Indian National Junior Science Olympiad 2017

Roll Number:

INJSO 2017 Date: 28th January 2017

QUESTION PAPER
Duration: 3 Hours Maximum marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS

• Please write your roll number on top of this page in the space provided.

• Please use only black or blue pen to write your answers in the Answer Sheet provided. Please do
not use a pencil.

• Before starting, please ensure that you have received a copy of this Question paper containing a total
of 20 pages (20 sides on 10 sheets including the first 2 cover pages for instructions and values of
physical constants).

• In section A, there are 30 multiple choice questions with 4 alternatives, out of which only 1 is
correct. You get 1 mark for every correct answer and – 0.25 mark for every wrong answer.

• In Section B there are 12 questions of total 60 marks.

• For Section A, you have to indicate the answers on page 3 of the Answer sheet by putting a “×” in
the appropriate box against the relevant question number, like this:

Q. No. (a) (b) (c) (d)

22

Marking a cross means affirmative response (making your particular choice). Do not use tick
mark or any other signs to mark the correct answers.

• For each of the 12 questions in Section B, a separate page has been provided in the Answer sheet,
with the particular question number indicated in the top left hand corner. One additional page for
answering those questions have also been appended, in case of necessity.

• A blank page have been provided in the Answer sheet, for rough work.

• Please write the answers in the answer sheet only.

• Calculator(s) and mobile phone(s) are not allowed.

• The Answer Sheet must be returned to the invigilator. You may take this Question paper with you.

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

Useful Physical constants and Definitions (Many constants have been adjusted to make calculations simple
in this examination)

Gravitational Constant (G) = 6.67 × 10-11 m3kg-1s-2

Avogadro’s number (N) = 6.0 × 1023 / mol
Gas constant (R) = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1, 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1
Mechanical equivalent of heat (Conversion factor for calorie) = 4.2 J/cal
Specific heat capacity of liquid water = 1 cal/g° C, 4.15 kJ kg-1 K-1
Specific heat capacity of liquid heavy water = 4.25 kJ kg-1 K-1
Specific heat capacity of frozen water = 2.1 kJ kg-1 K-1
Latent heat for melting of water = 330 kJ kg-1
Latent heat for melting of heavy water = 340 kJ kg-1
Specific latent heat for fusion of ice = 80 cal/g
Specific latent heat for boiling of water = 540 cal/g; Heat of vaporization of water at 25°C = 42000 J/mol
Density of liquid water = 1.0 g/cc; Standard pressure = 1 atm
Density of liquid heavy water = 1.1 g/cc; Standard temperature = 273 K
Melting point of heavy water = 4°C; Volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas at S.T.P. = 22.4 L

Element Relative Atomic Element Relative Atomic

Atomic Mass Weight Atomic Mass Weight
H 1 1 Li 6 3

C 12 6 Be 9 4

N 14 7 F 18 9

O 16 8 Cl 35.5 17

Na 23 11 Ca 40 20

Mg 24 12 Ba 137 56

S 32 16 Fe 56 26

B 10 5 K 39 19

Ore Chemical name

Chalcocite Copper(I) sulphide

Chalcopyrite Cupric ferrous sulphide
Cinnabar Mercuric sulphide
Covellite Copper(II) sulphide
Galena Lead sulphide
Goethite Ferric hydroxide oxide
Hematite Iron(III) oxide
Magnetite Iron(II,III) oxide
Sphalerite Zinc sulphide
Zincblende Zinc sulphide

1 femtogram = 10-9 microgram, 1 microgram = 10-3 mg.

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

SECTION A
Questions 1 to 30 are Multiple Choice questions with every correct answer carrying 1 mark and
every wrong answer carrying – 0.25 mark.

1. In an old Sherlock Holmes movie, a criminal kept a 12.5 cm long knife (mass 1 kg), in a 15 cm thick book
(excluding thickness of the covers) with a spring trap. The spring has 25 turns each of 1 mm thickness.
The spring is fixed at the back cover and the knife presses the spring to its maximum when the front
cover is closed so that the turns touch each other. The design is such that if the book is held in front of
the body and opened, the knife gets detached from the spring and hits the reader (Sherlock Holmes in
this case). Unstretched length of the spring is equal to thickness of the book. However, Sherlock
Holmes was too smart and hence he opened the book in such a way that the knife flew vertically
upwards. All the energy of the spring is given to the knife, which just reached the ceiling, at a height of
5 m from the tip of the knife and got stuck there. Calculate the spring constant which satisfies the
equation F = - kx.

a) 160/9 N/mm b) 40/9 N/mm c) 40 N/mm d) 6.4 N/mm

2. The focal length of a biconvex lens made of a soft material can be changed by changing its shape. An
object was brought from far away to near the biconvex lens. For each option given below, the first (left
� �
side) graph gives dependence of � � on � � as the shape of the lens is changed, and the second graph
� �
gives corresponding dependence of f on|𝑢|. Here u, v and f have standard meanings and all images are
real. Which of the following options is the correct representation of that lens?

