Module 1

Differential Calculus-1
 Rolle’s theorem-geometrical interpretation
 Lagrange’s and Cauchy’s mean value theorems (with proof and
geometrical interpretation).
 Taylor’s and MacLaurin’s series expansions for function of one
variable.
 Indeterminate forms – L’Hospital’s rule (without proof)

Taylor’s and Maclaurin’s series expansions for function of one

variable:
The infinite series expansion of a differentiable function y=f (x ) about the point x=a will be a
series in powers of x−a known as Taylor’s series expansion.
' ( x−a )2 ' ' ( x−a )3 ' ' '
f ( x )=f ( a ) + ( x−a ) f ( a ) + f (a )+ f ( a ) +…
2! 3!
This is called Taylor’s series expansion of f (x) about point ‘a’.
Another form of Taylor’s Theorem:
h 2 '' h n−1 n−1 hn
f (a+h )=f (a )+hf ' (a )+ f (a )+−−−+ f (a )+ f n ( a+θh)
2! (n−1 )! n1 , 0<θ <1

In particular, if a=0 we have,

( x )2 ' ' ( x )3 ' ' '
f ( x )=f ( 0 ) + ( x ) f ' ( 0 ) + f ( 0)+ f ( 0 )+ …
2! 3!
This is called Maclaurin’s series expansion of f (x).
Note: For convenience we shall use the following alternate notation,
y (x ) for f (x) and y 1 ( x ) , y 2 ( x ) , y 3 ( x ) … respectively for f ' ( x ) , f ' ' ( x ) , f '' ' ( x ) … so that we have,
( x−a )2 ( x −a )3
y ( x )= y ( a ) + ( x−a ) y1 ( a )+ y2( a) + y 3 ( a )+ … [Taylor’s expansion]
2! 3!
( x )2 ( x )3
y ( x )= y ( 0 ) + ( x ) y 1 ( 0 ) + y 2 ( 0 )+ y (0)… [Maclaurin’s expansion]
2! 3! 3
Worked Problems:
1. Obtain the Taylor’s series expansion of log x about x=1 up to the term containing
fourth degree and hence obtain log (1.1).
Solution: Taylor’s series expansion about x=a is given by,
 ' ( x −a )2 ' ' ( x−a )3 ' ' ( x−1 )4 IV
f ( x )=f ( a ) + ( x−a ) f ( a ) + f ( a ) +. f ' ( a) + f ( a ) . . .. .. . ..
2! 3! 4! (1)

Let f ( x )=log x and a=1

( x−1 )2 '' ( x−1 )3 '' ' ( x−1 )4 IV

∴ f ( x)=f ( 1 ) + ( x−1 ) f ' ( 1 ) + f ( 1 )+ f (1 )+ f ( 1 ) . . .. .. . ..
2! 3! 4!

Let f ( x )=log x ⇒ f (1)=log 1=0

' 1 '
f ( x )= ⇒ f ( 1 )=1
x
'' 1 ''
f ( x )=− 2
⇒ f ( 1 )=−1
x
'' ' 2 ' ''
f ( x )= 3
⇒ f ( 1 )=2
x
6
f IV ( x ) =− 4
⇒ f IV ( 1 ) =−6 .
x
Substituting the derivative values in Taylor’s series expansion we get,
( x −1 )2 ( x−1 )3 ( x −1 )4
log x=0+ ( x−1 ) . 1+ (−1 ) + ( 2) + (−6 )+. . .. .. .
2 6 24

( x−1 )2 ( x−1 )3 ( x−1 )4

log x=( x−1 )− + − +. .. .. . .
Thus 2 3 4

( 0 .1 )2 ( 0 . 1 )3 ( 0 .1 ) 4
log (1 . 1)=0 . 1− + − = 0 .0953
For x=1 .1 , 2 3 4

( ).
4
π π
x− x−
2. Expand sin x in powers of 2 up to the term containing 2
π
x−
Solution: Let us expand sin x in powers of 2 for that we have

f ( x )=sin x , (f
π
2)
=1 ,
f ' ( x )=cos x , (
f'
2)
π
=0 ,

f '' ( )=−1 , f ''' ( )=0 ,

π π
f ''( x )=−sin x , 2 f '''( x )=−cos x , 2
 v
f ' ( x )=sin x ,
f 'v ( π2 )=1 ,
Now using Taylor’s series

(
π
x− x−) π 2
( x− )
π 3
x− (
π 4
) ( )
f ( x ) =f
π
2( )
+ ( )
1!
2
f'
π
2
+
2
2!
f ''
π
2
+
3!
2
( ) ( )
f '''
π
2
+
4!
2
f 'v
π
2
+.. . ( )
f ( x ) =1+
( ) ( )
x−
π
2
(0 )+
x−
π 2
2
(−1)+
x−
π 3
2
(0 )+
x−( ) ( )
π 4
2
(1)+. ..
1! 2! 3! 4!

sin x=1−
x− (
π 2
2
+
x−
2) (
π 4
+. ..
)
2! 4!
π
x=
3. Obtain Taylor’s series for the function logcos x about 3 up to the fourth degree
term.
π
x=
Solution: Taylor’s series expansion at 3 is given by,

y (x) = y ( )( ) ( )
π
3
π
+ x− y 1
3
π ( x−π /3 )2
3
+
2!
y2
π ( x−π /3 )3
3
+
3!
y3
3
+ ()
π ( x−π /3 )4
4!
y4
π
3
+.. . .. () ()
Let y ( x )=cos x

