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Let Review 2 (Tle) Final

The document is a 150 question test questionnaire for a Technology and Livelihood Education subject final exam. It provides general instructions for exam takers, including that they have 3.5 hours to complete the test, they should shade only one box per question on the answer sheet, and they should write the subject title on the answer sheet. It then lists the first 30 multiple choice questions testing various concepts related to food preparation, nutrition, grooming, cosmetology, and sanitation.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
226 views16 pages

Let Review 2 (Tle) Final

The document is a 150 question test questionnaire for a Technology and Livelihood Education subject final exam. It provides general instructions for exam takers, including that they have 3.5 hours to complete the test, they should shade only one box per question on the answer sheet, and they should write the subject title on the answer sheet. It then lists the first 30 multiple choice questions testing various concepts related to food preparation, nutrition, grooming, cosmetology, and sanitation.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 16

AGUSAN DEL SUR STATE COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY

Bunawan, Agusan del Sur


website: http://asscat.edu.ph
email address: asscatjvg@gmail.com Doc No.: F-DOI-010
Effective Date: 08/25/2017
19084895 Rev No.: 0
Page No.: 1 of 16

TEST QUESTIONAIRE

LET REVIEW II (TLE)


Subject
FINAL
Period of Examination
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This booklet contains 150 test questions. Examinees shall manage to use the given three and one- half (3 ½)
hours.
2. Read INSTRUCTION TO EXAMINESS printed in your answer sheets.
3. Shade only (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalidate your
answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
5. Write the subject title “TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION” on the box provided.

1. In general, from which of the following are complete proteins derived?


A. Milk, gelatin and soy
B. Rice, potatoes and eggs
C. Meat, fish and poultry
D. Vegetables, grains and fruits
2. What is the proper way of storing raw food?
A. It should be stored above cooked and ready- to- eat food.
B. It should be stored on the same shelf as cooked and ready- to- eat food.
C. It should be stored below cooked and ready-to-eat food.
D. It should be stored beside cooked and ready-to –eat food.
3. What dos a cook do when skimming?
A. Remove a substance from a liquid’s surface.
B. To use less of an ingredient in the recipe.
C. To make thin soup.
D. To coat food with a layer of glazed.
4. Which of the following basic types of meal service is the most formal?
A. Russian service
B. French service
C. Family service
D. American service
5. Sanitation in food preparation is important for a number of reason EXCEPT?
A. Minimize the presence of bacteria.
B. Avoid disease- carrying organisms.
C. Conserve nutrients.
D. Avoid food inflection and poisoning.
6. Which of the following describes water- soluble vitamins?
A. They include vitamins D and E.
B. They are frequently toxic.
C. They are stored extensively in tissues.
D. They are easily absorbed and executed.
7. The German chocolate cake recipe calls for buttermilk, however you don’t have the ingredient at home. Instead of
buttermilk, you could use?
A. Regular milk
B. Vinegar and butter
C. Regular milk and vinegar
D. Coffee creamer
8. Decision- making in purchasing is anchored on the following principles EXCEPT:
A. Price of one food item may vary according to variation in form.
B. Prices of food item may vary according to difference in quality.
C. Prices of food item may vary according to the type of store.
D. Prices of food item may vary according to the purchaser.
9. Metabolism is regulated by____________.
A. Hormone
B. Nutrients
C. Minerals
D. Enzymes
10. Essential nutrients are supplied to the body by:
A. Vitamin or mineral supplements
B. Certain food combinations
C. Body functions
D. Food in many different combinations
11. Secondary prevention includes the following EXCEPT;
A. Screening for potential diseases
B. Nutritional counselling
C. Physical rehabilitation for the stroke patient
D. Immunization
12. The Dietary Reference Intake which suggests the average daily dietary intake needed to requirements of virtually all
healthy people in a given life stage or gender group is also known as___________.
A. Recommended Dietary Allowance
B. Estimated Average Requirement
C. Adequate Intake
D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
13. Infants have trouble with cow’s milk- based formulas because:
A. Cow’s milk has in adequate amounts of lactose.
B. Cow’s milk has small amounts of protein.
C. Infants can’t digest milk protein.
D. The taste of the formula is sour.
14. Your patients develop renal failure that’s complicated by hyperkalemia. Which high-potassium food should the
patient avoid?
