CLINICAL PARASITOLOGY QUESTIONS a) Rhizopoda

b) Mastigophora
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: CHOOSE THE c) Sporozoa
BEST ANSWER. d) Ciliate
11. Pseudopodia is a mode of locomotion in:
1. Trichomonas vaginalis is a: a) Entamoeba histolytica
a) Flagellate b) Candida
b) Ciliate c) Treponema
c) Sporozoite d) Mycoplasma
d) None of the above
12. One of the following parasite has a "Man
2. Kala-azar is caused by: non vertebrate host" cycle:
a) Plasmodium falciparum a) P. malariae
b) Leishmania donovani b) T. solium
c) Trichomonas spp. c) F. hepatica
d) Trypanosoma species d) E. granulosus

3. The commonest cause of the malaria in the 13. Infective form of the E.histolytica is:
world is: a) Trophozoite
a) P. vivax b) Cyst
b) P. ovale c) Both a and b
c) P. malariae d) Human beings
d) P. falciparum
14. The commonest reservoir of E. histolytica
4. "Schuffner's dots" are found in: is seen in:
a) P. malariae a) Rats
b) P. falciparum b) Pigs
c) P. vivax c) Cats
d) P. ovale d) Human beings

5. Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by: 15. Amoebiasis does not involve in:
a) Tse tse fly a) Lung
b) House fly b) Liver
c) Sand fly c) Eye
d) Reduviid bug d) Brain

6. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by: 16. Ciliate dysentery is caused by:

a) House fly a) Shigella spp.
b) Tse tse fly b) E. histolytics
c) Simulium fly c) Balantidium coli
d) Sand fly d) Plasmodium species

7. The first human parasite described by 17. The most common site for lodgement of
Leeuwenhoek : Giradia lamblia is in:
a) Giardia a) Duodenum
b) Leishmania b) Caecum
c) Trypanosoma c) Rectum
d) Schistosoma d) Gall bladder

8. Peripheral blood smear examination is 18. Stage responsible for relapse in malaria is:
useful in diagnosis of: a) Sporozoite
a) Malaria b) Gametocyte
b) Trypanosomiasis c) Exo-erythrocytic stage
c) Filariasis d) Pre-erythrocytic stage
d) Leishmaniasis
e) All of the above 19. Which of the organ mainly involve in
toxoplasmosis?
9. Presence of the parasite on the surface of a) Liver
the body is known as: b) Uterus
a) Infestation c) Skin
b) Infection d) Brain
c) Pollution
d) Contamination 20. Infective form of hookworm:
a) Rhabditiform larva
10. The protozoa without organ of locomotion b) Filariform larva
is: c) Cercaria
d) None of the above
21. Which of the following disease caused by a 8. Eight banana-shaped merozoites can be
metazoan parasite (helminth)? observed:
a) Giardiasis a) In the macrogametocyte of Plasmodium
b) Trichomoniasis b) In the sporozoite of Cryptosporidium
c) Filariasis c) In the trophozoite of Giardia
d) Leishmaniasis d) In the pseudocyst of Toxoplasm

22. The parasite completing entire life cycle in

one host is:
a) Ascaris
b) Hookworm
c) Strongyloides
d) Trichuris

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The sexual reproductive stage of
Plasmodium takes place:
a) In the human liver
b) In red blood cells
c) In a mosquito’s intestine
d) In blood plasma

2. The first site to be infected in a human by

Plasmodium vivax is:
a) The liver
b) Nervous tissue
c) Red blood cells
d) Blood plasma

3. The merozoite form of Plasmodium vivax is

found:
a) In the human liver
b) In a mosquito’s intestine
c) In red blood cells
d) In blood plasma

4. The oocyst of T. gondiican be found:

a) In cat litter boxes
b) In the air
c) In the soil
d) In all of these

5. The definitive or final host of T. gondii is:

a) Cat
b) Human
c) Cow
d) Rat

6. Which of the following can cause fetal

damage?
a) Plasmodium
b) Toxoplasma
c) Giardia
d) Cryptosporidium

7. Which of the following is found in

contaminated water?
a) Plasmodium
b) Toxoplasma
c) Giardia
d) All of these
CLINICAL PARASITOLOGY QUESTIONS a) Balantidium coli
b) Entamoeba histolytica
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: CHOOSE THE c) Entamoeba coli
BEST ANSWER. d) Giardia lamblia

