Total MCQs: 200 Max.

Marks: 200
MDCAT
FLP-1
ENTRANCE TEST-2023
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 200 Minutes

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION

Q-ID. What is the color of your Question Paper?
A) White. C) Pink ID
B) Blue D) Green 1
Ans: Color of your Question Paper is Pink. 2
Fill the Circle corresponding to letter ‘C’ 3
against ‘ID’ in your MCQ response form 4
(Exactly as shown in the diagram).

Instructions:
i. Read the instructions on the MCQ Response Form carefully.
ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.
iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited to give any identification mark
except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

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 BIOLOGY
Q.1 Morphologically HIV is:
A) Spherical C) Conical
B) Polyhedral D) Tubular
Q.2 During reverse transcription, for synthesis of double stranded DNA, which of the
following acts as template?
A) RNA strand C) Protein molecule
B) DNA strand D) Both RNA & DNA strand
Q.3 It is also called as infusion hepatitis:
A) Hepatitis A C) Hepatitis C
B) Hepatitis B D) Hepatitis D
Q.4 60 % adults are immune to:
A) Polio C) Hepatitis C
B) Hepatitis A D) Mumps and measles
Q.5 Photosynthetic pigments are organized into clusters called:
A) Cytochromes C) Photosystems
B) Phytochromes D) Chromatophores
Q.6 The carotenes are red to________ pigments:
A) Blue C) Yellow
B) Orange D) Green
Q.7 The membranes found in stroma of chloroplast form an elaborate interconnected set of
flat, disc like sacs called:
A) Cristae C) Thylakoids
B) Cisternae D) Tonoplast
Q.8 Pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is the end product of:
A) Krebs cycle C) Calvin cycle
B) Urea cycle D) Glycolysis
Q.9 Which is an iron containing compound involved in light dependent phase of
photosynthesis?
A) Ferredoxin C) NADP
B) Plastocyanin D) Chlorophyll
Q.10 In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by:
A) G-3-9 C) NAD+
B) PG-3 D) FAD+
Q.11 The bond formed between two monosaccharides is called:
A) Glucosidic linkage C) Hydrogen bond
B) Glycosidic linkage D) Peptide bond
Q.12 It is a disaccharide formed by reaction between an aldo and keto sugar:
A) Maltose C) Sucrose
B) Lactose D) Glucose
Q.13 It is an amino acid responsible for positive charge of histone proteins:
A) Lysine C) Glycine
B) Leucine D) Cysteine
Q.14 The smallest R group in any amino acid is:
A) S C) CH3
B) NH2 D) H
Q.15 Which of the following is not a part of phosphatidic acid?
A) Fatty acid C) Phosphoric acid
B) Glycerol D) Serine
Q.16 Secondary structure of DNA is maintained by:
A) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond
B) Phosphodiester bond D) Coordinate covalent bond
Q.17 Which of the following feature is present in both animal cell and plant cell?

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 A) Absence of lysosomes C) Formation of phragmoplast
B) Presence of nuclear pores D) Presence of cell envelope
Q.18 ________ is an organelle/structure that is present in prokaryotic cell only:
A) Cell membrane C) Plasmid
B) Cell wall D) Nucleus
Q.19 These are the organelles having role in cell division in animal cells:
A) Golgi bodies C) Centrioles
B) Ribosomes D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.20 All of the following pass out of nucleus through nuclear pores except:
A) Enzymes C) mRNA
B) Ribosomes D) tRNA
Q.21 It is network of channels that extends throughout the cytoplasm and provides
mechanical support to cell and organelles:
A) Cell wall C) Cytoskeleton
B) Golgi bodies D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.22 Lipid catabolism is the character of:
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Ribosome
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Chloroplast
Q.23 It is an example of spinal nerve:
A) Optic nerve C) Vagus nerve
B) Sciatic nerve D) Auditory nerve
Q.24 Biological clock for various diurnal rhythms of our body is:
A) Thalamus C) Pituitary gland
B) Hypothalamus D) Pineal gland
Q.25 A neurotransmitter that is deficient in patients with Parkinson’s disease:
A) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine
B) Dopamine D) Serotonin
Q.26 Oxytocin:
A) Stimulates milk production C) Stimulates milk ejection
B) Inhibits milk production D) Inhibits milk ejection
Q.27 It increases permeability of tubule cells for water:
A) Insulin C) ADH
B) Glucagon D) LTH
Q.28 Estrogens are secreted from:
A) Ripening follicles C) Placenta
B) Rupture follicle D) Pituitary
Q.29 Most of vectors for important human diseases belong to:
A) Radiates C) Pseudocoelomates
B) Acoelomates D) Coelomates
Q.30 Mesoglea is in nature:
A) Acellular C) Mesodermal
B) Cellular D) Multicellular
Q.31 Most developed animals of all coelomates are:
A) Echinoderms C) Annelids
B) Chordates D) Insects
Q.32 Which of the following is not the characteristic of the grade Radiata?
A) Diploblastic C) Radial symmetry
B) Cnidaria D) Sponges
Q.33 Which of the following series is Deuterostomia?
A) Aschelminthes C) Annelida
B) Hemichordata D) Mollusca
Q.34 An enzyme and substrate react through a specific feature or site present in enzyme
known as:

