Test ID : 635

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.GRAND TEST - 2 A
Std : Long term Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 06.10.2022 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. A shell of mass 0.020 kg is fired by a gun of 5. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the
mass 100 kg. If the speed of the shell is 80 influence of a force such that linear
m/s, the recoil speed of gun would be momentum is p(t)  A (cos (kt)iˆ  sin(kt)ˆj)
1) 14 m/s 2) 0.012 m/s where A and k are constants. The angle
3) 0.016 m/s 4) 100 m/s between force and momentum is
2. A 6000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing if the
1) 0o 2) 30o
exhaust speed is 1000 m/s, the amount of gas
3) 45o 4) 90o
that must be ejected per second to supply the
6. A monkey of mass 20 kg climbs on a rope
thrust needed to overcome the weight of the
2
rocket is (g = 10 m/s ) which can stand a maximum tension of 300 N.
1) 30 kg 2) 60 kg In which of the following case will the rope
3) 75 kg 4) 90 kg break, the monkey
3. A vehicle is moving on a rough road in a 1) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m/s2
straight line with uniform velocity 2) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/s2
1) no net force is acting on the body 3) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 m/s
2) a net force must be acting on the vehicle 4) falls down the rope nearly free under
3) an acceleration is being produced in the gravity
vehicle 7. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is descending at a
4) a centripetal acceleration is being produced g
constant acceleration of . Where a mass m1
in the vehicle 4
4. The figure shows the position time graph of a is removed from the balloon, it starts rising
particle of mass 40 kg. What is the net force g
acting on the particle 0 < t < 4 sec with the same acceleration . Assuming that
4
balloon volume does not change, what is the
value of m1.
m 2m
1) 2)
4 3
m 2m
1) 30 N 2) zero 3) 4)
3 5
3) 53.33 N 4) 40 N
 2 Test ID : 635[A]
8. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making 1) greater than v
an angle of 30o and 60o with the horizontal as 2) | v | in the direction of the largest force BC
shown in figure. Two blocks A and B are 3) v , remains unchanged
placed on the two planes. What is the relative
4) less than v
vertical acceleration of A with respect to B.
12. In the situation below, a person pulls a string
attached to block A, which is in turn attached
to another heavier block B via a second string.
Assume that the strings are massless and
inextensible and ignore friction. Is the
1) 4.9 m/s2 in vertical direction magnitude of the acceleration of block A
String 1
2) 4.9 m/s2 in horizontal direction B A
String 2
F
3) 9.8 m/s2 in vertical direction
4) zero 1) Greater than the magnitude of the
9. A small block of mass m rests on a smooth acceleration of block B
2) Equal to the magnitude of the acceleration
wedge of angle . With what minimum
horizontal acceleration ‘a’ should the wedge of block B
be pulled so that block falls freely under 3) Less than the magnitude of the acceleration
gravity. of block B
1) g cos  2) g sin  4) None of these
13. A light string passing over a smooth light
3) g cot  4) g tan 
pully connects two blocks of masses m1 and
10. Figure shows a small ball of mass ‘m’ at rest
m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of the
means of two light and inextensible strings.
g
The tensions in the inclined string at the system is then the ratio of the masses is
instant shown and just after cutting the 8
horizontal string are respectively (m1 > m2)
1) 8 : 1 2) 9 : 7
1) mg cos , mg cos 
3) 4 : 3 4) 5 : 3
mg
2) mg cos , 14. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied
cos   to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with
mg a speed of 15 m/s. How long does the body
3) , mg cos 
cos  take to stop?
mg mg 1) 6 sec 2) 4 sec
4) , 3) 3 sec 4) 2 sec
cos  cos 
15. The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a
11. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a
particle moving with velocity v . These forces function of ‘t’ is given by v(t)  2tiˆ  t 2 ˆj . Find
are represented in magnitude and direction by the force acting on it at time t = 2 sec.
the three sides of a triangle ABC as shown in 1) (8iˆ  4ˆj) N 2) (4iˆ  8j)
ˆ N
figure, then the particle will not move with
3) (4iˆ  8j)
ˆ N 4) ( 4iˆ  8j)
ˆ N
velocity
16. A body is acted on by a force given by
F = (10 + 2t) N. The impulse received by the
body during the first four second is
1) 40 NS 2) 56 NS
3) 72 NS 4) 32 NS
 3 Test ID : 635[A]
2 2 2
17. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m 1) T = R + W 2) T = R + W
respectively are connected by a massless and 3) R  T  W  0 4) R = W tan 
inextensible string. The whole system is
suspended by a massless spring as shown in 22. A pendulum is hanging from the ceiling of a
the figure. The magnitude of acceleration of A car having an acceleration a0 = 10 m/s2 with
and B immediately after the string is cut are respect to the road. Find the angle made by the
respectively string with vertical at equilibrium
(g = 10 m/s2)

