General English 7 – Mid-term Test – Code 1

MID-TERM TEST
Time allowed: 160’

SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Part 1: Questions 1 – 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There isone question for
each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D. Then, on the
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
that you have chosen.
1. Where is the announcement being made?
A. On a bus
B. On a ferry boat
C. On a train
D. On an airplane
2. In which division do the listeners most likely work?
A. Shipping and Receiving
B. Maintenance
C. Sales and Marketing
D. Accounting
3. What are listeners encouraged to do by August 30?
A. Activate a rewards card
B. Enter a contest
C. Register for a class
D. Fill out surveys
4. Why does the speaker says, “I’ll be answering questions when it’s over”?
A. To encourage people to stay afterward.
B. To explain that he will be busy.
C. To ask listeners not to interrupt him now.
D. To correct a scheduling mistake.
5. How can listeners enter a contest?
A. By submitting a work sample
B. By providing some feedback
C. By subscribing to a newsletter
D. By moderating at a session
6. What should the listeners do before they leave work on Friday?
A. Talk to their managers
B. Move their cars
C. Cover their desks
D. Complete a questionnaire
7. What benefit does the speaker mention?
A. Decreased expenses
B. Personal satisfaction
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C. Increased productivity
D. Improved qualifications
8. What does the speaker ask Mark to do?
A. Sort through some food items
B. Apologize to a customer
C. Stay for a later shift
D. Clean some dishes

Part 2: Questions 9 – 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear TWO conversations. There are four questions foreach conversation. For
each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 – 14. You will hear part of an interview with a boy called Simon who is helping to protect the
environment.
9. Simon enjoys taking his boat onto the River Stanton because _________.
A. he knows many people who go there
B. the speed of the water makes it exciting
C. it is the closer river to his home town
D. it is his favorite river
10. Simon noticed that the river water _________.
A. made him run low
B. was getting lower and lower
C. was too dark to let him see the bottom
D. was having a negative effect on him
11. Simon learned more about the problem with the river _________.
A. by looking on the internet
B. by asking the people who owned the river
C. by talking to his school teachers
D. by taking part in a history class
12. Why did Simon do a special course?
A. to join an organization that protects the river
B. to learn about the geography of the river
C. to able to check the water quality of the river
D. to know how to prevent the river from pollution
13. Simon is pleased because _________.
A. the company causing the problem closed
B. he found a way to reduce the problem
C. he discovered new plants that live in the river
D. he could explain the detail of the issue
14. Why did Simon enter the science competition?
A. to try to involve more people in helping the environment
B. to win money to help protect the river
C. to get a good grade for his school project

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D. to complete his teacher’s assignment

Questions 15 – 20. You will hear an interview with a woman called Amy Rowntree, who works as a fashion
designer.
15. Amy decided to become a fashion designer while _________.
A. she was still at school
B. she was working in a shop
C. she was helping run a fashion show
D. she did experiment with the clothes at school
16. Amy says the most important skill for a designer is _________.
A. remaining patient in difficult situations
B. making your ideas into what people wear
C. knowing about different materials
D. understanding how clothes are made
17. What does Amy particularly like about her work?
A. being able to sell her designs
B. seeing her clothes in display
C. having her name recognized
D. earning a lot of money from her designs
18. How does Amy feel about today’s fashion?
A. She would like clothes to be more practical.
B. She feels clothes should be more attractive.
C. She’s pleased sports clothes are popular.
D. She’d like to make clothes that easier to wear.
19. What helped Amy find new ideas for designs?
A. seeing things around her
B. going to visit museums
C. looking at photos of clothes
D. learning from other designers
20. What projects is Amy working on at the moment?
A. a new collection for men
B. a collection of clothes for a film
C. a fashion show in New York
D. a new range for a London store

Part 3: Questions 21 – 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. There are five questions foreach talk or
lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 – 25. You will hear a boy called Josh talking to his class about a trip he recently went on.
21. Josh went to the Weather Forecasting Center with his ___________.
A. after-school club
B. citizen club

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C. youth club
D. student club
22. What is NOT indicated about the Weather Forecasting Center?
A. The first reported strong wind was in 1859.
B. The center was built in 1854.
C. The weather forecasts were sent to ships.
D. The weather forecasts were very important for indoor workers.
23. The center later put forecast ___________ for everyone to see.
A. in transport bulletin
B. in newspapers
C. on the coast
D. in computers
24. Josh thinks people need to know ___________.
A. how much sunshine there’ll be
B. what the weather will be like
C. how much rain there’ll be
D. what the temperature will be
25. According to Josh, his local ___________ always need to know about the weather.
A. zoo
B. farmers
C. sportspeople
D. tourists

Questions 26 – 30. Listen to a talk about the inventors of the airplane.