Page 3
 A) Building site C) Catalyst site
B) Active site D) Inhibition site
Q.35 The abundance of amino acids make_________ of enzyme:
A) Binding site C) Catalytic site
B) Active site D) Globular shape
Q.36 Activation energy of reactants can be decreased by:
A) Substrate C) Co-enzyme
B) Enzyme D) Inhibitor
Q.37 The charge and shape of the active site is formed by:
A) Cofactor C) Amino acids
B) Allosteric site D) Globular shape
Q.38 All the enzyme active sites are occupied when:
A) Enzyme concentration is high C) Substrate concentration is high
B) Temperature is high D) pH is high
Q.39 It works in highly alkaline medium:
A) Catalase C) Pancreatic lipase
B) Pepsin D) Enterokinase
Q.40 Recapitulation theory forms:
A) Anatomical evidences C) Physiological evidences
B) Taxonomical evidences D) Embryological evidences
Q.41 Which of the following provides direct evidence in favour of organic evolution through
ages?
A) Palaeontology C) Vestigial organs
B) Galapagos Island fauna D) Atavism
Q.42 Similarly developed organs, in distantly related groups as an adaptation to the same
function is called:
A) Convergent evolution C) Missing link
B) Connecting link D) Divergent evolution
Q.43 Evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called:
A) Ontogeny C) Taxonomy
B) Systematics D) Phylogeny
Q.44 Which of the following is a pitcher plant?
A) Dionaea muscipula C) Sarracenia pupurea
B) Drosera intermedia D) Digitalis lanata
Q.45 The movement of minerals or water through extracellular pathway is called:
A) Symplast C) Apoplast
B) Vascular D) Epiplast
Q.46 It is an enzyme that can be found in oral cavity:
A) Amylase C) Trypsin
B) Lipase D) Mucus
Q.47 Protein digestion is completed in:
A) Stomach C) Ileum
B) Duodenum D) Caecum
Q.48 All of the following are the functions of pleural membrane except:
A) Protection of lungs C) Reduce friction
B) Prevent leakage of air D) Absorb shocks
Q.49 Dissociation of Hb increases with the increase in:
A) pH C) Bicarbonates
B) Oxygen D) Protons
Q.50 Amount of blood pumped by heart into body per minute is called:
A) Atrial output C) Cardiac output
B) Ventricular output D) Stroke volume
Q.51 What divides the left side of the heart from the right side?

