PROJECT MANAGEMENT
UGANDA INSTITUTE OF INFORMATION AND
COMMUNICATIONS TECHNOLOGY
WEEKDAY PROGRAMME END OF SEMESTER TWO
EXAMINATIONS
ACADEMIC YEAR 2022/2023
DEPARTMENT: ICT
SEMESTER: TWO
PROGRAMME(S): DIPLOMA IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
FOR SCIENCE (DITS)
DIPLOMA IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY FOR
BUSINESS (DITB)
DIPLOMA IN ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS
ENGINEERING (DEEE)
YEAR OF STUDY: TWO
COURSE: PROJECT MANAGEMENT FOR INFORMATION
SYSTEMS
PROJECT MANAGEMENT
COURSE CODE : IT223/ELT2202
DATE: SATURDAY 26TH, NOVEMBER 2022
TIME: 2:00 PM – 5:00 PM
DURATION: 3 HOURS
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PROJECT MANAGEMENT
INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) This paper contains two Sections: A (40 marks) & B (60 marks).
(ii) Attempt ALL questions in Section A, and ONLY THREE questions in
Section B.
(iii) All questions in Section B carry equal marks.
(iv) Credit will be given for use of relevant examples and illustrations.
(v) Begin each number in Section B on a new page of the answer sheet.
(vi) DO NOT write on this question paper.
SECTION A [40 MARKS]
Attempt ALL the Questions in this Section.
Qn1. Project management is the ____________________ of project activities to meet
project objectives.
a. Planning b. Controlling c. Scheduling d. All the above
Qn2. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?
a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
Qn3. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?
a. Benefits
b. Quality
c. Tolerance
d. Controls
Qn4. Which of the following is a possible reason for project scope changes?
a. Inadequately defined problem.
b. Unforeseen problems.
c. Budget oversights.
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d. All the above.
Qn5. Which one of the following best describes users?
a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project
b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs
c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure
d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.
Qn6. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should
be communicated to __________________.
a. the project team
b. the project stakeholders
c. the project board
d. the project sponsor.
Qn7. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the
_______________.
a. Cost Breakdown Structure.
b. procurement strategy.
c. business case.
d. Project Management Plan.
Qn8. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. satisfy the organisation’s project management process.
Qn9. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar
called?
a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.
Qn10. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to
______________________.
a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
Qn11. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?
a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
c. To manage the project team in all daily activities.
d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.
Qn12. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to
__________________.
a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations.
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PROJECT MANAGEMENT
Qn13. Which of the following best describes a project environment?
a. The type of organisation concerned with implementation.
b. The structured method used to control the project.
c. The context within which a project is undertaken.
d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.
Qn14. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?
a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering
organisational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique
piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
d. A project is a method of planning work.
Qn15. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why,
when and how is called the ________________.
a. communication management plan.
b. stakeholder mapping grid.
c. document distribution schedule.
d. responsibility assignment matrix.
Qn16. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure
the project manager delivers on time and to budget
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for
quality will be exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are
fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between
customer expectations and budget.
Qn17. Project risk management is best described as ______________.
a. managing responses to threats
b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities
c. planning responses to threats
d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
Qn18. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine
_____________.
a. overall project duration
b. project cost estimating
c. the project management plan
d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities
Qn19. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.
Qn20. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criterion?
a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
b. The date by which the project is to be completed.
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PROJECT MANAGEMENT
c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.
Qn21. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals
b. Management buy-in
c. Milestone achievement
d. Master schedule.
Qn22. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The project team
b. The chief executive
c. The project manager
d. The project support office
Qn23. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager?
a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
Qn24. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?
a. Teamwork
b. Motivation
c. Management
d. Leadership
Qn25. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?
a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.
Qn26. In project management, the term quality is best defined as ________________.
a. inspection, testing and measurement.
b. reviews and audits.
c. fitness for purpose of deliverables.
d. professionally-bound project reports.
Qn27. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to
_________________.
a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
Qn28. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?
a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
c. Assigning resources to activities.
d. Matching resources to the schedule.
