PREBOARD EXAMINATION I

Nursing Practice III

CARDIO
1. A patient is receiving treatment for premature ventricular contractions – (skipped beat). What finding will be noted if
treatment is effective? – NORMAL IF LESS THAN 6/MIN; >6 is SEVERE
A. PVCs are now 3x/min. in frequency
B. PVCs are now multifocal – severe
C. PVCs fall on the T wave – severe
D. PVCs occur in pairs – severe

2. What drug is usually prescribed post mechanical valve replacement in patients with Valvular heart disease?
A. Aspirin
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Morphine

3. A patient with acute pericarditis is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following will alleviate the pain?
A. Coughing and deep breathing
B. Left lateral position
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. Sitting up and leaning forward

4. When monitoring the CVP, where should the nurse place the zero point of the transducer?
A. fourth intercostal space at the midaxillary line
B. fifth intercostal space midclavicular line – PMI
C. PMI – ICS
D. Erb’s point – 3RD ICS

5. A patient has Hypertension. What medication/food needs to be avoided?

A. Phenytoin
B. Grapefruit
C. Cantaloupe
D. Antacid – AVOID

6. A patient is scheduled for a technetium-99m ventriculography or MUGA scan. – (DETECT M.I) What should be
prepared?
A. Informed consent
B. Notation of allergy to shellfish
C. Urinary catheter placement
D. CVP line placement

7. What medication is administered if a patient on ECG monitor exhibits ventricular tachycardia?

A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Atropine – sinus brady with shock
C. Diltiazem (Cardizem) – pangpa baba ng BP
D. Metoprolol (Lopressor) – pangpa baba ng BP

8. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which of the following is
contraindicated with the client?
A. Heparin
B. Coumadin
C. Blood Transfusions
D. FFP
9. What is the drug of choice for Prinzmetal Angina?
A. Morphine – for intractable angina
B. Nitroglycerin – for stable and post infarction angina
C. Diltiazem
D. Metoprolol - contraindicated

10. A patient is diagnosed with cardiac tamponade – (high pressure). Which of the following indicates that
Pericardiocentesis is effective? – effective pag nagbago s/sx
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Absent heart sounds
C. Low urine output
D. Decreased diastolic filling

11. What starting energy range level is set in monophasic defibrillators? -360 J
A. 50 J
B. 120 J – biphasic defibrillator (120-200 J)
C. 200 J
D. 360 J

12. Correct assessment when patient is having abdominal pain? ASSESSMEN: IAPercussPalpate
A. Any quadrant first
B. The symptomatic quadrant first
C. The symptomatic quadrant last
D. The symptomatic quadrant either second or third

SITUATION: The nurse is caring for patients in the Intensive Care Unit.

13. The low-pressure alarm for the patient’s radial arterial line sounds. He is 2 hours post aortic valve replacement.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for bleeding at the tube connection sites – 1st
B. Perform a fast flush of the arterial line system
C. Re-level the transducer to the phlebostatic axis -2nd
D. Zero and re-balance the monitor and system -3rd

14. A patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 250/245 mmHg is admitted for hypertensive crisis. The doctor prescribes a
continuous IV infusion of nitroprusside sodium -pangpaa baba ng BP. Which of these is the priority goal in the initial
management of hypertensive crisis?
A. Decrease the MAP by no more than 25% - maintain MAP 110-115 to ensure perfusion status
B. Keep blood pressure at or below 120/80 mmHg
C. Maintain heart rate (HR) of 60-100/min
D. Maintain urine output of at least 30ml/hr – greater that 30ml to ensure sign of renal perfussion

15. Which statement is true about crackles?

A. They’re grating sounds. – pleural friction rubs
B. They’re high-pitched, musical squeaks - Wheezes
C. They’re low-pitched noises that sound like snoring. – gurgles
D. They may be fine, medium, or course.
ORTHO

16. What type of bone plays a major role in the body because of their function?
A. Long bone
B. Short bone
C. Flat bone color: red →RBC → bone marrow
D. Irregular bone

17. What is the purpose of external fixator (pangpa stabilize) in surgical repair of Colle’s fracture?
A. has very low complication rate
B. maintains reduction and hand function - do pin care assess.
C. it’s less bothersome than a cast
D. promotes faster healing

18. A patient with a fractured femur – (long bone;color-yellow) suddenly exhibits difficulty of breathing. What
position will you place your patient in?
A. High Fowlers
B. Durant’s – left sided Trendelenburg
C. Left side lying
D. Right side lying

19. You found your patient with an empty IV bottle and is exhibiting difficulty of breathing. What position will you place
your patient in?

