CPP-02

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

1. Two charges of equal magnitude q are placed in air

at a distance 2a apart and third charge –2q is 1 Q 1 Q
(3) (4)
placed at midpoint of the line connecting identical 40 4R 40 8R
charges. The potential energy of the system is
5. W hich of the following is not true about
q 2
3q2 equipotential surfaces ?
(1)  (2) 
80 a 80 a (1) They do not cross each other
(2) They are concentric spheres for uniform electric
5q2 7q2 field
(3)  (4) 
80 a 80 a
(3) Rate of change of potential with position on
2. The electrical potential on the surface of a uniformly them is zero
charged sphere of radius r due to a charge (4) They can be spheres
3 × 10–6 C on it is 500V. The intensity of electric
field on the surface of the sphere is (in N/C) 6. Two charged conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2
have equal surface charge density. The ratio of
(1) < 10 (2) > 200 potential at their surfaces is :
(3) between 10 and 20 (4) < 5
R1 R2
3. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total (1) (2)
charge of 1.11 × 10–10 C distributed non-uniformly R2 R1

on its circumference producing an electric field E
2 2
everywhere in space. The value of line integral  R2   R1 
    (3)   (4)  
E.d (  = 0 at the center of the ring) in volt  R1   R2 

 0
7. The work done by battery to charge an uncharged
is : (given potential at infinity is zero)
parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and
+Q,R plate area of cross section A such that the uniform
electric field between the plates is E, is

1
 0 E2 0E2
(1) 2 (2)

l  Ad Ad
dl

1
(3) 0E2Ad (4) 0E2 Ad
2
(1) + 2 (2) – 1
(3) – 2 (4) 0 8. A capacitor is charged by a battery and the energy
stored is U. The battery is now removed and the
4. Charge Q is uniformly distributed throughout the separation between the plates is doubled. The
volume of a solid hemisphere of radius R. Then the energy stored now is :
potential at center O of the hemisphere is :
U
1 3Q 1 3Q (1) (2) U
(1) (2) 2
40 2R 40 4R
(3) 2U (4) 4U

(1)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
9. The plates in a parallel plate capacitor are
separated by a distance d with air as the medium Qq  a – b  Qq  b – a 
(1) (2)
between the plates. In order to increase the 4  o  ab  4  o  ab 
capacity by 66.67% a dielectric slab of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced between the plates. What Qq  b 1 Qq  a 1 
is the thickness of dielectric slab ? (3)  a2 – b  (4) –
4 o   4 o  b 2 b 
d d
(1) (2) 14. A charged Q is uniformly distributed over a thin rod
4 2
AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at distance 2L from
5d the end A is:-
(3) (4) d
8
O A B
10. In the figure shown, the equivalent capacitance
between A and B is
2L L
10F 10F 3F
A
Q 3 3Q
(1) n (2)
15F 4  oL 2 4  oL

B
5F 6F 6F Q Q 2
(3) n 3 (4) n
(1) 3.75 F (2) 5.25 F 3  oL 4  oL 3
(3) 6.5 F (4) 10.5 F 15. In the arrangement of two concentric conducting
11. Equivalence capacitance between the points X and shell as shown in the figure, charge on the outer
Y in the circuit is shell is 10C and the inner shell is grounded. Then
C C
the charge q on the inner shell is:-

C Y
10C
X

O 2m
C 1m

2C 5C
(1) (2)
3 3

3C (1) Zero (2) q = –10C

(3) (4) None of these
5 (3) q = 20C (4) q = –5C
12. A capacitance of 10 F is charged to a potential of 16. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance
50V with a battery. The battery is now disconnected C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and other
and an additional charge 200 C is given to positive to V 2. The negative end is joined with the positive
plate of the capacitor. The potential difference end of other capacitor. W hen the other two
across the capacitor become : remaining ends are connected the change in energy
of combined system is:-
(1) 100V (2) 70 V
(3) 80 V (4) 60 V 1 2
(1) C  V1 – V2 
13. A charge q is placed at the origin O of X – Y axes 4
as shown in the figure. The work done by external
agent in taking a charge Q from A to B along the 1 2
(2) C  V1  V2 
curved line A B is 4

Y 1
(3)
4

C V12  V22 
B (0,b)
1
X
(4)
4

C V12 – V2 
O A (a,0)
(2)
Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
17. Four capacitors are joined as shown in the figure. 12X 6X
The capacity of each capacitor is 8F. Equivalent (1) (2)
capacitance between A and B is-
7 5
7X 4X
(3) (4)
A 12 3
B 22. In the given arrangement the value of equivalent
(1) 2F (2) 8F capacitance between points A and B is
(3) 16F (4) 32F
18. A parallel plate capacitor having a plate separation 2F 2F
of 2mm is charged by connecting it to a 400V
A 4F B
supply. The energy density is:-
(1) 0.09 J/m3 (2) 0.18 J/m3 2F
2F
(3) 0.36 J/m3 (4) 0.72 J/m3
(1) 4F (2) 6F
19. A charge is q kept in front of neutral metallic sphere
as shown in the figure. The value of electric field at (3) 2F (4) 3F
the centre of sphere due to induced charge on 23. A solid sphere (conducting) is surrounded by metallic
surface of sphere is shell of radius 2r. Initial charges on them are 5C
R and 3C respectively. If both are connected by thin
q metallic wire then charge appearing on A and B are
d

q q
(1) (2)
4 0 d 2
4 0 R2 5C 3C

q 3q r A
(3) 2 (4) B
4 0 R  d  4 0 R2
2r
20. Two identical capacitors 1 and 2 are connected in
series. The capacitor 2 contains a dielectric slab of (1) 4C each (2) 0 and 8C
constant k as shown. They are connected to a
(3) 3C and 5C (4) 2C and 6C
battery of emf v0 volt. The dielectric slab is then
removed. Let Q1 and Q2 be the charge stored in 24. There are two identical capacitors. The first one is
capacitor before removing the slab and Q1 and Q2 uncharged and filled with dielectric constant K while
be the values after removing the slab. Then the other is charged to potential V having air between
its plates. If two capacitors are joined end to end, the
common potential wire be
1
v0 V KV
2 (1) (2)
K 1 K 1

KV V
(3) (4)
Q1 k  1 Q2 k  1 K 1 K 1
(1)  (2) 
Q1 k Q2 2 25. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in a
uniform electric field produced by two oppositely
Q2 k  1 Q1 k charge large plates. The lines of force appear as
(3)  (4) 
Q2 2k Q1 2 + + + + + + + + + +

21. In the arrangement the value of each capacitor is

X F. Then the equivalent capacitance between (1) (2)
point a and c is (In F)
– – – – – – – –

+ + + + + + + + +
c
X (3) (4)
– – – – – – – ––
a
(3)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
26. Three charged particles having charges q, – 2q and 30. The electric potential at any point (x, y, z) in
q are placed at points (–a,0),(0,0) and (a,0) metres is given by V = 3x2. The electric field at a
respectively. The expression for electric potenital at point (2, 0, 1) is
 1 
(0,r) is  k   (r>>a) Vˆ Vˆ
 4 0  (1) 12 i (2) 6 i
m m
kqa2 kqa2
(1) (2)  Vˆ Vˆ
r4 r3 (3) 6 i (4) 12 i
m m
4kqa2 8kqa2
(3)  (4) 31. Three point charges q, –2q and –2q are placed at
r2 r
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
27. Three concentric metallic shells A, B and C of radii work done by some external force to increase their
a, b and c (a<b<c) have surface charge density seperation to 2a slowly, will be
, – and  respectively. If A and C are kept at
same potential then C is equal to
1 2q2 1 q2
ba (1) (2)
4 0 a 40 2a
(1) b – a (2)
2
1 8q
b2  a2 (3) (4) Zero
(3) b + a (4) 40 a2
2
28. The total capacity of the system of capacitors 32. Two concentric shells kept in air have radii R and
shown in figure below between the points A and B
r. They have similar charge and equal surface
is
charge density . The electrical potential at their
common centre is :
2F
A
2F (R  r) (R  r)
1F (1) (2)
1F 0 0

B
2F (R  r) (R  r)
(3) (4)
20 40
(1) 1F (2) 2F
33. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
(3) 3F (4) 4F such that the potential on it’s surface becomes
80V. The potential at the centre of sphere is :
29. The expression for the capacity of a capacitor
formed by compound dielectric placed between (1) 80V (2) 800V
plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in
figure is (Area of each plate is A) (3) 8V (4) Zero

34. A metal sphere A of radius a is charged to potential

d1 d3 V. What will be it’s potential if it is enclosed by a
× × × conducting spherical shell B of radius b and two are
× × ×
× × × connected by a conducting wire ?
k1 × k×2 × k3
× × × B
× × ×
d2 b
A
a

0 A 0 A
(1) (2)
 d1 d2 d3  d1  d2  d3
   
k1  k 2  k 3 a
 k1 k 2 k 3  (1) V (2)   V
b

0 A  k1k 2k 3  A k k k 
(3) (4) 0  1  2  3  b
d1d2d3 d
 1 d 2 d3  (3)   V (4) None of these
a
(4)
Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
35. Figure shows three spherical and equipotential 40. Four capacitors of equal capacitance have an
surfaces A, B and C around a point charge q at equivalent capacitance C1 when connected in series
their common centre. The potential difference VA – and an equivalent capacitance C2 when connected
V B = V B – V C . If t 1 and t 2 be the distances C1
between them, then in parallel. The ratio is
C2
C 1 1
B (1) (2)
A 4 16
t2
t1
1 1
(3) (4)
8 12
41. A charge ‘q’ moves from points A(0, 1) to B(1, 0)
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2
as shown in figure. If |p1| > |p2|, then work done by
(3) t1 < t2 (4) t1  t2 electric force in moving charge ‘q’ from A to B, in
the vicinity of two short dipoles placed at the origin
36. If the energy of a 100 F capacitor charged to 6 kV with their dipole moments as shown, will be
could all be used to lift a 50 kg mass, then what y
would be greatest vertical height through which
mass could be raised ? A

(1) 0.6 mm (2) 3.6 m

p2
x
(3) 1.2 mm (4) 12 m p1 B

37. Energy E is stored in a parallel plate capacitor C1 .

An identical uncharged capacitor C2 is connected
to it, kept in contact with it for a while and then (1) Positive
disconnected, the energy stored in C2 is (2) Negative
(3) Zero
E E
(1) (2) (4) Cannot be determined
2 3
42. A conducting sphere of radius R is charged to
potential V. The electric field at a distance r(>R)
E from centre of the sphere is,
(3) (4) Zero
4
V R2 V
(1) (2)
38. The potential energy of a charged parallel plate r r3
capacitor connected to a battery is U0. If a slab of
dielectric constant K is inserted fully between the RV V
plates, then the new potential energy will be : (3) (4)
r2 R3
U0 43. Two concentric conducting thin shells of radius a
(1) (2) UoK and b (a > b) carry charges Q and 3Q respectively.
K
The net charge on the outer surface of the outer
U0 shell is
(3) (4) U02 (1) 4Q (2) 3Q
K2
(3) 2Q (4) Q
39. The charge stored on 4 F capacitor in the given 44. Two conducting large plates P1 and P 2 are placed
circuit is parallel to each other at very small separation ‘d’.
12V One side surface area of each plate is A. A charge
+2Q is given to plate P1 and –Q to the plate P2. If
P1 and P 2 are now connected by conducting wire,
4F 2F then total amount of heat produced is,

4Q 2 d 9Q2 d
6F (1) (2)
3 0 A 8 0 A
(1) 6 × 10–6C (2) 12 × 10–6C
3Q2 d
(3) (4) None of these
(3) 24 × 10–6C (4) 36 × 10–6C 4 0 A
(5)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
45. In the given figure, if each capacitor has 50. In the given circuit, the potential difference between
capacitance c, then the equivalent capacitance points A and B is 18 V and charge on 2 F
between P and Q of the entire circuit is
capacitor is 24 C. The value of C is

2 F
P Q A 6 F B
C

2c 7c
(1) (2) (1) 1 F (2) 2 F
7 2
(3) 3 F (4) 4 F
5c 2c
(3) (4) 51. Initially switch S is open in the given circuit. If it is
2 5
closed then
46. What is the charge flown from P to Q when the
switch is closed ? S