1. The habitat is the large intestine. 11. Associated with uveitis or ulceration of the
a) Entamoeba gingivalis cornea.
b) Giardia lamblia a) Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
c) Entamoeba histolytica b) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Naegleria fowleri c) Balantidium coli
d) Naegleria fowleri
2. The stool is the specimen for the diagnosis of
the infection cause by 12. Tissue invasion is relatively slow and tends to
a) Acanthamoeba polyphaga stimulate granuloma formation.
b) Naegleria fowleri a) Acanthamoeba castellanii
c) Balantidium coli b) Entamoeba histolytica
d) A & B c) Balantidium coli
d) Naegleria fowleri
3. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica to
man has 13. Produces a big lesion with a wide opening and
a) Pseudopodia a rounded base in the large intestine.
b) Bull’s eye karyosome a) Balantidium coli
c) Ingested red blood cells b) Giardia lamblia
d) A & B c) Entamoeba histolica
d) A & B
4. The pathogenic stage of Entamoeba histolytica
to man has 14. There are indurations of the irregular margins
a) Pseudopodia of the spreading ulcer.
b) Cigar-shaped chromatoidal body a) Amoebic granuloma
c) Ingested RBC b) Amoeboma
d) A & C c) Amoebiasis cutis
d) Amoebic colitis
5. The stool of the patient infected with what
parasite is described as steatorrheic or gruelly? 15. Associated with Entamoeba gingivalis.
a) Balantidium coli a) Trichomonas hominis
b) Entamoeba histolytica b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Chilomastix mesnili c) Trichomonas tenax
d) Giardia lamblia d) B & C

6. The most commonly involved area in 16. The specimen for the diagnosis of
Amoebiasis is the Trichomonas vaginalis infection in female.
a) Brain a) Prostatic secretions
b) Liver b) Vaginal discharges
c) Cecum c) Urine
d) Recto-sigmoid region d) B & C

7. Typically flask-shaped lesion of Amoebiasis is 17. The usual infective stage of Malaria to man is
usually seen in the
a) Amoebic colitis a) Gametocytes
b) Amoebic liver abscess b) Sporozoites
c) Amoebiasis cutis c) Schizonts
d) Pulmonary amoebiasis d) Merozoites

8. Frank dysentery in Amoebiasis is frequently 18. Mosquito vector of Malaria in the Philippines is
present with the involvement of the a) Aedes aegypti
a) Brain b) Culex quinquefasciatus
b) Liver c) Anopheles flavirostris
c) Cecum d) Mansonia annulata
d) Recto-sigmoid region
19. There is secondary exo-erythrocytic phase in
9. Anchovy sauce-like materials is associated with a) Benign tertian malaria
a) Amoebic colitis b) Quartan malaria
b) Amoebic liver abscess c) Malignant tertian malaria
c) Amoebiasis cutis d) Sub-tertian malaria
d) Pulmonary amoebiasis
20. Produces the more severe type of Malaria.
10. There is no increase in the number of nuclei of a) Plasmodium falciparum
 b) Plasmodium ovale d) A & C
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium vivax 31. Produces congenital infection in man.
a) Cryptosporidium parvum
21. Usually produces recrudescence. b) Toxoplasma gondii
a) Plasmodium falciparum c) Pneumocystis carinii
b) Plasmodium vivax d) A & C
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) A & B 32. Produces massive diarrhea in patient with low
resistance.
22. The duration of the Erythrocytic-Schizogonic a) Cryptosporidium parvum
Cycle is 72 hours. b) Toxoplasma gondii
a) Benign tertian malaria c) Pneumocystis carinii
b) Quartan malaria d) A & C
c) Malignant tertian malaria
d) A & B 33. Associated with hypogammaglobulinemia and
respiratory distress.
23. Sub-tertian Malaria is cause by. a) Cryptosporidium parvum
a) Plasmodium falciparum b) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Plasmodium ovale c) Pneumocystis carinii
c) Plasmodium malariae d) A & C
d) Plasmodium vivax
34. The encysted larva of the organism is the
24. The most common Malaria in the Philippines is infective stage to man.
a) Plasmodium falciparum a) Capillaria philippinensis
b) Plasmodium ovale b) Trichuris trichiura
c) Plasmodium malariae c) Trichinella spiralis
d) Plasmodium vivax d) B & C