A. High Fowlers
B. Durant’s
C. Left side lying
D. Right side lying

20. Your patient reports a throbbing, burning sensation in the right foot that is worse during the day. The patient also
reported that it is relieved with rest.

A. Pescavus
B. Mortons neuroma - masakit ang paa
C. Hallux valgus
D. Onychocryptosis – ingrown

21. What is the proper position for a patient 2 days postop above-the-knee amputation?
A. On the abdomen
B. Supine position
C. Elevate stump on pillow – on the 1st 24 hours
D. High Fowler’s position

SITUATION: The nurse is discussing the prevention of osteoporosis with a group of clients.

22. Which among the following factors do NOT keep the bones strong?

A. An adequate calcium intake

B. Maintenance of a low weight – for Osteoarthritis
C. Sufficient estrogen levels
D. Weight-bearing exercises
SITUATION: Carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected.

23. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe which of the following to confirm the diagnosis?

A. Total CO
B. CBC
C. COHb
D. Total Minoxidil

24. A nurse is monitoring the results of serial arterial blood gases of Mang Juan who is asking for the oxygen mask to be
removed. The nurse determines that the oxygen may be safely removed once the level of _____ in the previous item
decreases to less than:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 25%

25. A nurse is setting up oxygen for Mang Juan. He is to receive oxygen at 10 L per non-rebreather mask. It is
important for the nurse to do the following EXCEPT:

A. Adjust the flow rate to keep the reservoir bag inflated greater than 2/3 full during inspiration
B. Monitor the patient carefully for risk of aspiration – for face mask
C. Make sure the valves and rubber flaps are patent, functional, and not stuck
D. Remind the client and his wife of the smoking policy

26. Mang Juan is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning: mukhang lasing

A. Appears intoxicated
B. Presents with severe hypertension
C. Appears hyperactive
D. Will always present with a cherry red skin coloring

27. What type of pain travels all the way down the back of the leg and to the foot?
A. Bursitis
B. Radiculopathy
C. Tendonitis – inflammation of tendons
D. Sciatica – bend your knees

28. What is the best position for an extremity that is newly casted?

A. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour

B. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour
C. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours
D. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours – minimize swelling and promote venous drainage
29. What will be the best assistive device for a patient with slight weakness of the right leg?

a. Lofstrand crutch – limited arm strength

b. Walker – Bilateral weakness
c. Wooden crutch – leg casts
d. Straight leg cane

30. What will be the best assistive device for a patient with partial hemiplegia of the left leg ?

a. Quad cane – four-point base

b. Wheelchair
c. Lofstrand crutch
d. Aluminum crutch

PERIOPERATIVE

SITUATION: Care of clients undergoing surgery extends until after the surgical procedure is done. Nurses
must know how to handle post-op clients.

31. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a splenectomy. When planning care in the immediate postoperative
period the nurse should avoid using which position?

A. Left side-lying
B. Right side-lying
C. Prone
D. Supine – promotes lung expansion

32. A client has undergone with penile implant (manage impotence). After 24 hrs of surgery, the client’s scrotum
was edematous and painful. The nurse should:

A. Assist the client with sitz bath

B. Apply warm soaks in the scrotum
C. Elevate the scrotum using a soft support – increases lymphatic drainage, reducing edema and pain
D. Prepare for a possible incision and drainage.

