Promotion Made Easy

AAROHAN 2023-24
(Mantra 2 Success)

SUPER HOT QUESTIONS - 2023

(FOR CANARA BANK PROMOTION TEST DTD. 11.11.2023)
A BOOK ON ALL IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON LATEST CHANGES IN BANKING, FINANCE & CIRCULARS

संकलनकता / Compiled by
TEAM AAROHAN
के नरा बक, अंचल कायालय, लखनऊ / Canara Bank, Circle Office, Lucknow
 ावना / Forward

ि य केनराइट् स / Dear Canarites,

Everyone knows that the knowledge is the key to success in life. Benjamin Franklin said, “An investment in Knowledge
pays the best interest”. I always believe that “An investment in knowledge pays the best and perpetual dividend”.
I always opine that Knowledge will bring opportunity to make a difference.
The Banking Sector, currently, is experiencing a transformation catalyzed by digitalization and information explosion
with customer as the focal point. Besides, Competition from NBFCs,FinTechs, Changing business models, growing
importance of risk & compliance, along with disruptive technologies, have contributed to this radical shift. Such an ever-
evolving ecosystem requires strategic agility and constant upgradation of skill levels on the part of the Banker to chart a
clear pathway for their professional development and Career growth.
Banking has been a dynamic subject. Banks are exposed to various risks and more so, the Operational Risk, due to rapid
changes in domestic and international economy. In this context, well trained, skilful and knowledgeable staff will be one
of the effective risk mitigants in managing the Operational Risk.
Today, our Bank needs not just knowledgeable employees but a vibrant work force who have a sense of belonging,
passion for seeking business with required product awareness and right marketing skills. I hope you will be the one among
the committed employees who will help the Bank scale higher summits in the days to come.
Reading helps a great deal in building up our confidence, reduces stress and puts us in a better mood. It also develops
our imagination and provides us with a fortune of knowledge. It is rightly said that books are man’s best friend as reading
helps build up our wisdom and thinking capabilities. Interest in reading, like any other habit, comes with time. Once a
person starts reading, it becomes a habit and he/she starts exploring a whole new world. Even in this digital age when
any information is just a click away, reading has its own charm.
It gives me immense pleasure while presenting the sincere efforts made by Mr. Sanjay Kumar Trivedy, AGM, Circle Office
& Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow has put a lot of efforts in bringing out this e-book “AAROAN -2023-24 :
SUPER HOT QUESTIONS 2023” – A Book on all most important Questions based on Circulars,
Schemes & latest Changes/Guidelines. This Question Bank is given to assess your Potential, Strength,
Weakness and Present Position to correct yourself for better performance on the date of examination.

I convey my best wishes to Canarites appearing for promotional exams, may good luck be in their favor and their
preparation brings the best outcomes

Happy Learning!

शुभकामना के साथ / With Best Wishes,

आलोक कु मार अ वाल / Alok Kumar Agarwal

महा बंधक / General Manager
के नरा बक, अंचल कायालय, लखनऊ / Canara Bank, Circle Office, Lucknow.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 1|P a g e

 प रचय/ Preface

ि य सािथयो / Dear Colleagues,

“DEVELOP A PASSION FOR LEARNING, IF YOU DO SO, YOU WILL NEVER CEASE TO GROW”

In golden words of A P J Abdul Kalam sir- “Dream is not that which you see while sleeping it is something that does
not let you sleep.” Never stop learning, there’s always one more step to go.
India's banking sector remains healthy despite challenges faced by the banking sectors of developed economies like
Europe and the US. As RBI Governor Mr.Shaktikanta Das said, The Indian banking system remains sound and healthy, with
strong capital and liquidity positions, improving asset quality, better provisioning coverage along with improved
profitability. With these positive signs Indian banking sector is expected to evolve at an unprecedented pace with
significant transformations in coming years.
The Banking Industry in the recent years have been witnessing dynamic changes in the lending practices, where both the
private and public sector banks are equally adopting aggressive stances in lending. The parameters for judging the
performance of banks have also seen a paradigm shift and overall strength is assessed in terms of capital adequacy,
internal health, NPA levels, profitability, corporate governance and business growth and a situation has evolved where
only the fittest and the strongest can survive and prosper.
Our bank is poised to reach greater heights through a sustainable & inclusive growth in advances, CASA with
technological leverage which will improve the bottom line. But, to have a sustainable growth our staff members should
keep themselves updated and ahead of others. Our bank is one of the pioneers having knowledgeable employees who are
ahead of peers.
“Education is the key to unlocking the golden door of Success.” The whole process of education is to turn the dreams in
to reality. Love for reading ignites a passion for learning and learning brings about refinement in an individual. But, with
the advent of electronic media and consequent engagement with television, Internet & mobile phones, reading has taken
a back seat. To gain a competitive edge and to sustain, one needs to be updated as to what is new in the profession.
Knowledge updation plays a very important role in one’s profession.
“AAROAN -2023-24 : SUPER HOT QUESTIONS
With a sense of great delight that,We are giving this e-book
2023” – A Book on all Most Important Possible Questions based on Circulars, Schemes & latest
Changes/Guidelines and your revision book for final touch. This will help you to score more in your
Promotion Test which is going to be held on 11th Nov. 2023 during last minutes revision as well as very helpful in your
day today Branch Banking & updation of your knowledge. Nearly 70-80% direct questions will be based on these latest
changes are going to ask in your Promotion test.The beauty of this book is written in very simple & lucid manner so that
it will be understand by every one.
All possible care is taken to provide error free information, however, readers may note that the information given herein
is merely for guidance/reference and they need to refer the relevant circulars & Manuals for full details.
I express my sincere thanks to Team Aarohan, Lucknow and Special thanks to Sri M C S Reddy Sir, (Rtd. AGM and
Poineer of SNAP SHOT) and my wife Smt. Renu Kumari ( Ex. Chief Manager of Bank of Baroda ) for their whole
hearted support in compilation of this book.
I solicit your views on the content and quality of the topics for further improvement.
Let’s work together to learn, to grow and to succeed. I convey my greetings to the aspirants of promotion and hope
this book will be helpful for them to prepare for the promotion exams. May all your dreams come true.
Happy Learning & Best Wishes,

संजय कु मार ि वेदी / Sanjay Kuamr Trivedi

सहायक महा बंधक / Assistant General Manager
(HRM, Premises & General Administration, MSME & CRM Section)
अंचल कायालय, लखनऊ /Circle Office, Lucknow

दनांक / Date : 09.11.2023

थान / Place : लखनऊ / Lucknow

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 2|P a g e

 TABLE OF INDEX
SI. Page No.
CONTENTS
No
04-14
1. DEPOSITS, KYC & AML
14-19
2. DIGITAL BANKING

3. 19-24
GOVT. BUSINESS & GOVT. SPONSORED SCHEMES
4. 25-28
HRD MATTERS & STAFF LOANS
5. 28-41
GENERAL BANKING
6. 42-46
VARIOUS ACTS & LAWS RELATED TO BANKING
7. 46-54
GENERAL ADVANCES
8. 55-66
PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING, AGRICULTURE & GOLD LOANS
9. 66-77
MSME
10. 77-81
RETAIL LENDING
11. 81-89
NPA & LEGAL ASPECT OF RECOVERY
12. 89-93
FOREIGN EXCHANGE & INTERNATIONAL TRADE

अ वीकरण : यह संकलन हमारे कमचा रय के कामकाजी ान को समृ करने के दृि कोण से तैयार कया गया है और इसम अ तन और सही
जानकारी दान करने का हरसंभव यास कया गया है। अंचल कायालय, लखनऊ, साम ी म कसी भी ु ट या चूक के िलए कोई िज़ मेदारी या
दािय व नह लेता है और इस साम ी म शािमल जानकारी िविभ ोत से "जहां है, जैसी है" के आधार पर दान क गई है। अिधक जानकारी के
िलए, इस पु तक के उपयोगकता को आरबीआई प रप , आईबीए दशािनदश, सरकारी अिधसूचनाएं, बक ारा जारी हमारे प रप आ द को संद भत
करने क सलाह दी जाती है।
Disclaimer: This compilation is prepared from the point of view of enriching the working knowledge of our employees and every
effort has been made to provide updated and correct information. Circle Office, Lucknow assumes no responsibility or liability for any
errors or omissions in the contents and the information connained in this material, is provided “on an as is” basis from various sources.
For more Information,the user of this book are advised to also refer RBI Circulars, IBA guidelines, Govt. Notifications, Our Circulars
issued by the Bank etc.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 3|P a g e

1. DEPOSITS , KYC AND AML

1. Bank has Automatied Service Charges for Small Denomination Notes (Rs.50 and below) during cash deposit if the
number of pieces is more than 1000 (10 packets)- (Applicable To SB/CA/OD/CC). What are the charges applicable:
Ans: ₹10/- per packet or part thereof – Minimum ₹10/- Maximum of ₹10000/-+GST (This is in addition to normal Cash
Handling Charges.)
2. From the date of account opening by Central Processing Hub, Uploading / Updating of CKYC should be completed in
____ days. Ans: T + 5 days
3. Bulk Deposit: Single Rupee term deposits of Rupees _____ Ans: Two Crore and above
4. If branches are desirous of quoting deposits with validity period / preferential rate for Bulk Deposit of Rs.2 Crore and
above to less than Rs.10 Crore then permission has to be obtained from __________through their respective Circle
office (MIPD Section). Ans: Integrated Treasury Wing (for card rates, no permission required and branches can do
upto Rs.10 cr)
5. What is the minimum and maximum instalment amount of Dhanavarsha RD. : Ans: min.Rs.500/- per month,
maximum Rs.1 lakh. Top up of upto 10 times of instalment.
6. For opening SB-FCRA accounts with our branches, the Association/Organization has to produce Registration
Certificate of Ministry of Home Affairs, GOI and the same to be renewed for every 5 years with MoHA, GOI.
Withdrawals of Rs.______ and above in these accounts are allowed by way of A/c payee cheque/draft / NEFT / RTGS
only. Ans: Rs.20,000/-
7. Canara Delite Current Account is for catering the needs of Higher Business Class segment who maintain quarterly
Average balance ₹ 10 lakh & above. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of required minimum balance: Ans: ₹
2500 per quarter. If the required Balance is not maintained for more than a Quarter the Freebies will be withdrawn.
8. For Canara Delite Current Account , Auto sweep /Reverse sweep facility is available for balance above ₹ 10.00 lakh
and for Period 15 to 181 days in the multiples of Rs.____ Ans: ₹ 5 lakh.
9. Canara Premium Payroll Package Savings Account- Platinum Variant is for employees with salary band of Rs.150000/-
and above. What is the Free Lounge facility for this account holders. Ans: Lounge access: 2 per Quarter(20+ Domestic
Airport Lounges) 2 per year (500 + International Airport Lounges)
10. What is the minimum balance criteria for Canara SB Select account: Ans: The minimum monthly average balance for
rural branch is Rs 10,000/-, for Semi Urban branch is Rs15,000/- and for urban branch is Rs 20,000/- and for metro
branch is Rs 25,000/-.
11. As per KYC guidelines, “Controlling ownership interest” means ownership of / entitlement to More than ____ percent
of the shares or capital or profits of the company. Ans: 10%
12. The beneficial owner is the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more
Juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to More than ____ Per Cent of capital or profits of the
partnership. Ans: 15%
13. NRO accounts of Foreign Students – 30 days time to submit local address proof after opening the account. During the
30 days period, the account should be operated with a condition of allowing foreign remittances not exceeding USD
1,000 or equivalent into the account and a cap of monthly withdrawal to Rs. _______pending verification of address.
Ans: Rs.50,000/-
14. KYC data of individual accounts is to be uploaded to Central KYC Registry (CKYCR of CERSAI) within _____days from
the date of establishing account based relationship. Ans: T+5 days
15. Account opening forms pertaining to closed accounts are to be preserved for ____ years from the date of closing the
accounts. Closed ledger sheets/ transaction details in respect of LIVE accounts are to be preserved for a period
of____ years from the date of last transaction in the account. Ans: 10 years., 10 years
16. Under Relationship Banking, Relationship Officials at branches are assigned with Customer Relationship Management
functions of Top ____ clients of the Branch. Ans: 200 clients (150 CASA, 50 RAM Credit) Additional 25 New
Customers (Dynamic Part)
17. Jeevandhara Platinum SB account is for pensioners with monthly pension above Rs.50,000/-, issued with Rupay Select
Debit card with ATM cash with drawal limit per day of Rs.1 lakh. What is the insurance coverage (upto 65 years):
Ans: PAI 24 lakhs, AAI 30 lakhs including Rupay Select Debit Card . For Defence Pensioner: PAI 40 lakhs, AAI 40
lakhs including Rupay Select Debit Card
18. What is the permissible TOD in Canara Premium Payroll Package scheme: Ans: Silver variant: 50% of previous month
net salary; Gold variant: 2 months net with max.Rs 1 lakh; Diamond variant : 3 months net salary with max. Rs.2
lakhs, Platinum: 3 months net salary with maximum Rs 3 lakhs.
19. As per KYC guidelines, the threshold for "Controlling ownership interest" for the purpose of determination of
Beneficial Owner (BO) has been revised to ____ percent for both Companies and Trusts from earlier threshold of 25
percent and 15 percent, respectively. Ans: 10 %
20. A person who does not have an account-based relationship with the Bank, but undertakes transactions with the Bank
is known as _____ Ans: Walk-in Customer

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 4|P a g e

21. Capturing live photo of the Customer and Officially Valid Document or the proof of possession of Aadhaar, where
offline verification cannot be carried out, along with the latitude and longitude of the location where such live photo
is being taken by an authorized officer of the bank is considered as ______ Ans: Digital KYC
22. Periodic updation (Re-KYC) shall be carried out at least once in every two years for High risk customers, once in
every _____years for Medium risk customers and once in every ten years for Low risk customers from the date of
opening of the account/last KYC updation. Ans: eight (8) years
23. Current or Savings accounts should be opened with initial deposit of cash. What is the reason: Ans: While collecting
cheques, we can get legal protection only if they are collected for customers.
24. No interest is payable for Current Accounts. However, in case of death of an Individual / Proprietor of a
Proprietorship account, banks are allowed to pay interest @ _____ from the date of death till settlement. Ans:
Savings Bank Interest Rate
25. Current Accounts are not generally opened in the names of Pardanashin ladies. However, the same can be opened
with the prior permission of ______ Ans: Resources Section (MIPD & PP) of respective Circle Office
26. In the case of death of a partner of a firm or termination of a guarantee, any amounts credited to the account after
that event, go to reduce the liability of the estate of the deceased partner or the guarantor; and no debits to the
account after that event are valid as against the estate of the deceased partner or against the guarantor. This rule is
called as ______ Ans: Rule in Clayton’s Case.
27. Branches are not permitted to open Interest Free Deposits for customers. However, where a customer so intends,
Interest free deposit account can be accepted under ________account. Ans: Current Account
28. CANARA DELITE Current Account is Designed to cater needs of higher business class segment who maintain quarterly
average balance of Rs.10 lac and above. For non-maintenance of minimum balance, what the penalty: Ans: Charges
Rs. 2000/- per Quarter
29. For Canara Elite Current Account customers, NPCI covers accident insurance coverage of Rs.10 lacs, provided there
is atleast one financial transaction within ____ days’ prior to the date of accident as compulsory condition. Ans: 30
days
30. RERA Current Account is opened for various projects of Builders as per RERA guidelines. RERA CA allows advance
payments collected from the home buyers by way of automated funds flow from RERA Pooling account to RERA
Designate account & Regular Current account of Builders. On receipt of collection proceeds of the project amount,
deposited by the customer in the RERA collection account (Pooling account), ____ % will be automatically remitted
to project’s RERA Designated Current Account (for the purpose of construction and land cost), remaining ____% of
the deposited amount will be automatically remitted to customer’s regular Current Account (as specified in the
Request Letter) on a real time basis. Ans : 70%; 30%
31. Branches should ensure prompt despatch of returned cheques/ instruments with in _____ to the parties on account
of the time factor available to them to invoke the provisions of Sec.138 of NI Act, etc. Such returns are to be done
through local delivery against acknowledgement/ approved courier agencies and where the facility is not available,
through the Regd. Post etc. Ans: Within 24 hours.
32. Account opening forms pertaining to closed accounts are to be preserved for _____ years from the date of closing
the accounts. Ans: 10 years
33. For the first 6 months from the date of opening the account, all DEBITS of Rs. _____lakh and above in case of
Current Account shall be authorized by the Manager of the Department / Branch in charge in case of branches other
than VLB / ELB. Ans: 1.00 lakh
34. If no specific amount is mentioned in Garnishee Order, the Garnishee Order attaches______ amount due to the
customer from the Bank on the date on which the Order is served. Ans: All sums (owing and accruing on the day)
35. Canara SB Jeevandhara Platinum account is for Pensioners who receive monthly pension of more than Rs.50,000/-.
What is the eligibility for Instant Overdraft facility to these pensioners: Ans: Credit of pension for at least 2
consecutive months, Overdraft facility-3 month pension or max.Rs 200000, Max age-75 year, Valid for 90 days, ROI:
RLLR + 2.50%.
36. Instant Overdraft Facility is available for Canara Premium Payroll Accounts and the same may be availed through Ai1
app for a maximum period of 15 days and through branch visit for a period of _____ Ans: 2 months (Gold) 3 months
(Diamond/Platinum) ROI: RLLR+2.4%
37. What is the Term Life Insurance (TLI) coverage for Canara Premium Payroll Accounts and when it commences. Ans:
Commences from 10 days of a/c opening. TLI: Silver: Rs.1 lakh, Gold 2 lakhs, Diamond 4 lacs; Platinum 6 lakhs
coverage
38. What is the personal Accident Insurance (PAI) / Air Accident Insurance (AAI) coverage for Canara Premium Payroll
Accounts: Ans: Silver : PAI/AAI = 16 lacs/18 lacs; For Gold 26/28 lacs; Diamond 44/48 lacs; Platinum 54/58 lacs.
39. What is the monthly minimum average balance prescribed for Canara SB select Savings account and its freebies: Ans:
Rural Rs.10,000/- SU:15,000/- Urban:20,000/- and Metro 25000/-. SMS charges, RTGS, NEFT, IMPS and Unlimited
Locker Operations Free.
40. What is the threshold limit for Sweep-Out facility in respect of RERA Current Account : Ans: Threshold Limit: Rs.
5,00,000/-.Multiples for TD : Rs. 5,00,000/-.Sweep-Out Frequency : weekly, on every Monday. Deposit period 7-45
days.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 5|P a g e

41. Quotation for preferential rate of interest on Bulk Deposits of Rs.2.00 crores and above to be obtained from____ (Cir
753/2023) Ans: Integrated Treasury Wing through their respective Circle office
42. For accepting single Bulk Term Deposits of Rs.10 crore and above by Non-Designated Branches, permission to be
obtained from _____ (cir 753/2023) Ans: Head of S&R Wing, on the recommendations of Circle Head.
43. Environmental, Social, Governance & Climate Risk related parameters are introduced in CBPR Model for Corporate
Borrowers having exposure of Rs.______ (cir 755/2023) : Rs. >=50 Cr (FB + NFB)
44. Concession in applicable Rate of Interest on account of upgradation of External/Internal Rating of the Borrower may
be effected immediately after rating without waiting for renewal of the limits, for the exposures of Rs.______
(cir757/2023) Ans:Above Rs. 7.50 Crores.
45. What is “CAMPAIGN INDRADHANUSH” : Ans: Garnering maximum accounts under Premium Payroll Package, SB –
Select & CA – Delite/Elite, RERA, SB Jeevandhara, Non Resident Accounts & RD products.To achieve CASA & RTD
Targets for Q3.To encourage account opening through Digital channels i.e. TAB & Instant Account opening through
SAS
46. Which facility is not available in Canara SB/CA-CNA Account-Central Sector Scheme (CSS)? Ans.1 and 3 only
1.Check Book, 2.SMS Facility , 3.Debit Card, 4.Internet Banking & 5.One time porting
47. What is the age criteria for being eligible for opening Canara SB premium Payroll account? 18 to 60 years
48. Which statement is incorrect?
a. Salary band for opening Canara SB Premium Parroll account under Silver variant is upto Rs 50000
b. Salary band for opening Canara SB Premium Parroll account under Gold variant is Rs 50000 to less than Rs 100000
c. Salary band for opening Canara SB Premium Parroll account under Diamond variant Rs 100000 to less than 150000
d. Salary band for opening Canara SB Premium Parroll account under Platinum variant is Rs 150000 &above
Variants of Canara SB premium Payroll account is based upon monthly average balance, hence all are incorrect.
49. Upto what extent concession in locker rent is available to under Silver variant of Canara SB PremiumParroll account?
(in %) No concession
50. In case of non-crediting of salary to Diamond variant of Canara SB Premium Parroll account for threecontinuous
months or four months in discrete way in the financial year or prorate basis thereon thereshall be penalty ______.
Rs. 750 plus applicable GST
51. In case of non-crediting of salary to Platinum variant of Canara SB Premium Parroll account for threecontinuous
months or four months in discrete way in the financial year or prorate basis thereon thereshall be penalty ________
Rs. 1000 plus applicable GST
52. Maximum TOD available to Canara SB Premium Parroll account holder under Platinum variant is 3 months net salary
up to – Rs. 3 lakh
53. Maximum TOD available to Canara SB Premium Parroll account holder under Diamond variant is 3 months net salary
up to – Rs. 2 lakh
54. Which facility is not available under Platinum variant of Canara SB Payroll Package scheme is Term Life Insurance
Cover upto Rs 10 lakhs
55. Which facility is not available under Diamond variant of Canara SB Payroll Package scheme is Term Life Insurance
Cover upto Rs 4 lakhs
56. Which facility is not available under Gold variant of Canara SB Payroll Package scheme is Term Life Insurance Cover
upto Rs 2 lakhs
57. Concessions available in issuance of RuPay Select debit card to Canara SB Premium Payroll account holder under
Diamond variant is Issuance free and 100 % waiver in AMC
58. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Metro Branch is___. Rs 25000
59. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Rural Branch is___. Rs 10000
60. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Urban Branch is__. Rs 20000
61. Upto what extent concession in locker rent is available to under Gold variant of Canara SBPremiumParroll account?
(in %) 5
62. Upto what extent concession in locker rent is available to under Platinum variant of Canara SBPremiumParroll
account? (in %) 15
63. In case of non-crediting of salary to Silver variant of Canara SB Premium Parroll account for threecontinuous months
or four months in discrete way in the financial year or prorate basis thereon thereshall be penalty of ______. Rs. 250
plus applicable GST
64. In case of non-crediting of salary to Gold variant of Canara SB Premium Parroll account for threecontinuous months
or four months in discrete way in the financial year or prorate basis thereon thereshall be penalty of ______. Rs. 250
plus applicable GST
65. Term Insurance is ______ from the date of Canara SB premium Payroll account opening. available in 10 days
66. How many free cheque leaves can be provided under Canara SB Select scheme? 25 Cheque leaves in a Calendar Year
67. Which entity is incorporated as a union government company to act as an Information Utility and Digital Document
Execution (DDE) Service provider? - NeSL
68. Under Bankers Indemnity Policy, for all insurance claims upto _____, FIR is Waived. Only Police Complaint is required
for processing the claim. - Rs 8.00 lakhs
69. Under Bankers Indemnity Policy, Police complaint is waived for insurance claim in case of cash losses in ATM/E-
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 6|P a g e
 LOUNGE /CDM and Cash Recyclers up to ________. Rs 1.00 lakh
70. Under Burglary Policy, FIR is waived for insurance claims upto ______. - Rs 5.00 lakhs
71. Which claim is not covered under Banker’s Indemnity Policy? - Marine Transit Claims (Theft/Non-Delivery)
72. The facility for deposit and/or exchange of ₹2000 banknotes is available for members of the public up to ______. -
30.09.2023
73. What is the operational limit on the amount of ₹ 2000 banknotes that can be exchanged through Bank Branch? - ) Rs
20000 at a time
74. Investigation should be commenced in coordination with Inspection wing, HO within _______ of detection of fraud. -
48 hours
75. What is the operational limit on the amount of ₹ 2000 banknotes that can be exchanged through Business
Correspondents (BCs)? - Rs 4000/- per day for an account holder
76. Banks need to furnish Fraud Monitoring Return (FMR) in individual fraud cases, irrespective of the amount involved,
to RBI within _____ from the date of detection.- three weeks
77. The Penal Charge for keeping Minimum Monthly Average Balance less than Rs.4,999 in Canara SBselect SB account in
a Metro Branch is as under: - @ 65 per month
78. The identification of beneficial owner(s) for trust include identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the
beneficiaries with ___% or More Interest in the trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective
control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership. 10
79. The beneficial owner for a partnership firm is the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or
through one or more Juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to more than____% of capital or profits of
the partnership. 15
80. In case, Officially Valid Documents (OVDs) furnished by the customer does not contain updated address but submit
certain documents deemed to be OVD for the limited purpose of address proof, the Customer should submit updated
Officially Valid Document with current address within a period of_______ of submitting the above document. three
months
81. The _________ is responsible for ensuring compliance, monitoring transactions, and sharing and reporting
information as required under the PML Act/Rules. Principal Officer
82. For opening an account of a Company, certified copy of which of the following documents is not required? Certificate
of commencement of business
83. Bank account of foreign student studying in India may be permitted based upon declaration about the local address
within a period of _____of opening the account and verify the said local address. 30 days
84. What is the review periodicity for risk categorization of accounts? at least once in six months
85. If the average balance in SB, Current and Term Deposit account of a customer is ____________, it categorized as high
risk as per balance parameter of risk categorization for customer. Rs 100 lakhs & above
86. All accounts where the summation of cash transaction ______ either by way of credit or debit in a month are to be
reported under CTR. exceeds Rs 10 lakhs
87. What is the threshold limit of transactions involving receipts by non-profit organizations requiresmonthly reporting to
Director, FIU-IND? Rs 10 lakhs
88. Cross-border Wire Transfer Report (CWTR) is required to be filed by ______________ for all cross border wire
transfers of the value of more than ___________ or its equivalent in foreign currency where either the origin or
destination of fund is in India. 15th of succeeding month, Rs five lakhs
89. Where the number of soiled notes presented by a person is up to _______ with a maximum value of______ per day,
banks shall exchange them over the counter, free of charge. 20 pieces, Rs 5000
90. Where the number of mutilated and imperfect notes presented by a person is more than _______ but not exceeding
______ in value, the tenderer shall be advised to send such notes to nearby currency chest branch by insured post
giving bank account details or get them exchanged thereat in person. 5 pieces, Rs 5000
91. Take over of loans for Canara Premium Payroll Accounts permitted. Which of the following is the incorrect
statement? Take over of HL and Canara Budget loans for all variants of Payroll account holders permitted
92. In case, Officially Valid Documents (OVDs) furnished by the customer does not contain updatedaddress, the Utility
bill like electricity, telephone, post-paid mobile phone, piped gas, water billwhich is not more than ……………old of
any service provider shall be deemed to the OVD for the limitedpurpose of proof of address. two months
93. In case, Officially Valid Documents (OVDs) furnished by the customer does not contain updated address, which of the
following maybe taken for proof of address: Utility Bill not more than 2 months old
94. ________ is a term used to describe innocent victims who are duped by fraudsters into launderingstolen/ illegal
money via their bank account(s). Money Mule
95. What is full form of CFT? Combating Financing of Terrorism
96. Re-KYC is carried out at least once in every _____ for High risk customers, once in every _____ for Medium risk
customers and once in every ______ for Low risk customers from the date of opening of the account/last KYC
updation. two years, eight years, ten years
97. KYC data of individual accounts is to be uploaded to Central KYC Registry (CKYCR) within _______from the date of
establishing account based relationship. T+5 days
98. PMLA stands for _________. Prevention of Money Laundering Act
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 7|P a g e
99. As per vintage parameter of Risk categorization medium risk accounts are the accounts which are_________. 6
months to less than 12 months
100. If the average balance in SB, Current and Term Deposit account of a customer is ____________, itcategorized as
medium risk as per balance parameter of risk categorization for customer. Rs. 25 lakh & above but less than Rs.100
lakh
101. As per the regulatory guidelines, High Net worth Individual (HNI) is classified under High Riskcategory. Which
parameter is adopted for Categorization of HNI Customer? Enjoying term loans exceeding Rs 100 lakhs
102. What is the threshold limit of a customer fixed while for opening a SB account (Product Code101) in Metro
Branch? ) Rs 3 lakh
103. In terms of RBI guidelines, find out incorrect statement in respect of maximum intra group exposure ceiling.
a. In case of regulated financial services companies, Single Group Entity Exposure ceiling is 10% of Paid-up Capital and
Reserves.
b. In case of all non-financial companies and unregulated financial services companies taken together, Aggregate Group
Exposure ceiling is15% of Paid-up Capital and Reserves.
c. In case of the group i.e. all group entities (financial and non-financial) taken together, Aggregate Group Exposure
ceiling is 20% of Paid-upCapital and Reserves.
d. all are correct- Answer
104. In terms of RBI guidelines, what is exposure threshold limit to single borrowers enjoying creditfacilities for
classification as substantial exposure? 10% of capital fund
105. Where the aggregate exposure of the banking system is _____ or more, borrowers can opencurrent accounts with
any one of the banks with which it has CC/OD facility, provided that the bankhas at least _______ of the aggregate
exposure of the banking system to that borrower. Moderate Risk
106. The minimum amount to be deposited for opening current account is _____ for Rural, _____ forSemi Urban,
_____ for Urban and _____ for Metro branches. Rs 1000, Rs 2000, Rs 5000, Rs 7500
107. If the balance in inoperative current accounts falls below _________ and there is no responsewithin the specified
date the account is to be closed and the balance be credited to CommissionAccount Service Charges. Rs 20
108. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)? Minor and HUF can not be a
partner in LLP
109. Which is not the correct feature of Canara privilege current account?
a. Charges for non maintenance of minimum balance is Rs 2000 per quarter.
b. No Cash Handling charges for cash remittance up to Rs 5.00 lakhs per day.
c. Required minimum Quarterly Average Balance of Rs 1,00,000/-
d. Penalty for closing account within one year is Rs 2000+ Service Charges.
e. Auto sweep facility available for balance over Rs 5.00 lakhs and in multiples of Rs 1.00 lakh.
f. No cash handling charges for maximum remittance up to Rs 50 lakhs per month.
g. Required minimum Quarterly Average Balance of Rs 5,00,000/- Ans. a & b only are correct
110. Which statement is correct in respect of Canara delite current account?
a. Penalty for closing account within one year is Rs 2500+ Service Charges.
b. Charges for non maintenance of minimum balance is Rs 2500 per quarter.
c. Auto sweep facility available for balance over Rs 10.00 lakhs and in multiples of Rs 5.00 lakh.
d. No Cash withdrawal charges for cash remittance at home branch.
e. Required minimum Quarterly Average Balance of Rs 10,00,000/- Ans. Except e, all r Correct
111. Which statement is incorrect? Ans. -c
a. Conditional endorsement does not make the instrument non- transferable.
b. Blank endorsement makes the instrument payable to bearer.
c. Minor can not endorse negotiable instrument.-
d. Through facultative endorsement endorser remains liable to the endorsee for the non-payment of the instrument.
e. Restrictive endorsement takes away negotiability of such instrument.
112. In which case cheque refused for payment should bear the reason as “Refer to drawer”. Insolvent drawer
113. In which case cheque can be returned with the reason, “Property not marked”? Where the drawer signs on behalf
of a firm or company and the name of the company is not mentioned
114. Dishonour of cheques of value less than _____, on ______ during the financial year will attractstoppage of
cheque book facility and closure of account. Rs 1 Crore, six occasions
115. For the first ______ from the date of opening the account, _______ and above in case of CurrentAccount shall be
authorized by the Manager of the Department / Branch in charge in case of branchesother than VLB / ELB. 6 months,
all debits of Rs 1 lakh
116. Deposit Insurance cover upto _____ is available in respect of amount due to a depositor underDICGC Scheme.
Rs 5 lakhs
117. Bank will be constrained to close the account, if ECS mandates are dishonoured for the reasoninsufficient funds
on ______ during the financial year. four occasions
118. Endorsement is defined under ________ . Section 15 of NI Act
119. With respect to the aggregate exposure of the banking system to the borrower and the bank’sshare in that
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 8|P a g e
 exposure, current accounts should be monitored on ________. half yearly basis
120. __________ only are delegated with powers to permit TOD facilities in Current accounts up totheir delegated
powers. Scale-IV and above authorities
121. Which statement is incorrect?
122. Branch In-charges are permitted to remove all kinds of hold funds in inoperative CASA accounts.
123. All inoperative CASA accounts with zero balance for more than 12 months to be closed.
124. For the purpose of classifying an account as “inoperative” both the type of transactions i.e, debits as well as
credit transactions inducedat the instance of customers as well as third party should be considered.
125. LLP can be converted into a company or partnership firm.
126. As per LLP Act, no resolution is required hence same need not be insisted
127. If the number of partners is reduced below two at any time, bank shall reserve its right to stop allowing further
operations in the account
128. Under Canara elite current account, auto sweep /reverse sweep is available for the Period of___ 15 to 181 days
129. No fresh cheque books should be issued to an account in the event of dishonour of a chequevaluing _____ and
above drawn on a particular account of the drawer on _____ during the financialyear for want of sufficient funds in
the account. Rs 1 Crore, four occasions
130. Salaried class where salary is being credited in their account with our Bank for the last twelve months.
131. All pre-approved customers published by Head Office, time to time.
132. Customers where average balance in SB/Current Account for the last six months is Rs 50,000/- &above.
133. Exposure with borrower shall be termed as non –investment grade exposure if the external rating is_________. B
and below
134. Scale IV and above authorities only are delegated with powers to permit TODs upto ______ in SBaccount. Rs
10000
135. Solvency certificate can be issued to the extent of declared net worth of the client upto ______basing on the
information furnished by the borrower without insisting for financial statements. Rs 1 lakh
136. As per scheme of Delegation of Credit Sanctions, Substantial Interest, in relation to a firm, meansthe beneficial
interest held therein by an individual or his spouse or minor child, whether singly ortaken together, which represents
more than _________ subscribed by all the partners of the said firm. 10% of total Capital
137. What is the Prudential Exposure ceiling (FB+NFB) for LLP concerns? Rs 125 crore
138. In relation to a company, substantial interest means the holding of a beneficial interest by an individual or his
spouse or minor child, whether singly or taken together, in the shares thereof, the amount paid up on which exceeds
_____ of rupees or _____ of the paid up capital of the company, whichever is less. 5 lakh, 10%
139. In assessing whether there is a control relationship between counterparties, banks mustautomatically consider
that the control relationship criterion is satisfied if one entity owns more than_____ of the voting rights of the other
entity 50 percent
140. The benefits under Jeevandhara Diamond & Platinum are subject to regular credit of Pension inthe account
failing which the facilities provided will be charged with ______. Rs 500 per annum
141. Which one is not the feature of Canara SB Jeevandhara- Platinum account? Overdraft facility is restricted upto
Rs.200000/.
142. What is the basis of categorization of SB Jeevandhara – Diamond account? Monthly Pension upto Rs 50000
143. Insurance benefits in Canara SB Jeevandhara will be effective _____ from the date of pensionaccount opening/
conversion to pension products. Ans. after 30 days
1) immediately 2) after 7 days 3) after 14 days 4) after 30 days 5) after 45 days
144. TOD under Gold Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to ________and _________. -
2 months net salary, maximum Rs 2 lakh
145. As per clause 4 of Section 12AA of Prevention of Money Laundering (Amendment) Act, 2009,enhanced due
diligence shall be maintained for a period of 5 years in case of any dubious transaction. - for a period of 5 years
146. If the account holder of Platinum variant under Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme has already availed
Personal Loan, upto what extent TOD can be permitted to such customer? - Not permitted
147. Under Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, a flagship savings scheme account can be opened by________. women
and girls of all age groups
148. While availing Positive Pay System facility is at the discretion of the account holder, banks mayconsider making it
mandatory in case of cheques for amounts of ______ and above. Rs 5 lakh
149. The discretion for permitting transfer of deposits from one branch to another outside the City/Town/ Municipal
area during their currency based on the customer request is given to ________. transferor branch for retail term
deposit only
150. Non-callable deposits are bulk term deposit for which Premature withdrawal are not permissible.It can be
opened for ______ and above maturities. 46 days
151. Which one of the service is NOT offered under the Doorstep Banking ? Funds Transfer ( max up to 250000/- per
day ) per customer
152. What is the product code for " Canara SB - FCRA " for opening of the new accounts for receivingForeign
Contributions as per Foreign Contribution Regulation Act 2010 ? 1616
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 9|P a g e
153. Maximum investment amount in Senior Citizens’ Savings (Amendment) Scheme, 2023 increasedfrom
Rs.15,00,000/- ( Rupees Fifteen Lakhs Only) to ? Rs. 3000000/-
154. What is the name of the primary Debit Card under the "Canara SB Select" product ? Rupay Platinum Debit Card
155. What is the maximum Deposit limit under the Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme, 2019 scheme ? Ans. No Maximum Limit
1) Rs. 1.00 Lacs 2) Rs. 1.50 Lacs 3) Rs. .50 Lacs 4) Rs. 2.00 Lacs 5) None of these
156. What is the minimum contribution to open a NPS tier II account ? – Rs.1000
157. Know your customer (KYC) regulations have been introduced in finacial transactions under whichof the following
regulation? prevention of money laundering act
158. Who can open a NPS account under ALL Citizen Model ? Appicant should be between 18-70 years
159. Which of the following is the High Risk customer as per the customer risk categorization :
1) Notaries 2) Telemarketers 3) Pawnshops 4) Accounts of non face to face customers 5) Sole practitioners
160. What is the Service Charge for blocking of vacant Safe deposit locker online by Ai1 app ofcustomers choice for
15 days? Rs. 500+GST
161. What is the Penalty for Closing of NND Deposit within 12 months of opening? 0.05% on the interest payable
162. What is the Maximum Deposit under "Mahila Samman Savings Certificate,2023"? Rs.2 Lakhs
163. Which accounts are not eligible under Door Step Banking? : 1) A. Minor Accounts 2) B. Individual A/c
3) C. Joint A/c under E or S 4) D. Joint A/c under E and S 5) Both Option A and D
164. What is the processing/Valuation and LSR Charges for takeover of all Housing Loan variantscamvassed under
Canara SB premium payroll package? NIL
165. What is Section 10 as per Negotiable Instrument Act? Pay in Due Course
166. Under Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme - Silver Variant, How many maximum no ofoccasions in a
calender year TOD can be permitted? 2
167. Under Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme - Silver Variant, How many maximum no. of days TOD can be
permitted? 15
168. In doorstep Banking Services for Senior Citizens and Differently Abled Persons RBI has given instructions to
implement above the age of?-70 years
169. RBI “UDGAM “portal is related to?-Unclaimed Deposits
170. Marginal standing facility (MSF), under which banks could borrow funds from RBI--------------- when interbank
liquidity dries up. Fill up the exact option….?-Overnight
171. As per KYC AML guidelines, if there is only a change in address during re KYC process, customer can provide a self
declaration confirming the same and the same need to be verified by the bank within a maximum period of ? Ans. 2
months
172. Which of the following is a government of India security which has been added under Retail Direct Gilt account? -
Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) – FRSB 2020 (T)
173. The beneficial owner in a partnership firm shall be the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together,
or through one or more juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to more than ____________percent of
capital or profits of the partnership or who exercises control through other means. - 10%
174. As per the latest KYC AML guidelines issued by RBI, financial institutions shall preserve the documents of the
transactions undertaken by the walk in customers for a period of _____________ years from the date of transactions.
- 5 years
175. In case of domestic wire transfers below Rs. 50,000 where the originator is not an account holder (walk in
customer) of the ordering bank, the ordering bank should submit the required transaction requests to beneficiary
bank or any investigating agencies. Such information need to be submitted by ordering bank within ___________
business/working days from the date of such request. - . 3
176. For categorizing a customer as Low Risk, Medium Risk and High Risk; which of the following parameters is not
true:
177. In respect of KYC, which of the following is correctly matched identifying and verifying the client's identity,
identifying and verifying due diligence: identifying and verifying the client's identity
178. The Reserve Bank of India has increased the limit of fund transfer under the Indo Nepal Remittance Facility
Scheme from Rs. 50,000 to _____ per transaction. Earlier there was a ceiling limit of 12 transactions in a year which
has also been removed: Rs 2 lakh
179. What is the relationship between Bank & Customer when customer lefts items in the bank mistakenly? (Ans.
Trustee and beneficiary)
180. What are the financial transactions and balance restrictions in BSBDA Account? (Ans. Total credits in such
accounts should not exceed one lakh rupees in a year and Maximum balance in the account should not exceed fifty
thousand rupees at any time.)
181. With reference to provisions of PML Act, Banks should maintain / preserve all necessary records of transactions
between the Bank and the customer, the records pertaining to the identification of the customers and their
addresses obtained while opening the account and during the course of business relationship for at least _______
from the date of transaction/ end of business relationship. (Ans. 5 Years)

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 10 | P a g e

182. Immediate credit for outstation cheque/ instruments may be considered up to the aggregate value of ____
collection by individual account holder subject to satisfactory conduct of such account for period of 6-12 months.
(Ans. Rs.15,000/-)
183. Banks should preserve Counterfeit Notes for a period of _____ from the date of receipt from the Police
authorities / Courts. Counterfeit notes, which are subject matter of litigation in the court of law should be preserved
with the branch concerned for _______ after conclusion of the court case. (Ans. 3 years and 3 years).
184. As per the Banking Companies (Period of Preservation of Records) Rules, 1985, every banking company shall
preserve, its books, accounts, ledgers, cash books, vouchers etc. to a period of not less than _______ immediately
preceding the current calendar year. (Ans. 8 years. Individual Banks may have policies to keep for longer periods).
185. Which of the following is a high-risk customer (Govt. Agency, Gas Dealers, NGOs and organizations receiving
donations)? (Ans. NGOs and organizations receiving donations)
186. Under Indo-Nepal Remittance scheme, NEFT facility is available for remittance to Nepal by way of cash from
walk-in customers or non-customers with a ceiling of _______ per remittance and with a maximum of ______
remittances in a year (Ans. Rs.50,000/- and 12)
187. FATCA exclusion is applicable for which categories- (Minor, Illiterate, Pensioner or Student)? (Ans: Pensioner
Account)
188. Banks to give _________ period prior notice to customer in case of change in terms and conditions of a loan /
account. (Ans. If the change is adverse to the customer, prior notice of minimum 30 days will be provided and the
customer may be provided options, to close the account or switch to any other eligible account without having to pay
the revised charge or interest within 60 days of such notice.)
189. Maximum charges applicable w.e.f. 03.02.2023 for non maintenance of average minimum balance in current
account is ___ : - Rs 60 + GST per day and Maximum Rs 500+ GST per calendar month
190. No foilo charges w.e.f. 03.02.2023, on quarter basis are levied in current account, if balance is above - Rs 5
lakhs
191. What are the charges applicable for addition/deletion of name in SB/CA account?
a. No charges for on-line mode, b.Rs 50+ GST per case/instance , c.Rs 75+ GST per case/instance d. Rs 100+ GST per
case/instance Ans. a and d
192. Which among the following transaction is not chargeable in case transactions of BSBD account if transactions
exceeds its freely permitted threshold limit? 1. Electronic Debit Card transactions powered by RuPay. 2. Unified
Payments Interface (UPI) (BHIM UPI). 3. Unified Payments Interface Quick Response Code (UPI QR Code) (BHIM UPI
QR Code) 4. Cash Withdrawal through channels such as ATM/POS, etc 5. RTGS/NEFT/Clearing/Transfer/Standing
Instructions/EMIs/DD. 6. BC transactions 7.Internal Debit : 1,2 and 3 only
193. Cash withdrawal at Branches from SB account attract charges of ____ per transactions if transactions are beyond
____ cash withdrawals in a month. - Rs 100, 5
194. What is the basis of interest calculation on Nitya Nidhi Deposit? - Daily product basis
195. Branches should obtain prior clearance from forex dealing room, Integrated Treasury Wing, Mumbai before
accepting any FCNR/RFC deposit of _____ from a single party under a single or multiple deposits on the same day for
fixing the interest rates on such deposits. - USD 1 million & above or equivalent in other currencies
196. In case where PAN is not submitted by the Term Deposit customer, TDS will be deducted at prescribed rate
or____ whichever is higher. - 20%
197. What is the limitation period for making claim for repayment of deposit against the bank? - Three years from the
date of demand
198. Agreed period of fixed deposit can be 7 days, if deposit is _& above. - Rs 5 lakhs
199. What is the minimum amount of fixed deposit account? - Rs 1000
200. What is the minimum amount of deposit accounts opened with half yearly/yearly interest payment under fixed
deposit scheme? - Rs 5000
201. What is the minimum limit of amount under non callable deposit? - Above Rs 15 lakhs
202. What is the maximum amount of deposit under Canara tax saver Deposit Scheme? - Rs 1.50 lakhs
203. What is the minimum period of deposit under KDR? - 5 months
204. Recurring Deposit is accepted in monthly instalments with a minimum of ___ or in multiples of _ thereof. - Rs
50, Rs 50
205. The period of deposit under RD scheme should be in multiples of _____, the minimum period being _ - 3
months, 6 months
206. In the case of RD accounts for five years and less, penal charges for irregular accounts should be collected at the
rate of __ for every Rs. 100/- instalment per month on delayed instalments.- .Rs 1.50
207. In the case of RD accounts for above five years, penal charges for irregular accounts should be collected at the
rate of _ for every Rs. 100/- instalment, per month on delayed instalments. - Rs2.00
208. The minimum amount of instalment (or deposit) under the Dhanvarsha scheme, is ____ per month and maximum
___ . Rs 500, Rs 1.00 lakh
209. The minimum period of the deposit under Dharvarsha scheme is ____ and in multiples of ______. - 1 year, 3
months
210. What is the minimum amount of daily contribution to NND scheme? Rs 50
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 11 | P a g e
211. Daily collection per day per account should not exceed _ in NND scheme. - Rs1000
212. What is the tenor of account opened unde NND scheme. - 63 months
213. No penalty is imposed if NND deposit is closed befor maturity but completed minimum period of - 12 months
214. UPI LITE wallet balance is capped at _____ at any point of time and cumulative maximum daily usage is capped
at __. Rs 2000, Rs 4000
215. What is the minimum top-up transaction value under UPI Lite ? - Rs 100
216. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Rupay credit card transactions using UPI? - It will be identified Card
transaction
217. Canara Delight Current Account is designed to cater to needs of Higher Business Class segment who maintain a
_______ average balance of _______. - quarterly Rs 10 lakh & above
218. ______ is charged for non maintenance of minimum balance in Canara Delite Current Account. -Rs 2500 per
quarter
219. What is the penalty amount for closing Canara Delite Current Account before on year?- Rs 2500 + Service Charge
220. POS Rent for Canara Delite Current Account holder is waived for _____ based on demand, if the entity is having
________. - 3 terminals, 3 separate units
221. Auto sweep facility available ‘Canara Delite’ Current Account for period ______ in the multiples of__ -15 to 181
days, Rs 5 lakh
222. Which limits packages is not available in the Application Programming Interface (API) Banking platform?
a.Corporate Standard Limit b.Corporate Silver Limit c.Corporate Gold Limit - Corpoprate Platinum Limit
223. Which facility is not available in Canara SB/CA-CNA Account-Central Sector Scheme (CSS)? 1.Cheque Book 2.SMS
Facility 3.Debit Card 4.Internet Banking 5.One time porting: - 1 and 3 only
224. How many free cheque leaves can be provided under Canara SB Select scheme?: - 25 Cheque leaves in a Calendar
Year
225. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Semi Urban Branch is __-Rs
15000
226. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Metro Branch is ________.-Rs
25000
227. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in a Rural Branch is ________-.Rs
10000
228. Minimum Monthly Average Balance (MAB) required for canara SB Select account in an Urban Branch is
________.Rs 20000
229. Secured credit card is issued against lien on Term deposit and the sanctioned limit should be upto ____ of Ledger
Balance of KDR - 75%
230. The Penal Charge for keeping Minimum Monthly Average Balance less than Rs.4,999 in Canara SB select SB
account in a Metro Branch is as under- @65permonth
231. What is the age limit for availing Personal Accident Policy to RuPay cardholders? - .above 5 years
232. What is the insurance coverage for Accidental death or Permanent Total Disablement on RuPay Platinum Cards
for the Financial Year 2023-24? -.Rs 2 lakhs
233. What is the insurance coverage for Accidental death or Permanent Total Disablement on RuPay Selects Cards for
the Financial Year 2023-24? - Rs 10 lakhs
234. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Integrated Package for Depositor Education Awareness Fund (DEA
Fund) Claim? Enquiry option under SAS is available for all users
235. Branches should obtain prior clearance from forex dealing room, Integrated Treasury Wing through email before
accepting/ renewing any FCNR(B)/RFC deposit of _______ & above (or its equivalent in other currencies) from a
single party under a single or multiple deposits on the same day for fixing the interest rates on such deposits. -USD
1.0 million
236. Which statement is correct in respect of ‘Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023: 1. Woman for herself can
open the account. 2. Mother guardian can open the account on behalf of minor boy 3. Mother guardian can open the
account on behalf of minor girl 4. Father guardian can open the account on behalf of minor girl 5.Father/Monther
guardian can open the account on behalf of minor girl -Except 2, all are correct
237. Which statement is incorrect in respect of ‘Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023. - Single holder type account
may be opened from 01.04.2023 to 31.03.2024
238. which statement is incorrect in respect of ‘Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023: - Before maturity withdraw
is permitted only up to 25% of balance.
239. TOD under Silver Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to _____ and ____. - 50% of
previous month’s net salary, 2 occasionsin a calendar year
240. TOD under Gold Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to …. and ….- 2 months net
salary, maximum Rs 1 lakh
241. TOD under Diamond Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to ________ and
_________- 3 months net salary, maximum Rs 2 lakh
242. TOD under Platinum Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to ________ and
_________. - 3 months net salary, maximum Rs 3 lakh
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 12 | P a g e
243. Sweep-out facility in RERA Current account is permitted with a threshold limit of _ and in multiple of_ of Term
Deposit. - Rs 5 lakhs, Rs 5 lakhs
244. What is the frequency of Sweep-out in RERA Current account?-weekly basis and will happen on every Monday
245. Through sweep-out in RERA Current account, term deposit can be made available for a period of ____ - 7-45 days
246. Under Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, a flagship savings scheme account can be opened by - women and girls
of all age groups
247. As per prevailing guidelines of RBI, Banks are advised to enable Positive Pay System facility for all account
holders issuing cheques for amount of ______ and above. - Rs 50000
248. While availing Positive Pay System facility is at the discretion of the account holder, banks may consider making
it mandatory in case of cheques for amounts of ___ and above. - Rs 5 lakh
249. The discretion for permitting transfer of deposits from one branch to another outside the City/ Town/ Municipal
area during their currency based on the customer request is given to _____. - transferor branch for retail term
deposit on233 What amount can be loaded in Virtual Account created for issuance of National Common Mobility Card
(NCMC)? -Rs 2000
3b. Nomination & DEATH CLAIM
1. Find the correct pair of the powers delegated for settlement of death claims (Other than Missing Person). - only 1,2
and 4 are correct 1.Manager/SM Branch Head – 2.00 Lakh, 2.Executive Scale IV Branch Head – 3.00 Lakh
3.Executive Scale IV at RO – 4.00 Lakh, 4.Executives in Scale V heading the Branches – 5.00 Lakh
2. What is the timeline for settlement of death claim in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to
survivor(s) / nominee(s)? - 15 days from the date of receipt of claim
3. Death claims arising out of other than testamentary succession in deposit accounts having aggregate balance of
________ or below may be settled without insisting upon death certificate but on the basis of either the personal
knowledge of the manager or by making due enquiries and against a simple claim-cum-declaration form. - Rs 50000
4. Where the amount of death claim for balances exceeds threshold limit of _________, the person furnishing the
declaration will have to execute an affidavit before a “Judge/Magistrate/Notary”. - Rs 5.00 lakhs
5. If which case of death claim settlement, indemnity need not be obtained? –
a.If the share of the minor heir is below Rs. 2,000/- ,b. If the claimant is lunatic and Manager appointed by the court
to administer the property of the lunatic , c. If the claimant is insolvent and the executor appointed under the Will
d.If the claimant is lunatic and manager appointed by the Local Level Committee under National Trust Act, 1999.
e.All above Ans : All above
6. What is the delegated power to Managers/ Senior Managers heading Branches for settlement of death claims (Other
than Missing Person).? - Rs 2 lakhs
7. If which case of death claim settlement, indemnity need not be obtained? - All above
a.If the share of the minor heir is below Rs. 2,000/- b. If the claimant is lunatic and Manager appointed by the court
to administer the property of the lunatic. c. If the claimant is insolvent and the executor appointed under the Will
d.If the claimant is lunatic and manager appointed by the Local Level Committee under National Trust Act, 1999.
e. All above -Ans
8. TOD under Platinum Variant of Canara Premium Payroll Package Scheme is Permitted up to ________and _________.
- 3 months net salary, maximum Rs 3 lakh
9. Death claims arising out of other than testamentary succession in deposit accounts having aggregate balance of
________ or below may be settled without insisting upon death certificate but on the basis of either the personal
knowledge of the manager or by making due enquiries and against a simple claim-cum-declaration form. - Rs 50000
10. Where the amount of death claim for balances exceeds threshold limit of _________, the person furnishing the
declaration will have to execute an affidavit before a “Judge/Magistrate/Notary”. - Rs 5.00 lakhs
11. Where depositor dies within India, Death Certificate issued by any one of the following authorities may be accepted,
except the following one? - Certificate issued by the Notary public
12. In case the depositor/s as well as the nominee die before the closure of the account or settlement ofthe claim to the
nominee, then a claim is to be settled in favour of the ________. - legal heirs / representatives of the deceased
depositor only
13. Find the correct pair of the powers delegated for settlement of death claims (Other than Missing Person) - only 1,2
and 4 are correct
1.Manager/SM Branch Head – 2.00 Lakh, 2.Executive Scale IV Branch Head – 3.00 Lakh, 3.Executive Scale IV at RO – 4.00
Lakh, 4.Executives in Scale V heading the Branches – 5.00 Lakh
a.only 1 and 2 are correct, b. only 1,2 and 4 are correct c. all are correct
14. In case of a death claim where Death Certificate of the deceased customer is issued outside of India, Banks to get
such certificate authenticated by any one or more of the following modes, done in the country of its issuance, except
the one method from below which is not accepted. - Indemnity bond from claiments
15. Which of the following statement is not correct in respect to Nominations?
16. The right of the nominee always arises only after the death of all the depositors in the case of joint accounts
17. In the case of Lockers / Safe Custody Articles hired / deposited by sole hirer/ depositor, nomination can be made in
favour of oneindividualonly
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 13 | P a g e
18. In te case of lockers hired jointly by two or more individuals, nomination can be made in favour of more than one
person
19. Settlements of claims under Nominations shall be dealt at the branch level itself irrespective of the amount and
without linking it toDelegated Powers for Settlement of Death Claims
20. In case the depositor/s as well as the nominee die before the closure of the account or settlement of the claim to
the nominee, then aclaim is to be settled in favour of the legal heirs / legal representatives of the of the Nominee
only.
21. When there is no nomination present in the account , what is the delegation of the power forExecutives in Scale IV in
ROs ? 5.00 Lacs
22. What is the delegation of power for settlement of death claims (Other than missing person) underExecutives in Scale
V in RO's/heading RO's? Rs.10.00 Lakhs
23. What is the timeline that Banks should settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors andrelease payments to
survivor(s) / nominee(s) within a period not exceeding ______ from the date ofreceipt of the claim subject to the
production of proof of death of the depositor and suitableidentification of the claim(s), to the bank’s satisfaction? 15
days
24. Under death claim settlement, No indemnity need to be obtained if the share of the minor heir isbelow __? Rs.2000
25. All Death claims should be settled within stipulated timeline of - 15 days
26. What is the delegated power to Managers/ Senior Managers heading Branches for settlement of death claims (Other
than Missing Person).? - Rs 2 lakhs
27. Find the correct pair of the powers delegated for settlement of death claims (Other than Missing Person).
a.Manager/ SM Branch Head 2.00 Lakh, b. Executive Scale IV Branch Head 3.00 Lakh, c. Executive Scale IV at RO 4.00
Lakh d.Executives in Scale V heading the Branches 5.00 Lakh - Ans. Only1,2 and 4 are correct
28. What is the timeline for settlement of death claim in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to
survivor(s) / nominee(s)? -15 days from the date of receipt of claim
29. Death claims arising out of other than testamentary succession in deposit accounts having aggregate balance of ____
or below may be settled without insisting upon death certificate but on the basis of either the personal knowledge of
the manager or by making due enquiries and against a simple claim-cum-declaration form. : - .Rs 50000
30. Where the amount of death claim for balances exceeds threshold limit of _____, the person furnishing the
declaration will have to execute an affidavit before a “Judge/ Magistrate/ Notary” - Rs 5.00 lakhs
31. If which case of death claim settlement, indemnity need not be obtained? a.If the share of the minor heir is below
Rs. 2,000/- b.If the claimant is lunatic and Manager appointed by the court to administer the property of the lunatic
c.If the claimant is insolvent and the executor appointed under the Will d. If the claimant is lunatic and manager
appointed by the Local Level Committee under National Trust Act, 1999. -All above
32. Death claims arising out of other than testamentary succession in deposit accounts having aggregate balance of
________ or below may be settled without insisting upon death certificate but on the basis of either the personal
knowledge of the manager or by making due enquiries and against a simple claim-cum-declaration form. Rs 50000
33. Where the amount of death claim for balances exceeds threshold limit of ____, the person furnishing the declaration
will have to execute an affidavit before a ‘Judge/ Magistrate/ Notary. - Rs 5.00 lakhs
34. If which case of death claim settlement, indemnity need not be obtained? a. If the share of the minor heir is below
Rs. 2,000/- b.If the claimant is lunatic and Manager appointed by the court to administer the property of the lunatic
c.If the claimant is insolvent and the executor appointed under the Will d.If the claimant is lunatic and manager
appointed by the Local Level Committee under National Trust Act, 1999 All above
35. Find the correct pair of the powers delegated for settlement of death claims (Other than Missing
Person).1.Manager/SM Branch Head 2.00 Lakh 2.Executive Scale IV Branch Head 3.00 Lakh 3.Executive Scale IV at
RO 4.00 Lakh 4.Executives in Scale V heading the Branches 5.00 Lakh - only 1,2 and 4 are correct
36. What is the timeline for settlement of death claim in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to
survivor(s) / nominee(s)? - 15 days from the date of receipt of claim

