PNP Customs and Traditions (MODULE 1)

1. Which set of formal acts established by customs as proper for special occasions?
A. Salute
B Ceremony
C. Courtesy
D. Discipline
2. To honor the flag by raising stand singing the National Anthem before the start of
official day’s work.
A. Flag Retreat
B. Flag Ceremony
C. Flag Raising
D. all of the above
3. At the end of the official day’s work, the PNP members pause for the moment to
salute the lowering of the flag.
A. Flag Ceremony
B. Flag retreat
C. Flag Raising
D. All of the above
4. The flag is raised at half-mast in deference to deceased uniformed members of the
command.
A .Half -Mast
B .Full - mast
C. Retreat
D. all of the above
5. The relinquishment and assumption of command or key position of command is
publicity announced in a turn-over ceremony by the outgoing and incoming officer in the
presence of the immediate supervisor or his representative.
A. Turn over Ceremony
B. Assumption Ceremony
C. Exchange Ceremony
D. none of the above
PNP Road Map/PATROL PLAN 2030
1. Transformation begins and ends in every police officer.
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Probably True
d. All of the above .

2. The final test of a transformation program is PERSONAL GOVERNANCE

a. Personal Governance
b. Governance
c. Personal govern
d. All of the above
3. Points us to the direction where we should lead our lives.
a. Mission
 b. Values
c. Vision
d. None of the above

4. to be an instrument of GOD in promoting social and environmental responsibility

a. Sample Mission
b. Sample Vision
c. Mission
d. None of the above

5. A dream we intend to realize within a given timetable

a. Vision
b. Sample mission
c. Mission
d. Sample Vision

Human Rights and International Humanitarian Law

1. The comprehensive, systematic, and institutional compliance with international
human rights standards and practices in the conduct of police or law enforcement
functions.
A. Human Rights Based Policing
B. Recruitment Course in Public Safety
C. Leadership in Law Enforcement
D. Community Policing

2. Regulates the protection of persons and the conduct of hostilities in armed conflict
A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
B. The United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights of 1948
C. International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial
Discrimination
D. International Humanitarian Law
3. A violation of economic, social and cultural rights occurs when a State fails in its
obligations to ensure that they are enjoyed without discrimination or in its obligation to
respect, protect and fulfil them. Which of the following is an example of these violations
A. Failure to ensure a minimum wage sufficient for a decent living (rights at
work)
B. Denying access to information and services related to sexual and
reproductive health (the right to health)
C. Failure to prevent employers from discriminating in recruitment (based on
sex, disability, race, political opinion, social origin, HIV status, etc.) (The right
to work)
D. All of the above
4. A human rights principle which explains that everyone is born with and possesses
the same rights, regardless of where they live, their gender or race, or their religious,
cultural or ethnic background:
A. Indivisibility
B. Inalienable
C. Universal
D. Interrelated

5. Which of the following is an example of political rights?

A. Prohibits arbitrary arrest or detention
B. Right to elect government and vote
C. Freedom from torture
D. Presumption of innocence

Ecology and Environmental Protection

1. It is the science of living environment.
a. Environmental law
b. Ecology
c. Environmentalism
d. Global warming
2. In prosecution of Illegal Possession of Forest Product, which of the following is
necessary?
a. The evidence confiscated
b. The Sworn Statement of arresting police officers
c. Inventory of confiscated items
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

3. Which of the following is a condition precedent in the filing of violation of Clean Air
Act?
a. Order from the Pollution Adjudication Board
b. Authority to institute the case from the DENR
c. Notice of violation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
4. In building a case, which is the first step for a successful prosecution of
environmental cases?
a. Gathering of evidence
b. Preserving the evidence
c. Preparation of affidavits
d. Knowing the violation first

5. Which of the following is the proper way to gather evidence?

 a. Do a general search on the crime scene and make a systematic and
thorough search of the area
b. Take immediate and extra precaution in handling fragile evidence
c. If doubt exists as to the value of the item found, treat is as evidence until
proven otherwise. Keep it.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Peace Promoting Approach to Peace Building
1. Peace framework operationalization should start where?
a. Cohesive, secure and progressive nation achieved
b. Malasakit, pagbabago, at patuloy na pag-unlad
c. A high trust and resilient society, and a globally competitive knowledge
economy
d. Just and lasting peace attained
2. This is the process by which ex-combatants acquire civilian status and gain
sustainable employment and income. It is a political, social and economic process with
an open time-frame, primarily taking place in communities at the local level. *
a. Disarmament
b. Demobilization
c. Rehabilitation
d. Reintegration
3. PAMANA Program is anchored on the Government’s strategy of WINNING THE
PEACE by forging strategic partnerships in promoting convergent delivery of goods and
services, and addressing regional development challenges in conflict-affected and
conflict-vulnerable areas. PAMANA means what?
a. Pamayanang Masagana at Payapa
b. Payapa at Masaganang Pamayanan
c. Payapa at Maligayang Pamayanan
d. Pagbabago at Masaganang Pamayanan
4. The agenda towards AMBISYON 2040 is geared towards the following, what is
NOT included?
a. Matatag `
b. Malasakit
c. Maginhawa
d. Panatag

5. This is the collection, documentation, control and disposal of small arms,

ammunition, explosives and light and heavy weapons from combatants and often from
the civilian population.
a. Disarmament
b. Demobilization
c. Rehabilitation
d. Reintegration
 Gender Awareness and Development
1. Which of the following represents Gender and Development? *
a. GAD is the women’s human rights.
b. GAD seeks to empower women by giving them more opportunities.
c. GAD makes women superior to men.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

2. Is gender equality a concern for men?

a. No, it’s concern is for women.
b. Yes, men have equal status with women.
c. No, gender equality implies changes for both men and women.
d. Yes, as it’s seeks to equalize men and women.
e. All of the above

3. Why is gender equality important?

a. It is important for sustainable development and is vital to the realization of
human rights for all.
b. It is important in order for women and men enjoy the same opportunities,
rights and obligations in all spheres of life.
c. It is important so that both sexes are able to share equally in the distribution
of power and influence
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
4. Who is a woman in especially difficult circumstances under the following
situations?
a. A wife who has been physically abused by her husband
b. A woman who had suffered gynecological problem
c. A senior citizen who was abandoned by her family
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
5. Anatalia, solo parent, had undergone a surgery upon her breast. She is seeking for
your help upon which benefit is she entitled too. Which of the following is available for
her?
a. Solo Parent Leave
b. Special Leave Benefit
c. Sick Leave
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Introduction to National Security
1. It is described as a condition or state of being where the Filipino people's values, way
of life, institutions, welfare, and well-being, sovereignty and strategic relations are
protected and enhanced.
A- Food Security
B- National Security
C- Defense Security
D- Territorial security
2. It is the security and defense of a nation state, including its citizens, economy, and
institutions, which is regarded as a duty of government.
A- Food Security
B- National Security
C- Defense Security
D- Territorial security
3. In the following statement which is not belong to the three (3) major pillars of the
national Security
A- safeguarding the Philippine's National Unity, its democracy and its social
institutions;
B- Ensuring the security of the State and preserving and protecting its
sovereignty, territorial integrity and institutions;
C- Protection of properties, infrastructures and keeping the people safe
from all forms of threats, in the neighborhood.
D- Ensuring the security of the State and preserving and protecting its
sovereignty, territorial integrity and institutions;
4. It is the principal advisory body on the proper coordination and integration of plans
and policies affecting national security.
A- National Security council
B- Defense Security
C- Human security
D- Food Security
5. It seeks to "protect the vital core of all human lives in ways that enhance human
freedoms and human fulfillment"
A- National Security council
B- Defense Security
C- Human security
D- Food Security
6. It is the state of being a member of a particular social, political, or national
community.
A- Sovereignty
B- Citizenship
C- Country
D- None of the above

7. Considered as the second largest producer of marijuana in the world.

A- Vicka Vally of Libanon
 B- Mexico
C- Philippines
D- Morocco

8. The lack or absence of skills which help expose the person to drug abuse.
A- Ring of Fire
B- Personal risk factor
C- Natural disaster
D- Fear factor
9. According to the Narco Control Strategy Report of 2006, the Philippines became the
narcotic source and transshipment country. Illegal drugs enter the country through
seaports, economic zone, and airports.
A- Golden Crecent
B- Thailand
C- Philippine
D- Taiwan
10. It also became the major transshipment point for the worldwide distribution of illegal
drugs particularly shabu and cocaine from Taiwan, and South America. It is also noted
that this country today is known as the drug paradise of drug abusers in Asia. *
A- Golden Crecent
B- Thailand
C- Philippine
D- Taiwan

Human Resource Management (MODULE 2)

1. What is the mandatory training course for Police Executive Master Sergeant before
they can be promoted to the rank of Police Lieutenant?
a. Officer’s Basic Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
e. Junior Leadership Course
2. What is the mandatory training course for Patrolman/Patrolwoman for them to be
promoted to Police Corporal or Police Staff Sergeant?
a. PSJLC
b. PSOBC
c. PSOOC
d. PSBRC
e. PSSLC
3. Which of the following rank that Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
members who want to be promoted
a. Police Executive Master Sergeant
b. Police Master Sergeant
c. Police Chief Master Sergeant
d. Police Staff Sergeant
e. Police Corporal
4. What is the mandatory training course needed to be promoted to Police Master
Sergeant and Police Senior Master Sergeant
a. Police Basic Course
b. Junior Leadership Course
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Officers Candidate Course
e. Officers Basic Course
5. Which of the following rank that police personnel whose rank at the time of his
retirement is Police Lieutenant Colonel shall retire?
a. Police Brigadier General
b. Police Major General
c. Police Colonel
d. Police major
e. Police Captain