33. A client who is scheduled for a bowel resection tomorrow has just completed preoperative teaching by nurses.
Which of the following statements to the nurse indicates the client needs further instruction on postoperat ive care?

a. “I know I’ll have pain after surgery, but I can always call the nurses for medication.” – EXPECTED
b. “They will be taking my pulse and blood pressure many times after the operation.” – MONITOR VS
c. “The intravenous needle will be removed in the recovery room.”
d. “I’ll show you how I can deep breath and cough.” – (+) Promote lung expansion → prevent ATELECTASIS
34. An adult client is scheduled for a colonoscopy under anesthesia. Which statement by the client indicates he
understands the prescribed preparation regimen?

A. “All I need to do is give myself a packaged enema the morning of the procedure.”
B. “I will eat only jell-o and drink clear liquids for two days before the test.”
C. “I will take the dye tablets with water the night before the test.”
D. “All I have to do is not eat anything after midnight the night before the test.”

35. Your client has just had major surgery. He refuses to reposition or deep breathe because of fear of pain. He also
refuses to take pain medication for fear of addiction. Your best response to this client is to:

A. Let him be because nurses must always respect patient’s autonomy

B. Inform him that he has to take the pain medication to relieve pain
C. Educate him about the benefits of pain relief and risk of addiction
D. Inform him that it is best to follow doctor’s order

36. Bianca, a client who is scheduled to undergo a minor surgery, states, "The physician will not give me pain
medication after the surgery because my surgery is only minor." The best response by Nurse Kelly is:

A. "You are correct. I will need to teach you nonpharmacologic pain relief measures."
B. " You can only have about half the dose since your surgery is minor."
C. "You are correct. The physician will not order any pain medication."
D. "You can experience pain after minor surgery, so you can have pain medication ."

37. Another client has been NPO since midnight for an elective procedure scheduled for early afternoon. His
normal morning medications are Lanoxin 0.125 mg, Colace 100 mg, and Pepcid 40 mg. The nurse should: - limited
lang ibibigay.

A. Administer all medications as ordered with a sip of water.

B. Hold all medications before surgery.
C. Administer the Lanoxin only with a sip of water.
D. Request the medications in liquid form for easy digestion.

SITUATION: A patient is for Exploratory Laparotomy

38. A patient has been on NPO for 6 hours. The nurse checks his CBG and reads 40mg/dl on the glucometer.
The client is awake, alert, and coherent and reports “I feel just fine.” What is your next nursing action?

A. Record the finding in the notes and withhold the client’s morning insulin -
may be appropriate but the nurse must reconfirm pt’s bld glucose first as
he isnt manifesting any symptoms if hypoglycemia
B. Take a repeat sample of CBG - best next nursing action
C. Give client simple sugar by mouth - pt is not in hypogly
D. Administer dextrose 50g IV immediately
E.
39. Upon arrival in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), the nurse performs the initial assessment of a client who had
surgery under general anesthesia. Which assessment finding prompts the nurse to notify the physician immediately?

a. Difficult to arouse
b. Muscle stiffness – sign of malignant hyperthermia -- PRIORITY
c. Pinpoint pupils
d. Temperature of 96F

40. After surgery for bilateral adrenalectomy, the client is kept on bed rest for several days to stabilize the body’s need
for steroids postoperatively. Which of the following exercises has been found to be especially helpful in preparing a
client for ambulation after a period of bed rest?

a. Alternately flexing and extending the knees.

b. Alternately abducting and adducting the legs.
c. Alternately stretching the Achilles tendons.
d. Alternately flexing and relaxing the quadriceps femoris muscles.

41. Who is the priority patient?

a. 1-day postoperative client with lower abdominal pain and no urine output for 6 hours – EXPECTED
b. An elderly client with blood pressure of 190/88 mmHg who is asymptomatic – EXPECTED
c. Client with hepatitis C virus who has ALT/AST values 4 times the normal value – EXPECTED
d. Client who underwent thyroidectomy yesterday and now has positive Trousseau’s sign → Sign of Hypocalcemia =
accidental removal/damage of parathyroid. – UNEXPECTED

PAIN

SITUATION: As a staff nurse in Marupok Hospital, Nurse Kelly exhibits her competency in caring for patients
experiencing pain

