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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

CLASSROOM TEST SERIES
BOOKLET SERIES
MECHANICAL
ENGINEERING
Test No. 18
Full Syllabus Test-2 : Paper-II

Duration: 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 300

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.1 A solid shaft is subjected to bending Q.4 For the partially loaded beam with a
moment of 4 kNm and a torsional moment uniformly varying load shown in figure, the
of 9 kNm. For this case, the equivalent reaction at A and B respectively are, (in
bending moment and twisting moment are kN).
respectively
(a) 5 kNm, 9.84 kNm 8 kN/m
(b) 6.92 kNm, 9.84 kNm
B
(c) 9.84 kNm, 6.92 kNm
(d) 12 kNm, 5 kNm

Q.2 What is the magnitude of net moment

sensed by a ‘A’ point in the given frame
[taking clockwise positive]? A

C 3m 3m
30°
(a) 4, 8 (b) 8, 4
0.5 m (c) 4, 4 (d) 10, 2
A B Q.5 A thin walled titanium alloy spherical shell
200 N
1m has 2 m inside diameter and 10 mm
thickness. It is completely filled with an
(a) 50 ( )
3 − 2 N.m unpressurized, incompressible fluid.
Through a small hole an additional 1000 cm3
(b) 25 ( )
3 + 2 N.m of same liquid pumped in, thus increasing
radius of shell. The pressure after additional
(c) 25 ( )
3 − 2 N.m liquid has been introduced and the hole
closed is
(d) 50 ( )
3 + 2 N.m [Take E = 100 GPa, yield strength 800 MPa,
μ = 0.3]
Q.3 Consider the following statements (a) 2.65 MPa (b) 227 kPa
regarding the term free-body diagram (c) 26.5 MPa (d) 10 MPa
(FBD):
Q.6 Find the average velocity of the particle
1. The FBD of a body is a sketch of the
body showing forces that act on it. 2π
from t = 0, to t = , where ,
2. In the FBD the term free implies that all ω
supports have been removed and
R = Acosωt i + Asinωt j
replaced by the forces (Reactions) that
ω
they exert on the body. (a) A ( j − i)
Which of the following statements is(are) 2π
correct? ω
(b) 2A (i + j )
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only π
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ( A sin θ) i + ( A cos ω) j
(c)
π
(d) None of these

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 3

Q.7 The bending stress distribution at a particular Q.10 The rails of a railroad track are welded
section is shown in figure. The distance of together at their ends (to form continuous
top-fibre from the neutral axis is rails and thus eliminate the clacking sound
300 MPa of the wheels) when the temperature is
10°C. What is the compressive stress σ
produced in the rails when they are heated
by the sun to 52°C if the coefficient of
thermal expansion α is 12 × 10–6/°C and the
30 cm
modulus of elasticity E is 200 GPa?
NA (a) 120.5 MPa (b) 220 MPa
(c) 100.8 MPa (d) 250 MPa

Q.11 A point in two-dimensional stress state, is

50 MPa
subjected to biaxial stress as shown in the
(a) 23.1 cm (b) 25.7 cm
below figure. The shear stress acting on the
(c) 28.1 cm (d) 21.6 cm
plane AB is
Q.8 At a section of a beam, shear force is F. The σy = τxy
cross-section is square with side ‘a’. Point A

a
A lies at distance and point B lies at θ
2
σx
σx = τxy
a
distance from the top edge. If τA and τB
4
denotes shear stresses at points A and B,
τA B
σy
then what is the value of τ ?
B
(a) Zero (b) τxy
3 4
(a) (b) (c) τxy cos2θ (d) τxy sin θ cos θ
4 3
(c) 1 (d) 0 Q.12 At a point in piece of elastic material direct
stresses of 90 MPa tensile and 50 MPa
Q.9 A cantilever beam carries a uniformly
compressive are applied on mutually
distributed load over half of its span as
perpendicular planes. The planes are also
shown in the figure. The load that must be
subjected to a shear stress. If the greater
applied at B so that deflection at B becomes
principal stress is limited to 100 MPa. What
zero is
is the value of other principal stress?
w N/m
(a) 40 MPa tensile
B (b) 40 MPa compressive
A (c) 60 MPa tensile
L/2 L/2 (d) 60 MPa compressive
P
Q.13 A bar of length L taper uniformly from
7 5
(a) wL (b) wL diameter 1.2 D to one end of 0.80 D at the
128 384
other end. The elongation due to axial pull
11 wL
(c) wL (d) is computed using mean diameter D. What
128 128
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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

is the approximate error in computed (a) Square butt, single V, single V with
elongation? backing strip, double V.
(a) 10% (b) 4% (b) Single V, square butt, double V, single
(c) 1% (d) 0.5% V with backing strip.
(c) Square butt, double V, single V, single
Q.14 Consider a body subjected to a two-
V with backing strip.
dimensional stress system with a rigid
(d) Single V with backing, double V, single
lateral restraint provided in the y-direction
V, square butt.
as shown in figure. While the material is
free to contract laterally in x-direction and Q.17 A shaft is subjected to bending and twisting
the ‘Poisson ratio’ (μ) extension along the moment of 800 Nm and 500 Nm
y-axis is total prevented. Then which one respectively. The equivalent bending
of the following expression is correct moment according to maximum distortion
regarding normal strain (εx) in x-direction. energy theory is
(a) 1215.5 N-m (b) 909.7 N-m
y (c) 610 N-m (d) 695.9 N-m

Q.18 A single block brake whose diameter of the

P
x drum is 250 mm and the angle of contact is
90°. The coefficient of friction between the
drum and the lining is 0.35. What is the
equivalent coefficient of friction?
−σ y
(a)
−σ x
E
(
1 − μ2 ) (b)
E
(1 − μ2 ) (a) 0.35
(c) 0.426
(b) 0.385
(d) 0.45
+σ y
(c)
E
(1 − μ 2 ) (d)
+σx
E
(
1 − μ2 ) Q.19 A taper roller bearing has a dynamic load
capacity 64 kN. The desired life for 90% of the
Q.15 For parallel welded joint shown below, the bearing is 8000 hr and the speed is 300 rpm.
total length of weld is 250 mm and the The equivalent radial load that the bearing
centroidal axis of weld is 10 mm above can carry will be nearly [1443/10 = 4.44]
lower weld, then the length of upper weld (a) 5824 N (b) 11648 N
is (c) 14414 N (d) 23296 N
l1 Q.20 Consider the following statements
regarding thrust bearing:
30 mm

G
1. Double row thrust ball bearing is not
+ P
possible.
2. Lower race, outer race and retainer are
l2
readily separable in thrust bearings.
(a) 150 mm (b) 100 mm 3. Taper rollers cannot be employed for
(c) 167 mm (d) 83 mm thrust bearings.
4. Cylindrical thrust bearing have higher
Q.16 Which of the following option correctly
coefficient of friction than ball thrust
represents the increasing order of reliability
bearings.
of welded joint?