P Q

C C C
3 F
5V

A B V

2 F CV
(1) Charge flows from B to A
(1) 3c (2) 15c 3

(3) 6c (4) 9c (2) There is no flow of charge through switch

47. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm

CV
has a potential V at a point 8 cm from its centre (3) Charge flows from A to B
then the potential at a point 15 cm from its centre 6
will be
CV
(4) Charge flows from B to A
V 2V 6
(1) (2)
3 3
52. If area of each plate is A and separation between the
plates is d, then the reciprocal of capacitance of the
3V arrangement shown in figure will be
(3) (4) 3V
2
d/2
48. If electrostatic potential at a distance r, from the
centre of a small dipole, in axial position is V, then
potential at a distance 2r from the centre on the
K2
same line is

V
(1) (2) 4V
8 K1
V
(3) 8V (4)
4
49. In a region, electrostatic potential varies along x- 20 A(K1  K 2 ) 0 A(K1  K 2 )
(1) (2)
axis according to the equation V = 5x3/2 volt where d (2  K1  K 2 ) d (2  K1  K 2 )
x is in m. Magnitude of electric field at x = 4 m is

(1) 40 V/m (2) 15 V/m K1  1K 2  1 d d d

(3) 
(3) 20 V/m (4) 5 V/m
K1  K 2  2K1K 2  A0 (4) 0 A 0 A(K1  K 2 )

(6)
Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
53. The work done by the battery (in J) in charging the 58. A long string with a charge of  per unit length passes
capacitors to steady state is through an imaginary cube of edge a. The maximum
flux of electric field through cube will be
2 F 3 F

a 2a
(1) 0 (2)
0
3 F 2 F

6 a 3 a
(3) (4)
10V 0 0
(1) 240 (2) 1005
59. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by a battery
(3) 250 (4) Zero to a potential difference V. Now it is disconnected
54. A dielectric slab (K = 4) is put between the plates of from this battery and connected to another battery of
a charged parallel plate capacitor. If charge on the potential difference 2V, so that positive plate of
positive plate of the capacitor is Q then the induced capacitor is connected to positive terminal to the
charge on the face of the slab that faces the positive battery and negative plate of the capacitor is
plate will be connected to the negative terminal of the battery. The
heat produced in the circuit is
3Q Q
(1) – (2) –
4 4 1
(1) CV2 (2) CV2
2
3Q Q
(3) (4)
4 4
3
55. Two conducting plates A and B are placed parallel to (3) CV2 (4) 2CV2
2
each other. A is given a charge Q1 and B a charge Q2.
The surface charge density at the inner surface of 60. A thin rod is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius R.
the plate A is (S = surface area of each face of plate) The rod has a uniform linear charge density . The
potential at the centre of the arc, point P is
Q1  Q 2 Q2
(1) (2)
2S 2S

Q1  Q2 Q1
(3) (4)
2S 2S
R
56. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged and then
disconnected from battery. When a dielectric material
P
is inserted between the plates of the capacitor, then
which of the following does not change?
 
(1) Electric field between the plates (1) 2 R (2) 4
0 0
(2) Potential difference across the plates
(3) Ratio of electric field in the region and potential
difference between plates  
(3) 2 (4) 
0 0
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor
57. Four identical charge particles having charge q are
placed fixed at the vertices of a square of side length 4F 6F
a. A negative charge –Q having mass m is situated A•
61.
at the centre of the square. The minimum velocity
given to –Q so that it can escape from there is 4F 2F 6F
1 1
 Qq2 2  2
 8Qq 2  2
•
(1)   (2)   4F B 6F
 40ma   0ma 

1 1 Find equivalent capacitance between A and B

2 2
 Qq2 2   Qq 2 
(3)   (4)   (1) 2F (2) 4F
 0ma   40ma 
(3) 6F (4) 8F
(7)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
62. Two conducting spheres each given a charge q are 66. Equipotential surfaces in a region are shown.
kept far apart as shown. The amount of charge that Magnitude of electric field in the region is
crosses the switch s, when it is closed, is
Y (m) 10 V
20 V
q q 30 V
40 V
R 50 V
2R 30°
–20 –10 0 10 20 X (m)
(1) q/3 (2) 2q/3

(3) 3q / 4 (4) Zero

63. An insulator plate is passed through the plates of (1) 2 V/m (2) 10 V/m
a capacitor as shown in the figure below. Then
current outside the capacitor (3) 1 V/m (4) Zero

67. In given circuit, ratio of charge on 2 F capacitor to

the charge on 3 F capacitor will be
A B

1 F 2 F

3 F

(1) First flows from A to B and then from B to A

5V
(2) First flows from B to A and then from A to B (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) Always flows from B to A (3) 1 : 9 (4) 2 : 9
68. Capacity of an air filled parallel plate capacitor is C. If
(4) Always flows from A to B
d
a metal plate of thickness is symmetrically
64. Find the equivalent capacitance between point a 2
and b in the following arrangement of plates. Each inserted between plates as shown in figure, then the
plate has the area ‘A’ and separation between the new capacity of the capacitor is
plates is ‘d’

a Metal plate
d/2 d

b
(1) C (2) 2C

2 A 0 3 A 0 C C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 d 2 d 2 4
69. 5 plates each of area A and separation d between
2A 0 3A 0 consecutive plates are arranged as shown. Equivalent
(3) (4) capacitance between points A and B will be
d d

65. A positive charge is moving under the effect of a

uniform electric field alone. It moves from potential A B
zone V1 to potential zone V2 (V2 < V1). Its speed

(1) Increases

(2) Decreases 0 A 3 0 A
(1) (2)
3d d
(3) Remains constant
4 0 A 0 A
(4) Will become zero at V2 (3) (4)
d 4d
(8)
Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
70. In the circuit shown below, to have same potentials 74. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by connecting
of points a and b, a dielectric of constant K = 2 should it to a battery of emf . The capacitor is now
be completely filled in disconnected and reconnected to the same battery
with the polarity reversed. The heat developed in the
C1 = 1 F a C2 = 4 F connecting wires is

1 2
(1) C2 (2) C
C3 = 4 F C4 = 4 F 2

b 3 2
(3) 2C2 (4) C
2
75. Large conducting parallel plates are arranged with
some charges on them as shown. Find the charge
flown through switch after closing the switch
(1) C1 and C3 (2) C1 and C4
+3Q –8Q +Q
(3) C2 and C4 (4) C2 and C3

71. A capacitor of capacitance 400 µF is charged upto a

potential of 100 volt and another capacitor of
capacitance 600 µF is charged upto a potential of
200 volt. The two capacitors are connected in such a
way that the positive plates are connected at one
point and the negative plates are connected at another
point. The loss of energy will be

(1) 24 J (2) 12 J
(1) +4Q towards earth (2) +2Q towards earth
(3) 1.2 J (4) Zero
(3) +4Q towards plate (4) +2Q towards plate
72. n identical capacitors in series are connected to a 76. The ratio of field energy stored inside and outside a
battery and at steady state the total energy stored uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R and volume
by the assembly is w1. If they had been connected charge density  is
in parallel across same source, the total energy would
11 5
w1 (1) (2)
have been w2. Then w equals 5 6
2
1 6
(1) 1 : n (2) 1 : n2 (3) (4)
5 5
(3) n : 1 (4) n2 : 1 
77. A dipole of dipole moment P  2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ is
73. Three identical charge (Q) are fixed at each corner of placed at point A(2, –3, 1). The electric potential
a equilateral triangle. What should be the minimum due to dipole at point B(4, –1, 0) is equal to (All the
velocity given to charged particle (–q) placed at the parameters specified here are in SI units)
centre of the triangle to escape from the electric field
of identical charges? [m = mass of charge particle at (1) 2 × 109 volts (2) –2 × 109 volts
centre] (3) 3 × 109 volts (4) –3 × 109 volts
Q 78. Consider the situation shown in figure. The work
done in taking a point charge from P to A is W A,
from P to B is W B and from P to C is W C
l l
–q B

Q l Q
R
1 1
 Qq 3  2
 Qq 3  2
C P
(1)   (2)   +Q A
 4 0lm   20lm  (point R
charge)
1 1
 3Qq 3  2
 3Qq 3  2 (1) W A < W B < W C (2) W A > W B > W C
(3)   (4)  
 2 0lm   0lm  (3) W A = W B = W C (4) None of these

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Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
79. Two concentric uniformly charged spherical shells 83. Two identical point charges are fixed at x=–a and
of radius 10cm and 20cm having charges 10C and x=+a on the x-axis. Another point charge ‘Q’ is
20C on them are arranged as shown in figure. The placed at the origin. The change in the electric
magnitude of potential difference between the two potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a
shells is small distance x along the x-axis, is approximately
proportional to
10C
(1) x (2) x 2

20C 1
(3) x 3 (4)
x
20cm
84. Consider a non-spherical conductor shown in figure
(1) 4.5 × 1011V (2) 2.7 × 1011V which is given a certain amount of positive charge.
(3) 0 (4) None of these The charge distributes itself on the surface such
that the charge densities are 1 , 2 and 3 at the
80. Two metallic spheres of radii ‘a’ and ‘b’ are placed
away from each other and are connected by a thin region 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Then
conducting wire. A charge ‘Q’ is given to one of the
sphere. The charge on each sphere at electrostatic 3
equilibrium is
1 2
Qb Qb
(1) q1  2
, q2 
(a  b) (a  b)2 3

Qa Qb (1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 2 > 3 > 1

(2) q1  , q2 
(a  b) (a  b)
(3) 3 > 1 > 2 (4) 2 > 1 > 3
Qb Qa 85. Charges are given to three large parallel conducting
(3) q1  , q2 
(a  b) (a  b) plates as shown in figure. Now the switch ‘S’ is
closed. The value of electric field between the
Qa2 Qb2 plates (2) and (3) is (each plate has surface of Area
(4) q1  2 2
, q2  2
a b a  b2 A)
81. A 2µF capacitor is charged as shown in figure. The
percentage of its stored energy, dissipated after the 10C 20C 30C
switch S is turned in position 2, is
1 2

S
2µF 8µF
1 2 3
(1) 0% (2) 20%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
82. A point charge ‘q’ is placed at a point inside a 30C 25C
hollow conducting sphere. Which of the following (1) (2)
electric field lines pattern should be correct? A 0 A 0

20C
(3) (4) zero
A 0
(1) (2)
86. In a regular polygon of ‘n’ sides, each corner is at
a distance ‘r’ from the centre. Identical charges are
placed at (n–1) corners. At the centre, the intensity
is E and the potential is V. The ratio of V/E has
magnitude
(3) (4) (1) rn (2) r(n–1)

(3) (n–1)/r (4) r(n–1)/n

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Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
87. Which of the following statement is correct? 90. Given R1 = 1, R2 = 2, C1 = 2F C2 = 4F The
time constants (in s) for the circuits I, II, III are
(1) The value of electric potential is same at every
respectively
point inside a non-concentric cavity created in
a uniformly charged non-conducting solid
spherical charge distribution
C1
(2) Decreasing the separation between two point
charges always increases their potential C1 C2 C2
energy. R2
V R1
(3) The locus of all such points where the potential
due to a short dipole is zero is a straight line R1
R2
(4) None of these
(I) V
88. Three long coaxial conducting cylindrical shells have (II)

radii R, 2R and 2 2 R. Inner and outer shells are

connected to each other. The capacitance across R1 R2
middle and outer shells per unit length is C1 C2

1
0 60
(1) 3 (2) (III)
ln2 ln2
8 8
(1) 18, ,4 (2) 18,4,
0 9 9
(3) (4)  0 ln 2
2ln2
8 8
89. Four identical plates of surface area A are placed (3) 4, ,18 (4) ,18, 4
9 9
parallel to each other at equal distance ‘d’ as shown
in the figure. The space between 2nd and 3rd is filled 91. Find the equivalent capacitance of the circuit between
with a dielectric of dielectric constant K = 2. The points A and B considering the ladder to be infinitely
capacitance of the system across terminals A and B large
is C 2C 4C 8C

A C C C C B

A C 2C 4C 8C

(1) C (2) 2C

B (3) 4C (4) 8C

92. The heat produced in the circuit shown in figure on

closing the switch ‘S’ is
2 0 A
(1)
d
2F

0 A +20C –20C
(2)
d S
+50C –50C
4 0 A
(3) 5F
d

(1) 2J (2) zero

5 0 A
(4) (3) 100J (4) none of these
3 d
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Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute
93. The figure shows electric lines of forces. If EA and 97. Four charges of magnitude q each are placed at
EB are electric field strength at points A and B and the vertices of a square of side length a with origin
VA and V B are the electrostatic potential at these O at centroid. Find the electrostatic potential at
points, then which of the following option is correct. point P, given OP=r, r>>a
y P
A
B +