25. Produces Ziemann’s dot. 35. Produces rectal prolapse in heavy infection
a) Plasmodium falciparum especially among children.
b) Plasmodium ovale a) Capillaria philippinensis
c) Plasmodium malariae b) Trichuris trichiura
d) Plasmodium vivax c) Trichinella spiralis
d) B & C
26. Stage/s of Malaria usually found in man.
a) Gametes 36. Produces malabsorption and cachexia in man.
b) Trophozoites a) Capillaria philippinensis
c) Schizonts b) Trichuris trichiura
d) B & C c) Trichinella spiralis
d) A & C
27. Malaria with the highest degree of parasitemia
in man. 37. The habitat is the small intestine.
a) Plasmodium falciparum a) Capillaria philippinensis
b) Plasmodium vivax b) Trichuris trichiura
c) Plasmodium malariae c) Trichinella spiralis
d) A & B d) A & B

28. The gametocytes of the organism are 38. The female parasites may be larviparous.
described as banana or crescent-shaped. a) Capillaria philippinensis
a) Plasmodium falciparum b) Trichuris trichiura
b) Plasmodium ovale c) Trichinella spiralis
c) Plasmodium malariae d) A & B
d) Plasmodium vivax 39. The infective stage to man is the embryonated
egg.
29. Some strains are resistance to Chloroquine or a) Capillaria philippinensis
Amodiaquine. b) Trichuris trichiura
a) Plasmodium falciparum c) Trichinella spiralis
b) Plasmodium vivax d) A & C
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) A & B 40. The parasite/s that is/are associated with fish.
a) Capillaria philippinensis
30. Opportunistic Protozoa in the stomach and b) Trichuris trichiura
intestine. c) Trichinella spiralis
a) Cryptosporidium parvum d) A & C
b) Toxoplasma gondii
c) Pneumocystis carinii
41. There is a dead-end cycle in man. 51. The adults and migrating larvae are the
a) Capillaria philippinensis pathogenic stages of
b) Trichuris trichiura a) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Trichinella spiralis b) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) A & C c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) A &C
42. The stool is the specimen for the diagnosis of
the infection cause by 52. What parasite/s may produce Loeffler’s
a) Capillaria philippinensis syndrome to man?
b) Trichuris trichiura a) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Trichinella spiralis b) Gnathostoma spinigerum
d) A & C c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) Trichuris trichiura
43. Bachman intradermal test & Xenodiagnosis are
use for the diagnosis of infection cause by 53. Stage/s of the parasite that may produce
a) Capillaria philippinensis Loeffler’s syndrome to man.
b) Trichuris trichiura a) Adult
c) Trichinella spiralis b) Larva
d) A & B c) Egg
d) A & C
44. The habitat is the small intestine.
a) Ascaris lumbricoides 54. The usual manner of transmission by the
b) Trichuris trichiura parasite is by skin penetration.
c) Necator americanus a) Ascaris lumbricoides
d) A & B b) Strongyloides stercoralis
c) Necator americanus
45. Geophagia or Pica may be seen in heavy d) B & C
infection with
a) Ascaris lumbricoides 55. What parasite produces Iron deficiency
b) Necator americanus anemia to man?
c) Enterobius vermicularis a) Ascaris lumbricoides
d) Strongyloides stercoralis b) Strongyloides stercoralis
c) Necator americanus
46. The most common cause of Creeping Eruption d) Trichuris trichiura
or Cutaneous Larva Migran.
a) Ancylostoma braziliense 56. Produces Ground itch to man.
b) Strongyloides stercoralis a) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Enterobius vermicularis b) Necator americanus
d) Toxocara canis c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) Trichuris trichiura
47. Most frequent finding in the infection cause by
the parasite is a persistent hypereosinophilia. 57. Associated with Nocturnal Pruritus Ani.
a) Ancylostoma braziliense a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Strongyloides stercoralis b) Necator americanus
c) Enterobius vermicularis c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) Toxocara canis d) Trichuris trichiura

48. The most common cause of Visceral Larva 58. The manner of transmission of the parasite is
Migran. by ingestion of the embryonated egg.
a) Ancylostoma braziliense a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Strongyloides stercoralis b) Trichuris trichiura
c) Enterobius vermicularis c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Toxocara canis d) A & C

