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PMP Dumps

Project Management Professional

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 1)
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 1)
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?

A. Time series
B. Judgmental
C. Econometric
D. Simulation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 1)
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 1)
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

A. tangible
B. targeted
C. organized
D. variable

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 1)
What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?

A. Project management office

B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 1)
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 1)
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
- (Topic 1)
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional managers and manager of project managers

B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?

A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Topic 1)
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix

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D. Organizational Breakdown Structures

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 23
- (Topic 1)
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 26
- (Topic 1)
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?

A. Project sponsor and project manager

B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 30
- (Topic 1)
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit
the project is known as:

A. recognition and rewards

B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 39
- (Topic 1)
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 41
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

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A. change control tools

B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 42
- (Topic 1)
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team

B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 43
- (Topic 1)
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 1)
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope description

B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 55
- (Topic 1)
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.
C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 60
- (Topic 1)
High-level project risks are included in which document?

A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 64
- (Topic 1)

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Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A. project staff assignments

B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 67
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A. prototypes.
B. expert judgment.
C. alternatives identification.
D. product analysis.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 71
- (Topic 1)
Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Exploit

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 1)
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 78
- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.

B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 81
- (Topic 1)
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 1)
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system
is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 84
- (Topic 1)
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?

A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 86
- (Topic 1)
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 87
- (Topic 1)
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 91
- (Topic 1)
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 94
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 99
- (Topic 1)
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Topic 1)
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A. Root cause analysis.

B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 107

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 108

- (Topic 1)
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Topic 1)
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 115

- (Topic 1)
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 117

- (Topic 1)
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist.
C. risk register.
D. contract type.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 1)
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

A. Plan Stakeholder Management

B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Topic 1)
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 124

- (Topic 1)
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project document updates

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 1)
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 134

- (Topic 1)
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 135

- (Topic 1)
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 138

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 1)
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Topic 1)
Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?

A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 145

- (Topic 1)
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 149

- (Topic 1)
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 154

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work

B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Topic 1)
What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Project document updates

B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 161

- (Topic 1)
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Topic 1)
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes

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D. Project scope statement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 168

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 169

- (Topic 1)
The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B. Develop a risk register for risk planning.
C. Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 172

- (Topic 1)
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 174

- (Topic 1)
What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 177

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 178

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 180

- (Topic 1)
What is project management?

A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

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B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 185

- (Topic 1)
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 189

- (Topic 1)
In which process group is the scope first defined?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Controlling

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 194

- (Topic 1)
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 1)
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 202

- (Topic 1)
Project management processes ensure the:

A. alignment with organizational strategy

B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 207

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

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A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 213

- (Topic 1)
For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

B. Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.
C. Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.
D. Determining which particular processes are appropriate.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 218

- (Topic 1)
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 221

- (Topic 1)
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 222

- (Topic 1)
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Topic 1)
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Topic 1)
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 229

- (Topic 1)
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 234

- (Topic 1)
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A. Information management systems

B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 239

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 244

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 247

- (Topic 1)

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Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A. Configuration management plan

B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 248

- (Topic 1)
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A. performance measurement criteria

B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 249

- (Topic 1)
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 250

- (Topic 1)
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A. Project management plan.

B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 254

- (Topic 1)
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 258

- (Topic 1)
The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The
engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 263

- (Topic 1)
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A. Project Cost Management

B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 264

- (Topic 1)
The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?

A. Project finance management

B. Project cost estimation
C. Project life cycle definition
D. Project plan development

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 265

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 269

- (Topic 1)
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 270

- (Topic 1)
In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?

A. When the project charter is signed

B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 273

- (Topic 1)
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 277

- (Topic 1)
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 281

- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 283

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 285

- (Topic 2)
An input to the Identify Risks process is the:

A. Risk register.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Communications management plan.
D. Risk management plan.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 286

- (Topic 2)
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 289

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

A. Direct and Manage Project Work

B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 294

- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is
known as:

A. Develop Project Team.

B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 295

- (Topic 2)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 300

- (Topic 2)
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 301

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 304

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 308

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 312

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 315

- (Topic 2)

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Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships?

A. Force field diagrams

B. Cause-and-effect diagrams
C. Affinity diagrams
D. Nominal group techniques

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 316

- (Topic 2)
During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 321

- (Topic 2)
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times
and locations?

A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
D. A-C-E-G

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 2)
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 332

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- (Topic 2)
Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 335

- (Topic 2)
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This
issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A. risk management plan

B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 337

- (Topic 2)
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 339

- (Topic 2)
At which stage of the project should certain factors such as the unavailability of human resources due to constraint be considered?