g 1) 45o 2) 30o
1) g, g 2) g , 3) 0o 4) 90o
2
g g g 23. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass ‘m’ with
3) , g 4) , a speed of v m/s. The person holding the gun
2 2 2
can exert a maximum force F on it. What is
18. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg
moving in opposite directions with speed of 6 the number of bullets that can be fired from
m/s collide and rebound with the same speed. the gun per second?
What is the impulse imparted to each ball by F F
1) 2)
the other. mv 2mv
1) 0.3 NS 2) 0.4 NS F F
3) 0.5 NS 4) 0.6 NS 3) 4)
3mv 4mv
19. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon by a 24. The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum of
force F  (3iˆ  4ˆj)N . If its initial velocity at length L. If the bob is left from its horizontal
t = 0 is U  (6iˆ  12ˆj) m/s, the time at which it position then the speed of the bob and the
will just have a velocity along the y-axis is tension in the thread in the lowest position of
1) 5 s 2) 10 s the bob will be respectively
3) 2 s 4) 15 s L O
4
20. A particle moves in a circle of radius r  cm
3
at a speed given by v = 2t2, where v is in cm/s
and ‘t’ in seconds. Find the magnitude of the 1) 2gL and 3 mg 2) 3 mg and 2gL
acceleration (in cm/s2) at t = 1 sec.
3) 2 mg and 2gL 4) 2 gL and 3 mg
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5 25. A dynamometer (D) is attached to two blocks
21. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed on a of masses 6 kg and 4 kg. Forces of 20 N and
wall. The force acting on the sphere are shown 10 N are applied on the blocks as shown in
in the figure. Which of the following is figure. The dynamometer reads
incorrect?

1) 10 N 2) 20 N
3) 6 N 4) 14 N
 4 Test ID : 635[A]
26. A homogeneous rod of length l and mass ‘m’ 30. A mass of 100 g strikes the wall with speed 5
is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. It is m/s at an angle 60o with vertical and it
acted by a force F at its one end. Find the rebounds with the same speed. If the contact
tension (T) in the cross section of rod at a time is 2 x 10-3 sec, what is the force applied
distance ‘x’ from the end where the force is on the mass by the wall.
applied.
1) 250 3 N to right 2) 250 N to right
 x  L
1) T = F  1   2) T = F  1   3) 250 3 N to left 4) 250 N to left
 L  x
31. Find force of interaction between bodies of
x  L 
3) T = F   1 4) T = F   1 mass m3 and m2 from the following figure.
L  x 
27. The system shown in figure is released from
rest. Calculate the acceleration of system.
Assume pulley and strings are massless and no
friction in the system. m1.F cos  (m1  m 2 )F cos 
1) 2)
m1  m 2  m 3 m1  m 2  m 3
(m 2  m 3 )F cos  (m1  m 2 )F
3) 4)
m1  m 2  m3 (m1  m 2  m3 )
32. A string of negligible mass going over a
g g clamped pulley of mass ‘m’ supports a block
1) m/s2 2) m/s2
2 3 of mass M as shown in the figure. The force
g g on the pulley by the clamp is given by
3) m/s2 4) m/s2
5 6 1) 2 Mg
28. A bus moving on a level road with a velocity
2) 2 mg
‘v’ can be stopped at a distance of ‘x’ by the
application of a retarding force F. The load on
the bus in increased by 25% by boarding the
3)  
(M  m)2  m 2 g

passengers. Now if the bus is moving with the 4)  (M  m)  M  g

2 2

same speed and if the same retarding force is

applied, the distance travelled by the bus 33. Three blocks of masses 4 kg, 6 kg and 8 kg are
before it stops is hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The
5 tension in the string connecting 4 kg and 6 kg
1) x 2) x
4 block is
4 3
3) x 4) x
5 4
29. Three forces act on a particle that moves with
unchanging velocity v  (3iˆ  4ˆj) m/s. Two of
the forces are F  (3iˆ  2ˆj  4k)
1
ˆ N and

F2  (5iˆ  8jˆ  3k)

ˆ N. The third force is
1) 4 N 2) 6 N
1) (2iˆ  10ˆj  7k)
ˆ N 2) ( 2iˆ  10ˆj  7k)
ˆ N
320 40
3) N 4) N
3) ( 2iˆ  10ˆj  7k)
ˆ N 4) (2iˆ  10ˆj  7k)
ˆ N 9 9
 5 Test ID : 635[A]
34. A particle of mass ‘m’ is made to move with 38. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by
uniform speed ‘v’ along the perimeter of a massless string as shown in figure. If both are
regular polygon of ‘n’ sides inscribed in a moving in a circle with same angular speed
circle of radius ‘a’. The magnitude of impulse and T1 and T2 are tensions in the strings then
applied at each corner of the polygon is
 