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 A) Wall C) Ventricles
B) Septum D) Atrium
Q.52 Antibody is specific due to its:
A) Constant Region C) Heavy chain
B) Variable region D) Light chain
Q.53 Which of the followings is involved in phagocytosis?
A) T-Helper Cells C) B Cells
B) T-Cytotoxic Cell D) Macrophages
Q.54 The structure which contains the respiratory enzymes in bacteria are:
A) Nucleoid C) Flagella
B) Mesosomes D) Plasmid
Q.55 Photoautotrophs bacteria release__________ as a by-product in the process of
photosynthesis:
A) Oxygen C) Hydrogen
B) Carbon dioxide D) Sulphur
Q.56 It is primarily involved in conjugation between bacterial cell:
A) Flagella C) Slime
B) Capsule D) Pilli
Q.57 Bacterial pathogenicity is due to:
A) Cell wall C) Capsule
B) Slime D) Cell envelope all
Q.58 All of the following are paired organs in humans except:
A) Testes C) Kidney
B) Ovary D) Heart
Q.59 Last phase of menstrual cycle is:
A) Luteal phase C) Follicular phase
B) Menstrual phase D) Ovulation phase
Q.60 Number of polar bodies produced after meiosis I is:
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Four
Q.61 The total lumbosacral vertebrae are:
A) 10 C) 14
B) 9 D) 5
Q.62 It can provide protection to genital organs:
A) Vertebral Column C) Cranium
B) Palatine D) Pelvis
Q.63 Total number of bones in axial skeleton of adult human is:
A) 22 C) 126
B) 80 D) 206
Q.64 If infection is untreated the system progresses to spasm of larynx, respiratory
paralysis and ultimately death. It is about:
A) Tetanus C) Cramp
B) Tetany D) Muscle Fatigue
Q.65 The mutation which causes change in sequence of DNA is called:
A) Point mutation C) Chromosomal mutation
B) Excision error D) Chromosomal aberration
Q.66 An interaction between two alleles having single locus for a single trait can be
labeled as:
A) Pleiotropy C) Dominance
B) Epistasis D) Polygene
Q.67 A gene which helps to prepare a site on RBC for insertion of antigen is called:
A) I genes C) Bombay gene
B) H gene D) Pleiotropy

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Q.68 X linked gene in male is expressed by:
A) Absence of SRY gene C) Absence of dominant gene
B) Absence of recessive gene D) Expressed whenever present
CHEMISTRY
Q.69 Limiting reactant controls the amount of_________
A) Reactant C) Both A & C
B) Products D) None of these
Q.70 Empirical formula of acetic acid is similar to that of
A) Formic acid C) Lactic acid
B) Oxalic acid D) Tartaric acid
Q.71 The incorrect statement about real gases is
A) Obey gas laws only at high temperature and low pressure
B) Compressibility factor value is not unity
C) Forces of attraction cannot be neglected at high pressure
D) Forces of attraction cannot be neglected at high temperature
Q.72 If pressure and volume of a gas are variable while temperature remains
constant, this belongs to
A) Charles's law C) Boyle’s law
B) Avogadro's law D) Pascal’s law
Q.73 PV/nRT for an ideal gas is called
A) Expansion factor C) Depression factor
B) Compressibility factor D) Diffusion factor
Q.74 Vapour pressure of water at 0 ºC is
A) 4.8 torr C) 10 torr
B) 20 torr D) 7.6 torr
Q.75 In which of the following water evaporate earlier?
A) Cup C) Saucepan
B) Glass D) Small bowl
Q.76 H bonding is not present in which of the following_______?
A) DNA C) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates D) Lipids
Q.77 Carbon dioxide is an example of
A) Ionic solid C) Metallic solid
B) Molecular solid D) Covalent solid
Q.78 The smallest part of the crystal lattice has all the properties of the entire crystals, this is
called
A) Unit C) Unit cell
B) Unit crystal D) All of these
Q.79 Following is NOT TRUE about molecular solids
A) Bad conductor of electricity C) Low densities
B) Mostly volatile D) Always transparent to light
Q.80 The radiations that carry positive charge and are deflected towards negative plate in
electric field
A) Cathode rays C) X-rays
B) Canal rays D) γ-rays
Q.81 An electron In an atom is completely described by its
A) 2 quantum numbers C) Only one quantum number
B) Four quantum numbers D) 3 quantum numbers
Q.82 The maximum number of electrons accommodated in a subshell
A) 2 C) 6
B) 4 D) 10

