessel is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Slash wound
D. Stab wound
E. Laceration

31. Superficial injury of outer layers of skin is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Slash wound
D. Stab wound
E. Laceration

32. Sharp-force injury is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Fracture of bone
D. Stab wound
E. Burning

33. Which sharp wound is deeper than it is long in the skin?

A. Slash wound
B. Stab wound
C. Laceration
D. Cut wound
E. Abrasion

34. Which sharp wound is longer than it is deep in the tissue?

A. Slash wound
B. Stab wound
 C. Laceration
D. Chop wound
E. Abrasion

35. An injury that breaks the continuity of the skin is:

A. Bruise
B. Wound
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Hemorrhage

36. Internal rupture of blood vessel is:

A. Laceration
B. Wound
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Hemorrhage

37. The trauma not caused by objects with cutting edges is:

A. Sharp force trauma

B. Blunt force trauma
C. Stab wound
D. Slash wound
E. Soft force trauma

38. The trauma caused by objects with cutting edges is:

A. Sharp force trauma

B. Blunt force trauma
C. Soft force trauma
D. Laceration
E. All above-mentioned

39. At blunt-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:
 A. Blows
B. Traction
C. Cutting
D. Torsion
E. Splitting

40. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied can be:

A. Blows
B. Traction
C. Cutting
D. Torsion
E. Splitting

41. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:

A. Stabbing
B. Slashing
C. Cutting
D. Torsion
E. Penetrating

42. Reddening must be distinguished from red bruises by:

A. Shape
B. Color
C. Size
D. Its ability to blanch from finger pressure
E. Its ability to change location

43. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged blood vessels is:

A. Laceration
B. Wound
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Bruise
44. The types of hemorrhages are, except:

A. Petechiae
B. Hematoma
C. Oedema
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

45. "Pin-point" hemorrhage is:

A. Petechia
B. Hematoma
C. Oedema
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

46. A palpable collection of blood under the skin is:

A. Petechia
B. Hematoma
C. Oedema
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

47. "Patterned" bruises which reproduce the nature of the object that cased them are:

A. Subdural
B. Intramuscular
C. Deep tissue
D. Intradermal
E. All above-mentioned

48. "Tramline bruises" are caused by object:

A. Long plane
B. Short plane
C. Cylindrical
 D. Round
E. Any of above-mentioned

49. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the object is:

A. Long plane
B. Short plane
C. Cylindrical
D. Round
E. Any of above-mentioned

50. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the name of injury is:

A. Deep hemorrhage
B. Deep abrasion
C. Laceration
D. Tramline bruise
E. Purpura

51. The age of yellow-colored bruise is:

A. More than a year

B. More than 18 hours
C. Less than two hours
D. Three hours
E. All above-mentioned

52. A superficial injury involving outer layers of skin without penetration of full thickness of the
skin is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Hemorrhage
D. Laceration
E. Contusion
53. Linear abrasion is known as:

A. Bruise
B. Hemorrhage
C. Scratch
D. Laceration
E. Contusion

54. An injury of epidermis with drops of blood is:

A. Bruise
B. Hemorrhage
C. Superficial bruise
D. Deep abrasion
E. Contusion

55. Traction on a rough surface of a road results in:

A. Slash wound
B. "Tram-line" bruise
C. "Brush" abrasion
D. Purpura
E. Subdural hematoma

56. "Bridging fibers" are characteristic for:

A. Deep abrasions
B. Deep bruises
C. Slash wound
D. Laceration
E. Contusion

57. Splitting of skin after blunt force compressing results in:

A. Deep abrasions
B. Deep bruises
C. Slash wound
D. Laceration
E. Contusion
58. The margins of the wound reveal some crushing and bruising, and the inner surface of the
wound shows the presence of bridging fibers. This wound is:

A. Laceration
B. Slash
C. Stab injected
D. Stab knifing
E. Incised

59. Sharp blade moving across and cutting skin surface causes:

A. Laceration
B. Slash wound
C. Stab injected wound
D. Stab knifing wound
E. Deep abrasion

60. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, long
and superficial - the wound type is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Stab injected
D. Stab knifing
E. Incised*

61. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, small
superficial damage but deep - the wound type is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised
62. Incised wound is more dangerous in the region of body:

A. Head
B. Neck
C. Thorax
D. Abdomen
E. Spine

63. The subject with only point or tip is causing the wound:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised

64. Once the subject has penetrated the skin, subcutaneous soft tissues offer little additional
resistance and the rest of the subject "follows through" with almost no additional effort - this is
a mechanism of development of:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruising
C. Slashing
D. Stabbing
E. Chopping

65. The knife with only one cutting edge results is the shape of wound:

A. A-shape
B. B-shape
C. C-shape
D. F-shape
E. V-shape

66. The depth of a stab wound within the body is greater than the length of the blade - the
damaged region is:

A. Head
B. Face
 C. Neck
D. Abdomen
E. Spine

67. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with cruciate skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. All above-mentioned

68. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with Z-shaped skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors

69. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with small round skin surface wound and no
bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors

70. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with clean and linear skin surface wound and
no bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
 E. Scissors

71. Large and deep damage of the skin and other tissueswith bridging fibers, with sharp edges of
the wound and bruises and abrasions at the margin, is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors

72. Large and heavy, relatively blunt, bladed instruments are causing the wound:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised

73. A mixture of sharp- and blunt-force wounds features, typically involving bruises and abraded
margins, with fractures or amputations - the wound is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised

74. The sharp-force injuries are:

A. Punches
B. Kicks
C. Bites
D. Slashes
E. Grippings
75. The injuries are located on the extensor surfaces of arm and upper arm, and on the palm
surfaces of the hands - the injuries are related to:

A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense
D. Falling from height
E. Railway accident

76. The multiple, predominantly parallel and superficial incisions on the left forearm are the
features of:

A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense injuries
D. Falling from height
E. Self-inflicted injuries

77. The minor injuries are grouped in a single anatomical region, on the contralateral side to the
person's handedness - the pattern can be related to:

A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense injuries
D. Falling from height
E. Self-inflicted injuries

78. Suspension, electric chock, Falanga, dry submarino - are:

A. Sexual assault methods

B. Road traffic accident results
C. Defense injuries
D. Torture methods
E. Self-inflicted injuries

79. Severe beating of the soles of the feet, with consequent hematoma is:

A. Positional torture
B. Sexual assault
 C. Falanga
D. Wet submarino
E. Palestinian hanging

80. Cheera and Parrot's Perch are:

A. Types of bruises
B. Positional torture methods
C. Signs of wet submarino
D. Sharp-force wounds
E. Forms of Falanga

81. Immersing the victim's head in a container full of water until the person almost drowns is:

A. Falanga
B. Cheera
C. Wet submarino
D. Positional torture
E. Telephono

82. "Dry Submarino” is:

A. Classical sign of asphyxia

B. Sign of dry lung drowning
C. Method of torture
D. Immersion sign
E. Type of illicit drug

83. Istanbul Protocol is:

A. Manual for personal identification

B. Manual on effective documentation of torture
C. International protocol for autopsy techniques
D. Protocol for Evidence Obtaining
E. CSI international manual and protocol

84. Subdural hemorrhage is associated with damage of:

 A. Meningeal artery
B. Carotid artery
C. Communicating vein
D. Jugular vein
E. Basilary artery

85. Coup and Contrecoup injuries are:

A. Vertebral injuries
B. Cervical spinal injuries
C. Methods of torture
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhages
E. Parts of gunshot wound

86. Whiplash injury is caused by:

A. Whipping for punishment

B. Torture methods
C. Fracture of femur
D. Hyperextension of the neck
E. Biting by police button

87. Muzzle mark develops at shooting from:

A. Contact distance
B. Close distance
C. Intermediate distance
D. Far distance
E. Very far distances

88. Smoke soiling, powder, skin and hair burn points to distance:

A. 5 cm
B. 30 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 1m
E. 50 m
89. Stellate appearance wound, with everted edges and split flaps, is:

A. Slash wound
B. Stab wound
C. Entrance wound
D. Exit wound
E. Lacerated wound

90. Semen can be detected in the vagina up to:

A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 20 days
E. One year

91. Semen can be detected in the rectum up to:

A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 20 days
E. One year

92. Types of child abuse, except:

A. Neglect
B. Emotional Abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Economical abuse
E. Sexual abuse

93. The persistent failure to meet a child’s basic physical or psychological needs is:

A. Neglect
B. Emotional Abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Economical abuse
E. Sexual abuse
94. The pattern of child abuse case involves signs, except:

A. Delay of medical treatment

B. Apply to different doctors
C. Injuries mostly on extremities
D. Multiplicity of injuries
E. Difference of story and medical findings

95. Anal findings at sexual abuse not include:

A. Perineal erythema
B. Anal bruising
C. Anal fissures
D. Perineal scars
E. Reflex anal contraction

96. “Bumper Injury” is:

A. Fracture of cervical spine

B. Fracture of femur
C. Fracture of L3-L4 vertebra
D. Laceration of foot
E. Non above-mentioned

97. Secondary injury is:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Bumper injury”
C. Bonnet injury
D. “Brush abrasions”
E. “Flail chest”

98. Skidding across the surface of the road results in:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Bumper injury”
C. Bonnet injury
 D. “Brush abrasions”
E. “Flail chest”

99. Stripping off large areas of skin and subcutaneous tissue by rotating wheel is:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Flaying injury”
C. Bonnet injury
D. “Brush abrasions”
E. “Flail chest”

100. “Flail Chest” is:

A. Protruded chest, congenital

B. Compression asphyxia mechanism
C. Multiple rib fractures by compression
D. Bonnet injury
E. Flaying injury in chest region

. The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:

A. Napoleonic system
B. Continental system
C. Common law system
D. General law system
E. Proper law system

2. Plaintiff is the part of:

A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
E. Civil case

3. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

A. Regular witness
 B. Judge
C. Professional witness
D. Expert witness
E. Eye witness

4. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

A. Patient autonomy
B. Non-maleficence
C. Poverty
D. Dignity
E. Honesty

5. Confidentiality may not apply, if requested by:

A. Relative
B. Lawyer
C. Law
D. Spouse
E. Children

6. Which type of consent does not exist?

A. Implied
B. Applied
C. Expressed
D. Informed
E. Non above-mentioned

7. Cessation of respiration and metabolic activity in the body tissues is:

A. Somatic death
B. Cellular death
C. Clinical death
D. Brain death
E. Vegetative state
8. Death Certificate does not include information about:

A. Date of death
B. Place of death
C. Cause of death
D. Mechanism of death
E. Non above-mentioned

9. Personal identification is not possible by:

A. DNA profiling
B. Dental structures
C. Fingerprints
D. Blood groups
E. Tattoos

10. Which bone is used for sex estimation?

A. Humerus
B. Ulna
C. Pelvis
D. Talus
E. Phalanx

11. The early post-mortem change is:

A. Mummification
B. Putrefaction
C. Autolysis
D. Hemolysis
E. Non above-mentioned

12. The early post-mortem change is not:

A. Rigor mortis
B. Autolysis
C. Lividity
D. Cooling
E. Adipocere
13. Rigor mortis is result of:

A. Increase of PH in body
B. ATP accumulation
C. Biochemical changes of albumins
D. Lactic acid accumulation
E. Oxygen accumulation

14. Post-mortem hypostasis is:

A. Relaxed position of body after death

B. The passive settling of red blood cells in the lowest areas of body
C. Massive hemorrhage in lower parts of body
D. Enzymatic degradation of body after death
E. Rapid drying of the body after death

15. Cherry pink color of lividity spots points to:

A. Cyanide poisoning
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Asphyxia
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Drowning

16. Bronze lividity spots points to:

A. Cyanide poisoning
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Asphyxia
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Drowning

17. Green discoloration of right iliac fossa of the anterior abdominal wall is the sigh of:

A. Autolysis
B. Rigor mortis
C. Putrefaction
 D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
E. Asphyxia

18. Body fat hydrolysis to a waxy compound happens at:

A. Mummification
B. Putrefaction
C. Rigor mortis
D. Adipocere
E. Skeletalization

19. Mummification occurs at:

A. High humidity
B. Deep water
C. High temperature
D. Under snow
E. In the river

20. Henssge’s Nomogram is used for estimation of:

A. Body temperature
B. Time since death
C. Position of body before death
D. Position of body after death
E. Cause of death

21. Drowning signs are, except:

A. Foam around mouth and nose

B. Diatom test positive in bone marrow
C. Excessive hypervolemia
D. “Degloving” of the skin of the hand
E. Paultauf’s spots

22. Signs of ante-mortem burning are, except:

A. Finding of soot in deep airways

 B. Burning of deep airways
C. “Boxer position”
D. High content of CO-hemoglobin in blood
E. Tissue reactions at burning borders

23. Sign of ante-mortem burning is:

A. “Pugilist attitude”
B. Splitting of skin
C. Burning of deep airways
D. Heat-related fractures
E. Extradural hemorrhage

24. Signs of hypothermia death are, except:

A. Purple skin discoloration over large joints

B. Wischnewsky spots
C. Hemorrhagic erosions in small bowel
D. Necrosis of myocardium
E. “Hide and die syndrome”

25. Purple skin discoloration over large joints is a sign of:

A. Hanging
B. Traumatic asphyxia
C. Hypothermia death
D. First degree of burning
E. Cyanide poisoning

26. Wischnewsky spots are:

A. Petechial hemorrhages under pericardium in asphyxia

B. Hemorrhagic gastric lesions in hypothermia
C. Black spots in deep airways in burning
D. Petechial hemorrhages in eyes in Asphyxia
E. Bruises on the neck in manual strangulation
27. “Hide and die syndrome” happens at:

A. Neglect
B. Child abuse
C. Burning in fire
D. Autoerotic asphyxia
E. Hypothermia death

28. Collapsed blister, with raised rim and concave center, with areola of pallor is:

A. First degree burning

B. Trophic ulcer
C. Frostbite
D. Electric lesion
E. Herpes zoster

29. The electric lesion has signs, except:

A. “Crocodile skin”
B. Raised rim
C. Concave center
D. Soot around lesion
E. Areola of pallor

30. Lichtenberg figure is:

A. Atypical strangulation line

B. Fern-like patterns on the skin in lightning
C. Spark burns by electricity
D. Complex frostbite on feet
E. Tyre-marks on body in run-over mechanism of trauma

31. Fern-like patterns on the skin develop at:

A. Manual strangulation
B. Burning in fire
C. Putrefaction
D. Railway accidents
E. Lightning
32. If increasingly large doses of the drug produce less and less effect, it is called:

A. Idiosyncrasy
B. Synergy
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. Poisoning

33. Unanticipated, inappropriate and excessive reaction on drug is called:

A. Idiosyncrasy
B. Synergy
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. Poisoning

34. Chain of custody is:

A. Torture method
B. Type of handcuffs
C. Restraint device
D. Management of evidences
E. Method of personal identification

35. STR-based technology is a method of:

A. Drowning diagnosis
B. Blood alcohol concentration measurement
C. Fingerprinting for identification
D. DNA identification
E. Time of death estimation

36. Kastle-Meyer test is for detection of:

A. DNA
B. Blood
C. Semen
 D. Saliva
E. Urine

37. Loops, Whorls and Arches are used in:

A. DNA identification
B. Strangulation diagnosis
C. Hanging differential diagnosis
D. Fingerprints
E. Chain of custody documentation

38. The cartridge parts are, except:

A. Muzzle
B. Case or shell
C. Primer cup
D. Bullet
E. Gun powder

39. Forensic entomology is:

A. The application of knowledge about insects to assist in legal investigations

B. The application of knowledge about death to assist in legal investigations
C. The application of knowledge about bones to assist in legal investigations
D. The application of knowledge about diatoms to assist in legal investigations
E. Non above-mentioned

40. Forensic Odontologistscan not assist in:

A. Human identification
B. Ageing estimation
C. Bite marks interpretation
D. Bone examination
E. Tooth examination

1. The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:
 F. Napoleonic system
G. Continental system
H. Common law system *
I. General law system
J. Proper law system

2. The dispute between individuals is covered by the law:

A. Napoleonic
B. Civil *
C. Criminal
D. Administrative
E. All above-named

3. Cases between the state and the individual are covered by the law:
A. Napoleonic
B. Civil
C. Criminal*
D. Administrative
E. All above-named

4. Prosecutor does not work on:

F. Criminal case
G. Suicide case
H. Murder case
I. Rape case
J. Civil case *

5. Prosecutor is the part of:

A. administrative case
B. Suicide case*
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

6. Plaintiff is the part of:

A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
 E. Civil case *

7. Offences against public interest are involved in:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case*
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

8. Public safety and security of the state is the subject of:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case*
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