26. What did the new glider look like?
A. It had a remote control.
B. It had a shape of the wind
C. It had a tail.
D. It had a longer wings.
27. Why did Orville design an engine for the glider?
A. He wanted to generate flying source.
B. He would like to produce gliding parachutes.
C. He needed it to assist the gilder.
D. He used it to mount on the wings.
28. What did Wilbur do when Orville started the motor?
A. He climbed into the plane and prepared for the flight
B. He held the end of one of the wings to keep the plane level.
C. He built and mounted motor on the glider.
D. He experimented with various deigns for the all-important propellers.
29. When did the Wright brothers make their first flights?
A. December, 1903.
B. December, 1912.

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C. December, 1943.
D. December, 1948.
30. How are the names of the Wright brothers linked in the history of aviation?
A. They successfully generated a plane which has the longest height.
B. They agreed to give their first airplane to the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.
C. They made the first flight ever in the world.
D. They successfully proved that man had actually flown in an airplane.

Questions 31 – 35. Listen to a lecture about generation gap.

31. Which generation is the speaker from?
A. Generation X
B. Veterans
C. Baby Boomers
D. Millennials
32. What does Generation X believe communication is important for?
A. Building relationships and developing ideas
B. Express their ideas and opinions
C. Saying what they want to do
D. Writing how they feel
33. Which two generations don't want to talk about their personal goals?
A. Millennials and Baby Boomers
B. Generation X and Veterans
C. Veterans and Baby Boomers
D. Generation X and Baby Boomers
34. What do Millennials expect other people to tell them?
A. How they’re doing
B. What they feel
C. Why they don't like something
D. How they want to live
35. What can younger generations offer to older generations?
A. Teach them how to write informal emails
B. Give older people some life experiences
C. Teach them about life in the modern world
D. Help older people figure out the differences across generations

SECTION 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Passage 1: Questions 36 – 45
The two-parent family is traditionally seen as the best way to raise children. In the past, single-parent families
have had to deal with the stigma attracted to their life choices. [1]. Single parenthood can be the result of the
death, divorce, or separation, but it can also result from single-parent adoption or women having children on
their own thanks to fertility treatments. In the United States, a national survey showed that at least 50 percent of
children, at some point in their childhood, will be members of a single-parent home.

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Whether they elect to be single parents or have no choice, single parents are usually at a disadvantage in many
ways compared to two-parent families. [2]. In a family with only one breadwinner, money is often in short
supply. Compared to homes where one parent is wholly dedicated to child rearing while the other works,
children in single-parent homes receive less attention. Single parents can find themselves overwhelmed by their
responsibilities both at work and at home.
There are some interesting statistics over the years concerning children of single parents. It’s been well-
documented that children from single-parent families have a slightly higher chance of becoming juvenile
criminals. [3]. Other studies claim that these children are also more likely to drop out of school in the teens and
to be jobless in their early 20s. A connection has even been made between children if single parents and higher
rates of obesity and using illegal drugs.
Research has shown that there are certain factors that help single-parent families. One thing these successful
families have in common is a strong support network, such as extended family, friends, or even special interest
groups. Single parents need to remember that nobody does it alone and there are many resources available to
help them. [4]. For example, there may be government or non-profit organizations dedicated to helping single-
parent families, or they can even turn to schools, community centers, and religious organizations.
Single-parent families may even have certain advantages over two-parent families. Single parents have greater
flexibility in spending time with children, because they don’t have to take the needs and schedule of a partner
into consideration. Another advantage comes from the fact that single parents are more inclined to work
together with their children to solve problems. This give-and-take between parents and children can make
children feel more needed and valued, and give them a larger sense of responsibility.
It’s important to mention the special challenges faced by the single father. Even today, when the social and
family roles of males and females are less defined than in the 50s and 60s, many people are reluctant to admit
that men can be effective single parents. Modern men are more willing and able to cook and clean –
responsibilities that were once exclusively assigned to woman. Single fathers many also show more interest in
the education and protection of their children, and report developing closer relationships as single parents.
Perhaps the most significant change in society’s attitudes towards sing-parent families. There is much less
discrimination both in terms of laws and how people view them. As single-parent families become more
common, more and more people will start to view these family arrangements as normal. With enough
community acceptance and support, the negative statistics linking single-parent families to youth crime and
delinquency will definitely improve. Single parents no longer have to fear whether their children will be treated
differently to their peers.
36. Which statement about single-parent families would the writer most likely agree with?
A. They are better than two-parent families.
B. They are unnatural and harmful to children.
C. They require extra support from the community.
D. They provide the best environment for raising children.
37. According to the first paragraph, why is it important that we leave behind the stigma attached to
single-parent families?
A. because scientific fertility methods are growing
B. because the number of single-parent families is growing fast
C. because it is proven to be as natural as two-parent families
D. because single-parenthood can be the result of death or divorce