2. DIGITAL BANKING
1. As per Revised charges on Debit Cards, what is the annual fee in respect of Classic/Platinum and Select Cards: Ans:
Rs.200/- for Classic/Standard, Rs.500/- for Platinum/Business and Rs.1000/- for Select card. Rs.150/- for
replacement of any of the above cards.
2. Sound box facility will be provided to Canara Bank merchants at a nominal monthly rent of Rs130/- plus GST per
device. This monthly rental may be waived if average CASA balance is Rs._____ and above or OD Limit of Rs.______
and above. Ans: Rs 50,000/-; Rs.10 lacs
3. As per Digital Transaction Reconciliation Policy, the Settlement for Non-Card based transactions are to be processed
as per NPCI guidelines i.e. usually on _____ basis Ans: T+1 basis
4. As per Rupay Insurance Programme, Sum insured of upto Rs 2 lakhs for RuPay Platinum Cardholders and upto Rs 10
lakh for RuPay Select cardholders. Under this, claim intimation should be done with in ______ days of accident.
Ans: 90 days

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 14 | P a g e

5. One Nation One Card, is an inter-operable transport card conceived by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
Government of India which facilitates contact & contactless payments both online / offline, including National
Common Mobility Card (NCMC) functionality (Offline wallet). This inbuilt wallet Prepaid Card functionality is included
in our _____ Ans: Rupay NCMC Debit Card
6. As per SEBI Regulations, Mutual fund business has to be solicited by employees with certification from NISM(National
Institute of Securities Markets) and must have obtained Employee Unique Identification Number (EUIN) from ______
Ans: AMFI (Association of Mutual Funds in India , a Non Profit Organisation)
7. What is the amount of insurance coverage in case of Rupay Debit and Credit Cards, covered by TATA AIG Insurance
co. Ans: Rupay PMJDY Debit Card /Rupay Platinum card coverage : Rs.2 lacs, Rupay Select Card Rs.10 lacs. Claim
with in 90 days of accident and atleast one transaction taken place through Rupay card before 30 days of accident.
8. Award 1000 Bonus reward to all Credit Card holder as incentive : As per this incentive, 2 reward points will be
earned on every spent of Rs.100/-. Out of awarded 1000 points, card holder can redeem first 500 points when card
related transaction exceeds Rs. 10,000/- and rest 500 can be redeemed when transaction crosses Rs.20,000/-. What
is the Value of reward point : Ans: Rs. 0.25/- per point
9. Delegation of Powers for sanction of Credit Cards by Manager/Senior Manager in charge of Small, Medium, Large &
Very Large Branches is restricted to the selected customer segments only viz. ____ Ans: Salaried class where
salary is credited atleast 6 months with us/Govt/PSU employees/Mortgage Loan parties with no overdues/Average SB
or CA atleast 50,000/- for past 12 months.
10. Card Validity Period of Credit Card and Prepaid Card is _____ years. Ans: 5 years
11. For unauthorised card related transaction due to loss of card, bank has renewed policy with United India Insurance
Company Ltd. Under this policy, what is the insurance coverage for Credit Card variants and Debit Card variants:
Ans: 2 lacs for Rupay Credit cards / Canara Domestic/Global Debit cards. Rs.5 lakhs for Credit Cards – World,
Platinum, Select, Gold and Debit Cards – Platinum, Select, Business, Signature debit cards.
12. With an aim to promote the use of UPI-Lite wallet in areas with weak or no internet connectivity, RBI has raised the
upper limit of an offline payment transaction from the present Rs. 200 to Rs. 500. The total limit for offline
transactions on a payment instrument, however, remains Rs ______ Ans: Rs 2,000.
13. NCMC RuPay Contactless Debit Card can be used for Contactless transaction upto _______ peroccasion and
___________. Rs 5000, 3 transactions per day
14. What amount can be loaded in Virtual Account created for issuance of National Common MobilityCard (NCMC)? Rs
2000
15. Secured credit card is issued against lien on Term deposit and the sanctioned limit should be upto____% of Ledger
Balance of KDR – 75
16. What is the age limit for availing Personal Accident Policy to RuPay cardholders? above 5 years
17. What is the insurance coverage for Accidental death or Permanent Total Disablement on RuPay Selects Cards for the
Financial Year 2023-24? Rs 10 lakhs
18. Rupay credit card can be issued to staff with a pre-approved limit in addition to their existing credit card limit within
the overall approved limit. What is the overall approved limit for scale III officers? Rs 3.85 lakhs
19. Branch Head of Small, Medium, Large Branches or Manager/ Senior Manager in other categoriesof branches can
sanction credit card limit up to _______. Rs 1 lakh
20. What is the validity period of credit card and prepaid cards? Five Year
21. Centralized auto debit is mandatory for all Credit Card sanctions _______. up to AGM
22. Which of the following entity is acting as an Information Utility and Digital Document Execution (DDE) Service
provider in our Bank? - NeSL
23. Which of the following entity is acting as an Information Utility and Digital Document Execution(DDE) Service
provider in our Bank? - NeSL
24. Default Loss Guarantee in Digital Lending can be invoked within a maximum overdue period of______. 120 days
25. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara VISA / MASTERCARD / RUPAY Credit cards(Classic / Standard / Visa
Corporate Cards), as per insurance policy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is
______ . Rs 2 lakh
26. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara VISA/MASTERCARD/RUPAY Credit Cards (Gold/World/ Platinum/
Select), as per insurance policy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 5
lakh
27. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Domestic/ Global Debit Cards, as per insurance policy towards
frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 2 lakh
28. The maximum amount of loss covered per Prepaid Cards (Domestic), as per insurance policy towards frauds
committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 50000
29. The maximum amount of loss covered per Prepaid Card – International Travel, as per insurance policy towards frauds
committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 3 lakh
30. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Platinum/ Business/ Select/ Signature Debit Card, as per insurance
policy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is______ . Rs 5 lakh
31. As per the new guidelines issued by the NPCI , UPI LITE Wallet balance at any point of time iscapped at what amount
? and cumulative maximum daily usage is capped at what amount ? Rs. 2000/- and Rs. 4000/-
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 15 | P a g e
32. Which one of the below options is NOT a criteria for the availing of sound box facility in the first phase for
prioritizing esteemed customer requirement ?
33. Minimum 100 monthly average transaction in BHIM QR
34. Minimum Monthly average balance of 5.00 Lacs in CASA account
35. OD Limit availed for Rs. 20 Lacs and above
36. Any other merchant based on the recommendation of the circle
37. What is the POS/E-com and ATM Cash Withdrawl Limits per day under the "Canara Delite "respectively ? Rs. 500000/-
and Rs. 100000/-
38. What is the insurance coverage amount for Rupay Platinum Cards under Rupay Insurance programFY 2023-2024? Rs.2
Lakhs
39. What is the Bonus reward points awarded to all the credit card holders by the Competantauthority? 1000
40. What is the Enhanced Validity period of Credit Cards and Prepaid Cards? 5 Years
41. What is the rent for availing sound box facility for all onboarded BHIM QR Merchants? Rs.130/month/device (Plus
GST)
42. What is the ATM Cash withdrawal limit per day for Canara Delight Current Account? Rs.1 Lakh
43. What is the existing daily transaction limit under POS/E-Com transaction(Platinum/Select Card) under Canara MSME
Credit Card (CMCC)? 5,00,000/-
44. Under CANCARE policy, Personal Accident cover what is the timeline for intimation of claim by Legal Heirs/ Nominee
to branch? Within 90 days from the date of death
45. Branches/ RO/ Circle Offices should ensure to report the unauthorized electronic transactions for Zero Liability/
Limited liability of the customer within the timeline from the date of such notification by the customer to enable the
Bank to credit the amount involved in the unauthorized electronic transactions to the customer’s account within
______ working days. 10
46. What is the insurance cover eligible for Prepaid Card – International Travel for unauthorized Card related
transactions for Loss on Card? 3,00,000/-
47. MANI (Mobile Aided Note Identifier) has been launched for?- Visually impaired Persons
48. Offline Payments in UPI through UPI Lite is promoted by the following technology?-Near Field Communication
Technology
49. The tokenization of cards have been implemented wef-1st October 2022
50. What is the meaning of ICCW at ATMs?-Interoperable Card less Withdrawal
51. RBI has launched its first global hackathon with the following name:HARBINGER
52. The theme of the Global Hackathon by RBI Was: Smarter Digital Payments
53. Conversational Payments in UPI refers to the following:Enable the user to engage in conversation using AI powered
System to complete transaction in a safe environment
54. Government of India has recently permitted extension of Digital India programme upto FY2025-26 with a financial
outlay of ________ Ans. Rs. 14,903 crores
55. Which is not one of the four major credit card networks among American Express, Discover, Mastercard, Visa and
Rupay? Rupay
56. As per changes made under MSMED Act 2006, word ‘Tiny’ has been replaced by ‘Micro’ and ‘Industry’ by: ‘Enterprise’
57. Cyber security policy is the "roles and responsibilities" or "information responsibility and accountability" section of
policy. The policy also includes sections for various areas of cyber security, such as: Requirements for antivirus
software or the use of cloud applications.
58. Fed NRE SB Online is a powerful savings account which can be opened online for NRI customers with _____ and new age
banking channels: Debit Card
59. What is the annual Fee for Platinum Debit Card / Business Card (Cir 62/2023) Ans: Rs.500/- + GST (Classic card
Rs.200/-; Select Card Rs.1000/-)
60. UPI LITE wallet balance is capped at Rs. 2000/- at any point of time and cumulative maximum daily usage is capped
at Rs. ______ (Cir 175/2023) Ans: Rs.4000/-.
61. Chief Manager at branch or DM at RO can sanction Credit Card limit of _______ (Cir502/2023) Ans: For individuals,
30% gross annual income with max Rs.5 lakh and for Corporates Rs.10 lakhs
62. Waiver of Monthly rental charges on Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants for Canara Elite Account Holders who
maintain minimum quarterly average balance of Rs.5 lacs; what is the number of free BHIM QR sound boxes
permissible? (cir 527/2023) Ans: Upto 10 BHIM QR sound boxes
63. What is the card validity period in respect of credit card and prepaid card (cir 581/2023) Ans: 5 years.
64. All onboarded BHIM QR merchants can now avail the soundbox facility at nominal rental of Rs ________ Ans:
Rs.130/month/device (plus GST). (Cir 585/2023)
65. Cancare Policy is renewed with United India Insurance Co Ltd. Under this , what is the insurance coverage in respect
of Platinum Debit Card/Business Debit Card (Rupay, VISA, Master) (Cir 702/2023) Ans: Death due to Air crash : Self
Rs.8 lacs, Spouse : Rs.4 lakhs. Other than Air crash: Self 4 lacs, spouse Rs.2 lacs. Baggage Insurance/Purchase
Protection cover : Rs.25,000/- per card. Claim with in 45 days.
66. FIR is not mandatory for claim where the loss amount is less than Rs._______ in respect of unauthorized Card related
transactions for Loss on Card (cir 703/2023) Ans: Rs.50,000/-
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 16 | P a g e
67. Choose the in-correct statement for Canara ai1-Merchants application? View recent 20 Transaction instantly on
home screen
68. Who can deactivate sub-merchant VPA ID?
1) i) Only Main Merchant 2) ii) Only Sub-merchant 3) iii) Only Branch can do it. 4) Both i & iii
69. Voice notification in Canara ai1-Merchant Application populate for? Only BHIM QR Credit transactions
70. - Can a merchant do financial transaction through Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Only view rights are given in
the application
71. How many transactions can view in Home page of transaction history? Last ten today’s transaction
72. After how many wrong attempt for login will block Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Three time
73. Can a main merchant view SUB merchant VPA ID in Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Merchant cannot view SUB
merchant VPA ID
74. In how many languages voice notification comes on iOS base mobile in Canara ai1-Merchant Application? 2
75. Choose correct statement with respect of passcode:
1) Passcode can contain five-digit numeric characters only
2) Passcode can contain five-digit alpha numeric characters only.
3) Passcode can contain five-digit sequential numeric characters.
4) Passcode can contain five-digit numeric characters including special character.
76. In how many language Canara ai1-Merchant Application user interface is available? 11
77. Canara ai1- Merchant application is available on which platform? Both Android and Ios
1) Android only 2) iOS only 3) Both Android and Ios 4) None
78. Choose the in-correct statement for Canara ai1-Merchants application? View recent 20 Transaction instantly on
home screen
79. How many steps involved for Canara ai1-merchant Application registration? Three steps: Enter mobile number->OTP
& verification-> Create passcode
80. Choose correct statement with respect of passcode:
5) Passcode can contain five-digit numeric characters only
6) Passcode can contain five-digit alpha numeric characters only.
7) Passcode can contain five-digit sequential numeric characters.
8) Passcode can contain five-digit numeric characters including special character.
81. Can a merchant disable voice notification in Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Yes, merchant can disable voice
notification as per their convenience
82. In which format downloaded transaction history/Passbook statement comes in Canara ai1- Merchant Application?
PDF
83. Can a merchant email his transaction statement from Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Yes. It will be sent to CBS
registred email id only
84. Can Merchant view summarized statement with consolidated credit transactions received throughCanara Bank BHIM
QR in a day into a single credit entry ? No such provision available
85. What is full form of QR code ? Quick Response code
86. Who is eligible for Canara Bank BHIM QR standee ? All Canara Bank BHIM QR on-boarded merchants
87. What is Monthly rental charges for Canara Bank BHIM QR sound box? ₹ 130 + tax per month
88. Canara Bank BHIM QR Merchant details is available in MIS report number? 151042-BHIM QR Merchant Enrolment
89. What is the rental waiver criteria for Soundbox facility? MAB of Rs 50000 and above or OD limit of Rs 10 lac and
above
90. Who can do financial transaction through Canara ai1-Merchant Application? Only view rights are given in the
application
91. Who can indent for pre-printed kits(PPR) for branches in BHIM QR SAS portal? Concerned RO/CO/HO can indent PPR
kits for branches under your jurisdiction
92. How many transactions can be received by merchant in a day through Bank provided QR code? Any number of
transactions merchant can receive in a day
93. Who all have access of Canara ai1-Merchant App? Only Canara Bank BHIM QR on-boarded customer can use Canara
ai1-Merchant Application
94. What is meaning of DIGITAL QR STANDEE kit? Automatic mailer of QR Soft copy (in pdf format) to registered mail ID
of merchant
95. Which of the following are eligible for issuance of debit card?
a.Employees including those under suspension, ex-employees, b .PoA Holder/ Holder of mandate Non Resident Indian
(NRI), c. Minor students who are aged 10 years and above. d. lliterate customers. Ans. All of the above
96. Last digit in the debit card represents?: Check digit number (Debit card is of 16 digit The first 6 digits represent
Identification Number (BIN) The next 9 digits are the running sequence of the card under a particular BIN0.
97. Auto renewal on expiry of cards is extended only for active cards i.e. cards used atleast once for financial /Non-
financial transaction for the last __________.:1 year
98. What is the cash withdraw per day limit at ATM for Platinum/ Business/ Select Debit Cards?: Rs 100000
Domestic Usage At our Bank’s ATM At Point Of Sale Total limit per day
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 17 | P a g e
 Canara Bank Classic Debit Card 75000 200000 275000
Canara Bank Debit Card Platinum/ 100000 500000 600000
Select/ Business
99. What is the per day per card limit for cash withdrawals through Point of Sale Machines in Tier I & II cities?: Rs 1000.
(Tier III to VI Rs 2000)
100. In what cases is OTP required for cash withdrawal?: above Rs 10,000 cumulative in a day
101. What is the annual fee for issuance of new Platinum debit card?: Rs 500 (Classic Card : Rs 200, Business Card : Rs
500, Select Card : Rs 1000)
102. What are the charges for classic debit card ?: Rs 150 (all different variant are Rs 150/- only)
103. Debit card inactivity fee of _______is only applicable to business card. Rs 300
104. How many free Transactions in a Calendar month (Financial and/or Non-Financial) are available for Sr. Citizen?: 8
(Customer 6, Staff 10)
105. How much penalty is levied if cumulative cash out in ATMs exceeds 10 hours in a month?: Rs 10,000/-
106. What is the limit for fund transfer by IMPS through ATM?: Rs 50000 per day subject to maximum of Rs 250000 per
month.
107. What is the time frame for reversal of ATM failed transaction?: within T+5 days from the date of transaction
108. In case of failure of reversal of ATM failed transaction within stipulated time penalty of _______for each day of
delay shall be credited to the account along with the disputed amount. Rs.100/-
109. What is the per transaction limit done through contactless mode?: Rs.5000/-
110. What are the charges for financial transaction above free transaction for Our Bank ATMs (On Us Transactions)?: Rs
20+ GST (non financial: Rs 5+gst)
111. What are the charges for non financial transaction above free transaction for Other Bank ATMs (Remote On Us)?:
Rs 10+ GST (financial: Rs 21+gst)
112. Kisan RuPay Debit Card is linked to __________________ opened as Current Account under Product 226.: SISO
Account
113. Upto what amount is Baggage Insurance & Purchase Protection available in case of Canara Platinum Debit Card?:
Rs. 25,000
114. How much coverage is provided for spouse in case of death due to air accident in Canara Platinum Debit Card?:
Rs 4 lakhs (Death due to air accident self: Rs 8 lakhs, death due to other than air accident self: Rs 4 lakhs, spouse: Rs
2 lakhs)
115. One Reward Point [equivalent to Rs. 0.25] for every successful non-cash transaction of ____through Platinum
Debit cards. Rs. 200/-
116. The Standee Kit consists of physical standee with QR Code printed along with ____additional adhesive QR Code
stickers to be used at Merchant’s location for boosting their business through all accepted digital channels of UPI.
Two
117. All transactions of ____and below by default will be processed using UPI LITE wallet without UPI PIN. Rs. 200/-
118. UPI LITE wallet balance is capped at _________at any point of time and cumulative maximum daily usage is
capped at ________Rs. 2000/-, Rs. 4000/-..
119. Assistant General Manager at Regional Offices / Circle Offices can sanction credit card upto ______of Gross
Annual Income with maximum of______.: 30%, Rs.15.00 Lakhs
120. Branch Head of Small Medium, Large Branches can sanction credit card upto ______of Gross Annual Income with
maximum of_____.: 30%, Rs.1.00 Lakhs
121. Sanctioning powers of Credit Card Limit(fresh/enhancement) to Individuals up to Rs 1,00,000/- of
Manager/Senior Manager in charge of Small, Medium, Large & Very Large Branches are restricted to the following
customer segments only: All of the above
122. To salaried class where salary is being credited in their account with our Bank for the last SIX months.
123. All Government & PSU employees (both State & Central Government) & Quasi Government Employees who are
confirmed in the service.
124. To all pre-approved customers published by Head Office, time to time.
125. Secured Credit Cards against the security of FD/KD (up to the Delegated powers)
126. To all Mortgage based loan borrowers where repayment is prompt and not reflected in SMA1/SMA2 during the last
six months.
127. Customers where average balance in SB/Current Account for the last 12 months is Rs. 50,000/- & above.
128. FASTags must be issued to vehicles owned by _____________only. Canara Bank customers
129. Mutual fund business has to be solicited by employees with certification from NISM and must have obtained
Employee Unique Identification Number (EUIN) from _____.: AMFI.
130. The monthly rental charges on Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants has been waived for_______________,
subject to maintenance of stipulated minimum average balance criteria.: Canara Privilege (214), Canara Elite (218)
and Canara Delite (1656) accounts.
131. How much minimum average quarterly balance to be maintained by Canara Privilege account holder to be
eligible for waiver of monthly rental charges on Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants?: Rs 1 lakhs (Elite Rs 5
lakhs, Delite Rs 10 lakhs)
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 18 | P a g e
132. Upto how many BHIM QR sound boxes are eligible for waiver of monthly rental charges in Canara Elite account?:
10 (Privilege 2, Delite 20)
133. Shortlisting of the merchants for availing Sound box facility is done on the basis of: either of the below
Minimum 100 monthly average transaction of BHIM QR or Monthly Average CASA balance of 5 lacs and above or
OD limit availed for Rs 20 lacs and above.
134. Sound box facility for BHIM QR Merchants is provided for a period of ______under OPEX model.: 5 years
135. Sound box facility will be provided to Canara Bank merchants at a nominal monthly rent of _____per device. :
Rs130/- plus GST
136. Monthly rent for Sound box facility for BHIM QR Merchants will be waived automatically through CBS functionality
for which of the following?: 1& 2 (Maintaining average CASA balance of Rs 50,000 and above or OD limit of Rs 10 lacs
and above. )
137. Two reward points will be earned on every ______spent on credit Cards. Rs. 100
138. Value of each reward point is_____.: Rs. 0.25
139. Validity of reward points is_______________.: 3 years
140. In case, credit card is required to be issued to accounts within ________of opening, the same can be sanctioned
by the “Next Higher Authority” only.: Six (6) months
141. Credit card transactions above _______ is only eligible for conversion to EMI. Rs. 5,000
142. Cancare Policy is renewed with___________. for period from 08.08.2023. M/s United India Insurance Co Ltd
143. Cancare Policy comprises of: (1) Insurance cover for Death due to accident.(2) Baggage Insurance cover and(3)
Purchase Protection cover
144. What is the Time lines for intimation of claim by Legal Heirs in case of Personal accident cover?: Within 90 days
from the date of Death
145. What is the Maximum Time line for submission of Claim Documents by Bank to Insurer in personal accident
cover?: Within 45 days from the date of intimation.
146. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Domestic/ Global Debit Cards, as per insurance policy towards
frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 2 lakh
147. The Cardholder should report the incident tof loss on card o Bank within ____from the knowledge of first
incident. 60 days
148. In case the customer is abroad, he/she may intimate the loss on card within __________post reaching the
country .: 7 working days
149. NCMC RuPay Contactless Debit Card can be used for Contactless transaction upto ____ per occasion and
________- Rs 5000, 5 transactions per day
150. While using National Common Mobility Card (NCMC), all offline contactless transactions up to _____ and for all
online contactless transactions maximum up to _____, PIN is not required.: - Rs 2000, Rs 5000
151. The monthly rental charges up to _____ Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants has been waived for Canara
Privilege current account holder maintaining minimum quarterly balance of ________. - two , Rs 1 lakh
152. The monthly rental charges up to ______ Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants has been waived for Canara
elite current account holder maintaining minimum quarterly balance of _______. -ten , Rs 5 lakh
153. The monthly rental charges up to _______ Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants has been waived for Canara
Delite current account holder maintaining minimum quarterly balance of ________. - twenty, Rs 10 lakh
154. What is the validity period of creditcard and prepaidcards-Five Year
155. Branch Head of Small, Medium, Large Branches or Manager/ Senior Manager in other categories of branches can
sanction credit card limit up to _______. Rs 1 lakh
156. To which customer segment, Manager/Senior Manager in charge of Small, Medium, Large & Very Large Branches
can sanction credit card facility? all
157. Quasi Government Employees who are confirmed in the service.
158. All Mortgage based loan borrowers where repayment is prompt and not reflected in SMA1/SMA2during the last six
months.
159. The monthly rental charges up to _______ Sound Box facility for BHIM QR merchants has been waived for Canara
Delite urrent account holder maintaining minimum quarterly balance of ________. - twenty, Rs 10 lakh

3. GOVT. BUSINESS & SPONSORED SCHEMES

1. The NND Deposit earns interest on a daily Product basis at the interest rate fixed from time to time. When Interest is
paid in NND deposits. Ans: Interest on NND deposits shall be paid at the time of premature withdrawal or on
maturity, whichever is earlier
2. Business Correspondant Agents will assist/guide the Illiterate and less educated customers to apply for Govt
Sponsored scheme loans through Jan Samarth portal. What is the commission payable towards such assistance by BC
Agents. Ans: @ 0.075% of Loan Sanctioned Amount subject to Min - Rs 100/- & Max - Rs 500/- per successfully
uploaded and disbursed loan application (at least 1 disbursal done). Commission sharing by BCAgent and Corporate
BC is 75:25.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 19 | P a g e

3. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyothi Bhima Yojana (PMJJBY) covers insurance coverage of Rs.2 lakhs in case of death due to
any reason and applicable to account holders with age group of 18 to 50 years, with annual premium of Rs.436/- pa.
What is the period of coverage and lien period: Ans: 01st June to 31st May. Lien period 30 days (no claim period
from date of enrolement)
4. Out of premium amount of Rs.436/- under PMJJBY, what is the premium amount payable to Canara HSBC Life
Insurance Company: Ans: Rs.395/- (Rs.30/- commission to BCAs for new enrolments etc, Rs.11/- administrative
expenses)
5. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bhima Yojana (PMSBY) is an Accident Insurance Scheme, administered in our Bank through
New India Assurance Company Ltd. Individual a/c holders in the age group of 18 to 70 years eligible & coverage is
Rs.2 lacs. What is the premium amount: Ans: Rs.20/- p.a.(to NIA co.Rs.18/-; Rs.1/- to BCA; Rs.1/- administrative
expenses)
6. Nitya Nidhi Deposit Scheme- minimum and maximum daily contribution is : Ans: min.Rs.50/- maximum Rs.1000/- per
day/Rs.30,000 in a month.
7. Maximum investment amount in Senior Citizens’ Savings (Amendment) Scheme, 2023 increased from Rs.15, 00,000/-
to Rs._________ Ans: 30 lakhs
8. Section 194N of the Income Tax Act provides for levy of TDS on withdrawal on aggregate of sums, in cash, in excess
of Rs.20 lakhs for those who did not file IT return/Rs.1 Crore for those who filed IT return during previous 3 years.
For Co-operative Society TDS applicable for cash withdrawal in excess of Rs. ______ in a FY. Ans: Rs.3 crore
9. What is the Agency Commission payable by Govt. for Pension payments: Ans: Rs.45/- per transaction. (Physical
receipts Rs.40/-; e-Receipts Rs.9/- per transaction. Other payments 6.5paise per Rs.100/- turnover.
10. For Atal Pension Yojana, which is the Record Keeping Agency: Ans: NSDL (National Securities Depository Ltd) (APY
administered by PFRDA)
11. Transfer of PPF account from Branch to Branch or from our Bank to other Bank/Post Office and vice-versa is
permitted, by charging a fee of Rs _____ : Ans: Rs.100/-
12. What is the periodicity of payment of interest for Senior Citizen Savings Scheme: Ans: Quarterly - On first working
day of April/July/October/January.
13. Sukanya Samriddhi Account Scheme may be opened in the name of a Girl Child below 10 years with minimum
contribution of Rs.250/- & maximum Rs.1.50 lakh per financial year, for a period of 15 years contribution. The
Sukanya Samriddhi Account matures on completion of a period of _____ years from the date of the opening of
account, though contribution permissible for maximum 15 years only from date of opening. Ans: twenty one years (21
Years)
14. Withdrawal in Sukanya Samriddhi Account permissible up to a maximum of 50 % (fifty percent) of the amount in the
account at the end of the Financial Year preceding the year of application for withdrawal, shall be allowed for the
purpose of education of the account holder. Such withdrawal shall be allowed after the account holder attains the
age of eighteen or has passed_________, whichever is earlier Ans: 10th standard
15. Under National Pension Scheme, premature exit (before 60 years age, but after completion of 5 years subscription)
is permissible whereas not less than 80% of corpus should be for purchase of annuities for payment of pension and
balance payable as lump sum to subscriber. In case the total corpus in the NPS account is less than or equal to
Rs._______, the Subscriber can avail the option of complete (100%) Withdrawal. Ans: Rs 2.5 lakh
16. Under National Pension Scheme, after 60 years of age, minimum 40% of corpus to be utilized for purchasing annuity
and remaining in lumpsum. If the total available corpus in NPS is upto Rs.____, Subscriber can avail the option of
complete (100%) Withdrawal. Ans: Rs 5 lakhs
17. Mahila Samman Savings Certificate-2023 is for Women with 2 years tenure. What is the deposit amount and ROI.
Ans: Min.1000/- max. Rs.2 lacs per account. ROI: 7.5% P.A.
18. What is the Penalty on Premature closure of NND Deposit when closed within 12 months of opening : Ans: 0.05%
penalty on the interest payable (i.e.0.10% normal applicable rate). No penalty for closing above 12 months. RO Head
is empowered to refund the penalty.
19. The Issue Price of the Gold Bond will be ₹ _____per gram less than the nominal value to those Investors applying
Online and the payment against the application is made through Digital Mode. Ans: Rs. 50/-
20. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) offers accidental cover up to Rs.2,00,000/- for all Savings Bank
account holders. Age on date of enrolment/renewal-18 years to ____ years Complete. Ans: 70 years complete.
21. What is the margin required for loans under DAY-NULM: Ans: upto Rs.50,000/- NIL and above Rs.50,000/- margin 5 to
10%. Interest subsidy is the differential amount between actual interest charged by bank and 7%. Additional 3%
subvention for prompt payment by SHGs.
22. Under Atal Pension Yojana scheme, what is the pension payable: Ans: Fixed pension per month for the subscribers
ranges between Rs1,000 and Rs.5000 at the age of 60 years
23. The period of Public Provident Fund Scheme is for 15 years and thereafter each extension by 5 years. How interest
calculation is made in PPF accounts: Ans: Monthly on lowest balance between 5th and last day of the month and
credited to account on the last day of FY.
24. Maximum Investment in Senior Citizen Saving Scheme-(SCSS)is enhanced to Rs.___ Ans: Rs.30 lakhs (ROI 8.2% from
01.10.2023 to 31.12.2023)(eligibility:60 years. 55 years for VRS people/who retired before 60 years.)

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 20 | P a g e

25. For Income tax purpose, what is the valuation of perquisites considered for Officers whom accommodation is
provided in Bank Owned Quarters: Ans:10% of salary if population of the place is more than 40 lakhs. 7.5% for
population 15 to 40 lakhs and 5% of salary for population less than 15 lakhs.
26. RBI has announced the '100 Days 100 Pays' campaign to _____________from all banks across India. The campaign
targets the top 100 unclaimed deposits in every district within 100 days starting June 1, 2023. Ans: retrieve and
return unclaimed deposits .
27. Core Banking Solutions Package is known as :e-Kuber
28. Premature redemption of SGB Scheme is based upon:Simple Average Closing Price of 999 purity gold of the week
preceding the date of redemption
29. RBI had recently migrated fraud reporting module under Central Payments Fraud Information Registry (CPFIR) to
______. Ans. DAKSH
30. The maximum amount of cash payment can be accepted by the receiving office of Soveriegn gold bond scheme is?
Ans. Rs. 20,000/-
31. As per RBI guidelines, banks to disclose all the items in notes to account in their balance sheet and financial
statements, under Schedule 5(IV)- Other Liabilities and Provisions if other liabilities and provisions exceeds ______%
of total assets. Ans. 1%
32. Banks to restore HTM (Held to Maturity) limits of SLR securities from permitted 23 percent to 19.5 percent latest by ?
Ans. March 31, 2025
33. Name of the Education Loan interest subsidy scheme for minority communities, which was discontinued recently with
effect from 2022-23 is? Ans. Padho Pardesh
34. RBI has constituted an expert committee on Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) under the chairmanship of? Ans. Shri N.
S. Vishwanathan
35. As per the latest guidelines, RBI has recently stipulated minimum Networth of Rs. ______& _______for Tier 1 UCBs
operating in a single district and other UCBs (Irrespective of the Tier ) respectively. Ans. Rs. 2 crore and Rs. 5 crore
36. The tenure of first issue of Sovereign Green bonds issued by the Government for mobilising funds for Green
infrastructure is? Ans. 5 Years and 10 years
37. The government of India has proposed to raise an amount of Rs. _______through it‟s first issue of Sovereign Green
bonds? Ans. Rs. 16,000 crore
38. _ _per cent of the notified amount of sale under Soverign Green Bond scheme is reserved for retail investors. Ans.5%
39. What is the annual premium under PMJJBY and its appropriation among various stakeholders? Total annual premium
Rs.436/-. Out of which Insurance Premium to LIC/ Insurance Company is Rs.395/-, Commission payable to Business
Correspondents, agents, etc. Rs.30/- and Administrative Expenses payable to participating Banks, Rs.11/-
40. What is the penal interest payable by Banks for delayed remittance of govt business receipts: (Ans. Bank Rate + 2%)
41. Prior notice of at least what period to be given by Banks to customers in case of change in service charges? (Ans. 30
days)
42. What is the surrender value of insurance under PMJJBY? (Ans. No surrender value payable)
43. PMJJY Premium: Premium Rs. 436/- ; out of the same the premium to be paid to Insurance company is Rs 395/-; Rs
30/- for business Correspondent and Rs. 11/- to the participating bank.
44. Cancellation or Change of Nomination in PPF account permitted, _______- Rs 50
45. Who is eligible to open PPF account? - Guardian on behalf of person of unsound mind
46. Discontinued PPF account, may be revived during its maturity period on payment of a fee of ____ along with arrears
of minimum deposit of ____ for each year of default- Rs 50, Rs 500
47. What is the maximum amount of deposit under Senior Citizen’s Savings (Amendment) Scheme, 2023? - Rs 30 lakhs
48. The Sukanya Samriddhi Account may be opened with a minimum initial deposit of ____ and in multiples of _____Rs
250, Rs 50
49. The Sukanya Samriddhi account may be opened by ______ in the name of a girl child,who has ______ as on date of
opening of the account, and who is a Resident Citizen of India: - one of the guardian, not attained the age of 10
years
50. What is the maximum amount of deposit under Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme? - No limit
51. What is the maximum repayment period for loans extended in the form of margin money facility of NMDFC? -5 years
52. Under Margin Money Loan scheme, term loans upto _____ per unit can be extended under refinance scheme of
NMDFC, provided the beneficiary contributes a minimum of ____ Margin by way of its own funds, for availing the
primary facility. - .Rs 4.50 lakhs, 10%
53. A fixed rate of ____ p.a. is charged to loans extended under “Margin Money Facility” after receipt of refinance
against the said accounts from NMDFC. - 6%
54. At what rate Bank repay the refinance amount to NMDFC under margin Money facility Scheme? - 3.5%
55. For being eligible under Margin Money Facility of NMDFC, annual income level of applicants should be less than____.-
Rs 8 L
56. Commission paid to BC agents working as Sub Partner/Lead Generator @____of loan sanctioned amount subject to a
minimum of _____ & a maximum of ______ per successfully uploaded and disbursed loan application (at least 1
disbursal done) under Jan Samarth Portal. - 0.075%, Rs 100, Rs 500
57. In case journey assisted through BC Channel in Jan Samarth National Portal, commission received shall be shared at
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 21 | P a g e
 ____ between BCA and Corporate BC. - 75:25
58. Which portal is created to improve the performance and penetration of various Government schemes amongst the
SCs/STs & OBCs. - www.aye-mentor.in
59. Scheduled Caste persons possessing individual or collective parcel of unirrigated agricultural lands, preferably about
____ and having annual family income up to ____ are eligible for financial assistance under Amrit Jaladhaara
Scheme. - 2.5 acres, Rs 3.00 lakh p.a.
60. What is the minimum and maximum loan limit under Amrit Jaladhaara Scheme? - No minimum, No maximum
61. No margin is required for loan amount upto _______ under Amrit Jaladhaara Scheme. - Rs 1.60 lakhs
62. Repayment period for loan sanctioned under Amrit Jaladhaara Scheme is _____ inclusive of moratorium of _______-
9-15 years, 11 months
63. Beneficiary contribution for bank finance should be minimum of ____ of total project cost under NLM. - 10%
64. What is the cap on Rate of Interest for loans granted under SHISHU, KISHOR & TARUN categories for CGFMU coverage?
-No cap
65. What is the overall ceiling on subsidy granted to eligible SC/ST MSEs under National SC/ST Hub (NSSH)
forprocurement of Plant and Machinery through Credit(TermLoan)? - Rs 25 lakhs
66. How much subsidy is provided to eligible SC/ST MSEs under National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) for procurement of Plant and
Machinery through Credit (Term Loan)?- 25%
67. What is income criteria for loan sanctioned from 01.10.2017 for OBC candidates under Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector
Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC) - Rs 8 lakh per annum
68. What is income criteria for loan sanctioned from on/after 01.04.2021 for EBC candidates under Dr. Ambedkar Central
Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC)? Rs 5 lakh per annum
69. Interest accrued during the moratorium period on disbursed Principle or ______ whichever is less, has to be claimed
for subsidy under Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC)- Rs 20
lakhs
70. What should be the minimum age of beneficiary under PM Vishwakarma scheme - 18 years on the date of registration
71. which one is not the feature of ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’: - Scheme is initially implemented for seven years
72. which among the following is correct feature of loan under ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’: 1.Loan is in two tranches 2.No
margin requirement under the scheme 3.Repayment period for loan under tranche 1 is 18 months and under tranche
2 is 30 months 4.Need based repayment holiday upto 6 months can be extended 5.Maximum quantum of loan under
tranche 1 is Rs 2 lakhs 6.Net rate of interest is 8.00% p.a.: - 1,2 and 3 only are correct
73. Interest subvention from the Government towards loan granted under PM Vishwarkarma Scheme is _ p.a: 8%
74. Under tranche-1, loan upto __ can be granted under PM Vishwarkarma scheme. - .Rs 1 lakh
75. The beneficiary should have undergone Skill Verification and successfully completed ______ Basic Skill training to be
eligible to avail first tranche of credit support of upto ____ under the PM Vishwarkarma Scheme. - 5 days, Rs 1 lakh
76. Gross rate of interest for loan granted under PM Vishwarkarma Scheme is ______ p.a - 13%

3B. GOVT SPONSORED SCHEMES

1. For sustainable rehabilitation of identified manual scavengers and their dependents, SRMS offers capital subsidy to
group projects having project cost upto _______ :- Rs 50 lakhs
2. For sustainable rehabilitation of identified manual scavengers and their dependents, SRMS offers maximum capital
subsidy of ______per beneficiary for individual projects. :- Rs 5.00 lakhs
3. For sustainable rehabilitation of identified manual scavengers and their dependents, SRMS offers maximum capital
subsidy of ______per beneficiary for group projects:- Rs 3.75 lakhs
4. What is the minimum loan amount for 2nd dose/2nd year under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural
Livelihoods Mission? :- Rs 3.00 lakh
5. What is the minimum loan amount for 1st dose/1st year under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural
Livelihoods Mission? :- Rs 1.50 lakh
6. Women SHGs under DAY NRLM in rural areas are eligible for Interest Subvention upto _______ during the FY 2023-24
:- Rs 5.00 lakh
7. Women SHGs under DAY NRLM in rural areas, for outstanding credit balance up to Rs 3.00 lakhs, Interest shall be
subvented at the uniform rate of _____ p.a. during FY 2023-24 :- 4.50%
8. Women SHGs under DAY NRLM in rural areas, for outstanding credit balance above Rs 3.00 lakh and up to Rs 5.00 lakh
will be subvented at a uniform rate of ______ p.a during FY 2023-24:-5.00%
9. Women SHGs under DAY NRLM in rural areas, for loan above Rs 3.00 lakh and up to Rs 5.00 lakh, interest to be
charged at interest rate equivalent to their _______ or any other external benchmark based lending rate or
________, whichever is________:- 1 year MCLR, 10% per annum, lower
10. DAY-NRLM promotes affinity-based women Self Help Groups (SHGs), In which case DAY-NRLM may have both men and
women in the Self-Help Groups? a.Persons with Disabilities b.Elders c.Transgenders :- a, b and c
11. Which one is the eligibility Criteria for SHGs to avail loans under DAY NRLM? :- SHGs should be in active existence
for at least 6 months as per their books of accounts

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 22 | P a g e

12. What is the Drawing Power for the first year, in case of Cash Credit Limit granted to women SHG under DAY NRLM
scheme? :- 6 times of the existing corpus or minimum of Rs. 1.5 lakhs, whichever is higher.
13. What is the Drawing Power for the second year, in case of Cash Credit Limit granted to women SHG under DAY NRLM
scheme? :- 8 times of the corpus at the time of review/enhancement or minimum of Rs 3.0 lakhs, whichever is
higher
14. What is the Drawing Power for the third year, in case of Cash Credit Limit granted to women SHG under DAY NRLM
schem?: :- Minimum of 6 lakh based on Micro Credit Plan
15. In order to facilitate women SHG members under DAY NRLM to graduate to entrepreneurs, banks may consider extending loans up
to _ to individual members of select matured well performing SHGs as per their lending policy :-Rs 1000000
16. One woman in every SHG under DAY-NRLM may be provided a loan up to _____ under the MUDRA Scheme, if she is
otherwise eligible. :- Rs 100000
17. Banks are advised to provide minimum OD facility of ________ to every woman SHG member having PMJDY account in
accordance with the guidelines issued by Indian Banks’ Association :- Rs 5000
18. Under DAY NRLM scheme, in order to facilitate use of loans for augmenting livelihoods of SHG members, at least 50%
of loans above _____, 75% of loans above _______ and at least 85% of loans above ______ should be used primarily
for income generating productive purposes. :- Rs 1 lakh, Rs 4 lakh, Rs 6 lakh
19. What is the Repayment schedule for third dose of Term Loans under DAY NRLM scheme? :- 48-60 months
20. what is the margin requirement for loans above Rs. 10 lakh and up to Rs. 20 lakh, to SHGs under DAY NRLM scheme?
:- Margin not exceeding 10% of the loan amount exceeding Rs. 10 lakh may be obtained
21. What is the coverage target for minorities under DAY NRLM Scheme? :- 15%
22. What is the coverage target for SC/STs under DAY NRLM Scheme? :- 50%
23. What is the coverage target for person with disability under DAY NRLM Scheme? :- 3%
24. Financing of the DAY NRLM programme is shared between the Centre and the States in the ratio of ___:-60:40
25. Which statement is correct in respect of target fixed to financing bank under DRI scheme?:1% of previous year’s Gross
bank credit 2.Not less than 2/3rd of DRI advances are to be routed through rural and semiurban branches, and the
balance 1/3 to be routed through urban and metropolitan branches. 3.Not less than 40% of the total DRI advances of
the Bank should flow to the eligible borrowers belonging to SCs/STs. :- all are correct
26. For determining income criteria, under DRI scheme, family income of the borrower from all sources, should not
exceed _______ per annum in urban and semi-urban areas, ______ per annum in rural areas. :-Rs 24000, Rs 18000
27. The DRI borrower need not own any land or the size of land holdings should not exceed_______ in case of irrigated
land and ______ in the case of unirrigated land. :- one acre, 2.5 acres
28. Housing finance upto ______ @ _____to SC/ST are to be treated under DRI scheme, provided the concerned
borrowers fulfil the income criteria under DRI. :- Rs 20000, 4%
29. Repayment period under DRI scheme should not exceed _____ including grace period, if any, given upto a maximum
of _______:-5 years, 2 years
30. DAY-NRLM would provide a Revolving Fund (RF) support to SHGs as corpus, with a minimum of _______ and up to a
maximum of _________ per SHG. :- Rs 20000, Rs 30000
31. Which of the following in general, is eligible as a borrower under NRLM? :- Women Self Help Groups
32. The repayment period for the Term loan under NRLM for Second dose is:- 36-48 months
33. Loan application for extending credit facility to SHGs under NRLM is :- NF1038
34. SHGs under NRLM can avail the loan as :- Either CC or TL
35. “Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Urban Livelihood Mission (DAY-NULM) is implemented in all district
headquarters (irrespective of population) and all the cities with population of ___ or more:- 1 lakh
36. Under NULM-Agri-Allied activity, no margin money should be taken for loan up to ______and for higher amount loans,
preferably ____ should be taken as margin money and it should in no case be more than ____ of the project cost. :-
Rs 50000, 5 %, 10 %
37. Rate of subsidy in Rural areas for Special category beneficiary under PMEGP is ______. :- 35%
38. Margin under PMEGP for General category borrower is :- 10%
39. Fixed Capital Investment per Artisan/worker should not exceed ___in plain areas under PMEGP:-3 lakh
40. Fixed Capital Investment per Artisan/worker should not exceed ___in Hill areas under PMEGP :- 4.5 lakh
41. How many years ITR has to be submitted by the borrower for availing 2nd loan under PMEGP? 1 Year
42. Repayment of loan under PMEGP can be made as _______. :- to 7 years with 6 months holiday period
43. The Project cost under National Urban livelihood mission (NULM) in case of individual micro-enterprise is restricted
to __ :- Rs. 2 lakh
44. What is the additional interest subvention provided to all Women SHGs who repay their loan in time / prompt
repayment under NULM? :- 3%
45. What is minimum score of applicant for PMEGP Loan of upto Rs.10.lakh for forwarding the application to bank? :- 50
out of 100
46. What is minimum score of applicant for PMEGP Loan for above Rs. 10.lakh for forwarding the application to bank? :-
60 out of 100
47. What is maximum project cost for setting up a project under service sector under PMEGP scheme? :- Rs 20 lac
48. Maximum loan quantum under New Swarnima for women under MSME selfemployment loan scheme is :- Rs.100000/-
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 23 | P a g e
49. What is the number of members to form WSHG group in case of special SHGs under NRLM? :- Minimum 5 members
50. As per PMEGP scheme, Rural area means ____ a. Any area classified as Village as per the revenue record of the
State/Union Territory, irrespective of population b. All the areas, irrespective of their population, falling under
Panchayati Raj Institutions will be accounted under rural areas, whereas areas falling under Municipality to be
treated as urban areas :- Either a or b
51. Finance under PMEGP is Only for :- New Projects
52. Under PM-KISAN scheme, the eligible amount which the farmers will get :- Rs.6000 per annum per family
53. Beneficiary’s contribution (i.e. margin) in PMEGP is _____ as percentage of project cost:- 10% by general category
and 5% by special category borrowers
54. Rate of subsidy in urban areas in PMEGP is_______ percentage of project cost: :- 15% for general and 25% by special
category persons
55. Rate of subsidy in rural areas in PMEGP is___as percentage of project cost: :-25% for general and 35% for special
category persons
56. Which of the following is correct with regard to eligibility criteria for PMEGP:- There is no income ceiling criteria
57. Under PMEGP collateral security can be taken in which of the following cases :- If project cost involves loan more
than Rs 10 lac for business, industry and service purpose
58. Loans under the PMEGP Scheme shall be considered for borrowers rated upto _____ risk only:- Moderate
59. Under NRLM scheme in general what is the number of persons in a women self help group? :- 10 to 20
60. What is the amount of capital subsidy available under NRLM scheme? :- No capital subsidy is available
61. The repayment period for the loan under NRLM, does not match in which of the following: :- Third dose: between
24-36 months in monthly /quarterly /half yearly Installments
62. Under NationalRuralLivelihoodMission(NRLM)scheme, what is amount of loan upto which no margin is to be taken:-Rs
10 lac
63. The term loan under NRLM, does not match in which of the following: :- Third Dose: Minimum of 5 lakhs based on
the Micro credit plan.
64. Under National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme, what is amount of loan for which no collateral is to be
taken:- Rs 20 lac
65. What is the extent of loan that is permitted under DRI: a. Economic activity upto : Rs 15000 b. Upto Rs 5000 as
additional loan to disabled person c. Housing loan upto Rs 20000 to SC/ST or under Indira Awas Yojana d. None of the
above:- All the above
66. What is maximum project cost for setting up a project under manufacturing sector under PMEGP scheme for?:-Rs 50
lac
67. What is minimum education qualification of beneficiary for setting up project coast above 10.0 Lakh in
manufacturing sector under PMEGP scheme? :- 8th pass
68. DRI scheme aims to benefit the poor whose annual family income is upto ___ in rural areas and ___ in urban and semi
urban areas. :- Rs 18000, Rs 24000
69. Under DRI Scheme, housing loans, upto a limit of _____ to be granted to the individuals other than SC/ST community.
:- Rs 15000
70. Rate of Interest on DRI loan is ________:- 4% simple
71. For sustainable rehabilitation of identified manual scavengers and their dependents, SRMS offers capital subsidy to
individual projects having project cost upto ___ :-Rs 15 lakhs
72. Under Margin Money Loan scheme, term loans upto _____ per unit can be extended under refinance scheme of
NMDFC, provided the beneficiary contributes a minimum of ____ Margin by way of its own funds, for availing the
primary facility. - .Rs 4.50 lakhs, 10%
73. Commission paid to BC agents working as Sub Partner/Lead Generator @____of loan sanctioned amount subject to a
minimum of _____ & a maximum of ______ per successfully uploaded and disbursed loan application (at least 1
disbursal done) under Jan Samarth Portal. - 0.075%, Rs 100, Rs 500
74. Scheduled Caste persons possessing individual or collective parcel of unirrigated agricultural lands, preferably about
____ and having annual family income up to ____ are eligible for financial assistance under Amrit Jaladhaara
Scheme. - 2.5 acres, Rs 3.00 lakh p.a.
75. which among the following is correct feature of loan under ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’: 1.Loan is in two tranches 2.No
margin requirement under the scheme 3.Repayment period for loan under tranche 1 is 18 months and under tranche
2 is 30 months 4.Need based repayment holiday upto 6 months can be extended 5.Maximum quantum of loan under
tranche 1 is Rs 2 lakhs 6.Net rate of interest is 8.00% p.a.: - 1,2 and 3 only are correct

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 24 | P a g e

4. HRD & STAFF MATTERS
1. With the objective of anchoring and promoting a positive culture in our Bank, an ‘Ethics and Business conduct cell’
has been formed under Industrial Relations Section, Head Office, Bengaluru headed by Chief Ethics Officer Who is the
Chief Ethics Officer? General Manager, HR Wing b) General Manager, SAM Wing c) General Manager, G A WING d)
General Manager, RM WING e) MD & CEO of the Bank
2. Quantum of EHL for staff in Clerical Cadre for our bank is ______. a) Rs. 45 Lakh b) Rs. 55 Lakh c) Rs. 50 Lakh d) Rs.
60 Lakh e) Rs. 75 Lakh
3. Quantum for Repairs & Renovation (within the overall entitlements) is at what percentage of the Employee’s Housing
loan entitlement ? a) 20% b) 25% c) 15% d) 30% e) 40%
4. Quantum for undertaking repairs /renovation and maintenance for existing house/ flat is for Scale III cadre is
_______. a) Rs. 16 Lakh b) Rs. 15 Lakh c) Rs. 12 Lakh d) Rs. 17 Lakh e) Rs. 20 Lakh
5. The maximum amnount of Car loan for officer employees is Rs _____ lakh in case of Petrol /diesel vehicle and Rs
_____ lakh in case of solar/hybrid vehicle. a) 10 lakh & 12 lakh b) 15 lakh & 17 lakh c) 12 lakh & 12 lakh d) 12 lakh &
15 lakh e) None of the Above
6. What is the eligibility for workmen employees to avail car loan? a) Minimum 5 years of active service and basic pay
not less than Rs. 15360/- b) Minimum 3 years of active service and basic pay not less than Rs. 15360/- c) Minimum 3
years of active service and irrespective of basic pay d) Minimum 5 years of active service and irrespective of basic
pay e) None of the above.
7. If an employee closes DPN /OD account and further seeks DPN /OD loan it shall be permitted ; subject to the
condition that there shall be a gap of _____ from the previous availement. a) 6 months b) One year c) Two years d) 3
Months e) It cannot be permitted
8. Quantum for undertaking repairs /renovation and maintenance for existing house/ flat is for Sub-staff cadre is _____.
a) Rs. 8 Lakh b) Rs. 7 Lakh c) Rs. 9 Lakh d) Rs. 10 Lakh e) Rs. 12 Lakh
9. Whos is the sanctioning authority for Clean OD/ DPN loan for an employee working in a branch? a) DM CAC b) RO
Head of respective Regional Office c) AGM heading the respective RO d) Branch In Charge e) Employee advances
section in charge
10. Quantum of loan for two wheeler loans for officer and workmen employees for used vehicle w.e.f. 12.01.2021 is a)
Rs. 1,00,000 /- b) Rs. 75, 000/- c) Rs. 50, 000/- d) 85%value of the valuation given by the panel automobile engineer
subject to maximum Rs. 50,000/- e) None of the above
11. A consolidated report on the Exit Interview has to be placed by HRM /SA/HOSA to respective Circle Head / Wing head
on a quarterly basis . Circle needs to forward the same to _______ . a) HR and OD section on a quarterly basis who
will place it before CGM HR /OD wing on a quarterly basis b) HR and OD section on a half yearly basis who in turn
will place it before CGM HR/OD wing on a half yearly basis c) HR and OD section on a quarterly basis who will place
it before GM HR /OD wing on a quarterly basis d) HR and OD section on a half yearly basis who will place it before GM
HR /OD wing on a half yearly basis e) HR and OD section on a half yearly basis who will place it before GM HR /OD
wing on a monthly basis
12. Withdrawal under NRW ( Non Repayable Withdrawal) under Canara Bank SPF scheme is restricted to _______. a)
Maximum of 3 times during the entire service of the member b) Maximum of 5 times during the entire service of the
member c) Maximum of 4 times during the entire service of the member d) Maximum of 6 times during the entire
service of the member e) No limit on maximum numbers of times during the entire service of the member.
13. With effect from the 1st June 2015, male employees with upto two surviving children are eligible for 15 days
Paternity Leave during his wife’s confinement. The leave may be availed upto 15 days before or upto 6 months from
the date of delivery of the child. Paternity Leave to be taken in a ______a) To be taken in a Single stretch b) Can
maybe combined with any other kind of leave except casual leave c) Can be availed in parts also d) a and b e) as per
the wish of the Employee.
14. As per revised guidelines , Car Loan quantum for officers in Executive TEG (Scale VI and Above ) Cadre for purchase
of a Petrol/diesel/CNG/LPG brand new vehicle is a) Rs. 25 Lakh b) Rs. 15 Lakh c) Rs. 18 Lakh d) Rs. 20 Lakh e) Rs 25
lakh
15. Email protocol for efficient e-mail communication by invariably incorporating the following information in the email
signature: a) Name of the sender/official concerned b) Scale/Grade/Designation and c) Office Name/ Section name
d) Office Telephone No/Mobile No. e) all above
16. CANARITES application has been enabled with the feature of reporting of incidents at branch / offices for effective
measurement of a) Capital computation for management risk, the regulatory capital requirement will estimate
expected loss to move towards standardized measurement approach. b) Capital computation for operational risk,
the regulatory capital requirement will estimate expected loss to move towards standardized measurement
approach. c) Capital computation for reputational risk, the regulatory capital requirement will estimate expected
loss to move towards standardized measurement approach. d) Capital computation for opportunity and business risk
the regulatory capital requirement will estimate expected loss to move towards standardized measurement