42. Kelly is working as a staff nurse in Marupok Hospital where she takes care of several patients experiencing pain.
During her shift, she must be well-informed about the action and the duration of the drugs that she gives. When asked
by a patient about the duration of action for most opiates, she is correct when she answers:

a. 4 hours – effect of opiates

b. 8 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 6 hours

43. Nurse Kelly is performing discharge teaching for Kristina, a client taking an NSAID. The client states she has been
taking an antacid with this medication because it helps her decrease the incidence of upset stomach. The nurse's best
response is:

a. "Antacids reduce the absorption and therefore the effectiveness of the NSAID."
b. "Antacids help to reduce the incidence of pain."
c. "Antacids help to reduce the incidence of gastric bleeding that could occur with the use of NSAIDs."
d. d. "Antacids should never be taken with an NSAID."
44. While Nurse Kelly is caring for an 8-month-old infant, which of the following is the best tool that she should use for
evaluating pain in this infant?

a. FLACC scale – from 2 months to 7 years old.

b. Wong-Baker FACES – used for pt who cannot understand numerical pain scale
c. 11 point-pain intensity scale – includes word modifier
d. Any of the above

45. Nurse Kelly is caring for Bret, a client presenting to the emergency department with a possible sprained ankle. This
client is most likely experiencing what type of pain?
a. Severe pain
b. Mild pain
c. Visceral pain – internal organs
d. Somatic pain – skin mucsles bones

ENDOCRINE

46. A patient diagnosed with Hypothyroidism was prescribed Synthroid.- increases thyroid hhormones Upon
reading patient’s data you found out he is also taking Warfarin. What modification in the patient’s plan of care should
be made?

a. A decreased dosage of synthroid

b. An increased dosage of synthroid
c. A decreased dosage of warfarin
d. An increased dosage of warfarin

47. What instructions should you give in patients taking Pramlinitide → pt with use of insulin? *

a. “Take prescribed oral medications 1 hour before or 2 hours after the injection." – prevent GIT upset
b. "Inject the pramlintide at the same time you take your other medications."
c. "Take pramlinitide with food."
d. "Take pramlinitide immediately after eating to prevent hypoglycemia."

48. You will teach a patient taking bethanechol (Urecholine) →(for patients with Urinary obstructions) to?
→ Promotes urination
a. take with meals
b. take at bedtime
c. use bed pan or urinal to ↑ urine output
d. take 2 hours after meals
49. Doctor’s order: Administer regular insulin 6 units/hr. The RN has an IV bag of 100 ml NS with 20 units of regular
insulin. How many ml/hr should be given to the pt.?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

50. Which endocrine gland is responsible for the body’s circadian rhythm?

a. Pineal
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid
d. Hypothalamus

51. Which statement regarding the structures of the endocrine system requires clarification?

a. the thyroid is an endocrine gland - CORRECT

b. the pancreas is an endocrine gland – CORRECT
c. the thymus is an endocrine gland – NOT AN ENDOCRINE GLAND
d. the hypothalamus is an endocrine gland

52. Which student statement regarding the function of the pituitary gland requires clarification from the
instructor?
a. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in development.” – not related to development BUT Growth
b. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in maintaining blood pressure.”
c. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in fluid balance within the body.”
d. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in the process of labor during childbirth.”

53. Which nerve is essential for the accurate secretion of melatonin by the endocrine system ?
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Optic nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Sciatic nerve

54. Realizing that hyponatremia results in muscle weakness, what is the priority assessment required in the client with
this diagnosis?
a. effectiveness of hand grips
b. effectiveness of standing
c. effectiveness of GI motility
d. effectiveness of the diaphragm

55. What renal problem is suspected for a client that presents with a magnesium level of 4.0 mEq/L? Normal: 1.3-2.1

a. renal stones
b. solitary kidney
c. renal calculi
d. renal failure
Situation: Jacob, 45 years old, presents to the emergency department with nausea, and steady epigastric pain
centered near the navel that radiates to the back. Blood studies reveal elevated amylase, lipase, and while blood cell
count levels. The client is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis.

