ADVANCED FLUID MECHANICS

CHAPTER 4: PIPES
• Branched pipes
• Pipes in series
• Pipes in parallel
• Pipes network
BRANCHED PIPES

If pipes connect three reservoirs, as shown in Figure 1, then the problem becomes more
complex. In practice solutions are now done by computer techniques. The method to solve
these kind of problems is explained below.

Figure 1: The three reservoir problem

To solve these kind of problems Darcy-Weisbach equation is expressed in terms of

discharge i.e.

hf = f LV2/D2g Eq.1

Q = AV

V = Q/A= Q/πD2/4

V2 = (Q/πD2/4)2 = Q2/ π2D4/16

Put V2 value in in Eq. 1 and get:

hf = f L (Q2/ π2D4/16)/D2g = (16/π22g) f LQ2/D5

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hf = (8/π2g)f LQ2/D5

Or
hf = 0.0826 f LQ2/D5 Eq. 2

So, Eq. 2 is the Darcy-Weisbach equation in terms of discharge.

When three or more pipes meet at a junction then the following basic principles apply:

• Continuity equation must be satisfied i.e. total flow into the junction must be equal to
total flow out of the junction (flow entering the junction must be equal to flow leaving
the junction).
• Darcy-Weisbach equation must be satisfied for each pipe.
• Head (elevation of water surface in piezometric tube) at the junction is common to all
pipes.

Minor losses (entry and exit losses) are generally negligible, so they are generally ignored in
the calculations of branched pipe flow problems.

In the figure above the heads at the reservoirs are known but the head at the junction D
is not known. The pipe flows are also not known.

The flow in pipes 1 and 3 are obviously from A to D and D to C, respectively. Assuming the
flow in pipe 2 from D to B, following relationships could be written:

Za – Hd = hf1

Hd – Zb = hf2

Hd – Zc = hf3

Q1 = Q2+ Q3

We have 4 equations with 4 unknowns, Hd, Q1, Q2and Q3.

The above 4 equations must be solved simultaneously. The algebraic solution is rather tedious
so a trial and error method is generally recommended.
Generally following procedure converges to a solution quickly:

1. Assume a value of the head at the junction, Hd.

2. Substitute this into the first three equations to get an estimate for Q for each pipe.
3. Check whether continuity is satisfied or not from the fourth equation (i.e. Q1 = Q2+ Q3).

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4. If the flow into the junction is too high choose a larger Hd and vice versa (If the flow into
the junction is too small choose a smaller Hd.
5. Return to step 2.

If the direction of the flow in pipe 2 was not assumed correctly then no solution will be found.
In this case, switch the direction to obtain the following four equations:

Za – Hd = hf1
Zb– Hd = hf2
Hd – Zc = hf3
Q1+ Q2 = Q3

Looking at these two sets of equations we can see that they are identical if Hd = Zb. This
suggests that a good starting value for the iteration is Zb then the direction of flow will become
clear at the first iteration.

• If Q1>Q3, then flow in pipe 2 is from D to B, so the first set of 4 equations is applicable
to solve the problem.
• If Q1<Q3, then flow in pipe 2 is from B to D, so the second set of 4 equations is
applicable to solve the problem.

Example Problem of Branched Pipes (Three Reservoirs Problem):

Water flows from reservoir A through pipe 1, diameter D1= 120mm, length L1=120m, to
junction D from which the two pipes leave, pipe 2, diameter D2=75mm, length L2=60m goes
to reservoir B, and pipe 3, diameter D3=60mm, length L3=40m goes to reservoir C. Reservoir
B is 16m below reservoir A, and reservoir C is 24m below reservoir A. All pipes have f = 0.04.
(Ignore and entry and exit losses.)

Solution:

We know the flow is from A to D and from D to C but are not sure which way the flow is along
the other pipe 2– either D to B or B to D. We first must assume one direction. If that is not
correct there will not be a reasonable solution.