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 25 | P a g e

 approach. e) There is no connection between incident reporting in canarite application and Capital computation for
any risk.
17. The ethical climate of the organization not only helps in boosting employee morale but also fosters an involved and
retained workforce to aid in improved business outcomes. As a Canara bank employee you are not supposed to do the
following as a matter of ethics. a) Keep customers informed about benefits & risks of products and services offered
to them b) Imbibe ownership of Bank-Take pride in everything connected with our Bank c) Work with passion &
interest, refrain from resorting to shortcut methods/ deviations from laid down procedures d) Uses the Bank’s
Assets, properties and resources inefficiently and for unintended purposes. e) None of the above
18. Every Officer employee should every year submit a return of his movable, immovable and valuable property including
liquid assets like shares, debentures ______. a) in terms of regulation 20(2) of Canara Bank Officer Employees
Conduct Regulation (1976) as on 31St March of previous year before 30th June b) in terms of regulation 20(4) of
Canara Bank Officer Employees Conduct Regulation (1976) as on 31St March of previous year before 30th June c) in
terms of regulation 20(2) of Canara Bank Officer Employees Conduct Regulation (1976) as on 31St March of that
year before the 30th June d) in terms of regulation 20(4) of Canara Bank Officer Employees Conduct Regulation
(1976) as on 31St March of that year before 30th June e) as per the guidelines of DFS, GOI
19. As per the social media policy of the bank the TAT (Turn Around Time) for first level response is _____ and via email
queries is _______. a) 30 minutes , 3 hours b) 20 minutes , 2 hours c) 15 minutes, 5 hours d) 10 minutes , 1 hour e) 1
hour, 2 hours
20. Following award is given by the Department of Official Language to Ministry/ Department, Public Sector
Undertakings, Boards/Autonomous Bodies/Trusts etc., Nationalized banks, Town Official Language Implementation
Committees and in house Hindi Magazines which register significant progress in the use of Official Language. a)
Rajbhasa Kirti Puraskar b) Rajbhasa Gaurav Puraskar c) Rajbhasa Unnati Puraskar d) Rajbhasa Pragati Puraskar e)
Maatr Bhasha Gaurav Puruskar
21. An employee found guilty of gross misconduct may: a) be dismissed without notice; or b) be removed from the
service / compulsorily retired / be discharged from the service with superannuation benefits i.e. Pension and/ or
Provident Fund and Gratuity as would be due otherwise under the Rules or Regulations prevailing at the relevant
time 'and without disqualification from future employment; c) be brought down to lower stage in the scale of pay up
to a maximum of two stages and for a maximum period of two years; or d) any one of the above e) as decided by
the competent court
22. As per revised guidelines, Housing Loan quantum for Clerical Cadre is ____. a) Rs. 45 Lakh b) Rs. 60 Lakh c) Rs. 50
Lakh d) Rs. 65 Lakh e) Rs. 70 Lakh
23. As per Performance Linked Incentive Scheme, Canara Bank based on YoY growth of 15% in operating profit and
positive net profit grant PLI to its employees. Maximum for how many days PLI can be granted? a) 20 days b) 30 days
c) 10 days d) 15 days e) 12 days
24. Electronic Cards can be considered as debit cards issued in specific overdraft accounts that are in the nature of
______ without any specific end-use restrictions. a) Business Loan b) Commercial Loan c) Personal Loan d) Vehicle
Loan e) None of the Above
25. Quantum of EHL for staff in Sub Staff Cadre for our bank is ______. a) Rs. 25 Lakh b) Rs. 30 Lakh c) Rs. 35 Lakh d) Rs.
40 Lakh e) Rs 45 Lakh
26. Quantum of EHL for staff in Scale II and Scale III Cadres for our bank are ___. a) Rs. 70 Lakh and Rs 75 Lakh
respectively b) Rs. 75 Lakh only c) Rs. 80 Lakh and Rs 85 Lakh respectively d) Rs. 80 Lakh for both e) Rs 85 Lakh for
both
27. Quantum of EHL for staff in Sclae VIII Cadre for our bank is ______. a) Rs. 120 Lakh b) Rs. 125 Lakh c) Rs. 130 Lakh
d) Rs. 135 Lakh e) Rs 150 Lakh
28. Quantum for undertaking repairs /renovation and maintenance for existing house/ flat is for Scale IV, Sclae V, Scale
VI cadre are _______ respectively. a) Rs. 15 Lakh , Rs 15 Lakh and Rs 15 Lakh b) Rs. 15 Lakh , Rs 18 Lakh and Rs 20
Lakh c) Rs. 20 Lakh , Rs 20 Lakh and Rs 20 Lakh d) Rs. 20 Lakh , Rs 20 Lakh and Rs 25 Lakh e) Rs. 20 Lakh , Rs 25
Lakh and Rs 25 Lakh
29. Quantum for undertaking repairs /renovation and maintenance for existing house/ flat is for Sclae VII, Scale VIII
cadre are ________ respectively. a) Rs. 25 Lakh and Rs 25 Lakh b) Rs. 25 Lakh and Rs 26 Lakh c) Rs. 25 Lakh and Rs
27 Lakh d) Rs. 26 Lakh and Rs 27 Lakh e) Rs. 27 Lakh and Rs 27 Lakh
30. NTH of ____% is to be maintained throughout the tenure of the EHL, the same shall be ensured by the authority
permitting the continuation of HL liability after retirement also. a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40 e) 45
31. The maximum quantun of car loan to officer employees (Scale VI) for Solar/battery driven/Hybrid four wheelers is
______. a) 95% of the cost of car subject to a maximum of Rs. 15,00,000/- b) 90% of the cost of car subject to a
maximum of Rs. 15,00,000/- c) 85% of the cost of car subject to a maximum of Rs. 15,00,000/- d) 90% of the cost of
car subject to a maximum of Rs. 18,00,000/- e) 95% of the cost of car subject to a maximum of Rs. 20,00,000/-
32. Total DPN / Clean OD limit for Scale 1 to 3 is ____ and OD limit permitted of the total limit is _____ . a) 12 Lakh, 4
Lakh b) 10 Lakh, 4 lakh c) 10 Lakh. 2 Lakh d) 6 Lakh, 1 Lakh e) 3 Lakh, 0.5 Lakh
33. What is the maximum quantum of two wheeler loan to officer and workmen employees for brand new vehicle is ____.
a) Rs. 2,00,000 /- b) Rs. 1,50,000/- c) Rs. 1,00,000/- d) 85% of the value of the invoice e) 75% of the value of the
invoice
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 26 | P a g e
34. The suggestion under Employees Suggestion Scheme is to be given by the Employee in ______. a) document
Management System (DMS) through SAS package b) accessing the link made available in CANNET c) either a or b d)
both a and b e) email
35. Suggestions accepted by the Bank will be awarded with a cash prize of _____. a) Rs. 10000/- for each accepted
suggestion. b) Rs 5000 /- for each accepted suggestion. c) Rs 3000 for Individuals and Rs 5000 for teams d) Rs 7000/-
for each accepted suggestion e) Rs 7500/- for each accepted suggestion.
36. Suggestions accepted by the Bank will be awarded with a cash prize of _____. a) Rs. 10000/- for each accepted
suggestion. b) there is no ceiling for the number of suggestions accepted for cash awards c) the ESS Screening
Committee will rate all suggestions d) top Three Suggestions Will Be Awarded By MD&CEO e) All the above.
37. What is the Quantum, NTH and Sanctioning Authority for festival advances to employees? a) 1 Month’s Gross Salary of
previous month, 20%, Branch-In Charge/section incharge b) 1 Month’s Gross Salary of previous month, 15%, Branch -In
Charge/section incharge c) 1 Month’s Gross Salary of previous month, 30%, Branch -In Charge/section incharge d) 1
Month’s Gross Salary of previous month, 10%, Branch -In Charge/section incharge e) 1 Month’s Gross Salary of
previous month,25%,Branch-In Charge/section incharge
38. Additional Petrol Limits to relationship officials in Metro, Area 1 , Area 2 & 3 are ________ respectively. a) 15,10 and
5 litres b) 20,15 and 10 litres c) 20,12 and 8 litres d) 15,12 and 10 litres e) 20,15 and 8 litres
39. If relationship official in Scale I/II/III attends the office and performs the duties of CRO for ____ & above of total
working days in a month, then the official concerned is eligible to claim ___ % of enhanced portion of Conveyance. a)
% & 100% b) 50-75 % & 50 % c) Less than 50 % - not eligible d) All the above e) a and b only
40. Clerical Employees who are holding the 2nd set of Double Lock Keys in branches where there is no Supervisory Staff
to hold the 2nd set of Double Lock Keys shall be eligible for special pay of Rs _____ per month. a) Rs.2920/- b)
Rs.3720/- c) Rs.2070/- d) Rs.2820/- e) Rs.3000/-
41. In terms of 11th Bipartite settlement an employee who has completed 30 years of service in the bank is eligible for
further additional sick leave subject to ______ months at the rate of one month for each year of service in excess of
30 years, subject to a maximum of _____ days in entire service a) 3 months, 360 days b) 6 months, 360 days c) 6
months,720 days d) 3 months, 720 days e) None of the above
42. Under the Employees Grievance (s) Redressal Policy the grievance should be acknowledged by HRM section
immediately, in any case within ____ working days of receipt of such grievance(s) and place the same before the
Committee at the Circle level. a) 6 b) 3 c) 7 d) 5 e) 10
43. Our friend Mr. Amit Arora is currently working in the Treasury department in Mumbai. He has completed 34 years of
service in the bank. He wants to become a Certified Treasury Professional. On successful completion of the course
with marks equal to 65%, Amit is eligible for how much incentive amount ? a) Rs. 10000/- plus actual fees
reimbursement b) Rs. 15000/- plus actual fees reimbursement c) Rs. 25000/- plus actual fees reimbursement d)
Rs.15000/- plus fees reimbursement upto a maximum of Rs. 50000/- e) As he is working in treasury, it is compulsory
for him to do the course and he will not cash incentive for the same
44. As per the 11th bipartite settlement, the HRA payable to subordinate and clerical staff shall be ______ of pay as
defined in clause 3 . a) 8.25% b) 7.50% c) 9.85% d) 10.25% e) None of the above
45. Mr. Satish is a Scale III officer heading a Large branch. His colleague Mr. Anant approaches him for Education loan for
his son for admission to IIM Indore for which course fees is nearly Rs . 50.00 lacs. How much loan can Mr. Satish
sanction for them? a) He can sanction upto 95% of quantum subject to maximum of Rs. 47.5 lacs b) He can sanction
upto his delegated powers c) He can sanction upto 90% of quantum subject to maximum of Rs. 45.00 lacs d) Branch
Managers other than VLB/ELB are not empowered to sanction educational loans to employees ‘minor children
and their close relatives. Hence it has to be considered by CM/DM/AGM/DGM of VLB/ELB/CSB/ RAH and at CO/HO
up to the delegated powers e) None of the options are correct
46. Please choose the wrong statement from the following. a) All confirmed Employees are eligible for Festival Advance.
b) The Festival Advance shall be applied and approved in HRMS package only. c) Employees marked as chronic leave
takers in HRMS package are not eligible for Festival Advance till their salary is regularized. d) Suspended employee
during the period of suspension is eligible to avail Festival Advance. e) All options are correct
47. Who is the Sanctioning authority for Employees’ loans such as LHV(car loan), Employees’ Housing Loan Scheme (EHLs)
Loan to employees under ‘housing finance scheme to general customer’s Clean OD/DPN a) DM-CAC b) AGM-CO-CAC
c) RO HEAD d) Circle head e) Branch head
48. What is Canara Kavach loan? a) A loan scheme for Canara bank Employees to insure their liabilities in the event of
unfortunate death of the employee b) A loan scheme to buy additional medicial insurance c) A loan schme to
additional bullet proof vehicle for use d) A loamn scheme to get medical treatment in case of serious disease such as
Cancer e) None of the above
49. What is the maximum loan quantum for scale III employees of the Bank under Canara Kavach scheme? a.Rs 5 lakh
b.Rs 5.25 lakh c.Rs 6 lakh d.Rs 7 lakh e.Rs 8.50 lakh.
50. Applicable rate of interest for loan availed under Canara kavach scheme is ____. a.6% simple b.6% compounded
monthly c.6.5 % simple d.7% compounded monthly e.7% simple
51. What is pre approved credit card limit for scale 1, Scale 2 and Scale 3 employees? a) 2.18 lakh, 2.93 lakh and 3.85
lakh b) 2.00 lakh, 2.50 lakh and 3.50 lakh c) 2.25 lakh ,2.75 lakh and 3.75 lakh d) 2.40 lakh, 2.75 lakh and 3.50 lakh
e) No pre approved limit, has to be sanctioned By RO head a
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 27 | P a g e
52. All employees are eligible to acquire up to maximum of _____ houses/ flats within their overall entitlement for loan
under Employees’ Housing Loan(EHL) and Supplementary Housing Loan (SHL) aggregated. a) Two b) Three c) Four d)
No limit, but within aggregated limit of Staff HL e) None of the above.
53. Applicable rate of interest for loan availed under Canara kavach scheme is _______. 7% compounded monthly
54. As per the extant guideline all Eligible Officers have to complete how many Mandatory Coursesand qualify how many
Mandatory “Know your Circular” Quizes respectively ? 15 , 4
55. What is the monetary ceiling of Mobile handset to be provided for the use of relationship officialsin the
Branches/units? Rs. 10000+GST
56. The threshold for EWS and RFA is an exposure of ______ or more at the level of a bank irrespective of the
57. lending arrangement - Rs 30 million
58. Rupay credit card can be issued to staff with a pre-approved limit in addition to their existing credit card limit
59. within the overall approved limit.What is the overall approved limit for scale III officers? A- Rs 3.85 lakhs
60. The threshold for EWS and RFA is an exposure of ______ or more at the level of a bank irrespective of the lending
arrangement - Rs 30 million
61. Rupay credit card can be issued to staff with a pre-approved limit in addition to their existing credit card limit within
the overall approved limit.What is the overall approved limit for scale III officers? Ans- Rs 3.85 lakhs

5. GENERAL BANKING
1. Bank has covered Insurance Coverage on Contents Of Safe Deposit Lockers with ______ insurance company: Ans:
M/s National Insurance Company Ltd.
2. The Branch Level Customer Service Committee should meet at least once in a month (preferably on 15th or the next
working day if 15th is a holiday) to study complaints/ suggestions, cases of delay, difficulties faced/ reported by
customers / members of the Committee and evolve ways and means of improving customer service. This committee
should consist of Customers including Lady representatives, Staff and _______ Ans: Senior Citizens, Pensioners, Gen
Y etc.
3. Individuals with bank accounts who are recruited by fraudsters to receive cheque deposit or wire transfer for the
purpose of money laundering are called _______ Ans: Money Mules
4. Turn Around Time (end to end delivery of service) for Door Step Services: Ans: All the services registered in DSB
System, up to 3 PM on any working day has to be completed within 3 hours of booking. Services booked after 3 PM
has to be completed by 1 PM of next working day.
5. As per Information System Audit Policy, what is the frequency of IS Audit for Low Risk, Moderate Risk and High Risk
branches’ System Audits : Ans: LR:18 Months, MR:12 months; HR: 6 months
6. While it is preferable to obtain fresh common account opening form in NF.1018 from the depositors on each occasion
of making KDR/FDR, if the branches are experiencing genuine difficulties, they are also permitted to open
subsequent deposit accounts on the strength of a _____________and treating that letter as an Account Opening form.
Such request could also be a message received through FAX or E-mail from depositor. Ans: Formal letter of request
received from such depositor.
7. As per Income Tax 1981, cash payment permitted upto Rs._______ only in respect of payment of Term Deposits
including interest/Loans against Deposits duly obtaining signature on Revenue stamp on the reverse of TD receipt.
Ans: Rs.20,000/-
8. If a Term Deposit (TD) matures and proceeds are unpaid, the amount left unclaimed with the bank shall attract rate
of interest as applicable to ______or the contracted rate of interest on the matured TD, whichever is lower. Ans:
Savings Bank Account
9. The deposit accounts not renewed or paid for more than 10 years are to be treated as “Unclaimed Deposits. As per
Section 26 of BR Act, all such unclaimed deposits are to be transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness Fund
(DEAF fund) with in a period of _____ from the expiry of 10 years unclaimed period. Ans: 3 months
10. Limitation period in respect of repayment of a Deposit with the Bank would start against the Bank not from the date
of maturity of deposit but from the date of demand by the customer and is enforceable within a period of _____
Ans: 3 years
11. For transfer of deposits above Rs.5 Lakhs, from one branch to another branch outside the City /Town / Municipal
area the prior permission of _______ to be obtained Ans: RO/CO
12. What is the standard cash limit of the Bank as a whole and who fixes it. Ans: 0.25% to 0.35% of the aggregate
domestic deposits and MD&CEO fixes it. For branches, Circle Head will fix.
13. Stock Audit is to be conducted for FB+NFB WC exposure of Rs.5 cr for LR/NR and Rs.1 cr for MR/HR and Unrated
accounts. What is the periodicity: Ans: Once in a Year
14. After our latest changes, all accounts of the customer marked as FRAUD in FP: CIM09 or account marked as FRAUD in
FP: BX701 (including other deemed accounts of the customer) will be processed and moved to ______category
irrespective of security value with NPA reason as FRAUD. Same can be verified in FCR Option FP: AC002 on the next
working day. Ans: LOSS ASSET (done at R&R section HO)
15. The entry and exit points of the strong room and the common areas of operation shall be covered under CCTV
camera and Branches shall preserve its recording for a period of not less than _____ days. Ans: 180 days
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 28 | P a g e
16. If the locker remains inoperative for a period of _____years and the locker-hirer cannot be located, even if rent is
being paid regularly, the bank shall be at liberty to transfer the contents of the locker to their nominees/legal heir
or dispose of the articles in a transparent manner, as the case may be. Ans: seven years
17. Due date for collection of all Safe Deposit Locker Rentals will be 1st April of every year. Penal charges are to be
collected in addition to actual rentals if the delay is upto one quarter _____: Ans: 10% of applicable annual
rent.(upto 2 quarters: 25%, upto 3 qutrs:40%, upto 4 qrtrs:50% and one year and above: 100% of applicable rent)
18. Quarterly review of Merchant Establishments should be done for risk categorization. Merchant should be
categorized as ‘Risky Merchant’ if the charge back ratio (Ratio of number of Chargeback received to Total number of
transactions) reaches ____ % during the Quarterly review. Ans: 2%
19. For cases of detection of Counterfeit Notes up to ____ pieces in a single transaction, a consolidated report in the
prescribed format shall be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the police authorities or the Nodal Police Station,
along with the suspect Counterfeit Notes, at the end of the month. Ans: 4 (for 5 pieces and above, FIR immediately)
20. Under Rule 8 (1) of Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Amendment Rules, 2013, Principal
Officers of banks shall report information on cash transactions where forged notes have been detected to FIU-IND, by
the _____ day of the succeeding month, by uploading the information on the FINnet Portal. Ans: 15th day
21. The currency chests shall invariably report all transactions through CyM – CC portal on the same day by ____ (time).
Ans: 7 pm.
22. What is the penalty prescribed by RBI to Currency Chests for non functioning of CC TV/ Branch cash or documents
kept in Vault/ Non-utilization of Note Sorting Machines for denomination of Rs.100 and above. Ans: The penalty
would be of ₹5,000 for each instance of irregularity. The penalty shall be enhanced to ₹10,000 in case of repetition /
recurrence of irregularity during a financial year and the penalty shall be levied immediately.
23. “Quality Audit” Inspecting Officers shall verify minimum _____% of the total number of previous audit observations
(both Part A & B category) where compliances submitted by the branch / unit and which were accepted by Circles
subsequent to the conclusion of previous RBIA. Ans: 10%
24. Periodicity of Inspection / Management Audit of Corporate offices of all Domestic Subsidiaries reduced from 24
months to _____ months. Ans: 12 months
25. Canara Vidya Jyothi Scheme is a Corporate Social Responsibility scheme of our Bank. Under this scheme, what is the
Amount of Assistance that will be provided to SC/ST girl from BPL family within our command area who is studying in
Govt./Govt. Aided Schools: Ans: Rs.2500/- per student (class 5th to 7th) & Rs.5000/- per student (class 8th to 10th)
26. Bank shall maintain for at least _____years from the date of transaction between the bank and the client, all
necessary records of transactions, both domestic or international, which will permit reconstruction of individual
transactions. Ans: 5 years
27. A Currency note of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces is called as ______ Ans:
A mutilated note
28. Soiled Notes presented in small number: Where the number of notes presented by a person is up to 20 pieces with a
maximum value of _____per day, banks shall exchange them over the counter, free of charge. Ans: ₹5,000/-
(beyond 20 pieces or 5000/- accept on collection basis)
29. In the event of Dishonour of a cheque valuing Rs. 1 crore and above drawn on a particular account of the drawer on
_____ occasions during the financial year for want of sufficient funds in the account, No fresh cheque books should
be issued and Closure of such accounts may also be considered at branch discretion. Ans: 4 occassions (for less than
1 lakh: 6 occassions)
30. Tax Collected at Source (TCS) is applicable under Income Tax Act for remittances under LRS if the amount exceeds
Rs.7 lacs. What is the TCS rate for Education purpose, financed by our Bank: Ans: above 7 lacs: 0.05% of remittance
amount. (without EL it is 5% above 7 lakh) (For medical purpose also 5% above Rs.7 lakh. For other purposes 20%
above 7 lakh rupees)
31. What is the rate of TCS for Overseas Tour Package remittance under LRS: Ans: 5% upto Rs.7 lakhs and 20% for above
Rs.7 lakh remittance.
32. An option “Apply for locker” is provided in our mobile banking application under Accounts & Services category in All
tab. The selected locker will be blocked/ reserved for that customer for a period of 15 days. Customer will be
charged an amount of Rs.500/- + GST which will be Rs.590/- to block a locker. If customer does not avail this locker
facility with in _____ days, the amount will not be refunded. Ans: 15 days
33. Enhanced Access & Service Excellence (EASE) 6 - Hassle Free Branch Banking Experience focuses mainly on ________
Ans: Internal & External Branch Ambience
34. Bank is assigned with convenorship of State Level Bankers Committee (SLBC) in which states/UTs: Ans: Karnataka,
Kerala, UT in Lakshadweep. Lead Bank in 61 districts.
35. Banks were permitted to exchange Rs.2000/- currency notes till 30.09.2023. What was the maximum permissible
amount for exchange per day for non account holders: Ans: Rs.20,000/- at a time
36. As per Instructions of DFS, all Furniture purchases have to be made through ______ portal. Ans: Government e-
Market Place (GeM) Portal
37. Amount outstanding under SA will attract 100% Risk Weight for Capital Adequacy Ratio and amount outstanding under
SA-Furniture & Fixtures (GL-122422160) for more than 6 months will attract ____ % provision in the Balance Sheet.
Ans: 100%
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 29 | P a g e
38. Those records that have been natively created in digital format (rather than digitized from paper records) are called
______ Ans: Born-digital records
39. Records which relate to disputes or litigations in the Court of Law are to be preserved for ____ years. Ans: 20 years
after the disputes are over
40. Records of Unclaimed deposit are to be preserved for ____ years. Ans: Till the claim is lodged and 20 years after it is
settled
41. Scrolls relating to Government transactions should be preserved for a period not less than _____ years immediately
preceding current calendar year and consolidation sheets be preserved for a period not less than 3 years preceding
the current calendar year. Ans : 10 years
42. The branches should preserve the Counterfeit Notes for a period of ______ years from the date of receipt from the
Police Authorities/Courts except for cases pending in court. Ans: 3 years
43. Under PMLA Rules 2005, records pertaining to all cash transactions of more than Rs.10 lacs, series of/ monthly cash
transactions exceeding Rs.10 lacs are to be preserved for a period of ____ years from the date of cessation of
transaction between bank and customer. Ans: 5 years
44. As per RBI guidelines, Banks have been advised to enable Positive Pay System (PPS) facility for all account holders
issuing cheques for amount of 50,000 and above as per discretion of customer. Banks may make it mandatory for all
cheques of Rs.______ and above. Ans: Rs.5 lacs
45. Who will be the Chairman of New Business Approval Committee (NBAC), at apex level? MD & CEO
46. The exposure ceiling (Regulatory limits) prescribed by the RBI in respect of Group borrower is______. 25% of eligible
capital base
47. Branch shall be categorized as ‘Large’ if the average advances for the two years is_____ Above Rs. 15 Crores Upto Rs.
40 crores
48. Solvency certificate can be issued to the extent of accepted net worth of the borrower client onthe basis of audited
financial statements ________. beyond Rs 5 lakh
49. New toll free call center number for Canara bank is ________. 1800-1030
50. Preservation period for a banking company is defined under which act? - Section 45Z in the Banking Regulation Act,
1949
51. Records which relate to disputes or litigations in the Court of Law should be preserved ______. - permanently
52. What is the preservation period of records of transactions pertaining to Money Changing Activities? - 10 years
immediately preceding the financial year
53. A numeric or alphanumeric string, called as ……… is persistently linked or associated with the e-record, which helps
in its reference, location, identification, authentication, access and control. It is also used as the file name for
storing the e-record. - Unique Record identifier
54. Hindi day is celebrated every year on _______. - 14th September
55. Which among the following documents/records should be preserved permanently? - Records which relate to disputes
or litigations in the Court of Law
56. Closed loan papers/documents both fund based and non-fund based should be preserved ________. - 10 years from
the date of closure
57. The Sundry Assets, Sundry Liabilities, Branch Adjustment Account Registers, etc. should be preserved for ______
from the date of tallying of the last outstanding entry. - 10 years
58. Counterfeit notes, which are subject matter of litigation in the court of law should be preserved with the branch
concerned for ______ after conclusion of the court case. - three years
59. Which one of the record does not belong to the list of documents/records to be preserved permanently? - Guarantee
Issued cum Liability Register
60. How many years the Customers' files (Advances) are to be preserved from the date of closure of relative account? -
10 Years
61. Which one of the register needs to be preserved for permanently? - Register of Mortgages and Charges
62. Records which relate to disputes or litigations in the Court of Law should be preserved ______ . - for 20 years after
the disputes are over
63. Which among the following item should be necessarily held in FBR Strong Room/FBR Safe? - Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement forms obtained from NRIs
64. What is the frequency of life certificate submission by Central Freedom Fighters Pensioner aged80 years and above?
Twice – once in May and once in November
65. Environmental, Social, Governance (ESG) & Climate risk parameters are applicable to CorporateBorrowers having
fund based and non fund based exposure of equal to and above _______. Rs 50 Crore
66. AS per the bank's fruad policy what is the new screen introduced in the CBS for marking the fraud for a particular
account number ? BX701
67. What is the incentive amount given by the RBI for the Bank Branches for Coin Distribution in rural and semi-urban
areas on the submission of a Concurrent Auditor (CA) certificate ? Rs. 75 per bag
68. As per the extant guideline , By what time line Banks need to furnish Fraud Monitoring Return(FMR) to RBI in
individual fraud cases, irrespective of the amount involved from the date of detection? 3 Weeks
69. What is the timeline for Submission of Quarterly Compliance Certificate (QCC )on quarterly basisby the branch ? 17
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 30 | P a g e
 working days from the end of the quarter
70. Bank needs to furnish FMR in individual fraud cases & irrespective of the amount involved to RBI? Within 3 weeks
from the date of detection
71. What is the Minimum number of previous audit observations in the branch/units to be verified byQuality Audits
inspecting officers? (in %) 15
72. Which one of the following is the BASEL Recognised Guarantees? 1) Guaranteed By CRGFTLIH 2) Guaranteed By
CGFSEL 3) Guaranteed By CGTMSE 4) Guaranteed By CGFSSD 5) All the above -Ans
73. SGB (Soverign Gold Bond Scheme) will be restricted for Sale to
74. 1) Resident Individuals 2) HUF 3) Trust 4) Universities 5) All the above --Ans
75. What is the Risk Weightage (in %) for Claims guaranteed by State Government? 20
76. What is the maximum permissible investment under SGB Scheme for HUFs? 4 Kgs
77. Which among the following documents/records are to preserved permantly in HO,CO, RO,Branches& all other offices
as per the Document Handling, Digitalization of Records & retention Policy 2023-24?
1) Matters relating to Branch License 2) Safe Deposit Locker Agreements 3) Security Register 4) Indemnity Bonds
5) Guarantee Issued cum Liability Register
78. Which among the following documents/records are to preserved for 5 Years in HO,CO, RO,Branches& all other
offices as per the Document Handling, Digitalization of Records & retention Policy 2023-24?
1) CR – Rejected Loan Proposals 2) Leave Record of Ex-Employees
3) Performance Budgeting 4) Options 1,2,3 are correct 5) None of these
79. For unauthorized Card related transactions for Loss on Card, Police Acknowledgement Letter / FIR is not mandatory
for claim where the loss amount is less than Rs.________. 50,000/-
80. Basel III guidelines to be implemented fully in India since (Except Capital conservation Buffer and
81. Leverage ratio):31-03-2019
82. Under Basel III, a bank's minimum equity tier 1 ratio is of---------------- its risk- weighted holdings(Except CCB)-5.50%
83. As of April 2022, under Basel III, a bank's tier 1 capital must be at least 8.00% of its risk- weightedassets including
2.5% CCB. The minimum capital ratio (including the capital conservation buffer,additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital) is
. -11.50%
84. Non-functioning of CCTV in currency chests, RBI levied Penalty upto what amount?-Rs.5000
85. Violation of any term of agreement with RBI for deficiency in service in providing exchangefacilities as detected by
RBI officials RBI will charge penalty immediately upto what amount?-Rs.10000
86. If 5 instances of violation of agreement/deficiency in service by the branch. The levy of suchpenalty will be placed in
public domain. Penalty will be levied Rs. immediately.-Rs.5.00Lakhs
87. What is the minimum Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Plus capital conservation buffer as per BaselIII guidelines by RBI :
-8.00%
88. Elements of Common Equity Tier I capital includes–A. Common Shares issued by the Bank B. Stock Surplus resulting
from issue of common shares C. Statutory reserves -All of the above
89. Additional Tier-I Capital required as per BASEL III guidelines.-1.5%
90. Settlement Risks to be also called as ?-Herstatt Risk
91. Pillar III provisions refer to which of the following:-Disclosure Norms
92. Which one from the following is not part of Tier- I Capital?-Redeemable Preference shares
93. Interest rate risk is a measure of ?-Market Risk
94. Operational Risk is associated with?A. Inefficient People B. Natural calamity C. Inadequate Internal process - All of
the Above
95. What is the maximum Capital Conservation Buffer prescribed under Basel III?-2.50%
96. PM Vishwakarma Scheme is related to providing financial assistance to :Artisans and Craftspeople
97. Expand CRMC as: Credit Risk Management Committee
98. Date of review of the Monetary Policy by RBI generally in the month of:April/June/Aug/Oct/Dec/Feb
99. New concept of EBLR (External Benchmark Lending Rates) interest rates linked to?A. RBI Policy Repo Rate B. GOI
3M/6M Treasury bill yield C. Any other Benchmark Interest rate Published by FBIL - All the above
100. Interest rates charged by banks in terms of RBI directives can’t be questioned, in a court of law, under the
provisions of:Sec 21-A of Banking Regulation Act
101. Which of the following liability is not taken as part of time and demand liabilities for the purpose
of CRR: Paid up Capital
102. When RBI wants to reduce liquidity in the Banking System it:Increases the CRR
103. What is the minimum and maximum extent of CRR that can prescribe?-Discretion of RBI
104. RBI can issue directives to banks in respect of their loans/advances, under section 21 of:Banking Regulation Act

105. Bank Shall categorize the investments held by the bank in the following categories:A. Held to Maturity B.
Available for Sale C. Fair Value through Profit and loss - All the above
106. A Bank’s aggregate exposure to capital markets should not exceed ___% of its net worth on asolo & consolidated
basis.-40%

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 31 | P a g e

107. The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) enacted under which Provision of BR Act:Sec26A
108. A bank cannot grant loans and advances against its own shares under the provisions of:Section 21(3) of Banking
Regulation Act
109. FLAIR Portal is related to?-Foreign Liabilities and Asset Information’s Reporting System
110. What is the full form of FBIL which carries out valuation of Government Securities?-Financial Benchmarks India
Pvt. Ltd.
111. Paisa Bolta Hai Tag Line is related to?- Know your Bank note
112. The present definition of wilful default has been adopted by RBI on the recommendation of- S S Kohli Committee

113. The committee related to Financing of MSMEs:U.K.Sinha Committee

114. Reserve Bank of India was Established on ?1st April 1935
115. The RBI Digital Currency Pilot project has been implemented wef:1st November 2022
116. The following Banks are not a Part of the Digital Currency Pilot project : a) State Bank Of India b) Bank of Baroda
c) Union Bank of India d) Punjab National Bank
117. What is RBI’s new Initiative for advanced supervisory monitoring system?DAKSH
118. What is the LAF:Liquidity Adjustment Facility
119. The full form of FIRMS portal of RBI:Foreign Investment Reporting and Management System
120. What does Sec 11 of Banking Regulations Act deals with?-Requirement as to Minimum capital reserves
121. What does Section 52 on Banking Regulation Act deals with?-Power of Central Govt. to make rules
122. IDF NBFCs (Infrastructure Debt Fund ) are required to maintain minimum capital to risk weightedassets of :15%
123. What is the penalty the Bank has to bear per day in case of delay in release of immovable and Movable properties
to the borrower after repayment of the loan?-Rs5000
124. RBI Retail Direct Scheme is related to:a) Increase Retail Participation in Govt. Securities b) One Stop solution to
individual investors to invest in Govt.Securities c) Investors can open Retail Direct Gilt Account with RBI - All the
above
125. As per the latest RBI guidelines, Tier 1 UCBs and Tier 2 to 4 UCBs shall maintain minimum CRAR as a percentage
to total risk weighted asset at _____& _____respectively? Ans. 9% & 12%
126. Which of the following is a correct combination of criteria for classification of UCBs into different Tier as per
latest RBI guidelines? – All :Ans. a. Tier 1- All unit UCBs and salary earners’ UCBs (irrespective of deposit size), and
all other UCBs having deposits up to ₹100 crore. b. Tier 2- UCBs with deposits more than ₹100 crore and up to ₹1000
crore. c. Tier 3- UCBs with deposits more than ₹1000 crore and up to ₹10,000 crore d. Tier 4- UCBs with deposits
more than ₹10,000 crore
127. The revised market hours of Call/notice/term money market specified by RBI with effect from December 12,
2022 is? Ans. 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM
128. As per RBI guidelines, banks can offer structured hedging products for commodities to eligible unlisted entities
whose net worth is higher than _________ Ans. Rs. 200 crore
129. Banks are permitted to issue Standby Letters of Credit (SBLC) / Guarantees, for a maximum period of ________,
on behalf of their clients in lieu of making a remittance of margin money for commodity hedging transactions
entered into by their customers. Ans. 12 months
130. As per the latest list of Domestic Systematically Important Banks (D-SIBs) released by RBI, SBI has to bring
_______% and HDFC & ICICI banks have to bring _______% of Additional Common Equity Tier 1 requirement as a
percentage of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs). Ans. 0.6% & 0.20%
131. RBI has recently instructed banks to complete the process of execution of revised locker agreement before
____________ Ans. December 31, 2023
132. Number of credit rating agencies approved by RBI for considering the credit rating for risk weighing the assets for
capital adequacy purposes? Ans. 6
133. Name of Single Window National Logistic Portal released by Government of India recently is?
Ans. Marine
134. Government of India has released common reforms agenda under Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE)
reforms for Public Sector Banks. Which of the following is the implementation agency of the programme? Ans. IBA
135. Centralised Receipt and Processing Center (CRPC) for complaints under RBI integrated ombudsman scheme is
established at? Ans. Chandigarh
136. The segment of banking on which highest number of ombudsman complaints received during financial year 2021-
22 is? Ans. digital modes of payment and transactions
137. RBI has restricted which of the following foreign bank from carrying out all the transactions under Liberalised
Remittance Scheme (Except ATM/POS based transactions)? Ans. SBM Bank (India) Ltd
138. PayNow is the fast payment system of which of the following country? Ans. Singapore
139. With the recent integration of UPI-PayNow, an Indian customer can transfer upto Rs. ________per day to
Singapore using his bank’s mobile banking app / internet banking ( permitted banks). Ans. Rs. 60,000/-
140. Eligible Entities can receive foreign contributions into their account maintained with New Delhi main branch of
SBI through? Ans. a. RTGS b. NEFT c. SWIFT

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 32 | P a g e

 141. Who among the following is a permitted participant under Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) ?
Ans. Financiers,MSME suppliers, Buyers & Insurance companies
142. RBI has recently decided to allow issuance of prepaid payment instruments linked to __________to foreign
nationals and NRIs visiting India. Ans. UPI
143. FATF has recently cancelled membership of which of the following country? Ans. Russia
144. ChatGPT is an artifical Intelligence based Chatbot recently developed by which of the following company? Ans.
Microsoft
145. As per the Union Budget 2023-24, in new personal income tax regime, number of tax slabs will get reduced to ?
Ans. 5
146. Under Union Budget 2023-24, threshold limit for co-operatives to withdraw cash without TDS has been enhanced
to? Ans. Rs. 3 crore
147. In the union budget 2023-24, it was proposed to establish Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) through
use of priority Sector Lending shortfall, which will be managed by? Ans. NHB
148. In the union budget 2023-24 it is proposed to enhance maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizen Savings Scheme
from Rs. 15 lakh to? Ans. Rs. 30 lakh
149. In the union budget 2023-24, government of India has targeted agriculture credit of Rs. ______to Animal
husbandry, Dairy & Fishery. Ans. Rs. 20 lakh crore
150. Name of the second global hackathon being organized by RBI in 2023 is? Ans. HARBINGER 2023
151. Theme for the financial awareness week being conducted by RBI for the year 2023 (Between Feb 13-17 2023) is?
Ans. Good Financial Behaviour - Your Saviour
152. To improve distribution of coins among members of the public, the Reserve Bank of India is preparing a pilot
project to install coins vending machines using? Ans. UPI
153. Which of the following institution has recently received approval from SEBI for setting up of Social Stock
exchange in India? Ans. NSE
154. Who among the following has been recently appointed as CEO of NITI Aayog? Ans. Mr. BVR Subrahmanyam

155. As per All-India House Price Index (HPI) for Q3:2022-23 released by RBI recently, which city has witnessed highest
growth in housing prices for the Q3 2022-23? Ans. Kochi
156. Which of the following foreign bank has been recently removed by RBI from the list of Scheduled banks and
banking company? Ans. . Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank PJSC (ADCB)
157. What is the rate of interest fixed for EPF balances by the central government for the financial year 2022-23? Ans.
8.15%
158. The government has scrapped the long-term capital gains treatment (with indexation benefits) for income from
debt mutual funds and other schemes that invest upto _________ in equity shares of domestic companies. Ans. 35%

159. Crisis laden Swiss lender, Credit Suisse has been recently acquired by? Ans. UBS
160. The maximum percentage of commission can be paid by the insurance companies to their intermediaries for the
insurance products sold by them as per IRDAIs stipulations is? Ans. Insurance companies can decide
161. The limit of Ways and means advances (WMA) fixed by Reserve Bank of India for the first half of the financial
year 2023-24 (April 2023 to September 2023) is? Ans. Rs. 1,50,000 crore
162. For the wallet transactions carried out through UPI, _________ per cent interchange fee has been introduced by
NPCI on merchants (Not applicable to customers) for P2M transaction above Rs _______ Ans. 1.1% & Rs. 2000

163. As per the finance bill-2023, TDS has been introduced at the rate of _______% from winnings from inline games if
the amount of winning exceeds Rs. 10,000/-. Ans. 30%
164. RBI has recently signed MOU with central bank of which of the following country to enhance cooperation and
jointly enable innovation mainly in Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)? Ans. UAE
165. RBI has recently announced the establishment of a Greenfield Data Centre’ and ‘Enterprise Computing & Cyber
security Training Institute under it at? Ans. Bhubaneshwar
166. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairperson of an expert committee constituted by the
International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to formulate a roadmap to onshore the Indian innovation to
GIFT IFSC? Ans. Shri G. Padmanabhan
167. Niti aayog has recently been tied-up with which of the following company under it’s Women Entrepreneurship
Platform (WEP) to support women entrepreneurs in the country? Ans. Bharathpe
168. The NEW FTP-2023 is standing on which of the following pillar? -Ans. ALL -a. Incentive to Remission b. Export
promotion through collaboration - Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions c. Ease of doing business, reduction in
transaction cost and e-initiatives ,d. Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and
streamlining SCOMET (Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies) policy.
169. As per FTP 2023, which of the following is not among the 4 new cities which were recognized as Towns of Export
Excellence (TEE)? Ans. Varanasi
170. As per FTP 2023, consignment wise cap on E-Commerce exports through courier has been raised from ₹5Lakh to
_______? Ans. ₹10 Lakh
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 33 | P a g e
171. FTP 2023 aims to boost Indian exports to _________by the year 2030. Ans. USD 2 trillion
172. Threshold for increase in legal action under CGTMSE scheme has been increased to? Ans.Rs. 10 lakh
173. The ceiling for availing credit guarantee for CGTMSE under Credit guarantee scheme is been enhanced to? Ans.
Rs. 5 crore
174. As per the RBI’s framework on acceptance of green deposits, banks in India can accept green deposits which is
denominated in? INR only
175. As per the RBI’s framework on acceptance of green deposits, the allocation of funds raised through green
deposits by REs during a financial year shall be subject to an independent third-Party Verification/Assurance which
shall be done at the frequency of ? Ans. Once in a year
176. Government of India has recently commenced issuing Mahila samman Savings certificate at an interest rate of
7.5% for the tenure of? Ans. 2 years
177. The maximum amount of investment permissible in National Savings scheme at individual and joint capacity from
the financial year 2023-24 is? Ans. Rs. 9 lakh, Rs. 15 lakh
178. As per RBI’s latest guidelines, banks can issue general credit cards in the form of? Ans. Credit card
179. UCBs in India are having ______tier’s structure. Ans.4
180. Name of the web application recently developed by RBI to receive applications for licensing AD Categoty II forex
dealers, FFMCs and MTSS agents is? Ans. AP connect
181. What is the amount of incentive per bag of coin distribution paid by RBI to the bank branches which are located
at rural and semi urban areas? Ans. Rs. 75 per bag
182. As per the latest order of Central Vigilance Commission, Chief vigilance officers of respective banks should
submit a factual report on the corruption complaints sent to them by the commission within a maximum period of?
Ans.30 days
183. As per RBI’s revised KYC guidelines, Threshold for "Controlling ownership interest" for the purpose of
determination of Beneficial Owner (BO) for companies and trusts is? Ans. 10 percent for both companies and trusts.
184. Nodal bank for submission of interest subsidy claims in case of DAY NRLM scheme is? Ans. Indian Bank
185. The minimum CRAR requirement for Tier 2 to Tier 4 UCBs as a percentage of Risk weighted Assets stipulated by
is? Ans.12%
186. Which of the following PSE has acquired Mini ratna Category-I status recently? Ans. Solar Energy Corporation of
India
187. Which of the following bank has recently received NCLT approval for reduction of it’s equity share capital to set
off accumulated losses? Ans. IDBI bank
188. The name of the web portal proposed to be developed by RBI as per the budgetary announcement to facilitate
single window approval process for various licenses and periodic approvals for regulated entities is? Ans. PRAVAAH

189. Which Public sector bank tops the performance list under EASE 5.0 Reforms Index for the third quarter of FY23?
Ans.Union Bank of India
190. Requirement of Legal action is waived for outstanding amounts in NPA accounts of making guarantee claim under
ECLGS facility is permitted upto? Ans. Rs. 10 lakh
191. The minimum networth required for urban cooperatives in India as per the RBI’s latest guidelines (Other than
Tier 1 UCBs operating in single district) is? Ans. Rs. 5 crore
192. __means a bank that has no physical presence in the country in which it is incorporated and licensed, and which
is unaffiliated with a regulated financial group that is subject to effective consolidated supervision. Ans. Shell bank

193. RBI has recently announced complete transition of LIBOR to be used as reference rate for any of the foreign
currency related transaction with effect from? Ans.01.07.2023
194. RBI has recently withdrawn Rs. 2000 denomination notes pursuant to its?- Clean notes policy
195. The name of campaign launched with effect from 1st June 2023, by RBI to boost efforts
196. of banks in identifying and settling unclaimed deposits held by them is? - 100 Days 100 Pays’
197. As per RBI’s instructions an authorized person who issues International Debit Cards/Store Value Cards/Charge
Cards/Smart Cards or any other instruments to resident Indians visiting outside India can levy any charges payable on
these instruments which are payable in India in ? Ans. Indian Rupee only
198. Government of India has made it mandatory for all investors in small savings schemes for an amount of Rs.
________and above to submit income proof documents. - Rs. 10 lakh
199. Government of India has recently increased exemption on leave encashment of nongovernment salaried
employees to Rs. ____from earlier limit of Rs. 5 lakh. Ans.Rs.25 lakh
200. Asian Development Bank has recently extended credit facility of $141.12 million for development of industrial
corridor in the state of ___________Andhra Pradesh
201. India’s rank on the global ‘Climate change performance index-2023’ is ? - 8th
202. Recently Maratha Sahakara bank, an urban cooperative bank based in maharashtra got merged with? Ans. Cosmos
Bank
203. RBI has recently paid a dividend of Rs. ___for financial year 2022-23 to Government of India. - Rs. 87,416 crore

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 34 | P a g e

204. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairperson of Precious Metals
205. Advisory Committee appointed at IFSC by International Financial Services centre authority? - Mr.
Somasundaram PR
206. Who among the following has been recently appointed as new president of world bank? Ans. Ajay Banga
207. As per the House price index data released by RBI, which city has witnessed highest growth in the home prices
for the Q4-2022-23? – Ans. Bangalore
208. As per the latest guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in digital lending, what is the maximum cap on DLG
cover a guarantee provider can offer on any outstanding portfolio guaranteed? Ans. 5%
209. As per the latest guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in digital lending, lenders shall invoke DLG within a
maximum overdue period of __________, unless made good by the borrower before that. Ans. 120 days
210. Which among the following participant is recently allowed as ‘Fourth participant’ under Trade Receivables
Discounting System (TReDS)? Ans. Insurance companies
211. Which of the following is not a significant bench mark announced by FBIL with effect from July 01, 2023?
Ans. MIFOR
212. RBI has recently notified new Standardized Approach for calculation of risk capital requirement towards?
Ans. Operational risk
213. Sovereign Gold bonds can be purchased by making payment in cash upto an amount of? Ans. Rs. 20,000/-

214. Compromise settlements where the time for payment of the agreed settlement amount exceeds _______months
shall be treated as restructuring. Ans. 3
215. What is the minimum cooling period needs to be considered by the banks while considering fresh credit facilities
to the borrowers (except farm credit) whose previous account got settled through compromise settlement ?
Ans. 1 year
216. Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM) urban cooperative banks can open upto _________% of the new
branches in comparison with number of branches in the previous financial year without prior approval of RBI in their
approved area of operation. Ans. 10% (maximum 5 branches)
217. Number of life insurance companies currently licensed in India by IRDAI is? Ans.26
218. The maximum amount a scheduled commercial bank (excluding small finance banks and payment banks) can
borrow from Call and Notice Money Markets as per the latest RBI instructions is? Ans. Banks can fix their own limits as
per their board approved policies.
219. SEBI has recently proposed to offer Trading supported by Blocked Amount facility in secondary markets with
effect from? Ans. January 01, 2024
220. What is the name of the financial inclusion dashboard recently launched by RBI which provides the required
insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion in the country? Ans. ANTARDRISHTI
221. Which of the following organisation has recently launched Mission EVOLVE Electric Vehicle Operations and
Lending for Vibrant Ecosystem) in association with NITI ayog and other development financial institutions to support
MSMEs involved in electric vehicle space in the country? Ans. SIDBI
222. The bank which is permitted to sell Electoral Bonds in India is? Ans. State Bank of India
223. The maximum tenure for keeping deposit under Mahila Samman Savings Certificate which was announced under
Union Budget 2023 is? Ans. 2 years
224. The maximum investment which can be made under Mahila Samman Savings Certificate which was announced
under Union Budget 2023 is? Ans. Rs. 2,00,000/-
225. E-Rupi is a digital voucher launched by NPCI for facilitating hassle free electronic benefit transfers. The voucher
operates under which of the following payment system? Ans.UPI
226. What is the name of the limited purpose clearing house established by Government of India to support corporate
bond repo market in the country? Ans. AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL)
227. Government of India has recently banned export of which of the following agriculture commodity? Ans. Non
Basmati rice
228. Government of India has recently exempted merger of which of the following entities from Competition
Commission of India’s (CCI) approval? Ans. RRBs
229. Number of characters in a Legal Entity Identifier Code (LEI code) is? Ans.20
230. As per the SEBI’s guidelines, what is the maximum discount in unit prices an Invit or REIT can offer compared to
average of the weekly high and low of the closing prices of the units of the same class quoted on the stock exchange
during the two weeks preceding the relevant date while making preferential issue and institutional placements?
Ans. 5%
231. Instant Payment Platform (IPP) is the fast payment system of? Ans. UAE
232. What is the score of India in the recently announced United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia
Pacific's (UNESCAP) Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation? Ans. 93.55%
233. RBI has recently included NongHyup Bank to the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. The bank has it’s origin
from? Ans. South Korea
234. Government of India has recently signed a $200 million loan with ADB for improving water supply systems in the
state of? Ans. Rajasthan
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 35 | P a g e
235. RBI publishes a composite Digital Payments Index which captures the extent of digitization of payments across
the country. What is the base year considered for constructing the index? Ans. March 2018
236. NHB has recently constituted Urban Infrastructure development fund with the initial corpus size of? Ans. Rs.
10,000 crore
237. Using the corpus of Urban Infrastructure development fund (UIDF) credit facilities will be offered to public/state
agencies, municipal corporations, urban local bodies in Tier 2 & Tier 3 cities for creation of urban infrastructure at a
concessional rate of interest of? Ans. Bank rate -1.5%
238. Which of the following Development Financial Institution has recently participated as an anchor investor in
Promising Lenders Fund (PLF) managed by Vivriti Asset Management with an aggregate target corpus of ₹700 crore,
which is focused to make investment in micro enterprises as well as bond portfolio of BBB or below rated corporates?
Ans. SIDBI
239. What is the rate of interest fixed by Government of India for EPF balances for the financial year 2022-23?
8.15%
240. RBI has constituted an Inter-Departmental Group (IDG) to examine the internationalisation of INR in December
2021 under the chairmanship of? Ans. Shri Radha Shyam Ratho
241. As per the latest data released by Government of India, Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) in the Indian
economy for the financial year 2022-23 is ? Ans. Rs. 54.34 lakh crore
242. The government of India has recently approved a digital communication framework to address loan defaults
exceeding _______ between the Banks and Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB). Ans. Rs. 50 crore
243. Minimum threshold to initiate the process under Pre-packed insolvency Resolution process is? Ans. Rs. 10 lakh
244. Government of India has imposed tax on gains from crypto currencies trade transactions at the rate of? Ans. 30%
245. Reserve Bank of India has recently advised banks to rename the „Penal Interest‟ charged for noncompliance of
terms and conditions by the borrower as ______ and to implement new guidelines on this with effect from January 1,
2024. Ans. Penal charges
246. RBI has recently instructed scheduled banks to maintain with the Reserve Bank of India, effective from the
fortnight beginning August 12, 2023, an incremental CRR (I-CRR) of ___________ per cent on the increase in NDTL
between May 19, 2023 and July 28, 2023 on the present stipulated requirement of 4.5%. Ans. 10%
247. RBI has recently increased upper limit for a single offline payment transaction using UPI to Rs. ________from
existing Rs. 200. Ans. Rs. 500
248. What is the amount of financial incentive announced by NABARD for BCs of north eastern states from Financial
Inclusion Fund in addition to the incentives paid by the respective banks? Ans. Rs. 1000 per month
249. NACH mandates can be issued for a maximum period of? Ans. 30 years
250. RBI has recently proposed to launch an innovative payment mode viz., “Conversational Payments” on which of
the following payment method? Ans. UPI
251. As per the revised guidelines of SEBI, companies raise funds through public issues need to list the issue in
designated stock exchanges within the period of? („T‟ being issue closing date) Ans. T+6
252. Government of India has recently decided to celebrate which of the following day as „National space day‟ to
commemorate successful landing on Moon in Chandrayana 3 mission? Ans. 23rd August
253. What is the name of India‟s space mission launched to study sun which will be launched in September 2023? Ans.
Aditya L1
254. Government of India has recently signed Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) for facilitating exports with
which of the following country? Ans. Australia
255. What is the name of Invoice Incentive Scheme launched by Government with the objective to bring a cultural and
behavioural change in the general public to „Ask for a Bill‟ as their right and entitlement for the purchases they
make? Ans. Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar
256. What is the name of Centralised Web Portal developed by RBI for use by public to search their unclaimed
deposits across multiple banks at one place? Ans. UDGAM
257. What is the name of UPI Safety Awareness Campaign launched by NPCI to promote UPI as an easy, safe, and
instant mode of payment across the country? Ans. UPI Chalega
258. Government of India has enacted Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 as per the recommendations of
Committee of Experts on Data Protection chaired by? Ans. Justice
259. As per Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023, additional obligations apply to processing data of children.
Under the Bill, a child has been defined as a person below ________years of age. Ans.18
260. India has hosted ___________summit of G20 recently.- 18th
261. Which country has assumed the next presidency of G20 (Year 2024)? - Brazil
262. Who among the following is appointed as G20 Sherpa of India during its Presidency year?- Mr Amitabh Kant

263. Which of the following engagement group under G20 was formed under Indian Presidency? Ans. Startup20

264. Which of the following multinational body has entered G20 under Indian presidency? Ans. African union

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 36 | P a g e

265. As per the RBI’s latest guidelines, the incremental CRR (I-CRR) need to be maintained by the banks over the
regular requirements from 7th October 2023 on their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) is?- Nil
266. As per the latest RBI guidelines, Banks & FIs shall release all the original movable/ immovable property
documents and remove charges registered with any registry within a period of ________ days after full repayment/
settlement of the loan account else, for delayed payment a penalty of Rs. _______per day of delay is payable by the
bank. -30 days, Rs. 5000
267. As per PMLA, a person with _______ per cent shareholding/controlling ownership stake in a partnership firm is
considered as beneficial owner. 10%
268. As per RBI’s latest instructions, Credit Information Companies (CICs) should prepare Data quality Index (DQI) and
submit to Credit Institutions (CIs) and RBI for which of the following segments?
a. Commercial segment b. Consumer segment c. Microfinance segment d. All the above
269. Government of India has recently extended Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme
till? 30.06.2024
270. Number of upper layer NBFCs identified by RBI for the year 2023-24 under its scale based supervision of NBFCs is?
– 15
271. What is the WMA limit fixed by RBI to Government of India for the second half of the Financial Year 2023-24
(October 2023 to March 2024)?- Rs. 50,000 crore
272. As per the revised guidelines on Classification, Valuation & Operation of Investment Portfolio of commercial
Banks, the investment portfolio of the banks are not categorized into? - Available till Maturity (ATM)
273. Veteran Scientist Shri. MS Swami Nathan who died recently is considered as ? Father of Green Revolution

274. Union cabinet has recently approved the scheme of viability gap funding for development of Battery Energy
Storage Systems (BESS) with a financial outley of? - Rs. 9400 crore
275. Which of the following Mini Ratna company has been recently upgraded to Navratna category?
Ans. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited
276. Implementation of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) which offers subsidized LPG cylinders to beneficiaries
is extended upto? -2025-26
277. The financial inclusion index published by RBI for the Financial year 2022-23 stood at ________ vis-à-vis 56.4 in
March 2022 reflecting deepening of financial inclusion in the country.- 60.10
278. Which of the following DFI has recently issued first ever Social impact bond and listed it at BSE?
Ans.-NABARD
279. Women’s Reservation Bill-2023 which was passed in both the houses of parliament recently intends to provide
one-third of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the
National Capital Territory of Delhi . The reservation will be provided for a minimum period of? -15 years
280. India’s rank out of 132 countires in the Global Innovative Index 2023, which was published recently? (Retained
compared to previous year's position)- 40
281. Name of the All-in-one affordable insurance cover proposed to be rolled by IRDAI offering life, health and
property cover is ________ Bima Vistaar
282. Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairperson of International Financial Services Centres
Authority (IFSCA) ? - Shri. K. Rajaraman
283. Which of the following is the first foreign bank operating in India to launch Open Network for Digital Commerce
(ONDC) enabled services to its customers? - HSBC India
284. During FY 2022-23, India has received highest Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) & Overseas Direct Investment
(ODI) from which of these following countries respectively? - USA, Singapore
285. The amount of TCS deductable by the bank while permitting LRS for overseas Tour packages with effect from
01st Oct 2023 is? - Upto Rs. 7 lakh- 5% & above Rs. 7 lakh- 20%
286. As per the revised instructions under FTP-2023, the eligible exporters to obtain status holder certificate from
DGFT? - No need to make any application. DGFT will issue automatically based on their available data base.

