Chapter 1

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

1. The molality of a urea solution in which 0.0100 g The weight which a 75 kg person would gain if all
of urea, [(NH2)2CO] is added to 0.3000 dm 3 of 1H atoms are replaced by 2H atoms is

water at STP is [AIEEE-2011] [JEE (Main)-2017]

(1) 3.33 × 10–2 m (2) 0.555 m (1) 7.5 kg (2) 10 kg

(3) 5.55 × 10–4 m (4) 33.3 m (3) 15 kg (4) 37.5 kg

2. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 7. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an organic
120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If one molecule of the
above compound (CXHYOZ) contains half as much
water of 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is
oxygen as required to burn one molecule of
[AIEEE-2012]
compound CXHY completely to CO2 and H2O. The
(1) 1.78 M (2) 1.02 M empirical formula of compound CXHYOZ is
(3) 2.05 M (4) 0.50 M [JEE (Main)-2018]
3. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing (1) C3H6O3 (2) C2H4O
750 mL of 0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2 (M) HCl (3) C3H4O2 (4) C2H4O3
will be [JEE (Main)-2013]
8. A solution of sodium sulfate contains 92 g of Na+
(1) 0.875 M (2) 1.00 M ions per kilogram of water. The molality of Na+ ions
in that solution in mol kg–1 is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 1.75 M (4) 0.975 M
(1) 16 (2) 4
4. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous
hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing 20% (3) 8 (4) 12
O 2 by volume for complete combustion. After 9. For the following reaction, the mass of water
combustion the gases occupy 330 mL. Assuming produced from 445 g of C57H110O6 is
that the water formed is in liquid form and the
2C57H110 O6 (s) +163O2 (g)  114CO2 (g) +110H2O(I)
volumes were measured at the same temperature
and pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2016] (1) 890 g (2) 490 g
(1) C3H8 (2) C4H8 (3) 445 g (4) 495 g
(3) C4H10 (4) C3H6 10. The amount of sugar (C 12 H 22O 11) required to
5. 1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is
excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2. The [JEE (Main)-2019]
molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol–1 is (1) 136.8 g (2) 17.1 g
[JEE (Main)-2017]
(3) 34.2 g (4) 68.4 g
(1) 118.6 (2) 11.86
11. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of H2O. Mole
(3) 1186 (4) 84.3 fraction of NaOH in solution and molality
(in mol kg–1) of the solution respectively are
6. The most abundant elements by mass in the body
of a healthy human adult are : [JEE (Main)-2019]
Oxygen (61.4%); Carbon (22.9%); Hydrogen (1) 0.2, 22.20 (2) 0.167, 22.20
(10.0%) and Nitrogen (2.6%). (3) 0.167, 11.11 (4) 0.2, 11.11
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12. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in 18. 25 g of an unknown hydrocarbon upon burning
methane is [JEE (Main)-2019] produces 88 g of CO 2 and 9 g of H 2O. This
(1) 80% unknown hydrocarbon contains
(2) 75% [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 20% (1) 22 g of carbon and 3 g of hydrogen
(4) 25% (2) 24 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen
13. For a reaction, N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ® 2NH3 (g).
(3) 20 g of carbon and 5 g of hydrogen
Identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent in the
(4) 18 g of carbon and 7 g of hydrogen
following reaction mixtures. [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 35 g of N2 + 8 g of H2 19. Amongst the following statements, that which was
not proposed by Dalton was [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) 28 g of N2 + 6 g of H2
(3) 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 (1) All the atoms of a given element have identical
properties including identical mass. Atoms of
(4) 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2
different elements differ in mass
14. What would be the molality of 20% (mass/mass)
aqueous solution of KI? (molar mass of (2) Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
KI = 166 g mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2019] (3) Chemical reactions involve reorganization of
(1) 1.48 atoms. These are neither created nor
(2) 1.51 destroyed in a chemical reaction.

(3) 1.08 (4) When gases combine or reproduced in a

chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio
(4) 1.35
by volume provided all gases are at the same
15. The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per gram T & P.
of reactant is for the reaction:
20. The ammonia (NH 3) released on quantitative
(Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24,
reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH2CONH2) with sodium
P = 31, C = 12, H = 1) [JEE (Main)-2019]
hydroxide (NaOH) can be neutralized by
(1) 2Mg(s) + O2(g)  2MgO(s)
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)  2Fe2O3(s)
(3) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(I) (1) 200 ml of 0.4 N HCl

(4) P4(s) + 5O2(g)  P4O10(s) (2) 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl

16. The mole fraction of a solvent in aqueous solution (3) 200 ml of 0.2 N HCl
of a solute is 0.8. The molality (in mol kg–1) of the
(4) 100 ml of 0.2 N HCl
aqueous solution is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 13.88 × 10–2 21. The strength of an aqueous NaOH solution is most
accurately determined by titrating
(2) 13.88 × 10–3
(Note : consider that an appropriate indicator is
(3) 13.88
used) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) 13.88 × 10–1
(1) Aq. NaOH in a pipette and aqueous oxalic acid
17. 5 moles of AB2 weigh 125 × 10–3 kg and 10 moles
in a burette
of A2B2 weigh 300 × 10–3 kg. The molar mass
of A(MA) and molar mass of B(MB) in kg mol–1 (2) Aq. NaOH in a burette and aqueous oxalic acid
are [JEE (Main)-2019] in a conical flask
(1) MA = 25 × 10–3 and MB = 50 × 10–3 (3) Aq. NaOH in a burette and concentrated H2SO4
(2) MA = 50 × 10–3 and MB = 25 × 10–3 in a conical flask
(3) MA = 5 × 10–3 and MB = 10 × 10–3 (4) Aq. NaOH in a volumetric flask and
(4) MA = 10 × 10–3 and MB = 5 × 10–3 concentrated H2SO4 in a conical flask

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22. A solution of two components containing 28. The mole fraction of glucose (C 6H 12O 6) in an
n1 moles of the 1st component and n2 moles of the aqueous binary solution is 0.1. The mass
2nd component is prepared. M1 and M2 are the percentage of water in it, to the nearest integer, is
molecular weights of component 1 and 2 ________ [JEE (Main)-2020]
respectively. If d is the density of the solution in g 29. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of a
mL–1, C2 is the molarity and x2 is the mole fraction substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution containing
of the 2nd component, then C2 can be expressed 5 g of substance ‘x’ in 2 L solution is ______
as [JEE (Main)-2020] × 10–3. [JEE (Main)-2020]
30. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 N NaOH required to
1000 x 2 neutralise 10 mL of 0.1 N phosphinic acid
(1) C 2 =
M1 + x 2 (M2 -M1 ) is ______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
31. The mass of ammonia in grams produced when 2.8
1000 d x 2 kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts with 1 kg of
(2) C 2 = M + x (M -M ) dihydrogen is _______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
1 2 2 1

32. A 100 mL solution was made by adding 1.43 g of

d x2 Na2CO3xH2O. The normality of the solution is 0.1
(3) C2 = M + x (M -M ) N. The value of x is _____. [JEE (Main)-2020]
2 2 2 1
(The atomic mass of Na is 23 g/mol)
d x1 33. The minimum number of moles of O2 required for
(4) C2 = M + x (M -M )
2 2 2 1 complete combustion of 1 mole of propane and 2
moles of butane is _______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
23. The average molar mass of chlorine is
34. 4.5 g of compound A (MW = 90) was used to make
35.5 g mol–1. The ratio of 35Cl to 37Cl in naturally
250 mL of its aqueous solution. The molarity of the
occurring chlorine is close to [JEE (Main)-2020]
solution in M is x × 10–1. The value of x is _____.
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 [JEE (Main)-2021]
24. Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate is used to fortify 35. 1.86 g of aniline completely reacts to form
foods with iron. The amount (in grams) of the salt acetanilide. 10% of the product is lost during
required to achieve 10 ppm of iron in purification. Amount of acetanilide obtained after
100 kg of wheat is________. [JEE (Main)-2020] purification (in g) is ______ × 10–2.

Atomic weight : Fe = 55.85; S = 32.00; O = 16.00 [JEE (Main)-2021]

25. NaClO3 is used, even in spacecrafts, to produce 36. The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which
requires 6 times of its own volume of O 2 for
O2. The daily consumption of pure O2 by a person
complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own
is 492 L at 1 atm, 300 K. How much amount of
volume of CO2 is CxHy. The value of y is ______.
NaClO3, in grams, is required to produce O2 for the
daily consumption of a person at 1 atm, 300 K? [JEE (Main)-2021]
__________. [JEE (Main)-2020] 37. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen
NaClO3(s) + Fe(s)  O2(g) + NaCl(s) + FeO(s) containing compound (CxHyOz) gave 2.64 g of CO2
and 1.08 g of H2O. The percentage of oxygen in
R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 the organic compound is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
26. The molarity of HNO 3 in a sample which has (1) 50.33 (2) 53.33
density 1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is
(3) 51.63 (4) 63.53
_____. (Molecular Weight of HNO3 = 63)
38. The number of significant figures in 50000.020 × 10–3
[JEE (Main)-2020] is ________. [JEE (Main)-2021]
27. The ratio of the mass percentages of ‘C & H’ and 39. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of an
‘C & O’ of a saturated acyclic organic compound aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per mL
‘X’ are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively. Then, the moles is __________ g. (Rounded off to the nearest
of oxygen gas required for complete combustion of integer)
two moles of organic compound ‘X’ is ________.
[Given : Atomic weight in g mol–1 - Na : 23; N :
[JEE (Main)-2020] 14; O : 16] [JEE (Main)-2021]

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40. A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a density Consider the above reaction. The percentage yield
of 1.89 g cm–3. The molarity of the solution is ___ of amide product is ____. (Round off to the Nearest
mol dm–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). Integer).
[Atomic masses : K : 39.0 u; O : 16.0 u; H : 1.0 u] (Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N :
[JEE (Main)-2021] 14.0 u, O : 16.0 u, CI : 35.5 u)

41. Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic [JEE (Main)-2021]

compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210 g of 46. A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzylamine with
H2O. The percentage composition of carbon and bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl
hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3 and ammonium bromide. The number of moles of
_____respectively. (Round off to the Nearest bromomethane consumed in this reaction are
Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021] n × 10–1, when n = _____
42. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate
[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N
solution, ________ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate
: 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u] [JEE (Main)-2021]
precipitate out. [JEE (Main)-2021]
47. Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
x × 1022 molecules of water. The value of x is
________.
NO2
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
43. HNO3
H2SO4 [Use : NA = 6.023 × 1023 ;
Atomic masses in u : C : 12.0 ; O : 16.0 ; H : 1.0]
In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration [JEE (Main)-2021]
gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The percentage yield
of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is 48. ________ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW = 74)
_________%. must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein (MW
= 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is 64.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(Given atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0
u, N : 14.0 u) [JEE (Main)-2021] [Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O :
16.0 u] [JEE (Main)-2021]
44. The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of chlorine
gas at STP is _______ 1021. (Round off to the COO H COO H
Nearest integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]
FeBr 3
49. + Br2 + HBr
[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP
Br
R = 0.083 L bar mol–1K–1, NA = 6.023 × 1023]
Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of Benzoic
acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromobenzoic acid.
O The percentage yield of the product is ____.
45.
C (Round off to Nearest Integer).
Cl + C 6H 5NHC6H 5
[Given : Atomic masses : C : 120 u, H : 1.0 u, O
: 16.0 u, Br : 80.0 u] [JEE (Main)-2021]
0.140 g 0.388 g
50. 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 mL of
1 M HCI. The number of unreacted HCI molecules in
O
the solution after complete reaction is ______ ×1021.
C6H 5 – C – N – (C 6H5) 2 (Nearest integer) (NA = 6.022 × 1023)
0.210 g [JEE (Main)-2021]

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51. Methylation of 10 g of benzene gave 9.2 g of toluene. 58. 100 g of propane is completely reacted with
Calculate the percentage yield of toluene _________. 1000 g of oxygen. The mole fraction of carbon dioxide
(Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] in the resulting mixture is x × 10–2. The value of x is
52. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is _____. (Nearest integer)
0.72 g L–1, the molarity of glucose in blood is [Atomic weight : H = 1.008; C = 12.00; O = 16.00]
________ × 10–3 M. (Nearest integer)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(Given : Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 u)
59. The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving 6.3
[JEE (Main)-2021] g of oxalic acid (H2C2O42H2O) in 250 mL of water in
53. Consider the complete combustion of butane, the mol L–1 is x × 10–2. The value of x is _______.
amount of butane utilized to produce 72.0 g of water (Nearest integer)
is ____ × 10–1 g. (in nearest integer) [Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
54. The number of significant figures in 0.00340 is _______.
60. Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium
[JEE (Main)-2021] hydroxide. 20.0 g of sodium oxide is dissolved in 500
55. The density of NaOH solution is 1.2 g cm –3. The mL of water. Neglecting the change in volume, the
molality of this solution is ______ m. concentration of the resulting NaOH solution is _____
× 10–1 M. (Nearest integer)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
[Atomic mass : Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0]
[Use : Atomic masses : Na : 23.0 u, O : 16.0 u
H : 1.0 u Density of H2O : 1.0 g cm–3] [JEE (Main)-2021]

[JEE (Main)-2021] 61. If 80 g of copper sulphate CuSO45H2O is dissolved in

deionised water to make 5 L of solution. The
56. An aqueous KCl solution of density 1.20 g ml–1 has
concentration of the copper sulphate solution is x ×
a molality of 3.30 mol kg–1. The molarity of the
10–3 mol L–1. The value of x is _______.
solution in mol L–1 is _____. (Nearest integer)
[Atomic masses Cu : 63.54 u, S : 32 u, O : 16 u,
[Molar mass of KCl = 74.5] [JEE (Main)-2021]
H : 1 u] [JEE (Main)-2021]
57. 100 mL of Na 3PO 4 solution contains 3.45 g
of sodium. The molarity of the solution is _____ 62. The number of atoms in 8 g of sodium is x × 1023. The
× 10–2 mol L–1. (Nearest integer) value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic Masses - Na : 23.0 u, O : 16.0 u, P : 31.0 u] [Given : NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1

[JEE (Main)-2021] Atomic mass of Na = 23.0 u] [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 2

Structure of Atom
1. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated 6. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
with a proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms–1 and l
(Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and h = 6.63 × (a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0
10–34 Js) [AIEEE-2009] (c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3, l = 1
(1) 0.40 nm (2) 2.5 nm can be placed in order of increasing energy as
(3) 14.0 nm (4) 0.032 nm [AIEEE-2012]

2. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of (1) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with (2) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
which the position of the electron can be located is
(3) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2s–1, mass of electron, em = 9.1
× 10–31 kg) [AIEEE-2009] (4) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)

(1) 5.10 × 10–3 m (2) 1.92 × 10–3 m 7. Energy of an electron is given by

(3) 3.84 × 10–3 m (4) 1.52 × 10–4 m  Z2 

E = -2.178×10 -18 J  2 . W avelength of light
n 
3. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl  
bonds in Cl 2 is 242 kJ mol –1 . The longest required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom
wavelength of light capable of breaking a single form level n = 1 to n = 2 will be
Cl – Cl bond is
(h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1)
(c = 3 × 108 ms–1 and NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2013]
[AIEEE-2010]
(1) 1.214 × 10–7 m (2) 2.816 × 10–7 m
(1) 494 nm (2) 594 nm
(3) 6.500 × 10–7 m (4) 8.500 × 10–7 m
(3) 640 nm (4) 700 nm
8. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The
4. Ionisation energy of He+
is 19.6 × 10–18 atom–1. value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of [JEE (Main)-2013]
Li2+ is [AIEEE-2010] (1) –2.55 eV (2) –5.1 eV
(1) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1 (3) –10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV
(2) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1 9. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
(3) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1 valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
[JEE (Main)-2014]
(4) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
5. The frequency of light emitted for the transition 1 1
(1) 5, 0, 0, + (2) 5,1, 0, +
n = 4 to n = 2 of He + is equal to the transition in 2 2
H atom corresponding to which of the following
[AIEEE-2011] 1 1
(3) 5,1,1, + (4) 5, 0,1, +
2 2
(1) n = 4 to n = 3
10. Which of the following is the energy of a possible
(2) n = 3 to n = 1
excited state of hydrogen? [JEE (Main)-2015]
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(1) +13.6 eV (2) –6.8 eV
(4) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) –3.4 eV (4) +6.8 eV
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11. A stream of electrons from a heated filament was (c) According to wave mechanics, the ground
passed between two charged plates kept at a h
potential difference V esu. If e and m are charge state angular momentum is equal to
2
and mass of an electron, respectively, then the
(d) The plot of  Vs r for various azimuthul
h quantum numbers, shows peak shifting
value of (where  is wavelength associated with
 towards higher r value. [JEE (Main)-2019]
electron wave) is given by [JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) (a), (d) (2) (b), (c)
(1) 2meV
(3) (a), (c) (4) (a), (b)
(2) meV
16. W hich of the graphs shown below does not
(3) 2meV represent the relationship between incident light and
(4) meV the electron ejected from metal surface?
12. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen [JEE (Main)-2019]
atom is
(Planck's Const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js;
K.E.
mass of electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg; of e s

charge of electron e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C;

(1)
permittivity of vacuum
0
0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2) Energy of
Light
[JEE (Main)-2017]
(1) 0.529 Å (2) 2.12 Å
(3) 1.65 Å (4) 4.76 Å Number
of e s
13. The highest value of the calculated spin only
magnetic moment (in BM) among all the transition
metal complexes is [JEE (Main)-2019] (2)

(1) 5.92 (2) 6.93 0 Frequency of

Light
(3) 4.90 (4) 3.87
14. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8

to nf = n, the plot of wave number (  ) against K.E.
of e s
 1
 2  will be (The Rydberg constant, RH is in wave
n  (3)
number unit) [JEE (Main)-2019]
0 Intensity of
(1) Linear with slope RH LIght
(2) Linear with intercept –RH
(3) Non-linear
K.E.
(4) Linear with slope –RH of e s

15. Which of the following combination of statements

is true regarding the interpretation of the atomic (4)
orbitals? 0 Frequency of
(a) An electron in an orbital of high angular Light
momentum stays away from the nucleus than
17. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
an electron in the orbital of lower angular
–13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of
momentum
He+ ion in eV is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(b) For a given value of the principal quantum
(1) –27.2 (2) –6.04
number, the size of the orbit is inversely
proportional to the azimuthal quantum number. (3) –54.4 (4) –3.4
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18. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of The correct order of their increasing energies will
wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of be [JEE (Main)-2019]
H-atom is suitable for this purpose?
(1) IV < II < III < I (2) I < III < II < IV
[RH= 1 × 105 cm, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
(3) IV < III < II < I (4) I < II < III < IV
[JEE (Main)-2019]
23. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron
(1) Balmer,  2 (2) Lyman,  1 ejected from a metal surface after the irradiation of
light having wavelength , then for 1.5 p momentum
(3) Paschen, 5  3 (4) Paschen,  3
of the photoelectron, the wavelength of the light
19. The de Broglie wavelength () associated with a should be
photoelectron varies with the frequency () of the
(Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be
incident radiation as, [0 is threshold frequency]
very high in comparison to work function):
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
1 1
(1)   (2)   3 4
   0  
1
 0 4  (1)  (2) 
4 9

1 1 2 1
(3)   1
(4)   3 (3)  (4) 
3 2
 
 0 2   0 2 
24. For any given series of spectral lines of atomic
20. What is the work function of the metal if the light
hydrogen, let   max  min be the difference in
of wavelength 4000 Å generates photoelectrons of
velocity 6 × 105 ms–1 from it? maximum and minimum frequencies in cm –1. The

(Mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg ratio Lyman / Balmer is [JEE (Main)-2019]

Velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1 (1) 9 : 4 (2) 27 : 5

Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js (3) 4 : 1 (4) 5 : 4
Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 JeV–1) 25. Which one of the following about an electron
[JEE (Main)-2019] occupying the 1s orbital in a hydrogen atom is
incorrect? (The Bohr radius is represented by a0)
(1) 4.0 eV (2) 2.1 eV
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 3.1 eV (4) 0.9 eV
(1) The probability density of finding the electron is
21. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth maximum at the nucleus
Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 a0
(a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of n/z is (2) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0
from the nucleus
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) The magnitude of the potential energy is double
(1) 0.40 (2) 1.50 that of its kinetic energy on an average
(3) 0.75 (4) 1.0 (4) The total energy of the electron is maximum
22. The quantum number of four electrons are given when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus
below 26. The graph between ||2 and r(radial distance) is
1 shown below. This represents [JEE (Main)-2019]
(I) n = 4, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = –
2
1
(II) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = + ||2
2
1
(III) n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +
2 r

1 (1) 1s orbital (2) 2s orbital

(IV) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = –
2 (3) 2p orbital (4) 3s orbital

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27. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral 4a0 4a0
series of hydrogen spectrum is found to be about (1) (2)
3 9
9. The spectral series are [JEE (Main)-2019] 2a0 2a0
(3) (4)
(1) Paschen and Pfund (2) Brackett and Pfund 3 9
(3) Lyman and Paschen (4) Balmer and Brackett 33. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th
Bohr orbit is [JEE (Main)-2020]
28. The electrons are more likely to be found
(1) 4a0 (2) 6a0
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) 8a0 (4) 2a0
34. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of the
a  (x) quantum nature of atoms is [JEE (Main)-2020]
 Increasing wavelength
b x
–x
(1)
c

Absorption spectrum
(1) In the region a and c (2) Only in the region c
Internal
(3) Only in the region a (4) In the region a and b energy
(2) of
29. Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital is Ar 300 400 500 600
lowest in [JEE (Main)-2019]
Temperature (K)
(1) Li (2) K
(3) H (4) Na T2 > T1
Intensity
30. The number of orbitals associated with quantum of black body
(3) radiation T1
1
numbers n = 5, m s =  is [JEE (Main)-2020]
2 Wavelength

(1) 15 (2) 50 Rb K
Na
Kinetic
(3) 25 (4) 11 energy of
(4) photoelectrons
31. For the Balmer series in the spectrum of H atom,
Frequency of incident
 1 1  radiation
 =RH  2 – 2 , the correct statements among (I)
 n1 n2  35. The number of subshells associated with n = 4 and
m = –2 quantum numbers is [JEE (Main)-2020]
to (VI) are
(1) 2 (2) 8
(I) As wavelength decreases, the lines in the (3) 4 (4) 16
series converge
36. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where
(II) The integer n1 is equal to 2 the Balmar series lines appear is
(III) The lines of longest wavelength corresponds to [JEE (Main)-2020]
n2 = 3 (1) Microwave (2) Ultraviolet
(IV) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be (3) Visible (4) Infrared
calculated from wave number of these lines 37. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman
series is 1. The longest wavelength in the Balmar
[JEE (Main)-2020]
series of He+ is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (I), (II), (III) (2) (II), (III), (IV)
51 361
(3) (I), (III), (IV) (4) (I), (II), (IV) (1) (2)
9 5
32. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the 271 91
Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is [JEE (Main)-2020] (3) (4)
5 5

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38. The correct electronic configuration and spin-only Choose the most appropriate answer from the
magnetic moment (BM) of Gd 3+ (Z = 64), options given below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (A) only
(1) [Xe] 5f7 and 8.9 (2) [Xe] 4f7 and 7.9
(2) (A) and (D) only
(3) [Xe] 5f7 and 7.9 (4) [Xe] 4f7 and 8.9
(3) (C) only
39. The difference between radii of 3rd and 4th orbits of
Li2+ is R1. The difference between the radii of 3rd (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
and 4 th orbits of He + is R 2 . Ratio 44. The plots of radial distribution functions for various
R1 : R2 is [JEE (Main)-2020] orbitals of hydrogen atom against ‘r’ are given below
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 8 : 3
8
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 8

4r R 2n, l (r)

40. The correct statement about probability density (A) 4
(except at infinite distance from nucleus) is

2
[JEE (Main)-2020] 0 10
5
r(Å)
(1) It can never be zero for 2s orbital
(2) It can be zero for 3p orbital
3
(3) It can be zero for 1s orbital

4r Rn, l (r)

2
(4) It can be negative for 2p orbital (B)

2
1

2
41. The work function of sodium metal is
4.41 × 10–19 J. If photons of wavelength 300 nm 0
5 10
are incident on the metal, the kinetic energy of the r(Å)
ejected electrons will be (h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s;
c = 3 × 108 m/s) ________ × 10–21 J.
3
[JEE (Main)-2020]
4r Rn, l (r)

2
42. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus are accelerated by the (C)
2

1
2

same potential. If Li and p denote the de Broglie

wavelengths of Li3+ and proton respectively, then 0
5 10
 Li r(Å)
the value of  is x × 10–1.
p
2.0
The value of x is _____. (Rounded off to the
4 r Rn, l (r)

1.5
nearest integer)
(D)
2

1.0
[Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton]
2

0.5
[JEE (Main)-2021] 0
5 10
r(Å)
43. According to Bohr’s atomic theory:

Z2 The correct plot for 3s orbital is

(A) Kinetic energy of electron is 
n2 (1) (C) (2) (D)
(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and (3) (B) (4) (A)
principal quantum number (n), ‘vn’  Z2 [JEE (Main)-2021]
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an 45. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength
Z3 663 nm is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal
orbit is  A. The ionization energy of metal A in
n3
kJ mol –1 is ____. (Rounded-off to the nearest
(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the integer)
Z3 [h = 6.63 × 10 –34 Js, c = 3.00 × 10 8 ms –1 ,
electron is 
n 4 NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021]

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46. The orbital having two radial as well as two 53. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two
angular nodes is : [JEE (Main)-2021] radial nodes. The orbital is [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 3p (2) 4d (1) 2p (2) 3p
(3) 5d (4) 4f (3) 3s (4) 2s
47. A ball weighing 10 g is moving with a velocity of 90 54. The Azimuthal quantum number for the valence
ms–1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is 5%, then the electrons of Ga+ ion is _______.
uncertainty in its position is ___________ × 10–33
m. (Rounded off to the nearest integer) (Atomic number of Ga = 31) [JEE (Main)-2021]

[Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js] [JEE (Main)-2021] 55. The wavelength of electrons accelerated from rest
through a potential difference of 40 kV is x × 10–2 m.
48. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of
The value of x is _______. (Nearest integer)
threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-Broglie wavelength
of emitted electrons is ____ Å. (Round off to the Given: Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Nearest Integer). Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
-34
[Use : 3 = 1.73, h = 6.63 ×10 Js Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg; c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1 ; 1eV = [JEE (Main)-2021]
1.6 × 10–19J] [JEE (Main)-2021]
56. Number of electrons that Vanadium (Z = 23) has in
49. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m = +2 is p-orbitals is equal to _______. [JEE (Main)-2021]
______.
57. A source of monochromatic radiation of wavelength
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 400 nm provides 1000 J of energy in 10 seconds.
[JEE (Main)-2021] When this radiation falls on the surface of sodium,
x × 1020 electrons are ejected per second. Assume
50. A certain orbital has n = 4 and mL = –3. The number
that wavelength 400 nm is sufficient for ejection of
of radial nodes in this orbital is __________.
electron from the surface of sodium metal. The value
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). of x is _______. (Nearest integer)
[JEE (Main)-2021] (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) [JEE (Main)-2021]
51. In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26), the 58. Number of electrons present in 4f orbital of Ho3+ ion
spin-only magnetic moment is ______ × 10–1 BM. is _______. (Given Atomic No. of Ho = 67)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[Given : 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41] 59. An accelerated electron has a speed of 5 × 10 6
[JEE (Main)-2021] ms–1 with an uncertainty of 0.02%. The uncertainty
in finding its location while in motion is x × 10–9 m.
52. Given below are two statements :
The value of x is _________. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement I : Bohr’s theory accounts for the
[Use mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, h = 6.63
stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.
× 10–34 Js,  = 3.14]
Statement II : Bohr’s theory was unable to explain
60. Given below are two statements :
the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a
magnetic field. Statement I : Rutherford’s gold foil experiment
In the light of the above statements, choose the cannot explain the line spectrum of
most appropriate answer from the options given hydrogen atom.
below. [JEE (Main)-2021] Statement II : Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true contradicts Heisenberg’s
uncertainty principle.
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
In the light of the above statement, choose the
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false below: [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(1) Both statement I and statement II are false. 63. A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation. The
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false. threshold frequency of the metal for photoelectric
current is 4.3 × 1014 Hz. The velocity of ejected
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
electron is _____ × 105 ms–1. (Nearest integer)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
[Use : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, me = 9.0 × 10–31 kg]
61. If the Thompson model of the atom was correct, then
the result of Rutherford’s gold foil experiment would [JEE (Main)-2021]
have been : [JEE (Main)-2021]
64. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr
(1) All -particles get bounced back by 180°
h2
(2) -particles pass through the gold foil deflected orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to . The
by small angles and with reduced speed x ma02

(3) -particles are deflected over a wide range of value of 10x is ______. (a0 is radius of Bohr’s orbit)
angles (Nearest integer)
(4) All of the -particles pass through the gold foil [Given :  = 3.14] [JEE (Main)-2021]
without decrease in speed
65. The number of photons emitted by a monochromatic
62. Given below are two statements :
(single frequency) infrared range finder of power 1
Statement I : According to Bohr’s model of an mW and wavelength of 1000 nm, in 0.1 second is x
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of × 1013. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
electron increases with decrease in positive
charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1)
on the electron by the nucleus. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement II : According to Bohr’s model of an
66. Ge (Z = 32) in its ground state electronic
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
configuration has x completely filled orbitals with
electron increases with decrease in principal
ml = 0. The value of x is _____.
quantum number.
In the light of the above statements, choose the [JEE (Main)-2021]
most appropriate answer from the options given 67. A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light of
below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
wavelength of 795 nm. The number of photons
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false emitted per second by the bulb is x × 10 20. The
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true value of x is ______. (Nearest integer)

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 3
Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties
1. The set representing the correct order of ionic 7. The ionic radii (in Å) of N 3– , O 2– and F – are
radius is [AIEEE-2009] respectively [JEE (Main)-2015]
(1) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(2) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(3) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ 8. Which of the following atoms has the highest first
ionization energy? [JEE (Main)-2016]
(4) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
(1) Na (2) K
2. The correct sequence which shows decreasing
order of the ionic radii of the elements is (3) Sc (4) Rb
[AIEEE-2010] 9. The group having isoelectronic species is
(1) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ [JEE (Main)-2017]
(2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (1) O2–, F–, Na, Mg2+ (2) O–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
(3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F– (3) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ (4) O–, F–, Na, Mg+
(4) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+ 10. In general, the properties that decrease and
increase down a group in the periodic table,
3. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I, having atomic
number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively, is (1) Electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
[AIEEE-2011] (2) Atomic radius and electronegativity
(1) Br > Cl > I > F (2) I > Br > Cl > F (3) Electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
(3) F > Cl > Br > I (4) Cl > F > Br > I (4) Electronegativity and atomic radius
4. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given 11. Aluminium is usually found in +3 oxidation state.
isoelectronic species is [AIEEE-2012] In contrast, thallium exists in +1 and +3 oxidation
(1) S2–, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ states. This is due to [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Lattice effect
(2) Ca2+, K+, Cl–, S2–
(2) Lanthanoid contraction
(3) K+, S2–, Ca2+, Cl–
(3) Diagonal relationship
(4) Cl–, Ca2+, K+, S2–
(4) Inert pair effect
5. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions
Na + , Al 3+ and Ba 2+ for arsenic sulphide sol 12. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of
increases in the order [JEE (Main)-2013] atomisation, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+ (2) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+ (1) V (2) Cu
(3) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+ (4) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+ (3) Fe (4) Zn

6. Which of the following represents the correct order 13. When the first electron gain enthalpy (egH) of
of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron gain
Se and Ar? [JEE (Main)-2013] enthalpy is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (1) Almost the same as that of the first

(2) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (2) A more negative value than the first

(3) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (3) Negative, but less negative than the first

(4) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar (4) A positive value

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14. The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to 22. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar and
Ca2+ is affected by [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Nuclear charge
(1) Beryllium (2) Carbon
(2) Principal quantum number of valence shell
(3) Lithium (4) Boron
(3) Azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
15. The 71st electron of an element X with an atomic
number of 71 enters into the orbital (4) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
orbitals
[JEE (Main)-2019]
23. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
(1) 5 d (2) 6 p number 119 would be [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 4 f (4) 6 s (1) Une (2) Uun
16. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al, (3) Uue (4) Unh
and S is [JEE (Main)-2019]
24. The element having greatest difference between its
(1) S < C < Al < Cs first and second ionization energies, is
(2) C < S < Cs < Al [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) S < C < Cs < Al (1) K (2) Sc
(4) C < S < Al < Cs (3) Ca (4) Ba
17. The correct option with respect to the Pauling 25. The isoelectronic set of ions is [JEE (Main)-2019]
electronegativity values of the elements is
(1) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2–
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Li+, Na+, O2– and F–
(1) Si < Al (2) P > S
(3) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+
(3) Te > Se (4) Ga < Ge (4) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+
18. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 26. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies is
13 elements follows the order [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(1) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni
(2) Al < Ga < Tl < In
(2) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn
(4) Ga < Al < In < Tl
(4) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti
19. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will
27. The group number, number of valence electrons,
be an/a [JEE (Main)-2019]
and valency of an element with atomic number 15,
(1) Inner-transition metal respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Transition metal (1) 15, 5 and 3 (2) 15, 6 and 2
(3) Alkaline earth metal (3) 16, 5 and 2 (4) 16, 6 and 3
(4) Alkali metal 28. In comparison to boron, berylium has
20. The correct order of atomic radii is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) Greater nuclear charge and lesser first
ionisation enthalpy.
(1) Ce > Eu > Ho > N (2) N > Ce > Eu > Ho
(2) Greater nuclear charge and greater first
(3) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (4) Ho > N > Eu > Ce
ionisation enthalpy.
21. The element that shows greater ability of form (3) Lesser nuclear charge and greater first
p – p multiple bonds, is [JEE (Main)-2019] ionisation enthalpy.
(1) Sn (2) Si (4) Lesser nuclear charge and lesser first
(3) Ge (4) C ionisation enthalpy.

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29. The atomic radius of Ag is closest to 36. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides,
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Na2O, SO3, Al2O3 (2) Cl2O, CaO, P4O10
(1) Cu (2) Au
(3) MgO, Cl2O, Al2O3 (4) N2O3, Li2O, Al2O3
(3) Hg (4) Ni
37. B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be.
30. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, Consider the following statements.
chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively, are
(I) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
[JEE (Main)-2020] electron
(1) –296, –325, –333 and –349 (II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the
(2) –333, –325, –349 and –296 nucleus by the inner core of electrons than the
2s electrons of Be
(3) –349, –333, –325 and –296
(III) 2s electron has more penetration power than
(4) –333, –349, –325 and –296 2p electron
31. Within each pair of elements F & CI, S & Se, and (IV) Atomic radius of B is more than Be
Li & Na, respectively, the elements that release
more energy upon an electron gain are (atomic number B = 5, Be = 4)
The correct statements are [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (I), (II) and (IV) (2) (I), (III) and (IV)
(1) F, S and Li (2) F, Se and Na
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) Cl, S and Li (4) Cl, Se and Na
38. In general the property (magnitudes only) that show
32. The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al an opposite trend in comparison to other properties
and Si respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020] across a period is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 786, 737, 577, 496 (2) 496, 577, 786, 737 (1) Electron gain enthalpy
(3) 496, 737, 577, 786 (4) 496, 577, 737, 786 (2) Electronegativity
33. The third ionization enthalphy is minimum for (3) Ionization enthalpy
[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) Atomic radius
(1) Mn (2) Fe 39. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of
the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z,
(3) Co (4) Ni
respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The
34. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the correct order of the atomic numbers of X, Y and Z
following elements is [JEE (Main)-2020] is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(a) C (b) O (1) X < Z < Y (2) Y < X < Z
(c) F (d) CI (3) Z < Y < X (4) X < Y < Z
(e) Br 40. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is
(1) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e) (1) 109 (2) 119
(3) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e) (3) 102 (4) 108

(4) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e) 41. Consider the hypothetical situation where the
azimuthal quantum number, l, takes value 0, 1, 2,
35. The electronic configurations of bivalent europium ... n + 1, where n is the principal quantum number.
and trivalent cerium are [JEE (Main)-2020] Then, the element with atomic number
(atomic number : Xe = 54, Ce = 58, Eu = 63) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) [Xe] 4f7 and [Xe] 4f1 (1) 9 is the first alkali metal
(2) [Xe] 4f7 6s2 and [Xe] 4f2 6s2 (2) 6 has a 2p-valence subshell
(3) [Xe] 4f2 and [Xe] 4f7 (3) 8 is the first noble gas
(4) [Xe] 4f4 and [Xe] 4f9 (4) 13 has a half-filled valence subshell

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42. Among the statements (I – IV), the correct ones are 48. The correct order of the ionic radii of
(I) Be has smaller atomic radius compared to Mg. O2–, N3–, F–, Mg2+, Na+ and Al3+ is

(II) Be has higher ionization enthalpy than Al. [JEE (Main)-2020]

(III) Charge/radius ratio of Be is greater than that (1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
of Al. (2) Al3+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < O2– < F– < N3–
(IV) Both Be and Al form mainly covalent (3) N3– < F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+ < Al3+
compounds. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) N3– < O2– < F– Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
(1) (I), (III) and (IV)
49. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are
(2) (I), (II) and (IV)
788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1, respectively. The
(3) (I), (II) and (III) hydration enthalpy of NaCl is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) (II), (III) and (IV) (1) 784 kJ mol–1 (2) –780 kJ mol–1
43. The five successive ionization enthalpies of an (3) 780 kJ mol–1 (4) –784 kJ mol–1
element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and 32824 kJ
mol–1. The number of valence electrons in the 50. The set that contains atomic numbers of only
element is [JEE (Main)-2020] transition elements, is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 21, 32, 53, 64 (2) 9, 17, 34, 38
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 37, 42, 50, 64 (4) 21, 25, 42, 72
44. The elements with atomic numbers 101 and 104 51. The atomic number of Unnilunium is _______.
belong to, respectively, [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Group 6 and Actinoids
52. Consider the elements Mg, AI, S, P and Si, the
(2) Actinoids and Group 4 correct increasing order of their first ionization
(3) Group 11 and Group 4 enthalpy is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Actinoids and Group 6 (1) Mg < Al < Si < P < S
45. The ionic radii of O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+are in the (2) Mg < Al < Si < S < P
order [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Al < Mg < S < Si < P
(1) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
(4) Al < Mg < Si < S < P
(2) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
53. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+
List-I List-II
(4) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
Electronic iH in kJ mol–1
46. The process that is NOT endothermic in nature is configuration
[JEE (Main)-2020] of elements

(1) Ar(g) +e –  Ar(g)

– (a) 1s2 2s2 (i) 801
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (ii) 899
– –
(2) H(g) +e  H(g) (c) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (iii) 1314

+ (d) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (iv) 1402

(3) Na(g)  Na(g) +e –
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) –
O(g) +e – 2–
 O(g) options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (ii)
47. In the sixth period, the orbitals that are filled are
(2) (a)  (i), (b)  (iv), (c)  (iii), (d)  (ii)
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p (2) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p (3) (a)  (iv), (b)  (i), (c)  (ii), (d)  (iii)

(3) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f (4) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p (4) (a)  (ii), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (i)

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54. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature? 61. Which one of the following statements for D.I.
Mendeleev, is incorrect? [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) He authored the textbook-Principles of
(1) CaO, SiO2 (2) B2O3, CaO
Chemistry
(3) B2O3, SiO2 (4) N2O, BaO (2) He invented accurate barometer
55. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is: (3) At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of
[JEE (Main)-2021] elements structure of atom was known
(1) O > S > Se > Te (4) Element with atomic number 101 is named
after him
(2) Te > Se > S > O
62. The ionic radii of K+, Na+, Al3+ and Mg2+ are in the
(3) S > O > Se > Te order [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) S > Se > Te > O (1) Na+ < K+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
56. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with (2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < K+ < Na+
atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83 are
(3) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < K+
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) K+ < Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
(1) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal
63. The ionic radii of F – and O 2– respectively are
(2) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a 1.33 Å and 1.4 Å, while the covalent radius of N is
metal 0.74 Å. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid. The correct statement for the ionic radius of N3–
from the following is :
(4) X, Y and Z are metals.
(1) It is smaller than O2– and F–, but bigger than
57. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of of N
halogens satisfies : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) It is bigger than F– and N, but smaller than of
(1) Cl > Br > F > I (2) I > Br > Cl > F O2–
(3) F > Cl > Br > I (4) Cl > F > Br > I (3) It is bigger than O2– and F–
58. The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 Å. The ionic (4) It is smaller than F– and N
radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively, are
64. Match List-I with List-II
[JEE (Main)-2021] List-I List-II
(1) 0.72 and 0.54 (2) 1.05 and 0.99 (a) NaOH (i) Acidic
(3) 0.68 and 0.72 (4) 0.85 and 0.99 (b) Be(OH)2 (ii) Basic
59. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller (c) Ca(OH)2 (iii) Amphoteric
as compared to that of elements X and Y, but
(d) B(OH)3
higher than that of Z. The elements X, Y and Z,
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2021] (e) Al(OH)3
(1) Chlorine, lithium and sodium Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) Argon, lithium and sodium
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii)
(3) Argon, chlorine and sodium
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(4) Neon, sodium and chlorine
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iii)
60. Outermost electronic configuration of a group 13
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii)
element, E, is 4s2, 4p1. The electronic configuration
of an element of p-block period-five placed 65. The CORRECT order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
diagonally to element, E is: [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) [Xe]5d106s26p2 (2) [Kr]3d104s24p2 (1) Al < Mg < S < P (2) Mg < Al < P < S
(3) [Ar]3d104s24p2 (4) [Kr]4d105s25p2 (3) Mg < S < Al < P (4) Mg < Al < S < P

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

66. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, P3–, S2–, Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation
Ca2+, K+, Cl– is [JEE (Main)-2021] enthalpy and decrease in electron
gain enthalpy, when one moves
(1) K+ > Ca2+ > P3– > S2– > Cl–
from left to right in a period.
(2) P3– > S2– > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Cl– > S2– > P3– > Ca2+ > K+ below : [JEE (Main)-2021]

67. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as correct explanation of (A)
Reason (R). (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
non-metallic character increases correct explanation of (A)
on moving from left to right in a
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
period.



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Chapter 4

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

1. Using MO theory predict which of the following 7. Stability of the species Li2, Li2– and Li2+ increases
species has the shortest bond length? in the order of [JEE (Main)-2013]
[AIEEE-2009]
(1) Li2 < Li2+ < Li2– (2) Li2– < Li2+ < Li2
(1) O+2 (2) O2–
(3) Li2 < Li2– < Li2+ (4) Li2– < Li2 < Li2+
(3) O2–
2 (4) O2+
2 8. For which of the following molecule significant
2. At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is   0? [JEE (Main)-2014]
1.0 × 10 –11. At which pH, will Mg 2+ ions start
precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)2 from a solution Cl CN
of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions? [AIEEE-2010]
(a) (b)
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 11 Cl CN
3. In which of the following pairs the two species are
not isostructural? [AIEEE-2012] OH SH

(1) PCI4+and SiCl4 (2) PF5 and BrF5

(c) (d)
(3) AIF63– and SF6 (4) CO32– and NO3–
4. ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than OH SH
p - and m - Nitrophenols because [AIEEE-2012]
(1) Only (a)] (2) (a) and (b)
(1) o - Nitrophenol shows Intramolecular
H - bonding (3) Only (c) (4) (c) and (d)

(2) o - Nitrophenol shows Intermolecular 9. The species in which the N atom is in a state of
H - bonding sp hybridization is [JEE (Main)-2016]
(3) Melting point of o - Nitrophenol is lower than
those of m - and p - isomers (1) NO2– (2) NO3–

(4) o - Nitrophenol is more volatile in steam than

(3) NO2 (4) NO +2
those of m - and p - isomers
5. Which one of the following molecules is expected 10. W hich of the following species is not
to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour? paramagnetic? [JEE (Main)-2017]
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) O2 (2) B2
(1) C2 (2) N+2
(3) NO (4) CO
(3) O2 (4) S2 11. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the
6. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, following will not be a viable molecule?
both the species are not likely to exist ?
[JEE (Main)-2013] [JEE (Main)-2018]

(1) H+2 , He2–

2 (2) H2– , He22– (1) He2+
2 (2) He+2

(3) H22+ , He2 (4) H2– , He22+ (3) H2– (4) H2–
2

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12. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no 19. The ion that has sp3d2 hybridization for the central
covalent bond(s)? [JEE (Main)-2018] atom, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4 (1) [ICI2]– (2) [IF6]–
(1) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (3) [BrF2]– (4) [ICI4]–
(2) KCl, H2SO4 20. Among the following molecules/ions,
(3) KCl C22–, N22–, O22–, O2

(4) KCl, B2H6 Which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest
bond length? [JEE (Main)-2019]
13. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3– ion is (1) O2 (2) O2–
2
[JEE (Main)-2018] (3) N2– (4) C2–
2 2
(1) 3 (2) 6 21. Among the following, the molecule expected to be
(3) 9 (4) 12 stabilized by anion formation is [JEE (Main)-2019]
14. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the C2, O2, NO, F2
following is true with respect to Li2 + and Li2– ? (1) F2 (2) NO
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) C2 (4) O2
(1) Li2+ is unstable and Li2– is stable 22. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen
(2) Li2+ is stable and Li2– is unstable halides, because it has [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Strongest hydrogen bonding
(3) Both are stable
(2) Lowest dissociation enthalpy
(4) Both are unstable
(3) Strongest van der Waals’ interactions
15. In which of the following processes, the bond order
has increased and paramagnetic character has (4) Lowest ionic character
changed to diamagnetic? [JEE (Main)-2019] 23. Among the following species, the diamagnetic
(1) N2  N2+ (2) O2  O2+ molecule is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(3) O2  O22– (4) NO  NO+ (1) CO (2) NO

16. The type of hybridisation and number of lone pair(s) (3) O2 (4) B2
of electrons of Xe in XeOF4, respectively, are 24. During the change of O 2 to O2– , the incoming
[JEE (Main)-2019] electron goes to the orbital [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) sp3d and 2 (2) sp3d2 and 2 (1) 2px (2) 2px
(3) sp3d2 and 1 (4) sp3d and 1 (3) 2py (4) 
 2pz
17. Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in 25. The relative strength of interionic/intermolecular
[JEE (Main)-2019] forces in decreasing order is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole
(1) O+2 (2) O2
(2) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion
(3) N+2 (4) N2 (3) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole
(4) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion
18. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4– is
26. The number of possible optical isomers for the
[JEE (Main)-2019] complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2 hybridized
(1) ICI5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is tetrahedral. metal atom, respectively, is
(2) Both are isostructural. Note : A and B are unidentate neutral and
unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively.
(3) ICI5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is square
planar. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) ICI 5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl 4– is (1) 2 and 2 (2) 0 and 2
tetrahedral. (3) 0 and 1 (4) 0 and 0
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27. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics of 34. Match the type of interaction in column A with the
CN– are [JEE (Main)-2020] distance dependence of their interaction energy in
column B
1
(1) 2 , paramagnetic (2) 3, diamagnetic A B
2
1 1
(3) 2 , diamagnetic (4) 3, paramagnetic (i) ion-ion (a)
2 r
28. The predominant intermolecular forces present in
ethyl acetate, a liquid, are [JEE (Main)-2020] 1
(ii) dipole-dipole (b)
r2
(1) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
(2) London dispersion and dipole-dipole 1
(iii) London dispersion (c)
r3
(3) Hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
(4) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen 1
(d)
bonding r6
29. Arrange the following bonds according to their [JEE (Main)-2020]
average bond energies in descending order
(1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d)
C – Cl, C – Br, C – F, C – I [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)
(1) C – Cl > C – Br > C – I > C – F
(3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c)
(2) C – Br > C – I > C – Cl > C – F (4) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)
(3) C – F > C – Cl > C – Br > C – I 35. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. What
(4) C – I > C – Br > C – Cl > C – F is the geometry of SF4 (including lone pair(s) of
electrons, if any)? [JEE (Main)-2020]
30. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is
1.73 B.M, it may be [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) Tetrahedral
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(1) O-2 or O+2 (2) O2 , O2- or O+2
(3) Square planar

(3) O2 or O+2 (4) O2 or O-2 (4) Pyramidal

36. The shape / structure of [XeF 5 ] – and XeO 3F 2 ,
31. ‘X’ melts at low temperature and is a bad respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
conductor of electricity in both liquid and solid
state. X is [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal

(1) Zinc sulphide (2) Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar

(2) Carbon tetrachloride (3) Octahedral and square pyramidal

(4) Trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Mercury
37. If the boiling point of H2O is 373 K, the boiling point
(4) Silicon carbide
of H2S will be [JEE (Main)-2020]
32. If AB4 molecule is a polar molecule, a possible
(1) Less than 300 K
geometry of AB4 is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) More than 373 K
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Rectangular planar
(3) Equal to 373 K
(3) Square pyramidal (4) Square planar
(4) Greater than 300 K but less than 373 K
33. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4 are
38. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+ and NO–, the one
in the order : [JEE (Main)-2020]
with minimum bond strength is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3 (2) CHCl3 < CH4 = CCl4 (1) NO– (2) NO2+
(3) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3 (4) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3 (3) NO+ (4) NO
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

39. Consider the following molecules and statements 41. The potential energy curve for the H2 molecule as
related to them a function of internuclear distance is
[JEE (Main)-2020]
O
H
(A)
O (1) Energy
C H

O
Internuclear
distance
H O
H
(B) O
C (2) Energy

Internuclear
(a) (B) is more likely to be crystalline than (A) distance
(b) (B) has higher boiling point than (A)
(c) (B) dissolves more readily than (A) in water
(3) Energy
Identify the correct option from below
[JEE (Main)-2020]
Internuclear
(1) (a) and (c) are true
distance
(2) Only (a) is true
(3) (b) and (c) are true
(4) Energy
(4) (a) and (b) are true
40. The intermolecular potential energy for the
molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests Internuclear
that distance
Interatomic distance (pm)
42. The compound that has the largest H – M – H bond
50 100 150
0 angle (M = N, O, S, C) is [JEE (Main)-2020]
–100 (1) H2S (2) CH4
–200 (3) NH3 (4) H2O
Potential
Energy –300 43. Which of the following are isostructural pairs?
–1 A-D
(kJ mol ) –400 [JEE (Main)-2021]
A-A A-C
–500
–600
A-B A. SO 2– 2–
4 and CrO 4

B. SiCl4 and TiCl 4

[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) A-B has the stiffest bond C. NH3 and NO 3–

(2) A-D has the shortest bond length D. BCl3 and BrCl3
(3) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy (1) A and C only (2) B and C only
(4) D is more electronegative than other atoms (3) A and B only (4) C and D only

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44. The correct shape and I – I – I bond angles Reason R : The lone pair - lone pair repulsion of
respectively in I3– ion are: [JEE (Main)-2021] electrons is higher than the bond pair - bond pair
repulsion.
(1) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90°
(2) Trigonal planar; 120° In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(3) T-shaped; 180° and 90°
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Linear; 180°
(1) A is false but R is true
45. The correct set from the following in which both
pairs are in correct order of melting point is (2) A is true but R is false

[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) LiCl > LiF; NaCl > MgO
(4) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(2) LiF > LiCl; MgO > NaCl
explanation of A
(3) LiCl > LiF; MgO > NaCl
50. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of
(4) LiF > LiCl; NaCl > MgO electrons and forms three single bonds. The shape
46. According to molecular orbital theory, the species of this molecule is [JEE (Main)-2021]
among the following that does not exist is (1) Trigonal pyramidal
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) See-saw
(1) He2– (2) Be2 (3) T-shaped
(4) Planar triangular
(3) He+2 (4) O2–
2
51. Amongst the following, the linear species is
47. Which among the following species has unequal
[JEE (Main)-2021]
bond lengths? [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) XeF4 (2) BF4

- (1) N3– (2) NO2

(3) SF4 (4) SiF4 (3) O3 (4) Cl2O

48. Match list-I with list-II 52. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X
are second row elements of periodic table. Based
List-I List-II
on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is
(Molecule) (Bond order) 2.5. The total number of electrons in AX is
(a) Ne2 (i) 1 ___________. [JEE (Main)-2021]

(b) N2 (ii) 2 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(c) F2 (iii) 0 53. The number of species below that have two lone
pairs of electrons in their central atom is _____.
(d) O2 (iv) 3
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) SF4, BF4–, CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, XeF4, SF6

(2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) 54. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central

(3) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv) l atom in I3– is _______. [JEE (Main)-2021]

(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii) 55. The hybridisations of the atomic orbitals of nitrogen
49. Given below are two statements : one is labelled in NO2– , NO+2 and NH+4 respectively are :
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion A : The H – O – H bond angle in water (1) sp3, sp2 and sp (2) sp, sp2 and sp3
molecule is 104.5°. (3) sp2, sp and sp3 (4) sp3, sp and sp2
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

56. Which one of the following species doesn’t have 61. The difference between bond orders of CO and
a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM (spin only value)?
x
[JEE (Main)-2021] NO is where x = ______. (Round off to the
2
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (2) Cul Nearest Integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) O2– (4) O+2 62. The total number of electrons in all bonding
molecular orbitals of O2–
2 is ________.
57. Match List-I with List-II
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
List-I List-I
(Species) (Hybrid Orbitals) [JEE (Main)-2021]

(a) SF4 (i) sp3d2 63. AB3 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The
number of lone pairs of electrons on A is ______.
(b) IF5 (ii) d2sp3
(Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(c) NO+2 (iii) sp3d
64. The bond order and magnetic behaviour of O2– ion
(d) NH+4 (iv) sp3 are, respectively: [JEE (Main)-2021]

(v) sp (1) 1.5 and diamagnetic.

Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) 1.5 and paramagnetic.
below : [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) 1 and paramagnetic.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(v) (4) 2 and diamagnetic.
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(v)
65. The number of species having non-pyramidal shape
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v) and (d)-(iii) among the following is _____. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v) and (d)-(iv) (A) SO3
58. The number of sigma bonds in
(B) NO3–
H3C – C = CH – C  C – H is _______.
H (C) PCl3

[JEE (Main)-2021] (D) CO32–

59. In the following the correct bond order sequence
is : [JEE (Main)-2021] 66. According to molecular orbital theory, the number
of unpaired electron(s) in O2–
2 is _____.
(1) O+2 > O 2– > O22– > O 2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) O+2 > O 2 > O2– > O 2–
2 67. Number of paramagnetic oxides among the
following given oxides is _____.[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) O22– > O+2 > O2– > O 2
Li2O, CaO, Na2O2, KO2, MgO and K2O
(4) O2 > O 2– > O2–
2 > O+2 (1) 3 (2) 2
60. Identify the species having one -bond and (3) 1 (4) 0
maximum number of canonical forms from the
following : [JEE (Main)-2021] 68. The spin-only magnetic moment value of B+2
(1) SO2 (2) O2 species is _____ × 10–2 BM. (Nearest integer)

(3) CO32– (4) SO3 [Given : 3 = 1.73 ] [JEE (Main)-2021]

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Chapter 5

States of Matter
1. If 10–4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm 3 (1) C* : C:C =1.225:1.128:1
flask at 300 K, how many moles of water are in the
vapour phase when equilibrium is established? (2) C* : C:C =1.128:1.225:1

(Given : Vapour pressure of H 2O at 300 K is (3) C* : C:C =1:1.128 :1.225

3170 Pa; R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1) [AIEEE-2010]
(4) C* : C:C =1:1.225 :1.128
(1) 1.27 × 10–3 mol (2) 5.56 × 10–3 mol
6. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals
(3) 1.53 × 10–2 mol (4) 4.46 × 10–2 mol equation at low pressure can be written as
2. When r, P and M represent rate of diffusion, [JEE (Main)-2014]
pressure and molecular mass, respectively, then RT a
(1) Z =1+ (2) Z =1–
  Pb VRT
the ratio of the rates of diffusion  rA  of two
 rB  Pb Pb
(3) Z =1– (4) Z =1+
gases A and B, is given as [AIEEE-2011] RT RT
7. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a
1 1
P  M 2 P 2
M  particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
(1)  A   A  (2)  A   A  number of their molecule is [JEE (Main)-2014]
 PB   MB   B   MB 
P
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 7 : 32
1 1
P   M 2 P 2M  (3) 1 : 8 (4) 3 : 16
(3)  A   B  (4)  A   B 
 PB   MA   PB   MA  8. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on
the inverse cube of distance between the molecules
3. The molecular velocity of any gas is [AIEEE-2011]
is [JEE (Main)-2015]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Ion-ion interaction (2) Ion-dipole interaction
(1) Directly proportional to square root of
(3) London force (4) Hydrogen bond
temperature
9. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an
(2) Inversely proportional to the square root of
ideal gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1
temperature
are connected through a narrow tube of negligible
(3) Inversely proportional to absolute temperature volume as shown in the figure below. The
temperature of one of the bulbs is then raised to
(4) Directly proportional to square of temperature
T2. The final pressure pf is [JEE (Main)-2016]
4. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high
pressure is [AIEEE-2012] T1 T1 T1 T2

(1) 1 (2) 1 + pb/RT p,V

i p,V
i pf,V pf,V

(3) 1 – pb/RT (4) 1 + RT/pb

5. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is  T1   T2 
(1) 2pi   (2) 2pi  
denoted by C *, average speed by C and root  T1 + T2   T1 + T2 
mean square speed by C, then for a large number
of molecules the ratios of these speeds are  TT   TT 
(3) 2pi  1 2  (4) pi  1 2 
[JEE (Main)-2013]  T1 + T2   T1 + T2 

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

10. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert a Here, b is the van der Waal’s constant. Which gas
pressure of 200 Pa in a container of volume 10 m 3 will exhibit steepest increase in the plot of Z
at 1000 K. Given R is the gas constant in JK–1 mol–1, (compression factor) vs P? [JEE (Main)-2019]
x is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Kr (2) Ar
2R 2R (3) Xe (4) Ne
(1) (2)
4–R 4 +R
15. Consider the following table :
4–R 4 +R Gas a/(k Pa dm6 mol–1) b/(dm3 mol–1)
(3) (4)
2R 2R
A 642.32 0.05196
11. The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. B 155.21 0.04136
The compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than
that of gas B at same temperature. The pressure C 431.91 0.05196
of the gases for equal number of moles are D 155.21 0.4382
[JEE (Main)-2019] a and b are van der Waals constants. The correct
statement about the gases is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) PA = 2PB (2) PA = 3PB
(1) Gas C will occupy lesser volume than gas A;
(3) 3PA = 2PB (4) 2PA = 3PB gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D
12. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until two fifth of the (2) Gas C will occupy more volume than gas A;
air (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped from gas B will be more compressible than
the vessel. Assuming that the volume of the vessel gas D
remains constant, the temperature at which the
(3) Gas C will occupy lesser volume than gas A;
vessel has been heated is [JEE (Main)-2019]
gas B will be more compressible than gas D
(1) 750 °C
(4) Gas C will occupy more volume than gas A;
(2) 750 K gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D

(3) 500 °C 16. At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, 10 mL of a

hydrocarbon required 55 mL of O2 for complete
(4) 500 K combustion, and 40 mL of CO2 is formed. The
formula of the hydrocarbon is [JEE (Main)-2019]
13. Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for
the following gases. (1) C4H10 (2) C4H8

Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe (3) C4H6 (4) C4H7Cl

a/(atm dm6 mol–2) 1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1 17. Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively
correspond to
b/(10–2 dm3 mol–1) 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0
(Vmp : most probable velocity)
Which gas is expected to have the highest critical
temperature? [JEE (Main)-2019]
Distribution function, f(v) 

(1) Ne

(2) Kr

(3) Xe

(4) Ar
14. At a given temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and Kr
are found to deviate from ideal gas behaviour. Their I II III
Speed, v 
RT
equation of state is given as P = at T..
V –b [JEE (Main)-2019]

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

(1) Vmp of N2 (300 K); Vmp of O2 (400 K); 20. A mixture of one mole each of H2, He and O2 each
are enclosed in a cylinder of volume V at
Vmp of H2 (300 K) temperature T. If the partial pressure of H 2 is
2 atm, the total pressure of the gases in the cylinder
(2) Vmp of H2 (300 K); Vmp of N2 (300 K);
is [JEE (Main)-2020]
Vmp of O2 (400 K) (1) 14 atm (2) 38 atm
(3) Vmp of N2 (300 K); Vmp of H2 (300 K); (3) 22 atm (4) 6 atm

Vmp of O2 (400 K) 21. A spherical balloon of radius 3 cm containing

helium gas has a pressure of 48 × 10–3 bar. At the
(4) Vmp of O2 (400 K); Vmp of N2 (300 K); same temperature, the pressure, of a spherical
balloon of radius 12 cm containing the same
Vmp of H2 (300 K) amount of gas will be ________ × 10–6 bar.
18. Identify the correct labels of A, B and C in the [JEE (Main)-2020]
following graph from the options given below 22. The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas
at 50°C and 740 mmHg pressure is ____ L.
A B (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
no. C
of [Given R = 0.0826 L atm K–1 mol–1]
molecules [JEE (Main)-2021]
23. A car tyre is filled with nitrogen gas at 35 psi at
Speed 27°C. It will burst if pressure exceeds 40 psi. The
temperature in °C at which the car tyre will burst
Root mean square speed (Vrms); most probable is ______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
speed (Vmp); Average speed (Vav)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
24. A certain gas obeys P(Vm–b) = RT. The value of
(1) A – Vav; B – Vrms; C – Vmp  Z 
  is xb . The value of x is _________.
(2) A – Vrms; B – Vmp; C –Vav  P T RT

(3) A – Vmp; B – Vrms; C – Vav (Integer answer) (Z : compressibility factor)

(4) A – Vmp; B – Vav; C – Vrms [JEE (Main)-2021]

19. Which one of the following graphs is not correct for 25. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
ideal gas? as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions are only
d d non-covalent interactions, resulting in hydrogen
T T bond formation.