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38. According to the passage, what is one positive thing that single parents can do?
A. get married
B. make time for themselves away from children
C. find support groups and understanding friends
D. dress their children in brand-name clothing
39. According to the passage, what advantage does a single-parent home have over a two-parent
home?
A. Because they are more involved in problem solving, the children can feel more needed and valued.
B. Without two parents to control them, children grow up more naturally.
C. Single parents make more decisions for their children, so they make fewer mistakes.
D. Working single parents can train their children for a future career.
40. Which is an example of a challenge faced by a single father?
A. People think they are incapable of raising a child on their own.
B. They have problems bonding with their children.
C. They don’t know how to cook and clean.
D. They are too busy to spend time with their children.
41. Why does the writer believe that the negative statistics about children of single-parent homes will
disappear in the future?
A. There will be fewer and fewer single-parent families.
B. Single-parent families will become more fully accepted by society.
C. People will understand that there is a stigma attached to single-parent families.
D. Single parents will work much harder to educate and control their children.
42. Which could be another title for this passage?
A. Single-Parent Families: Facts and Statistic
B. The Problem of Single-Parent Families
C. Why Are There So Many Single-Parent Families?
D. Modern Perspectives on Single-Parent Families
43. Look at the four squares [ _ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the
passage.
Nowadays, however, the single-parent family is the fastest growing type of family.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [1]
B. [2]
C. [3]
D. [4]
44. The word "them" in the paragraph 4 refers to_____.
A. certain factors
B. single-parent families
C. successful families
D. special interest groups
45. The word "exclusively" in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. unlimitedly
B. unrestrictedly
C. approximately

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D. completely

Passage 2: Questions 46 – 55
One day in December 2002, Jack Whittaker decided to buy a lottery ticket at a small store in West Virginia.
The 55-year-old didn’t really need to as he was already a successful and affluent businessman. But Whittaker
played the lottery that day because the prize was truly a fortune - $314 million. [1]. The next morning he
learned he had won it all – the largest lottery win in the history of the United States at that time.
Whittaker soon surprised everyone with his generosity. He bought property and a car for a worker at the store
where he bought the winning ticket. [2]. He shared 10 percent of his money with his church. He promised to set
up a charitable organization to care for the poor of West Virginia. He seemed humble, saying he’d invest his
money wisely and continue to work at his company and “answer his own phone.”
In reality, Whittaker was soon to experience the difficulties that tend to accompany a lottery win. People would
wait for him to drop by his favorite store, and then they would beg him for money by telling him sad stories of
illness and bad luck. Whittaker had to hire three people just to open letters asking him for money. “I don’t have
any friends,” he said in a newspaper interview. “Every friend that I’ve had, practically, has wanted to borrow
money or something and of course, once they borrow money from you, you can’t be friends anymore.”
It is also very hard to stay sensible when you have so much money. [3]. Whittaker reportedly grew extravagant
and starting flashing his cash around. While drinking in a local club, he boasted of having $500,000 in cash in
briefcase in his car. He also started to make frequent trips to casinos for gambling, and witnesses said he
became a troublemaker at these places, causing problems and growing angry when he was refused a request or
banned from entering.
Whittaker loved his granddaughter, Brandi, immensely – he said that she was “his world.” After winning,
Whittaker treated his granddaughter to whatever she wanted; he bought her a new car and paid for her to meet
the hip-hop star Nelly. According to Brandi’s friend, she had a constant supply of money; it wasn’t unusual for
her to receive $5,000 in one day from her grandfather. [4]. Her car was full of trash and money – there was so
much of it that bills would occasionally fly out of the window, according to another friend.
On December 4, 2003, Brandi disappeared. When they didn’t hear from her over the next five days, the
Whittakers called the police. Soon after, Brandi’s body was found. She had died from an overdose of illegal
drugs.
Ten years on from winning the lottery, Jack Whittakers still struggles with health problems, his beloved wife
has left him, and his precious granddaughter is gone. “If it would bring my granddaughter back, I’d give it all
back,” Whittaker said of his jackpot.
46. Why did Jack Whittaker buy a lottery ticket?
A. He played the lottery every day.
B. He knew that he was going to win.
C. He needed money because his business was failing.
D. The prize money was very big.
47. At first, how did Whittaker react to winning $314 million?
A. He kept all the money for himself.
B. He quit his job right away.
C. He was generous with the money.
D. He invested almost all his money.