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Q.83 The pair showing correct relation of electron affinity
A) F > I C) F < N
B) S >Cl D) O < N
Q.84 The bond which has greater ionic character and polarity
A) C)
B) D)
Q.85 Fluorine has highest electronegativity value that is
A) 3.4 C) 4
B) 1.2 D) 2.6
Q.86 Heat supplied at constant pressure equals to
A) Activation Energy C) Internal energy change
B) Entropy D) Enthalpy
Q.87 Temperature and volume in an experiment are part of
A) Surroundings C) System
B) State of a system D) All of these
Q.88 The correct statement for endothermic reaction is
A) All endothermic reactions are spontaneous
B) Energy state of products is less than reactants
C) Enthalpy change is always positive
D) Entropy decreases in an endothermic reaction
Q.89 Current in electrolysis is carried through
A) Free electrons C) Positive Ions
B) Negative Ions D) Both B and C
Q.90 The platinum in standard hydrogen electrode
A) Acts as electrical conductor C) Is coated with white platinum
B) Acts as reactive electrode D) Reacts with HCl
Q.91 A metal has negative reduction potential
A) It is hard to oxidize C) It is easy to reduce
B) It is hard to reduce D) It is not easily oxidized
Q.92 Instantaneous rate of reaction is the rate at any
A) At Equilibrium C) One instant
B) Given Temperature D) Given pressure
Q.93 The oxidation of nitric oxide with ozone follow order of reaction
A) Zero C) Second
B) First D) Three
Q.94 Among the following slow reaction is
A) Ionic reaction C) Redox reaction
B) Neutralization reaction D) Double decomposition reaction
Q.95 The equilibrium Constant is always written as a ratio of
A) Reactants over products C) Products over reactants
B) Product times Reactants D) None of these
Q.96 A very small value of kc depicts
A) No reaction C) Backward reaction
B) Little forward reaction D) Complete reaction
Q.97 Shifting the position of equilibrium can be used to Increase
A) Temperature C) Pressure
B) Yield of reaction D) All of these
Q.98 The ionization energy increases from left to right in a period due to increase in
A) Nuclear charge C) Number of electrons
B) Atomic number D) All of these

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Q.99 Correct relation in melting points is
A) Na > Mg C) Al > Si
B) Mg > Al D) S > P
Q.100 The element that shows oxidation state of only 2+ is
A) V C) Ti
B) Zn D) Cu
Q.101 Metals look shiny as light falls on metal surface collide with mobile electrons and make
them these electron gives light when___________
A) Neutral. Excited C) Excited, de-excited
B) De-excited, excited D) None of these
Q.102 Melting and boiling point of transition elements is higher due to__________?
A) Higher binding energies C) Strong metallic bonding
B) Hardness D) All of these
Q.103 The oxygen containing aromatic compound is
A) Anthracene C) Furan
B) Pyridine D) Toluene
Q.104 Cyclic compounds consist of except?
A) Alicyclic C) Aromatic
B) Acyclic compounds D) Carbocyclic compounds
Q.105 How many chain isomers of pentane is possible?
A) Two C) Four
B) Three D) Five
Q.106 When 2-butene reacts with cold alkaline KMnO4, the color change is
A) Pink to dark brown C) Pink to colourless
B) Pink to dark green D) Purple to dark red
Q.107 Most reactive among following is
A) Ethene B) Ethyne
C) Ethane D) Benzene
Q.108 Free radial reactions take place in the presence of_______?
A) Heat C) Sunlight
B) Catalyst D) Oxygen
Q.109 When nitration of nitrobenzene is done, the product obtained is
A) 1,3-Dinitrobenzene
B) 1,4-Dinitrobenzene
C) 1,2-Dinitrobenzene and 1, 4-dinitrobenzene
D) 1,2-Dinitrobenzene
Q.110 Best leaving group for SN2 reaction is
A) Amide ion C) Alkoxide ion
B) Chloride D) Hydroxide
Q.111 A transition state is not formed in reaction between
A) Ethyl chloride and aqueous KOH
B) Methyl chloride and aqueous KOH
C) Ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH
D) 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane and alcoholic KOH
Q.112 When phenol reacts with bromine to form 2,4,6-tribromophenol. The medium is
A) Aqueous C) Organic
B) Acidic D) Basic
Q.113 The alcohols which are resistant to oxidation reactions are
A) Primary alcohols C) Secondary alcohol
B) Tertiary alcohol D) All of above
Q.114 Phenol is more acidic that alcohols due to all except
A) Resonance stabilization of phenoxide C) Conjugate base is more stable
B) –OH is attached to sp2-hybridized carbon D) Weak C-O bond