49. Produces autoinfection to man. 59. Graham Scotch tape technique is used for the
a) Ancylostoma duodenale diagnosis of the infection cause by
b) Necator americanus a) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Ascaris lumbricoides b) Necator americanus
d) Strongyloides stercoralis c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) Trichuris trichiura
50. What parasite/s has a blood-lung phase in the
life cycle? 60. What parasite has an egg that is plano-convex
a) Ascaris lumbricoides and is readily infective after discharged?
b) Strongyloides stercoralis a) Ancylostoma duodenale
c) Enterobius vermicularis b) Enterobius vermicularis
d) A &C c) Ascaris lumbricoides
d) Trichuris trichiura
61. The parasite has cephalic alae. 71. What parasite produces infection that
a) Ancylostoma caninum simulates tuberculosis?
b) Necator americanus a) Clonorchis sinensis
c) Enterobius vermicularis b) Opisthorchis felineus
d) Toxocara canis c) Fasciola hepatica
d) Paragonimus westermani
62. Produces group infection.
a) Enterobius vermicularis 72. The infective stage of what parasite is encysted
b) Toxocara cati in aquatic vegetations?
c) Toxocara canis a) Clonorchis sinensis
d) B & C b) Echinostoma ilocanum
c) Fasciolopsis buski
63. What parasite sucks and ingests blood? d) Paragonimus westermani
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Enterobius vermicularis 73. Snails are both the first and second
c) Ascaris lumbricoides intermediate hosts of
d) Trichuris trichiura a) Echinostoma ilocanum
b) Fasciola hepatica
64. What parasite shows Tramway sign in the X- c) Fasciola hepatica
ray? d) Paragonimus westermani
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Necator americanus 74. The eggs of Paragonimus westermani may be
c) Enterobius vermicularis demonstrated from the
d) Trichuris trichiura a) Sputum
b) Urine
65. What parasite whose migrating larvae break c) Stool
the pulmonary capillaries of man? d) A & B
a) Ancylostoma braziliense
b) Enterobius vermicularis 75. What stage of the Trematodes swims in the
c) Ascaris lumbricoides water?
d) Trichuris trichiura a) Cercariae
b) Metacercariae
66. Associated with mosquito. c) Coracidium
a) Brugia malayi d) Sporocyst
b) Wuchereria bancrofti
c) Loa loa 76. What is the infective stage of Schistosoma to
d) A & C man?
a) Cercariae
67. Knott’s method is use to demonstrate the b) Metacercariae
microfilariae of c) Embryonated egg
a) Brugia malayi d) Miracidium
b) Wuchereria bancrofti
c) Onchocerca volvulus 77. What is the usual manner of transmission of
d) A & C Schistosoma to man?
a) Arthropod vector
68. The usual infective stage of Trematodes to b) Skin penetration of the cercariae
man is the c) Ingestion of the embryonated egg
a) Cercariae d) B & C
b) Metacercariae
c) Egg 78. Molluscan host of Schistosoma in the
d) Miracidium Philippines is
a) Australorbis mystax
69. The infective stage of the parasite is found in b) Coxiella burnetii
crabs or crayfishes. c) Biomphalaria alexandrina
a) Clonorchis sinensis d) Oncomelania quadrasi
b) Fasciola hepatica
c) Echinostoma ilocanum 79. What Schistosoma is present in the
d) Paragonimus westermani Philippines?
a) Schistosoma haematobium
70. What parasite is associated with neoplasm of b) Schistosoma mansoni
the biliary duct or cancer of the liver? c) Schistosoma japonicum
a) Clonorchis sinensis d) Schistosoma mekongi
b) Opisthorchis felineus
c) Fasciola hepatica 80. Laboratory procedure that makes use of the
d) Paragonimus westermani egg in the test is
a) CFT
b) COPT
 c) CHR b) Pernicious anemia
d) Casoni test c) Microcytic hypochromic cells
d) A & B
81. What Schistosoma produces more severe
infection to man? 91. Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with
a) Schistosoma haematobium a) Cat
b) Schistosoma mansoni b) Fish
c) Schistosoma japonicum c) Dog
d) Schistosoma mekongi d) Pig