6. How much is the permanent disability pay?

a. 85% of his last salary
b. 80% of his last salary
c. 90% of his last salary
d. 100% of his last salary
e. None of the above
7. Police Major receives a base pay of Php 54, 000. He had been in the service for 26
years. How much is his longevity pay?
a. Php24, 200
b. Php25, 000
c. Php28, 500
d. Php27, 000
e. Php37, 000
8. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and receive a Base Pay of
85,000 pesos a month. How much will be his Longevity Pay?
a. 45,000 pesos
b. 37,500 pesos
c. 50,000 pesos
d. 42,500 pesos
e. 55, 000 pesos
9. What is the lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP?
a. Very Satisfactory
b. Fair
c. Outstanding
d. Poor
e. Excellent
10. What is the Time-In-Grade needed by a Police Captain before he/she could be
promoted to Police Major?
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
e. 6 years

Small Unit Management

1. Which refers to the phase of records management includes the recording of
information on paper, printed forms, tapes or any transmitting media?
a. Creation
b. Maintenance
c. Disposal
d. Classification
e. None of these

2. Which of the following is an example of a temporary record?

a. Personal Data Sheet
b. Resolution
c. Birth Certificate
d. Death Certificate
e. Voucher
3. Directives are official or authoritative instruction, likewise Issuances are action of
supplying or distributing something especially for official purposes. What kind of records
are these?
a. Legal
b. Historical
c. Archival
d. Permanent
e. Temporary
4. When there is a systematic control of records over creation, maintenance and
disposition, the result is?
a. Records Management
b. Records System
c. Records Retrieval
d. Records Control System
e. Records Systematic
5. When you have a plan to achieve your objectives and deal with change in your
clients’ demands you use this element?
a. Strategy
b. Style
c. Skills
d. System
e. Shared Values

Logistics Management
1. Who is the responsible for ensuring that servicemen and women have enough food,
ammunition and other supplies, likewise, he/she shall serve in a branch of the
PNP/Armed Forces or the Coast Guard and oversee the entire supply chain, from
ordering and warehousing to delivering materials to military bases and outposts?
a. Procurement Officer
b. Logistics Officer
c. Regulatory Officer
d. Supply Officer
e. None of the above

2. Which of the following best describe Inbound Logistics?

a. It is one of the primary processes of logistics concentrating on
purchasing and arranging the inbound movement of materials, parts, or
unfinished inventory from suppliers to manufacturing or assembly plants,
warehouses, or retail stores.
b. This refers to the process related to the storage and movement of the final
product and the related information flows from the end of the production line to
the end user.
c. The field of logistics that consists of activities such as market research,
requirements planning, make-or-buy decisions, supplier management, ordering,
and order controlling.
d. A logistics in which the main task is the delivery of the finished products to the
customer. It consists of order processing, warehousing, and transportation.
e. It is a term used by the logistics, supply chain, and manufacturing industries
to denote specific time-critical modes of transport used to move goods or objects
rapidly in the event of an emergency.

3. Which of the following best describe Outbound Logistics?

a. It is one of the primary processes of logistics concentrating on purchasing and
arranging the inbound movement of materials, parts, or unfinished inventory
from suppliers to manufacturing or assembly plants, warehouses, or retail
stores.
b. This refers to the process related to the storage and movement of the
final product and the related information flows from the end of the
production line to the end user.
 c. The field of logistics that consists of activities such as market research,
requirements planning, make-or-buy decisions, supplier management, ordering,
and order controlling.
d. A logistics in which the main task is the delivery of the finished products to the
customer. It consists of order processing, warehousing, and transportation.
e. It is a term used by the logistics, supply chain, and manufacturing industries
to denote specific time-critical modes of transport used to move goods or objects
rapidly in the event of an emergency.

4. Procurement Logistics is described as;

a. It is one of the primary processes of logistics concentrating on purchasing and
arranging the inbound movement of materials, parts, or unfinished inventory
from suppliers to manufacturing or assembly plants, warehouses, or retail
stores.
b. This refers to the process related to the storage and movement of the final
product and the related information flows from the end of the production line to
the end user.
c. The field of logistics that consists of activities such as market research,
requirements planning, make-or-buy decisions, supplier management,
ordering, and order controlling.
d. A logistics in which the main task is the delivery of the finished products to
the customer. It consists of order processing, warehousing, and transportation.
e. It is a term used by the logistics, supply chain, and manufacturing industries
to denote specific time-critical modes of transport used to move goods or
objects rapidly in the event of an emergency.

5. Of, the following, which best described Distribution Logistics?

a. It is one of the primary processes of logistics concentrating on purchasing and
arranging the inbound movement of materials, parts, or unfinished inventory
from suppliers to manufacturing or assembly plants, warehouses, or retail
stores.
b. This refers to the process related to the storage and movement of the final
product and the related information flows from the end of the production line to
the end user.
c. The field of logistics that consists of activities such as market research,
requirements planning, make-or-buy decisions, supplier management, ordering,
and order controlling.
d. A logistics in which the main task is the delivery of the finished products
to the customer. It consists of order processing, warehousing, and
transportation.
e. It is a term used by the logistics, supply chain, and manufacturing industries
to denote specific time-critical modes of transport used to move goods or
objects rapidly in the event of an emergency.
6. A kind of logistics that denotes all the operations related to the reuse of products and
materials. The process includes the management and the sale of surpluses, as well as
products being returned to vendors from buyers. It also stands for all operations related
to the reuse of products and materials. It is the process of planning, implementing, and
controlling the efficient, cost effective flow of raw materials, in-process inventory,
finished goods and related information from the point of consumption to the point of
origin for the purpose of recapturing value or proper disposal.
a. Rebound Logistics
b. Reverse Logistics
c. Procurement Logistics
d. Distribution Logistics
e. Inbound Logistics
7. It is a term used by the logistics, supply chain, and manufacturing industries to denote
specific time-critical modes of transport used to move goods or objects rapidly in the
event of an emergency. The reason for enlisting this kind of logistics services could be
a production delay or anticipated production delay, or an urgent need for specialized
equipment to prevent events such as aircraft being grounded (also known as "aircraft
on ground"—AOG), ships being delayed, or telecommunications failure. This involves
governments, the military, aid agencies, donors, non-governmental organizations and
emergency logistics services are typically sourced from a specialist provider.
a. Rebound Logistics
b. Reverse Logistics
c. Emergency Logistics
d. Construction Logistics
e. Outbound Logistics
8. The speed of the inventory movement across the supply chain depends on this
method. An improper way of material handling will add to the product damages and
delays in deliveries and incidental overheads. Mechanization and automation in material
handling enhance the logistics system productivity. Another considerations are the
volumes to be handled, the speed required for material movement and the level of
service to be offered to the customer. What kind of logistics function is being describe?
a. Order Processing
b. Inventory control
c. Material Handling and Storage
d. Logistical Packaging
e. None of the above
9. Record management is very important in any kind of transactions, this function is to
keep enough accounts to meet customer requirements, and simultaneously its carrying
cost should be lowest. It is basically an exercise of striking a balance between the
customer service for not losing market opportunity and the cost to meet the same. What
do you call this function?
a. Order Processing
b. Inventory control
c. Material Handling and Storage
d. Logistical Packaging
e. Supply and Demand
10. The term describes logistic processes within a value adding system (ex: factory or
a mine). This particular kind of logistics aims to ensure that each machine and
workstation receives the right product in the right quantity and quality at the right time.
The concern is with production, testing, transportation, storage and supply and can
operate in existing as well as new plants: since manufacturing in an existing plant is a
constantly changing process, machines are exchanged and new ones added, which
gives the opportunity to improve the production logistics system accordingly. Production
logistics provides the means to achieve customer response and capital efficiency. What
field of logistics is being referred to?
a. Emergency Logistics
b. Humanitarian Logistics
c. Production Logistics
d. Green Logistics
e. Yellow Logistics

Financial Management and Literacy

1. PEMS Lazaro receives his salary from the Finance Department of PNP, a government
agency that received allotment for the salaries and wages of the personnel in uniform
from the government which is commonly known as public finance. What will be the type
of finance if some portion of his salary was deposited in the bank?
A. Private Finance
B. Public Finance
C. Institutional Finance
D. International finance
E. Regional Finance
2. Recent information indicates some internal difficulties among group members. The
group has a remarkable record of accomplishment. Members have effectively
maintained long range goals. They have worked in harmony for the past year. All are
well qualified for the tasks. What is the best option that you have to do?
A. Try out your solution with the group and examine the need for new
procedures.
B. Allow group members to work it out themselves.
C. Act quickly and firmly to correct and redirect.
D. Participate in problem discussion while providing support for group members
E. All of the above
3. PSSg Litung is able to access information from her desktop publishing software,
word-processing software, and spread sheet software at the same time on her personal
computer. This is an example of an operating system with what capabilities?
A. multiprocessing
B. multi-user
E. multipurpose
C. multitasking
D. multithreading
4. Teddy Corpuz is a member (a type of owner) of a marine supply business. What
type of business ownership is this?
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Limited liability corporation
C. Corporation
D. general partnership
E. None of this
5. A corporation in which you are a shareholder has just gone bankrupt. Its liabilities are
far in excess of its assets. You will be called on to pay what portion of your liabilities?
A. A proportionate share of bondholder claims based on the number of common
shares that you own.
B. A proportional share of all creditor claims based on the number of common
shares that you own.
C. An amount that could, at most, equal what you originally paid for the shares
of
D. Nothing.
E. All of the above
6. In putting up a business or a company, lifeblood of the business should always be
satisfied because running a business always needs money or funds to sustain the
different resources needed by the company, without money the company will lose
potential clients and eventually, the profit. What is considered to be the lifeblood of
business organization?
A. Economics
B. Accounting
C. Finance
D. Auditing
E. All of these
7. Mang Boy is an ordinary family man who wants to put up his own small business to
support the needs of his family. To satisfy all the needed capital and resources, he
borrowed money from the bank. What type of finance is being portrayed in this
scenario?
A. Private
B. Public
C. International
D. Regional
E. All of the above
8. Government funds or property shall be spent or used solely for public purposes. Trust
funds shall be available and may be spent only for the specific purpose for which the
trust was created or the funds received and all transactions shall be subjected to the
usual accounting and auditing purposes. This kind of transaction in the government
sector is called what?
A. Private Finance
B. Public Finance
C. Institutional
 D. All of the above
9. In the context of operating leverage break-even analysis, if selling price per unit rises
and all other variables remain constant, the operating break-even point in units will:
A. Fall
B. Rise
C. Stay the same.
D. Still be indeterminate.
Option 5
10. A corporation is a legal entity created by a state, and it is separate and distinct from
its owners and managers. It is this separation that limits stockholders’ losses to the
amount they invested in the firm—the corporation can lose all of its money, but its
owners can lose only the funds that they invested in the company. Corporations also
have unlimited lives, and it is easier to transfer shares of stock in a corporation than
one’s interest in an unincorporated business. A major advantage of the corporate form
of organization is;
A. Reduction of double taxation.
B. Limited owner liability.
C. Legal restrictions.
D. Ease of organization.
E. All of the above