287. The highest category of export status holders in India fall under? - One star
288. As per RBI guidelines, any entity proposes to join Account aggregator network can join as? -
Ans. Both as Financial Information User & Provider.
289. A single rupee term deposit of Rs. _________and above held with a scheduled commercial bank shall be treated
as Bulk deposit. - Rs. 2 crore
290. A single rupee term deposit of Rs. _________and above held with a Regional Rural Bank shall be treated as Bulk
deposit. - Rs. 1 crore
291. RBI has recently increased the limit of non callable term deposits offered by the banks including NRE and NRO
deposits from Rs. 15 lakh to ________? - Rs. 1 crore
292. As per the latest RBI guidelines on compensation to customers for delayed updation in credit information by
Credit institutions (CIs) or Credit information companies (CICs) , what is the amount of compensation need to be paid

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 37 | P a g e

 by CIC or CI to the complainant if CIC has failed to resolve customer compliant within 30 calendar days and CI is
failed to submit correct information to CIC within 21 calendar days? - Rs. 100 per calendar day of delay
293. As per RBI guidelines, CICs shall provide easy access to Free Full Credit Report (FFCR) including credit score, once
in ____________, to individuals whose credit history is available with the CIC by displaying the link prominently on
their website (on the Home page itself) so that individuals are able to access their FFCR conveniently. - One year
294. As per the latest RBI guidelines, all Private sector banks & Wholly-Owned Subsidiaries of Foreign Banks (excluding
Payment Banks and Local Area Banks) to ensure the presence of at least __________ Whole Time Directors (WTDs),
including the MD&CEO, on their Boards. - 2
295. Banks to report Reverse Repo transactions undertaken by them to RBI using the form: Form A
296. What is the theme of RBI’s second edition of global hackathon - “HARBINGER 2023- Innovation for
Transformation’’ which was concluded recently? - Inclusive Digital Services
297. RBI has recently increased the limit of gold loan extended by Primary Urban Co-operative banks with bullet
repayment option from the existing limit of Rs. 2 lakh to ________ for those UCBs who have met the overall PSL
target and sub targets as on March 31, 2023 and continue to meet the targets and sub-targets. - 4 lakh
298. Which of the following is a government of India security which has been added under Retail Direct Gilt account? -
Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) – FRSB 2020 (T)
299. RBI has recently extended Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) Scheme for a further period of 2
years i.e. till? - December 31, 2025
300. Digital Payment incentive provided to eligible digital payments received by PM-Svanidhi & PM-Vishwakarma
scheme beneficiaries shall be paid from? - Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) of RBI
301. Who among the following is the chairperson of working group constituted by RBI to make necessary studies for
Introduction of Expected Credit Loss Framework for Provisioning by Indian Banks? - Prof. R. Narayanaswamy
302. The theme for fifth cohort of Regulatory sand box announced by RBI recently is? - Neutral
303. As per national youth policy- ‘youth’ includes the people with age group of? - 15-29 years
304. RBI has recently restricted which of the following bank for on-boarding new customers into it mobile banking
application? - Bank of Baroda
305. Name of the mobile app and web portal introduced by the government to get information on all government
sponsored schemes in a single place? - Umang
306. Zero coupon Zero Principal Instruments (ZCZP) are the instruments used to raise funds by?
Ans. Social enterprises through Social Stock Exchanges
307. What is ‘RAT’ related to cyber security? Remote Access Trojans (RAT) - a malware designed to allow an attacker
to remotely control an infected computer. Once the RAT is running on a compromised system, the attacker can send
commands to it and receive data back in response.
308. All eligible borrowers can raise External Commercial Borrowing up to ____ per financial year under the automatic
route? USD 750 million or equivalent
309. The total SLR securities kept by Banks in HTM (Held to Maturity) as a percentage of NDTL should not exceed: At
present, banks have been granted a special dispensation of enhanced Held to Maturity (HTM) limit of 23 per cent of
NDTL, for SLR eligible securities acquired between September 1, 2020 and March 31, 2024, until March 31, 2024. The
enhanced HTM limit of 23 per cent shall be restored to 19.5 percent by 31st March 2025 in a phased manner,
beginning from the quarter ending June 30, 2024.
310. What is meant by Agro Silvopasture system? Reserved Forest for wood and grazing animals.
311. What is the meaning of ‘Wallowing’? Wallowing in animals is comfort behaviour during which an animal rolls
about or lies in mud, water or snow.
312. The science and practice of fruit production is called: Pomology
313. What do you mean by curing of fish? Curing reduces water activity through the addition of chemicals, such as
salt, sugars, or acids and methods for curing are smoking, salting, drying, pickling etc.
314. Name the ground water management scheme launched on 25th Dec. 2019; which will pay special attention to
those areas where groundwater is very low: Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL).
315. The Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development (AHIDF) incentivizes investments by individual entrepreneurs,
private companies, MSME, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs). Section ________ and Section _______ of
Companies to establish (i) the dairy processing and value addition infrastructure, (ii) Meat processing and value
addition infrastructure and (iii) Animal Feed Plant. Which of the entities given above are not in the list of eligible
entities for benefit under the scheme? 42, 8
316. Which are the money market / interest rate benchmarks administered and released by Financial Benchmark India
Ltd at present? FBIL-Overnight and Term MIBOR, FBIL-MROR, FBIL-T-Bill, FBIL-CD.
317. A CC/OD account is treated as out of order if the outstanding balance remains continuously in excess of the
sanctioned limit/drawing power for ____days: 90
318. A Guarantee which extends to a series of transactions, is called: Continuing guarantee
319. In accordance to which right of the customer; banks need to inform the customer of any change in the terms and
conditions at least one month prior to the revised terms and conditions becoming effective on prospective effect
after giving notice of one month? Right to Transparency, Fair and Honest Dealing.
320. Operational risk framework policy covers the following elements:
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 38 | P a g e
Role of board and senior management in overseeing the operational risk framework; (ii) Responsibility for
implementation of the framework; (iii) Independent control review; (iv) Collection of operational risk loss event data; (v)
Monitoring and reporting.
321. Out of the following, which is not a type of information security policy: Security expense policy; Program
policies; Issue-specific policies; System-specific policies; Security expense policy: Security expense policy
322. At present, banks have been granted a special dispensation of enhanced Held to Maturity (HTM) limit of ____ of
Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL), for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible securities acquired between
September 1, 2020 and March 31, 2023, until March 31, 2023: 23 per cent
323. For any consequential loss suffered by the complainant, the Ombudsman shall have the power to provide
compensation up to Rs. _____ lakh, in addition to, up to Rs. ___ lakh for the loss of the complainant's time, expenses
incurred and for harassment/mental anguish suffered by the complainant Twenty, One
324. What is the penalty for a currency chest which violates any term of agreement with RBI or deficiency in service
in providing exchange facilities: Rs.10000/-
325. CGDA (Controller General of Defence Accounts) has launched ______ Platform to Ensure Timely Pension
Disbursements: SPARSH
326. New Development Bank (NDB) was launched in 2015 by Brazil, Russia, India, China and ______ (BRICS), a group of
major emerging economies: South Africa
327. IT section for professional charges / fee: Section 194J
328. Enhanced Access and Service Excellence - 4.0 (EASE 4.0) agenda theme: Focussed towards imbibing tech-
enabled, simplified, collaborative banking and institutionalizing clean and smart banking.
329. Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is a hybrid corporate form entity. The liability of partners is: Restricted upto
amount agreed to be contributed by the partners.
330. Who measures Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India: The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the Ministry
of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India. Gross domestic product is a monetary measure of
the market value of all the final goods and services produced in a specific time period. Sh Mokshagundam
Visvesvaraya is known as father of GDP in India.
331. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Canara Vidya Jyoti Scheme?
a. Amount of Scholarship is Rs.2500/- per student for students of class 5th to 8th only
b. Amount of Scholarship is Rs.5000/- per student for students of class 9th to 10th only
c. Branch to extend Scholarship to Six girl students from SC/ST communities.
d. Student must be studying in Government/Govt. aided Schools in command area of the Branch.
e. The Scheme shall be implemented by our Rural, Semi Urban and Urban Branches. Ans.Only c, d and e are correct
332. How much company should spends in every financial year Under Corporate Social Responsibility? - at least 2% of
the average net profits of 3 immediately preceding financial years under the CSR
333. As per provisions of Section 135, a company with turnover of ___ or more OR a net worth of ________ or more OR
net profit of ________ or more in any financial year should adopt a Corporate Social Responsibility Policy.- .Rs 1000
crores, Rs 500 crores, 5 crores
334. What is the delegated power of circle Sustainable Development & Corporate Social Responsibility (SD & CSR)
committee? -Rs. 2 Lakh per proposal within the overall budget allotted to Circle
335. Which transactions are excluded for calculation of Ledger Folio charges? BHIM-UPI based transactions
336. What is the service charge applicable w.e.f 03.02.2023 on return of inward/outward/local/outstation cheque of
below Rs 1000? - Rs 200
337. What is the service charge applicable w.e.f 03.02.2023 on return of inward/outward/local/outstation cheque of
above Rs 1 cr? - Rs 2000
338. _____ withdrawals per month including drawings through ATM (own Bank/other Bank ATMs) in BSBD account are
permitted free of cost.- Four
339. What is the charges for registering National Automated Clearing House (NACH) Mandate? - Rs 150+ GST
340. What is the RTGS charges for outward transaction above Rs 5 lakhs? - Rs 49.50+ GST
341. What is IMPS fund transfer charges for amount Rs 1 lakh to below Rs 2 lakhs? - Rs 15 +GST
342. Which among the following is not an officially valid document? - PAN Card
343. KYC data of individual accounts should be uploaded to Central KYC Registry (CKYCR) within ______ from the date
of establishing account based relationship. - T+5 days
344. Web Based Application -Centralized Document Repository System (CDRS) is used to upload the documents with
file types Word, Excel & PDF up to the size of ____ per document. - 10 MB
345. No Service Charge shall be levied for deposit of Small Denomination Notes (Rs.50 and below) if the number of
pieces is less than ______. - 1000
346. When customer day is observed? - 15th of every month
347. _______ is a Self organized collective of the Account Aggregator ecosystem set up as a non-profit Pvt Ltd
Company under Section 8 of the New Companies Act. - Sahamati
348. Which among the following is the part of Account Aggregator eco system in India? a.Financial Information
Provider(FIP) b.Financial Information User ( FIU) c.Sahamati - a, b and c
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 39 | P a g e
349. Which Account Aggregator is not onboarded by our Bank, as a FIP for utilizing their services in LAPS module? -
PhonePe
350. Which statement is not correct in respect of Account Aggregator? - It act as a conduit between FIU and FIP and
process customers financial information
351. Which authority is delegated with the power to decide the sale price of pledged shares? - GM/CGM Integrated
Treasury
352. Reviewed MCLR become effective from _____ and reviewed Base Rate become effective from __________. 12th
of every month, 12th of the onth of base Rate review
353. According to which official language rule, all the stationery items like Rubber Stamps, Sign Boards, Letter Heads,
Name Plates, Visiting Cards are to be made in bilingual only - Official Language Rule-11
354. As per E-Mail policy, if email id is not used for more than _____, the E-mail ID will be deleted permanently from
the server without notice to the end user. - 90 days
355. Which statement is incorrect in respect of E-Mail policy? - All E-mail containing blocked extensions should be
blocked based on policy.
356. ______ can be used to launder the proceeds of fraud schemes by criminals who gain illegal access to deposit
accounts by recruiting third parties. - Money Mules
357. Which mobile based application empowers citizen to get access to the details corresponding to any valid RC/DL
number anytime anywhere? - mParivahan
358. What are the charges recoverable from the customer account in case of nonfinancial services provided where
deployment of DSB Agent is required? - .Rs 75+GST
359. All the services registered in DSB System, up to 3 PM on any working day has to be completed within ________. -
3 hours of booking
360. What is the maximum cumulative fund transfer limit under Door Step Banking services? - Rs. 25,000/- per day
361. Customer can place a maximum of ____fund transfer requests under one DSB service request. - three
362. What is the minimum and maximum cash withdrawal limit under DSB services ? - Rs 1000, Rs 10000
363. What is the limit of insurance cover for depositors in insured banks from the DICGC? Rs 5 lakhs
364. BLCSC (Branch Level Customer Service Committee) to be observed on the ________. - 15th of every month
365. Customer fortnight is observed _______. - every year from 16th to 30th November
366. Bank acknowledge all formal complaints (including complaints lodged through electronic means) within ____ and
work to resolve it within a reasonable period, not exceeding ___ - three working days, 21 days
367. Which among the following resolution timelines for complaints stipulated by Ministry of Finance is incorrect? -
Complaints forwarded by MoF, MPs-15 days
368. Which among the following resolution timelines for complaints is adopted by bank is incorrect? - Complaints
forwarded by VVIPs- 21 days
369. What amount of compensation is payable in case of account debited while using UPI but the beneficiary account
is not credited (transfer of funds). - Rs 100/- per day if delay is beyond T + 1 day
370. For any consequential loss suffered by the complainant, the Ombudsman have the power to provide a
compensation up to ____, in addition to, up to ____ for mental anguish suffered by the complainant. - Rs 20 lakhs, Rs
1 lakh
371. What is the limit of Payment in cash in respect of loans against term deposits? - Rs 20000
372. Agency banks are eligible to claim agency commission for Receipts- physical mode at the rate _____ . - Rs 40 per
transaction
373. Which among the following Government transactions are eligible for agency commission? - Collection of stamp
duty through physical mode or e mode, where agency banks do not collect any charges from public or receive
renumeration from state government
374. Agency banks should furnish their claim on agency commission to Reserve Bank within ________ from the end of
the quarter in which transaction has been concluded. - 60 calender days
375. Agency banks are eligible to claim agency commission for pension transactions at the rate _per transaction only
when entire work relating to disbursement of pension including pension calculation is attended to by them-Rs 75
376. Agency Banks are eligible to claim agency commission for pension transaction.What is the maximum number of
transactions eligible for payment of agency commission? - 14 per pensioner per year
377. Other than pension payment transactions are eligible for payment of agency commission @ . - 6.5 paisa per
Rs100turnover
378. Agency banks are eligible to claim agency commission for Receipts-e-mode at the rate ___ per transaction: - Rs 9
per transaction
379. Under Bankers Indemnity Policy, for all insurance claims upto _____, FIR is Waived. Only Police Complaint is
required for processing the claim- Rs 8.00 lakhs
380. Under Bankers Indemnity Policy, Police complaint is waived for insurance claim in case of cash losses in ATM/E-
LOUNGE /CDM and Cash Recyclers up to ____. - Rs 50000
381. Under Burglary Policy, FIR is waived for insurance claims upto _ - Rs 5.00 lakhs
382. Which claim is not covered under Banker’s indemnity Policy ? - Marine Transit Claims (Theft/Non-Delivery)
383. Banks need to furnish Fraud Monitoring Return (FMR) in individual fraud cases, irrespective of the amount
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 40 | P a g e
 involved, to RBI within _____ from the date of detection. - three week
384. Investigation should be commenced in coordination with Inspection wing, HO within __of detection of fraud. -48
hours
385. The term STRLLR stands for: - Short Term Repo Linked Lending Rate
386. Where the number of soiled notes presented by a person is up to ____ with a maximum value of ______ per day,
banks shall exchange them over the counter, free of charge. - 20 pieces, Rs 5000
387. Which of the following precaution is not prescribed to manage the incidents of frauds in payment and return of
high value cheques? - High value cheques in non home branches not to be entertained
388. Which one of the following statement related to RAROC is incorrect- The Hurdle rate is updated/reviewed at
monthly intervals
389. What is the minimum threshold for calculation of RAROC? -Above Rs 7.5 Crore
390. To block a locker in our mobile banking application under Accounts & Services category, the customer will be
charged an amount of ______ for blocking period of _______. -Rs 500+GST, 15 days
391. Which consequence is correct in case of PAN being ‘inoperative’: a. Pending refunds and interest on such refunds
will not be issued to inoperative PANs. b. TDS will be required to be deducted at a higher rate for inoperative PANs in
accordance with section 206AA. c. TCS will be required to be collected at a higher rate for inoperative PANs in
accordance with section 206CC. d. One may file the Income Tax Return (ITR) e.all are correct
392. New tollfree callcenter number for Canara bank is_. - 1800-1030
393. As per clause 4 of Section 12AA of Prevention of Money Laundering (Amendment) Act, 2009, enhanced due
diligence shall be maintained for a period of 5 years in case of any dubious transaction. - for a period of 5 years
394. What is the time frame prescribed for preserving documents under RTI Act, 2005? - No specific time frame
395. Preservation period for a banking company is defined under which act? - Section 45Y in the Banking Regulation
Act
396. Which among the following documents/records should be preserved permanently? - Jewel Appraiser’s File
397. Records which relate to disputes or litigations in the Court of Law should be preserved ______ - for 20 years after
the disputes are over
398. Closed loan papers/documents both fund based and non-fund based should bepreserved -10 years from the date
of closure
399. The Sundry Assets, Sundry Liabilities, Branch Adjustment Account Registers, etc. should be preserved for ______
from the date of tallying of the last outstanding entry. - 10 years
400. What is the preservation period of records of transactions pertaining to Money Changing Activities? 5 years
immediately preceding the calendar year
401. The branches should preserve the Counterfeit Notes for a period of ______from the date of receipt from the
Police Authorities/ Courts. - three years
402. Counterfeit notes, which are subject matter of litigation in the court of law should be preserved with the branch
concerned for __ after conclusion of the court case- - three years
403. Which amomng the following item should be necessarily held in FBR Strong Room/FBR Safe? - Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement forms obtained from NRIs
404. All cross-border wire transfers of the value of more than _______ or its equivalent in foreign currency where
either the origin or destination of funds is in India should be preserved for at least ______from the date of cessation
of transactions between the bank and the client. - Rs 5 lakhs, 5 years
405. All purchase and sale by any person of immovable property values at _____ or more that is registered by the
reporting entity should be preserved for at least ______from the date of cessation of transactions between the bank
and the client. Rs 50 lakhs, 5 years
406. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Visa / Mastercard / Rupay Credit cards (Classic / Standard /
Visa Corporate Cards), as per insurance policy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is
______ . Rs 2 lakh
407. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Visa/Mastercard/Rupay Credit Cards (Gold/ World/ Platinum/
Select), as per insurance policy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. Rs 5
lakh
408. The maximum amount of loss covered per Canara Domestic/ Global Debit Cards, as per insurance policy towards
frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ___.- .Rs2 lakh
409. The maximum amount of loss covered per CanaraPlatinum/Business/Select/SignatureDebitCard,as per
insurancepolicy towards frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ___. - .Rs 5 lakh
410. The maximum amount of loss covered per Prepaid Card International Travel, as per insurance policy towards
frauds committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______. - Rs 3 lakh
411. The maximum amount of loss covered per Prepaid Cards (Domestic), as per insurance policy towards frauds
committed by fraudsters causing loss to cardholder is ______.- Rs 50000
412. What is the frequency of life certificate submission by Central Freedom Fighters Pensioner aged 80 years and
above? Twice once in May and once in November

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 41 | P a g e

6. VARIOUS ACTS & LAWS RELATED TO BANKING
1. Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio(I-CRR) has been imposed by RBI in order to : Absorb Surplus Liquidity generated by
various factors including return of ₹2000 notes
2. ICRR has been imposed on increase in net demand and time liabilities during the period: May 19, 2023 and July 28,
2023
3. What % of increase in net demand and term liabilities was to be maintained as ICRR as per RBIdirections on August
10, 2023?-10%
4. Present Repo Rate & Fixed Reverse Repo Rate as on 30.09 & 31.10.2023 respectively are ? Ans. 6.50 % & 3.35
5. Present SLR Section 24 as on 30.09 & 31.10.2023 of the Banking Regulation Act,1949 ------? Ans.18.00%
6. Present CRR Section 42(1) as on 30.09 & 31.10.2023 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 is …. Ans.4.50 %
7. Present Bank Rate & MSF ( Marginal Standing Facility ) as on 30.09 & 31.10.2023 is ………..? Ans. 6.75 % & Present SDF
( Standing Deposit Facility ) rate as on 30.09 & 31.10.2023 is ………..? Ans. 6.25 %
8. What is the Marginal Standing Facility Rate (MSF) as on 15/09/2023(Please update before examination)?-6.75%
9. Reserve Bank of India has increased the maximum amount outstanding in respect of full-KYC PPIs to:(Ans. Rs. 2 lakh)
10. Norms relating to licence for opening of new Branch is defined under which act and section?(Ans. Section 23 of
Banking Regulation Act)
11. The balances of each currency chest should be verified at least at an interval of ____ by an officer not connected
with the custody of the chest. ____ of balances in each denomination of Rs. 100/-, Rs. 500/- and Rs. 1000/- may be
verified through Note Sorting Machines. (Ans. Once in a month ; 2%)
12. The currency chest balances should be verified at an interval of______by the officials from the Controlling Office of
the bank by packets and bundles and _______ percent of the balances in all denominations should be verified through
Note Sorting Machines. (Ans. once in six months, 5%)
13. Pensioners aged 80 years and above can submit life certificate to banks during____ (Ans. 1st Oct. to 30th Nov. every
year)
14. Permanent account number (PAN) of customers shall be obtained and verified while undertaking transactions as per
the provisions of Income Tax (I.T.) Rule ______applicable to banks. (Ans. 114-B)
15. In case Bank detects fraud in any account/transaction, the bank shall then report the fraud to RBI within a period of
_______of detection and also report the case to CBI/Police, as is being done hitherto. (Ans. 21 days)
16. Where refund has been claimed from DEAF, Banks shall preserve records/documents in respect of such accounts and
transactions, for a period of at least _______ from the date of refund from the fund. (Ans. 5 years)
17. As per Section 143-A of N.I. Act, the drawer of the cheque to pay interim compensation to the complainant not
exceeding ____ of the amount of Cheque. (Ans. 20%)
18. How much amount of Indian currency notes of denomination Rs.200/- and/or Rs.500/- an individual travelling from
India to Nepal or Bhutan may carry? (Ans. Rs.25,000/-)
19. What is the platform of RBI for registration of frauds of Rs.1.00 Lakh and above? (Ans. Frauds Reporting and
Monitoring System-FRMS).
20. What is the maximum amount of third-party cheque that can be collected on behalf of individual members of a Co-
operative society? (Ans. Rs.50,000/-)
21. Which agency provides Forex rate daily? (Ans. FBIL)
22. PAN Card consists of ____ and the first 4 characters represents______ (Ans. 10 digits. The first three characters
represent the alphabetic series running from AAA to ZZZ. The fourth character of PAN card tells the constitution. For
all individual taxpayers, the fourth letter is "P".)
23. Report on Counterfeit Currency notes detected by Banks should be reported to RBI and FIU-IND within a period of:
(Ans. On a monthly basis to the Issue Office of Reserve Bank concerned so as to reach them by 7th of the next month
and to FIU-IND by the 15th day of the succeeding month)
24. No court inferior to that of a ______shall try any offence punishable under section 138 of NI Act. (Ans. Metropolitan
Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class)
25. Which form is used for opening PPF Account? (Ans. Form-A)
26. RBI established on which date? (Ans. 1st April 1935)
27. Banks will get an additional incentive of ______ for coin distribution in rural and semi-urban areas on the submission
of a CA / Auditor certificate to this effect: (Ans.10/- per bag)
28. With respect to Basic Savings Bank Deposit account, the maximum credit permitted in a year is ______ and maximum
credit balance stipulated is _____ : Not to exceed Rs.50,000/- at any point of time. Maximum total credits in the
account in a year should not be more than Rs.1 lac. Debit stipulated is Rs 10,000/- only in a month.
29. In the event of Cheque dishonor, the dishonoured cheques should be returned within 24 hours as per which
committee: Goiporia committee January 1992.
30. If the true owner of a cheque has been deprived of his right by the Collecting bank it is called: Conversion. As per
Section 131 of N.I. Act, Collecting Bank will get protection against conversion if he has acted in good faith and
without negligence; the cheque is duly crossed; has collected the cheque as an agent in the duly introduced account
of the customer.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 42 | P a g e

31. Customer's identity, ii) Political status, iii) Nature of business activity, iv) Mode of payments, v)Volume of turnover,
vi) Information about the clients' business and their location: Political status
32. Co lending is a set up where banks and non banks enter into an arrangement for the joint contribution of credit for
priority sector lending in the ratio of: 80:20 (80 % of the loan with the bank and a minimum of 20% with non-banks)
33. Sexual harassment at the workplace results in violation of the fundamental rights of a woman - to equality under
Articles __ and ___ of the Constitution of India - to life and to live with dignity under Article __ of the Constitution-to
practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business which includes a right to a safe environment
free from sexual harassment:14, 15, 21
34. Under ‘Customer Rights Policy’ banks have to (i) promote good and fair banking practices by setting minimum
standards in all dealings with the customers; (ii) ensure complete transparency so that the customer can have a
better understanding of what he or she can reasonably / fairly expect from the bank; (iii) must have a Board
approved policy for assessing suitability of ______ for customers prior to sale: Products
35. Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd is a subsidiary of:(Ans. IFCI)
36. A customer is said to have died intestate, when:- He died without a will
37. A succession certificate has effect____ :- Throughout India
38. Protection to paying bank in case of material alteration:- NI Act u/s 89
39. Inchoate instrument is defined in ______:- Section 20 of NI act 1881
40. A negotiable instrument dated 29.01.2020 is payable at one month after due date. The instrument is payable on
_________:- 03.03.2020
41. A negotiable instrument dated 31.08.2020 is payable 3 months after date. The instrument is payable on _:-
03.12.2020
42. A negotiable instrument dated 12.06.2020 is payable 2 months after date. The instrument is payable on __:-
14.08.2020
43. A minor can draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate such negotiable instruments so as to bind all parties except himself
as per section _______ of N I Act, 1881:- 26
44. As per Sec 63 of N I act, 1881, presenter of a bill of exchange has to allow ________ hours to drawee for acceptance
exclusive of public holidays:- 48 hours
45. Payment of an instrument on which alteration is not apparent, the paying banker gets protection under Sec ________
of N I Act, 1881:- 89
46. Noting of dishonor of a Promissory Note or Bill of exchange is defined under Sec ______ of N I Act, 1881 :- 99
47. A collecting banker gets protection under Sec _____ of N I act, if it is done in good faith and without negligence:-
131
48. Promissory Note is defined in Sec __________ of N I Act, 1881:- 4
49. Bill of Exchange is defined in Sec __________ of N I Act, 1881:- 5
50. Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency of funds in the account is defined under Sec ________ of N I Act, 1881:- 138
51. No court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall try any offence
under Sec_____ of N I Act, 1881 for return of cheque with reason insufficient of funds:- 138
52. Notice of dishonour of cheque is to be made within _______days of cause of action:- 30
53. Under Sec 143A of N I Act, 1881, interim compensation shall not exceed ___ % of the amount of the cheque. :- 20
54. Under Sec 143A of N I Act, 1881, interim compensation of the amount of the cheque to be paid within _________
days of the order or within such further period not exceeding _______ days as may be directed by the court on
sufficient cause being shown by the drawer of the cheque. :- 60, 30
55. Section 10 of N I Act, 1881 defines :- Payment in due course
56. Section 8 of N I Act, 1881 defines:- Holder
57. Section 9 of N I Act, 1881 defines:- Holder in due course
58. Endorsement is defined in Section _______ of N I Act, 1881. :- 15
59. Under Sec 138 i.e., dishonour of cheque for insufficient of funds in the account stipulates punishment with
imprisonment up to _______ year/s or with fine which may extend to _________ the amount of the cheque or both.
2, twice
60. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 came into force with effect from _______:- 16.03.1949
61. No company other than a banking company shall use as part of its name any of the words “bank” , ‘banker’ or
‘banking’ and no company shall carry on the business of banking in India unless it uses as part of its name at least
one of such words as per _______. :- B R Act,
62. As per Sec 9 of B R Act, 1949, no banking company shall hold any immovable property howsoever acquired, except
such as is required for its own uses for any period exceeding _____ years from the acquisition thereof. a) 5 b) 6 c) 7
d) 8 e) 9
63. As per Sec 13 of B R Act, 1949, no banking company shall payout directly or indirectly by way of commission,
brokerage, discount or remuneration in any form in respect of shares issued by it, any amount exceeding in the
aggregate ________% of the price at which the said shares are issued. :- b) 2.5
64. Every banking company incorporated in India shall create a reserve fund and shall out of the balance of profit of each
year as disclosed in the Profit & Loss account prepared under Sec 29 of B R Act, 1949 and before any dividend is
declared transfer to the reserve fund a sum equivalent to not less than _______% of such profit. :- 20
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 43 | P a g e
65. Banking companies can form any subsidiary company as per Sec ____ of B R Act, 1949. :- 19
66. Banking companies cannot grant any loans or advances on the security of its own shares as per Sec _______ of B R
Act, 1949:- 20
67. RBI derives its power to control advances by banking companies from section _______ of B R Act, 1949:- 21
68. Rates of interest charged by banking companies not to be subject to scrutiny by courts under Sec ______ of B R Act,
1949:- 21A
69. Cash Reserve Ratio is stipulated under ___________:- Sec 42 of RBI Act
70. SLR is stipulated as per:- Sec 24 of B R Act
71. Depositor Education Awareness Fund (DEAF) is established under ________. :- Sec 26 A of B R Act
72. RBI derives its right to inspect any Banking company and its books of accounts under section ____of B R Act 1949:- 35
73. RBI derives its power to give directions to banking companies in the public interest under ______:- Sec 35A of B R
Act
74. Power of Central Government to authorize RBI for issuing direction to banking companies to initiate insolvency
resolution process under __________:-Sec 35 AA of B R Act
75. In the public interest or for preventing the affairs of Banking Company being conducted in a manner detrimental to
the interest of the depositors, RBI may remove from office any Chairman, Director, CEO or other officer/employee of
the Banking Company under Sec ________ of B R Act. :- 36AA
76. Power of Central Government to make rules for preservation of records is under sec _______ of B R Act. :- 45Y
77. Return of paid instrument to customers is permitted under Sec ______ of B R Act. :- 45Z
78. Nomination can be made for payment ofdepositer’s money is under Sec _________ of BR Act. :- 45ZA
79. Nomination can be made for return of articles kept in safe custody with Banking Companies is under Sec _________of
BR Act:- 45ZC
80. Nomination can be made for contents of Safe Deposit Lockers with banking companies is under Sec _of B R Act: 45 ZE
81. Under Sec 46 of B R Act, whoever in any return, balance sheet or other documents by or under or for the purposes
any provisions of this Act, willfully makes a statement which is false in any material particular, knowing it to be
false, or willfully omits to make a material statement, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may
extent to _______ Years or with fine which may extent to _______ Crore or with both. :- 3, 1
82. RBI imposes penalty on Banking companies under section _________ of B R Act :- 47A
83. Any penalty imposed by RBI under section 47 shall be payable within a period of ________ days from the date on
which notice issued demanding payment of Sum is served on the Banking Company :- 14
84. As per provisions of ________, an order cheque is transferrable (Negotiated) only by endorsement and delivery. :-
Section 48 of N I Act
85. Bank has credited the proceeds of the cheque amounting to Rs. 11,000 under instant credit on customer request.
What is the position of the Bank in this case? :- Holder of Value
86. If date is not mentioned for payment in a promissory note, it is ________:- payable on demand.
87. What will be the due date for a Bill dated 24.09.2020 payable 90 days after date _____:- 26.12.2020
88. A bill dated 01.01.2020 is payable 2 months after sight and it was sighted on 15.01.2020 and accepted on 17.01.2020.
The due date for payment is ____:- 20.03.2020
89. The payee of a Bill of Exchange writes above his signature that in case of dishonour, he may not be given notice of
dishonor and continue to be liable. What kind of endorsement is this? :- Facultative Endorsement
90. Demand notice under SARFAESI Act is issued under __:- Sec 13(2)
91. Authorised officer in terms of SARFEASI ACT can be _____. :- Scale IV & above
92. Garnishee means _______ :- Judgment Debtor’s Debtor
93. What is meant by scheduled Bank? :- A Bank included in 2nd schedule of RBI Act
94. As per Sec 8 of NI Act, the Holder is a person who _______? a) entitled in his own name to the possession thereof b)
to receive the amount due thereon from parties thereto and c) Consideration is not compulsory to become a holder
(example cheque received as gift):- a, b and c
95. As per Sec 9, a holder in due course _______. a) is a person (payee or endorsee or bearer) who must have the
instruments in his possession, b) possession is obtained for valuable and lawful consideration (and not as a gift)
before its maturity (in case of bill), c) he obtains it in good faith without sufficient reason to believe that any defect
existed in the title of the person from whom he obtained it. :- a, b and c only
96. Banker’s Lein is _:- an implied pledge
97. What is the timeline for providing information under RTI Act when information is sought concerns the life and liberty
of a person? :- 48 hours
98. Right of lien is available to the banker :- Even in respect of time barred debts
99. What is the fee chargeable for satisfaction of security interest under CERSAI? :- Nil
100. In which section of N I Act protection to collecting bankers in respect of crossed cheques are available? :- Section
131 of N I Act
101. What is the maximum punishment under section 138 of NI Act? 2 Year imprisonment or twice the amount of
cheque or both
102. In case of usance bills how many days grace period is allowed under sec 22 of NI Act. :- 3 days
103. A Bill of Exchange is defined u/s _____ of NI Act:- Section 5
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 44 | P a g e
104. Who is responsible to provide information under RTI Act, 2005 :- Public Information Officer
105. Cheque is defined under _____ of NI Act 1881 :- Section 6
106. Provision regarding Noting is defined u/s ____ NI Act:- Section 99 NI Act
107. Validity period of cheque is defined in _______:- NI Act,1881
108. The Banking Ombudsman scheme is introduced under which Section & Act? :- Sec 35A BR Act
109. A firm supplies material to various Govt. Dept. against payment to be received subsequently. Such bills are
called? :- Supply bills
110. Under which section,TDS is applicable on cash withdrawals exceeding Rs.1 cr under Finance Act, 2022? Section
194 N
111. What is the timeline for creation of CERSAI interest? :- Immediately
112. Safe custody articles come under which Act? :- Indian Contract Act 1872
113. Under which section of RBI Act, RBI has sole sight to issue bank notes:- 22
114. Section 35A, BR Act 1949 empower RBI of the followings - :- To issue direction in public interest
115. Under which Act & Section RBI can give direction and do inspection of banks. :- BR Act, Section 35
116. Nomination in deposits, Safe custody and Locker Accounts are defined under _______:-Sec 45 ZA to ZF of BR Act
117. The annual return of unclaimed deposit u/s 26 of BR Act should be submitted to RBI within the following days
after close of the calendar year? :- 30 Days
118. CERSAI has been set up under which Act? :- SARFASESI Act
119. Tenure of Interim Resolution Professional cannot extend beyond __:- 30 days
120. Bank disclose the information about their borrower to RBI under provisions of _______:- u/s 45-C, RBI Act
121. What is the highest denomination bank note that RBI can issue as per provision of RBI Act? :- 10000
122. What is the jurisdiction of District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection
(Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021? :-
Complaints where value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed Rs 50 lakh
123. What is the jurisdiction of State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection
(Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021? :-
Complaints where value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeding Rs 50 lakh upto Rs 2 Crore.
124. What is the jurisdiction of Natonal Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection
(Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021? :-
Complaints where value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds Rs 2 Crore
125. According to ______ restrictions have been laid out on banks for granting loans to its directors:- Section 35 of BR
act
126. The debtor as defined under IBC 2016 for making a fresh start shall fulfil following conditions - Gross annual
income is Rs.60000 or lesser, aggregate value of assets is Rs.20000 or lesser
127. Moratorium on legal action/proceedings remain in force for ____ during which either resolution plan is to be
approved by DRT or rejected by DRT under IBC 2016:- 180 days
128. When AOD is to be taken in case of term loan repayable in installments? :- Limitation for each installment will
run separately for period of 3 yr from due date of each installment.
129. What amount of default of makes individual & partnership firms eligible for approaching recovery resolution
under insolvency resolution & liquidation? :- Minimum amount is Rs.1000 & central government may prescribe a
higher amount not exceeding Rs.1 lac.
130. Possession notice under SARFAESI Act is issued under :- Sec 13(4)
131. What are all not mode for SARFAESI noticesFax massage or email (confirmation not sent)
132. Borrower objection against demand notice to be replied in how many days? :- 15 Days
133. Within _ days of receipt of report, DRT passes an order rejecting or accepting an application under resolution:-14
days
134. What is the relationship between banker and customer in case of standing instruction? :- Agent and Principal
135. Completion of resolution process must necessarily take place within ___ from date of application by NCLT
extendable upto ___ Days :- 180 days, 90 days
136. Bankers can exercise general lien in respect of ____:- Goods & Securities
137. Bankers lien is a general lien and specially defined under: :- Sec 171 of Indian Contract Act
138. Bankers general lien is available in respect of: All securities deposited with him as a banker by a customer,
unless there is a contract inconsistent with lien.
139. Right of lien is available to banker only when goods/securities have given to him as: :- Bailee
140. No person in India other than RBI or Central Govt. can draw, accept, make or issue any bill of exchange or
promissory note for payment of money payable to bearer on demand. This is as per provision of _____:- Sec.31 of RBI
Act
141. Bankers lien is called implied pledge because: :- The banker has the right to sell the security
142. the rule of Clayton’s case applies in case of :- Running account having debit balance
143. Lok-Adalat is a statutory body under which Act? :- Legal Service Authority Act
144. For filling a complaint in a consumer forum, the service should be valid within how many years? :- 2 Years
145. Which Section & Act deals with Minors: :- Sec.11 of Indian Contract Act
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 45 | P a g e
146. Under Section ______ an order cheque is transferable(negotiated) only by____:- 48, endorsement & delivery
147. 112. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force with effect from :- 01.03.1882
148. Cheque is defined under sec ________ of N I Act, 1881:- 6
149. Slip of paper annexed to a negotiable instrument and used for endorsement is known as :- Allonge
150. An Inchoate negotiable instrument is defined under Section _______ of N I Act, 1881. :- 20
151. What is the enactment date of Credit Information Companies Act? (Ans. 23-06-2005)
152. What are the age limit criteria for Internal Ombudsman? (Ans. IO shall not be above the age of 70 years at any
point of time during the tenure as IO)
153. PFRDA Act was enacted in which year? (Ans. 2013. The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was
passed on 19th September, 2013).
154. What is the per transaction maximum limit under Indo-Nepal Remittance scheme in non-cash mode? (Ans.Rs.2.00
Lakhs)

7.GENERAL ADVANCES

1. In case of failure of collection of the Mortgage documents by the borrower within 15 days from the closure of Loan,
penalty of Rs. 100/- p.m. or part thereof with a maximum of Rs. _______(excluding GST) from the borrowers is
applicable. Ans: Rs 1000/-
2. All sanctions made by branches up to Rs.5.00 lakhs (FB+NFB) and in case of sanction up to Rs.____ lakhs to SHGs,
review will be carried out on consolidated basis by ROs based on monthly registers submitted by branches. Ans: Rs.6
lakhs
3. Services of Agencies for Specialised Monitoring (ASM) are engaged for Quarterly Cash Flows monitoring, inspection,
Stock Audit of Large Corporates with exposure of Rs.______ and above with Sole Banking/Consortium/MBA. Ans:
Rs.250 crores
4. As per Policy guidelines on Take over of Borrowal accounts upto Rs.100 lacs, shifting of the loans in previous 5 years
not more than one occasion. Otherwise gap from last take over should be atleast 1 year. This condition is waived if
party existed with us earlier. In case of ‘A’ rated/LR accounts, completed minimum period of ____ months with
transferor bank are eligible for takeover. Ans: 6 months
5. Banks can extend financial assistance to support the factoring business of Factoring Companies, viz., ‘NBFC Factors’
provided the receivables purchased by NBFC-Factors should be atleast ____ % of their Assets and They derive at least
____ % of their income from factoring activity. Ans: 50 per cent, 50 per cent
6. Charges to be collected from borrower if copy of documents is for submission to any statutory authority :Rs._______+
Actual photocopying charges. Ans: Rs 1000/-
7. in respect of securities of immovable properties which were valued at more than Rs. 2.00 Cr at the time of last
sanction /renewal and the reduction in the present value is more than _____ % of the same, in such cases, to
ascertain the exact valuation, 2 valuation reports should be obtained and analysed for reduction in the value before
placing to the competent authority for fixing RP at first instance or for accepting OTS proposal. Ans: 30%
8. What is the validity of sanctions of Working Capital/Term Loan to NBFC: ___ Ans: 3 Months (consortium loans:
6 months)
9. What is the ROI for loans against deposits to borrowers: Ans: Loan upto Rs.2 cr - 2% over and above the deposit rate
and loans above Rs.2 cr: 1% above deposit rate
10. Temporary over limit is a short duration facility to meet certain exigencies and may be permitted once in a month
for a period not more than 7 days, within the maximum delegated powers for credit facility . This temporary over
limit is permissible upto ____ % of the sanctioned limit. Ans: 10% of the sanctioned limit. CO head max.Rs.150 lacs,
GM-HO-CAC: Max Rs.250 lacs, ED-CAC:500 lacs, CAC:1000 LACS.
11. As per prevailing policy of the Bank, MCLR and other external benchmark lending rates such as RLLR, STRLLR, EBLR2
etc. were being reviewed together on monthly interval. Base rate was being reviewed on quarterly interval.
Reviewed MCLR will be effective from _____ of every Month and reviewed Base Rate will be effective from ______ of
the Month of Base Rate review. Ans: 12th; 12th
12. In Credit Approval Committee at ROs headed by AGM, there should be minimum Quorum of Two members ie. AGM
(Chairman), Overseeing Executive of Credit Processing Section . Who is the convener of this meeting: Ans:
Manager/Senior Manager of credit Processing Section as nominated by DGM
13. Temporary over limit is a short duration facility to meet certain exigencies and may be permitted once in a month
for a period not more than 7 days, up to 10% of the sanctioned limit of the borrower. What is the maximum amount
of temporary overlimit permissible by CO Head CAC. Ans: Rs.150 lakhs
14. From 01st October 2023, Credit Review and Monitoring Format(CRMF) is to be submitted in online through SAS
package, in respect of borrowers enjoying FB+NFB limits of Rs.3 cr and above(LR,NR,MR) and Rs.1 cr and above for
HR accounts, on quarterly basis with in _____ days from end of quarter: Ans: 10 days
15. Review of concession in interest rate extended shall be carried out during CRMF Review (i.e. on 2nd and 4th Quarter)
in ________accounts only, by preparing a fresh scoring matrix so as to decide continuation of concession or otherwise

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 46 | P a g e

 and shall be duly noted in the review Ans: MSME accounts only (Pricing Review basing on CRMF only for MSME a/cs
and Not for other accounts)
16. What is the maximum quantum of finance permissible to Vendor/Supplier under Supply Chain Finance Management.
Ans: 10% of last year turnover as per ABS with maximum of Rs.300 cr for AAA rated ; Rs.200 cr for AA rated, 150cr
for A rated and 100 cr for BBB rated entities. For Unrated by ECAI, basing on Internal Rating, the maximum quantum
permissible is : LR:25cr. NR:20cr and MR:15 crores. Margin: NIL for all above cases.
17. Environmental, Social, Governance & Climate Risk related parameters are introduced in CBPR Model for Corporate
Borrower`s having exposure >=50 Cr (FB + NFB). What is the weightate assigned for ESG & Climate Risk : 10%
18. New Business Approval Committee (NBAC) for various verticals at HO to screen and decide onacceptability of the new
proposals falling under the sanctioning powers of CGM/GM-HO-CAC andabove authorities. What is the validity of such
Expression of Interest by NBAC? 3 month
19. What is the validity period of sanction of STCL/Corporate Loan? 1 month
20. What is the maximum delegated powers of DGM-CAC at circles? Rs.40 Crores
21. What was the present EBLR-2 Rate of Interest permitted by the competent authority of the bank? 6.5 percent
22. Under Harmonization of mandate limits, What is the revised limit Phase - II for Transaction Related Mandates for E-
NACH(API) all variants? 10000000
23. All mortgage based retail loans with present exposure of above ______ comes under the ambit of thereview of long
term retail loans. Rs 100 lakhs
24. What is income criteria as on 01.04.2021 for OBC candidates under Dr. Ambedkar Central SectorScheme of Interest
Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC) Rs 8 lakh per annum
25. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan is sanctionedup to
31/03/2018, entire interest accrued _________ during the moratorium period i.e. Course periodplus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. for loan amount up to Rs 7.5 lakhs
26. In CSIS scheme on Education Loan to Economically Weaker Sections, i.e. students whose annual grossparental income
is up to _________ are covered. Rs 4.50 lakhs
27. The Corporate DSAs shall be paid _____% service fee/commission (Tier I& II Cities), for sourcinghousing loan
leads/business ( per month sanctions) above Rs 10 crore. 0.7
28. The maximum commission per proposal payable to corporate DSA is _____ (excluding GST) forsourcing housing loan
leads/business. Rs 5 lakh
29. What is income criteria as on 01.04.2021 for EBC candidates under Dr. Ambedkar Central SectorScheme of Interest
Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC) Rs 5 lakh per annum
30. As per the Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans Scheme Guidelines,
Students from “Backward Classes (OBCs) & Economically Backward Classes (EBCs)”enrolled for “Abroad studies”
under “Post Graduate” Courses in “MASTERS/M. PHIL/Ph.D.” are eligible. What is the parental income criterion if the
loan is sanctioned from 01-10-2017 to OBC candidates? Rs 8 lakh per year
31. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan issanctioned up to
31/03/2018, entire interest accrued _________ during the moratorium period i.e.Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. for loan amount up to Rs 10 lakhs
32. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan is sanctioned after
01.04.2022, entire interest accrued __________ during the Moratorium period i.e.Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. for loan amount up to Rs 10 lakhs
33. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan issanctioned from 01/04/2018
to 31/03/2022, entire interest accrued _________ during the moratoriumperiod i.e. Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. for loan amount up to Rs 7.5 lakhs
34. Processing and disbursement of fellowship under National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities (NFPwD) scheme is
to be done only through Canara Bank’s SFMP w.e.f 01.04.2023. Here SFMP stands for_________. - Scholarship
Fellowship Management Portal
35. While sanctioning Housing Loans, the cost of furnishing can be included in the total project cost and loan component
shall be maximum up to ____ of the housing loan or _____ whichever is lower subject to other conditions. - 25%, Rs
50 lakh
36. What is the criteria of finance under Component- II of Housing Loan Scheme, for expansion, upgradation and creation
of additional amenities? - Minimum Gross Income of the applicant/s should be Rs.12.00 lakh p.a.
37. The term STRLLR stands for …. - Short Term Repo Linked Lending Rate
38. Granting loans and advances against shares, convertible bonds, convertible debentures and units of equity oriented
mutual funds are permitted for ________ - list of Companies whose shares have been approved by the bank for this
purpose
39. In relation with Rating, the term “CRG” stands for _____ - Canara Retail Grade
40. What is the maximum loan quantum for scale III employees of the Bank under Canara Kavachscheme? Rs 5.25 lakh
41. The House/ flat of above ____ old shall be permitted by CO- HEAD-CAC & above authorities up totheir delegated
powers. 40 years
42. Unless sanctioned by the Board of Directors / Management Committee, Bank should not grantpersonal loans
aggregating to _______ and above to Directors (including the Chairman / MD & CEO) ofother banks. Rs 25 lakhs
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 47 | P a g e
43. The maximum delegated powers to Divisional Manager RAH Head to sanction Education Loans is Rs 250 Lakhs
44. The Credit Approval Committee (CAC) of the Board can exercise powers with regard to creditproposal beyond the
powers of ED-CAC but upto ________ for an individual exposure. 800 crore
45. Minutes of the CGM/GM-HO-CAC shall be reported to ______ . CAC of the Board
46. In case of purchase of Site & Construction of House, the Repayment should commence ______. within 2 months after
completion OR 24 months from first disbursement whichever is earlier.
47. If the total eligible provisions are over and above the EL amount, the excess can be included inTier 2 capital up to a
maximum of ____% of credit risk weighted assets subject to RBI approval. 0.6
48. Loans against security of shares, convertible bonds, convertible debentures and units of equityoriented mutual funds
to individuals from the banking system shall not exceed the limit of ______ perindividual if the securities are held in
demat form. Rs 20 lakh
49. Risk weight assigned to the CRE-RH is _____%. 75
50. Standard Asset Provisioning for Commercial Real Estate Provisioning is ______%. 1
51. What is the validity period of ‘Term Loan’ sanctions? 6 months
52. New Business Approval Committee (NBAC) for various verticals at HO to screen and decide onacceptability of the new
proposals falling under the sanctioning powers of CGM/GM-HO-CAC and aboveauthorities. What is the validity of such
Expression of Interest by NBAC? 2 month
53. In case of sanctions from branch requiring ratification, the ratification note is to be submitted to theauthorities
within ______ of permitting the facility. 2 days
54. Risk weight assigned to the Commercial Real Estate (CRE) is _____%. 100
55. Maximum delegated credit sanctioning power of Branch in-charge of large branch is _____ Rs 75 lakhs
56. Respective sanctioning authority can sanction takeover with exposure up to Rs. 100.00 Crores(including proposed
enhancement) other than Agriculture and Retail Lending, takeover withenhancement should not be more than ____%
from the existing borrowing level at the time oftakeover 25
57. In case of loan against term deposit, concession in margin upto ____ may be considered by thebranches themselves if
the unexpired period of the maturity of deposits is less than _____. 5%, 45 days
58. Sanction of HL _____ old may be permitted by CM of Branch/RAH Head/DM-RO-CAC/DM-CO-CAC and above
authorities in respect of proposals falling up to their delegated sanctioning powers. 30 years
59. _______ gross salary subject to a maximum of _____ can be sanctioned under Teachers loanscheme, by Branches
headed by Scale I/II/III as well as Credit Managers/Senior Managers inVLBs/ELBs. 6 months, Rs 2 lacs
60. The maximum delegated powers to Assistant General Manager RAH Head to sanction Education Loans is _______. Rs
250 Lakhs
61. The Bank provides credit facilities to stockbrokers and market makers, within the ceiling of_____ of the Banks’ net
worth as on March 31st of the previous year, a sub ceiling will be fixed forcredit exposure on the stockbrokers and
market makers and also to any single broking entity. 40 percent
62. A per Granularity qualifying criteria for considering regulatory retail portfolio, aggregateexposure to one counterpart
should not exceed _____% of the overall regulatory retail portfolio of theBank. 0.6
63. Capital Market exposures will attract a _____% risk weight or risk weight warranted by externalrating of the counter
party whichever is higher. 125
64. Risk weight to Retail Exposure is ______ 75 percent
65. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), has formulated guidelines on ensuring disasterresilient construction
of buildings and infrastructure. These guidelines are applicable for all types ofHousing Loans and finance to Builders
of ___________. Rs.1 Cr. and above
66. Which of the following condition is correct, in case of takeover of TOP up loan along with Housing Loan , 1. If it is
within 3 years period, registered sale deed value to be considered for the purpose of reckoning LTV for takeover of
Outstanding Loan liability. 2. In case, 3 to 5 years period, increase with a cap of 20 percent of registered sale deed
value or realizable value of fresh valuation, whichever is less to be considered. 3. In case of above 5 years period,
realizable value of fresh valuation will be considered to arrive LTV. all are correct
67. Restructured housing loans attract additional risk weight of _____throughout the period of loan. 25 percent
68. ED-CAC & CAC of the Board may permit maximum of ____ variations in a corporate and MSMEproposal, out of which
Major variations shall not exceed ____. 4,2
69. What should be the external rating for corporate tenant under Canara Rent Loan scheme? Need not be insisted
70. Where housing loan is granted for purchase of site and construction of house thereon, theborrower should start
construction of the house within a maximum period of ________ from the dateof disbursement of the house loan.
twelve months
71. Sanction of Housing Loan extended for purchase of house/flat which is more than ____ old maybe permitted by CO-
HEAD-CAC & above authorities up to their delegated powers. 40 years
72. The loan under this Housing cum Solar Loan scheme should be repaid within a maximum period of________ OR the
repayment period stipulated under Housing Loan, whichever is earlier. 20 years
73. Under Housing cum Solar loan product, Solar Component shall be ______ OR ____ of totalHousing Loan eligible
quantum OR _____ of the system cost as per proforma invoice/quotation (rateincluding the cost of accessories)
whichever is lower. Rs 10 lakhs, 20 percent , 80 percent
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 48 | P a g e
74. The maximum quantum of loan under Canara Home Loan Plus is ______ Rs 50 lakhs
75. Under Canara Mortgage Loan scheme, for Low/Normal CRG grade customer, it is to be ensuredthat party is having
adequate income to meet the repayment obligation with availability of ofminimum NTH of ______ OR _______,
whichever is higher after meeting EMIs of proposed loan. 35 percent , Rs 30000
76. Loan under ESOP scheme should be cleared within ______ by way of EMI. 35 months
77. Stand By Letter of Credit (SBLC) for Education Loan can be sanctioned as sublimit of EducationLoan with ____ margin
by way of deposits matching the period of SBLC. 25 percent
78. Under Canara LRD loan scheme, in respect of metro/urban areas, collateral by way of Mortgageof property leased
out should cover ____ of the loan amount. 100 percent
79. What is the absolute threshold limit for maximum aggregate retail exposure to one counterpartw.e.f. 12.10.2020? Rs
7.50 crore
80. Application for Housing Loan upto Rs 25 lakhs should be disposed off with in ______ in case ofsanction by RAH. 7 days
81. In case of purchase of Site & Construction of House thereof AND OR only construction of House inthe existing Site,
the Repayment should commence within _______ after completion of House OR_______ from the date of first
disbursement whichever is earlier. 2 months, 24 months
82. What is the minimum annual income criteria for being eligible under Canara Vehicle Loan –Twowheeler for non-
salaried individual? Rs 1.75 lakh p.a.
83. Loans against units of debt oriented mutual fund scheme can be extended up to ____ of the netasset value or market
value whichever is less subject to maximum of ______. 75 percent , Rs 10 lakhs
84. Age of the applicant should be less than ______ at the time of availment of the Canara Site loan. 55 years
85. Under Stand By Letter of Credit (SBLC) for Education Loan, collateral should be obtained to theextent of _____ of
Education Loan limit and hence SBLC will be secured by _____ collateral security. 125 percent , 150 percent
86. What is the basis of arriving at the collateral security coverage in Canara LRD loan scheme? Realisable value
87. Which of the following condition is correct, in case of takeover of TOP up loan along with Housing Loan, 1. If it is
within 3 years period, registered sale deed value to be considered for the purpose of reckoning LTV for takeover of
Outstanding Loan liability. 2. In case, 3 to 5 years period, increase with a cap of 20 percent of registered sale deed
value or realizable value of fresh valuation, whichever is less to be considered. 3. In case of above 5 years period,
realizable value of fresh valuation will be considered to arrive LTV. 1 and 3 only
88. While taking over housing loan accounts from NBFC/HFC/RRB, which guideline should be adhered to? Minimum
qualifying risk grade of CRG:3 of the borrower is to be ascertained
89. Sanction of Housing Loan extended for purchase of house/flat which is more than ____ old may be permitted by CM
of Branch/RAH Head and above authorities in respect of proposals falling up to their delegated sanctioning powers.
20 years
90. Sanction of Housing Loan extended for purchase of house/flat which is more than ____ old may be permitted by CO-
HEAD-CAC & above authorities up to their delegated powers. 40 years
91. Under Housing finance to NRI scheme, maximum age by which loan is to be repaid is ______ 60 years
92. Canara Vehicle Loan-Two wheeler, may be granted for other than salaried, existing customers up to____ of the total
value inclusive of invoice value, Life Tax, registration charges, insurance premium and other accessories OR to the
extent of 50 percent of their annual net income in the immediate previous year, whichever is less. 75 percent
93. Canara Vehicle Loan-Two wheeler, may be granted for salaried , existing customers up to ____ of the total value
inclusive of invoice value, Life Tax, registration charges, insurance premium and other accessories OR to the extent
of 50 percent of their annual net income in the immediate previous year, whichever is less. 85 percent
94. Maximum quantum of loan that can be permitted under Canara Mortgage loan scheme is _______. Rs 7.50 crore
95. What should be the ECAI rating of NBFC/HFC, if takeover of housing loans from these institutionsare entertained for
non-salaried borrowers? A and above
96. What is the repayment period in Canara Pension loan scheme for general public pensioner, ifpensioner/family
pensioners’ age is below 70 years? 5 years
97. What is the rate of interest on loans / advances above Rs 2 crore against our domestic termstanding in the name of
Borrower? 2 percent over and above the deposit rate
98. What is the regulatory ceiling for banks financing acquisition of equity shares by promoters? 40 percent of their net
worth
99. All Education Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _____ without any collateral security/ third party guarantee are
eligible for coverage under _______. - Rs 7.50 lakh, CGFSEL
100. What is the frequency of Sweep-out in RERA Current account? ) weekly basis and will happen on every Monday
101. Through sweep-out in RERA Current account, term deposit can be made available for a period of _______. 7-45
days
102. Under PadhoPardesh Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans, total income from all sources of the
employed candidate or his/ her parents/guardians in case of unemployed candidate should not exceed __________.
Rs 6 lakh per annum
103. Which statement is correct in respect of PadhoPardesh Scheme of Interest Subsidy on EducationLoans?1.Scheme
is available for overseas studies2.Scheme is available for SC/SC students only3.Scheme is available for
minorities4.Scheme is available for OBC and EBC category students5.Scheme is available for select Graduate
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 49 | P a g e
 courses6.Scheme is available for M.Phil./Ph.D. 1, 3 and 6 only
104. What is income criteria for loan sanctioned from 01.10.2017 for OBC candidates under Dr.Ambedkar Central
Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC) Rs 8 lakh per annum
105. What is income criteria for loan sanctioned from on/after 01.04.2021 for EBC candidates under Dr.Ambedkar
Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC)? Rs 5 lakh per annum
106. Three spells of moratorium (not exceeding six months at a time) during the life cycle of the education loan,
taking into account spells of unemployment /underemployment. In such a case a higher provisioning of ___ during
the said additional moratorium period and one year thereafter, is to be maintained. 5 percent
107. Interest accrued during the moratorium period on disbursed Principle or ______ whichever is less, has to be
claimed for subsidy under Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans
(ACSISOBCEBC). Rs 20 lakhs
108. What is the maximum period for which e-Mandate can be issued? 30 years
109. All Education Loans sanctioned up to a limit of ______ without any collateral security/third partyguarantee are
eligible for coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loan(CGFSEL). Rs 7.50 lakhs
110. Branches should obtain of income Certificate/other related Documents for claiming CentralSector Interest
subsidy (CSIS) Scheme within _____ of the sanctioning of Education loan. 45 days
111. What is the Risk Weight percentage for Housing loan above 75.00 Lacs having LTV Ratio percetageless than 75 % ?
35%
112. For the education loan of amount 7 Lacs under secured loan category how many CIC's needs to bedraw ? 1
113. How many occassions the employee can acquire house/flats during service within the entitlementunder
Employees Housing Loan Scheme? Any number of Occassions
114. Under priority sector lending - Housing category, Loans up to ______ in metropolitan centresandup to ________
in other centres for repairs to damaged dwelling units conforming to the overall costof the dwelling unit? 10 lakhs &
6 lakhs
115. What is the percentage of perquistic rate of salary where accomidation is owned by the bank, In case of
population is less than 15 Lakhs as per 2011 Census? 5
116. What is the calculation for accured interest, If Interest accured during the moratorium period has to be claimed
for CSIS subsidy? Disbursed principle or 20 Lakhs whichever is less
117. Which among the following premier institute has been upgraded from Category C to category B underVidyaTurant
Scheme? Kasturba Medical College (KMC), Manipal/ Mangalore
118. How many Rural Development & Self Employment Training Institutes (RUDSETIs) across the country our Canara
Bank is co-sponsoring? 27
119. Upto what extent of NPA level of crystallized portfolio, claims of the respective MLI under ‘West Bengal
Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS)’can be settled? (in %) 15
120. Under ‘West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS)’, guarantee coverage is available for credit
facilities upto _________. Rs 4.75 lakhs
121. What is the maximum quantum of finance under ‘West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme(WBBCCS)’? Rs 4.75
lakhs
122. What is the maximum repayment period for the term loan granted under ‘West Bengal BhabishyatCredit Card
Scheme (WBBCCS)’? 7 years inclusive of moratorium upto maximum of 6 months
123. In case of loans to the Directors of other banks or their relatives the authorities at various levels cannot sanctions
loans aggregating Rs. and above unless sanctions by the Board of Directors:25 Lakhs
124. The normal exposure ceiling on individual borrowers under the group approach in Indian Banksas per RBI
directives is restricted to:15 % of the capital fund of the bank
125. What is the exposure ceiling under group exposure of single borrower and borrowing group as a % age of capital
fund? -0.150.4
126. The number of banks which can participate in consortium advance is: No minimum or maximum prescribed
127. The investment in subsidiaries, associates and joint ventures by banks should be considered at-Acquisition Cost
128. What is the Minimum time period for release of movable/ immovable properties and remove charges with any
registry after loan repayment as per RBI guidelines?-30 days
129. The responsible lending conduct for release of immovable/movable properties after repayment of loan will be
effective from?-1st December, 2023
130. Which NBFC have been included in the upper layer by RBI as per scale based regulation?-LIC Housing Finance
Limited
131. What is the maximum ceiling on Housing loans sanctioned by Tier 1 & Tier 2-4 UCBs respectively as per the
revised RBI guidelines ? Ans. Rs. 60 lakh for Tier 1 UCBs & Rs. 140 lakh for Tier 2-4 UCBs
132. The Bank which is authorized to issue and encash Electoral Bonds in India is? Ans. State Bank of India
133. The theme of Indian presidency under G20 forum is? Ans. One Earth, One Family, One Future
134. First G20 Finance and Central Bank Deputies Meeting, under the Indian Presidency, was recently held at?
Ans. Bangalore
135. Government of India fixes minimum support price as per the recommendations of ? Ans. Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 50 | P a g e
136. The bank which has raised Rs. 10,000 crore for enhancing long term resources for funding infrastructure and
affordable housing segment through its maiden infrastructure bond issuance which was the largest by any Indian bank
recently is? Ans. SBI
137. FIT (Financial, Income, and Trade) Rank, a default probability predictive ranking scale for MSMEs has been
recently launched by ___in association with Online PSB Loans and SIDBI. Ans. CIBIL
138. RBI has recently released it’s medium-term Strategy Framework -‘Utkarsh 2.0’ for the period of? Ans. 2023-25
139. The current version of RBI’s medium term strategy framework which was launched recently is? Ans. Utkarsh 2.0
140. As per the budgetary announcement, minimum support price for crops fixed by the government should not fall
below ________times the cost of production. Ans.1.5
141. Any person who can be considered as a „major shareholder‟ in a banking company if his “aggregate holding”
exceeds ________ per cent or more of the paid-up share capital or voting rights. Ans. 5%
142. What is the maximum shareholding or voting rights a natural person, non-financial institutions, financial
institutions directly or indirectly connected with Large Industrial Houses and financial institutions is permitted to
hold in a banking company? Ans. 10%
143. What is the maximum shareholding or voting rights financial institutions, supranational institutions, public sector
undertaking and central/state government can hold in a banking company? Ans. 15%
144. A promoter of a banking company can hold a maximum of ________% of shareholding after the completion of 15
years from commencement of business. Ans. 26%
145. As per the revised definition, a small company is the one, which has maximum paid up capital of Rs. ______-and
turnover of Rs.________. Ans. Rs. 4 crore and Rs. 40 crore
146. Which of the following is not a easily marketable security? Fixed Deposit, LIC policies, Private shares: Private
shares
147. What is the minimum and maximum amount of guarantee cover on loan amount is available under the Credit
Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for the Scheduled Castes (SCs)? (Ans. Rs.15.00 Lakhs and Rs.5.00 crores).
148. What is the Risk Weight for Housing Loans sanctioned after 01.04.2023 for loan amount upto Rs.75 lakhs where
LTV is ≤ 80% : Ans: 35 per cent
149. Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Interest Subsidy Scheme on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for Other
Backward Classes (OBCs) & Economically Backward Classes (EBCs). Under this scheme, student will get full Interest
subsidy up to period of moratorium (i.e., Course Period + One year or 6 months after getting job whichever is earlier,
for persuing Masters/ M Phil / Ph D course. What is the income criteria for eligibility of interest subsidy under this
scheme: Ans: Total income of Student & Parent for OBC : Rs.8 lakhs per annum and for EBC: Rs.5 lakhs per annum.
150. Central Sector Interest Subsidy Scheme (CSIS) On Education Loans - provides interest subsidy to the Students of
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) category for pursuing professional/ technical courses in India. Under the Scheme,
entire interest is subsidized for the eligible education loans during the Moratorium period i.e. Course period plus one
year. EWS student will get interest subvention upto the loan amount of Rs.10 lakhs (if EL amount exceeds Rs.10 lacs,
subsidy restricted to loan portion upto Rs.10 lacs only). If loan sanctioned upto 7.5 lacs under this scheme, No
collateral security to be taken and cover under CGFSEL.
151. Bank has made tie up arrangement with Reputed Builders in Metropolitan cities for sourcing HL proposals and
Commission payable to Builders basing on the minimum quantum of housing loan business (Sanctions) routed to our
bank: What is the minimum quantum of business builder should pass on to us for eligibility of commission. Ans:
Minimum Quarterly Business of Rs 150 Crores in ‘A’ Region metros and Minimum Quarterly Business of Rs 100 Crores
in ‘B’ Region centres.
152. As per delegation of powers for sanction of Loans to MSMEs with CGTMSE coverage, loans above Rs.10 lakhs upto
Rs.500 lakhs, where the collateral security is less than 50% of loan amount, who is the sanctioning authority: Ans:
Next Higher Authority (if collateral is above 50% of loan amount, Respective Sanctioning Authority)
153. In case of actual/suspected frauds, branch has to inform through FRMS package and e mail to HO-RLFP under
copy to RO & CO with in 24 hours and investigation to be commenced with in 48 hours. Obtention of investigation
report & submission to RLFP Wing, HO along with Circle views & FIR/Police complaint copy should be completed with
in _____ days. Ans: 14 days (DM/AGM of R&L Sec CO to co ordinate)
154. As per Employees Housing Loan scheme, employee may avail HL any number of times within entitlement and not
more than 2 units at any time. What is the maximum repayment holiday allowed under exceptional curcumstances
for EHLs: Ans: max.5 years. Beyond 5 years treated on par with unsecured Loan to other customers.
155. Obtention of external Due Diligence report from empanelled agencies is mandatory for MSME units who approach
our Bank for the first time for the Credit facility requirement of above Rs.______ and eligible to be covered under
CGTMSE and the same is now made online under SAS module for placing request and also for payment of charges.
Ans: Rs 10 lakhs
156. What is the ROI and repayment period in respect of Canara Kavach Loan scheme to employees, to provide
financial protection coverage against the liabilities availed under various Employee Loan Schemes. Ans: RoI shall be
7% p.a compounded monthly. Loan shall be repaid in 10 years in 120 EMIs.
157. Two CIRs should be obtained from 2 CICs in respect of Agricultural Advances (secured loans) with limit of above
Rs.____ Ans: Rs.3 lakhs