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48. Why did Whittaker say he had no friends?

A. They didn’t approve of his new lifestyle.
B. They only wanted to borrow money from him.
C. They were all jealous of his money.
D. They lied to him about illness or bad luck.
49. He had strayed very far from his original intentions to be humble and sensible. Where would this
sentence best fit?
A. Paragraph 2
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
50. The phrase she was “his world” in paragraph means ____________.
A. she was very important to him
B. they lived in the same house
C. he was planning to give all his money to her
D. he took her everywhere with him
51. What is the main idea of paragraph 5?
A. Brandi became addicted to illegal drugs.
B. Brandi was a messy and irresponsible person.
C. Brandi’s friends were not a good influence on her.
D. Brandi received too much money but not enough guidance.
52. What lessons can be inferred from the story of Jack Whittaker?
A. With enough money, anyone’s life is easy.
B. Time is money.
C. Money can’t buy happiness.
D. Charity begins at home.
53. The word “affluent" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.
A. prosperous
B. impecunious
C. significant
D. indigent
54. The word "immensely" in the paragraph 5 refers to_____.
A. approximately
B. extremely
C. significantly
D. spectacularly
55. Look at the four squares [ _ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the
passage.
With such money, her lifestyle gradually changed for the worse as she started to use illegal drugs with
her friends.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [1]
B. [2]
C. [3]

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D. [4]

Passages 3: Questions 56 – 65
Scientist and inventor George Washington Carver was born into slavery, in Diamond Grove (now Diamond),
Newton County, Missouri, near Crystal Place, sometime in the early or mid-1860s. The date of his birth is
uncertain and was not known to Carver, but it was before slavery was abolished in Missouri, which occurred in
January 1865, during the American Civil War. His master, Moses Carver, was a German-American immigrant,
who had purchased George’s parents, Mary and Giles, from William P. McGinnis on October 9, 1855, for
$700. After slavery was abolished, Moses Carver and his wife, Susan, raised George and his older brother,
James, as their own children. They encouraged George to continue his intellectual pursuits, and “Aunt Susan”
taught him the basics of reading and writing.
Black people were not allowed at the public school in Diamond Grove. Carver decided to go to a school for
black children 10 miles south, in Neosho. When he reached the town, he found the school closed for the night.
He slept in a nearby barn. By his own account, the next morning he met a kind woman, Mariah Watkins, from
whom he wished to rent a room. When he identified himself as “Carver’s George”, as he had done his whole
life, she replied that from now on his name was “George Carver”. Carver liked Mariah Watkins, and her words
“You must learn all you can, then go back out into the world and give your learning back to the people” made a
great impression on him.
Carver worked diligently to get an education. He managed to get an advanced degree in botany, which is the
study of plants. After he finished his college degree, he worked in the South. He taught people about botany and
about how it could be used to improve farming.
Carver learned that there was a problem with cotton farming in the South. Cotton takes nutrients from the soil.
If cotton is planted year after year, the quality of the soil decreases. Carver knew that plants like peanuts
and sweet potatoes are different from cotton. They add nutrients to the soil rather than take nutrients from the
soil. Carver told farmers that it was a bad idea to grow only cotton and no other crops each year. He told
them that they should also grow plants like peanuts and sweet potatoes, which improve the quality of the soil.
Many farmers followed the advice that Carver offered them. The result was that the production on their farms
increased.
The increased production of peanuts and sweet potatoes improved the quality of the soil. [1] However, when
production of peanuts and sweet potatoes increased, a new problem developed. [2] The new problem was that
there were too many peanuts and sweet potatoes. [3] To solve this problem, Carver began working in a
laboratory to find new uses for peanuts and sweet potatoes. [4] He developed hundreds of products that could
be made from peanuts and sweet potatoes. These hundreds of products included food products, medicines,
plastics, and fertilizer.
56. Which of the following is NOT stated in paragraph 1 about George Washington Carver?
A. The period when he was born
B. Who his parents were
C. Where he was born
D. What he studied in school
57. The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ___________.
A. the date of Carver’s birth
B. the state of Missouri