1) 2 mv sin 2) mv sin
n n
n n 1)T1 < T2 2) T1 = T2
3) mv sin 4) 2 mv sin
  3) T1 > T2 4) T2 > T1 if m2 > m1
35. Two smooth cylindrical bars weighing ‘W’ 39. An impulse “I” given to a body changes its
each lie next to each other in contact. A velocity from “v1 to v2”. The increase in the
similar third bar is placed over the two bars as kinetic energy of the body is given by
shown in figure. Neglecting friction the
1) I (v1 + v2) 2) I (v1 + v2)/2
minimum horizontal force on each lower bar
necessary to keep them together is 3) I (v1 – v2) 4) I (v1 – v2) /2
40. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined
surface with angle of inclination ''. The
incline is given an acceleration 'a' to keep the
block stationary. Then 'a' is equal to
W
1) 2) W
2
W W
3) 4) a
3 2 3 (
36. At the moment t = 0 a stationary particle of 1) g / tan  2) g cosec 
mass ‘m’ experiences a time dependent force
3) g 4) g tan 
F = at ( - t) where ‘a’ is a constant and  is
41. A bead of mass ‘m’ moves along a smooth
the time for which the force acts. The
fixed ring in a gravity free region. The ring
momentum of particle when the action of the
has radius R. The bead is attached to a spring
force stops.
of force constant k and natural length R. The
a3 a3 other end of the spring is fixed to a point P on
1) 2)
6 5 the ring. At an instant shown in figure when
a 3 length of spring was 1.6 R, force applied by
3) 4) a3 the ring on the bead was zero. Rate of change
3
37. A hot air balloon of mass ‘M’ is rising with a of speed of the bead at this instant will be
uniform acceleration ‘a’. On removing a mass
‘m’ (m < M) the acceleration of the balloon is
doubled. Assuming that the buoyancy force is
not affected by the removal of the mass, the
value of ‘m’ is (g = acceleration due to gravity)
Ma Ma 12 kR 18 kR
1) 2) 1) 2)
ga 2g  a 25 m 25 m
Ma 2Ma 9 kR 32 kR
3) 4) 3) 4)
g  2a ga 25 m 25 m
 6 Test ID : 635[A]
42. A 5 kg block lies on a smooth horizontal 46. Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is
surface. It is connected to an inextensible –119.7 kJ mol-1 and that of benzene is –208.4
massless string passing over a smooth pulley. kJ mol-1. The resonance energy of benzene is
The free end P of the string is pulled down 1) –36 kJ mol-1 2) –150.7 kJ mol1
with an acceleration of 3 m/s2. Force F needed 3) -328.1 kJ mol -1
4) –88.7 kJ mol-1
to pull the string when  = 37o is 47. Pair of which choices has the same bond
order?
1) N2 and O2+2 2) N2 and O22
3) N2+2 and O2+2 4) N22 and O22
48. In which of the following molecule / ion all
the bonds are not equal?
1) 40 N 2) 18.7 N 1) SF4 2) SiF4
3) 28 N 4) 23.4 N 3) XeF4 4) BF4
43. A block of mass ‘m’ is placed on a smooth 49. Which of the following has highest lattice
wedge of inclination . The whole system is energy?
accelerated horizontally so that the block does 1) LiF 2) MgF2
not slip on the wedge then the force exerted by 3) CaO 4) AlN
the wedge on the block is 50. Which of the following contains polar as well
mg as non-polar bonds?
1) mg cos  2)
cos  1) HNO2 2) H2O2
mg 3) H2O 4) NaCl
3) mg cos2 4)
cos 2 
1 1 1
44. A force produces accelerations 1, , , ,… 51. has dipole moment ‘x’ debye. Which
2 3 4
(in all m/s2) applied separately to n bodies. If
these bodies are combined to form a single of the following is correctly matched for its
one then the acceleration of the system will be, dipole moment?
if same force is taken into account F
n 2
1) 2)
2 n(n  1)
1) 2)
n2 n 2 (n  1)
3) 4) F F
2 2
45. In the figure shown the tension in the F
=x
horizontal cord is 30 N. The weight of the
body B is F
F
30 o