I II Reason R : Fluorine is the most electronegative

element and hydrogen bonds in HF are
symmetrical.
d d In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
1/T P
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
III IV
(1) A is false but R is true
d = Density, P = Pressure, T = Temperature
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
[JEE (Main)-2020] explanation of A
(1) II (2) III (3) A is true but R is false

(3) I (4) IV (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

26. The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous 31. The unit of the van der W aals gas equation
mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of carbon
dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27°C is .......... kPa.  an2 
parameter ‘a’ in  P + 2  (V – nb) = nRT is :
 V
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).  

[Assume gases are ideal, R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 [JEE (Main)-2021]

Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u] (1) atm dm6 mol–2
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) kg m s–1
27. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as (3) kg m s–2
Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(4) dm3 mol–1
Reason R.
32. Two flasks I and II shown below are connected by
Assertion A : Sharp glass edge becomes smooth a valve of negligible volume. [JEE (Main)-2021]
on heating it upto its melting point.
Reason R : The viscosity of glass decreases on
melting.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A When the valve is opened, the final pressure of the
system in bar is x × 10–2. The value of x is ____.
(2) A is false but R is true. (Integer answer)
(3) A is true but R is false. [Assume - Ideal gas; 1 bar = 105 Pa; Molar mass
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the of N2 = 28.0 g mol–1, R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1]
correct explanation of A. 33. Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P
28. A home owner uses 4.00 × 103 m3
of methane plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas?
(CH4) gas, (assume CH4 is an ideal gas) in a year (P and V stand for pressure and volume of the gas
to heat his home. Under the pressure of 1.0 atm respectively) [JEE (Main)-2021]
and 300 K, mass of gas used is x × 105 g. The
value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
(Given R = 0.083 L atm K–1 mol–1) (1) PV (2) PV

[JEE (Main)-2021] P P
29. An LPG cylinder contains gas at a pressure of
300 kPa at 27°C. The cylinder can withstand the
pressure of 1.2 × 106 Pa. The room in which the
(3) PV (4) PV
cylinder is kept catches fire. The minimum
temperature at which the bursting of cylinder will P P
take place is _______ °C. (Nearest integer)
34. An empty LPG cylinder weighs 14.8 kg. When full,
[JEE (Main)-2021]
it weighs 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of 3.47
30. The interaction energy of London forces between atm. In the course of use at ambient temperature,
two particles is proportional to rx, where r is the the mass of the cylinder is reduced to 23.0 kg. The
distance between the particles. The value of x is : final pressure inside the cylinder is _______ atm.
[JEE (Main)-2021] (Nearest integer)

(1) 3 (2) 6 (Assume LPG to be an ideal gas)

(3) –6 (4) –3 [JEE (Main)-2021]

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Chapter 6

Thermodynamics
1. On the basis of the following thermochemical data 5. Consider the reaction :
+ 4NO2(g) + O2(g)  2N2O5(g), rH = –111 kJ.
: (f G º H(aq) = 0)
If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in the above
H2O(l)  H+(aq) + OH–(aq); H = 57.32 kJ
reaction, the  r H value will be: (given, H of
1 sublimation for N2O5 is 54 kJ mol–1) [AIEEE-2011]
H2(g) + O (g)  H2O(l); H = –286.20 kJ
2 2 (1) –219 kJ (2) –165 kJ
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH– ion at (3) + 54 kJ (4) + 219 kJ
25ºC is [AIEEE-2009]
6. In view of the signs of  r G° for the following
(1) –228.88 kJ (2) +228.88 kJ
reactions
(3) –343.52 kJ (4) –22.88 kJ
PbO2 + Pb  2 PbO, rG° < 0
2. In a fuel cell methanol is used as fuel and oxygen
SnO2 + Sn  2 SnO, rG° > 0,
gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is
which oxidation states are more characteristic for
3 lead and tin ? [AIEEE-2011]
CH3OH(l) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
2
(1) For lead +2, for tin +4
At 298 K standard Gibb's energies of formation for
CH3OH(l), H2O(l) and CO2(g) are –166.2, –237.2 and (2) For lead +4, for tin +2
–394.4 kJ mol–1 respectively. If standard enthalpy of (3) For lead +2, for tin +2
combustion of methanol is –726 kJ mol–1, efficiency
of the fuel cell will be [AIEEE-2009] (4) For lead +4, for tin +4

(1) 87% (2) 90% 7. The value of enthalpy change (H) for the reaction

(3) 97% (4) 80% C2H5OOH(1) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(1) at 27ºC

is –1366.5 kJ mol–1. The value of internal energy
3. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature
change for the above reaction at this temperature
T, H and S were found to be both +ve. If T e is
the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would will be [AIEEE-2011]
be spontaneous when [AIEEE-2010] (1) –1361.5 kJ (2) –1371.5 kJ
(1) T = Te (2) Te > T (3) –1369.0 kJ (4) –1364.0 kJ
(3) T > Te (4) Te is 5 times T 8. The incorrect expression among the following is
4. The standard enthalpy of formation of [AIEEE-2012]
NH3 is –46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation
of H2 from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of vt
(1) In isothermal process, Wreversible = -nRT ln
N2 is – 712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of vi
N — H bond is NH3 is [AIEEE-2010] ΔH°- TΔS°
(2) lnK =
(1) –1102 kJ mol–1 RT
(2) –964 kJ mol–1 (3) K = e–G°/RT

(3) +352 kJ mol–1 ΔGsystem

(4) = –T
(4) +1056 kJ mol–1 ΔSTotal

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

9. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas rHº = –285.8 kJ mol–1
expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)  CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it
absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for rHº = +890.3 kJ mol–1
the process will be [JEE (Main)-2013] Based on the above thermochemical equations, the
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) (ln 7.5 = 2.01) value of rHº at 298 K for the reaction

(1) q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J C(graphite) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g) will be

[JEE (Main)-2017]
(2) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
(1) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (2) –144.0 kJ mol–1
(3) q = – 208 J, w = + 208 J
(3) +74.8 kJ mol–1 (4) +144.0 kJ mol–1
(4) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
14. U is equal to [JEE (Main)-2017]
10. For complete combustion of ethanol,
(1) Adiabatic work (2) Isothermal work
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l),
(3) Isochoric work (4) Isobaric work
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb
calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol–1 at 25°C. Assuming 15. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and
ideality the enthalpy of combustion, cH, for the H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of benzene
reaction will be (R = 8.314 kJ mol–1) at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 at 25° C;
[JEE (Main)-2014] heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of benzene at
constant pressure will be (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(1) –1366.95 kJ mol–1 (2) –1361.95 kJ mol–1 [JEE (Main)-2018]
(3) –1460.50 kJ mol–1 (4) –1350.50 kJ mol–1 (1) 4152.6 (2) –452.46
11. The following reaction is performed at 298 K.
(3) 3260 (4) –3267.6


2NO(g) + O2(g) 
 2NO2(g) 16. Consider the reversible isothermal expansion of an
ideal gas in a closed system at two different
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is temperatures T 1 and T 2 (T 1 < T 2). The correct
86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free graphical depiction of the dependence of work
energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K? done (w) on the final volume (V) is
(Kp = 1.6 × 1012) [JEE (Main)-2015] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) R(298) ln(1.6 × 1012) – 86600
(2) 86600 + R(298) ln(1.6 × 1012)


ln 1.6 ×1012  (1) (2)
(3) 86600 –
R  298 

(4) 0.5 2 × 86,600 – R  298  ln1.6 ×10 

12

(3) (4)
12. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon
monoxide are –393.5 and –283.5 kJ mol –1 ,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon 17. The entropy change associated with the conversion
monoxide per mole is [JEE (Main)-2016] of 1 kg of ice at 273 K to water vapours at 383 K is
(1) 676.5 (2) –676.5 (Specific heat of water liquid and water vapour are
(3) –110.5 (4) 110.5 4.2 kJ K–1 kg–1 and 2.0 kJ K–1 kg–1; heat of liquid
fusion and vapourisation of water are 334 kJ kg–1
13. Given
and 2491 kJ kg–1, respectively). (log 273 = 2.436,
C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g); log 373 = 2.572, log 383 = 2.583)
rHº = –393.5 kJ mol–1 [JEE (Main)-2019]

1 (1) 8.49 kJ kg–1 K–1 (2) 7.90 kJ kg–1 K–1

H2(g) + O2 (g)  H2O(l);
2 (3) 9.26 kJ kg–1 K–1 (4) 2.64 kJ kg–1 K–1

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18. A process had H = 200 Jmol –1 and S = 23. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical
40 JK–1 mol–1. Out of the values given below, reaction at an absolute temperature T is given by
choose the minimum temperature above which the
process will be spontaneous. [JEE (Main)-2019] rG° = A – BT

(1) 4 K (2) 12 K Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of

the following is true about this reaction?
(3) 5 K (4) 20 K
19. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression [JEE (Main)-2019]
from 5 m 3 to 1 m 3 against a constant external (1) Exothermic if B < 0
pressure of 4 Nm -2. Heat released in this process
is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole of (2) Endothermic if A > 0
Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol-1K-1, the (3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0
temperature of Al increases by [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0
3
(1) K (2) 1 K 24. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which
2
of the following plots does not correctly describe
2 the relation between various thermodynamic
(3) 2 K (4) K quantities? [JEE (Main)-2019]
3

20. For the chemical reaction X  Y, the standard

reaction Gibbs energy depends on temperature T (in
K) as
U CV
3 (1) (2)
Δr G° (in kJ mol–1 ) = 120 – T
8
The major component of the reaction mixture at T is T V
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Y if T = 280 K (2) X if T = 315 K
CV Cp
(3) Y if T = 300 K (4) X if T = 350 K
(3) (4)
21. Two blocks of the same metal having same mass
and at temperature T 1 and T2, respectively, are T P
brought in contact with each other and allowed to 25. Given
attain thermal equilibrium at constant pressure. The
change in entropy, S, for this process is (i) C (graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g);
–1
[JEE (Main)-2019] rH – = x kJ mol

T +T   (T + T )2  (ii) C (graphite) + 1
O2(g) CO2(g);
(1) 2CP In  1 2  (2) CP In  1 2  2
 4T1T2   4T1T2  rH – = y kJ mol
–1

 1
1
T + T   (T1 + T2 ) 2  (iii) CO(g) + 2
O2(g) CO2(g);
(3) 2CP In  1 2  (4) 2CP In  
 2T1T2   T1T2 
–1
rH– = z kJ mol
 
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find
22. The reaction
out which one of the following algebraic
MgO(s) + C(s)  Mg(s) + CO(g), for which relationships is correct? [JEE (Main)-2019]
rH° = +491.1 kJ mol–1 and rS° = 198.0 JK–1mol–1,
is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above which (1) x = y – z
reaction will be feasible is [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) x = y + z
(1) 2040.5 K (2) 1890.0 K (3) y = 2z – x
(3) 2480.3 K (4) 2380.5 K (4) z = x + y

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26. The combination of plots which does not represent 30. Among the following, the set of parameters that
isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is represents path functions, is
(A) q + w
(B) q
P P
(C) w
(D) H – TS [JEE (Main)-2019]
O 1/Vm O Vm
(1) (A), (B) and (C)
(A) (B)
(2) (B) and (C)
PVm (3) (B), (C) and (D)
U (4) (A) and (D)
31. During compression of a spring the work done is
O P O Vm 10 kJ and 2 kJ escaped to the surroundings as
(C) (D) heat. The change in internal energy, U
(in kJ) is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 12 (2) –12
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) 8 (4) –8
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (B) and (D)
32. A process will be spontaneous at all temperatures
27. Which one of the following equations does not if : [JEE (Main)-2019]
correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics (1) H < 0 and S > 0
for the given processes involving an ideal gas?
(2) H > 0 and S < 0
(Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(3) H > 0 and S > 0
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) H < 0 and S < 0
(1) Isothermal process : q = –w
33. The difference between H and U (H – U),
(2) Cyclic process : q = –w when the combustion of one mole of heptane(I) is
carried out at a temperature T, is equal to
(3) Isochoric process : U = q
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) Adiabatic process : U = –w
(1) –3RT (2) 4RT
28. For silver, C p(JK–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01T. If the
(3) 3RT (4) –4RT
temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from
300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of 34. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to
H will be close to [JEE (Main)-2019] 10 L against a constant external pressure of
1 bar. The work done in kJ is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 21 kJ
(1) –9.0 (2) –0.9
(2) 13 kJ
(3) –2.0 (4) +10.0
(3) 62 kJ
35. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g–1 at
(4) 16 kJ 200°C. If specific heat of I2(s) and I2(vap) are 0.055
and 0.031 cal g–1K–1 respectively, then enthalpy of
29. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to
sublimation of iodine at 250°C in cal g–1 is
undergo reversible compression till its temperature
becomes 200 K. If CV = 28 J K–1 mol–1, calculate [JEE (Main)-2019]
U and pV for this process. (R = 8.0 J K–1 mol–1) (1) 11.4 (2) 2.85
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) 5.7 (4) 22.8
(1) U = 14 kJ; (pV) = 18 kJ 36. If enthalpy of atomisation for Br2(l) is x kJ/mol and
bond enthalpy for Br2 is y kJ/mol, the relation
(2) U = 2.8 kJ; (pV) = 0.8 kJ between them [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) U = 14 J; (pV) = 0.8 J (1) is x > y (2) does not exist
(4) U = 14 kJ; (pV) = 4 kJ (3) is x = y (4) is x < y

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37. The true statement amongst the following is Pressure

(Pa)
[JEE (Main)-2020] 10
A B
8
(1) S is not a function of temperature but S is a
function of temperature 6
4
(2) S is a function of temperature but S is not a C
function of temperature (2, 2) 4 6 8 10 12 Volume
3
(m )
(3) Both S and S are functions of temperature
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) Both S and S are not functions of
temperature 43. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when
38. The first and second ionisation enthalpies of a heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its internal
metal are 496 and 4560 kJ mol–1, respectively. energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at
How many moles of HCl and H2SO4, respectively, constant volume is ________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
will be needed to react completely with 1 mole of
44. The internal energy change (in J) when 90 g of
the metal hydroxide? [JEE (Main)-2020]
water undergoes complete evaporation at 100°C is
(1) 2 and 0.5 (2) 1 and 2 ______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) 1 and 0.5 (4) 1 and 1 (Given : Hvap for water at 373 K = 41 kJ/mol,
39. For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2020]
statements must be true?
45. The heat of combustion of ethanol into carbon
(a) U and H each depends only on temperature dioxide and water is – 327 kcal at constant
(b) Compressibility factor z is not equal to 1 pressure. The heat evolved (in cal) at constant
volume and 27°C (if all gases behave ideally) is
(c) CP, m – CV, m = R
(R = 2 cal mol–`1 K–1) _______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(d) dU = CVdT for any process [JEE (Main)-2020]
46. A soft drink was bottled with a partial pressure of
(1) (a) and (c)
CO2 of 3 bar over the liquid at room temperature. The
(2) (a), (c) and (d) partial pressure of CO2 over the solution approaches
(3) (b), (c) and (d) a value of 30 bar when 44 g of CO2 is dissolved in
1 kg of water at room temperature. The approximate
(4) (c) and (d)
pH of the soft drink is ______ × 10–1.
40. Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K is
expanded into vacuum to double the volume. The (First dissociation constant of H 2 CO 3 =
work done is [JEE (Main)-2020] 4.0 × 10 –7 ; log 2 = 0.3; density of the soft
drink = 1 g mL–1) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Zero
47. For a dimerization reaction,
(2) – RT ln V2/V1
(3) CV (T2 – T1) 2A(g)  A2(g),

(4) – RT (V2 – V1) at 298 K, U° = –20 kJ mol–1, S° = –30

41. The standard heat of formation  Δ f H0298  of ethane JK–1 mol–1, then the G° will be _____ J.

(in kJ/mol), if the heat of combustion of ethane, [JEE (Main)-2020]

hydrogen and graphite are –1560, 48. For the reaction
–393.5 and –286 kJ/mol, respectively is_______.
A(l)  2B(g)
[JEE (Main)-2020]
U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.
42. The magnitude of work done by a gas that
Hence G in kcal is ___________.
undergoes reversible expansion along the path ABC
shown in the figure is _____________. [JEE (Main)-2020]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

49. For the reaction A (g)  B(g) , the value of the 55. At 25ºC, 50 g of iron reacts with HCl to form FeCl2.
equilibrium constant at 300 K and 1 atm is equal The evolved hydrogen gas expands against a
to 100.0 The value of rG for the reaction at constant pressure of 1 bar. The work done by the
300 K and 1 atm in J mol –1 is –xR, where x gas during this expansion is ________ J.
is________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1 and In 10 = 2.3)
[Given : R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1. Assume, hydrogen
[JEE (Main)-2021] is an ideal gas]
50. Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K [Atomic mass of Fe is 55.85 u]
for the following reaction at 25ºC is
x × 10–1. The value of x is ______ (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
56. The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and
3HC  CH(g)  C6H6(l)
CaO are –1675 kJ mol –1 and –635 kJ mol –1
[Given : Δ f Gº (HC  CH) = – 2.04 × 105J mol–1 ; respectively.
For the reaction
Δ f G º (C6H6 ) = – 1.24 × 105 J mol–1; R = 8.314 J
K–1 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021] 3CaO + 2AI  3Ca + Al2O3 the standard reaction
enthalpy rH0 = _____kJ.
51. The reaction of cyanamide, NH2CN(s) with oxygen
was run in a bomb calorimeter and U was found (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
to be –742.24 kJ mol–1. The magnitude of H298 [JEE (Main)-2021]
for the reaction 57. During which of the following processes, does
3 entropy decrease?
NH2CN(s)+ O2 (g)  N2 (g)+CO2 (g)+H2O(l)
2 (A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C
is ________ kJ. (Rounded off to the nearest
(B) Freezing of water to ice at –10°C
integer)
(C) N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
[Assume ideal gases and R=8.314 J mol–1 K–1]
[JEE (Main)-2021] (D) Adsorption of CO(g) on lead surface
52. The ionization enthalpy of Na+
formation from Na(g) (E) Dissolution of NaCl in water
is 495.8 kJ mol–1, while the electron gain enthalpy
of Br is –325.0 kJ mol–1. Given the lattice enthalpy Choose the correct answer from the options given
of NaBr is –728.4 kJ mol–1. The energy for the below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
formation of NaBr ionic solid from Na(g) and Br(g) (1) (A) and (E) only
is (–) _________ × 10–1 kJ mol–1.
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
53. For a chemical reaction A + B  C + D
(4) (B) and (C) only
( r H = 80 kJ mol –1 ) the entropy change
r S depends on the temperature T (in K) as 58. For the reaction
r S = 2T (J K–1 mol–1). C2H6  C2H4  H2
Minimum temperature at which it will become
spontaneous is ____________ K. (Integer) the reaction enthalpy rH = ________ kJ mol–1.

[JEE (Main)-2021] (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

54. The average S-F bond energy in kJ mol–1 of SF6 is [Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1 :
____________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer) C – C : 347, C = C : 611;
[Given : The values of standard enthalpy of
C – H : 414, H – H : 436]
formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are - 1100, 275
and 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.] [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

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59. The gas phase reaction [Use : H+ (aq) + OH– (aq)  H2O :
2A(g)  A2(g) H = –57.1 kJ mol–1

at 400 K has G° = +25.2 kJ mol–1 Specific heat of H2O = 4.18 J K–1 g–1

The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction is Density of H2O = 1.0 g cm–3
_____ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). Assume no change in volume of solution on
[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K –1, In 10 = 2.3 log 10 mixing.] [JEE (Main)-2021]
2 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar] 67. The Born-Haber cycle for KCI is evaluated with the
following data:
[antilog (– 0.3) = 0.501] [JEE (Main)-2021]
 f HO- for KCl = –436.7 kJ mol–1;  subHO- for K =
60. An average person needs about 10000 kJ energy
per day. The amount of glucose (molar mass = 89.2 kJ mol–1;
180.0 g mol –1 ) needed to meet this energy -
 ionizationHO- for K = 419.0 kJ mol–1;  electron gainH for
O

requirement is __________ g. (Nearest integer)

Cl(g) = –348.6 kJ mol–1;
(Use: cH(glucose) = –2700 kJ mol–1)
 bondHO- for Cl2 = 243.0 kJ mol–1
[JEE (Main)-2021]
61. For a given chemical reaction A  B at 300 K the The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ mol–1
is _______. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
free energy change is –49.4 kJ mol–1 and the
enthalpy of reaction is 51.4 kJ mol–1. The entropy 68. For water  vapH  41kJ mol1 at 373 K and 1 bar
change of the reaction is _______ J K–1 mol–1.
pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal
[JEE (Main)-2021] gas that occupies a much larger volume than liquid
62. If the standard molar enthalpy change for water, the internal energy change during
evaporation of water is _______ kJ mol–1.
combustion of graphite powder is –2.48 × 102 kJ
mol –1 , the amount of heat generated on [Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1] [JEE (Main)-2021]
combustion of 1 g of graphite powder is _________ 69. 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL of
kJ. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] 0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralization of
63. At 298 K, the enthalpy of fusion of a solid (X) is this reaction is –57.1 kJ. The increase in
2.8 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy of vaporisation of the temperature in ºC of the system on mixing is
x × 10–2. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
liquid (X) is 98.2 kJ mol –1 . The enthalpy of
sublimation of the substance (X) in kJ mol–1 is [Given : Specific heat of water = 4.18 J g–1 K–1
____. (in nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] Density of water = 1.00 g cm –3]
64. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time (Assume no volume change on mixing)
absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the
[JEE (Main)-2021]
change in internal energy is _________ J. (Nearest
integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] 70. Data given for the following reaction is as follows:

65. For water at 100ºC and 1 bar, FeO(s)  C(graphite) 

 Fe(s)  CO(g)
vapH – vapU = ______ × 102 J mol–1. (Round off
to the Nearest Integer)  f Ho So
Substance
(kJ mol1 ) (J mol1K 1 )
[Use : R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1]
FeO(s) 266.3 57.49
[Assume volume of H2O(I) is much smaller than
C(graphite) 0 5.74
volume of H2O(g). Assume H2O(g) can be treated
as an ideal gas] [JEE (Main)-2021] Fe(s) 0 27.28
CO(g) 110.5 197.6
66. When 400 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is mixed
with 600 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution, the increase The minimum temperature in K at which the
in temperature of the final solution is ________ reaction becomes spontaneous is_______. (Integer
× 10–2 K. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]

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71. The incorrect expression among the following is : H° –TS°

(3) lnK =
[JEE (Main)-2021] RT
(4) K = e–G°/RT
(1) For isothermal process wreversible
V 72. For the reaction 2NO2(g)  N2O4(g), when S =
= – nRT ln f
Vi –176.0 J K –1 and H = –57.8 kJ mol –1 , the
magnitude of G at 298 K for the reaction is
Gsystem _______ kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)
(2) = – T (at constant P)
STotal [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 7

Equilibrium
1. Solid Ba(NO 3 ) 2 is gradually dissolved in a 5. At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is
1.0 × 10 –4 M Na 2 CO 3 solution. At what 1.0 × 10 –11. At which pH, will Mg 2+ ions start
concentration of Ba2+ will a precipitate begin to precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)2 from a solution
form? (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9) [AIEEE-2009] of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions? [AIEEE-2010]
(1) 5.1 × 10–5 M (2) 8.1 × 10–8 M (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 8.1 × 10–7 M (4) 4.1 × 10–5 M (3) 10 (4) 11

2. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for 6. The Ksp for Cr(OH) 3 is 1.6 × 10–30. The molar
carbonic acid are solubility of this compound in water is
[AIEEE-2011]
K1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and K2 = 4.8 × 10–11
2
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 (1) 1.6 × 10–30/27 (2) 1.6 10 –30
M solution of the carbonic acid. [AIEEE-2010]
4
(3) 1.6 10 –30 (4) 4
1.6 10 –30 / 27
(1) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO32
7. An acid HA ionises as
(2) The concentration of CO32 is 0.034 M


HA 
 H+ + A–
(3) The concentration of CO32 is greater than that The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation
of HCO 3 constant would be [AIEEE-2011]
(1) 1 × 10–5 (2) 1 × 10–10
(4) The concentrations of H + and HCO 3 are
(3) 5 (4) 5 × 10–8
approximately equal
8. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is
3. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 × 10–13. 3. The value of the ionization constant, Ka of this
The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken acid is [AIEEE-2012]
as 120 g mol–1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M
(1) 1 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–5
solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of
AgBr is [AIEEE-2010] (3) 1 × 10–7 (4) 3 × 10–1
(1) 5.0 × 10–8 g (2) 1.2 × 10–10 g 9. The equilibrium constant (K c ) for the reaction
N2(g) +O2(g)  2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4.
(3) 1.2 × 10–9 g (4) 6.2 × 10–5 g The value of Kc for the reaction,
4. Three reactions involving H2PO4 are given below 1 1
NO(g)  N2(g) + O2(g) at the same temperature
2 2
(i) H3PO4  H2O  H3O  H2PO4
is [AIEEE-2012]
(ii) H2PO4  H2O  H2PO24  H3O 
(1) 2.5 ×102 (2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 50.0 (4) 0.02
(iii) H2PO4  OH  H3PO4  O2
10. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre
In which of the above does H2PO4 act as an of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
acid? [AIEEE-2010]
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (1) 0.1 L (2) 0.9 L
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) only (3) 2.0 L (4) 9.0 L

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16. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and

1
11. For the reaction SO2(g)  O2(g) SO 3(g) , 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constant for the
2
formation of HS– from H2S is 1.0 × 10–7 and that
if KP = KC(RT)x where the symbols have usual of S 2– from HS – ions is 1.2 × 10 –13 then the
meaning then the value of x is (assuming ideality) concentration of S2– ions in aqueous solution is
[JEE (Main)-2014] [JEE (Main)-2018]
1 (1) 5 × 10–8 (2) 3 × 10–20
(1) –1 (2) 
2 (3) 6 × 10–21 (4) 5 × 10–19
1 17. An aqueous solution contains an unknown
(3) (4) 1
2 concentration of Ba 2+. When 50 mL of a 1 M
12. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins to
precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The


reaction 2A 
 B + C is 2494.2 J. At a given solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10. What is
time, the composition of the reaction mixture is original concentration of Ba2+? [JEE (Main)-2018]
(1) 5 × 10–9 M (2) 2 × 10–9 M
1 1
 A   , B  2 and C  . The reaction proceeds (3) 1.1 × 10–9 M (4) 1.0 × 10–10 M
2 2
in the : [R = 8.314 J/K/mol, e = 2.718] 18. Which of the following salts is the most basic in
[JEE (Main)-2015] aqueous solution? [JEE (Main)-2018]

(1) Forward direction because Q > KC (1) Al(CN)3 (2) CH3COOK

(3) FeCl3 (4) Pb(CH3COO)2
(2) Reverse direction because Q > KC
19. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl
(3) Forward direction because Q < KC
orange as indicator, which of the following is a
(4) Reverse direction because Q < KC correct combination? [JEE (Main)-2018]
13. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction Base Acid End point
A  B  C  D is 100. If the initial concentration (1) Weak Strong Colourless to
of all the four species were 1 M each, then pink
equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L–1) will be (2) Strong Strong Pinkish red
[JEE (Main)-2016] to yellow
(3) Weak Strong Yellow to
(1) 0.818 (2) 1.818
pinkish red
(3) 1.182 (4) 0.182
(4) Strong Strong Pink to
14. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base colourless
(BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively, The pH of their 20. 20 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to 30 mL
salt (AB) solution is [JEE (Main)-2017] of 0.2 M NH4OH solution. The pH of the resultant
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.0 mixture is : [pKb of NH4OH = 4.7]
(3) 7.2 (4) 6.9 [JEE (Main)-2019]
15. Which of the following lines correctly show the (1) 9.0 (2) 5.2
temperature dependence of equilibrium constant K, (3) 5.0 (4) 9.4
for an exothermic reaction? [JEE (Main)-2018] 21. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions
ln K A K

A 2 (g)  B 2 (g) 
1

 2AB(g) …(1)
B 1
T(K) 
6AB(g) 
2
 3A 2 (g)  3B2 (g)
K
…(2)
(0, 0)
The relation between K1 and K2 is
C [JEE (Main)-2019]

D 1
(1) K2 = K13 (2) K1K 2 
(1) A and B (2) B and C 3
(3) C and D (4) A and D (3) K2 = K1–3 (4) K1K2 = 3

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22. The pH of rain water, is approximately 27. Consider the reaction

[JEE (Main)-2019] N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(1) 7.0 (2) 7.5 The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is KP.
(3) 5.6 (4) 6.5 If pure ammonia is left to dissociate, the partial
pressure of ammonia at equilibrium is given by
Kp (Assume that PNH << Ptotal at equilibrium)
23. The values of for the following reactions at 3
Kc [JEE (Main)-2019]
300 K are, respectively (At 300 K, RT = 24.62 dm3
1 3 1
atm mol–1) KP2 P2 3 2 KP2 P2
(1) (2)


N2(g) + O2(g) 
 2NO(g)
4 4
1 3 1


N2O4(g)  KP2 P2 3 2 KP2 P2
 2NO2(g) (3) (4)
16 16


N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
 2NH3(g) [JEE (Main)-2019] 28. For the equilibrium

(1) 24.62 dm 3 atm mol–1, 606.0 dm 6 atm2 mol–2, 


 H 3O + OH , the value of Gº at 298
2H 2O  + –

1.65 × 10–3 dm–6 atm–2 mol2 K is approximately [JEE (Main)-2019]

(2) 1, 24.62 dm 3 atm mol–1, 1.65 × 10–3 dm –6 (1) –80 kJ mol–1 (2) –100 kJ mol–1
atm–2 mol2
(3) 80 kJ mol–1 (4) 100 kJ mol–1
(3) 1, 24.62 dm3 atm mol–1, 606.0 dm6 atm2 mol–2
29. Two solids dissociate as follows
(4) 1, 4.1 × 10–2 dm–3 atm–1 mol, 606 dm6 atm2
mol–2


 B  g  C  g ;K P1  x atm
A  s   2

24. A mixture of 100 m mol of Ca(OH)2 and 2 g of

sodium sulphate was dissolved in water and the 

 C  g  E  g ;K P2  y atm
D  s   2

volume was made up to 100 mL. The mass of

calcium sulphate formed and the concentration of The total pressure when both the solids dissociate
OH– in resulting solution, respectively, are (Molar simultaneously is [JEE (Main)-2019]
mass of Ca(OH)2, Na2SO4 and CaSO4 are 74, 143
(1) x2 + y2 atm
and 136 g mol–1, respectively; Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is
5.5 × 10–6) [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) (x + y) atm

(1) 1.9 g, 0.14 mol L–1 (2) 13.6 g, 0.28 mol L–1 (3) x  y atm
(3) 13.6 g, 0.14 mol L–1 (4) 1.9 g, 0.28 mol L–1
25. The process with negative entropy change is
(4) 2  xy  atm

[JEE (Main)-2019] 

30. In a chemical reaction, A  2B   2C  D , the
K

(1) Sublimation of dry ice initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of the
concentration of A, but the equilibrium
(2) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g) concentrations of A and B were found to be equal.
(3) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2 The equilibrium constant (K) for the aforesaid
(4) Dissolution of iodine in water chemical reaction is [JEE (Main)-2019]

26. 5.1 g NH4SH is introduced in 3.0 L evacuated flask (1) 1 (2) 16

at 327ºC. 30% of the solid NH4SH decomposed to
1
NH3 and H2S as gases. The Kp of the reaction at (3) 4 (4)
4
327ºC is (R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, Molar mass of
S = 32 g mol–1, molar mass of N = 14 g mol–1) 31. If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8 × 10–12, the molar solubility
of Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 4.9 × 10–3 atm2 (2) 0.242 atm2 (1) 8 × 10–11 M (2) 8 × 10–12 M

(3) 1 × 10–4 atm2 (4) 0.242 × 10–4 atm2 (3) 8 × 10–13 M (4) 8 × 10–10 M

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32. If solubility product of Zr3(PO4)4 is denoted by Ksp (b) Ionic product of water is temperature dependent.
and its molar solubility is denoted by S, then which
(c) A monobasic acid with K a = 10 –5 has a
of the following relation between S and Ksp is
pH = 5. The degree of dissociation of this acid
correct? [JEE (Main)-2019]
is 50%.
1 1
 K sp  9  K sp  7 (d) The Le Chatelier’s principle is not applicable to
(1) S    (2) S    common-ion effect.
 929   216 
The correct statements are [JEE (Main)-2019]
1 1
 K sp  6  K sp  7 (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) S    (4) S   
 144   6912  (2) (b) and (c)
33. For the following reactions, equilibrium constants (3) (a) and (b)
are given : (4) (a), (b) and (c)


S(s)  O2  g  
 SO 2  g ; K 1  10
52 36. The pH of a 0.02 M NH4Cl solution will be [given
Kb(NH4OH) = 10–5 and log2 = 0.301]


2S(s)  3O2  g  
 2SO3  g ; K 2  10
129
[JEE (Main)-2019]

The equilibrium constant for the reaction, (1) 2.65 (2) 5.35
(3) 4.35 (4) 4.65


2SO2 (g)  O 2  g 
 2SO3  g is
37. For the reaction,
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 10154 (2) 1025 

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
 2SO3(g),
(3) 1077 (4) 10181 H = –57.2 kJ mol–1 and Kc = 1.7 × 1016.
34. In an acid-base titration, 0.1 M HCl solution was
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
added to the NaOH solution of unknown strength.
Which of the following correctly shows the change [JEE (Main)-2019]
of pH of the titration mixture in this experiment? (1) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of
[JEE (Main)-2019] reaction going to completion and so no
catalyst is required.
(2) The addition of inert gas at constant volume
pH pH will not affect the equilibrium constant.
(3) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as
the pressure increases.
V (mL) V (mL)
(A) (B) (4) The equilibrium constant decreases as the
temperature increases.
38. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2 M
pH pH NaOH solution? Given that, solubility product of
Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10–24 [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 3 × 10–19 (2) 12 × 10–21
V (mL) V (mL)
(3) 12 × 10–23 (4) 3 × 10–22
(C) (D)
39. In which one of the following equilibria,
(1) (A) (2) (C)
KP  KC? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (B) (4) (D)
(1) 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
35. Consider the following statements
(2) 2NO(g)  N2(g) + O2(g)
(a) The pH of a mixture containing 400 mL of
0.1 M H2SO4 and 400 mL of 0.1 M NaOH will (3) NO2(g) + SO2(g)  NO(g) + SO3(g)
be approximately 1.3. (4) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO(g)

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40. The INCORRECT match in the following is (1) Q < Ksp

[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) Q = Ksp
(1) G° = 0, K = 1 (2) G° < 0, K < 1 (3) Not enough data provided
(3) G° > 0, K < 1 (4) G° < 0, K > 1 (4) Q > Ksp

41. The molar solubility of Cd(OH)2 is 1.84 × 10–5 M 45. The solubility product of Cr(OH) 3 at 298 K is
in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)2 in a 6.0 × 10–31. The concentration of hydroxide ions in
buffer solution of pH = 12 is [JEE (Main)-2019] a saturated solution of Cr(OH)3 will be

(1) 1.84 × 10–9 M (2) 6.23 × 10–11 M [JEE (Main)-2020]

(1) (2.22 × 10–31)1/4
2.49
(3)  10 9 M (4) 2.49 × 10–10 M (2) (18 × 10–31)1/2
1.84
(3) (18 × 10–31)1/4
42. The stoichiometry and solubility product of a salt
with the solubility curve given below is, respectively (4) (4.86 × 10–29)1/4
46. In the figure shown below reactant A (represented
3 by square) is in equilibrium with product B
[Y]/mM

2 (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is

1

1 2 3
[X]/mM
[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) X2Y, 2 × 10–9 M3 (2) XY2, 4 × 10–9 M3 (1) 4 (2) 2

(3) XY2, 1 × 10–9 M3 (4) XY, 2 × 10–6 M3 (3) 8 (4) 1

43. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct 47. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct
option is option is

Assertion : The pH of water increases with increase Assertion (A): When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are
in temperature. mixed, they react together extremely quickly to
give a solid.
Reason : The dissociation of water into H+ and OH–
Reason (R): The equilibrium constant of Cu2+(aq) +
is an exothermic reaction.
S2–(aq)  CuS(s) is high because the solubility
[JEE (Main)-2020] product is low. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Both assertion and reason are false (1) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(2) Assertion is not true, but reason is true (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
explanation for (A).
(3) Both assertion and reason are true, and the
reason is the correct explanation for the (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
assertion explanation for (A).

(4) Both assertion and reason are true, but the (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
reason is not the correct explanation for the 48. An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing
assertion [JEE (Main)-2020]
44. The K sp for the following dissociation is (1) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M NaCl
1.6 × 10–5
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M


PbCl2(s)  2 – CH3COONa
 Pb(aq)  2Cl(aq)
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 100 mL of 0.1
Which of the following choices is correct for a M NaOH
mixture of 300 mL 0.134 M Pb(NO 3 ) 2 and (4) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 200 mL of 0.1
100 mL 0.4 M NaCl? [JEE (Main)-2020] M NaOH
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

49. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it (1) (2) (1) (2)
(1) K eq / K eq (2) K eq  K eq
100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of
2 mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which (2) (1) (1) (2)
of the following graphs correctly depicts the change (3) K eq  K eq (4) K eq K eq
in pH? [JEE (Main)-2020] 52. Consider the following reaction :
N2O4(g)  2NO2 (g); H0 = + 58 kJ
7 For each of the following cases (a, b), the direction
pH 7
pH in which the equilibrium shifts is
(1) (2)
vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH [JEE (Main)-2020]
(a) Temperature is decreased
7 (b) Pressure is increased by adding N 2 at
pH 7 constant T.
pH
(3) (4) (1) (a) Towards product, (b) towards reactant
vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH (2) (a) Towards reactant, (b) no change
(3) (a) Towards reactant, (b) towards product
50. For the equilibrium A  B , the variation of the rate
(4) (a) Towards product, (b) no change
of the forward (a) and reverse (b) reaction with time
is given by [JEE (Main)-2020] 53. Arrange the following solutions in the decreasing
order of pOH
Rate of reaction

a (A) 0.01 M HCl

(B) 0.01 M NaOH
(1) equilibrium (C) 0.01 M CH3COONa
b (D) 0.01 M NaCl [JEE (Main)-2020]
Time (1) (B) > (C) > (D) > (A) (2) (A) > (D) > (C) > (B)
(3) (A) > (C) > (D) > (B) (4) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)
Rate of reaction

a 54. For the reaction

3
(2) equilibrium Fe2N(s)  H2 (g)  2Fe(s)  NH3 (g)
2
b [JEE (Main)-2020]
Time
(2) K C  Kp (RT)
1/2
(1) K C  K p (RT)
Rate of reaction

a
3/2 1/2
(3) K C  K p (RT) (4) K C  K p (RT)
(3) equilibrium
55. The variation of equilibrium constant with temperature
b is given below
Time Temperature Equilibrium Constant
T1 = 25°C K1 = 10
Rate of reaction

a
T2 = 100°C K2 = 100
(4) equilibrium The values of H°, G° at T 1 and G° at T 2
b (in kJ mol –1 ) respectively, are close to [Use
R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2020]
Time
(1) 28.4, –5.71 and –14.29
51. If the equilibrium constant for A  B + C is K eq and
(1)
(2) 0.64, –7.14 and –5.71
that of B + C  P is K (2)
eq , the equilibrium constant (3) 28.4, –7.14 and –5.71
for A  P is [JEE (Main)-2020] (4) 0.64, –5.71 and –14.29

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56. The value of KC is 64 at 800 K for the reaction 63. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH =
 2NH3 (g) 3 is x. The value of x is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
The value of KC for the following reaction is [Assume : No cyano complex is formed;
K sp (AgCN) = 2.2 × 10 –16 and K a (HCN) =

 1 3
NH3 (g) 
 N2 (g)  H2 (g) [JEE (Main)-2020] 6.2 × 10–10]
2 2
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/64 (1) 1.9 × 10–5 (2) 1.6 × 10–6

(3) 8 (4) 1/4 (3) 2.2 × 10–16 (4) 0.625 × 10–6

57. Two solutions, A and B, each of 100 L was made 64. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is :
by dissolving 4 g of NaOH and 9.8 g of H2SO4 in [Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in water
water, respectively. The pH of the resultant solution = 5.5 × 10–6] [JEE (Main)-2021]
obtained from mixing 40 L of solution A and 10 L
(1) 1.77 × 10–2 (2) 1.11 × 10–2
of solution B is________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) 1.77 × 10–6 (4) 1.11 × 10–6
58. 3 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of 0.1 M HCl
and the solution made up to 500 mL. To 20 mL of 65. A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction
1 AB2(g)  A(g) + 2B(g) is carried out in a 25 litre
this solution mL of 5 M NaOH is added. The pH flask at 27°C. The initial amount of AB2 was 1 mole
2
of the solution is_______. and the equilibrium pressure was 1.9 atm. The
[Given : pKa of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass of value of K p is x × 10 –2 . The value of x is
acetic acid = 60 g/mol, log3 = 0.4771] _________. (Integer answer)

Neglect any changes in volume. [R = 0.08206 dm3atm K–1 mol–1]

[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2021]

59. For a reaction X + Y = 2Z, 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol 66. The pH of ammonium phosphate solution, if pka of
of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L vessel phosphoric acid and pk b of ammonium hydroxide
and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the are 5.23 and 4.75 respectively, is _________.
concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L–1. The equilibrium [JEE (Main)-2021]

constant of the reaction is ______ x . The value 


15  B(g) at 495 K, rG°
67. For the reaction A(g) 
= – 9.478 kJ mol–1.
of x is _______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
If we start the reaction in a closed container at
60. If the solubility product of AB2 is 3.20 × 10–11 M3,
495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B in
then the solubility of AB 2 in pure water is
the equilibrium mixture is _____ millimoles. (Round
_____ × 10–4 mol L–1. [Assuming that neither kind of
off to the Nearest Integer).
ion reacts with water] [JEE (Main)-2020]
61. At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are equal [R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1; In 10 = 2.303]
number of Cl2 molecules and Cl atoms in the [JEE (Main)-2021]
reaction mixture. The value of Kp for the reaction
68. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of
Cl2(g)  2Cl(g) under the above conditions is x × solubility product of 4.0 × 10–12. The ratio of their
10–1. The value of x is____. (Rounded off to the S  A 2 X
nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] molar solubilities i.e. = _____. (Round off
S(MX)
62. The solubility product of Pbl2 is 8.0 × 10–9. The
to the Nearest Integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar solution of lead
nitrate is x × 10 –6 mol/L. The value of x is 69. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10–2 and
_______ (Rounded off to the nearest integer) Ka2 = 6.4 × 10–8. The pH of 0.588 M H2SO3 is
___________. [JEE (Main)-2021]
 Given 2 = 1.41 [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

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70. 0.01 moles of a weak acid HA (Ka = 2.0 × 10–6) 76. Value of Kp for the equilibrium reaction
is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution. The
degree of dissociation of HA is ______ × 10–5 

N2O 4(g) 
 2NO2(g) at 288 K is 47.9. The KC
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). for this reaction at same temperature is ______.
[Neglect volume change on adding HA. (Nearest integer) (R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1)
Assume degree of dissociation <<1] [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] 77. For the reaction



71. Consider the reaction N2 O4  g  
 2 NO2  g  . A  B  2C
The value of equilibrium constant is 100 at 298 K.
The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and KP =
If the initial concentration of all the three species
600.1, is _______ K. (Round off to the Nearest is 1 M each, then the equilibrium concentration of
Integer). [Assume all gases are ideal and R = C is x × 10–1 M. The value of x is _____. (Nearest
0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021] integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
72. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, 78. Assuming that Ba(OH)2 is completely ionised in
sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the aqueous solution under the given conditions the
concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 M, concentration of H3O+ ions in 0.005 M aqueous
the concentration of sodium acetate in the buffer solution of Ba(OH)2 at 298 K is _______ × 10–12
is _______ M. mol L–1. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 79. PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 Kc = 1.844
[Given : pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74] 3.0 moles of PCl5 is introduced in a 1 L closed
[JEE (Main)-2021] reaction vessel at 380 K. The number of moles of
PCl5 at equilibrium is _____ × 10–3. (Round off to
73. The solubility of CdSO4 in water is 80 × 10–4 mol the Nearest Integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
L–1. Its solubility in 0.01 M H2SO4 solution is ____
× 10–6 mol L–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). 80. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
(Assume that solubility is much less than 0.01 M)

 1
[JEE (Main)-2021] A(s) 
 M(s)  O2 (g)
2
74. 

2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 
 2SO3 (g) is KP = 4. At equilibrium, the partial pressure of O2
is ______ atm. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
In an equilibrium mixture, the partial pressures are
[JEE (Main)-2021]
PSO3  43 kPa; PO2  530 Pa and
81. 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
PSO2  45 kPa. The equilibrium constant K P =
The above reaction is carried out in a vessel starting
______ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)
with partial pressures PSO2 = 250 m bar,,
[JEE (Main)-2021]
PO2  750 m bar and PSO3  0 bar. When the
75. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl– and 0.001 M in CrO24 . reaction is complete, the total pressure in the
Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it. Assuming reaction vessel is __________ m bar. (Round off to
that the addition does not change in volume and the nearest Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]
Ksp(AgCl) = 1.7 × 10–10 M2 and Ksp(Ag2CrO 4)
82. Given below are two statements :
= 1.9 × 10–12 M3. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement I : In the titration between strong acid
Select correct statement from the following
and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an
(1) AgCl precipitates first because its Ksp is high. indicator.
(2) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first as its Ksp is low. Statement II : For titration of acetic acid with NaOH
(3) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first because the amount phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
of Ag+ needed is low. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of Ag+ most appropriate answer from the options given
needed to precipitate is low. below : [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 86. When 5.1 g of solid NH4HS is introduced into a two
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false litre evacuated flask at 27°C, 20% of the solid
decomposes into gaseous ammonia and
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
hydrogen sulphide. The K p for the reaction at
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
27°C is x × 10 –2 . The value of x is ______.
83. The OH– concentration in a mixture of 5.0 mL of (Integer answer)
0.0504 M NH 4 Cl and 2 mL of 0.0210 M NH 3
solution is x × 10–6 M. The value of x is _______. [Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]
(Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
[Given Kw = 1 × 10–14 and Kb = 1.8 × 10–5] 87. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M
[JEE (Main)-2021] (g mol –1) and solubility x g L –1. The solubility
84. The equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K for the 5
reaction x
product satisfies K sp  a   . The value of a is
M
A + B C + D
_____. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
is 100. Starting with an equimolar solution with
concentrations of A, B, C and D all equal to 1 M, 88. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of
the equilibrium concentration of D is ____ × 10–2 1 M HCl and 30 mL of 1 M NaOH is x × 10–4. The
M. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
85. The number of moles of NH3, that must be added [log 2.5 = 0.3979] [JEE (Main)-2021]
to 2 L of 0.80 M AgNO3 in order to reduce the
concentration of Ag+ ions to 5.0 × 10–8 M (Kformation 89. The molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH
for [Ag(NH3)2]+ = 1.0 ×108) is _____. (Nearest solution is x × 10–18 M. The value of x is _____.
integer) (Nearest integer)
[Assume no volume change on adding NH3] (Given : The solubility product of Zn(OH) 2 is
[JEE (Main)-2021] 2 × 10–20) [JEE (Main)-2021]

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Chapter 8

Redox Reactions and Volumetric Analysis

1. The mass of potassium dichromate crystals 5. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate in
required to oxidise 750 cm 3 of 0.6 M Mohr’s salt acidic medium, the number of electrons involved in
solution is: (Given molar mass : potassium producing one molecule of CO2 is
dichromate = 294, Mohr’s salt = 392)
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[AIEEE-2011]
(1) 2.2 g (2) 0.49 g (1) 1 (2) 10

(3) 0.45 g (4) 22.05 g (3) 2 (4) 5

2. Consider the following reaction : 6. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium

bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 ml of CO2
xMnO 4–  yC2O2–
4  zH 
at T = 298.15 K and p = 1 bar. If molar volume of CO2
z
xMn2   2yCO2  H2O is 25.0 L under such condition, what is the
2 percentage of sodium bicarbonate in each tablet?
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are,
respectively [JEE (Main)-2013] [Molar mass of NaHCO3 = 84 g mol–1]

(1) 5, 2 and 16 (2) 2, 5 and 8 [JEE (Main)-2019]

(3) 2, 5 and 16 (4) 5, 2 and 8 (1) 33.6 (2) 8.4
3. The chemical nature of hydrogen peroxide is (3) 0.84 (4) 16.8
[JEE (Main)-2019] 7. 25 ml of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of
(1) Oxidising and reducing agent in both acidic and 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. What is the
basic medium volume of this HCl solution required to titrate
(2) Oxidising and reducing agent in acidic medium, 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous NaOH solution
but not in basic medium [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Reducing agent in basic medium, but not in
(1) 25 mL (2) 12.5 mL
acidic medium
(4) Oxidising agent in acidic medium, but not in (3) 50 mL (4) 75 mL
basic medium 8. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize
4. Consider the following reduction processes: 25 mL of sodium hydroxide solution. The amount
of NaOH in 50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide
Zn2+ + 2e–  Zn(s); Eº = –0.76 V
solution is [JEE (Main)-2019]
Ca2+ + 2e–  Ca(s); Eº = –2.87 V
(1) 10 g (2) 4 g
Mg2+ + 2e–  Mg(s); Eº = –2.36 V
Ni2+ + 2e–  Ni(s); Eº = –0.25 V (3) 20 g (4) 80 g

The reducing power of the metals increases in the 9. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each
order : [JEE (Main)-2019] of FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in
acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO4
(1) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni
required is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
(1) 1.5 (2) 2
(3) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni
(3) 3 (4) 1
(4) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca
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10. An example of a disproportionation reaction is: The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients
[JEE (Main)-2019] x,y,, x , y  and z for products A, B, C, D and E,
(1) 2MnO4– + 10I– + 16H+  2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O respectively, is ______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
17. The volume, in mL, of 0.02 M K2Cr2O7 solution
(2) 2CuBr  CuBr2 + Cu
required to react with 0.288 g of ferrous oxalate in
(3) 2KMnO4  K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 acidic medium is _______.
(4) 2NaBr + Cl2  2NaCl + Br2 (Molar mass of Fe = 56 g mol–1)
11. Oxidation number of potassium in K2O, K2O2 and [JEE (Main)-2020]
KO2, respectively, is [JEE (Main)-2020]
18. The reaction of sulphur in alkaline medium is given
(1) +1, +2 and +4 below:

1 S8(s)  a OH(aq) 
 b S2 (aq)  c S2 O23 (aq)  d H2 O(l)
(2) +2, +1 and +
2
The value of ‘a’ is ______. (Integer answer)
(3) +1, +4 and +2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) +1, +1 and +1
19. 0.4 g mixture of NaOH, Na2CO3 and some inert
12. The redox reaction among the following is
N
[JEE (Main)-2020] impurities was first titrated with HCl using
10
(1) Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 with AgNO3 phenolphthalein as an indicator, 17.5 mL of HCl
(2) Formation of ozone from atmospheric oxygen was required at the end point. After this methyl
in the presence of sunlight. orange was added and titrated. 1.5 mL of same
HCl was required for the next end point. The weight
(3) Combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen at
2000 K percentage of Na 2 CO 3 in the mixture is
__________. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
(4) Reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
13. While titrating dilute HCl solution with aqueous
NaOH, which of the following will not be required? 20. In basic medium CrO 2– 2–
4 oxidises S2O3 to form
[JEE (Main)-2020]
SO2–
4 and itself changes into Cr(OH)4– . The
(1) Pipette and distilled water
volume of 0.154 M CrO 2–
4 required to react with
(2) Clamp and phenolphthalein
(3) Burette and porcelain tile 40 mL of 0.25 M S2O32– is ________ mL.
(4) Bunsen burner and measuring cylinder (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

14. The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in [JEE (Main)-2021]

K2Cr2O7, KMnO4 and K2FeO4, respectively, are x, y 21. Consider titration of NaOH solution versus 1.25 M
and z. The sum of x, y and z is _______. oxalic acid solution. At the end point following
[JEE (Main)-2020] burette readings were obtained. [JEE (Main)-2021]
15. A 20.0 mL solution containing 0.2 g impure H2O2 (i) 4.5 mL (ii) 4.5 mL
reacts completely with 0.316 g of KMnO4 in acid (iii) 4.4 mL (iv) 4.4 mL
solution. The purity of H2O2 (in %) is _____________
(mol. wt. of H2O2 = 34; mol. wt. of KMnO4 = 158) (v) 4.4 mL

[JEE (Main)-2020] If the volume of oxalic acid taken was 10.0 mL

then the molarity of the NaOH solution is
16. Consider the following equations : ____ M. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
2Fe2  H2O2  xA  yB
22. 2MnO 4– + bC2O2– + 2+
4 + cH  x Mn + yCO 2 + z H2 O
(in basic medium)
If the above equation is balanced with integer
2MnO4  6H  5H2O2  xC  y D  zE coefficients, the value of c is ____.
(in acidic medium) [JEE (Main)-2021]
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23. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution required 29. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe2+ ions
to neutralise 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3 solution and was titrated in the presence of dil H2SO4 using
100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution, respectively, are: diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 M solution
[JEE (Main)-2021] of K2Cr2O7 was required to get the end point. The
molarity of the solution containing Fe2+ ions is
(1) 100 mL and 100 mL
x × 10–2 M. The value of x is ______. (Nearest
(2) 50 mL and 50 mL integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) 100 mL and 200 mL 30. Identify the process in which change in the
(4) 100 mL and 50 mL oxidation state is five : [JEE (Main)-2021]
24. 15 mL of aqueous solution of Fe 2+ in acidic
(1) C2O2–
4  2CO2 (2) MnO 4–  Mn2
medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M
aqueous Cr2O72–. The molarity of the Fe2+ solution
is ___________ × 10–2 M. (3) Cr2O72–  2Cr 3 (4) CrO2–
4  Cr
3

(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 31. The oxidation states of ‘P’ in H4P2O7, H4P2O5 and
[JEE (Main)-2021] H4P2O6, respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021]
25. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O (1) 5, 4 and 3 (2) 7, 5 and 6
and NO3– are in the order of : [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) 6, 4 and 5 (4) 5, 3 and 4
32. 10.0 mL of 0.05 M KMnO4 solution was consumed
(1) NO2 > NO3– > NO > N2O
in a titration with 10.0 mL of given oxalic acid
dihydrate solution. The strength of given oxalic acid
(2) NO3– > NO2 > NO > N2 O
solution is ________ ×10–2 g/L.