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C. the end of slavery

D. the American Civil War
58. The phrase “By his own account” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ___________.
A. According to what he said about his own life
B. With all the money he had at that time
C. At his own risk
D. Under his own consideration
59. The word “diligently” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___________.
A. very hard
B. only a little
C. very easily
D. occasionally
60. In botany (paragraph 3), one might NOT study ___________.
A. oak trees
B. roses
C. corn
D. sharks
61. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the first highlighted sentence
in paragraph 4?
A. The soil will get worse due to repeated planting of cotton.
B. The same soil is used when cotton is planted year after year.
C. The amount of soil decreases if cotton is planted over again.
D. The quality of the cotton decreases if it is planted over again.
62. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that ___________.
A. peanuts and sweet potatoes are good for the soil while cotton is not
B. peanuts, sweet potatoes and cotton are all good for the soil
C. cotton is good for the soil while peanuts and sweet potatoes are not
D. neither peanuts and sweet potatoes nor cotton is good for the soil
63. Which of the following sentences below best expresses the essential information in the second
highlighted sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Farmers told Carver that it was not good to grow cotton.
B. Carver told farmers not to plant cotton with other crops.
C. Carver knew that it was best to plant cotton with no other crops.
D. Farmers learned from Carver that it was not good to grow only cotton.
64. It is stated in paragraph 5 that Carver was working in a laboratory to find new ___________.
A. ways to grow peanuts and sweet potatoes
B. kinds of peanuts and sweet potatoes
C. products that can be made from peanuts and sweet potatoes
D. ways to turn peanuts into sweet potatoes
65. In which space (marked [1], [2], [3], and [4] in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
It added nutrients back to the soil.
A. [1]

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B. [2]
C. [3]
D. [4]

Passage 4: Questions 66 – 75
In September of last year, I join a tour group and visited several Kenyan national parks on a tour that lasted
about two weeks. It was an absolutely exhilarating experience. The awe-inspiring wildlife, pristine natural
settings, and warm interactions with the local people seemed to affect everyone, even the most jaded of tourists.
We all emerged from the safari radiant with joy and inspiration.
We saw an impressive array of wildlife at the Maasai Mara National Reserve – lions, zebras, wildebeest,
gazelles, giraffes, elephants, and many more. Most of us were initially rather nervous to be in such close
proximity to the animals, but slowly grew to appreciate the intimate experience. [1]. A woman screamed when
a large lion came up to our minibus and started to lick the window. Our driver just laughed and said we had
nothing to worry about – the lion was just offering his car-wash services. This calmed the woman down and she
giggled along with the rest of us at his jokes.
At Amboseli National Park, we had our first encounter with the Maasai people. This famous warrior tribe still
live a semi-nomadic lifestyle, meaning they move around from time to time in search of food, water, and
grazing land for their cattle. [2]. The villages were exceptionally friendly and gregarious, and we were made to
feel very welcome.
On our last day in Amboseli, our tour guide had a special surprise – a group of Maasai were to perform
traditional dances and songs for us. They sang without the accompaniment of any musical instruments and
created wonderfully intricate music just by harmonizing their voices. The Maasai dances were very energetic,
with the men leaping high in the air. [3]. These dances are considered a ritual among the men to display their
strength: the higher the jump, the stronger the warrior. Some people in our group joined in, dancing and leaping
with the Maasai, but of course none of us could jump as high as them! The memory of the wonderful
performance stayed with us long after the trip.
The next morning we left very early – long before steaks of sunlight appeared on the horizon. Our next
destination was Lake Bogoria, famous for its thousands of pink flamingos. The lake lay in a valley between two
very high cliffs; we were in awe of the sheer scale of the place. [4]. We spent an hour watching the flamingos
take off from and land on the shimmering surface of the lake. Soon the sun was directly overhead and it was
time for lunch. Our guide led us over to one area of the lakeshore that had hot springs and geysers. We cooked
boiled eggs for lunch in the natural boiling water. (No, not flamingo eggs – chicken eggs, of course!)
After lunch, the guide surprised us by saying we were going to go looking for hippopotamuses. I was a little
nervous about this, as I had heard that hippos were actually more dangerous than lions. As we were all getting
into several large canoes on the shore of the lake, I asked the guide if this was indeed true. He said that hippos
can indeed be very dangerous, especially if the mother hippos feel that their infants are being threatened. After
about 15 minutes of paddling across the lake, we saw a large male hippopotamus. He didn’t seem to mind being
looked at, until people in the group started taking photos of him. I guess he didn’t like the sound of the cameras,
and he started to make some aggressive sounds. With that, our guide turned our canoes around, and we heeded
away from the hippo and back to the safety of the shore.
That evening, we ate dinner together at a little restaurant called Mammalia. It was an interesting mixture of
modern and traditional Kenyan cuisine. Our guide helped us to decipher our menus, which, while written in