3) 4)
F
F
1) 40 N 2) 30 3 N = 4x
3) 20 N 4) 10 N
 7 Test ID : 635[A]
52. In which of the following pairs the two species 61. The pair of species of oxygen and their
have similar geometry? magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which
1) BF3, NH3 2) CO2, C2H2 of the following represents the correct
3) CO2, SO2 4) CH4, BF3 description?
53. PCl3 and PCl5 both exist :NCl3 exists but NCl5 1) O2, O22 (both diamagnetic)
does not exist. It is due to 2) O22, O2+ (both paramagnetic)
1) lower electronegativity of ‘P’ than ‘N’ 3) O2+, O2 (both paramagnetic)
2) lower tendency of ‘N’ to form covalent 4) O2, O22 (both paramagnetic)
bond 62. Which of the following compounds has the
3) availability of vacant d-orbitals in ‘P’ but lowest melting point?
not in ‘N’ 1) CaF2 2) CaCl2
4) statement itself is incorrect
3) CaBr2 4) CaI2
54. Maximum bond angle at Nitrogen is present in
63. Which hybridization does sulphur has in SO2?
which of the following?
1) sp2 2) sp3d2
1) NO2 2) NO2+
3) sp3 4) sp
3) NO3 4) NO2
64. The correct order of bond angle in NO2, NO2+
Which of the following species contains equal
and NO2 is
55.
number of  and π-bonds?
1) NO2 > NO2+ > NO2
1) XeO4 2) (CN)2
2) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2
3) CH2(CN)2 4) HCO3
3) NO2 > NO2+ > NO2
56. Which of the following pairs of ions are
isoelectronic and isostructural? 4) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2
1) ClO3, CO32 2) SO32, NO3 65. Which of the following is correct with respect
3) ClO3, SO32 4) CO32, SO32 to the stability order of H2, H2+ and H2?
57. Which of the following options represents the 1) H2 > H2 > H2+ 2) H2 > H2+ > H2
correct bond order? 3) H2 > H2+ = H2  4) H2 = H2+ = H2
1) O2 < O2 < O2+ 2) O2 > O2 < O2+ 66. Compressibility factor of H2 behaving as real
3) O2 < O2 > O2+ 4) O2 > O2 > O2+ gas is
58. Which of the following is a polar molecule?  a 
1) 1 2)  1  
1) SiF4 2) SF4  RTV 
3) XeF4 4) BF3  Pb  RTV
3)  1   4)
59. Which of the following molecules has the  RT  1 a
maximum dipole moment? 67. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
1) NH3 2) NF3 indicates that
3) CO2 4) CH4 1) average kinetic energy of molecules
60. During change of O2 to O2 ion, the electron remains the same
adds on which one of the following orbitals? 2) number of molecules of the gas increases
1) -orbital 2) π*-orbital 3) average kinetic energy of the molecules
3) π-orbital 4) *-orbital decreases
4) pressure of the gas increases
 8 Test ID : 635[A]
68. 50 mL of each gas A and gas B takes 150 and 75. Critical temperature of some gases are
200 seconds respectively to effuse through a H2 = 33.2 K, He = 5.3 K, O2 = 154.3 K,
pin hole under the similar conditions N2 = 126 K
molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular Which of the following is correct for ease of
mass of gas A will be liquefaction?
1) 96 2) 32 1) He > H2 > N2 > O2
3) 20 4) 64 2) N2 > O2 > He > H2
69. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is 3) O2 > N2 > H2 > He
expected from 4) O2 > H2 > N2 > He
1) CH4(g) 2) NH3(g) 76. The kinetic energy (in kcal) of 80 g of
3) H2(g) 4) N2(g) methane gas at 227ºC is
70. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be 1) 15 2) 2.5
most likely to obey the ideal gas law at 3) 25 4) 7.5
1) high temperature and low pressure 77. Two balloons A and B are taken at 300K
2) low temperature and high pressure maximum capacity of balloon A and balloon B
3) high temperature and high pressure are 800 mL and 1800 mL respectively. When
4) low temperature and low pressure the balloon system is heated which one will
71. When the temperature of an ideal gas is burst first?
increased from 27°C to 927°C, the kinetic 1600 mL
energy will be B
700 mL
1) the same 2) eight times
A
3) four times 4) twice
72. Two containers of 10L and 20L capacities
having the same ideal gas at 6 atm and 10 atm 1) Inner balloon
respectively, are connected to each other. The 2) Outer balloon
total pressure of the two chambers, remaining 3) Both balloon’s simultaneously
the temperature constant is 4) Cannot be predicted
1) 3.75 atm 2) 5.78 atm 78. If a gas is heated at constant pressure, its
3) 8.67 atm 4) 9.88 atm density
73. The slope of the graph between log P and 1) will increase
log V at constant temperature, for a given 2) will decrease
mass of a gas is
3) will remain unchanged
1) +1 2) –1
4) may increase (or) decrease
1 1
3) 4) 79. Which of the following is correct order?
T n
1) Ti > TB > TC 2) TB > Ti > TC