A. Rhubab
B. Strawberries
C. Honeydew lemon
D. Grapes
15. Looking around and seeing people, who of the following shows good grooming?
A. A group of students wearing sando and shorts on an evening formal party.
B. A teacher in school uniform selling goods in the market.
C. A girl wearing swimsuit for swimming lesson.
D. A mother wearing a house dress hearing mass.
16. After applying the cuticle you are now ready to loosen cuticle. How will you loosen cuticle?
A. Push the cuticle using the flat side of the pusher.
B. Dry the finger while pushing the cuticle.
C. Scratch the nail plate.
D. Push the cuticle using pointed side of the pusher.
17. If you are using foundation as part of make- up application, how will you apply it?
A. Apply evenly over the face and neck with gentle downward motion.
B. Apply on the face in circular motion.
C. Apply evenly over the entire face and around the neck with gentle upward position.
D. Apply foundation evenly near the hairline.
18. What kind of hair settling will you used if you ave straight hair and would like to have a lifted hairstyle effect?
A. Clip setting
B. Curler Setting
C. Pin curl setting
D. Roller setting
19. What is used to trim the cuticle when doing manicure or pedicure?
A. Orangewood stick
B. Nipper
C. Tweezer
D. Nail cutter.
20. If you want to soften the dead cuticle around the nail, you need you use cuticle _______.
A. Cream
B. Oil
C. Remover
D. Solvent
21. A base coat polish is use before applying the top coat because________.
A. It makes nail attractive.
B. It helps to make nail polish stick readily to the surface.
C. It is really necessary.
D. The top coat cannot be applied without it.
22. What finger will you start applying the base and top coat nail polish?
A. Index finger
B. Little finger
C. Ring finger
D. Thumb
23. When doing pedicure the patron’s foot is rested on___________.
A. Barber’s chair
B. Ottoman
C. Pedicure chair
D. Stool
24. Nail polish has the tendency to thicken. In order to ease applying evenly, it would be better to_______.
A. Pull out the nail polish brush.
B. Turn bottle upside- down
C. Roll nail polish between palms.
D. Shake it well.
25. How many stroke will you do on applying base and top coat nail polish?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
26. If your nails are yellow or stained, which will help to whiten them?
A. Alcohol
B. Drop of lemon
C. Hand lotion
D. Hydrogen peroxide
27. Cosmetics substances used t enhance the appearance of the human body. The following are cosmetics
EXCEPT_____________.
A. Astringent
B. Lipstick
C. Lotion
D. Perfume
28. In hearing mass, it is also necessary to look your best, so it is also proper to wear __________ make- up.
A. Evening
B. Ordinary
C. Photogenic
D. Theatrical
29. If you want to draw more attention on the eyelid on the eyelid and under wye brow, which of these will you use?
A. Blush on
B. Eyeliner
C. Eye shadow
D. Eyelash extension
30. When your nail polish, it is important to remove this first before proceeding to other procedure of manicuring or
pedicuring. How will you do this?
A. Moisten a pieces of cotton with water and press on the nail.
B. Bring cotton with cuticle remover from the tip of the nail to its base.
C. Press firmer the cotton with cuticle remover on the nail.
D. Press cotton with cuticle remover from the base of the nail to its tip.
31. The kind of facial manipulation that slide the finger to center of forehead then slide finger with slight pressure
towards the temple and rotate is called_____________.
A. Chin movement
B. Linear movement
C. Circular movement
D. Stroking movement
32. Which of the following practice should be avoided?
A. File nails only in one direction going to the center.
B. File nails when it’s dry.
C. Chipped polish is smoothen with nail buffer.
D. File nails after a shower.
33. For better upkeep of face muscles____ motion is used to remove cleansing cream.
A. Downward
B. Inward and sideward
C. Sideward and upward
D. Upward and outward
34. Before doing the plain facial which of these procedures is done first?
A. Apply emollient cream
B. Analyze the skin
C. Cleanse the face
D. Remove cleansing cream
35. A “standard hook” can be 180 degree turn plus an extension of at least____________ bar diameters, but not less
than_________ inches at the free end of the bar.