56. The pancreas functions as both an exocrine and endocrine gland. Which of these is an example of its exocrine
function? – AMYLASE, LIPASE, TRYPSIN
a. The pancreas produces hydrochloric acid – Parietal cells → stomach
b. Amylase is produced in the acinar cells
c. Insulin is produced into islets of Langerhans – endocrine
d. The pancreas secretes its enzymes into the stomach – small intestine

57. The patient with acute pancreatitis may report that his pain decreases:

a. When he lies on his stomach

b. After vomiting
c. After eating a large meal
d. When he lies on his side with his knees drawn toward his chest

58. Patients recovering from acute pancreatitis should eat foods that are: ACUTE PANCREATITIS – first order → NPO
STATUS

a. Low in carbohydrates, and high in fats and CHON

b. Low in carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
c. High in carbohydrates and fats, and low in CHON
d. High in carbohydrates, and low in fats and CHON

59. A patient is scheduled for Esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Which of the following imbalances should be monitored?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypomagnesemia

IMMUNO

60. Which among the DMARDs – for (Rheumatoid Arthritis) may cause retinal damage?

a. D-Penicillamine
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Hydrochloroquine
d. Azathioprine

61. What physiologic state is achieved when the primary infection has subsided, and an equilibrium now exists
between HIV RNA levels and the patient’s immune response

a. Static stage
b. Latent stage
c. Viral set point
d. Window period
62. A patient has come into contact with HIV. As a result, HIV glycoproteins have fused with the patients CD4+ T -cell
membranes. This process characterizes what phase in the HIV life cycle?

a. Integration
b. Attachment
c. Cleavage
d. Budding

63. What is true during the primary infection stage of HIV? May infection na pero wala pang antibodies

a. The patients HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus.
b. The patient is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies.
c. The patients risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak.
d. The patient may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

64. What should be monitored when taking Didanosine?

a. Protein levels
b. Amylase levels
c. Creatinine levels
d. CBG

65. A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this
patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patient’s diarrhea?
1 point

a. Zithromax
b. Sandostatin
c. Levaquin
d. Biaxin

66. What drug increases body fat stores and has been found to promote significant weight gain in patients with AIDS.

a. Estradiol
b. Momordicacharantia
c. Megestrol
d. Ranitidine

67. The CD4+ count of an HIV patient is 45 cells/mL. The nurse recognizes the patients increased risk for
Mycobacterium aviumcomplex (MAC disease). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug?

a. Azithromycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Fluconazole
68. Shortly after transfusion of PRBC, the patient begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. The
patient is suffering from which type of hypersensitivity?

a. Anaphylactic (type 1)
b. Cytotoxic (type II)
c. Immunecomplex (type III)
d. Delayed type (type IV)

69. Which of the following individuals would be the most appropriate candidate for immunotherapy?

a. A patient who had an anaphylactic reaction to an insect sting – TYPE 1

b. A child with allergies to eggs and dairy – TYPE 2
c. A patient who has had a positive tuberculin skin test – TYPE 4
d. A patient with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen

70. Antihistamines would be contraindicated in the care of which patient?

a. Patient who had been diagnosed with tuberculosis

b. Patient who is undergoing estrogen-replacement therapy
c. Pregnant woman at 36 AOG
d. Patient taking Sinupret

71. What is most indicative of SLE? – Butterfly rash

a. Facial rash
b. Joint pain
c. Emboli
d. 2 hemoglobin S gene
72. What is true of pemphigus?

a. Skin will have tiny red vesicles – eczema

b. It is caused by a virus – herpes hoster
c. It is an autoimmune disease that cause bullae
d. Skin will have red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales – Psoriasis

73. Which client population is most at risk for developing this type of “latex” allergy?
a. Hairdressers
b. The homeless
c. Children in day care center
d. Individuals living in a group home

74. What food has been associated with latex allergy?

a. Milk
b. Shellfish
c. Hazelnut
d. Egg

PALMR

SITUATION: The relationship between leadership and management continues to prompt some debates, but it is clear
that these two works relatively together. Management is efficiency in climbing the ladder of success; leadership
determines whether the ladder is leaning against the right wall.