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Q.115 Aldehydes and ketones both show all types of isomerism except
A) Functional C) Metamerism
B) Chain D) Tautomerism
Q.116 When acetone reacts with sodium borohydride what takes place
A) Dehydrogenation C) Nucleophilic addition
B) Oxidation D) Electrophilic addition
Q.117 Acetaldehyde undergoes polymerization with conc.H2SO4 and form__________
A) Acetylides C) Paraldehyde
B) Bakelite D) Meta Acetaldehyde
Q.118 In most reactions of carboxylic acids
A) The carboxylic group is retained C) Carbonyl carbon acts as nucleophile
B) C—H σ-bond is broken D) C—O σ-bond is broken
Q.119 During formation of acid halide in the last step of reaction
A) C—O σ-bond is formed C) C—O π-bond is formed
B) C—H σ-bond is broken D) S—O σ-bond is broken
Q.120 Ethanedioic acid is the IUPAC name of
A) Tartaric acid C) Succinic acid
B) Oxalic acid D) Malonic acid
Q.121 Interaction between NH and C==O groups amino acids near each other in a protein
chain are
A) Hydrogen bonding C) London dispersive forces
B) Ionic interaction D) Covalent bond
Q.122 Which of the following element is not usually present in all proteins?
A) Carbon C) Hydrogen
B) Nitrogen D) Sulphur
PHYSICS
Q.123 The range of the projectile depends upon the velocity of the projection and the angle of
the projection i.e 45°. For a fixed velocity, when the angle of projection is large than 45°.
Which of the following is correct?
A) The height attained by the projectile will be more but the range is less
B) The height attained by the projectile will be less but the range is more
C) Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be more
D) Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be less
Q.124 Displacement time graph of a ball thrown vertically upward is shown in figure

Displacement (m)

Displacement (m)
t
Which of the following represents v-t graph? t
V
V V
V
V
V A) V
B) D)
V t C) t
A) B) t t D) t
t C)C)
t t
Q.125 Which of the following is statement shows that no work is done?
A) Pushing a car to start it moving C) The moon orbiting the earth
B) Lifting the weights D) Writing as essay on a page
Q.126 A 10 kg mass moves along x-axis. Its acceleration as a function of its position is
shown in the figure. What is the total work done on the mass by the force as the mass
moves from x = 0 to x = 8cm.

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 A) 8 J C) 16 x 10-2J
B) 8 x 10-2J D) 4 x 10-3J
Q.127 Which of the following is statement shows that no work is done?
A) Pushing a car to start it moving C) The moon orbiting the earth
B) Lifting the weights D) Writing as essay on a page
Q.128 If two objects of equal masses ‘m’ are moving towards each other with the same speeds
‘v’ then what will be the total final momentum after elastic head on collision?
A) mv kg m/s C) 2 mv kg/s
B) –mv kg/s D) 0 kg m/s
Q.129 The angular velocity of second’s hand of a watch will be

A) rad / sec C) 60π rad/sec
60

B) 30π rad/sec D) rad / sec
30
Q.130 An object of mass of 2 kg rotates at constant speed in a horizontal circle of radius 5 m.
The time for one complete revolution is 3 s. What is the magnitude of the resultant force
acting on the object?
4 2 402
A) N C) N
9 9
1002 4002
B) N D) N
9 9
Q.131 An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4 m. what will be its angular
displacement. If it moves 14 m on the circular path.
A) 5.0 radians C) 4.5 radians
B) 3.5 radians D) 5.5 radians
Q.132 A car travels 30m towards East, then it takes turn and travels 40m towards North, it
takes 50 seconds, its average velocity is…….
A) 7/5 m/s C) 1/5 m/s
B) 1m/s D) 5m/s
Q.133 For projectile motion in the absence of air resistance:
A) Horizontal acceleration is zero C) Horizontal force is constant
B) Vertical acceleration is zero D) Vertical speed is constant
Q.134 A sound wave of frequency 400 Hz is travelling in a gas at a speed of 320 m s–1. What is the
phase difference between two points 0.2 m apart in the direction of travel?
 