Therefore
y ()
π
3
= log cos
π
3 [ ( )] ( )
= log
1
2
= −log 2

y 1=
1
cos x
π
(−sin x ) ⇒ y 1=−tan x ⇒ y 1 3 =−tan
π
√3
=− √3() ( )
⇒ y ( )=−[ 1+ ( √ 3 ) ] =−4
π 2
2
y 2 =−sec x =−( 1+ tan x ) ⇒ y 2=−( 1+
2 2
y 21 ) 3

y 3 =−2 y 1 y 2
⇒ y3 () π
3
=−2−√ 3 (−4 ) =−8 √ 3

y 4 =−2 [ y 1 y 3 + y 22 ]
⇒ y4 ( π3 )=−2 [−√ 3 (−8 √3+16)] =−80
 ( ) . 4− ( ) . 8 √3− ( ) . 80+. .. .. .
2 3 4
π π π
x− x− x−
logcos x=−log2− x − ( ) π
3
√ 3−
2
3
6
3
24
3

π 2 4
( ) ( )
π 3 10
( ) ( )
4
π π
logcos x=−log2−√ 3 x− −2 x− − x− − x−
Thus 3 3 √3 3 3 3

4.
sin ( x4 +h) 4
in ascending powers of ‘h ’ upto the term containing h and
Expand
hence deduce an approximate value of sin 500.
h2
f ( a+h )=f ( a )+hf ' ( a )+ +. .. .
Taylor’s series expansion is given by 2!
Solution:

Taking
a=
4, 4 ( ) ( )
π f π +h = sin π +h ⇒ f ( x ) = sin x
4

Therefore,
f ( ) () ()
π
4
+h = f
π
4
+h f
' π
+ f
4 2!
+ f
4 3! ()
h2 ' ' π h3 ' '' π h 4 IV π
+ f
4 4! 4 ()
+.. . .. . ()
⇒f ( ) =
π 1
Consider f ( x )=sin x 4 √2
f ( )=
' π 1
'
f ( x )=cos x 4 √2
y ( ) =−
π 1
2
''
f ( x )=−sin x 4 √2
f ( )=−
π
'' ' 1
'' '
f  ( x )=−cos x 4 √2
⇒f ( ) =
π
IV 1
f IV
( x )=sin x 4 √2
 ∘
Taking h=5 , that is
h = 5. (180π ) = 0.087
⇒ sin50∘=0 . 7659 .
cos x
5. Obtain the MacLaurin’s series of expansion for the function e
2
x
Solution: Let y ( x )= y ( 0 ) + x y 1 ( 0 ) + y 2 ( 0 ) +…
2!

Here y=e
cos x
⇒ y ( 0)=e cos0 =e

y 1 =e cos x (−sin x ) ⇒ y 1 ( 0 )=0

y 2 =( sin 2 x ) ecos x−e cos x cos x ,⇒ y 2 ( 0 )=−e

y3
=ecos x ( 32 sin 2 x+sin x−sin x) ⇒ y (0 )=0
3
3

x2 x3 x4
e cos x = y (0)+ xy 1 (0)+ y 2 (0)+ y 3 (0)+ y 4 (0)+............
2! 3! 4!
cos x x2 x4
e =e− (e)+ ( 4e)−+−−−
2! 4!
6. Obtain the MacLaurin’s series of expansion for the functionlog (1+sin x )
2
x
Solution: Let y ( x )= y ( 0 ) + x y 1 ( 0 ) + y 2 ( 0 ) +…
2!
y=ln(1+sin x )
Let

cos x −1 y =cos x
y 1= y 2= 3
1+sin x , 1+ sin x , (1+sin x )2 ;
We get y (0 )=0 , y 1 ( 0)=1 , y 2 ( 0)=−1 & y 3 =−2
x2 x3
y= y (0)+xy 1 (0)+ y 2 (0)+ y 3 (0)+...........
2! 3!
 x2 x3
y=0+x (1)+ (−1)+ (−2)+......
2 3.2
x2 x3
y=x − − +.. . .. .. . .. .
2 3
−1
7. Obtain the MacLaurin’s series of expansion for the function sin x
2
x
Solution: Let y ( x )= y ( 0 ) + x y 1 ( 0 ) + y 2 ( 0 ) +…
2!
−1
y=sin x ⇒ y ( 0)=0
1
y 1=
√1−x 2  y 1 ( 0)=1

√ 1−x 2 y 1=1 or ( 1−x 2 ) y 21 =1

Differentiate with respect to x again we get
( 1−x 2 ) 2 y1 y 2−2 y 2 x =0 2
1 or ( 1−x ) y 2− y 1 x=0 ⇒ y 2 ( 0)=0
Now differentiating above again w.r. t x, we obtain
( 1−x 2 ) y 3 + y 2 (−2 x )− [ x y 2+ y 1 1 ]=0
( 1−x 2 ) y 3−3 x y 2− y 1=0
Put x=0 , we have y 3 ( 0 )−0−1=0⟹ y 3 ( 0 )=1

Now differentiating above again w.r. t x, we obtain

( 1−x 2 ) y 4 + y3 (−2 x )−3 [ x y 3 + y 1 1 ]− y 2=0
( 1−x 2 ) y 4 −5 x y 3−4 y 2=0
Put x=0 , we have y 4 ( 0 )−0−0=0 ⟹ y 4 ( 0 )=0

Now differentiating above again w.r. t x, we obtain

( 1−x 2 ) y 5 + y 4 (−2 x )−5 [ x y 4 + y 3 1 ]−4 y 3=0
( 1−x 2 ) y 5−7 x y 4−9 y 3=0
Put x=0 , we have y 5 ( 0 )−0−9.1=0 ⟹ y5 ( 0 )=0
Substituting these values in the expansion of y (x ) we have,
2 3 4 5
−1 x x x x
sin x=0+ x .1+ .0+ .1+ .0+ .9
2 6 24 120
3 5
x 3x
Thus, sin−1 x=x + +
6 40