– 45° +
(1) EA > EB , VA > VB x
O
(2) EA > EB , VB > VA
–
(3) EA < EB , VA > VB
qa qa
(4) EA < EB , VB > VA (1) 2 (2)
4 0 r 2 0 r 2
94. An electron ‘e’ is released from the bottom plate A
as shown in the figure (E=104 NC–1 ). The velocity
of the electron when it reaches plate B will be qa qa
(3) (4)
equal to  0 r 2 8 0 r 2
B 98. Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown. The
21cm electrostatic energy of interaction between these
e0 dipoles is
A
(1) 2.72 ×107 m/s (2) 1.0 ×107 m/s
(3) 1.25 ×107 m/s (4) 1.65 ×107 m/s
r p1
95. A uniformly charged soap bubble of radius r is in
equilibrium with air pressure inside and outside
equal. If T is the surface tension of soap solution,
the potential of the soap solution is 
p2
4Tr 8Tr
(1) (2)
0 0
2kP1P2Cot 2kP1P2 Cos
(1) 3 (2)
2Tr Tr r r3
(3) (4)
0 0
2kP1P2 Sin  4kP1P2 Cot 
96. Consider equal and opposite uniformly charged (3) 3 (4)
r r3
large parallel plates with charge density of
magnitude . A small charge q is moved along the 99. The potential difference between points A and B at
rectangular path ABCDA where side AB=x and side the periphery of a spherical cavity of radius r made
BC=y. Then the correct statement is in a solid nonconducting sphere of uniform charge
+ – density  is

D C
+ + +
+ + + +
+
+ + C+ A C+
A B 1 2
+ + + +
+ + a B
+
(1) Work done by electric field along path AB is + +
qx
positive and equal to
0
3 ar 2 ar
(1) (2)
(2) Point A is at lower potential 2 0 0
(3) Work done by electric field along path ABCDA
may or may not be zero 2 ar ar
(3) (4)
(4) All of these 3 0 3 0
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Aakash Institute Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
100. A bullet of mass m and charge ‘q’ is fired towards a 103. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105V/
solid uniformly charged sphere of radius ‘R’ and having m between the plates. If charge on the capacitor is 1
total charge ‘+q’. If it strikes the surface with speed C, then force on each of the plates is
‘u’, then find the minimum speed ‘u’ so that it can
(1) 0.5N (2) 0.05N
penetrate through the sphere (neglect all resistance
forces acting on bullet except electrostatic force). (3) 0.005N (4) None

++ + 104. A capacitor of capacitance 1F is charged to 30V.

+ + + + The battery is then disconnected. If the capacitor is
+ + + ++ now connected across a 2F uncharged capacitor,
q,m + + ++ + +
+ ++ + the energy lost by the system is
+ +
(1) 300 J (2) 450 J
q q (3) 225 J (4) 150 J
(1) (2)
2 0 mR 4 0 mR
105. A parallel plate air cored capacitor has a capacitance
C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of dielectric
q 3q constant 5 as shown in figure, the % increase in the
(3) (4)
8 0 mR 4 0 mR capacitance is

101. A spherical shell with an inner radius ‘a’ and an outer

radius ‘b’ is made of conducting material. A point
charge +Q is placed at the centre of the spherical
shell and a total charge ‘–q’ is placed on the shell.
The charge is distributed on the surfaces as (1) 400% (2) 66.6%
–q (3) 33.3% (4) 200%
b
a 106. The effective capacitance between A and B is
+Q

23F 7F
(1) –Q on the inner surface, –q on the outer
surface 12F 13F 1F
(2) –Q on the inner surface, –q +Q on the outer A B
surface
(3) +Q on the inner surface, –q –Q on the outer
surface 10F 1F
(4) The charge –q is spread uniformly between the
inner and outer surface
102. Two large parallel conducting plates are given charges 28 15
(1) F (2) F
Q1 and Q2 respectively as shown in the figure. Find 3 2
the charge flown through the switch after the switch
(3) 15F (4) None
is closed.
107. Three capacitors with their respective breakdown
Q1 Q2 voltages have been marked.
6F,5V
4F,20V

A B
3F,10V
Find the maximum potential difference that can be
(1) Q1+Q2 towards the plate applied across terminals A and B to keep each of
(2) Q1 towards ground them safe.

(3) Q2 towards ground (1) 60V (2) 30V

(4) Q1+Q2 towards ground (3) 16.25V (4) 15V


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Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Aakash Institute

CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2)

29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (3)

36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (3)

43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (2)

50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)

57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (2)

64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (2)

71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (2)

78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (4)

85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (1)

92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (2)

99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (2)

106. (2) 107. (3)



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 CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Solution

1. If Hg2 Cl2 is 100% ionised then its van’t Hoff factor (3) Both water and C2H5OH in pure state
will be
(4) Neither C2H5OH nor water
(1) 2 (2) 4
6. Consider 0.1 M solution of two solutes X and Y.
(3) 6 (4) 3 Solute X dissociates in two ions whereas Y
dimerises in the solution. Which of the following is
2. Lowering of vapour pressure for 1m aqueous
false ? (X and Y represents solution containing X
solution is 1.08 mm of Hg at 25°C. The vapour
and Y respectively)
pressure of pure liquid at 25°C is 10x mm of Hg.
The value of x will be, assuming very dilute solution
(1)  Tb X   Tb Y (2)  B  P  X  B  P  Y
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 3 (3)  F  P  X  F  P  Y (4)  Tf X   Tf Y
3. How many terms will have negative value for a 7. An ideal solution was found to have a vapour
solution showing –ve deviation ? pressure of 80 torr when the mole fraction of non-
volatile solute is 0.2. Find vapour pressure of pure
Gmix , Smix , Hmix , Vmix
solvent at same temperature.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 64 torr (2) 72 torr
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) 80 torr (4) 100 torr
8. The freezing point of a 4% (w/v) aqueous solution of
4. ‘A’ is equal to the freezing point of 10% (w/v)
Dry Air Moist Air aqueous solution of ‘B’. The molecular weight of A
is 60, find out the molecular weight of B. Assume
both A and B are non electrolyte and
molarity = molality
(1) 150 (2) 90
The above set up has been repeated four times with (3) 45 (4) 180
4 different aqueous solution of same non-volatile
solute with different concentrations. The loss in 9. W hen mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous
weight of solution in container is in order D > B > solution of KI, then the :
C > A. Arrange A, B, C, D in terms of concentration (1) Freezing point is raised
of solute (2) Freezing point is lowered
(1) D > B > C > A (2) A > B > C > D (3) Freezing point does not change
(3) A > C > B > D (4) A > D > C > B (4) Boiling point does not change
5. Azeotropic mixture of water and C2 H5 OH boils at 10. Henry law constant of N2 in water is 104 atm. Find
351K. By distilling the mixture, it is possible to the molality (Approx) of N2 in water when pressure
obtain of N 2 over water surface is 5 atm (consider
temperature remains constant)
(1) Pure C2H5OH only
(1) 0.10 (2) 0.028
(2) Pure water only
(3) 0.05 (4) 0.12

(1)
(1)
Solution Aakash Institute
11. Vapour pressure of a solvent is decreased by 10 The two beakers are inside a jar as shown and
mm of Hg. When a non-volatile, non-electrolytic kept for a long duration. Then
solute was added. Mole fraction of the solute in (1) Mass of sugar solution will increase
solution is 0.2. Find out mole fraction of the solute
if decrease in vapour pressure is 20 mm of Hg : (2) Mass of sugar solution will decrease

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) Mass of H 2 O in the right hand beaker will
increase
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.3
(4) No change in mass of either beaker
12. The pair of solutions which show –ve deviation from
Raoult’s law is : 18. Relative lowering of vapour pressure produced in a
solution in which mole fraction of solvent is 0.7 is
(1) CCI4 + CHCl3
(1) 1 (2) 0.7
Cl Br (3) 0.3 (4) 0.5
(2) 19. Which of the following physical quantity is not zero
+
for an ideal solution?
(3) H2O + HNO3 (1) Hmixing (2) S mixing

O (3) V mixing (4) All of these

C 20. Which one of the following form maximum boiling

(4) + CS2
CH3 point azeotrope ?
H3C
(1) CHCl3 + C2H5OH (2) Ethanol + water
13. Two solutions of glucose have osmotic pressure 1.5
atm and 2.5 atm respectively. 1 lit of first solution (3) Benzene + toluene (4) HCl + water
is mixed with 2 lit. of second solution at the same
temperature. Then the osmotic pressure of resultant 21. Relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solution
containing 1 mole K2SO4 in 54g H2O is (K2SO4 is
solution will be :
100% ionised)
(1) 2.16 atm (2) 3.5 atm
(3) 5.12 atm (4) 7.2 atm 1 3
(1) (2)
55 55
14. W hich one of the following solution has highest
boiling point ? (considering Molality  Molarity) 3 1
(3) (4)
(1) 0.2 (M) Aqueous NaCl solution 4 2

(2) 0.5 (M) Aqueous Glucose solution 22. In the following graph, vapour pressure is potled
against mole fraction of the components.
(3) 0.3 (M) Aqueous CaCl2 solution
(4) 0.2 (M) Aqueous urea solution Which of the following statement is correct ?

15. W hat is T b for 0.2 molal aqueous solution of

E
urea ? (Kb of H2O = 0.52) A
F B
(1) 0.104 K (2) 101.04 K
vapour
(3) 0.506 K (4) 5.06 K pressure G
16. The value of van’t Hoff factor for K4[Fe(CN)6], if it is
20 % ionised is C D
xA=1 H xB xB=1
(1) 5 (2) 4 (Mole fraction
of B)
(3) 1.8 (4) 1
(1) AD represents variation of vapour pressure of
liquid A with xA

(2) BC represents variation of vapour pressure of

liquid B with xB
17.
(3) GH + FH = EH
Sugar solution water
is water (4) All of these

(2)
Aakash Institute Solution
23. Henry’s law constant for O2 and N2 are 29. The solubility of a specific non volatile salt is high
KO = 3.3 × 107, KN = 6.6 × 107 at 25°C. If 2gm, 4gm and 6gm of the salt added to
2 2 100gm at 25°C, the vapour pressure X,Y,Z
x o2 (respectively) will follow the order of
Calculate ratio of x , i.e, the ratio of mole fraction (1) X>Y=Z (2) X>Y>Z
N2

of O2 and N2 dissolved in water at 25°C assuming (3) Z>Y>X (4) X = Y = Z

that air contains 80% N2 and 20% O2 by volume 30. Henry law constant for N2 in water at 25°C is 2×105
(1) 0.62 (2) 0.92 atm. Mass of N2 in 500mL water at 1atm pressure
at 25°C is:
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.5
(1) 2.4×10–5 g (2) 1.4×10–6 g
24. The solubility of which of the following substances
will decrease with increase of temperature ? (3) 1.4×10–4 g (4) 3.9×10–3 g
(1) Calcite (2) Na2CO3 31. Which of the following aqueous solution has highest
(3) Na2 SO4 (4) All of these boiling point?

