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DLSU-D RFBT_Mock Final Term Exam
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Question 1 correct 1 1
Question 2 correct 1 1
Question 3 correct 1 1
Question 4 correct 1 1
Question 5 correct 1 1
Question 6 correct 1 1
Question 7 correct 1 1
Question 8 correct 1 1
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Question 11 correct 1 1
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Question 16 correct 1 1
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Question 18 correct 1 1
Question 19 correct 1 1
Question 20 correct 1 1
Question 21 correct 1 1
Question 22 correct 1 1
Question 23 correct 1 1
Question 24 correct 1 1
Question 25 correct 1 1
Question 26 correct 1 1
Question 27 correct 1 1
Question 28 correct 1 1
Question 29 correct 1 1
Question 30 correct 1 1
Question 31 correct 1 1
Question 32 correct 1 1
Question 33 correct 1 1
Question 34 correct 1 1
Question 35 correct 4 4
Question 36 correct 1 1
Question 37 correct 1 1
Question 38 correct 1 1
Question 39 correct 1 1
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Question 41 correct 1 1
Question 42 correct 1 1
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Question 49 correct 1 1
Question 50 correct 1 1
Score: (100%) 53 53
1. What is the most appropriate type of protection for toy designs of
Yoda and R2D2?
• Invention
• Utility Model
• Industrial Design (correct answer, your response)
• None of the above
Points earned: 1 out of 1
2. This is a type of trademark that gives hint at some quality or character
of the product at issue without actually describing the product.
• Suggestive (correct answer, your response)
• Arbitrary
• Coined/Fanciful
• Descriptive
Points earned: 1 out of 1
3. The following are the functions of a trademark, EXCEPT:
• Advertising function
• Source identifier
• Quality indicator
• None of the above (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
4. In Section 21 of R.A. No. 8293 or Intellectual Property Code of the
Philippines, an invention can be patented if it is (1) new or novel, (2)
has an inventive step, and (3) _______.
• A discovery, scientific theory and mathematical method
• An Aesthetic creation
• Industrially Applicable (correct answer, your response)
A method of performing mental acts, playing games or doing
•
business
Points earned: 1 out of 1
5. This intellectual property right protection is given to a composition of
lines or colors or any three dimensional form, giving a special
appearance to and can serve as pattern for an industrial product or
handicraft.
• Layout-Design of Integrated Circuit
• Invention Patent
• Industrial Design (correct answer, your response)
• Utility Model
Points earned: 1 out of 1
6. The term of protection for a utility model is:
• 10 years from the date of the filing of the application
• 5 years from the date of the filing of the application
• 20 years from the date of the filing of the application
7 years from the date of the filing of the application (correct
•
answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
7. What protects the aesthetic features of an article of manufacture?
• Industrial Design (correct answer, your response)
• Copyright
• Patents
• Trademarks
• Utility models
Points earned: 1 out of 1
8. The Philippine Flag is not a registrable mark.
• True (correct answer, your response)
• False
Points earned: 1 out of 1
9. The trademark protection allowed by IPOPHL protects the mark only
in the Philippines.
• True (correct answer, your response)
• False
Points earned: 1 out of 1
10. Z commissioned X and Y to paint a wall at the main lobby of his
building. Z provided for the materials. After the completion of the
project, Z fully paid the artists fee X and Y. Who will own the copyright
in the aforesaid painting?
• X, Y, and Z own the copyright.
• Only X own the copyright.
• Only Y owns the copyright.
• X and Y own the copyright. (correct answer, your response)
• Z owns the copyright.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
11. To determine whether a trademark has been infringed, we must
consider the mark as a whole and not as dissected. If the buyer is
deceived, it is attributable to the marks as a totality, not usually to any
part of it.
• b. Dominancy test
• a. Holistic test (correct answer, your response)
• d. Vital test
• c. Visible test
Points earned: 1 out of 1
12. A data privacy violation is considered to be large scale if:
• a. the personal information of a least ten (10) persons is harmed
b. the personal information of at least twenty (20) persons is
•
harmed
c. the personal information of at least one hundred (100) persons is
•
harmed (correct answer, your response)
d. the personal information of at least one thousand (1, 000)
•
persons is harmed
Points earned: 1 out of 1
13. The data processor must report data breaches to the NPC within a
period of:
• a. 24 hours
• b. 48 hours
• c. 72 hours (correct answer, your response)
• d. Five days
Points earned: 1 out of 1
14. A data subject has the right to access:
I. The address of the personal information controller
II. Sources from which his personal information were obtained.
• a. I only.