PNP Administrative Disciplinary Bodies and Its Function

1. Will deliberate appealed cases at least once in a month and its Chairman is a senior
NAPOLCOM Regional Officer and members are a designated RPOC Representative by
way of Council Resolution and a PNP Representative designated by the Regional
Directors, both of which shall be confirmed by the Vice-Chairperson and Executive
Officer of the Commission and have term of office for three (3) years from the date of
confirmation of their designation unless sooner revoked by their respective offices they
will hold Office until another has been confirmed and the RD, NAPOLCOM can
recommend revocation of their designation to their respective Offices because of
sickness, non-performance or inability to perform their duties for their replacements.
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. SILG Appellate
D. CSC Appellate
2. The authority of the Chief PNP, Regional Directors and the NAPOLCOM en banc to
render the maximum penalty imposable dismissal from the service of the police officer
A. when the offense has serious charge and the evidence of guilt is strong
B. when the respondent is a recidivist or has been repeatedly charged and
there are reasonable grounds to believe that he is guilty of the charge
C. when the respondent is guilty of a serious offense involving conduct
unbecoming of a Police Officer
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
3. He shall establish National, Regional and Provincial Internal Affairs Service Offices
to effectively and efficiently execute pro-active inspection and audit on Police Officer
and Units; investigate complaints and gather evidence in support of an open
investigation; conduct summary hearings on Police Officer on administrative charges;
submission of periodic reports on the assessment, analysis and evaluation of character
and behavior of the Police Officer before the court as evidence warrants and assists in
the prosecution of the case; and, provide assistance to the Office of the Ombudsman in
cases involving Police Officer.
A. Inspector General
B. Superior Officer
C. Chief PNP
D. Regional Director
4. It shall have jurisdiction over incidents where a Police Officer discharges a firearm;
incidents where death, serious physical injury or violation of human rights happened in
the conduct of police operations; incidents where evidence was compromised,
tampered with, obliterated or lost while in the custody of the Police Officer; incidents
where a suspect in custody of the police personnel was seriously injured; and, incidents
where the established Rules of Engagement have been violated.
A. Preliminary Investigation
B. Moto Proprio Investigation
C. Custodial Investigation
D. None of the above
5. It is a process to know the existence of probable cause on the allegation on the
administrative complaint and available supporting evidence.
A. Pre-Charge Investigation
B. Filing and Assignment of Cases to Summary Hearing Officers
C. Due Process of the Disposition of Cases for Formal Hearing
D. Submission of Position Papers
6. When the death occurred when the formal investigation reached the stage where
respondent is considered to have been afforded due process
A. Case dismissed
B. Case not dismissed
C. Case Close
D. None of the above
7. It is the omission or refusal without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which
it was the legal obligation to perform where it implies a duty and it breach and the fact
that can never be found in the absence of duty.
A. Neglect of Duty or Nonfeasance
B. Irregularities in the Performance
C. Misconduct or Malfeasance
D. Incompetence
8. It is the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination or excessive use of
authority.
A. Incompetence
 B. Oppression
C. Dishonesty
D. Irregularities in the Performance
9. It is known as the “Uniform Rules of Procedure before the Administrative Disciplinary
Authorities and the Internal Affairs Service of the Philippine National Police”.
A. NAPOLCOM MC No. 2016 – 002
B. NAPOLCOM MC No. 2017 – 002
C. NAPOLCOM MC No. 2019 – 002
D. NAPOLCOM MC No. 2018 – 002
10. The offense is punishable by withholding of privileges; restriction to specified limits;
suspension or forfeiture of salary; or any combination thereof, for a period of fifteen (15)
days, the complaint shall be brought before;
A. Provincial Director
B. Chief of Police
C. City/Municipal Mayor
D. PLEB

NATURE AND IMPORTANCE OF LEADERSHIP (MODULE 3)

Due to the perceived inadequacy of Iba Municipal Police Station to meet its
institutional goals as evidenced by poor performance rating during the 1st quarter
evaluation conducted by higher headquarters, the need for institutional reform which
started from reshuffling of key personnel in the unit was undertaken by its newly
designated COP. PSMS Almirol was relieved as C, Invest and was subsequently
appointed as C, Operations.
1. In analyzing various factors affecting the performance of his team, PSMS Almirol
should consider the following, EXCEPT.
a. Demographic distribution of his group in terms of education and
training, rank, gender, values and age;
b. Size or strength of his team;
c. Unity
d. Organizational responsiveness; and
e. Culture inherent in the group.

2. In determining success in the implementation of various specialized activities to be

undertaken by his team, PSMS Almirol should be PRIMARILY interested in which of the
following?
a. Size or strength of his team;
b. Demographic profile of his team;
c. Nature of the activity to be undertaken;
d. Human and logistical resources provided by his superior officers; and
e. Training attended by members of his team;
3. As a manager, PSMS Almirol would be PRIMARILY interested in determining which
of the following factors which may influence the performance of his team? *
a. Organizational culture;
b. Organizational resources;
c. Organizational climate;
d. Demographic characteristics of members of his team; and
e. Esprit d’ corps.
4. Despite efforts to effectively perform as a group, PSMS Almirol and his team may be
confronted with various situational factors which may hinder effective implementation of
various programs lined up for his team. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY
included?
a. Inherent nature of the problem being addressed by a program;
b. Various organizational constraints;
c. Political atmosphere;
d. Imposed time constraints in the implementation of various activities; and
e. Dissimilar orientation of members of his team;
5. Viewed from situational factors of leadership, which of the following may LEAST
support PSMS Almirol in the successful implementation of his team’s goals and
objectives?
a. Nature of activity to be undertaken;
b. Support from local government units;
c. Organizational support system;
d. Organizational strategies used by the PNP; and
e. Well planned program and activities outlined by the team.

TRAITS, MOTIVES AND CHARACTERISTICS OF LEADERSHIP

In one situation, elements of the station in coordination with the PDEA successfully
arrested a notorious drug pusher operating in the area. This significant
accomplishment is made possible through the able leadership of PSMS Bautista of
Pantabangan MPS who was tasked as a Team Leader in the conduct of the said
operation.
1. To say that PSMS Bautista as a leader possesses technical/ specific skill in doing
his task, he has shown the following, EXCEPT… *
a. Knowledge in conducting search incidental to lawful arrest.
b. Knowledge about Police Operational Procedures;
c. Knowledge on pertinent provisions of RA 9165;
d. Knowledge in the implementation of warrantless arrest; and
e. Knowledge in the conduct of preliminary investigation.
2. Being a Team Leader, his knowledge and skills is PRIMARILY evident in which of
the following?
a. Custodial investigation;
b. Preservation of evidence;
c. Inventory of seized evidence;
 d. Letters A and B are both correct; and
e. Letters B and C are both correct.
3. Which of the following LEAST LIKELY proves that PSMS Bautista is a charismatic
leader?
a. That he can motivate his subordinates to perform their job well;
b. That he is admired by his subordinates;
c. That he pleases everyone.
d. That he inspires his subordinates; and
e. That people seek his opinions;
4. The following showcases PSMS Bautista’s preoccupation with his role as a Team
Leader, EXCEPT *
a. That he does what he says;
b. That he perform his duties well as a Team Leader;
c. That he effectively and efficiently carries out his task a Team Leader
when instructed by higher officers;
d. That he prioritizes his work and gives importance to his being a leader; and
e. That he takes full responsibility for the action of his team in every operation
5. PSMS Bautista’s clear sense of purpose as a Team Leader is PRIMARILY
manifested by which of the following?
a. He effectively implement various tasks using multiple strategies;
b. He knows what is expected to be achieved by his team and clearly relate it
to everybody;
c. He makes sure that goals are clearly understood by his subordinates;
d. He ensure that all members of the team accomplish their task with focus;
and
e. He ensure that his team accomplish the task on a given time.

SERVANT BRIDGING ADAPTIVE LEADERSHIP

PMSg Geronimo is known for his genuine concern to serve people. In many
occasions, he received various awards and recognition from various groups and
organizations for his exemplary display of good deeds and service. In the eyes of
many, he is not just a police officer who implement the law but a true brother who
readily offer himself to provide assistance in times of need.

1. To say that PMSg Geronimo is a servant leader, he can be BEST described as...
a. A servant first;
b. A leader first;
c. A follower first;
d. Letters A and B are both correct;
e. Letters B and C are both correct

2. Being a servant leader, which of the following is his fundamental characteristic?

a. A servant heart;
 b. A servant mind;
c. A servant act;
d. A servant deed; and
e. A servant belief.
PSMS Corpuz upon assumption to duty as C, PCR of Magalang Municipal Police Station
immediately conducted dialogue among community people in different barangays. It
was apparent however that during those dialogue, he observed that majority of the
people are indifferent towards the programs and activities undertaken by their unit.

3. Applying the principle of bridging leadership, PSMS Corpuz should realize that...
a. Key to this leadership concept is the capacity of an individual to move from a
personal understanding and ownership of a social issue to a collective action
to resolve the issue;
b. Collective action is a desired outcome of bridging leadership;
c. Self understanding of a social issue is what matters most in this leadership
concept;
d. Letters A and B are correct; and
e. Letters B and C are correct.