In the problem, given is:

Za= 24m
Zb= 8m
Zc= 0

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For flow from A to D:

Za – Hd = hf1
24 - Hd = 0.0826 f1 L1Q12/D15

24 - Hd = 0.0826 x 0.04 x 120 x Q12/(0.12)5

24 - Hd = 15934 Q12

For flow from D to B:

Hd – Zb = hf2

Hd – 8 = 0.0826 f2 L2Q22/D25

Hd – 8 = 0.0826 x 0.04 x 60 x Q22/(.075)5

Hd – 8 = 83521 Q22

For flow from D to C:

Hd – Zc = hf3

Hd – 0 = 0.0826 f3 L3Q32/D35

Hd – 0 = 0.0826 x 0.04 x 40 x Q32/(.06)5

Hd = 169753 Q32

Following continuity equation must be satisfied for flow in pipe 2 is from D to B is:

Q1 = Q2+ Q3 or {Q1 – (Q2+Q3) = 0}

Check whether flow in pipe 2 is from D to B or from B to D

For this purpose, assume Hd equal to Zb (i.e. Hd = 8 m) which means no flow is taking place
in pipe 2 (i.e. Q2 = 0). Calculate Q1 and Q3 using above Darcy equations and determine
the direction of flow in pipe 2 using following criteria:

• If Q1>Q3, then flow in pipe 2 is from D to B, so the above set of 4 equations is applicable
to solve the problem.
• If Q1<Q3, then flow in pipe 2 is from B to D, so the following set of 4 equations is
applicable to solve the problem.

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 Za – Hd = hf1
Zb – Hd = hf2
Hd – Zc = hf3
Q1+ Q2 = Q3

Let us calculate Q1 by the equation:

24 - Hd = 15934 Q12
24-8 = 15934 Q12 (as Hd = Zb = 8 m)
2
16= 15934 Q1
Or
Q1 = (16/15934)1/2 = 0.0317 m/s

Let us now calculate Q3 by the equation:

Hd = 169753 Q32
8 = 169753 Q32
Q3 = (8/169753)1/2 = 0.0069 m/s

As Q1>Q3 so flow in pipe 2 is from D to B

Use the following 4 equations to solve the problem:

24 - Hd = 15934 Q12
Hd – 8 = 83521 Q22
Hd = 169753 Q32
Q1 = Q2+ Q3 or {Q1 – (Q2+Q3) = 0}

Now it is a matter of systematically seeking values of Hd until continuity is satisfied. This is

best done in a table. And it is generally best to initially guess Hd = Za then reduce its value
(until the error in continuity is small).

Hd Q1 Q2 Q3 Q2+Q3 Error
= Q1 - (Q2+Q3)
24.00 0.00000 0.01378 0.01183 0.02561 - 0.02561
20.00 0.01577 0.01193 0.01080 0.02273 - 0.00696
17.00 0.02087 0.01033 0.00996 0.02029 0.00058
17.10 0.02072 0.01039 0.00999 0.02038 0.00034
17.20 0.02057 0.01045 0.01002 0.02047 0.00010
17.30 0.02042 0.01050 0.01050 0.02055 - 0.00013
17.25 0.02049 0.01048 0.01003 0.02051 - 0.00002
17.24 0.02060 0.01052 0.01008 0.02060 0.0000
So, the solution tells us that:

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Head at the junction D: Hd = 17.24 m
Flow through pipe 1: Q1 = 0.0206m3/s
Flow through pipe 2: Q2 =0.01052m3/s
Flow through pipe 3: Q3 = 0.01008m3/s

PIPES IN SERIES

Pipes in Series Analysis

In order to solve the flow problems of pipes when they are connected in series as shown in
the Fig.1, following two rules are applied:
1) Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3 = ……….
2) hL= hL1 + hL2 + hL3 + ……..
where, hL = total head loss

Figure 1: Pipes in Series

Two Types of Problems
1) Discharge is given, total head loss is determined directly by following contributions
from individual pipes using Darcy formula.
2) Total head loss is given, discharge is determined by either of the following two
methods:
- Equivalent velocity head method or
- Equivalent length method
1) Equivalent Velocity Head Method
- Equation for total head loss is written as follows:
L1 V21 L2 V22 L3 V23
hL = f1 + f2 + f3 + … ..
D1 2g D2 2g D3 2g
- Values of ‘f’ are chosen from Moody diagram.
- Individual pipe losses are expressed in terms of one of the velocity heads.
- Generally minor losses are ignored. But if these losses need to be included, they can also
be added and expressed in the same velocity head.
- So total head loss equation in general terms can be written as:
V2
hL = K
2g

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Where K represents constant value obtained from pipe parameters like diameter D, friction
factor ‘f’ and pipe length, L.
This equation now is solved for V and then Q is determined by Q = AV relationship.

