Duration : 3 Hours

ENGLISH

I: Complete the sentences

1. The pilot was __________ injured, he died within half an hour.

A. seriously
B. fatally
C. fatefully
D. vitally

2. The punch made the boxer _________ in pain.

A. wince
B. gape
C. grumble
D. fumble

3. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making
a ______ selection.
A. normal
B. standard
C. moderate
D. judicious

II. In each of the following questions, out of the four

alternatives, choose the one, which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence

4. Music sung or played at night below a person’s window

A. serenade
B. sonnet
C. lyric
D. primo

5. A government by the nobles

A. Democracy
B. Bureaucracy
C. Autocracy
D. Aristocracy
6. A man of lax moral
A. Ruffian
B. Licentious
C. Pirate
D. Vagabond

III. In the following sentences given below, a word is underlined.

For each of the underlined word, 4 words are listed below each
sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the
underlined word.

7. The boy gave a vivid description of all that happened.

A. brilliant
B. fresh
C. explanatory
D. picturesque

8. It is compulsory for all the students to join this tour.

A. regular
B. necessary
C. dutiful
D. obligatory

9. The teacher felt that the student lacked discrimination in the study of
his data.
A. imagination
B. good taste
C. good judgement
D. objectivity
 IV. In the following sentences given below, a word is
underlined. For each of the underlined word, 4 words are listed
below each sentence. Choose the word which is closest to the
opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

10. Self-reliance has been adopted as an important objective of economic

planning in modern India.
A. refused
B. forsaken
C. denied
D. discarded

11. He was in a dejected mood.

A. jubilant
B. rejected
C. irritable
D. romantic

12. There was a marked deterioration in his condition.

A. improvement
B. revision
C. reformation
D. amendment
V. In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in
Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives
suggested select the one which best expresses the same
sentence in Passive (or Active) voice

13. His pocket has been picked.

A. They have his pocket picked.
B. Picking has been done to his pocket.
C. Picked has been his pocket.
D. Someone has picked his pocket.

14. My uncle promised me a present.

A. A present was promised by my uncle to me.
B. I was promised a present by my uncle.
C. I had been promised a present by my uncle.
D. I was promised by my uncle a present.
15. Who is creating this mess?
A. Who has created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?

16. A lion may be helped even by a little mouse.

A. A little mouse may even help a lion.
B. Even a little mouse may help a lion.
C. A little mouse can even help a lion.
D. Even a little mouse ought to help a lion.
VI. Please complete the sentences with suitable alternatives.

17. She expects that her son ___________

A. can return
B. may return
C. should return
D. None of he above

18. All felt that he ___________ a cheat.

A. may be
B. can be
C. might be
D. None of the above

19. She ____________ alone as it was raining heavily.

A. must not leave
B. must not have left
C. should not leave
D. None of the above

20. You __________ obey your parents.

A. should
B. ought to
C. must
D. None of the above
 MATHEMATICS

1. 2 marbles are drawn in succession from a box containing 10 red, 30

white, 20 blue and 15 orange marbles, with replacement being made
after each drawing. The probability that the first drawn marble is red
and second is white is:
a. 0.06333
b. 0.05333
c. 0.02433
d. 0.05666
−1
𝑒 𝑠
2. If L{𝑓(𝑡)} = , then L{𝑒 −𝑡 𝑓(3𝑡)} is
𝑠
a. s
b. s+1
c. s-1
d. s2

3. The directional derivative of f(x, y, z) = 4e 2x-y+z at the point (1, 1, -1)

in the direction towards the point (-3, 5, 6) is
−20
a. 9
20
b. 9
9
c.
20
−9
d. 20
1, 0 ≤ 𝑡 < 1
∞
4. The integral equation ∫0 𝑓 (𝑥) sin 𝑥𝑡 𝑑𝑥 ={2, 1 ≤ 𝑡 < 2 is
0, 𝑡≥2
2
a. (1+cos x-2 cos2x)
𝜋𝑥
2
b. (1-cos x+2 cos2x)
𝜋𝑥
2
c. (cos x-2 cos2x)
𝜋𝑥
2
d. (cos x-2 cos2x-1)
𝜋𝑥

1 𝑑𝑥
5. By dividing [0, 1] into 4 equal sub intervals, the value of ∫0 1+𝑥
(using trapezoidal rule) correct to 3 decimal places is:
a. 0.693
b. 0.694
c. 0.697
d. 0.699
 𝜕𝑢
6. If u = x2-y2, x=2r-3s+4, y=-r+8s-5, then =
𝜕𝑟
a. 4x+2y
b. 2x+4y
c. 4x-2y
d. 2x-4y