• b. II only
• c. Both I and II. (correct answer, your response)
• d. Neither I nor II.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
15. Mr. X was admitted in a hospital. He is suffering from difficulty in
breathing, high fever, and fatigue. His symptoms are quickly
worsening. The doctor asked his wife as to previous admissions, but
the wife had no idea. Instead, the wife informed the doctor that he was
previously admitted at BCD Hospital and they have the health records
of Mr. X. The doctor called at BCD Hospital disclosed the health
records to the doctor. Is there any breach of the Data Privacy Act with
the disclosure?
• a. Yes, because Mr. X did not give her consent.
b. No, because Mr. X’s wife, as his duty authorized representative,
•
gave her consent for the disclosure.
c. Yes, because health records are considered as sensitive personal
•
information.
d. No, because the processing of the personal information is
• necessary for purpose of medical treatment. (correct answer, your
response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
16. Kris joined the raffle draw of Barry’s Supermarket in the hopes of
winning a 42” Smart TV. Kris indicated her mobile phone number and
email address in the form given for the raffle entry. The form looked
simple for Kris. It just contained empty fields to be filled out, the logo
of Barry’s Supermarket, and the grand prizes to be won. However, to
her surprise, Kris soon received multiple promotions from different
brands asking her to buy products at a discount. Her email inbox soon
became spammed as well with unwanted promotions. Is it a data
privacy principle violated?
• a. No. Everything is legal.
• b. Yes. The Principle of Proportionality was violated.
• c. Yes. The Principle of Legitimate Purpose was violated.
d. Yes. The Principle of Transparency was violated. (correct
•
answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
17. Tanggol, a personal information processor, is charged with the
violation of the Data Privacy Act. The violation consists of two acts.
First, Tanggol revealed the salary range of Rigor, an Administrative
Officer III at the Department of Finance. Second, Tanggol, in
publishing his research, disclosed the ages and sexes of the
respondents to his survey. Is Tanggol liable for violation of the Data
Privacy Act?
• No. (correct answer, your response)
• Yes, but only as to the first act.
• Yes, but only as to the second act.
• Yes, on both acts.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
18. It refers to an individual whose personal information is processed.
• Personal information provider
• Personal information holder
• Data subject (correct answer, your response)
• Data person
• Data base
Points earned: 1 out of 1
19. It refers to a person or organization who controls the collection,
holding, processing, or use of personal information, including a person
or organization who instructs another person or organization to
collect, hold, process, use, transfer or disclose personal information on
his or her behalf.
• Personal information collector
• Personal information controller (correct answer, your response)
• Personal information manager
• Personal information repository
Points earned: 1 out of 1
20. The following are the requisites of Immunity under the Ease of Doing
Business and Efficient Government Service Delivery Act of 2018.
The testimony of said respondent/accused-informant can be
•
substantially corroborated in its material points
The respondent/accused-informant does not appear to be the most
•
guilty
The respondent/accused-informant has not been previously
•
convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude
• All of the above (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
21. I. The Report Card survey shall be a holistic tool that will measure
effectiveness of the Citizen's Charter in reducing regulatory burdens
and the impact of the human resource systems and programs in
delivering efficient government service.
II. The Report Card survey shall also be used to obtain information
and/or estimates of hidden costs incurred by applicants or requesting
parties to access government services which may include, but is not
limited to, bribes and payment to fixers.
• Only I is true
• Only II is true
• Both are true (correct answer, your response)
• Both are false
Points earned: 1 out of 1
22. The processing and approval of licenses, clearances, permits,
certifications or authorizations for the installation and operation of
telecommunication, broadcast towers, facilities, equipment and
service shall be:
I. a total of 7 working days for those issued by the barangay.
II. a total of 7 working days for those issued by LGUs.
III. a total of 7 working days for those issued by NGAs.
• I only
• I and II only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
23. I. Business permits shall be valid for a period of 2 years.
II. The city/municipality may have the option to renew business
permits within the first month of the year or on the anniversary date
of the issuance of the business permit.