3. A black dot has a mass of about one femto gram. Assuming that the dot is made up of carbon only,
calculate the approximate number of carbon atoms present in the dot.

a) 1 × 108 b) 5 × 1010 c) 5× 107 d) 1× 1011

4. Among the following, the third ionisation energy is highest for which one of the following elements?

a) Boron b) Magnesium c) Aluminium d) Beryllium

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5. In a hypothetical situation, a cell was found to lack rough endoplasmic reticulum. Which one of the
following activities was all likely absent in this cell?
a) Transcription b) Translation
c) Synthesis of secretory proteins d) Manufacture of fat molecules or lipids

6. In a laboratory, a plane mirror and a student move with velocities

as shown in the figure. X and Y components of the velocity (in
m/s) of the image (of the student), as seen by the student, are
respectively

a) – 2.5(2+√3), Zero b) - 5, (5√3 - 2.5)

c) - 5(2+√3), Zero d) - 5(1+√3), Zero

7. In liver transplantation, the first three months after transplantation is when the patient requires the
most care and post-surgery monitoring. Which of the following statement is most suitable up to three
months for a patient who has undergone liver-transplantation recently?

a) She will require no drugs but only care and follow ups.
b) She will be treated with immunosuppressive drugs only.
c) She will be treated with antibiotics only.
d) She will be treated with combination of immunosuppressive drugs and antibiotics.
8. While driving on a level road at 72 kmph, Vinayak observes the traffic signal turning red, the (white)
stopping line being 52 m away from the front end of his car. Immediately he applies the brakes that
decelerate his car at 4 m/s2. How far from the stopping line will the front end of Vinayak's car be after
6 seconds?

a) Zero b) 2 m c) 4 m d) 6 m

9. When a mixture of 60mL of carbon monoxide and 40mL of oxygen is sparked, mixture A is obtained.
Mixture A is passed through aqueous potassium hydroxide to yield mixture B. The volumes of mixtures
A and B respectively are

a) 70mL,10mL b) 40mL,20mL c) 60mL,20mL d)80mL,10mL

10. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm has its principal axis horizontal. A simple pendulum with a
tiny bob is oscillating in front of the mirror such that centre of mass of the bob is 12 cm away from the
mirror along the principal axis. Amplitude of oscillation is 3 cm and there is practically no damping.
Length of the pendulum is sufficiently large and the plane of oscillation is such that the bob moves
practically along the principal axis of the mirror. Path length of the image of the bob formed by the
mirror is …..

a) 4 cm b) 2 cm c) 0.7 cm d) 8 cm

11. Choose the correct sequence of the following ions in increasing order of their ionic radii.

a) Be2+< Li1+< F1- < O2- b) Li1+< Be2+< O2-<F1- c) O2- < F1-< Li1+< Be2+ d) Li1+< Be2+ < F1- < O2-

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12. A point source of light B is placed at a distance d, in front of the centre

of a mirror of horizontal length L fixed on a wall. A man walks in front of
the mirror and parallel to it at a distance 2d from it as shown in the
figure. The greatest distance over which he can see the image of the
light source in the mirror is

a) L/2 b) L c) 2L d) 3L

13. A group of biology students on excursion to Goa beaches collected the following animal samples.

While they were putting the animals in the jar with sea water, they noticed that one of the animal’s
1/3rd body part was missing. The injured animal (with only 2/3rd of its body) was brought to the lab and
was allowed to grow in the laboratory in appropriate condition. To their surprise the lost body part of
the animal had regenerated. Which of the above animal would have been collected?

a) Planaria b) Hermit crab c) Sepia d) Sea anemone

14. A buoy, of height 2 m, is floating in the sea. A wave of amplitude 0.5 m and wavelength λ >> base of the
buoy, passes the buoy. The maximum tilt of the buoy (from the vertical) will practically

a) Depend on the amplitude only. b) Depend on the frequency only.

c) Depend on both frequency and amplitude. d) be 90˚.