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 5

Which of the above statements is(are) 4. Chaplets ensure directional

CORRECT? solidification.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the following statements are
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only correct?
Q.21 For a product the forecast and the actual (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
sales for December 2020 were 25 and 20 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
respectively. If the exponential smoothing Q.26 A cylindrical specimen of steel having an
constant (α) is taken as 0.2. The forecast original length of 10 mm is tensile tested to
sales for January 2021 would be fracture and found to have engineering
(a) 21 (b) 23 fracture strength (σf) of 420 MPa. If its length
(c) 24 (d) 27
is 15 mm at fracture, the true stress at
Q.22 Time estimate of an activity in a PERT fracture will be
network are: (a) 650 MPa (b) 630 MPa
Optimistic time, to = 12 days (c) 610 MPa (d) 460 MPa
Pessimistic time, tp = 24 days
Q.27 Hartung governor, the length of the ball
Most likely time, tm = 18 days
and sleeve arms are x and y respectively.
The approximate probability of completing
Mass sleeve is ‘M’ and ‘FC’ is the centrifugal
this activity in 20 days is:
force. Neglecting the effect of obliquity of
(a) 16% (b) 84%
(c) 50% (d) 97% the arms. The expression for spring force
(FS) of Hartung governor is
Q.23 Pilot study showed the percentage of Mg y
occurrence of an activity as 50%. The (a) FS = FC − ×
2 x
number of observations for 95.45%
Mg y
confidence level and an accuracy of ±5% is (b) FS = FC + ×
2 x
(a) 800 (b) 1600
2
(c) 1200 (d) 2000 ⎡ FC − FC 1 ⎤ ⎛ x ⎞
(c) FS = 2 ⎢ 2 ⎥×⎜ ⎟
Q.24 In an arc welding process, welding speed ⎣ r2 − r1 ⎦ ⎝ y ⎠
is doubled. Assuming all other process ⎡ FC − FC 1 ⎤ ⎛ y ⎞ 2
(d) FS = 2 ⎢ 2 ⎥×⎜ ⎟
parameters to be constant, the cross- ⎣ r2 − r1 ⎦ ⎝ x ⎠
sectional area of the weld bead will
Q.28 A motor car moving at a certain speed takes
(a) increased by 50%
a left turn in a curved path. If the engine
(b) reduce by 25%
rotates in the same direction as that of
(c) increased by 25%
wheels, then due to the gyroscopic effect.
(d) reduce by 50%
(a) the reaction on the inner wheels
Q.25 Consider the following statements: increases and on the outer wheel
1. Chaplets are used to support the core decreases.
inside the cavity. (b) the reaction on the outer wheels
2. Chaplets are made of same material as increases and on the inner wheels
of casting. decreases.
3. Core prints are used to position the core (c) the reaction on the front wheels increases
properly. and on the rear wheel decreases.

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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases

2k 3k
and on the front wheels decreases. (a) b (b) 2 b
I I
Q.29 What is the DOF of the following
mechanism? 6k k
(c) b (d) 6b
I I

Q.33 Rotors are fixed to the shaft of various

diameters at different section as shown in
figure. The length of torsionally equivalent
shaft of diameter ‘d’ is

Rotor
(a) 0 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 2 d d/2 d d/2
2l 2l
Q.30 In the statement “An eccentric mass rotating l l
at 3000 rpm will create X time unbalanced
force than 50% of same mass rotating at 300 (a) 130 l (b) 18 l
rpm”. The value of X is (c) 66 l (d) 46 l
1 Q.34 In the 4 bar mechanism as shown, the link
(a) (b) 2
2 PQ measures 25 cm and rotates uniformly
(c) 20 (d) 200 at 100 rev/min. The velocity of point Q on
link PQ is nearly
Q.31 The critical damping coefficient of a system
R
with a mass of 1 kg attached to the end of
45 cm
spring with stiffness 0.9 N/mm is
Q 50 cm
(a) 30 N/m/s (b) 60 N/m/s
25 cm
(c) 120 N/m/s (d) 600 N/m/s
P S
70 cm
Q.32 An electric motor is supported by six (a) 3.14 m/s (b) 2.61 m/s
springs of stiffness k each as shown in (c) 4.6 m/s (d) 5.8 m/s
figure. The moment of inertia of the rotor
is I. The natural frequency (ω n ) of the Q.35 Which one of the following is not correct
system is statement with respect to the involute
profile toothed gear in mesh?
2b (a) The shape of the involute profile
depends only on the dimensions of the
base circle.
θ (b) When two involute are in mesh, the
angular velocity ratio is proportional to
the size of the base circle.
k k
(c) The base circle diameter and pitch circle
diameter of the two mating involute are
proportional.
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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 7

(d) Pressure angle remain constant from the C. Peritectoid 3. L1 → L2 + α

start till the end of the engagement. D. Monotectic 4. L + β → α
Codes:
Q.36 Which one of the following is not correct
A B C D
regarding cycloidal teeth?
(a) 2 3 1 4
(a) Interference can occur, if the condition
(b) 3 4 1 2
of minimum number of teeth on a gear
(c) 2 4 1 3
is not followed.
(d) 4 1 2 3
(b) In this, a convex flank always has contact
with a concave face resulting in less Q.40 The phases present in a hypereutectoid steel
wear. at room temperature are
(c) Exact centre distance is required to (a) α - ferrite and pearlite
transmit a constant velocity ratio. (b) Austenite and α - ferrite
(d) It involves double curve for the teeth, (c) Cementite and pearlite
epicycloidal and hypocycloidal. (d) α - ferrite and cementite