A. 4, 2, ¼
B. 4, 2 ½
C. 2, 2 ¾
D. 2,3
36. The minimum clearance required between reinforcing steel and the CMU in a grouted cell using coarse grout is
___________.
A. 1 bar diameter
B. 1/4 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 1 inch
37. The maximum grout pour using the high lift grouting method for a clear cell area of 3 inches by 3 inches is _______.
A. 5 feet
B. 8 feet using coarse grout
C. 12 feet
D. 24 feet using fine grout
38. When the air temperature is 25 degrees Fahrenheit, requirements shall include___________.
A. Heating the cement.
B. Maintaining mortar on board above freezing.
C. Heating sand above 120 degree Fahrenheit.
D. Heating water above 120 degree Fahrenheit.
39. In a low lift grout pour, the grouting is topped approximately__________ below the top of the masonry unit.
A. ½ inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1 ½ inch
D. 2 inches
40. For coarse grout, the maximum total aggregate measured in a damp loose condition shall be _______ times the
sum of the volume of the cementations material.
A. 3
B. 3 ¼
C. 4 ¼
D. 5
41. The minimum cover of reinforcement, including the masonry unit, shall be ________ inch(es) when not exposed to
weather.
A. 5/8
B. ¾
C. 1 ½
D. 2
42. Mortar projections in grout cells must not project more than _________ inch (es) into the cell.
A. 0
B. ¼
C. ½
D. 1
43. Expansion joints are used to provide for movement of a wall as it expands and must contain any incompressible
material.
A. True
B. False
C. Partly true
D. Definitely false
44. When high lift drafting, the full height of any section of wall should be completed on one day, with no interruption
between lifts greater than __________.
A. One hour
B. Two hours
C. Three hours
D. Four hours
45. Which of the following personal competencies of an entrepreneur is best describe here?
A. Goal setter
B. Opportunity seeker
C. Risk taker
D. Committed person
46. Mr. Santos has the ability to think of new ideas and new ways of doing things. It shows that Mr. Santos is_______.
A. Innovative
B. Hardworking
C. Positive thinker
D. Decision-maker
47. At this stage of product life cycle cash flow is starting to pick up and statement of revenue is at its peak.
A. Introductory phase
B. Growth phase
C. Maturity phase
D. Decline phase
48. Cost of production represents the payment of the factors of production. Which of the following concepts is least
considered?
A. Producers must choose productive resources which are abundant in supply.
B. It is better to produce components than to buy.
C. It is always advisable to get back up supplies even if current suppliers are sufficient.
D. When total revenue is greater than total cost, produce more.
49. Technical feasibility is essential due to the following EXCEPT:
A. It indicates the manufacturing process, product design and drawings.
B. The details of machinery required and equipment raw materials and man power required.
C. It provides a flow chart of the manufacturing process.
D. It includes deciding which legal for or organization is appropriate for your business.
50. The primary purpose of a business plan is to __________.
A. Attract leasers and investors.
B. Enable an entrepreneur to take his or her company in public.
C. Guide a company by plotting a strategy for its success.
D. Meet SEC and other legal requirements designed to protect lenders and investors.
51. The majority of costumers who stop patronizing a particular store do so because_________.
A. Its prices are too high.
B. Its quality is too low.
C. An indifferent employee treated them poorly.
D. It failed to advertise enough.
52. All of the following are the things a company should do to achieve stellar customer service and satisfaction
EXCEPT:
A. Listen to customers with the help of suggestion boxes, focus groups, surveys and other tools.
B. Define what “superior service” means so that customers and employees know exactly what to expect and
what to provide.
C. Hire friendly, courteous sales and service representatives.
D. Use state of the art technology to provide better customer service.
53. Which of the following is not an element of the marketing mix?
A. Prices
B. Profit
C. Place
D. People
54. When an entrepreneur introduces a system to achieve his goal and of the goal. It shows that entrepreneur can :
A. Plan systematically
B. Ste clear and realistic goal
C. Set high standard of quality and efficiency
D. Persistent initiator
55. To be successful, a business must:
A. Produce good instead of services.
B. Produce goods or services with a high price.
C. Produce goods or services the consumers want.
D. Produce goods or service using mostly capital resources.
56. If the supply of rice increases a lot and nothing else changes, we can expect the price of rice to:
A. Fall
B. Rise
C. Rise, then fall
D. Stay the same
57. Carla and Marina pass out flyers o advertise their baked goods business. By advertising, they are hoping to
increase the ___________ for their baked goods.