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English, contained lots of dishes we had never heard of. Many of the dishes featured fish caught in Lake
Bogoria, and there were various chicken and goat dishes as well. They were prepared with a variety of
interesting local vegetables. When the food was brought, it smelled wonderful and everyone ate heartily.
While we were eating, we were amazed to see three men from the Sanburu tribe enter the restaurant. They were
wearing the traditional clothes of their people, which included beautiful bird feathers and hair dyed bright red.
It was a surprise for us when these mighty Africa warriors all sat down at the bar and ordered a soda to drink! It
was an amazing final scene from what was for me an unforgettable trip.
66. What was the author’s main purpose in writing this account?
A. to convince the reader to go on an Africa safari
B. to entertain the reader with a description of his African safari
C. to warn the reader about the dangers of an African safari
D. to encourage the reader to learn more about African people
67. According to the author, how did the safari seem to change the tourists?
A. It made them more jaded.
B. It made them less afraid of Africa.
C. It made them more joyful and inspired.
D. It made them braver.
68. The driver laughed at the woman in the minibus because ________.
A. she panicked when a lion came very close
B. she was afraid of zebras and wildebeest
C. she wanted to go home
D. she told many funny jokes
69. Which of the following is true about the Maasai?
A. They now live in towns and cities.
B. They are famous for their farming practices.
C. They don’t stay in one place for a very long time.
D. They prefer to live in isolation and not interact with people.
70. Which traditional practice showcases a Maasai warrior’s abilities?
A. how loudly they can sing
B. how well they can harmonize
C. how long they can jump
D. how high they can jump
71. Why did the guide decide to head back to the shore of Lake Bogoria?
A. Everyone had taken all the photos they needed.
B. Some tourists were getting very hungry.
C. The hippopotamus was becoming aggressive.
D. There were too many flamingos.
72. Why did the group need help with their menus at Mamalina?
A. The menu was written in a different language.
B. There were many dishes that they couldn’t eat.
C. They only wanted traditional Kenyan food.
D. They were not familiar with many of the dishes.

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 General English 7 – Mid-term Test – Code 1

73. What did the author find so amazing about the final scene with the Samburu men?
A. the fact that they were not aggressive at all
B. the beautiful clothes and their red hair
C. the contrast of traditional and modern
D. the difference between the Maasai and the Samburu
74. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to_____.
A. Africa combatants
B. diners
C. chicken and goat dishes
D. traditional clothes
75. Look at the four squares [ _ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
We were invited to one of their villages to learn more about their traditional culture and practices, and to
browse and buy handmade jewelry made from small colorful glass beards.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [1]
B. [2]
C. [3]
D. [4]

SECTION 3: WRITING
TASK 1: You should spend 20 minutes on this task.

Before flying to Wellington, the capital of New Zealand, you book a helicopter flight
over the city. However, when you get there, you are told that the flight has been
cancelled because of poor weather conditions, and you won’t get your money back. Not
only that, but you took a four-hour bus journey to get to the heliport, and the company
didn’t contact you to tell you about the cancellation, or put any information on their
website. Write a letter of complaint to the company.
Write a letter to complain about this matter.

You should write at least 120 words.

TASK 2: You should spend 40 minutes on this task.

Write about the following topic:

Some people argue that having lots of sisters and brothers is better than being an only
child.
Write an essay in which you give your own opinion of this view, taking into account
your own experiences.

You should write at least 250 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST!

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