7. The total mass of the region in the cube 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, 0 ≤ y ≤ 1, 0 ≤ z≤

1 with density at any point given by xyz is
a. 1/8
b. 2/3
c. 5/7
d. 3/2

8. Two circles x2+y2-4x+10y+20 = 0 and x2+y2+8x-6y-24 = 0

a. Touch externally
b. Touch internally
c. Are orthogonal
d. Are disjoint

9. If the vectors xi+j-2k, i+j+3k, 8i+5j are coplanar, then the value of x
is
a. -2
b. 5
c. 2
d. -5

10. The Laplace transformation of the following function using second

translation theorem: 4sin(t-3)u(t-3) is
4
a.
e3s (𝑠 2+1)
4
b.
e3s(𝑠 2−1)
c. 4
e-3s(𝑠 2+1)
4
d.
e-3s(𝑠 2−1)
 ∞ ∞ 2+𝑦 2 )
11. The integral of ∫0 ∫0 𝑒 −(𝑥 dx dy is
𝜋
a. 2
𝜋
b. 4
𝜋
c. 8
𝜋
d. 6

12. The ∫ 𝑦 2 dx -2x2 dy along the parabola y = x2 from (0, 0) to (2, 4) is

a. 48/5
b. -48/5
c. 8/5
d. 48

13. If T: R3→R3 is given by T(x, y, z) = (x + y + z, y + z, z) for (x, y,

z)∈R3 then T-1(x, y, z) is
a. (x - y, y - z, z - x)
b. (x, y - z, z - x)
c. (x - y, y –z, z)
d. (x + y, y + z, z)

14. If C is the midpoint of AB and P is a point outside AB, then

a. PA+PB=PC
b. PA+PB+PC=0
c. PA+PB=2PC
d. PA+PB+2PC=0

15. If A be a 3 x 3 matrix with Eigen values 1,-1,0 then the determinant of

I+A100 is
a. 6
b. 4
c. 9
d. 100

16. The radius of curvature for the curve y=e x at (0,1) is

a. √2
b. 2√2
1
c.
√2
1
d. 2 √2
17. The mean value of a sine wave over half a cycle is
a. 0.318 x maximum value
b. 0.707 x maximum value
c. Peak value
d. 0.637 x maximum value

18. Regula Falsi method is used for

a. Solution of ordinary differential equation
b. Differential of a function
c. Integration of a function
d. Solution off an algebraic (or) transcendental equation

(𝑒 𝑥 −1)
19. The order of the pole of is
𝑧4
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4

20. If C is unit circle |z|=1 then ∫𝑐 𝑧̅ dz =

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2𝜋𝑖
d. 4 𝜋𝑖
 MARINE ENGINEERING

1. The main reason counterweights are added to crankshafts is to

A) reduce piston side thrust
B) reduce crankshaft end thrust
C) provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings
D) increase the strength of the crank webs

2. An advantage of aluminium pistons compared to cast iron pistons is:

A) greater high temperature strength
B) better heat conductivity
C) greater weight per cubic cm
D) increased resistance to wear

3. Which is found with both mechanical and hydraulic governors?

A) direct linkage between the ball head and fuel rack
B) a servomotor
C) a compensating device
D) flyweights

4. Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products of

A) aldehydes and carbon dioxide
B) water vapour and carbon monoxide
C) nitrogen and carbon monoxide
D) water vapour and carbon dioxide

5. Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and connected rod
bearings of a diesel engine?
A) roller
B) sleeve
C) precision insert
D) needle

6. Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine are directly related to
the
A) acidity of the oil
B) pour point of the oil
C) flash point of the oil
D) viscosity of the oil
7. An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and constant ending
of injection. For diesel engines operating at constant speeds, the start of injection
will
A) advance as the load increases
B) retard as the load increases
C) remain unchanged regardless of load
D) always occur at top dead center

8. Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is

A) dependent on air turbulence
B) reduced by finer atomization
C) increased by finer atomization
D) non-existent in the pre-combustion chamber system

9. Which of the following will cause cavitation

A) Low discharge pressure
B) Throttling the suction valve
C) Low water level in the wet well
D) High discharge pressure

10. The static suction head of a pump is the

A) A.distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump
B) B.distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump
C) C.force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping.
D) D.amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric
pressure

11. Which of the following is the material used for manufacturing tube plates of a shell
and tube type heat exchanger?
A) Cupro-nickel
B) Aluminum Brass
C) Admiralty Brass
D) Gunmetal

12. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
A) Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream
B) Rough casing volute surfaces
C) Worn wearing rings
D) Heavy fluid in the flow stream
13. If water contamination occurs in the crankcase oil of an auxiliary engine the oil
viscosity will:-
A) Increase.
B) Nothing happens
C) Stay at the same.
D) Decrease.