A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Capital costs
D. Opportunity costs
58. What tells us how scarce is compared to other goods and services?
A. Price
B. Profit
C. Supply
D. Opportunity cost
59. Most important factor in forming a new business aside from the capital is:
A. Finance
B. Marketing
C. Government support
D. Family support
60. Which if the following is the first step in the entrepreneurial process?
A. Developing successful business ideas.
B. Deciding to become an entrepreneur
C. Growing the entrepreneurial firm
D. Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial venture
61. What occurs when demand exceeds supply?
A. Production
B. Scarcity
C. Want
D. Need
62. The first step in identifying market is to analyse data in the following areas EXCEPT:
A. Legal environment
B. Political environment
C. Religious environment
D. Industry conditions
63. The following are advantages of inventory control EXCEPT:
A. To know whether materials are readily available for production use.
B. To ensure product delivery of materials to costumers.
C. To examine quantity discount for large order.
D. To ensure quality of output.
64. The business plan covers all aspects of management except:
A. Economic aspect
B. Marketing aspect
C. Organizational aspect
D. Technical aspect
65. Successful marketing strategy requires a business owner to do the following EXCEPT:
A. Understand what her target customers’ needs, demands and wants before her competitor can.
B. Offer customers with services that will satisfy their needs and wants.
C. Provide customers with service, convenience and value so that they will keep coming back.
D. Provides the resources needed to run a business.
66. An entrepreneur bet insurance against launching a business destined to fail or mismanaging a potentially
successful company.
A. Bankrolling the business with plenty of start- up capital.
B. Creating a solid business plan.
C. Spending lots of money on marketing and advertising.
D. Hiring a team of accountants and advertising.
67. A product life cycle concept means that small business must:
A. Constantly involve in product innovation.
B. Trace demographic and psychographic trends carefully.
C. Create both place and time utility if they are to survive
D. Use a market penetration strategy if they are to be successful.
68. Which of these statements is true?
A. Lower cost of products, lower profit.
B. When production cost is high, prices of commodities goes down.
C. When cost of production gets high purchasing powers of consumers goes high.
D. Cheaper inputs means lower cost of production.
69. Productivity is the effective creation of goods and services. Which of the following does not encourage productivity?
A. More products are produced
B. Overtime pay
C. Good lighting, ventilation
D. Pressures from employer
70. Using the SWOT analysis, which does not belong to the group?
A. Availability of technology
B. Good quality service
C. High price
D. Insufficient fund
71. Which of the following rues of production that when it happens will stop the production?
A. TR is less than TC
B. TR is greater than TC
C. TC is equal to TR
D. TC is lesser than TR
72. Which of the following is an internal source of capital?
A. Bond
B. Loan
C. Mortgage
D. Owner’s equity
73. Products refer to what the company sell, it must be tangible products or intangible. The following are examples of
intangible EXCEPT:
A. Hospital care
B. Insurance
C. Auto repair services
D. Computer set
74. The following are the main sources for a sound idea for new product EXCEPT:
A. Consumer
B. Former employees
C. Costumer
D. Government
75. The total cash available is equal to beginning balance + estimated cash receipts: Paul had a balance of P5, 600 in
his bank account by December. He had an estimated cash receipts of P8, 350 by January. What was his total cash
balance for January?
A. P13, 950
B. P13, 590
C. P14, 000
D. P14, 950
76. John Paul has started reading a book that has 800 pages. He has ready only 10 pages of the book. What percent of
the books has John Paul read?
A. 1.25%
B. 12.5%
C. 25%
D. 50%
77. In the year 2011, there were 4, 890, 107 children under the age of 18 living in Marinduque. What is the value if the 8
in the number 4, 890, 107?
A. 8 thousands
B. 8 ten thousands
C. 8 hundred thousands
D. 8 millions
78. The weather report says there is a 25% chance of rain tomorrow. What is another way to write 25%?
A. 1 out of 25
B. 40 out of 60
C. 4 out of 10
D. 25 out of 100
79. Justin a buy- and –sell fellow buys a digital camera for P12, 300. At what price should he sell if he desires a gross
profit of P2, 500?