• Only I is true
• Only II is true (correct answer, your response)
• Both are true
• Both are false
Points earned: 1 out of 1
24. I. Each agency shall establish a public assistance or complaints desk
which shall be set-up to, among others, effectively receive feedback
and monitor customer satisfaction, in a conspicuous area at their
official place of business, where an officer or employee knowledgeable
in frontline services shall at all times be available for consultation and
advice.
II. The desk may not be attended to during break time.
• Only I is true (correct answer, your response)
• Only II is true
• Both are true
• Both are false
Points earned: 1 out of 1
25. I. The grounds for the denial of request for access to government
service must be fair, just, and reasonable.
II. Any denial of the application or request must have the approval of
the immediate supervisor of the employee or officer who denied the
application or request.
• Only I is true
• Only II is true
• Both are true (correct answer, your response)
• Both are false
Points earned: 1 out of 1
26. For applications or requests involving activities which pose danger to
public health, public safety, public morals, public policy, and highly
technical application, the prescribed processing time shall in no case
be longer than ____ working days or as determined by the government
agency or instrumentality concerned, whichever is shorter.
• 10
• 15
• 20 (correct answer, your response)
• 25
Points earned: 1 out of 1
27. All applications or requests submitted shall be acted upon by the
assigned officer or employee within the prescribed processing time
stated in the Citizen's Charter which shall not be longer than _____
working days in the case of simple transactions from the date the
request and/or complete application or request was received.
• one
• two
• three (correct answer, your response)
• four
Points earned: 1 out of 1
28. Under the Ease of Doing Business Act. The number of signatories in
any document shall be limited to a maximum of:
• a. Two signatures
• b. Three signatures (correct answer, your response)
• c. Four signatures
• d. Five signatures
Points earned: 1 out of 1
29. As a general rule, an employee cannot be compelled to render
overtime work because that is violative of the constitutional injunction
against involuntary servitude.
Only in the following cases can an employer compel employees to
render overtime work:
War Emergency Situation- when the country is at war or when any
• other national or local emergency has been declared by Congress
or the Chief Executive;
Disaster/Calamity- When overtime work is necessary to prevent
loss of life or property, or in case of imminent danger to public
• safety due to actual or impending emergency in the locality caused
by serious accident, fire, flood, typhoon, earthquake, epidemic or
other disaster or calamity.
Urgent Repairs- When there is urgent work to be performed on
• machines, installations or equipment in order to avoid serious loss
or damage to the employer or some other causes of similar nature;
Preservation of Perishable Goods- When the work is necessary to
•
prevent loss or damage to perishable goods;
Completion of Work- When completion or continuation of work
started before the eight hour is necessary to prevent serious
•
obstruction or prejudice to the business or operations of the
employer;
Take Advantage of favorable weather conditions- When overtime
work is necessary to avail of favorable whether or environmental
•
conditions where performance or quality of work is dependent
thereon.
All of the above answers are correct. (correct answer, your
•
response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
30. May the employer and employee
stipulate that the latter’s regular or basic
salary already includes the overtime pay,
such that when the employee actually
works overtime he cannot claim overtime
pay?
• Answer not given.
Yes, provided there is a clear written agreement knowingly and
•
freely entered into by the employees;
No, the employer and employee cannot stipulate that the latter‘s
• regular or basic salary includes the overtime pay; (correct answer,
your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
31. Work may be performed beyond eight (8)
hours a day provided that:
Employee is paid for overtime work an additional compensation
• equivalent to his regular wage plus at least 25% thereof; (correct
answer, your response)
Employee is paid for overtime work an additional compensation
•
equivalent to his regular wage plus at least 30% thereof;
Employee is paid for overtime work an additional compensation
•
equivalent to his regular wage plus at least 20% thereof;
• None of the above.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
32. The following are excluded from the
coverage of Book III of the Labor Code of the
Philippines (Conditions of employment)
except:
• Supervisors (correct answer, your response)
• Field personnel
• Managers
• Employees of government-owned and controlled corporations
Points earned: 1 out of 1
33. The workers worked as cargadores at
the warehouse and rice mills of farm A for
several years. As cargadores, they loaded,
unloaded and pilled sacks of rice from the
warehouse to the cargo trucks for delivery
to different places. They were paid by Farm
A on a piece-rate basis. Are the workers
considered regular employees?
a. Yes, because Farm A paid wages directly to these workers
•
without the intervention of any third party independent contractor.