4. In bridging leadership, collective action implies that...

a. Personnel of the station produces the best result;
b. Personnel of the station in their effort to enforce the law and prevent crimes
in the area are fully supported by the community;
c. The police and the community people are unison in fighting crimes and
promoting lasting peace in the area;
d. Letters A and B are correct; and
e. Letters B and C are correct
Barangay San Felipe, a Muslim populated community in Olongapo City
registered the highest number of crimes in the past two years. Responding to this, the
City Director intensified an anti-criminality campaign in the area focusing on
strengthening PCR related activities. PMSg Karim Khalid, a muslim brother and a known
advocate of Islamic teachings was designated as a Team Leader of Sala’am police, a
police unit especially created to undertake law enforcement activities in the area.

5. Following the principle of adaptive leadership, which of the following statements BEST
justify the creation of Sala’am police?
a. That the creation of Sala’am police would help Olongapo City Police
Office adapt and thrive to challenging environment in that area;
b. That there is a need to create special police force to address the law
enforcement needs of the area affected;
c. That Sala’am police will contribute in peace keeping effort in the area;
d. That there is a need to create additional police unit to ensure prevention of
crime in the area; and
e. That since other localities use Sala’am police, it can also be used by the
Olongapo City Police Office as well.
 RESPONSIBILITIES AND ROLE OF A LEADER

In the implementation of Oplan Double Barrel Reloaded, PSMS Ibañez in his

capacity as Team Leader of Mabalacat City Police Station is expected to perform
various responsibilities and roles as a leader.

1. Viewed from his role as a Team Leader, PSMS Ibañez should perform the following,
EXCEPT…
a. That he should motivate his team members in performing their specific
duties and responsibilities;
b. That he should decide on matters pertaining to his team’s resources;
c. That he should come up with most effective plans to be implemented
by the team to address lapses in the implementation of the program;
d. That he should transmit information to his subordinates; and
e. That he should take responsibility as Team Leader for any untoward
occurrences.

2. As a monitor, which of the following is expected of him?

a. He should receive all types of information;
b. He should provide internal and external information;
c. He would exchange information;
d. Letters A and B are both correct;
e. Letters B and C are both correct.

3. Which of the following is PRIMARILY expected of him as a disseminator?

a. He would gather information;
b. He would verify information;
c. He would screen what information to be given;
d. He would forward mail to members of the organization; and
e. He would provide information to members of his team.

4. As a spokesperson, he would LEAST LIKELY do which of the following?

a. Inform the community about Oplan Double Barrel Reloaded;
b. Clarify issues regarding the station’s policies on the implementation of the
program;
c. Defend various limitations in the implementation of the program;
d. Answer queries on the implementation of the program; and
e. Inform the community about the status of the program.
5. Which of the following would NOT showcase his decisional role as a Team Leader?
a. That he would provide alternative approaches in addressing a problem;
b. That he would initiate change by coming up with novel solutions to any
difficulty;
c. That he would approve significant changes to be implemented by his team;
d. That he disallow change; and
 e. That he would use his executive prerogative by directing his
subordinates when needed.

LEADERSHIP CATEGORIES AND STYLES

1. Which of the following leader are known to be a classical leader?
a. Autocratic Leader
b. Laissez Faire Leader
c. Democratic Leader
d. Bureaucratic Leader

2. When does autocratic leader NOT applicable?

a. Staff expects their opinions heard
b. Staff depends on their manager to make all their decisions
c. Low staff morale, high turnover and absenteeism and work stoppage
d. All of the above
3. Among the list below are the good characteristics of autocratic leadership styles,
where it can be proven to be good and effective, which one is NOT?
a. Work needs to be coordinated with another department or organization
b. Newly trained staff know which tasks perform or which procedures to follow
c. Effective supervision provided only through detailed orders and instructions
d. Staff do not respond to any other leadership style

4. Which of the following leader lead by the “book”?

a. Autocratic Leader
b. Laissez Faire Leader
c. Democratic Leader
d. Bureaucratic Leader

5. A bureaucratic leader to be effective may employ the following in the following

situation EXCEPT what? *
a. Staff performing routine tasks over and over;
b. Staff needs to understand certain standards or procedures;
c. Work habits form that is hard to break, especially if they are no longer
useful;
d. Public Safety or national security training conducted;

LEADERSHIP ETHICS AND SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY

1. Ethics is at the center of leadership because the goal of a rational leader is to merge
the interests of all parties so that everyone benefits and the organization prospers.
Ethical behavior therefore are characterizes by the following, EXCEPT one.
a. Be honest and trustworthy and have integrity in dealing with others
b. Pay attention to all stakeholders
c. Listen only to the superior in the hierarchy of the organization because
they are always right
d. Accomplishment are celebrated in silent victories
2. Examples of factors contributing to how one person’s ethics differ from another
include the person’s level of greed, gluttony, and avarice; the person’s level of moral
development; the person’s sense of entitlement; the situation itself, combined with the
organizational culture; and/or the person’s character
a. True
b. False
3. This is an ethical framework and suggests that an individual has an obligation to work
and cooperate with other individuals and organizations for the benefit of society at
large.
a. Ethical Standards
b. Social Responsibility
c. Leadership Ability
d. Moral Obligations

4. This is the study of separating right from wrong.

a. Morals
b. Integrity
c. Values
d. Ethics

5. One of the following do not belong to social (corporate) responsibility. *

a. Philanthropy
b. Diversity and labor practices
c. Environment Conservation
d. Organizational and personnel efficiency

IRREFUTABLE LAWS OF LEADERSHIP

1. When leader develops followers, the growth rate is one person at a time. But when
leaders develop leaders who will develop leaders, growth is multiplied, and the highest
possible level of success is achieved.
a. The Law of Addition
b. The Law of Explosive Growth
c. The Law of Priorities*
d. The Law of Reproduction
2. Leadership and success have costs. Leaders are oftentimes faced with the need to
give up their rights to think of themselves. This means that a leader must give up to go
up, what is this?
a. The Law of Priorities
b. The Law of Victory *
c. The Law of Sacrifice
d. The Law of Big Mo.
3. Trust is the most important thing a leader must engender. A leader builds trust by
consistently exemplifying competence, connection and character.
a. The Law of Respect *
 b. The Law of Influence
c. The Law of Solid Grounds
d. The Law of the Inner Circle
4. A good leader finds other leaders; builds them up; gives those resources, authority,
and responsibility; and then lets them go off to achieve.
a. The Law of Empowerment
b. The Law of the Lid
c. The Law of Explosive Growth
d. The Law of Addition
5. No one becomes a leader overnight. Even when someone is gifted with natural
abilities, one still has to build one's collection of leadership skills. There are many facets
to leadership, among which are respect, experience, discipline, and vision. This
statement refers to what law?
a. The Law of the Lid
b. The Law of Process
c. The Law of Legacy
d. The Law of Reproduction

LEADERS AND MANAGERS

1. When you are working out in broad outline the things that need to be done and the
methods that doing them to accomplish the purpose set for the PNP, what managerial
function are you doing?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Designing
d. Staffing
2. What is the practice in which a police manager leads subordinates by sharing power,
responsibility and decision making with them?
a. Entitlement
b. Empowerment
c. Commission
d. Endowment
3. When a police executive believes in minimal supervision, leaving most decisions to
subordinates, he is practicing the leadership style of. *
a. Participative.
b. Diplomatic.
c. Bureaucratic.
d. Free-Reign.
4. When a police officer initiates, accepts the status quo, is a classical soldier, and
does thing right, he is usually a police
a. Leader
b. Commander
c. Manager
 d. Director
5. All of the following are characteristics of Principle – Centered leadership according to
Stephen Covey, except;
a. Leaders are continually learning
b. They are service oriented
c. They lived balance lives
d. They are God-Centered persons

LEADERS AND FOLLOWERS

1. Which of the following statements best describes the definition of Followership
a. A term used to describe the action of someone in a subordinate role
b. A term used to describe the action of someone in an analogous role
c. A term used to describe the action of someone in a parallel role
d. A term used to describe the action of someone in an important role
e. A term used to describe the action of someone in a superior role

2. All of the following are qualities of an effective follower, except;

a. Honest
b. Theatrical
c. Courageous
d. Ambitious
e. Diligent

3. All of the following are characteristics of a good follower, except

a. Scrutinizes himself/herself
b. Does his/her best
c. Assists those of lesser authority
d. Relies on competence
e. Seeks support from fear *

4. Which of the following is not a quality of a good leader

a. Has an exemplary character
b. Is enthusiastic about his work
c. Is confident
d. Thinks analytically
e. Feels uncomfortable to non-performers
5. While reporting for duty a police officer found a bag containing the name of the owner
and 50,000 cash, instead of keeping it he returned the bag to the owner. Which of the
following adjectives best describes the police officer?
a. He is honest
b. He is sincere
c. He is truthful
d. He is reputable
e. He is respectful
 POWER AND LEADERSHIP
1. Who among the following writers has written the famous lines? “Power intoxicates
men. When a men intoxicated by alcohol he can recover, but when intoxicated by power
he seldom recovers”.
a. James F Biermos
b. James F Byernos
c. James F Byiernos
d. James F Byermos
e. James F Biernos

2. Which of the following statements best describes the definition of leadership.

a. The activity of persuading people to cooperate in the achievement of a
common objective.
b. The activity of commanding people to cooperate in the achievement of a
common objective.
c. The activity of ordering people to cooperate in the achievement of a common
objective.
d. The activity of dictating people to cooperate in the achievement of a
common objective.
e. The activity of requiring people to cooperate in the achievement of a
common objective.
3. A condition in which one individual (A) has something that another individual (B)
needs or wants is called
a. Relativity
b. Reputability
c. Trust
d. Helplessness
e. Dependency
4. Which of the following types of power that no one can take it away from you because
it is based on knowledge that you hold?
a. Legitimate
b. Referent
c. Expert
d. Information
e. Connection
5. A power that creates proxy and you can attain this by gaining favor and being a source
of information for the people you attached with is called *
a. Information
b. Connection
c. Referent
d. Expert
e. Legitimate

SALESMANSHIP
1. Of the list below, what is not a purpose within the concept of a salesman?
a. To earn and gain
b. To boost Productivity
c. Meeting the demand & supply
d. Mission and people oriented