A. P14, 700
B. P14, 800
C. P15, 700
D. P15, 800
80. Inventory in a bookstore at the beginning of the school year was P31, 000. 79. Purchases amounted to P19,
328.75. How much was the available books for sale?
A. P50, 329.54
B. P19, 328.75
C. P31, 000. 79
D. P10, 000.00
81. The financial statement showing the financial position of an enterprise by summarizing its assets, liabilities and
owner’s equity at a point of time.
A. Balance Sheet
B. Articulation
C. Financial Statement
D. Income Statement
82. It is considered as the actual profit retained by a business and it is actually the difference between the revenue
earned by the company and the expenses incurred.
A. Net profit
B. Revenues
C. Gross profit
D. Capital stock
83. A student assistant works on a 48- hours week basis at the rate of P25.00 an hour wit time and a half for overtime.
Last week he worked for 60 hours. Find his total earning for the week.
A. P450
B. P1,200
C. P 1, 650
D. P1, 800
84. Abe, a rice dealer buy 350 cavans of rice at P850 per cave. How much is his net profit if he spent P 1, 500 for
transporting the rice to his store and sole each cavan of rice P1, 000?
A. P51, 000
B. P100, 00
C. P150, 00
D. P152, 000
85. Marian receives P12, 500 from her parents as monthly allowance. She spends 3/5 for board and lodging, 1.5 for her
other needs and saves the rest. How much does she save I one month?
A. P2, 500
B. P 2, 00
C. P1, 500
D. P500
86. Cora sells in a department store. She receives a salary P8,000 a month plus a commission of 1% on all her sales.
Last month, her total sales were P35, 000. How much did she earn for the month?
A. P12, 500
B. P11, 350
C. P8, 350
D. P13, 500
87. A towel factory list towels at P90 per dozen. If a retailer purchases 10 dozens at a discount of 20%, how much trade
discount is he entitled to?
A. P90
B. P120
C. P180
D. P280
88. The nature of an asset is best described as:
A. Something with physical from that is valued at cost in the accounting records.
B. An economic resource owned by a business and expected to benefit future operations.
C. An economic resource representing cash or the right to receive cash in the near future.
D. Something owned by a business that has already market value.
89. For every transaction, the value of debits is equal to the value of:
A. Equity
B. Liability
C. Credit
D. Assets
90. On December 17, a catering service rendered to Raphael’s wedding and paid P25, 000 for the food supplies. Which
of the following can be considered as a credit?
A. P25, 000 for food supplies
B. P25, 00 cash
C. None
D. Accounts payable of P25, 000
91. This is equal to the sum of liabilities and owner’s equity.
A. Assets
B. Operating expenses
C. Revenue
D. Profit
92. JP Rodge opened a catering service he called “JP Rodge’s Catering Service”. He invested P35, 00 cash and
equipment, P85, 000. How much is his debit?
A. Cash and equipment amounting to P120, 000.
B. His capital amounting to P120, 000.
C. P35, 000 cash
D. P85, 000 for equipment
93. An activity statement that subtracts from the enterprise’s revenue those expenses required to generate the
revenues, resulting in a net income or a net loss.
A. Balance sheet
B. Financial Statement
C. Income statement
D. Statement of cash flow
94. The amount of owner’s investment in the business, plus profits from successful operation that have been in the
business.
A. Owner’s equity
B. Capital
C. Net profit
D. Gross profit
95. It is the first and most important tillage operation in preparing the land for to make it more moisture- retentive.
A. Cleaning
B. Plowing
C. Harrowing
D. Pulverizing
96. Is an organic material consisting of very fine rotted animal waste, plant parts and other organic and biodegradable
material.
A. Biomass
B. Compost
C. Heap
D. Fertilizer
97. This method of fish- culture is characterized by the use of net enclosures in shallow protected areas of inland
waters.
A. Cage method
B. Fishpen method
C. Aquarium method
D. Open- water method
98. The objective of applying fertilizers to fish ponds.
A. Promote fish growth
B. Enhance production
C. Neutralize method
D. Open- water method
99. This type of plants contains nitrogen in its roots which is converted nitrate by rhizolia thus, contributing to soil
fertility.
A. Vine crops
B. Root crops
C. Legumes
D. Tubers
100. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of fish- culture?