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 51 | P a g e

158. For Business Loan to individuals-Consumer report to be generated and if Score less than _____then proposal to be
placed before next higher authority. Ans: 650
159. The NBC (National Building Code-2015) guidelines are applicable in respect of loans for construction of building
exceeding Rs.25 Crore; National Disaster Management Authority Guidelines (NDMA) applicable for all types of Real
Estate Exposures of Rs._____ and above including Housing Loans. Ans: Rs 1 Cr.
160. The Bank Loan extended for creation / acquisition of real estate where the prospects for repayment would
depend primarily on the cash flows generated by the asset and the primary source of cash flow (i.e. more than 50% of
cash flows) for repayment would generally be lease or rental payments or the sale of the assets as also for recovery
in the event of default is classified as _______ Loans. Ans: Commercial Real Estate

161. Loans to builders/ developers for residential housing projects comprising of some commercial space (e.g.
Shopping complex, school etc.) that does not exceed 10% of the total Floor Space Index (FSI) of the project(FSI is
total built up area in the site) are classified under _____ Ans: CRE-RH (Commercial Real Estate-Residential Housing)
162. What is the collateral security prescribed for granting loans under Commercial Real Estate: Ans: collateral
security (Residential / Commercial property) in addition to the primary security and the Distress Sale Value of
collateral security shall not be less than the loan amount.
163. Credit facility shall be extended to share brokers for share and stock broking activities only and not for any
speculative purposes. What is the margin requirement for these loans: Ans: 50% for OD and CDB. 20% for Intra Day
Adhoc overlimit and 40% for OD against Properties (land & building)
164. While sanctioning loans against security of units of Mutual Funds, how the security value is considered: Ans: Net
Asset Value(NAV) or Repurchase price or Market Value whichever is less.
165. For availing Bank Finance by NBFC-Infrastructure Company, it should be “A” rated and have minimum Net
Owned Funds of Rs.300 cr, with CRAR of 15% and above and it should deploy at least _____ per cent of its total assets
in infrastructure loans. Ans: 75%
166. Infrastructure Debt Fund NBFCs (IDF-NBFC) will raise funds by way of issuing bonds with minimum 5 years
maturity. Recently RBI permitted IDF-NBFCs to raise funds to the extent of 10% of total requirement; by way of
issueing Commercial Papers and also through External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) with maturity of less than 5
years.
167. What is the prescribed margin on Computer Hardware and repayment period: Ans: 40 to 50% margin (can be 25
to 30% with suppliers’ agreement for upgradation) and repayment 3 to 4 years.
168. While lending under Multiple Banking Arrangement, Pari Passu charge on securities to be obtained. What is
paripassu charge: Ans: Proportionate charge over the assets in relation to share of their loan amount.
169. RBI has mandated formation of Joint Lending Arrangement, where Borrower’s exposure is Rs.150 cr and above
and 2 or more Public Sector Banks are involved. For this cut off limit of Rs.150 cr, what should be the minimum
rating of Borrower: Ans: BBB and better
170. As per time norms prescribed by RBI, what is the period for issuing NOC and Ceding Paripassu charge in respect of
Consortium/MBA. Ans: 15 days for conducting meeting, another 30 days for Lead Bank sanction and next 30 days for
member banks sanction – total 75 days. Rejection of NOC with in 15 days
171. What is the exposure ceiling for lending to Infrastructure Investment Trusts (Inv IT) fixed by our Bank. Ans: for
Individual InvIT: Rs.100 cr and Total Exposure to InvIT : 1000 cr (Bank’s total exposure to all InvITs)
172. For subscribing to Inter Bank Participatory Certificates by our Bank, what should be the minimum capital of
issuer bank: Ans: Minimum CRAR : 10% and above
173. Non individual borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure of Rs 10 Crores and above from Banks and Financial
Institutions shall submit Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) Code on or before ____ date: Ans: 30.04.2024 (Rs.5 cr and
above by 30.04.2025)
174. For Assessment of Group Risk, Key financials (Turnover, Net Profit, Leverage, TNW, Liquidity etc) of major group
concerns/companies including JVs having holding above ____ % of paid up capital in all the accounts and also where
corporate guarantees are stipulated shall be incorporated in the office note. Ans: 30%
175. Working Capital Assessment for NBFCs should be done under _______Method. Need not be linked to Net Owned
Funds. Ans: Cash Budget Method.
176. Current Ratio norms not applicable for WC to _____ : Ans: Schools, colleges, hospitals, nursing homes, hotels
and restaurants, service providers, Infra projects and plantation.
177. While assessing Working Capital Finance, desired levels of Quick Ratio should be ascertained in respect of MSME
borrowers with total exposure above Rs.10 Crores (FB+NFB) and Other than MSME borrowers above Rs.______ :
Ans: Rs.50 crores
178. Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit (LSDBC) is applicable for Borrowers with FB WC limits of Rs.150 cr and
above from Banking system, where in minimum 60% of WC limits should be loan component (WCDL) with minimum
tenor of 7 days and remaining by way of CC limits. What is the Risk Weight for undrawn portion of cash credit limits
for calculation of capital : Ans: 20%
179. Reimbursement under Term Loans may be permitted upto 25% of loan amount/invested amount in Plant and
Machinery, which ever is lower for LR/NR parties and to be claimed with in a period of _____ months. Ans: 6 months

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 52 | P a g e

180. Project Appraisal is to be conducted for existing borrowers with BBB and better rating, for
expansion/modernisation with Project cost of Rs.______ crores and above. Ans: Rs.10 cr and above
181. Bank may utilize the services of externally empanelled TEV consultants in our Bank for appraisal of Term Loan
proposals with Project Cost upto and including Rs. _____Crores, which will be vetted by PAG, HO. Ans: Rs
250crores. Beyond Rs.250 crores, by PAG at HO)
182. For considering Term Loans, what is the minimum prescribed FACR for projects above Rs.100 crores: Ans: 1.33
(can be reduced by CO upto 1.20, RO upto 1.25)
183. While considering Project Loans (Term Loans) of Rs.50 cr and above, minimum Equity Contribution by Promoters
shall be ____ % of the Overall Margin for the Project. Ans: 50% (Quasi Equity not to exceed 50% of total margin)
184. For take over of loans with enhancement, security coverage in the form of Land & Building, Our own Bank
Deposit, NSC, KVP, Insurance Policy not less than ____ % of entire exposure including enhancement amount. Vacant
land not more than 50% of the total collateral security. Ans: 50%
185. Stock Audit is to be conducted at the time of take over of borrowal accounts. However, stock audit may be
waived for loans upto Rs.10 cr if previous bank’s Stock Audit report is less than 6 months and if previous bank’s stock
audit is more than 6 months, stock audit waived for loans upto Rs.3 crores. In both cases, Stock Statements of
previous ____ months to be obtained and analysed. Ans: 3 months.
186. In case of Takeover of Retail Loans, Repayment period should be restricted to the residual tenor of the loan at
the transferor bank except in respect of _____ where extended repayment period may be permitted: Ans: Lease
Discounting proposals
187. In terms of Section 19(2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Bank shall not hold shares in any company except
as provided in sub-section (1) whether as pledgee, mortgagee or absolute owner, of an amount exceeding ___
percent of the paid-up share capital of that company or ___ percent of its own paid-up share capital and reserves,
whichever is less. Ans: 30%; 30%
188. What are the time norms for sanction of limit under Gold Card Scheme to Exporters: Ans: Fresh Sanction : 25
days, Renewal : 15 days; Adhoc: 7 days
189. Commitment charges are applicable for Exposures of Rs.10 cr and above to be charged on unavailed portion of
sanctioned limits, if utilisation is less than 75% of sanctioned limits. If the average utilization during the quarter is
between 50-75% ; ____ % p.a. to be recovered on entire un utilized portion on on quarterly basis. Ans: 0.5%
(1% if average utilization is less than 50%)
190. Annual Financial Statements are to be submitted with in 7 months from closure of financial year or with in a
fortnight of adoption of accounts of the borrower. What is the penalty for non submission of ABS before 31 st October.
Ans: 2% penal interest on liability (fund based)
191. What is the validity period of Sanction of Working Capital limits and Term Loan limits to NBFCs: Ans: 3 months
(for WC and TL)
192. In case of consortium adances, keeping in view the time taken for financial closure, validity of loan sanction is
kept at 6 months. If there is delay in financial closure, revalidation of sanctions may be permitted for further
______ months. Ans: 6 months (total 12 months. After 12 months, fresh sanction again)
193. Extention of tenability of Working Capital limits may be permitted for a maximum period of 6 months (first extn.
Upto 3m, second extn.3m) for LR, NR, MR accounts. In case of High Risk Rated accounts, in exceptional cases,
extension of tenability can be permitted only once and for a period not exceeding ___ months. Ans: 2 months
194. Branches are not empowered to reject any proposals originated through Jansamarth Portal. ___________shall be
the authority to reject the proposals received under the Jansamarth Portal. Ans: Next Higher Authority
195. For exposures exceeding Rs. ______crore, CA certified Net worth statement with UDIN number certifying the net
worth of the Guarantors shall be invariably obtained on an annual basis. Ans: Rs. 5.00 crores
196. In case any eligible entity is not submitting the required data on Unhedged Forex Exposure to our bank, an
additional interest of ____ % p.a. over & above the contracted rate to be levied for the period of default. Ans: 1%
197. What is the cut off limit of exposure and periodicity for conducting Legal Audit of Title Deeds. Ans: Rs.5cr and
above, once in 3 years, during RBIA of the branch.
198. In case of Greenfield Projects, External Credit Rating is to be obtained with in 6 months from the date of
disbursement. If party already applied for external rating, with in _____ months from the date of sanction, ECAI
rating to be submitted. Ans: 3 months
199. Financial Covenants (DE Ratio, CR, TOL:TNW; Net Profit Ratio etc) are to be monitored Quarterly in respect of
Listed Corporates with exposure of Rs.50 crores and above /Listed MSMEs with exposure of Rs.1cr and above. If
there is a deterioration of more than 10% in the actual level, vis-à-vis sanction level /last review level, it is
considered as _____ Ans: Breach in Financial Covenants
200. Consortium meetings are to be conducted quarterly and minutes should be circulated among all member banks
with in 3 days of the meeting. In case of routine meetings, the consortium meeting is to be attended by ______ Ans:
Branch incharge (scale IV or V). If branch headed by non executive, one executive from Circle along with branch in
charge. (where we are member bank )
201. Minimum margin requirement for bank guarantees issued beyond 5 years shall be _____% in the form of TDR.
(apart from tangible securities/collaterals as applicable/prescribed under the scheme. Ans: 25%

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 53 | P a g e

202. If the seller is not required to tender documents of title to goods for obtaining payment under the terms of LC,
such letter of credit is termed as _____ Ans: Clean Letter of Credit
203. As per Large Exposure Norms to avoid Concentration Risk, sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a single
counterparty must not be higher than 20 percent of the bank’s available eligible capital base (Tier 1 capital). In
exceptional cases, Board of Banks may allow an additional ____ percent exposure of the bank’s available eligible
capital base. Ans: 5%
204. As per Prudential Exposure Norms, what is the maximum exposure limit for Individual borrower for Business
Purpose &Proprietorship Concerns: Ans: Rs.75 crores.
205. The Bank may extend finance to employees for purchasing shares of their own companies under ESOP to the
extent of ____% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs.20 lakh, whichever is lower (not for bank employees for
acquisition of their bank’s shares): Ans: 90%
206. Risk Rating of loans above Rs.2cr to 7.5cr in case of MSME, Traders & Agriculture, Allied activities, irrespective
of turnover is done under _____ model. Ans: CIRM Hybrid model
207. Canra Bank Proposal Rating is applicable for Borrowers of Rs.10 cr and above. In this rating, if the borrower is
rated as CBPR-5 which indicates that the borrower is _____ Ans: Very High Risk (No-Go Rating)
208. For all accounts where exposure is above Rs.____ crores, CIRM model will be initiated by CRRD, RM Wing,
verification by section incharge of CRRD, RM wing and approval by GM/CGM of RM Wing. Ans: Rs.35 crores.
209. Stock Audit is to be conducted once in a year in respect of LR/NR accounts with WC limits Rs.5 cr and above &
MR/HR accounts with Rs.____ and above. Ans: Rs.1 crore
210. In respect of fixed assets (primary/ collateral), mortgaged to loan accounts (classified as standard assets) under
all Housing Loan variants, Canara Mortgage, Canara Rent, Canara LRD & Canara Site where loan outstanding is Rs. 50
lakhs or above, revaluation of property has to be undertaken through the empanelled valuers once in every ____
years. Ans: Five years
211. Valuation of properties(Land and Building) of Rs. ___Cr and above: Bank shall obtain minimum 2 independent
valuation reports from 2 empanelled valuers. Ans: Rs.5 cr for General Advances, Rs.10 cr for Agricultural Advances
(as per our CRM Policy cir no.578/2023)
212. Normally Fixed Assets valuation is to be carried out once in 3 years. If carried out at frequency lesser than 33
months then value of property shall be taken at ____% of the present value of the property (latest valuation) . Ans:
85%
213. Rate of Interest on Loans and Advances against Term Deposits standing in the name of Borrower, what is the
margin and ROI. Ans: Upto 90% branch in charge with in delegated powers. ROI for Loan against deposit : Upto Rs.2
cr : 2% above term deposit rate. Above Rs.2 cr: 1% above deposit rate (for borrowers against deposits in their name
only)
214. What are the delegated powers for various authorities for fixing ROI on our loans upto Rs.2 cr on TDs in their
name only: Ans: RO Head CAC/CO Head CAC: Deposit Rate+1% GM-HO: Dep Rate + 0.75%; ED CAC: Dep
Rate+0.5%
215. Margin on Loans against deposits to depositor is 10%. CO Head CAC and above authorities are empowered to
reduce margin to ____ % Ans: 5%
216. Canara Internal Rating Model (CIRM) for NBFCs is modified from 01.09.2023. As per this what are different Risk
Weightages given for NBFC-HFC and NBFC-MFI: Ans: Industry Risk: 15%, Financial Risk:50%; Business Risk:25%,
Management Risk: 25%

217. CRMF will be applicable for loans and advances having exposure (FB+NFB Limits) of Rs.3 Cr and above in case of
Low, Normal and Moderate Risk rated accounts. In case of High Risk accounts borrowers having exposure (FB+NFB
Limits) of above Rs.___ Ans: Rs.1 Cr (periodicity: Quarterly for all risk categories, submission with in 10 days from
end of quarter)
218. Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending – What is the maximum coverage on any outstanding portfolio by
a DLG provider is ____ % of that loan portfolio. Ans: 5%
219. (Bank should invoke DLG cover with in maximum overdue period of 120 days)
220. All sanctions up to Rs.5.00 lakhs (FB+NFB) and in case of sanction up to Rs.6.00 lakhs to SHGs, review will be
carried out on consolidated basis by ROs based on monthly registers submitted by branches. Review of the above
monthly registers in respect of sanctions made by Branch/MSME Sulabh will be done by next higher authority at
RO/CO. Branches to place before Reviewing Authority before _____ Ans: before 7 th of succeeding month.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 54 | P a g e

8. PRIORITY SECTOR, AGRICULTURE AND GOLD LOANS
1. Agricultural Lands without any structures, in view of the dynamic status of productivity, valuation to be completed,
once in 5 years. Valuation of Agricultural farming land may be considered basing on _____ released by the
respective Revenue Department. Ans: Guideline Rate (GLR)
2. Gold Loan Auction Package (GLAP) is is introduced in SAS Package. In this package, Reminder Notices are generated
in cases of ______ Ans: LTV Breached/matured/NPA accounts
3. Loans for Food & Agro-processing unit /Agriculture Infrastructure, subject to an aggregate sanctioned limit of
Rs______per borrower from the banking system should be classified under Priority – Agriculture- Ancillary activities
Sector. Ans: Rs. 100 Crore
4. Amrit Jaladhaara Scheme under Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) for Schedule Caste
beneficiaries for various irrigation purposes. Term Loan as per NABARD guidelines is eligible for SC borrowers with
land holding upto 2.5 acres. What is the subsidy component in this scheme: Ans: 50% of project cost with
maximum Rs.50,000/- is subsidy. Security >1.60 lacs: 100% collateral. (Borrowers with income upto Rs.3 lacs only
eligible)
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme - Working capital for Animal Husbandry and Fisheries (product coed: 880)- What are the
security norms for loans above Rs.1.60 lakhs: Ans: Upto Rs.3 lakhs, if Tripartite Agreement is available with Milk
Union, No Collateral but cover under CGFMU. Above 3 lacs upto Rs.10 lacs : Mortgage or CGFMU. Above 10 lacs:
Mortgage of landed properties
6. Kisan Credit Card Scheme - Working capital for Animal Husbandry and Fisheries- Limits are fixed on the basis of ____
Ans: As per scale of finance fixed by District Level Technical Committee. Tenability/Repayment : 60 months. For
NPA classification: >90 days overdue norm.
7. Loans not exceeding Rs ______provided by banks to SHG/JLG for activities other than agriculture or MSME, viz., loans
for meeting social needs, construction or repair of house, construction of toilets or any viable common activity
started by SHGs considered under Priority Sector. Ans: Rs2.00 lakh
8. Processing Charges for SHG loans upto Rs.5 lakhs waived. What are the Processing Charges for SHG loans of above
Rs.5 lakhs: Ans: 5 to 20 lacs - WC 0.15%, TL: 0.25%. Above Rs.10 lakhs: WC:0.2%, TL: 0.25%
9. For SHG loans, No Margin & No collateral upto Rs.___ Ans: Rs.20 lakhs
10. For SHGs under DAY-NRLM, Ministry of Rural Development will provide Revolving fund of Rs._____ as corpus. Ans:
Rs.10,000/- to Rs.15,000/-
11. DAY-NRLM loans Repayment schedule could be as follows: first dose of loan shall be repaid in 24 to 36 months,
second dose of loan shall be repaid in 36 to 48, third dose of loan shall be repaid in 48 to 60, and fourth dose
onwards has to be repaid between ____ months. Ans: 60 to 84 months.
12. The minimum and maximum members in a Mirco Crdit Group are ____ and the loan quantum is _____ Ans: Min3,
max.5 in Urban, min.5 max.10 members in Rural/Semi Urban. Maximum Finance Rs.50,000/- per member in the
group. (for Group, Rs.50,000/- X no. of members. Max.Rs.5 lacs)
13. BHOOMI HEEN KISAN” SCHEME – Joint Liability Group (JLG) contains 4 to 10 members in the group and loans are
sanctioned as per scale of finance. Loans sanctioned to JLGs are refinanced by NABARD to the extent of ____ %
Ans: 100% refinance by NABARD
14. A Microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having annual household income up to
Rs. _______irrespective of areas. For this purpose, the house hold shall mean an individual family unit, i.e., husband,
wife and their unmarried children. Ans: Rs.3,00,000
15. Loans sanctioned under National Livestock Mission scheme of SIDBI which provides 50% capital subsidy to
Entrepreneurs undertaking Sheep/Goat Farm and Piggery with 10% margin from Borrower. What is the maximum
amount of subsidy : Ans: For Sheep/Goat Farm: min.Rs.10 lakh, max.Rs.50 lakh. For Piggery min.Rs.15 lakhs, max.
Rs.30 lakhs
16. Agricultural Infrastructure Fund Scheme is being implemented under Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. What is the rate
of interest subvention under this scheme: Ans: 3% Interest subvention upto the loan limit of Rs.2 crore for a period
of 7 years.
17. Under Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund scheme of NABARD, eligible MSME units are financed upto
cumulative amount of Rs.100 crores. NABSanrakshan Trustee (set up by NABARD) will provide guarantee to the extent
of ____ Ans: The maximum credit guarantee cover under the Scheme will be limited to 25% of the credit facility
with a maximum loan ceiling of Rs. 25 crore.
18. Prime Minister’s Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises scheme is meant for supporting Micro Enterprises
(Individual & Group) for setting /modernizing Food Processing units. What is the amount of Capital Subsidy and
interest subvention under this scheme: Ans: Capital Subsidy is 35% of the project cost with maximum upto Rs. 10.00
Lakhs for individuals and Rs.3 cr for group enterprise. 3% interest subvention.
19. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Uttham Mahabhiyan Scheme (PM-KUSUM) is meant for setting Solar
/Renewal Energy Plants and Solar Agricultural Pumpsets. For individuals, what is the permissible loan amount and
subsidy & Margin requirement: Ans: Loan amount is 30% of project cost. Subsidy 60% (30% Central Govt., 30% State
Govt) and margin is 10%. Subsidy eligible for Pumpset capacity upto 7.5HP only.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 55 | P a g e