A. Initiation
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 342

- (Topic 2)
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 347

- (Topic 2)
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 352

- (Topic 2)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 356

- (Topic 2)
Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A. Cost management plan

B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 361

- (Topic 2)
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:

A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 366

- (Topic 2)
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A. cultural differences of team members

B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 368

- (Topic 2)
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 372

- (Topic 2)
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 373

- (Topic 2)
The staffing management plan is part of the:

A. organizational process assets.

B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 376

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 378

- (Topic 2)
An input of the Create WBS process is:

A. requirements documentation.
B. scope baseline.
C. project charter.
D. validated deliverables.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 380

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project scope statement

B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 383

- (Topic 2)
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 387

- (Topic 2)
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A. Before the Define Activities process

B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 391

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 395

- (Topic 2)
Which items are components of a project management plan?

A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 399

- (Topic 2)
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A. expert judgment.
B. rolling wave planning.
C. work performance information.
D. specification.

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 402

- (Topic 2)
Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and
ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 404

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 408

- (Topic 2)
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 412

- (Topic 2)
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 413

- (Topic 2)
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 418

- (Topic 2)
The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:

A. Formal plans and procedures

B. Lessons learned and historical information
C. Guidelines and knowledge bases
D. Stakeholder positions and their influence

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 423

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a
basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 427

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 432

- (Topic 2)
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 436

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 439

- (Topic 2)
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 442

- (Topic 2)
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in
the:

A. Cost management plan.

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B. Work performance information.

C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 443

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 444

- (Topic 2)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 449

- (Topic 2)
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A. dictionary.
B. chart.
C. report.
D. register.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 453

- (Topic 2)
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half
of the work has
been completed. What is the cost variance?

A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 457

- (Topic 2)
During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 460

- (Topic 2)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 462

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- (Topic 2)
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 464

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 465

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 467

- (Topic 2)
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 470

- (Topic 2)
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A. enterprise environmental factors

B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan

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D. the stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 475

- (Topic 2)
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 477

- (Topic 2)
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 480

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 481

- (Topic 2)
Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

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A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 482

- (Topic 2)
An output of the Create WBS process is:

A. Scope baseline.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486

- (Topic 2)
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 487

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A. Acquisition
B. Negotiation

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C. Virtual team
D. Pre-assignment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 492

- (Topic 2)
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and
provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 493

- (Topic 2)
What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number

B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 498

- (Topic 2)
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 499

- (Topic 2)
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A. triangular distribution
B. tornado diagram
C. beta distribution
D. fishbone diagram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 504

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A. 10

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B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 505

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Para metric

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 509

- (Topic 2)
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 513

- (Topic 2)
A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:

A. decomposition
B. expert judgment
C. inspection
D. variance analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 518

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?

A. Control accounts
B. Milestones
C. Management points
D. Measurement points

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 522

- (Topic 2)
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 527

- (Topic 2)
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 529

- (Topic 2)
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

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A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 532

- (Topic 2)
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions,
and services meet
the procurement documents requirements?

A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 533

- (Topic 2)
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A. expert judgment and change requests.

B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Topic 2)
Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?

A. Strategic
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operational

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 538

- (Topic 2)
While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In
which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A. Communications management plan

B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 543

- (Topic 2)
The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Executing
D. Initiating

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 544

- (Topic 2)
Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 548

- (Topic 2)
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 552

- (Topic 2)
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define
Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 554

- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 558

- (Topic 2)
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 561

- (Topic 2)
"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 562

- (Topic 2)
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 563

- (Topic 2)
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account
throughout the project?

A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 567

- (Topic 2)
Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan.

B. Manage Project Team.
C. Develop Project Team.
D. Acquire Project Team.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 572

- (Topic 3)
At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 577

- (Topic 3)
An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. project management plan updates

B. project staff assignments updates
C. team performance assessments
D. resource calendar updates

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 578

- (Topic 3)
The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:

A. Create WBS.
B. Verify Scope.
C. Collect Requirements.
D. Define Scope.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 580

- (Topic 3)
A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A. There is a cost underrun.

B. There is a cost overrun.
C. The project may not meet the deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 581

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?

A. Intranet sites
B. Voice mails
C. Video conferences
D. Press releases

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 584

- (Topic 3)
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis

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D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 586

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 587

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 589

- (Topic 3)
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A. Arrow Diagram.
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM).
C. Activity-On-Node (AON).
D. schedule network diagram.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 593

- (Topic 3)
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 597

- (Topic 3)
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 602

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?