15. A compound exists in the gaseous state both as monomer (A) and dimer (A2) .The molecular weight of
the monomer is 48. In an experiment, 96 g of the compound was confined in a vessel of volume 33.6
litres and heated to 273°C. Calculate the pressure developed, if the compound exists as a dimer to the
extent of 50% by weight under this condition, assuming that temperature does not affect the physical
state of the dimer.

a) 0.67 atm b)1 atm c)1.33 atm d)2 atm

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16. A sound wave of fixed frequency is going through a medium in the X direction. Ignore the velocities of
the particles due to thermal motion and assume that the layers of the medium perform simple
harmonic motions about their mean positions. Graph in the figure represents displacements of the
particles from their mean positions (plotted on Y axis) at a particular instant of time. Some of the
particles are labeled by alphabets a – s. Velocity of the particle G is directed negative at that instant.
Points C, I and O correspond to maximum displacement at that instant.

I) The sound wave is travelling along the

negative X direction.

II) The sound wave is travelling along the

positive X direction.

III) Particles C, I and O are possessing

maximum kinetic energy at the given
instant.

IV) Particles F, L and R are possessing

maximum kinetic energy at the given
instant.

a) Only I and IV are correct. b) Only II and III are correct.

c) Only I and III are correct. d) Only II and IV are correct.

17. Seven 1 Ω resistances are connected as shown in the figure. Resistance of the conducting wires is
negligible. Effective resistance between A and B is

a) (3/5) Ω
b) (3/7) Ω
c) (19/7) Ω
d) 5/7 Ω

18. Following are some statements about mitochondria and chloroplasts:

I. Mitochondrion has double stranded DNA that replicates independently while chloroplast does
not have the same.
II. Both mitochondria and chloroplast have double stranded DNA that replicates independently.
III. Both mitochondria and chloroplast have single stranded DNA replicating independently.
IV. Mitochondria and chloroplast have both RNA and ribosomes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Both I and IV b) both III and IV c) both II and III d) both II and IV

19. A solution of pure ferric sulphate containing 0.140g of ferric ions is treated with excess of barium
hydroxide solution. Total weight of the precipitate will be.

a) 0.87g b) 1.14g c) 0.25 g d) 0.56g

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20. P, Q, R are different colourless solids, while S is a colourless solution. They are (in random order)
Sodium chloride (NaCl), Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3), Acetic acid (CH3COOH) and Phenolphthalein
indicator. Small amount of the above substances were added in pairs (e.g. P with Q; Q with R etc.) to a
small amount of water in a test tube. They give the following results as shown in the observation table.

Observations table:

P Q R

Q No reaction - No reaction

R Dark Pink Colour No reaction -

S No reaction No reaction Effervescence

Then the chemicals are

P Q R S

a) NaCl CaCO3 CH3COOH Phenophthalein

b) Phenophthalein NaCl CaCO3 CH3COOH

c) CH3COOH Phenophthalein NaCl CaCO3

d) CaCO3 CH3COOH Phenophthalein NaCl

21. Fishes such as Salmon are called as anadromous fish. They are born in fresh water. However, then they
migrate to the sea and spend most of their life in the sea. They return to fresh water to spawn. On the
contrary, catadromous fishes such as Eels do the opposite. They live in fresh water for their entire life.
They migrate to the sea to spawn.

Salmon Eel
Which one of the following strategies will Salmon adopt in order to manage the problem of
osmoregulation when it is in the sea?

a) Salmon drinks profusely in sea and it drinks feebly in fresh water.

b) It produces large volume of dilute urine in sea water.
c) In sea water, gills filter NaCl which is absorbed selectively into its body.
d) The mode of excretion of Salmon is changed from ammonia to uric acid.

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22. You are provided with 4 metal ores at different levels of activity series, extraction of these metals from
their ores involves oxidation and reductions. Match the metal ores with their extraction processes.

Metal ores Processes

1. Cinnabar I. Oxidation and reduction
2. Zincblende II. Oxidation
3. Hematite III. Electrolysis
4. Galena IV. Reduction

a) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-II b)1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-I c) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV d)1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I

23. In a hypothetical experiment the outer tissues of the woody part of the stem of a dicotyledonous plant
is removed in the form of a ring, leaving only the xylem and pith intact. Which one of the statements is
most likely to be correct?

a) Water transport from the root to leaves will be obstructed but food transport from leaves to stem
will be unhindered.
b) Water transport from root to leaves will not be obstructed but food transport from stem to leaves
will be hindered.
c) Water transport from root to leaves will not be obstructed but food transport down the leaves stops
at the ring.
d) Water transport from leaves to root is obstructed but food transport down from the leaves stops at
the ring.