74. Equal masses of H2 and O2 are filled in a
3) TC < Ti > TB 4) Ti > TC > TB
chamber at room temperature. Which of the
following is correct w.r.t their partial pressures 80. When the temperature is increased, surface
tension of water
p H 2 and p O2 ?
1) increases
1) p H2  p CO2 2) p H2  p CO2 2) decreases
3) p H2  p CO2 4) Uncertain 3) remains constant
4) shows irregular behaviour
 9 Test ID : 635[A]
81. Which has maximum viscosity? 88. The drain cleaner called drainx contains small
1) Water 2) Glycol bit of aluminium which reacts with caustic
3) Acetone 4) Ethanol soda to produce “Hydrogen”. What volume of
82. 1 mole of SO2 occupies a volume of 350 mL hydrogen at 27oC and 0.82 bar will be released
at 300K and 50 atm pressure. The gas shows when 0.15 gm of aluminium reacts
1) positive deviation from ideal behavior 1) 250 ml 2) 150 ml
2) negative deviation from ideal behaviour 3) 500 ml 4) 125 ml
3) ideal behavior 89. At STP four vessels of volumes IL, 2L, 3L &
4L respectively contain 1L He, 2LH2, 3L O3
4) z = 1 and 4L CH4 respectively, then the ratio
83. The compressibility factor of a gas at its between number of atoms is
critical point is
1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
3 3) 1 : 4 : 9 : 20 4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
1) 1.0 2)
8 90. A mixture of gases present in a cylinder at 720
9 8 mm pressure contains 56 moles CO2, 25 moles
3) 4)
8 9 O2, 19 moles N2. calculate partial pressure of
84. Minimum deviation from ideal gas is expected O2
from 1) 403.2 mm 2) 180 mm
1) CO2 2) NH3 3) 136.8 mm 4) 900 mm
3) H2O vapour 4) He 91. Who among the following published is work
85. The ratio among most probable velocity, mean on the alpha-helix and beta-sheet structures?
velocity and root mean square velocity is 1) G N Ramachandran 2) Linus Pauling
given by 3) Matthias Schleiden 4) Theodore Schwann
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2 : 3 92. Identify the incorrect statement from the
following
8 8
3) 2 : 3 : 4) 2 : : 3 1) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
  activities in the cells.
86. For a same gas at same temperature conditions 2) In animals, cells have an outer membrane
with different number of moles, the graph P as the delimiting structure.
Vs V is as follow. Give the correct relation
3) Ribosomes are non-membrane bound
organelles found in all cells.
4) Epithelial cells are round and biconcave
93. The largest isolated single cell is
1) the egg of Opuntia
2) the egg of an Ostrich
3) the sperm cell of an Ostrich
1) n1 > n2 > n3 2) n1 = n2 = n3
4) the RBC of human
1 1 1
3) n1 < n2 < n3 4)   94. Read the following statements
n1 n 2 n 3
A) The genetic material is basically naked in
87. At a constant temperature what should be prokaryotes
percentage increase in pressure for a 5% B) The plasmid DNA confers certain unique
decrease in volume of gas phenotypic characters to bacteria
1) 5% 2) 10%
3) 5.26% 4) 4.26%
 10 Test ID : 635[A]
C) Prokaryotes have something unique in the 100. Assertion: In plasma membrane non polar
form of inclusions tails of saturated hydrocarbons is protected
D) Mesosomes are the infoldings of cell from the aqueous environment.
membrane Reason: In a bi-lipid layer of plasma
1) A, B and C are correct membrane, the polar heads are arranged
towards outer side and non-polar tails towards
2) B, C and D are correct
the inner side.
3) A, C and D are correct
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4) A, B, C and D are correct explanation of A.
95. Which one of the following is used to monitor 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
bacterial transformation with foreign DNA correct explanation of A
1) Plasmid DNA 2) Genomic DNA 3) A is true and R is false
3) Mesosomes 4) Both 1 and 2 4) A is false and R is true
96. Match the following 101. Which of the following are the chemical
Column – I Column – II components of RBC plasma membrane?
A A loose sheath like i Capsule A – Carbohydrates B – Proteins
glycocalyx C – Phospholipids D – Cholesterol
B Extensions of ii Inclusion
1) A and B only 2) B and C only
plasma membrane bodies
3) C and D only 4) All of these
into the cell
102. What is the approximate proportion of lipids
C A thick and tough iii Slime layer
glycocalyx and proteins in the membrane of erythrocytes?
D Reserve food iv Mesosomes 1) 40% and 50% 2) 52% and 30%
material in 3) 40% and 52% 4) 52% and 48%
prokaryotic cells 103. Statement I: The ratio of proteins and lipids