Q.37 Which one of the following is not a Hume- Q.41 Which one of the following is correct
Ruthery condition: regarding the critical radius for
(a) Crystal structure of each element of homogeneous nucleation during a phase
solid solution must be the same. transformation?
(b) Size of atoms of each two elements must (a) Directly proportional to both the surface
not differ by more than 15%. energy and the difference of Gibbs free
(c) Elements should form compounds with energy between the two phases.
each other. (b) Inversely proportional to both the
(d) Elements should have the same valency. surface energy and the difference of
Gibbs free energy between the two
Q.38 Consider the following statements
phases.
regarding ceramics.
(c) Inversely proportional to the surface
1. Good insulator of heat and electricity.
energy but directly proportional to the
2. Contains both metallic and non metallic
difference of Gibbs free energy between
elements.
the two phases.
3. Can withstand very high temperature.
(d) Directly proportional to the surface
4. Ductile in nature.
energy but inversely proportional to the
Which of the above statements are correct?
difference of Gibbs free energy between
the two phases.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.42 Which one of the following is correct
regarding the final products of annealing
Q.39 Match List-I (Reaction name) with List-II
(furnace cooling) and normalizing (air
(Phase transformation reaction) and select
cooling) of a eutectoid steel
the correct answer using the codes given
(a) coarse pearlite and fine pearlite
below the lists:
(b) fine pearlite and coarse pearlite
List-I List-II
(c) coarse pearlite and bainite
A. Eutectic 1. γ + β → α
(d) coarse pearlite and martensite
B. Peritectic 2. L → α + β
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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.43 The TTT diagram of a eutectoid steel is z

shown below. Which cooling curve
represents austempering?

c x
(b) b
TE
a
y

T z

MS c
(c) b
A
MF a x
C D y
B
Time y

(a) D (b) C
(c) B (d) A

Q.44 Which one of the following is correct

x
regarding the during the grain growth? (d)
c
b
(a) Both the average grain size and the total a
number of grains increase.
(b) The average grain size increases but the z

number of grains decreases.

Q.46 A 10 mm diameter brinell ball produces an
(c) The average grain size decreases but the
indetation of 4 mm in steel alloy when a
total number of grains increases.
loaded by 1000 kg. The BHN is
(d) Both the average grain size and the total
(a) 76 (b) 80
number of grains decrease.
(c) 95 (d) 120

Q.45 The miller direction ⎡⎣ 2 1 2 ⎤⎦ in a orthogonal Q.47 Which among the following statement(s)
crystal structure with lattice parameter a ≠ regarding the differential of point or path
b ≠ c is shown by and a = 2, b = 1, c = 4 unit is function is/are true.
z 1. The differential of path functions are
exact differentials.
2. The differentials of point function are
inexact-differentials.
x 3. The differentials of path function are
(a) c
b inexact-differentials.
a 4. The differentials of point function are
exact-differentials.
y

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 9

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only dry bulb temperatures are 35°C and 25°C
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) None of them respectively. The sensible heat load due to
infiltration is
Q.48 If the values of constant heats for a gas are
(a) 8.16 kW (b) 12.50 kW
as cp = 1.482 kJ/kgK and cv = 1.030 kJ/kgK,
(c) 7.12 kW (d) 15.73 kW
then what will be the approximate value of
molecular weight of the gas? Q.53 Sensible heat factor of a certain process is
(a) 14 (b) 18 ( H2 − H1 )
(c) 21 (d) 16 given by where, H1 is total heat
( H 3 − H1 )
Q.49 The temperature on a thermometric scale of air entering the coil (heating or cooling),
is defined in terms of property k by the H2 is the total heat of air leaving the coil
relation, t = a lnk + b where a and b are (heating or cooling), H3 is total heat of air
constants. The value of k are found to be at the end of the process (humidification or
2 and 8 at the ice point (0°C) and steam dehumidification). The process 1-3 is
point (100°C) respectively. What is the (a) Cooling and dehumidification
temperature corresponding to a reading of (b) Heating an humidification
k equal to 4 on the thermometer? (c) Heating and dehumidification
(a) 25°C (b) 50°C (d) Cooling and humidification
(c) 75°C (d) 10°C Q.54 Which one of the following is not correct?
Q.50 0.4 kg/s of air flows through a compressor (a) The fully halogenated ones with chlorine
under, steady state conditions. The in their molecules are chloro-fluoro
properties of air at entry are pressure 1 bar carbons, referred as CFCs.
velocity 10 m/s, specific volume 0.95 m3/ (b) The chlorine atom in the molecule in the
kg and internal energy 40 kJ/kg. The refrigerant is responsible for the
corresponding values at exit are 8 bar, 6 m/s, depletion of ozone layer.
0.2 m 3/kg and 124 kJ/kg respectively. (c) The H atoms in the molecule imparts a
Neglecting change in potential energy. degree of flammable to the substance
What will be the power input required? depending upon the number of these
(a) 29.79 kW (b) 59.58 kW atoms.
(c) 119.16 kW (d) 238.32 kW (d) The chemical formula for refrigerant R-
160 is C2H2Cl4.
Q.51 A room is filled with saturated moist air at
25°C and a total pressure of 100 kPa. If the Q.55 Consider the following statement(s)
mass of dry air in the room is 100 kg, then regarding Hydro-Carbons (HCs)
mass of water vapour is [Vapour pressure 1. HCs are the compound that mainly
at saturation (Ps = 3.1691 kPa)] consist of Carbon and Hydrogen.
(a) 4.02 kg (b) 2.04 kg 2. HCs are highly flammable in nature but
(c) 1.36 kg (d) Data insufficient having zero ozone depletion potential
(ODP) and very low Global Warming
Q.52 An air conditioned room has length, width potential (GWP).
and height of 20 m, 30 m and 4 m Which of the following is/are correct?
respectively. The infiltration is assumed to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
be one air change. The outdoor and indoor (c) Both of them (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.56 Consider the following statement(s) using the codes given below the lists:
regarding thermo-static expansion valve. List-I
1. It provides excellent control of A. Drilling machine
refrigeration capacity as the supply of B. Lathe
refrigerant to the evaporator matches C. Shaper
the demand. D. Broaching machine
2. It ensures that the evaporation operates List-II
efficiently by preventing starving under 1. Dividing head
2. Hollow tapered spindle
high load conditions.
3. Face plate
3. It protects the compressor from slugging
4. Rachet and pawl mechanism
by ensuring a minimum degree of
5. Push or pull tool
superheat under all condition of load, if Codes:
properly selected. A B C D
Which of the following statements is(are) (a) 2 3 1 4
correct? (b) 1 4 3 5
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 3 4 5
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 2 5 4