82. What Schistosoma is more resistant to 92. Produces Ocular cysticercosis to man.
treatment? a) Dipylidium caninum
a) Schistosoma haematobium b) Taenia solium
b) Schistosoma mansoni c) Taenia saginata
c) Schistosoma japonicum d) B & C
d) Schistosoma mekongi
93. Produces autoinfection in man.
83. Pipe-stem fibrosis of the liver in a) Dipylidium caninum
Schistosomiasis is due to what stage of the b) Taenia saginata
parasite? c) Hymenolepis diminuta
a) Adult d) Taenia solium
b) Egg
c) Cercaria 94. Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottid
d) Metacercaria are counted for diagnosis of infection cause by
a) Diphyllobothrium latum
84. Allergic manifestations in Schistosomiasis are b) Hymenolepis nana
due to what stage of the parasite? c) Dipylidium caninum
a) Adult d) Taenia saginata
b) Egg
c) Cercaria 95. Taenia saginata is associated with
d) Metacercaria a) Cat
b) Dog
85. Obstructive uropathy is associated with c) Cattle
a) Schistosoma haematobium d) Pig
b) Schistosoma mansoni 96. Taeniasis solium is produced after ingestion of
c) Schistosoma japonicum the
d) Schistosoma mekongi a) Cysticercoid larvae
b) Cysticercus cellulosae
86. What Schistosoma frequently cause c) Cysticercus bovis
Gynecological Schistosomiasis. d) Taenia egg
a) Schistosoma haematobium
b) Schistosoma mansoni 97. What parasite is associated with measly pork?
c) Schistosoma japonicum a) Diphyllobothrium latum
d) Schistosoma mekongi b) Taenia saginata
c) Dipylidium caninum
87. The region of growth in Cestodes is the d) Taenia solium
a) Scolex
b) Proglottid 98. What Cestodes does NOT need an intermediate
c) Neck host?
d) Strobila a) Dipylidium caninum
b) Hymenolepis diminuta
88. The infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum c) Echinococcus granulosus
to man to produce adult infection is the d) Hymenolepis nana
a) Cysticercoid larva
b) Procercoid larva 99. The most commonly involved organ in Hydatid
c) Cysticercus larva Disease is the
d) Sparganum larva a) Liver
b) Kidney
89. The most common cause of Sparganosis in Asia c) Lungs
is d) Brain
a) Diphyllobothrium latum
b) Echinococcus granulosus 100. Ultrasound and MRI usually help in the
c) Dipylidium caninum diagnosis of the infection cause by
d) Spirometra mansoni a) Dipylidium caninum
b) Hymenolepis diminuta
90. Bothriocephalus anemia is associated with c) Echinococcus granulosus
a) Iron deficiency anemia d) Hymenolepis nana
PARASITOLOGY FINAL EXAM LECTURE

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE
__1. Who won the Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine in 1902 for the discovery of the malaria parasite life
cycle?
A. Robert Koch B. Alexander Fleming C. Paul Ehrlich D. Ronald Ross

___2. The infectious agent that causes malaria is known as which of the following?
A. Protozoan parasite B. Fungal parasite C. Bacterial parasite D. Viral parasite

___3. Which mosquito genus is associated with spreading the human malaria parasite?
A. Culex B. Aedes C. Anopheles D. Lutzia

___4. Digestive system of nematodes have two openings and in form of

A. Alimentary canal B. Neuron C. Digestive tractD. Muscles

___5. Undulating waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles helps Nematodes in

A. excretion B. Locomotion C. Digestion D. All of these

___6. There are four bands of muscles in Nematodes, two are dorso-lateral and two
A. Ventro-lateral B. Dorso-lateral C. Dorso-ventral D. Latero-ventral

___7. What is the intermediate host for the schistosomes?

A. Humans B. Soil C. Snails D. Blood-sucking insects

___8. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
A. Lumbrioides B. T. solium C. T. spiralis D. E. granulosus

___9. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by flies EXCEPT:

A. Loa loa B. Onchocerca volvulus C. T. gambiense D. Schistosoma mansoni

__10. Larval stage of Taenia solium is called

A. Cysticercus bovis C. Cysticercus cellulosae
B. Cysticercoid D. Hydatid cyst

___11. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except:

A. Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematode
B. Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia
C. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides
D. A lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs

___12. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct except:

A. Kala-azar is caused by leishmania donovani
B. kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies
C. Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural latin America
D. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow

___13. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct except:
A. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia
B. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin
C. Hookworm infection is caused by Necatar americanus
D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool

___14. Each of the following statements concerning Malaria is correct except

A. The female anopheles mosquito is the vector
B. Early infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
C. Release of merozoites from red blood cells cause fever and chills
D. The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract.