b. Yes, their work is directly related, necessary and vital to the
•
operations of the farm;
c. No, because Farm A did not have the power to control the
• workers with respect to the means and methods by which the work
is to be accomplished
• d. A and B. (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
34. Robert, an employee of ABC Company,
is married to Wanda. One day, Wanda
visited the company office with her three (3)
emaciated minor children, and narrated to
the Manager that Robert had been
squandering his earnings on his mistress,
leaving only a paltry sum for the support of
their children. Wanda tearfully pleaded with
the Manager to let her have one half of
Robert's pay every payday to ensure that
her children would at least have food on the
table. To support her plea, Wanda
presented a Kasulatan signed by Robert
giving her one half of his salary, on the
condition that she would not complain if he
stayed with his mistress on weekends.
If you were the Manager, would you release
one half of Robert's salary to Wanda?
Yes, because of Robert's signed authorization to give Wanda one
•
half of his salary.
No, because Robert's Kasulatan is based on an illegal consideration
•
and is of doubtful legal validity.
Yes, because it is Robert's duty to financially support his minor
•
children.
No, because an employer is prohibited from interfering with the
• freedom of its employees to dispose of their wages. (correct
answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
35. An employee with a daily wage of P145 who renders 2-hour overtime
work on an ordinary day will receive__________________.
• A. P180.32
• B. P185.32
• C. P190.32 (correct answer, your response)
• D. P200.32
• E. P175.32
Points earned: 4 out of 4
36. Art. 139. Minimum Employment Age- R.A. 7610, as amended by R.A.
7658 & 9231
• A. 21 years old
• B. 7 years old
• C. 13 years old
• D. 18 years old
• E. 15 years old (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
37. Parental Leave for Solo Parents (R.A. 8972) otherwise known as Solo
Parents’ Act of 2000
A. Parental Leave for 7 working days (correct answer, your
•
response)
• B. Parental Leave for 10 working days
• C. Parental Leave for 15 working days
• D. Parental Leave for 20 working days
• E. Parental Leave for 30 working days
Points earned: 1 out of 1
38. Paternity Leave (R.A. 8187)
• A. Leave for 10 days
• B. Leave for 7 days (correct answer, your response)
• C. Leave for 15 days
• D. Leave for 20 days
• E. Leave for 30 days
Points earned: 1 out of 1
39. Pursuant to R.A. 11210 known as the Expanded Maternity Leave Act
of 2019, MATERNITY Leave Benefits
-shall be paid daily maternity benefit equivalent to her average daily
salary
• A. 30 days normal delivery/78 days caesarean delivery
• B. 60 days normal delivery/90 days caesarean delivery
C. 105 days for live childbirth, regardless of the mode of delivery,
and an additional 15 days paid leave if the female worker qualifies
•
as solo parent under R.A. 8972, or the Solo Parents’ Welfare Act of
2000 (correct answer, your response)
• D. Answer not given.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
40. Holiday pay is _____percent (%) of the regular daily wage.
• A. Fifty percent (50%)
• B. One Hundred percent (100%) (correct answer, your response)
• C. One Hundred Fifty percent (150%)
• D. Two Hundred Fifty percent (250%)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
41. ART. 93. Compensation for rest day, Sunday, or holiday work.
(a) Where an employee is made or permitted to work on his scheduled
rest day, he shall be paid an additional compensation of at least
______percent (%) of his regular wage.
• A. Ten percent (10%)
• B. Fifteen percent (15%)
• C. Twenty percent (20%)
• D. Thirty percent (30%) (correct answer, your response)
• E. Thirty-five percent (35%)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
42. ART. 87. Overtime work. - Work may be performed beyond eight (8)
hours a day provided that the employee is paid for the overtime work,
an additional compensation equivalent to his regular wage plus at
least ______ percent (%) thereof.
• A. Twenty-five percent (25%) (correct answer, your response)
• B. Thirty percent (30%)
• C. Twenty percent (20%)
• D. Fifteen percent (15%)
• E. One Hundred percent (100%)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
43. The minimum wage rates for agri and non-agri employees and workers
shall be those prescribed by the________________.