Q.57 Air at state 1, DPT = 2°C, ω = 0.008 kg/kg Q.61 The correct order of increasing thermal
d.a. mixes with air at state 2, DPT = 20°C, resistance to heat conductions (m.K/W) of
ω = 0.0120 kg/kg d.a. in the ratio of 1 : 3 by metal is
(a) Silver, Copper, Diamond, Gold
weight. If the specific humidity of saturated
(b) Gold, Diamond, Copper, Silver
air at 15.5°C is ω = 0.0101 kg/kg d.a., the
(c) Gold, Copper, Silver, Diamond
degree of saturation of the mixture is (d) Diamond, Silver, Copper, Gold
(a) 30.2% (b) 66.67%
Q.62 A non-transparent film is to bonded with
(c) 10.89% (d) 33.33%
substrate as shown in figure. To cure the
Q.58 Thermo electric refrigeration system is bond radiation heat is used to provide heat
based on flux q o . The other end of substrate is
(a) Peltier effect maintained at constant temperature of 45°C,
(b) Joule effect while film surface is exposed to air at a
temperature of 30°C, and h = 20 W/m2K.
(c) Newtons law of cooling
For this process temperature of bond
(d) Seeback effect
maintain at 60°C.
Q.59 In orthogonal cutting depth of cut is 1.5 mm T∞,h
qo
Air
at a cutting speed of 2 m/s. If the chip
thickness is 2.5 mm, then the chip velocity is 0.20 mm kf = 0.020 W/mK (Film)
(a) 3.33 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s
(c) 1.2 m/s (d) None of these Bonded
1.5 mm ks = 0.05 W/mK surface
Q.60 Match List-I (Machine tool) with List-II (Substrate)
(Features) and select the correct answer T1 = 45°C

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 11

If all the radiant heat flux is absorbed at (b) Temperature profile for hot fluid is
upper surface of film. The radiant heat flux parabolic and cold fluid is parabolic.
(qo) provided is, (c) For both the fluid temperature profile
(a) 701.5 W/m2 (b) 500 W/m2 is parabolic.
(c) 1200 W/m2 (d) 100 W/m2 (d) For both the fluid temperature profile
is linear.
Q.63 A thin plate 3 m × 2 m is hanging freely in
air. The temperature of the surrounding is Q.66 The compounding of steam turbines is done
27°C. Solar radiation is falling on one side to
of the plate at the rate of 400 W/m2. What (a) Improve efficiency
should be the convective heat transfer (b) Reduce turbine speed
coefficient is W/m2°C if the temperature of (c) Increase blade speed ratio
the plate is to remain constant at 35°C? (d) Reduce axial thrust
(a) 50 (b) 25
(c) 20 (d) 60 Q.67 At a particular section of a reaction turbine,
the diameter of the blade is 1.8 m, the
Q.64 Match List-I (Phenomenon) with List-II velocity of flow of steam is 49 m/s and the
(Associated dimensionless parameter) and quantity of steam flow is 5.4 m3/s, the blade
select the correct answer using the codes height of this section will be approximately.
given below the lists: (a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm
List-I (c) 1 cm (d) 0.5 cm
A. Transient conduction
B. Forced convection Q.68 The isentropic enthalpy drop (J/kg) per
C. Free convection stage for simple impulse turbine can be
D. Mass transfer expressed in terms of fixed blade angle ‘α’
List-II and blade velocity ‘u’ as
1. Rayleigh number 2u2 4u 2
(a) (b)
2. Peclet number cos 2 α cos 2 α
3. Sherwood number
8u2 16u 2
4. Fourier number (c) (d)
cos 2 α cos 2 α
5. Eckert number
Codes: Q.69 The maximum blade efficiency of a Parson’s
A B C D turbine for the fixed blade angle of 30° is
(a) 4 1 2 5 (a) 0.50 (b) 0.75
(b) 5 1 4 3 (c) 0.86 (d) 0.94
(c) 4 2 1 3
Q.70 In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity
(d) 3 1 2 4
angle at inlet is 45°. The mass flow rate of
Q.65 In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger steam is 10 kg/s. The mean peripheral speed
is 100 m/s and the absolute velocity at the
where ( m  c cc ) show that ΔTi = ΔTe = ΔT,
 hc h = m
exit is axial. The power developed in the
at any section, then which one of the blades is
following statements is correct?
(a) 50 kW (b) 100 kW
(a) Temperature profile for hot fluid is
(c) 10 kW (d) 75 kW
parabolic and cold fluid is hyperbolic.