25. W hich of the following will not show positive (1) 0.02 M NaCl (2) 0.05 M sucrose
deviation ? (3) 0.005 M CaCl2 (4) 0.02 M CaCl2
(1) Ethyl alcohol and cyclohexane 32. A complex is represented as CoCl3 .xNH3 . Its 0.1
(2) CCl4 and CHCl3 molar solution in water shows melting point –
0.558K. (K f of H2O=1.86 K molality–1 ). Assuming
(3) n-butane and n-pentane
100% ionization of complex and coordination
(4) CH3COCH3 and aniline number of Co is 6, formula of complex is
26. For which of the solvent Kf has the highest value ? (1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) Benzene (C6H6 ) (3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (4) All of these
(2) Water (H2O) 33. For (a) positive deviation solution, enthalpy change
(3) CCl4 is
(4) Camphor (C10H16O) (1) H = 0 (2) H > 0

C
(3) H < 0 (4) All of these
ent E
solv 34. Amount of ice that will separate out on cooling a
27. B
ution
so l
D solution containing 50 g ethelene glycol in 200 gm
V.P. water to – 9.3°C will be (Kf water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
A
(1) 38.7 g (2) 3.87 g
Tf Tf°
(3) 83.7 g (4) 8.37 g
Which of the following statements is/are correct for 35. The temperature at which 10% aqueous solution
the above graph ? (W/V) of glucose will exhibit the osmotic pressure
(1) BC shows variation of vapour pressure of pure of 16.4 atm is [R = 0.082 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1 ]
solvent with temperature
(1) 360 K (2) 180 K
(2) D represent freezing point of solution
(3) 90 K (4) 300 K
(3) AB corresponds to the vapour pressure of solid
at different temperature 36. Find the amount of urea that should be dissolved in
100g of water in order to reduce its vapour pressure
(4) All of these
by 25%
28. Vapour pressure of a pure solvent is 200mm Hg. If
(1) 83.33g
2 mole of a non volatile solute is mixed in 8 mole
of solvent, the relative lowering of vapour pressure (2) 111.11g
will be (3) 18.51g
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (4) 45g
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8

(3)
Solution Aakash Institute
37. At 40°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquids, p0B
A
benzene and toluene are 160 mm Hg and 60 mm v.p.
Hg respectively. At the same temperature, the p0A B
vapour pressure of an equimolar solution of two
liquids, assuming the ideal solution should be C

(1) 140 mm Hg (2) 110 mm Hg xB = 0 xB D xB = 1

(3) 220 mm Hg (4) 100 mm Hg (mol fraction)
Which of the following is correct regarding the plot?
38. KH for H2 (g) / water system is 5.34×107 torr. If the
partial pressure of H2 over a solution at 25°C is (1) A is more volatile than B
760 torr, then determine the solubility of hydrogen. (2) B will be more in liquid phase starting from
Assume density of H2O and solutions are same equal mole fractions of ‘A’ and ‘B’
(1) 6.4 × 10–3 mol L–1 (3) AD = BD + CD
(2) 7.89 × 10–4 mol L–1 (4) AD = BC + CD
(3) 5.9 × 10–3 mol L–1 44. A gas exerts a partial pressure of 0.2 atm over
(4) 8.9 × 10–4 mol L–1 water. The Henrys’ law constant is 104 atm. The
solubility of the gas in millimol per litre will be
39. An aqueous solution of glucose boils at 100.01°C. approximately
Molal elevation constant of water is
–1 (1) 2.75 × 10–5 (2) 1.1 × 10–3
0.5 K molality . Find number of moles of glucose
in 100g water (3) 1.1 × 10–5 (4) 2.75 × 10–4
(1) 1×102 mole (2) 1×10–2 mole 45. If a saturated solution of potassium nitrate is
heated
(3) 2×10–3 mole (4) 3×10–4 mole
(1) It becomes unsaturated
40. Select from the following that has highest osmotic
pressure (2) It becomes super saturated

(1) 0.1 N urea (2) 0.1 N NaCl (3) It remains saturated

(3) 0.1 N Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 N Na3PO4 (4) Crystallization occurs

41. For a solution containing a non-volatile, non- 46. If an ideal solution is produced by mixing
electrolytic solute the relative lowering in vapour components A and B, then which of the following is
pressure is 0.2. If total number of moles present in correct?
the solution is 5, then which of the following is (1) Gmix = 0
correct ?
(2) Hmix = 0
(1) Mol fraction of solvent, Xsolvent = 0.8
(3) Gmix = 0, S mix = 0
(2) Mol fraction of solute, Xsolute = 0.8
(4) S mix = 0
(3) Number of moles of solute = 4
47. For which of the following binary mixtures,
(4) Number of moles of solvent = 2 Hmix > 0 ?
42. Two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressures in (1) C2H5Cl + C2H5Br
the ratio 1 : 3. The mol fraction of ‘A’ in vapour
phase, when A and B are mixed in 1 : 3 molar ratio (2) C2H5OH + CH3–CO–CH3
in a solution, will be (3) H2O + HNO3
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (4) CHCl3 + CH3 – CO – CH3
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.5
43. Consider the following graph, depicting the variation
of total vapour pressure and vapour pressure of
components of a solution with mol fraction.

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Aakash Institute Solution
48. For a mixture of HCl and water, the following (2) It is obeyed by gases at low temperature and
statements are written high pressure
(a) The solution exhibits negative deviation from (3) W ith increase in temperature the value of
Raoult’s law Henrys’ law constant decreases
(b) The solution boils at a temperature higher than (4) All of these
those of either components
55. For a solution with negative deviations which of the
(c) The solution is an example of maximum boiling following is true ?
azeotrope
(1) Gmix < 0, S mix > 0
The correct statement(s) is/are
(2) Hmix < 0, V mix < 0
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) only
(3) Gmix < 0, S mix < 0
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
49. The ebullioscopic constant for a solvent is 0.5 K
56. W hich of the following binary solutions exhibits
molal–1 . The boiling point of a solution containing
negative deviations from Raoult’s law ?
0.05 mole of a non-volatile, non-electrolytic solute
in 0.25 kg solvent will increase by (1) Acetone + Ethanol
(1) 10 K (2) 1 K (2) Pyridine
(3) 0.1 K (4) 100 K (3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
50. Which of the following solutions will have highest (4) Cyclohexane + Ethanol
freezing point ?
57. B.P. of Azeotropic mixture of HNO3 and H2O is, (if
(1) 0.1 M KCl (2) 0.1 M BaCl2 B.P of HNO3 is x and B.P of H2O is y)
(3) 0.1 M FeCl3 (4) 0.1 M Fe2(SO4)3 xy
(1) greater than y (2)
51. In case of osmosis, solvent moves from 2
(1) Higher vapour pressure region to lower vapour yx
pressure region (3) Less than x (4)
3
(2) Higher concentration to lower concentration 58. An element ‘X’ exists as a polymer Xn . When 3.2
g of X is dissolved in 200 g of a solvent (Kf = 5 K
(3) Lower vapour pressure region to higher vapour
molal–1 ), the freezing point is lowered by 0.125°C.
pressure region
The molecular formula of Xn is (Atomic wt of X = 80)
(4) Higher osmotic pressure region to lower
(1) X2 (2) X4
osmotic pressure region
(3) X8 (4) X6
52. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile
solute B in solvent A mixed in 2 : 5 molar ratio is 59. A 5.25% w/v solution of an unknown solute is
250 mm. Considering ideality, calculate the vapour isotonic with a 1.5% w/v solution of urea at constant
pressure of a solution prepared by mixing B and A temperature and in the same solvent. Assuming
in the ratio 3 : 4 equal densities of both the solution, calculate the
molecular mass of the unknown solute
(1) 200 mm of Hg (2) 300 mm of Hg
(1) 90 (2) 105
(3) 150 mm of Hg (4) 375 mm of Hg
(3) 115 (4) 210
53. An equimolar solution of two volatile liquids A (M =
150 g mol–1) and B (M = 200 g mol–1) has vapour 60. Which one is/are correct ?
pressure 500 torr. If vapour pressure of pure B is
Statement I : Molar mass of polymer is
400 torr, the mol fraction of component A in vapour
determined by osmotic pressure Method
phase is
Statement II : Mixture of CCl 4 + Toluene is
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6
positive deviation solution
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
Statement III : During formation of positive
54. W hich of the following is true with respect to deviation solution heat is absorbed
Henry’s law ?
Statement IV : Upon addition of I2(s) in aqeous KI
(1) W ith increase in pressure of the gas, it’s solution, B.P increases
solubility increases
(1) I, III, IV only (2) II, III
(3) I, II, III only (4) I, II, III, IV

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Solution Aakash Institute
61. Which of the following will have the same value of 69. The following plot best represents
Van’t Hoff factor as that of K4[Fe(CN)6]? (Assume
equal degree of dissociation)
(1) Na2 SO4 (2) Al(NO3)3
solubility
(3) Al2(SO4 )3 (4) K3[Fe(CN)6 ]
62. Calculate the Van’t Hoff factor (i) of K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] Temperature
which is 80% ionised
(1) NaCl (2) NaNO3
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.8
(3) Na2SO4.10H2O (4) CaCl2
(3) 3.2 (4) 4.2
70. Which of the following combinations is correct for
63. Which of the following is not associated with ideal a binary solution ?
solution?
(1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 ; solH > 0 ; solV = 0
(1) Hmix = 0 (2) S mix = 0
O
(3) V mix = 0 (4) Gmix < 0
(2) CH3 – C – CH3 and CHCl3 ; solH < 0 ; solV
64. If P 1 is osmotic pressure of 0.1 M KCl and P 2 is
< 0
osmotic pressure of 0.1 M acetic acid then
(3) H2O and HCl ; solH > 0 ; solV < 0
(1) P2 > P 1 (2) P1 > P 2
(4) H2O and CH3OH ; solH < 0 ; solV < 0
(3) P1 = P 2 (4) P1 = 0
71. The depression in freezing point of 0.01m aqueous
65. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by CH3 COOH solution is 0.02046°. 1m urea solution
mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q is 72 torr. The freezes at –1.86°C. Assuming molality equal to
pure vapour pressure of liquid P is 80 torr. The pure molarity, pH of CH3COOH solution is
vapour pressure of liquid Q is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 80 torr (2) 60 torr
(3) 3.2 (4) 4.2
(3) 40 torr (4) 20 torr
72. Choose the correct statement
66. Which has minimum freezing point?
(1) Calcium acetate shows decrease in solubility
(1) 1 molar NaCl solution with rise in temperature
(2) 1 molar KCl solution (2) Solubility of KNO3, NaNO3 decreases with rise
(3) 1 molar glucose solution in temperature

(4) 1 molar CaCl2 solution (3) Solubility of gases increases with increase in
temperature
67. Which of the following is correct?
(4) Vapour pressure depends on volume of the
(1) The solubility of a gas in water increases with vessel in which liquid - vapour equilibrium is
increase of temperature established.
(2) The solubility of a gas in water increases with
73. An aqueous solution freezes at – 0.186°C
increase of pressure
(K f = 1.86 K kgmol –1 , K b = 0.512 K kg mol –1 ). The
(3) Higher the value of KH at a particular pressure, elevation of boiling point of the solution is (in K)
higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquid
(1) 0.186 (2) 0.512
(4) Henry’s law is valid if the gas reacts chemically
with the solvent and dissociates or associates 0.512
(3) (4) 0.0512
in the solvent 1.86
68. 5 mol of solvent along with 2 mol of a non-volatile 74. Osmotic pressure of a sucrose solution is 4.926
solute exhibit vapour pressure = 250 mm g. If we atm at 27°C. Which of the following is not isotonic
make a mixture containing 4 mol of the same with the given solution ?
solvent and 3 mol of the same solute, then what
would be vapour pressure now? (1) 3.6% glucose solution

(1) 300 mm g (2) 200 mm g (2) 1.2% urea solution

(3) 225 mm g (4) 275 mm g (3) 0.585% NaCl solution
(4) 1.7% NaNO3 solution

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Aakash Institute Solution
79. According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas in
a given volume of liquid increasing with increase in
75.
B (1) Temperature (2) Pressure
A
(3) Henry Constant (KH) (4) Both (1) and (2)
0.1 M 0.1 M 80. Which of the following property will have the same
+2
Cu (aq.) NH3 (aq.) sign of value for ideal solution and solution showing
the deviation ? [Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1 )
S.P.M. (1) Gmix , Hmix , Smix (2) Vmix , Smix

In which of the following compartment, Blue colour (3) Smix , Gmix (4) Vmix , Gmix
of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ will be observed first ? 81. 0.1 Molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte AB3 is
(1) A compartment 90% ionized. The boiling point of solution at 1 atm
is [Kb(H2 O) = 0.52K.kg.mol–1 ]
(2) B compartment
(1) 273.19K (2) 274.92K
(3) Blue colour will be observed at same time in
both compartment (3) 374.92K (4) 373.19K

(4) None of these compartment shows blue colour 82. 24 g of C2O2H4 is dissolved in 100 g water, in order
to produce ice, mixture is cooled to –10°C, if
Kf = 1.86, the amount of ice (in g) separated
76. B C D
• • • (1) 25.6 (2) 50.5
A
• (3) 75.6 (4) 20.8
B.P
83. The total vapour pressure of a solution of methanol
and ethanol in an ideal solution is given by P =
XA = 1 XB = 1 135  + 100 (where  = mole fraction of
methanol). Pure state vapour pressure of methanol
is
Which of the following point represents Azeotropic
Mixture concentration ? (1) 235 mm g (2) 100 mm g

(1) A (2) B (3) 35 mm g (4) 135 mm g

84. Henry’s constant for Ar is 40 kbar in water. Then
(3) C (4) D
molal concentration of Ar in water kept at 10 bar
77. nA  A n pressure will be :
(1) 0.09 (2) 0.05
if  is the degree of association, what will be the
value of van’t Hoff factor (i) ? (3) 1.25 (4) 0.014
85. A mixture of benzene and toluene have a vapour
(1) 1 + (n – 1)  (2) 1
pressure of 290 mm of Hg at 300K. The vapour
pressure of toluene is 200 mm of Hg. If the mole
 fraction of benzene is 0.6 then its vapour pressure
(3) 1    (4) 1 
n in pure form at same temperature will be