2. As to leadership concept, what is not part of the common purpose?

a. Income and gain
b. Work productivity
c. Meet need and demand
d. Mission and people oriented
3. They keep their team focused and moving forward with a sense of urgency,
regardless of the circumstances. This only means that a leader must be like a salesman
who focus on agenda not on self.
a. Target Fixation
b. Hiring Ability
c. Command Instinct
d. Sales Intuition
4. A salesmanship is a mentorship-based profession, and a key differentiator of great
sales leaders is their ability to dispense tactical sales advice and add value during
customer meetings.
a. Target Fixation*
b. Hiring Ability
c. Command Instinct
d. Sales Intuition
5. Great sales leaders understand that there is a diversity of selling styles by which
sales people can achieve success. Therefore, they don’t employ a one-size-fits-all
coaching style. Rather, they adapt their style to suit each individual.
a. Strategic Leadership
b. Control Orientation
c. Coaching Adaptability
d. Hiring Ability*

LEADERSHIP ACTIONS
1. “Leadership is action, not ________”. The blank stands for;
a. Prestige
b. Position
c. Posture
d. Pose
e. Honor

2. If leadership is truly action, it is important that it must be the;

a. Right exploit
b. Right feat
 c. Right energy
d. Right action
e. Right force

3. Who among the leadership theorists formulated Action Centered Leadership?

a. John Adair’
b. John Adaire
c. John Adair
d. John Addair
e. John Addaire

4. All of the following are activities in achieving the task, except;

a. Estimating events
b. Reviewing progress*
c. Agreeing of objectives
d. Evaluating performance
e. Allocating of resources

5. All of the following are leadership actions that support staff members, except;
a. Schedule time for regular conversation
b. Be open to provide help
c. Ask questions to be answered in a meaningful
d. Honor contributions and successes
e. Contact members repeatedly

HUMAN RELATIONS
1. These are the things that have worth or are important to the individuals, which are
stronger and more stable than attitudes. The employees don't possess the skills or
abilities required to perform, but they are confident and very eager to learn. What is
being discuss here?
A. Behavior
B. Values
C. Attitude
D. Norms
2. This theory describes a manager whose assumptions are that his/her employees do
like to work, and they are motivated to work successfully even without close supervision.
This means to say that workers are motivated and interested to do their job and meet
the common goals. What is theory that was coined by Douglas McGregor in 1960?
A. Contingency Theory
B. Theory X
C. Theory of Relativity
D. Theory Y

3. He is considered to be the Father of Human Relations.

A. Edward Frances
B. Robert Greenleaf
 C. Elton Mayo
D. Fritz Gerald
4. This refers to an increase in performance caused by the special attention given to
employees.
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Green light Effect
C. Hawthorne Studies
D. Green light Studies
5. It is a field of study or program designed to develop better interpersonal and
intergroup adjustments. It also covers all types of interactions among people, their
conflicts, cooperative efforts and group relationships particularly in a workplace of
professional setting.
A. Human Relations
B. Intrapersonal Skills
C. Interpersonal Skills
D. Human Development

COMMUNICATING EFFECTIVELY
1. Within a larger communication system, a computer keyboard is what type of
device?
A. Encoder
B. Transmitter
C. Decoder
D. Storage device
2. Using a systems model of input, process, output and feedback, when a student is
speaking to a friend on a cell phone, the cell phone is part of the ____________
A. Input
B. Process
C. Output
D. Feedback
3. Using non-verbal communication, a traffic sign shaped as a red octagon means a
driver should?
A. Caution
B. Yield
C. Stop
D. Go
4. A receiving messages without using words, such as through body motions, facial
expressions and eye contact
A. Communication style
B. Personal space
C. Non-verbal communication
 D. Direct eye contact

5. What is the correct explanation of a feedback?

A. Information about the outputs of a process or system that is used to
regulate the system
B. Something that is emerging as popular
C. An imagined set of events with details plans or possibilities
D. Imitation or acting how something works

THE LEADER’S ROLE IN RESOLVING CONFLICT AND NEGOTIATING

STYLE

PSMS Lauro Castro after 15 years of service was designated as a Team Leader of
San Simon Municipal Police Station. As such, he is expected to make decisions on
various situations within his level.
______1. If PSMS Lauro Castro uses the Rational Decision-Making Process to guide
him in this task, he would adhere on the following statements concerning the process,
EXCEPT...
a. The process gives him a complete information about the situation that
requires decision at his level;
b. The process provides him known options;
c. The process gives him clear preferences on what option to make;
d. The process ensures solution of the problem sought to be addressed; or
e. The process gives him maximum payoff.
_____2. In making decisions anchored from the Rational Decision-Making Process,
PSMS Lauro Castro would be using the following steps, EXCEPT...
a. Defining the problem;
b. Identifying decision criteria;
c. Allocating weights to the criteria;
d. Developing alternatives; and
e. Consulting superiors on the strength and weaknesses of each option.
Situation 2 PSMS Cariaga is one of the most admirable police officers in town.
He strictly adheres to the PNP Values and Ethical Standard and strongly encourage his
subordinates to follow the same. In one occasion, his attention was called by the COP
in his capacity as a Team Leader as the former received feedback pointing to three (3)
Patrolmen assigned in his team regarding their alleged involvement on extortion
activities in the area. As a response to this matter, PSMS Cariaga immediately
recommended the relief of subject Patrolmen from their unit.
_____3. Viewed from the ethical principle of focusing on rights, the action of PSMS
Cariaga is tainted with doubt and irregularity because... *
a. the recommendation of PSMS Cariaga to relieve the three (3) PO1 from their
station will not provide greater benefit for the greater number of personnel in
their station;
 b. the transfer of the three (3) PO1s to other units will not address their illegal
activities;
c. it was not the same action he undertook in similar cases;
d. the action of PSMS Cariaga is unfair on the part of the three (3) personnel
involved in the case; and
e. the three (3) Patrolman were deprived of their rights to due process as
objective investigation was not conducted prior to their relief.
_____4. Viewed from the perspective of justice, PSMS Cariaga will most likely
recommend sanction that is...
a. fair and consistent;
b. strictly in accordance to the practice of the station;
c. based from the norms accepted by the majority;
d. derived after making due considerations; and
e. obtained after conducting objective investigation.

_____5. Following the principle of utilitarianism, PSMS Cariaga in his capacity as a

Team Leader should come up with a recommendation that is...
a. based from objective investigation;
b. legally sound;
c. more beneficial to a greater number of people;
d. just and fair; and
e. consistent with fundamental liberties of people.

DOCTRINE OF COMMAND RESPONSIBILITY

1. What Executive Order Number pertains to Doctrine of Command Responsibility?
a. 226
b. 223
c. 126
d. 216
e. 026
2. All of the following are government agencies that are tasked to prescribed the
implementing rules and regulations of Doctrine of Command Responsibility, Except:
a. Department of Interior and Local Government
b. National Police Commission
c. Office of the President
d. Civil Service Commission
e. Philippine National Police

3. When did President Fidel V Ramos sign the Doctrine pf Command Responsibility?
a. February 15, 1995
b. February 15, 1994
c. February 16, 1995
d. February 17, 1993
e. February 17, 1995
4. All of the following are circumstances in which a government official or superior, or
PNP Commander is presumed to have knowledge of the commission of irregularities or
criminal offences, except:
a. When the illegal acts constitute disturbance in the community.
b. When the irregularities or illegal acts are widespread within his area of
jurisdiction.
c. When the irregularities or illegal acts have been repeatedly or regularly
committed within his area of responsibility.
d. When members of his immediate staff or office personnel are involved.
e. None of the above
5. What administrative liability shall be imposed to an officer of the PNP who violates
the Doctrine of Command of Responsibility?
a. Brave Misconduct
b. Serious Irregularities
c. Neglect of Duty
d. Malfeasance
e. Non-Malfeasance

Family Code (MODULE 4)

1. It is the condition of a person who does not have the mind, will, and heart for the
performance of marriage obligations.
A. Diriment impediments
B. Psychological illness
C. Sexual infidelity
D. Psychological incapacity

2. A marriage celebrated without the presence of the solemnizing officer

A. Void
B. Voidable
D. Irregular
C. Valid

3. A marriage solemnized with an expired marriage license Your third question?

A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Valid
D. Irregular
4. A marriage between parties both 25 years of age but without parental advice is
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Valid
D. Unenforceable
5. A marriage solemnized abroad between two same sex Filipinos who were on their
30’s
A. Valid. Since it was solemnized abroad and it is governed by foreign law where
they are residing
B. Invalid. Public policy in the Philippines mandates that only a man and
woman can marry each other
C. Valid. They have the legal capacity to marry each other
D. Invalid. Since they are both Filipinos, the solemnization of their marriage
should take place in the Philippines.

Criminal Law 1
1. A foreigner residing in Hong Kong counterfeits a twenty-peso bill issued by the
Philippine Government. May the foreigner be prosecuted before a criminal court in the
Philippines?
A. No. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable only within the
Philippine Archipelago.
B. No. The Philippine Criminal Law is binding only on persons who reside or
sojourn in the Philippines.
C. No. Foreigners residing outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines are
exempted from the operation of the Philippine Criminal Law.
D. Yes. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable also
outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines against those who should forge
or counterfeit currency notes of the Philippines or obligations and
securities issued by the Government of the Philippines.