1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii in the plasma membrane varies in different

cell types
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Statement II: In prokaryotes, ribosomes are
3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
associated with the plasma membrane
4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 1) Both the statements are correct
97. Gas vacuoles are found in
2) Both the statements are incorrect
1) photosynthetic bacteria 2) cyanobacteria 3) Statement – I only correct
3) green algae 4) Both (1) and (2) 4) statement - II only correct
98. In which among the following, the chromatin
104. The quasi-fluid nature of plasma membrane is
material is organized into chromosomes? due to
1) Blue green algae 1) carbohydrates 2) proteins
2) Purple sulphur bacteria 3) lipids 4) cholesterol
3) Animal cells 105. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t cell wall
4) Mycoplasma 1) It protects the cell from mechanical damage
99. Which of the following is absent in higher 2) It protects the cell from infection
plant cells? 3) It helps in cell-to-cell interaction
1) Mitochondria 2) Ribosomes 4) It is not a barrier to undesirable
3) Centrioles 4) Plastids macromolecules
 11 Test ID : 635[A]
106. Membrane bound minute vesicles present in C) It results in the formation of four haploid
eukaryotic cells that contain various enzymes daughter cells
are called D) It follows the cytokinesis
1) Inclusion bodies 2) Microbodies E) It occurs between meiosis I and interkinesis
3) Basal bodies 4) Vacuoles 1) A, C, D and E are only correct
107. Interphase nucleus has
2) A, B, D and E are only correct
1) loose and elaborate network of chromatin
3) A, B, C and Dare only correct
2) distinct nuclear envelope
4) B, C, D and E are only correct
3) one or more nucleoli
114. How does metaphase I is differ from
4) all of these
metaphase II?
108. Identify the odd one w.r.t cell organelles
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi complex 1) In having two chromatids in each
chromosome
3) Nucleolus 4) Lysosomes
109. Identify the statement related to nucleolus
2) Each chromosome being connected with
1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA both the poles
synthesis 3) Only one spindle apparatus is developed
2) It is a barrier between nucleoplasm and 4) In having one chromatid in each
cytoplasm chromosome
3) It remains continuous with the endoplasmic 115. Homologous chromosomes align at the
reticulum equator in
4) It forms the spindle apparatus during cell 1) Anaphase II 2) Metaphase I
division
3) Metaphase 4) Both 2 and 3
110. Movement of centrosomes towards the
116. Each chromosome is connected with opposite
opposite poles in a cell occurs in
poles of the spindle in
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase 4) Telophase 1) Metaphase II 2) Metaphase I
111. Syncytium is formed 3) Metaphase 4) Both (1) and (3)
1) When cytokinesis follows karyokinesis 117. A dyad of cells is formed after

2) When karyokinesis is not followed by 1) Anaphase II 2) Telophase I

cytokinesis 3) Anaphase I 4) Telophase II
3) When multinucleated condition arises 118. Partial decondensation of chromosomes is the
4) Both (2) and (3) characteristic feature of
112. Which of the following statement is related to 1) Prophase I 2) Telophase I
telophase?
3) Prophase II 4) Telophase II
1) Reappearance of nuclear envelope
119. In meiosis, segregation of genome takes place
2) Chromosomes move toward opposite poles
during
3) Shortening of chromosomal fibers
1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I
4) Attachment of spindle fibers to
kinetochores 3) Anaphase I 4) Telophase I
113. Read the following statements w.r.t meiosis II 120. In Oocytes of some vertebrates, the duration

A) It starts before the chromosomes have fully of meiosis is depended on duration of

elongated 1) Leptotene phase 2) Diplotene phase
B) It resembles the mitosis 3) Zygotene phase 4) Diakinesis
 12 Test ID : 635[A]
121. During mitosis, the compaction of 128. Statement I: Cilia and flagella are hair-like
chromosomes is completed in outgrowths of the cell membrane
1) prophase 2) metaphase Statement II: The axoneme of cilia and
3) anaphase 4) telophase flagella has nine doublets of peripheral
microtubules and a pair of central singlets
122. Identify the incorrect statement from the
1) Both the statements are correct
following
2) Both the statements are incorrect
1) In animals, mitosis occurs in the diploid 3) Statement – I only correct
somatic cells only 4) Statement - II only correct
2) In plants, mitosis occurs in both haploid 129. How many of the given statements are
and diploid cells correct?
3) In adult animals, most of the cells divide A) Both the membranes of mitochondria have
occasionally enzymes associated with their different
4) The cells that do not divide, suspended the functions
cell division B) Carotenoid are fat soluble pigments present
123. Arrange the following events of mitotic cell in chromoplasts
cycle in correct order C) Amyloplasts are a type of leucoplast that
A) Condensation of chromosomal material stores carbohydrates
D) The inner membrane of the chloroplast is
B) Untangling of chromosomal material
relatively less permeable than the outer
C) Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles of membrane.
spindle 1) Three 2) One
D) Duplication of centrosome 3) Two 4) Four
E) Splitting of centromeres 130. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t mitosis
1) D, B, A, E and C 2) A, B, E, D and C 1) Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
3) D, B, A, C and E 4) A, B, C, D and E 2) It replaces the lost cells or injured cells
124. An elaborate protenaceous filamentous 3) It contributes in continuous growth of
network present in eukaryotic cells is called plants throughout their life
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi apparatus 4) It results in disturbing the nucleo
cytoplasmic ratio
3) Cytoskeleton 4) Both 1 and 3
131. In animal cells cytokinesis occurs in
125. Association of ribosomal sub units depends on
1) cell furrow method 2) cell plate method
presence of
3) centrifugal manner 4) basipetal manner
1) Calcium 2) Magnesium 132. What is the precursor of cell wall?
3) Potassium 4) Sodium 1) Middle lamellum 2) Cell plate
126. The stroma of the chloroplast is the site of 3) A furrow in the plasma 4) All of these
synthesis of 133. Read the following statements
A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins A) The cell grows and carries out normal
C) DNA replication metabolism.
1) A only 2) B and C B) Most of the cell organelle duplication occurs
3) A and C 4) A, B and C C) The cell prepares for DNA replication
The above statements are related to
127. The membrane of the thylakoids encloses a
1) G1 phase 2) S phase
space called
3) G2 phase 4) Prophase
1) Lumen 2) Matrix
3) Peri plastidial space 4) Stroma
 13 Test ID : 635[A]
134. Assertion : Mitochondria are called semi- 140. Dental formula of human represents
autonomous cell organelles. 1) total number of teeth on both jaws
Reason : Mitochondria have their own genetic 2) total number of teeth on both sides of lower
material.
jaw
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) arrangement of teeth in each half of the
explanation of A.
upper and lower jaw
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
4) arrangement of teeth in each half of the
correct explanation of A
lower jaw
3) A is true and R is false
141. The term frenulum is associated with
4) A is false and R is true
1) stomach 2) caecum
135. Metaphase is characterized by
1) all the chromosomes coming to lie at the 3) appendix 4) tongue
spindle equator 142. Statement - I: The lower surface of the