___15. Each of the following parasite is transmitted by mosquitoes except:

A. Leishmania donovani B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. P. falciparum

___16.Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites except:
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Trichinella spiralis
___17. .In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the
A. Sporozoite B. Gametocyte C. Merozoite D. Hypnozoite

___18. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of high fever, chills, severe
headache, and confusion. He has recently returned from Africa. A peripheral blood smear reveals multiple
ring structures and crescent-shaped gametes. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
A. P. vivax B. P. falciparum C. P. ovale D. P. malariae

___19. When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are:
A. Echinococcus granulosus — accidental intermediate host
B. Echinococcus granulosus — definitive host
C. Taenia solium — accidental intermediate host
D. Taenia solium — definitive host

___20. A 45-year-old hunter developed fever, myalgia, and periorbital edema. He has a history of bear meat
consumption. The most likely causative agent is:
A. T. gondii B. T. solium C. Hymenolepis nana D. T. spiralis

___21. In a condition resulting from the accidental ingestion of eggs, the human becomes the intermediate
rather than the definitive host. The correct answer is:
A. Trichinosis B. Cysticercosis C. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis

__22. A 60-year-old Brazilian patient with cardiac irregularities and congestive heart failure suddenly dies.
Examination of the myocardium revealed numerous amastigotes, an indication that the cause of death was
most likely:
A. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania braziliense
C. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma gambiense
D. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma cruzi

___23. Period between infection and evidence of symptoms

A. Exposure B. Superinfection C. Incubation Period D. Pre-patent Period

__24. Cleveland medium is best used for what type of parasite?

A. Ameba B. Flagellate C. Cestodes D. Nematodes

___25.What is the acid employed in Acid Ether Concentration Technique?

A. HCI B. KOH C. Sulfuric acid D. Benzoic acid

__26.G6PD individuals are highly resistant to to this Plasmodium spp.

A. P. ovale B. P. vivax C. P. malariae D. P. falciparum

___27. Diagnostic stage of Dientamoeba fragilis

A. Embryonated Egg B. Rhabditiform Larva C. Trophozoite D. Cyst

__28. What is the largest protozoan parasite?

A. Entamoeba coli B. Microsporidic C. B. coli D. F. buski

___29. Which of the following are hermaphroditic?

1. Flukes 2. Roundworms 3. Tapeworms

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. ALL ARE CORRECT

___30. In the Philippines, the dominant liver fluke affecting cattle and buffaloes. There are only a few human
cases reported locally,
A. F. hepatica B. F. gigantic C. C. sinensis D. O. felineus

___31. Infection with Clonorchis or Opisthorchis may result from eating raw or undercooked:
A. Aquatic vegetation B. Crayfish C. Crabs D. Freshwater fish

___32.Mature cysts of Entamoeba polecki have how many nuclei?

A. 2 B. 8 C. 1 D. 0

__33. What is a schistosomule?

A. Cercaria B. Cercaria minus tail
C. Free-swimming cercaria D. A small lateral spine
___34. Which flagellate can be a pathogen of the small intestine?
A. Giardia B. Trichomonas C. Chilomastix D. Strongyloides

___35. In which type of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells every 72 hours?
A. P. vivax B. P. ovale C. P. malariae D. P. falciparum

___36.Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness?

A. Leishmania B. Trypanosoma C. Plasmodium D. Babesia

___37. Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage?
A. Round B. Oval C. Pear-shaped D. Triangular

___38.A pear-shaped flagellates with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen is identified as:
A. T. hominis B. T. vaginalis C. E. coli D. Leptospira

___39. Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane?

A. Trichomonas B. Trypanosoma C. Chilomastix D. A and B

___40. The scientific name of the head of a tapeworm is:

A. Scolex B. Proglottid C. Strobila D. Rostellum

__41. The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1hour is:
A. Freezer temperature B. Refrigerator temperature
C. Room tremperature D. Incubator temperature

___42. What type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa?
A. Finger puncture B. Venipuncture C. Arterial blood D. Plasma

___43. The preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain is

A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. Polyvinyl alcohol D. Saline

___44. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in

A. Ma conkey agar B. CLED medium C. Diamonds medium D. NNN medium

___45. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as

A. Amoeboid B. Jerky C. Falling leaf like D. Stately

____46. All are pathogenic free living amoeba, EXCEPT

A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Acanthamoeba C. Nagleria fowleri