2) Equivalent Length Method

- All pipes are expressed in terms of equivalent lengths of one given pipe size (generally
most prominent in system).
- Equivalent length means a length Le of pipe of a certain diameter De and friction factor
fe which for the same flow will give the same head loss as the pipe under consideration
of Length L, diameter D and friction factor f.
- Generally, f values are initially assumed but they can be improved by computing
Reynolds number ‘RN’ and using Moody diagram.
- By definition of equivalent length of a pipe we can quote Darcy equations for two pipes
as given below:
f L𝑉 2 fe Le V2e
hL = h𝐿𝑒 =
𝐷2g D𝑒 2g
Equating hL & hLe we get
f L𝑉 2 fe Le V2e 𝑓 𝐿𝑉 2 𝐷𝑒 2𝑔
= ⟹ 𝐿𝑒 = .
𝐷2g 𝐷𝑒 2g 𝐷2𝑔 𝑓𝑒 𝑉𝑒2
f D V2
Le = L ( ) ( e ) Eq. (1)
f D e V2e
From continuity equation
Q 2 Q 2 Q2 ×16
V = ⟹ V = ( ) = Q = Qe
A A π2 D4
Q2 x 16
V2e =
π2 D4e
V2 Q2 1 4 2 De 4
= 2 = 2 4 × 16 De π = ( )
Ve π 𝐷 Q2 16 D
Put in Eq. (1) & get:
𝑓 De De 4
Le = L ( ) ( )
𝑓𝑒 D D

𝑓 D 5
Le = L ( e) Eq. to determine equivalent length
𝑓𝑒 D

- Total length of the pipe system is obtained by adding the length of the pipe (of which
equivalent lengths for other pipes have been obtained) to the obtained equivalent lengths
determine for other pipes i.e., L = L1 + Le1 + Le2 + Le3 + ….
- Darcy formula of frictional head loss is used to calculate velocity, considering the total
length (L) given of pipe system and pipe parameters (f, D) of the pipe of which
equivalent lengths for other pipes have been obtained. From this velocity, discharge will
be calculated.

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 - Then Q is determined by Q = AV

Example Problem
As shown in Figure 1, the pipes 1, 2 and 3 are 300 m of 30 cm diameter, 150 m of 20 cm
diameter and 250 m of 25 cm diameter, respectively of new cast iron and conveying 15o C
water. If hL is 10 m, find discharge in the pipeline.

Solution
Given
D1 = 30 cm = 300 mm = 0.3 m
L1 = 300 m
e = 0.25 mm (from Table 8.1 for new cast iron pipe)
e1/D1 = 0.25/300 = 0.00083
D2 = 20 cm = 200 mm = 0.2 m
L2 = 150 m
e2 = 0.25 mm
e2/D2 = 0.25/200 = 0.00125
D3 = 25 cm = 250 mm = 0.25 m
L3 = 250 m
e3 = 0.25 mm
e3/D3 = 0.25/250 = 0.001
hL = 10 m
Using Moody diagram, assume f1 = 0.019, f2 = 0.021 & f3 = 0.020
Find Q = ?
1. By equivalent Velocity head method

f1 L1 V21 f2 L2 V22 f3 L V23

3
hL = + + + … ..
D1 2g D2 2g D3 2g

300 𝑉12 150 𝑉22 250 𝑉32

10 = 0.019 ( ) + 0.021 ( ) + 0.020 ( ) Eq. 1
0.3 2𝑔 0.2 2𝑔 0.25 2𝑔
From continuity:
π D21 π D22
A1V1 = A2V2  . 𝑉1 = . 𝑉2
4 4
𝐷 2
𝑉2 = ( 1) 𝑉1
𝐷2
By squaring
2
𝐷1 2 𝐷1 4 2
𝑉22 2
= [( ) ] 𝑉1 = ( ) 𝑉1
𝐷2 𝐷2
Divide by 2g on both sides & get:
𝑉22 𝐷1 4 𝑉12
= ( )
2𝑔 𝐷2 2𝑔

