CLASS : 9

Test Assess Achieve

Class : 9 Mathematics

01. In ABC, point D divides side AC so that AD : DC = 1 : 2.

Let E be the mid point of BD and AE extend to F
which lies on BC. If area of ABC is 360 cm2, then what
is the area of EBF ?

E
B C
F

(A) 24 cm2 (B) 30 cm2

(C) 20 cm2 (D) 40 cm2
02. Choose the measure of ‘x’ from the figure.

25°

125° x

(A) 25° (B) 30° (C) 35° (D) 45°

Paper Code : UN489 1

 CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

03.
3
 
Select the quotient if x  2 2 is divided by x  2 .  
(A) (x2 + x + 2) (B)  x2  2x  2 
(C)  x2  2x  2  (D) (x2 – x + 2)

04. Choose the simplest value of 10 + 24  60  40

(A)  2 3 5  (B)  3 2 5 
(C)  5 3 2  (D)  2 3 5 
 2x + 1   2x + 1 
05. If p(x) =   , then identify the value p  .
 x 2   x  2 

3x x 2x
(A) (B) (C) x (D)
2 2 3
06. The product of two irrational numbers is always a/an
___________.
(A) Irrational number (B) Rational number
(C) Integer (D) Real number
07. Select the greatest option.

(A)  11  3  (B) 3  7 
(C)  7 5  (D)  5 3 

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Test Assess Achieve

08. From the figure choose the measure of ABC.

O
130°
A C

B
(A) 115° (B) 50° (C) 100° (D) 65°
09. P is an interior point of a parallelogram ABCD. If area
of APD + area of BPC = 24 cm2, then what is the area
of the parallelogram ABCD ?
(A) 72 cm2 (B) 48 cm2
(C) 96 cm2 (D) 100 cm2
10. In a trapezium ABCD, AB||DC. If AB = 32 cm, BC = 41
cm, CD = 50 cm and DA = 41 cm, then choose the area
of the trapezium ABCD.
(A) 1960 cm2 (B) 1860 cm2
(C) 1600 cm2 (D) 1640 cm2
11. From the figure, find the value of x, if BC||ED and
AB||CD.
A

85° C
B

x°
E D
(A) 85° (B) 90° (C) 95° (D) 80°

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

12. A hemisphere whose total surface area is 1848 cm2 is

recast into a cone of diameter 14 cm. Choose the slant
height of the cone.
(A) 112.21 cm (B) 96 cm
(C) 91.24 cm (D) 68.56 cm

1  6 1 
13. If x + = 5 , then select the value of  x + 6  .
x  x 

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 38

14. If A, B, C, D are the four points on a line.

A C D B
If AD = BC, then what is the equal length of BD ?
(A) AD (B) BC (C) AC (D) CD
15. Determine OPQ from the figure, if OP||RS. .
O P R S

112°
19°

(A) 92° (B) 97° (C) 87° (D) 79°

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Test Assess Achieve

 4 5 6 
16. Select the simplest form of  + + 2 .
 x – 1 x + 1 x – 1 

 8x  4   9x  5 
(A)   (B)  
 x2  1   x2  1 

 9 x  15   x + 15 
(C)  2  (D)  2 
 x 1   x 1 

17. Choose the simplest form of

 15 
 
 10 + 20 + 40  5  80 

(A)  10  5  (B) 2 20  5 
(C)  10  2 5  (D)  10  5 
18. If 12.5 cm, 12.5 cm and 15 cm are the sides of a
triangle, then find the smallest altitude of the given
triangle.
(A) 8 cm (B) 9 cm
(C) 10 cm (D) 12 cm
19. Select the factor of (9999999992 – 1).
(A) 999999999000000000
(B) 9999999980000000000
(C) 9999999990000000000
(D) 999999998000000000

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

 125 x3 75 x 2 
20. Choose the factor of   + 15 x  8  .
 64 8 
 

 25 x2   25 x2 5 x 
(A)  16  5 x  4  (B)  16   4 
   2 

 25x2   5x2 

(C)  16  10 x  4  
(D)  4  4 
   
21. At which point the linear equation 2x – 3y = 6 meets
Y-axis ?
(A) (2, 0) (B) (0, 2)
(C) (0, –2) (D) (0, –3)
22. What are the co-ordinates of A, B, C and D from the
given graph ?
Y