2. Proximate cause means:

A. The motive in committing the crime
B. The unlawful intent in committing in committing the crime
C. The efficient cause uninterrupted by any supervening event without
which the result would not have occurred
D. The reason of the offender in committing the crime
3. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted
by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal
Code.
A. Recidivism
B. Habitual delinquency
C Riteracion
D.Quasi-recidivism

4. Which of the following is a crime of mala prohibita?

A. Illegal possession of firearms
B. Murder
C. Direct Assault
D. Alarms and Scandal
5. A crime resulting from negligence, reckless imprudence, lack of foresight or lack of
skill is called
A. Dolo
B. Culpa
C. Tortious crimes.
D. Quasi-delict

6. Which of the following is a crime mala in se?

A. Violation of Dangerous Drugs Law
B. Violation of Anti-Fencing Law
C. Theft
D. Carnapping Law
7. When one tries to kill another by putting in his soup a substance which he believes
to be poison when in fact it is common salt is criminally liable for:
A. Homicide
B. Murder
C. Impossible Crime of Murder
D. Slight Physical Injury
8. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and
accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
9. A, B, and C agreed and conspired to rob a house of its cash. A and B entered the
house while C remained outside as lookout. After getting the cash, A and B decided to
set the house on fire to destroy any evidence of their presence. What crime or crimes
did C commit?
A. Robbery and arson since arson took place as an incident of the robbery.
B. Robbery and arson since C took no step to stop the arson.
C. Just for robbery since he only agreed to it and served as lookout.
D. Accomplice to robbery since his role in the crime was minimal.
10. Hitting somebody other than the target due to lack of skill or fortuitous instances
is:
A. Impossible crime
B. Mistake in blow (Abberatio Ictus)
C. Mistake in identity of the victim (Error in Personae)
D. Injurious result is greater than that intended (Praeter Intentionem)

Criminal Law 2
1. What crime is committed by a person who, having found a ring, fails to deliver the
same to the owner or to the local authorities?
A. The finder commits theft.
B. The finder commits concealment.
 C. The finder commits qualified theft.
D. The finder commits usurpation of property.
2. The accused was shocked to discover his wife and their driver sleeping in the
master’s bedroom. Outraged, the accused got his gun and killed both. Can the
accused claim that he killed the two under exceptional circumstances?
A. No, since the accused had time to reflect when he got his gun.
B. No, since the accused did not catch them while having sexual
intercourse.
C. Yes, since the wife and their driver desecrated the marital bed.
D. Yes, since the scene shows that they had an intimate relationship.
Problem: Jennifer conspires with her paramour John Lloyd to kill her husband Anton.
John Lloyd killed Anton with treachery. The means employed was made known to
Jennifer and she agreed that the killing will be done by poisoning.

3. What is the crime committed by Jennifer?

A. Homicide
B. Murder
C. Accomplice to the Crime of Murder
D. Parricide

4. What is the crime committed by John Lloyd?

A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Murder
D. Conspiracy to Commit Parricide
5. Eric forcefully with intimidation inserted his penis into the mouth of Daniel. Eric is
criminally liable for:
A. Rape
B. Rape by sexual assault
C. Acts of lasciviousness
D. Impossible crime of rape

6. When there is qualified rape?

A. 23 years old male raping his college professor
B. A female victim who died of heart attack on occasion of the rape
C. A rape offender who did not know that he has HIV and his victim was
infected by the disease.
D. A father who raped his 33 years old son.

7. What crime is committed by a mother who kills her one-day old baby?
A. Infanticide
B. Homicide
C. Murder
E. Parricide
8. Using his charms because of his celebrity star looks, Piolo, in a movie date with
Angelica, a 19-year-old woman, kissed her on the cheek and touched her pubic hair.
Angelica shouted for help and Piolo was arrested. Piolo is criminally liable for:
A. Rape by sexual assault for using his fingers
B. Violation of the Anti-Child Abuse Law for lascivious conduct
C. Unjust vexation
D. Acts of lasciviousness
9. Ethan decided to rob valuables at the house of his illegitimate daughter, Anna. If
Ethan killed Anna, after taking her diamond earrings and other valuables, what crime/s
should Ethan be charged wit:
A. Robbery with parricide
B. Murder
C. Qualified Theft and Parricide
D. Robbery with homicide
10. Michael boxed Manuel in the face near his mouth and subsequently Manuel loss his
permanent front tooth. Michael is criminally liable for?
A. Slight Physical Injury
B. Less Serious Physical Injury
C. Serious Physical Injury
D. Maltreatment

Rules of Criminal Procedure

1. A criminal action must be filed in the place where
A. the offense took place.
B. the accused was apprehended and detained.
C. the offended party resides.
D. the preliminary investigation took place.
2. During trial, the prosecution failed to prove the guilt of the accused due to insufficiency
of evidence. What proper remedy should the accused file.
A. Motion to Dismiss
B. Motion to Quash
C. Motion of Reconsideration
D. Demurrer to Evidence
3. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient
ground to engender a well-founded belief that an offense has been committed and the
offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. Pre-trial
B. Arraignment
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Plea bargaining
4. A was charged of qualified theft. The judge of Marikina then issued a warrant of arrest
since the commission of the crime took place in Marikina. Thereafter, C was seen by
the arresting officer in Trinoma, a mall in Quezon City. What should the police officer
do?
A. He should deliver the accused to the judge who issued the warrant and be
held for trial.
B. He should deliver the accused to the police station in Quezon City.
C. He should deliver the accused to the police station in Marikina
D. He should deliver the accused in a police station within 12 hours upon
arrest.
5. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of concubinage. Pending
appeal, they applied for bail, claiming they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their
claim correct?
A. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
B. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not involving moral turpitude.
C. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
D. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial Court before and
after conviction.

Rules on Evidence
1. A pair of short pants allegedly left by A at the crime which the court, over the
objection of A, required him to put on, and when he did, it fit him well is what type of
evidence?
A. Direct Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Negative Evidence
D. Positive Evidence
2. A contract presented as an evidence in court which the accused falsified to facilitate
the release of money is what type of evidence
A. Testimonial Evidence
B. Object Evidence
C. Documentary Evidence
D. Cumulative Evidence
3. A person who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to
others with their personal knowledge in the court can qualify as a
A. Suspects
B. Witness
C. Victims
D. Informers

4. Weapon used in a crime of murder is what type of evidence?

A. Object Evidence
B. Testimonial Evidence
C. Documentary Evidence
D. None of the above
5. Degree of evidence required to convict an accused in a criminal case:
A. Substantial Evidence
B. Preponderance of Evidence
C. Probable Cause
D. Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt

Chain of Custody Rule

_______1. It refers to movement of evidence from the time it is recovered from the
crime scene up to the time it is offered in evidence in court.
A. Chain of Custody
B. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Direct Evidence
D. Documentary Evidence
_______2. Documents as evidence consist of writings or any material containing
letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols, or other modes of written expressions
offered as proof of their contents.
A. Circumstantial Evidence
B. Documentary Evidence
C. Object Evidence
D. Direct Evidence
______3. There are three (3) things to be remember in the chain of custody except
one.
A. It should be TAGGED
B. it should be LABELLED
C. It should be CLEANED
D. It should be MARKED

______4. For the evidence to be admissible, two elements must concur, namely:
(NOT BE EXCLUDED by law)
A. The evidence must be RELEVANT
B. The evidence must (COMPETENT)
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
______5. It is not strictly “real” evidence because it is not the very thing involved in the
case.This evidence referring to?
A. Demonstrative Evidence
B. Documentary Evidence
C. Object Evidence
D. Direct Evidence

Court Demeanor
1. A form of evidence that is obtained from a witness who makes a solemn statement
or declaration of fact
 A. Object Evidence
B. Testimonial Evidence
C. Newly Discovered Evidence
D. Documentary Evidence
2. As law enforcer, who are your ally and coach in during trial in court for criminal
prosecution
A. Defense Lawyer
B. Prosecutor
C. Judge
D. Clerk of Court

3. What is the criminal liability of a when a witness he/she lies while under oath?
A. Perjury
B. Oral Defamation
C. Libel
D. Embezzlement
4. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party
requires.
A. Leading D. Hearsay
B Misleading
C Irrelevant
5. If a witness offers an out-of-court statement made by another person to prove a
matter asserted in the witness's own testimony, that statement is called:
A. Argumentative
B. Asked and answered
C. Hearsay
D. Leading

6. The court may also, upon motion, order the striking out of answers which are:
A. incompetent, irrelevant and improper
B. competent, relevant and proper
C. questionable, immaterial, and ambiguous
D. clear and convincing
7. Juan testifies that the gun marked as Exhibit “A” was the same weapon used in
shooting Kulas. The findings of the crime laboratory yielded that the same gun bears
the fingerprints of the accused Kanor. The result of the findings of the laboratory is an
example of?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Positive evidence
C. Corroborative evidence
D. Newly discovered evidence
8. Which of the following admissions made by a party in the course of judicial
proceedings is considered as a judicial admission?
A. Admissions made in a complaint superseded by an amended complaint.
 B. Admissions made in a pleading signed by the party and his counsel
intended to be filed.
C. Admission made by counsel in open court.
D. An admission made in a pleading in another case between the same
parties.
9. What does it mean when the judge says “sustained” over an objection made by a
counsel during cross-examination
A. The judge has determined that is a valid objection. That means the
question was improper under the rules of evidence. The witness may not
answer the question.
B. The judge has determined the objection is invalid. The question may stand.
The witness must then answer the question.
C. The judge is not satisfied with the line of questioning in direct examination
of a witness.
D. The witness will not be allowed to testify

10. Which of the following would be considered a leading question?

A. State your first and last name...
B. What is your occupation...
C. You really didn’t see anything, did you...
D. Where were you on the day in question...

