Topten Mantul DP II Teknika 8mb

Manage Trouble-Shooting, Restoration Of Electrical And Electronic Control Equipment To Operating Condition
1. A cable carries a current of 1500A at 660 Volts and has a voltage drop along
it's length of 30volts. Assuming the cable insulation is good enough to work
at High Voltage, what would be the voltage drop when supplying the same
amount of power at 6600 Volts.
o 3 Volts
2. A High Breaking Capacity fuse found in a Main High Voltage Switchboard

willtypically have fault level rating of ?
o 40 k
3. High Voltage systems rely on the installed protective equipment being

able to interrupt any fault in the system. Throughout the system, the
fault level has been calculated, and under no circumstances must the
system be modified to exceed this fault level. What is meant by fault
level?
o The amount of apparent power that could flow into any fault at any point in electrical network
4. Some ships generate electrical power at 440 Volts, but then step up this voltage to supply specific
electrical equipment. One common example, may be to feed a large bow thruster. Why is this done?
o A Large bow thruster will draw very large currents at low voltage. Being typically remote from
the generator, significant voltage drops would occur at low voltage
5. Sometimes an early warning of failure in High Voltage switchboards may be an unpleasant smell. If the
switchboard uses gas circuit breakers, which of the following may indicate a potential problem?
o Rotten eggs
6. When selecting switchgear to work with High Voltage it is important to use an appropriate arcing
medium. What is meant by arcing medium?
o The gas, liquids or vapour which will minimize creation of an electric arc as contacts open
7. When there is a need to interupt current flow in a high voltage

system it may be very difficult to quench the electrical arc which
is generated at the circuit breaker contacts. Which of the
following arcing media is commonly found in high voltage
marine switchgear?
o Vacuum
8. When work must be done on High Voltage equipment, it is vital that the equipment is earthed
(grounded) after isolation procedures have been carried out. Why is this?
o To ensure that no energy remains in the system and that it cannot berecharged by external
influences
9. Which of the following is the minimum acceptable value of

insulation resistancefor High Voltage equipment?
o 100 M Ohms
10. A 5V dc source has an internal impedance of 0.2 ohms. When a load of 2.3 ohms
isapplied what voltage will be measured at the source terminals?
o 4.6 V
11. A galley hot plate uses a Nichrome / Magnesium Oxide heating element and is
to be tested before being put into service for the first time. An insulation
resistance test yields a reading of 0.3 M Ohm. Which action should be taken?
o Apply reduced voltage to the element fora few minutes. Then retest
and if ok put into service
12. A thermistor which provides feedback for a thermal control system is suspected
to have failed. Assuming there is no available replacement, which of the
following methods may be used to prove it has failed?
o Disconnect the thermocouple lead from the controller and replace with
a mv source
13. A triac is used to provide temperature control of an oven. The galley complain
that the oven only reaches approximately 50% of demanded temperature.
Which of the following is a likely cause?
o One of the main switching elements inthe triac has failed
14. In a closed loop control system the error signal is derived from which of the
following?
o The demand and the feedback signal
15. Ordinary thyristors (SCR) must often be protected against reverse

overvoltage transients because even over-voltages of extremely
short duration can destroy them.These scrs have been given such
over-voltage protection, but only one of them is correct. Which?
o Figure 1
16. The coil of a 12V, 120ma dc relay must be connected across a 24V
supply. Whataction should be taken?
o Install a 100 ohm resistor in series with the coil

17. The diode shown performs which function?
o Return inductive current to supply at switch off
18. This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch

S, a resistor R and a capacitor C. The voltage/time figures 1 to 4
show changes in the voltage V(C) when the switch S is suddenly
shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t = 0. Only one ofthe diagrams
is correct. Which?
o Figure 1
19. What should be the healthy continuity resistance of a 220V, 2.2kw,10A

heatingelement, when checked near to it's rated operating temperature?
o 22 Ohms
20. Why should the coil of an ac solenoid valve not be energised when
demounted fromthe valve body?
o The coil will overheat
21. "Protective discrimination" means the progresssave grading of sizes or

tripping times of:
o Line fuses and over current relays
22. A 250V contactor has been fitted to a 220V supply. Which of the following
symptoms might be observed?
o Contactor chattering (vibrating)
23. A transformer overheats while taking a shore supply. Which is the likely cause?
o Incorrect frequency
24. Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase induction motor yields the
following results; U1-V1 = 4 ohms, V1-W1 = 4 ohms, W1-U1 = 4 ohms. What is the value
of continuity resistance for each winding ie. U1 - U2?
o 6 ohms
25. Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase induction motor yields the
following results; U-V =3 ohms, V-W =3 ohms, W-U =6 ohms. Which of the following is
the likely condition?
o Open circuit winding between W and U
26. Power is available at a three-phase motor starter but nothing happens (at starter or
motor) when the start button is operated. Which of the following is a likely cause?
o Faulty contactor coil
27. Routine maintenance insulation testing of a three - phase induction motor shouldcover
which measurements?
o U-E, V-E, W-E, U-V,V-W, W-U
28. The continuity resistance of a 100m long X 25 sq. Mm cable (rated at 100A) is tobe
checked. Which of the following results would you anticipate?
o Between 0.1 and 1.0 ohm
29. Three earth lamps indicate - bright - bright - dark. Which of the following isindicated
by this condition?
o No faults on the system but a failed lamp

30. When performing electrical testing of a three phase motor, insulation resistance
measurements may be influenced by which of the following?
o Temperature, humidity and surface contamination
31. A diode is in good condition when which of the following test results are obtainedusing
a Digital Multi-Meter.
o With + to Anode a reading of about 0.6V andwith probes reversed a reading

of O/L.
32. A diode may be tested by which method?
o Use a Digital Multi-Meter set to check forwardvoltage and reverse current

blocking
33. Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in a hazardous area?
o No, as only the output from the barrier isintrinsically safe this is not allowed.
34. In the diagram below we want to verify the resistance of the PT100
sensor fittedwith compensation. What is the correct calculation?
o R(Pt100) = R1 - R2
35. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12 H, in series.
Calculate the equivalent total inductance.
o L(S) = 18H
36. The circuit diagrams illustrate four different methods of wiring

between a Pt 100 temperature sensor and its signal processing
electronics. Which of the wiring methods gives the best measuring
accuracy?
o Figure 1
37. The circuit shows a full-wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic

component should be connected between 'a' and 'b' in order to
obtain reduced ripple voltage to the loadRL.
o Capacitor
38. The figure shows a silicon controlled rectifier with a RC circuit connected in
parallel. What is the purpose of the RC circuit ?
o Protect the SCR against damage caused by fast high voltage spikes
39. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic

component and a typical working characteristic for the same
component. Which component?
o Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
40. The inductance which will induce an EMF of 1 Volt in a conductor when
thecurrent is changing at a rate of 1 Amp per second, is defined as
o One Henry
41. The typical current gain for a common emitter transistor is
o 10-200
42. These circuits are all active filters. Which of the circuits is a
low-pass filter?
o Figure B
43. This amplifier circuit is a common configuration used to amplify the difference in voltage between two
input signals; in this case input 1 and 2. What is this amplifier called?
o Differential amplifier
44. This circuit consists of a current source I, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and
acapacitor C. The current/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the current
I when the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t= 0.
Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which?
o Figure C
45. This circuit shown is a logic gate with two 'high' input signals, A and B, and
oneoutput signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate provide?
o OR gate
46. This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which type of

gate?
o AND
47. This is a typical emitter follower. What is the main reason for use of an emitterfollower?
o The input impedance is made much larger than the output impedance
48. What is the maximum current that a 15 Volt, 3 Watt Zener diode canhandle without
damage?
o 0.2 A
49. When considering instrumentation systems, what is a typical symptom

of a faultwith the span of an instrument?
o Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is notgiving 100% output

50. Which electronic component or system is this graphical symbol illustrating:

o Band pass filter
51. Which of the 4 alternatives shows a NPN bipolar transistor?

o Figure 3
52. Which of the function shown is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
o Integrator
53. The current level flowing into a dead short to earth at anypoint on the ship, directly from the High
Voltage system.
o A large bow thruster will draw very large current at low voltage. Being typically remote from
generator, significantvoltage drops would occur at low voltage.
Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational condition of life-saving,
fire-fighting and other safety systems
1. *The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:
o Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
2. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:
o Every week
3. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to
ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room dueto a mistake are to be ensured. What
precautions should be taken?
o The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
4. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release unitsshall be serviced:
o Every 12 months
5. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how isthis information recorded in the
OLB?
o Every three months. Details of test withsignatures of Master and witness
6. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
o Turned at intervals of not more than 30 monthsand renewed every 5 years
7. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire
detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed?
o All the mentioned alternatives.
8. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:
o Length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm

9. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond topresent regulations? (SOLAS
III/7.1)
o Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
10. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present
regulations?
o All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant

material
11. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances
correspond to present regulations?
o Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the

regulations shall be provided
12. *On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflationand lowering whenever
practicable) must take place
o Every 4 months
13. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergencydrills. If 25% of the crew
- or more - has not participated in such drill during thelast month, what is the time limit to conduct
such a drill after the vessel has left a port?
o Within 24 hrs
14. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launchedwith their assigned crew
aboard and manoeuvred in the water?
o Every month
15. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions
in the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ?
o As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
16. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements?
o In the SOLAS convention and its annex
17. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?
o Instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances
18. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
o All the items mentioned
19. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drillscorresponds to present SOLAS
regulation?
o Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvered in the water with its assignedcrew at least
once every three months during an abandon ship drill
20. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and
manoeuvered in the water according to SOLAS?
o Every three months.
21. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
o Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
22. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vesselsaccording to SOLAS?
o Once every month.
23. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
o Once every month
24. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
o Once every month

25. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:
o Every week
26. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on acargo ship participate in
one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
o Monthly
27. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and
tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance arenormally carried out by dedicated personnel. To
ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same
dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
o In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel mustbe permitted and
trained to operate the pump.
28. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?
o Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejacketscorrectly donned
29. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS
regulations?
o Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.
30. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
o The appointed lifeboat commander.

31. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship while it‘s berthed. For a
period of time he‘s left unsupervised and photographs schematics of the ship that he finds rolled up
and stored in the corner of a nearby office. Later, from home, he hacks into the network and prints off
information about the ship‘s security procedures. Which of these information security measureswould
have prevented his unauthorized access?"
o "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."
32. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel totake, on entering an
area known for pirate activity?"
o To transit with maximum safe speed
33. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found onboard your ship, follow the fivec‘s. Confirm, Clear, Cordon,
Control and:"
o Check
34. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package theindividual is carrying arouses
your suspicion. What do you do?"
o Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance.
35. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat ofpiracy, if implemented?"
o Sail at full speed.
36. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to securitythreats, auditing security
activities and interfacing with the port facility."
o TRUE
37. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship‘s security plan.
o TRUE
38. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device suchas a metal detector is
used.
o TRUE
39. Check the items that can be a possible threat
o All alternatives
40. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat toinformation security?
o Espionage
41. For a search to be effective it must be:
o Centrally controlled.
42. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship….
o Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident report.
43. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a dos?
o Your ship is conducting activities with a port or ship that is not required toimplement an
approved security plan.
44. Information about your ship‘s security arrangements and procedures is stored electronically. Which of
these measures will help safeguard it from potential threats?
o Passwords
45. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:
o Security arrangements
46. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden.
o FALSE
47. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be secured against
unauthorized access and available for review by contracting governments.
o TRUE
48. Searches are often triggered by:
o An increase in security level by the Flag State.
49. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:
o Determine your needs and do some research
50. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to:
o "Seal spaces that are not in use while in port, and perform a searchof the ship before
leaving."
51. The Declaration of Security:
o Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a portfacility and a
ship.
52. The dos addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around theship and the verification
of increased threat levels.
o TRUE
53. The first step in completing an SSA is to:
o Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against your ship.
54. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased numbers of
hijackings to:
o The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and armed crimenetworks
55. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to?
o "Combining routine, but irregular searches of theship with spontaneous targeted searches."
56. The purpose of profiling is to?
o Get beneath the outer shell of an individual to obtain a more completepicture.
57. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?
o A record of the vessels history
58. What is a Declaration of Security?
o A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security representatives
59. What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1?
o The percentage is not specified.
60. What percentage of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3?
o 100% of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3
61. What type of bomb search should you conduct to avoid panic when the credibility of the threat is
in doubt and you don‘t want to disruptship business?
o Nominated officers search
62. Which information should be included in your search plan?
o Areas to be searched and personnel to be involved in the search

63. Which of following are security duties?
o All alternatives
64. Which of these actions should you take it your ship issuccessfully boarded by armed pirates?
o Assure your captors that you‘re not planning an attack to overthrow them.
65. Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port FacilitySecurity (ISPS) Code a part
of?
o SOLAS
66. Which of these measures would you implement to prevent drugs frombeing smuggled onboard your
ship while it‘s berthed?
o Maintain restricted areas.
67. Which of these statements about drug smugglers modes of operating is true?
o "Drugs smuggled by an organized conspiracy are usually concealed in a primary ship system
suchas the engine room or in a tank, void or compartment."
68. Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true?
o The risks to ships are not restricted to specific areas or trading routes.
69. Which of these statements about profiling is correct?
o Verify that answers to questions match up with what‘s already knownAbout the person being
questioned
70. Which of these tasks are performed as part of the SSA?
o Assess the likelihood and potential consequences of security incidents

71. Which of this information must be included in a piracy attack alert?
o Your ship‘s name and call sign
72. Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true?
o A random selection process must be established.
73. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security?
o The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer
74. Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rivalcompanies and their employees?
o Industrial
75. Who is responsible for completing the dos on behalf of the ship?
o Ship Security Officer
76. Who is responsible for ensuring that your ship‘s security planmeets the requirements of the ISPS
Code?
o Company Security Officer
77. Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
o Company Security Officer
78. Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate?
o The Flag State
79. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?
o The Company Security Officer
80. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?
o The Ship Security Officer

81. You can reduce the need for security guards in certain areas byinstalling:
o Anti-intruder devices
Ensure safe working practices
1. During maintenance work on the main engine a problem arises regarding the lifting of a main
component in that the manufacturer's instructions ado not apply to the engine as fitted and present a
hazar In which of the information/record sources given in the options, is it most important to record
the information relating to this anomaly?
o ISM procedures in the ship'ssafety manual.
2. Electric arc welding is to be carried out in the machinery spaces other than theworkshop. Which of the
alternatives below would be the preferred method for the connection of the "return" cable to the
welding set?
o Use a "go and return" system with the return cable connected directlyfrom the welding set to
the work piece if possible.
3. How should the spare oxygen and acetylene gas welding bottles be stored onboardthe ship?
o In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
4. In many cases the ship's Chief Engineer can carry out survey of machinery on behalf of a Classification
Society under arrangements covering Continuous Surveys. As part of this arrangement a Surveyor from
the Classification Society must carry out a periodic audit of the documentation for the approved
planned maintenance system and undertake a confirmatory survey of the itemssurveye What is the
normal frequency for this audit?
o Annual.
5. It is noticed that some of the items that were to be used to lift some machinery components during a
maintenance routine had not been tested for over 5 years. Which of the options given is the correct
action to be taken in a situation like this?
o Mark the items as not to be used and store them securely until they can be tested by a
competent person.
6. Prior to removing the access doors to a pressure vessel for internal maintenance it should be ensured
that all pressure has been relieve As well as a zero indication ona pressure gauge which other measure,
from the options given should be taken to confirm this prior to commencing the work?
o Open the drain valve while pressure still shows on the gauge and to checkit is clear. Outflow
should cease as the pressure gauge reaches zero.
7. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. 'Prior to allowing work to proceed
in an onboard space testing of the atmosphere should becarried out…
o …for any space with limited access or non-continuous ventilationor is suspected of having a
hazardous atmosphere.
8. The machinery detail plate is missing from a large electric motor and the weight isunknown. As part of
a routine maintenance check the motor has to be lifted to access some other equipment. Which of the
given options is the correct action thatshould be taken?
o As it is only a routine maintenance and not a breakdown thenpostpone the task until full
details of the motor can be obtaine
9. When carrying out repair or maintenance tasks involving hot work a hot workpermit must be issue
Select the correct option from those given which completes the following statement. 'The permit for
hot work…
o ..should only cover specific hot work tasks and be valid for a specifiedtime perio'd
10. A tank containing hydrocarbon residues requires manual cleaning by use of shovels, scrapers et Which
of the following is the correct procedure to follow?
o Open and ventilate the tank, test oxygen content, have someone standing by with rescue
equipment, complete a permit to work and a tank entry permit and then commence work.
11. Every person onboard ship has a responsibility for safety and security. General house-keeping rules
should be followe Which of the listed rules is the most important onboard a tanker?
o Never carry lighters or matches on the tank deck.
12. If the oxygen content in an enclosed space is less than 20% and a non-essential routine inspection of
the space is due which of the following is the correct course of action?
o Postpone the inspection until the correct oxygen content can be achieve
13. On a UMS vessel gas welding operations in the work shop are to be stopped for a lunch break. Which
of the following actions should be carried out prior to taking the break?
o The main supply valves in the deck storage are closed and checks made that no fire risk exists
prior to switching on the fire alarm system and going to UMS-mode.
14. Sounding pipes in the engine room are normally fitted with deadweight cocks and screw caps. Which of
the following statements is correct?
o Caps and cocks should be closed at all times, except when sounding tanks, to prevent ingress
of water or oil into the engine room in case of tank bottom damage or overflow
15. Under what circumstances would you remove guards and safety devices frommachinery?
o During overhaul and maintenance procedures.
16. What action is required if the crankcase relief valve on an air compressor isoperating and emitting an
air and oil mixture?
o Overhaul the compressor unit.
17. What action should you take if you have a flash-back during gas welding?
o Close the regulator valves immediately, oxygen first.
18. What is generally considered as the minimum safe time period before opening a crankcase door after
the oil mist detector alarm has activated and the engine has been stopped?
o After at least 20 minutes
19. What precautions should be taken for the deck covering in a steering gear roomwhere hydraulic oil is
in use?
o Coat the deck with non slip paint and use duck boards provided withdrainage.
20. What should you do if you are in the engine room and the alarm for "CO2 releaseinto the engine room"
sounds?
o Leave the engine room immediately.
21. When the engine room crane is to be utilised for lifting or lowering a piece of equipment to the lower
decks through access hatches designed specifically for thepurpose, there are certain measures that
should be taken. What are they?
o Securely rope off the area around open hatches and post notices at the site.
22. When using portable ladders during work activities onboard a ship whatprecautions should be taken.
o Secure the ladder top and bottom and have a shipmate standing bywhile you are working on
the ladder.
23. Which of the following pump types could be damaged if the discharge valve isclosed before the motor
is stopped?
o Gear pump
24. Which preparations and precautions are necessary before "hot work" commencesonboard ship?
o Follow all ISM procedures relating to hot work including permit towork and hotwork permit
requirements.
25. Why may wearing sweat rags slung round your neck when working in the machinery spaces be
hazardous?
o The rags may be caught by running machinery or power tools.
26. Why should engine and boiler rooms be kept clean and any oil spillage cleanedup immediately?
o To reduce risk of fire and the risk of slipping.
27. Where would you find details for your tasks and duties in case of an emergency ?
o In notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms, et

28. What is a 'Rescue Sub-Centre (R.S.) ?
o A unit subordinate to a rescue co-ordinating centre.
29. Which of these requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to the SOLASregulations?

o It must have a mass greater than 2.5 kgs.
30. Which of these requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to theSOLAS regulations?
o Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, andmaneuvered in the water at least
once every three months.
31. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life- saving appliances
carried onboar. Which of these duties must also be included ?
o Correct use of survival craft facilities in order to survive.
32. What is a 'Rescue Unit" (RU) ?

o A unit composed of trained personnel suitably equipped expeditioussearch and rescue.
carried onboar Which of these duties must also be included ?
o Correct method of release of survival craft from launching appliances.
34. What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE ?
o A device that allows an inflatable life raft to be deployedautomatically if a ship sinks.
35. What should you do first if you see a man fall overboard ?
o Alert other crewmembers and try to keep him or the lifebuoy in sight.
carried onboar. Which of these duties must also be included ?
o Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts.
37. Which of these items has to be included in a distress message ?
o Ship's identification.
38. What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing installationsonboard ?
o A manual operated release only.
o Correct boarding, launching and clearing of survival crafts and rescue crafts.
40. What information is found on a ship's fire plan ?
o The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment.
41. After abandoning ship in a liferaft or lifeboat, which of these should be done assoon as possible?
o Available rations should be shared out equally among all the occupants.
42. The ships training manual must contain instructions and information on the life- saving appliances
o Correct donning of life-jackets.
43. In cold climates what should be done by the occupants of a liferaft to providemore insulation ?
o Inflate the floor of the raft.
44. On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ?

o A push button fire alarm.
A. A sprinkler heat
B. A smoke detector.
C. A dry powder nozzle.
D. A horn or siren fire alarm.