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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.71 Consider the following statements dust.

regarding cooling towers: Which of the following above statements
1. Approach is the difference between cold is/are correct?
water outlet temperature and dry bulb (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
temperature of entering air. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Range is the difference between cold
Q.75 In a plant working on a vapour power cycle,
water outlet and inlet temperature.
the heat added in the boiler to form steam
Which of the above statements are correct?
is 8600 kW and the heat rejected from the
condenser 4850 kW, the mass flow rate of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
steam is 30 kg/s. The steam rate of the cycle
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
is
Q.72 Which one of the following is correct (a) 0.008 kg/kWh
regarding Regeneration in gas turbine? (b) 28.8 kg/kWh
(a) increase the pressure ratio of the cycle. (c) 80 kg/kWh
(b) increase the temperature of partially (d) 25 kg/kWh
expanded gases by burning more fuel.
Q.76 Three vapour cycles are coupled in series,
(c) decrease the fuel requirements for same
the overall efficiency of cycle, if the
work output.
efficiency of the three cycle is 0.40, 0.45, 0.50
(d) removes heat from compressed air
respectively.
between stages of compression.
(a) 16.5% (b) 90%
Q.73 In an ideal Brayton cycle, air is compressed (c) 83.5% (d) 84.5%
from 100 kPa and 28°C to 500 kPa. Under
Q.77 Which of the following thermal power plant
cold-air standard conditions, the
have highest overall efficiency?
approximate thermal efficiency of this cycle
(a) Steam power plant
will be
(b) Gas turbine power plant
[Assume specific heat ratio as 1.41],
(c) Combine gas and steam power plant
[50.41/1.41 = 1.59]
(d) Diesel power plant
(a) 34% (b) 37%
(c) 28% (d) 31% Q.78 Which of the following sequence of
component of turbines is correct?
Q.74 Consider the following statement
(a) Compressor, Diffuser, Nozzle, Turbine
regarding function of component of
(b) Diffuser, Compressor, Nozzle, Turbine
electrostatic precipitator (ESP).
(c) Diffuser, Compressor, Turbine, Nozzle
1. Discharge electrodes create a strong
(d) Compressor, Diffuser, Turbine, Nozzle
electrical field that ionizes flue gas, and
this ionization charges particles in the Q.79 Mass flow rate of steam released from
gas. boiler drum is 50 kg/s and the dryness
2. Collection electrodes are either flat fraction the at top is 0.2. The circulation
plates or tubes with a charge opposite ratio is
that of the discharge electrodes. (a) 100 (b) 10
3. Rappers impart a vibration, or shock, to (c) 2 (d) 5
the electrodes, removing the collected

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 13

Q.80 For the following schematic T-s Q.82 The masked inlet valve in the air passage
representation of the gas turbine cycle with of compression ignition engines is to,
intercooling the cycle efficiency is given by (a) Induce primary swirl
T
(b) Enhance flow rate
5 (c) Control air flow
7 (d) Induce secondary turbulence
4
6
Q.83 A single cylinder engine has 60 mm bore
2 8 and 85 mm stroke. The compression ratio
3 of the engine is 8. What is the clearance
volume of the cylinder?
1
(a) 27.50 cm3 (b) 34.33 cm3
s
(c) 43.82 cm3 (d) 52.64 cm3
⎡( h − h8 ) − ( h4 − h1 )⎤⎦
(a) ⎣ 5 Q.84 In a four stroke engine, when engine
( h5 − h4 ) consumes fuel at the rate of 10 kg/hr it
⎡( h5 − h6 ) + ( h7 − h8 ) − ( h4 − h1 )⎤⎦ develop 100 kW of power. When engine
(b) ⎣ develops 220 kW of power it consumes only
( h7 − h4 )
20 kg/hr of fuel. Calculate the frictional
⎡( h5 − h6 ) + ( h7 − h8 ) − ( h2 − h1 ) − ( h4 − h3 )⎤⎦ power of the engine using the Willian’s line
(c) ⎣
⎡⎣( h5 − h4 ) + ( h7 − h6 )⎤⎦ method.
⎡( h5 − h6 ) + ( h7 − h8 ) − ( h2 − h1 ) − ( h4 − h3 )⎤⎦
(a) 10 kW (b) 15 kW
(d) ⎣ (c) 20 kW (d) 25 kW
⎡⎣( h7 − h4 ) + ( h2 − h3 )⎤⎦
Q.85 consider the following factor causes of HC
Q.81 Consider the following statement(s) Self-
Emissions.
Ignition Characteristics of Fuels
1. Nonstoichiometric Air-Fuel Ratio
1. The compression ratios of gasoline-
2. Incomplete Combustion
fueled SI engines are limited to about
3. Crevice Volumes
11:1 to avoid self-ignition.
4. Leak Past the Exhaust Valve
2. If the mixture is heated to a temperature
5. Deposits on Combustion Chamber Walls
above self-ignition temperature (SIT),
Which of the following are correct?
self-ignition will occur after a short time
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
delay called ignition delay (ID).
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
3. The values for SIT and ID for a given
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
air-fuel mixture are ambiguous,
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
independent of many variables which
include temperature, pressure, density, Q.86 For steady, fully developed, in
turbulence, swirl, fuel-air ratio, presence incompressible, laminar flow of Newtonian
of inert gases etc. fluids in a straight circular pipe, the shear
Which of the above statements are correct? stress distribution across the section is
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Invariant
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 (b) linear with a maximum value at the wall
and zero value at the centre.

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14 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(c) Parabolic with a zero value at the wall

and maximum value at the centre. 2000 kg
(d) logarithmic with zero value at the wall
F
and maximum value at the centre. 20 cm
45 90 cm
cm
Q.87 Which of the following graph is correctly
represents thixotropic fluid?
15 cm

μapp.

Oil

(a)
(a) 396.4 N (b) 132.2 N
(c) 420 N (d) 120 N
Time
Q.89 The predominant fluid property associated
μapp. with cavitation phenomenon is
(a) surface tension
(b) vapour pressure
(c) mass density
(b)
(d) bulk modulus of elasticity

Q.90 A flat plate is placed inclined to the vertical

Time
at an angle ‘θ’ in a fluid of density ‘ρ’ under
μapp. static conditions.
Consider the following statements:
1. Total hydrostatic force on plate is ρg
times first area moment of inertia of
(c)
plate about surface level.
2. Centre of application of resultant force
Time on plate from surface level is equal to
the ratio of second moment of inertia
μapp. about surface level to first area moment
of inertia about surface level.
3. Centre of application of resultant force
(d) on plate from surface level is equal to
IC .G .
h+ sin 2 θ .
Ah
Time
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q.88 Hydraulic Jack, as shown in figure is filled (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
with oil of density 850 kg/m3. Neglecting (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the weight of the two piston, what force
Q.91 A reciprocating compressor with clearance
‘F’ on the handle is required to apply to
volume 50 CC and sweft volume equal to
support the 2000 kg weight?