A) rad C) rad
4 2
2 4
B) rad D) rad
5 5
Q.135 Progressive waves of frequency 300 Hz are superimposed to produce a system of stationary
waves in which adjacent nodes are 1.5 m apart. What is the speed of the progressive waves?
A) 100 m s–1 C) 200 m s–1
–1
B) 450 m s D) 900 m s–1

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Q.136 The frequency of the fundamental mode of transverse vibration of a stretched wire 100 mm
long is 256 Hz. When the wire is shortened to 400 mm at the same tension, what is the
fundamental frequency?
A) 162 Hz C) 312 Hz
B) 416 Hz D) 640 Hz
Q.137 2nd overtone of an open organ pipe resonates with 3rd harmonics of a closed organ pipe.
The ratio of their length will be
2 1
A) C)
1 2
6 5
B) D)
5 6
Q.138 A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The
frequency heard by the observer in Hz is (speed of sound = 330 m/s)
A) 409 C) 517
B) 429 D) 500
Q.139 A simple harmonic oscillator has a time period of 10 seconds. Which equation relates its
acceleration a and displacement x?
A) a  10x C) a    20  x

B) a    20  x D) a    2 /10  x
2 2

Q.140 In an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of a liquid by an electrical

method, a student obtained the following results.
Mass of liquid heated 1.5 kg
Initial liquid temperature 300 K
Final liquid temperature 357 K
Electrical power of heater 1.0 kW
Time of heating 180 s
What is the specific heat capacity of the liquid?
A) 2.1 J kg–1 K–1 C) 1800 J kg–1 K–1
–1 –1
B) 18 J kg K D) 2100 J kg–1 K–1
Q.141 In simple harmonic motion, acceleration will be maximum, when object is at:
A) Maximum displacement from the mean position
B) Half of the maximum displacement from mean position
C) Center position
D) Mean position
Q.142 When the length of simple pendulum is double, then ratio of its new time period to old
time period is:
A) 2 C) 2 2
B) 1 / 2 D)  2
Q.143 The sum of all forms of molecular energies (Kinetic and potential) of a substance termed
as?
A) Elastic energy C) Internal energy
B) Absolute energy D) Heat energy
Q.144 A thunder-cloud whose base is 500 m above the ground. The potential difference
between the base of the cloud and the ground is 200 MV. A raindrop with a charge of
4.0×10–12 C is in the region between the cloud and the ground. What is the electrical
force on the raindrop?
A) 1.6 × 10–6 N C) 8.0 × 10–4 N
–3
B) 1.6 × 10 N D) 0.40 N

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Q.145 A conducting hollow sphere of radius 0.1 m is given a charge of 10 C. The electric
potential on the surface of sphere will be
A) Zero C) 3 × 105V
5
B) 9 × 10 V D) 9 × 109 V
Q.146 Electric field strength of a point charge is E and electric potential is V at a distance r
from the point charge. What is the electric potential at a point for the same point charge
where electric field strength is E/4?
A) 4V C) V/2
B) 2V D) V/4
Q.147 A particle carrying a charge of 5e falls through a potential difference of 25V. What
would be energy be energy acquired by the particle in ‘J’:
A) 1.6 × 10-19 J C) 125 × 10-19 J
B) 125 J D) 125 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
Q.148 A copper wire has length L and cross-sectional A. its resistance is R. If we halved the
length and halved the diameter of wire then what will be the resistance of this wire?
A) 4R C) 2R
B) 3R D) R
Q.149 From the graph between current i & voltage V shown, identity the portion
corresponding to negative resistance

A) DE C) CD
B) BC D) AB
Q.150 A new flashlight cell of emf 1.5 volts gives a current of 15 amps, when connected directly
to an ammeter of resistance 0.04 ohm. The internal resistance of cell is
A) 0.04 ohm C) 10 ohm
B) 0.06 ohm D) 0.10 ohm
Q.151 The horizontal component of earth magnetic flux density is 1.8 × 10-6 T. The current in a
horizontal cable is 160A. Calculate the maximum force per unit length?
A) 2.88 × 10-6 N/m C) 2.88 × 10-2 N/m
-4
B) 2.88 × 10 N/m D) 2.88 × 10-8 N/m
Q.152 The unit of magnetic flux density is the tesla, ‘T’ it can be expressed as:
A) 1 N A-1 m C) 1 N-1 A-1 m-1
B) 1 N-1 A-1 m D) 1 N A-1 m-1
Q.153 The current in a resistor is 8.0 mA. What charge flows through the resistor in 0.020 s?
A) 0.16 mC C) 1.6 mC
B) 4.0 mC D) 0.40 mC
Q.154 A particle of charge –16×10–18 C moving with velocity 10 m/s along the x-axis enters a
region where a magnetic field of induction B is along the y-axis and an electric field of
magnitude 104 V/m is along the negative z-axis. If the charged particle continues moving
along the x-axis, the magnitude of B is
A) 103 Wb m–2 C) 105 Wb m–2
B) 1016 Wb m–2 D) 10–3 Wb m–2
Q.155 An alternation voltage V (in volts) is represented by the equation
V 300 sin (100 πt) What is the value of “f” for this voltage?
A) 100 Hz C) 25 Hz