46. What does this symbol indicate ?
o A CO2 warning horn.
o A foam monitor.
48. What does this symbol indicate ?
o A fire alarm bell.
49. What would you do if someone's clothes catch fire ?

o Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
50. How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure ?
o Direct the nozzle slightly downwards.
51. What is meant when we say a dressing is sterile ?

o It is free from germs.
52. What action should the watch officer take on being notified of man overboard ?
o Call for a lookout.
53. What signal is used to mean "ABANDON SHIP" ?
o A verbal command given bythe master or officer in charge.
o Correct donning of fire protective clothing.
55. In terms of flashpoint, what defines if a container carrying a flammable liquidmust carry this sign ?
o Required for anyflammable liquid regardless ofthe flashpoint.
56. In which order should we place the priorities of survival, from highest to lowest ?
o Location, protection from the environment, water, food
57. What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board ?
o The Neil Robertson stretcher.
58. What is a Thermal Protective Aid ?

o Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat.
59. Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body heat ?
o A vest.
60. What is an immersion suit ?

o Special clothing to protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold
61. If you had to board your lifeboat which of the following do you think is mostimportant ?
o Wear as many layers of warm clothing as possible.
62. What is a Class B fire ?

o A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids.
63. What type of boat is seen in this picture ?

o A totally enclosed lifeboat.
64. What is a SART?
o Search And Rescue Transponder.
65. When should doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo ports and other openingswhich are to be kept
watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage ?
o Before leaving the port.

66. At least how often should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crewaboard and manoeuvered
in the water ?
o Every three months.
67. Which of the following activities will have the best effect in the event of a fire ?
o All fire fighting teams are organised as soon as possible.
68. What should be done before throwing the life raft overboard ?
o Secure the painter to a strong point.
69. Which of these statements is true ?
o We should only abandon ship when told to by the master orofficer in charge.
70. What type of fire hose nozzles shall be available aboard ?
o Dual purpose ( jet/spray ) type incorporating shutoff.
71. What alarm signal is sounded by the ship's alarm bells in the case of fire onboard ?
o Continuous ringing of the bell.
72. What do the letters E.P.I.R.B stand for ?
o Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.
73. What are the two satellite systems that use EPIRBS ?
o Cospassarsat & Inmarsat.
74. Which of these would NOT be a good thing to do after abandoning ship ?
o Stay in the area that the ship sank in.
75. Over spoken radio communication, what is the code word used to indicate adistress message ?
o MAYDAY.
76. What is the part of the lifeboat indicated by the arrows ?
o The bowsing in tackle.
77. What item of safety equipment is shown here ?

o An inflatable life raft.
78. How is a throw-over liferaft usually secured on deck ?

o With a hydrostatic release unit.
79. Which of the following items should be included in each fire drill ?
o Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant
communication equipment.
80. What item of fire extinguishing equipment, usually found in the galley, isparticularly effective on fires
nuolving hot cooking oil ?
o A fire blanket.
81. Which fixed fire extinguishing medium is most commonly found in machineryspaces like the engine
room
o Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
82. Wich fire fighting system is the most efficient and with least side effects in theevent of a fire in the
engine room ?
o The central CO2 extinguishing system.
83. Which of these are attached to a lifejacket ?
o A light & a whistle.
84. What kind of alert message would you broadcast if you have a man overboard ?
o Pan-Pan.
85. What is the purpose of emergency drills ?
o To test the emergency equipment and train the crew.
86. What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing thepainter to a strong point
?
o Check that there is nothing in the sea below.
87. Ship's whistle and alarm bells sound an alarm signal consisting of seven shortblasts followed by one long
blast. What should you do ?
o Go to your muster station.
88. Which of these has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLASregulations ?
o Checking that life-jackets are correctly donne
89. Aside from reducing drift, what other things does the sea anchor on a liferaft do ?
o Keeps the doors at right angles to the win
90. Where on board are these fire risks likely to arise ? Fuel and lubricating oils, hotsurfaces, welding and
oxyacetylene cutting equipment.
o The engine room.
91. Where can shore side personal find necessary information on ship's fire control systems in an
emergency situation ?
o A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked
container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.
92. When a fire spreads because of the hot gasses rising and heating other fuelsources, the fire has been
spread by
o Convection.
93. How does heat travel to the earth from the sun ?
o By radiation.
94. Which of the following conducts heat well ?
o Steel.
95. In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and notenough air to support
combustion, we say the mixture is
o Too rich.
96. What are the 3 ways that heat can be transmitted ?

o Convection, radiation and conduction.
97. When heat passes from one place to another by direct contact, it is called
o Conduction.
98. Approximately, what is the temperature of a cigarettes burning tip ?

o 500 degrees
99. Mat should first be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used on afire in the engine room
or cargo holds ?
o Make sure that the compartment has been evacuate
100. What is the main advantage of a davit launched liferaft compared to the throw-over type ?
o It allows the occupants to board without getting wet.
101. How many fireman's outfits are required to be carried on tankers ?
o At least four sets.
102. Why is Halon not used much as a fire extinguisher on board vessels ?
o It is harmful to the ozone layer.
103. In addition to a fire suit, a fireman's outfit also comprises breathing apparatus and fireproof lifeline.
According to SOLAS- how many such sets of fireman's outfit are required to be carried by all ships?
o At least two.
104. What is a ship's contingency plan ?
o The plan for safety preparedness.
105. Fuel flowing in a pipe is prone to which of the following ignition sources ?
o Static electricity.
106. If you were at the entrance to an enclosed space and you lost communicationwith a crew member
inside, what should you do ?
o Put on a BA set and enter the enclosed space.
107. What is the most common cause of death after a shipwreck ?

o Hypothermi
108. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergencyalarm signal be sounded
?
o Until all crew members and passengers have reported to theirrespective muster stations.
109. Which of the following types of breathing apparatus are most likely foundonboard a modern ship ?
o Gas Mask type Breathing Apparatus.
110. Which side of the fire triangle most commonly causes a fire ?
o The introduction of heat.
111. If heat is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
o Cooling
112. Fuel is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
o Starving.
113. What unit in the S.I. system is used to measure heat ?
o Degrees F.
114. Which of the following fuels has the lowest flash point ?
o Coal
115. At what percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is it possible to have a fire ?

o At 21%
116. What is a fire hydrant ?

o A valve on the fire main where fire hoses are connected
117. Mat fixed and portable fire extinguishers are often found on gas tankers becausethey are considered
to be most effective with burning gas ?
o Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.
118. Which of these extinguishers would not be very effective against a Class A fire ?
o Water.
119. On fires involving burning liquids, which of these extinguishers is consideredmost effective ?
o Foam.
120. Wich of these extinguishing agents is best to use on a fire involving a burningcabin that had been
electrically isolated ?
o Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.
121. What setting are these firefighters use on their nozzle ?
o Spray.
122. What item of fire fighting equipment is shown here ?
o A foam eductor.
123. If oxygen is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ?
o Smothering.
124. If you abandoned ship by jumping into the sea wearing a lifejacket, what shouldyou do then ?
o After getting clear of the ship, float as still as possible.
125. Where can ships' officers find information about the ships fire protectionarrangements, fire detection
and extinguishing equipment ?
o In permanently exhibited fire plans.
126. What does F.F.F. stand for ?
o Aqueous Fire Fighting Foam
127. When is the risk of fire greatest ?
o When the vessel is in hot, dry climates.
128. What action should be taken first when discovering a fire on board ?
o Activate a fire alarm.
129. What should you do when you hear emergency signals ?
o Report to your muster station.
130. Some cargoes like certain types of coal can heat themselves up to a temperaturewhere they can
automatically ignite. What is this process called ?
o Spontaneous combustion.
131. What is the international signal for 'Man overboard" ?
o Three long blasts followed by three short blasts on the whistle.

132. Control wich of these portable fire extinguishers are found on the Bridge, in the Radio Room and in
the Engine Control Room because they are extremely effective with fires involving lice electrical and
electronic equipment ?
o Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
133. For fire to occur, which of the following sets of elements must be combined ?
o Heat, fuel and oxygen
134. What is the signal to "abandon ship" ?
o A Seven short blasts followed by one long blast.
135. Mich of these fire extinguishing media is preferred to fight a fire in an electricinstallation (eg. The
main switchboard) ?
o Powder.
136. Which of these fire extinguishing media is most effective against an open oil fire?
o Foam.
137. Which of the following does NOT need to be done right after a fire drill ?
o Recharge extinguishers and compressed air bottles.
138. Which of these requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangementsfor survival crafts
corresponds to the SOLAS regulations ?
o Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times can observe
the survival craft and life boat.
139. Why is it advisable to board a life raft without getting wet if possible ?
o Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.

140. What is meant by the term "self ignition temperature (S.I.T.) ?
o The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically ignite without the
presence of an external ignitionsource.
141. What is meant by the "flash point" in a liquid fuel ?

o The lowest temperature where enough vapour is produced that wouldignite and go out when
an external ignition source is introduce
142. Is it advisable to jump onto the canopy of the raft ?
o No, as you might injure yourself or someone under the canopy.
143. You are in a survival craft, after clearing the sinking ship, what should be doneto minimize the rate of
drift
o Stream the sea anchor.
144. After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next ?
o Pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft.
145. What percentage of air is made up by oxygen ?
o 21%
146. If you are in water at a temperature 10 degrees C, wearing only shorts,approximately how long would
you be able to survive ?
o About an hour.
147. If it is necessary to enter the water, how should you jump from the ship ?
o Look straight ahead, legs together, jump feet first with arms crossedover your chest.
148. What is the usual signal for a fire alarm ?
o Continuous ringing of alarm bells or gong.