Qn29. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
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PROJECT MANAGEMENT
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.
Qn30. Project reporting can best be defined as ___________________.
a. informing stakeholders about the project.
b. storing and archiving of project information.
c. gathering stakeholder feedback.
d. collecting project information.
Qn31. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?
a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project
life cycle.
b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge
available now.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of
progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time
or cost terms.
Qn32. An important aim of a post-project review is to ___________________.
a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. capture learning and document it for future usage.
c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
d. establish that project benefits have been identified.
Qn33. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is
called _______________.
a. quality assurance
b. quality planning
c. quality control
d. quality audit
Qn34. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?
a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the
project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a
product.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are
acquired.
Qn35. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to ________________.
a. define the terms of reference of the project manager.
b. define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.
d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.
Qn36. An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify
____________________.
a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
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c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the
project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the
projects.
Qn37. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
a. Actively seeking some senior management support.
b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A motivated project team.
Qn38. Comparative estimating uses _____________________.
a. current data from similar projects.
b. historic data from all projects.
c. historic data from similar projects.
d. current data from all projects.
Qn39. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to ________________.
a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit,
cost and risk of alternative options.
b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference
document for managing the project.
d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management
processes.
Qn40. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?
a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.
SECTION B [60 MARKS]
Attempt ONLY THREE Questions in this Section.
Question 1
Uganda Investment Authority (UIA), as the chief investment promotion agency of the
Government of Uganda, embarked on constructing industrial and business development
parks in all regions in Uganda. You have been appointed as the project manager on this
government project.
a) What will be some of your four functions? (5 marks)
b) Using the above scenario, identify any three project stakeholders (3 marks)
c) Give and explain four reasons why you think this exercise is a project (8 marks)
d) State any four reasons that may cause the project to fail (4 marks)
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Question 2
a) Project management knowledge area is divided into core and facilitating knowledge
areas. Using an illustration, briefly describe the nine knowledge areas of project
management. (10 marks)
b) The project lifecycle is composed of five process groups, each with a number of
activities and outputs involved. Fill in the table below about the project Life Cycle
(5
marks)
Stage Initiation Planning Closure
Output Deliverable Performance
Reports
c) Using an organization with which you are familiar, prepare a work breakdown
structure for any intranet project. (5 marks)
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Question 3
a) Discuss any four measures of project success. (4 marks)
b) What are the tools that can be used to measure project success? (Give any four)
(4
marks)
c) Explain the four stages of the risk management process. (8 marks)
d) Briefly explain any four software project risks. (4 marks)
Question 4
a) What is project team building? (2 marks)
b) Suggest five factors you as a project manager would consider when building a
project team. (10 marks)
c) Discuss any two barriers to project team development. (4 marks)
d) Explain how each of the two barriers in (c) above can be overcome. (4 marks)
Question 5
a) How does a project benefit from high employee retention? (Discuss three benefits)
(6
marks)
b) Briefly discuss any three strategies of ensuring employee retention. (6 marks)
c) What are some of the ways a project manager can motivate his team? (Discuss any
two ways) (4 marks)
d) What are some of the causes of employee separation? (Explain any two causes)
(4
marks)
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Question 6
[a)] Project time management ensures that a project is completed within the specified
time. In light of this statement, outline the main processes involved in project time
management. (5 marks)
a)[b)] In scheduling project activities, one can employ four task relationships. Identify
these relationships and explain what they are. (4 marks)
b)[c)] Use the activity graph below to answer the following:
2 Wks 6 Wks
5 Wks
A D G
Start 7 Wks 4 Wks Finish
B E
3 Wks 8 Wks
6 Wks
C F H
i) Show the critical path (1 mark)
ii) Given that
EST = earliest start time, EFT = earliest finish time, LST = latest start time,
LFT = latest finish time, Slack = (LST - EST) or (LFT - EFT);
Fill the table below (10 marks)
Activity Predecessor Duratio EST EFT LST LFT Slack
n
Start
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Finish
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