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 15

250 CC. The specific volume ratio of outlet (a) 800 kg/m3 (b) 555 kg/m3
of the compressor to the inlet is 0.32. The (c) 480 kg/m3 (d) 520 kg/m3
volumetric efficiency of compressor is
Q.95 The mean bucket speed of a Pelton turbine
(a) 58% (b) 65%
is 15 m/s. The rate of flow of water
(c) 54% (d) 75%
supplied by the jet under a head of 45 m is
Q.92 A two-dimensional flow field has velocities 1 m3/s. The jet is deflected by the buckets
along the x and y directions given by u = x2t at an angle of 143°. Neglecting frictional
and v = –2xy2t respectively, where t is time. losses in the bucket, the velocity of whirl at
The equation of streamline for a given the outlet is obtained as (Take coefficient
velocity field will be of velocity, cv = 0.98)
1 (a) 4.52 m/s (b) 3.48 m/s
(a) 2 ln x = − +C
y (c) 2.16 m/s (d) 5.72 m/s
1 Q.96 The function of a draft tube in a reaction
(b) ln x = +C
y turbine is
1 (a) to enable the shaft of turbine to be
(c) ln x 2 = +C
y vertical.
(d) 2 lnx = lny + C (b) to transform a large part of pressure
energy at turbine outlet into kinetic
Q.93 A balloon is filled with 3000 m3 of hydrogen energy.
having specific weight 1.1 N/m3. What lift (c) to avoid whirl losses at the exit of the
does the balloon exert at the earth’s surface, turbine.
if the balloon weights 1400 N and the (d) to transform a large part of the kinetic
temperature is 15°C? energy at the runner outlet into
(Specific weight of air at zero elevation is atmospheric pressure energy by creating
12 N/m3) a vacuum pressure at runner outlet.
(a) 24.6 kN (b) 38.4 kN
(c) 31.3 kN (d) 41.2 kN Q.97 Two pumps can operate independently at
head H1 and discharge Q1. If the pump are
Q.94 The partially submerged wood pole is connected in parallel, then what are the
attached to the wall by a hinge as shown. resultant discharge (Q) and head (H)?
The pole is in equilibrium under the action (a) H = H1; Q = Q1
of weight and buoyant forces. What is the (b) H = H1; Q = 2Q1
density of the wood? (c) H = 2H1; Q = Q1
(d) H = 2H1; Q = 2Q1

Hinge 2L
/3
Q.98 A water tank initially contains 140 L of
water. Now equal rates of cold and hot
Pole water enter the tank for a period of 30
L/ minutes while warm water is discharged
30° 3
from the tank at a rate of 25 L/min. The
amount of water in the tank at end of this
30 min period is 50 L. The rate of hot water
Water
entering the tank is
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16 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(a) 33 L/min (b) 25 L/min (d) it is constant but always lower than the
(c) 11 L/min (d) 7 L/min average velocity in the fully developed
region.
Q.99 A piezometer and pitot tube are tapped into
a horizontal water pipe, as shown in figure, Q.102 Consider the gas turbine supplied with gas
to measure static and stagnation (Static + at 1000 K and 4 bar expand adiabatically to
Dynamic) pressure. For the indicated water a 1 bar. The mean specific heat at constant
column heights, what will be the velocity pressure is 1.02 kJ/kgK and constant volume
at the centre of the pipe [g = 10 m/s2]? 0.73 kJ/kgK. Calculate power developed in
kJ/kg of gas per second and exhaust gas
temperature.
h3 = 12 cm (a) 121.2 kJ/kg and 647 K
(b) 330.81 kJ/kg and 675 K
(c) 121.2 kJ/kg and 909 K
h2 7 cm (d) 92.82 kJ/kg and 647 K

Q.103 What is the effect of super-heated steam

h1 = 3 cm
Water
(1) (2) V1 on efficiency of Rankine cycle?
(a) Efficiency of Rankine cycle decreases
with increase in super-heat of the steam.
(a) 1.55 m/s (b) 1.24 m/s (b) Efficiency of Rankine cycle increase with
(c) 1.04 m/s (d) 0.98 m/s increase in super-heat of the steam.
(c) Efficiency of Rankine cycle is not
Q.100 The head loss in a sudden expansion from affected by change in super-heat of the
6 cm diameter pipe to 12 cm diameter pipe steam.
in terms of velocity V 1 in the smaller (d) May increase or decrease, it is depend
diameter pipe is on cycle.
9 V12 5 V12
(a) (b) Q.104 Which of the following is/are the limitation
16 2 g 16 2 g
of non-renewable source of energy?
3 V12 7 V12 1. They are present in dilute form.
(c) (d)
16 2 g 16 2 g 2. Resources are infinite and do not get
Q.101 For steady flow of a viscous incompressible replenished after there consumption.
fluid through a circular pipe of constant 3. Cause air and water pollution.
diameter. The average velocity in the fully 4. Controls GDP of a country.
developed region is constant. Which one of Select the appropriate code from below:
the following statements about the average (a) 2, 3 and 4
velocity in the developing region is true? (b) 1 and 2
(a) it increases until the flow is fully (c) 3 only
developed. (d) 3 and 4
(b) it is constant and is equal to the average Q.105 Point where earth is farthest from the sun
velocity in the fully developed region. is called as
(c) it decreases until the flow is fully (a) Peri-helion (b) Equinox
developed. (c) Aphelion (d) None of the above
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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 17