149. What does this sign mean ?
o Secure hatches.
150. What life saving appliance is indicated here ?

o A rescue boat.

o Emmersion suit.
152. What life saving appliance would be found near this sign ?
o An Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB).
153. If you noticed that a piece of equipment is broken, what should you do ?
o Report it to the officer on watch.
154. What does this sign indicate ?
o A lifeboat embarkation point.
o Release gripes.
156. What would you expect to find near this sign ?
o Liferafts.
157. What kind of liferaft is shown in this sign ?
o A davit launched tiferaft.
o Embarkation ladder.
159. What distress signal would be located near this sign ?
o Parachute flares.
160. What part is shown by letter C ?

o Etowsing Tackle.
o Lower literaft to water.
162. What do the words "spontaneously combustible' mean ?
o The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source ofheat or ignition.
163. The fall block on a lifeboat is capable of on-load release, what does this mean ?
o The lifeboat can be released from the falls before it enters the water.
o Lower lifeboat to water.
o Flammable.

o Start engine.
o Survival craft portable radio.
168. What is attached to the lifebuoy in the sign ?
o A smoke float and light.

o Children's lifejacket.
170. Under STCW regulations what must each new crew member do beforecommencing assigned duties
?
o Be familiar with safety procedures.
o A radar transponder beacon.

o A lifeboat embarkation point.
o Parachute flares.
Manage the operation of propulsion plant
1. A medium speed diesel engine is used to drive a controllable pitch propellerthrough a suitable clutch
and reduction gearbox. What should the propeller blade attitude normally be after the engine is
started and before the clutch can be engaged?
o The blades should be in the zero thrust position.
2. A non-reversing medium speed diesel engine is used to drive a controllable pitch propeller through a
pneumatic clutch and reduction gearbox. The engine has been tested and brought up to operating
temperatures on engine control. Which of the options given would be the preferred status of the engine
and associated equipment when it is handed over to bridge control?
o Engine running, clutch disengaged,propeller at zero thrust.
3. A vessel's main propulsion system consists of a pair of medium speed diesel engines driving a single
controllable pitch propeller through clutches and coupled through a reduction gearbox. What is the
preferred sequence to follow when going from two engine to single engine operation?
Assume engine A is to be stopped and engine B isto continue running
o Pitch to zero thrust, reduce speed to idling speed, disengage clutch of engine A, increase speed
of engine B and propeller pitch as required. Stop engine A after
4. Most medium and high speed engines for marine use operate on the four stroke cycle and use direct
admission of compressed air into the cylinders for starting purposes. During which part of the cycle
does start air admission normally take place?
o The first part of the expansion (power) stroke.
5. The overspeed shutdown is to be tested on a high speed four stroke diesel engine driving through a
pneumatic clutch. The overspeed protection is provided by a solenoid operated dump valve in the
governor servo system activated by an electrical signal from a small synchro motor. What is the
preferred method of testing such a shutdown?
o With the engine off load manually increase the governor speed setting until the shutdown
operates, reduce the shutdown set point if necessary.
6. Which of the following conditions will block the starting signal for the air start system of a medium
speed diesel engine which is being used for main propulsion purposes?
o Clutch engaged.
7. A large 2 stroke engine is normally controlled from the bridge during manoeuvring. In this type of
automated control for the starting system what would normally causethe 'Engine Failed to Start' alarm
to be activated and to lockout starting from the bridge?
o 3 failed start attempts.
8. During operation of a large slow speed diesel engine it is sometimes necessary to changeover from
heavy fuel oil to diesel oil, for example before manouevring. Howshould this procedure be carried out?
o Gradually to prevent gassing up of the fuel system due to overheating the diesel oil as it mixes
with the hot heavy fuel oil.
9. In large 2 stroke diesel engines with oil cooled pistons it is normal practice to maintaincirculation
of the cooling oil for a period after the engine has stopped. Why is this done?
o To remove residual heat from the pistons and avoid any coking of the trappedoil.
10. What is the correct operation of the slow-turning facility fitted to some large 2stroke main propulsion
diesel engines?
o Slow turning should be set to operate automatically prior to engine start whenengine has
been stopped for 20 to 30 minutes during manoeuvring
11. When trying to reverse a large slow speed diesel engine in the astern direction it cannot be turned on
air even though it will start in the ahead direction. What is the likely cause of this problem?
o The start is blocked because the air distributor has not moved to the asternposition.
12. Why is an automatic slow turning feature included in the start air system of manylarge 2 stroke diesel
engines?
o To avoid damage during start of the engine in case water or other liquid hasgathered in the
cylinders during an extended stop.
13. A main steam boiler is to be shut down for an extended period. Which of thefollowing methods
for the lay up is best suited to maintain the boiler in good order?
o Lay the boiler up dry by draining all of the water and fitting heaters in thedrums to
prevent condensation forming which may result in corrosion.
14. A second high pressure boiler is to be coupled to an online boiler supplying steamto the main turbine.
How is the superheater section of the second boiler normally prevented from overheating during the
period prior to coupling while raising the steam pressure?
o The superheater vent valve is kept open until the boilers are coupled to create a steam flow.
15. During start up of a steam plant it is necessary to warm through the steam rangeprior to use. How
should this warming through be carried out?
o Using the bypass/warming through line for the main stop valve and with all linedrains open
to ensure all condensate is removed.
16. Following complete shut down of the steam plant, the boiler has been heated in accordance with the
correct starting up procedure, and the steam pressure is rising. What is the correct procedure to be
adopted when opening the main steam valve to the range?
o Use the main steam valve bypass/warming through line to gradually heat up thesteam range
with the drains open before opening the main valve.
17. What is the correct initial firing procedure to be adopted when bringing a mainsteam boiler up to
pressure from cold condition?
o Start with intermittent firing, using small firing periods and long intervals gradually building
up to longer firing periods and shorter intervals until steam pressure starts to rise.
18. Which is the preferred state to have the main turbine in while shutdown for a shortstay in port?
o Turning with the turning gear and gland steam on.
19. Maintenance is to be carried out on a diesel engine. How long after stopping the engine should the
cooling water and lubricating oil be kept circulating in order to avoid any undue thermal stress from
residual heat?
o At least one hour.
20. The engine turns over normally when starting air is supplied but does not fire even though normal
starting rpm is achieved. What could be the probable cause to this?
o Air in the fuel oil system.
21. The main propulsion diesel engine is normally started by direct admission ofcompressed air. Which one
of the following statements is correct?
o A heavily leaking starting air valve may cause an explosion in the starting airpipe system.
22. What is the purpose of the air distributor in a diesel engine air start system?
o To ensure the cylinder air start valves operate in the correct sequence and forthe correct
period.
23. When starting air is applied to a diesel engine the engine fails to turn over but isseen to oscillate back
and forth. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
o One or more cylinder air start valves are stuck open..
24. Which one of the options given is the most likely cause of a diesel engine failing toturn on air when the
start signal is initiated?
o An interlock or blocking device in the remote starting system is operating.
25. A medium speed diesel engine, operating with a pulse turbocharging system, has been adjusted to have
good power balance. What would the cylinder exhaust gas temperatures, relative to each other, be
expected to be?
o Plus or minus 30 degrees Celsius.
26. For a 4-stroke diesel engine, the exhaust gas from the funnel is seen to be white/light grey incolour.
Which of the options given is the most likely cause of this.
o Water leaking into the combustion chamber.
27. From the options given, choose the one most likely to result in a high exhaust gastemperature in one
cylinder of a four stroke diesel engine.
o The inlet and exhaust valve tappet clearance is incorrect.
28. The oils used for medium and high speed diesel engine lubrication usually have alkaline additives which
give the oil a Total Base Number of about 30 to 40 mg KOH/g. Why is it necessary to have such a TBN
for these oils?
o To neutralise the acids formed during combustion.
29. What is the best method for ensuring that the cylinder powers of a high speed dieselengine, fitted with
a monoblock multi-cylinder fuel pump, are correctly balanced?
o Have the fuel pump phased and calibrated in a test workshop.
30. When checking the cylinder pressures of a 6 cylinder medium speed diesel engine it is found that one
of the cylinders has a high maximum pressure. What is the most likely cause of this?
o Fuel timing to that cylinder too far advanced.
31. A power card from a slow speed diesel engine cylinder is abnormal with a low height and the body of
the diagram thicker than normal. What is the most likely cause of this?
o Fuel timing is retarded.
32. An indicator card from a cylinder of a slow speed diesel engine shows a high maximum pressure
occuring earlier in the cycle than normal with a normal compression pressure. Fromthe options given,
which action is most likely to identify the cause of the problem?
o Check if the fuel injection pump timing is correct.
33. During inspection and calibration of a cylinder unit, the liner is found to be worn in a cloverleaf pattern
with maximum wear midway between the lubrication points. What action is necessary to rectify the
problem?
o Increase the jacket cooling water temperature to avoid surface condensation of any acidic
products of combustion.
34. In a large, 2 stroke, main diesel engine cylinder lubricating oil is supplied directly through lubrication
points cut into the cylinder liner. At what point during the cycleshould the supply normally occur.
o As the piston rings pass the lubrication points.
35. What type of lubricating oil is generally used for for cylinder lubrication on a large,2-stroke diesel, main
propulsion engine operating on heavy fuel oil?
o The same oil as the main lubricating oil system
36. Why is it important that the correct tension is maintained in a diesel engine timing chain?
o Correct tension ensures that the chain and associated equipment is withinnormal loading
limits.
37. Many marine steam boiler designs incorporate external "downcomers". What is the mainpurpose of
these downcomers?
o To ensure adequate circulation in all boiler operating conditions.
38. Many modern boiler burners operate with automatic modulating combustion control? Which of the
following is necessary to ensure high efficiency and low emissions throughout the load range with this
type of operating control?
o High turndown ratio for the burner.
39. What effect will a low operating temperature of the boiler feed water system haveon the condition of
the feed water supplied to a high pressure boiler?
o It will cause the amount of dissolved oxygen in the feed water to increase.
40. What is normally seen as the greatest risk when operating a high pressure, watertube, steam boiler
with an excessively high level of Total Dissolved Solids?
o Foaming and carryover of water into the steam range.
41. When operating a steam boiler burner unit what is the best method for evaluatingthat the correct
amount of excess air is being supplied to the furnace?
o The reading from the flue gas oxygen analyser
42. Why is it important to keep the condensate ph value within the correct range whenoperating steam
boilers?
o To prevent corrosion in the feed system.
43. A diesel engine is operating with retarded fuel timing resulting in increased exhaustgas temperatures.
How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger?
o Increased turbocharger revolutions.
44. Spray painting has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running, and the
turbocharger intake filter was not protected. Which one of the options given is most likely to result
from this?
o Exhaust gas temperatures lower than normal.
45. The charge air pressure supplied to a diesel engine, which is normally 2.0 bar, is reduced to
1.5 bar . What will be the likely effect on the engine operation?
o The performance of the engine will be reduced noticeably.
46. The fuel injection timing of a diesel engine is delayed causing high cylinder exhaust gas
temperatures. What is the likely effect of this condition on turbocharger operation?
o Increased turbocharger revolutions
47. The image shows an indicator diagram taken from a diesel engine cylinder. Which of the following
options is the action most likely to identify the fault.?
o Check if the fuel pump injection is too early, or fuel pump lead is too great, forthat cylinder.
48. The majority of marine diesel engines operate with either a pulse or a constant pressure
turbocharging system. What is the main difference between these two systems?
o Constant pressure systems have all engine cylinder exhausts connectedto a common large
exhaust gas manifold.
49. The operation of a diesel engine is controlled by a mechanical-hydraulic, compensated speed sensing
governor. How will the governor control be affected if the compensation needle valve is closed in and
the engine load changes?
o Engine speed control will be sluggish.
50. The turbocharger on a diesel engine is surging. Which one of the following optionswould be the most
likely cause?
o Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side
51. The water cooling space on a turbocharger is damaged and there is no spare casing. The cooling water
must be shut off. Which option would you take to keep the risk of further damage to a minimum?
o Dismantle the rotor and assemble the sealing plates.
52. What do you understand by the term Maximum Continuous Rating, MCR, of a dieselengine?
o The maximum load that the engine can operate at continuosly.
53. When the vessel is operating in a tropical area with very high humidity, what actionshould be taken to
deal with the expected increase in condensate from the main diesel engine's charge air cooler?
o Ensure that condensate drains from the water separator are monitored and operating
correctly.
54. Why is it important to reduce the diesel engine load during in service waterwashing of the turbocharger
gas side?
o To prevent damage to the turbine blades
55. Consider a vessel with a 6 cylinder main diesel engine operating with one cylinder out of operation.
What would you expect to be the approximate maximum reduced engine load to allow safe emergency
operation in this condition?
o Approximately 70 % of MCR
56. In the event of a diesel engine crankcase explosion which of the safety devicesfitted to the engine is
designed to minimise the risk of a secondary explosion?
o Crankcase relief valves/doors
57. Prior to the lunch break, the Engineer on Duty observes that the operating generatorset has an output
of 90%. With regard to operation of the generator, what is the - most important - assumption(s) for
him to check before switching to UMS-mode?
o That a secondary auxiliary set is switched to automatic standby mode
58. The main engine is running steady with an average exhaust gas temperature of approximately 350° C.
What would be a typical alarml/slow down setting for the cylinder exhaust gas temperature deviation
from the average?
o +/- 50° C
59. What is the main precaution to be taken prior to engaging the turning gear for adiesel engine?
o Isolate the starting air supply.
60. What is the normal slow down/shutdown temperature for the jacket cooling wateroutlet from a diesel
engine cylinder?
o 95 - 98° C
61. Which of the following options would be a typical differential pressure setting for amain engine slow
down in the event of jacket cooling water system low flow?
o 0.2 to 0.5 bar
62. Marine diesel engines are normally provided with automatic protection devices which operate in the
event of abnormal conditions arising. Why would medium speed engines used for main propulsion
normally only automatically slow down for certain abnormal conditionsbut automatically shut down
for the same conditions when used to drive an alternator?
o Sudden total loss of propulsive power may seriously endanger the vessel. This isa greater risk
than engine damage.
63. Medium and high speed diesel engines used for electrical generation duties on board ship have
overspeed protection devices fitted to protect the engine in case the electrical generatortrips while
carrying high loads. Why are these devices necessary?
o To stop the engine before any serious damage occurs due to excess inertial loads.
64. Medium and high speed diesel engines used for marine propulsion normally require a reduction
gearbox to be fitted in order to achieve suitable output speeds for the propeller. What device is
normally required in the drive arrangement in order to avoid damage to the gearing due the torque
variations of the diesel engine output?
o A flexible coupling.
65. Most medium and high speed diesel engines operate with mean piston speeds greater than those for
larger slow speed engines. What is the main design feature of these engines which allows the higher
mean piston speeds to be achieved without causing unwanted failures?
o Using composite pistons featuring steel crowns and alloy skirts
66. The bottom end bolts employed in 4 stroke diesel engines are usually given a finite life and must be
replaced periodically. What would be the normal failure mode that would affect these bolts if they
were not replaced as required?
o Failure due to fatigue stresses
67. What would be a typical setting for the overspeed trip to operate and shut down the engine on a
medium speed diesel engine?
o 15% above engine rated speed
68. For a large 2-stroke diesel engine, what would be a typical set point for the lowpressure shut down for
the lubricating oil inlet to the main bearings?
o 1.0 Bar
69. Many large, slow speed diesel engines have direct oil cooling of the piston crowns provided. An
automatic slow down and alarm are sometimes fitted to protect against failure of this system. Which
parameter is usually used to initiate this slow down?
o Low flow or no flow in the cooling oil return line.
70. Some diesel engines have alarm and slow down protection in the event of a fire in the scavenge boxes.
Choose the option which would be a typical set point for giving a slow down of the engine in the event
of a scavenge box fire?
o 120° C
71. What is the purpose of the relief valves fitted to the doors and casing of 2 stroke diesel engine
crankcases?
o To relieve excess pressure in the crankcase resulting from a crankcase explosion.
72. What would be a typical set point for emergency shut down of a large slow speeddiesel engine due to
"lubricating oil inlet to camshaft" low pressure?
o 1.5 bar
73. What would be a typical value for the set point for shut down of a large 2-strokediesel engine due to
thrust bearing high temperature?
o 85° C
74. A high pressure, oil fired steam boiler operates with an automatic combustion control system for start,
stop and modulation of the burners. Which feature of the combustion control system is intended to
minimise the risk of blowback during normal operation?
o Pre-purge of the furnace prior to burner ignition.
75. At what relative pressure should the superheater safety valve be set to lift at to ensure that adequate
steam flow is maintained through the superheater in the event of boiler overpressure?
o Less than the lift pressure of the main steam drum safety valves.
76. Many water tube boilers feature so called screen tubes. What is the purpose of thesescreen tubes?
o To protect the superheater from direct exposure to the furnace.
77. Marine steam boilers are protected with a number of safety features which are designed to prevent
damage to the boiler due to overheating or overpressure. How is this protection achieved when a very
low water level condition (often referred to as low low level) develops during operation?
o All burners are automatically and immediately shut off.
78. What is the maximum pressure that the safety valve on a steam boiler should be set to lift?
o At the maximum design or maximum permitted working pressure of the boiler.