Special Laws
1. Which of the following acts constitute violation of the Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020?
A. Engaging in acts intended to cause death or serious bodily injury to any
person or endangers a person's life;
B. Engaging in acts intended to cause extensive damage or destruction to a
government or public facility, public place, or private property;
C. Engaging in acts intended to cause extensive interference with, damage, or
destruction to critical infrastructure;
D. All of the above
2. The Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020 allows suspects to be detained without a judicial
warrant of arrest for how many days?
A. 10 days
B. 3 days
C. 14 days
D. 12 days
3. Which of the following is a non-bailable offense under the “Anti-Terrorism Act of
2020”
A. Conspiracy to commit terrorism
B. Membership in a terrorist organization
C. Threat to commit terrorism
D. Proposal or inciting to commit terrorism
4. Allan is the Manager of Caroline in a factory. He kept on asking Caroline for a date.
One day she received a text message from Allan for a sexual favor in exchange for a
promotion as Supervisor of their unit. Upon receipt of the text, Caroline went to the
Police Station and filed a criminal complaint for violation of RA 7877 or Anti Sexual
Harassment Act. Allan immediately moved for the dismissal of the criminal case
because Caroline did not accept the sexual favor in exchange for the promotion and
nothing happened to them? If you were the police officer assigned to the case? Do you
agree with Allan’s contention of dismissing the case?
A. No. Allan should be prosecuted for Acts of Lasciviousness under the Revised
Penal Code instead of RA 7877 (Sexual Harassment)
B. Yes. The case should be dismissed. Caroline must prove first that she was
promoted as a unit manager because of the sexual favor before Allan can be
prosecuted for RA 7877 (Sexual Harassment).
C. No. The mere act of demanding a sexual favor from Caroline regardless
of whether she accepted the sexual favor in exchange for promotion is not
relevant in the prosecution of RA 7877 (Sexual Harassment)
D. None of the above
5. Obet killed Mario, his rival in courting Maria. Obet used an unlicensed firearm in
killing Mario. How many crimes were committed?
A. One (1) B. Two (2)
C. Three (3) D. None of the above
6. If you were the Police Investigator handling the above-mentioned case what crime
or crimes will you charge?
A. Homicide
B. Homicide and separate criminal case for Violation of RA 10591 (Illegal
Possession of Firearms)
C. Violation of RA 10591 (Illegal Possession of Firearms)
D. Homicide only with Aggravating Circumstance of use of Loose
Firearms
7. Jimuel sought your advice as a law enforcer. He told you that he only has a license
to own a gun but he has no permit to carry it yet. He asked if his private car can be
considered an extension of his residence, such that he can just place the gun inside his
car. What advice will you give to Marlon if any?
A. I will advise Marlon to desist from placing his gun inside the private car
because a vehicle is not considered as extension of one’s residence. He
should apply for q Permit to Carry License otherwise he may be fined or
imprisoned or both.
B. I will advise Marlon that he can place the gun inside his car because a motor
vehicle can be considered an extension of one’s own residence.
C. I will advise Marlon to surrender his gun to the Firearms Explosives Office of
the PNP and apply for a permit to carry outside the premises.
D. None of the above
8. If Jimuel did not listen to your advice. He was apprehended and a gun was discovered
inside the compartment box of his car. What violation did he commit?
 A. Violation of Section 29 of RA 10591-Use of Loose Firearm in the
Commission of a Crime
B. Violation of Section 31 of RA 10591-Absence of Permit to Carry
Outside Residence
C. Violation of Section 33-Arms Smuggling
D. None of the above
9. The husband has for a long time physically and mentally tortured his wife. After one
episode of beating, the wife took the husband’s gun and shot him dead. Under the
circumstances, her act constitutes:
A. mitigating vindication of grave offense.
B. battered woman syndrome, a complete self-defense under RA 9262.
C. incomplete self-defense.
D. mitigating passion and obfuscation.
10. A battered woman claiming self-defense under the Anti-Violence against Women
and Children must prove that the final acute battering episode was preceded by
A. 3 battering episodes.
B. 4 battering episodes.
C. 5 battering episodes.
D. 2 battering episodes.

Philippine Criminal Justice System

1. The aggregate of all operating, administrative and technical support agencies that
perform criminal justice functions is called.
A. Social Justice System
B. Civil Justice System
C. Criminal Justice System
D. Consensus approach
2. A part of the Philippine criminal justice system tasked to rehabilitate persons
deprived of liberty after serving their sentence.
A. Correction
B. Court
C. Law Enforcement
D. Prosecution
3. It is a governmental body officially assembled under the authority of law at the
appropriate time and place for the administration of justice through which the state
enforces its sovereign rights and power. It is also empowered by the constitution to
determine the guilt of the accused.
A. Correction
B. Court
C. Law Enforcement
D. Prosecution
4. It is under the supervision and control of the Department of Justice and is tasked as
the prosecutorial arm of the Philippine government. *
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. National Bureau of Investigation
C. National Prosecution Service
D. Public Attorney’s Office

5. The body of law that defines crimes and the punishments that go with them.
B. Precedent
C. Criminal Law
D. Damages
E. Tort

Local Government Code

1. It is a political subdivision of a nation or state which is constituted by law and has
substantial control of local affairs.
A. Local Government Unit
B. National Government
C. International Government
D. Federal Government
2. Which of the following is not a territorial and political subdivision of the Republic of
the Philippines?
A. Provinces
B. Cities
C. Sitio
D. Autonomous Regions
3. Which Local Government Unit has the power to administer the Katarungang
Pambarangay, which simplifies the procedure to resolve and settle controversies among
barangay residents? *
A. Barangay only
B. Municipality only
C. Province only
D. All Local Government Unit
4. Which of the following statement on powers of the local government officials over the
PNP units or forces is incorrect?
A. The city and municipal mayors shall exercise operational supervision and
control over PNP units in their respective jurisdiction\
B. The provincial governor has the power to oversee the Provincial Public
Safety Plan Implementation
C. Authority to transfer, reassignment or detail of PNP members outside
of their respective city or town residences; and
D. Frequent unauthorized absences is a ground to suspend the power of
operational supervision and control of any local executive over police units
assigned or stationed in his jurisdiction
5. It is the act by which the national government confers power and authority upon the
various local government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities.
A. Decentralization
B. Devolution
C. Local Autonomy
D. Fiscal Autonomy

Bangsamoro Basic Law

1. The defense and security of the Bangsamoro Autonomous Region shall be within
the power of the
A. Bangsamoro government
B. National government
C. Local government unit
D. Philippine National Police
2. The crime of murder, adultery and theft committed in the Bangsamoro territory shall
be within the jurisdiction of:
A. Regular court
B. Shariah court
C. Tribal court
D. Office of the Wali

3. The Bangsamoro government is headed by

A. Wali
B. Chief Minister
C. Parliament Member
D. Speaker of the Parliament
4. Which of the following has the authority to enact laws on matters that are within the
powers and competencies of the Bangsamoro Government.
A. Chief Minister
B. Bangsamoro Parliament
C. Wali
D. Ministers
5. To facilitate entry into the Philippine National Police of Moro Islamic Liberation Front
and Moro National Liberation Front members from the Bangsamoro Autonomous
Region, the age, height and educational attainment requirements may be waived by the
National Police Commission. The educational attainment must be complied within: *
A. Fifteen (15) years from their entry
B. Five (5) years from their entry
C. Seven (7) years from their entry
D. Two (2) years from their entry
 Intelligence Community (MODULE 5)

1. Mission of the intelligence community?

a. IS to collect, analyze, and deliver foreign intelligence and counterintelligence
information to America's leaders so they can make sound decisions to serve our
country. Our customers include the president, policy-makers, law enforcement,
and the military.
b. Is to collect, analyze, and deliver foreign intelligence and
counterintelligence information to America's leaders so they can make
sound decisions to protect our country. Our customers include the
president, policy-makers, law enforcement, and the military.
c. Is to collect, analyze, and deliver foreign intelligence and counterintelligence
information to Philippine leaders so they can make sound decisions to protect
our country. Our customers include the president, policy-makers, law
enforcement, and the military.
d. None of the above

2. It is a group of separate United States government intelligence agencies and

subordinate organizations, that work separately and together to conduct intelligence
activities to support the foreign policy and national security of the United States.
A- US Intel Community
B- Canada Intel Community
C- Philippine Intel Community
D- None of the above

3. Department of Defense elements

A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA),
B. National Security Agency (NSA),
C. National Geospatial- Intelligence Agency (NGA),
D. All of the above

4. Philippine Intelligence Community Member Agencies________

a. Office of the Director of National Intelligence.
b. Central Intelligence Agency.
c. National Security Agency/Central Security Service.
d. Defense Intelligence Agency.
e. All of the above

5. It is the primary intelligence gathering and analysis arm of the Philippine government,
in charge of carrying out overt, covert, and clandestine intelligence programs.
a. DI
b. NBI
C- IG
D- NICA
 Intelligence Cycle/Four Phases of Intelligence Cycle

1. It is the chronological developments of intelligence activities from the receipt of

basic requirements to the final product of the intelligence report.
a. Intelligence Analysis
b. Intelligence Operation
C- Intelligence cycle
D- Intelligence processing

2. Which is not belong to the Principles of Intelligence Operation activities.

a. Dedicated personnel
b. Risk involved must be justified with a positive result
c. Can be undertaken without operational information
d. All of the above

3. Select one of the basic elements of intelligence operation activities

a. Every intelligence action is set in motion by the assignment of the
target or mission
b. Dedicated personnel
c. Risk involved must be justified with a positive result
d. Can be undertaken without operational information

4. Every intelligence operational cycle is made up, of the following components.

A. Target/ mission
B. Agents
C- Support facilities and functions
D- All of the above

5. What are the steps in intelligence operational cycle.

A. Mission
B. Spotting
C- Planning
D- All of the above

Counter Intelligence

1. This is an aspect of intelligence relating to all security control measures, both active
and passive, designed to ensure the safeguarding of information, personnel, equipment,
and installation against espionage, sabotage, or subversive activities of foreign powers
and disaffected or dissident groups or individuals which constitute a threat to national
security.
A- Counter Intelligence
B- Intelligence Cycle
C- Criminal Intelligence
 D- Criminal Investigation

2. Security measures taken prevent the unauthorized disclosure of classified matters.

A- Security of Classified Matters
B- National Security
C- Security Council
D- National Defense council

3. Any person whose activities or associations establish the existence of reasonable

doubt as to his loyalty to the government of the Philippines.
A- Security Investigation
B- Security Council
C- Security Risk
D- Security Investigation
4. It is a technique of an operational organization designed to prevent disclosure of
the identity of individuals engaged in clandestine intelligence collection and to protect
the methods of operation and the physical facilities of the clandestine portion of the
organization.
A- Compartmentation
B- Confidential
C- Clandestine
D- Stealth
5. This is the principle whereby access to classified matter may only be given to those
persons to whom it is necessary for the fulfillment of their duties.
A. Need- not to- know
B. Need not to know you
C- Need what to know
D- None of the above