20. Whenever the aggregate limit of the party under Gold Loans (aggregate across schemes) exceeds Rs._______,
Reappraisal of all the existing Gold Jewellery pledged, should be done by another Jewel Appraiser (Branch Regular
Appraiser or RO Panel Appraiser) before disbursement of the loan. Ans: Rs 25 Lakh
21. As per Gold Loan Policy of the Bank, what is the maximum Gold Loan amount permissible for a Borrower under each
segment ie. Agriculture, MSME, Retail. Ans: Rs.35 lakh under each segment with overall maximum amount of Rs.105
lakhs under GL.
22. Jewel Appraisal Fee is 0.5% of the Gold Loan amount with a maximum of Rs._______ Ans: max.Rs.200/- for GL upto
Rs.5 lakh. Max.Rs.300/- for GL upto Rs.20 lakhs and Rs.500/- for GL above Rs.20 lakhs
23. What are the processing charges for GLs under Agriculture/MSME for loan above Rs.10 lakhs: Ans: Rs.2750/- (upto
25,000/-: Nil; 25,000/- to 1 lakh: Rs.250/-; 1 to 3 lacs: Rs.500/-; 3 to 5 lacs: Rs.1100/-; 5 to 10 lakhs:
Rs.1450/-)
24. Safe-keeping charges are applicable for GLs after 30 days of the expiry of the prescribed tenure of gold loan or after
30 days of closure of loan, if jewels are not redeemed. What are the charges for GL upto Rs.5 lakhs and above Rs.5
lakhs: Ans: Rs.100/- per month/ Rs.200/- per month.
25. Trigger LTV is set at 3 % lower than the RBI stipulated LTV for loans granted for non-agricultural purposes. For
agriculture gold loans, trigger LTV for monitoring is set at 4 % lower than the regulatory LTV. What is the rate of
Trigger LTV. Ans: For Ag:96% (100-4) for Retail & MSME: 72% (75-3)
26. In case of Estate Purchase Loans to Agriculturists, what is the prescribed margin : Ans: The margin shall be normally
50% on lowest of (i) Purchase consideration (ii) Market value, whichever is less. Guidance value/Circle rate fixed by
the State need not be considered.
27. For Loans sanctioned under DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission) what is the
ROI and rate of interest subvention. Ans: Loan Upto Rs.3 lakhs, ROI is 7% and interest subvention is 4.5%. For Loans
Above Rs.3 lacs to Rs.5 lacs: ROI is 1YR MCLR or 10% whichever is lower. Interest subvention @5% per annum for 2023-
24.
28. What is the criteria for identification of beneficiaries under DAY-NRLM: Ans: The households identified with at least
one deprivation criteria as per Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) along with households identified through the
P.I.P process (Participatory Identification of Poor) would be accepted as DAY-NRLM target group and would be
eligible for all the benefits under the programme.
29. What are the delegation of powers for Scale II and Scale III headed branches for sanction of SHG loans / Loan to SHGs
under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission. Ans: Scale II headed Br: Rs.15 lakh, Scale
III headed branches Rs.20 lakhs
30. Not less than 2/3rd of DRI advances are to be routed through rural and semi urban branches, and the balance 1/3 to
be routed through urban and metropolitan branches. Not less than ____ % of the total DRI advances of the Bank
should flow to the eligible borrowers belonging to SCs/STs. Ans: 40%
31. Canara Drone”, for financing Drones for agriculture purpose under Customer hiring activity/ Own
agriculture purpose. What is the eligibility and loan amount: Ans: 6 acres irrigated/12 acres dry land. Max. Loan
Rs.12 lakhs for purchase of 2 drones with 25% margin. Covered under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme
and accounts to be covered under CGTMSE.
32. DAY-NULM scheme is implemented by Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), GOI in all district
headquarters (irrespective of population) and all the cities with population of ____ lakh or more . Ans: 1 lakh
(implementation through Urban Local Bodies)
33. Financial assistance should be extended under DAY-NULM only after the prospective beneficiary has acquired
required skills for running the proposed micro-enterprise through skill training and also _____ days of
Entrepreneurship Development Programme Training . Ans: 3 to 7 days
34. Under Agri-Clinics & Agri-Business Centers (ACABC) Scheme, maximum loan for group of 5 members is Rs.1 crore
(@Rs.20 lakh for each trained person). What is the rate of subsidy on this scheme: Ans: 36% for General and 44%
special category (Women, NE region) to be calculated on each indidual depending on their category)
35. Farmers with landholding of up to 1 hectare are Marginal Farmers and Farmers with a landholding of more than 1
hectare and up to 2 hectares are ______ Ans: Small Farmers.
36. Loans to FPOs/FPC of individual farmers and co-operatives of farmers directly engaged in Agriculture and Allied
Activities where the land-holding share of SMFs is not less than ____ per cent, subject to loan limits, considered
under Priority Sector – Small And Marginal Farmers Ans: 75 per cent
37. Under “Krishi Vikram” Mega Core Agriculture Disbursement Campaign- December 2023, AF Hi Tech branches to
disburse an amount of Rs.____ and ACCs to disburse Rs.______ new loans during this campaign period. Ans: Rs.100
crores, Rs.275 crores.
38. What are the sub targets for loans under DAY-NULM (cir 758/2023) : Ans: Women 30%, ST/STs proportion to their
population in the town/city, PHC 5% and minority communities: 15%
39. What is the project cost for financing under DAY-NULM: Ans: For individuals : Rs.2 lakh and for Group Rs.2 lakh per
person with max. Rs.10 lakhs.
40. Assistance under Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure (AMI) sub scheme for renovation is allowed to Storage
infrastructure projects of cooperatives routed through NCDC only for project cost as appraised by Bank/ NCDC or
actual cost of _____ of storage capacity, whichever is lower. - Rs. 750/- per MT
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 56 | P a g e
41. Storage Infrastructure project (godowns) above _____shall be registered with Warehouse Development Authority
(WDRA) to avail the benefits of e-NWR. - 1000 MT
42. “Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Urban Livelihood Mission (DAY-NULM) is implemented in all district
headquarters (irrespective of population) and all the cities with population of ______ or more. - 1 lakh
43. Under NULM-Agri-Allied activity, no margin money should be taken for loan up to ______and for higher amount loans,
preferably ____ should be taken as margin money and it should in no case be more than ____ of the project cost. - Rs
1 lakh, 5%, 5%
44. Branch sanction limit is restricted to _______ per party under the Produce Loan scheme. Rs 10 lakhs
45. Canara Bank Proposal Rating (CBPR) is the Credit scoring matrix framework under Enhanced Access &Service
Excellence (EASE) Reforms for accounts classified under Agriculture as well as Food ProcessingUnits with exposure
equal and above _______. Rs 10 crore
46. Maximum quantum of finance for Agri Gold Loan for Corp Cultivation is ______ per customerwhich is a sub-limit of
Agri Gold Loan schemes. Rs 35 lakhs
47. Valuation of agricultural lands with structures (like farm house/poultry sheds) to be taken oncein ______ and in case
of lands without any structures, in view of dynamic status of productivity, oncein ______. 3 years, 5 years
48. Individuals should have passed the class _____ examination or its equivalent from a recognized Board for being
eligible under ‘Canara Drone’ scheme. 10th
49. In case of Individual house hold Income in Rural, Urban, Metro areas and members of Self HelpGroups is above Rs.
1,00,000/- & up to Rs. 3,00,000/- p.a, maximum housing loan under CanaraKuteer Scheme can be sanctioned upto Rs
_____ Rs 10 lakhs
50. AGM/DGM-RO-CAC is empowered to consider the purchase of ______ with equipment with acondition that the
maximum quantum of finance not to exceed _____under the scheme. upto 2 drones, Rs 25 lakhs
51. Individuals should have passed the class _____ examination or its equivalent from a recognizedBoard for being
eligible under ‘Canara Drone’ scheme. 10th
52. Canara Vehicle Loans to agriculturists engaged in Dairy Farming, Poultry Farming, Plantation Crops and Horticultural
Produce, can be financed provided their minimum gross annual income is ________. Rs 4.00 lakhs
53. In case of Canara Vehicle loans above ______to agriculturists,ITR is to be compulsorily insistedupon, where
agricultural income is also declared. Rs 10.0 lakhs
54. Under the “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN)" scheme, a direct payment of _____per year is
transferred in _____ instalment/s, into the Aadhar ceded bank accounts of eligible landholding SMFs families. Rs
6000, three equal
55. What is threshold of collateral free loan for short term Agri-credit? Rs 1.6 lakh
56. KCC is to be issued within _____ from the receipt of completed application. 14 days
57. What is the effective rate of interest, after additional subvention is given to the farmers for prompt and timely
repayment of short term loans for agriculture & allied activities? 4 percent p.a
58. As per "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN)" scheme, the SMFs landholder farmer family is defined as "a
family comprising of husband, wife and minor children who collectively own cultivable land up to _____ as per the
land records of the concerned State/UT". 2.0 hectares
59. DAY-NULM scheme is implemented in District Headquarters (Irrespective of Population) and all thecities with
population of _____. 1 lakh or more
60. Under DAY-NULM scheme for a loan above Rs 50000, preferably ___ should be taken as marginmoney and it should in
no case be more than ____ of the project cost. ) 5percent , 10percent
61. Interest Subsidy, being interest charged over and above ____ rate of interest is available for theterm loans granted
under SEP-I and SEP-G of DAY-NULM scheme. 7percent
62. Interest Subvention under DAY-NULM –Identification of eligible accounts by the Ministry by way ofuploading Master
Data in _____Web Portal. PAiSA
63. What is the additional interest subvention provided to all Women SHGs who repay their loan intime / prompt
repayment under NULM? 3percent
64. The Project cost under National Urban livelihood mission (NULM) in case of individual micro-enterprise is restricted
to ______. Rs. 2 lakh
65. What should be minimum percentage of women beneficiaries under Self Employment Program ofDAY-NULM?
30percent
66. A special provision of ____ reservation is made for the differently-abled under Self EmploymentProgram of DAY-NULM
with priority to women. 5percent
67. What should be the percentage of SC/ST beneficiaries under SEP of DAY-NULM? To the extent of their prioportion in
population
68. In view of the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Program for the Welfare of Minorities, at least _____ ofthe physical and
financial targets under SEP component of DAY NULM should be earmarked for theminority communities. 15percent
69. The SEP-G under DAY-NULM is eligible for a maximum loan of _____ per member or _____,whichever is lower. Rs 2
lakhs, Rs 10 lakhs
70. Under SEP-G of DAY-NULM, group enterprises should have minimum of _____ members with aminimum of _____ of
the members from urban poor families. three, 70percent
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 57 | P a g e
71. As per the extant guidelines uder Canara Kisan OD Scheme , for agricultrist who have received KCCPrompt
Repayment Incentive (PRI) for the past three year what is the maximum amount of quantum ofLoan ? 10.00 Lacs
72. What is the ROI for SHG's under NRLM scheme For Agriculture & Allied Activities ( Excluding Food &Agro Processing
Units ) if the loan amount is under Rs. 3.00 Lacs? 7 percent
73. What is the margin percentage for the Term Loan of Rs. 5 Crore under Cold Storage, RuralGodown, Warehouse and
Estate Purchase lending scheme. 20
74. What is new product code w.e.f. 01/04/2023 for Kisan Credit Card Scheme with Gold Jewelleryascollateral Security ?
830
75. The minimum amount of the loan under scheme that can be considered under the Swarna LoanScheme is _____ and
maximum amount not to exceed ______ per individual borrower. Rs 5000, Rs 35 lakhs
76. Under Swarna Loan, total weight of specially minted gold coins (sold by the Banks) should notexceed _____ per
customer. 50 grams
77. Which of the following information Bank need not to passes on to the M/s NeSL for E-Stamping of Gold Loan
Documents? - Details of Security
78. Which of the following following information Bank need not to passes on the to M/s NeSL for E-Stamping of Gold Loan
Documents? - Details of Jewel Appraiser
79. What is the maximum permissible age for entry / renewal to the PMSBY scheme? 70 years complete
80. What is the accidental death/disablity Cover under PMSBY? Rs.2 Lakhs
81. Under relief measures - For borrowers affected by Riots/Disturbances in the state of Manipur, The principals well as
interest portion of KCC accounts shall be converted into a term loan of __________ with a moratorium period of 12
Months from the due date? 24 Months
82. RBI in association with Reserve Bank Innovation Hub has started end to end digitization process in the following
loans? Ans. KCC loans
83. Ministry of Agriculture has recently launched, national Crop Insurance Portal’s digitized claim settlement module in
the name of _______which is under the ambit of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY). Ans. DigiClaim
84. What is the old name/previous scheme of NRLM? Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana.
85. Interest subvention in KCC is provided up to an amount of ____ in case the amount availed for animal husbandry and
fisheries: Rs.2.00 Lakh
86. Financial inclusion means that individuals and businesses have ___ to useful and ______ financial products and
services that meet their needs – transactions, payments, savings, credit and insurance, delivered in a responsible and
sustainable way: Access and affordable.
87. Which agri-commodity is known as White Gold of India? Cotton
88. Which state is having highest number of Farmers Producers Organisations in India: Maharastra
89. What is the minimum and maximum maturity period of FCNR(B) deposits? 1 year to 5 years.
90. What type of irrigation system provides water to plants by way of droplets to rootzone? Drip irrigation
91. The percentage of women and differently-abled beneficiaries reserved under SEP-NULM is: 30% and 5% respectively.
92. As per the 4th Handloom survey 2019-20, what is the percentage of Weavers in rural area is: 88.7%
93. As per PML Act Banks should preserve the records pertaining to the identification of the customers and their
addresses obtained while opening the account and during the course of business relationship, for at least: Five years
after the business relationship is ended
94. Which scheme under ECLGS have provisions for extending emergency credit to Civil Aviation sector: ECLGS 3.0
95. For settlement of claims for missing persons, the definition of missing persons is defined in which act? Indian
Evidence Act 1872.
96. In case of Small accounts opened with limited KYC, the aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed
____and the balance at any point of time does not exceed_______: Rs.1.00 Lakh : Rs.50,000/-
97. Growing of two or more Crops on same land in between rows / furrows is termed as: Intercropping
98. Cut, Tear, Curl (CTC): is a method used in processing black tea in which tea leaves are passed through a series of
cylindrical rollers with serrated blades that crush, tear, and curl the tea into small, even-shaped pellets.
99. MNREGA is to provide at least ____ days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to each household in
rural areas of the country whose adult members volunteers to do unskilled manual work: 100
100. Interest subvention is available under KCC, Animal husbandry and Fisheries upto the limit of: Rs.2.00 lac
101. Which of the following is not included in four pillars of financial inclusion? (i) Universal access to financial
services; (ii) Providing basic bouquet of services; (iii) Access to livelihood and skill development; (iv) Financial
literacy and education: Providing basic bouquet of services
102. In respect of policy on relief measures in natural calamaties pick up odd one out: cyclone, draught, flood &
tsunami: draught
103. ______ is known as the White Gold of India as it is a cash crop and farmers grow it to earn money as they can’t
consume cotton: Cotton
104. In which state there are maximum number of FPOs (Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer
Organizations)? Maharastra
105. Agro-silvopastoral systems is a collective term for land-use systems, which combine a woody component (trees or
shrubs) with ______ on the same site: Cattle
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 58 | P a g e
106. Under Union Ashiyana Overdraft Scheme, maximum loan limit is: Rs.20 lac
107. Drip irrigation is sometimes called _______ irrigation and involves dripping water onto the soil at very low rates
(2-20 litres/hour) from a system of small diameter plastic pipes fitted with outlets called emitters or drippers:
Trickle
108. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana, also known as National Urban Livelihood Mission was launched by the Government
in 2013 by restructuring: Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY).
109. SHG groups qualifying the criteria will be eligible for loan upto 1:10 times of saving/ corpus fund subject to
maximum ceiling of _____per group: Rs.5 lakh
110. The government announced _____ hike in agriculture credit target to Rs 20 lakh crore for 2023-24 with focus on
animal husbandry, dairy and fisheries: 11 per cent
111. Collateral free loan limit for short term agri-credit has been raised from Rs. 1.00 lakh to _____ by RBI: Rs. 1.60
lakh
112. National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC
mandis to create a unified national market. It handles in following commodities: a) Foodgrains / Cereals : 27, b)
Oilseeds : 14, c) Fruits : 43, d) Veguitables : 57 e) Spices ; 16 f) Miscellaneous : 46.
113. State with highest women SHGs: Andhra Pradesh
114. Crop growth and yield are strongly affected by sunlight. Which crop is with highest sunlight absorption: Paddy
115. Under Kissan Credit Card, interest subvention for animal husbandry & fishery is upto Rs, _____ : Rs. 2.00 lakh
116. Objective of Financial Inclusion is: Accessibility, affordability. Financial inclusion may be defined as the process
of ensuring access to financial services and timely and adequate credit where needed by vulnerable groups such as
weaker sections and low income groups at an affordable cost (The Committee on Financial Inclusion, Chairman: Dr.
C. Rangarajan).
117. Maximum numbers of Farmers Producers Organisations is in which State: Maharastra
118. Old name for Deen Dayal Antodya Yojana – National Rural Livelihood Mission is: SGSY
119. What is Atal Bhujal Yojana: It is a groundwater scheme launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on the 95th
Birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, on 25th December 2019. The aim of the scheme is
uplifting groundwater management in 7 states of India.
120. Under National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM), the group enterprise should have minimum ____ members with
a minimum of _____% members from urban poor families. The applications be preferably be referred by the
community structures viz: SHG / ALF formed under NULM: 3 ; 70.
121. Preservation of record under rule 3 of Prevention of Money Laundering Act is: 5 years
122. PM-Krishi Sinchai scheme: The major objective of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at
the field level, expand cultivable are under assured irrigation, improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce
wastage of water and other water savings technologies. (More crop per drop).
123. Cut-off limit for reporting under Central Repository of Information on Large credits (CRILC): Borrowers' including
Special Mention Accounts (SMA 0, 1 & 2) with credit exposures having aggregate fund-based and non-fund based
exposure of Rs. 50 million and above.
124. Periodicity for reporting under CRILC: Main Report on all borrower entities having aggregate exposure of Rs 5
crore and above is to be submitted on a monthly basis. In addition, the Bank have to report to CRILC, all borrower
entities in default with aggregate exposure of Rs.5 crore and above, on a weekly basis, at the close of business every
Friday or the preceding working day if Friday happens to be a holiday.
125. Priority sector limit in case of Housing Loans: Loans to individuals up to Rs.35 lakh in metropolitan centres (with
population of ten lakh and above) and up to Rs.25 lakh in other centres for purchase/construction of a dwelling unit
per family provided the overall cost of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre and at other centres does not
exceed Rs.45 lakh and Rs.30 lakh respectively.
126. Non achievement of target under priority sector, fund transfer to: NABARD
127. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana ( PMJJBY) premium from 1/6/2022: June-Aug : Rs 436 ; Sept-Nov: Rs
342 ; Dec-Feb: Rs 228 ; March-May: Rs 114.
128. Under Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana ( PMJJBY) scheme what is the claim settlement amount for
partial and total disability: Rs 1.00 lakh and Rs. 2.00 lakh respectively.
129. Under UBI Mudra Yojana Shishu amount cover up to amount: Rs 50,000/-
130. Under National Urban Livelihood Mission limit of amount with no Margin: No margin money should be taken for
loan up to Rs. 50,000 and for higher amount loans, preferably 5% should be taken as margin money and it should in no
case be more than 10% of the project cost
131. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) was launched under Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
stimulus package. The AHID has been approved for incentivizing investments by individual entrepreneurs, private
companies, MSME, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) and Section _____ companies to establish (i) the dairy
processing and value addition infrastructure, (ii) meat processing and value addition infrastructure and (iii) Animal
Feed Plant : 8.
132. Mahatma Gandhi NREG Act, 2005 is to provide at least ____ days of wage employment in a financial year to every
rural household whose adult member volunteers to do unskilled manual work. State can provide additional man days
of work over and above of the stipulated days from its own resources: 100.
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 59 | P a g e
135. Loans up to ______ to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing of the produce of membersfall under
Priority Sector – Ancillary Activities. Rs 2 crore
136. ______ of the total DRI advances of the Bank should flow to the eligible borrowers belonging toSCs/STs. Not less
than 40 percent
137. DRI scheme aims to benefit the poor whose annual family income is upto _____ in rural areas and______ in urban
and semi urban areas. Rs 18000, Rs 24000
138. Under DRI Scheme, housing loans, upto a limit of _______ to be granted only to the members of SC/ST
community who fulfill DRI income criteria. Rs 20000
139. Under DRI Scheme, housing loans, upto a limit of _____ to be granted to the individuals other than SC/ST
community. Rs 15000
140. Under Co-lending arrangement by Banks and NBFCs (including HFCs) to Priority Sector, NBFCs shall be required to
retain a minimum of ________ share of the individual loans on their books. 20 per cent
141. In case of Individual house hold Income in Rural, Urban, Metro areas and members of Self Help Groups is upto Rs
1 lakh p.a., maximum housing loan under Canara Kuteer Scheme can be sanctioned upto Rs _____ Rs 5 lakhs
142. What is the total priority sector lending taget for the domestic commercial banks (excl. RRBs & SFBs)? 40 per
cent of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher
143. What is the total priority sector lending taget for the Regional Rural Banks? 75 per cent of ANBC or CEOBE
whichever is higher
144. What is the priority sector lending target under export lending category for foreign banks with lessthan 20
branches? 32 per cent of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher
145. What is advances to weaker sections target for foreign banks with 20 branches and above for financialyear 2023-
24? 12 percent of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher
146. To address regional disparities, a higher weight ______ is assigned to the incremental priority sectorcredit in the
identified districts where the credit flow is comparatively lower. 125 percent
147. Loans to farmers for installation of stand-alone Solar Agriculture Pumps and for solarisation of gridconnected
Agriculture Pumps is to be categorized under_________. Farm Credit - Individual farmers
148. Loans against pledge/hypothecation of agricultural produce (including warehouse receipts) is subjectto a limit up
to ______ against warehouse receipts other than NWRs/eNWRs for classifying under PrioritySector. Rs 50 lakhs
149. Loans up to _______ to co-operative societies of farmers for purchase of the produce of membersare to be
classified under Proirity Sector finance. Rs 5 Crore
150. For the purpose of computation of achievement of the sub-target, Small and Marginal Farmers,under priority
Sector lending, Farmers with landholding ________ shall be categorized as marginal farmer. of up to 1 hectare
151. For the purpose of computation of achievement of the sub-target, under priority sector lending,Small and
Marginal Farmers, Farmers with landholding ________ shall be categorized as small farmer. more than 1 hectare and
upto 2 hectare
152. Bank credit to registered NBFCs (other than MFIs) towards on-lending for ‘Term lending’ componentunder
agriculture is allowed up to ______ per borrower to qualify for classificastion under Priority Sectorlending. Rs 10 lakh
153. Loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, not exceeding _______are considered
as eligible for priority sector classification. Rs 20 lakh
154. Bank loans up to a limit of _______ per borrower for building health care facilities including under‘Ayushman
Bharat’ in ___________ qualify for classification under Priority Sector lending. Rs 10 Crore, Tier II to Tier VI centres
155. Priority sector loans to the artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits donot exceed
_______, classified as lending under Weaker Sections category. Rs 100000
156. As per Priority Sector lending norms, which among the following is considered under Weaker Sectionscategory?
1.Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding ₹2 lakh per borrowerto prepay their debt to
non-institutional lenders 2.Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemessuch as NRLM, NULM and SRMS
3.Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits donot exceed ₹ 2 lakh 4.Minority communities
5.Small and Marginal Farmers 2,4, and 5 only
157. Bank credit to Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), approved by NHB for their refinance, for on-lending for the
purpose of purchase of individual dwelling units is subject to an aggregate loan limit of________. Rs 20 lakh per
borrower
158. What is the agriculture priority sector lending taget for the domestic commercial banks (excl. RRBs & SFBs)? 18
per cent of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher
159. To address regional disparities, a higher weight is assigned to the incremental priority sector credit in the
identified districts where the per capita PSL is less than _______. Rs 6000
160. For being eligible under Priority Sector, loans for agriculture infrastructure is subject to an aggregatesanctioned
limit of _______ per borrower from the banking system. Rs 100 Crore
161. Loans against pledge/hypothecation of agricultural produce (including warehouse receipts) is subjectto a period
not exceeding ______for classifying under Priority Sector 12 months
162. Loans up to ________ to Start-ups, as per definition of Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Govt. ofIndia that are
engaged in agriculture and allied services are to be classified under Proirity Sector finance. Rs 50 Crore
163. For the purpose of computation of achievement of the sub-target, under priority sector lending,Small and
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 60 | P a g e
 Marginal Farmers will include loans up to ______to individuals solely engaged in Allied activitieswithout any
accompanying land holding criteria. Rs 2 lakh
164. Bank loans to any governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for slum clearance andrehabilitation
of slum dwellers subject to dwelling units with carpet area of not more than ______,qualify for classification under
Priority Sector lending. 60 sq.m.
165. Loans not exceeding _______ provided by banks to SHG/JLG for activities, other than agriculture orMSME, viz.,
loans for meeting social needs, construction or repair of house, construction of toilets or anyviable common activity
started by SHGs, shall qualify for classification under Priority Sector lending. Rs 200000
166. Loans to distressed persons [other than distressed farmers indebted to noninstitutional lenders] notexceeding
________per borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders, shall qualify forclassification under Priority
Sector lending. Rs 100000
167. As per Priority Sector lending norms, which among the following is not considered under WeakerSections
category? 1.Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹2 lakh per borrower 2.Persons with disabilities 3.Self Help Groups
and Joint Liability Groups 4.Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders – 1 and 3 only
168. Bank credit to NBFCs (including HFCs) for on-lending, will be allowed up to an overall limit of_______ of
individual bank’s total priority sector lending. 5 percent
169. What is advances to weaker section target for the Regional Rural Banks? 15 percent of ANBC or CEOBE,
whichever is higher
170. To address regional disparities, a higher weight ______ is assigned to the incremental priority sector credit in the
identified districts where the credit flow is comparatively lower. 125 percent
171. To address regional disparities and a lower weight _______ is assigned for incremental priority sector credit in
the identified districts where the credit flow is comparatively higher. 90 percent
172. To address regional disparities, a higher weight is assigned to the incremental priority sectorcredit in the
identified districts where the per capita PSL is less than _______. Rs 6000
173. All loans to units in the KVI sector are eligible for classification under the sub target of _______prescribed for
Micro Enterprises under priority sector. 7.5 percent
174. Incremental export credit extended by domestic banks, qualify for classification under PrioritySector lending
subject to a sanctioned limit of up to _______ per borrower. Rs 40 Crore
175. Loans up to ______ in metropolitan centres and up to ______ in other centres for repairs todamaged dwelling
units, qualify for classification under Priority Sector lending. Rs 10 lakh, Rs 6 lakh
176. Bank loans up to a limit of _______ per borrower for sanitation facilities includingconstruction/refurbishment of
household toilets and water improvements at household Level, qualifyfor classification under Priority Sector lending.
Rs 5 Crore
177. Investments by banks in ‘securitised assets’, representing loans to various categories of prioritysector, except
'others' category, are eligible for classification under respective categories of prioritysector depending on the
underlying assets provided, all-inclusive interest charged to the ultimateborrower by the originating entity should not
exceed the investing bank’s ________ MCLR + 10 percent or EBLR + 14 percent
178. Bank can not levy loan related ad hoc service charges/inspection charges on priority sector loansup to ________.
Rs 10000
179. As per the extant guideline under Priority sector advances , what is the mandated level of targetunder Small and
Marginal Farmer's for FY 2023-24 ? (in %) 10
180. Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) can be traded in which platform of RBI ? e-Kuber
181. Under Priority Sector classifications, the limit for setting up of Schools per borrower under social infrastructure
Sector Rs.5 Crore
182. Under revised NBFC-OTHERS MODEL, What is the prescribed Risk Weighted percentage for Net NPA in Business
Risk? 15
183. What is the target percentage allotted for lending to Small Marginal Farmers(SMFs) for FY 2023-24 to categorise
as priority sector lending? 10 percent
184. Under Priority Sector lending, Loans for agriculture infrastructure will be subject to an aggregate sanctioned
limit of _____ crore per borrower from the banking system? 100 Croes
185. To classify as prioirty sector lending, Under renewable engery bank financing loans up to a limit of________ to
borrowers for purposes like solar based power generators, biomass-based power generators, wind mills, micro-hydel
plants and for non-conventional energy based public utilities? 30 Crore
186. To classify as prioirty sector lending, For foreign banks having with less than 20 branches What is the Export
credit percentage (Other than in agriculture and MSME) upto __________ of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher can
be considered? 32
187. Bank credit to registered NBFCs (other than MFIs) for on-lending will be eligible for classification as priority
sector lending, Under Agriculture will be allowed up to _____ Lakh per borrower. Rs10.00 Lakhs
188. Which among the following is the new scorecard introduced for different categories of NBFC?
1) NBFC - Housing Finance Companies 2) NBFC-Micro Finance Companies 3) NBFC-Other categories
4) Options 1,2 & 3 are correct 5) None of the Options Ans. 1,2 & 3 are correct
189. Loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, not exceeding__________ to classify
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 61 | P a g e
 as priority sector lending? Rs.20.00 Lakhs
191. The applicable target for lending to the non-corporate farmers for FY 2022-23 will be _____of ANBC or CEOBE
whichever is higher. Ans: 13.78%
192. Loans up to Rs ______to co-operative societies of farmers for purchase of the produce of members, classified
under Priority Sector – Agriculture. Ans: Rs. ₹5 crore
193. Loans to Farmers Producer Organisations/Farmers Producer Companies of individual farmers and co-operatives of
farmers directly engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities where the land-holding share of Small and Marginal
Farmers is not less than _____ per cent, subject to loan limits, classified under Priority Sector. Ans: 75 %
194. On-lending by NBFCs for ‘Term lending’ component under Agriculture will be allowed up to ₹_____ lakh per
borrower, is considered under Priority Sector. Ans: Rs.10 lakh
195. Bank credit to NBFCs (including HFCs) for on-lending as applicable guideline, will be allowed up to an overall
limit of _____ percent of individual bank’s total priority sector lending. Ans: 5%
196. GHAR GHAR KCC ABHIYAAN” CAMPAIGN FOR KCC SATURATION DRIVE: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
launched this campaign for revolutionizing agriculture in India and aims to amplify financial inclusion, streamline
data utilization, harness technology and enhance the livelihoods of the agricultural community. Period of the
campaign: ____ Ans: 1st October 2023 to 31st December 2023
197. “Krishi Vikram” Mega Core Agriculture Disbursement Campaign- December 2023 (03.10.2023 to 31.12.2023):
Under this campaign, AF Hi-tech branches to disburse total ₹100.00 Crore under Term loans/High value (>1cr) Short
Term Loans and Agriculture Credit Centres to disburse Term Loans/Composit Loans of Rs.______ Ans: Rs 275 crores
198. As per One Time Settlement Scheme of Agricultural Loans upto Rs.25 lakhs, what is the settlement formula for
loans above Rs.5 lakhs upto Rs.25 lakhs which are in DA1 category (Doubtful Asset first year) : Ans: Original loan
amount disbursed plus Simple ROI @ 6% p.a from date of disbursement till previous quarter & Other expenses Less
Recoveries made in the account (including relief under ADW & DR scheme).
199. End-to-End Digital Journey for KISAN CREDIT CARD SCHEME (KCCS) introduced for loan amount upto Rs.______
for existing customers, routed through Jansamarth Portal where in digital documentation through NeSL and opening
of account through STP module in LAPS. Branch to conduct pre-disbursement exercise and disburse Loan with in 48
hours. Ans: Rs.1.60 lacs.
200. As per revised procedure for loans upto 3 lakhs (for short term loan sanctioned for Crop Production and
Agriculture allied activities) lending rate shall be 7.00% and regular interest subvention of ____ % shall be credited
directly to our Interest collected GL on half yearly basis. Ans: 1.50%.
201. Which statement is incorrect in respect of valuation of agriculture land? - Powers are delegated to other than
AEO/AMRD Promotee Managers for valuation og Agriculture loans upto a limit of Rs 15.00 lakhs
202. In Maharashtra State duration of Crops is ___ for Short Duration Crops and __ for Long Duration Crops -10
months,21 months
203. In case aggregate exposure across the banking industry exceeds the limit of __ for loan to Agriculture
infrastructure & Food & Agro processing units, the exposure will cease to be classified under PSL category- -Rs 100
Crore
204. At any point of time, the outstanding against Book debt under OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units should not
exceed ______ of the limit and operational expenses should not exceed ______ of the limit. - 83.33%, 16.67%
205. The maximum permissible drawing power under OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units is fixed for _______. - Rs
10 crores
206. Under OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units, liability should be brought down to ____ of the limit on or
before_____ every year. - 40%, 30th November -
207. Under OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units, total security comfort by way of mortgage of landed properties
should not be less than __ for limits upto Rs 100 lac and __ for units above Rs 100 lacs. - 125%, 150% -
208. Under OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units, interest to be debited at__rests and demanded on_every year-
Monthly,31st Octo.
209. Which statement is incorrect in respect of OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units? - Circle shall communicate
average market price of potato for last one year during October every year
210. No collateral security is required upon renewal of existing KCC limit upto ___, if limit is sanctioned on lease land.
-Rs 1.6 lakhs
211. Mortgage of immovable property, if stipulated in KCC limit (sanctioned on lease land) value should be minimum
____ of the loan amount, wherein value of vacant land should not be more than _____, irrespective of the
mortgage/non mortgage of lease hold rights and execution/ non execution of registered lease deed. - 125%, 50%
212. Government provide interest subvention for a maximum period of _______ for extending financial assistance to
sugar mills/project propenents for enhancement and augmentation of ethanol production capacity. -five years
213. At what rate Government provide interest subvention for extending financial assistance to sugar mills/project
propenents for enhancement and augmentation of ethanol production capacity? - 6% per annum or 50% of rate of
interest charged by banks, whichever is lower
214. What is the minimum and maximum limit of finance under Canara Kisan OD scheme? - Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakhs
215. Under Canara Kisan OD scheme, Regional Head has to fix a suitable limit per acre, keeping in view the land value
and margin of ____ required for branches under the region where the recovery percentage under the scheme is
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 62 | P a g e
 ____50%, 95%
216. Under Canara Kisan OD scheme, mortgage of landed properties are to be obtained with value at least ____ of the
limit as prime security. Out of which at least ____ security in the form of residential property. - 200%,
217. What is the ceiling of finance with relaxed norms under Canara Kisan OD scheme? - Rs 1.50 lakh per acre
218. Whats is the upper ceiling of finance with relaxed norms under Canara Kisan OD scheme? - Rs 12.5 lakhs
219. Which statement is incorrect in respect of CGFMU coverage? - loans to Agriculture Direct activities/Purely
Agricultural activities (Crop Production, Land Development etc) are eligible to be covered under CGFMUSHG portfolio
between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.20 lakh.
220. Assistance under Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure (AMI) sub scheme for renovation is allowed to Storage
infrastructure projects of cooperatives routed through NCDC only for project cost as appraised by Bank/ NCDC or
actual cost of _____ of storage capacity, whichever is lower- Rs. 750/- per MT
221. Storage Infrastructure project (godowns) above _____shall be registered with Warehouse Development Authority
(WDRA) to avail the benefits of e-NWR. - 1000
222. n case of sanction up to _____ to SHGs, review is carried out on consolidated basis by ROs based on monthly
registers submitted by branches. - Rs 6 lakhs
223. Under ‘Canara Drone’ Scheme Maximum loan amount of __ for purchase of _ under branch delegation can be
sanctioned. - Rs 12 lakhs, upto two drones
224. AGM/DGM-RO-CAC is empowered to consider the purchase of ______ with equipment with a condition that the
maximum quantum of finance not to exceed _____under the scheme. - more than 2 drones, Rs 25 lakhs
225. For being eligible under ‘Canara Drone Scheme” age of the farmer should be ___. - in the range of 25 yrs to 60
yrs
226. Individuals should have passed the class _____ examination or its equivalent from a recognized Board for being
eligible under Canara Drone Scheme: - 10th
227. Which statement is incorrect for financing scheme ‘Canara Drone’? - If drone is financed for own use the
applicant should have at least 2.5 acres of perennially irrigated land or 5.0 acres of rainfed landIndividuals.
228. what is the maximum repayment period under Canara Drone Scheme: - 5 years including moratorium period of 6
months
229. As per "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN)" scheme, the SMFs landholder farmer family is defined as
"a family comprising of husband, wife and minor children who collectively own cultivable land up to _____ as per the
land records of the concerned State/UT". - 0 hectares
230. Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN)" scheme, a direct payment of _____ per year is
transferred in _____ instalment/s, into the Aadhar ceded bank accounts of eligible landholding SMFs families.- Rs
6000, three equal
231. What is threshold of collateral free loan for short term Agri-credit? - .Rs 1.6 lakh
232. KCC is to be issued within _____ from the receipt of completed application. - 14 days
233. What is the effective rate of interest, after additional subvention is given to the farmers for prompt and timely
repayment of short term loans for agriculture & allied activities? -4% p.a
234. Bank credit to registered NBFCs (other than MFIs) for on-lending will be eligible for classification as priority
sector under respective categories.Which statement is correct in this regard? Under Small enterprises segment : On-
lending by NBFC is allowed up to Rs. 20 lakh per borrower
235. Bank credit to NBFCs (including HFCs) for on-lending, will be allowed up to an overall limit of _______ of
individual banks’s total priority sector lending- 5%
236. Bank credit to Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), approved by NHB for their refinance, for on-lending for the
purpose of purchase of individual dwelling units is subject to an aggregate loan limit of _____. - Rs 20 lakh per
borower
237. Bank can not levy loan related ad hoc service charges/inspection charges on priority sector loans up to:Rs 25000
238. PMJJBY offers _____ death cover at a nominal annual premium of _____per annum. Rs 200000
239. PMSBY offers accidental death cover of _____ and accidental disability cover up to _______ at a nominal annual
premium of __ per annum. - Rs 200000, Rs 200000, Rs 20
240. All individual account holders in the age group of _____ years are entitled to join PMJJBY - 18 to 50
241. All individual bank account holders in the age group of _____ years will be entitled to join PMSBY - 18 to 70
242. What is the maximum age when assurance on the life of the member under PMJJBY shall be terminated? - 55
years
243. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Atal Pension Yojana (APY)? - Aadhaar is mandatory for opening APY
account
244. DFS has prescribed a Turn Around Time (TAT) of____ days for forwarding duly completed claim documents to the
insurer under PMJJBY and PMSBY. - 7
245. What is the maximum permissible age for entry / renewal to the PMSBY scheme? - 70 years complete
GOLD LOANS
1. Digital documentation and e-stamping is introduced for _____. :Gold Loans
2. ___ embeds the Digital Signature on the PDF containing e- stamp of loan agreement.: NeSL
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 63 | P a g e
3. Permission for auction to branches for Gold Loan by regional offices is given through___. : Gold Loan Auction Package
(GLAP)
4. Credit facility against security of Gold Coins/ Gold Ornaments and Jewellery is available for which of the following
purposes? a. Agricultural and Agricultural Allied Activities b. Loans to employees for Agricultural purposes c. Personal
Needs d. Business Activities e. All of the above
5. Gold Loans can be granted against which of the following items? a. Gold ornaments b. Gold Coins c. Gold
Bullion/Gold Bar d. Primary gold e. All of the above
6. hile advancing against the security of specially minted gold coins issued by banks, the Gross Weight of the Gold coins
shall not exceed___ grams per customer. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 10 e. None the above
7. Overall sanction Limit per customer fpr Gold Loan under all the schemes combined together is fixed at? a. 35 lakhs b.
50 lakhs c. 105 lakhs d. 150 lakhs e. No limit
8. CCTV recording of Jewel Appraiser working in the branch should be preserved in a DVR for real time viewing for how
many days in Managers cabin, as per Gold Loan Policy 2023-24. a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 180 days e. 120
days
9. Which of the following methods are used to identify the purity of Gold Jewellery? a. Touchstone Test b. Nitric Acid
Test c. Gold Purity Testing Machine(GPTM) d. Only a and b e. All of the above
10. For Gold Loans upto Rs 5.00 lakh, Jewel Appraiser fee payable is: Rs. 0.50 per Rs.100 of the limit sanctioned, with
a maximum of Rs. 200
11. For Gold Loans above Rs 5.00 lakh upto Rs 20.00 lakh, Jewel Appraiser fee payable is: Rs. 0.50 per Rs.100 of the
limit sanctioned, with a maximum of Rs. 300
12. For Gold Loans above Rs 20.00 lakh, Jewel Appraiser fee payable is: Rs. 0.50 per Rs.100 of the limit sanctioned,
with a maximum of Rs. 500
13. The consolidated processing charges to be collected for Agricultural and MSME Gold Loans upto Rs 0.25 lakh is ____.
a. Rs. 250 b. Rs. 500 c. Rs. 1100 d. Rs 1450 e. NIL
14. The consolidated processing charges to be collected for Agricultural and MSME Gold Loans for loans above Rs. 3.00
lakhs upto Rs.5.00 lakhs is: a. Rs. 250 b. Rs. 500 c. Rs. 1100 d. Rs 1450 e. Rs. 2750
15. The consolidated processing charges to be collected for Agricultural and MSME Gold Loans for loans above Rs. 5.00
lakhs upto Rs.10.00 lakhs is: a. Rs. 250 b. Rs. 500 c. Rs. 1100 d. Rs 1450 e. Rs. 2750
16. The consolidated processing charges for Agricultural and MSME Gold Loans consists of _______. a. Processing Charges
& Handling Charges b. Processing Charges & Release Charges c. Processing Charges & CIR Charges d. Only a & b e. All
of the above
17. What is the processing charges to be collected for Swarna Loans? 0.50% of the Loan amount with a minimum of
Rs.500.00 and maximum of Rs.5000.00
18. Handling Charges to be collected in case of Gold Loans closed within _____ from date of Sanction/Disbursement. a. 1
month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months e. 12 months
19. When does the Safe Keeping charges become applicable to gold loans? a. after 30 days of the expiry of the prescribed
tenure of gold loan b. after 30 days of closure of loan, if jewels are not redeemed c. after 60 days of the expiry of
the prescribed tenure of gold loan d. either a or b e. either b or c
20. What will be the safe keeping charge applicable to gold loans above Rs. 25000 to Rs. 5.00 lakhs? Rs.100.00 per
month or part thereof
21. What will be the safe keeping charge applicable to gold loans above Rs. 5.00 lakhs? Rs.200.00 per month or part
thereof
22. The gold securities kept under Gold Loan are reappraised under which of the following instances? a. Detection of
Spurious Gold Loans b. Termination of Jewel Appraiser c. When the aggregate limit of the party under all the Gold
Loans exceeds Rs.25 Lakh d. During Statutory Balance sheet audit e. All of the above
23. Pre-disbursement Reappraisal of Gold Jewellery is conducted when the aggregate limit of the party under all the
Gold Loans exceeds _____. a. Rs.20 lakhs b. Rs.25 lakhs c. Rs.35 lakhs d. Rs 50 lakhs e. Rs.100 lakhs
24. Jewel appraisers in the panel at Regional Office who are engaged for reappraisal work outside their place of domicile
are eligible for a consolidated allowance including travel allowance of ______ per day on declaration basis. a. Rs 200
b. Rs. 250 c. Rs. 500 d. Rs. 750 e. Rs. 1000.
25. What is the minimum amount paid to Jewel appraisar for reappraisal work? a.Rs 200 b.Rs. 250 c.Rs. 500 d.Rs. 750
e.Rs. 1000.
26. Balancing of gold loans has to be done by branches on ________ basis. a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half yearly d.
Yearly e. None of the above.
27. The Jewel appraisers newly empanelled for regular appraisal works at Branches are to be empanelled for a period of
_______ on contract basis and the contract can be renewed/ continued for a further period of _______.
a. 3 years, 5 years b. 3 years, 3 years c. 5 years, 3 years d. 5 years, 5 years e. None of these
28. The Minimum and Maximum age for selection as Jewel Appraiser is ____ and ____ years, respectively. a. 25, 50 b. 30,
50 c. 30,60 d. 35,60 e. 35,50.
29. For Northern Circles, the minimum age for selection as Jewel Appraiser may be relaxed to ____ years, provided the
candidate has a minimum experience of ___ years. a. 25, 5 b. 25, 7 c. 30,5 d. 30,7 e. 25,10 a/269
30. The minimum educational qualification stipulated for selection as Jewel Appraiser is _______. a. 12th pass b. 8th
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 64 | P a g e
 pass c. 10th pass d. Graduation e. None of these
31. The amount of Security Deposit to be furnished by a Jewel Appraiser working in a branch, having gold loan exposure
of upto Rs.10.00 Crores is ______ . a. Rs 50,000 b. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.1,50,000 d. Rs.25,000 e. Rs.2,00,000.
32. The amount of Security Deposit to be furnished by a Jewel Appraiser working in a branch, having gold loan exposure
of above Rs. 10 Crores upto Rs.20 Crores is ______. a. Rs 50,000 b. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.1,50,000 d. Rs.25,000 e.
Rs.2,00,000
33. The amount of Security Deposit to be furnished by a Jewel Appraiser working in a branch, having gold loan exposure
of of above Rs. 20 Crores upto Rs. 50 Crores is _____. a. Rs 50,000 b. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.1,50,000 d. Rs.25,000 e.
Rs.2,00,000
34. The amount of Security Deposit to be furnished by a Jewel Appraiser working in a branch, having gold loan exposure
of of above Rs. 50 Crores is ______. a. Rs 50,000 b. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.1,50,000 d. Rs.25,000 e. Rs.2,00,000
35. It is mandatory to engage Second Jewel Appraiser in branches, where average no. of Gold loans granted is more than
_____ loans per day, during the previous FY. a. 20 b. 25 c. 35 d. 50 e. 75
36. The Panel Appraisers at Regional Office are empaneled for a period of _____ years on contract basis and the contract
shall be renewed/ continued for a further period of _____ more years. a.3,5 b.3,3 c.5,3 d.5,5 e.3,2
37. Security Deposit to be furnished by a jewel appraiser empanelled in the Regional Office panel is: a.Rs 10000 b.Rs
15000 c.Rs 20000 d.Rs 25000 e.Rs 50000.
38. For effective monitoring and to maintain the stipulated LTV ratio during the tenure of the loan, bank has set a
“trigger LTV” for all Gold Loan Scheme. The “trigger LTV” kept by the Bank is case of agriculture gold loan is :a.72%
b.75% c.92% d.96% e.100%
39. The “trigger LTV” kept by the Bank is case of Retail and MSME gold loans is: a. 72% b. 75% c. 92% d. 96% e. 100%
40. In case of Agricultural Gold Loans, a notice should be sent on the day when the LTV exceeded the specified limit,
wherein the Borrower is be requested to top up /bring down the LTV within _____ days from the date of receipt of
the notice. a. 15 days b. 10 days c. 7 days d. 5 days e. 30 days.
41. In case of Gold Loan NPA accounts, the entire auction process of the gold jewellery is expected to be completed in
____days for Agricultural Gold Loans and in _____ days for Non-Agricultural Gold Loans. a. 15, 30 b. 30,15 c. 30,30
d.30,45 e. 45,30
42. Monthly auction for sale of gold ornaments to realize and recover the dues under Gold Loans to be conducted on
every _______ of the month. a. 3rd Friday b. 3rd Wednesday c. 4th Friday d. 4th Wednesday e. None of these
43. Among the following which are the service providers to conduct e-auction of gold jewellery. a. M/s CanBank
Computer Services Limited (CCSL) b. M/s E procurement technologies Limited (Auction Tiger) c. M/s National e-
Governance Services Limited (NeSL) d. Either a or b e. All of the above
44. The Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) amount to be remitted by a bidder for participating in Gold Jewellery e-auction is
fixed at Rs. ______ per branch. a. Rs 20,000 b. Rs.25,000 c. Rs.30,000 d. Rs.50,000 e. Rs.75,000
45. Overall maximum limit under Loans against Gold Jewellery for Agricultural Purposes shall be Rs. ________ per
customer. a. Rs. 10 Lakhs b. Rs. 20 Lakhs c. Rs. 25 lakhs d. Rs. 35 Lakhs e. Rs. 105 Lakhs
46. Overall maximum limit under Loans against Gold Jewellery for Crop cultivation purpose shall be Rs. ________ per
customer. a. Rs. 10 Lakhs b. Rs. 20 Lakhs c. Rs. 25 lakhs d. Rs. 35 Lakhs e. Rs.105 Lakhs
47. In case of Agricultural Gold Loans, Rate of Advance shall be maximum ____% of the Appraised Value of Gold and Loan
to Value (LTV) ratio shall not exceed ___ % during the tenure of loan. a. 75,100 b. 100,75 c. 80,100 d. 100,80 e.
80,90
48. One Credit Information Report shall be drawn from any of the Credit Information Companies (CICs), for loan amount
upto _____. a. 3 lakhs b. 5 lakhs c. 10 laksh d. 20 lakhs e. Irrespective of loan amount
49. What is the minimum loan amount that can be sanctioned under GL Overdraft scheme for Agricultural purpose? a.
Rs.0.50 lakh b. Rs.1.00 lakh c. Rs.1.60 lakh d. Rs.2.00 lakh e. Rs.0.25 lakh
50. In case of GL Overdraft for Agricultural purpose, Rate of Advance shall be maximum ____% of the Appraised Value of
Gold and Loan to Value (LTV) ratio shall not exceed _____ % during the tenure of loan. a. 75,100 b. 100,75 c.
90,100 d. 100,90 e. 80,90
51. Renewal of limit under GL OD for Agricultural purpose shall be done after ___ years. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5.
52. What is the minimum loan amount that can be sanctioned under Swarna schemes? a. Rs.5,000 b. Rs.10,000 c.
Rs.25,000 d. Rs.50,000 e. Rs.1,00,000
53. What is the minimum loan amount that can be sanctioned under MSME Gold Loans? a. Rs.5,000 b. Rs.10,000
c.Rs.25,000 d. Rs.50,000 e. Rs.1,00,000
54. In case of MSME Gold Loans, Loan to Value (LTV) ratio shall not exceed _____ % during the tenure of loan. a. 75 b. 65
c. 70 d. 85 e. 80
55. Application-cum-Letter of Pledge for MSME Gold Loan /Overdraft against Gold Jewellery is ______ . a. NF 1018 b. NF
1024 c. NF 1038 d. NF 1030 e. NF 497
56. Gold Purity Test machine mark _______for 22 karat gold. a.872 b.895 c.916 d.928 e.905
57. For Agriculture and MSME Gold Loans, Processing Charges, Handling Charges, Release Charges and CIR Charges have
been consolidated to a single Service Charge.What is such consolidated Charges for agriculture and MSME Gold loan
above Rs 1 lakh and upto Rs 3 lakhs? a.Rs 250 b.Rs 500 c.Rs 1100 d.Rs 1450 e.Rs 1500
58. What is the processing charges for Swarna Loan/Swarna Overdraft? a.0.50% of the Loan amount with a minimum of
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 65 | P a g e
 Rs.500.00 and maximum of Rs.5000.00 b.0.50% of the Loan amount with a minimum of Rs.250.00 and maximum of
Rs.2500.00 c.0.25% of the Loan amount with a minimum of Rs.250.00 and maximum of Rs.5000.00 d.0.25% of the
Loan amount with a minimum of Rs.500.00 and maximum of Rs.2500.00 e.None of the above
59. What are the applicable processing charges under Swarna Express scheme? a.25% of charges applicable to Swarna
Loans b.50% of charges applicable to Swarna Loans c.75% of charges applicable to Swarna Loans d.As applicable to
Swarna Loans e.No processing charges under the scheme
60. Handling Charges are to be collected in case of Gold Loans Closed within ______ from date of
Sanction/Disbursement. Handling charge for loan amount above Rs 5 lakhs is ________. a.six months, Rs 200 b.six
months, Rs 250 c.three months, Rs 500 d.three months, Rs 250 e.three months, Rs 200
61. Release charge of ____ per loan to be collected irrespective of loan amount at the time of closure if closed after
_____ of sanction/disbursement. a.Rs 200, 3 months b.Rs 200, 30 days c.Rs 100, 3 months d.Rs 100, 30 days e.Rs
150, 45 days
62. Folio charges are applicable in respect of running limits like GL OD. Folio charges at ______ for ________ or part
thereof should be collected at _________ intervals. a. Rs 100, 40 entries, half yearly b. Rs 100, 50 entries,
quarterly c. Rs 200, 40 entries, half yearly d. Rs 200, 50 entries, quarterly e. Rs 250, 40 entries, quarterly
63. For every change of nomination in gold loan, service charges of ______ shall be levied. a.Rs 100 b.Rs 150 c.Rs 200
d.Rs 250 e.Rs 300.
64. In case of loss of Gold Jewellery which could be on account of Robbery, Theft, Dacoit, Burglary, compensation to the
gold loan borrowers may be permitted by _______. a.GM-HO b.Circle Head c.DGM-Circle d.RO-Head e.Executive
Director.
65. During quarterly appraisal ___ of the Gold Loans granted during review period needs to be reappraised. 100%
66. Quartely Reappraisal Gold loan process shall be conducted in the presence of ____________.: an Official from
RO/Other Branch/Inspecting Official.
67. In order to suit DDE and e-signing, the Gold Loan Application forms are bifurcated.Which documents need to to
signed and preserved digitally? 1.Loan Application 2.Letter of Pledge 3.Nomination details 4.Disbursement Request
5.Jewellery Valuation Certificate 6.Sanction Memorandum 7.Safe custody certificate by joint custodians 1,2,3 and 4
only
68. What is the charge for Digitally Document Execution Fee for utilizing DDE service?. Rs 25+GST
69. Which entity is incorporated as a union government company to act as an Information Utility and Digital Document
Execution (DDE) Service provider? - NeSL
70. Where the number of mutiliated and imperfect notes presented by a person is more than ___ but not exceeding __ in
value, the tenderer shall be advised to send such notes to nearby currency chest branch by insured post giving bank
account details or get them exchanged thereat in person. - 5 pieces, Rs 5000

9. MSME
1. CMR (CIBIL MSME Rank) has to be generated and reckoned while handling Existing and New MSME loans with aggregate
Loan quantum (Present & Proposed) of above Rs.10 lakhs and upto Rs.10 crores. What are the charges to be collected
from customers for generation of CMR. Ans: Rs.1000/- + applicable tax (CIR charges Rs.500/- + CMR charges
Rs.500/- )
2. What is the maximum quantum of loan under Canara Mahila Vikas scheme and margin. Ans: Rs.5 crore. Margin on
TL/WC: 20%
3. What is the required collateral comfort in respect of Canara Mahila Vikas Scheme: Ans: For Low Risk Rated accounts:
25%, NR:50%, MR:75%. Vacant land max.25% and vacant + industrial land max.50% of collateral comfort.
4. Under Canara MSME Star, maximum quantum of loan eligibile is Rs.30 crore for Manufacturing units and 15 crore for
Service units with 20% margin and with minimum 100% collateral comfort. What is the TOL:TNW norm for considering
loan under this scheme: Ans: TOL:TNW 5:1 for Manufacturing and 7:1 for Services/Trading
5. What is the Upper Ceiling of loan quantum under Canara MSME Smart Professional : Ans: Rs.5cr in Metro, Rs.2 cr in
Urban and Rs.50 lakh in other Centres. Collateral comfort: 75% minimum, thereafter CGTMSE under Hybrid model.
6. Where loan is for purchase of site/land and construction of the office premises under Canara MSME Smart
Professional scheme, value of the land shall not exceed ____ of the total project cost. Ans: 40%
7. Under Canara MSME Vahan scheme, loan is granted for acquisition of LCV/MCV/HCV for MSME borrowers, upto Rs.50
lakh for new vehicles (fuel based/electric) or upto Rs.25 lakh for used vehicles (Not for electric vehicle) with margin
of 25%(new)/50%(used/old). What is the maximum cost of accessories permissible under this scheme: Ans: max.10%
of cost of built up vehicle with max. Rs.25,000/-.
8. Out of maximum permissible loan of Rs.25 crores under Canara Contractor Scheme, what is the maximum quantum of
Term Loan permissible under this scheme: Ans: Rs.10 cr.
9. Minimum collateral comfort prescribed under Canara Contractor Scheme is 50% of proposed exposure. For Loans
above Rs. ______under this scheme, the valuation shall be carried out by two independent panel valuers and the
least should be taken into consideration. Ans: Rs.2 crores
10. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Start Ups administered by M/s NCGTC Ltd and provides Guarantee cover for loan of
start ups upto Rs.10 crore. What is the extent of Guarantee coverage under this scheme: Ans: 80% coverage for
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 66 | P a g e
 loans upto Rs.3 crore, 75% for loan above 3 cr to 5 cr and 65% coverage is sanctioned loan amount is above Rs.5
crores.
11. Margin Money Loan Scheme is administered by NMDFC (National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation,
which provide refinance for loans provided to Eligible Artisans. What is the maximum quantum of Loan per unit and
margin under this scheme. Ans: Rs.4.50 lakh, margin 10%
12. Effective from 01.04.2023, new Risk parameter has been added to our Internal Risk Rating Models ie. Small Value
Model, Manual Model, CIRM Hybrid Model. What is this new risk parameter. Ans: Unhedged Foreign Currency
Exposure (if borrower is having the same)
13. 1. Under Canara MSME Star and Canara MSME Contractor schemes, minimum collateral security prescribed is 100%
of loan amount. Out of total collateral security, Approved Securities like LIC, NSC, KVPs are accepted upto 100%
value. Thereafter minimum 50% should be in the form of Residential/Commercial properties. Vacant Land is
permissible upto ____ % of security and Vacant Land + Industrial Land put together should not exceed ____% of
total prescribed security. Ans: Vacant Land maximum 25% only. Vacant Land + Industrial Land not to exceed 50% of
total security.
14. Weavers Mudra scheme is being implemented by National Handloom Development Programme, by Ministry of
Textiles, GOI., which provides interest subvention upto 7% for 3 years. What is the maximum quantum of Loan under
this scheme. Ans: Rs.2 lacs for individual weaver and Rs.10 lakhs for Handloom Organisation/producer company.
15. What is the margin money assistance by Ministry of Textiles for beneficiaries under Weavers Mudra Scheme: Ans: 20%
of loan amount with max. Rs.25,000/- for individual weaver and Rs.20% of loan amount with max.Rs 2 lakh for every
100 weaver/worker.
16. Under Canara GST scheme, Loan upto Rs.10 cr will be permitted by Respective Sanctioning Authority and above 10 cr
to 20 cr by GM-SME BU/CGM-HO-CAC. Above Rs.20 cr by____ Ans: ED-CAC and above (on case to case basis based
on merits)
17. Canara MSME Credit Card (CMCC) shall be issued to Individuals /Proprietorship firm Units classified as MSME who are
enjoying WC limits upto Rs.50 lacs, to be availed within WC limits only. Rupay Platinum Card Variant issued upto
Rs.10 lacs and above Rs.10 lacs ____ Card variant. Ans: Rupay Select Card Variant
18. Canara MSME Start up scheme is for financing MSME Start up Units with minimum loan amount above Rs.10 lakhs and
maximum Rs.10 crores. What is the rate of interest: Ans: For LR/CNR III to V : RLLR; NR/CNR-VI: RLLR+0.25%, MR
I,II(CNR VII&VIII) : RLLR + 0.5%
19. Assessment of Term Loan component under Canara MSME Smart Professional is 75% of hard cost of the project subject
to 5 times of net annual income (as per IT returns) for loan upto Rs.10 lakhs and ____ times of annual income for
more than Rs.10 lakhs. Ans: 10 times. Margin on WC: Nil NFB:25%
20. What is the maximum permissible loan amount to Growing/Growing cum Manufacturing of Lab Grown Diamonds :
Ans: Per Corporate borrower Rs.250 cr and Group concern Rs.500 cr. Non Corporate Borrower Rs.50 cr and group
concern: Rs.100 cr.
21. Under Canara MSME Textile Scheme, maximum loan of Rs.25 cr permissible with margin of 25% (for WC & TL). In this
scheme, security of Leasehold Property from Govt. Agency/authority is permitted subject to the condition that the
total lease period is ____ years and above and the residual lease period is ____ years. Ans: 30 years, 5 years.
22. Project Appraisal to be done for Projects of above Rs.10 crores for financing under Canara MSME Textile Scheme.
What are the charges for Project Appraisal: Ans: Flat Rs.1 lakh
23. Under Canara MSME Textile scheme, for loans under solar projects maximum loan amount shall not exceed Rs.______
within the overall limit. (Cir 747/2023) Ans: Rs.25 Crores
24. What is the collateral comfort under Canara MSME Textile scheme (cir 747/2023) Ans: Security by way of mortgage
of Land and Building and/or Approved securities to the extent of atleast 75% of the total limit to be ensured. If
leasehold property, minimum lease period should be 30 years.
25. What is the maximum tenor of the bill for discounting under Bill discounting facility to Suppliers/ Contractors for
supplying materials/services to TTPS (Tuticorin Thermal Power Station) (by Madurai Circle) and Tamil Nadu
Generation and Distribution Corporation (TANGEDCO) and TANTRANSCO (M/S Tamil Nadu Transmission Corporation
Ltd) (cir 748/2023) Ans: 300 days. (margin: 15%, concession in proc charges: 50%)
26. To be eligible for Bank Finance, NBFC factors must derive at least _____ of their income fromfactoring activity and
receivable purchased/financed, irrespective of whether on 'with recourse' or'without recourse' basis, form at least
____ of their assets. 50%, 50%
27. What is the mimimun Consumer CIBIL scores for individual applicant / proprietor/promoter eligibleunder Online
Shishu Mudra Loan Scheme? 700
28. Upper ceiling of coverage under CGS-I component of credit guarantee scheme of CGTMSE scheme is_____ per
borrower for the credit facilities extended to MSEs. Rs 500 lakh
29. What is the maximum extent of guarantee (CGTMSE) coverage available to Micro Enterprises, where credit facility is
above ₹ 5 lakh & up to ₹ 50 lakh? 75% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of ₹ 37.50 lakh
30. Maximum extent of Guarantee Coverage applicable to ZED certified MSE under CGS-1 scheme ofCGTMSE is __%. 85
31. What is the overall ceiling on subsidy granted to eligible SC/ST MSEs under National SC/ST Hub (NSSH)for
procurement of Plant and Machinery through Credit (Term Loan)? - Rs 10 lakhs
32. How much subsidy (in %) is provided to eligible SC/ST MSEs under National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) for procurement of
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 67 | P a g e
 Plant and Machinery through Credit (Term Loan)? – 25
33. What is the minimum threshold for calculation of RAROC? Above Rs 7.5 Crore
34. As per extant RBI guidelines, Minimum level of Loan Component in respect of borrowers enjoyingFund Based Working
Capital facility of _____ & above from the banking system shall be ____ w.e.f.1stJuly 2019. Rs 150 crore, 60%
35. What is the validity period of ‘Working Capital’ sanctions? 3 months
36. What is the validity period of ‘Adhoc Credit facility’ sanctions? 15 days
37. In which case, the concerned Sanctioning Authority can sanction proposals irrespective of RiskGrade? Renewal of
existing facilities
38. Canara Bank Proposal Rating (CBPR) is the Credit scoring matrix framework under EnhancedAccess& Service
Excellence (EASE) Reforms for Corporate loans equal and above ______ ( FB+NFB). Rs 10 crore
39. An account where the regular/ ad hoc credit limits have not been reviewed/ renewed within _____from the due
date/ date of ad hoc sanction, the IRAC norms shall be applicable. 180 days
40. Credit facilities above _____ under CGTMSE with relaxations with regard to any of the Viability Parameters as per
existing guidelines are to be permitted by CM/DM and above authorities upto their delegated powers. Rs 50 lakhs
41. If Adhoc credit facility is permitted for a period of more than ______ as secured, documents asapplicable shall
necessarily be obtained. 30 days
42. Pricing of credit exposure above Rs.2 Crore &upto Rs. 25 Crore is based upon ______ Canara Internal Rating model
(CIRM Model)
43. Loan Quantum under Canara Smart Professional Scheme for furnishing of office premises / equipment purchase is
restricted to _____ of the eligible loan quantum subject a maximum of _______. 20 percent , Rs 100 lakhs
44. Which among the following pairs, margin requirement under Canara MSME Star loan scheme iscorrectly stipulated?
Term loan -20 percent , Working capital - 20 percent , NFB – 15 percent
45. What is the quantum of finance under Canara MSME Contractor scheme? Above Rs 20 lakhs
46. Term Loan under Canara Smart Professional Scheme can be repaid up to a maximum of__________ of repayment
holiday and moratorium period based on cash flows 10 years exclusive of
47. Bank compute RAROC for all the Corporate/MSME/Agricultural proposals having aggregateexposure to counterparty of
above _______ from our Bank. Rs 7.50 Cr
48. Term Loan to the maximum of _______ is permissible under Canara MSME Contractor scheme. Rs 10 Crores
49. Valuation Report from one panel valuer to be obtained for loans extended upto _____ under theCanara MSME Star
scheme. upto Rs 2 crore
50. For Term Loan assessment under Canara Smart Professional Scheme, ______ as per latest ITreturns for Loans above
Rs.10.00 Lakhs is considered. 10 times of net annual income
51. Bank has introduced end-to-end digitized sanction and disbursement of Shishu loans under STP Mechanism. Which
among the following criteria for eligibility is incorrect? - Individual/Joint Accounts/Proprietorship are eligible under
this process
52. Applicant should have running active account with our Bank for the last six months or other Bank (in case of NTB
Customers).
53. Individual/Joint Accounts/Proprietorship are eligible under this process.
54. In case of NTB Customer, Applicant should not be enjoying any credit facility for business purpose from any Bank/FIs.
55. There should not be any cheque return due to insufficient fund in last 06 months
56. There should not be more than three cheque returns in last 06 month due to any reason other than insufficient fund.
57. Adhoc credit facility on clean basis can be sanctioned upto _____ of the sanctioned facility or delegated limit / sub
limit of the permitting authority for sanction of Clean facility Whichever is less. – 10 percent
58. Temporary over limit is a short duration facility to meet certain exigencies and may be permitted________ for a
period not more than ______, within the maximum delegated powers for credit facility. - once in half year, 30 days
59. Working Capital Limits (OCC/OD) upto ______ opened under MSME Product Codes only are eligible for Canara MSME
Credit Card. - Rs 50 lakhs
60. Rupay Select Card Variant to be issued for working capital limits (OCC/OD) _______- Canara MSMECredit Card
scheme. - upto Rs 10 lakhs
61. Secured adhoc credit facility can be granted upto _____ of the sanctioned facility or delegated limit /sub limit of the
permitting authority for corresponding secured facility Whichever is less. – 20 percent
62. Which of The following features/statement is not correct for Canara MSME Credit Card (CMCC)”? - Contactless
Transactions is not permitted
63. Assessment for online Shishu Mudra Loans Package is based on __________________ of the last six months (in Savings
/ Current account) subject to maximum stipulated limit. - 4 times of average monthly balance
64. The authorities are empowered to permit Temporary over limit facilities over the sanctioned limits to existing
borrower’s up to _____ of the sanctioned limit. – 10 percent
65. Exposure under “Weaver’s Mudra” scheme by way of both Working Capital and Term Loan should notexceed,
______entity in case of individual Handloom Weaver/Handloom entrepreneur/SHG/JLG. Rs. 2 lakh per borrower
66. Exposure under “Weaver’s Mudra” scheme by way of both Working Capital and Term Loan should notexceed, _______
entity in case of Handloom Organizations / Handloom producer companies/ SPV orconsortia promoted by Handloom
weavers in mega cluster/ Handloom parks, etc. Rs. 10 lakh per borrower
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 68 | P a g e
67. The loans extended to the eligible handloom organizations under “Weaver’s Mudra” scheme areguaranteed by the
CGTMSE/ CGFMU.Credit guarantee coveres loan amount disbursed upto ______ for aperiod of _____. Rs 10 lakhs, 3
years
68. For NBFC borrower with aggregate exposure > Rs.2 Crores, NBFC module of Canara Internal RatingModel (CIRM) model
is used for NBFC borrower with aggregate exposure ______. above Rs 2.00 Crore
69. Under “Weaver’s Mudra” scheme, the difference between the actual interest charged by the Bankand ____ p.a. for a
period of _____ is available to eligible handloom organizations. 6 percent , 3 years
70. What is the upper ceiling of margin money assistance, Government of India has put on whilefinancing to Handloom
organization under “Weaver’s Mudra scheme”? Rs 20 lakhs per borrower entity
71. What should be the minimum age of beneficiary under PM Vishwakarma Scheme’? 18 years on the date of registration
72. Which one is not the feature of ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’? Scheme is initially implemented for seven years
73. Under tranche-1, loan upto _____ can be granted under PM Vishwarkarma scheme. Rs 1 lakh
74. The beneficiary should have undergone Skill Verification and successfully completed ______ Basic Skill training to be
eligible to avail first tranche of credit support of upto _______ under the PMVishwarkarma Scheme. 5 days, Rs 1 lakh
75. Gross rate of interest for loan granted under PM Vishwarkarma Scheme is ______ p.a. 13 percent
76. Which one is not the feature of ‘PM Vishwakarma Scheme’? Scheme is initially implemented for seven years
77. Interest subvention from the Government towards loan granted under PM Vishwarkarma Scheme is______ p.a. 8
percent
78. Canara MSME Textile Scheme, Project Appraisal/TEV Study for Term loans upto ____ is waived. Rs 10 Crores
79. What is the Project Appraisal charges for Term loans under Canara MSME Textile Scheme above thelimit till it is
waived? Flat Rs.1 lakh
80. What is the maximum loan quantum for solar projects under the Canara MSME Textile Scheme withrelaxation in
Security comfort? Rs 25 Crores
81. In case of loans under Canara MSME Textile Scheme permitted under Standalone basis for SolarProject, a minimum
security comfort of ____ by way of Land and Building and/or Approved Securitiesis to be obtained. 75percent
82. Skill Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _____ without any collateral security/third party guaranteeare eligible for
coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development Loan. Rs 1.50 lakhs
83. Under “Tamil Nadu Credit Guarantee Scheme” for MSEs (Manufacturing Units), maximum extentof Guarantee
Coverage of the amount in default for each credit facility, is subject to a ceiling of_____ of the crystalized portfolio.
10percent
84. Under Canara Budget - Delight scheme ( with salary tie up only ) , who is the Sanctioning Authority for the quantum
of above Rs. 20.00 Lacs and having moderate risk rating (CRG-3 ) ? CGM-HO-CAC & Above
85. As per the extant guideline what is the maximum Loan Quantum for individual handloom Weaver/ Handloom
entrepreneur /SHG/JLG under the "Weaver's Mudra " Scheme ? Rs. 200000/-
86. Turnover method for assessing the Working Capital of MSME (Mfg& Services ) applicable to whatamount of maximum
limit ? Upto 5 Cr
87. What is the margin for term loan under "Canara MSME INN"? 20% of the hard cost of the project cost
88. What is the Maximum quantum of finance under"Canara MSME Leather" Scheme for Traders? 10.00 Crores
89. From the following which is not the features of "Canara MSME Credit Card"?
90. Linking Rupay Credit Card on UPI Platform for Merchant Payments Ans - C
a. Contactless Transactions b. Utility Bill Payment with Auto pay Service c. Validity of Card – 3 years
d.Reward Points as applicable
91. What is the prepayment penalty shall be collected for pre closure/takeover of MSME term loans? 2% on the Prepaid
amount
92. What is the total repayment period including moratorium for the facility GECL 4.0 ? 5 years
93. What is the tenure of loans sanctioned in form of term loan under Online Shishu Mudra LoanScheme? 12 to 36 Months
94. How much CAC of board can permit temporary over line limit under delegation of powers? Rs.1000 Lakhs
95. Under Canara Budget loan, What is the maximum quantum of loan can be sanctioned by DGM-CO-CAC? 15 Months
gross salary subject to maximum Rs 9.00 Lakh
96. Under Canara Site, Inspection of property should be conducted once in _______ and inspectionreport to be kept with
loan papers? 6 Months
97. Under Canara MSME star revised scheme guidelines, Stock audit for low & normal risk rated accounts is waviedupto
_________? Rs.5 Crores
98. Under revised guidelines of Weaver's Mudra Scheme, What is the maximum amount of loan can be sanctioned to
Individual (Per borrower entity) in case of Handloom Organizations Handloom producer companies/ SPV or consortia
promoted by Handloom weavers in mega cluster/ Handloom parks? Rs.10 Lakhs
99. Under revised guidelines of Weaver's Mudra Scheme, In case of Term loan sanctioned, What is the maxmium
repayment period is allowed with inclusive of initial moritorium period? 36 Months
100. Under revised guidelines of Weaver's Mudra Scheme, How many years the Guarantee fee will be borne by
Government? 3 Years
101. Under revised guidelines of Weaver's Mudra Scheme, What is the minimum borrower margin for Working
Capital/Term Loan facilities? 20 percent
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 69 | P a g e
102. What is the maximum quantum of loan can be sanctioned under PM Vishwakarma scheme as First Tranche?
Upto 1 Lakh
103. Under PM Vishwakarma Scheme, What is the maximum repayment period for the First Tranche loan? 18 Months
104. Under PM Vishwakarma loan Scheme, The selected beneficiary should have undergone skill verification &
successfully completed training for _____ days. 7
105. To avail PM Vishwakarma loan Scheme, The beneficiary should be engaged in the trades concerned on the date of
registration and should not have availed loans in the past ________ under similar credit-based schemes of Central
Government or State Government for self employment/ business development, e.g. PMEGP, PM SVANidhi, Mudra.
However PM SVANidhi& Mudra loans are excluded. 5 Years
106. As a relief measure in Manipur state, working capital account can be restructured and converted intoFunded
Interest Term Loan. The FITL account(s) shall have a repayment period of _______ including amoratorium period of
_______. 24 months, 12 months
107. BRUPY 2022 for Micro and Small Enterprises is applicable for which state? Rajasthan
108. RBI has boarded the TReds Platform to facilitate invoice discounting facility for ………………………….Borrower?-MSME
109. Waiver of legal action under CGTMSE cases has been increased to? Ans. Rs. 10,00,000/-
110. KVIC has recently decided to consider PMEGP units engaged in activities of „Animal Husbandry‟ under the
„services sector‟ with the maximum project cost eligible for subsidy under the scheme shall be limited to _____- Ans.
Rs. 20 lakh for 1st Loan only
111. What is the maximum cap on interest rate stipulated on credit facilities extended by NBFCs to MSEs under
CGTMSE scheme ?- 25%
112. The name of new scheme launched by Government of India with a financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore to support
of traditional skills by artisans and crafts people located in rural and urban areas? Ans. PM Vishwakarma
113. Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be offered with credit facility upto Rs.1 lakh
(First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of ______ Ans.. 5% p.a.
114. Number of traditional trades covered under PM Vishwakarma scheme is? Ans. 18
115. In terms of the recommendations of the Prime Minister's Task Force on MSMEs, banks have been advised to
achieve a ____ year-on-year growth in credit to micro and small enterprises, a _____ annual growth in the number of
micro enterprise accounts and ____ of total lending to MSE sector as on preceding March 31st to Micro enterprises:
20%,10%,60%.
116. Bank has also introduced a system of internally classifying ‘Potential Stress Accounts (PSA)’ based on Early Stress
signals in MSME borrowal /loan accounts of more than: Rs.10 lac
117. The amount of guarantee cover under CEGSSC (Credit guarantee Scheme for Scheduled Caste) ranges from
Rs.0.15 crore to a maximum of: Rs.5.00 crore
118. Medium enterprises definition: Investment in Plant and Machinery or equipment does not exceed Rs. 50 crore and
Turnover does not exceed Rs. 250 crore.
119. MSME Trade bill discounting routed through platform known as: Trade Receivables electronic Discounting System
(TReDS). Currently, India has three operational TReDS platforms namely (i) RXIL (ii) M1Xchange and (iii) InvoiceMart.
120. Civil aviation sector credit under which emergency credit facility: Emergency Line Guarantee Scheme 3.0 (ECLGS
3.0)
121. In terms of the recommendations of the Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs, banks have been advised to
achieve a ____ per cent year-on-year growth in credit to micro and small enterprises, a ____ per cent annual growth
in the number of micro enterprise accounts and ____ per cent of total lending to MSE sector as on preceding March
31st to Micro enterprises: 20 ; 10 ; 60
122. As per the recommendations of the Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs the target to Banks for lending to
MSMEs is: 20 per cent year-on-year growth in credit to micro and small enterprises, 10 per cent annual growth in the
number of micro enterprise accounts and 60 per cent of total lending to MSE sector as on corresponding quarter of
the previous year to Micro enterprises.
123. What are the charges to be collected from customers for generation of CMR (CIBIL MSME Rank) (cir 18/2023) Ans:
Rs. 1000/-plus Applicable taxes (Present CIR charges Rs. 500/-+Additional Charge for CMR Rs.500/-)
124. What is the loan quantum under Canara Mahila Vikas scheme and collateral comfort for Moderate Risk Rated
accounts (Cir 56/2023) Ans: Rs.5 crore. Min 75% collateral comfort for MR rated accounts
125. Under Canara MSME Star, loan upto Rs.30 cr for Manufacturing and upto Rs.15 cr for service sector on the
security of Land & Building located in in Metro, Urban and Semi Urban areas is considered. What is the permissible
level of TOL:TNW under this scheme (Cir 57/2023) Ans: 5:1 for Mfg and 7:1 for services/Trading activities.
126. Canara MSME Smart Professional loan scheme is for professionals with minimum, 2 years experience. Out of total
permissible loan of Rs.5 crores, what is the permissible loan quantum for furnishing of office premises / Equipment
purchase. (Cir 58/2023) Ans: 20% of the eligible loan quantum subject a maximum of Rs.100 lakhs
127. In respect of Canara MSME Smart professional loan which is sanctioned for purchase of site /land and
construction of office premises, value of land shall not exceed _____ % of the total project cost. (Cir 58/2023) Ans:
40%

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 70 | P a g e

128. Canara MSME Vahan scheme is for purchase of LCV/MCV/HCV to MSME borrowers. What is the prescribed margin
for purchase of New Electric Vehicle and Second hand fuel based vehicle (Cir 59/23) Ans: 25% for new, 50% for used
fuel based vehicle
129. Respective Sanctioning Authority within their delegated powers can sanction proposals under CGTMSE coverage
in respect of branch power accounts, provided minimum collateral comfort of _____ % is available.(cir 61/23) Ans:
For Loans Above 10 lacs, minimum security of 50%
130. Under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Start-ups (CGSS), loans upto Rs.10 cr are considered for Start Up MSMEs.
What is the Guarantee coverage of NCGTC Ltd for these loans (Cir 76/2023) Ans: 80% for loans upto Rs.3 cr, 75%
above 3cr to 5cr and 65% for loans above Rs.5 crore
131. Threshold for waiver of legal action while invoking guarantee under CGTMSE has been increased to Rs.
10,00,000/- per claim. For this claim, waiver of legal action should be permitted by _____ Ans: 77/2023) Ans: AGM
and above authorities
132. For Loans to Agniveers, what is the coverage of CGTMSE. Ans: 80% coverage for loan upto Rs.50 lakhs and 75%
coverage for loans above Rs.50 lakhs upto Rs.5 crore.
133. What is the rate of Annual Guarantee fee payable under CGTMSE scheme for loans above Rs.2 crore upto Rs.5
crore. Ans: 1.35 per cent (base amount) (discount or premium on base amount depending on eligibility of
borrower/Bank)
134. What is the maximum quantum of Term Loan permissible under Margin Money Loan Scheme of “National
Minorities Development and Finance Corporation” and borrowers margin. Ans: Rs 4.5 lakh, margin 10% by borrower
(Cir 78/2023)
135. What are the Guidelines for Appropriation of Claim Amount received in respect of MSME Credit Guarantee
Schemes viz; CGTMSE, GECL, CGSSI, CGSSD, LGSCAS, LGSCATSS (Cir 124/2023) Ans: On receipt of 1 st claim from
Guarantee Trust, adjust to Loan account centrally at HO and subsequent recoveries to be remitted to Trust (net of
legal expenses) by debiting same Loan account. 2 nd claim amount – credit to same account where 01 st claim
credited.
136. Under Canara MSME STAR scheme, security comfort should be atleast 100% of loan amount. In any case, primary
(immovables), vacant and industrial land put together shall not be more than _____ of the minimum stipulated
security comfort. Ans: 50% (cir 283/2023)
137. Weavers MUDRA scheme is implemented by which agency (Cir 317/2023) Ans: NHDP (National Handloom
Development Programme), by Ministry of Textiles, GOI.
138. Under Weavers MUDRA scheme, what is the maximum loan amount permissible for Handloom Organization/
Handloom producer companies, Handloom parks, etc (cir 317/2023) Ans: Max. exposure upto Rs. 10,00,000/- per
borrower entity. Margin money assistance @20% of loan amount (margin money @Rs.2.00 lakh for every 100
weaver/worker)
139. Canara GST scheme- loans above Rs.20 crore sanctioned by ______ (cir 534/2023) Ans: ED-CAC and above
authorities
140. Canara MSME Credit Card (CMCC) for MSME Borrowers – Rupay Platinum card issued for WC limits upto Rs._____
and Select card issued for WC limits of ________ (cir 535/2023) Ans: Rs.10 lacs, above Rs.10 lakhs to Rs.50 lakhs
141. What is the maximum cap on working limit in respect of Canara MSME INN (cir 559/2023) : Ans: Rs.5 crore WC
limits with in total permissible loan of Rs.25 crore.
142. As per scheme guidelines of Canara MAME Leather, what is the prescribed minimum collateral comfort in case the
borrower is routing all bank transactions through our Bank account (Ring Fencing) (cir 561/2023) Ans: LR:25%, NR:
50%, MR : 75% (if not Ring Fenced, LR:50%, NR:75% MR: 100% collateral comfort.)
143. For Loans under Canara Start Up scheme, DSRA account is to be maintained for 2 months repayment amount.
This is applicable for Term Loans of more than Rs._____ under the scheme (Cir 564/2023) Ans: Rs.50 lakhs
144. Under PM VISHWAKARMA Scheme, Artisans and Crafts people are granted WCDL. What is the quantum of loan
under this scheme (cir 701/2023) Ans: First Tranche : Rs.1 lakh repayable in 18 months, 2 nd Tranche Rs.2 lakhs
repayable in 30 months
145. What is the rate of interest subvention for PM Vishwakarma Scheme : Ans: Upto 8% by MoMSE (ROI charged is
13%, effecrtive ROI after subvention of 8% is : 5% p.a. net)
146. Loan Scheme for providing Risk Capital Assistance to MSMEs – what is the TNW criteria for sanction of this loan.
Ans: Subject to Sub debt assistance not exceeding 1/3rd of the Post – Project Tangible Net worth of the Enterprise at
the time of sanction
147. What is the maximum quantum of Working Capital loan permissible under Doctor Choice scheme. Ans: 20% of
maximum limit, with maximum amount of Rs.50 lakhs under WC. (with in over all limit of Rs.5 crore under the
scheme)
148. What is the maximum quantum of Loan and Appraisal Charges pertaining to Canara MSME Textile Scheme for
manufacturing units in Textile Sector. Ans: Min.above Rs.10 lacs, maximum Rs.25 crores for Loans under Solar
Projects. Project Appraisal Charges for loan amount above Rs.10 cr: Rs.1 lakh (upto 10 cr not applicable)
149. Under Canara MSME Textile Scheme, minimum collateral comfort is 75%. Leasehold property from Government
agencies/authority wherever the lease is for a long period of 30 years or above, may be accepted as security under