9. "Beyond reasonable doubt" is a principle of:

A. administrative case
B. criminal case*
C. property inheritance case
D. compensation case
E. Civil case

10. "The balance of probabilities" is a principle for:

A. Criminal case
B. Suicide case
C. Murder case
D. Rape case
E. Civil case *

11. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

 F. Regular witness
G. Judge
H. Professional witness
I. Expert witness *
J. Eye witness

12. The factual medical evidence is given by:

A. Regular witness
B. Judge
C. Professional witness*
D. Expert witness
E. Eye witness

13. An affidavit is a:

A. CSI recording
B. Report from the scene
C. Medical report
D. Sworn statement *
E. Non above-mentioned

14. "Examination in chief" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness*
C. The opposing lawyer
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

15. Confirming the truth of the facts in the statement is an aim of:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief*
D. Cross examination
E. Re-examination
16. "Cross examination" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness
C. The opposing lawyer*
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

17. "Re-examination" in done by:

A. Judge
B. The lawyer who "called" the witness*
C. The opposing lawyer
D. Jury member
E. All above-mentioned

18. The facts and opinions given will be tested in:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief
D. Cross examination*
E. Re-examination

19. To clarify information but not introduce new topics is the aim of:

A. Taking the oath

B. Swearing in
C. Examination in Chief
D. Cross examination
E. Re-examination*

20. The old forensic adage for witnesses is:

A. "dress up, stand up, speak up and shut up"*

B. "dress up, stand up, speak up and smile up"
C. "dress up, stand up, sit down and shut up"
D. "dress up, hands up, speak up and hands down"
E. "stand up, speak up, shut up and sit down"
21. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

F. Patient autonomy
G. Non-maleficence
H. Poverty *
I. Dignity
J. Honesty

22. International codes of medical ethics are adopted by:

A. WHO
B. UN
C. WMA*
D. GMA
E. UNICEF

23. "Respect a competent patient's right to accept or refuse treatment" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

24. "Always exercise independent professional judgment" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

25. "Maintain the highest standards of professional conduct" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
 D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

26. "Not allow your judgment to be influenced by personal profit or unfair discrimination" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

27. "Certify only that which you have personally verified" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

28. "Not receive any financial benefits solely for prescribing specific products" is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned

29. "Respect the rights and preferences of patients, colleagues and other health professionals"
is:

A. Duty of a physician in general*

B. Duty of a physician to patients
C. Duty of a patient to physician
D. Duty of a physician to colleagues
E. All above-mentioned
30. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged vessel is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise *
C. Slash wound
D. Stab wound
E. Laceration

31. Superficial injury of outer layers of skin is:

A. Abrasion *
B. Bruise
C. Slash wound
D. Stab wound
E. Laceration

32. Sharp-force injury is:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruise
C. Fracture of bone
D. Stab wound *
E. Burning

33. Which sharp wound is deeper than it is long in the skin?

A. Slash wound
B. Stab wound *
C. Laceration
D. Cut wound
E. Abrasion

34. Which sharp wound is longer than it is deep in the tissue?

A. Slash wound*
B. Stab wound
C. Laceration
D. Chop wound
E. Abrasion
35. An injury that breaks the continuity of the skin is:

A. Bruise
B. Wound*
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Hemorrhage

36. Internal rupture of blood vessel is:

A. Laceration
B. Wound
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Hemorrhage*

37. The trauma not caused by objects with cutting edges is:

A. Sharp force trauma

B. Blunt force trauma*
C. Stab wound
D. Slash wound
E. Soft force trauma

38. The trauma caused by objects with cutting edges is:

A. Sharp force trauma*

B. Blunt force trauma
C. Soft force trauma
D. Laceration
E. All above-mentioned

39. At blunt-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:

A. Blows
B. Traction
C. Cutting*
D. Torsion
E. Splitting
40. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied can be:

A. Blows
B. Traction
C. Cutting*
D. Torsion
E. Splitting

41. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:

A. Stabbing
B. Slashing
C. Cutting
D. Torsion*
E. Penetrating

42. Reddening must be distinguished from red bruises by:

A. Shape
B. Color
C. Size
D. Its ability to blanch from finger pressure*
E. Its ability to change location

43. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged blood vessels is:

A. Laceration
B. Wound
C. Abrasion
D. Scratch
E. Bruise*

44. The types of hemorrhages are, except:

A. Petechiae
B. Hematoma
 C. Oedema*
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

45. "Pin-point" hemorrhage is:

A. Petechia*
B. Hematoma
C. Oedema
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

46. A palpable collection of blood under the skin is:

A. Petechia
B. Hematoma*
C. Oedema
D. Ecchymosis
E. Purpura

47. "Patterned" bruises which reproduce the nature of the object that cased them are:

A. Subdural
B. Intramuscular
C. Deep tissue
D. Intradermal*
E. All above-mentioned

48. "Tramline bruises" are caused by object:

A. Long plane
B. Short plane
C. Cylindrical*
D. Round
E. Any of above-mentioned
49. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the object is:

A. Long plane
B. Short plane
C. Cylindrical*
D. Round
E. Any of above-mentioned

50. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the name of injury is:

A. Deep hemorrhage
B. Deep abrasion
C. Laceration
D. Tramline bruise*
E. Purpura

51. The age of yellow-colored bruise is:

A. More than a year

B. More than 18 hours*
C. Less than two hours
D. Three hours
E. All above-mentioned

52. A superficial injury involving outer layers of skin without penetration of full thickness of the
skin is:

A. Abrasion*
B. Bruise
C. Hemorrhage
D. Laceration
E. Contusion

53. Linear abrasion is known as:

A. Bruise
B. Hemorrhage
 C. Scratch *
D. Laceration
E. Contusion

54. An injury of epidermis with drops of blood is:

A. Bruise
B. Hemorrhage
C. Superficial bruise
D. Deep abrasion*
E. Contusion

55. Traction on a rough surface of a road results in:

A. Slash wound
B. "Tram-line" bruise
C. "Brush" abrasion*
D. Purpura
E. Subdural hematoma

56. "Bridging fibers" are characteristic for:

A. Deep abrasions
B. Deep bruises
C. Slash wound
D. Laceration*
E. Contusion

57. Splitting of skin after blunt force compressing results in:

A. Deep abrasions
B. Deep bruises
C. Slash wound
D. Laceration*
E. Contusion
58. The margins of the wound reveal some crushing and bruising, and the inner surface of the
wound shows the presence of bridging fibers. This wound is:

A. Laceration*
B. Slash
C. Stab injected
D. Stab knifing
E. Incised

59. Sharp blade moving across and cutting skin surface causes:

A. Laceration
B. Slash wound*
C. Stab injected wound
D. Stab knifing wound
E. Deep abrasion

60. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, long
and superficial - the wound type is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Stab injected
D. Stab knifing
E. Incised*

61. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, small
superficial damage but deep - the wound type is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab*
E. Incised

62. Incised wound is more dangerous in the region of body:

 A. Head
B. Neck*
C. Thorax
D. Abdomen
E. Spine

63. The subject with only point or tip is causing the wound:

A. Laceration
B. Chop
C. Slash
D. Stab*
E. Incised

64. Once the subject has penetrated the skin, subcutaneous soft tissues offer little additional
resistance and the rest of the subject "follows through" with almost no additional effort - this is
a mechanism of development of:

A. Abrasion
B. Bruising
C. Slashing
D. Stabbing*
E. Chopping

65. The knife with only one cutting edge results is the shape of wound:

A. A-shape
B. B-shape
C. C-shape
D. F-shape
E. V-shape*

66. The depth of a stab wound within the body is greater than the length of the blade - the
damaged region is:

A. Head
B. Face
C. Neck
 D. Abdomen*
E. Spine

67. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with cruciate skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver*
D. Axe
E. All above-mentioned

68. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with Z-shaped skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors*

69. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with small round skin surface wound and no
bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle*
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors

70. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with clean and linear skin surface wound and
no bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife*
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe
E. Scissors
71. Large and deep damage of the skin and other tissues with bridging fibers, with sharp edges
of the wound and bruises and abrasions at the margin, is caused by:

A. Medical needle
B. Knife
C. Screwdriver
D. Axe*
E. Scissors

72. Large and heavy, relatively blunt, bladed instruments are causing the wound:

A. Laceration
B. Chop*
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised

73. A mixture of sharp- and blunt-force wounds features, typically involving bruises and abraded
margins, with fractures or amputations - the wound is:

A. Laceration
B. Chop*
C. Slash
D. Stab
E. Incised

74. The sharp-force injuries are:

A. Punches
B. Kicks
C. Bites
D. Slashes*
E. Grippings

75. The injuries are located on the extensor surfaces of arm and upper arm, and on the palm
surfaces of the hands - the injuries are related to:
 A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense*
D. Falling from height
E. Railway accident

76. The multiple, predominantly parallel and superficial incisions on the left forearm are the
features of:

A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense injuries
D. Falling from height
E. Self-inflicted injuries*

77. The minor injuries are grouped in a single anatomical region, on the contralateral side to the
person's handedness - the pattern can be related to:

A. Sexual assault
B. Road traffic accident
C. Defense injuries
D. Falling from height
E. Self-inflicted injuries*

78. Suspension, electric chock, Falanga, dry submarino - are:

A. Sexual assault methods

B. Road traffic accident results
C. Defense injuries
D. Torture methods*
E. Self-inflicted injuries

79. Severe beating of the soles of the feet, with consequent hematoma is:

A. Positional torture
B. Sexual assault
C. Falanga*
D. Wet submarino
 E. Palestinian hanging

80. Cheera and Parrot's Perch are:

A. Types of bruises
B. Positional torture methods*
C. Signs of wet submarino
D. Sharp-force wounds
E. Forms of Falanga

81. Immersing the victim's head in a container full of water until the person almost drowns is:

A. Falanga
B. Cheera
C. Wet submarino*
D. Positional torture
E. Telephono

82. "Dry Submarino” is:

A. Classical sign of asphyxia

B. Sign of dry lung drowning
C. Method of torture *
D. Immersion sign
E. Type of illicit drug

83. Istanbul Protocol is:

A. Manual for personal identification

B. Manual on effective documentation of torture *
C. International protocol for autopsy techniques
D. Protocol for Evidence Obtaining
E. CSI international manual and protocol

84. Subdural hemorrhage is associated with damage of:

A. Meningeal artery
B. Carotid artery
 C. Communicating vein *
D. Jugular vein
E. Basilary artery

85. Coup and Contrecoup injuries are:

A. Vertebral injuries
B. Cervical spinal injuries
C. Methods of torture
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhages *
E. Parts of gunshot wound

86. Whiplash injury is caused by:

A. Whipping for punishment

B. Torture methods
C. Fracture of femur
D. Hyperextension of the neck *
E. Biting by police button

87. Muzzle mark develops at shooting from:

A. Contact distance *
B. Close distance
C. Intermediate distance
D. Far distance
E. Very far distances

88. Smoke soiling, powder, skin and hair burn points to distance:

A. 5 cm *
B. 30 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 1m
E. 50 m

89. Stellate appearance wound, with everted edges and split flaps, is:
 A. Slash wound
B. Stab wound
C. Entrance wound
D. Exit wound *
E. Lacerated wound

90. Semen can be detected in the vagina up to:

A. 3 days
B. 7 days *
C. 14 days
D. 20 days
E. One year

91. Semen can be detected in the rectum up to:

A. 3 days *
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 20 days
E. One year

92. Types of child abuse, except:

A. Neglect
B. Emotional Abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Economical abuse *
E. Sexual abuse

93. The persistent failure to meet a child’s basic physical or psychological needs is:

A. Neglect *
B. Emotional Abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Economical abuse
E. Sexual abuse
94. The pattern of child abuse case involves signs, except:

A. Delay of medical treatment

B. Apply to different doctors
C. Injuries mostly on extremities *
D. Multiplicity of injuries
E. Difference of story and medical findings

95. Anal findings at sexual abuse not include:

A. Perineal erythema
B. Anal bruising
C. Anal fissures
D. Perineal scars
E. Reflex anal contraction *

96. “Bumper Injury” is:

A. Fracture of cervical spine

B. Fracture of femur *
C. Fracture of L3-L4 vertebra
D. Laceration of foot
E. Non above-mentioned

97. Secondary injury is:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Bumper injury”
C. Bonnet injury
D. “Brush abrasions” *
E. “Flail chest”

98. Skidding across the surface of the road results in:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Bumper injury”
C. Bonnet injury
D. “Brush abrasions” *
E. “Flail chest”
99. Stripping off large areas of skin and subcutaneous tissue by rotating wheel is:

A. Tyre mark on the skin

B. “Flaying injury” *
C. Bonnet injury
D. “Brush abrasions”
E. “Flail chest”

100. “Flail Chest” is:

A. Protruded chest, congenital

B. Compression asphyxia mechanism
C. Multiple rib fractures by compression *
D. Bonnet injury
E. Flaying injury in chest region

1. The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:

K. Napoleonic system
L. Continental system
M. Common law system *
N. General law system
O. Proper law system

2. The dispute between individuals is covered by the law:

A. Napoleonic
B. Civil *
C. Criminal
D. Administrative
E. All above-named

3. Cases between the state and the individual are covered by the law:
A. Napoleonic
B. Civil
C. Criminal*
D. Administrative
E. All above-named
4. Prosecutor does not work on:
K. Criminal case
L. Suicide case
M. Murder case
N. Rape case
O. Civil case *

5. Prosecutor is the part of:

F. administrative case
G. Suicide case*
H. property inheritance case
I. compensation case
J. Civil case

6. Plaintiff is the part of:

F. Criminal case
G. Suicide case
H. Murder case
I. Rape case
J. Civil case *

7. Offences against public interest are involved in:

F. administrative case
G. criminal case*
H. property inheritance case
I. compensation case
J. Civil case

8. Public safety and security of the state is the subject of:

F. administrative case
G. criminal case*
H. property inheritance case
I. compensation case
J. Civil case
9. "Beyond reasonable doubt" is a principle of:

F. administrative case
G. criminal case*
H. property inheritance case
I. compensation case
J. Civil case

10. "The balance of probabilities" is a principle for:

F. Criminal case
G. Suicide case
H. Murder case
I. Rape case
J. Civil case *

11. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

K. Regular witness
L. Judge
M. Professional witness
N. Expert witness *
O. Eye witness

12. The factual medical evidence is given by:

F. Regular witness
G. Judge
H. Professional witness*
I. Expert witness
J. Eye witness

13. An affidavit is a:

F. CSI recording
G. Report from the scene
 H. Medical report
I. Sworn statement *
J. Non above-mentioned

14. "Examination in chief" in done by:

F. Judge
G. The lawyer who "called" the witness*
H. The opposing lawyer
I. Jury member
J. All above-mentioned

15. Confirming the truth of the facts in the statement is an aim of:

F. Taking the oath

G. Swearing in
H. Examination in Chief*
I. Cross examination
J. Re-examination

16. "Cross examination" in done by:

F. Judge
G. The lawyer who "called" the witness
H. The opposing lawyer*
I. Jury member
J. All above-mentioned

17. "Re-examination" in done by:

F. Judge
G. The lawyer who "called" the witness*
H. The opposing lawyer
I. Jury member
J. All above-mentioned

18. The facts and opinions given will be tested in:

 F. Taking the oath
G. Swearing in
H. Examination in Chief
I. Cross examination*
J. Re-examination

19. To clarify information but not introduce new topics is the aim of:

F. Taking the oath

G. Swearing in
H. Examination in Chief
I. Cross examination
J. Re-examination*

20. The old forensic adage for witnesses is:

F. "dress up, stand up, speak up and shut up"*

G. "dress up, stand up, speak up and smile up"
H. "dress up, stand up, sit down and shut up"
I. "dress up, hands up, speak up and hands down"
J. "stand up, speak up, shut up and sit down"

21. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

K. Patient autonomy
L. Non-maleficence
M. Poverty *
N. Dignity
O. Honesty

22. International codes of medical ethics are adopted by:

F. WHO
G. UN
H. WMA*
I. GMA
J. UNICEF
23. "Respect a competent patient's right to accept or refuse treatment" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

24. "Always exercise independent professional judgment" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

25. "Maintain the highest standards of professional conduct" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

26. "Not allow your judgment to be influenced by personal profit or unfair discrimination" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

27. "Certify only that which you have personally verified" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned
28. "Not receive any financial benefits solely for prescribing specific products" is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

29. "Respect the rights and preferences of patients, colleagues and other health professionals"
is:

F. Duty of a physician in general*

G. Duty of a physician to patients
H. Duty of a patient to physician
I. Duty of a physician to colleagues
J. All above-mentioned

30. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged vessel is:

F. Abrasion
G. Bruise *
H. Slash wound
I. Stab wound
J. Laceration

31. Superficial injury of outer layers of skin is:

F. Abrasion *
G. Bruise
H. Slash wound
I. Stab wound
J. Laceration

32. Sharp-force injury is:

F. Abrasion
G. Bruise
H. Fracture of bone
 I. Stab wound *
J. Burning

33. Which sharp wound is deeper than it is long in the skin?

F. Slash wound
G. Stab wound *
H. Laceration
I. Cut wound
J. Abrasion

34. Which sharp wound is longer than it is deep in the tissue?

F. Slash wound*
G. Stab wound
H. Laceration
I. Chop wound
J. Abrasion

35. An injury that breaks the continuity of the skin is:

F. Bruise
G. Wound*
H. Abrasion
I. Scratch
J. Hemorrhage

36. Internal rupture of blood vessel is:

F. Laceration
G. Wound
H. Abrasion
I. Scratch
J. Hemorrhage*

37. The trauma not caused by objects with cutting edges is:

F. Sharp force trauma

 G. Blunt force trauma*
H. Stab wound
I. Slash wound
J. Soft force trauma

38. The trauma caused by objects with cutting edges is:

F. Sharp force trauma*

G. Blunt force trauma
H. Soft force trauma
I. Laceration
J. All above-mentioned

39. At blunt-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:

F. Blows
G. Traction
H. Cutting*
I. Torsion
J. Splitting

40. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied can be:

F. Blows
G. Traction
H. Cutting*
I. Torsion
J. Splitting

41. At sharp-force injury the nature of the force applied cannot be:

F. Stabbing
G. Slashing
H. Cutting
I. Torsion*
J. Penetrating
42. Reddening must be distinguished from red bruises by:

F. Shape
G. Color
H. Size
I. Its ability to blanch from finger pressure*
J. Its ability to change location

43. Discoloration of skin surface caused by leakage of blood into underlying tissues from
damaged blood vessels is:

F. Laceration
G. Wound
H. Abrasion
I. Scratch
J. Bruise*

44. The types of hemorrhages are, except:

F. Petechiae
G. Hematoma
H. Oedema*
I. Ecchymosis
J. Purpura

45. "Pin-point" hemorrhage is:

F. Petechia*
G. Hematoma
H. Oedema
I. Ecchymosis
J. Purpura

46. A palpable collection of blood under the skin is:

F. Petechia
G. Hematoma*
H. Oedema
I. Ecchymosis
 J. Purpura

47. "Patterned" bruises which reproduce the nature of the object that cased them are:

F. Subdural
G. Intramuscular
H. Deep tissue
I. Intradermal*
J. All above-mentioned

48. "Tramline bruises" are caused by object:

F. Long plane
G. Short plane
H. Cylindrical*
I. Round
J. Any of above-mentioned

49. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the object is:

F. Long plane
G. Short plane
H. Cylindrical*
I. Round
J. Any of above-mentioned

50. If blood is forced laterally from the point of impact, rupturing blood vessels either side of the
impacting object, the name of injury is:

F. Deep hemorrhage
G. Deep abrasion
H. Laceration
I. Tramline bruise*
J. Purpura

51. The age of yellow-colored bruise is:

 F. More than a year
G. More than 18 hours*
H. Less than two hours
I. Three hours
J. All above-mentioned

52. A superficial injury involving outer layers of skin without penetration of full thickness of the
skin is:

F. Abrasion*
G. Bruise
H. Hemorrhage
I. Laceration
J. Contusion

53. Linear abrasion is known as:

F. Bruise
G. Hemorrhage
H. Scratch *
I. Laceration
J. Contusion

54. An injury of epidermis with drops of blood is:

F. Bruise
G. Hemorrhage
H. Superficial bruise
I. Deep abrasion*
J. Contusion

55. Traction on a rough surface of a road results in:

F. Slash wound
G. "Tram-line" bruise
H. "Brush" abrasion*
I. Purpura
J. Subdural hematoma
56. "Bridging fibers" are characteristic for:

F. Deep abrasions
G. Deep bruises
H. Slash wound
I. Laceration*
J. Contusion

57. Splitting of skin after blunt force compressing results in:

F. Deep abrasions
G. Deep bruises
H. Slash wound
I. Laceration*
J. Contusion

58. The margins of the wound reveal some crushing and bruising, and the inner surface of the
wound shows the presence of bridging fibers. This wound is:

F. Laceration*
G. Slash
H. Stab injected
I. Stab knifing
J. Incised

59. Sharp blade moving across and cutting skin surface causes:

F. Laceration
G. Slash wound*
H. Stab injected wound
I. Stab knifing wound
J. Deep abrasion

60. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, long
and superficial - the wound type is:

F. Laceration
 G. Chop
H. Stab injected
I. Stab knifing
J. Incised*

61. The sharp edges, with no bruising or abrasion of the wound margins, no bridging fibers, small
superficial damage but deep - the wound type is:

F. Laceration
G. Chop
H. Slash
I. Stab*
J. Incised

62. Incised wound is more dangerous in the region of body:

F. Head
G. Neck*
H. Thorax
I. Abdomen
J. Spine

63. The subject with only point or tip is causing the wound:

F. Laceration
G. Chop
H. Slash
I. Stab*
J. Incised

64. Once the subject has penetrated the skin, subcutaneous soft tissues offer little additional
resistance and the rest of the subject "follows through" with almost no additional effort - this is
a mechanism of development of:

F. Abrasion
G. Bruising
H. Slashing
 I. Stabbing*
J. Chopping

65. The knife with only one cutting edge results is the shape of wound:

F. A-shape
G. B-shape
H. C-shape
I. F-shape
J. V-shape*

66. The depth of a stab wound within the body is greater than the length of the blade - the
damaged region is:

F. Head
G. Face
H. Neck
I. Abdomen*
J. Spine

67. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with cruciate skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

F. Medical needle
G. Knife
H. Screwdriver*
I. Axe
J. All above-mentioned

68. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with Z-shaped skin surface wound and a bruise
at the margin is caused by:

F. Medical needle
G. Knife
H. Screwdriver
I. Axe
J. Scissors*
69. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with small round skin surface wound and no
bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

F. Medical needle*
G. Knife
H. Screwdriver
I. Axe
J. Scissors

70. Deep penetration of the skin and soft tissues, with clean and linear skin surface wound and
no bruise or abrasion at the margin is caused by:

F. Medical needle
G. Knife*
H. Screwdriver
I. Axe
J. Scissors

71. Large and deep damage of the skin and other tissues with bridging fibers, with sharp edges
of the wound and bruises and abrasions at the margin, is caused by:

F. Medical needle
G. Knife
H. Screwdriver
I. Axe*
J. Scissors

72. Large and heavy, relatively blunt, bladed instruments are causing the wound:

F. Laceration
G. Chop*
H. Slash
I. Stab
J. Incised

73. A mixture of sharp- and blunt-force wounds features, typically involving bruises and abraded
margins, with fractures or amputations - the wound is:

F. Laceration
 G. Chop*
H. Slash
I. Stab
J. Incised

74. The sharp-force injuries are:

F. Punches
G. Kicks
H. Bites
I. Slashes*
J. Grippings

75. The injuries are located on the extensor surfaces of arm and upper arm, and on the palm
surfaces of the hands - the injuries are related to:

F. Sexual assault
G. Road traffic accident
H. Defense*
I. Falling from height
J. Railway accident

76. The multiple, predominantly parallel and superficial incisions on the left forearm are the
features of:

F. Sexual assault
G. Road traffic accident
H. Defense injuries
I. Falling from height
J. Self-inflicted injuries*

77. The minor injuries are grouped in a single anatomical region, on the contralateral side to the
person's handedness - the pattern can be related to:

F. Sexual assault
G. Road traffic accident
H. Defense injuries
I. Falling from height
 J. Self-inflicted injuries*

78. Suspension, electric chock, Falanga, dry submarino - are:

F. Sexual assault methods

G. Road traffic accident results
H. Defense injuries
I. Torture methods*
J. Self-inflicted injuries

79. Severe beating of the soles of the feet, with consequent hematoma is:

F. Positional torture
G. Sexual assault
H. Falanga*
I. Wet submarino
J. Palestinian hanging

80. Cheera and Parrot's Perch are:

F. Types of bruises
G. Positional torture methods*
H. Signs of wet submarino
I. Sharp-force wounds
J. Forms of Falanga

81. Immersing the victim's head in a container full of water until the person almost drowns is:

F. Falanga
G. Cheera
H. Wet submarino*
I. Positional torture
J. Telephono

82. "Dry Submarino” is:

F. Classical sign of asphyxia

G. Sign of dry lung drowning
 H. Method of torture *
I. Immersion sign
J. Type of illicit drug

83. Istanbul Protocol is:

F. Manual for personal identification

G. Manual on effective documentation of torture *
H. International protocol for autopsy techniques
I. Protocol for Evidence Obtaining
J. CSI international manual and protocol

84. Subdural hemorrhage is associated with damage of:

F. Meningeal artery
G. Carotid artery
H. Communicating vein *
I. Jugular vein
J. Basilary artery

85. Coup and Contrecoup injuries are:

F. Vertebral injuries
G. Cervical spinal injuries
H. Methods of torture
I. Subarachnoid hemorrhages *
J. Parts of gunshot wound

86. Whiplash injury is caused by:

F. Whipping for punishment

G. Torture methods
H. Fracture of femur
I. Hyperextension of the neck *
J. Biting by police button

87. Muzzle mark develops at shooting from:

 F. Contact distance *
G. Close distance
H. Intermediate distance
I. Far distance
J. Very far distances

88. Smoke soiling, powder, skin and hair burn points to distance:

F. 5 cm *
G. 30 cm
H. 50 cm
I. 1m
J. 50 m

89. Stellate appearance wound, with everted edges and split flaps, is:

F. Slash wound
G. Stab wound
H. Entrance wound
I. Exit wound *
J. Lacerated wound

90. Semen can be detected in the vagina up to:

F. 3 days
G. 7 days *
H. 14 days
I. 20 days
J. One year

91. Semen can be detected in the rectum up to:

F. 3 days *
G. 7 days
H. 14 days
I. 20 days
J. One year
92. Types of child abuse, except:

F. Neglect
G. Emotional Abuse
H. Physical abuse
I. Economical abuse *
J. Sexual abuse

93. The persistent failure to meet a child’s basic physical or psychological needs is:

F. Neglect *
G. Emotional Abuse
H. Physical abuse
I. Economical abuse
J. Sexual abuse

94. The pattern of child abuse case involves signs, except:

F. Delay of medical treatment

G. Apply to different doctors
H. Injuries mostly on extremities *
I. Multiplicity of injuries
J. Difference of story and medical findings

95. Anal findings at sexual abuse not include:

F. Perineal erythema
G. Anal bruising
H. Anal fissures
I. Perineal scars
J. Reflex anal contraction *

96. “Bumper Injury” is:

F. Fracture of cervical spine

G. Fracture of femur *
H. Fracture of L3-L4 vertebra
I. Laceration of foot
J. Non above-mentioned
97. Secondary injury is:

F. Tyre mark on the skin

G. “Bumper injury”
H. Bonnet injury
I. “Brush abrasions” *
J. “Flail chest”

98. Skidding across the surface of the road results in:

F. Tyre mark on the skin

G. “Bumper injury”
H. Bonnet injury
I. “Brush abrasions” *
J. “Flail chest”

99. Stripping off large areas of skin and subcutaneous tissue by rotating wheel is:

F. Tyre mark on the skin

G. “Flaying injury” *
H. Bonnet injury
I. “Brush abrasions”
J. “Flail chest”

100. “Flail Chest” is:

F. Protruded chest, congenital

G. Compression asphyxia mechanism
H. Multiple rib fractures by compression *
I. Bonnet injury
J. Flaying injury in chest region

. The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:

P. Napoleonic system
Q. Continental system
 R. Common law system *
S. General law system
T. Proper law system

2. Plaintiff is the part of:

P. Criminal case
Q. Suicide case
R. Murder case
S. Rape case
T. Civil case *

3. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

P. Regular witness
Q. Judge
R. Professional witness
S. Expert witness *
T. Eye witness

4. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

P. Patient autonomy
Q. Non-maleficence
R. Poverty *
S. Dignity
T. Honesty

5. Confidentiality may not apply, if requested by:

F. Relative
G. Lawyer
H. Law *
I. Spouse
J. Children

6. Which type of consent does not exist?

 F. Implied
G. Applied *
H. Expressed
I. Informed
J. Non above-mentioned

7. Cessation of respiration and metabolic activity in the body tissues is:

F. Somatic death
G. Cellular death *
H. Clinical death
I. Brain death
J. Vegetative state

8. Death Certificate does not include information about:

F. Date of death
G. Place of death
H. Cause of death
I. Mechanism of death *
J. Non above-mentioned

9. Personal identification is not possible by:

F. DNA profiling
G. Dental structures
H. Fingerprints
I. Blood groups *
J. Tattoos

10. Which bone is used for sex estimation?

F. Humerus
G. Ulna
H. Pelvis *
I. Talus
J. Phalanx
11. The early post-mortem change is:

F. Mummification
G. Putrefaction
H. Autolysis *
I. Hemolysis
J. Non above-mentioned

12. The early post-mortem change is not:

F. Rigor mortis
G. Autolysis
H. Lividity
I. Cooling
J. Adipocere *

13. Rigor mortis is result of:

F. Increase of PH in body
G. ATP accumulation
H. Biochemical changes of albumins
I. Lactic acid accumulation *
J. Oxygen accumulation

14. Post-mortem hypostasis is:

F. Relaxed position of body after death

G. The passive settling of red blood cells in the lowest areas of body *
H. Massive hemorrhage in lower parts of body
I. Enzymatic degradation of body after death
J. Rapid drying of the body after death

15. Cherry pink color of lividity spots points to:

F. Cyanide poisoning
G. Carbon monoxide poisoning *
H. Asphyxia
I. Clostridium perfringens
J. Drowning
16. Bronze lividity spots points to:

F. Cyanide poisoning
G. Carbon monoxide poisoning
H. Asphyxia
I. Clostridium perfringens *
J. Drowning

17. Green discoloration of right iliac fossa of the anterior abdominal wall is the sigh of:

F. Autolysis
G. Rigor mortis
H. Putrefaction *
I. Carbon monoxide poisoning
J. Asphyxia

18. Body fat hydrolysis to a waxy compound happens at:

F. Mummification
G. Putrefaction
H. Rigor mortis
I. Adipocere *
J. Skeletalization

19. Mummification occurs at:

F. High humidity
G. Deep water
H. High temperature *
I. Under snow
J. In the river

20. Henssge’s Nomogram is used for estimation of:

F. Body temperature
G. Time since death *
H. Position of body before death
 I. Position of body after death
J. Cause of death

21. Drowning signs are, except:

F. Foam around mouth and nose

G. Diatom test positive in bone marrow
H. Excessive hypervolemia
I. “Degloving” of the skin of the hand *
J. Paultauf’s spots

22. Signs of ante-mortem burning are, except:

F. Finding of soot in deep airways

G. Burning of deep airways
H. “Boxer position” *
I. High content of CO-hemoglobin in blood
J. Tissue reactions at burning borders

23. Sign of ante-mortem burning is:

F. “Pugilist attitude”
G. Splitting of skin
H. Burning of deep airways *
I. Heat-related fractures
J. Extradural hemorrhage

24. Signs of hypothermia death are, except:

F. Purple skin discoloration over large joints

G. Wischnewsky spots
H. Hemorrhagic erosions in small bowel
I. Necrosis of myocardium *
J. “Hide and die syndrome”

25. Purple skin discoloration over large joints is a sign of:

F. Hanging
 G. Traumatic asphyxia
H. Hypothermia death *
I. First degree of burning
J. Cyanide poisoning

26. Wischnewsky spots are:

F. Petechial hemorrhages under pericardium in asphyxia

G. Hemorrhagic gastric lesions in hypothermia *
H. Black spots in deep airways in burning
I. Petechial hemorrhages in eyes in Asphyxia
J. Bruises on the neck in manual strangulation

27. “Hide and die syndrome” happens at:

F. Neglect
G. Child abuse
H. Burning in fire
I. Autoerotic asphyxia
J. Hypothermia death *

28. Collapsed blister, with raised rim and concave center, with areola of pallor is:

F. First degree burning

G. Trophic ulcer
H. Frostbite
I. Electric lesion *
J. Herpes zoster

29. The electric lesion has signs, except:

F. “Crocodile skin”
G. Raised rim
H. Concave center
I. Soot around lesion *
J. Areola of pallor
30. Lichtenberg figure is:

F. Atypical strangulation line

G. Fern-like patterns on the skin in lightning *
H. Spark burns by electricity
I. Complex frostbite on feet
J. Tyre-marks on body in run-over mechanism of trauma