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 V22 0.3 4 V21 V21
= ( ) = 5.06
2g 0.2 2g 2g

V22 V21
= 5.06
2g 2g
𝑉32
Similarly for
2𝑔
π D21 1
A1V1 = A3V3  V3 = A1V1/A3 = . 𝑉1
4 π D23 /4
Squaring dividing both sides by 2g we get:
𝑉32 𝐷1 4 𝑉12
= ( )
2𝑔 𝐷3 2𝑔
2 4
V3 0.30 V21 V21
= ( ) = 2.07
2g 0.25 2g 2g
V23 V21
= 2.07
2g 2g
V22 V23
Now put & values in Eq. (1) and get:
2g 2g
V21 V21 V21
10 = 0.019 (300/0.3) + 0.021 (150/0.20) 5.06 + 0.020 (250/0.25) 2.07
2g 2g 2g
V21
10 = (0.019 x 1000 + 0.021 x 750 x 5.06 + 0.020 x 1000 x 2.07)
2g
V21
10 = (138.88)
2g
V21
= 0.072
2g

𝑉1 = √0.0271 × 2 × 9.81 = 1.18 m/s

The corresponding values of RN are 0.31 x 106, 0.47 x 106 and 0.37 x 106; the corresponding
friction factors are only slightly different from those originally assumed since the flow is at
Reynolds numbers very close at which the pipes behave as rough pipes.
Hence,
π D21 π 0.32
Q1 = A1 V1 = × V1 = ×1.18 = 0.083 m3 /s
4 4
Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3 = 0.083 m3/s

2. by Equivalent Length Method

General formula to determine equivalent length of a pipe is:
𝑓 𝐷𝑒 5
𝐿𝑒 = 𝐿 ( )
𝑓𝑒 𝐷
Determine the equivalent length of pipe (1) for pipes (2) & (3) – In other words take pipe (1)
as a standard pipe:

For pipe 2, equivalent length of pipe

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 0.021 0.30 5
Le = 150 ( )
0.019 0.20
Le = 1260 m of pipe 1 (30 cm diameter)
L = L2 = 150 m
f = f2 = 0.021
D = D2 = 0.20
Le = equivalent length of pipe 1 for pipe 2

Similarly, for pipe 3 equivalent length of pipe 1

fe = f1 = 0.019
De = D1 = 0.30 m
0.020 0.30 5
Le = 250 ( ) = 650 m of pipe 1 (30 cm diameter)
0.019 0.25
Here
L = L3 = 250 m
f = f3 = 0.25
D = D3 = 0.25 m

Now total equivalent length  total Le = L1 + Le2 + Le3

= 300 + 1260 + 650
= 2210 m of 30 diameter pipe (pipe 1)
Apply Darcy formula and get velocity V1

f1 L1 V21 2210 𝑉12

hL = ⟹ 10 = 0.019
D1 2g 0.30 2𝑔
Now,
V1
= 0.071 m ⟹ 𝑉1 = √0.071 × 2 × 9.81 = 1.18 m/s
2g
The corresponding values of RN are 0.31 x 106, 0.47 x 106 and 0.37 x 106; the corresponding
friction factors are only slightly different from those originally assumed since the flow is at
Reynolds numbers very close at which the pipes behave as rough pipes.
Hence,
π D21
Q1 = A1 V1 = × 1.18 = 0.083 𝑚3 /𝑠
4

Page 10 of 18
PIPES IN PARALLEL

Figure 1: Pipes in Parallel

To solve the flow problems through pipes in parallel, following continuity and energy
equations must be:
i) Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
ii) hL = hL1 = hL2 = hL3

Two Types of Flow Problems

1) Total head loss is given and total discharge (Q) needs to be calculated. Total discharge
is calculated directly by adding contributions from various pipes i.e. Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
2) Total discharge (Q) is given and total head loss (hL) and discharge distribution for pipes
need to be determined.
To solve type 2 problem for each pipe using continuity equation (Q = AV) and Darcy’s
f LV2
equation (hL = ), discharge equation is written in the following form:
𝐷2g

f L𝑉 2 hL D 2 g
Q = AV, hL = ⟹ √ = V
D2g fL

hL D 2 g 𝐷2𝑔
𝑄 = 𝐴√ = A √( ) √hL
fL 𝑓𝐿
𝐷2𝑔
Put A √( ) = C = constant for the given pipe
𝑓𝐿
Now
Q= C √hL General equation for individual pipe
So
For pipe 1 → Q1 = 𝐶1 √ℎ𝐿
For pipe 2 → Q2 = 𝐶2 √ℎ𝐿
For pipe 3 → Q3 = 𝐶3 √ℎ𝐿
Now total flow Q is
Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
Q = 𝐶1 √ℎ𝐿 + 𝐶2 √ℎ𝐿 + 𝐶3 √ℎ𝐿