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 71 | P a g e

 the scheme provided there is a clear clause about mortgaging the same to Bank. Further, residual lease period of
the leasehold property shall be a minimum of _____ years. Ans: 5 years
150. Bill discounting facility to Suppliers/ Contractors for supplying materials/services to TTPS (Tuticorin Thermal
Power Station) and Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Corporation (TANGEDCO) and TANTRANSCO (M/S Tamil
Nadu Transmission Corporation Ltd) under MOU with them and the tenor of Bill upto _____ days are discounted. Ans:
300 days. (earlier it was 240 days)
151. To encourage Leather Industry, Bank has introduced Area Specific Schemes “Canara MSME Leather” and “Canara
MSME Footwear- Non Leather” schemes, with minimum loan amount of above Rs.10 lacs and maximum Rs.50 crores.
What is the maximum Working Capital for Traders under these schemes: Asn: For Traders WC max.10 cr only.
152. Under Canara GST scheme, loans above Rs.10 cr to Rs.20 cr are sanctioned by GM/CGM-HO-CAC and more
than Rs.20 crores are sanctioned by____ Ans: ED-CAC and above upto their delegated powers.
153. CGTMSE has extended special benefits to MSEs situated in UT of Jammu and Kashmir & UT of Ladakh, at par with
that extended to MSEs operational in the states of NER (North-Eastern Region) presently. Accordingly, the guarantee
coverage upto Rs. 50 lakh will be charged guarantee fee 10% lower from Standard rate and the extent of guarantee
coverage will be 80% for the guarantee coverage upto Rs. ______ Ans: Loan amount upto Rs.50 lakh. (Above 50 lakhs
to 5cr: 75% coverage)
154. “Credit Guarantee Scheme for Start-ups (CGSS)”administered by M/s NCGTC Ltd., to provide guarantee coverage
against finance extended by our Bank to eligible start-ups recognized by DPIIT. What is the extent of Guarantee
coverage for loans sanctioned to Start Ups. Ans: Maximum cover per borrower is Rs.10 crores. CGSS coverage is 80%
of default for upto Rs.3crore loan amount, 75% for loans above 3cr upto Rs.5 cr and 65% above 5cr to 10 cr loan
amount.
155. What is the maximum loan amount under “financing units engaged in growing / growing & manufacturing of Lab
grown diamonds” scheme: Ans: For corporates Rs.250 cr single & Rs.500 cr for group companies. Non Corporates
Rs.50 cr single and Rs.100 cr for group concerns.
156. To be eligible under Canara GST scheme, for new customers minimum 6 months GST returns are to be verified
and minimum _____ % of turnover reflected in GST return should have been routed through the Bank account. Ans:
75%.
157. What is the method of fixing Working Capital Limits in Canara GST scheme: Ans: 25% of annual turnover
reflected in GST returns is fixed as Working Capital Limit. (if 12monhts GST returns not available, then total of
6months returns multiplied by 2 will be annual turnover)
158. Under Canara GST scheme, Collateral Security value shall be minimum 75% of the loan amount. Circle Head CAC
and above authorities have been empowered to sanction loans under the scheme to manufacturing units (only) with
collateral security comfort of _____ Ans: 50% to < 75%.
159. To assist units in Hotel Industry, bank has launched Area Specific Scheme “Canara MSME INN” with overall limit
upto Rs.25 crores (Rs.5cr ceiling for working capital). What is the security for this loan. Ans: Minimum 25%
collateral comfort. Primary + collateral security should be not less than 100% of the loan amount. Minimum 50% of
collateral security shall be way of Residential/Commercial Property/ approved securities.
160. Exposures under “Canara MSME STAR”upto Rs. 25 Crores shall be rated internally and above Rs. 25 crores shall be
rated externally. Additional interest of 0.25% in respect of externally unrated exposures above Rs 25.00 Crores to Rs
100.00 Crores and _____for externally unrated exposures above Rs 100.00 Crores to be charged. Ans: 0.50% (same
is general guideline for all MSME advances)
161. Under Canara Smart Professional scheme, Loan Quantum for furnishing of office premises / Equipment purchase
is restricted to 20% of the eligible loan quantum subject a maximum of ______ Ans: Rs.100 lakhs
162. How Term Loan quantum is assessed under Canara Smart Professional Scheme: Ans: 75% of hard cost of the
project (excluding smart costs like interest during construction, preliminary expenses) with ceiling of 5 times net
income (for loans upto Rs.10 lacs)/10 times net income (for loans above Rs.10 lacs) supported by ITAOs.
163. Ministry of MSME, GOI has implemented Udyam Assist Platform (UAP) for formalisation of Informal Micro
Enterprises, those do not have PAN/GSTIN, by generating Online Udyam Assist Certificate and the same is treated
on par with _____ for availing Priority Sector Benefits. Ans: Udyam Registration Certificate.
164. For availing Shishu Mudra Loans upto Rs.50,000/- through Online Platform, the applicant’s CIC score should be
atleast _____ Ans: 700. (other conditions: No cheque returns during past 6 months/not enjoying limits with other
banks or no overdues in existing account/have valid URC. Eligible amount is 4 times of average balance in SB for
previous 6 months)
165. Under Canara MSME Credit Card scheme, what is the daily transaction limit for Platinum/Select Card: Ans: Rs.5
lacs for POS/E-Com transaction and Rs.25,000/- for NFS – Contactless transactions.(each transaction max.5000/- X 5
transactions maximum per day under contactless transactions)
166. While arriving Value of immovable properties (Land/Land and building) taken as collateral securities for various
MSME schemes, if properties are acquired Within 1 year from the date of execution of sale deed; what is the value to
be considered: Ans: Market Value/ Realizable Value/ Distress Sale Value/ Sale Deed value, whichever is lower,
shall be reckoned for calculating the security comfort.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 72 | P a g e

167. Collateral security requirements for financing under Canara MSME Contractors scheme, to contractors/sub-
contractors that have their operative accounts maintained in our Bank and registered with Government agencies for
receiving the payments; minimum Collateral requirements is_____ Ans: min. 50% of loan amount
168. What is the Risk Weight assigned to the credit facilities extended under GECL? - 0%
169. Under GECL 3.0 (Extension), the tenor of facilities provided under GECL shall be __ from the date of first
disbursement. - 6 years
170. Moratorium period of _____ on the principal repayment shall be provided to borrowers for the fund based portion
of GECL credit under GECL 3.0 (Extension).- 2 years
171. Skill Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _____ without any collateral security/third party guarantee are eligible for
coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development Loan. - Rs 1.50 lakhs
172. CIBIL MSME RANK (CMR) should be generated and reckoned, while handling Existing and New MSME loans
________. with aggregate Loan quantum (Present & Proposed) of above Rs.10 lakhs and upto Rs.10 crores
173. What is the applicable charges for generation of CMR? - Rs 1000 + GST
174. The cut off limit for classifying borrowers as non-cooperative would be those borrowers having aggregate fund-
based and non-fund based facilities of ____ from the concerned bank/FI. - Rs 50 million
175. At what frequency Banks/FIs are required to report information on their Non-Cooperative Borrowers to CRILC
under CRILC-Main? - Quarterly
176. CRILC Main report is required to be submitted within ______ from the close of the relevant quarter. - 21 days
177. What is the upper ceiling of permissible loan quantum under the Canara Mahila Vikas Scheme? - Rs 5 c
178. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Minimum Collateral Security requirements under Canara Mahila Viks
Scheme? - Security comfort may comprise of vacant land also to the extent of a maximum of 50% of the stipulated
security comfort (in terms of value)
179. In case of vacant landed properties, Under only ____ of the applicable valuation, shall be reckoned for
calculation of collateral comfort. - 85%
180. Under the ‘Canara Mahila Vikas Scheme, margin of ____ of the hard cost of the project to be maintained while
sanctioning Term Loans and margin for Working Capital should be maintained at a minimum of - 20%, 20%
181. What is the maximum repayment period under the mahila Viks Scheme ? - 84 months
182. Beneficiaries under Canara MSME Smart Professional Scheme should be in the age group of ______. -25-60 years
183. Upper ceiling in terms of permissible loan quantum under the Canara MSME Smart Professional scheme is __ in
Metro Centres, __ in Urban centres and __ in other centres. - Rs 5 Crore ,Rs 2 Crore, Rs 0.50 Crore
184. Where Canara MSME Smart Professional loan is for purchase of site/land and construction of the office premises,
value of the land shall not exceed ____ of the total project cost. - 40%
185. Loan Quantum under Canara MSME Smart Professional Scheme for furnishing of office premises / Equipment
purchase is restricted to ____ of the eligible loan quantum subject a maximum of _____, either the project is
involving only furnishing or construction and furnishing- 20%, Rs 100 lakhs
186. The loan component under Canara MSME Smart Professional Scheme for construction activity should not exceed
____ of the eligible loan component. - 80%
187. What is the upper ceiling for working capital loan under Canara MSME Smart Professional Scheme? - Rs 25
188. Maximum Term loan under Canara MSME Smart Professional loan scheme can be sanctioned upto ___ of the net
annual income as per latest IT returns for Loans above Rs.10.00 Lakh. - 10 times
189. What is the maximum repayment period for the termloan sanctuioned
underCanaraMSMEprofessionalloanscheme?120Months
190. Total securities for reckoning security comfort under the Canara MSME professional loan scheme shall be ____ or
more of the proposed exposure in the form of primary and collateral put together- 75%
191. If rating of the borrower is low________ concession in Upfront fee, Processing Charges, Commission on NFB
limits, Commitment Charges, TEV/Project appraisal charges may be extended to the borrower under Canara MSME
professional loan scheme. - 50%
192. If rating of the borrower is ‘Normal’______concession in Upfront fee, Processing Charges, Commission on NFB
limits, Commitment Charges, TEV/Project appraisal charges may be extended to the borrower under Canara MSME
professional loan scheme. - 25%
193. Under the Canara MSME professional loan scheme, for outright purchase of ready built/existing office premises /
premises under construction in commercial complexes / independent buildings,________ of the collateral security
should cover ___ of the loan amount. - Realizable Value, 40%
194. Cost of accessories can also be considered for finance under MSME Vahan scheme as a part of the total project
cost, not exceeding a maximum of ____ of the cost of the built-up vehicle, or ______ whichever is ______. 10%, Rs
25000,
195. If MSME Vahan, loans above Rs. 10 lakhs is covered by way of 100% collateral securities, in such cases, not more
than ____ security obtained shoule be in the form of vacant land and not less than ____ can be obtained in the form
of commercial/residential properties. - 25%, 50%
196. MSME Vahan loan above _____ shall be permitted by Next higher authority. -Rs 25 lakhs
197. What is the margin for financing used vehicle under MSME Vahan Scheme? - 50% of on road cost
198. What is the margin for financing new vehicle under MSME Vahan Scheme? -25% of on road cost
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 73 | P a g e
199. Replacement cost of upto _ can beconsidered while financing ERickshawunder MSMEVahanloanscheme -2
batteries
200. What is the repayment period for financing brand new electric vehicle under MSME Vahan scheme? -60 months
201. What is the repayment period for financing fuel based brand new vehicle under MSME Vahan scheme?- 84 months
202. What is the repayment period for financing fuel based used vehicle under MSME Vahan scheme ? -36 months
203. What is the maximum permissible Term Loan sub limit under Canara MSME Contractor scheme? -Rs 10 crore
204. Permissible quantum of loan under the Canara MSME Contractor scheme should not exceed ____.-9 times of
Tangible Net worth (TNW)
205. Canara MSME Contractor scheme is permitted with minimum margin requirements of ____ in case of Term Loan
facilities and _____ in case of Working Capital facilities.- 20%, Nil,
206. Margin requirement of Non Fund based limit under Canara MSME Contractor scheme is ____ - 20%
207. What is the maximum permissible repayment period if loan availed under Canara MSME Contractor scheme for
the purpose of construction/construction and purchase of equipments? - 7 years
208. What is the maximum permissible repayment period if loan availed under Canara MSME Contractor scheme for
other than the purpose of construction/construction and purchase of equipments? - 5 years
209. Proposals with aggregate outstanding credit facilities of upto ____ that are internally risk rated up to _____ may
be considered for financing under CGTMSE coverage. - Rs 500 lakhs, Moderate
210. Working capital limit is limited to maximum ____ of the overall credit facilities permitted to the borrower from
the banking industry for growing of lab grown diamond. - 10%
211. What is the maximum exposure per corporate borrower engaged in growing /growing & manufacturing of lab
grown diamonds? - Rs 250 Crores
212. What is the maximum exposure per group corporate borrower engaged in growing / growing & manufacturing of
lab grown diamonds? - Rs 500 Crores
213. What is the maximum exposure per non corporate borrower engaged in growing / growing & manufacturing of lab
grown diamonds? - Rs 50 Crores
214. What is the maximum exposure per non corporate group cencerns borrower engaged in growing / growing &
manufacturing of lab grown diamonds? - Rs 100 Crores
215. What is the maximum amount of guarantee cover under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Start-ups (CGSS)? -Rs 10
crore
216. Which statement is not correct in respect of extent of guarantee coverage under Credit Guarantee Scheme for
Start-ups? - Trust Provides Guarantee cover to the extent of 50 % of the amount in default if the original loan
sanction amount is above Rs. 7 crore.
217. DPIIT recognize any entity as start up if annual turnover the entity for any of the financial years since
incorporation/ registration have not exceeded _. - Rs 100 Crore
218. DPIIT does not recognize any entity as start up if it has completed more than a period of ______ from the date of
its incorporation/ registration. - Ten years
219. MSEs promoted by Persons with Disabled shall be charged CGTMSE guarantee fee _____ lower from Standard rate
and the extent of guarantee coverage will be _____. - 10%, 85%
220. MSEs situated in UT of Jammu and Kashmir & UT of Ladakh, shall be charged CGTMSE guarantee fee ____ lower
from Standard rate and the extent of guarantee coverage will be ____for the guarantee coverage upto _____. 10%,
80%, Rs 50 lakh
221. As per ICT Projects Management Policy, Large project means Project having Project Cost upto _____ and / or
Efforts upto ______. - Rs 5 crores, six months
222. Skill Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _______ without any collateral security/third party guarantee are eligible
for coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development Loan. - Rs 1.50 Lakhs
223. The credit under GECL will rank second charge with the existing credit facilities in terms of cash flows (including
repayments) and securities, with charge on the assets financed under the Scheme to be created within a period of
____ from the date of disbursal or till _____, but in any case prior to the account being classified as NPA. - 3 months,
June 30, 2023
224. Processing and disbursement of fellowship under National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities (NFPwD)
scheme is to be done only through Canara Bank’s SFMP w.e.f 01.04.2023. Here SFMP stands for___- Scholarship
Fellowship Management Portal
225. “Meghalaya Credit Guarantee Scheme(MeCGS), is a Special Credit Guarantee Scheme in the state of Meghalaya,
by CGTMSE and Govt. of Meghalaya,wherein__of the guarantee coverage for a credit facility will be provided by
CGTMSE and Govt.of Meghalaya - 95%
226. Upto what extent of NPA level of crystallized portfolio, claims of the respective MLI under Meghalaya Credit
Guarantee Scheme (MeCGS) can be settled? - 10%
227. Under “Meghalaya Credit Guarantee Scheme(MeCGS) , guarantee coverage is available for credit facilities upto
_____. -Rs 500 lakhs
228. Under ‘West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Credit Card Scheme(WBBCCS)’, Credit Guarantee Coverage upto _____ for
the Credit facility will be provided by CGTMSE and by Government of West Bengal- 100%
229. Upto whatextent of NPAlevel of crystallized portfolio,claims of the respective MLI under ‘West Bengal Bhabishyat
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 74 | P a g e
 Credit Credit Card Scheme(WBBCCS) can be settled - 15%
230. Under West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS) , guarantee coverage is available for credit
facilities upto ______:- Rs 4.75 lakhs
231. What is the maximum quantum of finance under West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS) ? - Rs
4.75 lakhs
232. Which one is incorrect criteria of eligibility under West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS) -
Annual Family Income: Rs 18000 p.a. for rural household and Rs 24000 for urban household
233. Under West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card Scheme (WBBCCS) Government provide subsidy in the form of Margin
Money contribution @____ of the project cost with the ceiling ______. - 10%, Rs 25000
234. What is the maximum repayment period for the term loan granted under West Bengal Bhabishyat Credit Card
Scheme (WBBCCS)? - 7 years inclusive of moratorium upto maximum of 6 months
235. Which of the following is not the objective of Credit Sanction Review Process? - Legal validity of the loan
agreements 287 Which one is incorrect about the credit sanction review process - Applicable for Fund based limits
only
236. Which statement is correct in respect of PM SVANidhi Scheme? 1. Loan granted to provide working capital loans
upto Rs. 50,000/- to all street vendors engaged in vending activities in urban areas. 2. Loan upto Rs 10000 can be
granted under tranche one. 3. Loan Upto Rs. 20,000/- can be granted with minimum Rs. 15,000/- under tranche two
4. Loan Upto Rs. 50,000/- can be granted with minimum Rs. 30,000/- under tranche three 5.Applicable tenor for loan
under tranche one, two and three is 12 months, 24 months and 36 months respectively 6. Udyam Registration
Certificate is not mandatory under the scheme 7.Interest subsidy @ 7% is available upto 31st March 2028 : b. Except
5, all are
237. Which statement is correct in respect of PM SVANidhi Scheme? a.End to End processing through LAPS is enabled,
which is mandatory : a.End to End processing through LAPS is enabled, which is mandatory b.Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs is monitoring the scheme c.API interaction with SIDBI’s Udyami Mitra portal enables d.All the above are
correct
238. Which statement is correct in respect of PM SVANidhi Scheme? a.Automated data flow from SIDBI Udyami Mitra
Portal to pick up application directly from the portal and reverse updation of sanction/rejection/disbursement
details through SAS portal to SIDBI Udyami Mitra b.No manual inputs allowed. Appraisal note, sanction letter and DDE
through LAPS c.UPI ID / QR code generation and linking is mandatory which can be done through SAS portal d.Only a
and b are correct e.All are correct
239. In case any eligible entity is not submitting the data on UFCE to the Bank, an additional interest of ______ over &
above the contracted rate on the total exposure (i.e. Fund based and Non fund based) is to be levied for the
respective quarter. -1.00% p.a.
240. ED CAC can permit concession upto a maximum of _____p.a. in applicable spread on STRLLR for Export Credit,
subject to the ultimate lending rate not falling below STRLLR. - 1.50% e.2.00%
241. Which parameter is not included in Scorecards of manual Model? - Demographics
242. What is the maximum quantum of finance under ‘Canara MSME Inn’ Scheme: - Rs 25 Crore
243. For working capital requirement, a maximum of __ can be sanctioned under ‘Canara MSME Inn’ Scheme - Rs 5 Cr
244. Maximum repayment period under under ‘Canara MSME Inn’ Scheme is up to a maximum of ______ including
moratorium which is ______.- 10 years, 24 months
245. What is the margin requirement for Secured Overdraft and Term Loan under ‘Canara MSME Inn’ Scheme a.
Secured Overdraft -- Secured Overdraft - Nil, Term Loan - 20%
246. Which statement is incorrect in respect of ‘Canara MSME Inn’ Scheme loan scheme? - DP need to be calculated.
247. Claims of the respective MLI will be settled maximum up to ___ NPA level of crystallized portfolio under Assam
Credit Guarantee Scheme(ACGS): -10%
248. What is the overall guarantee coverage under AssamCredit Guarantee Scheme? - 100%
249. In case of traders maximum cap for working capital limit under Canara MSME Leather is _________. Rs 10 Crore
250. What is the maximum quantum of finance under Canara MSME Leather scheme? - Rs 50 Crore
251. Margin requirement for pre shipment export limits is _____ and post shipment export limit is _____ under Canara
MSME Leather scheme.- 10%, Nil
252. In case of Ring Fenced account an additional rate of interest of _____ over and above applicable ROI for first
_______ of availment are charged under Canara MSME Leather Scheme. -- .0.50%, 3 months
253. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Canara MSME Leather Scheme? - In case of normal risk rated account
which is not Ring Fenced, Minimum Collateral comfort requirements under the Scheme is 25% of the collateral
stipulated
254. In case of traders maximum cap for working capital limit under Canara MSME Footwear is _______. -Rs 10 Crore
255. What is the maximum quantum of finance under Canara MSME Footwear scheme? - Rs 50 Crore
256. For fund based working capital finance against Stock _____ margin and for financing against Book Debts ______ is
stipulated under Canara MSME Footwear scheme? -25%,
257. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Canara Footwear Scheme? -Margin requirement under the scheme for
non fund based limit is 20%
258. An entity can be considered as a Start-up upto a period of ______ from the date of incorporation/ registration as
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 75 | P a g e
 private limited company, Partnership firm or LLP. -ten years
259. An entity can be considered as a Start-up,if the turnover of the entity for any of the financial years since
incorporation/ registration has not exceeded Rupees ______ - one hundred crore
260. For fund based working capital finance against Stock _____ margin and for financing against Book Debts ______ is
stipulated under Canara Start Up scheme? -20%, 20%
261. What is the maximum quantum of finance under Canara Start Up scheme? -Rs 10 Crore
262. Maximum repayment period under “canara Start Up” scheme is up to a maximum of ______ including maximum
moratorium upto ______. -10 years, 36 months
263. In case of Canara Start Up scheme where the exposure is up to _______, and the account is internally rated as
______, funded by reputed Private Equity/ Venture Capital investors / Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs),
Sanctioning Authority may waive the collateral requirement – Rs 2 Crores, Low Risk
264. Stock audit is waived up to _____ in case of _____ under Canara Start Up Scheme. a.Rs 1 Crore, Moderate Risk
Rated account b.Rs 2 Crore , Low Risk Rated account -.Rs 5 Crore, Low & Normal Risk account
265. Under Series B financing of Canara Start Up scheme, maximum overdraft facility shall be restricted to ______ and
balance amount shall be made available in the form of short term loan for a period of _______.-Rs 6 Crores, 180 days
266. _____ financing shall be applicable to all the entities wherever “Cash Trap Mechanism” or “Ring Fencing” of cash
flow is achievable under Canara Start Up Scheme. Series C
267. In case the entity is registered under GST, Bank will provide maximum funding at ____ of the GST turnover under
series A financing of Canara Start Up Scheme. -.30%
268. What is the maximum quantum of finance under Canara MSME Pharma scheme? - .Rs 50 Crore
269. In case of traders maximum cap for working capital limit under Canara MSME Pharma is ______. Rs 10 Crore
270. Maximum repayment period under ‘Canara MSME Pharma’ scheme is up to a maximum of ______ including
maximum moratorium upto ______. -10 years, 24 months
271. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Canara MSME Pharma? - Borrowers with SMA1/SMA2 during the last
Year in respect of liabilities(including Credit Card overdues) with our/Other Banks/FIs as per credit bureau report are
not eligible.
272. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Canara MSME Credit Card (CMCC)? -Annual fee for Plantinum card is Rs
1000 and for Select card is Rs 500
273. “Indira Gandhi Urban Credit Card Scheme” is an area specific scheme to provide financial assistance in the form
of interest free micro credit facility upto______ to Urban street vendors belonging to SCs, STs and OBCs. -Rs 50000
274. What is the eligible age group and validity of “Indira Gandhi Urban Credit Card Scheme” -18-60 Years,
31.03.2024
275. Ministry of MSME has set up _________ to redress the grievances of MSEs realted to non-compliance of the
policy.-Champion Portal
276. Which among the following pairs, margin requirement under Canara MSME Star loan scheme is correctly
stipulated? Term loan -20%, Working capital - 20%, NFB 15%
277. Which among the following is incorrect feature of Canara MSME Star Scheme? - 0.50% concession to Women
entrepreneurs to be extended under this scheme.
278. Valuation Report from one panel valuer to be obtained for loans extended under the Canara MSME Star scheme.-
upto Rs 2Cr
279. What is the quantum of finance under Canara MSME Contractor scheme? - Above Rs 25 lakhs
280. Term Loan to the maximum of _______ is permissible under Canara MSME Contractor scheme. -Rs 10 Crores
281. Need based finance on credit assessment or__ whichever is lower/cash flow projected, can be financed under
Canara MSME Contractor scheme. - .9 times of Tangible Net worth (TNW)
282. TOL: TNW can be permitted upto to ____ for manufacturing Units and _____ for Trading Units/Service Units, in
case of Working Capital funding, under Canara MSME Contractor scheme. - 5:1, 7:1
283. No concession in interest rates is permitted if the customer scores _____ as per the scoring matrix under Canara
MSME Contractor scheme. - below 60% marks
284. Which statement is correct regarding repayment period of loan under Canara MSME Contractor scheme?
Tenability for working capital is 12 months
285. What is the maximum repayment period for the term loan granted under Canara Mahila Vikas Scheme? - 84
months including suitable moratorium
286. Loan Quantum under Canara Smart Professional Scheme for furnishing of office premises / equipment purchase is
restricted to _____ of the eligible loan quantum subject a maximum of _______. - 20%, Rs 100 lakhs
287. Working capital requirement maximum of ______ can be financed under Canara Smart Professional Scheme. - Rs
25 lakhs
288. For Term Loan assessment under Canara Smart Professional Scheme, ______ as per latest IT returns for Loans
above Rs.10.00 Lakhs is considered. - 10 times of net annual income
289. For Term Loan assessment under Canara Smart Professional Scheme, _____ as per latest IT returns for Loans up
to Rs.10.00 Lakhs is considered. - 5 times of net annual income
290. Term Loan under Canara Smart Professional Scheme can be repaid up to a maximum of __________ of repayment
holiday and moratorium period based on cash - 10 years inclusive of
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 76 | P a g e
291. Under Canara LRD loan scheme, in respect of rural/semi urban areas, collateral by way of Mortgage of property
leased out should cover ____ of the loan amount besides ensuring Receivables. - 125%
292. Under Canara LRD loan scheme, in respect of metro/urban areas, collateral by way of Mortgage of property
leased out should cover ____ of the loan amount. - 100%
293. What is the basis of arriving at the collateral security coverage in Canara LRD loan scheme? - Distressed sale
value
294. What is the liquidity premium for loans repayable more than 1 year upto 5 years? - 0.40%
295. What is the liquidity premium for loans repayable more than 5 years? - 0.80%
296. Bank compute RAROC for all the Corporate/MSME/Agricultural proposals having aggregate exposure to
counterparty of above _______ from our Bank. - Rs 7.50 Cr
297. Bank has introduced end-to-end digitized sanction and disbursement of Shishu loans under STP Mechanism. Which
among the following criteria for eligibility is incorrect? - Individual/Joint Accounts/Proprietorship only not eligible
under this process
298. Assessment for online Shishu Mudra Loans Package is based on ___ of the last six months (in Savings/Current
account) subject to maximum stipulated limit. - 4 times of average monthly balance
299. Working Capital Limits (OCC/OD) upto ______ opened under MSME Product Codes only are eligible for Canara
MSME Credit Card. - Rs 50 lakhs
300. Rupay Select Card Variant to be issued for working capital limits (OCC/OD) ____- Canara MSME Credit Card
scheme. above Rs 10 lakhs
301. Skill Loans sanctioned up to a limit of__without any collateral security/third party guarantee are eligible for
coverage under__ - Rs 1.50 lakhs, CGFSSD
302. What is the threshold limit for applicability of CIRM hybrid model w.e.f.01.04.2023? - Rs 7.5 Crore
303. NBFC module of Canara Internal Rating Model (CIRM) model is used for NBFC borrower with aggregate exposure…:
- above Rs 2.00 Crore
304. BRUPY 2022 for Micro and Small Enterprises is applicable for which state? - Rajasthan
305. What is the Extent of Guarantee Coverage to SC/ST entrepreneurs under Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Rajasthan Dalit,
Adivasi, Udyam Protsahan Yojna- 85%
306. Default Loss Guarantee in Digital Lending can be invoked within a maximum overdue period of ----120 days
307. As a relief measure in Manipur state, working capital account can be restructured and converted into Funded
Interest Term Loan. The FITL account(s) shall have a repayment period of _____ including a moratorium period of -
24 months, 12 months

10.RETAIL LENDING
1. Special Package Under Retail Lending Scheme to HEFA (Higher Education Financing Agency) - Respective Branches
can sanction higher quantum of loan up to 25 months’ gross salary subject to a maximum of _____Lakh under Canara
Budget Scheme with Risk gradation up to “Moderate Risk (CRG-3)”. Ans: Rs. 20.00 lakh
2. Under Canara Mortgage scheme, loan to the extent of 50% of the value of security (open plots/land not acceptable)
with maximum Rs.7.50 cr is permissible. What is the eligibility norm for salaried and non salaried people: Ans:
LR/NR : Salaried 96 times last drawn salary. Non salaried :8 times cash accruals of previous 3 years average as per
ITRs. For MR: 84months/7years respectively.
3. Scale III Officers posted at RAHs are delegated to sanction Canara Vehicle Loans-Four Wheeler, upto Rs.____ Ans:
Rs.30 lakhs
4. For eligibility of Housing Loan, salaried individual with 2 years aggregated regular and continuous service ( can be
reduced to 1 year by RO Head CAC and above) with a minimum completed service of _______in the current
organization/company. Ans: 6 months
5. In respect of High Risk (CRG-4) proposals of Housing Loans, Respective SA can sanction subject to applicant’s CIC
score of minimum _____ and income criteria of _____ Ans: 600, Rs.1 lakh per month/12 lakhs per annum
6. What are the revised collateral security norms for granting KCC loans of more than Rs.1.60 lakhs, on Leased Lands:
Ans: Mortgage of Land & Building/Commercial property to the extent of 125% of the loan amount. Value of Vacant
land not more than 50% of collateral security.
7. Under Canara Vehicle Loans for 4 wheelers to Non Salaried Class, they should have a minimum gross annual income
(Cash accruals) of Rs.3.00 lakh p.a. as per latest ITR/ITAO subject to 3 years Gross Average Annual Income of not less
than Rs._______ Ans: Rs.2.50 lakh.
8. Under Canara Retail Grade Model, What is the Risk Grade and Risk Description for Scoring Bank of >70 and upto 80:
Ans: CRG-2 : Normal Risk.
9. Canara Budget-Prime Scheme is meant for confirmed employees of: Central Government/State Government /
Personnel from Defence and Paramilitary Forces / PSUs & Autonomous Bodies of Central & State Govt.with minimum
service of 1 year. What is the maximum quantum of loan for Branch Head: Ans: 25 months gross salary with max
Rs.20 lakhs and CRG upto Moderate Risk-CRG3.
10. What is the minimum Take Home Salary for eligibility under Canara Budget-Prime: Ans: 25% with min. Rs.10,000/-
after meeting proposed loan instalment.
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 77 | P a g e
11. Canara Budget Delight scheme is for employees of Reputed Corporates, IT/BT etc., with Salary Tie-Up only. What is
the quantum of Loan that can be sanctioned by RO Head –CAC: Ans: 25 months gross salary with maximum Rs.25
lakhs and Risk Grade upto High Risk (CRG4)
12. Waiver of Salary credit /mandate in respect of Canara Vehicle and Housing loans may be permitted by _________ in
respect of proposals falling upto their powers. Ans: DM/AGM RAH or DM/AGM-RO-CAC or DM/AGM -CO-CAC
13. Branches having NPA levels of more than _____ under any Retail Lending Schemes have NO powers to sanction the
loans under these schemes. The above proposals have to be sanctioned by RO HEAD CAC and above. Ans: 5% (Branch
mapped to RAHs-RAH also no powers if branch NPA is more than 5% under RL)
14. As per IBA guidelines insurance premium can be part of Education loan project cost. Insurance to be covered up to
_____ of loan amount sanctioned without any upper cap. Ans: 120%
15. Eligible Retail Lending loans from Co- operative Banks may be permitted for takeover by ________subject to
eligibility in terms of Credit history and Credit scores. Ans: Circle Head CAC
16. Where value of property is Rs.______ and above 2 LSRs are to be obtained and certified copy of latest sale deed
should accompany both LSRs. Ans: Rs 5 Cr
17. 6. As per Retail Lending Policy of the Bank, Housing Loan applications upto Rs.25 lakh loan, are to be disposed off
with in a maximum period of _____ days. Ans: Br/RAH: 21 days ; CO:30 days, HO sanction: 6 to 8 weeks. Above
25 lacs: 30d/45d/8-9weeks respectively)
18. Under Housing cum Solar scheme, The maximum Benchmark cost of installation of Solar Component shall be Rs.1.20
lakh Per ONE KW and maximum capacity shall be 10 KW with total project cost of Rs.12 lakhs with storage battery
and Rs._____ lakhs without storage battery. Ans: Rs. 10.00 lakhs
19. Housing Loans sanctioned for 3rd unit and above are considered under HL-Non Priority- Commercial Real Estate and
attract _____ % interest above card rate applicable to all HL variants. Ans: 0.5%
20. For considering Housing Loans to Agriculturists, what is the land criteria. Ans: cultivation more than 5 acres
irrigation land/10 acres dry land in their own names.
21. In respect of Housing Loans, wherever the Project Cost exceeds Rs.10 lakhs, what are all the items not to be included
in the Project cost. Ans: Stamp Duty, Registration & Documentation charges (not realizable in nature)
22. The House/ flat of above 40 years shall be permitted by _______up to their delegated powers. However, the residual
life of the property must be 10 years more than the repayment end date in all the cases. Ans: CO- HEAD-CAC &
above authorities
23. In case of Mortgage of Leasehold Property, Lease hold right with a minimum unexpired period of not less than ____
years to be accepted for sanction of Housing loan. Ans: 90 years
24. Maximum Repayment Holiday of ____ months can be permitted in respect of flats under construction where tripartite
agreement has been executed for completion of flats. Ans: 36 months
25. Under Canara Vehicle Loan scheme, old 4 wheelers upto age of 3 years will be financed. What is the margin
requirement for old 4 wheeler loan: Ans: Upto 15 lakhs: 40% above Rs.15 lakhs to Rs.50 lacs: 50%
26. Wherever Colleges are allowing admissions on the basis of CET, GRE, G-MAT, CAT, etc., admission to the College shall
be the criteria for considering educational loan. Wherever student is directly getting admission to the College
without undergoing any selection process, then educational loan can be considered with adherence to the cut off
points. What are the cut off points : Ans: General merit students - 60%;
27. Branches attached to RAHs have powers for sanctioning Education Loan up to Rs. ______ only. Beyond this, RAH
sanction. Ans: Rs.7.50 lakhs.
28. In tune with the Damodaran Committee Recommendations related to Education Loans, the Board has approved the
policy that minimum ____ % of the loan accounts sanctioned should be to the students coming from the rural areas.
Ans: 30%
29. For ELs, 0.50% concession in interest rate shall be allowed where interest is serviced during the study period itself. If
in an account the default in servicing interest occurs for more than ____ occasions (either consecutively or at
different points of time) during the entire period of initial moratorium / repayment holiday, then, the concession in
ROI of 0.50 % allowed shall be withdrawn. Ans: 3
30. National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NMDFC) Refinance Educational Scheme for the benefit of
Minority students pursuing higher studies in Inland & Abroad. What is the income criteria for eligibility under this
scheme: Ans: Annual Family Income in Urban areas & Semi Urban areas Rs.1.20 lakhs, and Rs.98,000/- in
Rural Areas for Credit line 1. For Credit Line 2, creamy layer income of OBC ie. Rs.8.00 lakhs.
31. What is the quantum of Education Loan for Minority students under NMDFC refinance scheme: Ans: Upto Rs.20 lacs
for Inland studies; upto Rs.30 lacs for studies Abroad.
32. Review of Long Term Retail Loans - All Retail mortgage based loans with present exposure above Rs. 100.00 lakhs &
all Education loans backed by mortgage with present exposure above Rs.50.00 lakhs shall be reviewed within _____
from the date of first disbursement for the first time. Ans: 2 years
33. What are the review charges for Long Term Retail loan amount above Rs.5.00 Cr : Ans: Rs.100/- per lakh with a
minimum of Rs.10000/- and maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs (upto Rs.5 cr: Nil.)
34. For Housing Loans sanctioned on or after 01.04.2023, Loan amount upto Rs 30 Lakh and the LTV Ratio less than and
equal to 80 percent; the risk weight shall be _____ % and the standard asset provisioning shall be 0.25 %. Ans:35%

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 78 | P a g e

35. Central Sector Interest Subsidy Scheme (CSIS) On Education Loans Implemented by Ministry of Education, Govt. Of
India – For EL s sanctioned after 01.04.2022, interest subvention is provided upto loan amount of Rs.____ Ans:
Rs.10 lakhs (earlier it was 7.5 lacs)
36. CGTMSE coverage for women entrepreneurs/ MSEs situated in aspirational districts / ZED Certified MSEs/ SC/ST
Entrepreneurs and PwD (Person with disability) entrepreneurs for credit facilities’ upto Rs 500 Lacs ,
the maximum extent of guarantee is _____ Ans: 85 %
37. What is the guarantee fee of CGTMSE For credit facilities in the slab Loan amount-Rs.100-200 lacs . Ans: The fees
is 1.20 %
38. The life tax of the vehicle, registration charges, insurance premium and other accessories upto max. Limit of Rs.
5000/- in case of two wheelers and Rs_______in case of Four wheelers, shall be reckoned to determine the quantum
of loan in respect of two-wheeler loans and car loan scheme to officers & workmen employees of the Bank. Ans: Rs
25000/-
39. In case of Retail Lending Loans above Rs.1 crore (HL,Canara Site, Vehicle loan etc), ED – CAC can permit concession
upto 25bps (0.25%) for CRG-Prime & CRG-1 customers. In case of CRG-2 customers, what is the concession: Ans:
50bps (0.5%) from prevailing applicable ROI for respective CRG. 75bps(Concession of 0.75% for Canara Budget Loans
under Package)
40. Canara LRD scheme – what is the collateral comfort: Ans: Leased Property atleast 100% of the loan amount in
Metro/Urban areas. Rural/Semi-urban: 125% of loan amount. (distress sale value )
41. Tie Up with reputed builders of Metro and Urban Centers for Housing Loan Leads - Builders will be paid commission
basing on Business sourced during one Month ie. HL up to Rs. 3 Crore – 0.55%; Rs. 3 to Rs 5 Crore- 0.60%; Above
Rs. 5 Crore – 0.65%. What is the Minimum Ticket size of Proposal for considering commission: Ans: Rs.25 lakhs
42. While sanctioning Housing Loans, Branches/Offices can include the cost of furnishing (by way of fixed furnishing,
immovable attachments/ enhancements) in the total project cost and loan component shall be maximum up to 25%
of the housing loan or ______lakh whichever is lower , under Housing Loan component II, subject to complying the
following: a) Minimum Gross Income of the applicant/s shall be Rs.12.00 lakh p.a. b) The total project cost of the
House shall be Rs.100 lacs (excluding Component-II) and above. Ans: Rs.50 lakhs
43. Exclusive Proposals for Concession in ROI or concession/waiver of Processing charges, Upfront fee, BG commission etc
which falls under HO Powers (otherwise loan sanction falls under Powers of Circle Head CAC) may be placed to GM-
HO-CAC or ED-CAC directly by Concerned User Wing’s GM. In case of LCB/ MCB / MSME Sulabh/ Agriculture Credit
Centre (ACC)/ RAH , they may send directly to the concerned Wing at HO with a copy to respective Circle Office. CO
will submit Front Sheet with their observations/recommendations to HO with in _____ days. Ans: 2 days
44. Maximum Quantum of Canara Mortgage Loan is Rs.7.5cr with ceiling of 96 months gross salary/8 times cash accruals
for Low/Normal CRG grade and 84 months gross salary/7 times cash accruals for Medium/High CRG grade. What
is the minimum NTH norm: Ans: 35% or Rs.30,000/- whichever is higher after meeting the existing and proposed EMIs
(for Low/Normal CRG) & 30% or Rs.25,000/- for Medium/High CRG.
45. Maximum quantum of Loan under Canara Budget Prime (for Govt employees) is 25 months gross salary with maximum
Rs.30 lakhs and for Canara Budget Delight (private sector employees) is ____ Ans: 25months gross salary with
maximum Rs.20 lakhs
46. National Minority Development & Finance Corporation(NMDFC) Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of
minority students pursuing higher studies Inland and Abroad. What is the maximum quantum of Loan under this
scheme: Ans: For Inland Studies Rs.20 lacs and for Abroad studies Rs.30 lacs (for duration of 5 years professional/
job oriented courses.)
47. In case of Inland Studies, wherever student is directly getting admission to the College without undergoing any
selection process, then educational loan can be considered if the Student has scored minimum 60% marks in the
previous qualifying examination in case of candidates belonging to General category and _____ % in case of girl
students and students from SC/ ST communities Ans: 50%
48. Approval of Builder’s Projects for Housing Loan Portfolio by RO in case of RERA approved projects and by CO for Non
RERA projects. In case, number of Housing units financed in a particular project exceeds _____% of the total units,
prior clearance shall be obtained from GM/CGM-HO-CAC for further lending under the said project. Ans: 25%
49. Takeover of Retail Loans from NBFCs/HFCs (irrespective of the rating by ECAI) for Salaried Class, who is Sanctioning
Authority: Ans: Minimum qualifying Risk Grade is up to CS:2 (Low / Normal Risk) to be permitted by RAH Head
and above authorities. Risk Grade with CS:3 (Moderate Risk) to be permitted by : RO Head CAC and above authorities
50. What are the time norms for disposal of Housing Loans upto Rs.25 lakh: Ans: Br/RAH: 21 days, CO: 30 days, HO: 6 to
8 weeks. (above 25 lakhs: 30d/45d/8-9weeks)
51. In case of composite Housing loans, utilization of loan amount for purchase of plot is restricted to ____ % of loan
Ans: 60%
52. Under Vidya Turant Scheme, concessional interest is permitted at RLLR - 0.65%. This concession is applicable only
during the course period ie 2 years for management studies, 4 years for Engineering studies and ____ years for
Medical Studies. Ans: 5years 6 monhts
53. Concessions on Housing Loan interest rates are permissible by HO authorities for HLs of above Rs.1 crore. This
concessional interest is applicable for a period of ____ years from the date of extending concession. Ans: 3 years.

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 79 | P a g e

54. In order to augument Canara Vehicle 4-Wheeler Loans (all variants) under M/s Maruti Suzuki Smart Finance (MSSF)
portal, _____% platform service fees shall be paid to M/s Maruti Suzuki India Limited (MSIL) on the disbursed amount
of all Canara Vehicle (4-Wheelers) loans routed through MSSF portal till validity of MoU i.e 20.03.2025. Ans: 0.05%
55. Bank has entered into tie-up arrangements with reputed Builders in Metropolitan/Urban Centers for sourcing Housing
Loan leads/business. Commission/Service Charges payable to Builders is 0.55% on HL upto Rs.3 cr; 0.60% for HL 3 to
5cr and 0.65% for HL above Rs.5cr sanctioned amount. For Payment of commission to builder, minimum ticket size of
loan proposal should be Rs._____ and after disbursement of minimum 10% of HL amount. Ans: Rs 25 lakhs
56. Under Tie-up arrangements with reputed Builders in Metropolitan/Urban Centres for sourcing Housing Loan
leads/business, what is the minimum ticket size of the Housing Loan for paying commission to builder: (Cir
766/2023). Ans: Rs.25 lakhs (commission for HL sanctioned upto Rs.3 cr: 0.55%, 3 to 5 cr: 0.60%, above 5 cr: 0.65% )
57. All Education Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _ without any collateral security/third party guarantee are eligible for
coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loan (CGFSEL). - Rs 7.50 lakhs
58. What additional rate of interest is applicable for 3rd housing unit financed under Housing Loan NP-CRE? -0.25%
59. What is the maximum Loan amount per beneficiary for ‘Professional & Job Oriented Courses’ in India under NMDFC
Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students?- .Rs 20 lakhs
60. What is the maximum Loan amount per benefiaciary for ‘Professional & Job Oriented Courses for courses abroad
under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students?- .Rs 30 lakhs
61. Under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme under credit line -1, for the benefit of minority students
Concessional Credit is available for beneficiaries with annual family income of __ in Urban areas and Semi Urban
areas & __ in Rural areas- 1.2 lakhs, Rs 98000
62. Under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students, Concessional credit is provided
to the section of Minority population, defined on the basis of “Creamy Layer” criterion of OBC, i.e. with household
income of _______ p.a. -8 lakhs
63. What is the maximum duration of course period under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of
minority students? - 5 years
64. What is the rate of interest for Credit lIne 1 under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of
minority students? - 3%
65. What is the rate of interest for Credit lIne 2 under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of
minority students? - 8% for male and 5 % for female
66. All loans upto _____ to be covered under CGFSEL Scheme and premium of ____ will be borne by the bank under
NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students? - .Rs 1.00 lakh, 0.50%
67. What is maximum repayment period for the loan granted under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the
benefit of minority students? - years excluding moratorium period
68. Foreign courses should not exceed ____ of total loans financed by our bank in a financial year under NMDFC
Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students. - 30%
69. Under NMDFC Refinance education loan scheme for the benefit of minority students, repayment to NMDFC by the
bank will be made in quarterly installment over a period of ______ after ___ of the utilization of loan- 8 years, 4
years
70. All Education Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _______ without any collateral security/third party guarantee are
eligible for coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loan (CGFSEL) -Rs 7.50 Lakhs
71. What is income criteria as on 01.04.2021 for OBC candidates under Dr.Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest
Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC): - Rs 8 lakh per annum
72. What is income criteria as on 01.04.2021 for EBC candidates under Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest
Subsidy on Education Loans (ACSISOBCEBC) : - Rs 5 lakh per annum
73. As per the Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans Scheme Guidelines ,
Students from “Backward Classes(OBCs) & Economically Backward Classes(EBCs)” enrolled for “abroad studies” under
“post Graduate” Courses in “Masters/ M. Phil/ Ph.D.” are eligible. What is the parental income criterial if the loan is
sanctioned from 01-10-2017 to OBC candidates? - .Rs 8 lakh per year
74. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan is sanctioned up
to31/03/2018, entire interest accrued ___ during the moratorium period i.e. Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts.: - .for loan amount up to Rs 10 lakhs
75. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan is sanctioned after
01.04.2022, entire interest accrued _______ during the Moratorium period i.e. Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. - for loan amount up to Rs 10 lakhs
76. Under Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on Education Loans, if the loan is sanctioned from 01/04/2018
to 31/03/2022, entire interest accrued _________ during the moratorium period i.e. Course period plus one year is
subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. - for loan amount up to Rs 7.5 lakhs
77. In CSIS scheme on Education Loan, no collateral security or third party guarantee is required for Education Loan
sanctioned up to _______. This part of the loan is covered for guarantee under __________. Rs 7.5 lakh, CGFSEL
78. In CSIS scheme on Education Loan to Economically Weaker Sections, i.e. students whose annual gross parental income
is up to _________ are covered. -Rs 4.50 lakhs
79. The Corporate DSAs shall be paid _____ service fee/commission (Tier I& II Cities), for sourcing housing loan leads/
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 80 | P a g e
 business ( per month sanctions) above Rs 10 crore. - 0.90%
80. The maximum commission per proposal payable to corporate DSA is _____ (excluding GST) for sourcing housing loan
leads/business. - Rs 11 lakh
81. The Corporate DSAs shall be paid _ additional service fee/commission (Tier I& II Cities) for takeover loans. -0.1%
82. In relation with Rating, the term “CRG” stands for______: - Canara Retail Grade
83. While sanctioning Housing Loans, the cost of furnishing can be included in the total project cost and loan component
shall be maximum up to ____ of the housing loan or _____ whichever is lower subject to other conditions.- 25%, Rs 50
lakh
84. What is the criteria of finance under Component- II of Housing Loan Scheme, for expansion, upgradation and creation
of additional amenities?- Minimum Gross Income of the applicant/s should be Rs.12.00 lakh p.a.
85. Granting loans and advances against shares, convertible bonds, convertible debentures and units of equity oriented
mutual funds are permitted for __ -list of Companies whose shares have been approved by the bank for this purpose
86. Take over of loans for Canara Premium Payroll Accounts permitted. Which of the following is the incorrect
statement?-Take over of HL and Canara Budget loans for all variants of Payroll account holders permitted
87. In terms of RBI guidelines, find out incorrect statement in respect of maximum intra group exposure ceiling. - . in
case of all non-financial companies and unregulated financial services companies taken together, Aggregate Group
Exposure ceiling is 15% of Paidup Capital and Reserves.
88. In terms of RBI guidelines, what is exposure threshold limit to single borrowers enjoying credit facilities for
classification as substantial exposure? - 10% of capital fund
89. The aggregate exposure (including non-funded exposure) of Banks toall “large borrowers” should not exceed at any
time, ______ of their capital funds. -800 percent of their capital fund
90. Exposure with borrower shall be termed as non investment grade exposure if the external rating is _________. -B and
below
91. Minimum hurdle rate/entry barrier for taking exposures in respect of borrowers subjected to internal rating is
______. - Moderate Risk
92. In which case exposures are not excluded from the calculation of Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure? -Exposures
arising from Derivative transactions and / or factoring transactions with entities, when entities have other exposures
to Banks in India.
93. What is the rate of interest on loans / advances above Rs 2 crore against our domestic term deposit standing in the
name of Borrower- 1.0% over and above the deposit rate
94. What is the regulatory ceiling for banks financing acquisition of equity shares by promoters in an existing company
which is engaged in implementing or operating an infrastructure project in India? - 40% of their net worth.
95. Secured adhoc credit facility can be granted upto _____ of the sanctioned facility or delegated limit / sub limit of
the permitting authority for corresponding secured facility Whichever is less. - 20%
96. Adhoc credit facility on clean basis can be sanctioned upto _____ of the sanctioned facility or delegated limit / sub
limit of the permitting authority for sanction of Clean facility Whichever is less. - 5%
97. Temporary over limit is a short duration facility to meet certain exigencies and may be permitted ________ for a
period not more than ______, within the maximum delegated powers for credit facility. - once in a month, 7 days
98. The authorities are empowered to permit Temporary over limit facilities over the sanctioned Limit to existing
borrower’s up to______ of the Sanctioned limit – 10%
99. In respect of pensioners/salary accounts where the pension/salary is regularly credited at the branch, TOD may be
permitted by ________ in such accounts up to a maximum of ______ for a period not more than ______ duly
obtaining prior permission from competent authorities. a. Branch-in-charge (Scale I, II & III) , Rs 5000, 15 days
100. All Education Loans sanctioned up to a limit of _____ without any collateral security/ third party guarantee are
eligible for coverage under _______ -Rs 7.50 lakh, CGFSEL
101. What is the applicable platform service charges for the usage of Maruti Suzuki Smart Finance (MSSF) portal for
financing under Canara Vehicle (4-Wheelers) loan? - 0.05% on the disbursed amount
102. Three spells of moratorium (not exceeding six months at a time) during the life cycle of the education loan,
taking into account spells of unemployment /underemployment. In such a case a higher provisioning of ___ during
the said additional moratorium period and one year thereafter, is to be maintained. - 5%

11. NPA,RECOVERY MANAGEMENT & BASEL

1. The cut off limit for classifying borrowers as non-cooperative would be those borrowers having aggregate fund-based
and non-fund based facilities of Rs._______ from the concerned bank/FI. Ans: Rs 50 million (i.e. Rs.5.00 crore)
2. Recovery through Debt Recovery Agency Certified BCAs (Business Correspondent Agent) in small value NPA accounts
with sanctioned limit upto Rs. 25.00 Lakhs- What is the Commission payable to DRA certified BCAs for recovery of
NPAs. Ans: 10% for Loss Assets, 5% for Doubtful, 3% for Substandard assets with maximum Rs.5 lakh. (50% of above in
case of OTS).

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 81 | P a g e

3. Cash shortage of more than Rs.10,000 (including at ATMs) treated as Fraud. Apart from this, Cash shortage more
than Rs.______ if detected by the Management/ Auditor/ inspecting officer and not reported on the day of
occurrence by the persons handling cash is also treated as Fraud. Ans: Rs.5,000/-.
4. Branches have to report all cases of actual/suspected frauds immediately on detection _____ in the format of Fraud
Report prescribed, to Review & Reporting (R & R) Section, Recovery, Legal and Fraud Prevention Wing, Head Office,
Bengaluru, who shall report the frauds to RBI. Ans: within 24 hours
5. All Frauds are to be Reported to RBI with in 3 weeks in FMR1 to Central Fraud Monitoring Cell RBI Bengaluru. Flash
report for frauds involving amounts of Rs._______ (Hard Copy) has to be reported to CGM-in-Charge, DBS RBI, central
Office, Mumbai within a week of such frauds coming to the notice of the Bank's Head Office. Ans: Rs 5 Crore &
above
6. Frauds of More than Rs.50 Crore to be reported to CBI – to be lodged with Head of Zone, CBI by ______ Ans:
Circle Head
7. Compensation to Borrowers in cases of theft of Gold Loan Packets, based on Gross Weight of Gold pledged will be
permitted by______ Ans: Circle Head
8. As per directions given by Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, Government of India All Accounts
Exceeding Rs.______, if classified as Non-Performing Asset, shall simultaneously be examined by branches/service
units/offices /Wings from the possible angle of fraud. Ans: Rs. 50.00 Crore
9. In respect of Consortium Accounts or joint financing of financial asset/s by more than one bank/financial institutions,
the Banks can independently issue demand notice under Section 13 (2) of SARFAESI, if there is any delay on the part
of the lead bank. The mandatory requirement of ____ % consensus is only at the time of issuing Section 13(4)
possession notice. Ans: 60%
10. Reserve Price at first instance will be fixed not less than Realisable Value of security (RVS) /Guideline value (GLR) of
security whichever is higher. Further reduction by 10% will be by same authority. Upto 80% of RVS by next Higher
Authority and upto 75% by CO Head –CAC. Upto 65% (loans upto Rs.25 cr) of RVS will be fixed by ____ Ans: CGM/GM-
HO-CAC.
11. Wherever the original value of any one of the individual mortgaged security is more than Rs.5 Cr, OR in respect of
securities of immovable properties which were valued at more than Rs.1.00 Cr at the time of last sanction
/renewal and the reduction in the present value is more than _____ % of the same, Valuation should be obtained
from two independent valuers on the panel (SARFAESI) of the bank. Higher of the two valuations is to be considered
for further action in the matter. Ans: 30 %
12. If the variation in Realisable Value between new and immediate previous valuation is more than _____% then Reserve
Price shall be fixed by next higher authority Ans: 20%
13. Sale can be conducted again (after first auction under SARFAESI) by serving, affixing and publishing the Sale Notice of
not less than 15 days to the borrower having same terms and conditions. However, if there is any material change
effected in the Sale Notice like change in Reserve Price, ____days time to be given to the borrower. Ans: 30 (thirty)
days
14. Services of Resolution Agents may be availed while proceeding under SARFAESI in respect of Doubtful and Loss
Accounts with Book Liability exceeding Rs.______ Ans: Rs 50.00 lacs
15. Under Section 18 of SARFAESI, appeal against orders of DRT may be preferred in DRAT by Borrower with in 30 days of
DRT Orders, by depositing 50% of the dues. DRAT may reduce the deposit amount to not less than _____ percentage
of the Dues. Ans: 25%
16. For reporting cases of Wilful Defaulters by Banks/FIs, Central Vigilance Commission has fixed cut off limit of
Rs.______ Ans: Outstanding balance of Rs.25 lakhs and above for attracting Penal measures.