2) centrosome begins to move towards tongue has papillae.

opposite poles Statement - II: All papillae of human tongue
3) disappearance of golgi complex, ER, bear taste buds.
nucleolus and nuclear envelope 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) simultaneous splitting of centromeres 2) Statement I is correct, statement II is
136. Statement - I: Mouth has number of teeth and incorrect
a muscular tongue. 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
Statement - II: Oral cavity has a number of correct
teeth and a muscular tongue. 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 143. i) The oral cavity leads into a short pharynx
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect ii) The oesophagus open into a short pharynx
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct iii) The wind pipe open into a short pharynx
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
In the above
137. Select the incorrect statement.
1) i and ii incorrect 2) ii and iii incorrect
1) All mammals forms two sets of teeth during
3) i and iii incorrect 4) i, ii and iii correct
their life
144. Choose the correct matching pair.
2) Each tooth in human is embedded in a
socket of jaw bone i) Gastro - oesophageal sphincter : Between
3) All incisors are comes under diphyodont oesophagus and stomach
dentition ii) Pyloric sphincter : Between stomach and
4) All canines are comes under diphyodont duodenum
dentition iii) Ileocaecal valve: Between ileum and colon
138. Which of the following is the freely moving 1) i, ii 2) i, iii
muscular organ of buccal cavity? 3) ii, iii 4) i, ii, iii
1) Parotids 2) Papilla 145. The inner most lining of stomach and
3) Tongue 4) Premolars intestinal walls are characterized by ____ and
139. Sigmoid colon is a part of ____ respectively.
1) caecum 2) small intestine 1) rugae, villi 2) villi, papillae
3) large intestine 4) both 1 and 3 3) papillae, microvilli 4) fundus, lacteals
 14 Test ID : 635[A]
146. Statement - I: Villi of small intestine are 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
supplied with a network of capillaries. explanation of A
Statement - II: Villi of small intestine are 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
supplied by a large lymph vessel called the correct explanation of A
lacteal. 3) A is true but R is false
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 4) A is false but R is true
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is 151. Which of the following is the proteolytic
incorrect enzyme of the stomach?
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 1) Pepsin 2) Trypsin
correct 3) Maltase 4) Nuclease
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 152. Which of the following is an active enzyme of
147. Match the following and choose the correct intestine juice?
option. 1) Trypsinogen 2) Trypsin
A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn i) Thin muscular sac 3) Enterokinase 4) Pepsinogen
153. Statement - I: Procarboxypeptidase is the
B. Hepatic lobule ii) Gall bladder
inactive enzyme of pancreas.
iii) Mucosa of small Statement - II: Procarboxypeptidase of
C. Gall bladder
intestine pancreas is activated by the active trypsin of
iv) Glisson’s pancreas.
D. Cystic duct
capsule 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 2) Statement I is correct, statement II is
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii incorrect
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
148. Select the correctly matched pair.
154. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t human
1) Cystic duct + hepatic duct = hepato
digestive system.
pancreatic duct
1) Hormonal control of the secretions of
2) Common bile duct + cystic duct = hepato digestive juices is carried out by local
pancreatic duct hormones
3) Hepatic duct + bile duct = cystic duct 2) Muscular activities of alimentary canal can
4) Common bile duct + pancreatic duct = be moderated by neural mechanism
hepato pancreatic duct 3) Gastric and intestinal secretions are
149. Which of the following is the carbohydrate stimulated by neural signals
splitting enzyme? 4) Hormones that stimulate gastric and
1) Salivary amylase intestinal secretion are produced by the
2) Pancreatic lipase intestinal muscularis
3) Gastric pepsinogen 155. Micelles are reformed into chylomicrons these