C 4
3 B
2
1
A
X
–2 –1
–1
O1 2 3 4 5

–2 D

(A) A (4, 3), B (0, 5), C (–2, 4), D (0, 2)

(B) A (0, 5), B (3, 4), C (4, –2), D (0, –2)
(C) A (5, 0), B (4, 3), C (–2, 4), D (–2, 0)
(D) A (5, 0), B (4, 3), C (–2, 4), D (0, –2)

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

23. If x2 + 5x + p and x2 + 3x + q have a common factor,

then what is (p – q)2 ?
(A) (3p – 5q) (B) 2(3p – 5q)

3
(C) 3(3p – 5q) (D) (3p – 5q)
2
24. A floral design on a floor is made up of 16 congruent
triangular tiles of sides 36 cm, 29 cm and 25 cm. The
tiles are polished at the rate of 80 paise per cm2. Find
the total cost of polishing for all the tiles.
(A) 4568 (B) 5849
(C) 4608 (D) 3456
25. In the figure a rectangle ABCD is inscribed in a
quadrant of a circle of radius 53 cm. If AB = 45 cm, then
select the area of the rectangle.
53 cm

D C

A 45 cm B

(A) 1044 cm2 (B) 1260 cm2

(C) 1964 cm2 (D) 2000 cm2

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

Class : 9 Physics

26. A moon of mass ‘m’ orbits a planet of mass 100 m. Let

the strength of the gravitational force exerted by the
planet on the moon be denoted by F 1, and let the
strength of the gravitational force exerted by the moon
on the planet be F2. Which of the following is true ?
(A) F1 = 100 F2 (B) F1 = 10 F2
(C) F1 = F2 (D) F2 = 10F1
27. Trolley X and trolley Y are joined by a stretched spring.
Trolley X has twice the mass of trolley Y.

X Y

When the trolleys are released, the acceleration of X

is 2 m/s2 to the right. What is the initial acceleration
of trolley Y to the left ?
(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 3 m/s2
(C) 6 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

28. A ball is released from rest from one side of a smooth

curved rail as shown below.

Ball
S

P R

I. The speed of the ball at R is the same as that at

point P.
II. The ball has a maximum potential energy at
point Q.
III. The ball would not rise to the level higher than
point S.
IV. The total energy of the ball is higher at point S
than at point Q.

Neglecting air resistance and friction, which of the

above statements about the motion of the ball is/are
correct ?
(A) I and III only (B) III and IV only
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III only

Paper Code : UN489 9

CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

29. Starting from a stationary position, Rahul paddles his

bicycle to attain a velocity of 6 m s–1 in 30 s. Then he
applies brakes such that the velocity of the bicycle
comes down to 4 m s–1 in the next 5 s. Calculate the
acceleration of the bicycle in both the cases.
(A) 0.9 m s–2, 0.16 m s–2
(B) 0.7 m s–2, – 0.14 m s–2
(C) 0.4 m s–2, 0.12 m s–2
(D) 0.2 m s–2, – 0.4 m s–2

2
30. A water tanker filled up to rd of its height is moving
3
with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the
brake, the water in the tank would
(A) move backward. (B) move forward.
(C) be unaffected. (D) rise upwards.
31. A car travelling with a speed of 10 m/s has kinetic
energy of 1500 J. If the speed of the car is increased to
40 m/s, what is the increase in kinetic energy ?
(A) 4500 J (B) 22 500 J
(C) 24 000 J (D) 1 350 000 J

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

32. The graph given below illustrates the motion of an

object.

Speed

S T
0 Time

Which feature of the graph represents the distance

travelled by the object whilst moving at a constant
speed ?
(A) Area S (B) Area S + Area T
(C) Area T (D) The gradient at point X
33. A coin is placed on a card on the top of a beaker as
shown below. If the card is pulled away quickly, the
coin does not move sideways but falls into the beaker.

Which property of the coin makes this possible ?