A. Fish cultivation
B. Fish propagation
C. Fish conservation
D. Fish marketing
101. As onion crop matures, the amount of irrigation should be decreased gradually. Prolonged water supply
within 2-3 weeks before harvest will produce immature bulbs with:
A. Rotting leaves
B. Thick neck
C. More root hairs
D. Thicker bulb
102. The amount heat required to take 1 lb. of water to change its temperature 1 degree F.
A. British Thermal Unit (BTU)
B. Voltage
C. Watt
D. Calorie
103. The following are reasons why a drawing pencil is better than an ordinary writing pencil
except____________.
A. Drawing pencils are made of a much better grade of graphite called lead.
B. It is possible to draw lines of uniform blackness.
C. Drawing pencils are more expensive so they produce better results.
D. There are different kinds on drawing pencils for specific work.
104. The following statements are good to follow when making lettering except______________.
A. Vertical guidelines are drawn lightly and are spaced at random.
B. When lower case letter are used, the capital letter is used for the beginning letter.
C. When using lower case letter only two horizontal guidelines are used.
D. When using two heights of letter only three guidelines are used.
105. When you want to indicate the center holes of an object to be made in the drawing, which of the following
line will you use?
A. Adjacent parts line
B. Center line
C. Ditto lines
D. Long break lines
106. If you want to contrast the outline of the subject and contract extension lines with long, slim arrowheads
what line will you use?
A. Construction lines
B. Dimensions lines
C. Extension lines
D. Guidelines
107. You wanted to know the increases in the enrolment of first year high school students this school year. The
easiest way of portraying ideas is through the use of _____________ graph.
A. Bar
B. Line
C. Organizational
D. Volume
108. What drawing equipment will you use if you want to represent each unit of the object to be made in its
proper scale or proportion?
A. Cross- ruled paper
B. Drawing board
C. Ruler
D. Triangles
109. In order to keep good spacing of letters in forming words, the areas between the letters should be
approximately equal which means___________.
A. Horizontal distances are equal.
B. Vertical distances are equal.
C. The space between two words in the same sentence should be equal to the height of the lines of the
letters.
D. The upper case letter is equal to the height of the capital letter.
110. This line is used to represent the visible edges if an object when making a drawing.
A. Hidden line
B. Long break line
C. Outline of parts
D. Section line
111. How will draw horizontal lines?
A. It is drawn from right to left.
B. It is drawn from left to right.
C. It is drawn along the vertical edge of triangle.
D. It is drawn in any direction.
112. This kind of line is a heavy wavy line made of freehand.
A. Cutting plane lines
B. Ditto lines
C. Long break lines
D. Short break lines
113. Which of the following of drawing is used to show the font, top and side of an object in their actual relation
to each other?
A. Isometric
B. Oblique
C. Perspective
D. Pictorial
114. This kind of drawing shows how object actually appeared to the observer?
A. Isometric
B. Oblique
C. Perspective
D. Pictorial
115. In dimensioning drawing the dimension figures should be about _____ inch high and the fraction should be
¼ inch high.
A. 1/6
B. 1/8
C. ¼
D. ½
116. The following are the importance of geometric construction except____________.
A. Developing sketches
B. Making lettering
C. Making plans
D. Reading drawing
117. Which of the following is a description of obtuse angle?
A. It is greater than 90 degree and less than 180 degrees.
B. An angle less than 90 degrees.
C. It has two equal sides.
D. It is 45 degrees.
118. These are two types of triangles use in mechanical drawing. The one used to construct oblique is
_________.
A. 45 x 95
B. 30 x 60
C. 60 x 90
D. 45 x 45
119. Perspective drawing has two kinds. The one point perspective and two point perspective drawing. Which is
the other name for the 2 point perspective?
A. Angular perspective
B. Architectural perspective
C. Layman’s perspective
D. Parallel perspective
120. What line used to represents the three exploded views of an object. The most common views are front, top
and right side view. What do you call this drawing?
A. Cavalier drawing
B. Isometric drawing
C. Orthographic drawing
D. Perspective drawing
121. When using lower case letter, how many horizontal guidelines are used?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