Page 11 of 18
Q = (C1 + C2 + C3) √ℎ𝐿 Eq. (1)
So using Eq. 1, hL can be determined.
Now individual pipe flow can be calculated by using Darcy’s formula i.e.
f1 L1 V21
hL1 = hL = ⟹ will give V1 then Q1 can be calculated by Q1 =A1 V1
D1 2g
f2 L2 V22
Similarly for pipe 2: hL2 = hL = ⟹ V2 then Q2 =A2 V2
D2 2g
f3 L3 V23
And for pipe 3: hL3 = hL = ⟹ V3 then Q3 =A3 V3
D3 2g
Example Problem 1 (Type 1 flow problem)
(Head loss is given, total discharge needs to be found)
Refer to Fig. 1 which shows 3 pipes connected in parallel manner between two reservoirs A
and B. Consider two pipes having following pipe data:
Length of pipe 1 = L1 = 2400 m
Diameter of pipe 1 = D1 = 1.2 m
Friction factor pipe 1 = f1 = 0.024
Length of pipe 2 = L2 = 2400 m
Diameter of pipe 2 = D2 = 1.0 m
Friction factor pipe 2 = f2 = 0.020
Difference in water levels of reservoirs
(elevation of water surface in the reservoirs) = hL = 20 m
Find total discharge through the pipe system
Solution
Step 1: Use Darcy’s formula to get velocity and then use continuity equation to obtain
discharge for each of two pipes.
f1 L1 V21
So hL = hL = 20 m
D1 2g
0.024 × 2400 × 𝑉12
20 = = 2.4464 𝑉12
1.2 × 2 × 9.81
2.0
𝑉1 = √ √8.175 = 2.869 m/s
2.44648
π D21 π 1.22
Now Q1 = A1 V1 = × V1 = × 2.85 = 1.13 × 2.86
4 4

Q1 = 3.32 m3/s

Similarly for pipe 2:

f2 L2 V22 0.020 × 2400 × 𝑉22
hL2 = hL = ⟹ 20 =
D2 2g 1 × 2 × 9.81
2
20 = 2.44648 V2
Or

Page 12 of 18
 20
𝑉2 = √ 8.175 = 2.86 m/s
2.44648
So
π D22 π 12
Q2 = A2 V2 = × V2 = × 2.86 = 2.25 m3 /s
4 4
Q2 = 2.25 m3/s
Now total discharge through the pipe system is given by Q = Q1 + Q2
= 3.23 + 2.25 = 5.48 m3/s
Q = 5.48 m3/s
Example Problem 2 (Type 2 Problem):
(hL and discharge distribution among pipes connected in parallel manner is to be found but
total Q is given)
For the pipe data given in example problem 1, assume hL is not given and total discharge is
given i.e. Q = 5.48 m3/s
Find head loss and flow distribution example pipe 1 & pipe 2:
Solution:
L1 = 2400 m
D1 = 1.2 m
f1 = 0.024
L2 = 2400 m
D2 = 1.0 m
f2 = 0.020
Q = 5.48 m3/s
Find
i) hL = ?
ii) Q1 and Q2 = ?