24. In an experiment involving treatments to demonstrate transpiration, six experimental setups were as
follows:
I. Woody plant with only leaves coated with Vaseline jelly
II. Woody plant with only stem coated with Vaseline jelly
III. Woody plant without any coating of Vaseline jelly
IV. Herbaceous plant with only stem coated with Vaseline jelly
V. Herbaceous plant with only leaf coated with Vaseline jelly
VI. Herbaceous plant without any coating of Vaseline jelly
Cobalt chloride (CoCl2) paper (changes from blue to pink when wet) was attached to the leaves and
stem. The plants were well watered and kept under adequate sunlight. The following were proposed:

Colour change of CoCl2

paper on
Plants Leaves Stem
I Blue Blue
II Pink Pink
III Pink Blue
IV Blue Blue
V Blue Pink
VI Pink Blue

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) I ,II and V b)Only II c)III, IV and VI d)Only V

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25. Bones, ligaments and muscles are structures that are considered to be lever system in the body for
human movement. Classically, the levers are represented as: first, second and third (I, II and III), classes
of levers depending on their relative positions of the fulcrum, effort and resistance (or load).
Given below are few body part movements (represented as P = backward bending of neck, Q = walking
on toe and R = folding of arm) which can be compared to specific classes of levers. From the options
below identify the correct combination of body part to that of a class of lever.

P Q R
a) P-I, Q-II, R-III
b) P-II, Q-III, R-I
c) P-III, Q-I, R-II
d) P-II, Q-I, R-III
26. The chart represents the relationships between some
plants. In the scheme (P) to (S) represent characters
which distinguish one example from the rest. S
R
Q
P

(i) to (v) below represent some characters related to (P) – (S), but not necessarily in that order:

i. Without vascular tissue

ii. Seeds have two cotyledons
iii. Seeds have one cotyledon
iv. Do not produce seeds
v. Naked seeds

Which one of the following is a correct match between (P to S) with (i to v).

a) (P)-(i); (Q)-(iv); (R)-(v); (S)-(ii) b) (P)-(iv); (Q)-(i); (R)-(v); (S)-(ii)

c) (P)-(i); (Q)-(v); (R)-(iv); (S)-(iii) d) (P)-(i); (Q)-(iv); (R)-(v); (S)-(iii)

27. If 22 g of nitrogen gas, 44 g of oxygen gas and 38 g of carbon dioxide gas are kept in separate
containers at the same temperature and volume, then what will be the order of their pressure?

a) PO₂ < PN₂ < PCO₂ b) PN₂ < PCO₂ < PO₂ c) PN₂ = PO₂ = PCO₂ d) PCO₂ < PO₂ < PN₂

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

28. In the figure given, PQ is a long uniform coil of metal wire, V is a constant voltage source and ASB is a
rheostat. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.

I) The (equivalent) pole at the end P if slider S of rheostat

is moved from A to B is North.

II) The (equivalent) pole at the end P if slider S of rheostat

is moved from A to B is South.

III) The (equivalent) pole at the end P if slider S of rheostat

is moved from B to A is North

IV) The (equivalent) pole at the end P if slider S of rheostat

is moved from B to A is South.

a) Only III and IV are correct b) Only I and II are correct

c) Only II and IV are correct d) Only I and III are correct

29. Which one of the following statements is true about the fate of glucose, following oxidation in the
presence and in the absence of oxygen?

a) In absence of oxygen, glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted to lactate,
while in the presence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted
to acetyl-CoA in the cytosol.
b) In absence of oxygen, glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted to ethanol,
while in the presence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted
to acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria.
c) In absence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted to acetyl-
CoA, while in the presence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is
converted to lactate in the muscle.
d) In absence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted to lactate,
while in the presence of oxygen glucose undergoes only up to glycolysis and pyruvate is converted
to ethanol in bacterial cell.

30. Following experiments were carried out separately in chemistry laboratory in different test tubes,
labelled as (I), (II), (III), and (IV).

(I) Mg + dil. HCl

(II) Al + dil. H2SO4

(III) Cu + dil. HCl

(IV) Mn + dil. HNO3

She observed hydrogen gas is not produced in:

a) Only Test tube (IV) b) Both test tubes (III) and (IV)
c) Only test tube (III) d) Both test tubes (II) and (III)

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

SECTION B
Questions 31 to 42 are long questions. Marks are indicated in the brackets. Answer the
questions only in the answer sheet provided.