14. Too high Calculated Carbon Aromaticity Index (CCAI) of fuel oil indicates:
A) Reduced ignition delay
B) Increased ignition delay
C) Reduced chances of knocking
D) None

15. The seating material for perfectly sealing type Ball valves is usually made up of
A) Rubber
B) PTFE or Nylon
C) Rubber reinforced with steel wire
D) Stainless steel

16. Kinetic energy is converted into pressure energy in a turbocharger compressor by

A) Combined diffuser and nozzle ring
B) Nozzle ring only
C) Combined diffuser and volute casing
D) Volute casing only

17. What long term effect will excessively high temperature have on lubricating oil
quality?
A) Cause oxidation which reduce viscosity.
B) Evaporates the oil giving high consumption.
C) The oil flashpoint will be changed.
D) Cause oxidation which increase viscosity.

18. Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subject to the exposure of
refrigerants should wear
A) face shield
B) a respirator
C) rubber gloves
D)an all-purpose gas mask
19. Electrical fire extinguished by
A) CO2

B) DCP
C) FOAM
D) Water

20. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
A) oil from flowing out of the tank vent
B) air from entering the tank vent
C) vapors from leaving the tank vent
D) flames on deck from entering the tank vent

21. Labyrinth seal fitted on the back surface of a compressor wheel of a turbocharger:

A) Prevents bearing lube oil contamination

B) Prevents bearing lube oil being sucked into the air stream
C) Helps to keep the shaft cool by controlled leakage of air
D) None of the above

22. What is meant by elasto hydrodynamic lubrication?

A) Formation of hydrodynamic film under high pressure with minor elastic

deformation of mating
B) surfaces, distributing load over a greater area
C) Addition of extreme pressure additive (EP) to the lubricant
D) Addition of Viscosity index improvement additive

23. Inert Gas System on board tankers is used during which of the following
operations____

A) Inerting of empty tanks

B) Inerting during crude oil washing
C) Purging before gas freeing
D) All of the above

24. Panting is caused by

A) Change in the height of waves
 B) Loss of buoyancy of forward part of ship
C) Vessel in shallow depth channel
D) None of these

25. Double entry impellers have a distinct advantage over single entry impeller. What is
it?
A) They balance out the axial thrust
B) It gives a higher pumping efficiency
C) It is cheaper and easier to manufacture
D) The need of installing line bearing onto the pump shaft is eliminated

26. If the boiler tubes are scaled on the water side then
A) Heat conduction through the tubes will be very high leading to rapid evaporation
B) The boiler furnace can get damaged due to excessive temperatures
C) The surface of the tube will be overheated as heat transfer is impaired
D) The natural circulation of water within the boiler will be more efficient

27. Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat boilers to
A) Prevent soot fires in the exhaust system
B) Prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes
C) Increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow
D) Increase the rate of heat transfer

28. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to

A) provide a means of draining the boiler
B) warn the engineer of low water level
C) cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
D) open the burners' electrical firing circuits

29. The purpose of economizer is to:

A) Decrease the capacity and size of the auxiliary boiler
B) Cooling down the exhaust gases in order to reduce NOx emission
C) Allowing Sox to react at low temperatures with water to form acids thus
reducing Sox emission
D) Increasing the overall efficiency of the main propulsion plant

30. The purpose of an air cooler in a supercharging system is to:

A) Reduce temperature of supercharged air in order to condense and remove
maximum possible
moisture from the air prior entry to the engine
 B) Reduce the temperature of the supercharged air in order to increase the density
& also to cool down below dew point to remove moisture from air prior entry to
the engine
C) Cool supercharged air to increase its density such that the dew point is not
reached to avoid entry of moisture into the engine
D) Cool supercharged air to increase its density and also to keep the peak
temperature and exhaust
gas temperature within limits

31. What is the meaning of the term "Valve clearance"?

A) The clearance between the rocker arm and valve pushrod.
B) The clearance between valve spindle disc and seat.
C) The clearance between the rocker arm and camshaft pushrod.
D) The clearance between the rocker arm and valve pushrod in either warm or cold
state.