31. Fern-like patterns on the skin develop at:

F. Manual strangulation
G. Burning in fire
H. Putrefaction
I. Railway accidents
J. Lightning *

32. If increasingly large doses of the drug produce less and less effect, it is called:

F. Idiosyncrasy
G. Synergy
H. Tolerance *
I. Dependence
J. Poisoning

33. Unanticipated, inappropriate and excessive reaction on drug is called:

F. Idiosyncrasy *
G. Synergy
H. Tolerance
I. Dependence
J. Poisoning

34. Chain of custody is:

F. Torture method
G. Type of handcuffs
H. Restraint device
I. Management of evidences *
J. Method of personal identification
35. STR-based technology is a method of:

F. Drowning diagnosis
G. Blood alcohol concentration measurement
H. Fingerprinting for identification
I. DNA identification *
J. Time of death estimation

36. Kastle-Meyer test is for detection of:

F. DNA
G. Blood *
H. Semen
I. Saliva
J. Urine

37. Loops, Whorls and Arches are used in:

F. DNA identification
G. Strangulation diagnosis
H. Hanging differential diagnosis
I. Fingerprints *
J. Chain of custody documentation

38. The cartridge parts are, except:

F. Muzzle *
G. Case or shell
H. Primer cup
I. Bullet
J. Gun powder

39. Forensic entomology is:

F. The application of knowledge about insects to assist in legal investigations *

G. The application of knowledge about death to assist in legal investigations
H. The application of knowledge about bones to assist in legal investigations
 I. The application of knowledge about diatoms to assist in legal investigations
J. Non above-mentioned

40. Forensic Odontologists can not assist in:

F. Human identification
G. Ageing estimation
H. Bite marks interpretation
I. Bone examination *
J. Tooth examination

A ligature mark on the neck directed obliquely upwards on the both sides are seen in
hanging with a: *
1/1

A. Fixed loop with a single knot in midline at the back of the head

B. Running nose
C. Fixed loop with a knot in the region of one ear
D. Low point suspension
E. Moving loop application

All of the following characteristics of ligature mark of hanging, Except: *

1/1

A. It is usually oblique
B. It does not completely encircle the neck
C. It is usually seen high up on the neck
D. The base is soft and reddish

Fractures can be caused by only a direct force to the bone *

1/1

A. True
B. False

Bridging of wound is indicative for which of the following injury? *

1/1

A. Slash wounds
B. Incision
C. Contusions
D. Lacerations

E. Abrasions

In case of typical hanging, post-mortem hypostasis is seen in: *

1/1

A. Legs and feet

B. Face
C. Abdomen
D. Back of the body

A child hot drowned in a pod. The most characteristic finding at autopsy is: *
0/1

A. Washerwoman’s hand
B. Cutis anserine
C. Froth at mouth and in the respiratory passage
D. Death gloves
E. All above named

Correct answer
C. Froth at mouth and in the respiratory passage

Traumatic asphyxia results from: *

1/1

A. Injury to the head

B. Crushing of the chest and abdomen

C. Crushing of lower limbs

D. Fall from the height on the buttocks
E. Strangulation of the neck

Which bone gives a highest accuracy in terms of the estimation of the sex of the
bones? *
1/1

A. Pelvis
B. Ulna
C. Femur
D. Humerus
E. Sacrum

Name, Surname: *

ANTRA DEEP SHRIVASTAVA

The fern-like branching pattern of skin discoloration is characteristic for: *

1/1

A. Lightening

B. Hypothermia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Scalds
E. Burns

Forensic Entomology deals with the study of: *

1/1

A. Bones.
B. Softtissues.
C. Organs.
D. Insects

E. Integument

A gunshot wound with muzzle stamp, burned powder found in the subcutaneous
tissues and radiating splitting the tissue surrounding the wound with stellate
morphology is caused by a gunshot wound of? *
1/1

A. Intermediate range
B. Close discharge
C. Long range
D. Contact wound

E. All of the above

Passport Number *

Z3940344

All of the following are cause of traumatic asphyxia, EXCEPT: *

1/1
A. Gross compression of the chest and head
B. Stampede in a crowd
C. Falls of earth or stone during tunnelling
D. Gross compression of the head

E. Falling a large heavy subject during earthquake

Hypovolaemia is characteristic for: *

1/1

A. Fresh water drowning

B. Sea water drowning

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

An acute Subdural Haemorrhage SDH: *

1/1

A. Is always associated with the skull fracture

B. Does not occur over the parietal bone
C. Is caused by rupture of cerebral artery
D. Is caused by direct mechanical force
E. Is caused by rupture of communicating veins

Fracture dislocation of cervical spine without decapitation is caused by: *

1/1

A. Spasmatic hanging
B. Typical hanging.
C. Judicial hanging

D. Complete hanging
E. Incomplete/ partial hanging

If person A intentionally penetrates the vagina or anus of another person (B) with his
part of the body or anything else is called: *
1/1

A. Rape
B. Assault by penetration

C. Torture
D. Negligence
E. None of the above
Intima of carotid arteries is usually ruptured in: *
1/1

A. Hanging

B. Ligature strangulation
C. Traumatic asphyxia
D. Drowning

Ring fracture of the skull *

1/1

A. Commonly follows assaults with blunt weapons

B. Force fragments of the skull inward
C. Is known to occur falling from the height on the top of the skull or onto the feet

D. Occurs on the parietal bones

E. Is commonest in pedestrians

In hanging death occurs due to: *

1/1

A. Blocking of the jugular veins

B. Blocking of carotid arteries
C. Blocking of vertebral arteries
D. A and B

E. B and C

Haemorrhagic gastric lesion which can be seen in hypothermia are called: *

1/1

A. Wishnewsky spots

B. Tardieu Spots
C. Paultauf’s spots
D. Ligature mark
E. None of the above

Absence of foam in drowning can be found in: *

1/1

A. Dry drowning
B. Immersion
C. Wet Drowning
D. A and B

E. B and C
The first internal sign of putrefaction is usually a discoloration seen on: *
1/1

A. Bases of lungs
B. Base of brain
C. Lower surface of kidneys
D. Under surface of liver

E. Under surface of spleen

Hanging is defined as: *

1/1

A. suspension of the body by a ligature around the neck, body weight acting as constricting force

B. Suspension of the body by ligature after death

C. Obliteration of air passages by external factors
D. Mechanical interference to respiration
E. Obliteration of air passages by hands

Microscopy of the lung reveals alveolar distention, haemorrhage and rupture, and
narrowed capillaries has been proposed as a sign of: *
1/1

A. Drowning

B. Suffocation
C. Smothering
D. Chocking
E. Hanging

Electrolyte dilution and hypervolemia is characteristic for: *

1/1

A. Fresh water drowning

B. Sea water drowning

C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

At autopsy, a body was found to have froth from the nose and mouth which increased
on compression of the chest. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death? *
1/1

A. Opioid poisoning
B. Hanging
C. Drowning

D. Cyanide poisoning
E. Immersion

Forensic Archaeology deals with the study of: *

1/1

A. Bones
B. Location, recovery and interpretation of the buried evidence

C. Insects
D. Pollens, spores
E. Diatoms

Burning of the full thickness of the epidermis and exposure to the dermis is classified
as: *
1/1

A. First degree burning

B. Second degree burning

C. Third degree burning

D. Fourth degree burning
E. None of the above

Washerwomen’s hands indicates that death was due to ante mortem drowning: *
0/1

A. True

B. False

Correct answer
B. False

Skin injuries where superficial epithelial layer is removed due to friction against a rough
surface or by compression are called: *
1/1

A. Contusions
B. Lacerations
C. Fractures
D. Chop injuries
E. Abrasions
Horizontal ligature mark in the neck is seen in: *
1/1

A. Hanging
B. Throttling
C. Strangulation by ligature

D. Choking
E. Café coronary

In a completely charred body, at autopsy, medical officer can say that the burns are
ante mortem, if he can find: *
1/1

A. Cyanosis of fingernails
B. Congestion of organs
C. Pale internal organs
D. Soot in respiratory passages

E. Gall bladder full of bile

If a clean hand moves through blood staining on the surface, the resulting stain is
termed a: *
1/1

A. Swipe
B. Wipe

C. Cast off
D. Impact spatter
E. Downward drips

Which of the following is correct order in terms of “asphyxial episodes”? *

1/1

A. Gasping phase, convulsive phase, dyspnoea phase, terminal phase;

B. Preterminal respiratory phase, gasping phase, dyspnoea phase, terminal phase;
C. Dyspnoea phase, convulsive phase, pre-terminal respiratory phase, gasping for breath,
terminal phase

D. Dyspnoea phase, gasping for breath, convulsive phase, pre-terminal respiratory phase,
terminal phase;
E. Preterminal respiratory phase, gasping phase, dyspnoea phase, convulsive phase, terminal
phase.