___47. Congenital Toxoplasmosis manifest as

A. Microcephaly B. Micro-opthalmus C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. AOTA

___48. Sabin- Feldman dye test is used in the diagnosis of

A. Toxoplasmosis B. Amoebiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Trypanosomiasis

___49.  Which of the following act as a main reservoir ofBalantidium coli Infection in human beings
A. Man B. Monkey C. Cow D. Pig
___50. Which is the smallest tape worm infecting man
A. Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium C. Hymenlopis nana D. D. latum

___51. Which of the following nematode is an ovo-viviparous

A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Trichenella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Dracunculus medinensis

___52. Adults worms of which of the following parasites reside in human body cavity
A. Mansonella streptocerca B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Burgia malayi D. M.ozzardi & M.perstans

___53. Calabar swelling is seen in infections with

A. O. volvulus B. Loa loa C. Burgia timori D. Wuchereria bancrofti

___54. The larval form of Taenia solium is called

A. Cysticerus cellulosae B. Cysticercoid C. Cysticerus bovis D. Hydatid cyst
__  55. Dog heart tape worm is the common name for
A. Toxocara canis B. Dirofilaria immitis
C. Mansonella streptocerca D. Toxoplasma gondi

___56. Which of the following is not a bile stained egg

A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. T. trichiura C. T. solium D. Ancylostoma duodenale

___57. Casoni’s test is used for the diagnosis of

A.Taeniasis B.Hydatidiasis C.Trichuriasis D.Onchocerciasis

 __58. Hookworm infection leads to deficiency of

A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin A C. Iron D. Folic acid

___59. Which of the following is not aneuroparasite

A. Taenia solium B. Acanthamoeba C. Trichinella spiralis D. Nageleria

___60. The ova that does not float in the saturated salt solution
A. H. nana B. T. solium C. Ancylostoma D. Fertilized A. lumbricoides eggs

___61. Cysticercus bovis is the larval form of

A.Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium C.E. granulosus D.Hymenolepis nana

___62. Enterotest is used to diagnose

A. Hydatid disease B. Amoebiasis C. Giardiasis D. Cryptosporidiosis

___63. Presence of ingested RBCs is characteristic of

A. Entamoeba coli B. Iodamoeba butcheli
C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Dientamoeba fragilis

___64. Vaginal discharge of Trichomonas vaginalis vaginitis is

A. Thin & watery B. Greenish frothy C. Curd- white D. Blood- stained

___65. In humans, Cryptosporidium causes

A. Meningitis B. Diarrhea C. Pneumonia D. Dermatitis

___66. Larval form of E. granulosus is seen in

A. Fox B.Dog C.Man D.Wolf

___67. The filarial worm that can be seen in the conjunctiva is

A. Mansonella perstans B. Mansonella ozzardi
C. Loa loa D. Onchocerca volvulus

___68. River blindness occurs due to

A. Loa loa B. Mansonella perstans
C. Mansonella streptocerca D. Onchocerca volvulus

___69. Primary amoebic menningoencephalitis is caused by

A. Acanthamoeba B. Balamuthia spp
C. Naegleria fowleri D. Iodamoeba buetschlii

___70. Congenitally transmitted parasitic infection is

A. Pneumocystis carinii B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Amoebiasis D. Trichuris trichura

___71. Charcot- layden crystals are seen in the sputum in infectionwith

A. Paragonimus westermani B. Clonorchissinensis
C. Fasciola hepatica D. Fasciolopsis buski

___72. Protozoan transmitted sexually is

A. T. vaginalis B. E. histolytica C. Giardia lamblia D. Balantidium coli

___73. Mode of infection of Dracunculusmedinensis is

A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Skin penetration D. Inoculation
___74. Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, 2 nuclei, 8 flagella, and an axostyle?
A. C. mesnili B. D. fragilis C. G. lamblia D. T. hominis

___75. Which of the following structures are used for motility of Balantidium coli?
A. Flagella B. Cilia C. Pseudopodia D. Undulating membrane