(3) N2 O > NO 2 > NO > NO3– (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) NO > NO 2 > N2O > NO3–
33. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of KMnO4 was
26. 10.0 mL of Na2CO3 solution is titrated against 0.2 M titrated in acidic medium, equal volume of 0.1 M of
HCl solution. The following titre values were obtained an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate was
in 5 readings: [JEE (Main)-2021] required for complete discharge of colour. The
strength of KMnO4 in grams per litre is _______×
4.8 mL, 4.9 mL, 5.0 mL, 5.0 mL and 5.0 mL
10–2. (Nearest integer)
Based on these readings and convention of titrimetric
estimation the concentration of Na2CO3 solution is [Atomic mass of K = 39, Mn = 55, O = 16]
_______ mM [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Round off the Nearest integer). 34. In which one of the following sets all species show
disproportionation reaction?
27. The species given below that does NOT show
disproportionation reaction is [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) BrO3– (2) BrO – (1) ClO 4– , MnO 4– , ClO2– and F2

(3) BrO2– (4) BrO4– (2) ClO 2– , F2 , MnO 4– and Cr2O72–

28. 4 g equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 contains

x g of NaOH and y g of Na2CO3. The value of x is (3) MnO 4– , CIO2– , Cl2 and Mn3+
___________ g. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Cr2O72– ,MnO 4– , CIO2– and Cl2
(Nearest integer)

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Chapter 9

The Solid State

1. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit cell length of 7. Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom? formula M0.98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and
[AIEEE-2009] M3+ in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists
as M3+ would be [JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) 127 pm (2) 157 pm
(1) 7.01% (2) 4.08%
(3) 181 pm (4) 108 pm
(3) 6.05% (4) 5.08%
2. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an
ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the 8. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’
cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is is its edge length then which of the following
expressions is correct? [JEE (Main)-2014]
[AIEEE-2010]
(1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm (1) rCs  rCl  3a
(3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm 3a
(2) rCs  rCl 
3. Percentages of free space in cubic close packed 2
structure and in body centered packed structure
3
are respectively [AIEEE-2010] (3) rCs  rCl  a
2
(1) 48% and 26%
(4) rCs  rCl  3a
(2) 30% and 26%
9. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic
(3) 26% and 32%
lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius
(4) 32% and 48% of sodium atom is approximately
4. Copper crystallises in fcc lattice with a unit cell [JEE (Main)-2015]
edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is (1) 1.86 Å (2) 3.22 Å
[AIEEE-2011] (3) 5.72 Å (4) 0.93 Å
(1) 157 pm (2) 181 pm 10. A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic
structure. If the edge length of its unit cell is 'a',
(3) 108 pm (4) 128 pm the closest approach between two atoms in
5. Lithium forms body centered cubic structure. The metallic crystal will be [JEE (Main)-2017]
length of the side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Atomic
radius of the lithium will be [AIEEE-2012] a
(1) 2a (2)
2
(1) 300 pm (2) 240 pm
(3) 150 pm (4) 75 pm (3) 2a (4) 2 2a
6. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals 11. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of cations
in the solid state ? [JEE (Main)-2013] in the interstitial sites? [JEE (Main)-2018]
(1) Iodine (1) Schottky defect
(2) Silicon (2) Vacancy defect

(3) Sulphur (3) Frenkel defect

(4) Phosphorus (4) Metal deficiency defect

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

12. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric 17. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly
material is [JEE (Main)-2019] at the centre of the edge of a body centred cubic
unit cell is (Edge length is represented by ‘a’)
(1) Tridymite
(2) Mica [JEE (Main)-2019]

(3) Quartz (1) 0.027 a (2) 0.047 a

(4) Amorphous silica (3) 0.067 a (4) 0.134 a

13. At 100°C, copper (Cu) has FCC unit cell structure 18. Element ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies
with cell edge length of x Å. W hat is the half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms
approximate density of Cu (in g cm –3) at this occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of
temperature? [Atomic Mass of Cu = 63.55 u] bimetallic oxide is [JEE (Main)-2019]

[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) A2B2O (2) AB2O4

(3) A4B2O (4) A2BO4
422 205
(1) (2) 19. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solids 1 and 2
x3 x3
with the position of atoms as shown below.
105 211 The radius of atom B is twice that of atom A. The
(3) (4) unit cell edge length is 50% more in solid 2 than
x3 x3
in 1. What is the approximate packing efficiency in
14. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths solid 2?
(a  b  c) and all axial angles different from 90°?
[JEE (Main)-2019] A A A A
A
(1) Hexagonal A A A

(2) Monoclinic B
A A
(3) Triclinic A A A
(4) Tetragonal A A A A
Solid 1 Solid 2
15. A compound of formula A2B3 has the hcp lattice.
Which atom forms the hcp lattice and what fraction [JEE (Main)-2019]
of tetrahedral voids is occupied by the other
atoms? [JEE (Main)-2019] (1) 45% (2) 65%
(3) 75% (4) 90%
1
(1) hcp lattice - B, Tetrahedral voids - A 20. The amorphous form of silica is [JEE (Main)-2019]
3

2 (1) Quartz (2) Tridymite

(2) hcp lattice - A, Tetrahedral voids - B
3 (3) Kieselguhr (4) Cristobalite

2 21. An element has a face-centred cubic (fcc) structure

(3) hcp lattice - B, Tetrahedral voids - A with a cell edge of a. The distance between the
3
centres of two nearest tetrahedral voids in the
1 lattice is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) hcp lattice - A, Tetrahedral voids - B
3
3 a
16. A solid having density of 9 × 103 kg m –3 forms (1) a (2)
2 2
face centred cubic crystals of edge length
200 2 pm. What is the molar mass of the solid? (3) a (4) 2a

[Avogadro constant  6 × 1023 mol–1,   3] 22. The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple
cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic
[JEE (Main)-2019] structure are, respectively [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 0.0305 kg mol–1 (2) 0.4320 kg mol–1 (1) 4 : 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 0.0432 kg mol–1 (4) 0.0216 kg mol–1 (3) 8 : 1 : 6 (4) 1 : 2 : 4
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23. Which of the following compounds is likely to 30. The number of octahedral voids per lattice site in a
show both Frenkel and Schottky defects in its lattice is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest
crystalline form? [JEE (Main)-2020] integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) ZnS (2) CsCI 31. A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of unit
cell edge length 27 Å. If the same element under the
(3) AgBr (4) KBr
same conditions crystallises in the fcc lattice, the
24. A diatomic molecule X2 has a body-centred cubic edge length of the unit cell in Å will be _____. (Round
(bcc) structure with a cell edge of 300 pm. The off to the Nearest Integer.)
density of the molecule is 6.17 g cm3. The number
[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]
of molecules present in 200 g of X2 is :
(Avogadro constant (NA) = 6 × 1023 mol–1) [Assume 3  1.73, 2  1.41]
[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 40 NA (2) 4 NA 32. Ga (atomic mass 70 u) crystallizes in a hexagonal
(3) 2 NA (4) 8 NA close packed structure. The total number of voids in
0.581 g of Ga is __________ × 1021.
25. An element crystallises in a face-centred cubic (fcc)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
unit cell with cell edge a. The distance between the
centres of two nearest octahedral voids in the [Given : NA = 6.023 × 1023] [JEE (Main)-2021]
crystal lattice is [JEE (Main)-2020] 33. KBr is doped with 10–5
mole percent of SrBr2. The
(1) a (2) number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr crystal
2a
is _____1014. (Round off the Nearest Integer).
a a [Atomic Mass : K : 39.1 u, Br : 79.9 u NA = 6.023
(3) (4) × 1023] [JEE (Main)-2021]
2 2
34. In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a
26. A crystal is made up of metal ions M1and M2and hcp structure and those of element M occupy 2/3 of
oxide ions. Oxide ions form a ccp lattice structure. the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure. The
The cation M1occupies 50% of octahedral voids formula of the binary compound is
and the cation M2occupies 12.5% of tetrahedral
voids of oxide lattice. The oxidation numbers of M1 [JEE (Main)-2021]
and M2are, respectively. [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) M2A3 (2) M4A3
(1) + 3, + 1 (2) + 4, + 2 (3) M4A (4) MA3
(3) + 1, + 3 (4) + 2, + 4 35. The oxide that shows magnetic property is :
27. An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10–2
kg mol–1 [JEE (Main)-2021]
forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. (1) MgO
If its density is 2.7 × 103 kg m–3, the radius of the
element is approximately _____ × 10–12 m (to the (2) Na2O
nearest integer). [JEE (Main)-2020] (3) SiO2
28. The coordination number of an atom in a body- (4) Mn3O4
centered cubic structure is ______.
36. A hard substance melts at high temperature and is
[Assume that the lattice is made up of atoms.] an insulator in both solid and in molten state. This
[JEE (Main)-2021] solid is most likely to be a/an:
29. The unit cell of copper corresponds to a face centered
cube of edge length 3.596 Å with one copper atom [JEE (Main)-2021]
at each lattice point. The calculated density of (1) Metallic solid
copper in kg/m 3 is _____.
(2) Ionic solid
[Molar mass of Cu : 63.54 g; Avogadro Number =
6.022 × 1023] (3) Molecular solid
[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) Covalent solid
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

37. Diamond has a three dimensional structure of C 41. Given below are two statements :
atoms formed by covalent bonds. The structure of Statement I : Frenkel defects are vacancy as well
diamond has face centred cubic lattice where 50% as interstitial defects.
of the tetrahedral voids are also occupied by carbon
atoms. The number of carbon atoms present per Statement II : Frenkel defect leads to colour in
unit cell of diamond is ________. ionic solids due to presence of F-centres.

[JEE (Main)-2021] Choose the most appropriate answer for the

statements from the options given below :
38. A copper complex crystallising in a CCP lattice with
[JEE (Main)-2021]
a cell edge of 0.4518 nm has been revealed by
employing X-ray diffraction studies. The density of a (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
copper complex is found to be 7.62 g cm –3 . (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
The molar mass of copper complex is _______
g mol –1 . (Nearest integer) [Given : (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021] (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
39. The parameters of the unit cell of a substance are 42. Match items of List - I with those of List - II :
a = 2.5, b = 3.0, c = 4.0,  = 90°,  = 120°,  = 90°.
List - I List - II
The crystal system of the substance is
(Property) (Example)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(a) Diamagnetism (i) MnO
(1) Monoclinic (2) Hexagonal
(b) Ferrimagnetism (ii) O2
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Triclinic
(c) Paramagnetism (iii) NaCl
40. Select the correct statements
(d) Antiferromagnetism (iv) Fe3O4
(A) Crystalline solids have long range order.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(B) Crystalline solids are isotropic. options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(C) Amorphous solids are sometimes called (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
pseudo solids.
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
temperatures
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(E) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of fusion.
43. The empirical formula for a compound with a cubic
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
close packed arrangement of anions and with
options given below [JEE (Main)-2021]
cations occupying all the octahedral sites in AxB.
(1) (A), (C), (D) only (2) (C), (D) only The value of x is _______. (Integer answer)
(3) (B), (D) only (4) (A), (B), (E) only [JEE (Main)-2021]

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Chapter 10

Solutions
1. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing 5. A 5% solution of cane sugar (molar mass 342 is
n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the following isotonic with 1% of a solution of an unknown
statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solute. The molar mass of unknown solute in g/mol
solution? [AIEEE-2009] is [AIEEE-2011]
(1) The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation (1) 34.2 (2) 136.2
from Raoult's Law (3) 171.2 (4) 68.4
(2) The solution is non-ideal, showing –ve deviation 6. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. If your automobile
from Raoult's Law radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how many grams of
(3) n-heptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the
shows –ve deviation from Raoult's Law freezing point of the solution lowered to – 2.8°C?
[AIEEE-2012]
(4) The solution formed is an ideal solution
(1) 93 g (2) 39 g
2. Two liquids X and Y from an ideal solution. At 300
K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol (3) 27 g (4) 72 g
of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mmHg. At the same 7. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M
temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M
solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25°C. Which
by 10 mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X and statement is true about these solutions, assuming
Y in their pure states will be, respectively all salts to be strong electrolytes?
[AIEEE-2009] [JEE (Main)-2014]
(1) 300 and 400 (2) 400 and 600 (1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(3) 500 and 600 (4) 200 and 300 (2) 0.100 M Mg 3 (PO 4 ) 2 (aq) has the highest
3. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely osmotic pressure.
dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous (3) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic
solution, the change in freezing point of water (Tf), pressure.
when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in
(4) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic
1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) pressure.
[AIEEE-2010]
8. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr.
(1) 0.0186 K (2) 0.0372 K W hen 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
(3) 0.0558 K (4) 0.0744 K dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour
pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol–1)
4. On mixing, heptane and octane from an ideal
of the substance is [JEE (Main)-2015]
solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two
liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 (1) 32 (2) 64
kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of (3) 128 (4) 488
the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane
and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane 9. 18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g water.
= 100 g mol–1 and of octane = 114 g mol–1) The vapor pressure of water (in torr) for this
[AIEEE-2010] aqueous solution is [JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) 76.0 (2) 752.4
(1) 144.5 kPa (2) 72.0 kPa
(3) 36.1 kPa (4) 96.2 kPa (3) 759.0 (4) 7.6

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10. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45ºC 15. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The value
when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is [JEE (Main)-2019]
benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer
in benzene, percentage association of acetic acid (1) 1.6 (2) 2.0
in benzene will be (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg (3) 2.2 (4) 1.8
mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2017]
16. Freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of X is
(1) 74.6% (2) 94.6%
equal to freezing point of 12% aqueous solution of
(3) 64.6% (4) 80.4% Y. If molecular weight of X is A, then molecular
11. Which one of the following statements regarding weight of Y is [JEE (Main)-2019]
Henry's law is not correct? [JEE (Main)-2019] (1) 2A (2) 3A
(1) Different gases have different KH (Henry's law (3) A (4) 4A
constant) values at the same temperature
(Since density of solutions are not given therefore
(2) The value of KH increases with increase of
assuming molality to be equal to molarity and
temperature and KH is function of the nature of
the gas given % as % W/V)

(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase 17. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dimerise in
is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas benzene. ‘w’ g of the acid dissolved in 30 g of
in the solution benzene shows a depression in freezing point
equal to 2 K. If the percentage association of the
(4) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure,
higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids. acid to form dimer in the solution is 80, then w is

12. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire (Given that Kf = 5 K kg mol–1, Molar mass of
composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures benzoic acid = 122 g mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2019]
of pure A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 (1) 1.5 g (2) 2.4 g
Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapor in
equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole (3) 1.8 g (4) 1.0 g
percent of A at this temperature is
18. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are
[JEE (Main)-2019] 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively at 298 K. On
(1) xA = 0.76; xB = 0.24 (2) xA = 0.37; xB = 0.63 mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial
volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture.
(3) xA = 0.28; xB = 0.72 (4) xA = 0.4; xB = 0.6
The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture.
13. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal solution of The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole
glucose is 2 K. The depression in the freezing fractions of components A and B in vapour phase,
point for 2 molal solution of glucose in the same respectively are [JEE (Main)-2019]
solvent is 2 K. The relation between Kb and Kf is
(1) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (2) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (4) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
(1) Kb = 0.5 Kf (2) Kb = 2 Kf
19. For the solution of the gases w, x, y and z in water
(3) Kb = 1.5 Kf (4) Kb = Kf
at 298 K, the Henrys law constants (KH) are 0.5,
14. The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found 2, 35 and 40 kbar, respectively. The correct plot for
to be –0.2°C, while it should have been –0.5°C for
the given data is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
pure milk. How much water has been added to
pure milk to make the diluted sample?
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 3 cups of water and 2 cups of pure milk (1) Partial z
pressure y
(2) 1 cup of water and 2 cups of pure milk
x
(3) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk w
(0, 0) Mole fraction
(4) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk of water

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22. Molal depression constant for a solvent is

4.0 K kg mol–1. The depression in the freezing
z
point of the solvent for 0.03 mol kg–1 solution of
y
(2) Partial K2SO4 is
pressure
x (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)
w
(0, 0) Mole fraction [JEE (Main)-2019]
of water
(1) 0.36 K (2) 0.18 K
z
y (3) 0.12 K (4) 0.24 K

w 23. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is

x
prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of
(3) Partial water. If the vapour pressure of pure water at this
pressure
temperature is 35 mmHg, lowering of vapour pressure
will be : (molar mass of urea = 60 g mol–1)
(0, 0) Mole fraction
of water
[JEE (Main)-2019]

z (1) 0.031 mmHg (2) 0.017 mmHg

(3) 0.028 mmHg (4) 0.027 mmHg

y
Partial 24. 1 g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is
(4) pressure
x dissolved in 100 g of two different solvents A and
w B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of
1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling
(0, 0) Mole fraction
of water Tb  A 
points, T B , is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
b 
20. Liquid ‘M’ and liquid ‘N’ form an ideal solution. The
vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘M’ and ‘N’ are
450 and 700 mmHg, respectively, at the same (1) 1 : 5 (2) 10 : 1
temperature. Then correct statement is
(xM = Mole fraction of ‘M’ in solution; (3) 5 : 1 (4) 1 : 0.2
xN = Mole fraction of ‘N’ in solution; 25. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea
yM = Mole fraction of ‘M’ in vapour phase; (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) and 1.8 g of glucose
yN = Mole fraction of ‘N’ in vapour phase) (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) in 100 mL of water at
27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(R = 0.08206 L atm K–1 mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2019]
x y
(1) M  M
x N yN (1) 1.64 atm (2) 2.46 atm
x M yM (3) 8.2 atm (4) 4.92 atm
(2) 
x N yN
26. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in
x y 250 g water is cooled to –10°C. If Kf for water is
(3) M  M
x N yN 1.86 K kg mol –1 , the amount of water (in g)
(4) (xM – yM) < (xN – yN) separated as ice is [JEE (Main)-2019]

21. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an (1) 64 (2) 32

ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a
(3) 16 (4) 48
solution of 0.01 M BaCl 2 in water. Assuming
complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds 27. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg
in water, the concentration of XY (in mol L–1) in and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of
solution is [JEE (Main)-2019] CS2 in acetone has a total vapour pressure of 600
(1) 16 × 10–4 (2) 4 × 10–4 mm Hg. The false statement amongst the following
(3) 6 × 10–2 (4) 4 × 10–2 is [JEE (Main)-2020]

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(1) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system 30. An open beaker of water in equilibrium with water
(2) A mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone vapour is in a sealed container. When a few grams
has a volume < 200 mL of glucose are added to the beaker of water, the rate
at which water molecules [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Heat must be absorbed in order to produce the
solution at 35°C (1) Leaves the solution increases
(4) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each (2) Leaves the vapour increases
other than to themselves
(3) Leaves the vapour decreases
28. Two open beakers one containing a solvent and the
other containing a mixture of that solvent with a (4) Leaves the solution decreases
non volatile solute are together sealed in a 31. The size of a raw mango shrinks to a much smaller
container. Over time [JEE (Main)-2020] size when kept in a concentrated salt solution.
(1) The volume of the solution and the solvent Which one of the following processes can explain
does not change this? [JEE (Main)-2020]

(2) The volume of the solution increases and the (1) Osmosis
volume of the solvent decreases
(2) Reverse osmosis
(3) The volume of the solution does not
(3) Diffusion
change and the volume of the solvent
decreases (4) Dialysis

(4) The volume of the solution decreases and the 32. Henry’s constant (in kbar) for four gases , , 
volume of the solvent increases. and  in water at 298 K is given below
29. A graph of vapour pressure and temperature for
   
three different liquids X, Y, and Z is shown below –5
KH 50 2 2 × 10 0.5
Vapour pressure

X Y Z (density of water = 103 kg m–3 at 298 K)

800
(mm Hg)

500 This table implies that [JEE (Main)-2020]

400
200 (1) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of  is 1
bar
0 293 313 333 353
(2) Solubility of  at 308 K is lower than at
Temp
298 K
The following inferences are made
(3)  has the highest solubility in water at a given
(A) X has higher intermolecular interactions pressure
compared to Y.
(4) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of  is 250
(B) X has lower intermolecular interactions bar
compared to Y
33. A set of solutions is prepared using 180 g of water
(C) Z has lower intermolecular interactions as a solvent and 10 g of different non-volatile
compared to Y. solutes A, B and C. The relative lowering of vapour
The correct inferences is/are [JEE (Main)-2020] pressure in the presence of these solutes are in
the order [Given, molar mass of A = 100 g mol–1;
(1) (B) B = 200 g mol–1; C = 10,000 g mol–1]
(2) (C) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) (A) and (C) (1) A > C > B (2) C > B > A
(4) (A)
(3) A > B > C (4) B > C > A
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34. How much amount of NaCl should be added to 600 [Assume 100% ionisation of the complex and CaCl2,
g of water ( = 1.00 g/mL) to decrease the coordination number of Cr as 6, and that all NH3
freezing point of water to –0.2°C? ________. molecules are present inside the coordination sphere]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(The freezing point depression constant for water =
2 K kg mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2020] 40. W hen 9.45 g of ClCH 2 COOH is added to
500 mL of water, its freezing point drops by 0.5°C.
35. A cylinder containing an ideal gas (0.1 mol of The dissociation constant of ClCH2COOH is x ×
1.0 dm3) is in thermal equilibrium with a large volume 10–3. The value of x is _______. (Rounded off to
of 0.5 molal aqueous solution of ethylene glycol at the nearest integer)
its freezing point. If the stoppers S1 and S2 (as shown
in the figure) are suddenly withdrawn, the volume [K f (H2O )  1.86 K kg mol1 ] [JEE (Main)-2021]
of the gas in litres after equilibrium is achieved will
41. C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at which a
be ________ . solution of 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of C6H6 freeze
(Given, Kf (water) = 2.0 K kg mol–1, R = 0.08 dm 3 is ____ °C. (The molal freezing point depression
atm K–1 mol–1) constant of C6H6 is 5.12°C/m.)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
42. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3 is
60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1
atm is __________ K. (Rounded-off to the nearest
integer)
[Given Kb for (H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
43. If a compound AB dissociates to the extent of 75%
[JEE (Main)-2020] in an aqueous solution, the molality of the solution
36. If 250 cm3 of an aqueous solution containing 0.73 which shows a 2.5 K rise in the boiling point of the
solution is ____ molal. (Rounded-off to the nearest
g of a protein A is isotonic with one litre of another
integer)
aqueous solution containing 1.65 g of a protein B,
at 298 K, the ratio of the molecular masses of A [Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021]
and B is __________ × 10 –2 (to the nearest 44. 224 mL of SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 atm is passed
integer). [JEE (Main)-2020] through 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. The non-
volatile solute produced is dissolved in 36 g of
37. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution water. The lowering of vapour pressure of solution
containing 1 mole of n-hexane and 3 moles of n- (assuming the solution is dilute)
heptane is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature,
if one more mole of n-heptane is added to this
P

H2 O   24 mm of Hg 
is x × 10–2 mm of Hg, the
value of x is _________. (Integer answer)
solution, the vapour pressure of the solution
increases by 10 mm of Hg. What is the vapour [JEE (Main)-2021]
pressure in mm Hg of n-heptane in its pure 45. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g
state ______? [JEE (Main)-2020] of water, the freezing point of solution was found to
be –0.93°C (Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1). The
38. The osmotic pressure of a solution of NaCl is 0.10
number (n) of benzoic acid molecules associated
atm and that of a glucose solution is (assuming 100% association) is __________.
0.20 atm. The osmotic pressure of a solution
formed by mixing 1 L of the sodium chloride [JEE (Main)-2021]
solution with 2 L of the glucose solution is 46. AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and B–.
x × 10–3 atm. x is _____. (nearest integer) The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous solution
of AB2 is __________°C. (Round off to the Nearest
[JEE (Main)-2020] Integer)
39. The elevation of boiling point of 0.10 m aqueous [Given : Molal elevation constant of water Kb = 0.5
CrCl3.xNH3 solution is two times that of 0.05 m K kg mol–1 boiling point of pure water = 100°C]
aqueous CaCl2 solution. The value of x is ______. [JEE (Main)-2021]

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47. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and 53. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 70 torr
that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and 2 moles and that of methyl benzene is 20 torr. The mole
of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is fraction of benzene in the vapor phase at 20°C
ideal, the vapour pressure of the mixture is above an equimolar mixture of benzene and methyl
___________ kPa. benzene is ________ × 10–2. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Round off to the Nearest Integer] (Nearest integer)
[JEE (Main)-2021] 54. The vapour pressures of A and B at 25°C are 90
48. The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal mm Hg and 15 mm Hg respectively. If A and B are
aqueous solution is ____ × 10–2. mixed such that the mole fraction of A in the
mixture is 0.6, then the mole fraction of B in the
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
vapour phase is x × 10 –1 . The value of x is
[Given : Atomic masses : H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u] ________. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] 55. W hich one of the following 0.06 M aqueous
49. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial solutions has lowest freezing point?
pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water. The [JEE (Main)-2021]
molar solubility of oxygen in water is _________ ×
10–5 mol dm–3. (1) Kl (2) Al2(SO4)3
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). (3) C6H12O6 (4) K2SO4
[Given : Henry’s law constant = KH = 8.0 × 104 kPa 56. CO2 gas is bubbled through water during a soft
for O2. drink manufacturing process at 298 K. If CO 2
exerts a partial pressure of 0.835 bar then x m mol
Density of water with dissolved oxygen
= 1.0 kg dm –3] of CO2 would dissolve in 0.9 L of water. The value
of x is _______. (Nearest integer)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(Henry’s law constant for CO2 at 298 K is 1.67 ×
50. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of 103 bar) [JEE (Main)-2021]
dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to that
of another solution which contains 18.1 weight 57. When 3.00 g of a substance ‘X’ is dissolved
percent of a non electrolytic solute A. The molar in 100 g of CCl4, it raises the boiling point by 0.60
mass of A is ______ u. (Round off to the Nearest K. The molar mass of the substance ‘X’ is
Integer). ________ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)
[Density of water = 1.0 g cm –3] [Given Kb for CCl4 is 5.0 K kg mol–1]
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
51. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing 58. 1.46 g of a biopolymer dissolved in a 100 mL
point of 3.885°C. The degree of dissociation of this water at 300 K exerted an osmotic pressure of 2.42
acid is _____ × 10–3. × 10–3 bar.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). The molar mass of the biopolymer is ________ ×
[Given : Molal depression constant of water = 104 g mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
1.85 K kg mol–1 [Use : R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1]
Freezing point of pure water = 0°C] [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] 59. In a solvent 50% of an acid HA dimerizes and the
52. A solute A dimerizes in water. The boiling point of rest dissociates. The van’t Hoff factor of the acid is
a 2 molal solution of A is 100.52°C. The percentage ______ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
association of A is ______. (Round off to the
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Nearest Integer).
60. Of the following four aqueous solutions, total
[Use : Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1
number of those solutions whose freezing point is
Boiling point of water = 100°C] lower than that of 0.10 M C2H5OH is _______.
[JEE (Main)-2021] (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(i) 0.10 M Ba3(PO4)2 (ii) 0.10 M Na2SO4 [Given : Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1; Density of water =
1.00 g cm–3; Freezing point of water = 273.15 K]
(iii) 0.10 M KCl (iv) 0.10 M Li3PO4
64. W hich one of the following 0.10 M aqueous
61. 83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water.
The freezing point of the solution is _____ K. solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Glycine (2) KHSO4
[Use : Molal freezing point depression constant
of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1, (3) Hydrazine (4) Glucose
Freezing point of water = 273 K, 65. 1.22 g of an organic acid is separately dissolved in
100 g of benzene (Kb = 2.6 K kg mol–1) and 100
Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, O : 16.0 u, H : 1.0 u]
g of acetone (Kb = 1.7 K kg mol–1). The acid is
62. 1 kg of 0.75 molal aqueous solution of sucrose can known to dimerize in benzene but remain as a
be cooled up to –4ºC before freezing. The amount monomer in acetone. The boiling point of the
of ice (in g) that will be separated out is _______. solution in acetone increases by 0.17°C. The
(Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] increase in boiling point of solution in benzene in
[Given : Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1] °C is x × 10–2. The value of x is _______. (Nearest
integer)
63. 40 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180) is mixed with
200 mL of water. The freezing point of solution is [Atomic mass : C = 12.0, H = 1.0, O = 16.0]
_____ K. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 11

Electrochemistry
o o Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising
1. Given EFe3 = – 0.036 V, EFe2 = – 0.439 V
Fe Fe agent will be [JEE (Main)-2013]

The value of standard electrode potential for the (1) Cl– (2) Cr3+
3
change, Fe(aq) + e–  Fe2+ (aq) will be (3) Mn2+ (4) MnO4–
[AIEEE-2009]
6. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is
(1) 0.385 V (2) 0.770 V 50 . The specific conductance of the solution is
(3) – 0.270 V (4) – 0.072 V 1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the
same electrolyte is 280 . The molar conductivity
2. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition Al2O3 at
500°C is as follows of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m 2 mol–1
is [JEE (Main)-2014]
2 4 (1) 5 × 10–4 (2) 5 × 10–3
Al2O3  Al  O2 , r G  966kJ mol1
3 3
(3) 5 × 103 (4) 5 × 102
The potential difference needed for electrolytic
7. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at
reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at least
[AIEEE-2010] concentration C and at infinite dilution are C and
, respectively. The correct relationship between
(1) 5.0 V (2) 4.5 V C and  is given as (where the constant B is
(3) 3.0 V (4) 2.5 V positive) [JEE (Main)-2014]
3. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is
(1)  C     (B )C (2)  C    – (B)C
50 . The specific conductance of the solution is
1.3 S m–1. If resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the
(3) C    – (B) C (4) C     (B) C
same electrolyte is 260 , its molar conductivity is
[AIEEE-2011] 8. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis
(1) 62.5 S m2 mol–1 of an aqueous solution of its salts is
(2) 6250 S m 2 mol–1 [JEE (Main)-2014]

(3) 6.25 × 10 –4 S m2 mol–1 (1) Ag (2) Ca

(4) 625 × 10 –4 S m2 mol–1 (3) Cu (4) Cr

4. The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, 9. Given below are the half-cell reactions
Ni2+/Ni, and Fe2+/Fe are – 0.76, – 0.23 and – 0.44 V Mn2+ + 2e–  Mn; E° = — 1.18 V
respectively. The reaction X + Y2+  x2+ + Y will
be spontaneous when [AIEEE-2012] (Mn3+ + e–  Mn2+); E° = + 1.51 V

(1) X = Ni, Y = Zn (2) X = Fe, Y = Zn The E° for 3 Mn2+  Mn + 2Mn3+ will be

[JEE (Main)-2014]
(3) X = Zn, Y = Ni (4) X = Ni, Y = Fe
(1) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur
5. Given
(2) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur
EoCr 3+ /Cr = – 0.74 V; EMnO
o
–
/Mn2+
=1.51V
4
(3) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur
EoCr O2– /Cr 3+ =1.33 V; o
ECl/Cl – =1.36 V (4) –0.33 V; the reaction will occur
2 7

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10. Two faraday of electricity is passed through a 16. In the cell

solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited Pt(s)|H2(g,1bar)|HCl(aq)|AgCl(s)|Ag(s)|Pt(s) the cell
at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu) potential is 0.92 V when a 10–6 molal HCl solution
[JEE (Main)-2015] is used. The standard electrode potential of (AgCl/
(1) 0 g (2) 63.5 g Ag,Cl–) electrode is
(3) 2 g
11. Galvanization is applying a coating of
(4) 127 g
Given,
2.303RT
F
 0.06 V at 298 K 
[JEE (Main)-2016] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 0.20 V (2) 0.40 V
(1) Cr (2) Cu
(3) 0.76 V (4) 0.94 V
(3) Zn (4) Pb
17. For the cell Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Mx+(aq)|
M(s), different
12. Given half cells and their standard electrode potentials
º º are given below
ECl –  1.36 V, ECr 3  –0.74 V
2 /Cl /Cr
x+ 3+ + 3+ 2+
M (aq)/ Au (aq)/ Ag (aq)/ Fe (aq)/ Fe (aq)/
º º M(s) Au(s) Ag(s) Fe (aq) Fe(s)
2+
ECr O2– /Cr 3 
 1.33 V, EMnO–
/Mn2 
 1.51 V
2 7 4
E°Mx+/M/(V) 1.40 0.80 0.77 – 0.44
Among the following, the strongest reducing agent
is [JEE (Main)-2017] If E 2   0.76 V, which cathode will give a
Zn /Zn
(1) Cr3+ (2) Cl– maximum value of E°cell per electron transferred?
(3) Cr (4) Mn2+ [JEE (Main)-2019]
13. How long (approximate) should water be (1) Fe2+/Fe (2) Ag+/Ag
electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes (3) Fe3+/Fe2+ (4) Au3+/Au
current so that the oxygen released can
18. Given the equilibrium constant :
completely burn 27.66 g of diborane? (Atomic
weight of B = 10.8 u) [JEE (Main)-2018] KC of the reaction :
(1) 6.4 hours Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq)  Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s) is

(2) 0.8 hours 10 × 1015, calculate the E0cell of this reaction at

(3) 3.2 hours 298 K
(4) 1.6 hours  RT 
14. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged 2.303 F at 298 K = 0.059 V  [JEE (Main)-2019]
using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of
(1) 0.4736 mV (2) 0.4736 V
PbSO4 electrolyzed in g during the process is
(Molar mass of PbSO4 = 303 g mol–1) (3) 0.04736 V (4) 0.04736 mV
–
[JEE (Main)-2019] 19. The standard electrode potential E and its
(1) 7.6 (2) 15.2  dE 
–

temperature coefficient   for a cell are 2 V and

dT 
(3) 11.4 (4) 22.8
– 5 × 10–4 VK–1 at 300 K respectively. The cell
15. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is 2 V
reaction is
at 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)


reaction Zn(s)  Cu 2  (aq)  2
 Zn (aq)  Cu (s) –
The standard reaction enthalpy (rH ) at 300 K in
at 300 K is approximately
kJ mol–1 is,
(R = 8 JK–1mol–1, F = 96000 Cmol–1) [Use R = 8 JK–1 mol–1 and F = 96,000 C mol–1]
[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) e320 (2) e160 (1) 206.4 (2) –384.0
(3) e–160 (4) e–80 (3) –412.8 (4) 192.0

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 25. Which one of the following graphs between molar

20. m for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and
conductivity (m) versus C is correct?
100.5 S cm2mol–1, respectively. If the conductivity
of 0.001 M HA is 5 × 10 –5 S cm –1, degree of [JEE (Main)-2019]
dissociation of HA is [JEE (Main)-2019]

KC
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.125

l
(1) (2)
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75 m KC Na m Na
l C Cl
- l
21. Given that EO
O2 /H2O  1.23 V;
C C
-
EO
S O2– /SO2 
 2.05 V;
2 8 4 Na
Cl
O -

KC
EBr2 /Br
 1.09 V; (3) (4)

l
m Na K m
C Cl
EO
-
 1.4 V l
Au3  / Au
C C
The strongest oxidizing agent is
26. Given :
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Co3+ + e–  Co2+ ; E° = +1.81 V
(1) Br2 (2) Au3+
Pb4+ + 2e–  Pb2+ ; E° = +1.67 V
(3) S2O82 (4) O2
Ce4+ + e–  Ce3+ ; E° = +1.61 V
22. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the
Bi3+ + 3e–  Bi ; E° = +0.20 V
cell in which following reaction takes place :
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+(aq)  Fe3+(aq) + Ag(s) Oxidizing power of the species will increase in the
order : [JEE (Main)-2019]
Given that
(1) Co3+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+ < Pb4+
EoAg /Ag  x V
(2) Co3+ < Pb4+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+
o
EFe 2
/Fe
yV (3) Ce4+ < Pb4+ < Bi3+ < Co3+
o
EFe 3 zV [JEE (Main)-2019] (4) Bi3+ < Ce4+ < Pb4+ < Co3+
/Fe
27. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the
(1) x – y (2) x + y – z
following aqueous solutions is: [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) x + 2y – 3z (4) x – z
0.1 M Formic acid (A),
23. The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell
reaction in kJ mol–1 at 298 K is 0.1 M Acetic acid (B),

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s), 0.1 M Benzoic acid (C),

E° = 2 V at 298 K (1) A > B > C

(Faraday’s constant, F = 96000 C mol–1) (2) A > C > B
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) C > B > A
(1) 192 (2) 384 (4) C > A > B
(3) –384 (4) –192 28. Given that the standard potentials (E ° ) of
24. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between Cu2+/Cu and Cu+ / Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V
platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. respectively, the E° of Cu2+/Cu+ is:
How many mole of Ni will be deposited at the
[JEE (Main)-2020]
cathode? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.15 (1) +0.158 V (2) –0.158 V

(3) 0.10 (4) 0.05 (3) –0.182 V (4) 0.182 V

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29. The equation that is incorrect is (1) Silver and gold in equal mass proportion
[JEE (Main)-2020] (2) Silver and gold in proportion to their atomic
weights
(1)  m  NaBr –  m  NaCl  m  KBr –   m  KCl (3) Only gold
(4) Only silver
(2)  m  H O=  m  HCl  m  NaOH–   m  NaCl
2 32. The variation of molar conductivity with concentration
of an electrolyte (X) in aqueous solution is shown in
(3)  m  NaBr –  m  Nal  m  KBr –   m  NaBr the given figure.

(4)  m  KCl –  m  NaCl  m  KBr –   m  NaBr Molar

Conductivity

Eext
30.
C
The electrolyte X is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) NaCl
(2) HCl
Zn rod Cu rod (3) CH3COOH
– ve + ve (4) KNO3
Salt
1M Bridge 1M 33. For the given cell;
ZnSO4 CuSO4 Cu(s)|Cu2+(C1M)||Cu2+(C2M)|Cu(s)
soln. soln.
change in Gibbs energy (G) is negative, if
[JEE (Main)-2020]

E0  0.34 V C1
Cu2 |Cu (1) C2  2C1 (2) C2 
2
E0 2  0.76 V (3) C1 = 2C2 (4) C1 = C2
Zn |Zn
34. What would be the electrode potential for the given
Identify the incorrect statement from the option half cell reaction at pH = 5? _________.
below for the above cell [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) If Eext < 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at anode and Cu
deposits at cathode 2H2O O2  4H  4e – ; Ered
0
1.23 V
(2) If Eext = 1.1 V, no flow of e– or current occurs (R = 8.314 J mol–1K–1; Temp = 298 K; oxygen
(3) If Eext > 1.1 V, e– flows from Cu to Zn under std. atm. pressure of 1 bar)
35. For an electrochemical cell
(4) If Eext > 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at Zn electrode
and Cu deposits at Cu electrode Sn(s)|Sn2+(aq, 1M)||Pb2+(aq, 1M)|Pb(s)

31. 250 mL of a waste solution obtained from the [Sn2 ]

workshop of a goldsmith contains 0.1 M AgNO3 and the ratio when this cell attains equilibrium
[Pb2 ]
0.1 M AuCl. The solution was electrolyzed at 2V
by passing a current of 1A for 15 minutes. The is __________.
metal/metals electrodeposited will be  Given : E0
Sn2 |Sn
 0.14V,

E0   0.80V, E0  1.69V  2.303RT 

 Ag /Ag Au /Au  E0  0.13V,  0.06 
Pb2 |Pb F 
[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2020]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

36. 108 g of silver (molar mass 108 g mol –1 ) is 41. An oxidation-reduction reaction in which 3 electrons
deposited at cathode from AgNO3(aq) solution by are transferred has a G 0 of 17.37 kJ mol–1 at
a certain quantity of electricity. The volume (in L) 25°C. The value of Eocell (in V) is _____ × 10–2.
of oxygen gas produced at 273 K and
1 bar pressure from water by the same quantity of (1 F = 96,500 C mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2020]
electricity is ______. [JEE (Main)-2020] 42. Potassium chlorate is prepared by the electrolysis
37. The Gibbs energy change (in J) for the given reaction of KCl in basic solution
at [Cu2+] = [Sn2+] = 1 M and 298 K is:
6OH  Cl  ClO3  3H2O  6e
Cu(s) + Sn2+(aq.)  Cu2+(aq.) + Sn(s);
If only 60% of the current is utilized in the
(E0 2  0.16 V, E0 2  0.34 V reaction, the time (rounded to the nearest hour)
Sn |Sn Cu |Cu
required to produce 10 g of KClO3 using a current
Take F = 96500 C mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2020] of 2 A is_________.
38. For the disproportionation reaction (Given : F = 96,500 C mol–1; molar mass of KCIO3
2Cu (aq)  Cu(s) + Cu (aq) at 298 K. ln K
+ 2+
= 122 g mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(where K is the equilibrium constant) is 43. The magnitude of the change in oxidising power of
___________ × 10–1.
the MnO 4 / Mn2  couple is x × 10–4 V, if the H+
Given :
concentration is decreased from 1 M to 10–4 M at
 E0 2 
Cu /Cu
 0.16 V
25ºC. (Assume concentration of MnO 4 and Mn2+

E0  0.52 V to be same on change in H+ concentration). The value

Cu /Cu
of x is ______ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
RT 
 0.025  [JEE (Main)-2020]  2.303 RT 
F   0.059 
 Given; F 
[JEE (Main)-2021]
39. The photoelectric current from Na (work function, w0
= 2.3 eV) is stopped by the output voltage of the 44. Copper reduces NO3 into NO and NO2 depending
cell
upon the concentration of HNO 3 in solution.
Pt(s)|H2(g, 1 bar)|HCl(aq., pH = 1)|AgCl(s)|Ag(s).
(Assuming fixed [Cu2+] and PNO  PNO2 = 1 bar),
The pH of aq. HCl required to stop the photoelectric
current from K(w0 = 2.25 eV), all other conditions the HNO3 concentration at which the thermodynamic
remaining the same, is ______ × 10–2 (to the tendency for reduction of NO3 into NO and NO2 by
nearest integer).
copper is same is 10x M. The value of 2x is ______.
(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
RT
Given, 2.303  0.06 V; E0  0.22 V
F AgCl|Ag|Cl   
[Given, ECu 2
/Cu
 0.34 V, ENO 
/NO
 0.96 V, ENO 
/NO
3 3 2

[JEE (Main)-2020]
40. An acidic solution of dichromate is electrolyzed for RT
= 0.79 V and at 298 K, (2.303)  0.059]
8 minutes using 2 A current. As per the following F
equation [JEE (Main)-2021]

Cr2O72 14H  6e  2Cr 3  7H2O 45. Consider the following reaction
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–  Mn+2 + 4H2O, E° = 1.51 V.
The amount of Cr3+ obtained was 0.104 g. The
efficiency of the process (in%) is (Take : The quantity of electricity required in Faraday to
F = 96000 C, At. mass of chromium = 52) ______. reduce five moles of MnO4– is _________.

[JEE (Main)-2020] (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]

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46. Emf of the following cell at 298 K in V is x × 10–2. 52. Assume a cell with the following reaction
Zn|Zn2+ (0.1 M)||Ag+ (0.01 M)|Ag Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (1 × 10–3 M)  Cu2+ (0.250 M) + 2
Ag(s)
The value of x is _________. (Rounded off to the
nearest integer) E
cell  2.97 V

[Given : E Zn2  / Zn   0.76 V; Ecell for the above reaction is ______ V. (Nearest
integer)
2.303RT [Given : log 2.5 = 0.3979, T = 298 K]
EAg / Ag  0.80 V;  0.059 ]
F [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] 53. Consider the cell at 25°C
47. A 5.0 m mol dm–3 aqueous solution of KCl has a Zn|Zn2+(aq), (1 M) || Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s)
conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in a cell of The fraction of total iron present as Fe3+ ion at the
cell constant 1.3 cm–1. The molar conductivity of this cell potential of 1.500 V is x × 10–2. The value of
solution is ______________ mSm 2 mol–1. x is _____. (Nearest integer)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(Given : E0  0.77 V, E0  –0.76 V)
Fe3 /Fe2 Zn2 /Zn
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
48. A KCI solution of conductivity 0.14 Sm –1 shows a
resistance of 4.19  in a conductivity cell. If the same 54. The conductivity of a weak acid HA of concentration
cell is filled with an HCI solution, the resistance drops 0.001 mol L–1 is 2.0 × 10–5 S cm–1.
of 1.03 . The conductivity of the HCI solution is º
If m (HA) = 190 S cm2 mol–1 , the ionization
_____ × 10–2 S m –1. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021] constant (Ka) of HA is equal to ______ × 10–6.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
49. For the reaction
[JEE (Main)-2021]
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I–(aq)  2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s)
55. For the cell Cu(s) | Cu2+ (aq) (0.1 M) || Ag+ (aq) (0.01
the magnitude of the standard molar free energy M) | Ag(s) the cell potential E1 = 0.3095 V
 For the cell Cu(s) | Cu2+ (aq) (0.01 M) || Ag+ (aq)
change, r Gm = – _____ kJ
(0.001 M) Ag(s) the cell potential = _____ × 10–2 V.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
EFe2  /Fe(s)  0.440 V; EFe3  /Fe(s)  0.036 V  2.303 RT
  [Use :  0.059 ] [JEE (Main)-2021]
EI /2I  0.539 V; F  96500C  F
 2 
56. Given below are two statements :
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of
50. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of barium KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher
chloride, sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid are compared to that of CH3COOH
280, 860 and 426 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar (weak electrolyte).
conductivity at infinite dilution of barium sulphate is Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with
______ S cm2 mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest decrease in concentration of
Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021] electrolyte.
51. Potassium chlorate is prepared by electrolysis of In the light of the above
KCl in basic solution as shown by following equation. statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the
6OH  Cl  ClO 3  3H2O  6e  options given below :
A current of xA has to be passed for 10 h to (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
produce 10.0 g of potassium chlorate. The value (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
of x is _________. (Nearest integer)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(Molar mass of KClO3 = 122.6 g mol–1, F = 96500 C)
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
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57. For the galvanic cell, 60. Match List-I with List-II.

Zn(s) + Cu2 (0.02 M)  Zn2 (0.04 M) + Cu(s), List-I List-II

(Parameter) (Unit)
Ecell = _____ × 10–2 V. (Nearest integer)
(a) Cell constant (i) S cm 2 mol–1
o o
[Use : ECu/Cu2   0.34 V , E Zn/ Zn2   0.76 V ,
(b) Molar conductivity (ii) Dimensionless
2.303 RT (c) Conductivity (iii) m–1
 0.059 V ] [JEE (Main)-2021]
F
(d) Degree of (iv) –1 m–1
58. The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell
constant 1.14 cm –1, containing 0.001 M KCl at dissociation of
298 K is 1500 . The molar conductivity of electrolyte
0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K in S cm 2 mol–1 is
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
_____. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
options given below [JEE (Main)-2021]
59. Consider the following cell reaction
(1) (a)-(iii), b(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
9
Cd(s)  Hg2 SO 4(s)  H2 O(l)  (2) (a)-(i), b(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
5
9 (3) (a)-(ii), b(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
CdSO 4  H2 O(s)  2Hg(l) .
5 (4) (a)-(iii), b(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
The value of E 0
cell
is 4.315 V at 25°C. If Ho = –825.2 61. If the conductivity of mercury at 0ºC is 1.07 × 106 S
kJ mol–1, the standard entropy change So in J K– m–1 and the resistance of a cell containing mercury
1 is _______. (Nearest integer)
is 0.243 , then the cell constant of the cell is x ×
[Given : Faraday constant = 96487 C mol–1] 104 m–1. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 12

Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry

1. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction 5. For a first order reaction, (A)  products, the
is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be in 40 minutes. The rate of reaction when the
(log 2 = 0.301) [AIEEE-2009] concentration of A is 0.01M, is [AIEEE-2012]
(1) 23.03 minutes (2) 46.06 minutes (1) 3.47 × 10–4 M/min (2) 3.47 × 10–5 M/min
(3) 460.6 minutes (4) 230.3 minutes (3) 1.73 × 10–4 M/min (4) 1.73 × 10–5 M/min
2. Consider the reaction
6. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
Cl2 (aq) + H2S (aq)  S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of
The rate equation for this reaction is such a reaction will be [JEE (Main)-2013]
rate = k [Cl2] [H2S] (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 and log2 = 0.301)
Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with (1) 53.6 kJ mol–1 (2) 48.6 kJ mol–1
this rate equation?
(3) 58.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 60.5 kJ mol–1
A. Cl2 + H2S  H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)
7. For the non-stoichiometre reaction 2A + B  C +
Cl+ + HS–  H+ + Cl– + S (fast) D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three
B. H2S  H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium) separate experiments, all at 298 K.
Cl2 + HS–  2Cl– + H+ + S (slow)
Initial Initial Initial rate of
[AIEEE-2010] Concentration Concentration formation of C
(1) A only (2) B only (A) (B) (mol L–1s–1)
(3) Both (A) & (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B) 0.1 M 0.1 M 1.2 × 10 –3
3. The time for half life period of a certain reaction 0.1 M 0.2 M 1.2 × 10 –3
0.2 M 0.1 M 2.4 × 10 –3
A  Products is 1 h. W hen the initial
concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L–1, The rate law for the formation of C is
how much time does it take for its concentration [JEE (Main)-2014]
to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is a zero
dC dC
order reaction? [AIEEE-2010] (1)  k[A] [B] (2)  k[A]2 [B]
dt dt
(1) 1 h (2) 4 h
(3) 0.5 h (4) 0.25 h dC dC
(3)  k[A] [B]2 (4)  k[A]
4. A reactant (A) forms two products : dt dt

A 
1 k
 B , Activation energy Ea1 8. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to
[JEE (Main)-2015]
k
A 
2
C , Activation energy Ea2 (1) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all
the reacting species
If Ea2  2Ea1 , then k1 and k2 are related as
(2) Increase in entropy and activation energy as
[AIEEE-2011] more molecules are involved

(1) k 1  k 2 eE a1 /RT (2) k1  2k 2eEa2 /RT (3) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to
elastic collisions
(3) k 2  k1eEa1 /RT (4) k 2  k1eEa2 /RT (4) Loss of active species on collision

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9. Decomposition of H 2 O 2 follows a first order 14. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying
reaction. In fifty minutes, the concentration of H2O2 Arrhenius equation (0°C < T < 300°C) : (k and Ea
decreases from 0.5 to 0.25 M in one such are rate constant and activation energy,
decomposition. When the concentration of H2O2 respectively)
reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O2 will be
[JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) 6.93 × 10–4 mol min–1
(2) 2.66 L min–1 at STP k k

(3) 1.34 × 10–2 mol min–1

(4) 6.93 × 10–2 mol min–1
10. Two reactions R 1 and R 2 have identical pre- Ea T(°C)
exponential factors. Activation energy of R 1 I II
exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ mol–1. If k1 and k2 are Choose the correct option: [JEE (Main)-2019]
rate constants for reactions R1 and R2 respectively
(1) I is wrong but II is right
at 300 K, then ln(k2/k1) is equal to
(R = 8.314 J mole–1 K–1) [JEE (Main)-2017] (2) Both I and II are correct

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) Both I and II are wrong

(3) 8 (4) 12 (4) I is right but II is wrong
11. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of 15. W hich of the following is not an example of
gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of heterogeneous catalytic reaction?
363 torr, was 1.00 torr s–1 when 5% had reacted
and 0.5 torr s–1 when 33% had reacted. The order [JEE (Main)-2019]
of the reaction is [JEE (Main)-2018] (1) Combustion of coal
(1) 2 (2) 3 (2) Ostwald’s process
(3) 1 (4) 0
(3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils
12. The following results were obtained during kinetic
studies of the reaction ; 2 A + B Products (4) Haber’s process

[A] [B] Initial Rate of reaction 16. For an elementary chemical reaction,
Experiment
(in mol L–1) (in mol L–1) (in mol L–1 min–1)
d A 
–3

k1
A 2  
 2A , the expression for is
I 0.10 0.20 6.93 × 10 k –1 dt
–3
II 0.10 0.25 6.93 × 10
–2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
III 0.20 0.30 1.386 × 10
(1) k1 [A2] + k–1 [A]2
The time (in minutes) required to consume half of
A is [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) 2k1 [A2] – 2k–1 [A]2
(1) 100 (2) 1 (3) 2k1 [A2] – k–1 [A]2
(3) 5 (4) 10 (4) k1 [A2] – k–1 [A]2
13. For the reaction, 2A + B  products, when the 17. If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation, the plot
concentration of A and B both were doubled, the
rate of the reaction increased from 0.3 mol L–1s–1 1
Ink vs
to 2.4 mol L–1s–1. When the concentration of A RT  gives straight line with a gradient
alone is doubled, the rate increased from 0.3 mol
(–y) unit. The energy required to activate the
L–1s–1 to 0.6 mol L–1s–1. Which one of the following
reactant is [JEE (Main)-2019]
statements is correct? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Order of the reaction with respect to A is 2 (1) yR unit

(2) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 1 (2) y/R unit

(3) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 2 (3) –y unit
(4) Total order of the reaction is 4 (4) y unit

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18. The reaction 2X  B is a zeroth order reaction. If 22. For the reaction 2A + B  C, the values of initial
the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-life rate at different reactant concentrations are given in
is 6 h. When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 the table below. The rate law for the reaction is
M, the time required to reach its final Initial Rate
concentration of 0.2 M will be [JEE (Main)-2019] [A](mol L1) [B](mol L1)
(mol L1 s1 )
(1) 12.0 h (2) 7.2 h
0.05 0.05 0.045
(3) 9.0 h (4) 18.0 h 0.10 0.05 0.090
19. The correct match between Item I and Item II is 0.20 0.10 0.72
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Item I Item II
(1) Rate = k[A]2[B]2 (2) Rate = k[A][B]
(A) Allosteric effect (P) Molecule binding to
(3) Rate = k[A]2[B] (4) Rate = k[A][B]2
the active site of
enzyme k1
23. For a reaction scheme A  k2
B  C, if the
(B) Competitive (Q) Molecule crucial for rate of formation of B is set to be zero then the
inhibitor communication in concentration of B is given by : [JEE (Main)-2019]
thebody
(1) k1k 2[A] (2) (k1 – k2) [A]
(C) Receptor (R) Molecule binding to
a site other than the k 
active site of enzyme (3)  1   A  (4) (k1 + k2) [A]
 k2 
(D) Poison (S) Molecule binding
24. The given plots represent the variation of the
to the enzyme concentration of a reactant R with time for two
covalently different reactions (i) and (ii). The respective orders
of the reactions are
(1) (A)  (P); (B) (R); (C)  (S); (D)  (Q)
(2) (A)  (R); (B) (P); (C)  (Q); (D)  (S)
(3) (A)  (P); (B) (R); (C)  (Q); (D)  (S) In [R] [R]
(4) (A)  (R); (B) (P); (C)  (S); (D)  (Q)
20. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of
0.05 g/year. How many years are required for the Time Time
decomposition of 5 g of X into 2.5 g? (i) (ii)
[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 40 (2) 20 (1) 0, 1 (2) 1, 1
(3) 50 (4) 25 (3) 1, 0 (4) 0, 2
21. For a reaction, consider the plot of In k versus 1/ 25. Consider the given plot of enthalpy of the following
T given in the figure. If the rate constant of this reaction between A and B.
reaction at 400 K is 10 –5 s –1 , then the rate
A B  CD
constant at 500 K is
Identify the incorrect statement.
Enthalpy (kJ mol–1)

In k 20
Slope = – 4606 K
15
10
D
1/T 5
[JEE (Main)-2019] A+ B
C
(1) 4 × 10–4 s–1 (2) 10–6 s–1 Reaction Coordinate
(3) 2 × 10–4 s–1 (4) 10–4 s–1 [JEE (Main)-2019]

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(1) Activation enthalpy to form C is 5 kJ mol–1 (1) 1.667 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1
less than that to form D
(2) 4.167 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1
(2) D is kinetically stable product
(3) 8.333 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1
(3) Formation of A and B from C has highest (4) 2.083 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1
enthalpy of activation
30. For the reaction
(4) C is the thermodynamically stable product
26. A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as 2H2 (g)  2NO(g)  N2 (g)  2H2O(g)
N(t) = N0exp(t), where the time t is in hours. A the observed rate expression is,
dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to
reach the wound. Once it reaches there, the rate = k f[NO]2[H2]. The rate expression for the
reverse reaction is : [JEE (Main)-2020]
dN
bacterial population goes down as = – 5N2. (1) kb[N2][H2O]2/[NO] (2) kb[N2][H2O]
dt
N (3) kb[N2][H2O]2 (4) kb[N2][H2O]2/[H2]
What will be the plot of 0 vs. t after 1 hour ?
N 31. The rate of a certain biochemical reaction at
[JEE (Main)-2019] physiological temperature (T) occurs 106 times faster
with enzyme than without. The change in the
activation energy upon adding enzyme is
N0 N0
(1) (2) [JEE (Main)-2020]
N N
t (h) t (h) (1) – 6RT (2) + 6RT
(3) + 6(2.303)RT (4) – 6(2.303)RT
N0 32. Consider the following plots of rate constant versus
(3) (4) N0
N N 1
for four different reactions. W hich of the
t (h) t (h) T
following orders is correct for the activation
27. For the reaction of H2 with I2, the rate constant energies of these reactions?
is 2.5 × 10 –4 dm 3 mol –1 s –1 at 327°C and
1.0 dm3 mol–1 s–1 at 527°C. The activation energy
for the reaction, in kJ mol–1 is : log k a
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1) [JEE (Main)-2019] d c
(1) 150 (2) 59
b
(3) 72 (4) 166
28. In the following reaction; xA  yB 1/T
[JEE (Main)-2020]
 d[A]   d[B]  (1) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec (2) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb
log10    log10   0.3010
 dt   dt 
(3) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb (4) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea
‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively can be [JEE (Main)-2019]
33. For following reactions
(1) C2H4 and C4H8 700 K
A   Product
(2) N2O4 and NO2
500 K
(3) n-Butane and Iso-butane A 
catalyst
 Product

(4) C2H2 and C6H6 it was found that the E a is decreased by

29. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by the 30 kJ/ mol in the presence of catalyst. If the rate
decomposition of N2O5 in CCI4 as per the equation, remains unchanged, the activation energy for
catalysed reaction is (Assume pre exponential factor
2N2O5(g)  4 NO2(g) + O2(g). is same) [JEE (Main)-2020]
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3.00 mol L–1 (1) 75 kJ/mol (2) 198 kJ/mol
and it is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes. The rate
of formation of NO 2 is [JEE (Main)-2019] (3) 105 kJ/mol (4) 135 kJ/mol

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34. Consider the reaction sequence given below: dnA 3 dnB 3 dnC
(1)  
dt 2 dt 4 dt
OH
Br OH + Br ...(1)
H 2O
rate = k[t-BuBr] dn A dnB dnC
(2)  
dt dt dt
CH 3 dnA 2 dnB 4 dnC
OH (3)  
+ HOH + Br ...(2) dt 3 dt 3 dt
C 2H 5OH H 2C CH 3
rate = k[t-BuBr][OH ] dnA 2 dnB 3 dnC
(4)  
dt 3 dt 4 dt
Which of the following statements is true?
38. A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B.
[JEE (Main)-2020] Both compounds decompose by first-order
(1) Changing the concentration of base will have kinetics. The half-lives for A and B are 300 s and
no effect on reaction (2) 180 s, respectively. lf the concentrations of A and
B are equal initially, the time required for the
(2) Changing the concentration of base will have concentration of A to be four times that of B (in s)
no effect on reaction (1) is : (Use In 2 = 0.693) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Changing the base from OH to OR will have (1) 120 (2) 300
no effect on reaction (2)
(3) 180 (4) 900
(4) Doubling the concentration of base will double
39. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at
the rate of both the reactions
different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted
35. The results given in the below table were obtained in the given figure. The activation energy of the
during kinetic studies of the following reaction reaction in kJ mol–1 is (R is gas constant)
2 A + B C + D
10
[A] / [B] / Initial rate /
Experiment
mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1 min–1 In k
–3 5
I 0.1 0.1 6.00  10
II 0.1 0.2 2.40  10 –2
III 0.2 0.1 1.20  10 –2 0
1 2 3 4 5
IV X 0.2 7.20  10 –2
103
V 0.3 Y 2.88  10 –1 T
[JEE (Main)-2020]
X and Y in the given table are respectively
(1) 1/R (2) 2/R
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) 2R (4) R
(1) 0.4, 0.3 (2) 0.3, 0.4
40. Consider the following reactions
(3) 0.4, 0.4 (4) 0.3, 0.3
A  P1 ; B  P2 ; C  P3 ; D  P4,
36. It is true that [JEE (Main)-2020]
The order of the above reactions are a, b, c, and
(1) A zero order reaction is a single step reaction d, respectively. The following graph is obtained
(2) A zero order reaction is a multistep reaction when log[rate] vs. log[conc.] are plotted

(3) A frist order reaction is always a single step [D] [B]

[A]
reaction
[C]
log [rate]

(4) A second order reaction is always a multistep

reaction

3
37. For the reaction 2A  3B  C  3P , which
2
statement is correct? [JEE (Main)-2020] log [conc.]

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Among the following, the correct sequence for the 48. For the reaction, aA + bB  cC +dD, the plot of
order of the reactions is [JEE (Main)-2020]
1
(1) d > b > a > c (2) d > a > b > c log k vs is given below:
T
(3) a > b > c > d (4) c > a > b > d
41. During the nuclear explosion, one of the products
is 90Sr with half life of 6.93 years. If 1 g of 90Sr
was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby log k
slope = –10000 K
in place of Ca, how much time, in years, is
required to reduce it by 90% if it is not lost
metabolically _________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
42. A sample of milk splits after 60 min. at 300 K and 1/T
after 40 min. at 400 K when the population of The temperature at which the rate constant of the
lactobacillus acidophilus in it doubles. The reaction is 10–4s–1 is ________ K.
activation energy (in kJ/mol) for this process is
(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
closest to ___________ . [JEE (Main)-2020]
[Given : The rate constant of the reaction is
2 10–5s–1 at 500 K.] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Given, R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1, ln    0.4, e–3 = 4.0)
3
49. The rate constant of a reaction increases by five
43. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 90
times on increase in temperature from 27°C to
minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be
completed in approximately (in minutes) _______. 52°C. The value of activation energy in kJ mol–1 is
_______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
(Take : log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)
[R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
50. An exothermic reaction X  Y has an activation
44. The number of molecules with energy greater than
energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change E during the
the threshold energy for a reaction increases five
fold by a rise of temperature from 27°C to 42°C. Its reaction is –20 kJ, then the activation energy for
energy of activation inJ/mol is _____. the reverse reaction in kJ is ________. (Integer
answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Take In 5 = 1.6094; R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
51. If the activation energy of a reaction is 80.9 kJ
[JEE (Main)-2020]
mol–1, the fraction of molecules at 700 K, having
45. The rate of a reaction decreased by 3.555 times enough energy to react to form products is e–x.
when the temperature was changed from 40°C to The value of x is _________. (Rounded off to the
30°C. The activation energy (in kJ mol –1 ) of nearest integer)
the reaction is _______. Take; R = 8.314 J mol–1
K–1 ln 3.555 = 1.268 [JEE (Main)-2020] [Use R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2021]

46. Gaseous cyclobutene isomerizes to butadiene in a 52. The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface
first order process which has a ‘k’ value of 3.3 × follows first order kinetics. If the rate constant at
10–4 s–1 at 153°C. The time in minutes it takes for 300 K is 1.0 × 10–3 s–1 and the activation energy
the isomerization to proceed 40% to completion at Ea = 11.488 kJ mol–1, the rate constant at 200 K
this temperature is __________. (Rounded off to is _____ × 10–5 s–1. (Round off to the Nearest
the nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021] Integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
47. Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose 53. A and B decompose via first order kinetics with
and fructose following first order rate law with a half- half-lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min respectively.
life of 3.33 h at 25ºC. After 9 h, the fraction of
Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture of
 1 A and B, the time taken for the concentration of
sucrose remaining is f. The value of log10   is
f A to becom e 16 times that of B is
______ × 10–2. (Rounded off to the nearest integer) ___________min.
[Assume : In 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693] (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
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54. For a certain first order reaction 32% of the reactant

is left after 570 s. The rate constant of this 1
60. N2O5(g)  2NO2(g)  O2(g)
reaction is __________ × 10–3 s–1. 2
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). In the above first order reaction the initial
[Given log102 = 0.301, ln10 = 2.303] concentration of N2O5 is 2.40 × 10–2 mol L–1 at
[JEE (Main)-2021] 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 1 hour was
1.60 × 10–2 mol L –1. The rate constant of the
55. The reaction 2A + B2  2AB is an elementary reaction at 318 K is ______ × 10–3 min–1. (Nearest
reaction. For a certain quantity of reactants. If the integer)
volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a
[Given : log 3 = 0.477, log 5 = 0.699]
factor of 3, the rate of the reaction increases by
a factor of _____. (Round off to the Nearest [JEE (Main)-2021]
Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021] 61. For the following graphs,

56. 2NO(g)  Cl2 (g)  2NOCl(s)

This reaction was studied at –10ºC and the
t1
following data was obtained Rate 2
run [NO]0 [Cl2]0 r0 (a) (b)
1 0.10 0.10 0.18 Initial
Time concentration
2 0.10 0.20 0.35
3 0.20 0.20 1.40

Concentration
Concentration
[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations and
r0 is the initial reaction rate.
The overall order of the reaction is ________. (c) (d)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Time Time
[JEE (Main)-2021]
57. A first order reaction has a half life of 1 min. The
time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction
is ______min. (Round off to the Nearest integer).