4) Intestinal dipeptidase are

150. Assertion (A): Dipeptidase is very essential
1) fat coated protein globules
for the completion of proteins digestion. 2) protein coated fat globules
Reason (R): Dipeptidase activates the 3) lipid coated amino acids
intestinal enzymes. 4) protein coated polysaccharides
 15 Test ID : 635[A]
156. Select the incorrect option w.r.t end products 161. A double layered membrane called pleura
of the food and their site of absorption. which envelops?
1) Certain sugars : lower side of the tongue 1) liver 2) pancreas
2) Glucose, fructose : small intestine 3) hepatic lobe 4) lung
3) Simple sugars : stomach 162. The site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2
4) Aminoacids, fatty acids : small intestine between blood and atmosphere air is
157. Statement - I: Nucleic acids are digested 1) bronchi 2) bronchioles
finally into sugars and bases in small intestine. 3) alveoli 4) larynx
Statement - II: Simple sugars are absorbed 163. Additional volume of air, a person can expire
into blood through gastric mucosal epithelium. by a forcible expiration is
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 1) IRV 2) TV
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect 3) ERV 4) VC
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct 164. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs

4) Both statements I and II are incorrect after a normal expiration is

1) FRC 2) RV
158. Match the following and choose the correct
option. 3) IRV 4) ERV
165. Partial pressure of CO2 in systemic arteries is
A. Vomiting i) food poisoning
____ mmHg.
ii) reduce food 1) 45 2) 95
B. Diarrhoea
absorption 3) 104 4) 40
C. Constipation iii) feeling of nausea 166. Total thickness of the diffusion membrane is
iv) Irregular bowel much
D. Indigestion
movements 1) less than a millimetre
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 2) more than a millimetre
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 3) less than a micrometre
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 4) more than a inch
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i 167. Trachea divides into right and left primary
bronchi at the level of
159. The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent
faeces in the 1) 6th cervical vertebra
1) caecum 2) colon 2) 10th thoracic vertebra
3) rectum 4) anus 3) 7th thoracic vertebra
160. Assertion (A): Children who develop 4) 5th thoracic vertebra
Kwashiorkar are often younger than children 168. Contraction of external intercostals muscles
who develop marasmus. 1) increase the pulmonary pressure
Reason (R): Kwashiorkar results from the 2) decrease the thoracic volume
replacement of mothers milk by high calorie 3) increase the thoracic volume
low protein diet. 4) decrease the pulmonary volume
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 169. The centre that can moderate the functions of
explanation of A the respiratory rhythmic centre is
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not 1) cardiac centre
correct explanation of A 2) pneumotaxic centre
3) A is true but R is false 3) rhythmic centre
4) A is false but R is true 4) limbic centre
 16 Test ID : 635[A]
170. Namethe chronic respiratory disorder caused 174. Choose the incorrect statement.
mainly by cigarette smoking 1) Lungs are located in thoracic chamber and
1) fibrosis are anatomically an air tight chambers
2) bronchitis 2) thoracic cavity is anatomically an - air tight
chamber
3) asthma
3) lower boundary of thoracic cavity is the
4) emphysema
diaphragm
171. About70% of CO2 diffused into blood will 4) mammals cannot directly alter the
transported to alveoli in the form of pulmonary volume
1) H2CO3 175. Functions of pneumotaxic centre
2) HCO3- ions 1) reduce the duration of inspiration
3) carbaminohaemoglobin 2) alter the breathing rate
4) HbO2 3) increase the respiratory rate
172. Match the following and choose the correct 4) all of these
option. 176. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due
to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
A. respiratory centre i) emphysema
related to
B. Pneumotaxic centre ii) H2CO3 1) asthma 2) emphysema
C. Damaged alveoli iii) medulla 3) fibrosis 4) all of these
177. Common symptom for both marasmus and
D. Carbonic anhydrase iv) pons
kwashiorkor is
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
1) failure of growth and brain development
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 2) oedema
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 3) dry skin
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i 4) swelling of body parts
173. Statement- I: Various enzymes in organisms 178. Succus entericus is the name given to
acts on complex food molecules to make them 1)ileocaecal valve 2) appendix
simple molecules. 3) caecum 4) intestinal juice
Statement - II: Oxygen is utilized by the 179. Absorption of certain drugs takes place in
organisms to indirectly breakdown simple 1) mouth 2) stomach
molecules. 3) large intestine 4) all of these
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 180. In which of the following ‘C’ shaped
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is cartilaginous rings are absent
incorrect 1) left primary bronchus
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 2) right primary bronchus
correct 3) primary bronchiole
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 4) terminal bronchiole

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