Ist Step: Determine hL using:

𝑄 = (𝐶1 + 𝐶2 ) √ℎ𝐿
Where
D1 2 g π D21 D1 2g
C1 = A1 √ = √
f1 L1 4 f1 L1
π D22 𝐷2 2 g
D1 2 g π D21 D1 2g Similarly, C2 = √f
C1 = A1 √ = √ 4 2 L2
f1 L1 4 f1 L1

π (1.2)2 1.2 × 2 × 9.81 π (1)2 1 × 2 × 9.81

C1 = √ C2 = √
4 0.024 × 2400 4 0.020 × 2400
= 1.13 𝑥 0.63934
C1 = 0.72245 C2 = 0.50214

Now

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Q = (C1 + C2) √ℎ𝐿
5.48 = (0.72245 + 0.50214) √ℎ𝐿
5.48 = 1.22459 √ℎ𝐿
5.48 2
hL = ( ) = 20 m ⟹ hL = 20 m
1.22451
Step 2:
Now calculate individual flows for pipe 1 and pipe 2 using Darcy’s formula and continuity
equation:
f L1 V21 0.024 × 2400 × V21
hL1 = hL = 1 ⟹
D1 2g 1.2 × 2 × 9.81
Or
20 = 2.44648 V21
Or
20
V1 = √ = 2.86 m/s
2.44648
Now
π D21 π 1.22
Q1 = A1 V1 = × V1 = × 2.86 = 3.23 𝑚3 /𝑠
4 4
So
Q1 = 3.23 m3/s
Similarly calculated Q2 as follows:

f2 L2 V22 0.02 × 2400 × V22

hL2 = hL = ⟹
D2 2g 1 × 2 × 9.81
20
𝑉2 = √ = 2.86 m/s
2.44648

π D22
Q2 = A2 V2 = × V2
4
𝜋 (1)2
= × 2.86
4
Q2 = 2.25 m3/s
So,
Check: Total Q = Q1 + Q2 = 5.48 = 3.23 + 2.25 = 5.48 m3/s

Page 14 of 18
PIPE NETWORKS FLOW ANALYSIS

In a pipe network, pipes are interconnected in a way that flow to a given outlet comes by
several different routes/paths. In order to analyze flow problems of pipe networks, following
rules must be observed/followed:
1. Flow into any junction must be equal to flow out of it.
2. Flow in each pipe must satisfy Darcy-Weisbach formula/law.
3. Algebraic sum of the head losses around any closed loop must be zero.

Hardy Cross Method

The hardy cross method to solve flow problems of pipe structures include following
steps:
Step 1:Based on careful inspection, assume a flow distribution that satisfies continuity
equation which means flow into a junction must be equal to flow out of junction -
Rule 1 maintained above.
Step 2:To satisfy rule 2 (application of pipe friction formula) write Darcy formula in the
following form for each pipe:
hL = K Qn
Where
K = f (L, D, f, g, π) = constant for each pipe
n = 2 (generally)
Step 3:Compute the algebraic sum of the head losses around each loop by ∑ hL = ∑ K Qn to
satisfy rule 3 [Algebraic sum (considering sign +ve, -ve ) of head losses around a loop
must be zero].
- Take/consider head losses from clockwise flows as positive (+ve)
- Consider head losses from anticlockwise flows as negative (-ve)

If ∑ hL = ∑ K Qn is not coming equal to zero go to next step (i.e. Step 4).

Step 4: Calculate discharge (flow) correction by:
− ∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛
∆Q =
∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜𝑛−1 ⌉
Here − ∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛 must be summed algebraically considering the sign (+ve or –ve)
∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜𝑛−1 ⌉ is summed arithmetically (just taking absolute value).
Where
∆Q = discharge correction
Qo = assumed discharge

Step 5:Apply discharge correction (∆Q) to assumed flows (Qo) for obtaining correct
discharge (Q) such as Q = Qo + ∆Q
In each loop, pipes which are common to two loops will receive two independent corrections,
one for each loop.

Page 15 of 18
 1. If ∆Q comes +ve, add ∆Q to clockwise assumed flows and subtract ∆Q from contour-
clockwise flows.
2. If ∆Q comes –ve, add ∆Q to counter-clockwise flows and subtract ∆Q from clockwise
flows.
After application ∆Q, repeat the procedure to get 2nd ∆Q and so an until the corrections
become negligible.