[Use : In 2 = 0.69; In 10 = 2.3] (e)

[JEE (Main)-2021]
58. The inactivation rate of a viral preparation is
proportional to the amount of virus. In the first Choose from the options given below, the correct
minute after preparation, 10% of the virus is one regarding order of reaction is
inactivated. The rate constant for viral inactivation
is ______ × 10–3 min–1. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
[Use : In 10 = 2.303; log10 3 = 0.477; (1) (a) and (b) Zero order
property of logarithm : log xy = y log x] (c) and (e) First order
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) (b) and (d) Zero order
59. PCI5(g)  PCI3(g) + CI2(g)
(e) First order
In the above first order reaction the concentration
of PCI 5 reduces from initial concentration (3) (a) and (b) Zero order
50 mol L–1 to 10 mol L–1 in 120 minutes at 300 (e) First order
K.The rate constant for the reaction at 300 K is x
× 10–2 min–1. The value of x is ________. (4) (b) Zero order
Given: log5 = 0.6989 [JEE (Main)-2021] (c) and (e) First order

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62. For a chemical reaction A  B, it was found that 67. The reaction that occurs in a breath analyser, a
concentration of B is increased by 0.2 mol L–1 in device used to determine the alcohol level in a
30 min. The average rate of the reaction is person’s blood stream is
________ × 10–1 mol L–1h–1. (in nearest integer)
2K2Cr2O7 + 8H2SO4 + 3C2H6O  2Cr2(SO4)3 +
[JEE (Main)-2021] 3C2H4O2 + 2K2SO4 + 11H2O
63. For a reaction of order n, the unit of the rate If the rate of appearance of Cr2(SO4)3 is 2.67 mol
constant is : min –1 at a particular time, the rate of
(1) mol1 – n L2n s–1 (2) mol1 – n L1 – n s–1 disappearance of C2H6O at the same time is _____
mol min–1. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) mol1 – n Ln – 1 s–1 (4) mol1 – n L1 – n s
68. The first order rate constant for the decomposition
[JEE (Main)-2021]
of CaCO 3 at 700 K is 6.36 × 10 –3 s –1 and
64. For the first order reaction A  2B, 1 mole of activation energy is 209 kJ mol–1. Its rate constant
reactant A gives 0.2 moles of B after 100 minutes. (in s–1) at 600 K is x × 10–6. The value of x is
The half life of the reaction is ________ min. _____. (Nearest integer)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1; log 6.36 × 10–3 =
[Use : In 2 = 0.69, In 10 = 2.3 –2.19, 10–4.79 = 1.62 × 10–5]
Properties of logarithms : In xy = y In x; [JEE (Main)-2021]
x
In   = In x – In y] 69. For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for
y 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50%
[JEE (Main)-2021] completion is _______. (Integer answer)
65. The following data was obtained for chemical [JEE (Main)-2021]
reaction given below at 975 K.
70. According to the following figure, the magnitude of
2NO(g) + 2H2(g)  N2(g)  2H2O(g) the enthalpy change of the reaction

[NO] [H2] Rate A  B  M  N in kJ mol–1

mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1s–1 is equal to _____. (Integer answer)
(A) 8 × 10–5 8 × 10–5 7 × 10–9
(B) 24 × 10–5 8 × 10–5 2.1 × 10–8 x x = 20 kJ mol
–1

A+ B –1
(C) 24 × 10–5 32 × 10–5 8.4 × 10–8 y = 45 kJ mol
–1
The order of the reaction with respect to NO is y z = 15 kJ mol
Energy

_____. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021] M+N

66. The reaction rate for the reaction z
[PtCl4]2– + H2O  [Pt(H2O)Cl3]– + Cl– Reaction Coordinate

was measured as a function of concentrations of

different species. It was observed that [JEE (Main)-2021]
71. For the reaction A  B, the rate constant k (in s–1)
d [PtCl4 ] 
2
is given by
 4.8  10 5 [PtCl4 ]2  
dt
(2.47  103 )
 2.4  10 3 Pt(H2 O)Cl3   [Cl ].

log10 k  20.35 
  T

where square brackets are used to denote molar The energy of activation in kJ mol–1 is ________.
concentrations. The equilibrium constant (Nearest integer)

Kc = _______. (Nearest integer) [Given : R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]

[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

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72. Which one of the following given graphs represents

the variation of rate constant (k) with temperature
(T) for an endothermic reaction?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) k

T
(1) k

(4) k
(2) k

T
T



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Chapter 13

Surface Chemistry

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect 1

(2) Only appears as the slope
regarding physissorptions? [AIEEE-2009] n
(1) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed  1
(3) log   appears as the intercept
readily n
(2) Under high pressure it results into multi 1
(4) Both k and appear in the slope term
molecular layer on adsorbent surface n
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption (Hadsorption) is low and 5. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following
positive conditions are satisfied [JEE (Main)-2017]

(4) It occurs because of van der Waal’s forces (a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is
much smaller than the wavelength of the light
2. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which
used.
of the following is correct? [AIEEE-2012]
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not
x
(1)  p1 much smaller than the wavelength of the light
m
used
x
(2)  p1 n (c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
m
and dispersion medium are almost similar in
x magnitude
(3)  p0
m
(d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
(4) All the above are correct for different ranges of and dispersion medium differ greatly in
pressure magnitude
3. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was
found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid 6. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption
adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is isotherm. In the given plot, x is the mass of the gas
[JEE (Main)-2015] adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent at pressure
x
(1) 18 mg (2) 36 mg p. is proportional to
m
(3) 42 mg (4) 54 mg

x 2 unit
x Log 4 unit
4. For a linear plot of log   'versus log p in a m
m
Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the Log P
following statements is correct? (k and n are [JEE (Main)-2019]
constants) [JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) p2 (2) p
1
(1) appears as the intercept (3) p
1
4 (4) p
1
2
n
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7. For coagulation of arsenious sulphide sol, which (3) Lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an
one of the following salt solution will be most electrolyte.
effective? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing
(1) Na3PO4 (2) AlCl3 electrified sand carrying charge opposite to the
(3) NaCl (4) BaCl2 one on clouds from an aeroplane.

8. Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of 13. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption
isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on
[JEE (Main)-2019] x
mass m of the adsorbent. The plot of log versus
(1) Negatively charged sols m
(2) Positively charged sols x
log p is shown in the given graph. is
m
(3) Positively and negatively charged proportional to
(4) Negatively and positively charged sols,
respectively
9. An example of solid sol is [JEE (Main)-2019] log x 2
m
(1) Butter (2) Hair cream 3

(3) Paint (4) Gem stones log p

10. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and [JEE (Main)-2019]
smoke (S), the correct combination of the
(1) p3/2 (2) p3
dispersed phase and dispersion medium,
respectively is [JEE (Main)-2019] (3) p2/3 (4) p2
(1) C : solid in liquid; M : liquid in liquid; S : gas 14. The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which
in solid
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in solid; S : solid
in gas (1) Solid is dispersed in gas

(3) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in liquid; S : solid (2) Gas is dispersed in solid
in gas (3) Liquid is dispersed in water
(4) C : solid in liquid; M : solid in liquid; S : solid (4) Gas is dispersed in liquid
in gas
15. 10 mL of 1 mM surfactant solution forms a
11. Given monolayer covering 0.24 cm2 on a polar substrate.
Gas H2 CH4 CO2 SO2 If the polar head is approximated as a cube, what
is its edge length? [JEE (Main)-2019]
Critical 33 190 304 630
(1) 2.0 pm
Temperature/K
(2) 2.0 nm
On the basis of data given above, predict which of
the following gases shows least adsorption on a (3) 0.1 nm
definite amount of charcoal? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) 1.0 pm
(1) SO2 (2) CO2
16. The principle of column chromatography is
(3) CH4 (4) H2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
12. Among the following, the false statement is
(1) Differential adsorption of the substances on the
[JEE (Main)-2019] solid phase.
(1) Tyndall effect can be used to distinguish (2) Gravitational force.
between a colloidal solution and a true
solution. (3) Differential absorption of the substances on the
solid phase.
(2) Latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles
which are positively charged (4) Capillary action.

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17. A gas undergoes physical adsorption on a surface hexane : ethyl acetate (20 : 80), the sequence of
and follows the given Freundlich adsorption obtained compounds is [JEE (Main)-2020]
isotherm equation (1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (C), (A) and (B)
x (3) (B), (C) and (A) (4) (B), (A) and (C)
 kp0.5
m 22. As per Hardy-Schulze formulation, the flocculation
Adsorption of the gas increases with values of the following for ferric hydroxide sol are
[JEE (Main)-2019] in the order [JEE (Main)-2020]

(1) Increase in p and decrease in T (1) AlCl3 > K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2CrO4 > KBr = KNO3

(2) Decrease in p and decrease in T (2) K3 [Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < KBr = KNO3 = AlCl3
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] > AlCl3 > K2CrO4 > KBr > KNO3
(3) Increase in p and increase in T
(4) K3[Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < AlCl3 < KBr < KNO3
(4) Decrease in p and increase in T
23. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct
18. The correct option among the following is :
option is
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Assertion : For hydrogenation reactions, the
(1) Colloidal medicines are more effective because catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to Group
they have small surface area. 11 metals with maximum activity shown by Group
(2) Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be 7-9 elements.
precipitated by electrophoresis. Reason : T he reactants are most strongly
adsorbed on group 7-9 elements.
(3) Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster
if the viscosity of the solution is very high. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
drinking. reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion.
19. Peptization is a : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Process of converting a colloidal solution into
precipitate (3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(2) Process of converting precipitate into colloidal (4) Both assertion and reason are true but the
solution reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(3) Process of converting soluble particles to form
colloidal solution 24. A mixture of gases O2, H2 and CO are taken in a
closed vessel containing charcoal. The graph that
(4) Process of bringing colloidal molecule into represents the correct behaviour of pressure with
solution time is [JEE (Main)-2020]
20. Among the following, the INCORRECT statement
Pressure

Pressure

about colloids is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) They can scatter light.
(1) (2)
(2) The range of diameters of colloidal particles is
between 1 and 1000 nm. Time Time
(3) The osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is
Pressure

Pressure

of higher order than the true solution at the

same concentration.
(4) They are larger than small molecules and have (3) (4)
high molar mass. Time Time
21. A chromatography column, packed with silica gel 25. Which of the following is used for the preparation
as stationary phase, was used to separate a of colloids? [JEE (Main)-2020]
mixture of compounds consisting of (A) benzanilide
(1) Van Arkel Method (2) Bredig’s Arc Method
(B) aniline and (C) acetophenone. W hen
the column is eluted with a mixture of solvents, (3) Mond Process (4) Ostwald Process

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26. Amongst the following statements regarding (1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(d)
adsorption, those that are valid are (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(f)
(a) H becomes less negative as adsorption (3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(e)
proceeds
(4) (i)-(e), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(f)
(b) On a given adsorbent, ammonia is adsorbed
30. A sample of red ink (a colloidal suspension) is
more than nitrogen gas
prepared by mixing eosin dye, egg white, HCHO
(c) On adsorption, the residual force acting along and water. The component which ensures stability
the surface of the adsorbent increases of the ink sample is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(d) With increase in temperature, the equilibrium (1) HCHO (2) Water
concentration of adsorbate increases (3) Eosin dye (4) Egg white
[JEE (Main)-2020] 31. Identify the correct molecular picture showing what
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) happens at the critical micellar concentration
(CMC) of an aqueous solution of a surfactant (
(3) (d) and (a) (4) (b) and (c) polar head; non-polar tail; • water).
27. Tyndall effect is observed when [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) The diameter of dispersed particles is much • • • • • ••
• • •• ••
larger than the wavelength of light used • • • • • ••• • ••• • • • • • • • •• • •
• •
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(2) The diameter of dispersed particles is similar
to the wavelength of light used [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) The diameter of dispersed particles is much (1) (C) (2) (A)
smaller than the wavelength of light used
(3) (D) (4) (B)
(4) The refractive index of dispersed phase is
32. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption
greater than that of the dispersion medium isotherm. If x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on
28. An ionic micelle is formed on the addition of x
mass m of the adsorbent, the correct plot of versus
[JEE (Main)-2020] m
(1) Excess water to liquid p is [JEE (Main)-2020]
200 K
SO4–
N N x 250 K
(1) m
H 3C CH3 270 K

(2) Excess water to liquid p

200 K
  x
N N PF6 250 K
(2) m 270 K
H 3C CH3

(3) Sodium stearate to pure toluene p

(4) Liquid diethyl ether to aqueous NaCl solution 270 K

x 250 K
29. Match the following [JEE (Main)-2020] m
(3) 200 K
(i) Foam (a) smoke
(ii) Gel (b) cell fluid p

(iii) Aerosol (c) jellies 270 K

250 K
(iv) Emulsion (d) rubber x 200 K
(4) m
(e) froth
(f) Milk p

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

33. Kraft temperature is the temperature (3) log n with (n > 1)

[JEE (Main)-2020]
1
(1) below which the aqueous solution of detergents (4) log with (n < 1)
n
starts freezing.
38. Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient
(2) above which the formation of micelles takes
clotting of blood will be [JEE (Main)-2021]
place.
(1) FeCl3 (2) FeSO4
(3) below which the formation of micelles takes
place. (3) NAHCO3 (4) Mg(HCO3)2
(4) above which the aqueous solution of detergents 39. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm at moderate
starts boiling.
x
34. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide pressure, the extent of adsorption   is
m
sol. is 30 m mol L–1. If H2SO4 is used for the
flocculation of arsenic sulphide, the amount, in directly proportional to Px. The value of x is:
grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required for the above (1) Zero (2) 1
purpose is ______.
1
(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol) (3)  (4)
n
[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2021]
35. The mass of gas adsorbed, x, per unit mass of 40. Which one of the following statements is FALSE
absorbate, m, was measured at various pressures, for hydrophilic sols ?
x (1) Their viscosity is of the order of that of H2O
p. A graph between log and log p gives a straight
m
(2) They do not require electrolytes for stability
line with slope equal to 2 and the intercept equal to
(3) These sols are reversible in nature
x
0.4771. The value of at a pressure of 4 atm is: (4) The sols cannot be easily coagulated
m
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(Given log 3 = 0.4771) [JEE (Main)-2020]
41. 3.12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of platinum
36. For Freundlich adsorption isotherm, a plot of log (x/ metal. The volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of
m) (y-axis) and log p (x-axis) gives a straight line. the adsorbent at 1 atm and 300 K in L is
The intercept and slope for the line is 0.4771
_________.
and 2, respectively. The mass of gas, adsorbed per
gram of adsorbent if the initial pressure is [R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1]
0.04 atm, is ______ × 10–4 g. (log 3 = 0.4771) [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020] 42. The nature of charge on resulting colloidal particles
37. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, slope of AB line is: when FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water is:

[JEE (Main)-2021] (1) Sometimes positive and sometimes negative

B (2) Negative
(3) Neutral
A (4) Positive
log m
x

[JEE (Main)-2021]
43. The INCORRECT statements below regarding
log P
colloidal solutions is

(1) n with (n, 0.1 to 0.5) (1) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than that
of Na+.
1 1  (2) A colloidal solution shows Brownian motion of
(2) with   0 to 1
n n  colloidal particles.

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(3) An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of (D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
colloidal particles. and the dispersion medium are comparable.
(4) A colloidal solution shows colligative properties. (E) The dispersed phase has a very different
refractive index from the dispersion medium.
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Choose the most appropriate conditions from the
44. A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in
options given below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
a solid is called a/an
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (C) and (D) only
(1) Aerosol (2) Foam
(3) (B) and (E) only (4) (A) and (E) only
(3) Solid sol (4) Gel
49. 100 ml of 0.0018% (w/v) solution of CI– ion was the
[JEE (Main)-2021]
minimum concentration of CI – required to
Enzyme A precipitate a negative sol in one h. The coagulating
45. C12H22O11  H2O   C6H12O6  C6H12O6
value of CI – ion is x, then the value of 2x is
Glucose Fructose
________. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
Enzyme B
C6H12 O6   2C2H5 OH  2CO2 50. When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium
Glucose
iodide solution then the sol produced is :
[JEE (Main)-2021]
In the above reactions, the enzyme A and enzyme
B respectively are (1) Agl/Ag+ (2) AgNO3 /NO3
(1) Amylase and Invertase
(2) Invertase and Zymase (3) KI / NO3 (4) AgI / I

(3) Zymase and Invertase 51. Sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+ is an anionic

surfactant which forms micelles in oil. Choose the
(4) Invertase and Amylase
correct statement for it from the following
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
46. For the coagulation of a negative sol, the species
(1) It forms non-spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16
below, that has the highest flocculating power is
– group pointing towards the centre
(1) Ba2+ (2) PO34 (2) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16
– group pointing outwards on the surface of
(3) SO24 (4) Na+ sphere

[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) It forms non-spherical micelles with –COO

47. The charges on the colloidal CdS sol and TiO2 sol group pointing outwards on the surface
are, respectively (4) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16
– group pointing towards the centre of sphere
(1) Positive and positive
52. Match List-I with List-II :
(2) Positive and negative
List-I List-II
(3) Negative and positive
Example Classification
(4) Negative and negative
of Colloids
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(a) Cheese (i) Dispersion of liquid in
48. The conditions given below are in the context of
observing Tyndall effect in colloidal solutions: liquid
(A) The diameter of the colloidal particles is (b) Pumice stone (ii) Dispersion of liquid in
comparable to the wavelength of light used. gas
(B) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much (c) Hair cream (iii) Dispersion of gas in
smaller than the wavelength of light used. solid
(C) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much (d) Cloud (iv) Dispersion of liquid in
larger than the wavelength of light used.
solid
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Choose the most appropriate answer from the 57. Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by :
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (1) Lyophobic colloid (2) Lyophilic colloid
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (3) True solution (4) Suspension
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) 58. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
because, [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(1) The colloidal particles are solvated
53. CO2 gas adsorbs on charcoal following Freundlich
(2) The colloidal particles have positive charge
adsorption isotherm. For a given amount of
charcoal, the mass of CO 2 adsorbed becomes (3) The colloidal particles have no charge
64 times when the pressure of CO2 is doubled. the (4) There is a strong electrostatic repulsion
value of n in the Freundlich isotherm equation is between the negatively charged colloidal
_______ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest integer) particles

[JEE (Main)-2021] 59. Select the graph that correctly describes the
adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T 1 and
54. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as T2 (T1 > T2) for a gas :
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(x – mass of the gas adsorbed
Assertion A : SO2(g) is adsorbed to a larger extent
m – mass of adsorbent
than H2(g) on activated charcoal.
P – pressure)
Reason R : SO 2 (g) has a higher critical
[JEE (Main)-2021]
temperature than H2(g).
In the light of the above statements, choose the x T2
most appropriate answer from the options given m
below. [JEE (Main)-2021] (1) T1

(1) A is correct but R is not correct

P
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A
x T1
(3) A is not correct but R is correct m

(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (2) T2

explanation of A
P
55. W hich one of the following is correct for the
adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a
x T1
solid surface? [JEE (Main)-2021] m
(1) H < 0, S < 0 (2) H > 0, S < 0 (3) T2
(3) H > 0, S > 0 (4) H < 0, S > 0
P
56. The sol given below with negatively charged
colloidal particles is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
x
(1) KI added to AgNO3 solution m T2

(2) AgNO3 added to KI solution (4) T1

(3) Al2O3  xH2O in water
P
(4) FeCl3 added to hot water

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60. CH4 is adsorbed on 1 g charcoal at 0ºC following (b) Reduction (ii) As2O3 + 3H2S 
the Freundlich adsorption isotherm. 10.0 mL of CH4
As2S3(sol) + 3H2O
is adsorbed at 100 mm of Hg, whereas 15.0 mL is
adsorbed at 200 mm of Hg. The volume of CH4 (c) Oxidation (iii) SO2 + 2H2S 3S(sol) +
adsorbed at 300 mm of Hg is 10x mL. The value 2H2O
of x is _____ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)
(d) Double (iv) FeCl3 + 3H2O 
[Use log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771]
Decomposition Fe(OH)3(sol) + 3HCl
[JEE (Main)-2021]
61. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below [JEE (Main)-2021]
List-I List-II
(Colloid (Chemical Reaction) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Preparation Method) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(a) Hydrolysis (i) 2AuCl 3 + 3HCHO + (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3H 2 O  2Au(sol) +
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
3HCOOH + 6HCl

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Chapter 14

Hydrogen

1. Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which 5. Which one of the following statements about water
of the following processes? [AIEEE-2012] is FALSE? [JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular (1) Water can act both as an acid and as a base
weight
(2) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen
(2) Electrolysis of water bonding in the condensed phase
(3) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water (3) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal
(4) Reaction of methane with steam water

2. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a (4) W ater is oxidized to oxygen during
reducing agent? [JEE (Main)-2014] photosynthesis

(a) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e–  2H2O 6. The isotopes of hydrogen are [JEE (Main)-2019]

(b) H2O2 – 2e–  O2 + 2H+ (1) Tritium and protium only

(c) H2O2 + 2e–  2OH– (2) Deuterium and tritium only

(d) H2O2 + 2OH– – 2e–  O2 + 2H2O (3) Protium and deuterium only

(1) (a), (b) (4) Protium, deuterium and tritium

(2) (c), (d) 7. A water sample has ppm level concentration of the
following metals: Fe = 0.2 ; Mn = 5.0 ; Cu = 3.0 ;
(3) (a), (c)
Zn = 5.0. The metal that makes the water sample
(4) (b), (d) unsuitable for drinking is: [JEE (Main)-2019]
3. The molecular formula of a commercial resin used (1) Cu (2) Mn
for exchanging ions in water softening is
(3) Zn (4) Fe
C8H7SO3Na (mol. wt. 206). What would be the
maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when 8. The temporary hardness of water is due to
expressed in mole per gram resin? [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2015]
(1) CaCl2 (2) NaCl
1 1
(1) (2) (3) Na2SO4 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
103 206
9. The total number of isotopes of hydrogen and
2 1 number of radioactive isotopes among them,
(3) (4) respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
309 412
(1) 2 and 1 (2) 3 and 2
4. From the following statement regarding H 2O 2,
choose the incorrect statement [JEE (Main)-2015] (3) 2 and 0 (4) 3 and 1
(1) It can act only as an oxidizing agent 10. Among the following reactions of hydrogen with
halogens, the one that requires a catalyst is
(2) It decomposes on exposure to light
(3) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined [JEE (Main)-2019]
glass bottles in dark. (1) H2 + Cl2  2HCl (2) H2 + I2  2HI
(4) It has to be kept away from dust (3) H2 + Br2  2HBr (4) H2 + F2  2HF

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11. The correct statements among (a) to (d) regarding 17. The synonym for water gas when used in the
H2 as a fuel are production of methanol is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(a) It produces less pollutants than petrol. (1) Fuel gas
(b) A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weighs (2) Syn gas
~ 30 times more than a petrol tank producing
(3) Laughing gas
the same amount of energy.
(4) Natural gas
(c) Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of metal alloys
like NaNi5. 18. The correct statements among (a) to (d) are :
(d) On combustion, values of energy released per (a) Saline hydrides produce H2 gas when reacted
gram of liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and with H2O.
142 kJ, respectively. [JEE (Main)-2019]
(b) Reaction of LiAlH4 with BF3 leads to B2H6.
(1) (b) and (d) only
(c) PH3 and CH4 are electron - rich and electron
(2) (a) and (c) only - precise hydrides, respectively.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (d) HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only [JEE (Main)-2019]
12. The hydride that is NOT electron deficient is (1) (a), (c) and (d) only.
[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) (c) and (d) only.
(1) SiH4 (2) GaH3
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only.
(3) B2H6 (4) AlH3
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d).
13. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of
19. The temporary hardness of a water sample is due
equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10–3 M CaSO4 is
to compound X. Boiling this sample converts X to
(molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol–1) compound Y. X and Y, respectively are:
[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 10 ppm (2) 100 ppm (1) Ca(HCO3)2 and Ca(OH)2
(3) 90 ppm (4) 50 ppm (2) Mg(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
14. The volume strength of 1M H2O2 is
(3) Mg(HCO3)2 and MgCO3
(Molar mass of H2O2 = 34 g mol–1)
(4) Ca(HCO3)2 and CaO
[JEE (Main)-2019]
20. In comparison to the zeolite process for the
(1) 11.35 (2) 22.4 removal of permanent hardness, the synthetic
(3) 5.6 (4) 16.8 resins method is [JEE (Main)-2020]
15. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of (1) Less efficient as it exchanges only anions
calcium bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium (2) More efficient as it can exchange only cations
bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample
expressed in terms of equivalents of CaCO3 is (3) More efficient as it can exchange both cations
as well as anions
(molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol–1
and magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol–1) (4) Less efficient as the resins cannot be
regenerated
[JEE (Main)-2019]
21. Among statements (a)-(d) the correct ones are:
(1) 5,000 ppm (2) 100 ppm
(a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives
(3) 10,000 ppm (4) 1,000 ppm
dioxygen.
16. The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H 2 O 2
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as
is [Given that molar mass of H = 1 g mol–1 and
KCIO 3, Pb(NO 3)2 and NaNO 3 when heated
O = 16 g mol–1] [JEE (Main)-2019]
liberate dioxygen.
(1) 13.6% (2) 1.7%
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinone is useful for the industrial
(3) 3.4% (4) 34% preparation of hydrogen peroxide.

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

(d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture 27. The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of
of sodium perborate. [JEE (Main)-2020] permanent hardness of water is
(1) (a) and (c) only [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) Calgon’s method
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) Ion-exchange method
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only (3) Clark’s method
22. Hydrogen has three isotopes (A), (B) and (C). If the (4) Treatment with sodium carbonate
number of neutron(s) in (A), (B) and (C) 28. Dihydrogen of high purity (> 99.95%) is obtained
respectively, are (x), (y) and (z), the sum of (x), (y) through [JEE (Main)-2020]
and (z) is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) The electrolysis of acidified water using Pt
(1) 4 (2) 2 electrodes
(3) 3 (4) 1 (2) The electrolysis of warm Ba(OH) 2 solution
23. Amongst the following, the form of water with the using Ni electrodes
lowest ionic conductance at 298 K is (3) The electrolysis of brine solution
[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) The reaction of Zn with dilute HCl
(1) Distilled water 29. The hardness of a water sample containing 10–3 M
(2) Sea water MgSO4 expressed as CaCO3 equivalents (in ppm)
is _____.
(3) Water from a well
(molar mass of MgSO4 is 120.37 g/mol)
(4) Saline water used for intravenous injection
[JEE (Main)-2020]
24. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount
of oxygen required (in ppm) [JEE (Main)-2020] 30. 10.30 mg of O2 is dissolved into a liter of sea water
of density 1.03 g/mL. The concentration of O2 in
(1) By bacteria to break-down organic waste in a
ppm is __________ . [JEE (Main)-2020]
certain volume of a water sample
31. The volume strength of 8.9 M H 2 O 2 solution
(2) For sustaining life in a water body
calculated at 273 K and 1 atm is _____.
(3) By anaerobic bacteria to break down inorganic (R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1) (rounded off to the
waste present in a water body nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) For the photochemical break down of waste 32. (A) HOCl + H2O2  H3O+ + CI– + O2
present in 1 m3 volume of a water body
(B) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH–  2I– + 2H2O + O2
25. The strengths of 5.6 volume hydrogen peroxide (of
Choose the correct option. [JEE (Main)-2021]
density 1 g/mL) in terms of mass percentage and
molarity (M), respectively, are (1) H2O2 acts as oxidising agent in equations (A)
and (B).
(Take molar mass of hydrogen peroxide as
34 g/ mol) [JEE (Main)-2020] (2) H2O 2 act as oxidizing and reducing agent
respectively in equations (A) and (B).
(1) 1.7 and 0.5 (2) 0.85 and 0.5
(3) H2O2 acts as reducing agent in equations (A)
(3) 1.7 and 0.25 (4) 0.85 and 0.25 and (B).
26. Hydrogen peroxide, in the pure state, is (4) H2O 2 acts as reducing and oxidising agent
[JEE (Main)-2020] respectively in equations (A) and (B).
(1) linear and blue in color 33. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(2) planar and blue in color
Assertion A : Hydrogen is the most abundant
(3) linear and almost colorless
element in the Universe, but it is not the most
(4) non-planar and almost colorless abundant gas in the troposphere.

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Reason R : Hydrogen is the lightest element. 38. Which of the following forms of hydrogen emits low
energy  – particles? [JEE (Main)-2021]
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. 3
(1) Proton H+ (2) Tritium 1H
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (3) Protium 11H (4) Deuterium 2
1H
correct explanation of A
39. Given below are two statements :
(2) A is true but R is false
Statement I : H2O2 can act as both oxidising and
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reducing agent in basic medium.
explanation of A Statement II : In the hydrogen economy, the energy
(4) A is false but R is true is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.
34. W hich of the following equation depicts the In the light of the above statements, choose the
oxidizing nature of H2O2? [JEE (Main)-2021] correct answer from the options given below:

(1) 2I– + H2O2 + 2H+  I2 + 2H2O [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) KIO4 + H2O2  KIO3 + H2O + O2 (1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(3) Cl2 + H2O2  2HCI + O2 (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(4) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH–  2I– + 2H2O + O2 (3) Both statement I and statement II are true

35. Water does not produce CO on reacting with: (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

[JEE (Main)-2021] 40. The correct statements about H2O2 are

(1) C (2) CH4 (A) used in the treatment of effluents.

(B) used as both oxidising and reducing agents.
(3) CO2 (4) C3H8
(C) the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane
36. Statements about heavy water are given below.
(D) miscible with water.
A. Heavy water is used in exchange reactions for
the study of reaction mechanisms. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below [JEE (Main)-2021]
B. Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive
electrolysis of water. (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

C. Heavy water has higher boiling point than (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
ordinary water. (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
D. Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O. (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 41. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy water
options given below: [JEE (Main)-2021] is (are)
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only (A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(3) A and D only (4) A, B and C only (B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry
37. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the (C) used for the study of reaction mechanism
following statement is NOT true about Calgon? (D) has a higher dielectric constant than water
[JEE (Main)-2021] Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) It is polymeric compound and is water soluble below: [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) Calgon contains the 2 nd most abundant (1) (B) and (D) only
element by weight in the Earth’s crust (2) (B) only
(3) It is also known as Graham’s salt (3) (D) only
(4) It doesnot remove Ca2+ ion by precipitation (4) (C) only

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

42. The functional groups that are responsible for the Choose the most appropriate answer from the
ion-exchange property of cation and anion options given below for A and R.
exchange resins, respectively, are
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) A is not correct but R is correct.
(1) –SO3H and –NH2
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) –NH2 and –COOH
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
(3) –SO3H and –COOH correct explanation of A.
(4) –NH2 and –SO3H (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
43. Given below are two Statements : One is labelled explanation of A.
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as 46. The single largest industrial application of
Reason R : dihydrogen is [JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion A : During the boiling of water having (1) In the synthesis of nitric acid
temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted to
MgCO3. (2) Rocket fuel in space research

Reason R : The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is (3) In the synthesis of ammonia

greater than that of MgCO3. (4) Manufacture of metal hydrides
In the light of the above statements, choose the 47. Isotope(s) of hydrogen which emits low energy –
most appropriate answer from the options given
1
below: [JEE (Main)-2021] particles with t value > 12 years is/are
2
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) A is true but R is false (1) Deuterium

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) Protium
explanation of A (3) Tritium
(4) A is false but R is true (4) Deuterium and Tritium
44. In basic medium, H 2O 2 exhibits which of the 48. At 298.2 K the relationship between enthalpy of
following reactions ?
bond dissociation (in kJ mol–1) for hydrogen (EH)
(A) Mn2+  Mn4+ and its isotope, deuterium (ED), is best described
(B) I2  I– by [JEE (Main)-2021]

(C) PbS  PbSO4 (1) EH  ED – 7.5

Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) EH = 2ED
options given below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (A), (C) only (2) (A), (B) only 1
(3) EH = ED
2
(3) (A) only (4) (B) only
45. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as (4) EH = ED
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. 49. Which one of the following metals forms interstitial
Assertion A : The dihedral angles in H2O 2 in hydride easily? [JEE (Main)-2021]
gaseous phase is 90.2° and in solid phase is (1) Mn
111.5°.
(2) Cr
Reason R : The change in dihedral angle in solid
(3) Fe
and gaseous phase is due to the difference in the
intermolecular forces. (4) Co

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50. The product obtained from the electrolytic oxidation 55. The oxide that gives H 2 O 2 most readily on
of acidified sulphate solutions, is treatment with H2O is [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] (1) SnO2 (2) PbO2
(1) HO3SOOSO3H (2) HO2SOSO2H (3) BaO2·8H2O (4) Na2O2

(3) HSO 4 (4) HO3SOSO3H 56. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The process of producing syn-gas is
51. The number of neutrons and electrons, respectively,
called gasification of coal.
present in the radiaoctive isotope of hydrogen is
Statement II : The composition of syn-gas is CO +
[JEE (Main)-2021]
CO2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1).
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 2 and 1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) 2 and 2 (4) 3 and 1 most appropriate answer from the options given
52. W hich one of the following methods is most below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
suitable for preparing deionized water? (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) Synthetic resin method (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Permutit method (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Clark’s method 57. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
(4) Calgon’s method associated with stoichiometry CuSO 4 5H 2O is
______. [JEE (Main)-2021]
53. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as 58. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Reason (R). [JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion (A) : Heavy water is used for the study (1) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2 is highest
of reaction mechanism. among diatomic gaseous molecules which
Reason (R) : The rate of reaction for the cleavage contain a single bond
of O – H bond is slower than that of O – D bond.
(2) Atomic hydrogen is produced when H 2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the molecules at a high temperature are irradiated
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] with UV radiation
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false. (3) At around 2000 K, the dissociation of
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly 8.1%
explanation of (A). (4) Dihydrogen is produced on reacting zinc with
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true HCl as well as NaOH(aq)
explanation of (A) 59. Hydrogen peroxide reacts with iodine in basic
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true medium to give [JEE (Main)-2021]

54. Deuterium resembles hydrogen in properties but : (1) IO3–

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) IO–
(1) Reacts vigorously than hydrogen
(2) Reacts slower than hydrogen (3) I–
(3) emits  + particles
(4) Reacts just as hydrogen (4) IO4–

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Chapter 15

The s-Block Elements

1. The number of types of bonds between two carbon 7. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na
atoms in calcium carbide is [AIEEE-2011] and K in excesss of air are, respectively:
(1) Two sigma, two pi [JEE (Main)-2016]
(2) One sigma, two pi (1) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O
(3) One sigma, one pi (2) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
(4) Two sigma, one pi
(3) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2
2. What is the best description of the change that
(4) Li2O, Na2O and KO2
occurs when Na2O(s) is dissolved in water ?
[AIEEE-2011] 8. Both lithium and magnesium display several similar
properties due to the diagonal relationship,
(1) Oxidation number of oxygen increases
however, the one which is incorrect, is
(2) Oxidation number of sodium decreases [JEE (Main)-2017]
(3) Oxide ion accepts sharing in a pair of electrons (1) Both form nitrides
(4) Oxide ion donates a pair of electrons (2) Nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and O2
3. The products obtained on heating LiNO3 will be on heating
[AIEEE-2011] (3) Both form basic carbonates
(1) Li2O + NO + O2 (2) LiNO2 + O2 (4) Both form soluble bicarbonates
(3) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (4) Li3N + O2 9. The alkaline earth metal nitrate that does not
4. Which of the following on thermal-decomposition crystallise with water molecules, is
yields a basic as well as an acidic oxide?
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[AIEEE-2012]
(1) Ba(NO3)2
(1) KClO3 (2) CaCO3
(3) NH4NO3 (4) NaNO3 (2) Ca(NO3)2

5. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is (3) Mg(NO3)2

[JEE (Main)-2014] (4) Sr(NO3)2

(1) It is a covalent molecule 10. The metal that forms nitride by reacting directly with
(2) It contains Cs+ and I3– ions N2 of air, is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(3) It contains Cs3+ and I– ions (1) Li (2) Rb

(4) It contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecule (3) Cs (4) K

6. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal 11. The metal used for making X-ray tube window is
sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than
[JEE (Main)-2019]
its lattice enthalpy? [JEE (Main)-2015]
(1) Ca (2) Na
(1) CaSO4 (2) BeSO4
(3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4 (3) Mg (4) Be

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12. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia 18. Magnesium powder burns in air to give
gives a deep blue solution due to the formation of
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) Mg(NO3)2 and Mg3N2
(1) Ammoniated electrons (2) MgO and Mg(NO3)2
(2) Sodium-ammonia complex (3) MgO and Mg3N2
(3) Sodium ion-ammonia complex (4) MgO only
(4) Sodamide 19. The structures of beryllium chloride in the solid
13. NaH is an example of [JEE (Main)-2019] state and vapour phase, respectively, are
(1) Metallic hydride [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Electron-rich hydride (1) Chain and dimeric
(3) Molecular hydride (2) Dimeric and dimeric
(4) Saline hydride (3) Dimeric and chain
14. The amphoteric hydroxide is [JEE (Main)-2019] (4) Chain and chain
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Be(OH)2 20. A hydrated solid X on heating initially gives a
monohydrated compound Y. Y upon heating above
(3) Sr(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2
373 K leads to an anhydrous white powder Z. X
15. Match the following items in column I with the and Z, respectively are : [JEE (Main)-2019]
corresponding items in column II.
(1) Baking soda and dead burnt plaster.
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Baking soda and soda ash.
Column-I Column-II
(3) Washing soda and soda ash.
(i) Na2CO3.10H2O (A) Portland cement
(4) Washing soda and dead burnt plaster.
ingredient
21. The correct sequence of thermal stability of the
(ii) Mg(HCO3)2 (B) Castner-Kellner
following carbonates is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
process
(1) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(iii) NaOH (C) Solvay process
(2) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3
(iv) Ca3Al2O6 (D) Temporary hardness
(3) MgCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3
(1) (i)(B), (ii)(C), (iii)(A), (iv)(D)
(4) BaCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < MgCO3
(2) (i)(C), (ii)(D), (iii)(B), (iv)(A)
22. The INCORRECT statement is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (i)(D), (ii)(A), (iii)(B), (iv)(C)
(1) Lithium is least reactive with water among the
(4) (i)(C), (ii)(B), (iii)(D), (iv)(A)
alkali metals.
16. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X. X
(2) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO2
upon hydrolysis with water yields H 2O2 and O 2
and O2.
along with another product. The metal is
(3) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among
[JEE (Main)-2019]
the alkali metals.
(1) Rb (2) Li (4) LiCl crystallises from aqueous solution as
(3) Mg (4) Na LiCl.2H2O.
17. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali 23. When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms
metal ions is [JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (1) Anhydrous CaSO4
(2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (2) Dead burnt plaster
(3) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (3) CaSO4 5H2O
(4) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (4) CaSO4 0.5H2O

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24. Among the statements (a)-(d), the correct ones are 1270 K
(1) CH4 (g)  H2O(g) 
Ni
 CO(g)  3H2 (g)
(a) Lithium has the highest hydration enthalpy
among the alkali metals. 673 K
(2) CO(g)  H2O(g)   CO2 (g)  H2 (g)
Catalyst
(b) Lithium chloride is insoluble in pyridine.
(c) Lithium cannot form ethynide upon its reaction 1273 K
with ethyne. (3) 2C(s)  O2 (g)  4N2 (g)   2CO(g)  4N2 (g)

(d) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with 1270 K

H2O. [JEE (Main)-2020] (4) C(s)  H2O(g)   CO(g)  H2 (g)

(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only 31. Among the sulphates of alkaline earth metals, the
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only solubilities of BeSO 4 and MgSO 4 in water,
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
25. The metal mainly used in devising photoelectric
cells is [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) Poor and poor (2) Poor and high
(1) Na (2) Rb (3) High and poor (4) High and high
(3) Li (4) Cs 32. Match the following compounds (Column-I) with
26. Two elements A and B have similar chemical their uses (Column-II)
properties. They don’t form solid S.No. Column-I S.No. Column-I I
hydrogencarbonates, but react with nitrogen to form
(I) Ca(OH)2 (A) casts of statues
nitrides. A and B, respectively, are
(II) NaCl (B) white wash
[JEE (Main)-2020]
1
(1) Li and Mg (2) Cs and Ba (III) CaSO 4  H2 O (C) antacid
2
(3) Na and Rb (4) Na and Ca (IV) CaCO 3 (D) washing soda
preparation
27. If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on your
hand, your first aid would be [JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Aqueous NaOH (1) (I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A)
(2) Aqueous NaHCO3 (2) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C)
(3) Aqueous NH3 (3) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A)
(4) Vinegar (4) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B)
28. On combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air, the 33. Number of amphoteric compounds among the
major oxides formed, respectively, are following is____
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(A) BeO (B) BaO
(1) Li2O, Na2O2 and K2O
(C) Be(OH)2 (D) Sr(OH)2
(2) Li2O2, Na2O2 and K2O2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2
34. Match List - I with List - II.
(4) Li2O, Na2O and K2O2
List - I List - II
29. An alkaline earth metal ‘M’ readily forms water
soluble sulphate and water insoluble hydroxide. Its (Salt) (Flame colour
oxide MO is very stable to heat and does not have wavelength)
rock-salt structure. M is [JEE (Main)-2020] (a) LiCl (i) 455.5 nm
(1) Ca (2) Mg (b) NaCl (ii) 670.8 nm
(3) Sr (4) Be (c) RbCl (iii) 780.0 nm
30. The equation that represents the water-gas shift (d) CsCl (iv) 589.2 nm
reaction is [JEE (Main)-2020]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
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(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 39. The correct order of conductivity of ions in water is
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (2) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+
35. Among the following, number of metal/s which can (3) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
be used as electrodes in the photoelectric cell is
______. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021] (4) K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+

(A) Li (B) Na 40. The set of elements that differ in mutual

relationship from those of the other sets is
(C) Rb (D) Cs
[JEE (Main)-2021]
36. Find A, B and C in the following reactions :
NH3 + A + CO2  (NH4)2CO3 (1) B – Si (2) Li – Na

(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + B  NH4HCO3 (3) Be – Al (4) Li – Mg

NH4HCO3 + NaCl  NH4Cl + C 41. One of the by-products formed during the recovery

[JEE (Main)-2021] of NH3 from solvay process is [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) A – H2O ; B – CO2 ; C – NaHCO3 (1) CaCl2 (2) Ca(OH)2

(2) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – Na2CO3 (3) NaHCO3 (4) NH4Cl

(3) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – NaHCO3 42. Match List-I with List-II :
(4) A – O2 ; B – CO2 ; C – Na2CO3 List-I List-II
37. Given below are two statements : (a) Ca(OCl)2 (i) Antacid
Statement I : Both CaCl2  6H2O and MgCl2 
8H2O undergo dehydration on heating. 1
(b) CaSO4 · H2O (ii) Cement
2
Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the
oxides of other elements in the same group are (c) CaO (iii) Bleach
acidic.
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of Paris
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
38. Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation 43. Match List-I with List-II :
energy values given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] List-I List-II
Ionization energy (kJ/mol) (a) Be (i) treatment of cancer
1st 2nd (b) Mg (ii) extraction of metals
X 495 4563 (c) Ca (iii) incendiary bombs
Y 731 1450 and signals
(1) X = Na ; Y = Mg (d) Ra (iv) windows of X-ray
(2) X = Mg ; Y = F tubes

(3) X = F ; Y = Mg (v) bearings for motor

engines
(4) X = Mg ; Y = Na
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Choose the most appropriate answer from the In the light of the above statements, choose the
option given below. [JEE (Main)-2021] most appropriate answer from the options given
below [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) correct
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii) (2) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) incorrect

44. A s-block element (M) reacts with oxygen to form (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
an oxide of the formula MO2. The oxide is pale correct
yellow in colour and paramagnetic. The element (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(M) is [JEE (Main)-2021] incorrect
(1) K (2) Na 48. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) Mg (4) Ca List-I List-II

45. Metallic sodium does not react normally with: Elements Properties

[JEE (Main)-2021] (a) Li (i) Poor water solubility

of I– salt
(1) Ethyne (2) Gaseous ammonia
(b) Na (ii) Most abundant
(3) But-2-yne (4) Tert-butyl alcohol
element in cell fluid
46. Match List-I and List-II:
(c) K (iii) Bicarbonate salt
List-I List-II
used in fire
(Elements) (Properties)
extinguisher
(a) Ba (i) Organic solvent (d) Cs (iv) Carbonate salt
soluble compounds decomposes easily
(b) Ca (ii) Outer electronic on heating
configuration 6s2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c) Li (iii) Oxalate insoluble in below : [JEE (Main)-2021]

water (1) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(d) Na (iv) Formation of very
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
strong monoacidic
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
base
49. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
Choose the correct answer from the options given
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
below: [JEE (Main)-2021] Reason R.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i) Assertion A : Lithium halides are some what
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) and (d)-(iv) covalent in nature.

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii) Reason R : Lithium possess high polarisation
capability
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
47. Given below are two statements : most appropriate answer from the options given
Statement I : None of the alkaline earth metal below [JEE (Main)-2021]
hydroxides dissolve in alkali. (1) A is false but R is true
Statement II : Solubility of alkaline earth metal (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
hydroxides in water increases down the group. correct explanation of A

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(3) A is true but R is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true
explanation of A explanation of (A).
50. Match List-I with List-II : 53. The number of water molecules in gypsum, dead
List-I List-II burnt plaster and plaster of Paris, respectively
(a) Li (i) Photoelectric cell [JEE (Main)-2021]
(b) Na (ii) Absorbent of CO2 (1) 2, 0 and 1 (2) 0.5, 0 and 2
(c) K (iii) Coolant in fast (3) 5, 0 and 0.5 (4) 2, 0 and 0.5
breeder nuclear
54. Choose the correct statement from the following :
reactor
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(d) Cs (iv) Treatment of cancer
(v) Bearings for motor (1) The standard enthalpy of formation for alkali
metal bromides becomes less negative on
engines descending the group
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) The low solubility of CsI in water is due to its
below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
high lattice enthalpy
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) soluble in water
(3) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) LiF has least negative standard enthalpy of
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) formation among alkali metal fluorides
51. These are physical properties of an element 55. The major component/ingredient of Portland Cement
[JEE (Main)-2021] is : [JEE (Main)-2021]

(A) Sublimation enthalpy (1) Tricalcium aluminate (2) Dicalcium silicate

(B) Ionisation enthalpy (3) Dicalcium aluminate (4) Tricalcium silicate
(C) Hydration enthalpy 56. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(D) Electron gain enthalpy as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)____.
The total number of above properties that affect the
reduction potential is _____. (Integer answer) Assertion (A) : Lithium salts are hydrated.
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Reason (R) : Lithium has higher polarising power
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason than other alkali metal group members.
(R).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Assertion (A) : Barium carbonate is insoluble in most appropriate answer from the options given
water and is highly stable. below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Reason (R) : The thermal stability of the carbonates (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
increases with increasing cationic size.
correct explanation of (A)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
options given below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
explanation of (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. correct explanation of (A)



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Chapter 16
The p-Block Elements
(Group 13 to Group 18)
1. Which one of the following reactions of Xenon 6. Among the following oxoacids, the correct
compounds is not feasible? [AIEEE-2009] decreasing order of acid strength is
(1) 3XeF4 + 6H2O  2Xe + XeO3 + 12HF + 1.5 O2 [JEE (Main)-2014]
(2) 2XeF2 + 2H2O  2Xe + 4HF + O2 (1) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(3) XeF6 + RbF  Rb[XeF7] (2) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
(4) XeO3 + 6HF  XeF6 + 3H2O (3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
2. In bond dissociation energy of B-F in BF3 is 646 kJ (4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
mol–1 whereas that of C-F in CF4 is 515 kJ mol–1. 7. Which one of the following properties is not shown
The correct reason for higher B-F bond dissociation by NO? [JEE (Main)-2014]
energy as compared to that of C-F is
[AIEEE-2009] (1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state

(1) Stronger  bond between B and F in BF3 as (2) It is a neutral oxide

compared to that between C and F in CF4 (3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen
(2) Significant p- p interaction between B and F dioxide
in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such (4) Its bond order is 2.5
interaction between C an F in CF4
8. Which among the following is the most reactive?
(3) Lower degree of p- p interaction between B [JEE (Main)-2015]
and F in BF3 than that between C and F in CF4
(1) Cl2 (2) Br2
(4) Smaller size of B-atom as compared to that of
(3) I2 (4) ICl
C-atom
9. Which one has the highest boiling point?
3. In W hich of the following arrangements, the
[JEE (Main)-2015]
sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it? [AIEEE-2009] (1) He (2) Ne
(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid (3) Kr (4) Xe
strength 10. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing basic components in the atmosphere but these do not
strength react to form oxides of nitrogen.
(3) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionization Reason : The reaction between nitrogen and
enthalpy oxygen requires high temperature.
(4) CO 2 < SiO 2 < SnO 2 < PbO 2 : increasing [JEE (Main)-2015]
oxidising power
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the
4. Which of the following has maximum number of reason is the correct explanation for the
lone pairs associated with Xe? [AIEEE-2011] assertion
(1) XeF2 (2) XeO3 (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the
(3) XeF4 (4) XeF6 reason is not the correct explanation for the
5. The molecule having smallest bond angle is assertion
[AIEEE-2012] (3) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is
(1) AsCl3 (2) SbCl3 correct
(3) PCl3 (4) NCl3 (4) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

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11. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal (c) In general, they have high thermal stability and
oxidation state of +3 is [JEE (Main)-2016] low dielectric strength
(1) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids (d) Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and
(2) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids used as greases [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
12. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated
nitric acid, respectively, produces (4) (a) and (b) only
[JEE (Main)-2016]
18. Good reducing nature of H3PO2 is attributed to the
(1) NO2 and NO presence of [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) NO and N2O (1) Two P – OH bonds
(3) NO2 and N2O (2) One P – H bond
(4) N2O and NO2 (3) One P – OH bond

13. Which of the following reactions is an example of (4) Two P – H bonds

a redox reaction? [JEE (Main)-2017] 19. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-
(1) XeF6 + H2O  XeOF4 + 2HF electron bonds in B2H6 respectively are

(2) XeF6 + 2H2O  XeO2F2 + 4HF [JEE (Main)-2019]

(3) XeF4 + O2F2  XeF6 + O2 (1) 4 and 2 (2) 2 and 2

(4) XeF2 + PF5  [XeF]+ PF6– (3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 1

14. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts 20. The pair that contains two P-H bond in each of the
with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are oxoacids is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2017] (1) H4P2O5 and H4P2O6 (2) H4P2O5 and H3PO3
(1) Cl– and ClO– (3) H3PO2 and H4P2O5 (4) H3PO3 and H3PO2
(2) Cl– and ClO2– 21. The chloride that CANNOT get hydrolysed is
(3) ClO– and ClO3– [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) ClO2– and ClO3– (1) PbCI4 (2) CCI4
15. Which of the following are Lewis acids? (3) SnCl4 (4) SiCl4
[JEE (Main)-2018]
22. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield Y
(1) PH3 and BCl3 along with other products. The oxidation state of
(2) AlCl3 and CCl4 iodine in Y, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 7 (2) 1
(3) PH3 and SiCl4
(3) 5 (4) 3
(4) BCl3 and AlCl3
23. Chlorine on reaction with hot and concentrated
16. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas
sodium hydroxide gives [JEE (Main)-2019]
by the thermal decomposition is[JEE (Main)-2018]
(1) Cl– and ClO– (2) Cl– and ClO2–
(1) Ba(N3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) ClO3– and ClO2– (4) Cl– and ClO3–
(3) NH4NO2 (4) (NH4)2SO4
24. The element that does NOT show catenation is
17. Correct statements among a to d regarding
silicones are [JEE (Main)-2019]

(a) They are polymers with hydrophobic character (1) Sn (2) Ge

(b) They are biocompatible (3) Pb (4) Si

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25. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and 33. The noble gas that does NOT occur in the
H2O to produce, respectively [JEE (Main)-2019] atmosphere is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) H3BO3 and B2O3 (2) HBO2 and H3BO3 (1) Ne (2) Kr
(3) B2O3 and H3BO3 (4) B2O3 and [BH4]– (3) He (4) Ra
26. The covalent alkaline earth metal halide 34. The basic structural unit of feldspar, zeolites, mica,
(X = Cl, Br, I) is [JEE (Main)-2019] and asbestos is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) BeX2 (2) SrX2 (1) (SiO4)4–
(3) CaX2 (4) MgX2
R
27. C60, an allotrope of carbon contains
[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) ( Si — O )n (R = Me)

(1) 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons R

(2) 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons (3) SiO2
(3) 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons (4) (SiO3)2–
(4) 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons 35. The C–C bond length is maximum in
28. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen
[JEE (Main)-2019]
in NO, N2O, NO2, and N2O3 is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) graphite (2) C60
(1) NO2 < NO < N2O3 < N2O
(3) diamond (4) C70
(2) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2
(3) NO2 < N2O3 < NO < N2O 36. In the following reactions, products (A) and (B),
respectively, are
(4) N2O < N2O3 < NO < NO2
29. The correct statements among I to III regarding NaOH  Cl2  (A)  side products
(hot and conc.)
group 13 element oxides are
(I) Boron trioxide is acidic. Ca(OH)2  Cl2  (B)  side products
(dry)
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric.
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic.
(1) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (II) and (III) only (2) (I) and (II) only (2) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3)2

(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (I) and (III) only (3) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2

30. The oxoacid of sulphur that does not contain bond (4) NaClO3 and Ca(OCl)2
between sulphur atoms is : [JEE (Main)-2019] 37. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen
(1) H2S4O6 (2) H2S2O4 atoms in S2O82- and the number of bonds between
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O3 sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur,
31. The correct order of catenation is : respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]

[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) 4 and 6 (2) 8 and 8

(1) C > Si > Ge Sn (2) C > Sn > Si Ge (3) 8 and 6 (4) 4 and 8
(3) Si > Sn > C > Ge (4) Ge > Sn > Si >C 38. White phosphorus on reaction with concentrated
NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2 gives
32. The number of pentagons in C 60 and trigons
phosphine and compound (X). (X) on acidification
(triangles) in white phosphorus, respectively, are :
with HCl gives compound (Y). The basicity of
[JEE (Main)-2019] compound (Y) is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 20 and 3 (2) 12 and 3 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 12 and 4 (4) 20 and 4 (3) 4 (4) 1
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39. The compound that cannot act both as oxidising 45. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the
and reducing agent is [JEE (Main)-2020] underlined atom is affected is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) H3PO4 (1) XeF4 + SbF5 

(2) H2SO3 420 K

(2) H2 SO 4  NaCl  
(3) H2O2 (3)
Disproportionation
(4) HNO2 H3 PO2  

40. The reaction of H 3 N 3 B 3 Cl 3 (A) with LiBH 4 in H 

(4) NH3 
tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic benzene (B).
Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to 46. The structure of PCl5 in the solid state is
H3N3B3(Me)3. Compounds (B) and (C) respectively, [JEE (Main)-2020]
are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Tetrahedral [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(1) Borazine and MeBr
(2) Square pyramidal
(2) Borazine and MeMgBr (3) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Diborane and MeMgBr (4) Square planar [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(4) Boron nitride and MeBr 47. Reaction of ammonia with excess Cl2 gives
41. On heating compound (A) gives a gas (B) which is [JEE (Main)-2020]
a constituent of air. This gas when treated with H2 (1) NH4Cl and HCl (2) NCl3 and HCl
in the presence of a catalyst gives another gas (C)
(3) NCl3 and NH4Cl (4) NH4Cl and N2
which is basic in nature. (A) should not be:
48. Boron and silicon of very high purity can be
[JEE (Main)-2020] obtained through [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Pb(NO3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (1) Vapour phase refining
(3) NH4NO2 (4) NaN3 (2) Electrolytic refining
42. Aqua regia is used for dissolving noble metals (Au, (3) Liquation
Pt, etc.). The gas evolved in this process is (4) Zone refining
[JEE (Main)-2020] 49. The correct statement with respect to dinitrogen is
(1) NO (2) N2 [JEE (Main)-2020]

(3) N2O5 (4) N2O3 (1) N2 is paramagnetic in nature

(2) It can be used as an inert diluent for reactive
43. In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number
chemicals
of P – OH, P = O and P – O – P bonds/
moiety(ies) respectively are [JEE (Main)-2020] (3) It can combine with dioxygen at 25°C

(1) 4, 2 and 0 (2) 4, 2 and 1 (4) Liquid dinitrogen is not used in cryosurgery
50. The reaction of NO with N2O4 at 250 K gives
(3) 3, 3 and 3 (4) 2, 4 and 1
[JEE (Main)-2020]
44. On heating, lead (II) nitrate gives a brown gas (A).
The gas (A) on cooling changes to a colourless (1) N2O3 (2) N2O5
solid/liquid (B). (B) on heating with NO changes to (3) N2O (4) NO2
a blue solid (C). The oxidation number of nitrogen 51. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and
in solid (C) is : [JEE (Main)-2020] produces compounds (X) and (Y). Compound (X)
(1) + 3 gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The
average bond order between Cl and O atoms in (Y)
(2) + 4 is _________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) + 5 52. The number of Cl = O bonds in perchloric acid is,
(4) + 2 “________”. [JEE (Main)-2020]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

53. Given below are two statements: 58. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Colourless cupric metaborate is Statement I :
reduced to cuprous metaborate in a luminous
 and  forms of sulphur can change reversibly
flame.
between themselves with slow heating or slow
Statement-II : Cuprous metaborate is obtained by cooling.
heating boric anhydride and copper sulphate in a
Statement II :
non-luminous flame.
At room temperature the stable crystalline form of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
sulphur is monoclinic sulphur. [JEE (Main)-2021]
most appropriate answer from the options given
below. [JEE (Main)-2021] In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
54. Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the
number of allotropic forms, which will show 59. Compound A is used as a strong oxidizing agent
paramagnetism is ______. [JEE (Main)-2021] is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead
(A) -sulphur storage batteries. Compound A is

(B) -sulphur [JEE (Main)-2021]

(C) S2-form (1) Pb3O4 (2) PbSO4

55. The correct statement about B2H6 is : (3) PbO (4) PbO2

[JEE (Main)-2021] 60. Match List-I with List-II.