78. What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.2 MHX (aq.) (1) 700 mm of Hg
solution at 300K ? [Ka(HX) = 8 × 10–5 ] (2) 300 mm of Hg
(1) 3.926 atm (2) 5.024 atm (3) 350 mm of Hg
(3) 7.124 atm (4) 1.813 atm (4) 200 mm of Hg

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Solution Aakash Institute
86. W hich one pair of compounds will exhibit +ve (1) 50 (2) 100
deviation from Raoult’s law ?
(3) 40 (4) 30
(1) H2O + HNO3
88. Which of the following aqueous solution is having
(2) (CH3)2CO + CHCl3 highest freezing point ? [Assume : Molarity  Molality]
(3) C2H5OH + H2O (1) 0.01 (M) KCl
(4) CH3COOH + C5H5N (Pyridine) (2) 0.005 (M) CaCl2
87. Elevation of boiling point was found to be 0.52°C. (3) 0.01 (M) Na2SO4
W hen 8g of a compound (Nonvolatile,
(4) 0.005 (M) Glucose
Nonelectrolyte) was dissolved in 200g of water then
molar mass of the compound will be : [Given :
Kb(H2O) : 0.52 Kkg mol–1 ]

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Aakash Institute Solution

CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3)

15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (4)

22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (1)

29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (1)

36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (1)

43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (3)

50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (2)

57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2)

64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (2)

71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (3)

78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (4)

85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (4)

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 CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

1. Pollen viability period for Rosaceae family members 7. Select the ploidy level of tissues like aleurone layer,
is about endosperm and cotyledon in maize seed
(1) 30 minutes (2) 30 seconds (1) 2n, 3n, 2n (2) 2n, 3n, n
(3) Several months (4) 30 days (3) 3n, 3n, 2n (4) 3n, 2n, 3n
2. Apomixis is common in 8. Which are is correct ?
(1) Fabaceae (1) Seeds are produced sexually
(2) Solanaceae (2) Seeds can be produced asexually
(3) Sunflower family and grass family (3) Seeds are found in gymnosperms
(4) Mustard family (4) More than one option is correct
3. In majority of angiosperms, embryosac is 9. In all of the following plants, both cleistogamous and
chasmogamous flowers are found, except
(1) Trisporic (2) Bisporic
(1) Viola (2) Commelina
(3) Tetrasporic (4) Monosporic
(3) Oxalis (4) Salvia
4. Read the given statements and select the correct
option 10. Which of the following show hydrophily ?
(A) Hanging drop method requires 10% Sugar (1) Yucca (2) Salvia
solution with boric acid, Ca, Mg and K salts
(3) Ficus (4) Zostera
(B) Growth of pollen tube starts in microsporangium
11. Label the points a, b and c of the figure given below
(1) Both the statements A and B are correct and select the option accordingly
(2) Statement A is correct while B is incorrect c
(3) Statement A is incorrect while B is correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
5. Choose odd one with respect to double fertilization
and triple fusion
(1) First studied by Nawaschin in Lilium and Papaver
a
(2) It includes syngamy and triple fusion
(3) Total five nuclei are involved
(4) It is key character of angiosperms
6. During dicot embryogeny, suspensor cell cuts b
towards _____(i)____ and embryonal cell towards Fig.- Onion seed
_____(ii)____ region. (1) a-Plumule, b-Endosperm, c-Cotyledon
Correct words for (i) and (ii), respectively are (2) a-Hypocotyl, b-Seed coat, c-Plumule
(1) Antipodal and Micropyle (3) a-Hypocotyl, b-Endosperm,c-Cotyledon
(2) Chalazal and Micorpyle (4) a-Coleorrhiza, b-Plumule, c-Cotyledon
(3) Micropyle and Antipodal
(4) Chalazal and Antipodal

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Aakash Institute
12. Find the feature(s) which is/are true for 22. The most common insect pollinators are
hydrophilous flower (1) Ants (2) Aphids
(1) Unwettable pollen grain (3) Wasps (4) Bees
(2) Pollens with mucilage covering 23. Shield shape cotyledon situated lateral side of
embryonal axis in maize is called
(3) Large, feathery stigma
(1) Epiblast (2) Scutellum
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Coleoptile (4) Coleorhiza
13. Endosperm is completely consumed by the
24. In majority of the aquatic plants
developing embryo in
(1) Hydrophily occurs
(1) Pea (2) Beans and groundnut
(2) Anemophily and entomophily occurs
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Castor
(3) Malacophily occurs
14. W hich one is not a structure associated with (4) Pollination is absent
monocot embryo?
25. Choose correct matching
(1) Nucellus (2) Coleoptile
(1) In vitro pollen – Hanging drop method
(3) Coleorhiza (4) Root cap
germination
15. Seeds form the basis of our agriculture as they (2) Natural hybridisation – Emasculation
show
(3) Double fertilization – Nawaschin in Papaver
(1) Dormancy (2) Dehydration
and triple fusion
(3) Haploidy (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Outbreeding device – Bisexuality
16. Choose the odd one out with respect to asexual 26. Read the statements carefully and find how many
reproduction is/are correct
(1) Syngamy (a) Pre-fertilisation involves gametogenesis
(2) Recurrent agamospermy (b) Gamete mother cells may be haploid or diploid
(3) Adventive embryony (c) Gametogenesis involves mitosis or meiosis
(4) Sporophytic budding (d) Water is always needed for gamete transfer

17. In grass family, the cotyledon is called (1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
27. Which plant can not cause air borne allergies?
(3) Epiblast (4) Scutellum
(1) Chenopodium (2) Parthenium
18. Find the mismatched pair with respect to
endosperm nature (3) Vallisneria (4) Amaranthus
28. Majority of the flowering plants produce
(1) Proteinaceous endosperm – Maize
(1) Bisexual flowers
(2) Chitinuous endosperm – Date palm
(2) Hermaphrodite flowers
(3) Starchy endosperm – Wheat
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Oily endosperm – Castor
(4) Unisexual flowers
19. The remains of second cotyledon in some grasses 29. Match the following columns and choose the
is called
correct option with respect to development of
(1) Epiblast (2) Hypocotyl embryosac and select the correct option
(3) Scutellum (4) Epicotyl I II
20. In cross hybridisation experiments, emasculation is (a) Monosporic (i) Chalazal end
required in (b) Bisporic (ii) 4 megaspore nuclei take part
(1) Zea (2) Phoenix in formation of embryosac
(c) Tetrasporic (iii) Two megaspore nuclei form
(3) Pisum (4) Carica
single embryosac
21. Find out number of meiosis to form 50 seeds in a (d) Functional (iv) One out of 4 megaspore
typical flowering plant megaspore forms embryosac
(1) 200 (2) 100 (1) a(ii),b(iii),c(iv),d(i) (2) a(iv),b(iii),c(ii),d(i)
(3) 63 (4) 13 (3) a(iv),b(iii),c(i),d(ii) (4) a(ii),b(iii),c(i),d(iv)
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Aakash Institute Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
30. The problems of using hybrid seeds can be solved 39. The given plant shows all adaptations for pollination,
by using apomictic seeds, because: except
(1) Apomictic seeds often develop from diploid cells,
so chance of segregation is not possible
(2) Apomictic seeds develop from fertilised eggs
(3) Apomixis is not genetically controlled
(4) Hybrid seeds are not resistant to pathogens
31. Which one is incorrect with respect to antipodals?
(1) Light and non-sticky pollen
(1) They are located in micropyler end of embryosac
(2) Well exposed stamens
(2) In most of the plants, they are three in numbers
(3) Presence of nectaries
(3) They are haploid
(4) Flowers packed into inflorescence
(4) They are vegetative cells
40. The pollens of which of the following plants have the
32. In a plant species, female plant is tetraploid and viability period about 30 minutes?
male plant is diploid. The ploidy of egg and PEN will
(1) Rice (2) Pea
respectively be
(3) Bean (4) Brinjal
(1) n and 3n (2) 2n and 2n
41. Statement A : Only a small proportion of plants
(3) 2n and 5n (4) n and 5n use abiotic agents.
33. Mass of undifferentiated cells cover radicle and root Statement B : Pollen grains coming in contact with
cap in grass is called stigma is a chance factor in both
wind and water pollination
(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorrhiza
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast
(2) Only statement B is correct
34. Self incompatibility
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Is not genetically controlled
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Promotes cross pollination
42. The numbers of egg cell, helper cell and central cell
(3) Promotes self pollination in a normal embryo sac of a typical dicot plant are
(4) Is absent in angiosperms respectively
(1) 1, 2 and 2 (2) 1, 2 and 1
35. Megasporophyll is morphologically equivalent to
(3) 2, 3 and 1 (4) 2, 2 and 2
(1) Stamen (2) Inflorescence
43. Match Column-I with Column - II and select the
(3) Ovule (4) Carpel correct option
36. Synergids Column - I Column - II
(1) Are haploid a) Coleorrhiza (i) Fruit wall
(2) Possess cellular thickenings b) Scutellum (ii) Covering of radicle
(3) Degenerates finally c) Pericarp (iii) Persistent nucellus
(4) More than one option is correct d) Perisperm (iv) Single cotyledon
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
37. Find odd one out with respect to entomophily
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Salvia (2) Yucca
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Ficus (4) Maize
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
38. Innermost wall layer of anther helps in 44. Choose incorrect match with respect to
(1) Providing protection development
(2) Dispersal of pollens (1) Fertilized egg cell  Embryo
(3) Providing nourishment to the developing pollen (2) Ovule  Seed
grains (3) Two polar nucleus + male gamete  PEN
(4) Formation of pollen grain (4) Synergid  Perisperm

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Aakash Institute
45. -cellulosic fibrous bands are associated with which 54. W hich of the following family lose their pollen
of the anther wall layer ? viability within 30 minutes?
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium (1) Poaceae (2) Leguminosae
(3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum (3) Rosaceae (4) Solanaceae
46. Which of the following features are associated with 55. Perispermic seeds are present in
tapetum? (1) Beet and black pepper
(A) Polyploidy (2) Apple and pear
(B) Polyteny
(3) Banana and beet
(C) Sporopollenin secretion
(4) Black pepper and gram
(D) Compatibility proteins secretion
56. Self incompatibility
(1) A and C only (2) A and B only
(1) Prevents cross pollination
(3) A, B and C only (4) All A, B, C and D
(2) Allows pollen grains of other flowers of the same
47. Development of female gametophyte in angiosperms plant to fertilise the ovule
(1) Is in-situ (3) Is a genetically controlled mechanism
(2) Occurs within the ovule (4) Does not allow the germination of pollen grains
of other species on the stigma
(3) Both (1) and (2)
57. Two celled male gametophyte of angiosperms
(4) Is ex-situ
(1) Is formed by in situ development of pollen grain
48. Vegetative cell of pollen grain
(2) Includes tube cell and one male gamete
(1) Is diploid
(3) Includes two generative cells
(2) Possess irregular shaped nucleus
(4) Is a result of post pollination development
(3) Lacks food matter
58. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
(4) Is smaller than generative cell apomixis
49. Pollen allergy is commonly caused by the pollen (1) Production of seed without fertilisation
grains of
(2) Mimics asexual reproduction
(1) Parthenium (2) Rosa
(3) Present in some species of Asteraceae and
(3) Brassica (4) Pisum grasses
50. Entry of pollen tube inside the ovule in most of the (4) Genetically controlled
flowering plants is through 59. The outbreeding device where pollen release and
(1) Micropyle (2) Chalaza stigma receptivity are not synchronised is

(3) Integument (4) Funicle (1) Prepotency (2) Incompatibility

51. The most common type of endosperm in (3) Dicliny (4) Dichogamy
angiosperm is 60. How many total nuclei participate in double
fertilization?
(1) Cellular type (2) Nuclear type
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Acellular type (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Five (4) Ten
52. Syncarpous condition is found in
61. Unisexuality of flowers in monoecious plant
(1) Michelia prevents
(2) Papaver and Hibiscus (1) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(3) Papaver and Michelia (2) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(4) Hibiscus and Michelia (3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
53. Find odd one out with respect to secretions from (4) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
tapetum
(1) Compatibility proteins (2) Pollenkitt
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Callose
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Aakash Institute Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
62. Select the functions associated with tapetum 71. Find the incorrect match
(i) Nutrition to the developing microspores (1) Tapetal cell – Low DNA content
(ii) Pollen kit synthesis (2) Polyembryony – Citrus
(iii) Sporopollenin and compatibility protein secretion (3) Cleistogamy – Commelina
(1) (i) & (ii) only (2) (ii) only (4) Perisperm – Persistent nucellus
(3) (i) & (iii) only (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii) 72. Which wall layer of pollen sac has wall thickening
63. In Oenothera lamarckiana, an angiosperm, the of -cellulosic fibrils ?
endosperm cells are (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
(3) Triploid (4) Tetraploid 73. Examine the figure given below and select the
correct option w.r.t the four part A, B, C and D
64. The moisture content of dormant seed decreases
correctly.
by mass up to
(1) 10 – 15% (2) 20 – 50% A