QUESTION 31

Average Human Male (70% fluid)

Body weight percentage

Other fluids
&
Blood 8%
Tissues
Percentage by weight
92%

Plasma Formed elements

55% 45%

Percentage by weight Number per cubic mm

Proteins Water Other solutes WBC RBC Platelet

7% 91% 2% 7000 5.2 million
3 3 3,75,000
3
Percentage by weight Per mm Per mm Per mm

Albumin Globulin Fibrinogen

58% 38% 4%

Composition of blood of an Indian male

[WBC: 7000/mm3, RBC: 5.2 million/mm3, Platelets: 3,75,000/mm3 of blood]

31.A. The figure above represents the composition of human blood for an Indian individual weighing 70 kg.
Assume the total fluid to be 70% of the total body weight and average density of whole blood =
1060g/l. With these considerations now calculate the following.
I) Calculate the volume of blood present in a person weighing 70 kg. [1.0]
II) Calculate the total number of nuclear DNA molecules that will be present in the blood cells of the
human. Consider that the human is genetically normal. [1.0]

III) Calculate the total number of moles of albumin present in the total human blood as shown in the
above figure. (M.W. of albumin is 66kDa and assume that 1 a.m.u = 1g) [2.0]

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

31.B. The following is a schematic representation of the circulatory system of humans.

1
2

4
3

Fill the table below by selecting the correct option regarding composition of blood and direction of
blood flow in regions labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4 [2.0]

Label Composition of blood Direction of flow

(choose between oxygenated (choose between away from or
or deoxygenated) towards the heart)
1

[Total = 6 marks]

QUESTION 32

32.A.I) Alumina in nature occurs as a colourless mineral corundum .Being amphoteric it reacts with acids as
well as alkalis. It is used to prepare anhydrous aluminium chloride by passing chlorine gas over
heated mixture of alumina and carbon. Write the balanced chemical equation for the same. [1.0]

II) Double salts of the type M2SO4, M’2(SO4)3.24H2O are called alums.Here M is univalent ion such as
Na+,K+ etc. Whereas M’ is a trivalent ion like Al3+, Fe3+ etc. Potash alum [K2SO4,Al2(SO4)3.24H2O ]
the common alum is manufactured from alum shale which contains iron disulphide and aluminium
silicate (Al2O3.xSiO2 )and that is roasted in excess air to yield aluminium sulphate and ferrous

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

sulphate.Ferrous sulphate is removed by fractional crystallisation and calculated quantity of K2SO4 is

added to the mother liquor which is concentrated to give crystals of alum. Write balanced chemical
equation for roasting of alum shale. [2.0]

32.B. For quantitative analysis 3 g of mixture of sodium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate and sodium
chloride was supplied to students. They found out on gentle heating, the mixture liberates 56 mL of
CO2 at NTP and another 3g of the same mixture requires 30.5mL of 1N hydrochloric acid for
complete neutralization. Calculate the percentage of sodium chloride. [2.0]

[Total = 5 marks]

QUESTION 33

33. A sample of water which gives lather with soap with difficulty is known as hard water, while a sample
of water which gives lather with soap easily is known as soft water.

Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, sulphates and chlorides of calcium and
magnesium. Hardness of water is of two types, temporary and permanent hardness. When hardness of
water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium, it is called temporary
hardness.When hardness of water is due to the presence of sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and
calcium, it is called permanent hardness.

The amount of hardness causing substances in a certain volume of water measures the extent of
hardness or degree of hardness. Hardness of water is always calculated in terms of calcium carbonate
although it is never responsible for causing hardness of water because of its insoluble nature.

The reason for choosing calcium carbonate as the standard for calculating hardness of water is the
ease in calculation as its molecular weight is exactly 100.

Degree of hardness is usually expressed as parts per million (ppm) and thus may be defined as the
number of parts by weight of calcium carbonate (equivalent to calcium and magnesium salt) present in
a million (106) parts by weight of water.

1ppm=1 part of CaCO3 in (106) parts of water.