(1) Terminal B – H bonds have less List - I List - II

p-character when compared to bridging bonds. (a) Sodium Carbonate (i) Deacon
(2) All B – H – B angles are of 120°. (b) Titanium (ii) Castner-Kellner
(3) The two B – H – B bonds are not of same (c) Chlorine (iii) van-Arkel
length.
(d) Sodium hydroxide (iv) Solvay
(4) Its fragment, BH3, behaves as a Lewis base.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
56. Among the following, the number of halide(s) which below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
is/are inert to hydrolysis is ________.
(1) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (ii)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) (a)  (iii), (b)  (ii), (c)  (i), (d)  (iv)
(A) BF3
(3) (a)  (iv), (b)  (i), (c)  (ii), (d)  (iii)
(B) SiCl4
(4) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii), (c)  (i), (d)  (ii)
(C) PCl5
61. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
(D) SF6 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
57. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of Assertion A : In TlI3, isomorphous to CsI3, the
halogens is: metal is present in +1 oxidation
[JEE (Main)-2021] state.
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2> I2 Reason R : Tl metal has fourteen f electrons in
its electronic configuration.
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
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(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the (1) As (2) P
correct explanation of A
(3) Bi (4) Sb
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
65. The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure
explanation of A
of C60 is [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(1) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24
(4) A is not correct but R is correct five-membered rings
62. Match List-I with List-II : (2) The six-membered rings are fused to both
List-I List-II six and five-membered rings
Industrial process Application (3) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds
(a) Haber’s process (i) HNO3 synthesis (4) The five-membered rings are fused only to
(b) Ostwald’s process (ii) Aluminium extraction six-membered rings

(c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis 66. The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling with
alkali in inert atmosphere resulted in the formation
(d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis
of product ‘A’. The reaction of 1 mol of ‘A’ with
Choose the correct answer from the options given excess of AgNO 3 in aqueous medium gives
below. [JEE (Main)-2021] _________ mol(s) of Ag.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 67. Which of the following compound CANNOT act as
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) a Lewis base? [JEE (Main)-2021]
63. Match List-I with List-II : (1) NF3 (2) PCl5
List-I List-II (3) CIF3 (4) SF4
Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of ‘P’ 68. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides
(a) Hypophosphorous (i) +5 of nitrogen is [JEE (Main)-2021]

acid (1) NO and NO2 (2) N2O and N2O3

(b) Orthophosphoric (ii) +4 (3) NO and N2O (4) N2O and NO2
acid 69. Match List-I and with List-II.
(c) Hypophosphoric (iii) +3 List-I List-II
acid (Process) (Catalyst)
(d) Orthophosphorous (iv) +2 (a) Deacon's process (i) ZSM-5
acid (b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(v) +1 (c) Cracking of (iii) Particles 'Ni'
Choose the correct answer from the options given hydrocarbons
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(d) Hydrogenation of (iv) V2O5
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
vegetable oils
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
64. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
hydride with strongest reducing power among
group 15 hydrides. The element is (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

70. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the 77. Number of Cl = O bonds in chlorous acid, chloric
product obtained from a reaction of phosphorus acid and perchloric acid respectively are
trichloride and phosphonic acid is
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(1) 0 (2) 3
(2) 4, 1 and 0
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 1, 1 and 3
71. A xenon compound ‘A’ upon partial hydrolysis gives
XeO 2F2. The number of lone pair of electrons (4) 3, 1 and 1
present on central atom in compound A is _____. 78. Match List-I with List-II
(Round off to Nearest Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]
List-I List-II
72. The set in which compounds have different nature
is : [JEE (Main)-2021] (compound) (effect/affected species)

(1) B(OH)3 and H3PO3 (a) Carbon monoxide (i) Carcinogenic

(2) B(OH)3 and Al(OH)3 (b) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Metabolized by pyrus
plants
(3) Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3
(c) Polychlorinated (iii) Haemoglobin
(4) NaOH and Ca(OH)2
biphenyls
73. Chemical nature of the nitrogen oxide compound
obtained from a reaction of concentrated nitric acid (d) Oxides of nitrogen (iv) Stiffness of flower buds
and P4O10(in 4 : 1 ratio) is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Acidic (2) Basic below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
74. Given below are the statements about diborane. (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(a) Diborane is prepared by the oxidation of NaBH4 (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
with I2.
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(b) Each boron atom is in sp2 hybridized state.
79. The incorrect statement is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(c) Diborane has one bridged 3 centre-2-electron
bond. (1) F2 is more reactive than CIF.
(d) Diborane is a planar molecule. (2) F2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl2 in
aqueous solution.
The option with correct statement(s) is:
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) On hydrolysis CIF forms HOCl and HF.

(1) (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only (4) Cl2 is more reactive than CIF.

(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) only 80. Chalcogen group elements are :

75. Which one of the following group-15 hydride is the [JEE (Main)-2021]
strongest reducing agent? (1) O, Ti and Po
(1) AsH3 (2) PH3 (2) S, Te and Pm
(3) SbH3 (4) BiH3 (3) Se, Tb and Pu
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Se, Te and Po
76. W hich one of the following compounds of
81. The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms
Groups-14 elements is not known?
present in the final product obtained from the
[JEE (Main)-2021] hydrolysis of PCl5 is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) [GeCl6]2– (2) [SiF6]2– (1) 3 (2) 0
(3) [Sn(OH)6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2– (3) 2 (4) 1
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82. Match List - I with List - II : 85. Which one of the following is formed (mainly) when
red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at 803
List - I List - II
K? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Species) (No. of lone pairs of
(1) Yellow phosphorus (2) -Black phosphorus
electrons on the
(3) -Black phosphorus (4) White phosphorus
central atom)
86. Which one of the following is used to remove most
(a) XeF2 (i) 0
of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel?
(b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2
(1) I2O5 (2) BrO3
(d) XeF4 (iv) 3
(3) O2F2 (4) ClF3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
87. The number of halogen/(s) forming halic (V) acid is
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] _____. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 88. The number of S = O bonds present in sulphurous
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid,
respectively are : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) 2, 3 and 4 (2) 2, 4 and 3
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iiii)
(3) 1, 4 and 4 (4) 1, 4 and 3
83. In which one of the following molecules strongest
back donation of an electron pair from halide to 89. Which one of the following correctly represents the
boron is expected? [JEE (Main)-2021] order of stability of oxides, X2O; (X = halogen)?

(1) BBr3 (2) BCl3 [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) BI3 (4) BF3 (1) I > Cl > Br (2) Cl > I > Br

84. In polythionic acid, H 2 S xO 6 (x = 3 to 5) the (3) Br > Cl > I (4) Br > I > Cl
oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are : 90. The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is :
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 0 and +5 only (2) +5 only (1) N2O5 (2) N2O3
(3) +6 only (4) +3 and +5 only (3) N2O4 (4) N2O



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Chapter 17
General Principles and
Processes of Isolation of Elements
1. The non-aromatic compound among the following is u 2O
O2  2C
[AIEEE-2011] 4Cu +

(1) (2) –300

G°(kJ/mol)
2C
+O
Z nO 
(3) (4) 2 2
2C
+O O
2
–600 2Zn
S
2. Which method of purification is represented by the
following equation? 2 l O3
 3A 2
523 K 1700 K 4 Al + O2
Ti(s)+ 2I2 (g) 
 TiI4 (g)  Ti(s) + 2I2(g) 3
[AIEEE-2012] –1050
800°C
(1) Cupellation (2) Poling 500°C Temp.(°C) 2000°C

(3) Van Arkel (4) Zone refining (1) At 800°C, Cu can be used for the extraction of
Zn from ZnO
3. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the
(2) At 500ºC, coke can be used for the extraction
extraction of Al, which of the following statement is
of Zn from ZnO
false? [JEE (Main)-2015]
(3) At 1400°C, Al can be used for the extraction
(1) CO and CO2 are produced in this process of Zn from ZnO
(2) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the (4) Coke cannot be used for the extraction of Cu
melting point of the mixture and brings from Cu2O
conductivity 7. Hall-Heroult’s process is given by

(3) Al 3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al [JEE (Main)-2019]

Coke, 1673 K
(4) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte (1) ZnO  C   Zn  CO
4. W hich one of the following ores is best (2) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
concentrated by froth floatation method? (3) 2Al2O3 + 3C  4Al + 3CO2
[JEE (Main)-2016] (4) Cu2+(aq) + H2(g)  Cu(s) + 2H+(aq)
(1) Siderite (2) Galena 8. Match the ores (column A) with the metals (column
B):
(3) Malachite (4) Magnetite
(Column A) (Column B)
5. The ore that contains both iron and copper is
Ores Metals
[JEE (Main)-2019] (I) Siderite (a) Zinc
(1) Copper pyrites (2) Dolomite (II) Kaolinite (b) Copper
(3) Malachite (4) Azurite (III) Malachite (c) Iron
(IV) Calamine (d) Aluminium
6. The correct statement regarding the given
Ellingham diagram is [JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]

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(1) (I) - (a); (II) - (b); (III) - (c); (IV) - (d) 15. The one that is not a carbonate ore is
(2) (I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (a); (IV) - (b) [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (b); (IV) - (a) (1) Bauxite (2) Calamine
(4) (I) - (b); (II) - (c); (III) - (d); (IV) - (a) (3) Siderite (4) Malachite
9. The reaction that does NOT define calcination is 16. Assertion : For the extraction of iron, haematite ore
[JEE (Main)-2019] is used.


Reason : Haematite is a carbonate ore of iron.
(1) Fe2O3 .XH2O  Fe2O3  XH2O
[JEE (Main)-2019]
 (1) Only the reason is correct
(2) CaCO3 .MgCO3  CaO  MgO  2CO2
(2) Only the assertion is correct

(3) ZnCO3  ZnO  CO2 (3) Both the assertion and reason are correct and
the reason is the correct explanation for the

(4) 2Cu2S  3O2  2Cu2O  2SO2 assertion

10. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at (4) Both the assertion and reason are correct, but
the cathode. The cathode is made out of the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion
[JEE (Main)-2019]
17. The alloy used in the construction of aircrafts is :
(1) Carbon (2) Copper
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Platinum (4) Pure aluminium
(1) Mg - Zn (2) Mg - Sn
11. The pair that does NOT require calcination is
(3) Mg - Mn (4) Mg - Al
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Fe2O3 and CaCO3 · MgCO3 18. Match the refining methods (Column I) with metals
(Column II).
(2) ZnCO3 and CaO
Column I Column II
(3) ZnO and MgO
(Refining methods) (Metals)
(4) ZnO and Fe2O3 · xH2O
(I) Liquation (a) Zr
12. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to
predict the feasibility of its [JEE (Main)-2019] (II) Zone Refining (b) Ni
(1) Zone refining (III) Mond Process (c) Sn
(2) Vapour phase refining (IV) Van Arkel Method (d) Ga
(3) Thermal reduction [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) Electrolysis (1) (I)-(c); (II)-(a); (III)-(b); (IV)-(d)
13. The Mond process is used for the (2) (I)-(b); (II)-(d); (III)-(a); (IV)-(c)
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) (I)-(c); (II)-(d); (III)-(b); (IV)-(a)
(1) Purification of Zr and Ti
(4) (I)-(b); (II)-(c); (III)-(d); (IV)-(a)
(2) Extraction of Mo
19. The correct statement is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Purification of Ni
(1) Zincite is a carbonate ore.
(4) Extraction of Zn
(2) Zone refining process is used for the refining of
14. The ore that contains the metal in the form of titanium.
fluoride is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Aniline is a froth stabilizer.
(1) Malachite (2) Sphalerite
(4) Sodium cyanide cannot be used in the
(3) Magnetite (4) Cryolite
metallurgy of silver.
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

20. In chromatography, which of the following (a) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3

statements is INCORRECT for Rf ? (b) 3Fe2O3 + CO  2Fe3O4 + CO2
[JEE (Main)-2019] (c) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(1) The value of Rf cannot be more than one.
1
(2) Higher Rf value means higher adsorption. (d) FeO  Fe  O2 [JEE (Main)-2020]
2
(3) Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase. (1) (c) and (d)
(4) R f value depends on the type of (2) (d)
chromatography. (3) (a)
21. The idea of froth floatation method came from a (4) (a) and (d)
person X and this method is related to the process
Y of ores. X and Y, respectively, are : 26. According to the following diagram, A reduces BO2
when the temperature is
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Fisher woman and concentration
–600

G°/kJ mol–1
(2) Washer woman and concentration
–800
(3) Washer man and reduction A + O2  AO2
–1000

(4) Fisher man and reduction –1200 B + O2  Bo2

0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600
22. The correct statement is [JEE (Main)-2019]
T(°C)
(1) Pig iron is obtained from cast iron.
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) Leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH
(1) > 1400°C
solution gives sodium aluminate and sodium
silicate. (2) > 1200°C but < 1400°C

(3) The blistered appearance of copper during the (3) < 1200°C
metallurgical process is due to the evolution of (4) < 1400°C
CO2.
27. Cast iron is used for the manufacture of
(4) The Hall-Heroult process is used for the
[JEE (Main)-2020]
production of aluminium and iron.
(1) Wrought iron, pig iron and steel
23. The purest form of commercial iron is
(2) Pig iron, scrap iron and steel
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Wrought iron and pig iron
(1) Scrap iron and pig iron
(4) Wrought iron and steel
(2) Cast iron
28. Among statements (a) - (d), the correct ones are
(3) Wrought iron
(a) Lime stone is decomposed to CaO during the
(4) Pig iron
extraction of iron from its oxides.
24. The refining method used when the metal and the
(b) In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as
impurities have low and high melting temperatures,
an anionic complex.
respectively, is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(c) Nickel is purified by Mond’s process.
(1) Zone refining
(d) Zr and Ti are purified by Van Arkel method.
(2) Vapour phase refining
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Liquation
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) Distillation
(2) (c) and (d) only
25. Among the reactions (a) - (d), the reaction(s) that
does/do not occur in the blast furnace during the (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
extraction of iron is/are (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

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29. The processes of calcination and roasting in 34. For a reaction,

metallurgical industries, respectively, can Iead to 4M(s) + nO2(g)  2M2On(s)
[JEE (Main)-2020] the free energy change is plotted as a function of
temperature. The temperature below which the
(1) Global warming and photochemical smog
oxide is stable could be inferred from the plot as
(2) Photochemical smog and ozone layer depletion the point at which [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Photochemical smog and global warming (1) The free energy change shows a change from
negative to positive value
(4) Global warming and acid rain
(2) The slope changes from positive to negative
30. The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy
(3) The slope changes from negative to positive
(CFSE) of [CoF3(H2O)3] (0 < P) is
(4) The slope changes from positive to zero
[JEE (Main)-2020] 35. The element that can be refined by distillation is
(1) –0.8 0 [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) –0.8 0 + 2P (1) Gallium (2) Nickel
(3) –0.4 0 (3) Zinc (4) Tin

(4) –0.4 0 + P 36. The major components in “Gun Metal” are:

31. An Ellingham diagram provides information about [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) Cu, Ni and Fe
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) Cu, Sn and Zn
(1) The temperature dependence of the standard
Gibbs energies of formation of some metal (3) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn
oxides (4) Cu, Zn and Ni

(2) The pressure dependence of the standard 37. Which of the following ore is concentrated using
electrode potentials of reduction reactions group 1 cyanide salt? [JEE (Main)-2021]
involved in the extraction of metals (1) Sphalerite (2) Malachite

(3) The conditions of pH and potential under which (3) Siderite (4) Calamine
a species is thermodynamically stable 38. Al 2 O 3 was leached with alkali to get X. The
solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z. X, Y
(4) The kinetics of the reduction process
and Z respectively are: [JEE (Main)-2021]
32. The incorrect statement is [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3
(1) Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin (2) X = Al(OH)3, Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O
(2) Cast iron is used to manufacture wrought iron (3) X = Al(OH)3, Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3
(3) German silver is an alloy of zinc, copper and (4) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O
nickel 39. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Brass is an alloy of copper and nickel List-I List-II
33. Mischmetal is an alloy consisting mainly of (Metal) (Ores)
[JEE (Main)-2020] (a) Aluminium (i) Siderite

(1) Lanthanoid and actinoid metals (b) Iron (ii) Calamine

(c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite
(2) Actinoid and transition metals
(d) Zinc (iv) Malachite
(3) Lanthanoid metals
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Actinoid metals below: [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) below [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (1) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (v), (d) (iii)

40. Ellingham diagram is a graphical representation of: (3) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (i), (d) (iv)

[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (v), (d) (ii)
45. The process that involves the removal of sulphur
(1) H vs T (2) G vs P
from the ores is [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) G vs T (4) (G – TS) vs T (1) Smelting (2) Refining
41. The method used for the purification of Indium is : (3) Roasting (4) Leaching
[JEE (Main)-2021] 46. Which of the following reduction reaction CANNOT
be carried out with coke? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Vapour phase refining
(1) Cu2O Cu (2) Fe2O3 Fe
(2) Zone refining
(3) Liquation (3) Al2O3 Al (4) ZnO Zn

(4) van Arkel method 47. The point of intersection and sudden increase in
the slope, in the diagram given below, respectively,
42. The major components of German Silver are: indicates: [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] 0
(1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Zn, Ni and Ag –100 2Cu 2O
4Cu + O2
–200 2FeO
(3) Ge, Cu and Ag (4) Cu, Zn and Ag
G /kJ mol of O2

O2 C + O2 CO2
–300 2 Fe +
43. Match List -I with List - II. –400
–1

–500 2 CO2 2C +
O
List - I List - II 2 CO + O 2 2
2CO
–600 2 Zn O
O2
2Zn +
(Ore) (Element Present) –700
0

A
–800 l O2
(a) Kernite (i) Tin 2/ 3A 2
–900 l + O2
4/3A O
(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron –1000 2Mg
+ O2
–1100 2Mg
(c) Calamine (iii) Fluorine
–1200
(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc
0°C 400°C 800°C 1200°C 1600°C 2000°C
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 273 K 673 K 1073 K 1473 K 1873 K 2273 K
options given below: [JEE (Main)-2021] Temperature

(1) (a)  (ii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iv), d  (iii) (1) G = 0 and reduction of the metal oxide
(2) (a)  (iii), (b)  (i), (c)  (ii), d  (iv) (2) G < 0 and decomposition of the metal oxide
(3) (a)  (ii), (b)  (iv), (c)  (i), d  (iii) (3) G = 0 and melting or boiling point of the
(4) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), d  (ii) metal oxide

44. Match List-I with List-II. (4) G > 0 and decomposition of the metal oxide

List-I List-II 48. Match List-I with List-II :

(a) Siderite (i) Cu List-I List-II

(b) Calamine (ii) Ca (a) Haematite (i) Al2O3xH2O

(c) Malachite (iii) Fe (b) Bauxite (ii) Fe2O3

(d) Cryolite (iv) Al (c) Magnetite (iii) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
(v) Zn (d) Malachite (iv) Fe3O4

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Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Both (A) and (B) are producing same product
below. [JEE (Main)-2021] so both are roasting
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) (A) is roasting and (B) is calcination
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 53. Sulphide ion is soft base and its ores are common
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) for metals.

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (a) Pb (b) Al

49. The chemical that is added to reduce the melting (c) Ag (d) Mg
point of the reaction mixture during the extraction Choose the correct answer from the options given
of aluminium is [JEE (Main)-2021] below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Cryolite (1) (a) and (d) only
(2) Calamine (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) Kaolite (3) (a) and (b) only
(4) Bauxite (4) (a) and (c) only
50. Match List-I with List-II : 54. In the leaching of alumina from bauxite, the ore
List-I List-II expected to leach out in the process by reacting
with NaOH is [JEE (Main)-2021]
(a) Mercury (i) Vapour phase refining
(b) Copper (ii) Distillation refining (1) TiO2 (2) ZnO

(c) Silicon (iii) Electrolytic refining (3) SiO2 (4) Fe2O3

(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining 55. Match List-I with List-II : (Both having metallurgical
terms)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
option given below. [JEE (Main)-2021] List-I List-II

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (a) Concentration of (i) Reverberatory

Ag ore furnace
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(b) Blast furnace (ii) Pig iron
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(c) Blister copper (iii) Leaching with dilute
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
NaCN solution
51. The metal that can be purified economically by
(d) Froth floatation (iv) Sulfide ores
fractional distillation method is :
method
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Fe (2) Ni below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Cu (4) Zn (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
52. Consider two chemical reactions (A) and (B) that (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
take place during metallurgical process :
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

(A) ZnCO3(s)  ZnO(s)  CO2(g) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
56. The statement that is INCORRECT about Ellingham

(B) 2ZnS(s)  3O2(g)  2ZnO(s)  2SO2(g) diagram is: [JEE (Main)-2021]

The correct option of names given to them (1) Provides idea about the reaction rate.
respectively is [JEE (Main)-2021] (2) Provides idea about free energy change.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are producing same product (3) Provides idea about changes in the phases
so both are calcination during the reaction
(2) (A) is calcination and (B) is roasting (4) Provides idea about reduction of metal oxide
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

57. The addition of silica during the extraction of 61. Match List -I with List -II :
copper from its sulphide ore [JEE (Main)-2021] List-I List-II
(1) Converts iron oxide into iron silicate (Name of ore/mineral) (Chemical formula)
(2) Converts copper sulphide into copper silicate a. Calamine (i) ZnS
(3) Reduces copper sulphide into metallic copper b. Malachite (ii) FeCO3
(4) Reduces the melting point of the reaction c. Siderite (iii) ZnCO3
mixture d. Sphalerite (iv) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
58. Given below are two statements. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement I: The choice of reducing agents for (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
metals extraction can be made by using Ellingham
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
diagram, a plot of G vs temperature.
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Statement II : The value of S increases from left
to right in Ellingham diagram. (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
62. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
In the light of the above statements, choose the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
most appropriate answer from the options given
Reason (R).
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true bauxite by the electrolysis of
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false molten mixture of Al 2 O 3 with
cryolite.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Reason (R) : The oxidation state of Al in
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
cryolite is +3.
59. Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statnement I : Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of zinc most appropriate answer from the options given
and copper glance is a sulphide ore of copper. below : [JEE (Main)-2021]

Statement II : It is possible to separate two (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of oil to water (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
or by using depressants in a froth flotation method. (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the correct explanation of (A)
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Statement I is true but Stantement II is false correct explanation of (A)
(2) Statement I is false but Statment II is true 63. In the electrolytic refining of blister copper, the total
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false number of main impurities, from the following,
removed as anode mud is_____.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Pb, Sb, Se, Te, Ru, Ag, Au and Pt
60. Which refining process is generally used in the
[JEE (Main)-2021]
purification of low melting metals?
64. Calamine and Malachite, respectively, are the ores
[JEE (Main)-2021] of : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Electrolysis (1) Nickel and Aluminium
(2) Zone refining (2) Aluminium and Zinc
(3) Liquation (3) Zinc and Copper
(4) Chromatographic method (4) Copper and Iron

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Chapter 18

The d & f-Block Elements

1. In context with the transition elements, which of (3) Ferrous compounds are more easily
the following statements is incorrect? hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric
[AIEEE-2009] compounds
(1) In the highest oxidation states, the transition (4) Ferrous oxide is more basic innature than the
metals show basic character and form cationic ferric oxide.
complexes
5. Which of the following arrangements does not
(2) In the highest oxidation states of the first five represent the correct order of the property stated
transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and against it? [JEE (Main)-2013]
3d electrons are used for bonding.
(1) V 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+ < Fe 2+ : paramagnetic
(3) Once the d5configuration is exceeded, the behaviour
tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in
(2) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size
bonding decreases
(3) Co 3+ < Fe 3+ < Cr 3+ < Sc 3+ : stability in
(4) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the
aqueous solution
zero oxidation state is also shown by these
elements in complexes (4) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation
states
2. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is
dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the 6. Four successive members of the first row transition
following statements is incorrect? [AIEEE-2009] elements are listed below with atomic numbers.
W hich one of them is expected to have the
(1) The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decrease in general
0
with increasing atomic number highest EM3 /M2 value? [JEE (Main)-2013]
(2) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless (1) Cr (Z = 24)
(3) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character (2) Mn (Z = 25)
(4) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions (3) Fe (Z = 26)
the bonding in its compounds is predominently
ionic in character (4) Co (Z = 27)
7. Which series of reactions correctly represents
3. The correct order of Eo 2 values with negative
M /M chemical reactions related to iron and its
sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe compound? [JEE (Main)-2014]
and Co is [AIEEE-2010]
dil.H 2SO 4 H 2SO4 ,O2
(1) Fe  FeSO4  
(1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (2) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
heat
(3) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co (4) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co Fe2 (SO4 )3  Fe

4. Iron exhibits +2 and +3 oxidation states. Which of heat

the following statements about iron is incorrect?
(2) Fe 
O2 ,heat dil.H2SO4
FeO   FeSO 4 Fe
[AIEEE-2012]
Cl2 ,heat heat, air Zn
(3) Fe  FeCl3  FeCl2 Fe
(1) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic
than the corresponding ferric compounds. O2 ,heat CO,600ºC
(4) Fe  Fe3O 4  
(2) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the
CO,700ºC
coirresponding ferric compounds. FeO   Fe

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

8. Match the catalysts to the correct processes : 14. The element that usually does NOT show variable
oxidation states is [JEE (Main)-2019]
Catalyst Process
(1) Cu (2) Ti
a. TiCl3 (i) Wacker process
(3) V (4) Sc
b. PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler-Natta
polymerization 4 KOH,O
15. A 
2
 2B  2H2O
c. CuCl2 (iii) Contact process (Green)

d. V2O5 (iv) Deacon's process 4 HCl

3B  2C  MnO2  2H2O
[JEE (Main)-2015] (Purple)

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
H2O, KI
2C   2A  2KOH  D
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
9. The color of KMnO4 is due to [JEE (Main)-2015] In the above sequence of reactions, A and D ,
(1) M  L charge transfer transition respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) d - d transition (1) KI and K2MnO4
(3) L  M charge transfer transition (2) KIO3 and MnO2
(4)  - * transition (3) MnO2 and KIO3
10. Which of the following compounds is metallic and (4) KI and KMnO4
ferromagnetic? [JEE (Main)-2016]
16. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is
(1) CrO2 (2) VO2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) MnO2 (4) TiO2
(1) Gd3+ (2) Lu3+
11. The pair having the same magnetic moment is
(3) La3+ (4) Sm3+
[At. No.: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]
[JEE (Main)-2016] 17. The statement that is INCORRECT about the
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ interstitial compounds is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (1) They are chemically reactive.

(3) [CoCl4]2– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (2) They are very hard.

(4) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2– (3) They have high melting points.
12. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively (4) They have metallic conductivity.
acting as a/an [JEE (Main)-2017]
18. The maximum number of possible oxidation states
(a) ZnO + Na2O  Na2ZnO2 of actinoides are shown by [JEE (Main)-2019]
(b) ZnO + CO2  ZnCO3 (1) Berkelium (Bk) and californium (Cf)
(1) Acid and acid (2) Acid and base (2) Neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu)
(3) Base and acid (4) Base and base (3) Actinium (Ac) and thorium (Th)
13. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid (4) Nobelium (No) and lawrencium (Lr)
series of elements by and large means
19. Consider the hydrated ions of Ti2+, V2+, Ti3+, and
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Sc3+. The correct order of their spin-only magnetic
(1) Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic moments is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
radii
(1) Sc3+ < Ti3+ < Ti2+ < V2+
(2) Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic
radii (2) Ti3+ < Ti2+ < Sc3+ < V2+

(3) Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii (3) Sc3+ < Ti3+ < V2+ < Ti2+

(4) Increase in both atomic and ionic radii (4) V2+ < Ti2+ < Ti3+ < Sc3+

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20. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and 26. The lanthanoid that does NOT show +4 oxidation
plutonium, respectively, are : [JEE (Main)-2019] state is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 6 and 7 (2) 7 and 6 (1) Tb (2) Dy
(3) 6 and 4 (4) 4 and 6 (3) Ce (4) Eu
21. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment 27. Consider the following reactions:
with both acid as well as base is :
NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  (A) + side products
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(Conc.)
(1) Zinc (2) Magnesium
(A) + NaOH  (B) + Side products
(3) Iron (4) Mercury
(B) + H2SO4 + H2O2  (C) + Side products
22. The pair that has similar atomic radii is :
(dilute)
[JEE (Main)-2019]
The sum of the total number of atoms in one
(1) Mo and W (2) Ti and Hf molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is _____.
(3) Sc and Ni (4) Mn and Re
[JEE (Main)-2020]
23. 5 g of zinc is treated separately with an excess of
28. The sum of the total number of  bonds between
(a) Dilute hydrochloric acid and chromium and oxygen atoms in chromate and
(b) Aqueous sodium hydroxide. dichromate ions is ____________ .

The ratio of the volumes of H2 evolved in these two [JEE (Main)-2020]

reactions is [JEE (Main)-2020] 29. The electrode potential of M2+
/ M of 3d-series
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 elements shows positive value for :

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 [JEE (Main)-2021]

24. The incorrect statement is [JEE (Main)-2020] (1) Cu (2) Zn
(1) Manganate and permanganate ions are (3) Co (4) Fe
paramagnetic 30. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(2) Manganate and permanganate ions are [JEE (Main)-2021]
tetrahedral
(1) VOSO4 is a reducing agent
(3) Manganate ion is green in colour and
permanganate ion is purple in colour (2) RuO4 is an oxidizing agent
(4) In manganate and permanganate ions, the - (3) Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of
bonding takes place by overlap of Co3+
p-orbitals of oxygen and d-orbitals of (4) Cr2O3 is an amphoteric oxide
manganese
31. What is the correct order of the following elements
25. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) - (c) is (are) with respect to their density?
(a) W(VI) is more stable than Cr(VI). [JEE (Main)-2021]
(b) In the presence of HCl, permanganate titrations (1) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe
provide satisfactory results.
(2) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn
(c) Some lanthanoid oxides can be used as (3) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr
phosphors. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu
(1) (a) and (b) only 32. Given below are two statements:
(2) (a) only Statement-I: CeO2 can be used for oxidation of
(3) (b) and (c) only aldehyde and ketones.
Statement-II: Aqueous solution of EuSO 4 is a
(4) (b) only
strong reducing agent.

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

In the light of the above statements, choose the 39. Given below are two statements :
correct answer from the options given below: Statement I : The E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V.
[JEE (Main)-2021] Statement II : Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false than Ce3+ state.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
33. In which of the following pairs, the outer most
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
electronic configuration will be the same?
incorrect
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) Ni2+ and Cu+ incorrect
(2) Fe2+ and Co+ (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Cr+ and Mn2+ correct

(4) V2+ and Cr+ 40. Fex2 and Fey3 are known when x and y are

34. The spin only magnetic moment of a divalent ion [JEE (Main)-2021]
in aqueous solution (atomic number 29) is (1) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) x = Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I
35. Which one of the following lanthanoids does not (3) x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl, Br, I
form MO2? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I
[M is lanthanoid metal]
41. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value (BM)
(1) Nd (2) Pr of a divalent metal ion with atomic number 25, in
(3) Dy (4) Yb it’s aqueous solution? [JEE (Main)-2021]

36. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation (1) 5.92 (2) 5.26
number of Cr in the product formed is __________. (3) Zero (4) 5.0
[JEE (Main)-2021] 42. Given below are two statements :
37. In mildly alkaline medium, thiosulphate ion is Statements I : Potassium permanganate on heating
oxidized by MnO4– to “A”. The oxidation state of at 573 K forms potassium manganate.
sulphur in “A” is ________. [JEE (Main)-2021] Statements II : Both potassium permanganate and
38. Given below are two statement : one is labelled as potassium manganate are tetrahedral and
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: paramagnetic in nature.
Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion. In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
Reason R : The above is a consequence of the
below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
lanthanoid contraction.
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(1) A is false but R is true (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) A is true but R is false 43. The common positive oxidation states for an
element with atomic number 24, are
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) +1 and +3 to +6 (2) +1 to +6
explanation of A (3) +2 to +6 (4) +1 and +3
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44. Cu2+ salt reacts with potassium iodide to give: 52. The addition of dilute NaOH to Cr3+ salt solution
will give : [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) A solution of [Cr(OH)4]—
(1) Cu2I2 (2) Cu2I3
(2) Precipitate of [Cr(OH)6]3–
(3) Cu(I3)2 (4) CuI
(3) Precipitate of Cr2O3(H2O)n
45. The set having ions which are coloured and
(4) Precipitate of Cr(OH)3
paramagnetic both is [JEE (Main)-2021]
53. Potassium permaganate on heating at 513 K gives
(1) Cu2+, Cr3+, Sc+ (2) Cu+, Zn2+, Mn4+
a non-gaseous product which is
(3) Sc3+, V5+, Ti4+ (4) Ni2+, Mn7+, Hg2+ [JEE (Main)-2021]
46. The correct order of following 3d metal oxides, (1) Paramagnetic and green
according to their oxidation number is
(2) Paramagnetic and colourless
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Diamagnetic and colourless
(a) CrO3 (b) Fe2O3 (4) Diamagnetic and green
(c) MnO2 (d) V2O5 54. Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits
(e) Cu2O +2 oxidation state with diamagnetic nature? (Given
Z for Nd = 60, Yb = 70, La = 57, Ce = 58)
(1) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b) > (e)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) (d) > (a) > (b) > (c) > (e)
(1) Nd (2) Yb
(3) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
(3) La (4) Ce
(4) (c) > (a) > (d) > (e) > (b) 55. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a :
47. The spin only magnetic moments (in BM) for free [JEE (Main)-2021]
Ti3+, V2+ and Sc3+ ions respectively are
(1) Linear symmetrical Cr – O – Cr bond
(At. No. Sc : 21 ; Ti : 22 ; V : 23)
(2) Non-linear symmetrical Cr – O – Cr bond
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Linear unsymmetrical Cr – O – Cr bond
(1) 1.73, 3.87, 0 (2) 0, 3.87, 1.73 (4) Non-linear unsymmetrical Cr – O – Cr bond
(3) 3.87, 1.73, 0 (4) 1.73, 0, 3.87 56. The Eu2+ ion is a strong reducing agent in spite of
48. Which one of the following when dissolved in water its ground state electronic configuration
gives coloured solution in nitrogen atmosphere? (outermost) : [Atomic number of Eu = 63]

[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) 4f6 (2) 4f7
(1) AgCl (2) Cu2Cl2
(3) 4f66s2 (4) 4f76s2
(3) ZnCl2 (4) CuCl2
57. The value of magnetic quantum number of the
49. The number of 4f electrons in the ground state
outermost electron of Zn+ ion is ______. (Integer
electronic configuration of Gd2+ is _____. [Atomic
answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
number of Gd = 64] [JEE (Main)-2021]
58. Identify the element for which electronic
50. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is indexed as configuration in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5 :
‘X’ and ‘Y’ type respectively. The correct set of X
[JEE (Main)-2021]
and Y is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Mn (2) Ru
(1) X = amphoteric Y = basic
(3) Co (4) Fe
(2) X = basic Y = basic
59. In the given chemical reaction colors of the Fe2+
(3) X = basic Y = amphoteric and Fe3+ ions, are respectively: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) X = acidic Y = acidic
5Fe2+  MnO4–  8H  Mn2+  4H2O + 5Fe3+
51. The number of f electrons in the ground state
electronic configuration of Np (Z = 93) is ______. (1) Yellow, Green (2) Green, Orange
(Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Green, Yellow (4) Yellow, Orange


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Chapter 19

Coordination Compounds

1. Which of the following has an optical isomer? 7. Which among the following will be named as
[AIEEE-2009] dibromidobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
(1) [Co (en) (NH3)2]2+ (2) [Co (H2O)4 (en)]3+ bromide? [AIEEE-2012]

(3) [Co (en)2 (NH3)2 ]3+ (4) [Co (NH3)3 Cl]+ (1) [Cr (en)2Br2]Br (2) [Cr (en)Br4]–

2. Which of the following pairs represents linkage (3) [Cr (en) Br2]Br (4) [Cr (en)3]Br3
isomers? [AIEEE-2009] 8. Which of the following complex species is not
(1) [Pd(P Ph3)2 (NCS)2] and [Pd(P Ph3)2(SCN)2] expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(2) [Co (NH3)5 NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] NO3
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(3) [Pt Cl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (4) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
9. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with
3. Which one of the following has an optical isomer?
four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4 absorb
[AIEEE-2010]
wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and
(1) [Zn(en)2]2+ (2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+ blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ strength of the four ligands is [JEE (Main)-2014]
4. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3.6NH3 (molar (1) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1 (2) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
mass = 267.5 g mol–1) is passed through a cation (3) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (4) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution
10. The equation which is balanced and represents the
were treated with excess of AgNO3 to give 4.78 g
correct product(s) is [JEE (Main)-2014]
of AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g mol–1). The formula
of the complex is [AIEEE-2010] (1) Li2O + 2KCl  2LiCl + K2O
(At. mass of Ag = 108 u) (2) [CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+  Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl—
(1) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 excess NaOH
(3) [Mg(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ + (EDTA) 4—  
(3) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl (4) [CoCl3(NH3)3] 2+
[Mg(EDTA)] + 6H2O
5. Among the ligands NH 3, en, CN – and CO the (4) CuSO4 + 4KCN  K2[Cu(CN)4] + K2SO4
correct order of their increasing field strength, is
[AIEEE-2011] 11. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for
square planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH 3 )(NH 2 OH)] + is
(1) en < CH– < NH3 < CO (py = pyridine) [JEE (Main)-2015]
(2) CO < NH3 < en < CN– (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) NH3 < en < CN– < CO (3) 4 (4) 6
(4) CN– < NH3 < CO < en 12. Which one of the following complexes shows
6. Which one of the following complex ions has optical isomerism? [JEE (Main)-2016]
geometrical isomers ? [AIEEE-2011] (1) cis[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(1) [ Cr (NH3)4 (en) ]3 +
(2) trans[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(2) [ Co (en)3 ]3 +
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(3) [ Ni (NH3)5 Br ] +
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(4) [ Co (NH3)2 (en)2 ]3 +
(en = ethylenediamine)
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13. On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of 18. Homoleptic octahedral complexes of a metal ion
CoCl3  6H2O with excess AgNO3; 1.2 × 1022 ions ‘M3+’ with three monodentate ligands L1, L2 and L3
are precipitated. The complex is [JEE (Main)-2017] absorb wavelengths in the region of green, blue
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 and red respectively. The increasing order of the
ligand strength is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2  H2O
(1) L1 < L2 < L3 (2) L3 < L2 < L1
(3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl  2H2O
(3) L3 < L1 < L2 (4) L2 < L1 < L3
(4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3]  3H2O
14. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following 19. The complex that has highest crystal field splitting
compounds, which one will show the highest energy (), is [JEE (Main)-2019]
freezing point? [JEE (Main)-2018] (1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (2) K2[CoCl4]
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (3) K3[Co(CN)6] (4) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]Cl3
(2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2  H2O 20. Wilkinson catalyst is (Et = C2H5)
(3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl  2H2O [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3]  3H2O (1) [(Ph3P)3IrCl] (2) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
15. The oxidation states of
(3) [(Et3P)3IrCl] (4) [(Et3P)3RhCl]
Cr in Cr H2O 6  Cl3 , Cr  C6H6 2  , and 21. The total number of isomers for a square planar
complex [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO2)] is
K 2 Cr  CN 2  O 2  O2  NH3   respectively are
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2018]
(1) 8 (2) 12
(1) +3, +4 and +6 (2) +3, +2 and +4
(3) 4 (4) 16
(3) +3, 0 and +6 (4) +3, 0 and +4
16. Consider the following reaction and statements 22. The electrolytes usually used in the electroplating
of gold and silver, respectively, are
[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br–  [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer (1) [Au(CN)2]– and [AgCl2]–
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant (2) [Au(NH3)2]+ and [Ag(CN)2]–
complex ion is a trans-isomer. (3) [Au(CN)2]– and [Ag(CN)2]–
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
(4) [Au(OH)4]– and [Ag(OH)2]–
complex ion is a trans-isomer.
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant 23. A reaction of cobalt (III) chloride and
complex ion is a cis-isomer. ethylenediamine in a 1 : 2 mole ratio generates
two isomeric products A (violet coloured) and B
The correct statements are: [JEE (Main)-2018] (green coloured). A can show optical activity, but,
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (I) and (III) B is optically inactive. What type of isomers does
(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV) A and B represent? [JEE (Main)-2019]
17. Two complexes [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (A) and [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (1) Ionisation isomers
(B) are violet and yellow coloured, respectively. The (2) Coordination isomers
incorrect statement regarding them is
(3) Geometrical isomers
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 0 values of (A) and (B) are calculated from (4) Linkage isomers
the energies of violet and yellow light, 24. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons
respectively of a metal ion in its high spin and low-spin
(2) Both are paramagnetic with three unpaired octahedral complexes is two. The metal ion is
electrons [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) 0 value for (A) is less than that of (B) (1) Ni2+ (2) Mn2+
(4) Both absorb energies corresponding to their
(3) Fe2+ (4) Co2+
complementary colors
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25. The number of bridging CO ligand(s) and Co-Co 32. The following ligand is [JEE (Main)-2019]
bond(s) in Co2(CO)8, respectively are NEt 2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
N
(1) 2 and 1 (2) 0 and 2
(3) 2 and 0 (4) 4 and 0
26. The coordination number of Th in O O
K4[Th(C2O4)4(OH2)2] is [JEE (Main)-2019]

C 2 O 2–
4 = Oxalato  (1) Tetradentate (2) Tridentate

(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) Bidentate (4) Hexadentate

33. The compound that inhibits the growth of tumors is
(3) 14 (4) 8
[JEE (Main)-2019]
27. The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the
(1) cis-[Pt(Cl)2(NH3)2] (2) trans-[Pt(Cl)2(NH3)2]
ligands in K3[Co(CN)6] are [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) cis-[Pd(Cl)2(NH3)2] (4) trans-[Pd(Cl)2(NH3)2]
(1) dxy, dxz and dyz
34. The calculated spin-only magnetic moments (BM) of
(2) dxz, dyz and dz2 the anionic and cationic species of [Fe(H2O)6]2 and
(3) dx2 – y2 and dz2 [Fe(CN)6], respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 2.84 and 5.92 (2) 4.9 and 0
(4) dxy and dx2 – y2
(3) 0 and 5.92 (4) 0 and 4.9
28. The pair of metal ions that can give a spin only
magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the complex 35. The number of water molecule(s) not coordinated to
copper ion directly in CuSO4  5H2O, is
[M(H2O)6]Cl2, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) V2+ and Co2+ (2) Co2+ and Fe2+
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) V2+ and Fe2+ (4) Cr2+ and Mn2+
(3) 2 (4) 3
29. Mn2(CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to 36. The one that will show optical activity is
the presence of [JEE (Main)-2019] (en = ethane-1,2-diamine) [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Mn – C bond (2) Mn – Mn bond A

(3) Mn – O bond (4) C – O bond A B

(1) M
30. The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic
Mn(II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable ligand for B A
this complex is [JEE (Main)-2019] B
A
(1) CO B B
(2) Ethylenediamine (2) M
(3) NCS– B B
A
(4) CN–
A
31. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment A
of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes, M en
(3)
[V(CN) 6 ] 4– , [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4– , [Ru(NH 3 ) 6 ] 3+ and
B
[Cr(NH3)6]2+, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
B
(1) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ A
(2) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
(4) en M en
(3) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+
(4) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+ A
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37. The degenerate orbitals of [Cr(H2O)6]3+ are (2) The gemstone, ruby, has Cr3+ ions occupying
[JEE (Main)-2019] the octahedral sites of beryl.
(3) The spin-only magnetic moment of
(1) dxz and dyz (2) d x2 – y2 and dxy
[Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ is 2.83 BM.

(3) d z2 and dxz (4) dyz and d z2 (4) The color of [CoCl(NH 3) 5] 2+ is violet as it
absorbs the yellow light.
38. The correct statements among I to III are
43. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of
(I) Valence bond theory cannot explain the color [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 and K2[NiCl4], respectively, are
exhibited by transition metal complexes.
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(II) Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively
the magnetic properties of transition metal (1) –2.4o and –1.2t (2) –0.6o and –0.8t
complexes.
(3) –0.4o and –0.8t (4) –0.4o and –1.2t
(III) Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands
44. The complex ion that will lose its crystal field
as weak and strong field ones.
stabilization energy upon oxidation of its metal to
[JEE (Main)-2019] +3 state is
(1) (II) and (III) only (2) (I), (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (II) only (4) (I) and (III) only (Phen =
39. The maximum possible denticities of a ligand given N N
below towards a common transition and inner- and
ignore pairing energy)
transition metal ion, respectively, are
[JEE (Main)-2019]
OOC COO
N N N (1) [Ni(phen)3]2+ (2) [Co(phen)3]2+
OOC COO
COO (3) [Zn(phen)3]2+ (4) [Fe(phen)3]2+
[JEE (Main)-2019] 45. Complete removal of both the axial ligands (along
the z-axis) from an octahedral complex leads to
(1) 6 and 8 (2) 8 and 6
which of the following splitting patterns? (relative
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 6 and 6 orbital energies not on scale).
40. The species that can have a trans-isomer is : [JEE (Main)-2019]

(en = ethane-1, 2-diamine, ox = oxalate)

dz2 dx2 – y2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
dx 2 –y 2 dxy
(1) E (2) E
(1) [Zn(en)Cl2] (2) [Pt(en)Cl2] dxz, dyz dz2
(3) [Cr(en)2(ox)]+ (4) [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+ dxy dxz, dyz

41. Three complexes, [CoCl(NH 3 ) 5 ] 2+ (l),

[Co(NH3)5H2O] (ll) and [Co(NH3)6]3+(lll) absorb light
3+ dx 2 – y 2 d x2 – y2
in the visible region. The correct order of the dz2 dz2
wavelength of light absorbed by them is : (3) E (4) E
dxy dyz, dxz
[JEE (Main)-2019] dxz, dyz dxy
(1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (II) > (I) > (III) 46. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in
(3) (III) > (I) > (II) (4) (III) > (II) > (I) [Co(Cl)(en)2]Cl and K3[AI(C2O4)3], respectively, are
(en = ethane-1, 2-diamine) [JEE (Main)-2019]
42. The INCORRECT statement is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) 3 and 3 (2) 5 and 3
(1) The spin-only magnetic moments of [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) 5 and 6 (4) 6 and 6
and [Cr(H2O)6]2+ are nearly similar.
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47. The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 (1) (A)  (C)  (D) < (B)
Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is [JEE (Main)-2020] (2) (C)  (D) < (B) < (A)
(1) Diamminechlorido(methanamine)platinum (II) (3) (A)  (C) < (B)  (D)
chloride
(4) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A)
(2) Diammine(methanamine)chloridoplatinum (II)
Chloride 52. Among (a) – (d), the complexes that can display
geometrical isomerism are
(3) Bisammine(methanamine)chloridoplatinum (II)
chloride (a) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]+

(4) Diamminechlorido(aminomethane)platinum (II) (b) [Pt(NH3)Cl5]–

chloride (c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]
48. The theory that can completely/properly explain the (d) [Pt(NH3)4ClBr]2+ [JEE (Main)-2020]
nature of bonding in [Ni(CO)4] is (1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
[JEE (Main)-2020] (3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (a)
(1) Crystal field theory 53. [Pd(F)(Cl)(Br)(I)]2– has n number of geometrical
(2) Werner’s theory isomers. Then, the spin-only magnetic moment and
crystal field stabilisation energy [CFSE] of
(3) Valence bond theory
[Fe(CN)6]n – 6, respectively, are
(4) Molecular orbital theory
[Note : Ignore the pairing energy]
49. Among the statements (a)-(d), the incorrect ones
[JEE (Main)-2020]
are
(1) 0 BM and –2.4 0
(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field
ligands have very high magnetic moments (2) 5.92 BM and 0

(b) When 0 < P, the d-electron configuration of (3) 1.73 BM and –2.0 0
4 2
Co(III) in an octahedral complex is t eg eg (4) 2.84 BM and –1.6 0
54. Complex X of composition Cr(H2O)6Cln has a spin
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)3]3+ is only magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. It reacts with
lower than that of [CoF6]3– AgNO3 and shows geometrical isomerism. The
(d) If the 0 for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is IUPAC nomenclature of X is [JEE (Main)-2020]
18,000, cm–1 the t for its tetrahedral complex (1) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium(III) chloride
with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm –1 dihydrate
[JEE (Main)-2020] (2) Hexaaqua chromium(III) chloride
(1) (c) and (d) only (3) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium(IV) Chloride
(2) (a) and (d) only dihydrate

(3) (a) and (b) only (4) Dichloridotetraaqua chromium(IV) chloride

dihydrate
(4) (b) and (c) only
55. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic
50. The complex that can show fac-and mer-isomers moments of the following complexes is :
is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(I) [Cr(H2O)6]Br2
(1) [CoCl2(en)2] (2) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
(II) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(III) Na3[Fe(C2O4)3](0 > P)
51. The correct order of the calculated spin-only
(IV) (Et4N)2[CoCl4] [JEE (Main)-2020]
magnetic moments of complexes (A)
to (D) is (1) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (2) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
(C) Na2[Ni(CN)4] (D) PdCl2(PPh3)2 (3) (II)  (I) > (IV) > (III)
[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)

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56. The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] that has/have a Cl— (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
Co—Cl angle of 90°, is/are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
(1) cis and trans
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
(2) meridional and trans
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(3) cis only
60. The one that is not expected to show isomerism
(4) trans only is [JEE (Main)-2020]
57. For octahedral Mn(II) and tetrahedral Ni(II) (1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
complexes, consider the following statements:
(2) [Ni(NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+
(I) Both the complexes can be high spin.
(3) [Ni(en)3]2+
(II) Ni(II) complex can very rarely below spin.
(4) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
(III) With strong field ligands, Mn(II) complexes can
be low spin. 61. The electronic spectrum of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ shows a
single broad peak with a maximum at
(IV) Aqueous solution of Mn(II) ions is yellow in 20,300 cm–1. The crystal field stabilization energy
colour. (CFSE) of the complex ion, in kJ mol–1, is
The correct statements are : [JEE (Main)-2020] (1 kJ mol–1 = 83.7 cm–1) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (1) 145.5 (2) 97
(2) (I) and (II) only (3) 242.5 (4) 83.7
(3) (II), (III) and (IV) only 62. The complex that can show optical activity
(4) (I), (II) and (III) only [JEE (Main)-2020]
58. Consider that a d6 metal ion (M2+) forms a complex
(1) cis-[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–
with aqua ligands, and the spin only magnetic
moment of the complex is 4.90 BM. The geometry (2) trans-[Cr(Cl2)(ox)2]3–
and the crystal field stabilization energy of the (3) trans-[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–
complex is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3– (ox = oxalate)
(1) Tetrahedral and – 1.6 t + 1P
63. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en) 3]Cl2 and
(2) Octahedral and –2.4 0 + 2P [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2, respectively are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Tetrahedral and –0.6 t
6 0 6 0 6 0 4 2
(1) t 2g eg and t 2g e g (2) t 2g eg and t 2g e g
(4) Octahedral and –1.6 0
59. Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes ((i), 4 2 4 2
(3) t 2g eg and t 2g e g
4 2 6 0
(4) t 2g eg and t 2g e g
(ii) and (iii)) of Mn+ ion are provided below; their max
values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The 64. Complex A has a composition of H12O6Cl3Cr. If the
correct match between the complexes and their complex on treatment with conc. H2SO4 loses
max values is 13.5% of its original mass, the correct molecular
formula of A is [JEE (Main)-2020]
C
A [Given : atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu and
Absorption

B Cl = 35 amu]
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H2O
(3) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3]·3H2O
max max max (4) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O
Wavelength (nm)
65. The number of isomers possible for [Pt(en)(NO2)2]
(i) [M(NCS)6](–6 + n) is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(ii) [MF6](–6 + n) (1) 3 (2) 1
(iii) [M(NH3)6]n+ [JEE (Main)-2020] (3) 4 (4) 2

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66. The pair in which both the species have the same 72. For a d4 metal ion in an octahedral field, the correct
magnetic moment (spin only) is electronic configuration is [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020] 4 0
(1) t 2g eg when 0 < P
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2–
(2) [Co(OH)4]2– and [Fe(NH3)6]2+ 3 1
(2) t 2g eg when 0 > P
(3) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)]2+
2 2
(4) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (3) eg t 2g when 0 < P

67. The one that can exhibit highest paramagnetic 3 1

behaviour among the following is (4) t 2g eg when 0 < P

gly = glycinato; bpy = 2, 2-bipyridine 73. Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal
[JEE (Main)-2020] square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
geometries, respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120°
(1) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+ and 180° L-M-L angles in the two complexes is
(2) [Pd(gly)2] __________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]– (0 > P) 74. The oxidation states of iron atoms in compounds
(A), (B) and (C), respectively, are x, y and z. The
(4) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
sum of x, y and z is ________.
68. The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one
Na 4 [Fe(CN)5 (NOS)] Na 4 [FeO 4 ] [Fe 2 (CO)9 ]
d-orbital of the central atom is [JEE (Main)-2020] (A ) (B) (C)
(1) XeF4 (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) [CrF6]3– (4) BrF5
75. The total number of coordination sites in
69. The values of the crystal field stabilization energies ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA4–) is ____.
for a high spin d6 metal ion in octahedral and
tetrahedral fields, respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020] 76. Considering that 0 > P, the magnetic moment (in
BM) of [Ru(H2O)6]2+ would be _____.
(1) –1.6 0 and –0.4 t
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) –2.4 0 and –0.6 t
77. The volume (in mL) of 0.125 M AgNO3 required to
(3) –0.4 0 and –0.27 t
quantitatively precipitate chloride ions in
(4) –0.4 0 and –0.6 t 0.3 g of [Co(NH3)6]CI3 is _____________.
70. Consider the complex ions, M[Co(NH ) ]CI = 267.46 g/mol
3 6 3
trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (A) and cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B). MAgNO = 169.87 g/mol [JEE (Main)-2020]
3
The correct statement regarding them is 78. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is given
[JEE (Main)-2020] below:
(1) both (A) and (B) can be optically active. 
K1
Cu2   NH3  [Cu(NH3 )]2 
(2) both (A) and (B) can not be optically active.
(3) (A) can not be optically active, but (B) can be 
K2
[Cu(NH3 )]2   NH3  [Cu(NH3 )2 ]2 
optically active.
(4) (A) can be optically active, but (B) can not be 
K3
[Cu(NH3 )2 ]2   NH3  [Cu(NH3 )3 ]2 
optically active.
71. The species that has a spin-only magnetic moment 
K4
[Cu(NH3 )3 ]2   NH3  [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2 
of 5.9 BM, is (Td = tetrahedral) [JEE (Main)-2020]
The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4
(1) [MnBr4]2– (Td) are 104, 1.58 × 103, 5 × 102 and 102 respectively.
(2) [NiCl4]2– (Td) The overall equilibrium constants for dissociation of
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x × 10–12. The value of x is ____.
(3) Ni(CO)4 (Td) (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
(4) [Ni(CN)4]2– (square planar) [JEE (Main)-2021]
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79. The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) 84. The number of stereoisomers possible for
[Co(ox)2(Br)(NH3)]2– is __________.
for species [FeCl4]2–, [Co(C2O4)3]3– and MnO2–
4
[ox = oxalate] [JEE (Main)-2021]
respectively are : [JEE (Main)-2021]
85. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to
(1) 5.82, 0 and 0 BM
replace the neutral ligands from the coordination
(2) 4.90, 0 and 1.73 BM sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3  4NH3 is ___
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(3) 5.92, 4.90 and 0 BM
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) 4.90, 0 and 2.83 BM
86. Arrange the following metal complex/compounds in
80. The hybridization and magnetic nature of
the increasing order of spin only magnetic moment.
[Mn(CN)6]4– and [Fe(CN)6]3–, respectively are
Presume all the three, high spin system.
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63.)
(1) d 2sp3 and paramagnetic (a) (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd(NO3)3 and
(2) d 2sp3 and diamagnetic (c) Eu(NO3)3
(3) sp3d 2 and paramagnetic [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) sp3d 2 and diamagnetic (1) (a) < (c) < (b) (2) (a) < (b) < (c)
81. In which of the following order the given complex (3) (c) < (a) < (b) (4) (b) < (a) < (c)
ions are arranged correctly with respect to their
87. [Ti(H2O)6] absorbs light of wavelength 498 nm
3+
decreasing spin only magnetic moment?
during a d – d transition. The octahedral splitting,
(i) [FeF6 ]3 – (ii) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3  energy for the above complex is _______ × 10–19J.
(Round off to the nearest Integer).
2– 2
(iii) [NiCl4 ] (iv) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]
h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) 88. Match List-I with List-II :
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) List-I List-II
(3) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii) (a) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] (i) Linkage isomerism
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (b) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (ii) Solvate isomerism
82. Given below are two statements : (c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (iii) Co-ordination
Statement I : The identification of Ni2+
is carried out isomerism
by Dimethylglyoxime in the presence of NH4OH. (d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3– (iv) Optical isomerism
Statement II : The Dimethylglyoxime is a bidentate Choose the correct answer from the options given
neutral ligand. below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
correct answer from the options given below :
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
89. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted in the
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true formation of product A. The secondary valency of
83. Number of bridging CO ligands in [Mn2(CO)10] is Fe in the product A is ______. (Round off to the
__________. [JEE (Main)-2021] Nearest Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]

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90. Match List-I with list-II : (1) 5 and 1 (2) 6 and 4

List-I List-II (3) 6 and 5 (4) 4 and 1
(a) Chlorophyll (i) Ruthenium 94. According to the valence bond theory the
(b) Vitamin - B12 (ii) Platinum hybridization of central metal atom is dsp2 for
which one of the following compounds?
(c) Anticancer drug (iii) Cobalt
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(d) Grubbs catalyst (iv) Magnesium
(1) NiCl2.6H2O (2) [Ni(CO)4]
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) K2[Ni(CN)4] (4) Na2[NiCl4]
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 95. The spin-only magnetic moment value for the
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) complex [Co(CN)6]4– is _______ BM.

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) [At. no. of Co = 27]

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) [JEE (Main)-2021]

91. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2] and 96. The correct order of intensity of colors of the
meridonial-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3], respectively compounds is [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021] (1) [Ni(CN)4]2– > [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(2) [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(CN)4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+
NH3
Ph 3P Br O2 N NH 3 (3) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(CN)4]2–
Ni Co
(1) and (4) [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [Ni(CN)4]2–
Ph 3P Br O 2N NO 2
NH 3 97. Spin only magnetic moment of an octahedral
complex of Fe2+ in the presence of a strong field
ligand in BM is [JEE (Main)-2021]
Ph 3P O2 N NO 2
Br NH 3 (1) 3.46 (2) 2.82
Ni Co
(2) and (3) 0 (4) 4.89
Ph 3P Br O 2N NH3
NH 3 98. An aqueous solution of NiCl2 was heated with
excess sodium cyanide in presence of strong
oxidizing agent to form [Ni(CN) 6] 2–. The total
Ph 3P H3N NO2
Br NO2 change in number of unpaired electrons on metal
Ni Co centre is _______. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) and
Br PPh3 O2N NH 3 99. The total number of unpaired electrons present in
NH3
[Co(NH3)6]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is ______.
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Ph 3P H3N NO2
Br NO2 100. Which one of the following species responds to an
Ni Co external magnetic field? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) and
Br PPh3 H 3N NO2 (1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
NH3
(3) [Co(CN)6]3– (4) [Ni(CO)4]
92. The total number of unpaired electrons present in
101. Three moles of AgCl get precipitated when one
the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is____________.
mole of an octahedral co-ordination compound with
[JEE (Main)-2021] empirical formula CrCl3.3NH3.3H2O reacts with
93. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen excess of silver nitrate. The number of chloride ions
bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO 4  5H 2 O, satisfying the secondary valency of the metal ion
respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2021] is _____. [JEE (Main)-2021]

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102. Which one of the following metal complexes is 108. The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr’s
most stable ? [JEE (Main)-2021] salt and potash alum is _________ × 10–1. (Integer
(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 (2) [Co(en)(NH3)4]Cl2 answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) [Co(en)2(NH3)2]Cl2 (4) [Co(en)3]Cl2 109. Arrange the following cobalt complexes in the order
of increasing Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy
103. The type of hybridisation and magnetic property of
(CFSE) value. [JEE (Main)-2021]
the complex [MnCl6]3–, respectively, are
Complexes :
[JEE (Main)-2021]
A. [CoF6]3– B. [Co(H2O)6]2+
(1) d2sp3 and diamagnetic
(2) sp3d2 and diamagnetic C [Co(NH3)6]3+ D. [Co(en)3]3+

(3) d2sp3 and paramagnetic Choose the correct option :

(4) sp3d2 and paramagnetic (1) C < D < B < A (2) B < C < D < A

104. The number of geometrical isomers found in the (3) A < B < C < D (4) B < A < C < D
metal complexes [PtCl 2 (NH 3 ) 2 ], [Ni(CO) 4 ], 110. Indicate the complex/ complex ion which did not
[Ru(H2O)3Cl3] and [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ respectively, are show any geometrical isomerism:
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 2, 1, 2, 1 (2) 2, 1, 2, 2

(3) 2, 0, 2, 2 (4) 1, 1, 1, 1 (1) Co  NH3  4 Cl2 

105. The number of geometrical isomers possible

3–
in triamminetrinitrocobalt (III) is X and in (2) Co  CN5 NC  
trioxalatochromate (III) is Y. Then the value of
X + Y is ______. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) CoCl2  en 2 
106. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : [Mn(CN) 6 ] 3– , [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3– and
[Co(C2O4)3]3– are d2sp3 hybridised. (4) Co  NH3 3 NO2 3 

Statement II : [MnCl 6 ] 3– and [FeF 6 ] 3– are 111. The overall stability constant of the complex ion
paramagnetic and have 4 and 5 unpaired electrons, [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013. The overall dissociation
respectively. constant is y × 10–14. Then y is _____. (Nearest
In the light of the above statements, choose the integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
correct answer from the options given below:
112. Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with
[JEE (Main)-2021] excess of potassium ferrocyanide gives a Prussian
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true blue coloured colloidal species. It is :

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) Both statement I and statement II are false (1) KFe[Fe(CN)6] (2) K5Fe[Fe(CN)6]2

(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true (3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (4) HFe[Fe(CN)6]

107. 3 moles of metal complex with formula Co(en)2CI3 113. 1 mol of an octahedral metal complex with formula
gives 3 moles of silver chloride on treatment with MCl32L on reaction with excess of AgNO3 gives
excess of silver nitrate. The secondary valency of 1 mol of AgCl. The denticity of Ligand L is _____.
Co in the complex is _________. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 114. The number of optical isomers possible for
[JEE (Main)-2021] [Cr(C2O4)3]3– is ______. [JEE (Main)-2021]

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115. The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is : 117. The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) and
[JEE (Main)-2021] magnetic moment (spin-only) of an octahedral aqua
complex of a metal ion (MZ+) are –0.8 0 and 3.87
(1) 3
BM, respectively. Identify (Mz+) :
(2) 2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) 4
(1) Cr3+
(4) 6
(2) V3+
116. Spin only magnetic moment in BM of
[Fe(CO)4(C2O4)]+ is : [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) Mn4+

(1) 5.92 (4) Co2+

(2) 1.73 118. The sum of oxidation states of two silver ions in
(3) 1 [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] complex is ________.