79. What is the purpose of the accumulation test required by Classification Societies forboiler safety valves
before the valves can be approved?
o To check that the valves have sufficient discharge capacity when operating tolimit the
build up of pressure when the boiler is on full firing rate.
80. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of
crankshaft
o 2
81. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
o Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
82. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

o Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during theexhaust period
83. Supercharging is the process of
o Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
84. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is
supercharged ?
o No
85. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycleefficiency is called
o Relative efficiency
86. Compression ratio of LC. Engines is
o The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke andafter compression stroke
87. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the givencompression ratio is
o More
88. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of
o Kcal/n
89. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
o Decrease
90. All heat engines utilize
o Low heat value of oil
91. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
o M.E.P. And I.H.P.
92. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. Engine are usually based on
o High heat value of oil
93. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to7, the %age increase
in efficiency will be
o 14%
94. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on
o Low heat value
95. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
o Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottomdead center
96. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engineare of the order of
o 6 - 12 kg/cm2 and 250 - 350°C
97. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of
o 35 kg/cm
98. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
o 2000-2500°C
99. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, withincrease in cut-off ratio will
o Decrease
100. Pick up the wrong statement
o Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power output.
101. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
o Heterogeneous
102. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
o 90-130 kg/cm2
103. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately
o 0.2 kg
104. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is notallowed to exceed
o 180°C
105. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usuall occurs as
o First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion
106. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs duto
o All of the above.
107. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately
o 0.25 kg
108. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoreticalairequired for complete
combustion is
o Loss
109. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
o 235°
110. Which of the following is not an interns combustion engine
o Steam turbine.
111. Pick up the false statement
o S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.
112. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for thatcylinder the
o Scavenging occurs.
113. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the enginerevolution or size in
following way
o Supercharging.
114. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
o Increase
115. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
o Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at topdead center
116. For the same compression ratio
o Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel

117. The precess of breaking up or a lipuid into fine droplets by spraying is called
o Atomisation.
118. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very high value
o Rate of rise of pressure
119. Which of the following statements is correct?
o All reversible engines working between same temperature limits havesame-efficiency
120. Most high speed compression engines operate on
o Dual combustion cycle
121. The accunmulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of
o Effective compression ratio
122. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder
o Air aione
123. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
o Carburettor
124. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
o Fuelinjection starts at 10° before to dead center and ends at 20° aftertor dead center
125. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
o More difficult to ignite
126. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at aboutcompressed air
temperature of
o 1000°C
127. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first.
o Natural gas.
128. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air intlet temperature, will
o Decrease linearly
129. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc
o Swept volume
130. A heat engine utilises the
131. Gaseous-fuel guarantees are based on
132. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because atsuch low loads
o The small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal frictionhas a disproportionate
effect
133. Polymerisation is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become
o Larger
134. The term scavenging is generally associated with
o High efficiency engines.
135. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is
o More
136. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rmp will run at
o 750 rpm
137. Engine pistons 'are usually made of aluminium alloy because it
o Is lighter
o Dual cycle
139. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is
o More
140. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running ar rated load) is
o More efficient
141. The size of inlet valve of.an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is
o Less
142. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for
o 0.001 sec
143. Which of the following is false statement : Excess quantities of sulphur in dieselfuel are Objectionable
because it may cause the following
o Detonation
144. Which of the following is false statement. Some of the methods used to reducediesel smoke are as
follows
o Increasing the compression ratio
145. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating withdirty air filter as
compared to clean filter will be
o Higher
146. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging
o Supercharging results in fuel economy
147. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
o Less than stroke volume
148. The magneto in an automobile is basically
o D.C. Generator
149. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to
o Reduce weight and bulk for a given out-put
150. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
o Supercharging
151. Supercharging is essential in
o Aircraft engines
152. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about
o 60-80 rpm
153. In a typical medium speed 4 stroke cycle diesel engine
o Exhaust valve opens at 35° before bot-tom dead center and closes at 20°after top dead center
154. Flash point of fuel oil is
o Minimum temperature to which1 oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in
sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
155. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
o Average pressure.
156. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is
o Supercharged
157. Installation of supercharger on a four-cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage
increase in power
o Upto 100%.
158. Scavenging is usually done to increase
o Power output
159. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel
o Gasoline
160. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of
o 15 : 1
161. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
o 10:1
162. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine can not work is
o 20 : 1 and less
163. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, isof the order of
o 12 : 1
164. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a fourstroke engine
o 9-10 m3
165. Pour point of fuel oil is the
o Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

166. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of
o 1 kg/hr
167. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30 : 1. A petrolengine can also work
on such a lean ratio provided
o Can not work as it is impossible
168. A diesel engine has
o 3 valves
169. A hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is
o About 10% rich mixture
170. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
o Instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
171. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines-is controlled by
o Carburettion
172. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is
o Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oilhas distilled off
173. Which is more viscous lub oil
o SAE 80.
174. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located
o Between the pistons
175. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is
o Chemically correct mixture

176. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by
o A vacuum chamber
177. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is
o Contoured
178. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by
o Movement of engine piston
179. In order to prevent formation of carbon on the injector, the temperature of nozzletip should be
o Between 500 - 1000°C.
180. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine of two stroke with crank case scavengingas compared to four
stroke petrol engine with same comperssion ratio will be
o Lower
181. Ignition quailty of petrol is expressed by
o Octane number
182. Petrol is distilled at a temperature in range of
o 65 - 220°C
183. Kerosene is distilled at
o 220 - 350°C
184. Self-ignition temperature of petrol is of the order of
o More than 500°C.