___76. Which of the following microfilariae does not have a sheath?

A. Wuchereria B. Loa C. Mansonella D. Brugia

___77. Which of the following is the eye worm

A. Wuchereria B. Loa C. Mansonella D. Brugia

___78. A six-hookes embryo is known as:

A. Proglottid B. Scolex C. Strobila D. Hexacanth

___79. Dirofilaria immitis is the

A. Dog heartworm B. Dog hookworm C. Rat lungworm D. Cercarial dermatitis

___80. The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the:

A. Mosquito B. Blackfly C. Fly D. Copepod

___81. Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young?

A. Wuchereria B. Mansonella C. Brugia D. AOTA

___82. Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect:

A. Trichinosis B. Taeniasis C. Trichuriasis D. Ascariasis

___83. Which of the followinghas an unarmed scolex?

A. Dwarf tapeworm B. Beef tapeworm C. Pork tapeworm D. Dog tapeworm

___84. What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans?
A. Plerocercoid B. Coracidium C. Hydatid cyst D. Cysticercus

___85. Which of the following worms have separate sexes?

A. Intestinal flukes B. Liver flukes C. Tapeworms D. Blood flukes

___86. Intestinal protozoa that do not have a cyst stage in the life cycle include the following:
A. Entamoeba hartmanni B. Iodamoeba bü tschlii
C. Pentatrichomonas hominis D. Dientamoeba fragilis

___87. An amebic cyst measuring 9 µm and containing four nuclei and chromatoidal bars with
smooth, rounded ends is most likely:
A. Endolimax nana B. Entamoeba hartmanni
C. Iodamoeba bü tschlii D. E. histolytica

__88. If a patient has watery diarrhea, the stage in the life cycle of the intestinal protozoa that is
most likely to be seen in the permanent stained smear is the:
A. Cyst B. Precyst C. Trophozoite D. Pretrophozoite

__89. Intestinal protozoa that are considered nonpathogenic include:

A. Blastocystis hominis and Entamoeba histolytica
B. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba coli
C. Giardia lamblia and Iodamoeba bü tschlii
D. Entamoeba hartmanni and Dientamoeba fragilis

___90. A protozoan cyst that contains four nuclei, median bodies and axonemes should be identified
as:
A. Giardia lamblia B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Dientamoeba fragilis D. Pentatrichomonas hominis
___91. Which of the following statements about Dientamoeba are correct?
A. This organism is a flagellate with internal flagella
B. Transmission is thought to occur through the ingestion of specific helminth eggs and the cyst
form
C. This organism is pathogenic and tends to be more commonly found in children
D. All of the above.

___92. Which of the following organisms are most likely to be recovered from duodenal aspirate
material?
A. Isospora belli and hookworm
B. Giardia lamblia and Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Cryptosporidium parvum and Enterobius vermicularis
D. Microsporidia and Ascaris lumbricoides

___93. Microsporidial spores are generally described as looking like:

A.Coccidian oocysts B.Amebic cysts C. Fungal spores D. Bacteria

___94. The following organisms are immediately infectious when passed in the stool (regardless of
the stool consistency):
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts and Isospora belli oocysts
B. Giardia lamblia trophozoites and Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
C. Microsporidian spores and Endolimax nana trophozoites
D. Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts and Entamoeba coli cysts

___95. Charcot-Leyden crystals in human clinical material are frequently associated with an immune
response and are thought to be the breakdown products of
A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes

___96. Parasitic organisms that may be sexually transmitted include

A. Pentatrichomonas hominis B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D.Enteromonas hominis

_97. The specimen that is LEAST LIKELY to provide recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis is
A. Urine B. Urethral discharge C. Prostatic discharge D. Feces

___98. Protozoa were first discovered by:

A. Pasteur B. Darwin C. Leeuwenhoek D. Kudo

___99. Branch of zoology related with the study of protozoans is:

A. Parazoology B. Proteology C. Protology D. Protozoology

___100. Nucleus in Amoeba is:

A. Round B. Oval C. Bun-shaped D. Triangular

___101. Protozoan showing bioluminescence is:

A. Giardia B. Noctiluca C. Balantidium D. None of these

___102. Entamoeba histolytica causes:

A. Dysentery B. Typhoid C. Malaria D. Filaria

___103. Which of these has only one host:

A. Entamoeba B. Plasmodium C. Both A and B D. None of these

___104. Secondary host for sleeping sickness parasite is:

A. Sand-fly B. House-fly C. Tse-tse fly D. Fruit-fly

___105. How many amoebae are formed by a cyst of Entamoeba histolytica:

A. Two B. Four C. Eight D. One