(4) 0 [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 20

Principles of Qualitative Analaysis

1. Which of the following compounds is not colored 5. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white
yellow? [JEE (Main)-2015] gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained, which is
(1) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ when
heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in
(2) K3[Co(NO2)6] chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is
(3) (NH4)3[As (Mo3O10)4] [JEE (Main)-2018]

(4) BaCrO4 (1) Zn (2) Ca

2. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the (3) Al (4) Fe

figure below is [JEE (Main)-2016] 6. An organic compound ‘A’ is oxidized with Na2O2
Region 4 followed by boiling with HNO 3. The resultant
Region 3 solution is then treated with ammonium molybdate
Region 2 to yield a yellow precipitate
Region 1 Based on above observation, the element present
in the given compound is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Fluorine
(1) Region 2 (2) Region 3 (2) Nitrogen
(3) Region 4 (4) Region 1 (3) Phosphorus

3. Sodium salt of an organic acid 'X' produces (4) Sulphur

effervescence with conc. H2SO4. 'X' reacts with the 7. Thermal decomposition of a Mn compound (X) at
acidified aqueous CaCl2 solution to give a white 513 K results in compound Y, MnO2 and a gaseous
precipitate which decolourises acidic solution of product. MnO2 reacts with NaCl and concentrated
KMnO4. 'X' is [JEE (Main)-2017] H 2 SO 4 to give a pungent gas Z. X, Y and Z
(1) CH3COONa respectively are: [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) K2MnO4, KMnO4 and Cl2
(2) Na2C2O4
(2) K3MnO4, K2MnO4 and Cl2
(3) C6H5COONa
(3) K2MnO4, KMnO4 and SO2
(4) HCOONa
(4) KMnO4, K2MnO4 and Cl2
4. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4– to
[Fe(CN) 6 ] 3– in acidic medium but reduces 8. A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives
[Fe(CN)6]3– to [Fe(CN)6]4– in alkaline medium. The compound B. B on treatment with H 2O gives a
other products formed are, respectively. colourless gas which when passed through CuSO4
solution gives a dark blue-violet coloured solution. A
[JEE (Main)-2018] and B respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (H2O + O2) and H2O (1) Mg and Mg3N2
(2) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH–) (2) Na and Na3N
(3) H2O and (H2O + O2) (3) Mg and Mg(NO3)2
(4) H2O and (H2O + OH–) (4) Na and NaNO3

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9. The mechanism of action of “Terfenadine” (Seldane) (1) 2 (2) 1

is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Activates the histamine receptor
15. What are the products formed in sequence when
(2) Helps in the secretion of histamine excess of CO2 is passed in slaked lime?
(3) Inhibits the secretion of histamine [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Inhibits the action of histamine receptor (1) CaO, CaCO3
10. Reaction of an inorganic sulphite X with dilute H2SO4 (2) CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2
generates compound Y. Reaction of Y with NaOH
gives X. Further, the reaction of X with Y and water (3) Ca(HCO3)2, CaCO3
affords compound Z. Y and Z, respectively, are (4) CaO, Ca(HCO3)2
[JEE (Main)-2020] 16. Which one of the following complexes is violet in
(1) S and Na2SO3 (2) SO2 and NaHSO3 colour? [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) SO2 and Na2SO3 (4) SO3 and NaHSO3 (1) [Fe(SCN)6]4–

11. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4, (2) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–

gas X is evolved which turns K 2Cr 2O 7 paper (3) [Fe(CN)6]4–
acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Y.
(4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3H2O
X and Y respectively are : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3 17. Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb2S3,
As2S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble
(2) X = SO3, Y = Cr2(SO4)3 in 50% HNO3 is_______. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) X = SO2, Y = Cr2(SO4)3 18. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3
List-I List-II
12. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid in
(Metal Ion) (Group in
acetic acid is used for the detection of
Qualitative
[JEE (Main)-2021] analysis)
(1) NO3– (2) N2O (a) Mn2+ (i) Group-III
(3) NO2– (4) NO (b) As3+ (ii) Group-IIA
13. An inorganic Compound ‘X’ on treatment with (c) Cu2+ (iii) Group-IV
concentrated H2SO4 produces brown fumes and
(d) Al3+ (iv) Group-IIB
gives dark brown ring with FeSO4 in presence of
concentrated H2SO4. Also Compound ‘X’ gives Choose the most appropriate answer from the
precipitate ‘Y’, when its solution in dilute HCl is options given below [JEE (Main)-2021]
treated with H 2 S gas. The precipitate ‘Y’ on
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
treatment with concentrated HNO 3 followed by
excess of NH4OH further gives deep blue coloured (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
solution, Compound ‘X’ is [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(1) Cu(NO3)2 (2) Pb(NO2)2 (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) Co(NO3)2 19. The potassium ferrocyanide solution gives a Prussian
14. To an aqueous solution containing ions such as Al3+, blue colour, when added to :
Zn2+, Ca2+, Fe3+, Ni2+, Ba2+ and Cu2+ was added
[JEE (Main)-2021]
conc. HCl, followed by H2S.
(1) CoCl3 (2) CoCl2
The total number of cations precipitated during this
reaction is/are : [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) FeCl2 (4) FeCl3

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Chapter 21
Organic Chemistry:
Some Basic Principles and Techniques
1. The IUPAC name of neopentane is [AIEEE-2009] complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen
in the compound is [AIEEE-2010]
(1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane
(1) 29.5 (2) 59.0
(2) 2-methylpropane
(3) 47.4 (4) 23.7
(3) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
6. The order of stability of the following carbocations
(4) 2-methylbutane

2. Arrange the carbanions, (CH 3 ) 3 C , CCl3 , CH2
 
CH2 = CH – CH2; CH3 – CH2 – CH2; is
(CH3)2 CH , C6H5 CH2 , in order of their decreasing
I II III
stability [AIEEE-2009]
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) (CH3)2 CH > CCl3 > C6H5 CH2 > (CH3)3 C
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
(2) CCl3 > C6H5 CH2 > (CH3)2 CH > (CH3)3 C (3) I > II > III (4) III > I > II
7. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion
(3) (CH3)3 C > (CH3)2 CH > C6H5 CH2 > CCl3 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical
formula of the hydrocarbon is [JEE (Main)-2013]
(4) C6H5 CH2 > CCl3 > (CH3)3 C > (CH3)2 CH (1) C2H4 (2) C3H4
3. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is (3) C6H5 (4) C7H8
[AIEEE-2009]
8. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic
(1) 2 - methyl propene compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
(2) 2 - butene
(3) 2 - methyl - 2 - butene M
sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20
10
(4) Propene
M
4. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given mL of sodium hydroxide for complete
10
conjugate bases (R = CH3) is [AIEEE-2010]
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
(1) RCOO  HC  C  NH2  R compound is [JEE (Main)-2014]
(1) 6%
(2) RCOO  HC  C  R  NH2
(2) 10%

(3) R  HC  C  RCOO  NH2 (3) 3%

(4) 5%
(4) RCOO  NH2  HC  C  R 9. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250
mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr.
5. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing
The percentage of bromine in the compound is (At.
nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's
mass Ag = 108; Br = 80) [JEE (Main)-2015]
method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in
20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the (1) 24 (2) 36
acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for (3) 48 (4) 60

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

10. The distillation technique most suited for separating 15. Arrange the following amines in the decreasing
glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is order of basicity [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) Fractional distillation
(2) Steam distillation N N N
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure H H
I II III
(4) Simple distillation
11. W hich of the following molecules is least (1) III > II > I (2) I > III > II
resonance stabilized? [JEE (Main)-2017]
(3) III > I > II (4) I > II > III
16. The increasing basicity order of the following
compounds is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (2)
N
CH2CH3
O

(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) CH3CH2NH

(3) (4) CH3 CH3

O
(C) H3C – N – CH3 (D) Ph – N – H
12. Which of the following compounds will be suitable
for Kjeldahl's method for nitrogen estimation? (1) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A)
[JEE (Main)-2018]
(2) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

NH2 (3) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)

(1) (2) (4) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)
N
17. If dichloromethane (DCM) and water (H2O) are used
+ – for differential extraction, which one of the following
NO2 N Cl
2
statements is correct? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (4)
(1) DCM and H2O will make turbid/colloidal mixture

13. Which amongst the following is the strongest acid? (2) DCM and H2O will be miscible clearly

[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) DCM and H2O would stay as upper and lower
layer respectively in the separating funnel (S.F.)
(1) CHBr3
(4) DCM and H2O would stay as lower and upper
(2) CH(CN)3 layer respectively in the S.F.
(3) CHI3 18. The increasing order of the pKa values of the
(4) CHCI3 following compounds is
14. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is
OH OH OH OH
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) FCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > NO2
NO2CH2COOH > CICH2COOH NO 2 OMe
A B C D
(2) CNCH2COOH > O2NCH2COOH>
FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) NO2CH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > (1) D < A < C < B
FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH (2) B < C < D < A
(4) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > (3) B < C < A < D
CNCH2COOH > CICH2COOH (4) C < B < A < D

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19. W hat is the IUPAC name of the following (1) CH3 — C  CH > CH  CH > CH2 == CH2
compound?
(2) CH3 — C  CH > CH2 == CH2 > HC  CH
(3) CH  CH > CH2 == CH2 > CH3 — C  CH
H H
(4) HC  CH > CH3 — C  CH > CH2 == CH2
Br
24. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
[JEE (Main)-2019]
C H 3 OH
(1) 3-Bromo-1, 2-dimethylbut-1-ene
(2) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene H 3C – CH – CH – CH 2 – COOH
(3) 3-Bromo-3-methyl-1, 2- dimethylprop-1-ene [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene (1) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
20. The correct match between items I and II is (2) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
Item-I (Mixture) Item-II (3) 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
(Separation method)
(4) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
(A) H2O : Sugar (P) Sublimation
25. Which of the following compounds will show the
(B) H2O : Aniline (Q) Recrystallization maximum ‘enol’ content? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(C) H2O : Toluene (R) Steam distillation (1) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 (2) CH3COCH3
(S) Differential extraction (3) CH3COCH2COCH3 (4) CH3COCH2CONH2
[JEE (Main)-2019] 26. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound
(1) (A)  (R), (B)  (P), (C)  (S) is [JEE (Main)-2019]

(2) (A)  (S), (B)  (R), (C)  (P)

NO 2
(3) (A)  (Q), (B)  (R), (C)  (P)
(4) (A)  (Q), (B)  (R), (C)  (S)
21. An organic compound is estimated through Dumas
method and was found to evolve 6 moles of Cl
CO2, 4 moles of H2O and 1 mole of nitrogen gas. CH3
The formula of the compound is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) C6H8N2 (2) C12H8N (1) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(3) C6H8N (4) C12H8N2 (2) 5-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
22. In the following compound, (3) 2-methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
NH2 a (4) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
d
N Nb 27. The increasing order of the pKb of the following
compound is
e N
H
N
c
F
the favourable site/s for protonation is/are S

[JEE (Main)-2019] (A)

N N
(1) (a) (2) (b), (c) and (d) H H
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) and (e)
CH3O
23. The correct order for acid strength of compounds S
(B)
CH  CH, CH3 — C  CH and CH2 == CH2 N N
is as follows [JEE (Main)-2019] H H
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

O2N 31. The correct order of stability for the following

S alkoxides is
– –
(C) O O
N N O
–

H H O2N
H3C NO 2 NO2
S
(A) (B) (C)
(D)
N N [JEE (Main)-2020]
H H (1) (B) > (A) > (C) (2) (C) > (B) > (A)

[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) (B) > (C) > (A) (4) (C) > (A) > (B)
32. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order
(1) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C) (2) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
of C – OH bond length [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) (B) < (D) < (C) < (A) (4) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol
28. The correct statement among the following is (1) phenol < p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) methanol < phenol < p-ethoxyphenol
(1) (SiH3)3N is planar and less basic than (CH3)3N (3) methanol < p-ethoxyphenol < phenol
(2) (SiH3)3N is pyramidal and more basic than (4) phenol < methanol < p-ethoxyphenol
(CH3)3N 33. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and
(3) (SiH 3) 3N is pyramidal and less basic than 3-methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63°C
(CH3)3N while the other boils at 60°C. What is the best
way to separate the two liquids and which one will
(4) (SiH 3 ) 3 N is planar and more basic than
be distilled out first? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(CH3)3N
(1) Simple distillation, isohexane
29. The IUPAC name for the following compound is
(2) Fractional distillation, isohexane
CH3 (3) Simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
H3C CH (4) Fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane
34. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used to estimate
CH3 nitrogen for which of the following compounds?

CH2 [JEE (Main)-2020]

O
[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) CH3CH2–CN (2) NH2–C–NH 2
(1) 3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene (3) C6H5NO2 (4) C6H5NH2
(2) 3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne 35. The increasing order of basicity for the following
(3) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne intermediates is (from weak to strong)
CH 3
(4) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne
–
30. The increasing order of pKb for the following H3C C– H2C CH CH2
compounds will be
CH 3
(i) (ii)
N
– – –
NH2 CH NH CH 3NHCH 3 [JEE (Main)-2020]
N NH HC C CH 3 CN
(A) (C)
(iii) (iv) (v)
(B) (1) (v) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii)
[JEE (Main)-2020] (2) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (v)
(1) (B) < (C) < (A) (2) (B) < (A) < (C) (3) (v) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(3) (C) < (A) < (B) (4) (A) < (B) < (C) (4) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (v)

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36. Which of the following has the shortest C – Cl 40. Arrange the following labelled hydrogens in
bond? [JEE (Main)-2020] decreasing order of acidity
(1) Cl – CH = CH – NO2 NO2 C C– H a
(2) Cl – CH = CH2
(3) Cl – CH = CH – CH3
d H –O COO H
(4) Cl – CH = CH – OCH3 b

O– H C
37. The decreasing order of basicity of the following
[JEE (Main)-2020]
amines is
(1) b > c > d > a
NH 2
N (2) b > a > c > d
(3) c > b > d > a
(4) c > b > a > d
(I) (II)
41. Which one of the following compounds possesses
the most acidic hydrogen? [JEE (Main)-2020]
NH 2
N O
H
(1)
H 3C CH3
(III) (IV)
(2) H3C – C  C – H
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV) NC C N
(3)
H H
(2) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
O O
(3) (I) > (III) > (IV) > (II)
(4) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV) (4) MeO H OMe
O OMe
38. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.172 g
of an organic compound showed presence of 0.08 42. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
g of bromine. W hich of these is the correct CH3 O
structure of the compound? [JEE (Main)-2020]
C – OH

NH 2 NH 2
Br Br
(1) (2) [JEE (Main)-2020]
Br Br (1) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid

(3) H3C – Br (4) H3C – CH2 – Br (2) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid

(3) 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
39. The IUPAC name for the following compound is
(4) 4-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
CHO
CH 3 43. Among the following compounds, which one has
H3 C the shortest C – Cl bond? [JEE (Main)-2020]
COOH
Cl
HC Cl
[JEE (Main)-2020] (1) (2) CH
CH 2
(1) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid CH2
(2) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal
H 3C
(3) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal (3) H3C – Cl (4) H 3C Cl
(4) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid CH 3

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

44. The increasing order of the acidity of the CHCl CH2

-hydrogen of the following compounds is
O O O
(1) (2)

Ph Ph
(A) (B) Cl

O O
CHCl

OMe NMe2
(C) (D) (3) (4)
[JEE (Main)-2020] CH3
(1) (C) < (A) < (B) < (D)
(2) (B) < (C) < (A) < (D)
48. The increasing order of pKb values of the following
(3) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) compounds is
(4) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B) N(CH 3)2 N(CH 3)2 NHCH 3 NHCH 3
45. The increasing order of basicity of the following
compounds is CN OH
OCH3
N
I II III IV
[JEE (Main)-2020]
N N N (1) I < II < IV < III (2) I < II < III < IV
N
H H H (3) II < I < III < IV (4) II < IV < III < I
(A) (B) (C) (D) 49. W hich of the following compounds shows
[JEE (Main)-2020] geometrical isomerism? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 2-methylpent-1-ene
(1) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
(2) 4-methylpent-1-ene
(2) (D) < (A) < (B) < (C)
(3) 2-methylpent-2-ene
(3) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
(4) 4-methylpent-2-ene
(4) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) 50. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
46. The increasing order of boiling points of the following OH
compounds is
NH 2
OH OH OH OH
O2N
CHO
[JEE (Main)-2020]
CH3 NO 2 NH 2 OCH3
(1) 4-amino-2-formyl-5-hydroxymethyl nitrobenzene
I II III IV
(2) 5-amino-4-hydroxymethyl-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) 3-amino-4-hydroxymethyl-5-nitrobenzaldehyde
(1) III < I < II < IV
(4) 2-nitro-4-hydroxymethyl-5-amino benzaldehyde
(2) IV < I < II < III
51. In an estimation of bromine by Carius method,
(3) I < III < IV < II 1.6 g of an organic compound gave 1.88 g of
AgBr. The mass percentage of bromine in the
(4) I < IV < III < II
compound is _______.
47. Among the following compounds geometrical (Atomic mass, Ag = 108, Br = 80 g mol–1)
isomerism is exhibited by [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]

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52. Which one of the following compounds is non- 56. The correct order of acid character of the following
aromatic? [JEE (Main)-2021] compounds is : [JEE (Main)-2021]

OH COOH COOH COOH

(1) (2)
O

(3) (4) NO 2 CH3

I II III IV
53. The correct order of the following compounds
showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic (1) IV > III > II > I
substitution reaction is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) II > III > IV > I

Cl Cl Cl Cl
(3) I > II > III > IV
NO2 O2 N NO2 (4) III > II > I > IV
57. Given below are two statements:

NO2 NO 2 NO2
Statement I : o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to
intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Statement II : o-Nitrophenol has high melting due
to hydrogen bonding.
(1) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)
most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (1) Both statement I and statement II are true
54. Using the provided information in the following paper (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
chromatogram :
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false
Solvent front
58. Which of the following is ‘a’ FALSE statement?
B
2 cm [JEE (Main)-2021]
5 cm
A (1) Carius method is used for the estimation of
2 cm nitrogen in an organic compound
(2) Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of
phosphorus present in an organic compound is
Base line precipitated as Mg2P2O7 by adding magnesia
Spot
mixture
Fig : Paper chromatography for compounds A and B.
(3) Kjeldahl’s method is used for the estimation of
The calculated Rf value of A ______ × 10–1.
nitrogen in an organic compound
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Carius tube is used in the estimation of
55. Which of the following compound is added to the sulphur in an organic compound
sodium extract before addition of silver nitrate for
59. Given below are two statements:
testing of halogens? [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement I : A mixture of chloroform and aniline
(1) Hydrochloric acid can be separated by simple distillation.
(2) Sodium hydroxide Statement II : When separating aniline from a
(3) Ammonia mixture of aniline and water by steam distillation
aniline boils below its boiling point.
(4) Nitric acid
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

In the light of the above statements, choose the 63. Statement I : Sodium hydride can be used as an
most appropriate answer from the options given oxidising agent.
below : [JEE (Main)-2021] Statement II : The lone pair of electrons on
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true Choose the CORRECT answer from the options
given below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
60. In chromatography technique, the purification of
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
compound is independent of [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Solubility of the compound
64. Match List-I with List-II :
(2) Mobility or flow of solvent system
List-I List-II
(3) Length of the column or TLC plate
Test/Reagents/ Species detected
(4) Physical state of the pure compound
Observation(s)
61. Assertion A : Enol form of acetone [CH3COCH3] (a) Lassaigne’s Test (i) Carbon
exists in < 0.1% quantity. However, the enol form
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur
of acetyl acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in
approximately 15% quantity. (c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen

Reason R : Enol form of acetyl acetone is (d) The sodium fusion (iv) Halogen Specifically
stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding, extract gives black
which is not possible in enol form of acetone.
precipitate with acetic
Choose the correct statement : [JEE (Main)-2021] acid and lead acetate
(1) A is false but R is true The correct match is: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
explanation of A
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) A is true but R is false
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
explanation of A
65. In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen,
62. Among the following, the aromatic compounds are: 0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL of
nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of Hg
pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen
(A) CH2 (B)
in the compound is ___________.
(Round off to the nearest Integer).
[Given : Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg]
(C) (D)
– + [JEE (Main)-2021]

Choose the correct answer from the following 66. Given below are two statements :
options : [JEE (Main)-2021] Statement I : Retardation factor (R f) can be
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only measured in meter/centimeter.
Statement II : Rf value of a compound remains
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
constant in all solvents.
(3) (B) and (C) only
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) (A) and (B) only options given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false 72. + +

CH2 CH2
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
H
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true H
67. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
(A) (B )
[JEE (Main)-2021]
+ +
CH2 CH

(1) (2)
O

(C) (D )
Among the given species the Resonance stabilised
(3) (4) carbocations are : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
68. Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl’s method for
which of the following compound? (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A), (B) and (D) only
[JEE (Main)-2021] 73. Which one of the following pairs of isomers is an
example of metamerism? [JEE (Main)-2021]

OH
(1) (2)
+ – OH and H 5C6
N  N Cl CH2 – NH 2 (1) H5C6

CH3
(2) CH 3 CH 2CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and H3C C CH3
(3) (4) CH3
N NO 2
O
69. The total number of C – C sigma bond/s in mesityl
oxide (C 6H 10 O) is ______. (Round off to the (3) C6H5 and H5C6 H
Nearest Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]
O
70. Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can show
[JEE (Main)-2021] O O
(4) and
(1) Positional isomerism
(2) Both positional isomerism and metamerism 74. In Carius method, halogen containing organic
compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in the
(3) Metamerism
presence of [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) Functional group isomerism
(1) HNO3 (2) CuSO4
71. In the following molecule,
(3) BaSO4 (4) AgNO3
a
H 3C 75. W hen 0.15 g of an organic compound was
b
c analyzed using Carius method for estimation of
C=C– O
bromine, 0.2397 g of AgBr was obtained. The
H H percentage of bromine in the organic compound is
_______. (Nearest integer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
Hybridisation of Carbon a, b and c respectively are :
[JEE (Main)-2021]  Atomic mass :
(1) sp3, sp, sp (2) sp3, sp2, sp2 Silver = 108 
 
(3) sp3, sp, sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp Bromine = 80 

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

76. Which purification technique is used for high boiling 81. Which one of the following compounds will liberate
organic liquid compound (decomposes near its CO2, when treated with NaHCO3?
boiling point)? [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Reduced pressure distillation
(2) Simple distillation (1) CH3NH2 (2) (CH3 )3NHCl

(3) Steam distillation O

(4) Fractional distillation (3) CH3 —C—NH2 (4) (CH3 )4NOH

77. Which one of the following compounds does not 82. The correct decreasing order of densities of the
exhibit resonance? [JEE (Main)-2021] following compounds is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) CH3CH2OCH = CH2 Cl Br

CH2OH Cl

(2)
Cl Cl
(A) ( B) (C) ( D)
(3) CH3CH2CH2CONH2
(1) (D) > (C) > (B) > (A)
(4) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2NH2
(2) (C) > (B) > (A) > (D)
78. Which one of the following molecules does not
(3) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
show stereo isomerism? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 4-Methylhex-1-ene (4) (C) > (D) > (A) > (B)

(2) 3-Ethylhex-3-ene 83. Which among the following is the strongest acid ?

(3) 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene [JEE (Main)-2021]

(4) 3-Methylhex-1-ene
79. The number of acyclic structural isomers (including (1) (2)
geometrical isomers) for pentene are ______.
[JEE (Main)-2021]
80. W hich one among the following resonating (3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (4)
structures is not correct? [JEE (Main)-2021]
84. 0.8 g of an organic compound was analysed by
O Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen. If
N
(1) the percentage of nitrogen in the compound was
O found to be 42%, then _______ mL of 1 M H2SO4
would have been neutralized by the ammonia
evolved during the analysis. [JEE (Main)-2021]
O
N 85. Given below are two statements
(2)
O Statement I : Aniline is less basic than
acetamide.
O Statement II : In aniline, the lone pair of electrons
N on nitrogen atom is delocalised
(3)
O over benzene ring due to
resonance and hence less available
to a proton
O
N Choose the most appropriate option
(4)
O [JEE (Main)-2021]

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(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true. 90. Which one of the following set of elements can be
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. detected using sodium fusion extract?

(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. [JEE (Main)-2021]

(4) Both statement I and statement II are true. (1) Phosphorous, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Halogens
(2) Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Carbon, Sulfur
+ (3) Sulfur, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Halogens
CH2
(4) Halogens, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Sulfur

86. + + + 91. The dihedral angle in staggered form of Newman

CH2 = CH CH3 – CH 2 HC  C projection of 1, 1, 1-Trichloro ethane is _____
A B C D degree. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[JEE (Main)-2021]
The correct order of stability of given carbocation is
92. Which one of the following compounds is not
[JEE (Main)-2021] aromatic? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) C > A > D > B (2) D > B > C > A
(3) A > C > B > D (4) D > B > A > C O
H
87. Staggered and eclipsed conformers of ethane are (1) (2)
—
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Rotamers (2) Mirror images
(3) Polymers (4) Enantiomers
(3) (4)
88. An organic compound is subjected to chlorination +
to get compound A using 5.0 g of chlorine. When
0.5 g of compound A is reacted with AgNO3 [Carius 93. In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic
Method], the percentage of chlorine in compound compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulfate. The
A is ______ when it forms 0.3849 g of AgCl. percentage of sulphur in the compound is
(Round off to the Nearest Integer) ______%. (Nearest integer)
(Atomic masses of Ag and Cl are 107.87 and 35.5 (Atomic Mass of B = 137 u) [JEE (Main)-2021]
respectively)
94. The number of moles of CuO, that will be utilized
[JEE (Main)-2021] in Dumas method for estimating nitrogen in a
89. Given below are two statements : sample of 57.5 g of N,N-dimethylaminopentane is
______ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)
Statement I : Hyperconjugation is a permanent
effect. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Statement II : Hyperconjugation in ethyl cation 95. In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.2 g
   of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr. The
 CH3 – CH2  involves the overlapping of percentage of bromine in the compound is _____.
(Nearest integer)
C – H1s bond with empty 2p orbital of other
sp2 [Atomic mass : Ag = 108, Br = 80]
carbon.
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Choose the correct option: [JEE (Main)-2021]
96. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true Reason (R).

(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false Assertion (A) : A simple distillation can be used
to separate a mixture of propanol
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false
and propanone.

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of CH3 CH3 CH3 H

H H CH3 H CH3 H
more than 20°C in their boiling
points can be separated by H
HH H H
simple distillations. H H HH H
H
H3C CH3
CH 3
In the light of the above statements, choose the I II III IV
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) II < IV < III < I (2) I < III < IV < II
below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) II < III < IV < I (4) I < IV < III < II
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
99. The transformation occurring in Duma’s method is
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false given below [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)  y
C2H7N   2x   CuO
 2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
y z  y
97. Choose the correct name for compound given  xCO2  H2O  N2   2x   Cu
2 2  2
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
The value of y is _____. (Integer answer)
100. Which one of the following compounds is aromatic
Br
in nature? [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne (1) (2)

(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene
(3) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne CH3

(4) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne +
98. Arrange the following conformational isomers of (3) (4)
n-butane in order of their increasing potential
energy [JEE (Main)-2021]



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Chapter 22

Hydrocarbons

1. The main product of the following reaction is 5. The major organic compound formed by the
reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder
conc.H 2 SO 4
C 6H 5 CH 2 CH(OH)CH(CH 3 )2   ? is [JEE (Main)-2014]
[AIEEE-2010] (1) Acetylene (2) Ethene
H5C6CH2CH2 (3) 2-Butyne (4) 2-Butene
(1) C = CH2 6. Which of the following compounds will exhibit
H3C geometrical isomerism? [JEE (Main)-2015]
(1) 1 - Phenyl - 2 - butene
H 5C 6 H
C=C (2) 3 - Phenyl - 1 - butene
(2)
H CH(CH 3)2 (3) 2 - Phenyl - 1 - butene
(4) 1, 1 - Diphenyl - 1 propane
C6H5CH2 CH3
(3) C=C 7. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl
hexanal upon ozonolysis? [JEE (Main)-2015]
H CH3
CH3 CH3
C6H5 CH(CH3)2
CH3
(4) C=C
(1) (2)
H H
2. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis CH3
gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular CH3 CH3
mass of 44 u. The alkene [AIEEE-2010]
H3C
(1) Ethane (2) Propene (3) (4)
(3) 1-butene (4) 2-butene
CH3
3. 2–Hexyne gives trans–2–Hexene on treatment with
[AIEEE-2012] 8. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 + H2O)
proceeds through the intermediate
(1) Li/NH3 [JEE (Main)-2016]
(2) Pd/BaSO4 (1) CH3 – CH+ – CH2 – Cl
(3) Li AlH4
(2) CH3  CH(OH)  CH2
(4) Pt/H2
(3) CH3  CHCl  CH2
4. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon
with molecular mass 72 u gives only one isomer of (4) CH3 – CH+ – CH2 – OH
mono substituted alkyl halide? [AIEEE-2012] 9. 3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in
(1) Neopentane presence of peroxide forms an addition product.
The number of possible stereoisomers for the
(2) Isohexane product is [JEE (Main)-2017]
(3) Neohexane (1) Two (2) Four
(4) Tertiary butyl chloride (3) Six (4) Zero
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10. The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of 12. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?
alkynes with [JEE (Main)-2018]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) H2 - Pd/C, BaSO4 (2) NaBH4
(3) Na/liq. NH3 (4) Sn - HCl
(1) (2)
11. The major product of the following reaction is

OH
O
CH3 (3) (4)
AlCl3,
O 
+
13. The major product of the following reaction is
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CH3O
CH2Cl
(i) AlCl3 (anhyd.)

(ii) H 2O

[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1)
OCH 3
CH3
(1)

CH3O
(2)

(2)

CH3O
(3)

(4) CH3O

CH 3
(3)
14. W hich hydrogen in compound (E) is easily
replaceable during bromination reaction in presence
of light?

CH3  CH2  CH  CH
   
(E)
[JEE (Main)-2019]

(4) (1) -hydrogen

(2) -hydrogen
(3) -hydrogen
(4) -hydrogen

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15. What will be the major product in the following Cl

mononitration reaction?
(2)
O
HNO3
N  
H Conc.H SO
2 4

Cl
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3)
O NO2
(1)
N
H

(2) O2N HO
O
(4)
N
H

18. Among the following four aromatic compounds,

(3) O which one will have the lowest melting point?
N [JEE (Main)-2019]
H
NO2 O

O OH
(1) (2) OH
(4) O2N N
H O

CH3
16. Which compound(s) out of following is/are not OH
aromatic? O
(3) O
(4)

CH3

19. The major product of the following reaction is

(A) (B) (C) (D) CH3CH2CHCH2 (i) KOH alc.
(ii) NaNH2
[JEE (Main)-2019] Br Br in liq NH3

(1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A) and (C) [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (B) (1) CH3CH2C  CH
17. The major product of the following reaction is
(2) CH3CH = CHCH2NH2

(3) CH3CH2CH – CH2

HO
(1) HCl
NH2 NH2
(2) AlCl 3 (Anhyd.)
(4) CH3CH = C = CH2
[JEE (Main)-2019] 20. The major product in the following conversion is
HO
CH3O CH = CH – CH3 HBr (excess)
Heat ?
(1)
[JEE (Main)-2019]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

23. Which one of the following alkenes when treated

(1) HO CH2 – CH – CH3 with HCl yields majorly an anti Markovnikov product?
Br [JEE (Main)-2019]

(2) CH3O CH2 – CH – CH3 (1) F3C–CH=CH2 (2) CH3O–CH=CH2

(3) H2N–CH=CH2 (4) Cl–CH=CH2
Br
24. Polysubstitution is a major drawback in :
(3) HO CH – CH2 – CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Br (1) Reimer Tiemann reaction
(4) CH 3O CH – CH 2 – CH 3 (2) Acetylation of aniline

Br (3) Friedel Craft’s acylation

21. The major product of the following reaction is (4) Friedel Craft’s alkylation
H3C 25. The major product of the following reaction is
CH2 HCl
(i) DCl (1 equiv.)
H CH3 C  CH (ii) DI
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CH3
CH2– Cl (1) CH3C(I)(Cl)CHD2 (2) CH3CD(I)CHD(Cl)
(1)
(3) CH3CD(Cl)CHD(I) (4) CH3CD2CH(Cl)(I)
H
26. The major product of the following reaction is
CH3
CH3
CH2CH3
(2) H
Cl (i) alkaline KMnO4
+
CH3 (ii) H3O
CH3
(3) Cl [JEE (Main)-2019]
H
CH2COOH COOH
CH2– Cl
CH3
(4) (1) (2)
H
22. The major product of the following reaction is
CH2CHO COCH3
O Cl
(i) AlCl3, heat (3) (4)
O+
(ii) H2O

O 27. The increasing order of reactivity of the following

[JEE (Main)-2019] compounds towards aromatic electrophilic
O Cl O substitution reaction is
Cl OMe Me CN
(1) (2)
CO2H Cl
O
O A B C D
CO2H Cl [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (4)
(1) D < B < A < C (2) D < A < C < B
Cl
O O (3) B < C < A < D (4) A < B < C < D

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28. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following 32. But-2-ene on reaction with alkaline KMnO4 at elevated
compounds towards electrophilic aromatic temperature followed by acidification will give :
substitution reactions is :
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CI CH3 COCH3
(1) 2 molecules of CH3CHO
(2) 2 molecules of CH3COOH
(3) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3
(I) (II) (III)
OH OH
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) I < III < II (2) III < II < I (4) One molecule of CH3CHO and one molecule of
CH3COOH
(3) II < I < III (4) III < I < II
33. Heating of 2-chloro-1-phenylbutane with EtOK/EtOH
29. W hich of these factors does not govern the
gives X as the major product. Reaction of X with
stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds?
Hg(OAc)2/H2O followed by NaBH4 gives Y as the
[JEE (Main)-2019] major product. Y is: [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Angle strain
OH
(2) Steric interactions
(3) Electrostatic forces of interaction (1) Ph (2) Ph
OH
(4) Torsional strain OH
30. The major product obtained in the given reaction is:
(3) Ph (4) Ph
AlCl 3
CH3 O CH2 CH 3 Product
CH2 CH 34. In the following skew conformation of ethane,
—

Cl H – C – C – H dihedral angle is
[JEE (Main)-2019] H
H3C O H H 29°
H
(1)

CH3
H 3C O CH CH3
CH2 CH
(2) H
H
H 3C O CH2 [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) CH2 CH CH2
(1) 120° (2) 58°
(3) 151° (4) 149°
CH3
35. Consider the following reactions
(4) CH3 O

(a)

31. The major product of the following addition reaction

is
Cl2 /H2O
H3C  CH  CH2  
[JEE (Main)-2019]
O (b)

(1) H 3C CH 3 (2) CH 3–CH–CH 2

Cl OH
O
(3) H 3C (4) H 3C–CH–CH 2
OH Cl

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

OH OH OH
(c) +

(3) (4)

CH3 CH3
38. Which of these will produce the highest yield in
(d) Friedel Crafts reaction? [JEE (Main)-2020]
CONH2
OH
(1) (2)

Which of these reactions are possible? NH2 Cl

[JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) (4)
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b), (c) and (d) 39. The correct order of heat of combustion for following
alkadienes is
36. The major products A and B in the following
reactions are
(a)
CN Peroxide
[A]
Heat

[A] + B (b)
[JEE (Main)-2020]

CN
(c) [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) A and B CN
(1) (c) < (b) < (a) (2) (a) < (c) < (b)

CN
(3) (b) < (c) < (a) (4) (a) < (b) < (c)
CN 40. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of
(2) A and B
benzene is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) 24 (2) 18
CN CN
(3) A and B (3) 12 (4) 6
41. The major product in the following reaction is
CN
(4) A and B CN H 3C CH = CH 2
+
H 3O
37. The major product in the following reaction is
Heat

O
[JEE (Main)-2020]
+
+ H3O OH
CH 3 H 3C
CH3 CH3
(1) (2)
[JEE (Main)-2020] CH 3
O O
H 3C CH 3
CH 3
(1) (2)
OH (3) (4)
HO CH3 CH3 CH 3

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42. The major product [R] in the following sequence of 44. The major product formed in the following reaction
reactions as: is
HBr
CH
(I) LiNH2/ether
[P] CH3CH == CHCH(CH3)2  
HC
(ii) H 3C
[JEE (Main)-2020]
CH – Br
(CH 3)2CH (1) Br(CH2)3CH(CH3)2
(i) HgSO4 /H2S O4 Conc. H2SO 4 (2) CH3CH(Br)CH2CH(CH3)2
[Q] [R]
(ii) NaBH 4  (3) CH3CH2CH(Br)CH(CH3)2
[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) CH3CH2CH2C(Br)(CH3)2
H 3C 45. The major products of the following reaction are
(1) C CH — CH 3 CH3
(CH3)2CH 
(i) KOtBu/ 
H 2C CH3  CH  CH  CH3  
(ii) O3 /H2O2
CH 2 CH 3

(2) C OSO2CH3
CH(CH 3)2 [JEE (Main)-2020]
H3C CH 3
(3) C C(CH 3)2 (1) + CH 3COOH
CH 3 O
H 3CCH 2
CH3
H3C
(2) + CH 3CHO
(4) CH CH CH2 CH3 O
CH3
(CH3)2CH
(3) + HCOOH
43. In the following reaction sequence the major CH3 COOH
products A and B are:
CH3
O
(4) + HCHO
anhydrous 1. Zn – Hg/HCl CH3 CHO
+ O A B
AlCl 3 2. H3 PO4 46. The major product of the following reaction is
CH3
O
[JEE (Main)-2020]
O 2HBr

(1) A = ;B=
NO2
CO2H
O [JEE (Main)-2020]
O
CH3
Br CH3
(2) A = ;B= Br

CO2H (1) (2)

O
O Br Br
NO2 NO2
(3) A = ;B=
CH3
CO2H H3C Br
Br
O
(3) (4)
(4) A = ;B=
Br Br
CO2H NO2 NO2
O
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47. The major product obtained from the following 50. W hat is the major product formed by HI on
reaction is CH3 CH
reaction with C CH 2 ?
2+
Hg / H
+
CH3
O2N C C OCH3 H 2O CH3
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
CH3
OCH3
O (1) CH3 – C – CH – CH 3
I CH3
(1)
O2N (2) CH3 – CH – CH – CH 2 – CH3
OH CH 3 I

CH3
(2) (3) CH3 – C – CH – CH 2I
O
O2N CH3H
OH
O CH3
(4) CH3 – C – CH – CH 3
(3)
CH3 I
O2N
51. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds
OCH3 cannot be prepared by addition of water on an
alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4)
O O O
O2N
(1) C CH3 (2) CH3 – C – CH2 CH3
48. The increasing order of the boiling points of the
major products A, B and C of the following O O
reactions will be (3) CH3 – C – H (4) CH3 – CH2 – C – H
O
(C 6H 5CO) 2 52. Identify A in the given chemical reaction.
(a) + HBr A
CH3
CH2 Mo2 O3
(b) + HBr B CH3 773 K, 10-20 atm ‘A’
CH2 major product
CH
CH2 CH3
(c) + HBr C [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1)
(1) A < C < B (2) C < A < B
(3) B < C < A (4) A < B < C CH3
49. In the following sequence of reactions the (2)
maximum number of atoms present in molecule
‘C’ in one plane is __________. CH3
(3)
Re d hot CH Cl (1. eq.)
A 
Cu tube
 B 
3
Anhydrous AlCl
C
3

(A is a lowest molecular weight alkyne) (4)

[JEE (Main)-2020]
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53. Consider the following chemical reaction. 1 2 3 4

56. In CH2  C  CH  CH3 molecule, the
1) Red hot Fe tube,873 K
CH  CH 
2) CO ,HCl,AlCl
 Product hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively,
3

are : [JEE (Main)-2021]

The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s)
(1) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (2) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3
present in the product is ________.
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) sp3, sp, sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3
54. The major product of the following reaction is:
NO2 57. (1) Zn/HCl
(2) Cr 2 O3 , 773 K
O 10 - 20 atm

H2 SO4 Considering the above reaction, the major product

[JEE (Main)-2021] among the following is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
NO 2
COCH2CH3 CH3
CH3
(1) (2)
(1)

CH2CH 2CH3 CH2CH 3

NO 2
(3) (4)
(2)

NO 2 58. Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?

[JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) (1) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4

(2) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal

NO 2
(3) Zinc chloride and HCl

(4) (4) Sodium and Liquid NH3

55. For the given reaction : Cl

1. NaNH2 (A) A
CH = CHBr 59.
2. Red hot iron tube, 873K (major product)
CH3
Cl
What is ‘A’? [JEE (Main)-2021]
Identify the reagent(s) ‘A’ and condition(s) for the
reaction [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1)
(1) A = HCl ; Anhydrous AlCl3

H 3C CH3
(2) A = Cl2 ; UV light
(3) A = Cl2 ; dark, Anhydrous AlCl3
(2)
CH3 (4) A = HCl, ZnCl2

A
(3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 CH 3 CCl 4 (Major Product)
60.
(4) CH CH NH2
Product “A” in the above chemical reaction is
CH3
[JEE (Main)-2021]
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

Br (b) Pd/BaSO4 (ii) obtained by addition

Br
CH 3 reaction
CH 3
(1) (2)
CH 3 CH 3 (c) BHC (Benzene (iii) used for -elimination
hexachloride) reaction
Br
Br (d) Polyacetylene (iv) Lindlar’s Catalyst
CH3
(3) (4) Choose the most appropriate match
CH3
CH3 [JEE (Main)-2021]
61. Choose the correct statement regarding the (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
formation of carbocations A and B given.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
+
CH3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2 + Br
–
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
CH 3 – CH2 – CH =CH 2 +HBr “A”
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
+ –
CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 3 + Br
“B” KMnO
64. 
4  'A'
H2SO4 ,  major product 
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Carbocation A is more stable and formed
relatively at slow rate KMnO

4  'B'
(2) Carbocation A is more stable and formed
H2O, 273 K  major product 
relatively at faster rate
For above chemical reactions, identify the correct
(3) Carbocation B is more stable and formed statement from the following. [JEE (Main)-2021]
relatively at slow rate (1) Compound ‘A’ is dicarboxylic acid and
(4) Carbocation B is more stable and formed compound ‘B’ is diol.
relatively at faster rate (2) Compound ‘A’ is diol and compound ‘B’ is
62. Given below are two statements : dicarboxylic acid.

Statement I : 2-methylbutane on oxidation with (3) Both compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’ are
KMnO4 gives 2-methylbutan-2-ol. dicarboxylic acids.
(4) Both compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’ are
Statement II : n-alkanes can be easily oxidised to
diols.
corresponding alcohols with KMnO4.
65. Benzene on nitration gives nitrobenzene in
Choose the correct option. [JEE (Main)-2021] presence of HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture, where :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are [JEE (Main)-2021]
incorrect (1) HNO3 acts as a base and H2SO4 acts as an
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is acid
incorrect (2) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as an acids
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) HNO3 acts as an acid and H2SO4 acts as a
correct base
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as a bases
63. Match List-I with List-II 66. An Organic compounds ‘A’ C4H8 on treatment with
KMnO4/H+ yields compound ‘B’ C3H6O. Compound
List-I List-II ‘A’ also yields compound ‘B’ an ozonolysis.
(Chemicals) (Use/Preparation/ Compound ‘A’ is [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Cyclobutane
Constituent)
(2) 2-Methylpropene
(a) Alcoholic potassium (i) electrodes in batteries
(3) But-2-ene
hydroxide (4) 1-Methylcyclopropane
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H 3C H
CCl4
67.  Br2  Product “P”
70.
H 3C H

Consider the above chemical reaction. The total Consider the above reaction, and choose the
number of stereoisomers possible for Product ‘P’ is correct statement : [JEE (Main)-2021]
________. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Both compounds A and B are formed equally
OH
(2) Compound A will be the major product
H 3PO 4 (BH 3)2 (3) Compound B will be the major product
68. 120°C
A
H 2 O2/OH, H2O
A
(Major Product) (Major Product)
(4) The reaction is not possible in acidic medium
Consider the above reaction and identify the 71. The correct sequential addition of reagents in the
Product P [JEE (Main)-2021] preparation of 3-nitrobenzoic acid from benzene is:

OH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
CH 3 OH
(1) HNO3/H2SO4, Br2/ AlBr3, Mg/ ether, CO2, H3O+
(1) (2) (2) Br2/ AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, Mg/ ether, CO2, H3O+
(3) Br2/ AlBr3, NaCN, H3O+, HNO3/H2SO4
CH 3 OH (4) Br2/ AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, NaCN, H3O+
OH OH
72. Excess of isobutane on reaction with Br 2 in
(3) (4)
presence of light at 125°C gives which one of the
following, as the major product?
O [JEE (Main)-2021]
OH
Conc. HBr
C–OCH 3 “P”
69. H3C CH 3
(1) CH3 C Br (2)
Consider the above reaction, the major product “P”
CH 3 CH 3
formed is, [JEE (Main)-2021]

O Br
C – OCH 3 (3) (4)
(1) CH3
CH 3 CH 2Br
Br
73. The major product formed in the following reaction
is :
O
OBr
C – OCH 3 HBr
(2) CH3 Major product
(excess)

O [JEE (Main)-2021]
Br
C – Br Br
(3) CH 3 Br
(1) (2)
Br
O
Br
C – OCH 3 (3) (4) Br
(4) CH3 Br Br

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

O (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Br 2
explanation of (A)
74. ‘A’
AlBr 3(C 2H5 )2O
(Major product) (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
Consider the given reaction, the Product A is correct explanation of (A)
[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
O 77. Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction
sequence given below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) conc. HNO3
+
Br conc. H2SO4 Cl2 Fe/HCl
A B C
 Anhyd. AlCl3
O

NO 2 NO2 NH2
A= ,B= ,C=
(1)
(2)
Cl OH

Br NO 2 NO2 NH2

Br (2) A= ,B= ,C=

O
Cl Cl
NO 2 NO2 Cl
(3)
(3) A= ,B= ,C=

O Cl OH
NO2
NO 2 Cl Cl NH2

(4) (4) A= ,B= ,C=

Br
78. The structures of A and B formed in the following
75. A chloro compound “A”
reaction are : [Ph = –C6H5] [JEE (Main)-2021]
(i) forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by the O
hydrolysis.
AlCl3(2 eq) Zn/Hg
(ii) when vaporized completely 1.53 g of A, gives + O A B
HCl
448 mL of vapour at STP.
The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of O
compound A is _____. [JEE (Main)-2021] Ph

76. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (1) A = , B = Ph

O
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
O
Reason (R).
Ph
Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with (2) OH OH
A= , B = Ph
propene yields 1-bromopropan-2- O

ol. Ph Ph

Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium (3) A = , B=

O OH
ion follows Markovnikov rule and
results in 1-bromopropan-2-ol. O O

In the light of the above statements, choose the Ph Ph

(4) OH OH
most appropriate answer from the options given A= , B=
below : [JEE (Main)-2021] O


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Chapter 23

Environmental Chemistry
1. Identify the incorrect statement from the following: 6. Which of the following conditions in drinking water
[AIEEE-2011] causes methemoglobinemia? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation (1) > 50 ppm of nitrate
(2) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can (2) > 50 ppm of lead
cause the depletion of ozone layer (3) > 50 ppm of chloride
(3) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation (4) > 100 ppm of sulphate
of the sun
7. Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD
(4) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its values of 10 and 20, respectively. The correct
chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes statement regarding them, is [JEE (Main)-2019]
2. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union (1) Both A and B are suitable for drinking
Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was
(2) A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(3) B is more polluted than A
(1) Methylisocyanate (2) Methylamine
(4) A is more polluted than B
(3) Ammonia (4) Phosgene
8. The reaction that is NOT involved in the ozone
3. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron
layer depletion mechanism in the stratosphere is
in a water sample from an underground lake was
found to be 1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 [JEE (Main)-2019]
ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable for  
h
drinking due to high concentration of (1) HOCI(g)   OH(g)  CI(g)
[JEE (Main)-2016]
(2) CH4 + 2O3  3CH2 = O + 2H2O
(1) Lead (2) Nitrate
 
(3) Iron (4) Fluoride (3) CIO(g)  O(g)  CI(g)  O 2 (g)
4. A water sample has ppm level concentration of
following anions uv
 
(4) CF CI (g)   CI(g)  CF2 Cl(g)
F– = 10; SO42– = 100; NO3– = 50 2 2

The anion/anions that make/makes the water 9. The concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold
sample unsuitable for drinking is/are water can go upto: [JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2017] (1) 14 ppm (2) 16 ppm
(1) Only F– (2) Only SO42– (3) 10 ppm (4) 8 ppm
(3) Only NO3– (4) Both SO42– and NO3– 10. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant is
5. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in produced by [JEE (Main)-2019]
drinking water is up to 1 ppm as fluoride ion is (1) Classical smog (2) Acid rain
required to make teeth enamel harder by converting (3) Organic waste (4) Photochemical smog
[3Ca3(PO4)2.Ca(OH)2] to [JEE (Main)-2018]
11. Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and
(1) [CaF2] discoloured. This is primarily due to
(2) [3(CaF2).Ca(OH)2] [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) [3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2] (1) Acid rain (2) Water pollution
(4) [3{Ca(OH)2}.CaF2] (3) Global warming (4) Soil pollution

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

12. The higher concentration of which gas in air can 19. The maximum prescribed concentration of copper
cause stiffness of flower buds? [JEE (Main)-2019] in drinking water is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) SO2 (2) CO (1) 3 ppm
(3) CO2 (4) NO2 (2) 0.05 ppm
13. Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and (3) 0.5 ppm
18 ppm, respectively, are [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) 5 ppm
(1) Clean and Highly polluted
20. Excessive release of CO 2 into the atmosphere
(2) Clean and Clean
results in [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Highly polluted and Clean
(1) Depletion of ozone
(4) Highly polluted and Highly polluted
(2) Polar vortex
14. The molecule that has minimum/no role in the
formation of photochemical smog, is (3) Formation of smog

[JEE (Main)-2019] (4) Global warming

(1) NO (2) CH2 == O 21. The layer of atmosphere between 10 km to 50 km
above the sea level is called as
(3) O3 (4) N2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
15. The compound that is NOT a common component
of photochemical smog is [JEE (Main)-2019] (1) Stratosphere (2) Mesosphere

(1) H3C – C – OONO2 (3) Thermosphere (4) Troposphere

O 22. The regions of the atmosphere, where clouds form

and where we live, respectively, are :
(2) CH2 = CHCHO
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) CF2Cl2
(1) Troposphere and Troposphere
(4) O3
(2) Stratosphere and Troposphere
16. The upper stratosphere consisting of the ozone
layer protects us from the sun’s radiation that falls (3) Troposphere and Stratosphere
in the wavelength region of [JEE (Main)-2019] (4) Stratosphere and Stratosphere
(1) 200 – 315 nm (2) 600 – 750 nm 23. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is
(3) 400 – 550 nm (4) 0.8 – 1.5 nm
[JEE (Main)-2019]
17. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as
(1) Fog
a human being to protect our environment?
[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) Oxidising smog

(1) Using plastic bags (3) Acid rain

(2) Restricting the use of vehicles (4) Reducing smog
(3) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities 24. The correct set of species responsible for the
photochemical smog is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) Setting up compost tin in gardens
18. Assertion : Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the (1) CO2, NO2, SO2 and hydrocarbons
upper stratosphere. (2) N2, O2, O3 and hydrocarbons
Reason : Ozone holes increase the amount of UV (3) NO, NO2, O3 and hydrocarbons
radiation reaching the earth. [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) N2, NO2 and hydrocarbons
(1) Assertion and reason are both correct, and the
25. The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical
reason is the correct explanation for the
smog is [JEE (Main)-2019]
assertion.
(2) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct. (1) Nitrogen oxides

(3) Assertion and reason are correct, but the (2) Sulphur dioxide
reason is not the explanation for the assertion. (3) Ozone
(4) Assertion and reason are incorrect. (4) Acrolein
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26. Among the gases (a) - (e), the gases that cause 31. The condition that indicates a polluted environment is
greenhouse effect are [JEE (Main)-2020]
(a) CO2 (b) H2O (1) 0.03% of CO2 in the atmosphere
(c) CFCs (d) O2 (2) pH of rain water to be 5.6
(e) O3 (3) Eutrophication
[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) BOD value of 5 ppm
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 32. The presence of soluble fluoride ion upto
(2) (a), (c), (d) and (e) 1 ppm concentration in drinking water, is

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) [JEE (Main)-2020]

(4) (a) and (d) (1) Safe for teeth (2) Harmful to skin

27. The statement that is not true about ozone is (3) Harmful for teeth (4) Harmful to bones
33. The gas released during anaerobic degradation of
[JEE (Main)-2020]
vegetation may lead to : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) In the stratosphere, CFCs release chlorine free
(1) Acid rain
radicals (Cl) which reacts with O 3 to give
chlorine dioxide radicals (2) Corrosion of metals
(2) It is a toxic gas and its reaction with NO gives (3) Ozone hole
NO2. (4) Global warming and cancer
(3) In the atmosphere, it is depleted by CFCs 34. Given below are two statements :
(4) In the stratosphere, it forms a protective shield Statement I : The value of the parameter
against UV radiation “Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)” is important
28. Glycerol is separated in soap industries by for survival of aquatic life.
Statement II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5
[JEE (Main)-2020]
ppm.
(1) Fractional distillation
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Differential extraction most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Steam distillation
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
29. Thermal power plants can lead to
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Eutrophication
35. Given below are two statements:
(2) Ozone layer depletion
Statement-I : An allotrope of oxygen is an
(3) Blue baby syndrome important intermediate in the formation of reducing
(4) Acid rain smog.
30. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) – (d) Statement-II: Gases such as oxides of nitrogen
regarding acid rain is (are) and sulphur present in troposphere contribute to
the fomation of photochemical smog.
(a) It can corrode water pipes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(b) It can damage structures made up of stone. correct answer from the options given below:
(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in [JEE (Main)-2021]
animals.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) It is not harmful for trees. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

36. Given below are two statements : 41. W hich of the following statement(s) is(are)
incorrect reason for eutrophication?
Statement I :
(A) Excess usage of fertilisers
The pH of rain water is normally ~5.6.
(B) Excess usage of detergents
Statement II :
(C) Dense plant population in water bodies
If the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is called
acid rain. (D) Lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent
plant growth
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (D) Only (2) (A) only
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) (B) and (D) only (4) (C) only
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
42. The Statements that are TRUE :
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(A) Methane leads to both global warming and
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
photochemical smog
37. The presence of ozone in troposphere :
(B) Methane is generated from paddy fields
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(C) Methane is a stronger global warming gas than
(1) Protects us from greenhouse effect CO2
(2) Protects us from the X-ray radiation (D) Methane is a part of reducing smog
(3) Generates photochemical smog Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) Protects us from the UV radiation options given below [JEE (Main)-2021]

38. The type of pollution that gets increased during the (1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (A), (B), (D) only
day time and in the presence of O3 is (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (B), (C), (D) only
[JEE (Main)-2021] 43. Given below are two statements :
(1) Reducing smog (2) Acid rain Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are
(3) Global warming (4) Oxidising smog generated by the thermal power plants.