(3) 50 – 70% (4) 1 – 2% B

65. The most common type of ovule found in 82% of C

angiosperm is
(1) Orthotropous (2) Anatropous
D
(3) Amphitropous (4) Hemi-anatropous
A B C D
66. Entry of pollen tube into the ovule takes place
through (1) Plumule Hypocotyl Cotyledon Radicle

(1) Micropyle (2) Hypocotyl Plumule Cotyledon Root Cap

(2) Chalaza (3) Hypocotyl Cotyledon Hypocotyl Radicle

(3) Integument (4) Plumule Cotyledon Hypocotyl Root Cap

(4) More than one option is correct 74. If hybrids are made into apomicts, there is
67. The correct polarity of nucleus and central vacuole (1) Segregation of characters in the offsprings
in the egg is
(2) No segregation of characters in the hybrid
(1) Nucleus towards chalazal end and central progeny
vacuole towards micropylar end
(3) Chance of cross fertilisation
(2) Nucleus towards micropylar end and central
(4) Negligible seed production
vacuole towards chalazal end
75. Select the odd one w.r.t. outbreeding device
(3) Nucleus and central vacuole both towards
micropylar end (1) Unisexuality (2) Dichogamy
(4) Nucleus and central vacuole both towards (3) Homogamy (4) Self-incompatibility
chalazal end
76. Flowers secreting foul odours are pollinated by
68. In coconut, the nature of endosperm is
(1) Birds (2) Beetles
(1) Starchy (2) Oily
(3) Water (4) Snakes
(3) Cellulosic (4) Hemicellulosic
77. Read the following statements and choose the
69. During the embryogeny in dicot plants, embryonal option which is true for them
cell (terminal cell) is situated towards the
(A) Hydrophily is limited to about 30 genera, mostly
(1) Micropylar end (2) Antipodal region dicots
(3) Chalazal end (4) Both (2) and (3) (B) Presence of a single ovule in each ovary is an
70. Find out the incorrect statement adaptation of anemophily

(1) Carpel is a type of megasporophyll (1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Corolla is a non-essential whorl of flower (2) A is correct and B is incorrect

(3) Ovule is a non-integumented microsporangium (3) A is incorrect and B is correct

(4) Flower is a modified shoot (4) Both A and B are incorrect

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Aakash Institute
78. Which of the following combination are diploid? Column I Column II
(1) Integument, funicle, nucellus
(A) In-vitro pollen germination (i) Vegetative fertilisation
(2) Antipodals, PEN, integument
(B) Artificial hybridisation (ii) Emasculation and Bagging
(3) PEN, funicle, nucellus
(C) Triple fusion (iii) Sporophytic budding
(4) Nucellus, antipodals, integument
79. W hen a diploid male plant is crossed with a (D) Adventitive embryony (iv) Hanging drop method
tetraploid female plant of the same angiospermic
(1) A-(iv); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iii)
species, the ploidy level of endosperm cells in the
resulting seed is (2) A-(iv); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(i)
(1) Pentaploid (2) Tetraploid (3) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)
(3) Diploid (4) Triploid (4) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
80. The intine of pollen grain is made up of ____A_____ 86. Which one is correct ?
and ____B____
(A) Pollen tube ruptures inside one of the synergids
Select the correct option for A and B
(B) Antipodal cell nucleus gets transformed into
(1) A – Cellulose, B – Sporopollenin primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)
(2) A – Cellulose, B – Hemicellulose (1) Both A and B are correct
(3) A – Cellulose, B – Pectin (2) Both A and B are incorrect

(4) A – Sporopollenin, B – Pectin (3) Only A is correct

81. Disadvantage of cross pollination is (4) Only B is correct

(1) Wasteful process in terms of pollen loss 87. Identify the following statements as true (T) or
false (F)
(2) Undesirable traits may be introduce
I. All aquatic plants are pollinated by water
(3) Pollination is a chance factor
II. Wind pollination is quite common in grasses
(4) More than one option is correct
III. Flowers of animal pollinated plants are often
82. The middle layer of a microsporangium specifically adapted for a particular species of
animal
(1) Is always single layered
IV. Majority of plants use abiotic agents for pollination
(2) Remains intact for over
I II III IV
(3) Is triploid
(1) T F T T
(4) Helps in anther dehiscence
(2) F T T F
83. Select the correct match :
(3) F F F T
(1) Epihydrophily – Zostera
(4) T F F F
(2) Entomophily – Maize
88. In a flowering plant a tetraploid male plant is cross
(3) Free nuclear endosperm – Coconut pollinated with a diploid female plant of the same
(4) Perisperm – Groundnut angiospermic species. What would be the ploidy of
endosperm and embryo developed respectively?
84. The feature(s) that help(s) in storage of seed and
also to raise crops in the next season is/are (1) 5n and 2n (2) 4n and 3n

(1) Dormancy (2) Dehydration (3) 3n and 3n (4) 3n and 2n

(3) Inviability (4) Both (1) and (2) 89. Monoecious condition of plants having unisexual
flowers favours
85. Match the given columns and select the correct
option (1) Autogamy (2) Cleistogamy
(3) True self pollination (4) Geitonogamy

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Aakash Institute Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
90. Find the incorrect match 95. W hich of the following is correct for double
fertilisation ?
(1) Monosporic embryo sac – Oenothera
(1) Only two gametes are involved
(2) Free nuclear endosperm – Coconut
(2) Syngamy occurs twice
(3) True fruit – Apple
(3) It results in the formation of two diploid cells
(4) Perispermic seed – Beet
(4) Characteristic feature of both dicots and
91. W hich one is not the adaptive features of monocots
entomophilous flower ?
96. Which of the following adaptations of flowers/plant
(1) Winged pollen grain promote inbreeding depression ?
(2) Colourful and scented flower (1) Self incompatibility, heterostyly
(3) Presence of nectaries (2) Homogamy, bisexuality, cleistogamy
(4) Floral reward for insects (3) Bud pollination, dichogamy
92. Which one is correct developmental sequence for (4) Dioecy, Protandry, herkogamy
dicot embryo ?
97. Sporopollenin is
(1) Octant  Mature embryo  Heart shaped
(1) Present in exine
(2) Heart shaped  Globular  Mature embryo
(2) Non degradable inorganic compound
(3) Globular  Heart shaped  Mature embryo
(3) Released from sporogenous cells
(4) Globular  Octant  Heart shaped
(4) Produced by pollen grains on the stigma
93. which of the following is wrong ?
98. Find out the correct developmental sequence in the
(1) Pollen grains are about 25 m in diameter life cycle of flowering plants
(2) Exine is the outer layer of pollen (1) Pollen mother cell megaspore tetrad
(3) Intine is made of sporo pollenin (2) Nucellus Megaspore mother cell
(4) Generative cell is spindle shaped (3) Secondary nucleus PEN
94. Choose the odd one with respect to plants causing (4) Both (2) and (3)
pollen allergy
(1) Chenopodium (2) Amaranthus
(3) Viola (4) Parthenium



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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Aakash Institute

CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1)

15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (3)

22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (4)

36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (2)

43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)

50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (3)

57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (2)

64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (3)

71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (3)

78. (1) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (4)

85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (1)

92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (1) 98. (4)



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 CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Human Reproduction

1. Identify the correct statement from the following (c) Ornithorhynchus and Dolphin have intra-
abdominal testes
(1) High level of oestrogen triggers ovulation
(d) Sertoli cells form blood testis barrier
(2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate only after puberty
(e) Each testis bears about 7-9 testicular lobules
(3) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
highly motile Find the incorrect and correct statements and
choose the correct option
(4) Progesterone level is high during the post-
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle Incorrect Correct
2. Birth canal is formed by 1 b,c a,d,e
(1) Cervix and Uterus 2 b,e a,c,d
(2) Cervix and Fallopian tube
3 a,d,e c,b
4 b,c,d a,e
(3) Cervix and Vagina
6. Choose the incorrect match with respect to
(4) Uterus and Fallopian tube homology of male and female reproductive system
3. Which one is not the part of intratesticular ductule (1) Scrotal sac – Labia majora
system ?
(2) Penis – Clitoris
(1) Vasa efferentia
(3) Prostate – Lesser vestibular glands
(2) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Cowper’s glands – Skene’s glands
(3) Rete testis
7. Correct order of spermatogenesis is
(4) Epididymis
(1) Spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatid, sperm
4. Read the following statements
(2) Spermatogonia, spermatid, primary
(a) Process of formation of mature female gamete is spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte,
called oogenesis spermatozoa
(b) At puberty 60,000 to 80,000 primary follicles are (3) Spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte, sperm
left in each ovary
(4) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte,
(c) No oogonia are formed or added after birth in a secondary spermatocytes, spermatid, sperm
female
8. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(d) Process of gametogenesis begins in female at
puberty (1) Glucose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
How many of the above statements is/are correct ? (2) Fructose, Ca2+ and certain enzymes
(1) One (2) Four (3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(3) Two (4) Three (4) Glucose and certain enzyme
5. Read the following sentences 9. The first sign of growing foetus is noticed by
(a) Cremaster muscle and connective tissue form (1) Movement of foetus
spermatic cord (2) Absence of menstruation
(b) Gubernaculum is a muscular cord extending from (3) Listening to heart sound of foetus
abdominal cavity to testis
(4) Formation of notochord
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Human Reproduction Aakash Institute
10. In human embryonic development all embryonic 18. Which of the following is not the function of Sertoli
germ layers are produced by cells ?
(1) Hypoblast (2) Trophoblast (1) Absorbs parts being shed by developing
spermatozoa
(3) Syncytiotrophoblast (4) Epiblast
(2) Release anti-mullerian factor
11. Implantation involves the
(3) Release Androgen degrading protein
(1) Activity of both blastocyst and uterus
(2) Activity of blastocyst only (4) Forms blood-testis barrier

(3) Activity of uterus only 19. Male urethra is present within

(4) Activity of amnion and uterus (1) Corpora cavernosum
12. Human placenta is (2) Corpora spongiosum
(1) Haemochorial, Chorionic, Non-deciduous (3) Tunica albuginea
(2) Deciduous, Haemo-endothelial, Diffuse (4) Testes
(3) Diffused, Deciduous, Allanto-chorionic 20. Which of the following is incorrect statement ?
(4) Deciduous, Haemochorial, Metadiscoidal (1) Both spermatogonia and oogonia are diploid
13. Identify P,Q,R,S and T in the following figure (2) Oestrogen produced by corpus luteum leads to
further proliferation of endometrium
(3) Spermatid and polar body are both haploid
T Q (4) Primary oocyte and secondary spermatocyte are
P
both diploid
R
S 21. Which hormone shows two peaks in one menstrual
cycle ?
P Q R S T
1 Fimbriae Ova Vagina Cervical canal Endometirum (1) Progesterone (2) LH
2 Ovary Fimbriae Endometrium Vestibule Uterus (3) Oestrogen (4) hCG
3 Perimetrium Ovary Fimbrial Cervical canal Vagina
4 Fimbriae Ovary Cervical canal Vagina Endometirum 22. Androgen binding protein (ABP)
(1) Is secreted by interstitial cells of testes
14. W hich of the following set of structures is
endodermal in origin ? (2) Concentrates the testosterone within the
seminiferous tubules of testes
(1) Liver, Adrenal cortex, Pancreas, Pituitary
(3) Suppresses the FSH synthesis
(2) Pancreas, Thyroid, Heart, Eustachian tube
(4) Has adverse effect upon gonads
(3) Adrenal medulla, Brain, Pancreas, Uterus
23. W hich one is correct with respect to
(4) Liver, Pancreas, Thyroid, Lung spermatogenesis in human males ?
15. The portion of endometrium present between chorion
(1) Meiosis - I occurs in primary spermatocyte
and myometrium of uterus and forming the maternal
part of placenta is (2) Meiosis - I occurs in secondary spermatocyte
(1) Decidua capsularis (2) Decidua basalis (3) Meiosis - I takes place in spermatids
(3) Decidua parietalis (4) Decidua deciduate (4) Meiosis - II occurs in spermatids
16. The hormone which peaks during ovulation is 24. Bartholin’s glands of female corresponds to which
(1) FSH (2) LH glands in male ?