(A) Density (B) Inertia
(C) Volume (D) Thickness

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

34. A tennis ball is dropped on to a horizontal surface. As

the ball bounces up and down, the height of each
bounce gradually decreases. During the motion of the
ball, the
(A) kinetic energy of the ball is constant.
(B) potential energy of the ball is constant.
(C) sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the ball
is constant.
(D) total energy of the ball, ground and air is constant.
35. A piece of iron of density 7.8 × 10–3 kg/m3 and volume
100 cm3 is totally immersed in water. Find

(a) The weight of the iron piece in air

(b) The upthrust and
(c) Apparent weight in water.

(A) 5.2 N, 3 N, 4.7 N (B) 6.5 N, 6 N, 5.3 N

(C) 7.8 N, 1 N, 6.8 N (D) 9.4 N, 7 N, 7.2 N

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

Class : 9 Chemistry

36. Four one-litre flasks are seprately filled with the gases
hydrogen, helium, oxygen and ozone at the same room
temperature and pressure. The ratio of total number
of atoms of these gases present in the different flasks
would be
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
(C) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1
37. Which of the following has maximum mass percentage?
(A) 5 g of sodium carbonate is added to 95 g of water.
(B) 15 g of oxalic acid is present in 150 g of its aqueous
solution.
(C) 10 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 190 g of water.
(D) 25 g of potassium iodide is present in 400 g of its
aqueous solution.
38. Find the molecular masses in units of the following :
Given atomic masses: C = 12.0 u, H = 1.0 u, O = 16 u,
Al = 27.0 u, Na = 23.0 u, S = 32.0 u

(i) C6H5 COOH (ii) A l2O3 (iii) Na 2SO 4

Identify a correct option.

(A) 110, 125, 137 (B) 122, 102, 142
(C) 165, 158, 179 (D) 193, 209, 246

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

39. Read the statements given below.

I. A homogeneous liquid which on boiling

leaves a solid residue is a solution containing
solid as solute.
II. All the solutions are mixtures but all the
mixtures are not solutions.
III. Solution of copper sulphate will exhibit
Tyndall effect.
IV. Sugar mixed in water is an example of
heterogeneous mixture.
V. Like solids, solubility of gases also increases
with increase in temperature.
VI. Mechanical stirring increases the solubility of
a solute in a solvent.

Which of the above statements are true ?

(A) III, IV and VI only (B) I, III, V and VI only
(C) I, II and VI only (D) II, III and IV only

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40. When an ice cube melts, it changes into water. Compare

an ice cube and water.

Ice cube Water

Similarities
Have mass
Occupy space
Have a definite volume
Difference

Has a definite shape Has no definite shape

What conclusion can you make based on the given

information ?
(A) An ice cube is a solid but water is a liquid.
(B) An ice cube and water cannot be compressed to
occupy a smaller space.
(C) An ice cube and water are in the same state of matter.
(D) Both (A) and (B)

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Test Assess A chieve

41. Read the statements given below.

(i) Sulphur shows variable valencies of 2, 4 and 6.

(ii) With chlorine, phosphorus forms PC l5 only.
(iii) Both marble and limestone have the same
chemical formula.
(iv) A cation is made up of some metal ion only and
not by non-metal atoms.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only (D) (i) and (iii) only
42. Observe the graph given below on solubility of a solid
in solvent water versus temperature.
120
g Solvent/100 g water

100

80

60

40

20
0
0 20 40 60 80 100
Temperature (°C)

The solubility of a solid in water will increase if you

(A) decrease the temperature of the water.
(B) decrease the surface area of the solid particles.
(C) increase the surface area of the solid particles.
(D) increase the temperature of the water.
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Test Assess Achieve

43. Find the correct molecular masses of the following

compounds in units.
Given atomic masses : C = 12.0 u, H = 1.0 u, O = 16.0 u,
Al = 27.0 u, S = 32.0 u, Cu = 63.5.

(i) C12H 22O 11 (ii) A l2(SO 4)3 (iii) CuSO 4.5H 2O

Which of the above given two compounds have the

same molecular mass ?
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
44. Solubility of salts generally increases with an increase
in temperature. The graph given below shows the
solubility of different salts at different temperatures.