I) Vishal has two samples of hard water, one contains 2mg of calcium sulphate and 0.5mg of
magnesium chloride per litre of water and another contains 3mg magnesium sulphate per kg of
water. Calculate the degree of hardness of both the samples. [3.5]
II) Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding washing soda, if both temporary and
permanent hardness are present together, then water is softened by addition of caustic soda. Give
balanced chemical equations for softening of hard water. [1.5]

[Total = 5 marks]

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

QUESTION 34

34.A. An earthen pot was filled with 20 litres of water at room temperature of 25˚ C and left closed. After
some time it was found that the temperature of the water has dropped by 5˚ C while the
temperature of the surrounding and the pot remained the same. How much is the amount of water
remaining in the pot? [2.0]
34.B. To get a significant amount of photons of wavelength λ from an LED, the minimum voltage across the
LED should be able to increase the energy of the electrons by an amount equal to the energy of the
photons, E = hc/λ. The value of hc can be taken as 1250 eV-nm. Here eV denotes electron volt and
nm denotes nanometer. A voltage V applied across an LED raises the energy of electron by V eV.

Light Emitting Diode (LED) of a particular brand glows with

significant brightness if 20 mA current passes through it.
While conducting, its resistance is practically negligible
once proper voltage exists across it. A circuit is made as
shown in the figure. There is a fixed series resistance of R =
40 Ω for the purpose of limiting the current and a 5 V
battery is used. Assume that the voltage across the LED is
the minimum required to raise the energy of the electrons
equal to the energy of light photon needed. Estimate the
resistance range of the rheostat if light from wavelength
625 nm (orange-red) to 500 nm (green-cyan) is to be
emitted by the LED. [3.0]
[Total = 5 marks]

QUESTION 35 (For question I – IV, provide only the correct option number in your answer sheet.)

35. Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) is a favorite among

geneticists to study inheritance of characters. Like other
insects the life cycle of Drosophila consists of larvae, pupae
and adults (see below).

It can be easily maintained in the laboratory, has a short

lifecycle, produces large number of progeny and has only four
pairs of chromosomes. The inheritance of eye color and
shape, have been studied by many geneticists. The eye shape
could be round or slit-like (called Bar eyed).

The allele that controls the Bar-eyed phenotype (B) is

dominant over that which controls round shape (b). Although
found in the laboratories, the occurrence of Bar-eyed fruit fly in
nature is extremely rare.

I) A geneticist wanted to study the inheritance of eye shape in

Drosophila. Which one of the following is the necessary pre-
requisite to study inheritance of any character? [1.0] Round eye Bar eye
a) Life cycle should be short.
b) A homozygous line for the character should be available.
c) Variation in character should be available in the population.

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II) From the information given in the write-up which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? [0.5]

a) Bar eye is a mutant character because it is dominant over round.

b) Bar eye is a mutant character because it is found rarely in the nature.
c) Round eye is a mutant type character because it is recessive to Bar.

III) A bar-eyed Drosophila could be homozygous (BB) or heterozygous (Bb) for the gene controlling the
bar-eye shape. In order to differentiate between the two genotypes a geneticist should cross it to a fly
with the genotype [0.5]
a) BB b)Bb c)bb

IV) Variations in phenotypes in Drosophila can be generated in the laboratory by mutagenesis. X-ray is a
known mutagen. In order to generate mutants in Drosophila which one of the following stages in its life
cycle should be treated with X-ray? [0.5]
a) Egg b)Larvae c)Pupae d)Adult

V) The following is a hypothetical situation. A geneticist studies the inheritance of eye shape and color in
a newly identified insect. Like Drosophila there are two eye shapes in this insect: round and bar. Round
is dominant in this case. There are two eye colors: red and white, where red is dominant over white.
Genes for eye-color and eye shape are present on the autosomes.
a) A cross is made between a red, round-eyed and bar, white-eyed insect. What will be the phenotype of
the F1 progeny? [0.5]
b) When the F1 progeny were crossed, the following F2 progeny (phenotype: numbers) was obtained:
Red, round eyed : 899
Red, bar eyed : 301
White, round eyed : 293
White, bar eyed : 107
Based on the above data do the genes for eye color and shape show independent assortment? Yes/No.
[1.0]
c) Calculate the ratio obtained from the given F2 progenies provided as above to prove your choice in (ii).
[1.0]
[Total = 5 marks]

QUESTION 36

36.A. In the circuit diagram given, on removing the

resistor R, it is necessary to have an additional 6Ω
resistance in series with the 6Ω resistance, so that
the current through 8Ω resistor is unchanged.
Determine R. [2.0]

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

36.B. A battery of mobile phone of rating 3.6 V, 3600 mAh

(practically) loses its complete charge in 24 hrs when
connected to a mesh on the largest diagonal points (between
A & C or between D & B) shown below. What is the value of
resistance R of individual arm? (All arms have same
resistance). How long will the battery last if it is connected
across one of the outer arms, say DC (or CB or AB or BC)?
Assume that the battery voltage remains constant throughout
its discharge. [3.0]
[Total = 5 marks]

QUESTION 37 (Provide only the correct option number in your answer sheet.)