17. Borrowers having aggregate facilities of Rs.50 million (Rs.5 crs), who obstructs our recovery efforts will be declared
as Non Cooperative Borrowers and their names will be reported to _________ on quarterly basis with in 21 days from
the end of quarter. Ans: CRILC
18. Special Scheme for Settlement of NPAs in Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Sector with Book liability of
Rs. 200.00 lacs and below, what is the settlement formula for Doubtful Assets where the realizable value of security
+ Networth is sufficient to cover dues: Ans: i) For outstanding Book Liability (BL) upto Rs.10Lace: 65% of BL, ii)
Liab.above 10 lacs to 100 lacs: 75% of BL, iii) Liability above 100 lacs to 200 lacs: 80% of Book Liability as on
settlement date.
19. Under Special OTS scheme for settlement of Small NPAs upto Rs25 lakhs, NPAs for more than one year (Doutbful &
Loss Assets) will be settled. Which loans are not eligible under this special scheme: Ans: Gold Loans, Housing Loans,
Canara Mortgage and Canara Rent loans (these loans can be settled under our Normal OTS scheme as per Recovery
Policy)
20. As per One Time Settlement Scheme for ELs with sanctioned limit upto Rs.7.5 lakhs, what is the settlement formula
for Restructured account where Book Liability is more than 250% of the sanctioned limit: Ans: 35% of Book Liability
as on date of settlement.
21. As per OTS scheme for Tractor Loans and other Farm Mechanisation Loans disbursed upto 31.03.2015, what is the
settlement formula. Ans: Base Amount (Base Amount= (Amount disbursed)+(expenses) – (recoveries made) –
(amount of relief under ADW&DR Scheme)
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 82 | P a g e
22. Payment / delivery of articles to the nominee is made only as a _______of the legal heirs of the deceased customer.
Ans: Trustee of Legal Heirs of the deceased customer.
23. All death claims shall be settled and the payments shall be made to survivor(s)/ nominee, within a period not
exceeding _____days from the date of receipt of the claim subject to the production of the proof of death of the
depositor and suitable identification of the claimants to the Bank’s satisfaction. Ans: 15 days
24. What are the delegated powers for settlement of death claims for various authorities at branches. Ans:Mgr/SM:
Rs.2 lacs, CM: Rs.3 lacs; Scale V in Br/Scale IV in RO: 5 lacs. Scale V in RO/head: 10 lacs. DGM: Full powers
including Lockers, Safe Custody Articles.
25. As per Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, National Company Law Tribunal is the adjudicating authority for the
insolvency matters concerning Corporates, LLPs. For Partnerships and Individuals, the adjudicating authority is _____
Ans: The Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
26. Under the IBC 2016, all Corporate Debtors defaulting in repayment of Rs______and above can be potential candidates
for invocation of provisions of Code. Ans: Rs 1 Crore
27. The threshold for Early Warning Signals and Red Flagging of Accounts with an exposure of Rs.______ or more at the
level of a bank irrespective of the lending arrangement (whether sole banking, multiple banking or consortium). Ans:
Rs 30 million (i.e. Rs 3.00 crores)
28. In case of actual/suspected Fraud, Obtention of investigation report & submission to RLFP Wing, HO along with
Circle views & FIR/Police complaint copy - Within ____ days from the date of detection. The responsibility of the
same lies with DM/ AGM, overseeing Recovery & Legal Section, at Circle Offices. Ans: 14 days
29. All accounts where the summation of cash transaction exceeds 10 lakhs either by way of credit or debit in a month
are to be reported under CTR to FIU-IND by _____ of the succeeding month. Ans: 15th
30. The Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) shall be furnished within ___ days of arriving at a conclusion that any
transaction, whether cash or non-cash, or a series of transactions integrally connected are of suspicious nature. Ans:
7 days
31. Loan papers executed by the borrowers, Agreements entered into between the Bank and the collecting Agents, Title
deeds deposited with the Branch, Cash Paid Vouchers, RBI inspectors specimen signatures, Bank Officials specimen
signatures, ISC Bills are classified as Group - B Security items and held either preferably in FBR/Strong Room/FBR
Safe or in Fire Resistant Record Cabinet, which basically has a ________arrangement. Ans: Dual Locking
32. Death Claims above ₹ 10,000/- upto ₹ ________Claims arising out of other than testamentary succession in deposit
accounts having balance upto Rs.50,000/- may be settled without insisting upon death certificate and other claim
forms, but on the basis of either the personal knowledge of the manager or by making due enquiries and against a
simple claim-cum declaration form as per the prescribed format. Ans: Rs.50,000/-.
33. OTS for Agricultural Loans sanctioned upto Rs.25 lakhs – which are not eligible: Ans: Gold Loans, ALVSLs, Tractor
loans and agriculture accounts which are secured by immovable/movable security (like House/ Flat / residential site,
tractors, tillers, etc), which are eligible under SARFAESI ACT and securities like deposits, Insurance Policies, KVPs,
NSCs, etc. (these accounts are covered under normal OTS)
34. What are the delegated powers for various authorities at branches for settling Agricultural accounts under “OTS
scheme for Ag loans upto Rs.25 lakh sanctioned amount”. Ans: Small/Medium Branch: Accounts with sanctioned
limit upto Rs.3 lacs; Large Br: upto 5 lacs; VLBs/ELBs: upto Rs.10 lacs; RO-Head-CAC: above Rs.10 lacs upto Rs.25
lacs.
35. What is the Objective of Canara Sambandh-Connect Collect Campaign : Ans: To achieve 25 % reduction in SMA Book
vis-a vis March, 2023 (valid till 31st March 2024)
36. As per RBI directives, Banks shall release all the original movable/immovable property documents and also remove
charges registered with any registry, within a maximum of _____ days after the borrower makes full
repayment/settlement of the loan account. Ans: 30 days.
37. SARFAESI notices – 13(2) demand notice and 13(4) possession notice, sale notice are to be issued duly generating all
details through ______ package (cir 779/2023) Ans: SAFAL - Stressed Assets Follow Up and Litigation )
38. In respect of accounts with balance of ______ and above and classified as doubtful, stock audithas to be done once in
a year. Rs 5 crore
39. Review & extension of tenability may be permitted for a maximum period of _______, inclusive ofsecond extension.
Review and Extension on a single occasion shall not exceed ______. six months, three months
40. Which function is not within the scope of Credit Risk Monitoring Format? Review of pricing
41. What is the periodicity of Credit Risk Monitoring Format submission? Quarterly
42. As per Credit Risk Policy, the Maximum Credit Exposure (FB+NFB) for Partnership Concerns is Rs.125 Crores
43. Who is the Confirming authority of Risk rating (For High Risk) under CIRM Model upto Rs.35 Cr DGM
44. What is the meaning of Protected disclosure under Whistleblower policy? Under Whistle blower policy, protected
disclosure means a complaint raised in good faith that discloses or demonstrates information that may have evidence
of unethical conduct or improper activity.
45. Supreme Court has given ____ time limit for filing an application under Section 17 of SARFAESI Act due to quick
enforcement of the security: 45 days

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 83 | P a g e

46. A Red Flagged Account is one where suspicion of fraudulent activity is thrown up by the presence of one or more
Early Warning Signals (EWS). The threshold for EWS and RFA is an exposure of Rs. ____ or more at the level of a bank
irrespective of the lending arrangement (whether solo banking, multiple banking or consortium): 500 million.
47. For a borrower to be declared Wilful defaulter the cut off limit is: Outstanding balance of Rs.25 lakh or more.
48. For classifying borrowers as Non-Cooperative the cut-off limit is: Borrowers having aggregate fund-based and non-
fund based facilities of Rs.50 million or more.
49. Threshold for waiver of legal action while invoking guarantee based on the aggregate outstanding amount considered
eligible for claim settlement by CGTMSE, is _______ per claim for claims lodged on or after 1st April 2023. Rs 10 lakh
50. What is the settlement formula for compromise in respect of agriculture loans where loan sanctioned is upto Rs 5
lakhs? Original Loan amount disbursed Less Recoveries made in the account
51. OTS scheme on small value agriculture loan is applicable for loans having sanctioned limit upto________. Rs 25 lakh
52. Branches having NPA more than ____% under Produce Loan are not permitted to sanction furtherloans under the
Scheme. 5
53. If Government Land Register value is more than Realizable Value and auction again fails withReserve Price fixed at
Market Value, then next Reserve Price can be fixed by CGM HO CAC at_________ Realisable value and reduction upto
35 percent of Reasiable value
54. If Government Land Register value is more than Realizable Value and auction again fails withReserve Price fixed at
Market Value, then next Reserve Price can be fixed by ED CAC at _________ 36-40 percent of realizable value
55. To facilitate online processing of legal matters, a new module, namely, “_______” has beenincorporated in the
existing Document Management System (DMS). Legal Solution
56. SAFAL package is applicable for _______. SARFAESI module
57. What is the Settlement formula followed for online OTS package? At least 25% of the Book Value
58. Which are the classified accounts are eligible for settlement under e-OTS? Loss
59. Bank has launched a separate module for SARFAESI in SAFAL (Stressed Assets Follow Up and Litigation) Package for
generation of Demand Notice (13/2), Possession Notice (13/4), Sale Notice and Sale Certificate. Before issuance of
the notice, the maker, checker and _____________have to verify the original file available with the branches and
ensure correct updation of master data, details of assets etc. Ans: Authorized Officer
60. Bank has introduced “Online One Time Settlement” (eOTS) for NPA accounts classified as loss assets, upto
contractual liability of Rs. 2.00 Lakh. The settlement process is auto driven, non-discriminatory and non-
discretionary, end to end system driven and hence no sanctioning authority is involved. What is the settlement
formula for liability above Rs.25,000/- upto Rs.2 lacs: Ans: Atleast 25% of Book Liability
61. Fixation of Reserve Price for Sale of Properties under SARFAESI Act – First fixation basing on Realisable Value of the
property by RO head and above. Reduction upto 10% by same authority who fixed Reserve Price(RP). Beynd 10% by
Next Higher Authority to those who fixed first time reserve Price. Who is the authority to fix RV with reduction 26%
to 35% : Ans: CGM-HO-CAC. (CO head upto 25% reduction for sanctions upto CO power accounts)
62. Guidelines On One Time Settlement Formula For Compromise In Respect Of Agricultural Loans With Aggregate
Sanctioned Limits Upto Rs.25 Lacs - covers NPA accounts which are more than 12 months old from the date of NPA
under agriculture loans. What are the accounts not eligible under this scheme: Ans: Gold Loans, ALVSLs, Tractor
loans and agriculture accounts which are secured by immovable/movable security (like House/ Flat / residential site,
tractors, tillers, etc), which are eligible under SARFAESI ACT and securities like deposits, Insurance Policies, KVPs,
NSCs, etc (These all are eligible under our normal OTS scheme under Recovery Policy)
63. SAMEEKSHA is Sanction Review Portal in SAS for Monitoring the Status of the Sanction Review. Account details of
Sanctions made through LAPS where Review is applicable flows on the ______ basis from backend to “Sameeksha”
portal for Review by Next Higher Authority. Ans: T+1 basis.
64. What is the additional clause to be incorporated in Legal Scrutiny Report (LSR) for all LSRs issued after 15-01-2023.
Ans: Search details of CERSAI of the property/ies
65. If the Borrower /Guarantor/Mortgagor makes any representation or raises any objection to the Demand Notice13(2)
under SARFAESI, Authorised Officer shall communicate the reasons for not accepting the same to the concerned
Borrower/Guarantor/Mortgagor within ____ days from the date of receipt of such objection. Ans: 15 days
66. Under Section 14 of SARFAESI Act, CMM or DM is bound to take possession of secured assets and any documents
relating to such assets and hand over such assets and documents to the Bank within a period of ____ days from the
date of application. Ans: 30 days
67. As per newly introduced Section 17 (4-A) of the SARFAESI Act, ____ are empowered to decide on the issues related
to tenancy/lease and no other Courts/Judicial Forums has the jurisdiction to entertain any such litigations. Ans: DRTs
68. Before opting for sale by private treaty for a property with assessed value/reserve price upto Rs 100.00 Lacs, at
least one attempt should be made to sell the property through public auction / auction by inviting tenders. For a
property with assessed value/ reserve price above Rs 100.00 Lacs at least ___ attempts should be made to sell the
property through public auction/ auction by inviting tenders, before opting for sale by private treaty. Ans: 2
69. What are the charges payable to SARFAESI Agents for assistance in taking possession of movable/ immovable
properties : Ans: movable : Rs 25000/ & immovable Rs 50000/-
70. Any person including a SARFAESI Agent / Recovery Agents/Resolution Agent/Real Estate Agent/Broker/Panel
Advocate/Panel valuer/ Ex-Employee of Canara Bank, who brings a successful bidder shall be entitled to 1 % of
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 84 | P a g e
 realized value of the property or contractual liability whichever is less, with minimum of Rs.10,000/- upto a
maximum of Rs._____ Ans: Rs.2,00,000/-
71. Borrowers classified as Wilful Defaulters by Grievance Redressal Committee with liability of Rs.3.00 Crs and above
upto Rs.25.00 crs, complaint to be lodged with _____ : Ans: CBI (Economic Offences Wing)
72. If borrower utilizes Bank Loan for purposes un-related to the operations of the borrower is termed as _______ Ans:
Siphoning off of funds
73. As per Recovery Policy of the Bank, where Realizable Value of security is sufficient to cover the contractual /
decretal dues, attempt should be made to recover full amount. However, where the parties are paying less than the
contractual / decretal dues under OTS, the compromise formula for Non Wilful Defaulters is _____ Ans: At least
Book Liability + Simple interest at MCLR + 1.50% p.a. should be recovered
74. Advisory committee at HO consists of 2 Retired High Court Judges and 2 Retired EDs of Nationalised Banks and senior
most Judge(out of 2) will be Chairman. All proposals where Bank’s sacrifice amount is Rs.___ and above, the
proposal will be referred to Advisory committee. (Only advice and not mandatory to accept advice) Ans: Rs.1 crore
75. Permanent Lok Adalats are also empowered to entertain the matters of civil and criminal in nature, provided, the
value of such civil matter falls within Rs __crore and the criminal dispute is compoundable in nature Ans: Rs.1 crore
76. While rehabilitating /restructuring Sick SME, after ensuring commercial, financial viability and technical feasibility,
Bank extends reliefs and concessions as per the laid down norms / guidelines to such units so as to bring them back
to normal health. Bank provides concessions / reliefs to such units during the package implementation period also
and can recoup whole / a part of the sacrificed amount by way of ______ Ans: Right of Recompense (RoR).
77. What is the ROI payable on compromise amount from the date of communicating the orders of acceptance to the
party till the date of payment: One Year MCLR(as on 01.04.2023) plus 1.50% (Simple) (waived upto 3 months. 6
months waiver by Circle Head-CAC. Beyond 6months by HO).
78. Time Limit for payment of compromise amount is 3 months for Branch/RO sanctions, 6 months for CO sanctions and
_____ months for HO sanctions: Ans: 18 months
79. As per RBI guidelines, while entering into OTS, it is to be ensured that the OTS amount is generally be not less than
the Net Present Value (NPV) of the estimated cash flows associated with the realizable value of the available
securities net of the cost of realization. In DRT cases where Decree is pending, what is the period prescribed for NPV
calculation: Ans: 3 years (2 years for decreed a/cs and 5 years for non suit filed cases)
80. Recovery in NPA accounts in case of OTS/NCLT/TWO(technically written off) & Accounts covered by Government
Guarantees and Subsidy if any, shall be appropriated in the order of:____ Ans: Principal, Charges, Interest.(in other
cases, Charges, Interest, Principal)
81. Accounts recommended for writing off should have completed ___years or more from the date of advance and
Continuing as NPA for a minimum period of 3 years and Classified as Loss Asset on 31st March preceding year. Ans: 5
years
82. What is the basis and trigger for request to issue Look Out Circular (LOC): Ans: Fraud cases Rs.10 cr and above Other
cases Rs.50 cr and above outstanding amount (FB+NFB)
83. Step-up Fees payable to Recovery Agents in cases of resolution/ recovery is done within a time frame of 3-6 months,
for more than 5 accounts is ____ Ans: 5-10 a/cs: additional fee of 5%; 11- to 15 a/cs : additional fee of 10% , with
a cap of Rs.5 lakhs.
84. Resolution Agents are engaged for recovery in respect of Doubtful and Loss assets with more than Rs.50 lakh
outstanding liability. What is the fee payable to Resolution Agents: Ans: DA upto 5 years old: 5% of recovery with
max.Rs.12 lakhs. DA above 5 yrs: 5% with max. Rs.15 lakhs. Loss Assets:7% of recovery with max.Rs.20 lakhs
85. Services of Detective Agency are engaged for liability of Rs.50 lakhs and above. What is the fee payable for finding
whereabouts of missing borrower/ guarantor etc. Ans: Rs.10,000/- per person with max Rs.30,000/- per account.
86. What is the settlement formula for “compromise in respect of NPA Agricultural Loans with aggregate/combined
sanctioned limits upto Rs.25 lakhs”, for Loss Assets and for Loans sanctioned upto Rs.5 lakhs: Ans: Original Loan
amount disbursed Less Recoveries made in the account (including relief under ADW&DR scheme)
87. Special OTS scheme for MSME with Book Liability upto Rs.200 lacs: The eligible a/cs are DA/Loss Asset as on 31-03-
2023 or Substandard as on 30-09-2022& not viable for restructuring. What is the settlement formula for liablity above
Rs.100 lacs upto Rs.200 lacs, where security is sufficient to cover the dues: Ans: As on date of settlement SS:100% of
Book Liability(BL) DA:95% of BL, Loss Asset: 50% of BL.
88. OTS scheme for Educational Loans – NPA s with sanctioned limits upto Rs.7.50 lakhs & those accounts not
covereded under CGFSEL/CGFSSD. What are the eligible accounts: Ans: Long duration course(>2years) disbursed
before 31.12.2015 and short duration course (upto 2 years) disbursed upto 31.12.2018.
89. What is the settlement formula for Tractor Loans and other Farm Mechanisation loans which are disbursed before
31.03.2018 and NPAs as on date: Ans: disbursed upto 31.03.2015: Base amount (amount disbursed + expenses –
recoveries incl. Debt waiver if any). For loans disbursed from 01.04.2015 to 31.03.2018: Base amount + Int @ 1 yr
MCLR(01-04-2023) – 5.5%
90. Powers for Branch-in-charge in case of Loss Assets of Tractor Loans under OTS: Ans: Branch-in charge can permit and
exercise power delegated for a maximum no. of 50 eligible accounts under Loss Assets in Financial Year. Circle Heads
empowered to further enhance this limit above 50 accountsin case of need.
91. A Non-Cooperative Borrower is one _______. - thwarting lender’s effort for recovery of their dues by not providing
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 85 | P a g e
 necessary information sought
92. Regional Office Recovery section is provided with upload option in Gold Loan Auction package (GLAP). The size of
upload copy should be less than ____ and pdf format only. 500 KB
93. Recovery work can be entrusted through DRA Certified BCAs in small value NPA accounts with sanctioned limit upto
_. Rs 25 lakhs
94. The total number of accounts allotted to DRA Certified BCA by a branch should not exceed ____ and the list shall be
reviewed and re-assigned every ______. - 100, quarter
95. BCAs entrusted for recovery should work as Recovery Agents only between _______. - 8 AM and 7 PM
96. At what ratio paid recovery commission should be shared between BCA and Corporate BC? - 80:20
97. Which statement is incorrect in respect of commission payable to DRA certified BCA towards recovery from NPA
customers? -Maximum ceiling of commission payable is Rs 10 lakhs
98. Ots of Recovery Agent, 50% of the normal commission shall be paid to recovery agent, subject to a maximum ceiling
of _______ . Rs 2.50 lakhs
99. Step-up Fees is payable to recovery agent in cases of recovery is done in time frame of 3-6 months. What is the
maximum cap on step up fees, which is over and above the Recovery commission amount - Rs 5.00 lakhs
100. What amount of Step-up Fees is payable in cases of recovery is done in time frame of 3-6 months for more than 5
borrowers and upto 10 borrowers- 5 % over and above Recovery Commission (additional)
101. What amount of Step-up Fees is payable in cases of recovery is done in time frame of 3-6 months for more than
10 borrowers and upto 15 borrowers? - 10 % over and above Recovery Commission (additional)
102. No Step-up Fees is payable in cases of recovery up to _______is done in time frame of 3-6 months. - 5 borrowers
103. Information submitted by the servicing facility agent’s concurrent and internal auditors under account pool
buyout is verified annually as per the sanction terms or if the size of the acquired portfolio is more than _______. -
100 Crore
104. What amount of commission is payable to DRA certified BC agents in NPA category Overdue Recovery in Sub
Standard accounts? - 2% of the recovery amount
105. Regional Offices should allot the small value NPA accounts to DRA Certified BC agents and ensure that total
number of accounts allotted to any BCA shall not exceed _______. - 100 NPA accounts.
106. Which of the following are correct regarding the OTS scheme for Agriculture loans? 1. Gold loans, VSL, fraud and
wilful default are generally excluded 2. Tractor loans and mortgage property available cases excluded 3. Only KCC
loans can be sanctioned to the weaker section borrowers whose accounts are settled under the scheme. 4. Fresh KCC
may be granted to the extent of the original sanctioned amount of OTS settled accounts or Scale of finance
whichever is higher: - Only 1,2 and 3 are correct
107. OTS scheme on small value agriculture loan is applicable for loans having sanctioned limit upto _____. - Rs 25
lakh
108. What is the settlement formula for compromise in respect of agriculture loans where loan sanctioned is upto Rs 5
lakhs? - Original Loan amount disbursed Less Recoveries made in the account
109. To facilitate online processing of legal matters, a new module, namely, “______” has been incorporated in the
existing Document Management System (DMS). -Legal Soultion
110. ‘Online One Time Settlement’ (eOTS) is available for NPA accounts classified as loss assets, having book liability
above ______ but contractual liability upto ______ .- Rs 25000, Rs 200000
111. What is the settlement formula taken for eOTS Package? - Atleat 25% of book liability

11b. BASEL
1 . What is the maximum Capital Conservation Buffer prescribed under Basel III?-2.50%
2 According to Basel 1, what is the minimum capital requirement for risk weighted assets (RWA)?- 8%
3 In which year the guidelines of Basel III were released- 2010
4 Which of the following is known as the third pillar of basel-II accord- Market discipline
5 The minimum total capital ratio under Basel - 9%
6 With reference to Basel III how much capital conservation buffer are bank required to maintain?-b) 2.5%
7 Which one is not under the three pillars of BASEL III norms in banking industry? -Risk oriented Supervision
8 What are the elements of Tier-I capital, including additional Tier-I capital as per BASEL-III?
a) Paid up equity capital, statutory & disclosed reserves b) Capital reserves representing surplus arising out of sale
proceeds of assets c) Perpetual non-cumulative preference shares and debt capital instruments eligible for inclusion
under additional tier-I d) Revaluation reserve discounted at 55 % - All of the above
9 To calculate capital adequacy ratio, the banks are required to take into account which of the following risks?
-Credit risk, market risk, operational risk
10 Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is a committee of banking super authorities that was established by:-Central
Bank governors of the group of G-10 countries
11 What is the full form of NSFR? - Net stable funding ratio
12 As per the Basel III implementation in India, minimum Tier 1 capital must be___ of risk weighted assets on on-going
basis- 7%
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 86 | P a g e
13 As per Basel III, the risk of losses in on balance sheet and off balance sheet positions arising from movements in
market prices is called _______ Market risk
14 How many pillars is the Basel II Framework based?- 3
15 Operational risk is the risk of loss arising from various types of- a) Human error b) System failed in the bank c)
Breakdown in internal control d) Failed internal processes, people, systems and events - All of the above
16 Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Basel III implementation in India? - Minimum tier 1 capital
ratio should be 8%
17 Which of the following is the risk of default on a debt that may arise from a borrower failing to make required
payments? -Credit Risk
18 What is the effect on capital requirement of bank if it takes exposure on riskier assets? -More capital is required
19 Internal Capital Adequacy Assessmnet Process (ICAAP) comes under which of the following pillars of BASEL III?
- Pillar II
20 The purpose of stress test and sensitivity analysis is ______. a) To assess the impact of stress on the capital of the
bank b) To assess the impact of stress on the profit of the bank c) To have backup plans for ensuring capital adequacy
and viable operations in the event of stressed situation materializing -Options a), b) and c)
21 The key principals of Supervisory Review (PILLAR II) are ______. a) Banks should have a process for assessing their
overall capital adequacy in relation to their risk profile b) c) Supervisors should expect banks to operate above min.
capital ratios - Options a), b) and c)
22 Probability of Default (PD) measures which of the following? - Likelihood that the borrower will default over a given
time horizon
23 Which among the following are domestic credit rating agencies approved by RBI for the purpose of credit rating to
determine risk weight for rated exposures? 1. Acuite Ratings and Research Limited (erstwhile SMERA Ratings Ltd.) 2.
Brickwork Ratings India Pvt. Limited; 3. CARE Ratings Ltd. (erstwhile Credit Analysis and Research Limited); 4. CRISIL
Limited; 5. ICRA Limited; 6. India Ratings and Research Private Limited; 7. Informerics Valuation and Ratings Pvt. Ltd."
-All
24 The banks identified as Domestic Systemically important Banks (D-SIBs) are? a) SBI b) ICICI c) HDFC -All of the above
25 What is the range of Counter Cyclic Buffer as per BASEL-III framework? - 0% - 2.5%
26 What is the BCBS guidelines for maintaining minimum Common Equity Tier-I capital ratio, under Basel-III framework?
- 4.5%
27 What is the minimum Common Equity Tier-I capital, Indian banks have to maintain as per Basel III framework in India
(as advised by RBI)? - 5.5%
28 What is the minimum total capital including CCB that Indian banks have to maintain as per Basel-III framework?-11.5%
29 What is the minimum Common Equity Tier-I ratio plus CCB, Indian banks have to maintain as per Basel-III framework?
-8.0%
30 What is the minimum requirement of leverage ratio for the banks as per Basel- III? -3%
31 The minimum Leverage Ratio should be ____ for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) and ___ for other
banks as per RBI Guidelines - 4%, 3.5%
32 Under Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), banks are required to hold an amount of high-quality liquid assets that is
enough to fund cash outflows for ______days. - 30
33 What is the minimum Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) that banks have to maintain in ongoing basis?-100 %
34 Basic indicator approach is used for computation of which risk? - Operational Risk
35 Advanced internal rating based approach is used for computation of which risk? -Credit Risk
36 What is the full form of LCR with regard to Basel norms- Liquidity coverage ratio.
37 For Indian banks, revaluation reserves are to be included in Tier-2 capital at a discount of -55%
38 __________ is a measure of the worst expected loss over a given time normal market conditions at a given confidence
level? - VaR
39 Due to the tight interactions between firms across the whole financial services sector, risks that affect one firm, or a
group of firms can affect the stability of the whole financial system. This indicates which type of risk?-Systemic Risk
40 ICAAP means - internal capital adequacy assessment process
41 RAROC stands for -Risk adjusted return on capital
42 With minimum CRAR of 9%,Tier -2 capital can be admitted maximum upto -2%
43 What is the risk weighted for loan guaranteed by state government? - 20%
44 What is the risk weighted for cash balance maintained with other bank having Capital adequacy ratio of 9% and above?
-20 %
45 Under Basel III, risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach for exposure to
regulatory retail portfolio is? - 75%
46 What is the risk weight for credit exposure to a unrated corporate loan to a domestic Public Sector Enterprise?-100 %
47 Probability of Default (PD) is probability that the borrower will default within a ___ year/s horizon- 1

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 87 | P a g e

48 Whenever both internal and external ratings are available, the ______ratings shall be taken in to consideration for
determining the exposure ceiling for the single borrower entity. -External
49 The original deadline for completion of implementation of BASEL III recommendations in India was- 31.03.2019
50 As per Basel III requirements, modified by RBI during 2014, banks can issue Tier 2 capital instruments with a minimum
original maturity of at least __ years. - Five years
51 Under Basel III, the option available to compute capital for operational risk are: Basic indicator approach, The
standardized approach, Advance measurement approach
52 Under Basel III, the options available to compute capital for market risk are: Standardized approach maturity
method, standardized approach duration method, internal models approach [

53 In India banks are required to maintain a minimum pillar I capital to risk weighted assets ratio (or minimum total
capital to risk weighted assets ratio) of_______ as on -9%, ongoing basis
54 Under Basel III, Capital Market exposure including Loan to individuals against Shares, Credit cards, Personal loans,
Consumer loans is- 125%
55 As per Basel III implementation, the risk weight for unsecured portion of NPA for credit risk as per standardized
approach is ____% if the specific provision is at least 50% of the outstanding in NPA account: -50%
56 As per Basel III, which of the following is an element of Common Equity component of Tier I 1) Common shares i.e paid
up equity capital 2) Stock surplus i.e share premium 3) Statutory reserves 4) Capital reserves representing surplus arising
out of sale proceeds of assets 5) Balance in profit and loss account at the end of the previous year- 1 to 5 all
57 As per Basel III, which of the following can be included in Additional Tier I capital 1) Perpetual non-cumulative
preference shares-PNCPS 2) Stock surplus or share premium resulting from issue of Additional Tier I
Instruments 3) Debt capital instruments eligible to be included inadditional Tier I -1 to 3 all
59 For the purpose of calculation of capital charge for operational risk, underbasic indicator approach, the gross income
means: Net interest income + net non interest income
60 As per Basel III implementation, the risk weight for unsecured potion of NPA for credit risk as per standardized
approach is ____% if the specific provision is less than 20% of the outstanding in NPA account. - 150
61 Under Basel III, the risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach is _____% for
staff loans secured by superannuation benefits or mortgage of flat / house. - 20
62 Under Basel III, the risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach is _____% for
staff loans other than secured by superannuation benefits or mortgage of flat / house, being eligible under regulatory
retail port folio-75
63 Under Basel III, by using the Basic Indicator Approach, banks must hold capital for operational risk equal to the
average over the prescribed no. of previous years, at ____%( denoted as alpha) or positive annual income- 15
65 Under Basel III, by using the Basic Indicator Approach, banks must hold capital for operational risk equal to the
average over the previous _____ years of a fixed percentage (denoted as alpha) or positive annual gross income. - 3
66 During computation of Gross Income under Capital charge calculation for operational risk by Basic Indicator Approach
(BIA), which of the following could be excluded: a) Reversal during the year in respect of provisions and write offs made
during the previous year(s) b) Income recognised from disposal of items of movable and immovable Properties c) Income
from legal settlement in favour of the Bank -Options a), b) and c)
67 The market risk positions, that are subject to capital charge requirement, includes which of the following positions
under Basel III: a) Risk pertaining to interest rate related instruments in the trading book b) Risk pertaining to equities in
the trading book c) Risk of loss through not being able to trade in a market or obtain a price on a desired product when
required - All the above
68 If a security has matured and remains unpaid, it attracts capital for _____risk on completion of 90 days delinquency
period.-Credit risk
69 The capital requirement for general market risk is designed under Basel III to capture the risk of loss arising from
change in: a) Prices of securities b) Market value of securities c) Interest rate on securities - All the above
70 As per Pillar I (Min. Capital requirements), Credit Risk and Market Risk Capital are for:- Banking Book and Trading
book
71 As per Basel III, which of the following is a part of operational risk: Legal risk
72 Under Basel III, the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from
external events is called: -Operational risk
73 Which of the risk was not considered under BASEL I accord:- Operational Risk
74 Countercyclical Capital Buffer aims at________ a) Building capital in good times b) Restrict lending in times of excess
credit growth c) Is one of the regulatory requirements -All of the above
75. Basel III guidelines to be implemented fully in India since (Except Capital conservation Buffer and Leverage ratio):
31-03-2019
76. As of April 2022, under Basel III, a bank's tier 1 capital must be at least 8.00% of its risk- weightedassets including
2.5% CCB. The minimum capital ratio (including the capital conservation buffer,additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital) is
.-11.50%
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 88 | P a g e
77. The main advantages of BASEL II over BASEL I are:-a) Role of risk mitigants like eligible financial collaterals
considered in BASEL II as opposed to BASEL I b) BASEL II more risk sensitive as compared to BASEL I c) Credit
exposures carry risk weights based on credit quality/ rating in BASEL II as compared to uniform risk weights in BASEL I
- All of the above

12. FOREX & INTERNATIONAL TRADES

1. What is the minimum loan amount under FCLR (Foreign Currency Loans to Residents): Ans: Amount equivalent to
USD 150,000 in case of working capital loans/Term loans and equivalent to USD 50,000 in case of Short Term Import
financing
2. Small entities with exposure upto Rs.______, which are having foreign currency exposures and are not in a position to
provide information on their UFCE (Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure), an incremental provisioning of 10 bps over
and above extant standard asset provisioning shall be applied instead of computing incremental capital and
provisioning requirements. Ans: Rs 50 crores.
3. For Revival of PMJDY inoperative accounts with balance upto Rs.5000/-, if BC Agent services are utilized, what is the
remuneration payable to BC Agent: Ans: Rs.10/- per account for revival and Rs,10 for activation of Mobile Banking
4. All Pre-Shipment and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit (MSME/Agri/Corporate borrowers) sanctioned on or after
10.07.2023 shall be linked to Short Term Repo Linked Lending Rate (STRLLR). Concession in ROI on applicable spread
by ED-CAC is upto______ Ans: Reduction upto a maximum of 1% p.a. from the applicable rate, subject to the
ultimate lending rate not falling below STRLLR.
5. All Pre-Shipment and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit (MSME/Agri/Corporate borrowers) sanctioned on or after
10.07.2023 shall be linked to Short Term Repo Linked Lending Rate (STRLLR). Applicable spread will be based on
__________of the borrower as per applicability. Ans: Internal or External Rating
6. Liberalised remittance scheme (LRS) for resident individuals – What is the ceiling per financial year: Ans: USD
2,50,000. (For all Purposes i.e. Private visits, Gift/Donation; Going abroad for employment, Emigration, Business
Trip, maintenance of Relatives Abroad; Medical treatment without any estimates; Stuents for Studies Abroad. (Form
A2 cum Declaration is sufficient)
7. Resident individual should surrender received/realized/unspent/unused foreign exchange to an Authorized Person
within a period of _____ days from the date of receipt. Ans: 180 days
8. What are all the investment by persons resident outside India; that are prohibited in India: Ans: business of chit
fund, Nidhi Company, Agricultural or plantation activities or in real estate business, or construction of farm houses &
Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)
9. Interest Equalization Scheme (IES) on Pre and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit is 3% for MSME Manufacutrer
Exporters and 2% for Merchant Exporters and Mfg Exporters under 410HS lines. When this interest subvention amount
is to be credited to beneficiary’s account: Ans: Upfront (debiting the account with interest applicable rate less
interest subvention)
10. Government has capped the amount of interest subvention for pre and post-shipment Rupee Export Credit at Rs.
_____ crore per IEC (import-export code) holder in one financial year. Ans: 10 cr (interest subvention is 3% for MSME
Mfg exporters and 2% for Merchant exporters.
11. In case any eligible entity is not submitting the data on UFCE to the Bank, an additional interest of______ over &
above the contracted rate on the total exposure (i.e. Fund based and Non fund based) is tobe levied for the
respective quarter. 1.00% p.a.
12. As per the UCP guidelines, the LC opening bank has to inform the acceptability or otherwise of thedocuments within
_____ after the date of receipt of documents. 5 banking days
13. Standby credit in respect of export credit can be permitted upto______% of the sanctioned limitor the delegated
power whichever is lower. 10
14. Circle Head CAC can waive obtention of SGS Certificate, where the value of LC or the value ofeach part-shipment is
less than ____________. Rs 2.00 Crore
15. Minimum margin requirement for bank guarantees issued beyond 5 years shall be ____% in the form ofTDR. 25
16. Waiver of SGS Certificate can be permitted by Branch Head, where the value of the LC is less than____, or the value
of each Part-shipment is less than ___even if the value of LC exceeds____.Rs 100 lakhs, Rs 100 lakhs, Rs100 lacs
17. Presently, our Bank maintains Nostro accounts in 11 foreign currencies with various foreign correspondent Banks and
our overseas branches, which of the following currency is not in the list? - RUB (Russian Rouble)
18. In case of non submission of UFCE data by the eligible entity to the Bank, an additional interest of ____ p.a. over &
above the contracted rate on the total exposure should be levied for the respective quarter. 1.00 percent
19. A person going abroad for employment can draw foreign exchange up to? USD 2,50,000 per FY
20. What is the applicable rate of TCS for remittance under LRS scheme which exceeds Rs. 7 lakh in a financial year with
effect from 1st July 2023? Ans. 20% of the amount or the aggregate of the amounts in excess of Rs. 7 Lakh in a
financial year
21. What is the revised TCS applicable on the transaction carried out by an individual using international debit or credit
cards upto an amount of Rs. 7 lakh in a financial year? Ans. Nil

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 89 | P a g e

22. As per the latest modification carried out to Interest equalisation scheme, government of India has decided to cap
annual net subvention amount at Rs. ____per IEC in a given financial year. Ans. Rs. 10 crore
23. As per latest instructions of SEBI, issuers having outstanding listed non-convertible securities and issuers having
outstanding listed securitized debt instruments and security receipts as on Aug 31, 2023, shall report/ obtain LEI
code on or before? - 01.09.2023
24. Domestic wire transfers of Rs. _________ and above, where the originator is not an account holder of the ordering
bank, shall also be accompanied by originator and beneficiary information as indicated for cross-border wire
transfers. Ans. - Rs. 50,000/-
25. As per RBI instructions, Complete originator and beneficiary information relating to wire transfers shall be preserved
by the banks involved in the wire transfer, both domestic and international, for at least _________ years from the
date of transaction. Ans. 5 years
26. As per the new foreign trade policy (FTP-2023), a three start export house is the one which has export performance
upto ____ in all the three preceding financial years. Ans. 50 million USD
27. All Cross-border wire transfers of the value of ____ where either the origin or destination of fund is in India needs to
be reported by the 15th of the succeeding month to FIU-IND: More than five lakh rupees or its equivalent in foreign
currency
28. RBI has increased the external commercial borrowing (ECB) limit under automatic route, from USD 750 million per
financial year to: USD 1.5 billion.
29. Which Statement is not correct in respect of Liberalised Remittance Scheme? -Resident can gift to another resident,
in foreign currency, for the credit of the latter’s foreign currency account held abroad under LRS
30. What does FEMA stand for in the context of Forex regulations in India? Foreign Exchange Management Act
31. Which authority is responsible for implementing FEMA guidelines in India? ) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
32. FEMA guidelines are primarily aimed at regulating _________. Foreign exchange transactions and investments
involving India
33. While undertaking certain transactions like opening of Import LC, effecting advance remittances branches/offices are
required to obtain Status Report/OPL on the Overseas Entity. In this context which of the following statement/s
is/are correct- Both- It is centralised at CPC-FT. request for status report/OPL to the service provider is sent by
CPC-FT Charges are to be recovered from the party
34. For contracts involving INR, user shall be allowed to book forward contracts upto ____________ equivalent of
notional value without the need to establish the existence of underlying exposure. GBP 10 Million
35. How many days in advance, Indian Exporter can receive advance payment from overseas counter party for the
services rendered from India? One year before the proposed date of rendering service to the overseas buyer
36. India is following ______ quote system under Forex transactions. Direct
37. In case of SPOT transaction, the settlement happens on T +2 Working days
38. UCPDC 600, issued by ICC is a document containing rules and regulations for issuance of ______ . LCs
39. _______ are the rules regarding usage of trade related terms, framed by ICC to facilitate Global Trade. INCO Terms
40. How Many INCO Terms are there? 11
41. How Much Foreign Exchange a person can bring with him while coming to India? NO such limit
42. If the aggregate value of the Foreign exchange in the form of Currency and Bank notes is more than USD 10000 and in
the form of currency itself is more than USD 5000 than party has to submit CDF. CDF stands for? Currency
Declaration Form
43. How much FC, can be carried for travelling abroad (countries other than Iraq/Libya IRAN/RUSSIA and CIS States)?-
USD 3000 per trip
44. How much FC, can be carried for travelling to Iraq/Libya? USD 5000
45. How much FC, can be carried for travelling to IRAN/RUSSIA and CIS States? USD 250,000
46. A resident Individual should surrender the unused foreign exchange in currency with in ______ days from the date of
purchase or return to India. -180 Days
47. A returning traveller is permitted to retain unused foreign currency up to ______ or Equivalent or Coins with our any
ceiling beyond 180 days. USD 2000
48. All export contracts and invoices shall be denominated in _______ but export proceeds shall be realized in freely
convertible currency. a) Freely convertible Currency b) Indian Rupees - Either A or B
49. It is obligatory on the part of the exporter to realize and repatriate the full value of goods/ software / services to
India within a stipulated period from the date of export, and It has been decided by the RBI in consultation with the
Government of India that the period of realization and repatriation of export proceeds shall be ______ months from
the date of export for all exporters including Units in SEZs, Status Holder Exporters, EOUs, Units in EHTPs, STPs
&BTPs until further notice. - 9 Months
50. It is obligatory on the part of the exporter to realize and repatriate the full value of goods/ software / services to
India within a stipulated period from the date of export, and in case of Goods exported to a warehouse
establishedoutside India, they should repatriate as soon as it is realized and in any casewithin ______ months from
the date of shipment of goods. 15

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 90 | P a g e

51. For Setting up of Offices Abroad and Acquisition of Immovable Property for Overseas Offices AD Category I banks may
allow remittances towards initial expenses up to _____ per cent of the average annual sales/income or turnover
during the last two financial years or up to twenty-five per cent of the net worth, whichever is higher. 15
52. In terms of Regulations under FEMA, where an exporter receives advance payment (with or without interest), from a
buyer outside India, the exporter shall be under an obligation to ensure that the shipment of goods is made within
_____ year/s from the date of receipt of advance payment. -1
53. In case of advance payments received the rate of interest, if any, payable on the advance payment does not exceed
Alternate Reference Rate (ARR) + _____ basis points; and the documents covering the shipment are routed through
the
54. AD Category I bank through whom the advance payment is received. 100
55. In case of advance payments received in terms of long term export contracts the rate of interest, if any, payable on
the advance payment does not exceed Alternate Reference Rate (ARR) + ______ basis points; and the documents
56. covering the shipment are routed through the AD Category I bank through whom the advance payment is received.-
200
57. AD Categorysatisfactory track record to receive long term export advance up to a maximum tenor of _____ years to
be utilized for execution of long term supply contracts for export of goods subject to the stipulated conditions.- 10
58. Any person resident in India may take outside India (other than to Nepal and Bhutan) currency notes of Government
of India and Reserve Bank of India notes up to an amount not exceeding Rs _______. 25000
59. Any person resident outside India, not being a citizen of Pakistan and Bangladesh and also not a traveller coming
from and going to Pakistan and Bangladesh, and visiting India may take outside India currency notes of Government
of India and Reserve Bank of India notes up to an amount not exceeding Rs. ____while exiting only through an
airport.- 25000
60. Within _____ from the date of export, exporter should lodge the duplicate copy together with relative shipping
documents and an extra copy of the invoice with the AD Category I banks named in the EDF form. 21 days
61. If, after a bill has been negotiated or sent for collection, its amount is to be reduced for any reason, AD Category I
banks may approve such reduction, if satisfied about genuineness of the request, provided the reduction does not
62. exceed _____ per cent of invoice value subject to fulfilment of other conditions.- 25
63. An exporter who has not been able to realize the outstanding export dues despite best efforts, may either self-write
off or approach the AD Category I banks, who had handled the relevant shipping documents, with appropriate
supporting documentary evidence with a request for write off of the unrealized portion subject to the fulfilment of
stipulations regarding surrender- permitted are as a percentage against the total export proceeds realized during the
previous calendar year and will be cumulatively available in a year are as under - than Status Holder Exporter) _____
% -off s Holder Exporters ____% -off - ____% 5,10,10
64. In terms of the extant RBI regulations, remittances against imports should be completed not later than _____ months
from the date of shipment, except in cases where amounts are withheld towards guarantee of performance, etc.- 6
65. AD Category I banks may permit settlement of import dues delayed due to disputes, financial difficulties, etc.
However, interest if any, on such delayed payments, usance bills or overdue interest is payable only for a period of
up to ______ years from the date of shipment -3
66. Normally AD Category I banks can consider granting extension of time forsettlement of import dues up to a period of
six months at a time (maximum up to the period of _____ years) irrespective of the invoice value for delays on
67. account of disputes about quantity or quality or non-fulfilment of terms of contract; financial difficulties and cases
where importer has filed suit against the seller. -3
68. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit,may bring into India at the time of his
return from any place outside India (other than from Nepal and Bhutan), currency notes of Government of India
69. and Reserve Bank of India notes upto an amount not exceeding Rs ______ 25000
70. If the amount of advance remittance for Imports exceeds USD ______ or its equivalent, an unconditional, irrevocable
standby Letter of Credit or a guarantee from an international bank of repute situated outside India or a guarantee of
an AD Category I bank in India, if such a guarantee is issued against the counter-guarantee of an international bank of
repute situated outside India, is obtained. 200,000
71. In cases where the importer (other than a Public Sector Company or a Department/Undertaking of the Government of
India/State Government/s) is unable to obtain bank guarantee from overseas suppliers and the AD Category I bank is
satisfied about the track record and bonafides of the importer, the requirement of the bank guarantee / standby
Letter of Credit may not be insisted upon for advance remittances up to USD _____ duly framing guidelines in their
internal policy. 5 Million
72. A Public Sector Company or a Department/Undertaking of the Government of India /State Government/s which is not
in a position to obtain a guarantee from an international bank of repute against an advance payment, is required to
obtain a specific waiver for the bank guarantee from the Ministry of Finance, Government of India before making
advance remittance exceeding USD ____ . 100000
73. AD Category I banks may allow advance remittance, without obtaining a bank guarantee or an unconditional,
irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit, up to USD ____ million, for direct import of each aircraft, helicopter and other
aviationrelated purchases, who are permitted by DGCA for Operations in India.- 50

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 91 | P a g e

74. Where the amount of advance paid for Import of services exceeds USD ____ or its equivalent, a guarantee from a
bank of international repute situated outside India, or a guarantee from an AD Category I bank in India, if such a
guarantee is issued against the counter-guarantee of a bank of international repute situated outside India, should be
obtained from the overseas beneficiary.- 500,000
75. AD Category I bank may accept, in lieu of Exchange Control Copy of Bill of Entry for home consumption, a certificate
from the Chief Executive Officer or auditor of the company that the goods for which remittance was made have
actually been imported into India provided the amount of foreign exchange remitted is less than USD ______ or its
equivalent. 1,000,000
76. AD Category I bank may accept, in lieu of Exchange Control Copy of Bill of Entry for home consumption, a certificate
from the CEO or auditor of the company that the goods for which remittance was made have actually been imported
into India provided the importer is a company listed on a stock exchange in India and whose net worth is not less
than _____ as on the date of its last audited balance sheet, or, the importer is a public sector company or an
undertaking of the Government of India or its departments. - Rs 100 crore
77. Where imports are made in non-physical form, i.e., software or data through internet / data com channels and
drawings and designs through e-mail / fax, a certificate from a ______ that the software / data / drawing/ design
has been received by the importer, may be obtained by AD Category I bank. - Chartered Accountant
78. Nominated banks and nominated agencies, as notified by DGFT, are permitted to import gold on ______ basis. All
sale of gold domestically will, however, be against upfront payment. Nominated banks are free to grant gold metal
loans. Consignment
79. Letters of Credit opened for import of gold in any form, including jewellery made of gold/precious metals or/and
studded with diamonds/semiprecious/ precious stones, should not exceed ____ Days from the date of shipment.- 90
80. opened for import of Platinum, Palladium, Rhodium and Silver and rough, cut and polished Diamonds, Precious and
semi-precious stones; should not exceed _____ days from the date of shipment.- 90
81. Regarding Clean Credit i.e. credit given by a foreign supplier to its Indian customer/buyer, without any Letter
82. Credit)/ Fixed Deposits from any Indian financial institution for import of rough, cut and polished diamonds, precious
and semiprecious stones, usance may be permitted for a period not exceeding _____ days from the date of
shipment.- 180
83. All Merchanting Trade Transactions shall be completed within an overall period of ___ months and there shall not be
any outlay of foreign exchange beyond ____ months. The commencement date of merchanting trade shall be the
date of shipment / export leg receipt or import leg payment, whichever is first. The completion date shall be the
date of shipment / export leg receipt or import leg payment, whichever is the last. - 9,4
84. In case of Merchanting trade transaction goods acquired will not enter ____ and our customer will act as a facilitator
between actual importer andexporter.- Domestic Tariff Area
85. related to another, if apart from spouse and members of HUF, Father, Mother, son, daughter, their spouses, brother
and sister ( including step) are considered as relatives under revised RBI guidelines for FEX transactions as per -
Companies Act 2013
86. A person resident in India, not being a company incorporated in India, may borrow in INR from NRIs/PIO/OCIs,
subject to other conditions, at a rate of Interest not more than _____ per cent above Bank Rate prevailing on the
date of availment of loan; - 2
87. AIC in External Commercial Borrowing: It includes rate of interest, other fees, expenses, charges, guarantee fees,
ECA charges, whether paid in foreign currency or INR but will not include commitment fees and withholding tax
payable in INR. In the case of fixed rate loans, the swap cost plus spread should not be more than the floating rate
plus the applicable spread. AIC means __ ? All In Cost
88. A country whose securities market regulator is a signatory to the IOSCO Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding
or a signatory to bilateral Memorandum of Understanding with the SEBI for information sharing arrangements. IOSCO
Means? International Organisation of Securities Commissions
89. MAMP (Minimum Average Maturity Period) normally for ECB will be ___ years other than specific sectors where
exceptions are stipulated. Call and put options, if any, shall not be exercisable prior to completion of minimum
average maturity period – 3 years
90. What is the All in Cost ceiling for ECBs? Benchmark Rate Plus ___ Basis points- 500
91. What is the All in Cost ceiling for Trade Credits in foreign currency? Benchmark Rate Plus ____ Basis points - 300
92. Export Incentives are valued at ____ Value. - FOB
93. Import duties are valued at ____Value. - CIF
94. outside Indian capital instruments where such investment is less than ____ percent of the post issue paid-up equity
capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company or less than ____ percent of the paid up value of each
series of capital instruments of a listed Indian company.- 10, 10
95. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, how much ______ Free On Board (FOB) Export Performance Value is required to
classify the staus of the Exporter as One Star Export House - USD 3 MIO
96. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, how much __________ Free On Board (FOB) Export Performance Value is required
to classify the staus of the Exporter as Two Star Export House - USD 15 MIO

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 92 | P a g e

97. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, how much __________ Free On Board (FOB) Export Performance Value is required
to classify the staus of the Exporter as Three Star Export House - USD 50 MIO
98. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, how much __________ Free On Board (FOB) Export Performance Value is required
to classify the staus of the Exporter as Four Star Export House - USD 200 MIO
99. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, how much __________ Free On Board (FOB)Export Performance Value is required to
classify the staus of the Exporter as Five Star Export House.- USD 800 MIO
100. Who can remit funds abroad under LRS (Liberalised Remittance scheme) -Only resident individuals, including
minors
101. What is the limitation regarding remittances under the LRS scheme for capital account transactions in
comparison with Current Account Transactions. - In capital account transactions, clubbingis not allowed for family
members.
102. Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, what is the maximum amount of foreign exchange allowed for
resident individual per Financial Year (April- March)? - USD 250,000
103. In which Currency remittance in LRS scheme can be made? -Any Foreign Currency
104. What is the maximum amount of foreign exchange that can be obtained for private visits abroad under LRS in one
financial year? -USD 250,000
105. What is the maximum amount a resident individual can remit as a gift or donation to a person or organization
outside India under LRS in one financial year? - USD 250,000
106. Number of position currencies in our Bank. -11
107. Commission of how much is to be collected per OPL in addition to OPL charges plus applicable GST. - Rs.1000/-
108. EDPMS/IDPMS RBI has directed AD Banks that in case of non-submission of documentary evidence by erring
exporters/importers, even after several follow-up such cases may be referred to ___ . Directorate of Enforcement
109. Full Form of FATF? - Financial Action Task Force
110. What is grey list of FATF? - A list of countries that have weak measures to combat Money Laundering &
Terrorist Financing
111. What is black list of FATF? -A list of countries with significant deficiencies in their regimes to counter Money
laundering, terrorist financing and financing of proliferation.
112. Branches/GTPC shall not permit _______ directly or indirectly to countries designated as High-Risk Jurisdiction
subject to a Call for Action (black list) under Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) available to resident individuals. -
Capital Account Remittances
113. TCS rates u/s 206C (1G) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for the remittance under LRS for education financed by loan
is . Nil Upto Rs.7 lakh 0.5% above Rs.7 lakh
114. TCS rates u/s 206C (1G) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for the remittanceunder LRS for medical
treatment/education (other than financed by loan) is______. Nil Upto Rs.7 Lakh 5% above Rs.7 lakh
115. TCS rates u/s 206C (1G) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for the remittance under LRS for other purposes is ______.
116. Nil upto Rs.7 lakh 20% above Rs.7 lakh
117. TCS rates u/s 206C (1G) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for the remittance under LRS for purchase of Overseas tour
program package is ______.5% till Rs.7 lakh 20% thereafter
118. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding reporting of LRS transactions to RBI. : AD Category I
Banks to upload daily transaction-wise at the close of business hours daily.
119. With regard to rationalisation of reporting in Single Master Form (SMF) on FIRMS (Foreign Investment Reporting
and Management System) portal which of the following statements is incorrect. -Late submission fee (LSF) should
be calculated manually.
120. If the forward contract remains outstanding on the __ working day beyond maturity and no instruction is received
for cancellation, Global Trade Processing Centre (GTPC) shall cancel the contract. - On the 3rd working day
121. Which of the following is not Prohibited as per Schedule I of FEMA guidelines -Cultural Tours
122. Which of the following is not Restricted as per Schedule II of FEMA guidelines - Maintenance expenses for close
relatives abroad
123. Which of the following is not Permissible as per Schedule III of FEMA guidelines.-Income on Non-Resident Special
Rupee (NRSR) Account.
124. Which Statement is not correct in respect of Liberalised Remittance Scheme? -Resident can gift to another
resident, in foreign currency, for the credit of the latter’s foreign currency account held abroad under LRS

**** DREAM FOR THE BEST & ALL THE BEST ****

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 93 | P a g e

 NOTICE

All readers are requested to share the link : https://t.me/+V3-DqWBa4HTPvzkD among your bankers colleagues /friends
to join this Bankers Diksha telegram group so that you will be benefited a lot from very experienced Bankers from Canara
Bank who is going to help we as a bankers in almost all facets of banking along with current Banking, Economy and
finance changes and Latest Promotion test materials such Circular Synopsis chapterwise, Circular based all possible
questions,Quick study materials on each chapter with possible Questions based on recalled and expected Questions, Mock
Test, Hot and Super Hot Questions and previous years recalled questions scale wise prepared by sanjay kumar Trivedy.
Also provide minimum two three magazines weekly/monthly, other bank/RBI guidelines. Study materials on
JAIIB/CAIIB/PROMOTION TEST, CANDLE QUIZ EXAMS, Work book to test your self, Separate materials on Credit, forex,
case study etc, Interview, Group Discussion, study materials also for scale 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 besides scale 1 to 3. Hence, Do
not forget to join this group by above link or scanning of QR Code as under :

SCAN QR CODE TO JOIN BANKERS DIKSHA TELEGRAM GROUP

Compiled by Team Aarohan, Circle Office, Lucknow 94 | P a g e