A. Records management system

B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 603

- (Topic 3)
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A. majority rule technique.

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B. nominal group technique.

C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 605

- (Topic 3)
The project manager for XYZ stationers is sequencing the activities for the project to set up a new office. It is known from knowledge of best practices that it is
better to wait for the painters to finish painting the walls before the new floors are installed. This is an example of which of the following types of dependency?

A. Precedence
B. Discretionary
C. External
D. Mandatory

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 607

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following methods of performance review examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A. Earned value performance

B. Trend analysis
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Variance analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 609

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 610

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 611

- (Topic 3)
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 612

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the
Integrated Change Control process?

A. Configuration definition, configuration status accounting, configuration monitoring and control

B. Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit
C. Configuration identification, configuration status reporting, configuration verification and audit
D. Configuration definition, configuration status reporting, configuration monitoring and Control

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 613

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- (Topic 3)
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality
Assurance?

A. Organizational process updates

B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 615

- (Topic 3)
After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A. Estimate Activity Resources.

B. Estimate Activity Durations,
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Control Schedule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 619

- (Topic 3)
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Risk Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 620

- (Topic 3)
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 623

- (Topic 3)
A process is defined as:

A. A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.

B. A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.
C. The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.
D. A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 624

- (Topic 3)
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A. Project document updates

B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 626

- (Topic 3)
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 631

- (Topic 3)
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 634

- (Topic 3)
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 636

- (Topic 3)
Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?

A. Project files and corporate knowledge base

B. Templates, and processes and procedures
C. Standards, and processes and procedures
D. Corporate knowledge base and processes and procedures

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 637

- (Topic 3)
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A. Process analysis and expert judgment

B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 642

- (Topic 3)
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A. expert judgment
B. seller proposals
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 646

- (Topic 3)
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 650

- (Topic 3)
Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?

A. Project team
B. Portfolio manager
C. Project manager
D. Project management office

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 652

- (Topic 3)
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 653

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 656

- (Topic 3)
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. organization charts.
B. ground rules.
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 660

- (Topic 3)
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate
approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.

B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 663

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?

A. Project document update

B. Control chart
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Organizational process asset update

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 667

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 669

- (Topic 3)
What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 671

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

A. Recommended corrective actions

B. Recommended preventive actions
C. Risk audits
D. Risk reassessments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 676

- (Topic 3)
A car company authorized a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages. With which of the following strategic considerations was this
project mainly concerned?

A. Market demand
B. Legal requirements
C. Strategic Opportunity
D. Technological advance

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 677

- (Topic 3)
Typical outcomes of a project include:

A. Products, services, and improvements.

B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 679

- (Topic 3)
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 680

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and
performance?

A. Communications methods
B. Reporting systems
C. Forecasting methods
D. Variance analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 681

- (Topic 3)
The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A. Executing.
B. Initiating,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Planning.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 682

- (Topic 3)
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

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B. Perform Quality Control

C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 686

- (Topic 3)
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 691

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a schematic display of the project’s schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?

A. Gantt chart
B. Project schedule network diagram
C. Project milestone list
D. Activity list

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 695

- (Topic 3)
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 699

- (Topic 3)
An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 700

- (Topic 3)
What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Assessed probability and impact
C. Expert judgment
D. Risk Identification

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 705

- (Topic 3)
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 708

- (Topic 3)
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

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A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 711

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input of the Define Activities process?

A. Scope baseline
B. Milestone list
C. Resource calendars
D. Activity list

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 716

- (Topic 3)
An output of the Create WBS process is:

A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 718

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 721

- (Topic 3)
What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

A. Work Packages
B. Activities
C. Schedules
D. Tasks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 723

- (Topic 3)
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 724

- (Topic 3)
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 727

- (Topic 3)

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A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence
Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 730

- (Topic 3)
Project Management Process Groups are linked by:

A. the outputs they produce

B. discrete or one-time events
C. the project management plan
D. common tools and techniques

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 733

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 734

- (Topic 3)
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time
zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A. Urgent information need

B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 738

- (Topic 3)
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level
is called:

A. a control chart.
B. baseline.
C. Create WBS.
D. decomposition.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 739

- (Topic 3)
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A. Only once, at the beginning

B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 744

- (Topic 3)
A Pareto chart is a specific type of:

A. control chart
B. histogram
C. cause-and-effect diagram
D. scatter diagram

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 749

- (Topic 3)
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 753

- (Topic 3)
Project management processes are:

A. Static; they must not change across different projects.

B. Applied globally and across all industry groups.
C. Discrete elements with well-defined interfaces.
D. Project phases, applied as required in different projects.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 754

- (Topic 3)
Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:

A. decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders.

B. decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded.
C. increased likelihood of project failure.
D. increased likelihood of project success.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 755

- (Topic 3)
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 757

- (Topic 3)
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. cause and effect diagram.