Example Problem 1
If the flows into and out of a two loop pipe system (See Fig. 1 given below),
determine the flow in each pipe:

Figure 1: Showing a Pipe Network

Important Point: The K values for each pipe were calculated from the pipe parameters
(say, L, D, etc.) and from an assumed value of ‘f’
f L V2
hL =
D 2g
From continuity,
𝑄 𝑄 16𝑄2
𝑉= = 𝜋 𝐷2
or 𝑉2 =
𝐴 𝜋 2 𝐷4
4

𝑄2 1
hL = 𝑓 L ×16
𝜋2 𝐷4 𝐷2𝑔
8f𝐿 8f𝐿
hL = ( 5
) 𝑄2 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒, 𝐾 = ( )
𝜋2 𝑔 𝐷 𝜋2 g 𝐷5
So, hL = K Q2
Solution
Step 1:Assume a flow distribution which satisfies continuity i.e. flow into a junction is equal
to flow out of it. Following Fig. 2 shows flow distribution.
Step 2:Apply Darcy=Weisbach formula to each pipe. Then take algebraic sum of all head
losses in each of the loops (ℎ𝐿 = K 𝑄𝑜𝑛 )
The below sum must be zero i.e., algebraic (consisting head losses +ve from clockwise flows
and –ve from anti-clockwise flows).
∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛 = 0, if this is not the case, then calculate also, KnQon-1 and take sum of absolute
values i.e., ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜𝑛−1 ⌉

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 Figure 2: Showing distribution of flows

For Loop I:
K 𝑸𝒏=𝟐
𝒐 K 𝒏𝑸𝒏=𝟐−𝟏
𝒐
2
1 x 60 = 3600 (Clockwise) 1 x 2 x 60 = 120
4 x 102 = 400 (Clockwise) 4 x 2 x 10 = 80
3 x 402 = 4800 (Counter-clockwise) 3 x 2 x 40 = 240
∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛=2 = 800 (Counter-clockwise) ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜2−1 ⌉ = 440

For Loop II:

K 𝑸𝒏=𝟐
𝒐 K 𝒏𝑸𝒏=𝟐−𝟏
𝒐
2
4 x 50 = 10000 (Clockwise) 4 x 2 x 50 = 400
2 x 252 = 1250 (Clockwise) 2 x 2 x 25 = 100
4 x 102 = 400 (Counter-clockwise) 4 x 2 x 10 = 80
5 x 252 = 3125(Counter-clockwise) 5 x 2 x 25 = 250
∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛=2 = 7725 (Clockwise) ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜2−1 ⌉ = 830

Calculate and apply discharge correction (ΔQ)

for Loop I: For Loop II
2
− ∑ K 𝑄𝑜
∆Q = − ∑ K 𝑄𝑜2 −7725(Clockwise)
∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉ ∆Q = =
∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉ 830
− 800(Counter − clockwise)
∆Q = ∆Q = 9 (Counter-clockwise)
440
∆Q = 2 (Clockwise)

After application of these corrections, flows are shown in Fig. 3 given below:

Figure 3. Shows flows after correction application

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 for Loop I:
K 𝑸𝟐𝒐 K 𝒏𝑸𝒏=𝟐−𝟏
𝒐
1 x 622 = 3844 (Clockwise) 1 x 2 x 62 = 125
4 x 212 = 1764 (Clockwise) 4 x 2 x 21 = 168
3 x 382 = 4332 (Counter-clockwise) 3 x 2 x 38 = 228
∑ K 𝑄𝑜2 ⇒ 1276 (Clockwise) ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉ ⇒ 520

For Loop II
K 𝑸𝟐𝒐 K 𝒏𝑸𝒏=𝟐−𝟏
𝒐
2
4 x 41 = 67242 (Clockwise) 4 x 2 x 41 = 328
4 x 162 = 512 (Clockwise) 2 x 2 x 16 = 64
4 x 212 = 1764 (Counter-clockwise) 4 x 2 x 21 = 168
5 x 342 = 5780 (Counter-clockwise) 5 x 2 x 34 = 340
∑ K 𝑄𝑜2 ⇒ 308 (Counter-clockwise) ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉ ⇒ 900

For Loop I:
− ∑ K 𝑄𝑜𝑛 1276 (Clockwise)
∆Q = ∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉
= ≈ 2 (Counter-clockwise)
520

For Loop II:

− ∑ K 𝑄𝑜2 − 308 (Counter − clockwise)
∆Q = = ≈ 0
∑⌈K 𝑛 𝑄𝑜 ⌉ 900

Now just apply correction to Loop I flows as shown in Figure 4.

Figure 4: Showing final distribution of flows.

Further corrections can be made if greater accuracy is required.

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