In suffocation, petechial haemorrhages may be seen in: *

0/1

A. pericardium
B. Peritoneum
C. Meninges
D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Correct answer
A. pericardium

Intrapulmonary left to right shunt is seen in: *

1/1

A. Dry drowning
B. Fresh water drowning

C. Salt water drowning

D. Primary drowning
E. Secondary drowning syndrome

Hypervolemia is seen in: *

1/1

A. Freshwater drowning

B. Saltwater drowning
C. Dry drowning
D. Immersion
E. Hanging

In fire death the carboxyhaemoglobin level decreases: *

1/1

A. True
B. False

If food enters the larynx during swallowing causes gross chocking symptoms. However,
individual may die silently and quickly. This condition is called? *
1/1

A. Smothering
B. Drowning
C. Chocking
D. Café coronary
E. None of the above

Injury which tent to be irregular with abraded, contused margins: *

0/1

A. Fracture
B. Incised wound
C. Contusion

D. Laceration
E. Stab wound

Correct answer
D. Laceration
This form was created inside of Batumi Shota Rustaveli State University.

Forms

1. The defense does not have to prove innocence until found guilty in:

U. Napoleonic system
V. Continental system
W. Common law system *
X. General law system
Y. Proper law system

2. Plaintiff is the part of:

U. Criminal case
V. Suicide case
W. Murder case
X. Rape case
Y. Civil case *

3. Expert Opinion about the case expresses:

 U. Regular witness
V. Judge
W. Professional witness
X. Expert witness *
Y. Eye witness

4. Medical Ethics embraces subjects, except:

U. Patient autonomy
V. Non-maleficence
W. Poverty *
X. Dignity
Y. Honesty

5. Confidentiality may not apply, if requested by:

K. Relative
L. Lawyer
M. Law *
N. Spouse
O. Children

6. Which type of consent does not exist?

K. Implied
L. Applied *
M. Expressed
N. Informed
O. Non above-mentioned

7. Cessation of respiration and metabolic activity in the body tissues is:

K. Somatic death
L. Cellular death *
M. Clinical death
N. Brain death
O. Vegetative state
8. Death Certificate does not include information about:

K. Date of death
L. Place of death
M. Cause of death
N. Mechanism of death *
O. Non above-mentioned

9. Personal identification is not possible by:

K. DNA profiling
L. Dental structures
M. Fingerprints
N. Blood groups *
O. Tattoos

10. Which bone is used for sex estimation?

K. Humerus
L. Ulna
M. Pelvis *
N. Talus
O. Phalanx

11. The early post-mortem change is:

K. Mummification
L. Putrefaction
M. Autolysis *
N. Hemolysis
O. Non above-mentioned

12. The early post-mortem change is not:

K. Rigor mortis
L. Autolysis
M. Lividity
N. Cooling
O. Adipocere *
13. Rigor mortis is result of:

K. Increase of PH in body
L. ATP accumulation
M. Biochemical changes of albumins
N. Lactic acid accumulation *
O. Oxygen accumulation

14. Post-mortem hypostasis is:

K. Relaxed position of body after death

L. The passive settling of red blood cells in the lowest areas of body *
M. Massive hemorrhage in lower parts of body
N. Enzymatic degradation of body after death
O. Rapid drying of the body after death

15. Cherry pink color of lividity spots points to:

K. Cyanide poisoning
L. Carbon monoxide poisoning *
M. Asphyxia
N. Clostridium perfringens
O. Drowning

16. Bronze lividity spots points to:

K. Cyanide poisoning
L. Carbon monoxide poisoning
M. Asphyxia
N. Clostridium perfringens *
O. Drowning

17. Green discoloration of right iliac fossa of the anterior abdominal wall is the sigh of:

K. Autolysis
L. Rigor mortis
M. Putrefaction *
 N. Carbon monoxide poisoning
O. Asphyxia

18. Body fat hydrolysis to a waxy compound happens at:

K. Mummification
L. Putrefaction
M. Rigor mortis
N. Adipocere *
O. Skeletalization

19. Mummification occurs at:

K. High humidity
L. Deep water
M. High temperature *
N. Under snow
O. In the river

20. Henssge’s Nomogram is used for estimation of:

K. Body temperature
L. Time since death *
M. Position of body before death
N. Position of body after death
O. Cause of death

21. Drowning signs are, except:

K. Foam around mouth and nose

L. Diatom test positive in bone marrow
M. Excessive hypervolemia
N. “Degloving” of the skin of the hand *
O. Paultauf’s spots

22. Signs of ante-mortem burning are, except:

K. Finding of soot in deep airways

 L. Burning of deep airways
M. “Boxer position” *
N. High content of CO-hemoglobin in blood
O. Tissue reactions at burning borders

23. Sign of ante-mortem burning is:

K. “Pugilist attitude”
L. Splitting of skin
M. Burning of deep airways *
N. Heat-related fractures
O. Extradural hemorrhage

24. Signs of hypothermia death are, except:

K. Purple skin discoloration over large joints

L. Wischnewsky spots
M. Hemorrhagic erosions in small bowel
N. Necrosis of myocardium *
O. “Hide and die syndrome”

25. Purple skin discoloration over large joints is a sign of:

K. Hanging
L. Traumatic asphyxia
M. Hypothermia death *
N. First degree of burning
O. Cyanide poisoning

26. Wischnewsky spots are:

K. Petechial hemorrhages under pericardium in asphyxia

L. Hemorrhagic gastric lesions in hypothermia *
M. Black spots in deep airways in burning
N. Petechial hemorrhages in eyes in Asphyxia
O. Bruises on the neck in manual strangulation
27. “Hide and die syndrome” happens at:

K. Neglect
L. Child abuse
M. Burning in fire
N. Autoerotic asphyxia
O. Hypothermia death *

28. Collapsed blister, with raised rim and concave center, with areola of pallor is:

K. First degree burning

L. Trophic ulcer
M. Frostbite
N. Electric lesion *
O. Herpes zoster

29. The electric lesion has signs, except:

K. “Crocodile skin”
L. Raised rim
M. Concave center
N. Soot around lesion *
O. Areola of pallor

30. Lichtenberg figure is:

K. Atypical strangulation line

L. Fern-like patterns on the skin in lightning *
M. Spark burns by electricity
N. Complex frostbite on feet
O. Tyre-marks on body in run-over mechanism of trauma

31. Fern-like patterns on the skin develop at:

K. Manual strangulation
L. Burning in fire
M. Putrefaction
N. Railway accidents
O. Lightning *
32. If increasingly large doses of the drug produce less and less effect, it is called:

K. Idiosyncrasy
L. Synergy
M. Tolerance *
N. Dependence
O. Poisoning

33. Unanticipated, inappropriate and excessive reaction on drug is called:

K. Idiosyncrasy *
L. Synergy
M. Tolerance
N. Dependence
O. Poisoning

34. Chain of custody is:

K. Torture method
L. Type of handcuffs
M. Restraint device
N. Management of evidences *
O. Method of personal identification

35. STR-based technology is a method of:

K. Drowning diagnosis
L. Blood alcohol concentration measurement
M. Fingerprinting for identification
N. DNA identification *
O. Time of death estimation

36. Kastle-Meyer test is for detection of:

K. DNA
L. Blood *
M. Semen
 N. Saliva
O. Urine

37. Loops, Whorls and Arches are used in:

K. DNA identification
L. Strangulation diagnosis
M. Hanging differential diagnosis
N. Fingerprints *
O. Chain of custody documentation

38. The cartridge parts are, except:

K. Muzzle *
L. Case or shell
M. Primer cup
N. Bullet
O. Gun powder

39. Forensic entomology is:

K. The application of knowledge about insects to assist in legal investigations *

L. The application of knowledge about death to assist in legal investigations
M. The application of knowledge about bones to assist in legal investigations
N. The application of knowledge about diatoms to assist in legal investigations
O. Non above-mentioned

40. Forensic Odontologists can not assist in:

K. Human identification
L. Ageing estimation
M. Bite marks interpretation
N. Bone examination *
O. Tooth examination