32. The centre of buoyancy of vessel is shifted when

A) Underwater shape of the hull changes
B) Vessel's draft is changed
C) Vessel moves from fresh water to sea water
D) All of these

33. Why is it essential to renew turbocharger bearings after a preset number of hours
of
running even if the bearings are in seemingly perfect condition?
A) Because they are prone to failure due to prolonged exposure to high
temperature conditions.
B) Because they are subject to cyclic loading and are prone to failure due to metal
fatigue.
C) It is not essential to renew if condition monitoring suggests perfect condition.
D) Lube oil contamination is bound to occur and affect the condition of the
bearings.

34. The over speeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause
A) low voltage trip to trip
B) reverse power trip to trip
C) damage to windings
D) excessive exhaust temperatures

35. Water carryover from boiler onboard through the steam causes
A) Erosion of the steam plant machinery
 B) Low water level inside the boiler
C) Build-up of deposits on the steam plant machinery
D) None of the above

36. Short cycling of a fridge compressor can occur in which of the following cases?
A) Air ingress into the system
B) B.A leaking solenoid valve
C) High cooling water temperature going to the condenser
D) Excessive refrigerant charge

37. Why steel components electroplated with chromium are used in corrosive
environment
A) Chorme Plating Prevents Corrosion
B) Protection to the steel will be preferentially corroded
C) Zinc plating Is Used On Top Of Chrome Plating For Corrosion Protection
D) Thickness of chrome plating to increase

38. Steel is an alloy of iron carbon and alloying components what is the carbon
content?
A) Less than 1 %
B) Less than 2%
C) Greater than 2%
D) Any % of carbon

39. Air pipes in tanks are generally located:

A) A.Near filling pipes
B) B.Near pump suctions
C) C.At the opposite end of filling pipes and/or the highest point in the tank
D) D.At the lowest point in the tank

40. The surface of each blade of propeller when viewed from aft is known as the
__________________
A) A.Back
B) B.Leading edge
C) C.Trailing edge
D) D.Face

41. The cyclic angular motion of a ship about the ford and aft axis under the action of
waves is known as:
 A) Pitching
B) Yawing
C) Rolling
D) Heaving

42. Curves of immersed cross-sectional area of a ship , plotted against draught for each
transverse section, are known as
A) Cross curves of Stability
B) Displacement Curves
C) Hydrostatic Curves
D) Bonjean Curves

43. Peak tanks are tested by:

A) Hose test
B) By filling them with water up to load water line
C) By filling them with water up to the maximum head which can come on them in
practice or 2.44 m above tank crown, whichever is higher
D) None of the above

44. Plates used to connect stern frames to flat plate keel are called:
A) Shoe plates
B) Coffin plates
C) Stealer plates
D) Boss plates

45. Thickness of strakes of bottom plating is increased in which of the following regions
of the ship?
A) Pounding region
B) Over 40% of ships length amidships
C) Over 40% of ships length forward
D) Both A and B

46. In a shell expansion plan, plate D5 refers to:

A) Fourth plate from aft and fifth strake from keel
B) Fifth plate from aft and fourth strake from the keel
C) Fourth plate from forward and fifth strake from keel
D) Fifth plate from forward and fourth strake from keel

47. The mass of a ship without cargo, fuel, stores, water, crew etc that a ship carries is
known as:
 A) Deadweight
B) Lightweight
C) Displacement
D) Tonnage

48. The frictional resistance increases when the draft increases because
A) Dead weight of the vessel increases.
B) Length of water plane increases.
C) Wetted surface increases.
D) Temperature of water reduces as draft increases.

49. As per conditions of assignments, the minimum height of air pipe openings must be
________ on the freeboard deck
A) 380 mm
B) 450 mm
C) 600 mm
D) 760 mm

50. The primary purpose of fitting a bulbous bow is to:

A) Improve the appearance of the ship.
B) Strengthen the bow
C) Improve propulsive efficiency
D) Improve resistance to pounding

51. The purpose of providing tumble home is to:

A) Improve the appearance of the ship
B) Help drain off water from deck easily
C) Reduce the volume of water coming on deck
D) Help drain tanks to bilges

52. GM of ship will change with

A) Shifting of weight longitudinally
B) Shifting of weight transversely
C) Shifting of weight vertically
D) All of the above

53. In longitudinally framed double bottoms, in frame spaces where there are no solid
floors, the brackets
on tank sides and center girder should not be more than ___________ apart.
A) 2.5m
B) 3.7m
C) 3.8m
 D) 1.25m

54. In longitudinally framed double bottoms, solid plate floors are fitted at _________
frame space in pounding region and at ________frame space under the main
engine.
A) Alternate, every
B) Alternate, alternate
C) Every, every
D) Every, alternate

55. ‘kg’ of ship increases with...