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 B) 50 Hz D) 200 Hz
Q.156 If we give a direct current to the transformer’s primary coil, then there will be:
A) No emf produced in the secondary C) Equal emf produced in the secondary
B) More emf produced in the secondary D) Less emf produced in the secondary
Q.157 The secondary coil of an ideal transformer delivers an r.m.s current of 2.5 A to a load
resistor of resistance 8.0. The r.m.s current in the primary is 10 A.What is the r.m.s.
potential difference across the primary coil?
A) 3.5 V C) 5.0 V
B) 57 V D) 80 V
Q.158 If a conductor of length 7m is placed in a magnetic field of strength 0.3T carrying
current 1A, parallel to the field. What will be the force acting on it due to this magnetic
field?
A) 7N C) 3.1N
B) 0N D) 2.1N
Q.159 If we change the magnetic flux linking a coil by rotating the coil in a constant magnitude
field, the rate of change of this flux is:
A) Proportional to the emf produced in it C) Work function
B) Proportional to the material of the coil D) Threshold frequency
Q.160 The direction of current through the load resistance of a full-wave rectification during:
A) Remain constant C) Changes for every cycle
B) Inverts for positive cycle D) Inverts for negative cycle
Q.161 If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency
in the ripple will be
A) 50 Hz C) 70.7 Hz
B) 100 Hz D) 25 Hz
Q.162 The electrical circuit used to get smooth DC output from a rectifier circuit is called
A) Filter C) Oscillator
B) Logic gates D) Amplifier
Q.163 The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave having frequency of 3 kHz will be:
A) 120 km C) 80 km
B) 100 km D) 140 km
Q.164 An air station is broadcasting the waves of wavelength 300 m. If the radiating power of
the transmitter is 10 kW, then the number of photons radiated per second is
A) 1.5 × 1029 C) 1.5 × 1031
33
B) 1.5 × 10 D) 1.5 × 1035
Q.165 A tiny particle of mass 10–13 kg moving with a velocity of 10 cm s–1 is associated with a
wave of wavelength
A) 6.62×10–18 cm C) 6.62×10–12 cm
B) 6.62×10–2 cm D) 6.62×10–34 cm
Q.166 Calculate the energy of a photon of frequency 3.0 ×1018 Hz. (h = 6.63 × 10-34):
A) 19.89 × 10-16 J C) 1.89 × 10-16 J
-16
B) 11.89 × 10 J D) 19.89 × 10-18 J
Q.167 The value and units of the plank constant ‘h’ can be expressed as:
A) 3.63 × 10-34 Js C) 6.63 × 10-34 Js
-34 -1
B) 6.63 × 10 Js D) 6.63 × 10-43 Js
Q.168 If the wavelength of photon emitted due to transition of electron from third orbit to first
orbit in a hydrogen atom is  , then the wavelength of photon emitted due to transition
of electron from fourth orbit to second orbit will be
128 25
A)  C) 
27 9

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 36 125
B)  D) 
7 11
Q.169 The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in the first and the second excited states
is
A) 1 : 4 C) 4 : 9
B) 4 : 1 D) 9 : 4
Q.170 With increasing quantum number the energy difference between adjacent levels in
atoms
A) Decreases
B) increases
C) Decreases for low Z and increase for high Z atoms
D) remains constant
Q.171 Black body radiations is an example of:
A) Line spectra C) Atomic Spectra
B) Continuous Spectra D) None
Q.172 The ionization potential of H-atom is
A) 10.2 eV C) 2 eV
B) 13.6 eV D) 15 eV
Q.173 Which one of the following has the largest energy content?
A) γ-rays C) Infra-red radiations
B) X-rays D) Ultra-violet radiations
Q.174 Excited atoms return to their ground state in
A) 10-10s C) 10-8s
-6
B) 10 s D) 10-9s
Q.175 The half-life of a certain radioactive element is such that 7/8 of a given quantity decays
in 12 days. What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days?
1
A) 0 C)
128
1 1
B) D)
64 32
Q.176 Which equation correctly shows an -particle causing a nuclear reaction?
7 N + 2 He 
A) 14  17   13
4 1
8 O + 1n C) 17 0
8 O + -1e
4
5 B + 2 He