B. control chart.
C. flowchart.
D. histogram.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 762

- (Topic 3)
The Human Resource Management processes are:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 764

- (Topic 3)
In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 769

- (Topic 3)
Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:

A. Inputs to other processes.

B. Proof of process completion.
C. Identification of project tasks.
D. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 774

- (Topic 3)
Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A. Share
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 779

- (Topic 3)
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A. Work performance reports.

B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 783

- (Topic 3)
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization.

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches.
C. state what is out of scope.
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 786

- (Topic 3)
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 788

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurements process?

A. Risk register, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project schedule
B. Risk register, scope baseline, make-or-buy decisions, organizational process assets, project schedule
C. Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, enterprise environmental factors, teaming agreements
D. Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, make-or-buy decisions, teaming agreements

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 793

- (Topic 3)
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 794

- (Topic 3)
Inputs to the Define Activities process include:

A. Project scope statement, resource calendars, and work performance information.

B. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
C. Project scope statement, approved change requests, and WBS dictionary.
D. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 796

- (Topic 3)
The run chart created during the Perform Quality Control process on a project is used to show the:

A. relationship between two variables

B. data points plotted in the order in which they occur
C. most common cause of problems in a process
D. frequency of occurrence

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 798

- (Topic 3)
Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

A. Co-location team
B. Virtual team
C. Departmental team
D. Consultant team

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 800

- (Topic 3)
The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:

A. Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) chart.

B. Matrix-based chart.
C. Human resource chart.
D. Hierarchical-type chart.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 802

- (Topic 3)
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A. The project management plan.

B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 807

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 811

- (Topic 3)
Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project
management processes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

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C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 816

- (Topic 3)
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A. Vendor bid analysis

B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 818

- (Topic 3)
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 823

- (Topic 3)
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?

A. There is a cost under run.

B. There is a cost overrun.
C. May not meet deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 824

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 829

- (Topic 3)
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 834

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?

A. Risk analysis
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk management
D. Risk attitude

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 838

- (Topic 3)
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

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A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 841

- (Topic 3)
Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

A. Portfolio manager
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Project management office

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 846

- (Topic 3)
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 850

- (Topic 3)
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 851

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Activities
B. Milestone list
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Work packages

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 856

- (Topic 3)
To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 860

- (Topic 3)

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Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

A. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-D
B. Begin-A-B-C-D-E-End
C. Begin-A-B-D-E-End A-C-D
D. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-C

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 861

- (Topic 3)
Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 866

- (Topic 3)
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 870

- (Topic 3)
The Plan Procurements process includes documenting project purchasing decisions and what other steps?

A. Specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers

B. Specifying the approach and selecting a seller
C. Identifying potential sellers and obtaining seller responses
D. Specifying the approach and managing procurement relationships

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 871

- (Topic 3)
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the
decomposition of the scope?

A. Activity network diagrams

B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 875

- (Topic 3)
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

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A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 877

- (Topic 3)
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A. Monitor the stakeholder.

B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 882

- (Topic 3)
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 884

- (Topic 3)
Team performance assessments is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Develop Human Resource Plan

B. Perform Quality Control
C. Develop Project Team
D. Manage Project Team

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 886

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related
contract?

A. Product scope description

B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 890

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A. Product analysis
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Project scope statement

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 891

- (Topic 3)
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A. A risk urgency assessment.

B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 896

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- (Topic 3)
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 900

- (Topic 3)
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

A. Clear role definition

B. Negotiation
C. Risk response planning
D. Team member replacement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 902

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 905

- (Topic 3)
Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process?

A. Risk response planning

B. Manage stakeholders
C. Scope definition
D. Performance reporting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 906

- (Topic 3)
Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A. Conduct Procurements.
B. Close Procurements.
C. Administer Procurements,
D. Plan Procurements.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 909

- (Topic 3)
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project
management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 914

- (Topic 3)
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 915

- (Topic 4)
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 920

- (Topic 4)
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 925

- (Topic 4)
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 927

- (Topic 4)
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 928

- (Topic 4)
An input to the Control Quality process is:

A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 929

- (Topic 4)
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 931

- (Topic 4)
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 933

- (Topic 4)
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 934

- (Topic 4)
What are the key components of the communication model?