A) adding weight above on present kg
B) balasting db tank
C) moving weight in transverse direction
D) moving weight in frwd direction

56. In ship beam bracket are triangular plates joining the deck beam to a.
A) Bulkhead
B) Frame
C) Stanchion
D) Deck longitudinal

57. The bleeder plug or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank is
used to
A) indicate when the tank is pressed up
B) provide a secondary means of tank sounding
C) vent air from the tank when bunkering.
D) empty the tank when in dry dock

58. Vertical support member used to strengthen bulkheads are called

A) stiffner
B) panels
C) brackets
D) stanchions

59. Definition of permeability is

A) Volume of empty space above cargo divided by total volume
B) Volume of loaded space divided by total volume
C) Volume of empty space within cargo divided by total volume
D) Volume of empty space below waterline divided by total volume
60. When reading electrical motor controller diagrams, it helps to know that
____________.
A) current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in the power
circuit as lighter lines
B) current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in control circuit
as lighter lines
C) circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heavy lines and below 500
volts as lighter lines
D) circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and below 500
volts as heavy

61. The inductance of a coil is expressed in _____________.

A) ohms
B) mhos
C) Henrys
D) farads

62. Large cable sizes are formed as individual conductors that may be comprised of
several smaller strands to __________.
A) obtain the flexibility required for easy handling
B) reduce the overall weight of the wire run
C) reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead run
D) all of the above

63. Which of the following is having Di-Electric Constant 80?

A) Air
B) water
C) Mica
D) Castor oil

64. Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of

A) Brushes
B) Slip rings
C) Commutators
D) All the above

65. A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of
A) the recommended current and voltage rating
B) higher current and voltage rating
C) higher current and lower voltage rating
 D) lower current and higher voltage rating

66. Refrigerant compressor will run continuously

A) Too heavy cooling load
B) Air in the system
C) Insufficient refrigerant
D) Any of the above

67. The coating on an electrode used for electric arc welding _________________
A) creates a gas shield to prevent oxidation of the weld material
B) helps the weld formation by shaping the metal transfer
C) provides an electrical insulation for the user
D) All of the above

68. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-I, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A) Oils and chemicals
B) Oils other than crude oils
C) Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D) Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products

69. EEDI is the Technical measure adopted by IMO to reduce ___.

A) Greenhouse gas.
B) SOx
C) NOx
D) None of the above

70. If there is a dispute with the bunker supplier with respect to fuel quantity or quality
which of the following document is issued
A) BDN
B) MSDS
C) Letter of protest
D) All of the above

71. If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main propulsion
machinery indicates an increased neutralization number the _______.
A) acidity has increased
B) viscosity has decreased
C) demulsibility has improved
D) foaming is guaranteed to occur

72. Diameter of emergency bilge suction pipe is

 A) Smaller than that of ballast pump
B) larger than that of main Sea water pump
C) equal to the suction pipe of the pump to which it is connected
D) None of the above

73. Turbocharger performance is measured by

A) It's RPM with respect to the engine load
B) The temperature drop across the inlet & outlet of turbine
C) The scavenge air pressure developed at the scavenge manifold
D) All of the above

74. In still water the ship experiences longitudinal bending moments due to
A) Non uniorm distribution of weight
B) Non uniorm distribution of buoyancy
C) Non uniorm distribution of load
D) All of these

75. The region where the sheer strake meets the deck plate is known as the
A) bilge
B) gunwale
C) stringer
D) transom

76. Purpose of bilge keel is to render

A) longitudinal strength to the ship
B) active roll stabilisation
C) passive roll stabilisation
D) All of these

77. Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading cold oil?
A) Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases
the chance of a spill
B) Air lock may cause the fuel to buble out
C) The change in specific volume when heated may cause overflow
D) The fuelling valve may get stuck closed and may spill fuel oil when opened
78. BLEVE is
A) Boiling liquid energising vapour exclusion
B) Boil-off liquid expanding variable efficiency
C) Boiling liquid expansion and vapourising efficiency
D) Boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion

79. Tankers are provided with smaller freeboard

A) Cargo density below sea water
B) Weight of loaded cargo is less than local buoyancy force
C) Water tightness of tanker more rigid
D) All of these

80. The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is____________.
A) the same as the pressure in the lubricating system
B) less than the pressure in the lubricating system
C) greater than the pressure in the lubricating system
D) highest at the oil groove location