37.A. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are processes of formation of the male and the female gametes as
shown below.

http://moodle2.rockyview.ab.ca/pluginfile.php/64201/mod_book/chapter/25797/biology_30/images/m5/b30_m5_036_l.jpg

Answer the following questions, related to gamete formation.

I) If accidentally the primary oocyte is fertilized with a sperm, the resulting zygote will have how many
sets of chromosomes: [0.5]

a) n b)2n c)3n d)4n

II) The middle piece of the sperm contains: [0.5]

a) Mitochondrial DNA only b)No DNA at all

c) Nuclear DNA only d) Nuclear and mitochondrial DNA both

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

III) The most plausible reason for the formation of polar bodies during oocyte development is [0.5]

a) to retain large quantity of cytoplasm in the oocyte.

b) to retain chromosomes in the oocyte.
c) to retain both chromosomes and cytoplasm in the oocyte.
d) to retain the egg membrane which is essential for fertilization.

IV) Which one of the following statements is true regarding normal oocyte development? [0.5]

a) Primary oocytes are produced after a female attains puberty (post puberty).
b) Primary oocytes are already produced in the ovary when a girl is born.
c) Primary oocytes are produced in the ovary just before the female attains puberty (pre puberty).

37.B. ‘Triple parent’ is a novel concept of creating embryos using DNA from three people. This technique can
prevent passing of genetic diseases due to defects in mitochondria from a mother to her babies. This
technique involves removing the nuclear DNA from a healthy female donor's eggs and replacing it
with the nuclear DNA of the prospective mother. After fertilization, the resulting child would inherit
the mother's nuclear DNA and the donor's healthy mitochondrial DNA. If approved for use, the
technique would allow a woman to give birth to a baby who would inherit the normal nuclear DNA
but not the defective mitochondrial DNA.
I) The concept of a triple parent involves:
a) Three females and no requirement of male
b) One male and two females in which the other parent (female donor) is not genetically involved
c) One male and two females all contributing genetically
d) One female and two males all contributing genetically
[0.5]
II) Given below are few statements regarding triple parent technique. Mark them as true (T) or false (F),
by identifying them as either correct or incorrect statements. [2.5]

a) This technique can also be useful for father with defective mitochondrial genes.
b) This technique will not work for mother or father with defective nuclear genes.
c) The child produced by the technique will contain some foreign genes from a third parent.
d) The chance of transmission of foreign gene to the next generation (by normal reproduction involving
two parents) will be almost zero if the triple parent technique generates a male.
e) The offspring produced by the triple parent technique will be affected if the third parent has a
genetic defect in the nuclear genes.

[Total = 5 marks]

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

QUESTION 38

38.A. An artificially prepared dense glass is used to prepare

imitation jewelry. Consider a hemisphere of such a glass
placed with its flat surface horizontal. The figure shows a
vertical cross section of the hemisphere passing through
its centre C. A wide, parallel beam of monochromatic
light (for which, the refractive index of this glass is √3)
falls on the flat surface, in the plane of drawing, at an
angle of incidence 600.

Is it possible that all the rays of this beam emerge from

�
the spherical surface? (You may use � ≅ sin 35�)
√

If your answer is YES, give the range of corresponding

angles of emergence.

If your answer is NO, determine the part of the spherical surface (shown in the figure) through which
the emergence is possible. You may state your answer in terms of the angles made by the extreme
points of the spherical surface at the centre. Diagram given, may not be to the scale. [3.0]

38.B. A 7 m long uniform rope of mass 140 g is hanging freely from a ceiling. A transverse pulse is generated
�
at the free end, which travels up to the top. Speed of wave (or pulse) along a string is given by 𝑣 = ��
where T is tension along the string and λ is the linear density. Using g = 10 m/s2, calculate the speed of
the pulse at 5 different distances at every 1 m from free end.

Plot variation in the speed against the distance from the bottom. Using your graph determine the
speed of the pulse at the midpoint of the string (indicate it on the graph provided in the answer
sheet). [2.0]

[Total = 5 marks]

QUESTION 39

39.A. A hydrocarbon contained 10.5g of carbon per gm of hydrogen. One litre of the hydrocarbon vapours
at 127 °C and 1 atm pressure weighed 2.8g. Help Sakshi to find the molecular formula of the
hydrocarbon. [3.0]

39.B. 40 mL of mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases was placed in a gas burette at 48°C and 1 atm
pressure. A spark was applied so that the formation of water is complete. The volume of the
remaining hydrogen gas was 10 ml at 48°C and 1 atm pressure. Find the initial mole percentage of
hydrogen in the mixture. [2.0]

[Total = 5 marks]

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

QUESTION 40 (For question III – VI, provide only the correct option number in your answer
sheet.)