A. Encode, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and decode

B. Encode, messaging technology, medium, noise, and decode
C. Sender, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and translate
D. Receiver, message and feedback-message, medium, noise, and decode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 936

- (Topic 4)
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 938

- (Topic 4)
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 942

- (Topic 4)
On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 946

- (Topic 4)
Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 948

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A. Technical performance measurement

B. Cost performance baseline
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost of quality

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 950

- (Topic 4)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 953

- (Topic 4)
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 957

- (Topic 4)
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 960

- (Topic 4)
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

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Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A. -2,000
B. 1,000
C. 2,000

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 964

- (Topic 4)
An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A. A requirements traceability matrix.

B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 966

- (Topic 4)
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 971

- (Topic 4)
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates

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D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 972

- (Topic 4)
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A. Change control tools

B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 973

- (Topic 4)
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 974

- (Topic 4)
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning

B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 977

- (Topic 4)
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 978

- (Topic 4)
The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A. in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B. out of the hands of the customer.
C. in a specified range of acceptable results.
D. out of the process.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 983

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and
operational definitions are used?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 988

- (Topic 4)
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

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A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 990

- (Topic 4)
Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are
required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Executing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 994

- (Topic 4)
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200

A. 0.67
B. 1.5
C. 0.75
D. 0.5

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 997

- (Topic 4)
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1002

- (Topic 4)
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A. Work performance data

B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1003

- (Topic 4)
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A. expert judgment and change requests

B. work performance information and change requests
C. project management plan updates and work performance information
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1005

- (Topic 4)
As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of
the following methods?

A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1008

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- (Topic 4)
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1012

- (Topic 4)
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1016

- (Topic 4)
Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. Critical path method

B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1019

- (Topic 4)
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1024

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1025

- (Topic 4)
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is
collected: Actual cost
= $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1030

- (Topic 4)
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A. Risk response planning

B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting
D. Manage stakeholders

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 1034

- (Topic 4)
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1037

- (Topic 4)
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1040

- (Topic 4)
Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A. prevention over inspection.

B. statistical sampling.
C. management responsibility,
D. continuous improvement.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1042

- (Topic 4)
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost
(AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A. Cost variance (CV)

B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1046

- (Topic 4)
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1049

- (Topic 4)
Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. ControlSchedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Develop Schedule

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1054

- (Topic 4)
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event.
B. response,
C. perception.
D. impact.

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1057

- (Topic 4)
The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.
D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1060

- (Topic 4)
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A. The best use of communication methods.

B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1062

- (Topic 4)
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1064

- (Topic 4)
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1069

- (Topic 4)
When does risk monitoring and control occur?

A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1074

- (Topic 4)
Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1075

- (Topic 4)
A tool or technique used during the Administer Procurements process is:

A. Expert judgment.
B. Bidder conference.
C. Procurement negotiation.

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D. Performance reporting.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1077

- (Topic 4)
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1082

- (Topic 4)
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1086

- (Topic 4)
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as
the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A. budget at completion (BAC)

B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1091

- (Topic 4)
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1095

- (Topic 4)
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Control Costs
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Determine Budget

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1097

- (Topic 4)
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1099

- (Topic 4)
Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

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A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline
C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline
D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1103

- (Topic 4)
What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers become more involved.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1105

- (Topic 4)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1109

- (Topic 4)
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1114

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1118

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any
performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1120

- (Topic 4)
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1123

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- (Topic 4)
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment.

B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1124

- (Topic 4)
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1127

- (Topic 4)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1131

- (Topic 4)
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1134

- (Topic 4)
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1139

- (Topic 4)
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1144

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Project management information system

B. Product analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Inspection

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 1149

- (Topic 5)
At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this
project create?

A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1151

- (Topic 5)
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1155

- (Topic 5)
The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A. requirements documentation.
B. project scope statement.
C. project management plan.
D. work performance measurements.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1157

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Three-point estimate
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expected monetary value analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1162

- (Topic 5)
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation,
this causes which type of total float?

A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1167

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A. Rolling wave planning

B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1169

- (Topic 5)
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1171

- (Topic 5)
Types of internal failure costs include:

A. inspections.
B. equipment and training.
C. lost business.
D. reworking and scrapping.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1172

- (Topic 5)
The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A. sponsor
B. customer
C. business partners
D. functional managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1173

......

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