B) 17
8 O + 42 He 
 20
9 F + 11p D) 14
7 O + 11p 
 11
6C + 42 He
ENGLISH
Comprehend the key vocabulary and fill the blank.
Q.177 The tenor’s __________voice filled the concert hall.
A) sinuous B) timid C) tenuous D) sonorous
Q.178 During his ____________in office the mayor made several controversial decisions about
city planning.
A) treatise B) teem C) flout D) tenure
Q.179 When I first met him he______the room.
A) will be white washing C) has been white washing
B) is white washing D) was white washing
Demonstrate control of tenses, sentence structure and conventional writing.
Q.180 Ali’s interest and devotion to the business rather than engineering are not to be questioned at
A B C
all.
D

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Q.181 My house is very closed to the River Ravi in Lahore.
A B C D
Q.182 And then he mentioning that he had been at Brookfield since forty-two years.
A B C D

Q.183 I'm sure you'll be very happier and it will be great fun for me.
A B C D
Q.184 Neither of them were qualified to hold the job for the noble cause.
A B C D
Q.185 The anticipation was always worst than the reality.
A B C D
Q.186 His hand had become so cracked that he can hardly use his camera.
A B C D
Demonstrate correct use of articles and preposition
Q.187 Ali’s interest and devotion to the business rather than engineering are not to be questioned at
A B C
all.
D
Q.188 The River Ravi flows in Lahore that is a smallest river of the Punjab.
A B C D
Q.189 The climate is perfect _____ growing fruits like pineapples and bananas.
A) with B) to C) in D) for
Q.190 You can rely _____ him to be there whenever you need him.
A) at B) with C) on D) in
Choose the correct punctuated sentence.
Q.191 If its some old Chinese peasant ten thousand miles away?
A B C D
Q.192 "No, not from Pinkertons’," I said, seeming to imply that I came from a rival agency.
A B C D
Choose the correct synonyms.
Q.193 COVETED
A) Covert C) Dejected
B) Committed D) Hankered
Choose the correct spelling.
Q.194 A) Exhorsation C) Exhartation
B) Exhortaation D) Exhortation
LOGICAL REASONING
Q.195
Statements:
All kings are beggars.
All beggars are labouers.
All labourers are peoples.
Conclusions:
I. All people are kings. II. No labour is king.
III. Some kings are labouers. IV. All labouers are kings.
A) Only I and II follows C) Only I and IV follows
B) Only I, II and IV follows D) All follows
E) None of these
Q.196
Statements:
Some girls are boys.
Some sisters are brothers

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 All mothers are girls.
All brothers are mothers.
Conclusions:
I. Some boys are brothers II. Some girls are sisters
III. Some mothers are sisters IV. Some boys are sisters.
A) Only I follows C) Only II and III follows
B) Only III follows D) Only I and II follows
E) None of these
Q.197
Statement:
A large number of tribal inhabitants are found to have been suffering from various diseases
due to exposure to radioactive waste near the uranium mine.
Courses of Action:
I. The Government should immediately close down the mine.
II. The Government should immediately take steps to save local people from exposure to
radioactive waste.
III. The tribal should be rehabilitated at a safer place.
A) Only I follow C) Only III follow
B) Only II follow D) Only II and III follows
E) None of these
Q.198
Statement : There have been many instances of dacoit and looting in many passenger trains
this year.
Courses of action :
I. The railway authority should immediately deploy one policeman in each compartment in all
the passenger trains.
II. The passengers travelling by train should be given training on how to tackle with the
dacoits and looters.
A) Only I follows C) Only II follows
B) Either I or II follows D) Neither I or II
E) Both I and II
Q.199
Statements:
I. The private medical colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 200
per cent over the last year's fees to meet the expenses.
II. The Government medical colleges have not increased their fees in spite of price
escalation.
A) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
B) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
D) Both the statements are independent causes
E) Both the statements are effects of some common cause
Q.200 QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____
A) UAV B) UAT C) TAS D) TAT

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