75. When interviewing for a position on a hospital nursing unit, Lucy, the nurse applicant learns that member s of the
nursing staff in the unit are allowed to develop and deliver in-services and participate on hospital committees. She
concludes that this nursing unit utilizes which of the following models?

a. Nurse-manager decision making model

b. Decision-making model
c. Centralized decision making – isa lang nasusunod
d. Shared governance model – most innovative and idealistic

76. Raymond is employed as the Head of HR department of R Hospital. Together with her co -HR employees they
ensure that newly employed nurses will be well-oriented with the institution’s rules and regulations, policies and
procedures. Julia with other HR workers in the training department is given an authority under what type of
organization?

a. Informal Organization – horizontal relationship

b. Line organization - simplest and most direct type of organization
c. Staff organization -
d. Functional organization – all unit is responsible; depende sa workload
77. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the

A. Left most box

B. Middle
C. Right most box – occupied by the highest authority
D. Bottom

78. The nurse manager who is managing fiscal resources would consider which of the following to be a variable
cost? → nagbabago depende sa demand
a. Lease
b. Medications
c. Electricity
d. Telephone service

79. The researcher wishes to test for the difference between means where there are 3 or more groups consisting if
interval level data. Which statistical test is most appropriate to be used by the researcher?

a. T-test – 2
b. Paired T-test
c. ANOVA test
d. Chi-square test - 1

80. The unit manager checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is
NOT necessary?

a. Certificate of previous employment

b. Record of related learning experience (RLE)
c. Membership to accredited professional organization
d. Recommendation letter

81. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?
→Contolling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done.

a. The things that were planned are done - <0.05 – SIGNIFICANT DATA
b. Physicians do not complain
c. Employees are contended
d. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate

82. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the
consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?

a. Validity
b. Reliability – CONSISTENT
c. Sensitivity
d. Objectivity
83. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?

a. Sensitivity – allow the respondents to distinguish differences of the options

b. Reliability
c. Validity
d. Objectivity

84. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be
measure?

a. Validity – ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the research topic. “namemeasure
yung gusting i-measure”
b. Reliability
c. Meaningfulness
d. Sensitivity

SITUATION: Nursing students must realize that to practice nursing, one must understand what is meant by
professional nursing and how one may qualify to practice.

85. To maintain competency in nursing, Nurse Mian attended a 2 hour seminar about psychiatric nursing. A nd at one
time she became a resource speaker at one convention lasting 2 hours. Her equivalent credit units based on
Continuing Professional Education for professionals is:

a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18

86. The Chairperson and six members shall be appointed by the President of the Republic of the Philippines. Nominees
to fill up the vacancies will be submitted by:

a. Professional Regulations Commission

b. Accredited Professional Organization
c. Commission on Appointment
d. Associations of Deans of College of Nursing in the Philippines (ADCNP)

87. To prescribe, adopt, issue and promulgate guidelines, regulations, measures, and decisions for the improvement of
nursing practice is the responsibility of:

a. Professional Regulations Commission

b. Philippine Nurses Association
c. Associations of Deans of College of Nursing in the Philippines (ADCNP)
d. Board of Nursing (BON)
88. Nurse Aya is a public health nurse employed by the City Government of Pasig. She is required to be a member of
GSIS or SSS retirement fund under which law?

a. Presidential decree 626

b. Presidential decree 651
c. Presidential decree 1636
d. Republic Act 1054

89. Based on which law can a patient with Leprosy be treated in government clinic, rural health unit by a duly
licensed physician?

a. RA 4073
b. RA 6365
c. PD 1636
d. LOI 47

90. An Act that requires all communicable diseases to be reported to the nearest health station is under:

a. RA 3753
b. RA 3537GG
c. RA 3573
d. RA 3375

SITUATION: Human sexuality encompasses the sexual knowledge, beliefs, attitudes, values, and behaviors of
individuals. It deals with the anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry of the sexual response system; roles, identity,
and personality; and individual thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and relationships.
91. All of the following are examples of characteristics that relate to sexuality. Which is not included?

a. Maricar, who is a newly sexually active

b. Kimberly, who is unmarried and pregnant
c. Gemma, who is a rape survivor
d. Melai, who is a professor of sex education
92. While caring for a client with an issue about sexuality, the following actions are appropriate responses by the nurse
except:

a. Addressing the client’s concern in a non judgmental manner

b. Assuring the client that all conversations will be kept confidential
c. Sharing the information revealed by the client to the other staff in the unit to facilitate continuity of care
d. Referring the client to family planning counselor, psychologist, or other resources within or outside of the
institution.