Q.106 ‘Hour angle’ is best defined as motions of the Earth–Moon system, and
(a) Angle of revolution of earth longitudes to a lesser extent from the Earth–Sun
in one hour. system.
(b) Angle made by line joining the centres 2. Tidal forces produced by the Moon and
of the sun and the earth with projection Sun, in combination with Earth’s
of the line on equatorial plane. rotation, are responsible for the
(c) The angle through which the earth must generation of the tides.
be turn to bring the longitude of the Which of the following above statements
location directly in-line with sun. is(are) correct?
(d) Angle between the longitude of the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
observer and the meridian longitude. (c) Both of them (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.107 The top surface of absorber plate should Q.110 Consider the following statement
1. absorb as much as solar radiation regarding Ebb generation:
incident on it. 1. It works on the principle of generating
2. have low value of absorptivity for electricity as the tide ebbs.
shorter wave length radiations. 2. In this, Water is allowed to flow into
3. have high value of absorptivity for the basin through sluice gates as the tide
longer wave length radiations. rises during the flood tide. Once the tide
Select the appropriate code from below. has reached its maximum height the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 sluice gates are closed.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. During the ebb tide the sea level rise.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Q.108 Consider the following statement
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
regarding Horizontal axis wind turbines
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(HAWT):
1. It shows relatively high-power Q.111 Consider the following statements
coefficient. regarding solar cells.
2. The tail or yaw drive does not require 1. Solar cells are based on the principle of
to orient the turbine towards wind. photoelectric effect.
3. Its classification is done on the basis of 2. It produces electricity from the
number of blades on a rotor of turbine. absorption of electromagnetic radiation.
Which of the following above statement are 3. Semiconductor materials are used in
correct? solar cells.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.109 Consider the following statement
Q.112 The I-V curve of three different solar panel
regarding tidal energy:
is shown in figure. Which one of the
1. It is the only form of energy, which
following option is correct?
derives directly from the relative

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18 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.116 If the spring deflects 0.085 m, when a force

I
I SC
of 17 kN is applied. What will be the input
force required for a displacement of 0.1 m?
1 (a) 10 kN (b) 20 kN
2 (c) 30 kN (d) 40 kN
3
Q.117 An accelerometer has a seismic mass of a
0.10 kg and a spring constant of 1.5 × 103
V OC V N/m. If the maximum mass displacement
is ± 0.025 m, then what will be the maximum
(a) Solar panel 1 will have highest fill factor
measurable acceleration?
(b) Solar panel 2 will have highest fill factor
(a) 325 m/s2 (b) 350 m/s2
(c) Solar panel 3 will have highest fill factor
(c) 375 m/s2 (d) 400 m/s2
(d) All have same fill factor since ISC and
VOC of all are same Q.118 What will be the resolution of an encoder
with 8 tracks nearly?
Q.113 A PV cell is illuminated with irradiation (a) 0.15° (b) 0.35°
(E) of 900 W/m2. If the cell is of square cross (c) 0.95° (d) 1.4°
section of side 100 mm produces current of
Q.119 A strip of copper 150 μm thickness is placed
2.5 A at 0.5 V at the maximum power point.
in a magnetic field, B = 0.65T perpendicular
The conversion efficiency will be to the plane of the strip and a current I = 23A
(a) 5% (b) 14% is setup in the strip. What is the magnitude
(c) 22% (d) 26% of hall voltage developed. If the carrier
density is = 8.49 × 1026 electron/m3, change
Q.114 Which fuel cell was used as a power source
of carriers = –1.6 × 10–19 C
in the Apollo space program?
(a) –9.3 × 10–4 Volt
(a) Phosphoric acid fuel cell
(b) –7.3 × 10–4 Volt
(b) Alkaline fuel cell
(c) –5.3 × 10–4 Volt
(c) Solid oxide fuel cell (d) –4 × 10–4 Volt
(d) Polymer electrolyte fuel cell
Q.120 Consider the following statement
Q.115 Consider the following statements regarding linear variable differential
regarding sensor and signal conditioning transformer (LVDT).
circuits: 1. It is a displacement sensor, which is
1. Signal conditioning circuit shapes the used to measure linear and angular
output of sensor, such that it can be displacement.
processed further easily. 2. It works on the principle of
2. Signal conditioning circuit consists of electromagnetic induction.
3. It consist of single primary coil and two
amplifier, filters etc.
secondary coils.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are
4. It has movable magnetic core, which
correct?
couples the magnetic flux generated by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
primary coil to secondary coil.
(c) Both of them (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 19

Which of the above statements are correct? 1. It is a 2 byte instruction.

(a) 1, 3 only 2. The data is 7101H memory location will
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only be store in accumulator.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. Data of accumulator will be stored in
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 7101H address.
Q.121 Determine the overall transfer function by 4. The data 7101H is stored in accumulator.
using block reduction technique for the Which of the above statements is(are)
given system: correct?
R(s ) +
G1
+
G2
C(s ) (a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 only
– – (c) 1 and 2 (d) 4 only
H2
Q.125 What is the ratio of amplitude of response
H1 to that of the input called?
(a) Response (b) Gain
C (s) G1G2
(a) = (c) Phase (d) Frequency
R ( s ) 1 − G1 H 2 − G1G2 H 1
C (s) Q.126 Consider the following statements
(b) G1G2 + G1 H 2
= regarding gantry xyz robot configuration:
R (s ) 1 + G2 H 2 + G1G2 H 1
1. It can be designed for high rigidity and
C ( s ) G2 H 2 + G1G2 H 2
(c) = load carrying capacity.
R (s ) G1G2
2. It provides large work areas and better
C (s) G1G2 positioning accuracy.
(d) =
R (s ) 1 + G2 H 2 + G1G2 H 2 3. It is used for pick and place application.
Q.122 Which of the following statement about Which of the above statements are correct?
close loop control system is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
1. Output has not effect on control system. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. More stable compared to open loop.
Q.127 If the workspace of a three degree of
3. It does react to external disturbance or
freedom manipulator is a cylinder, then its
internal variation.
configuration is given by
4. It can be used in refrigeration control
system. (a) PPP (b) RRP
Select the appropriate code from below: (c) RPP (d) RRR
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Q.128 The degree of freedom of SCARA and
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
PUMA robot configuration are respectively
Q.123 (7E)H and (5F)H are Ex-or-ed and the output (a) 4 and 5 (b) 4 and 6
is multiple by (20)H the result is_____. (c) 5 and 6 (d) 5 and 5
(a) (421)H (b) (0)H
Q.129 Consider following differential coordinate
(c) (20)H (d) (21)H
transformation matrix represented by
Q.124 Consider the following statements with    
vectors n , o , a and p . Which of the
respect to the code given below:
Syntax: STA = 7101 H following is not correct?