• A. Board of Directors
• B. Labor Management Council
C. Reg’l. Tripartite Wages and Productivity Board (correct answer,
•
your response)
• D. POEA
• E. OWWA
Points earned: 1 out of 1
44. I. Hacking or cracking which refers to unauthorized access into or
interference in a computer system/server or information and
communication system; or any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal,
or destroy using a computer or other similar information and
communication devices, without the knowledge and consent of the
owner of the computer or information and communications system,
including the introduction of computer viruses and the like, resulting
in the corruption, destruction, alteration, theft or loss of electronic
data messages or electronic document.
II. Piracy or the unauthorized copying, reproduction, dissemination,
distribution, importation, use, removal, alteration, substitution,
modification, storage, uploading, downloading, communication,
making available to the public, or broadcasting of protected material,
electronic signature or copyrighted works including legally protected
sound recordings or phonograms or information material on protected
works, through the use of telecommunication networks, such as, but
not limited to, the internet, in a manner that infringes intellectual
property rights.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true. (correct answer, your response)
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
45. I. No person or party shall be subject to any civil or criminal liability in
respect of the electronic data message or electronic document for
which the person or party acting as a service provider as defined in
Section 5 merely provides access if such liability is founded on 1) The
obligations and liabilities of the parties under the electronic data
message or electronic document; and 2) The making, publication,
dissemination or distribution of such material or any statement made
in such material, including possible infringement of any right
subsisting in or in relation to such material.
II. Access to an electronic file, or an electronic signature of an
electronic data message or electronic document shall only be
authorized and enforced in favor of the individual or entity having a
legal right to the possession or the use of the plaintext, electronic
signature or file and solely for the authorized purposes. The electronic
key for identity or integrity shall not be made available to any person
or party without the consent of the individual or entity in lawful
possession of that electronic key.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true. (correct answer, your response)
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
46. I. If a right is to be granted to, or an obligation is to be acquired by,
one person and no other person, and if the law requires that, in order
to effect this, the right or obligation must be conveyed to that person
by the transfer, or use of, a paper document, that requirement is met
if the right or obligation is conveyed by using one or more electronic
data messages or electronic documents unique.
II. If a rule of law is compulsorily applicable to a contract of carriage
of goods which is in, or is evidenced by, a paper document, that rule
shall not be inapplicable to such a contract of carriage of goods which
is evidenced by one or more electronic data messages or electronic
documents by reason of the fact that the contract is evidenced by such
electronic data messages or electronic documents instead of by a
paper document.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true. (correct answer, your response)
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
47. I. Subject to applicable laws and/or rules and guidelines promulgated
by the Department of Trade and Industry with other appropriate
government agencies, parties to any electronic transaction shall be
free to determine the type and level of electronic data message and
electronic document security needed, and to select and use or
implement appropriate technological methods that suit their needs.
II. Where the law requires that any action referred to contract of
carriage of goods be carried out in writing or by using a paper
document, that requirement is met if the action is carried out by using
one or more data messages or electronic documents.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true. (correct answer, your response)
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
48. I. “Electronic signature” refers to a secret code which secures and
defends sensitive information that crosses over public channels into a
form decipherable only with a matching electronic key.
II. “Intermediary” refers to a person who in behalf of another person
and with respect to a particular electronic document sends, receives
and/or stores or provides other services in respect of that electronic
document.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
Statement I is false, Statement II is true. (correct answer, your
•
response)
• Both statements are true.
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
49. I. “Electronic document” refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic
and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity of a person
and attached to or logically associated with the electronic data
message or electronic document or any methodology or procedures
employed or adopted by a person and executed or adopted by such
person with the intention of authenticating or approving an electronic
data message or electronic document.
II. “Electronic signature” refers to information or the representation
of information, data, figures, symbols or other modes of written
expression, described or however represented, by which a right is
established or an obligation extinguished, or by which a fact may be
proved and affirmed, which is received, recorded, transmitted, stored,
processed, retrieved or produced electronically.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true.
• Both statements are false. (correct answer, your response)
Points earned: 1 out of 1
50. I. “Electronic Data message” refers to information generated, sent,
received or stored by electronic, optical or similar means.
II. “Information and communication system” refers to a system
intended for and capable of generating, sending, receiving, storing or
otherwise processing electronic data messages or electronic
documents and includes the computer system or other similar device
by or in which data is recorded or stored and any procedures related
to the recording or storage of electronic data message or electronic
document.
• Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
• Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
• Both statements are true. (correct answer, your response)
• Both statements are false.
Points earned: 1 out of 1
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