122. What can you use to scrape off incorrectly inked line when eraser is not available?
A. Art gum
B. Razor blade
C. Rubber eraser
D. Sharpener
123. What usually is used by a draftsman to make the pencil point sharp?
A. Blade
B. Pad of sandpaper
C. Pencil sharpener
D. Sharp knife
124. What kind of triangle has two equal sides and two equal angles?
A. Obtuse
B. Equilateral
C. Isosceles
D. Scalene
125. Which of the following combinations of letter can be overlapped slightly?
A. D, E
B. L, T
C. M, N
D. A, B
126. The following are descriptions of tangent lines except_______________.
A. A straight line is tangent to a circle when it touch at only one point.
B. The radius of a circle drawn to the point of tangency is perpendicular to the tangent.
C. An arc of a given radius tangent to two lines at right angles.
D. The point of intersection is the radius.
127. Some detail of top view of a section of a country is shown in a ___________ map.
A. Contour
B. Geographic
C. Relief
D. Topographic
128. A point is the projection of a line if it is perpendicular to the:
A. Plane of projection
B. Plane of direction
C. Plane of projection
D. Plane of interjection
129. The recommended height of lettering for subtitles is ____________ of an inch.
A. 1/16
B. 1/8
C. 3/16
D. ¼
130. The zero point of a line graph is called __________.
A. Axis
B. Extension
C. Intersection
D. Origin
131. Which of the following is a description of one- point perspective?
A. Horizontal line leads to two vanishing point.
B. Both vanishing points are located on the horizontal.
C. All horizontal line point towards the one vanishing point.
D. It doesn’t require a vanishing point.
132. In an oblique drawing the most commonly used angle is ______ degrees.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
133. What do you call the worldwide system of computer networks- a network of networks in which users at any
one computer can, if they have permission, get information from any other computer?
A. WAN
B. Internet
C. LAN
D. Intranet
134. Which one of the following refers to creditors of the mind, inventions, literary and artistic works, and
symbols, names, images and designs used in commerce?
A. Intellectual property
B. Copyright
C. Intellectual property rights
D. Inventions
135. Which one does not belong to the group?
A. Hacker
B. Cyber extortionist
C. Cyber terrorist
D. Programmer
136. What do you call the software that is distributed free in a trial basis with the understanding that the user
may need or want to pay for it later?
A. Freeware
B. Public domain software
C. Shareware
D. Firmware
137. Which type of computer is very useful for mobile computing nowadays?
A. Table PC
B. Desktop
C. Laptop/ Notebook
D. Wireless computer
138. What is the meaning of URL?
A. Uniform Reading Locator
B. Unidentified reading Location
C. Uniform Resource Locator
D. Unidentified Resource Locator
139. It is the geometric arrangement of a computer system.
A. Bus
B. Network
C. Star
D. Topology
140. Which one of the following is a search engine?
A. Java
B. Google
C. Firefox
D. Internet explorer
141. Which programs are uncopyrighted because their authors intended to share them with everyone else?
A. Public domain software
B. Shareware
C. Freeware
D. Beta version
142. Which of the following refers to the physical components of the computer system?
A. Software
B. Hardware
C. Firmware
D. Central processing Unit
143. Sending a file from your computer to another computer is called___________.
A. Emulation
B. Uploading
C. Downloading
D. Freeloading
144. Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Web sources must always be cited in your report.
B. You are free to copy information you find and include it in your report.
C. It is just alright to distribute copies of your newly bought original DVD to your friends.
D. You do not have to cite the web sources you use in your research report.
145. Http://www.classzone.com is an example of what?
A. URL
B. A directory
C. An access code
D. A server
146. What was the frost fast- food restaurant to offer patrons free 20 minutes of internet time?
A. Burger king
B. Jolibee
C. McDonalds
D. Starbucks
147. Which of the following statements about computer virus is TRUE?
A. Text file are the only files to be corrupted by viruses.
B. File are always permanently damaged by viruses.
C. Files can be damaged by computer viruses.
D. Compressed files can never be damaged by viruses.
148. Which one of the following is an appropriate routine to shut down a non- responding application?
A. Close all open documents and press the power button until the computer automatically switches off.
B. Press Ctrl = Alt = Delete, select the application in the Task manager window and click End task.
C. Pull out the power cable from the back of the computer.
D. Click shut down on the start menu and choose shut down from the Shutdown windows drop down list.
149. The search related literature by accessing several data bases by the use of a telephone line to connect a
computed library with other computers that have database is termed____________.
A. Compact disc search
B. On-line search
C. Manual Search
D. Computer search
150. Your printer is not receiving the print command. Which should up do first?
A. Replace the ink cartridges.
B. Check the computer’s default printer settings.
C. Reset the printing properties of the printer.
D. Realign the heads of the printer’s print.

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