39. The green house gas/es is (are): Statement II : Bio-degradable detergents leads to
eutrophication.
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) Water vapour (D) Methane most appropriate answer from the options given
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
given below: [JEE (Main)-2021] (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) (A) and (B) only (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) (A) only 44. Green Chemistry in day-to-day life is in the use
of : [JEE (Main)-2021]
40. Reducing smog is a mixture of [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Chlorine for bleaching of paper
(1) Smoke, fog and CH2 = CH – CHO
(2) Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes
(2) Smoke, fog and SO2
(3) Large amount of water alone for washing
(3) Smoke, fog and N2O3
clothes
(4) Smoke, fog and O3
(4) Tetrachloroethene for laundry
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45. Which one of the following gases is reported to 50. The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to
retard photosynthesis? [JEE (Main)-2021] presence of F– ions in water. The correct formula
of hydroxyapatite is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) NO2 (2) CFCs
(3) CO (4) CO2 (1) 3Ca  OH2  CaF2 
46. The water having more dissolved O2 is
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) 3Ca3 PO 4 2  Ca  OH2 
(1) Boiling water
(2) Water at 4°C (3) 3Ca3 PO 4 2  CaF2 

(3) Polluted water

(4) Ca3 PO4 2  CaF2 
(4) Water at 80°C
47. Which one of the following chemical agent is not 51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
being used for dry-cleaning of clothes? as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes
(1) H2O2 (2) Liquid CO2
cracking of rubber.
(3) CCl4 (4) Cl2C = CCl2
Reason (R) : Presence of ozone, nitric oxide,
48. Given below are two statements : acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate in
Statement I : Chlorofluoro carbons breakdown by photochemical smog makes it oxidizing
radiation in the visible energy region Choose the most appropriate answer from the
and release chlorine gas in the options given below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
atmosphere which then reacts with
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true
stratospheric ozone.
explanation of (A)
Statement II : Atmospheric ozone reacts with
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
nitric oxide to give nitrogen and
oxygen gases, which add to the (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
atmosphere. (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true
For the above statements choose the correct explanation of (A).
answer from the options given below : 52. The gas ‘A’ is having very low reactivity reaches to
[JEE (Main)-2021] stratosphere. It is non-toxic and non-flammable but
dissociated by UV-radiations in stratosphere. The
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
intermediates formed initially from the gas ‘A’ are:
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
   
(4) Both statement I and II are false (1) CIO CF2Cl (2) Cl  CF2Cl
49. Which one of the following statements is NOT  
 
correct? [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) CH3  CF2Cl (4) ClO  CH3
(1) Eutrophication leads to increase in the oxygen 53. In stratosphere most of the ozone formation is
level in water assisted by : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) Eutrophication indicates that water body is (1) Visible radiations
polluted
(2) Ultraviolet radiation
(3) Eutrophication leads to anaerobic conditions
(3) -rays
(4) The dissolved oxygen concentration below 6
ppm inhibits fish growth (4) Cosmic rays

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

54. BOD values (in ppm) for clean water (A) and (1) X = SO2, Y = Ammonium salts
polluted water (B) are expected respectively as :
(2) X = CO2, Y = SO2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) X = Ammonium salts, Y = SO2
(1) A > 25, B < 17
(4) X = Ammonium salts, Y = CO2
(2) A > 50, B < 27
56. Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of
(3) A > 15, B > 47 which one of the BOD values given below :
(4) A < 5, B > 17 [JEE (Main)-2021]
55. The deposition of X and Y on ground surfaces is (1) 3 ppm (2) 21 ppm
referred as wet and dry depositions, respectively. X
and Y are [JEE (Main)-2021] (3) 15 ppm (4) 11 ppm



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Chapter 24

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

1. The number of stereoisomers possible for a 6. How many chiral compounds are possible on
compound of the molecular formula CH3 – CH = CH monochlorination of 2–methyl butane?
– CH(OH) – Me is [AIEEE-2009] [AIEEE-2012]
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3 (3) 6 (4) 8
2. Consider the following bromides 7. What is DDT among the following? [AIEEE-2012]
(1) A fertilizer
Me Me
(2) Biodegradable pollutant
Me Br Me (3) Non-Biodegradable pollutant
Br Br
(A) (B) (C) (4) Greenhouse gas
8. A solution of (–) – 1 – chloro – 1 – phenylethane
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is [AIEEE-2010] in toluene racemises slowly in the presene of a
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A
(1) Carbanion (2) Carbene
3. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical
isomerism is [AIEEE-2010] (3) Carbocation (4) Free radical

(1) 2-methyl-2-pentene (2) 3-methyl-2-pentene 9. Compound (A), C8H9Br, gives a white precipitate
when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of
(3) 4-methyl-1-pentene (4) 3-methyl-1-pentene (A) gives an acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms
4. The change in the optical rotation of freshly anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A).
prepared solution of glucose is known as [JEE (Main)-2013]
[AIEEE-2011] CH2Br
C2H5
(1) Mutarotation (2) Tautomerism
(1) (2)
(3) Racemisation (4) Specific rotation
Br
CH3
5. Consider thiol anion (RS ) and alkoxy anion CH2Br
(RO ) . W hich of the following statement is CH2Br
correct? [AIEEE-2011] (3) (4)
CH3
(1) RS is more basic but less nucleophilic than CH3
RO 10. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for
the following compounds
(2) RS is less basic and less nucleophilic than
CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is
RO
[JEE (Main)-2014]
(3) RS is less basic but more nucleophilic than (1) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl
RO (2) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(4) RS is more basic and more nucleophilic than (3) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
RO (4) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

11. The synthesis of alk yl fluorides is best 15. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following
accomplished by [JEE (Main)-2015] halides for the SN1 reaction is [JEE (Main)-2017]
(1) Free radical fluorination I. CH 3CHCH 2CH 3
(2) Sandmeyer's reaction
Cl
(3) Finkelstein reaction
II. CH3CH2CH2Cl
(4) Swarts reaction
III. p–H3CO – C6H4 – CH2Cl
12. 2-chloro-2-methylpentane on reaction with sodium (1) (I) < (III) < (II) (2) (II) < (III) < (I)
methoxide in methanol yields: [JEE (Main)-2016]
(3) (III) < (II) < (I) (4) (II) < (I) < (III)
CH3 16. The major product obtained in the following reaction
is [JEE (Main)-2017]
(a) C2H5CH2C OCH3

CH3 Br
H
t-BuOK
C6H5
(b) C2H5CH2C CH2 
C6H5
(+)
CH3
(1) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(c) C2H5CH C CH3
(2) (–)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
CH 3 (3) (±)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) only (4) C6H5CH = CHC6H5
(3) (a) and (b) (4) All of these 17. The major product of the following reaction is
13. The absolute configuration of
Br
NaOMe
CO2H MeOH
H OH
H Cl [JEE (Main)-2018]
CH3
OMe
is [JEE (Main)-2016] (1) (2)
(1) (2S, 3R) (2) (2S, 3S)
(3) (2R, 3R) (4) (2R, 3S)
OMe
14. The product of the reaction given below is (3) (4)

1. NBS/h
2. H2O/K2CO3
X [JEE (Main)-2016] 18. The major product of the following reaction is

(i) Br 2

(ii) EtOH
[JEE (Main)-2019]

OH O
Br OEt
(1) (2) OEt
(1) (2)

CO2H OEt OEt

OEt Br
(3) (4) (3) (4)

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19. The major product of the following reaction is 22. Which of the following compounds will produce a
precipitate with AgNO3? [JEE (Main)-2019]
Br
KOH alc (excess)

Ph
Br (1) (2)
[JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) (2)
Ph
Ph
(3) (4)

(3) (4) 23. The increasing order of reactivity of the following

Ph compounds towards reaction with alkyl halides
Ph
directly is
20. The major product of the following reaction is O O

CH 3 NH2 NH
OH
(i) aq.NaOH
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(ii) CH 3I O
(A) (B)

CH3 CH3 CN NH2

OCH3 OH NH 2
(1) (2)
CH 3

CH 3 CH3 (C) (D)

OH OH [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (4) (1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) (2) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
CH3
(3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C) (4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
CH3
24. The major product of the following reaction is
21. The major product of the following reaction is
CH2CH3
Cl
(i) HBr H3C C Cl
NaOEt
 
[JEE (Main)-2019] 
(ii) alc.KOH

O
COOCH2CH3

Cl [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) CH3CH2C= CH2
(1) (2) CO2CH2CH3
OH O OCH2CH3

OH Cl
(2) H3C H2C C CO2CH2 CH3

(3) (4)
O O CH3

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

CH2CH3 28. The major products A and B for the following

reactions are, respectively
O
(3) H3C C OCH2CH3 I
KCN H2/Pd
[A] [B]
DMSO

COOCH2CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CO 2CH 2CH 3
O O
(4) CH 3C = CHCH 3 CN CH2NH2
(1) ;
25. The major product of the following reaction is:
CH3
HO CN HO CH2 NH2
(1) Cl 2/h  I I
(2) H 2O,  [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) ;
Cl
CHCl 2 CO2H HO CN HO CH2 NH2
I H
(1) (2) (3) ;

Cl Cl O OH
CHO CH2OH CN CH2NH2
(4) ;
(3) (4)
29. Increasing order of reactivity of the following
Cl Cl compounds for SN1 substitution is
26. The major product of the following reaction is [JEE (Main)-2019]
t
O (1) BuOK CH3
(2) Conc.H2SO4/
Cl CH2 Cl H3C Cl
CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019] (A) (B)
O O
(1) (2) Cl Cl

O O H3CO
(C) (D)
(3) (4)
(1) (B) < (C) < (A) < (D)
(2) (B) < (C) < (D) < (A)
27. The major product of the following reaction is
(3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
1. PBr3
OH (4) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
2. KOH (alc.)
30. W hich of the following potential energy (PE)
O
[JEE (Main)-2019] diagrams represents the SN1 reaction?
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (2)
(1)
HO O PE

HO
(3) (4)
O O Progress of reaction

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(2) 33. Increasing rate of SN1 reaction in the following

compounds is :

PE I I
MeO
(A) (B)
Progress of reaction
I I
(3)
(C) (D)
PE H 3C H3CO
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Progress of reaction (1) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D) (2) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
(4) (3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C) (4) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
34. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction
PE is :

Cl EtONa HBr
Progress of reaction Heat
X Y
31. The major product of the following reaction is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
CH3 (1) HO (2) Br
CH3OH
CH3 C CH CH3
H Br
[JEE (Main)-2019] Br
(3) (4)
CH3 Br
(1) CH3 C CH2CH3 35. The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following
OCH3 nucleophiles is :
CH3 (a) CH3CO2 (b) H2O
(2) CH3 C CH CH3
(c) CH3SO3 (d) OH
H OCH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CH3
(3) CH3 C CH CH2
(1) (d) < (a) < (c) < (b) (2) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a)

H (3) (a) < (d) < (c) < (b) (4) (b) < (c) < (a) < (d)

CH3 36. The major product(s) obtained in the following

reaction is/are
(4) CH3 C CH CH3
t
(i) KO Bu
32. Consider the statements S1 and S2 : (ii) O3/Me 2S
S1 : Conductivity always increases with decrease
Br
in the concentration of electrolyte.
[JEE (Main)-2019]
S2 : Molar conductivity always increases with
decrease in the concentration of electrolyte. CHO and OHC–CHO
(1) OHC
The correct option among the following is
t
O Bu
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) OHC
(1) S1 is wrong and S2 is correct CHO
(2) S1 is correct and S2 is wrong (3) OHC CHO
(3) Both S1 and S2 are wrong
(4) OHC
(4) Both S1 and S2 are correct CHO

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

37. An ‘Assertion’ and a ‘Reason’ are given below. 41. For the following reactions
Choose the correct answer from the following
options :
Assertion (A) : Vinyl halides do not undergo
nucleophilic substitution easily.
Reason (R) : Even though the intermediate
where,
carbocation is stabilized by loosely held -
electrons, the cleavage is difficult because of
strong bonding. [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements but (R) ks and ke, are, respectively, the rate constants for
is not the correct explanation of (A).
ks
(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong statements. substitution and elimination, and   k , the
e
(4) (A) is a correct statement but (R) is a wrong
correct option is _________ . [JEE (Main)-2020]
statement.
(1) B > A and ke(A) > ke(B)
38. Which one of the following is likely to give a
precipitate with AgNO3 solution? (2) A > B and ke(A) > ke(B)
[JEE (Main)-2019] (3) B > A and ke(B) > ke(A)
(1) CH2 = CH – Cl (2) CHCl3 (4) A > B and ke(B) > ke(A)
(3) CCl4 (4) (CH3)3CCl 42. The decreasing order of reactivity towards
dehydrohalogenation (E1) reaction of the following
39. Consider the following reactions :
compounds is
(a)  CH3 3 CCH  OH CH3 
conc.H2SO4

 (A) Cl (B) Cl

(b)  CH3 2 CHCH Br  CH3 

alc.KOH

(C) (D)
 CH3 3 O– K 
(c)  CH3 2 CHCH Br  CH3  Cl Cl
[JEE (Main)-2020]

(d) (CH3 )2C – CH2 – CHO (1) B > A > D > C
|
OH (2) B > D > A > C
Which of these reaction(s) will not produce Saytzeff (3) B > D > C > A
product ? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) D > B > C > A
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (c) only
43. Which of the following reactions will not produce a
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (d) only racemic product? [JEE (Main)-2020]
40. The major product of the following reaction is HBr
(1) CH 3CH 2CH=CH 2
CH3O
(1) Cl2/CCl4 H3C
HCl
(2) AlCl 3(anhyd.) (2)
Cl Cl
CH3
(1) CH3O (2) CH3O CH 3
HCl
(3) CH3—C—CH=CH 2
(3) CH3O (4) CH3O H
O
Cl HCN
Cl (4) CH3—C CH2 CH3

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44. Which of the following compunds will show retention H CH 3

in configuration on nucleophic substitution by OH– (2)
ion? [JEE (Main)-2020]
H CH 3
(1) CH3 CH3 Br (2) CH3 CH Br (3)
C6 H 5 CH 3
H CH3
Br
(4)
(3) CH3 CH CH2Br (4) CH3 C H
48. The decreasing order of reactivity of the following
C2H5 C6H13
compounds towards nucleophilic substitution (SN2)
45. The major product obtained from E2 – elimination is
of 3-bromo-2-fluoropentane is [JEE (Main)-2020] CH 2Cl CH2Cl
NO 2
Br
(1) CH 3 CH2 – CH – CH = CH 2 NO 2
(I) (II)
F CH 2Cl
CH 2Cl
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH – CH 3

(3) CH3CH 2CH = C – F NO 2

NO 2 O2N NO2
CH 3 (IV)
(III)
Br [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I) (2) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV)
(4) CH 3 – CH 2 – C = CH – CH 3
(3) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I) (4) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
46. The mechanism of SN1 reaction is given as 49. The major product in the following reaction is
I
Y
R– X R X R X R –Y + X
Ion pair Solvent t  BuOH
Separated ion    

H eat
pair

A student writes general characteristics based on [JEE (Main)-2020]

the given mechanism as Ot-Bu

(a) The reaction is favoured by weak nucleophiles. (1) (2)

(b) R would be easily formed if the substituents
are bulky.
(3) (4)
(c) The reaction is accompanied by racemization.
(d) The reaction is favoured by non-polar solvents. 50. The decreasing order of reactivity of the following
organic molecules towards AgNO3 solution is
Which observations are correct?
Cl
[JEE (Main)-2020] Cl

(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c) OMe
(A) (B)
47. Which of the following compounds produces an
CH3CHCH 3 CH 3CHCH 2NO 2
optically inactive compound on hydrogenation?
Cl Cl
[JEE (Main)-2020] (C) (D)

H CH3 [JEE (Main)-2020]

(1) (B) > (A) > (C) > (D) (2) (A) > (B) > (D) > (C)
(1)
(3) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D) (4) (C) > (D) > (A) > (B)

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

51. Which of the following compounds will form the CH2

precipitate with aq. AgNO3 solution most readily? (3) CH3 – CH
CH – CH3
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
Br
CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
N
(1) O Br (2) 55. For the given reaction :

CH2 CH3 'A'

Br2 (Major product)
Br UV light monobrominated
N
CN
N Br
What is ‘A’? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (4)
CH2 CH3
OCH 3
Br
(1)
52. The number of chiral carbons present in the molecule CN
given below is ______.
CH2CH3

N (2)
H O Br CN

C
H3 C CH3 CH2 CH3
HO
N
(3)
[JEE (Main)-2020] CN
Br
53. The total number of monohalogenated organic
products in the following (including stereoisomers)
reaction is ______. Br CH3
CH
(i) H /Ni/ 
A  2

(ii) X / 
2 (4)
(Simplest optically CN
active alkene) [JEE (Main)-2020]
56. Identify A in the given reaction,
54. The product formed in the first step of the reaction
OH
Br SOCl

2  A (major product)
of CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 3 with excess
Br HO CH2OH

Mg/Et2O(Et = C2H5) is: [JEE (Main)-2021]

[JEE (Main)-2021] OH Cl

MgBr (1) (2)

(1) CH3 CH2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 3 OH CH2Cl OH CH2OH

MgBr Cl OH

(2) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 3 (3) (4)

CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3 Cl CH2Cl Cl CH2Cl

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57. Match List-I with List-II 59. The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles is
List-I List-II (are): [JEE (Main)-2021]
Cl (A) AgCN/KCN
+ –
N2 Cl
(a) Cu 2Cl 2 +N 2 (i) Wurtz reaction (B) RCOOAg/RCOOK

(C) AgNO2/KNO2
Cl
+ –
N2 Cl (D) AgI/KI
(b) Cu/HCl +N2 (ii) Sandmeyer
(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (B) only
reaction

(c) 2CH3CH2Cl+2Na (iii) Fittig reaction

(3) (A) only (4) (A) and (C) only

Ether 60. Given below are two statements :

  C2H5 – C2H5 + 2NaCl
Statement I : C2H5OH and AgCN both can generate
(d) 2C6H5Cl + 2Na (iv) Gatterman
nucleophile.
Ether
  C6H5 – C6H5 + 2NaCl reaction
Statement II : KCN and AgCN both will generate
Choose the correct answer from the options given nitrile nucleophile with all reaction conditions.
below [JEE (Main)-2021] Choose the most appropriate option.
(1) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii) (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii) (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) (3) Both statement I and statement II are true

58. H3C OH (4) Both statement I and statement II are false

20% H 3PO 4
61. In the given reaction 3-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl
“A” ,
358 K
(Major Product) butane 
C2H5OH ' A'
 (Major Product)

H3C Cl [JEE (Main)-2021]

–
(CH 3)3CO K+ (1) 1-Ethoxy-3,3-dimethyl butane.
“B”
(Major Product)
(2) 2-Hydroxy-3,3-dimethyl butane.
The products “A” and “B” formed in above reactions (3) 2-Ethoxy-2,3-dimethyl butane.
are [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) 2-Ethoxy-3,3-dimethyl butane.
CH 2 CH3
(i ) (C6H5CO)2 O2, HBr
(1) A — P
B— 62. (ii) CoF2
Br

CH2 CH 2 Major product P of above reaction, is

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) A — B—

F
CH3 CH 2 (1)
(3) A — F
B—

CH 3 CH3
(2)
(4) A — B— F
Br
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

F
(3)
(3)
Br
CH2CH3
F
(4)

67. The major product (A) formed in the reaction given

(4) below is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – Br
Br
CH 3OH
63. Presence of which reagent will affect the + CH3O A
reversibility of the following reaction, and change it (Major
product)
to a irreversible reaction
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 Br

hv

CH4  I2  CH3  I  HI
Re versible
(1)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Dilute HNO2 (2) Liquid NH3 OCH3
(3) HOCl (4) Concentrated HIO3
CH3 – CH 2 – C = CH 2
64. Among the following compounds I-IV, which one
forms a yellow precipitate on reacting sequentially (2)
with (i) NaOH (ii) dil. HNO3 (iii) AgNO3?

Cl Cl Cl Cl CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – OH

H3C CH3 CH2I (3)

CH3
I II III IV CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH2 – OCH3

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(4)
(1) III (2) II
(3) IV (4) I 68. The correct order of reactivity of the given chlorides
65. The number of stereoisomers possible for with acetate in acetic acid is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
1, 2-dimethyl cyclopropane is : [JEE (Main)-2021] CH 3
Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl CH3
(1) Two (2) Three
(1) > > >
(3) One (4) Four
66. In the following sequence of reactions the P is : CH 3

CH 3
Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl Cl
CH3
+ Mg
dry
[A]
ethanol
P (2) > > >
ether
CH 3
[JEE (Main)-2021] CH 3
Cl Cl Cl CH 3 CH 2Cl
(3) > > >
(1)
CH3

CH3
O – CH2CH3 CH2Cl Cl Cl Cl CH3
(2) (4) > > >

CH3

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69. The major product of the following reaction is

H OCH 3
CH3
(1) + Mg
Cl
NaOH
Major product Br
C2H5OH

[JEE (Main)-2021] OCH3

CH3 (2) + HMgBr

OH
(1)

Br H
CH3
+ Mg
(3)
(2)
OCH3
HO

CH3 OH
CH 3
(3) HO
(4) + Mg

Br
CH3
(4)
71. The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic
addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene is/are :

70. For the following sequence of reactions, the correct [JEE (Main)-2021]
products are : (1) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers
1. Br2/Fe/ 
(2) 2 identical mesomers
2. Mg/dy ether
Products
3. CH 3OH (3) 2 enantiomers

[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers



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Chapter 25

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

1. The major product obtained on interaction of phenol 6. An unknown alcohol is treated with the "Lucas
with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is: reagent" to determine whether the alcohol is
[AIEEE-2009] primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts
(1) Salicylaldehyde (2) Salicylic acid fastest and by what mechanism ?
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(3) Phthalic acid (4) Benzoic acid
(1) Secondary alcohol by SN1
2. From amongst the following alcohols the one that
(2) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
would react fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous
ZnCl2, is [AIEEE-2010] (3) Secondary alcohol by SN2

(1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butanol (4) Tertiary alcohol by SN2

(3) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (4) 2-Methylpropanol 7. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under
pressure at 125°C yields a product which on
3. The correct order of acid strength of the following acetylation produces C.
compounds is [AIEEE-2011]
— ONa 125° H
+

A. Phenol + CO2 B C
5 Atm Ac2O
B. p-Cresol
C. m-Nitrophenol The major product C would be [JEE (Main)-2014]

D. p-Nitrophenol OCOCH3 OH
(1) A > B > D > C (2) C > B > A > D COOH COCH3
(1) (2)
(3) D > C > A > B (4) B > D > A > C
4. Consider the following reaction
COCH3
C2H5OH + H2SO4  Product
OH OCOCH3
Among the following, which one cannot be formed
as a product under any conditions? [AIEEE-2011] COOCH3
(3) (4)
(1) Diethyl ether COOH
(2) Ethyl-hydrogen sulphate
8. The correct sequence of reagents for the following
(3) Ethylene conversion will be [JEE (Main)-2017]
(4) Acetylene O HO CH3
5. Arrange the following compounds in order of
decreasing acidity [JEE (Main)-2013]

OH OH OH OH
HO CH3
CHO
; ; ; CH3

Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3 (1) CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH–, H+/CH3OH

(I) (II) (III) (IV) (2) [Ag(NH3)2]+OH–, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH
(1) II > IV > I > III (2) I > II > III > IV (3) [Ag(NH3)2]+OH–, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) IV > III > I > II (4) CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH–

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9. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of 12. The products formed in the reaction of cumene with
NaOH followed by acidification produces compound O2 followed by treatment with dil. HCl are
X as the major product. X on treatment with [JEE (Main)-2019]
(CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic amount of
H2SO4 produces [JEE (Main)-2018] OH
OH
O
(1) and H3C CH3
O O CH3
O CH3
(1) (2) O CH 3

CO2H
CO2H
(2) and CH 3—OH
O O CH3 CO2H
C
O
OH O
(3) (4)
CO2H (3) and H3C CH3
O CH3
O OH
10. The major product formed in the following reaction O
is
(4) and H3C CH3
O HI
Heat
O 13. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following
[JEE (Main)-2018] transformation? [JEE (Main)-2019]
OH
OH I CH3 CH CH CH2 CH CH3
(1) (2)
OH I
CH3 CH CH CH2CO2H

(1) I2/NaOH (2) Alkaline KMnO4

OH I
(3) (4) (3) Tollen’s reagent (4) CrO2Cl2/CS2
I OH 14. The major product of the following reaction is
11. The major product of the following reaction is OH
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Br2(excess)
[JEE (Main)-2019]

SO3H
OH OH
Br Br Br

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
SO3H SO3H
OH OH
Br Br

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Br Br
Br Br
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

15. The major product obtained in the following (1) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX
conversion is (2) CH3CH2COCH3+ PhMgX
CH3 O
(3) HCHO+PhCH(CH3)CH2MgX
Br2 (1 eqv.) (4) PhCOCH3+ CH3CH2MgX
O MeOH
18. The major product of the following reaction is
OCH3
O Conc . HBr (excess)

[JEE (Main)-2019] heat

[JEE (Main)-2019]
CH3 O CH = CH 2
CH3 O
OH Br
O O OMe (1) (2)
(1) (2)
Br–CHCH 3 Br–CHCH 3
Br Br
O O OH Br
(3) (4)
O CH 3 O
CH3 Br CH 2CH2Br CH 2CH2Br
O Br O
(3) (4) 19. The organic compound that gives following
qualitative analysis is
OMe
O O Test Inference
16. The major product obtained in the following reaction (a) Dil. HCl Insoluble
is
(b) NaOH solution Soluble
O OH (c) Br2/water Decolourization
LiAlH4 [JEE (Main)-2019]
(excess) OH OH
CH3
(1) (2)
NO2 O
[JEE (Main)-2019] NH2 NH 2
(3) (4)
OH OH

20. p-Hydroxybenzophenone upon reaction with

bromine in carbon tetrachloride gives
(1) CH3 (2) CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
NH2 OH NH2 OH Br O

O OH OH (1)
HO
O

(3) (4) CH3 Br

CH3 (2)
HO
NO2 OH NO2 OH O
Br
OH
(3)
17. CH3 CH2 C CH3 cannot be prepared by HO
O
Ph Br
[JEE (Main)-2019] (4)
HO

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21. The major product of the following reaction is :

OH
O OH
HI (excess) (1) (2)

NC O CH 3
CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
OH
I OH O
(1) (2) (3) (4)

NC OH NC I CH3
CH 3

OH I 24. Consider the following reactions :

(3) (4)
Ag2 O
ppt
NC OH NC I 
A Turbidity
22. The major products of the following reaction are : Hg 2+/H+ NaBH4 ZnCl2
B C within
conc. HCl 5 minutes
OH
‘A’ is [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) CHCl 3/aq. NaOH
(2) HCHO, NaOH (conc.)
(1) CH3 – C  CH
(3) H 3O + (2) CH3 – C  C – CH3
Cl
(3) CH2 = CH2
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) CH  CH
OH
25. 1-methylethylene oxide when treated with an excess
COOH of HBr produces: [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) and Methanol
Br Br
(1) (2)
Cl CH3 Br

OH Br
CH3
(3) Br (4)
OH CH3 Br
(2) and Formic acid
26. In the following reaction sequence, structures of A
OH and B, respectively will be

OH
HBr Na
OH A (Intramolecular
 Ether
(3) Product) B
and Formic acid
CH 2Br
Cl
[JEE (Main)-2020]
OH
Br CH2Br
COOH
(4) and Methanol OH
(1)
&
OH CH2Br

23. What will be the major product when m-cresol is Br Br

reacted with propargyl bromide (HC  C–CH2Br) in
presence of K2CO3 in acetone? OH
(2)
[JEE (Main)-2019] &
CH 2Br

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

OH OH
(2) A = HO OH
Br
(3)
&
CH 2Br
HO
OH OH
B = HO
OH
Br
(4)
&
CH 2Br

27. The major product of the following reaction is OH

H 3C (3) A = H3CO OCH3

OH dil. H SO
2 4

H 3C
H 3C
[JEE (Main)-2020] OCH3
CH 3 B = HO
OH

(1)

OH

H3C OH
CH 3 (4) A = HO OH

H3C OH
(2)
H3C OH OH HO
CH3
B = H3CO OCH3
H3C OH OH
(3)
H 3C
HO CH 3 OCH3
CH3
29. The major product [B] in the following sequence of
reactions is

CH3 – C = CH – CH2CH3 (i) B2H6

(4) [A]
CH(CH3)2 –
(ii) H2O 2, OH
OH
H3C CH 3
dil. H SO
28. Among the compounds A and B with molecular 
2

4
[B] [JEE (Main)-2020]
formula C9H18O3, A is having higher boiling point the
B. The possible structures of A and B are (1) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3
[JEE (Main)-2020] C
H3C CH3
(1) A = H3CO OCH3
(2) CH2 = C – CH2CH 2CH 3
CH(CH3)2
OCH3
(3) CH3 – C = CH–CH2CH3
B = HO OH
CH(CH3)2

(4) CH3 – CH – CH = CH – CH 3
HO CH(CH3)2

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30. Preparation of Bakelite proceeds via reactions (2) C = H3C – CH 2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH;
[JEE (Main)-2020]
D = H 3C – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
(1) Electrophilic substitution and dehydration
OH
(2) Electrophilic addition and dehydration
(3) C = H3C – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH2 – OH;
(3) Nucleophilic addition and dehydration
CH 3
(4) Condensation and elimination
D = H3C – C – OH
31. The major aromatic product C in the following
reaction sequence will be CH 3

CH 3
(4) C = H 3C – C – OH;
CH 3
[JEE (Main)-2020]
D = H 3C – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
OH
OH
(1)
33. An organic compound ‘A’ (C9H10O) when treated
CHO with conc. HI undergoes cleavage to yield
Br compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ gives yellow precipitate
(2) with AgNO3 where as ‘C’ tautomerizes to ‘D’. ‘D’
gives positive iodoform test. ‘A’ could be
CHO
Br
[JEE (Main)-2020]

(3)
CO2 H (1) O – CH = CH – CH 3

OH
(4) (2) H3C O – CH = CH 2
CO2 H

32. Two compounds A and B with same molecular

(3) CH 2 – O – CH = CH 2
formula (C3H6O) undergo Grignard’s reaction with
methylmagnesium bromide to give products C and
D. Products C and D show following chemical O – CH 2 – CH = CH 2
(4)
tests.

Test C D 34. The major product of the following reaction is:

Ceric OH
conc. HNO3 + conc.
ammonium Positive Positive CH 3
H 2SO4
nitrate Test
Turbidity NO 2
Turbidity
obtained [JEE (Main)-2020]
Lucas Test obtained
after five OH
immediately
minutes OH H 3C
Iodoform Test Positive Negative H 3C
(1) (2) NO2
C and D respectively are [JEE (Main)-2020]
O2N NO2
OH NO 2

(1) C = H3C – CH 2 – CH – CH 3 ; OH
OH H 3C NO 2
CH3 H 3C NO 2
D = H 3 C – C – OH (3) (4) NO2
CH3 NO2 NO 2

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

35. An organic compound [A], molecular formula (3) H3C CH2 H3C CH3
C10H20O2 was hydrolyzed with dilute sulphuric acid
to give a carboxylic acid [B] and an alcohol [C]. and
Oxidation of [C] with CrO3 – H2SO4 produced [B]. H3C CH2
Which of the following structures are not possible for
[A]? [JEE (Main)-2020]
CH3
(4) H3C CH3 H3C
CH3
| and
(1) CH3  CH2  CH  OCOCH2CH  CH2CH3 CH2
| H3 C
CH3
38. The major product [B] in the following reactions is
CH3
| CH3
(2) CH3  CH2  CH  COOCH2  CH  CH2CH3
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 OCH2 CH3
|
CH3
HI H SO

Heat
 [A] alcohol 
2

4
 [B]
(3) (CH3)3C – COOCH2C(CH3)3
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(4) CH3(CH2)2CH2COOCH2(CH2)2CH2CH3
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH – CH3
36. Consider the following reaction :
OHc CH3
d HO CH3 (2) CH3 CH2 C CH2
OHb OHa
CH3

Chromic (3) CH3 CH C CH3

  'P '
anhydride
(4) CH2 = CH2
The product ‘P’ gives positive ceric ammonium 39. The major product [C] of the following reaction
nitrate test. This is because of the presence of sequence will be
which of these –OH group(s)? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (d) only (i) NaBH 4 DBr
CH2  CH – CHO (i i) SO Cl2
[A] Anh y.
[B] [C]
(2) (c) and (d) AlCl3

(3) (b) only [JEE (Main)-2020]

(4) (b) and (d) Br
37. When neopentyl alcohol is heated with an acid, it
slowly converted into an 85 : 15 mixture of alkenes (1)
A and B, respectively. What are these alkenes? D
[JEE (Main)-2020]
Br
(2)
(1) H3C CH3 H 3C CH2 D

and Br
H3 C H 3C
D
(3)
(2) CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2
and D
(4)
CH2 CH3 Br

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40. Which of the following derivatives of alcohols is

unstable in an aqueous base? [JEE (Main)-2020]
O
(3)
(1) RO Me (2) RO—CMe3

(3) (4) RO
RO O
(4)
41. The major product of the following reaction is
HO CH2CH3
H2SO4 44. Identify Products A and B.

O
dil. KMnO4 CrO3
[JEE (Main)-2020] A B
273 K
CHCH3 CH2CH3
[JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) (2)
O O
(1) A : B:
OH O
CH = CH2 CH2CH3

(3) (4)
OH
O O (2) A : B:
OH O
42. A solution of phenol in chloroform when treated with
aqueous NaOH gives compound P as a major
product. The mass percentage of carbon in P is
(3) A : OH B:
______. (to the nearest integer)
(Atomic mass : C = 12; H = 1; O = 16) OH O
[JEE (Main)-2020]
O
43. What is the final product (major) ‘A’ in the given
reaction? (4) A : OHC —

B : HOOC —

45. What is ‘X’ in the given reaction?

[JEE (Main)-2021]
CH2OH
210°C
+ oxalic acid X
CH2OH (major product)

(1) [JEE (Main)-2021]

CHO CH2
(1) (2)
CHO CH2

CH – OH CH2OH
(2)
(3) (4)
CH2 CHO

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

46. Identify A and B in the chemical reaction. 47. Identify the major products A and B respectively
in the following reactions of phenol:
OCH3 OH
(i) CHCl 3, NaOH Br2 in CS 2
B A
(ii) H 3O
+ 273K
HCl NaI

 [A] 
dryacetone
[B]
(major) major
[JEE (Main)-2021]

OH OH
NO2

(1) and
[JEE (Main)-2021]
Br CHO
OCH3 OCH3
OH OH
Cl I
CHO
(2) and
(1) A = B=
Br

OH OH
NO2 NO 2
Br CHO
(3) and

OCH3 OCH3
Cl OH OH
Br
(4) and
(2) A = B=
CHO
Cl

NO2 NO2 Cl O– Na +

48. +NaOH

OCH3 I
The above reaction requires which of the following
Cl Cl
reaction conditions? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 573 K, 300 atm (2) 623 K, Cu, 300 atm
(3) A = B=
(3) 573 K, Cu, 300 atm (4) 623 K, 300 atm
49. Main Products formed during a reaction of
NO2 NO2 1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are :
[JEE (Main)-2021]

I
OCH3 I
(1) and CH3OH

(4) A = B=
OH

Cl Cl
(2) and CH3OH
NO2 NO2
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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

Choose the correct answer from the options given

OH
below [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) and CH3I (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
53. The correct options for the products A and B of the
I following reactions are :

(4) and CH3I OH

Br 2 (excess) Br2
A B
50. To synthesise 1.0 mole of 2-methylpropan-2-ol from H2 O CS2 , < 5°C

Ethylethanoate_______equivalents of CH3MgBr
[JEE (Main)-2021]
reagent will be required. (Integer value)
[JEE (Main)-2021] OH OH
Br Br Br
51. An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives dark green (1) A = , B=
colouration with ferric chloride. On treatment with
CHCl3 and KOH, followed by acidification gives Br Br
compound B. Compound B can also be obtained
from compound C on reaction with pyridinium OH OH
chlorochromate (PCC). Identify A, B and C Br Br Br
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) A = , B=
Br
OH CH2OH OH Br
OH CHO
(1) A = B= C= OH OH
Br Br
(3) A = , B=
CH2OH OH OH
OH CHO Br Br
(2) A = B= C=
OH OH

OH OH (4) A = , B=
OH CHO CH2OH
(3) A = B= C= Br Br

54. Which one of the following phenols does not give

HO CH 2OH OH colour when condensed with phthalic anhydride in
CHO OH presence of conc. H2SO4? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(4) A = B= C=
OH
OH

OH OH
(1) (2)
52.
OH
CH3
Br
(Major product)
OH
The given reaction can occur in the presence of OH OH
(a) Bromine water (b) Br2 in CS2, 273 K
(3) (4)
(c) Br2/FeBr3 (d) Br2 in CHCl3, 273 K

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

55. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Synthesis of ethyl phenyl ether
may be achieved by Williamson synthesis.
Reason (R) : Reaction of bromobenzene with OH
sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.
In the light of the above statement, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (c) only
(3) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is NOT the
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) (b) only
correct explanation of (A) 58. The major product formed in the following reaction
56. The major product of the following reaction, if it is :
occurs by SN2 mechanism is :
CH 3
OH
conc. H2SO 4
CH 3 C CH CH 3
K2CO 3 a few drops
+ Br
acetone CH 3 OH

[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

O O
CH 3 CH 3
(1) (2)
(1)
H 3C CH 3
O
O
O
(3) (4)
CH 3
(2) CH 3 C CH CH2
57. The compound/s which will show significant CH 3
intermolecular H-bonding is/are [JEE (Main)-2021]
NO2
H CH 3
OH N CH3 C CH CH 3
(3)
CH3
O
HO
(4) CH3 C CH CH2CH 3

CH 3
(a) (b)



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Chapter 26

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

1. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of (1) Zn – Hg/HCI (2) Na, Liq. NH3
concentrated H2SO4 was added. A compound with
a fruity smell was formed. The liquid was (3) NaBH4 (4) NH2NH2, OH
[AIEEE-2009]
6. Iodoform can be prepared from all except
(1) HCHO (2) CH3COCH3
[AIEEE-2012]
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH3OH
(1) Isopropyl alcohol
2. Which of the following on heating with aqueous
KOH, produces acetaldehyde? [AIEEE-2009] (2) 3 – Methyl – 2 – butanone

(1) CH3CH2Cl (2) CH2ClCH2Cl (3) Isobutyl alcohol

(3) CH3CHCl2 (4) CH3COCl (4) Ethyl methyl ketone

3. In Cannizzaro reaction given below 7. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3
gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence of
: OH KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2NH2. A is
:

2PhCHO PhCH2OH + Ph CO 2
[JEE (Main)-2013]
the slowest step is [AIEEE-2009]
(1) CH3COOH
(1) The transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group
(2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(2) The abstraction of proton from the carboxylic
group (3) CH3 CH COOH
(3) The deprotonation of PhCH2OH
CH3
(4) The attack of : OH at the carboxyl group
(4) CH3CH2COOH
4. Ozonolysis of an organic compound ‘A’ produces
8. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
acetone and propionaldehyde in equimolar mixture.
R – CH2 – OH  R – CHO is [JEE (Main)-2014]
Identify ‘A’ from the following compounds
(1) KMnO4
[AIEEE-2011]
(1) 2 - Methyl - 2 - pentene (2) K2Cr2O7

(2) 2 - Methyl - 1 - pentene (3) CrO3

(3) 1 - Pentene (4) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)

(4) 2 - Pentene 9. In the reaction,
5. In the given transformation, which of the following LiAlH PCl
Alc.KOH
is the most appropriate reagent? [AIEEE-2012] CH3 COOH 
4
 A 
5
B   C,
Reagent the product C is [JEE (Main)-2014]
CH = CHCOCH3
(1) Acetaldehyde
HO
(2) Acetylene
CH = CHCH2CH3
(3) Ethylene
HO (4) Acetyl chloride

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

10. In the following sequence of reactions : O O

O O
KMnO SOCl H /Pd (3) and O
Toluene 
4
A 
2
 B 
2
 C, O Br
BaSO 4

the product C is [JEE (Main)-2015] OH OH

(4) and
(1) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5CH3 OCH3 OCH3
(3) C6H5CH2OH (4) C6H5CHO O O
Br
11. W hich of the following, upon treatment with 14. The compounds A and B in the following reaction
tert-BuONa followed by addition of bromine water, are, respectively [JEE (Main)-2019]
fails to decolourize the colour of bromine?
[JEE (Main)-2017]
HCHO + HCI AgCN
A B
O
O
(1) (2) (1) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl isocyanide
Br Br (2) A = Benzyl chloride, B = Benzyl cyanide

C6H5 (3) A = Benzyl chloride, B = Benzyl isocyanide

O
(3) (4) (4) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl cyanide
Br Br
15. The major product of following reaction is
12. The major product obtained in the following reaction
is [JEE (Main)-2017] (1) AIH(i-Bu)2
R C N ? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) H 2O
O
O (1) RCH2NH2 (2) RCHO
(3) RCONH2 (4) RCOOH
DIBAL-H
16. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
Item I Item II
COOH
(A) Benzaldehyde (P) Mobile phase
CHO CHO (B) Alumina (Q) Adsorbent
(1) (2)
COOH CHO (C) Acetonitrile (R) Adsorbate

OH OH [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (A)  (Q), (B)  (R), (C)  (P)
(3) CHO (4) CHO (2) (A)  (Q), (B)  (P), (C)  (R)
COOH CHO (3) (A)  (P), (B)  (R), (C)  (Q)
13. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the (4) (A)  (R), (B)  (Q), (C)  (P)
presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with
17. The major product formed in the following reaction is
Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively
[JEE (Main)-2018] O CH3
O
OH Br OH
(1) and H+ dil. NaOH
OCH3 OCH3 H 3C

O O [JEE (Main)-2019]
O O O O O OH
(2) and
O O
(1)
H3C
Br

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

OH O
(2) O2N COOC2H5
H 3C H

O III
OH

(3) H CH3O COOC 2H5

H3C

IV
OH O
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) H3C (1) III > II > IV > I (2) IV > II > III > I
(3) II > III > I > IV (4) III > II > I > IV
18. The major product ‘X’ formed in the following
reaction is 21. An aromatic compound ‘A’ having molecular
formula C7H6O2 on treating with aqueous ammonia
O O and heating forms compound ‘B’. The compound
|| ||
CH2—C—OCH 3 ‘B’ on reaction with molecular bromine and
NaBH 4 potassium hydroxide provides compound ‘C’ having
X
MeOH molecular formula C6H7N. The structure ‘A’ is

[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]

OH OH O (1) OHC
CH2CH2OH CH2 C OCH3
(1) (2) OH

O O OH
CH2 C H CH2CH2OH
(2) CH == CH — CHO
(3) (4)
COOH
19. Which dicarboxylic acid in presence of a dehydrating
agent is least reactive to give an anhydride? (3)
[JEE (Main)-2019]
COOH CO 2H CHO
(1) (2)
COOH (4)
CO 2H
OH
O
CH 2 22. The major product obtained in the following reaction
CH2 COOH CH2 OH is
(3) (4)
CH 2 COOH CH2 OH
CO2Et
CH2 NaOEt /

O O
20. The decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis O
[JEE (Main)-2019]
for the following esters is
O
COOC 2H5 (1)

I CO2Et

Cl COOC 2H5 O
(2)
CO2Et
II

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

O H
(3)
CO 2Et O
(1)
CHO
O
(4) NH
(2)
CO2Et

23. The major porduct of the following reaction is OH

(3)
O
NH2
CH3N NaBH 4

[JEE (Main)-2019] N
(4)
OH
(1) CH3N
26. Which of the following compounds reacts with
OH ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes
(2) CH3N bromine water solution? [JEE (Main)-2019]

O
(3) CH3NH

OH (1)
(4) CH3NH

24. The major product of the following reaction is OH

COCH3
(i) KMnO4/KOH,  (2)
(ii) H2SO4(dil)
CH3
CN O
[JEE (Main)-2019]

COCOOH
(3)
(1)
HOOC
OCH 3
COOH
CH
(2)
HOOC (4) CH2

COOH
27. In the following reaction
(3)
OHC Aldehyde + Alcohol
HCI
Acetal
COCH3
Aldehyde Alcohol
(4) HCHO tBuOH
HOOC
CH3CHO MeOH
25. The major product of the following reaction is:
The best combination is [JEE (Main)-2019]
O
(1) HCHO and MeOH
OEt (i) Ni/H2
(2) HCHO and tBuOH
CN (ii) DIBAL–H
(3) CH3CHO and tBuOH
[JEE (Main)-2019] (4) CH3CHO and MeOH

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

28. In the following reactions, products A and B are O

O O (B) C2H5 OCH3

dil NaOH
H3C H [A]
H3C CH3 O

(C) C2H5 Cl
+
H3O
[A] [B] [JEE (Main)-2019]

O O
O O (D) C2H5 O C2H5
CH3 CH3
(1) A = CH3 ;B= CH3 [JEE (Main)-2019]
HO
(1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
O O
CH3 CH3 (2) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
(2) A = CH3 ;B= CH3
(3) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
HO
(4) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
O
O
OH 31. The aldehydes which will not form Grignard product
C CH3
H3C H H with one equivalent Grignard reagent are
(3) A = ;B=
H3C H 3C CHO
CH3 CH3
(A)
O O
OH H 2C
H H CHO
H3C
(4) A = ;B=
H3C
CH3
H 3C
CH3
(B) HO2C
CHO
29. The major product of the following reaction
CN (C) H3CO

CHO
O (ii) H3O+

O (D) HOH2C

[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) (B), (C)
CHO CHO
(2) (B), (D)
(1) (2)
O OH (3) (B), (C), (D)
O CHO (4) (C), (D)

32. The major product of the following reaction is

CH = NH CHO
(3) (4) H3C O
NH2
OH O O
OH
+
(i) NaNO2/H
30. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following (ii) CrO3/H
+
[JEE (Main)-2019]
with LiAlH4 is (iii) H2SO4(conc.),

O HO
(1)
(A) C2H5 NH2
O
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

CH3 O 35. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral

(2) ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It
O however, reacts with Grignard reagent and gives
O
positive iodoform test. The compound is
O [JEE (Main)-2019]
HO O
(3)
C2 H5
(1)
CH 3
O O
O
CH3 O CH 3
(4) (2)
H
O
O
33. The major product of the following reaction is
OH
O
Br NaBH 4 CH 3
(3)
MeOH, 25°C C2 H5

O
[JEE (Main)-2019] O
OH CH 3
Br (4)
OH
(1)
36. The major product obtained in the following reaction
is
OH
OMe
CH3 O
(2)
NaOH
OHC 

O [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) CH3
H3C
(1) H (2) H
OMe
O O
(4) CH2 CH3

34. An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following CH3 CH3

solubility profile is
water (3) (4)
insoluble
X 5% HCl
insoluble O O
10% NaOH 37. The major product of the following reaction is
soluble
10% NaHCO3 LiAlH
insoluble CH3CH  CHCO2CH3 
4


[JEE (Main)-2019] [JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) Benzamide (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(2) Oleic acid (2) CH3CH2CH2CHO

(3) o-Toluidine (3) CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3

(4) m-Cresol (4) CH3CH = CHCH2OH

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

38. The major product of the following reaction is 41. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction is:
Ph CH3
OH NaOCI (i) SOCI2
X Y
CH2OH H 2 SO4 (cat.) O (ii) aniline
CHCl3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
CO 2Et
Ph
[JEE (Main)-2019] NH2 N
O
O
O OH (1) (2)
Ph
(1) (2)
O O NH2
CO2Et
O
O HN Ph
OH
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
OEt O Ph
COOH
O 42. Compound A (C9H10O) shows positive iodoform
39. In the following reaction test. Oxidation of A with KMnO 4 /KOH gives
acid B (C8H6O4). Anhydride of B is used for the


carbonyl compound  MeOH  acetal
HCl preparation of phenolphthalein. Compound A is:
[JEE (Main)-2019]
Rate of the reaction is the highest for
CH3 CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (2)
CH3
(1) Acetone as substrate and methanol in excess
(2) Propanal as substrate and methanol in O
O CH3
stoichiometric amount
O
(3) Propanal as substrate and methanol in excess
(4) Acetone as substrate and methanol in CH3 CH2 – C – H
stoichiometric amount (3) (4)
O
CH3
40. Major products of the following reaction are :
43. The major product of the following reaction is
CHO (i) 50% NaOH
+ HCHO +
(ii) H3O
HO (1) CrO3

[JEE (Main)-2019] (2) SOCI2/

HO (3) 
CH2OH [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) HCOOH and
O O

CH2OH COOH (1) (2)

(2) and
CI HO
O O
COOH
(3) CH3OH and (3) (4)

(4) CH3OH and HCO2H HO Cl

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

44. What is the product of following reaction? 47. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X absorbs two
hydrogen molecules on catalytic hydrogenation, and
(i) NaBH also gives following reaction
Hex – 3 – ynal 
(ii)PBr
4
?
3
(iii)Mg/ether
(iv ) CO2 /H3O O [ Ag(NH ) ]
X 3
Zn/H O
 A 
3 2

2

[JEE (Main)-2020]
B(3-oxo-hexanedicarboxylic acid)
(1) COOH
X will be [JEE (Main)-2020]

(2) COOH

(3) COOH (1) (2)

(4)
COOH O
45. A solution of m-chloroaniline, m-chlorophenol and m-
chlorobenzoic acid in ethyl acetate was extracted (3) (4)
initially with a saturated solution of NaHCO3 to give
fraction A. The left over organic phase was extracted
48. Identify (A) in the following reaction sequence.
with dilute NaOH solution to give fraction B. The final
organic layer was labelled as fraction C. Fractions (A) 
3

(i) CH MgBr
(B) 
3 2 O / Zn, H O

A, B and C, contain respectively : Gives
(ii) H , H2O
(iii) Conc. H2SO4 / 
Positive
[JEE (Main)-2020] iodoform
test
(1) m-chloroaniline, m-chlorobenzoic acid and m- O
chlorophenol C
H
(2) m-chlorophenol, m-chlorobenzoic acid and m-
chloroaniline CH3

(3) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chlorophenol and m- H3C C O

chloroaniline CH3

(4) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chloroaniline and m- [JEE (Main)-2020]

chlorophenol
CH3
46. The most suitable reagent for the given conversion
is (1)
CONH2 CH 3 CH3
O
C ==O CH3
?
CH3
HO2 C
(2)
CN
O CH3

CONH2 CH3
COCH3

(3)
HOH2 C
O CH3
CN
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) LiAIH4 (2) NaBH4 (4)
(3) H2/Pd (4) B2H6 O CH3

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

49. The major product (Y) in the following reaction is CHO

CH3 (iii)
HgSO4, H2SO4 OCH3
CH3–CH–C CH X
H2O

(i) C2H5MgBr, H2O O2N CHO

(ii) Conc. H2SO4/ 
Y [JEE (Main)-2020] (iv) [JEE (Main)-2020]

CH3
(1) CH3–CH–C=CH–CH3 (1) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)

CH3 (2) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)

(3) (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii)
CH3
(4) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)
(2) CH3–C=C–CH3
52. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following
CH2CH3 compounds in nucleophilic addition reaction is
CH2 Propanal, Benzaldehyde, Propanone, Butanone
(3) H3C–C–CH–CH3 [JEE (Main)-2020]
C2H5 (1) Propanal < Propanone < Butanone <
CH3 Benzaldehyde
(2) Benzaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone <
(4) CH3–CH–C=CH2
Butanone
CH2CH3
(3) Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone <
50. In the following reaction A is Propanal
H O (4) Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde <
Propanal
(i) Br2, h 53. The compound A in the following reactions is
(ii) KOH (alc.)
A (i) CH MgBr/H O
(iii) O3 A 
3 2

(ii) Conc. H2 SO 4 / 
(iv) (CH3)2S
(i) O
(v) NaOH (aq) +  B 
3
C D
(ii) Zn/H2O
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(i) Conc. KOH
C   COO K + + CH2OH
(ii) 

(1) (2) CH3 O

I II
Ba(OH)2
D  H3 C  C  CH  C  CH3


[JEE (Main)-2020]
O
(3) (4) II
(1)
C6H5  C  CH2 CH3

51. The increasing order of the following compounds O

towards HCN addition is (2) II
C6H5  C  CH3
H3CO CHO
O
(i) II
(3)
C6H5  CH2  C  CH3
CHO O
II CH 3
(ii) (4) C6 H5  C  CH
NO2 CH 3

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

54. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula 57. The correct match between Item-I (starting material)
C6H12O2) was hydrolysed with dil. H2SO4 to give a and Item-II (reagent) for the preparation of
carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). ‘C’ gives benzaldehyde is
white turbidity immediately when treated with
anhydrous ZnCl 2 and conc. HCl. The organic Item-I Item-II
compound (A) is [JEE (Main)-2020] (I) Benzene (P) HCl and SnCl2,

O O H3O+
(1) (2) O (II) Benzonitrile (Q) H2, Pd-BaSO4, S
O
and quinoline
O O
(3) (4) (III) Benzoyl Chloride (R) CO, HCl and AlCl3
O O
[JEE (Main)-2020]
55. [P] on treatment with Br2/FeBr3 in CCl4 produced
(1) (I) - (R), (II) - (P) and (III) - (Q)
a single isomer C8H7O2Br while heating [P] with
sodalime gave toluene. The compound [P] is (2) (I) - (P), (II) - (Q) and (III) - (R)
[JEE (Main)-2020] (3) (I) - (Q), (II) - (R) and (III) - (P)
COOH COOH
(4) (I) - (R), (II) - (Q) and (III) - (P)
CH3
58. Consider the following reactions[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (2)
CH3 (i) CH MgBr
Cu
A 
3

 B 
573 K
 2  methyl  2  butene
COOH CH2COOH (ii) H3O

The mass percentage of carbon in A is ______ .

(3) (4) [JEE (Main)-2020]
59. The number of chiral centres present in [B] is
CH3 _____.
56. Consider the following reactions
(i) C2 H5 MgBr
ozonolysis [A]
'A'   'B ' 'C ' CH C N +
(C7H14 ) (ii) H3 O
CH3
(I2 + NaOH)
‘B’ yellow ppt
 (i) CH3 MgBr
[B] [JEE (Main)-2020]
(ii) H 2O
(Ag2O)
silver mirror 60. Which of the following compound gives pink colour

on reaction with phthalic anhydride in conc. H2SO4
(I2 + NaOH) followed by treatment with NaOH?
no yellow ppt
‘C’ 
[JEE (Main)-2021]
gives white
LiAlH4 Anhydrous ZnCl 2 turbidity
‘D’ CH 3
& Conc. HCl within
5 minutes
(1)
‘A’ is [JEE (Main)-2020] HO

(1) (2)
HO CH 3
(2)
(3) (4) HO CH3

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(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2OH

H 3C CH3
(3) (3) CH3CH2CHO (4) (CH3CH2CO)2O

HO OH 65. Compound(s) which will liberate carbon dioxide

with sodium bicarbonate solution is/are :
CH3
(4) NH2

OH

61. Which of the following reagent is used for the A=

following reaction?

? NH2 NH2
CH3 CH2 CH3   CH3 CH2CHO
OH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Copper at high temperature and pressure
COOH
(2) Manganese acetate
(3) Molybdenum oxide
(4) Potassium permanganate B=

?
62.
O OH
NO2 NO2
Which of the following reagent is suitable for the
preparation of the product in the above reaction?
C=
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Red P + Cl2 (2) Ni/H2
– NO2
(3) NaBH4 (4) NH2 –NH2 /C2H5 ONa
63. Which one of the following reactions will not form [JEE (Main)-2021]
acetaldehyde? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) B only
CrO 3 H2SO 4 (2) C only
(1) CH3 CH2 OH  
(3) A and B only
Pd(II)/Cu(II)
(2) CH2  CH2  O2 H2O
 (4) B and C only
66. The correct sequence of reagents used in the
Cu preparation of 4-bromo-2-nitroethyl benzene from
(3) CH3CH2OH 
573 K
 benzene is: [JEE (Main)-2021]

(i) DIBAL-H (1) CH3COCl/AlCl3, Zn-Hg/HCl, Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/

(4) CH3CN 
(ii) H O
 H2SO4
2

64. The major product of the following chemical (2) HNO 3 /H 2 SO 4 , Br 2 /AlCl 3 ,CH 3 COCl/AlCl 3 ,
reaction is: Zn-Hg/HCl
(3) CH 3 COCl/AlCl 3 , Br 2 /AlBr 3 , HNO 3 /H 2 SO 4 ,
1) H3 O  ,
2) SOCl2 Zn/HCl
CH3 CH2 CN  
3) Pd/BaSO 4 ,H2
?
(4) Br 2 /AlBr 3 , CH 3 COCl/AlCl 3 , HNO 3 /H 2 SO 4 ,
[JEE (Main)-2021] Zn/HCl

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

67. The major product of the following reaction is :

O
H /CO
CH3 CH2CH  CH2 
2
Rh catalyst
 C — OCH2CH3
(3)
[JEE (Main)-2021] HO

(1) CH3CH2 C CH2 CH2 OH

CHO (4)
CH3O
(2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
72. Identify A in the given chemical reaction.
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
(4) CH3CH2CH == CH — CHO CH2CH2 CHO
NaOH
C2H5 OH, H 2O
A (Major Product)
68. The number of compound/s given below which
CH2CH2 CHO 
contain/s —COOH group is ____ . (Integer answer)
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

(A) Sulphanilic acid (B) Picric acid CHO

(1)
(C) Aspirin (D) Ascorbic Acid

A Hydrolysis B
69. (C4 H8O) CH2CH2 COOH
(C4 H8Cl2 ) 373K
(2)
B reacts with Hydroxyl amine but does not give CH2CH2 CH2OH
Tollen’s test. Identify A and B.
[JEE (Main)-2021] O
(3)
(1) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butanal O
(2) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and Butanal
O
(3) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone
C—H
(4) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butan-2-one
70. 2,4-DNP test can be used to identify (4)

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Aldehyde (2) Amine O
O
(3) Ether (4) Halogens 73. i) DIBAL-H, Toluene, –78°C
+ “P”
ii) H 3O
71. Identify A in the following chemical reaction. (Major Product)

CHO The product “P” in the above reaction is :

(i) HCHO, NaOH
A [JEE (Main)-2021]
(ii) CH 3CH 2 Br, NaH, DMF
CH3O (iii) HI, 

CHO
[JEE (Main)-2021] (1)

CH2I
COOH
(1) (2)
HO

CH2OH OH

(2) (3) CHO

HO

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77. Mesityl oxide is a common name of

O
O–C–H [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) 3-Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
(4)
(2) 2, 4-Dimethyl pentan-3-one
(3) 2-Methyl cyclohexanone
74. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis gives (4) 4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one
A. Compound A when warmed with ammonical
silver nitrate forms a bright silver mirror along the O O Ethylene Glycol A
78. (Major Product)
sides of the test tube. The unsaturated OC2H 5 H+
hydrocarbon X is: [JEE (Main)-2021]
CH 3 The product “A” in the above reaction is
(1) CH3 C = [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) CH3 C = C CH 3 OH
O
CH3 CH3 O
(1) OH
(3) HC  C – CH2 – CH3 OC2 H5

(4) CH3 – C  C – CH3

CH 3 COO H O
“A” (2) O O
75.
OH
OCH3 OCH3

In the above reaction, the reagent “A” is:

O
[JEE (Main)-2021] (3) O O

(1) HCl, Zn – Hg OC 2H5

(2) Alkaline KMnO4, H+
(3) LiAlH4 O

(4) NaBH4, H3O+

OC 2H 5
(4)
(i) C6H5MgBr Ether
CN (1.0 equivalent), dry
X OH
76. (ii) H3O+
Major Product

OCH3 CH3

Alkaline KMnO 4
The structure of X is: [JEE (Main)-2021] 79. "X"
H+

O
OCH 3
C6 H5 NH2
(1) (2) Considering the above chemical reaction, identify
C6 H5
the product “X” : [JEE (Main)-2021]
C6H 5
COOH CH 3
O

NH2 C6 H5 (1) X – (2) X –

(3) (4)

OCH3 OH
OCH3 OCH3

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

CH2OH CHO OH O

(3) X – (4) X – (1) ,

O
OCH3 OCH3

O O
80. Reaction of Grignard reagent, C 2H 5MgBr with
C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound "A"
(2) ,
which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to give OH
compound B, C10H13Cl. [JEE (Main)-2021]
O O
CH3 CH3
Cl
CH 3 (3) ,
(1) (2) OH
Cl

O O
Cl
Cl CH3 (4) ,
OH
CH 3 CH3
(3) (4) 83. In Tollen’s test for aldehyde, the overall number of
electron(s) transferred to the Tollen’s reagent
formula [Ag(NH3)2]+ per aldehyde group to form
silver mirror is_______. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer). [JEE (Main)-2021]
C N
84. The number of nitrogen atoms in a semicarbazone
H 2O molecule of acetone is _______.[JEE (Main)-2021]
81. +
“A”
H (Major Product)

COOH 85.
H2O
H,
+

Which among the above compound/s does/do not

Consider the above chemical reaction and identify form Silver mirror when treated with Tollen’s reagent?
product “A” [JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

CH2NH 2 CONH 2 (1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) (III) and (IV) only
(1) (2) (3) Only (IV) (4) Only (II)
86. The major product (P) in the following reaction is
H O
CHO
CH2NO2 C N OH KOH (alc.)
+
P
(3) (4) (ii) H , 
(major product)
O

[JEE (Main)-2021]
O

dil. NaOH H+, Heat O

82. 2 “X” “Y”
(1)
Consider the above reaction, the product ‘X’ and ‘Y’ O
respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021]

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CHO

OCH2CH3
(2)
O NC
O (3) C

OHC CH

(3) O

CH 3
(4)
O
OH

O (i) C 2H5 MgBr, dry ether

(4) (ii) H 2O, HCl P
89. (Major product)
O
Consider the above reaction, the major product ‘P’
O
O O is [JEE (Main)-2021]
87. (A) (B)
R Cl R O R OH
O OH
O
H
(1) (2) Cl
(C) R (D) R N
R O H
The correct order of their reactivity towards
hydrolysis at room temperature is OH
OH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (4)
(1) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D) Cl
(2) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D)
(3) (D) > (A) > (B) > (C) O
CH3CHO (i) I 2/NaOH, Filter
(4) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C) 90. ‘P’ ‘X’
NaOH (Major Product) (ii) Filtrate + HCI
88. Which one of the following compounds will provide
a tertiary butyl alcohol on reaction with excess of
Consider the given reaction, the product ‘X’ is
CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]

O OH O O
O

(1) (2)
(1)

O O O OH

O CH3 (3) OH (4) CHO

(2)
O
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

(i) DIBAL H
O 94. R  CN  R  Y
91. (ii) H O2

Consider the above reaction and identify “Y”.