Intelligence Operations

1. It is the chronological developments of intelligence activities from the receipts of the

basic requirements to the final products of an intelligence report.
A- Intelligence processes
B- Intelligence cycle
C- Intelligence analysis
D- Intelligence operation

2. What are the components of every intelligence cycle?

A- Mission
B- Support facilities
C- Agents
D- All of the above
3. Which one that will be considered as the steps in the intelligence operation
techniques?
A- Recruitment
B- Training
C- Investigation
D- All of the above

4. Select one of the following listed below that is considered as the principles of
intelligence operation activities.
A- Dedicated personnel
B- Risk involved must be justified by positive result
C- Cannot be undertaken without operational information
D- All of the above

5. Important phases of intelligence operation cycle.

A- Agent acquisition
B- Agent contract
C- Agent handling
D- All of the above

Social Media Intelligence

1. It is the data-driven analysis of how people interact in social contexts, often with data
obtained from social networking services. The goal may be to simply understand human
behavior or even to propagate a story of interest to the target audience.
A- Social media intelligence
B- Link data analysis
C- Social data analysis
D- Information analysis
2. It refers to marketing systems that synthesize billions of online conversations into
relevant information. This allow organizations to measure and manage content
performance, understand trends, and drive communications and business strategy. *
A- Social media intelligence
B- Link data analysis
C- Social data analysis
D- Media intelligence company

3. It refers to the techniques and technologies that allow companies or governments to

monitor social media networking sites (SNSs), such as Facebook or Twitter.
A- Social media intelligence
B- Link data analysis
C- Social data analysis
D- Media intelligence company
4. It includes monitoring of content, such as messages or images posted, and other
data, which is generated when someone uses a social media networking site. This
information involves person-to-person, person-to-group, group-to-group, and includes
interactions that are private and public *
A- Social media intelligence
B- Link data analysis
C- Social data analysis
D- Media intelligence company

5. Who build the technology that allows SOCMINT?

A- Social media intelligence
B. Surveillance industries
C- Social data analysis
D- Media intelligence company

Police Operational Procedure/Anti-Illegal Drugs Operations

1. Three (3) Contents of verbal warning: *

A- (1) Identify self; (2) State reason for the arrest; (3) Explain the rights of the
suspect
B- (2) Identify self; (2) State intention; (3) Explain rights under custodial
investigation
C- (1) Identify self; (2) Direct the offender; (3) Explain the “Miranda” warning
D- (1) Identify self; (2) State intention; (1) Direct what offender has to do

2. Three (3) Elements of self-defense:

A- (1) Unlawful aggression; (2) Reasonable necessity of the means
employed to prevent or repel the unlawful aggression; (3) Lack of sufficient
provocation on the part of the person defending himself
B- (1) Unlawful aggression; (2) Necessity to use firearm against the unlawful
aggression; (3) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending
himself
C- (1) Unlawful aggression; (2) Necessity for the firearm defeat the unlawful
aggression; (3) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending
himself
D- (1) Unlawful aggression; (2) Reasonable means employed to repel the
aggressor; (3) Lack of insufficient provocation on the part of the person
defending himself
3. As a general rule, moving vehicles shall not be fired upon. The following are
exceptions:A- Occupants pose imminent danger of causing death or injuryB- Use of FA
outweighs the likely benefits of its non-useC- Use of FA does not create a danger to
publicD- Flash alarm
A- 1, 2, 3
B- 2, 3, 4
C- 3, 4, 1,
 D- 4, 1, 2
4. In firing at a moving vehicle, the following parameters should be considered:A-
Capability of the suspect/s to harm with certainty the police officer or other personsB-
Accessibility of the suspect/s from the police officer and other personsC- Proximity of
the suspect/s from the police officer and other personsD- Intent of the suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other persons *
A- 1, 2, 3, 4
B- 1, 2, 3
C- 1, 2
D- 1
5. Situations when use of firearm is justified during police operation:A- If the offender
poses imminent danger of causing death to the police officer or other persons B- Under
the doctrines of self-defense, defense of a relative, and defense of a stranger C- Peril
sought to be avoided must be actual, imminent and real D- Must face a real threat on
his life
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 3, 4

Anti-Illegal Drugs

1. Three (3) Pronged Strategy to overcome targeted obstacle and accomplish allocated
objective in line with the Supply Reduction Strategy against illegal drugs:
a. (1) Supply/Demand Reduction Campaign; (2) Development/Reform
Package of Programs; (3) People Empowerment Campaign
b. (1) Surveillance/Case build Up; (2) Negation Phase; (3) Legal Offensive
Phase
c. (1) Motivational enlightenment; (2) Organization; (3) Mobilization
d. (1) 1st Prong; (2) 2nd Prong; (3) 3rd Prong
2. Three (3) Prevention Approaches to be carried out in line with the Supply Reduction
Strategy against illegal drugs:
a. (1) Prevention Approach for Non-Users; (2) Prevention Approach for
“Experimenters” and Casual Drug Users; (3) Preventive Approach for
Addicts and Recovering Persons
b. (1) Primary Prevention; (2) Secondary Prevention; (3) Tertiary Prevention
c. (1) Motivational enlightenment; (2) Organization; (3) Mobilization
d. (1) Pre-Negation; (2) Negation Proper; (3) Post-Negation
3. Five (5) Measures to reduce profit to zero and thereby accomplish the first national
objective in line with Supply/Demand Reduction Campaign:
a. (1) Strict Customs operations to intercept drug shipments; (2) Border and
coastal patrol operations; (3) Airport security to prevent pilferage/landing; (4)
Search and seizure operations; (5) Multilateral cooperation
 b. (1) Buy-bust operations; (2) Patrol/Police visibility operations; (3) Check
Point operations; (4) Saturation Drives; (5) Raids of drug dens
c. (1) Production Control; (2) Processing Control; (3) Trafficking Control;
(4) Financing Control; (5) Retailing and Consumption Control
d. (1) Neighborhood improvement; (2) School renovation; (3) Job creation; (4)
Drug-free zones; (5) Police patrol and protection
4. Five (5) Components to address the risk factors in the environment and to attain the
drug preemption objective:
a. (1) Supply Reduction Strategy; (2) Demand Reduction Strategy; (3) Legal
Offensive; (4) Internal Cleansing; (5) Domestic and International Cooperation
b. (1) Moral/Values/Spiritual Formation; (2) Legal Reform Programs; (3)
Education; (4) Good Government; (5) Development/Industrialization
c. (1) Public service announcements; (2) Advertisements; (3) Press
conferences; (4) Press materials; (5) Public forums
d. (1) Propaganda; (2) Organizational; (3) Political; (4) Enforcement; (5)
Ideological
5. Five (5) Secondary Prevention Intervention Measures for “Experimenters” and
Casual Drug Users:
a. (1) In-depth coverage on TV and radio; (2) Newspaper features; (3) Parent
mobilization and education; (4) School curricula; (5) Symposia for key
influencers like parents, teachers, etc.
b. (1) Community-based information and referral networks; (2) Employee
assistance programs; (3) Drug-related arrests; (4) Emergency rooms; (5)
Health clinics
c. (1) Neighborhood improvement; (2) School renovation; (3) Job creation; (4)
Drug-free zones; (5) Police patrol and protection
d. (1) Hotlines; (2) Crisis counseling; (3) Short-term counseling; (4)
Emergency rooms; (5) Health clinics

First Responder’s Role

1. As a police officer responding to unconscious casualty…

a. Move the victim
b. Lift the chin
c. Jaw thrust
d. Head tilt and chin lift

2. You are lone first responder and have an unconscious non-breathing adult, what
should you do first?
a. Start a CPR with 30 chest compassion
b. Give five initial rescue breath
c. Call 8888
d. Give two initial rescue breaths
3. Upon responding to the victim, which is the correct radio of chest compression to
rescue breath in the use in CPR of an adult casualty?
a. 2 compression
b. 5 compression
c. 15 compression
d. 30 compression

4. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the chain of survival?
a. 8888, CPR, defibrillation, advanced care
b. CPR, defibrillation, 8888, advanced care
c. Defibrillation, 8888, CPR, advanced care
d. Defibrillation, 8888, CPR, advanced care
5. Based on your knowledge as a police officer, what is the cause of heart attack?
a. Insufficient amount of blood reaching the lungs
b. Insufficient amount of blood reaching the brain
c. Insufficient amount of blood reaching the mucus
d. Insufficient amount of blood reaching the heart muscles

Disaster Risk Reduction Management

1. What is the ranked of the Philippines from among the countries with the highest risks
worldwide according to the World Risk Report? *
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
2. Which of the following statement will not cause flooding problems?
a. denuded forest due to illegal logging and eroded soil;
b. poor waste management;
c. observance of protocols in the release of waters in major dams
d. informal settlers living in waterways and houses on river banks
3. How much of the total land mass or area of the country is expose and vulnerable to
hazards?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%

4. The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010.

a. RA 11121
b. RA 10122
c. RA 11221
d. RA 10121
5. In accordance with Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010,
which of the following shall create a disaster risk reduction officers and councils? *
a. Every province
b. Every city and Municipality
c. Every barangay
d. All of the above

Criminal Investigation

1. Which of the following pertains to an ensemble of methods by which crimes are

studied and criminals apprehended?
A. Science of Criminology
B. Science of Victimology
C. Criminal Investigation
D. Criminal Profiling
2. Which of the following is NOT in the processing of collecting information about a
crime?
A. Determine if a crime has been committed
B. Apprehend the perpetrator
C. identify the perpetrator
D. Locating witnesses

3. A good investigator needs to be conscious of his or her own thinking, and that
thinking needs to be what? *
A. a logical process
B. an intentional process
C. scientific and technical
D. a comprehensive approach
4. Modern-day criminal investigations commonly employ many modern scientific
techniques known collectively as __________________. *
A. forensic anthropology
B. forensic investigation
C. forensic technology
D. forensic science

5. This involves eliciting a detailed and accurate account of an event or situation from a
person to assist decision-making. What is this?
A. Interview
B. Elicitation
C. Interrogation
D. Investigation