(3) Progesterone (4) Cortisol (1) Cowper’s gland

17. Milk inhibitory peptide works antagonistic to (2) Inguinal glands
(1) Prostaglandin (3) Skene’s glands
(2) Human placental lactogen (4) Prostate gland
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin

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Aakash Institute Human Reproduction
25. Which of the following is incorrect statement for 32. Select the true statement with respect to morula of
corpus luteum ? human
(1) Change into corpus albicans (1) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
than in an uncleaved zygote
(2) Continues to grow after fertilization
(2) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm
(3) Persists till the placenta is fully functional
and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(4) Persists throughout the pregnancy
(3) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an
26. If both ovaries of a lady are removed in fourth month uncleaved zygote
of pregnancy, then ?
(4) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an
(1) Embryo will develop normally till birth uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(2) Abortion will occur after sometime 33. One difference between the blastula and gastrula
stages of development is
(3) Embryo will be defective
(1) Blastula cells are more differentiated than gastrula
(4) Abnormal development of foetus will proceed
cells
27. W hat is correct about the amount of total
(2) There are many more cells in blastula
gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant woman?
(3) Blastula is solid but gastrula is hollow
(1) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate the
synthesis of estrogen and progesterone from (4) There is an opening called blastopore in the
corpus luteum gastrula which is lacking in blastula
(2) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate the 34. W hat is true for the process of fertilization in
endometrial thickening humans ?
(3) High level of circulating FSH and LH in uterus to (1) Only one sperm reaches the egg and enters into
stimulate the implantation of blastocyst it
(4) High level of circulating FSH and LH in uterus to (2) The entry of sperm activates the egg for
stimulate the endometrial thickening completing meiosis
28. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by (3) Two diploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to
produce two haploid nuclei
(1) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
(4) Only the autosome of sperm enters the egg
(2) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) Fully developed foetus only 35. Select the correct statement with respect to
cortical reaction
(4) Placenta only
(1) It is the fusion of the egg cortex with the egg
29. The ratio of maternal and foetal blood flowing plasma membrane, which allows the sperm to
through umbilical cord of mammalian embryo is enter
(1) 100% foetal, 0% maternal (2) It is the entry of Ca++ ions into egg, which initiates
(2) 50% foetal, 50% maternal development
(3) 100% maternal, 0% foetal (3) It is the depolarization of the plasma membrane
(4) 75% maternal, 25% foetal after sperm entry, which helps to block
polyspermy
30. The first movements of the foetus and appearance
of hair on its head are usually observed during (4) It is the release of the cortical granules after sperm
which month of pregnancy ? entry, which converts the vitelline membrane into
fertilization membrane which blocks polyspermy
(1) 5th month (2) 6th month
36. In spermatogenesis, reductional division of
(3) 3rd month (4) 4th month
chromosomes occurs during conversion of
31. Select the correct statement with respect to human
development (1) Spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte

(1) Trophoblast forms the embryo (2) Primary spermatocyte to secondary

spermatocyte
(2) Hypoblast forms the embryo
(3) Secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
(3) Trophoblast layer is not formed in case of human
(4) Spermatid to spermatozoan
(4) Inner cell mass gets differentiated as embryo

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Human Reproduction Aakash Institute
37. Nebenkern’s organelle represents 45. W hich of the following hormones first appear in
urine after oophorectomy?
(1) Mitochondria of neck region of sperm
(1) LH (2) Progesterone
(2) Mitochondria of middle piece of sperm
(3) FSH (4) Oestrogen
(3) Centriole of sperm
46. Cleavage is unique form of mitotic cell division in
(4) Acrosome of sperm
which
38. Penile erection is due to
(1) Nuclear division does not occur
(1) Sympathetic stimulation
(2) Growth phase is absent
(2) Parasympathetic stimulation
(3) No spindle develops to guide the cells
(3) Adrenal cortex activation
(4) Plasma membrane of daughter cells do not
(4) Relaxation of cavernosal smooth muscles separate
39. Which of the following hormones is not secreted 47. Morphogenic movement of cells occurs during
from human placenta
(1) Neurulation (2) Morulation
(1) Oxytocin
(3) Gastrulation (4) Blastulation
(2) Estrogen
48. Which of the following is correct about embryonic
(3) Progesterone development in human
(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin (1) Trophoblast layer forms the embryo
40. During pregnancy, menstrual cycle does not occur (2) Inner cell mass disintegrates to form
due to syncytiotrophoblast
(1) Negative feedback by LH (3) Trophoblast layer does not occur during human
embryogenesis
(2) Negative feedback by FSH
(4) Inner cell mass gets differentiated into embryonic
(3) Negative feedback by progesterone
disc
(4) Negative feedback by both FSH and LH
49. Acrosome of the sperm develops from
41. Spermiogenesis is a process in which
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus
(1) Spermatids change into spermatozoa
(3) Ribosomes (4) Centrioles
(2) Spermatogonia produce spermatids
50. How many of the following statements are correct?
(3) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa
(a) Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation show
(4) Dormant spermatozoa become active just before great synchrony between the sexes.
ejaculation
(b) Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
42. Blastopore is the opening of species between organisms of one generation and
(1) Blastocoel cavity and found in blastula stage the next.

(2) Blastocoel cavity and found in gastrula stage (c) Turkey exhibits parthenogenesis.

(3) Archenteron cavity and found in gastrula stage (d) Fusion of gametes results in formation of diploid
zygote.
(4) Archenteron cavity and found in blastula stage
(1) One (2) Two
43. Each testis is connected with the wall of scrotum
through a flexible and fibrous structure which is (3) Three (4) Four
called 51. Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
(1) Spermatic fascia (2) Gubernaculum
In the human testis A synthesize and
(3) Dartos muscle (4) Cremaster muscle
secrete testicular hormones called B .
44. W hich extraembryonic membranes in human
A B
embryo prevents its desiccation in uterus?
(1) Leydig cells Estrogens
(1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion
(2) Sertoli cells Androgens
(3) Allantois (4) Chorion
(3) Interstitial cells Gonadotropins
(4) Leydig cells Androgens
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Aakash Institute Human Reproduction
52. All the following are involved in capacitation except Column A Column B
(1) Release of sperm lysins
I Labia majora a. Smegma
(2) Removal of cholesterol vesicles adhering the
membrane surrounding acrosome II Bartholin's gland b. Prostagladins
(3) Entry of Ca2+ into sperm Homologous to
III Gland of Tyson c.
scrotum
(4) Dilution of decapacitation factors
IV Seminal vesicle d. Secretcs mucus
53. Vitelline membrane is a
(1) Primary egg membrane (1) I - c, II - a, III - d, IV - b

(2) Secondary egg membrane (2) I - c, II - b, III - d, IV - a

(3) Tertiary egg membrane (3) I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b
(4) Fused primary and secondary egg membrane (4) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d
54. Foetal membrane that provides the first blood 59. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t.
corpuscle for circulation in embryo is menstrual cycle ?
(1) Trophoblast (2) Yolk sac
(1) FSH - Ovulation
(3) Amnion (4) Chorion
(2) Ovulation - Start of the cycle
55. Zona pellucida disintegrates
(3) Oxytocin - Milk let down hormone
(1) Before fertilisation
(4) Secretery phase - Variable
(2) Just after fertilisation
(3) After the formation of blastocyst, before 60. Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F)
implantation
I. Testis and epididymes are together called testicle.
(4) After the formation of gastrula
II. Acrosome contains hyaluronidase
56. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t gastrulation
III. Inhibin is secreted only by Sertoli cells.
(1) Immediately after implantion, the inner cell mass
differentiates to form three germinal layers IV. Leydig’s cells secrete androgens
(2) It involves morphogenic movement of the cells
Options I II III IV
(3) Obliteration of blastocoel and formation of
archenteron (1) T T F F
(2) F F T T
(4) A phase in embryogenesis in which there is only
rapid mitotic division of cells without differentiation (3) T T F T
57. Read the following statements (A - E) (4) F T F T

A - Testes descend in scrotum under the influence 61. Select the correct option
of testosterone.
Statement A : Eyelids separate and eyelashes
B - Epididymis is extratesticular
are formed during the sixth month
C - Fructose appears in semen from seminal vesicle of gestational period.
D - Prostate gland includes 30-40 tubulo alveolar Statement B : During 2nd trimester of pregnancy
glands. foetus is more susceptible to
E - Orchidectomy is surgical removal of testis. teratogens.

How many statements are correct? (1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

(1) 3 (2) 4 (2) Statements A & B are correct

(3) 5 (4) 2 (3) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect
58. Match the column A with column B and select the
correct option (4) Statements A & B are incorrect

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Human Reproduction Aakash Institute
62. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. lactation? (3) Labia minora - Paired folds of tissue in the
(1) Estrogen antagonizes the milk-producing effect form of lips under the labia
of prolactin on the breast majora

(2) As placenta detaches during parturition, the levels (4) Hymen - Covers the vaginal opening
of estrogen and progesterone declines and completely
lactation gets initiated
68. Study the chart and identify A - E
(3) Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial Hypothalamus
cells lining mammary ducts
(4) Human milk is a rich source of lactose, protein A SH
and ascorbic acid B IC
63. Incorrect statement w.r.t. follicular phase is D
(1) Primary follicle in the ovary grow to become fully C sis
mature Graafian follicle
o gene Testosterone
E at
(2) Estrogen regenerates the endometrium through erm
Sp
proliferation
Choose the corret option
(3) Gonadotropins increase gradually
Options A B C D E
(4) The source of estrogen in this half is corpus luteum (1) Adenohypophysis LH Spermatogenic cells Leydig cells ABP
(2) Neurohypophysis LH Sertoli cells Interstitial cells AMF
64. What is the acrosomal reaction? (3) Adenohypophysis FSH Sertoli cells Leydig cells Inhibin
(4) Neurohypophysis ADH Spermatogenic cells Intestitial cells Inhibin
(1) Secretion of fertilizin and anti-fertilizin by mature
ovum and sperm 69. The endometrium begins to breakdown, inhibition of
(2) It is the process of sperm activation in the uterine contraction ceases and bleeding and cramps
mammals of menstruation begin, with the withdrawal of which
(3) Secretion of sperm lysins which help sperm to of the following hormones?
enter the cytoplasm of ovum through zona
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone
pellucida
(3) FSH (4) FSH and LH
(4) It is the fusion of genetic material of sperm and
ovum 70. Which of the following cells are diploid?
65. Capacitation of sperms occurs in (1) Spermatids and sperm
(1) Epididymis (2) Spermatogonia and spermatid
(2) Vas deferens (3) Primary and secondary spermatocytes
(3) Female reproductive tract (4) Spermatogonia and primary spermatocyte
(4) Oviduct only 71. The structure devoid of gland in females is
66. Second polar body is released after X in (1) Uterus (2) Cervix
Y region.`Choose the option that fills the blanks
(3) Oviduct (4) Vagina
correctly.
X Y
72. Hormone detected in the mother’s blood and urine
10 to 14 days after conception and is also an
(1) First meiotic division Ovary indicator of pregnancy is
(2) Second meiotic division Oviduct (1) LH (2) hCG
(3) Second meiotic division Ovary
(3) FSH (4) Progesterone
(4) First meiotic division Oviduct
73. In which phase of cell division and stage of
67. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t oogenes is oocyte arrested in human females at
structure and its function ? birth ?
(1) Mons pubis - Fatty tissue covered by (1) Interphase, primary oocyte
skin and pubic hairs
(2) Anaphase-II, secondary oocyte
(2) Labia majora - Paired fleshy folds of skin
which extend down from (3) Prophase-I, primary oocyte
mons pubis (4) Prophase-I, secondary oocyte