I. Which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE for state 1 and state 2? [0.75]
a) State 1 is observed specifically on the adaxial surface of mesophytic leaf during day time.
b) State 2 is obtained when guard cells absorb moisture from sub-stomatal space.
c) Uneven thickness of guard cell wall favours the stomatal movement.

II. Consider the above figures and fill in the blanks. [1.75]
The labeled region designated as ‘A’ in the figure above is/are the epidermal cell(s) with (i) _________
(chloroplast/rhodoplast/leucoplast). In daylight (the region labeled as ‘A’) makes carbohydrates by the
process of (ii)_________ (chemosynthesis/photosynthesis/ respiration). This (iii) __________
(increases/decreases) the water potential of (the region ‘A’). Water enters cell by (iv) ___________
(endosmosis/diffusion/pinocytosis) whereby water moves from (v) ________ (higher/lower) water
potential to (vi) _________ (higher/lower) water potential. Now, the region ‘B’ reaches state 1 due to
(vii) ____________ (increase/decrease) in turgidity.

III. Closing of stomata is likely to cause the following physiological changes EXCEPT [0.25]
a) Decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.
b) Decrease in the rate of transpiration.
c) Decrease in the rate of nitrogen fixation.
d) Decrease in the rate of water uptake.

IV. Which one of the following represents the correct statement about the tonicity of environment around
cell A in state 1? [0.25]
a) The environment is hypertonic with respect to cell A.
b) The environment is hypotonic with respect to cell A.
c) The environment is isotonic with respect to cell A.

V. Water Potential is the difference in the free energy or chemical potential per unit molar volume of
water in a system compared to that of pure water at the same temperature and pressure. Water
potential of pure water at normal temperature and pressure is zero. This value is considered to be the
highest. The presence of solid particles reduces the free energy of water and decreases the water
potential. Therefore, water potential of a solution is always less than zero or it has negative value. If

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INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD January 28, 2017

the water potential (Ψ) of guard cell placed in distilled water is measured as 0.0 MPa and the water
potential (Ψ) of 0.1M glucose solution is – 0.23 MPa, what will be result if guard cells are placed in
0.1M glucose solution. [0.25]
a) Glucose will flow into guard cells
b) Water will flow into the guard cell
c) Water will flow out from the guard cell
d) Nothing will happen as the process will also depend on energy input.

VI. When chemical “X” is sprayed on plants, it results in wilting. The probable explanation for this is:
[0.75]

a) Stoma remains in state 1 for an extended period of time.

b) Stoma remains in state 2 for an extended period of time.
c) The stomatal pore gets blocked by the chemical.

[Total = 4 marks]

QUESTION 41

41. During respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form carbon dioxide, water
and production of energy. Atmospheric air consists of 20 % oxygen by volume, only 5% of that oxygen
is consumed by the body in each breath of an average person at STP. According to the study an
average person at rest inhales 8 litres of air per minute. In 3.5 hrs, how much glucose is used up by an
average person at rest? Find the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled during the process. [5.0]

[Total = 5 marks]
QUESTION 42

42. Hydrogen has two isotopes: Hydrogen (H), whose nucleus has one proton only and deuteron (D) which
has one proton and one neutron in the nucleus. Heavy water is formed when one or both hydrogen
nuclei are replaced by Deuterons i. e. making it HDO or D2O.
A scientist takes 40 percent (volume) of heavy water D2O and 60 percent (volume) H2O and thoroughly
mixes it to make a total of 1000 L. D2O and H2O have nearly similar physical and chemical properties.
The data given below is adjusted close to the realistic values so that the calculations become simple.
Hence the data is valid for this question only. Also assume that HDO, the other form of heavy water,
does not get formed.

The scientist is conducting an experiment to calculate the specific heat capacity of D2O in its frozen
stage. As a first step he freezes it to exactly 00C and then heats it slowly in a chamber which is thermally
insulated from atmosphere. After providing 387160 kJ of energy the combination reaches 100C.

Given the data, calculate the specific heat of ice formed from D2O and give the graphical representation
(qualitative, with appropriate values marked) of the entire process on the axes drawn on the graph
paper provided in the answer sheet.
[5.0]

[Total = 5 marks]

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