O
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) –CH2NH
O
Maleic anhydride (2) –CHO
(3) –COOH
Maleic anhydride can be prepared by :
(4) –CONH2
[JEE (Main)-2021]
95. The major products formed in the following reaction
(1) Treating cis-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol sequence A and B are [JEE (Main)-2021]
and acid O
(2) Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid
CH3 Br 2
A+ B
(3) Treating trans-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol KOH
and acid
O
(4) Heating trans-but-2-enedioic acid
(1) A = C , B = CHBr 3
t – +
EtOH excess BuO K OK
"A" "B"
92. Br CHO dry HCl gas (major (major
product) product)
Br O HO O
[where Et  –C2H5 tBu
 (CH3)3C – ]
(2) A = C – CH3, B= C – CH3
Consider the above reaction sequence, Product “A” Br HO
and Product “B” formed respectively are :
[JEE (Main)-2021] O
(3) A = C – CBr 3, B= CHO
OEt OEt
t
(1) Br , BuO
OEt OEt O
(4) A = C – CH2 – Br ,
OEt H2 C OEt O
Br
(2) Br , B= C – CH2 – OH
OEt OEt
Br

OEt H2C OEt

96. The major product formed in the following reaction
(3) EtO , is [JEE (Main)-2021]
OEt OEt

t
O Bu

(4) EtO CHO EtO ,

,
OH COCl
(1)
93. A reaction of benzonitrile with one equivalent NH2
N
CH 3 MgBr followed by hydrolysis produces a H
yellow liquid “P”. The compound “P” will give
positive ______. [JEE (Main)-2021] Cl CO2Me
(1) Tollen’s test (2) Schiff’s test (2)
N NH2
(3) Ninhydrin’s test (4) Iodoform test H

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OH
(3) NH 2
N NH2HCl (3)
H X – NaOH Y- H

(4) OH
N NH2HCl
NH2
HHCl (4) X – HNO 3 Y- H
97. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 99. In the following sequence of reactions, the final
(Chemical reaction) (Reagent used) product D is : [JEE (Main)-2021]

(a) CH3COOCH2CH3 (i) CH3MgBr/H3O+

OH
 CH3CH2OH (1 equivalent) Br CH 3 H2/Pd-C
CH 3–CC–H+NaNH2 A B C
(b) CH3COOCH3 (ii) H2SO4/H2O
CrO3
 CH3CHO
D
(c) CH3C  N (iii) DIBAL-H/H2O
 CH3CHO
O
||
(d) CH3 C  N (iv) SnCl2, HCl/H2O (1) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH2  CH2  C  CH3
O
 CH 3 CH3 (2) H3C – CH = CH – CH(OH) – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
Choose the most appropriate match.
[JEE (Main)-2021] O
||
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) H3C  CH2  CH2  CH2  CH2  C  H
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) 100. The structure of the starting compound P used in
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) the reaction given below is:

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) OH

1. NaOCl
P 2. H3O
+

O OH
“X”
O
CN LiAlH4 “Y”
98. H HCN, H O +
H H3O (Major Product)
2
[JEE (Main)-2021]

Consider the given reaction, Identify “X” and “Y” O

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (2)
O
OH

NH2
(1) X – NaOH Y- H H O
(3) (4)
O
101. Which one of the following reactions will not yield
OH
propionic acid? [JEE (Main)-2021]
NH2
(2) X – HNO 3 Y- H (1) CH3CH2CH3 + KMnO4(Heat), OH–/H3O+
(2) CH3CH2COCH3 + OI–/H3O+

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

(3) CH3CH2CH2Br + Mg,CO2 dry ether/H3O+

(4) CH3CH2CCl3 + OH–/H3O+ O CH3

102. Given below are two statements : CH3

Statement I : Ethyl pent-4-yn-oate on reaction (4) CH3

with CH3MgBr gives a 3°-alcohol.
CH 3
Statement II : In this reaction one mole of ethyl
pent-4-yn-oate utilizes two moles
of CH3MgBr. 104. The structure of product C, formed by the following
In the light of the above statements, choose the sequence of reactions is :
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: [JEE (Main)-2021] Benzene KCN
CH3COOH + SOCl 2 A B C
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true AlCl3 –
OH

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true [JEE (Main)-2021]

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
O
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
CH3
103. Which one of the following is the major product of (1)
the given reaction? CN
[JEE (Main)-2021]
H COOH
CH 3 C
CH 3
NC O (2)
(i) 2CH 3 MgBr
+
(ii) H 3O
(iii) H 2SO 4, heat
CH3 CH2 – CH2 CN
(3)

CH3

CH3 NC OH
NC
CH3
(1) (4)

CH3
105. For the reaction given below :
CHO
O CH3
1. NaOH, 
CH3 +
Product
2. H 3O
(2) CH3
CH2OH
CH 3
The compound which is not formed as a product in
the reaction is a : [JEE (Main)-2021]
CH3 (1) Dicarboxylic acid

NC CH3 (2) Monocarboxylic acid

(3) (3) Compound with both alcohol and acid

functional groups
CH3
(4) Diol

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106. Experimentally reducing a functional group cannot (1) Cl3COOK, HCOOH

be done by which one of the following reagents ?
(2) CHl3, CH3COOK
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Pd-C/H2 (2) Pt-C/H2 (3) Cl3COOK, CH3l

(3) Zn/H2O (4) Na/H2 (4) CH3I, HCOOK

107. In the following sequence of reactions a compound 109. Given below are two statements:
A, (molecular formula C6H12O 2) with a straight
chain structure gives a C4 carboxylic acid. A is : Statement I : The nucleophilic addition of sodium
hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone
LiAlH4 Oxidation
A +
B C 4-carboxylic acid involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.
H 3O
Statement II : The nucleophilic addition of
[JEE (Main)-2021]
hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone
(1) CH3 – CH2 – COO – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
yields amine as final product.
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH = CH – CH2 – OH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COO – CH2 = CH3
In the light of the above statements, choose the
OH
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH2 – O – CH = CH 2 below:
108. In the following sequence of reactions, (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
+
H /H2O KIO (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C3 H6 A B+C
dil KOH
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
The compounds B and C respectively are :
[JEE (Main)-2021] (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false



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Chapter 27

Amines
1. In the chemical reactions, 5. Considering the basic strength of amines in
aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb
NH2
value? [JEE (Main)-2014]
NaNO HBF
 2
 A 
4
B
HCl, 278K (1) (CH3)2NH (2) CH3NH2
(3) (CH3)3N (4) C6H5NH2
the compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are
[AIEEE-2010] 6. In the reaction
(1) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
NH2
(2) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
NaNO2/HCl CuCN/KCN
(3) Phenol and benzene 0-5°C
D 
E + N2 ,
(4) Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
CH3
2. In the chemical reactions
the product E is [JEE (Main)-2015]
NH2
NaNO2 CuCN COOH
A B,
HCl, 278 K 
(1)
The compounds A and B respectively are
[AIEEE-2011] CH3
(1) Phenol and bromobenzene
(2) H3C CH3
(2) Fluorobenzene and phenol
(3) Benzene diazonium chloride and benzonitrile CN
(4) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
(3)
3. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated
with CH3COCl to get a compound with molecular
mass 390. The number of amino groups present CH3
per molecule of the former compound is
CH3
[JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) 2 (2) 5 (4)
(3) 4 (4) 6
4. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with 7. In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction,
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per
organic compound formed is [JEE (Main)-2014] mole of amine produced are [JEE (Main)-2016]

(1) An alkanol (1) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2

(2) An alkanediol (2) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2

(3) An alkyl cyanide (3) Four moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2
(4) An alkyl isocyanide (4) One mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2

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8. W hich of the following compounds will form COCH3

significant amount of meta product during OH
mono-nitration reaction? [JEE (Main)-2017]
(1)
NH2 NHCOCH3
NH2
(1) (2)
OCOCH3

OH OCOCH3
(2)
NH2
(3) (4)

9. The increasing order of basicity of the following

compound is [JEE (Main)-2018] (3) NHCOCH3
(a) NH2 (b) NH
OH
NH2
(4)
(c) (d) NHCOCH3
NHCH3
NH
12. The major product of the following reaction
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) (2) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
O
(3) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c) (4) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
C
10. The tests performed on compound X and their NH 2 (i) Br2/h 
inferences are : (ii) KOH (dil)
CH2 CH3
Test Inference
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(a) 2,4-DNP test Coloured precipitate
O
(b) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate
(c) Azo-dye test No dye formation NH
NH
(1) (2)
Compound ‘X’ is [JEE (Main)-2019]

H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH3 CH 3
N N
O
(1) COCH 3 (2) NH
CHO (3) (4) NH
CH3

13. The major product formed in the reaction given

NH 2 OH NH2
below will be

(3) CH 3 (4) CHO NH 2 NaNO 2

Aq.HCl, 0–5°C

[JEE (Main)-2019]
11. The major product obtained in the following reaction
is NO 2
OH
OH (1) (2)
(CH3CO)2O/pyridine (1 eqv.)
room temp.
NH2 NO2
OH
(3) (4)
[JEE (Main)-2019]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

14. The correct structure of product ‘P’ in the following 17. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with
reaction is 1-naphthol in alkaline medium will give

Asn  Ser  (CH3 CO)2 O 

3
P
NEt [JEE (Main)-2019]
(excess)

[JEE (Main)-2019]
OCOCH 3
O N
O
||
H || (1) N
HO
(1) H3C N || N OH
H O NHCOCH 3
||
O
O OH
||
NHCOCH 3
O O
|| ||
N
(2) H3C N || H OH
H (2) N
O
OCOCH 3 N

OCOCH 3
O H O
|| ||
N
H 3C N || OH
(3) H O NH2
||
O N
O N
||
NH2
O O
|| H || (3)
N
(4) H3C N || OH
H O OH
OCOCH 3 OH
15. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
Item I Item II (4)
N N
(A) Ester test (P) Tyr
(B) Carbylamine test (Q) AsP
(C) Phthalein dye test (R) Ser 18. Which of the following amines can be prepared by
(S) Lys Gabriel phthalimide reaction? [JEE (Main)-2019]

[JEE (Main)-2019] (1) Neo-pentylamine

(1) (A)  (Q); (B) (S); (C)  (P) (2) n-butylamine

(2) (A)  (R); (B) (Q); (C)  (P) (3) t-butylamine

(3) (A)  (Q); (B) (S); (C)  (R) (4) Triethylamine

(4) (A)  (R); (B) (S); (C)  (Q) 19. In the following compounds, the decreasing order
of basic strength will be [JEE (Main)-2019]
16. A compound ‘X’ on treatment with Br 2/NaOH,
provided C3H9N, which gives positive carbylamine (1) NH3 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH
test. Compound ‘X’ is [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) C2H5NH2 > NH3 > (C2H5)2NH
(1) CH3CH2CH2CONH2 (2) CH3COCH2NHCH3 (3) (C2H5)2NH > NH3 > C2H5NH2
(3) CH3CH2COCH2NH2 (4) CH3CON(CH3)2 (4) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3

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20. The major product in the following reaction is

NH 2 (3) N N NH
N
N base
+ CH3I
N N
H
(4) N N O

[JEE (Main)-2019]
23. Hinsberg’s reagent is [JEE (Main)-2019]
NH 2 NHCH 3
N N (1) C6H5SO2Cl
N N
(1) +
(2) (2) (COCl)2
N N N N
H (3) C6H5COCl
H CH 3
(4) SOCl2
NH 2 NH 2 24. The major product of the following reaction is :
N + N
NCH 3 N OH
(3) (4)
N ethyl formate (1 equiv.)
N N N CH3CHCH 2CH2NH2
H triethylamine
CH 3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
21. The major product obtained in the following reaction
(1) CH3CH==CH—CH2NH2
is:
OH
NH2 (i) CHCl /KOH
3
(2) CH 3—CH—CH==CH2
(ii) Pd/C/H2
O
CN O
[JEE (Main)-2019] O H
(3) CH3CHCH 2CH2NH2
H
H OH
NCH3 NCH3 (4) CH3CHCH 2CH 2NHCHO
(1) (2)
25. Ethylamine (C 2 H 5 NH 2) can be obtained from
N-ethylphthalimide on treatment with :
OH CN OH
H2N [JEE (Main)-2019]
H (1) NH2NH2
H
NCH3 NCHCl2 (2) NaBH4
(3) (4) (3) H2O

O (4) CaH2
CN CN OH
26. Which of the following is NOT a correct method of
22. Aniline dissolved in dilute HCl is reacted with
the preparation of benzylamine from
sodium nitrite at 0ºC. This solution was added
cyanobenzene? [JEE (Main)-2019]
dropwise to a solution containing equimolar mixture
of aniline and phenol in dil. HCl. The structure of (1) (i) SnCl2 + HCI(gas)
the major product is [JEE (Main)-2019] (ii) NaBH4
(2) H2/Ni
(1) N N OH (3) (i) LiAlH4
(ii) H3O+
(4) (i) HCI/H2O
(2) N N NH 2
(ii) NaBH4

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

27. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with 30. The major product Z obtained in the following
aniline in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid reaction scheme is
gives : [JEE (Main)-2019]
NH2

(1) — N == N — NH — NaNO /HCl Cu Br HNO

 2
273278 K
 X 
2 2
 Y
H SO
3
Z
2 4

Br
(2) — N == N —
[JEE (Main)-2020]
H2N NO2 Br

O2 N
(3) — N == N — — NH2 (1) (2)
Br Br Br

(4) —— — NH2 Br
NO2
28. Consider the following reaction:
CH3 (3) (4) Br Br
—
N + Na SO3
— —
N2 Cl Br
CH3 NO2
NO2
–
OH
  ' X' 31. Consider the following reactions,
The product ‘X’ is used [JEE (Main)-2020]
(i) NaNO2/HCl, 0-5 °C
(1) In acid base titration as an indicator
(ii) -naphthol/NaOH
(2) In protein estimation as an alternative to Colored Solid
ninhydrin
[P]
(3) In laboratory test for phenols Br2/H2O
C7H6NBr3
(4) As food grade colourant
29. In the following reaction sequence: The compound [P] is [JEE (Main)-2020]
NH2
NH2
Ac2O Br2 NH2
A B
AcOH CH3
(1) (2)
CH3
the major product B is: [JEE (Main)-2020] CH3

NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
NHCH3 NH2
Br
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Br
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
32. The Kjeldahl method of Nitrogen estimation fails for
which of the following reaction products?
NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
COCH3 Br [JEE (Main)-2020]
NO2
(3) (4)
(a) Sn/HCl
CH3 CH2Br

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ARCHIVE - JEE (Main) CHEMISTRY

CN
(1) Cl CH2 CH2 Cl
LiAlH4
(b)
(2) Cl CH2 CH2 Cl
CH2CN
(3) CH2 CH2
(c) (i)SnCl2 + HCl
(ii)H2O Cl Cl

NH2 (4) CH3 CH3

NaNO2
(d) HCl 35. The most appropriate reagent for conversion of
C2H5CN into CH3CH2CH2NH2 is [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
(1) NaBH4 (2) CaH2
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
(3) Na(CN)BH3 (4) LiAlH4
33. Three isomers A, B and C (mol. formula C8H11N) give
36. The final major product of the following reaction is
the following results
Me
(i) Ac O/Pyridine
Diazotization 
2

A and C  (ii) Br2 , FeCl3
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(iii) OH / 
R (product of A) NH2
(i) Hydrolysis
P  Q  
(ii) Oxidation S (product of C) Br
(KMnO 4  H ) Me Me
(1) (2)
R has lower boiling point than S Br
NH2 NH2
C H SO Cl
B 
6 5 2
 alkali-insoluble product
A, B and C, respectively are [JEE (Main)-2020] Me Br
Me
NH2 CH2 NH2 NH2
(1) (3) (4)
CH2 CH3
, , Br NH2
CH3 CH2 CH3 NH2
37. Which of the following compounds can be prepared
CH2 CH3 CH2 NHCH3 NH2 in good yield by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(2)
, , [JEE (Main)-2020]
CH2 CH3
NH2
NH2
CH2CH3 NHCH2CH3 NH2
(3) , ,
H2 N CH2CH3 (1)
NH2 CH2NHCH3 CH2CH3
(4) O
CH2CH3 , , HN
2

34. In the following reaction sequence, [C] is CH2—C—NH2

NH2 (2)

(i) NaNO 2 + HCl, 0-5°C

[A]
(ii) Cu 2Cl2 + HCl CH2NH2

CH3
Cl Na  dry ether (3)

2
h
 [B]   [C]
(Major Product)

[JEE (Main)-2020] (4) CH3—CH2—NHCH3

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

38. Match the following :

CN CI
Test/Method Reagent
(i) Lucas Test (a) C6H5SO2Cl/
aq. KOH (4) (A) : (B) :
(ii) Dumas method (b) HNO3/
AgNO3
40. In the following reaction the reason why meta-nitro
(iii) Kjeldahl’s (c) CuO/CO2
product also formed is :
method
(iv) Hinsberg test (d) Conc. HCl NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
NO2
and ZnCl2 Conc. HNO3
+ +
Conc. H 2SO4, 288 K
(e) H2SO4 NO 2
NO2
[JEE (Main)-2020] [A] [B] [C]
51% 47% 2%
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) (1) Formation of anilinium ion
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e) (2) Low temperature
39. ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reactions are : (3) –NO2 substitution always takes place at meta-
position
NH2
(4) –NH2 group is highly meta-directive

NaNO2/HCl SnCl2/HCl/H 3O+

41. What is the correct sequence of reagents used for
(A) (B) converting nitrobenzene into m-dibromobenzene?
KCN

NO2 Br
[JEE (Main)-2021]

+ –
N2CI CI
Br

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (A) : (B) :
NaNO 2 HCl KBr H+
(1)

CN CHO Sn/HCl Br2 NaNO 2 NaBr

(2)

Sn/HCl KBr Br 2 H+
(2) (A) : (B) : (3)

Br2/Fe Sn/HCl NaNO 2/HCl

(4)
+ –
N2CI CHO CuBr/HBr

42. The diazonium salt of which of the following

(3) (A) : (B) : compounds will form a coloured dye on reaction
with -Naphthol in NaOH? [JEE (Main)-2021]

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CH3 NO 2

N — CH3 CH2NH2 B.
(i) NaBH 4
(ii) NaOH
(1) (2) (iii) Aniline

NH2
NH2 NH— CH3
(3) (4) (i) HNO 2
C.
(ii) Aniline, HCl

43. Match List - I and List - II.

[JEE (Main)-2021]
List - I List - II
(1) C only (2) B only
O (3) A only (4) A and B
||
(a) R  C  Cl  R  CHO (i) Br2/NaOH 46. Carbylamine test is used to detect the presence of
primary amino group in an organic compound.
(b) R – CH2 – COOH  (ii) H2/Pd – BaSO4
Which of the following compound is formed when
this test is performed with aniline?
R  CH  COOH
| [JEE (Main)-2021]
Cl
CONH2 CN
O (1) (2)
(c) R – C – NH 2  R – NH 2 (iii)Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl
NHCH 3 NC
O
(3) (4)
(d) R – C – CH 3  R – CH2 – CH 3 (iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given

NH 2
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
47. HNO 3 , H2SO 4
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
288 K
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
NH 2 NH2 NH 2
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) NO 2
44. The total number of amines among the following + +
which can be synthesized by Gabriel synthesis is NO 2
_____. [JEE (Main)-2021] NO2
CH (A) (B) (C)
(A) CH3 CH – CH2 – NH2 (B) CH CH NH
3
3 2 2

Correct statement about the given chemical

CH2 NH2 NH2
reaction is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(C) (D)
(1) The reaction will form sulphonated product
instead of nitration.
45. Which of the following reaction/s will not give p-
aminoazobenzene? (2) Reaction is possible and compound (B) will be
the major product.
NO 2 (3) Reaction is possible and compound (A) will be
major product.
(i) Sn/HCl
A.
(ii) HNO 2
:

(4) NH 2 group is ortho and para directive, so

(iii) Aniline
product (B) is not possible.

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

48. An amine on reaction with benzenesulphonyl

NH 2 OH
chloride produces a compound insoluble in alkaline
solution. This amine can be prepared by
NaNO2, HCl “A”
ammonolysis of ethyl chloride. The correct 52. “X”
273 - 278 K
structure of amine is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
Major Product

H
(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 N — CH2 CH3 In the above chemical reaction, intermediate “X”
and reagent/condition “A” are [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) CH3CH2NH2
NO 2
(3) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3

NH— CH2 CH2CH3 (1) X - ; A - H 2O/NaOH

(4)

N2+ Cl–
49. A. Phenyl methanamine
B. N,N-Dimethylaniline (2) X - ; A - H 2O/NaOH
C. N-Methyl aniline
D. Benzenamine
Choose the correct order of basic nature of the N+2 Cl–
above amines. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) A > C > B > D (2) D > B > C > A (3) X - ; A - H 2O/

(3) D > C > B > A (4) A > B > C > D

50. Ceric ammonium nitrate and CHCl3/alc. KOH are NO 2
used for the identification of functional groups
present in _____ and _____ respectively. (4) X - ; A - H 2O/
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Alcohol, phenol (2) Amine, phenol 53. Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the
(3) Amine, alcohol (4) Alcohol, amine treatment with NaOH solution can be used to
prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
51. Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve The purpose of NaOH in the reaction is
Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) To remove basic impurities
O
(2) To activate NH3 used in the reaction
CH 2 – C – CH 3 CH2 – NH2
(3) To remove acidic impurities
+
i) Br2, NaOH/H
(1) ii) NH3 /
iii) LiAlH 4/H2 O (4) To increase the reactivity of alkyl halide

CN NH2 54. Which of the following is least basic?

i) KOH, H2O
(2) [JEE (Main)-2021]
ii) Br2, NaOH



O (1) (CH3 CO)NHC 2H5

NH2
Cl i) NH3 , NaOH
(3) 
ii) Br2 , NaOH (2) (CH3 CO)2 NH


O
(3) (C 2H5 )2 NH
CH2 – C – NH2 CH 2 – NH2
(4) Br 2, NaOH 
(4) (C2H5 )3 N
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55. Which of the following reaction is an example of

ammonolysis? [JEE (Main)-2021] N2+ OCH3
O
(1) C6H5 CH2Cl  NH3 
 C6H5 CH2NH2
(1)
, CH3 C H , H2O

 Cl
(2) C6H5NH2 
HCl
 C6H5 NH3 Cl–

(3) C6H5 COCl  C6H5NH2 

 C6H5CONHC6H5 N+
2 Cl
–
O
H , CH 3 C H , HCl
(4) C6H5 CH2CN  C6H5 CH2 CH2NH2 (2)
OCH 3
56. Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide
gives product A, which upon heating with CHCl3
and NaOH gives product B.
N2+ Cl –
The structures of A and B are:

(3) , H H , HO
2
NH 2 NH2 H O H

CHO OCH 3
(1) A – B–

N+
2 OCH 3
Br Br

(4) , H H ,
HCl
NH2 NC H O H
Cl
(2) A – B–
58. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be
separated using [JEE (Main)-2021]

O O (1) para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride

NH2 NH2
(2) Acetyl amide
CHO
(3) A – (3) Chloroform and KOH
B–
(4) Benzene sulphonic acid
Br Br
NH 2

NH2 NH2 NaNO 2, HCl

59. “X”
CHO 273K - 278 K (Major Product)
(4) A – B–

[JEE (Main)-2021] H3C CH3

N
OCH3

57. C7H7N2OCl + C 2H5OH “Y”

+ N2 + “X” + “Y”
(A)
(Major Product)

In the above reaction, the structural formula of (A), Considering the above reaction, X and Y
“X” and “Y” respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021] respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

62. In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the

Cl carbonyl carbon is lost as [JEE (Main)-2021]
N
and N (1) CO32 (2) HCO3
(1) (3) CO2 (4) CO
N
CH3
CH 3
NH2

–
N2+Cl NaNO2, HCl
63. A
N 273 - 278 K (major product)
and N
(2)
CH 3 SO3H
N
CH 3
CH3
N
CH 3

N2+Cl –
B
N CH3 273 K
N (major product)
(3) and N
CH3
Consider the above reaction, compound B is :
Cl [JEE (Main)-2021]
N CH3 CH 3
and N N
(4) CH3 (1) HO 3S N=N N
CH 3

CH3
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2 (2) N=N N
NO 2 CH3
HNO3, H2SO 4
60. 288 K
+ +
NO 2 CH 3
NO2 N
A B C CH 3

Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of : (3) HO 3S N=N

[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) C > B > A (2) C > A > B CH 3
(4) HO 3S N
(3) B > C > A (4) A > C > B CH 3

O
61. An organic compound “A” on treatment with
KOBr
benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B NH2 A
is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is 64. (major product)

[JEE (Main)-2021]
Br
(1) C6H5 — N — (CH3)2
(2) C6H5 — CH2NHCH3 O
LiAlH4
(3) C6H 5 — CH — NH2 NH2 B
+
H 3O (major product)
CH3

(4) C6H5 — NHCH2CH3 Br

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In the above reactions, product A and product B 67. Which one of the following reactions does not
respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021] occur? [JEE (Main)-2021]

NH2 NHCOCH 3
NH2
NH2
(1) (1) + (CH 3 CO)2O/Pyridine
,

Br
NH2 NH2

NH2
NH2 + AlCl3 + CH 3Cl
(2) (2)
,
CH3

NH2
NH2 NH 2 NH2

(3) , + HNO 3/H 2SO4

(3)
Br
NO2
NH2
NH2 NH2 NH2

(4) ,
+ H 2SO4
Br Br (4)
SO3H
65. Compound A is converted to B on reaction with CHCl3
and KOH. The compound B is toxic and can be 68. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
decomposed by C. A, B and C respectively are Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
[JEE (Main)-2021] Assertion (A): Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(1) Secondary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. cannot be used to prepare
NaOH aromatic primary amines.

(2) Secondary amine, nitrile compound, conc. Reason (R) : Aryl halides do not undergo
NaOH nucleophilic substitution reaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Primary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. HCl
correct answer from the options given below :
(4) Primary amine, nitrile compound, conc. HCl
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
N2 Cl–
CH 2CH3 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
B, Anhyd. AlCl 3 explanation of (A)
+ A + H 2O
66.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Major Product
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
In the chemical reactions given above A and B correct explanation of (A)
respectively are [JEE (Main)-2021] 69. What is the major product “P” of the following
reaction ?
(1) CH3CH2Cl and H3PO2
(2) H3PO2 and CH3CH2OH CH 3 (i) NaNO 2,HCl, 278 K
P
(3) H3PO2 and CH3CH2Cl (ii) H2O (major product)
NH 2
(4) CH3CH2OH and H3PO2
[JEE (Main)-2021]

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

OH CH 3
(1) (2) N=N NH 2
 –
N 2 Cl Cl
(3)
CH 3 CH 3
(3) (4)
CH 3 OH H
|
70. W hich one of the products of the following N=N–N
reactions does not react with Hinsberg reagent to
(4)
form sulphonamide? [JEE (Main)-2021]

CN 72. W hich one of the following compounds will

C2H5OH give orange precipitate when treated with
(1) + Na/Hg 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
NO2 O

OCH2CH3
CN (1)

(2) + SnCI2 + HCI

O
C OH
CN (2)
H 3O OH
(3) + LiAIH4

OH
CHO
(3)
OCH 2CH3
CN
O

(4) + H2/Ni
O
CH3

 –
(4)
Sn + HCl C6H5N2Cl
71. C6H5NO2 “A” P

H (Yellow coloured
73. In gaseous triethyl amine the “– C – N – C –” bond
Compound )
angle is _______ degree. [JEE (Main)-2021]
Consider the above reaction, the Product “P” is : 74. What is A in the following reaction ?
[JEE (Main)-2021] [JEE (Main)-2021]

N=N
K
(1)
NH 2

H
| O
N
(2) (1) NH

O
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CH2OH
NHCOCH3 NH 2
(2)
(1) NH2
(2)
NHCOCH3
O O O

NH — CH 2
(3)
–
NH 3 CH3 COO NHCOCH 3

CH2NH 2 (3) (4)

NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
(4)
O O

75. The correct sequence of correct reagents for the 77. The major product of the following reaction is :
following transformation is

CH3 O (i) alcoholic NH 3

NO2 OH
(ii) NaOH, Br2
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – C – Cl
(iii) NaNO 2, HCl
(iv) H2O

Major product
Cl
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (i) Fe, HCl (1) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH 2 OH
(ii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C CH3

(iii) H2O/H+
Br
(iv) Cl2, FeCl3
(2) CH3 – CH – CH – CH 2OH
(2) (i) Fe, HCl
CH3
(ii) Cl2, HCl
(iii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (3) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
(iv) H2O/H+ CH 3
(3) (i) Cl2, FeCl3
(4) CH3 – CH – CH 2 – CH2 – CH 2OH
(ii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C
CH3
(iii) Fe, HCl
(iv) H2O/H+ 78. Which of the following is not a correct statement
for primary aliphatic amines?
(4) (i) Cl2, FeCl3
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(ii) Fe, HCl
(iii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (1) Primary amines on treating with nitrous acid
solution form corresponding alcohols except
(iv) H2O/H+
methyl amine.
NH 2 (2) The intermolecular association in primary
amines is less than the intermolecular
(CH 3CO)2O
76. P association in secondary amines.
NH2 (Major
product) (3) Primary amines can be prepared by the
O
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
The major product in the above reaction is : (4) Primary amines are less basic than the
[JEE (Main)-2021] secondary amines.

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79. The correct structures of A and B formed in the 80. The major products A and B in the following set of
following reactions are : reactions are [JEE (Main)-2021]

LiAlH4 OH H3O
+

A + B
OH H3O CN H2SO4
O O
H2 /Pd O B OH OH
C 2H 5OH
A 1.0 eq. (1) A = , B=
OH CHO

NO2 OH OH
(2) A = , B=
NH2 CHO
[JEE (Main)-2021]
OH
(3) A = , B= COOH
O
NH2

OH O CH3 OH OH
(4) A = , B=
CHO CO2 H
A: , B:
(1) 81. The total number of reagents from those given
below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is
NH2 NH2
_____. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]
I. Sn – HCl
II. Sn – NH4OH
III. Fe – HCl
O O
IV. Zn – HCl
O CH3 O CH3
V. H2 – Pd
VI. H2 – Raney Nickel
(2) A : , B:
82. The major products A and B formed in the following
reaction sequence are : [JEE (Main)-2021]
NH2 NH CH3
NH2
O O O

O Br2 , CH3COOH
A Room Temperature
B

OH OH O
O O
CH3
(3) A : , B: NH CH3 NH CH3

NH2 NH2 (1) A = , B=

Br

OH OH
O O

, NH CH3 NH CH3
(4) A : B:

CH3 (2) A = , B=
NH2 NH

O
Br

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NH 2 NH2 O
NH2
Br Br
(3) A = , B= (3) (4)
KO
O

COCH 3 COCH3
84. Which one of the following gives the most stable
Diazonium salt? [JEE (Main)-2021]
NH 2 NH2

Br NHCH3

(4) A = , B=
(1)

COCH 3 COCH3

83. Identify A in the following reaction. NH2

[JEE (Main)-2021] (2)

CH3
NH2

K2Cr2O 7
A CH3

(3) CH3 C NH2

NO2 NO2 H

(1) (2) H (4) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — NH2



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Chapter 28

Biomolecules

1. The two functional groups present in a typical 7. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble?
carbohydrate are [AIEEE-2009] [JEE (Main)-2015]
(1) –CHO and –COOH (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
(2) >C = O and –OH (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K
(3) –OH and –CHO 8. Thiol group is present in [JEE (Main)-2016]
(4) –OH and –COOH (1) Cystine (2) Cysteine
2. Biuret test is not given by [AIEEE-2010] (3) Methionine (4) Cytosine

(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates 9. Which of the following compounds will behave as
a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?
(3) Polypeptides (4) Urea [JEE (Main)-2017]
3. Which of the following statements is correct?
[AIEEE-2012] HOH2C O CH2OH
(1) All amino acids are optically active
(1) HO OCH
3
(2) All amino acids except glycine are optically
active OH
(3) All amino acids except glutamic acid are
optically active HOH2C
(4) All amino acids except lysine are optically O CH OCH
2 3
active
(2) OH
4. Which of the following compounds can be detected OH
by Molisch's test? [AIEEE-2012] OH
(1) Sugars
(2) Amines HOH2C O CH2OH
(3) Primary alcohols (3) HO OCOCH
3
(4) Nitro compounds
5. Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in OH
photosynthesis involves [JEE (Main)-2013]
(1) 18 molecules of ATP HOH2C O CH2OH
(2) 10 molecules of ATP (4)
HO
(3) 8 molecules of ATP
(4) 6 molecules of ATP OH

6. Which one of the following bases is not present in 10. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives
DNA? [JEE (Main)-2014] [JEE (Main)-2018]
(1) Quinoline (2) Adenine (1) n-Hexane (2) 1-Hexene
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymine (3) Hexanoic acid (4) 6-iodohexanal

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11. The predominant form of histamine present in 14. The correct match between item ‘I’ and item ‘II’ is
human blood is (pKa, Histidine = 6.0)
Item ‘I’ Item ‘II’
[JEE (Main)-2018]
(compound) (reagent)
H (A) Lysine (P) 1-naphthol
N
NH2 (B) Furfural (Q) ninhydrin
(1)
(C) Benzyl alcohol (R) KMnO4
N
(D) Styrene (S) Ceric ammonium
H
N nitrate

NH3 [JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) 
N (1) (A)  (R); (B)  (P); (C)  (Q); (D)  (S)
H
(2) (A)  (Q); (B)  (P); (C)  (S); (D)  (R)
H (3) (A)  (Q); (B)  (R); (C)  (S); (D)  (P)
N
(4) (A)  (Q); (B)  (P); (C)  (R); (D)  (S)
(3)

NH2 15. Which of the following tests cannot be used for
N
H identifying amino acids? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) Barfoed test (2) Biuret test
(3) Xanthoproteic test (4) Ninhydrin test
(4) 16. Among the following compounds, which one is found
in RNA? [JEE (Main)-2019]

12. The increasing order of pKa of the following amino NH2

acids in aqueous solution is [JEE (Main)-2019] O
CH3
Gly, Asp, Lys, Arg (1) NH (2) N
(1) Gly < Asp < Arg < Lys N O N O
H H
(2) Arg < Lys < Gly < Asp
(3) Asp < Gly < Arg < Lys
O O
(4) Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg
(3) N Me (4) NH
13. The correct sequnce of amino acids present in the
tripeptide given below is N O N O
H
The given tripeptide contains. Me

Me Me 17. Among the following compounds most basic amino

Me OH
H O acid is [JEE (Main)-2019]
N OH
(1) Serine
N C
H 2N (2) Lysine
H
O O
OH (3) Histidine
(4) Asparagine
[JEE (Main)-2019]
18. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) Leu - Ser - Thr
(2) Thr - Ser - Val O

(3) Val - Ser - Thr NaBH

 4
 [JEE (Main)-2019]
EtOH
(4) Thr - Ser - Leu

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22. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by:

O OH
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (2)
(1) Fehling’s test (2) Seliwanoff’s test
(3) Barfoed’s test (4) Benedict’s test
OH 23. Which of the following statements is not true about
OH
sucrose? [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (4) (1) The glycosidic linkage is present between C1
OEt of -glucose and C1 of -fructose
(2) On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and
19. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect
fructose
to potassium ions that are abundant within the
cell fluids is/are (3) It is a non-reducing sugar
I. They activate many enzymes (4) It is also named as invert sugar
II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to 24. The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium
produce ATP nitrate and carbylamine tests is
III. Along with sodium ions, they are responsible [JEE (Main)-2019]
for the transmission of nerve signals
(1) Ser - Lys
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(2) Lys - Asp
(1) I and III only
(3) Gln - Asp
(2) I, II and III
(4) Asp - Gln
(3) III only
25. Amylopectin is composed of [JEE (Main)-2019]
(4) I and II only
(1) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C2 — C6 linkages
20. The correct structure of histidine in a strongly
acidic solution (pH = 2) is [JEE (Main)-2019] (2) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C2 — C6 linkages
(3) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C1 — C6 linkages
+ –
+ H3N – CH – COO (4) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C1 — C6 linkages
H3N – CH – COOH
+ NH 26. Number of stereo centers present in linear and
NH2 cyclic structures of glucose are respectively :
(1) (2)
N+ [JEE (Main)-2019]
N H
(1) 5 & 5 (2) 4 & 4
(3) 5 & 4 (4) 4 & 5
+
+ – H3N – CH – COOH 27. Which of the following statements is not true about
H3N – CH – COO
+ NH RNA? [JEE (Main)-2019]
NH2
(3) (4) (1) It usually does not replicate
N (2) It is present in the nucleus of the cell
N H
+

(3) It controls the synthesis of protein

21. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives
(4) It has always double stranded -helix structure
[JEE (Main)-2019]
28. Glucose and Galactose are having identical
(1) D-Galactose configuration in all the positions except position.
(2) D-Glucose and D-Fructose [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) D-Glucose (1) C – 2 (2) C – 5
(4) D-Fructose (3) C – 3 (4) C – 4

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29. Which of the given statements is INCORRECT 34. A chemist has 4 samples of artificial sweetener A,
about glycogen? [JEE (Main)-2019] B, C and D. To identify these samples, he performed
(1) It is present in some yeast and fungi. certain experiments and noted the following
observations :
(2) It is a straight chain polymer similar to
amylose. (i) A and D both form blue-violet colour with
ninhydrin.
(3) It is present in animal cells.
(ii) Lassaigne extract of C gives positive AgNO3
(4) Only -linkages are present in the molecule.
test and negative Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 test.
30. Match the following
(iii) Lassaigne extract of B and D gives positive
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi sodium nitroprusside test.
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy Based on these observations which option is
correct? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(1) A : Aspartame; B : Alitame;
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
C : Saccharin; D : Sucralose
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(2) A : Saccharin; B : Alitame;
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d),(iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
C : Sucralose; D : Aspartame
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a),(iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(3) A : Alitame; B : Saccharin;
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b),(iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
C : Aspartame; D : Sucralose
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d),(iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
(4) A : Aspartame; B : Saccharin;
31. Which of the following statements is correct?
C : Sucralose; D : Alitame
[JEE (Main)-2020]
35. A, B and C are three biomolecules. The results of
(1) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
the tests performed on them are given
(2) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/ below
hemiacetal) structure
Molisch’s Barfoed Biuret
(3) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product of Test Test Test
glucose A Positive Negative Negative
B Positive Positive Negative
(4) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of
glucose with HNO3 C Negative Negative Positive

32. Which of the following statement is not true for A, B and C are respectively [JEE (Main)-2020]
glucose? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) A = Lactose, B = Fructose, C = Alanine
(1) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form
oxime (2) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Alanine
(2) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react (3) A = Glucose, B = Fructose, C = Albumin
with hydroxylamine to give oxime
(4) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Albumin
(3) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms
 and  36. Consider the following rections:
dry HCl
(4) Glucose gives Schiff’s test for aldehyde (i) Glucos e  ROH   Acetal
33. Two monomers in maltose are [JEE (Main)-2020] x eq. of
 acetyl derivative
(CH CO) O
3 2
(1) -D-glucose and -D-glucose
(ii) Glucose
(2) -D-glucose and -D-glucose Ni/H y eq. of

2
A 
(CH CO) O
acetyl
(3) -D-glucose and -D-galactose 3 2

derivative
(4) -D-glucose and -D-Fructose

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z eq. of 42. The number of sp2 hybridised carbons present in

(iii) Glucose 
(CH3 CO)2 O
acetyl
“Aspartame” is ______. [JEE (Main)-2020]
derivative 43. The mass percentage of nitrogen in histamine is
‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ in these reactions are respectively. _____. [JEE (Main)-2020]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
44. The number of C O groups present in a
(1) 4, 5 & 5 (2) 4, 6 & 5
(3) 5, 4 & 5 (4) 5, 6 & 5 tripeptide Asp – Glu – Lys is _______.

37. The correct observation in the following reactions is [JEE (Main)-2020]

Glycosidic bond Seliwanoff’s 45. The number of chiral centres present in threonine is
Sucrose A+B ?
Cleavage reagent ________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(Hydrolysis)
46. The number of chiral carbon(s) present in peptide,
[JEE (Main)-2020]
Ie-Arg-Pro, is _____. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Gives no colour
47. The number of chiral carbons present in sucrose is
(2) Formation of red colour
_____. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(3) Formation of violet colour
48. Out of the following, which type of interaction is
(4) Formation of blue colour responsible for the stabilisation of  -helix structure
38. Which of the following will react with CHCl3 + alc. of proteins? [JEE (Main)-2021]
KOH? [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Covalent bonding
(1) Adenine and thymine
(2) Hydrogen bonding
(2) Thymine and proline
(3) Ionic bonding
(3) Adenine and lysine
(4) Vander Waals forces
(4) Adenine and proline
49. Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose
39. What are the functional groups present in the structure
of maltose? [JEE (Main)-2020] and glucose is present in lactose?

(1) One acetal and one ketal [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) One ketal and one hemiketal (1) C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose
(3) Two acetals (2) C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose
(4) One acetal and one hemiacetal (3) C-1 of galactose and C-6 of glucose
40. Which of the following is not an essential amino (4) C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose
acid? [JEE (Main)-2020]
50. Which of the following is correct structure of
(1) Tyrosine (2) Valine -anomer of maltose ? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Lysine (4) Leucine
CH2 OH CH2 OH
41. Which one of the following statements is not true?
H O H H O OH
[JEE (Main)-2020] H H
(1) OH H OH H
O
(1) Lactose contains -glycosidic linkage between HO H
C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose H OH H OH
(2) Lactose is a reducing sugar and it gives
Fehling’s test
CH2 OH CH2 OH
(3) On acid hydrolysis, lactose gives one H O H H O H
molecule of D(+)-glucose and one molecule of H H
(2) H H H H
D(+)-galactose O OH
HO
(4) Lactose (C11H22O11) is a disaccharide and it HO OH HO OH
contains 8 hydroxyl groups

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55. The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by:

CH2 OH CH2 OH
H O H H O OH [JEE (Main)-2021]
H H
(3) H H H H (1) Hydrogen bonding
O H
HO (2) van der Waals forces
OH OH HO OH
(3) Glycosidic bond

CH2 OH CH2 OH (4) Peptide bond

H O H H O H 56. Which of the following is correct structure of
H H
(4) OH H OH H tyrosine? [JEE (Main)-2021]
O OH
HO
H OH H OH COOH
(1) H2N H
51. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in delaying OH
the blood clotting? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Vitamin B (2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin C COOH
52. Seliwanoff test and Xanthoproteic test are used for (2) H2N H
the identification of _______and _____ respectively. OH
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Ketoses, aldoses (2) Proteins, ketoses COOH
(3) Ketoses, proteins (4) Aldoses, ketoses (3) H2N H

53. Match List-I with List-II.

OH
List-I List-II
(a) Sucrose (i) -D-Galactose and
COOH
-D-Glucose OH
(4) H2N H
(b) Lactose (ii) -D-Glucose and
-D-Fructose
57. Fructose is an example of [JEE (Main)-2021]
(c) Maltose (iii) -D-Glucose and
(1) Pyranose (2) Heptose
-D-Glucose
(3) Aldohexose (4) Ketohexose
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : [JEE (Main)-2021] 58. A non-reducing sugar “A” hydrolyses to give two
reducing mono saccharides. Sugar A is :
(1) (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii)
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i)
(1) Galactose (2) Sucrose
(3) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii)
(3) Fructose (4) Glucose
(4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (ii)
59. The correct structure of Rhumann’s Purple, the
54. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is
compound formed in the reaction of ninhydrin with
stored in our body relatively for longer duration?
proteins is: [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
– –
(1) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D O O

(2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D (1) N

(3) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid
O O
(4) Thiamine and Vitamin A
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64. The water soluble protein is [JEE (Main)-2021]

(1) Albumin (2) Collagen
(2)
(3) Myosin (4) Fibrin
65. Which one of the following is correct structure for
cytosine ? [JEE (Main)-2021]

NH2
(3)
N
N
(1) N
(2) H3C N O
O
H
H

(4)
O
H2N H 3C
N N H
60. Deficiency of vitamin K causes : (3) N O (4)
N O
[JEE (Main)-2021] H
H
(1) Cheilosis
(2) Increase in blood clotting time
66. O
(3) Increase in fragility of RBC’s H
(4) Decrease in blood clotting time H 3C N

61. Which one of the following statements is not true

O
H N
about enzymes ? [JEE (Main)-2021]
H
(1) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH (A)
specific
(2) Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and The compound ‘A’ is a complementary base of
substrate ___in DNA strands. [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the
(1) Uracil (2) Guanine
activation energy of a biochemical reaction
(3) Adenine (4) Cytosine
(4) Almost all enzymes are proteins
67. Which one among the following chemical tests is
62. Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known
used to distinguish monosaccharide from
respectively as: [JEE (Main)-2021]
disaccharide? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Vitamin E and Vitamin B2
(1) Seliwanoff’s test (2) Iodine test
(2) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin E
(3) Tollen’s test (4) Barfoed test
(3) Vitamin B1 and Vitamin B6
68. Compound A gives D-Galactose and D-Glucose on
(4) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2 hydrolysis. The compound A is [JEE (Main)-2021]
63. Identify the incorrect statement from the following (1) Amylose
[JEE (Main)-2021] (2) Lactose
(1) Amylose is a branched chain polymer of (3) Maltose
glucose
(4) Sucrose
(2) -Glycosidic linkage makes cellulose polymer
69. The total number of negative charge in the
(3) Glycogen is called as animal starch tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be
(4) Starch is a polymer of -D glucose ______. (Integer answer) [JEE (Main)-2021]

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70. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 72. Which one of the following tests used for the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as identification of functional groups in organic
Reason (R). compounds does not use copper reagent?
Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a [JEE (Main)-2021]
non-reducing sugar. (1) Seliwanoff’s test
Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage (2) Barfoed’s test
between C1 of -glucose and C2 of -fructose.
(3) Benedict’s test
the most appropriate answer from the options
(4) Biuret test for peptide bond
given below : [JEE (Main)-2021]
73. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true
explanation of (A) [JEE (Main)-2021]

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) -D-(–)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true (2) -D-(+)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
explanation of (A). (3) -D-(–)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) -D-(+)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
71. Out of following isomeric forms of uracil, which one 74. Which one of the following compounds contains
is present in RNA? [JEE (Main)-2021] –C1–C4 glycosidic linkage? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose
OH
OH (3) Sucrose (4) Amylose
N 75. Which of the following is NOT an example of
N
fibrous protein? [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (2)
O N (1) Albumin
HO N H (2) Collagen
(3) Myosin
O (4) Keratin
O
HN 76. A peptide synthesized by the reactions of one
HN molecule each of Glycine, Leucine, Aspartic acid
(3) (4)
and Histidine will have _____ peptide linkages.
O N HO N
H [JEE (Main)-2021]

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Chapter 29

Polymers

1. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of 7. W hich of the following statements about low
[AIEEE-2009] density polythene is FALSE? [JEE (Main)-2016]
(1) H2C = CH – CH = CH2 and H5C6 – CH = CH2 (1) It is a poor conductor of electricity
(2) H2C = CH – CN and H2C = CH – CH = CH2 (2) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide
initiator as a catalyst
(3) H2C = CH – CN and H2C  CH  C  CH2 (3) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-
|
CH3 bins etc.
Cl
| (4) Its synthesis requires high pressure
(4) H2C  CH  C  CH2 and H2C = CH – CH = CH2
8. The formation of which of the following polymers
2. The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces involves hydrolysis reaction? [JEE (Main)-2017]
e.g. hydrogen bonding, is [AIEEE-2010] (1) Nylon 6, 6
(1) Natural rubber (2) Terylene
(2) Teflon (3) Nylon 6
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Bakelite
(4) Polystyrene 9. Major product of the following reaction is
3. Thermosetting polymer, Bakelite is formed by the
reaction of phenol with [AIEEE-2011] Cl
Cl NH2 (1) Et3N
(1) HCOOH + H2N
O O (2) Free radical
(2) CH3CH2CHO polymerisation

(3) CH3CHO [JEE (Main)-2019]

(4) HCHO
Cl
O
4. The species which can best serve as an initiator for n NH2
the cationic polymerization is [AIEEE-2012] (1) N
O
H
(1) HNO3 (2) AlCl3
(3) BuLi (4) LiAlH4 Cl
n NH2
5. W hich one is classified as a condensation (2) N
O
polymer? [JEE (Main)-2014] H O
(1) Dacron (2) Neoprene O Cl
(3) Teflon (4) Acrylonitrile n
6. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints (3) HN NH2
and lacquers? [JEE (Main)-2015] O
(1) Bakelite O
Cl
(2) Glyptal
n
(3) Polypropene (4) HN NH2
(4) Poly vinyl chloride O

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10. The major product of the following reaction 13. Poly--hydroxybutyrate-co--hydroxyvalerate

(PHBV) is a copolymer of ___. [JEE (Main)-2019]
O CH3
(1) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic
O acid
CH3O OH
(2) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 2-hydroxypentanoic
[JEE (Main)-2019] acid
(3) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic
O O acid
O O O O
O
n
O
n (4) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic
(1) (2) acid
OCH3 OH 14. The two monomers for the synthesis of nylon 6, 6
are [JEE (Main)-2019]
O O (1) HOOC(CH2)6COOH, H2N(CH2)4NH2
O O
O n O n
(2) HOOC(CH2)6COOH, H2N(CH2)6NH
(3) O (4) O
OCOCH3 OH
(3) HOOC(CH2)4COOH, H2N(CH2)6NH2
(4) HOOC(CH2)4COOH, H2N(CH2)4NH2
11. The polymer obtained from the following reactions is
15. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in
+
(i) NaNO2/H3O 100 cm 3 of hexane. 10 mL of this solution was
NH2
HOOC (ii) Polymerisation added dropwise to the surface of water in a round
[JEE (Main)-2019] watch glass. Hexane evaporates and a monolayer
is formed. The distance from edge to centre of the
O watch glass is 10 cm. What is the height of the
(1) monolayer?
O – (CH2)4 – C
[Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm –3;  = 3]
n
[JEE (Main)-2019]
O O (1) 10–8 m (2) 10–4 m
(2) H
HNC (CH2)4 – C – N (3) 10–2 m (4) 10–6 m
n 16. The structure of Nylon-6 is [JEE (Main)-2019]

O O H O H
—
—
—

—
—

—
(3) (1) – (CH2)4— C— N –n (2) – C— (CH2)6— N –
OC (CH2)4 O n

n O H O H
—
—

—
—
—
—

O (3) – (CH2)6— C— N – (4) – C— (CH2)5— N –n

n
(4) H
C – (CH2)4 – N 17. Match the catalysts (Column I) with products
n (Column II).

12. The homopolymer formed from 4-hydroxy-butanoic Column I Column II

acids is [JEE (Main)-2019] Catalyst Product
O O O (A) V2O5 (i) Polyethylene
|| || ||
(1) C(CH 2)3—O (2) C(CH 2)2C—O
n
(B) TiCl4/Al(Me)3 (ii) Ethanal
n
(C) PdCl2 (iii) H2SO4
O O O
|| || || (D) Iron Oxide (iv) NH3
(3) OC(CH 2)3—O (4) C(CH 2)2C
n n [JEE (Main)-2019]

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(1) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i) 20. Which of the following is a condensation polymer ?
(2) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii) [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(ii); (D)-(iv) (1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Teflon
(4) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(iv) (3) Buna - S (4) Neoprene
18. The major product of the following reaction is 21. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is
(1) KOH (alc.)
Item  I Item  II
(2) Free radical
polymerisation High density
(a) (I) Peroxide catalyst
Cl polythene
Cl
Condensation at
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(b) Polyacrylonitrile (II) high temperature
and pressure
(1)
n Ziegler  Natta
(c) Novolac (III)
Catalyst
Acid or base
(d) Nylon 6 (IV)
catalyst

OH [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) (a)  (III), (b)  (I), (c)  (IV), (d)  (II)
(2) (2) (a)  (III), (b)  (I), (c)  (II), (d)  (IV)
n
(3) (a)  (IV), (b)  (II), (c)  (I), (d)  (III)
(4) (a)  (II), (b)  (IV), (c)  (I), (d)  (III)
Cl 22. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?
CH3
[JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) (1) PVC (2) Buna-N
n
(3) Bakelite (4) Nylon 6
23. The correct name of the following polymer is

CH3 CH3
OH
n
CH 3

(4) [JEE (Main)-2019]

n (1) Polyisobutane (2) Polyisoprene

(3) Polyisobutylene (4) Polytert-butylene
24. Which polymer has ‘chiral’ monomer(s)?
[JEE (Main)-2020]
Cl
(1) Buna-N (2) PHBV
19. Which of the following compounds is a constituent
(3) Neoprene (4) Nylon 6, 6
O
of the polymer — HN – C – NH – CH 2 —n ? 25. W hich one of the following polymers is not
obtained by condensation polymerisation?
[JEE (Main)-2019]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Ammonia
(1) Buna-N (2) Nylon 6
(3) Methylamine (4) N-Methyl urea
(3) Bakelite (4) Nylon 6, 6
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26. Consider the Assertion and Reason given below. 29. In polymer Buna-S : ‘S’ stands for:
[JEE (Main)-2020] [JEE (Main)-2021]
Assertion (A) : Ethene polymerized in the presence (1) Strength (2) Sulphonation
of Ziegler Natta Catalyst at high temperature and (3) Styrene (4) Sulphur
pressure is used to make buckets and dustbins.
30. Which statement is correct? [JEE (Main)-2021]
Reason (R) : High density polymers are closely
packed and are chemically inert. (1) Buna-S is a synthetic and linear
thermosetting polymer.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(2) Buna-N is a natural polymer.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). (3) Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (4) Neoprene is an addition copolymer used in
correct explanation of (A). plastic bucket manufacturing.

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong 31. The structure of Neoprene is : [JEE (Main)-2021]

(4) (A) and (R) both are wrong

27. The correct match between Item - I and Item - II is HN N NHCH2
Item - I Item - II n

(a) Natural rubber (I) 1, 3-butadiene + (1)

N N
styrene
(b) Neoprene (II) 1, 3-butadiene + NH
acrylonitrile
(c) Buna-N (III) Chloroprene
(d) Buna-S (IV) Isoprene CH2 CH
(2) n
[JEE (Main)-2020] CN
(1) (a) - (III), (b) - (IV), (c) - (I), (d) - (II)
(2) (a) - (IV), (b) - (III), (c) - (II), (d) - (I) CH2CH CH CH2 CH2 CH
(3) n
(3) (a) - (III), (b) - (IV), (c) - (II), (d) - (I) CN

(4) (a) - (IV), (b) - (III), (c) - (I), (d) - (II) Cl

28. Match List I with List II. (4) CH2 C CH CH2
List I List II n

(Monomer unit) (Polymer) 32. W hich of the following polymer is used in the
manufacture of wood laminates?[JEE (Main)-2021]
(a) Caprolactum (i) Natural rubber
(1) Urea formaldehyde resin
(b) 2-Chloro-1, (ii) Buna-N
(2) Phenol and formaldehyde resin
3-butadiene
(3) Melamine formaldehyde resin
(c) Isoprene (iii) Nylon 6
(4) cis-poly isoprene
(d) Acrylonitrile (iv) Neoprene
33. Bakelite is a cross-linked polymer of formaldehyde
Choose the correct answer from the options given
and : [JEE (Main)-2021]
below: [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Buna-S (2) Novolac
(1) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii), (c)  (ii), (d)  (i)
(3) Dacron (4) PHBV
(2) (a)  (iii), (b)  (iv), (c)  (i), (d)  (ii)
34. Orlon fibres are made up of : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(3) (a)  (i), (b)  (ii), (c)  (iii), (d)  (iv)
(1) Cellulose (2) Polyesters
(4) (a)  (ii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iv), (d)  (iii)
(3) Polyamide (4) Polyacrylonitrile
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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

35. Match List-I with List-II 37. A biodegradable polyamide can be made from :
List-I List-II [JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Glycine and isoprene
(a) Chloroprene (i)
(2) Glycine and aminocaproic acid
Cl (3) Styrene and caproic acid
(b) Neoprene (ii)
(4) Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
38. The polymer formed on heating Novolac with
Cl
formaldehyde is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
(c) Acrylonitrile (iii)
n (1) Melamine (2) Nylon 6, 6

(d) Isoprene (iv) CH2 == CH — CN (3) Bakelite (4) Polyester

Choose the correct answer from the options given 39. Monomer of Novolac is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
below: [JEE (Main)-2021] (1) o-Hydroxymethylphenol
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) Phenol and melamine
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 40. Which among the following is not a polyester?
[JEE (Main)-2021]
OH OH
—CH 2 CH2 CH2— (1) Dacron (2) Glyptal
36. is a repeating (3) PHBV (4) Novolac
41. Monomer units of Dacron polymer are
unit for [JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) Acrilan
(1) Glycerol and phthalic acid
(2) Novolac
(2) Glycerol and terephthalic acid
(3) Buna-N
(3) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
(4) Neoprene
(4) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid

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Chapter 30
Chemistry in Everyday Life

1. Aspirin is known as [AIEEE-2012] 5. The correct match between item (I) and item (II) is

(1) Phenyl salicylate Item - I Item - II

(2) Acetyl salicylate (A) Norethindrone (P) Anti-biotic

(3) Methyl Salicylic acid (B) Ofloxacin (Q) Anti-fertility

(4) Acetyl salicylic acid (C) Equanil (R) Hypertension

(S) Analgesics
2. W hich of the following compounds is not an
antacid? [JEE (Main)-2015] [JEE (Main)-2019]

(1) Aluminium Hydroxide (1) (A) (R) ; (B)  (P) ; (C) (R)

(2) Cimetidine (2) (A) (R) ; (B)  (P) ; (C) (S)

(3) Phenelzine (3) (A) (Q) ; (B)  (P) ; (C) (R)

(4) Ranitidine (4) (A) (Q) ; (B)  (R) ; (C) (S)

6. Match the metals (column I) with the coordination
3. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
compound(s)/enzyme(s) (column II)
[JEE (Main)-2016]
(Column I) (Column II)
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Metals Coordination
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide compound(s)/
(3) Glyceryl oleate enzyme(s)
(A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst
(4) Sodium stearate
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
4. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B12
Item-I (drug) Item-II (test)
(D) Mg (iv) Carbonic anhydrase
A. Chloroxylenol P. Carbylamine test
[JEE (Main)-2019]
B. Norethindrone Q. Sodium hydrogen
(1) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
Carbonate test
(2) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
C. Sulphapyridine R. Ferric chloride test
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
D. Penicillin S. Bayer's test
(4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
[JEE (Main)-2019]
7. Noradrenaline is a / an [JEE (Main)-2019]
(1) A  Q, B  P, C  S, D  R
(1) Neurotransmitter
(2) A  R, B  S, C  P, D  Q
(2) Antihistamine
(3) A  Q, B  S, C  P, D  R
(3) Antacid
(4) A  R, B  P, C  S, D  Q
(4) Antidepressant

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

8. The compound used in the treatment of lead (1) Anti-depressant (2) Antiseptic
poisoning is : [JEE (Main)-2019]
(3) Anti-bacterial (4) Anti-histamine
(1) EDTA (2) Desferrioxime B
13. The number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol
(3) Cis-platin (4) D-penicillamine is ___________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
9. The antifertility drug “Novestrol” can react with 14. The number of chiral centres in penicillin is
[JEE (Main)-2020] _____________. [JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3 15. Match List-I and List-II.
(2) ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3; Alcoholic HCN List-I List-II
(3) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; NaOCl (a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug
(4) Alcoholic HCN; NaOCl; ZnCl2/HCl (b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia
10. Match the following drugs with their therapeutic (c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic
actions
(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer
(i) Ranitidine (a) Antidepressant
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(ii) Nardil (b) Antibiotic
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(Phenelzine)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(iii) Chloramphenicol (c) Antihistamine
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(iv) Dimetane (d) Antacid
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(Brompheniramine)
16. The functions of antihistamine are
(e) Analgesic
[JEE (Main)-2021]
[JEE (Main)-2020]
(1) Antiallergic and Analgesic
(1) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(e)
(2) Analgesic and antacid
(2) (i)-(d); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
(3) Antiallergic and antidepressant
(3) (i)-(e); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d)
(4) Antacid and antiallergic
(4) (i)-(a); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(e)
17. With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, identify
11. If a person is suffering from the deficiency of nor-
the wrong statement. [JEE (Main)-2021]
adrenaline, what kind of drug can be suggested?
(1) Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme’s
[JEE (Main)-2020]
active site
(1) Analgesic
(2) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme’s active
(2) Antidepressant site
(3) Anti-inflammatory (3) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric
(4) Antihistamine site

12. The following molecule acts as an (4) Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme’s
active site
N 18. Match List-I with List-II.
(CH 2) 2 List-I List-II
N
(Brompheniramine) Chemical Used as
Compound
(a) Sucralose (i) Synthetic detergent

Br (b) Glyceryl ester (ii) Artificial sweetener

[JEE (Main)-2020] of stearic acid

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(c) Sodium benzoate (iii) Antiseptic (c) Dimetone (iii) Antiseptic

(d) Bithionol (iv) Food preservative (d) Valium (iv) Synthetic antihistamines
Choose the correct match. [JEE (Main)-2021] Choose the most appropriate match
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) [JEE (Main)-2021]
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
19. Match List-I with list-II :
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
List-I List-II
22. Given below are two statements :
(Class of Drug) (Example)
Statement I : Penicillin is a bacteriostatic type
(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol antibiotic.
(b) Artificial Sweetener (ii) Cimetidine Statement II : The general structure of Penicillin
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium is
O
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame
Choose the most appropriate match : R N S
H
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) N
O COOH
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) H
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) Choose the correct option : [JEE (Main)-2021]

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

20. Match List-I with List-II : (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

List-I List-II (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(Class of Chemicals) (Example) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(a) Antifertility drug (i) Meprobamate
(b) Antibiotic (ii) Alitame H
N
(c) Tranquilizer (iii) Norethindrone CH3
N=C
H
(d) Artificial Sweetener (iv) Salvarsan 23. C
Cl C=N H
Choose the most appropriate match :
O–
[JEE (Main)-2021]
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) Chlordiazepoxide
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide with
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) above structure belongs is :
21. Match List-I with List-II [JEE (Main)-2021]
List-I List-II (1) Antacid
(Drug) (Class of Drug) (2) Analgesic
(a) Furacin (i) Antibiotic (3) Tranquilizer
(b) Arsphenamine (ii) Tranquilizers (4) Antibiotic

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CHEMISTRY ARCHIVE - JEE (Main)

(3) (A) and (D) are tranquilizers

CH3 (4) (A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics
24. CH3
N
N O 25. W hich one of the following chemicals is
responsible for the production of HCl in the
N stomach leading to irritation and pain?
Cl
[JEE (Main)-2021]
HO O OH
H
(A) (B) NNH2
(1)

CH3
CH 2CH2NH2
N NH2
HO HO
(2)
N
N H
H
H 3CO O OH
(C) CO
(D)
(3) NH
SO 2
The correct statement about (A), (B), (C) and (D)
is : [JEE (Main)-2021]
HN
(1) (B), (C) and (D) are tranquilizers (4)
NH2
N
(2) (B) and (C) are tranquilizers

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