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Aakash Institute Human Reproduction
74. In 26 days menstrual cycle, ovulation will occur on 80. During ovulation in human female, the usual
observation is that the peak of
(1) 14th day (2) 10th day
(1) Estrogen and progesterone is almost same
(3) 12th day (4) 7th day
(2) LH is higher than FSH
75. Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?
(3) FSH is higher than LH
(1) Estrogen lowers the blood cholesterol level and
(4) Progesterone is higher than estrogen
thereby afford a natural protection to women
against atherosclerosis 81. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
structure/cell, the hormone secreted and its
(2) Estrogen prevents breast and uterine cancer
function?
(3) Estrogen prevents osteoporosis in females Essential for
Graafian
(4) Estrogen has profound influence on endometrium (1) Estrogen maintenance of
follicle
76. Which of the following statement is incorrect? endometrium and
Essential for growth
(1) Spermiation occurs before spermiogenesis of external genitalia
(2) spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty Leydig i.e., penis and other
(2) Testosterone
cells accessory sex
(3) Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis organs; necessary for
(4) Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains descent of testes in
Sertoli Suppresses release
46 chromosomes (3) Inhibin
cells of FSH from
77. Placenta is the only source of hormones like Corpus Relaxes pubic
(4) Relaxin
luteum symphysis during
(1) Estrogen and progesterone
82. Second polar body is
(2) Estrogen and hPL
(1) Released in ovary prior to ovulation when primary
(3) Protein and hCG oocyte completes meiosis.
(4) hCG and hPL (2) Released in fallopian tube when secondary oocyte
travels through infundibulum
78. The inner group of cells attached to the trophoblast
of a blastocyst (3) Having more DNA content than first polar body
(4) Haploid and is released in perivitelline space after
(1) Embryoblast (2) Cells of Rauber
the entry of sperm in secondary oocyte
(3) Basal cell (4) Blastocoel 83. Read the statements (A - E)
79. Following is a diagrammatic sectional view of ovary A. Sustentacular cells regulate spermatogenesis by
with labelled parts A, B, C and D. Choose the releasing inhibin to check FSH over activity.
incorrect identification of the labelled part and its
B. Mullerian duct degenerates in male while in female
description. A develops into fallopian tube.
B C. Rete testis, ductuli efferentes and epididymis
C forms the extratesticular duct system.
D. The extended part of corpus spongiosum is
enlarged forming glans penis.
E. The prostatic fluid contains fructose, citric acid,
inositol and prostaglandins.
How many of the above statements are true?
D (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
Structure Identification Description / Function 84. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Zona pellucida - Glycoprotein coat
About 60,000-80,000 left in synthesised by oocyte.
(1) A Primary follicle
each ovary at puberty
(2) Luteal phase - Secretion of
Secondary
(2) B Contains secondary oocyte progesterone and lasts
follicle
for 14 days.
Graafian Mature follicle containing
(3) C (3) Trophoblast cell layer- Forms chorion, amnion
follicle secondary oocyte
Developed by the activity of and foetal part of
LH, mainly proges terone placenta.
(4) D Corpus luteum
secretel and some amount (4) Cortical and zona - Constitutes fast block
of estrogen reaction to check polyspermy.
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Human Reproduction Aakash Institute
85. Identify the developments stage shown in the 88. Which of the following accessory glands are not
diagram and its correct place of occurance in a matched with their correct function ?
normal pregnant female.
(1) Bulbourethral glands – compound tubulo-alveolar
gland at the base of penis
(2) Lesser vestibular glands – present on either side
of vaginal orifice and secrete alkaline secretion
for lubrication
Developmental (3) Seminal vesicle – paired, secretes 60–70% of
Site of occurance the semen which contains fructose
Stage
(1) Blastocyst Uterine wall (4) Prostate gland – chestnut shaped, lies at base
Starting point of of bladdar, contributes alkaline component
(2) 8 celled Morula to semen.
fallopian tube
Middle part of fallopian 89. Which of the following extra-embryonic membranes
(3) Late morula give rise to foetal part of human placenta ?
tube
(4) Zygote End part of fallopian tube (1) Chorion only

86. Read the following statements (A–E) (2) Allantois and Amnion

(A) After ovulation, the ruptured follicle left in ovary is (3) Amnion and Chorion
first converted to corpus albicans. (4) Allantois only
(B) The secondary oocyte forms a thick coat of 90. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option
glycoprotein around itself called zona pellucida
Milk production in the mammary glands is
(C) The primary oocytes are surrounded by a single
stimulated by (i) secreted by (ii) and ejection
layer of follicular cells
of milk is stimulated by hormone (iii) released
(D) The primary oocyte (2n) within the tertiary follicle from the posterior lobe of pituitary gland
grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division (1) (i)Prolactin; (ii) hypothalamus; (iii) oxytocin

(E) The tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid filled (2) (i) Prolactin; (ii) anterior lobe of pituitary;
(iii) oxytocin
cavity antrum.
(3) (i) Estrogen; (ii) ovary; (iii) oxytocin
How many of the above statements are true ?
(4) (i) Estrogen; (ii) ovary; (iii) prolactin
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 91. Which of the following function is not performed by
epididymis ?
87. Identify the statements as True (T) or False (F)
(1) Storage of sperm
(I) Cremaster muscles and connective tissue form
spermatic cord and surround several structures (2) Maturation of sperm
passing through inguinal canal
(3) Dilution of decapacitation factors
(II) Cremaster and dartos muscles help in positioning
of testes for temperature regulation inside (4) Transport sperm into the vas deferens

(III) Scrotum helps in maintaining the high 92. Which statement is not true regarding the hormonal
temperature of testes (2–2.5° C higher than body control during various phases of menstrual cycle ?
temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis (1) The elevated estrogen level through positive
(IV) The testes descend into the scrotum through feedback stimulates the secretion of LH towards
inguinal canal during 7th month of gestation period the end of follicular phase causing LH surge
I II III IV (2) The level of progesterone rises during luteal phase
and thus has inhibitory effect on FSH and LH
(1) T T F F secretion
(2) T F F T
(3) Sudden decline in progesterone level causes
(3) T F T T menstruation
(4) T T F T (4) High level of estrogen has inhibitory effect on FSH
and LH and its level gradually decreases during
follicular phase

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Aakash Institute Human Reproduction
93. Read the following statements (A–D) 98. During the luteal phase of menstrual cycle
A – Trophoblast forms extra embryonic membrane (1) Progesterone and Estrogen are high ; FSH and
LH are low
B – All embryonic layers develop from inner cell mass
or epiblast (2) FSH, LH and Estrogen gradually increase ;
Progesterone is low
C – Amniogenic layer is formed by hypoblast
(3) LH attains a sudden surge
D – In human hypoblast degenerates before forming
any layer of embryo or extra embryonic layers (4) Only progesterone attains a peak ; FSH, LH and
Estrogen are low
How many of the above statements are true ?
99. Most of the major organ systems are formed in a
(1) 2 (2) 4 developing foetus by the end of
(3) 3 (4) 0 (1) 2nd month of gestation
94. The chromosome number and DNA content in (2) 1st trimester of gestation
spermatids is _____ and _____ respectively.
(3) 4th week of gestation
(1) 23, 23 (2) 23, 46
(4) 5th week of gestation
(3) 46, 23 (4) 46, 92
100. Which of the following sets of hormones is released
95. Which of the following is the correct matching pair by placenta in a pregnant female ?
wrt gland and thir hormones? (1) hCG, hPL, oxytocin
Gland Hormone (2) FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone
(1) Sertoli cells FSH (3) LH, hPL, relaxin
(2) Placenta hpL (4) hCG, hPL, Relaxin
Theca interna of Graafian
(3) 101. The correct order of ducts of male reproductive tract
follicle Progesterone
is
(4) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin
(1) Rete testis, epididymis, vasa efferentia, urethra
96. Which of the following statements (a-e) are correct
with respect to oogenesis and folliculogenesis? (2) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, urethra

(a) New oogonia are not added after birth in a female (3) Vasa efferentia, epididymis, urethra, rete testis
(b) At birth the female ovaries have primary oocytes (4) Urethra, rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis
arrested at metaphase-II
102. Read the following statements
(c) Primary oocytes grow in size and complete Statement A : Tertiary follicle of ovum is
meiotic division within the primary follicle characterised by the presence of
(d) Tertiary follicles have a well-developed, fluid-filled antrum
antrum. Statement B : Primordial follicle contains mature
ovum
(e) 1 primary oocyte is capable of forming only 1
ovum. (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) a, b, e (2) b, c, e (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) a, d, e (4) c, d, e (3) Both the statements are correct
97. A fertile human male releases ___(A)___ sperms/ (4) Both the statements are incorrect
ejaculation, of which ___(B)___ should have normal
103. Read the following statements (A – D)
morphology and at least ___(C)___ must have
vigorous motility. A. Seminal fluid contains fructose
(A) (B) (C) B. The prostatic fluid is primarily responsible for
specific odour and colour to semen
(1) 500 million 50% 25%
C. Cowper’s gland secretes lubricant
D. The seminal vesicles and prostate are paired, but
(2) 200-300 milliion 60% 40% cowper’s gland is unpaired
(3) 20 milliion 60% 40% How many of the above statements are true ?
(1) 3 (2) 2
(4) 20-30 million 50% 25%
(3) 4 (4) 1
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Human Reproduction Aakash Institute
104. Match column A with column B and choose the 108. Read the following statements (A – D)
correct option
A. In the first trimester of pregnancy the embryo is
A B sensitive to teratogens
(i) Primary follicle A. Theca interna and theca B. Thalidomide produces abnormal foetal
externa development such as amelia, phocomelia
(ii) Tertiary follicle B. Ovulation
C. Progesterone helps in implantation
(iii) Secondary follicle C. Antrum
D. During pregnancy the level of thyroxine, cortisol,
(iv) Graafian follicle D. Granulosa cell estrogen and progesterone increases
(1) i – D, ii – A, iii – B, iv – C How many of the above statements are correct ?
(2) i – D, ii – C, iii – A, iv – B (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) i – C, ii – B, iii – D, iv – A (3) 3 (4) 1
(4) i – A, ii – C, iii – B, iv – D 109. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t.
105. Choose the correct option w.r.t. statements A and B fertilization ?

Statement A – The corpus luteum secretes (1) Entry of Ca++ initiates whiplash movement of the
progesterone initially, to sperm tail
maintain pregnancy. (2) Site of fertilization is ampulla of oviduct
Statement B – In absence of fertilisation, (3) The fimbriae enables movement of the fertilised
corpus luteum degenerates to ovum to the site of implantation
form corpus albicans.
(4) All copulations do not lead to fertilization and
(1) Only statement A is correct pregnancy
(2) Only statement B is correct 110. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Depolarization of the ovum membrane ensures a
fast block to polyspermy
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) For fertilization the capacitation of sperm occurs
106. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) in epididymis
I. Secretion of prostate gland forms 60% of semen (3) Zona pellucida dissolves just after fertilisation
II. Infertility is failure to conceive (4) Entry of the sperm into the ovum initiates
III. Male infertility could be due to low fructose meiosis
content and high prostaglandin content 111. Read the following statements (A to E)
IV. Infundibulum is the part of oviduct near ovary and A. Testes are intra-abdominal in aquatic mammals
isthmus is near uterus
B. Testes descend to scrotum under direct influence
I II III IV
of FSH and ICSH
(1) T T F F
C. Testes descend to scrotum in 7th month of
(2) F T T F gestation period
(3) F T T T D. Failure of descent of testes is called
(4) T T T F cryptorchidism

107. Fill in the blanks : E. Testicular lobules contain 1-3 seminiferous tubules

Foetal ejection reflex originates from the fully How many of the above statements are correct ?
developed (1) and (2) and triggers the release (1) Two (2) Three
of (3) from the (4) pituitary.
(3) Four (4) Five
(1) 1–placenta, 2–endometrium, 3–relaxin, 4–
posterior 112. W hich of the following is a dense collagenous
connective tissue structure covering the testis?
(2) 1–foetus, 2–placenta, 3–oxytocin, 4–maternal
(1) Tunica Vaginalis (2) Tunica Vasculosa
(3) 1–endometrium, 2–foetus, 3–oxytocin, 4–foetal
(4) 1–endometrium, 2–foetus, 3–oxytocin, 4– (3) Tunica Albuginea (4) Gubernaculum
maternal

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Aakash Institute Human Reproduction
113. Cone of reception appears during fertilisation on 115. Which of the following hormone appears in urine of
human female serving as the basis of ovulation
(1) Membrane of sperm test?
(2) Zona pellucida (1) hCG (2) FSH
(3) Membrane of secondary oocyte (3) LH (4) Estrogen
(4) Corona radiata 116. Slow block to check polyspermy includes
114. W hat is the correct sequence of events during (a) Influx of Na+ which causes depolarisation of ovum
fertilisation ? membrane

(1) Capacitation of sperm  acrosomal reaction  (b) Cortical reactions

agglutination  slow block  fast block (c) Zona reactions which makes the egg impervious
(2) Acrosomal reaction  capacitation  to second sperm
agglutination  prevention of polyspermy (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) Capacitation  approximation  acrosomal (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) only
reaction  cone of reception formation 
prevention of polyspermy
(4) Acrosomal reaction  agglutination 
capacitation  prevention of polyspermy  cone
of reception formation

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 CPP-02
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (4)
78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (1)
99. (2) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (3) 116. (3)

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