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20 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

associated with manipulator are

⎡ nx ox ax px ⎤
⎢n 1. Vertical transverse
oy ay py ⎥
T=⎢ ⎥
y
2. Radial transverse
⎢ nz oz az pz ⎥
⎢ ⎥ 3. Rotational transverse
⎣⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎦⎥
Select the correct answer using the codes
     
(a) n × o = a (b) a × n = o given below
      (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) o × a = n (d) a × o = n
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.130 Match List I (Operation) with List II
(Degree of freedom of robot required) and Q.133 One of the axes of a robot is a telescopic
select the correct answer using the codes arm with a total range of 0.50 m. The robot's
given below the lists: control memory has an 8-bit storage
List-I capacity for this axis. The control resolution
A. Electronics assembly for this axis of motion is
B. Painting and welding (a) 1.21 mm (b) 6.25 mm
C. Arbitrary task in 3D (c) 1.95 mm (d) 4.88 mm
List-II Q.134 A projectile has a range R and time of flight
1. Six T. If the range is tripled by the increasing
2. Five speed of projectile, without changing the
3. Four angle of projection. Then the time of the
Codes: flight will become:
A B C T
(a) 3 1 2 (a) (b) T 3
3
(b) 2 3 1 T
(c) 3 2 1 (c) (d) 3T
3
(d) 2 1 3
Direction (Q.135 to Q.150): The following items
Q.131 Consider the following statements consists of two statements, one labelled as
regarding manipulators in robotics : Statement (I) and the other labelled as Statement
1. The degree of freedom of planar (II). You have to examine these two statements
manipulator is six. carefully and select your answers to these items
2. The planar manipulator with degree of using the codes given below:
freedom less than three is called under- Codes:
actuated manipulator. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
3. The planar manipulator with degree of are true and Statement (II) is the
freedom more than three is called correct explanation of Statement (I).
redundant manipulator. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
Which of the above statements is(are) are true but Statement (II) is not a
correct? correct explanation of Statement (I).
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
Q.132 For robots of polar, cylindrical or jointed
(II) is true.
arm configuration, degree of freedom
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 Mechanical Engineering | Test 18 21

Q.135 Statement (I): Hydraulic drives is Q.141 Statement (I): Convective super heater
generally associated with larger robots. (CSH) has rising characteristics.
Statement (II): Hydraulic drive system Statement (II): Heat absorbed in CSH is
provides the robot with greater speed and mainly depends upon impact of high
strength. temperature exhaust gases around the tube
which depends upon velocity of exhaust
Q.136 Statement (I): A synchronous signal
gases from the furnace.
communication does not required timing
signals. Q.142 Statement (I): Often rubber like behaviour
Statement (II): In synchronous signal stress-strain curve exhibits a terminal
communication both ends of sender and increase in the stress followed by failure
receiver required agreed pattern. while results in a tear with little permanent
deformation exhibited in the failure surface.
Q.137 Statement (I): If we can get the information
Statement (II): Rubber like behaviour is
about all the state variables at any time ‘t’
characterized by the absence of a yield point
from the output (response) of the system,
maxima.
then the system is controllable.
Statement (II): For checking controllability Q.143 Statement (I): The base circle and the base
the determinant of controllability matrix pitch are properties of a gear and are fixed
must be non-zero. once the gear is made.
Statement (II): The base pitch (pb) is defined
Q.138 Statement (I): In wind turbine, the
as the distance from a point on one tooth
maximum value of power coefficient attains
to the corresponding point on the next tooth
corresponding to maximum value of tip
measured a long the base circle.
speed ratio.
Statement (II): The tip speed ratio, is the Q.144 Statement (I): The effective length of the
ratio of the velocity of rotor tip to the wind queue remains same when the customer
velocity. having Jockey attitude joins the queue.
Statement (II): The customer with Jockey
Q.139 Statement (I): In Lagrangian description
attitude keeps on changing its queue with
of particle motion, acceleration, position
Jockey attitude.
and velocity of a particle are specified as a
function of time only. Q.145 Statement (I): Time based maintenance is
Statement (II): In Lagrangian description, performed at regular intervals, refers to the
the study is concentrated over single fluid replacement of an item regardless of its real
particle. condition.
Statement (II): It is performed at internal
Q.140 Statement (I): Rise in pressure of fluid by
prescribed by the machine manufacturer
converting increased kinetic energy due to
and uses as the basis the mean time between
centrifugal and impulse effect into pressure
failure (MTBF) data.
rise is done inside moving blade.
Statement (II): The rise in pressure inside Q.146 Statement (I): The shear stress distribution
the impeller because of the diverging in a beam of rectangular cross-section is
passage between two successive moving parabolic.
blades, results in reduction in relative Statement (II): The point at which shear
velocity from inlet to outlet. stress is maximum in rectangular cross-
section lies at neutral axis.
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22 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.147 Statement (I): In order to increase the Q.149 Statement (I): In a journal bearing, the load
ability of thin cylinders to withstand high on the bearing is perpendicular to the axis
internal pressure without excessive increase of the journal.
in wall the thickness, they are sometimes Statement (II): In the equilibrium position
wound with high tensile steel wire under the journal inside a journal bearing remains
tension. floating on the film.
Statement (II): The tension is necessary in
Q.150 Statement (I): The fermentation of
the wire during winding in order to ensure
methane, also known as anaerobic
that the maximum hoop stress in the
digestion, is a complex process that involves
cylinder will not exceed a certain value
bio-degradation of the organic substance in
when the internal pressure is applied.
the absence of oxygen (anaerobiosis),
Q.148 Statement (I): When stress amplitude is resulting in the formation of bio-gas.
zero, the load is purely static and criterion Statement (II): Aerobic digestion involves
of failure is Sut or Syt . the metabolizing of the organic substances
Statement (II): When the mean stress is zero, by microorganism, whose development is
the stress is completely reversing and the controlled by the presence of oxygen.
criterion of failure is the endurance limit. 

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