260
Solubility (grams per 100 g of water)

240
220
200
180
3
O

160 l
C
Na

140
3
O

120
KN

100
KBr
80
60
NaCl
40
20

0 20 40 60 80 100 120
Temperature (°C)

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Test Assess A chieve

From the information given in the graph, which salt is

almost equally soluble at all the temperatures ?
(A) NaClO3 (B) KBr
(C) KNO3 (D) NaCl
45. The melting points of four substances P, Q, R and S
are : 78 °C, 262 °C, 100 °C and 168 °C respectively. The
increasing order of their interparticle forces of
attraction is
(A) P, R, S, Q (B) P, Q, S, R
(C) P, R, Q, S (D) P, S, Q, R

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 CLASS : 9
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Class : 9 Biology

46. Identify X and Y in the given flow chart.

WBC

X Y

Neutrophils Lymphocytes
Basophils
Eosinophils Monocytes

(A) X–Erythrocytes, Y–Leucocytes

(B) X–Granulocytes, Y–Granulophils
(C) X–Granulocytes, Y–Agranulocytes
(D) X–Agranulophils, Y–Granulocytes
47. Select the longest animal cell among the following.
(A) Nerve cell (B) Muscle cell
(C) Liver cell (D) Goblet cell
48. Colourless plastids which store starch, protein and
lipids in them are:
(A) Chromoplasts (B) Chloroplast
(C) Leucoplasts (D) All of these

Paper Code : UN489 19

CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

49. Which of the following pathogen causes common cold ?

(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Rhinoviruses
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(D) Salmonella typhimurium
50. Which of the following are the functions performed
by ribosomes ?
(A) It helps in synthesis of starch.
(B) It helps in the sysnthesis of enzymes
(C) It helps in synthesis of proteins
(D) Both (B) and (C)
51. What does the scientific name of an organism include ?
(A) Class and family (B) Genus and species
(C) Phylum and order (D) Family and species
52. Which part of a nerve cell acquires information ?
(A) Axon (B) Dendrite
(C) Cyton (D) All the above
53. How can nitrogen be naturally replenished in soil ?
(A) By step farming
(B) By using weedicides
(C) By crop rotation with a leguminous crop
(D) By using fertilizers in large amounts

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Test Assess Achieve

54. Which of the following steps are involved in the carbon

cycle ?
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Respiration
(C) Burning of fossil fuel
(D) All of these
55. Which of the following prevents soil erosion ?
(A) Afforestation (B) Contour ploughing
(C) Step farming (D) All of these

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CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

Class : 9 Critical Thinking

56. Which of the given figures cannot be drawn without

lifting the pen ? The lines can cross each other but
cannot overlap on top of one another.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

57. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the
correct alternative from the following:
Assertion (A): No life is found on the moon.
Reason (R): Moon does not have an atmosphere like
that of the Earth.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

58. An industrial electrician attaches exactly seven

components designated S, T, V, W, X, Y and Z - to a
circuit board in exactly seven consecutive steps; exactly
one component is attached per step. Each component
is attached exactly once, and each is attached either
by hand or by machine, but not both.
X is the fourth component attached.
Exactly two components are attached by hand at some
time before X is attached.
No component is attached by hand before T is attached.
W is attached at some time before T.
Y is attached at some time after both Z and S.
The sixth component attached is attached by hand.
Which one of the following could be an accurate list,
in order, of the first three components attached ?
(A) W, T, S (B) X, Y, Z
(C) Y, W, T (D) Y, Z, S

Paper Code : UN489 23

CLASS : 9
Test Assess A chieve

59. Given question contains a process with an input

diagram. One or more ‘operators’, and an output
diagram. The effect of the operators is described in
the key to question. Study the process and decide
which is the correct output from the options ?

Changes the shading on the symbols Switches 1st and 3rd symbol

Changes shading on 1st and 3rd symbol Replaces all squares with stars

Which option replaces the question mark ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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 CLASS : 9
Test Assess Achieve

60. Given below is a question followed by two statements

I and II. Identify which of the two statements are
necessary to answer the question.
The last Monday of June 2020 fell on which date ?
Statements:
I) The first Monday of that month fell on 1st.
II) The last day of that month was Tuesday.
(A) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
(B) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(C) Either I or II is sufficient
(D) Neither I nor II is sufficient

Paper Code : UN489 25