SITUATION: Delegation is a critical leadership skill that must be learned. It is essential to accomplish
organizational goals.

93. Delegation is directing the performance of one or more people to accomplish organizational goals. Nurse Agnes,
the head nurse of the pediatric unit will resort to under delegation →(hndi binibigay yung dapat gawin) if she:

a. Believes that her staff is able to make sound clinical judgment

b. Assumes that delegation means that she does not do her job completely
c. Has poor time management
d. Feels insecure in her ability to perform a task

94. A registered nurse delegates complicated wound care for client who had just been from surgery 24 hours
ago to a nursing aide. The nursing aide has only changed this type of dressing once to a client who had been
scheduled for discharge. The component of delegation the Registered nurse neglected is:

a. Authority
b. Competency
c. Communication
d. Responsibility

95. A charge nurse begins the shift overwhelmed by many nursing care activities that need to be completed. The staff
has been working short-handed for months, and the charge has become reluctant to delegate nursing activities
such as checking the code cart and performing narcotic counts to other qualified staff. When questioned by
the nursing supervisor about insufficient delegation, the nurse explains that which barrier is of key of concern at this
time?

a. Inadequate support – kulang yung tao para mabigay yung best delegation
b. Disorganization
c. Hostile environment
d. Incompetence
SITUATION: Nurses realize that they have to keep with the many changes in the health care system and its delivery of
services to the people. These developments require that nurses continue updating their knowledge, skills and
attitudes to competently and adequately meet those changing needs.

96. Julia is a unit representative to a hospital committee that reviews medication errors. One error under current
review occurred on a medical unit that is poorly staffed, requiring each nurse to be assigned to 8 clients. The
nurse anticipates that this medication error most likely occurred because of which of the following?

a. Faulty systems
b. Unit-specific conditions
c. Failure in processes
d. Pharmacy error

97. Nurse Legarda works in a tertiary hospital. The hospital has an ongoing assurance program. Which of the following
actions indicates that Nurse Legarda is performing outcome evaluation of quality care?

a. Checks the equipment for its calibration schedule

b. Determining the staffing pattern require in each unit to provide effective nursing care
c. Determing if the nurse’s check the client;s indentification band before giving the medication
d. Determining how many clients who are suffering from CVA developed bed sores – DEVIANCE → out of
normal/expected

98. Rose, the nurse leader notes that the average length of hospital stay for client with diabetes mellitus is higher than
for non-diabetic clients. In investigating the reasons for this discrepancy, the nurse leader should fir st plan to review
which of the following?

a. Current policies and procedures

b. Specific outcome indicators
c. Evidenced-based research
d. Current clinical practice

99. Dr. Araneta, together with Dr. Gil Puyat, both are general practitioners, develop a study regarding a medication
that may inhibit the growth of intestinal flora as to prevent the occurrence of peptic ulcers. After their intensive
research and study they have concluded that the medication they ought to formulate cannot be distributed to
pharmacies and not to be sold. Their disciples continued their research, and found out that the medication the two
doctors had conceptualized is really effective. Knowing this, you concluded that Dr. Araneta and Dr. Gil Puyat
committed which type of error?

a. Type 1 error – false positive; tinanggap yung MALI

b. Type 2 error – false negative; ni-reject yung TAMA
c. Sampling bias
d. Systematic error
100. Mr. V. Mapa is to conduct a study on high school students in Fort Bonifacio High School reflecting how many
percent of high school students both boys and girls who are currently smoking. Considering the intellectual levels of
each student, he decided to formulate questions that are preferred for some respondents who are unable to express
themselves well.
The type of questionnaire this exemplifies is:

a. Open-ended questionnaire
b. Close-ended questionnaire
c. Standardized questionnaire
d. Free-form questionnaire