185. Iso-oc-tane
o Has octane number of 100
186. Octane number is determined by comparing the performance of the petrol with the following
hydrocarbons
o Mixture of normal heptane and iso-oc-tane
187. Cetane
o Is a straight chain paraffin
188. Ethyl fluid is used
o To increase the octane rating of the fuel
189. The self-ignition temperature of diesel oil compared to petrol is
o Higher
190. Normal heptane
o Accelerates auto-ignition
191. Cetane number is determined by comparing the performance of diesel oil with the following
hydrocarbons
o Mixture of cetane and alphamethyl napthalene
192. Which is correct statement about reaction time for autoignition of fuel and the fuel air ratio
o Chemically correct mixture has mini-mum reaction time
193. Violent sound pulsations within the cylinder of an I.C. engine are caused due to
o Detonation
194. Auto-ignition temperature is
o That at which it catches fire without external aid

195. Ignition lag is
o The time taken by fuel after injection (before top dead center) to reachupto auto-ignition
temperature
196. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at
o 0.2 to 0.4 mm
197. The function of a fuel pump in a petrol pump is to
o Pump fuel so that it reaches carburettor (to improve thermal efficiency)
198. The delay period in petrol engine is of the order of
o 0.002 sec
199. Detonation is caused by the following unstable compounds
o Peroxides, aldehydes and ketones
200. If overhead clearance is less, then the following type of engine should be selected
o Horizontal
201. Which is false statement about advantages of V-type engine
o Less overhead clearance.
202. The pistons are usually given a coating such as tin plating in order to
o Reduce possibility of scoring
203. Piston rings are usually made of
o Cast iron
204. Piston rings are plated with chromium,cadmium or phosphate in order to
o Reduce wear and eliminate scuffing

205. The top piston ring nearer to the piston crown is known as
o Compression ring
206. In order to prevent knock in the S.I. engines, the charge away from the spark plugshould have
o All of the above.
207. Diesel engines have low specific fuel consumption compared to petrol engine. Thisstatement is
o True at both part and full load
208. To reduce the possibility of knock in the C.I. engines, the first elements of fuel andair should have
o All of the above.
209. The detonation tendency in petrol engines for specified conditions of fuel rating,compression ratio,
speed etc. Can be con-trolled by having
o Smaller cylinder bore
210. According to Recardo's theory, detonation occurs due to
o Improper mixing of air and fuel
211. A fuel will detonate less if it has
o Higher self ignition temperature
212. The knocking in diesel engines for given fuel, will be
o Enhanced by increasing compression ratio
213. The ignition of charge by some hot surface in the engine cylinder before operationof spark plug is
known as
o Preignition /
214. Injection lag is
o The time taken by fuel after injection (before top dead center) to reachupto auto-ignition
temperature
215. Ignition quality of diesel-fuel oil is expressed by an index called
o Cetane number
216. For best results of efficient combustion, high speed diesel engines need anapproximate cetane number
of
o 50
217. Calorific value of diesel oil is of the order of

o 10000 kcal/kg
218. Carbon residue in diesel oil should not be more than
o 0.1%
219. The most popular firing order in case of four cylinder in-line I.C. engine is
o 1-3-4-2
220. The compression ratio of motor cars is
o 1
221. The specific gravity of diesel oil Is
o 0.85
222. Freezing temperature of petrol is usually
o - 10°C
223. The specific gravity of petrol is about
o 0.75
224. Pick up the correct statement. Detonation can be controlled by
o Retarding the spark timing
225. The efficiency of I.C. engines normally is of the order of
o 30-35%
226. The firing order in a six stroke I.C. engine is
o 1-5-3-4-2-6.
227. Sulphur content in diesel oil should not be more than
o 1%
228. The m.e.p. Of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio with increase in cut-off will
o Decreae
229. The ash content in diesel oil should bot be more than
o 0.01%
230. The pour point of diesel oil must be
o Lower than the coldest atmospheric temperature at which oil is to be pumped
231. High carbon content in diesel oil used for diesel engine leads to
o Production of highly corrosive gases corroding the cylinder walls andexhaust system
232. Exhaust pipes of engines are covered with insulating marterial in order to
o Reduce heat transfer to the engine room

233. Ignition timing of a multicylider petrol engine can be adjusted by
o Adjusting ignition coil position
234. Fuel consumption with increase in back pressure will
o Increase
235. The cooling water requirement for diesel engine is of the order of
o 0.2 to 1.0 liter per minute per h.p.
236. A 4-stroke diesel engine needs about following amount of air
o 75 cc per min. Per h.p.
237. Leakage past the piston rings and valve seats in I.C. engines with increase in speed
o Decreases
238. The heat wasted in diesel engine is of the order of
o 65%
239. With increase in speed of vehicle, the back pressure will
o Increase
240. The function of a distributor in an automobile is to
o Time the spark
241. The ratio of useful power; engine friction exhaust gas losses; cooling water, air andoil losses for a diesel
engine is of the order of
o 40:30:15:15
242. For same power and same speed, the flywheel of a four stroke engine as comparedto two-stroke I.C.
engine will be
o Bigger
243. Air injection in I.C. engines refers to injection of
o Liquid fuel and air
244. Solid injection in I.C. engines refers to injection of
o Liquid fuel only
245. The system of lubrication used for motor cycles and scooters is by
o Mixing about 5 % lub oil with petrol
246. The m.e.p. Of a petrol engine first increases as the fuel air ratio is increased and thendecreases on
further increase in fuel air ratio. The m.e.p. Is maximum in the zone of
o Rich mixture
247. The specific fuel consumption for a petrol engine first decreases with increase in fuel air ratio and then
increases with further increase in fuel air ratio. The minimum value occurs in the range of
o Lean mixture
248. The thermal efficiency of a two cycle engine as compared to four cycle engine is
o Less
249. Diesel engines as compared to petrol engines require
o Bigger flywheel
250. The tendency of a diesel engine to knock increases, if
o Conperssion ratio is increased
251. The tendency of a petrol engine to knock increases by
o Supercharging
252. Free acids in diesel oil for diesel engine lead to
o Excessive fuel consumption.
253. Thermal efficiency of high speed diesel engine at design load may be of the order of
o 35%
254. The thermostat in I.C. engines permitting hot water to go to radiator is set around
o 85-95°C
255. The brake mean effective pressure of an I.C. engine with increase in speed will
o Unpredictable.
256. High ash and sediment in diesel oil used in diesel engine lead to
o Production of highly corrosive gases corroding the cylinder walls and ex-haust system
257. Mixing of fuel and air in case of diesel engine occurs in
o Engine cylinder.
258. The advantage of reversing the flow of a in an air cleaner is to
o Increase velocity of air
259. The most effective air cleaner in case diesel engines is
o Oil bath type
260. Fins are provided over engine cylinder scooters for
o Better cooling
261. The elements of most concern in regard pollution caused by engines are
o C02 and hydrocarbons

262. The preferred location of an oil cooler is
o After the filters
263. The petrol from tank to the automotive ergine is fed by
o Fuel pump.
264. In petrol engine, increase of cooling water temperature will
o Increase the knocking tendency
265. In carburettors, the top of the fuel jet with reference to the level in the floatchamber is kept at
o Slightly higher level
266. Carburretion is done to
o Break up and mix the petrol with air
267. Power impulses from an I.C. engine are somoothed out by
o Flywheel
268. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is approximately
o 15 : 1
269. For low speed operation or for idling in petrol engines, the engine requirements are for
o Lean mixture
270. In petrol engines, advancing the spark timing will
271. The following type of carburettor is preferred
o Concentric type
272. In the passanger cars, the following type of carburettor is preferred
o Downward draught type
273. The essential equipment for producing high voltage for sparking in petrol engineswith battery is
o Ignition coil
274. The ignition coil in diesel engines produces voltage of the order of
o 6 to 12 volts
o 240 volts
o 1000 volts
o 20,000 volts
o 80,000 volts.
275. If the door of a diesel engine crankcase is opened just after shutdown beforecooling of engine, then
o There is a risk of explosion taking place
276. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is of the order of
o 34%
277. The thermal efficiency of a gas engine is of the order of
o 25%.
278. Theoretically, the following engine should have maximum efficiency

o Steam engine
279. In petrol engine using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, super charging will
280. High sulphur content in diesel oil used for diesel engines leads to
o Production of highly corrosive gases corroding the cylinder walls andexhaust system
281. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines
o Only a part of air charge is contained in an auxiliary chamber in which the fuel starts to burn
with insufficient air which due to explosion tendency mixes thoroughly into main cylinder
charge
282. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is
o High power output and high thermal efficiency.
283. Deposition of carbon in petrol engine cylinder would result in increase of

o Compression ratio
284. Which of the following engines can work on very lean mixture
o C.I. engine
285. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then

o Low power will be produced
286. Hot air standard diesel cycle efficiency with increase in value of C„
o Unpredictable.
287. In turbulence chamber in diesel engine
o The shape and layout of the piston crown, the inlet port, and the valve produce the turbulent
effect of fuel mixture
288. For low load operation, more suitable (economical) engine is

o C.I. engine
289. A two stroke crank compressed engine has following ports in the cylinder
o Suction port, exhaust port and transfer port.
290. For the same size and weight, a two stroke engine as compared to four strokeengine will generate
power
o About twice
291. A two stroke engine is usually identified by
o Type of lubrication system
292. If diesel is fed by mistake in the oil tank of a petrol engien, then engine will
o Run for some time and then stop.
293. The thermal efficiency of a semi-diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio andfixed quantity of heat,
with increase in pressure ratio will
o Decrease
294. The termal efficiency of a petrol engine at design load is around

o 30%
295. In isochronous governing, speed droop is

o 30%
296. Method of governing used in petrol engine is
o Quantity governing
297. Pick up false statement
o In hit and miss governing, fuel supply is completely cut off during oneor more number of cycles
298. Method of governing used in diesel engine is

o Quality governing
299. An engine has a normal speed of 960 r.p.m. And no load speed of 1000 r.p.m. Thespeed droop of
governor will be about
o 4%
300. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following numberof revolutions of
crankshaft
o 2
301. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

o Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
302. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

o Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during theexhaust period
303. Supercharging is the process of
o Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
304. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is
supercharged ?
o No
305. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycleefficiency is called
o Relative efficiency
306. Compression ratio of LC. Engines is
o The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke andafter compression stroke
307. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the givencompression ratio is
o More
308. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of
o Kcal/n?
309. An engine has a normal speed of 960 r.p.m. And no load speed of 1000 r.p.m. Thespeed droop of
governor will be about
o 4%
310. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
o Decrease
311. All heat engines utilize
312. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
o M.e.p. And I.H.P.
313. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. Engine are usually based on
314. Pick up false statement
o In quality governing, quantity of fuel is varied to suit the load and totalcharge of air is varied
315. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to7, the %age increase
in efficiency will be
o 14%
316. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on
o Net calorific value

317. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
o Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottomdead center
319. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engineare of the order of
o 12 - 20 kg/cm2 and 350 - 450°C
320. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of
o 35 kg/cm
321. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
o 2000-2500°C
322. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, withincrease in cut-off ratio will
o Decrease
o Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same poweroutput.
324. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
o Heterogeneous
325. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
o 90-130 kg/cm2
326. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately
o 0.2 kg
327. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is notallowed to exceed
o 180°C
328. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usuall occurs as
o First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion
329. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs duto

o All of the above.
331. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately
o 0.25 kg
332. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoreticalairequired for complete
combustion is
o Less
333. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
o 235°
334. Which of the following is not an interns combustion engine

o Steam turbine.
o S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.
336. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for thatcylinder the
o Scavenging occurs.
337. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the enginerevolution or size in
following way
o Supercharging.
338. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
o Increase
339. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
o Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
340. For the same compression ratio
o Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel
341. The precess of breaking up or a lipuid into fine droplets by spraying is called
o Atomisation.
342. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very highvalue
o Rate of rise of pressure
343. Which of the following statements is correct?
o All reversible engines working between same temperature limits havesame-efficiency
o Dual combustion cycle
347. The accunmulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

o Effective compression ratio
348. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder
o Air alone
349. For the same size and weight, a two stroke engine as compared to four strokeengine will generate
power
o About twice
350. A two stroke engine is usually identified by

o Type of lubrication system
351. The thermal efficiency of a semi-diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio andfixed quantity of heat,
with increase in pressure ratio will
o Decrease
Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea,
security and the protection ofthe marine environment
1. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:
o 5 years with control every 12 months
2. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90
o Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port
3. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)

o Unannounced drills at any time
4. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of18?
o One year.
5. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
o 1 - 2 years.
6. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL conventionapplicable?

o For all listed vessels.
7. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?
o For all vessels
8. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to shore based
management?
o Annually.
9. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?
o We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the regulations for theprevention of pollution
by oil
10. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?
o Report to relevant authorities.

11. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the NationalResponse Center (OPA-
90)
o Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
12. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement iscorrect?

o COTP-zones may have additional rules and regulations
13. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What isthe main issue for the
introduction of the act?
o To prevent oil spills in US waters?
14. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. Whatdo you understand by the
word "Sewage"?
o Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
15. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oilywater separator which was
previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
o 15ppm
16. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual(QI)

o QI is an authorised individual, situated in the US, and contracted by theowner or operator
of the vessel
17. What are the functions of a flag state administration?
o They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and enforcing standards of safety and
pollution prevention on vessels flying the countries flag
18. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)
o Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation of Federal Safety

19. What does STCW deal with?
o STCW deals with minimum recommendation of education for seafarersand minimum

standards for training centre and schools
20. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean?
o International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
21. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?
o The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification andWatchkeeping of

Seafarers Seafarer's
22. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
o All of the mentioned
23. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
o It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
24. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?
o Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew orother persons
employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship.
25. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90)
o Vessel Response Plan
26. What is SOPEP?
o A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
27. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislationbefore it is defined as
intoxication?
o 0,04 %
28. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to bepumped over board
during a voyage?
o 30 litres per nautical mile
29. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention?
o Mandatory.
30. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90)

o Safety of ship and crew
31. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME)should fail during a ballast
voyage?
o All of the mentioned must be performed
32. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in theengine room?
o Both STCW and Class rules
33. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection,certificates were invalid
or missing
o Rectification would be required before sailing
34. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be heldresponsible?
o Any one involved in the operation
35. Where is OPA-90 applicable?
o Within 200 nm of US waters including Guam, Hawaii, Alaska and SanJuan
36. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?

o In the Captain's office
37. Where should the placard you are shown be located, according to U.S. CoastGuard regulations ? (Title
33-Navigation and Navigable waters, § 155.440 )
o Both in a conspicuous place in each machinery space and in aconspicuous place at the
bilge and ballast pump control station
38. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ?
o The SOLAS convention
39. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc.
o SOLAS
40. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention?
o MARPOL.
41. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules forseafaring nations?
o International Maritime Organization (IMO)
42. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys andinspections of ships, and the
issue of Safety Certificates?
o Government Authorities of the Flag State
43. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?
o Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
44. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publicationsonboard?

o The master.
45. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radioroutines?
o The master.
46. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
o The master and department heads.
47. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oilleakage. Who should be
called to handle pollution claims and damages?
o The P & I Club's nearest representative.
48. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
o MARPOL regulations
49. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at seaon a Bulk Carrier, what
is the most careful consideration?
o Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System(SMS) for guidance
50. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting
operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause
harm to amenities or otherlegitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality
andquantity of the discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are:
o A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II.
51. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in
compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be discharged to a reception facility until the
concentration of the substance inthe effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken
by the authorized surveyor has reached a level of:
o 0.1% by weight.
52. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are classified as:
o "OS" (Other substances)"
53. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‗solidifying substances‘ as:
o A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a meltingpoint of less than
15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point at the time of
unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 15°C
which is at a temperature of lessthan 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
54. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‗high viscosity substance‘ as:
o A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point ofgreater than 37.8 degrees
Celsius.
55. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as
―Special Areas‖ are:
o The Antarctic.
56. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to such an extent that
the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried may be discharged into the sea
without regard tothe discharge rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain
conditions, which require:
o That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and isin water that is not less
than 25 metres deep.
57. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category ―X‖, ―Y‖ & ―Z‖ Noxious Liquid Substances, the
term ―Clean Ballast‖ as defined in the IBC Code means:
o Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a
substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting
there from have been discharged and thetank emptied in accordance with the appropriate
requirements of Annex II.
58. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance
or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall
include:
o Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of
discharge or escape and general remarks.
59. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:
o Category"Y".
60. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under
which international guidelines?
o Protocol I of MARPOL 73/78.
61. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in order to facilitate
the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must be ensured that:
o No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those
components that are readily biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less than
10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to
the previous cargo shall apply
62. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
o Double hull tankers
63. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDGCode?
o A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL73/78, as amended.
64. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?
o Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
65. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas
(LNG)?
o Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
66. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State
Authority to trade for:
o One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port.

67. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5
degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5
cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the
washing time and quantity of crude oil required?
o 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
68. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-
up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
o 12barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
69. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
o Fresh water.
70. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must be:
o Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry.
71. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must becarried and completed on
oil tankers of:
o 150 gross tonnes and above.
72. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be:
o Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank onboard.
73. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast
Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve:
o 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on board at the previous port.
74. One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to ………….

o To restrict the trade of foreign nations.
75. All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient
capacity to ……………
o Accommodate oil spilt on deck.

76. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to …
o Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
77. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in
o Areas close to response centers.
78. The costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can …………

o All of these.
79. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as
o Willful misconduct.
80. OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of ………….
o The go ahead signal from the Coast Guard
81. Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer
or cargo oil transfer must be secured …………..
o With a blank flange.
82. Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed ……
o Up in writing to facilitate clear communications
83. Most landfills in the United States will not accept ………..
o Residue from smelting plants.
84. Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which of the
statements below is true ?
o The shore management is able to activate the OSRO
85. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier
o To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
86. Most important in monitoring the loading or bunkering rate is …………..

o That tanks should be sounded very regularly.
87. A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria ofthe OPA 90
o Contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines foreach area in which
the ship is trading.
88. Which major port is not a high volume port ?

o Port Angeles
89. When reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recordedmessage is heard and
you are placed on hold, your alternate contact should be
o The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.
90. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill
is………
o A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.
91. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all verbal reports should befollowed by
o A telex, fax or cable.
92. A routine cause of operational oil spills is ………….

o The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actuallyremains on
board and sole dependency on remote gauging systems.
93. Basic spill prevention measurements include ……….

o A signed exchange between ship and terminal.
94. The first phase of emergency response is …………

o Breefing the incident commend system.
95.A key element of the Incident Command System is ……………

o Liaison with government agencies.
96. The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to……………

o Petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.
97. The most important guideline for dealing with the news media is …………….
o All of these.
98. Three functions of the Incident Command staff are……………

o Information, safety and liaison.
99. Who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup until the Oualified Individualarrives on the scene. ?
o The person in charge of oil transfer
100. Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are …………….
o Non persistent oils.
101. The three types of boom are ……………
o Heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent
102. The primary forces that will affect the movement of oil on the water are……………
o Currents, tides and winds.
103. According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group mayinvolve underwater
recovery ?
o Group V
104. OPA 90 regulations are effective up to ............ miles offshore.

o 200
105. Under OPA 90 regulations actuation of Tier I response resources must be made…… after
discovery oil discharge.
o Immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes
106. Under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will ……………

o Sink.
107. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is ………….

o United States legislation
108. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditionsare satisfied. One of
these conditions for a tanker is that……….
o The tanker is not within a Special Area
109. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of
these conditions for an oil tanker is that…………
o The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land.
110. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of
these conditions for a tanker is that ……….
o The tanker is en route.
111. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than ……..of
the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
o 1/15000
112. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed ?
o 30 litres per nautical mile
113. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution.
Which flue of these items are the mainpreventive measures against tank overflow ?
o I, Ill, IV, V, VI
114. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?
o Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oilrefuse and refined products
115. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
o A mixture with any oil content
116. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?

o Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
117. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
o Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery
118. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?
o No, it is not
119. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
o A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June
1976
120. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to Marpol ?
o The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided bythe speed of the ship in
knots at the same instant
121. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?

o An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required
122. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?

o A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily
mixtures
123. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ?
o If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clearday will not produce visible
traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion belo
124. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?

o The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil
system and permanently allocated to ballast
125. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on its building
contract would read……………
o After 1st June 1982
126. Every oil tanker of ..... Tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tons gross tonnage and
above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
o 150, 400
127. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to ensure
compliance with the applicable regulations shall include……
o A complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.
128. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These
intervals are not to exceed…………..
o Five years.
129. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure
that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called
?
o The Annual survey
130. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all
respects satisfactory for service. What are theseinspections called ?
o Annual Inspections
131. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which
one of these is not true ?
o III- is not true
132. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled
Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
o The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
133. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?

o Approved ship's officers
134. Who may carry out marpolinspections ?
o Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is
located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
135. What is the meaning of a ―harmful substance" under Marpol ?

o Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
136. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to inspectors and
surveyors. Which item does not belong ?
o Item II - does not belong
137. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined byMarpol
o Dumping or disposal from the ship
138. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?
o The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substanceor effluents containing
such substances
139. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be…..
o Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equallysevere irrespective of
where the violation occurs.
140. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ?
o A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol
1.
141. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as…
o A crude oil I product carrier
142. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the requirements for Segregated
Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW may be designated as
o Crude oil / product carrier
143. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with
COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate.
o Product carrier
144. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT fitted with SBT and
PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate.
o Product carrier
145. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT may be designed as a
on the IOPP certificate.
o Crude oil /product carrier
146. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate ?
o As a crude oil / product carrier
147. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should
their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
o Crude oil / product carrier
147. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system, what should their
designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
o Crude oil tanker
148. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited except when,
amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted ?
o A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system
149. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?

o Any one of these
150. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings orarrangements are carried
out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases tobe valid. What is the exception
o Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does notdeviate from Marpol
requirements
151 What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as specified ?
o The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an unscheduledinspection is to be carried out by
the Port State inspection of the country of call
152. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed
to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ?
o 15 ppm oil filtering equipment
153. A ship other than tanker of 3000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot discharge oily mixtures
from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be
satisfied ?
o II, V, VII
154. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a
special area ?
o Less than 15 ppm
155. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to
discharge these into the sea ?
o Not allowed at all
156. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issues of safety at sea ?
o They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift same in case of
emergencies.
158. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the
discharge is the result of damage arising fromwhich items in this list
o I, IV
159. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge
is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception ?
o Collision or groundings
160. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. Oil
dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of
these conditions ?
o . I, III
161. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be
such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draughtand trim meet which of these requirements ?
o I, II, IV. VII
162. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when
which of these circumstances arise ?
o IV, V
163. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be
included ?
o Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
164. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included
in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers
o Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is
exceeded is to be fitted
165. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operatingwith COW is to change
its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions will apply ?
o The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
166. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what
are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW
? The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
167. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT,
CBT, PL and COW ?
The requirement for SET does not apply
168. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is e
An oil content meter.
169. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply ifthe tanker is engaged in
specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ?
The ship's IOPP certificate
170. Which of the following is NOT classed as pollution preventionequipment ?

Air or electric portable pumps.
171. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the
use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full provided which of
these items apply ?
C. II, V, VI
172. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on
Oil Tankers ?
To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event ofgrounding or collision
173. Where is disposal of wooden dunnage allowed ?Outside 25 miles offshore.
174. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fueloil tank. What is the
exception ?
Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats
175. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and
dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than
% of the tank capacity.
2.5
176. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ?

Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the
cargo tanks.
177. At least two slop tanks are required for……..

New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.
178. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted
on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ?
A. I, III, V
179. How can a ship dispose of plastic at sea ?
1isposal of plastic is not allowed anywhere at sea.
180. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is
required on board. This manual must mention all operations and …….
Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to ensure that no oil can be
discharged except in compliance with regulations.
181. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in
fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for
engine bilge discharge.
15ppm
182. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or may it be part of the
ship's official Log Book ?
It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard butmust contain the required information.
183. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save
life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what ?
The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged
184. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book
without delay and…..…..
Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operationand each completed page will be
signed by the Master.
185. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?The Master
186. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore platforms for which type
or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ?
Type I and Type IV
187. What can be a major cause of pollution from a dry cargo ship without the vigilance of the entire crew
?
Improper discharge from bilges and engine room.
188. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?Roofers Flux
189. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I ofMarpol Annex I ?
Clarified
190. The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in AppendixI of Marpol Annex I?
Alkylates fuel
191. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of marpolannexi?
Fuel oil No 4
192. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges). What
information is recorded in this chapter ?
The location and capacity of the sludge tanks
193. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of
…….or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers applies.
200cubic metres
194. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollutioncaused by ……..
A. I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV
= Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
195. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with ……
The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor

discharge of cargo residues
196. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboardoperations concerning processing
and treatment of sewage ?
The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number ofcountries have adapted them and
have stingent regulations
197. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ? They are the
same for any country which has ratified the Marpol
convention
198. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard insidethe Special Areas. Which
is the exception ?
Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboardbeyond 12 miles offshore
199. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3 miles from the nearest
land and in all inland waters……….
You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or foodoverboard unless ground to less than 25
mm.
200. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage,
lining and packing materials that float …….
May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
201. Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions would you say is most
important?
Plug scuppers.
202. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and
food may be thrown overboard within 3 to12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than
25mm
203. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the type of garbage which
can be thrown overboard at a given distanceoffshore. Is this universally accepted ?
Yes, accepted by all states and regions
204. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ? Because each ship has her
own characteristics and equipment with
which the new crew member must become familiar
205. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crewmember know clearly
what is expected of him ?
By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis onthe personal responsibilities and duties
of the trainee
206. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that …..
A quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew member for the first week on
board
207. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted
on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ?
A. I, III, V
208. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships may lead to a pollution
incident ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII
209. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transfer procedures
should be available on board in a place where they can be easily seen and used. Where on board?
Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers emergency shut off valves OR in the
cargo — control room
210. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers because oil may
backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a notice should be placed on the
ballast pump. Which one ?
START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
211. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if prompt action and
careful preparation for containment is carried out. Whichthree of these items are vital ?
B. I, III, IV
212. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly
inspected to make sure that……..
They have not developed cracks or holes.
213. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution.
Which flue of these items are the mainpreventive measures against tank overflow ?
C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII
214. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been
detained because ……..
No up to date deck port log was kept.

215. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper manner or fails
to prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
216. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shallbe liable to:
imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to
217. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to:
The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65..
218. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress
or other danger while the master still on boardshall be liable to
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
219. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this being necessary shall
be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.
220. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything which he is
entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding year if there are especially
aggravating circumstances.
221. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks or
registration marks of a registered ship shall be liable to:
Fines.
222. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?For at least five years
223. How can the master ensure obedience?

He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but not use harsher means than the
circumstances make necessary.
224. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform: The deck officer of the highest rank present
225. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure evidence and take statements,
inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime Directorate
226.Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel assisting or
performing cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified?
It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that the requirements are complied with and
documented.
227. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship.
228. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to goashore?
Where possible the master shall provide such service. Cost and other circumstances may be
takenintoconsideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with theagent's use of the same boat.
229. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.
230. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply:To both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
231. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?Yes, if the seafrers demands it
232. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons?
Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and themaster fails to take
steps to remedy the defects
233. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their
completion?
For minimum 3 years
234. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?By all the other mentioned alternatives.
235. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation and CWA/CBA areavailable to seafarers on
board?
The seafarers shall have available for their use the Seamen's and NIS-acts with regulations, together with
all relevant CWA's/CBA's.
236.Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has to reduce the dietduring a voyage?
Yes,
237. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing aseafarer?

A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.
238. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships bekept?
On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime
239. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the calculation of hiswages?
Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with possibledeductions.
240.The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, under normal
circumstances, to work more than:
14 hours per day
241. What are the average total working hours per week that must be exceededover a period of at most
one year on board NIS ships?
56 hours
242. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at sea?
All the other mentioned alternatives according to the situation
243. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarerbehind in a foreign port?
Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate
244. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board?
The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrangefor burial/ repatriation of coffin/ashes
- and maritime inquiry
245. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer?He shall arrange for proper care,
including medical care
246. What is the difference between the Safety Representative and the Working Environment
Committee's area of activity?
The Safety Representative's field is the work situation, the
committee‘s the total environment, also spare time
247. What is the main rules as to period of notice of termination as per theSeamen's Act?
One month
248. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board?One control book for
special medicines, one approved by Norwegian authorities medical book ("International Medical
Guide for ships") and
three pamphlets regarding first aid.
249. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service on board a ship which gives the knowledge,
insight and skills required for the issue of a certificate or other document referred to in these
regulations"
Seagoing service
250. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have?Care, wages, free passage home
251. Who is responsible for the storage and use of substances injurious to health on board?
The shipping company and the master
252. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies?
A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the Norwegian Board of Health or, if no such pharnacy is available,
the master and a doctor approved by a Norwegian Consulate shall perform inspection once every 12
months.
253. A rating has approved emergency preparedness training, a certificate for watchkeeping in the deck
department and 3 years of service time on deckand necessary knowledge of English. What post is a
seafarer, with these required qualifications, qualified for on a Norwegian cargo vessel?
As an able seaman
254. A seaman's right to go ashore on a day when shops and offices are open is:At least once a month if
circumstances permit it
255. An invalidated vessel's certificate shall be:
Returned to the Ship Control via a Norwegian Consulate
256. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?For at least three years
257. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety constructioncertificate be carried out?
Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
258. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:Load line certificate
259. The restriction of overtime work is that no person shall be required, under normal circumstances, to
work more than:
14 hours a day
260. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply?
Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as part of the ship's complement
with designated safety or pollution duties
261. What are the contents of the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian ShipControl Legislation" ?
A compilation of Norwegian laws and regulations concerning the safety of ships and crew.
262. What is the ISM Code?
The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution
prevention.
263. What is the purpose of the unscheduled inspections on board ships?
Mainly to determine whether the manning regulations have been adhered to
264. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific dutys and
responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on ,for example, a liquefied tanker?
A tankerman certificate
265. Where do you find regulations concerning washing of crockery and cutlery? The regulations are a part
of the Norwegian Ship Control Legislationregulations, concerning production and serving of foodstuffs.
266. Who has the overall responsibility for the general supervision of ships and formatters governing the
seaworthiness of ships?
The recognized classification societies
267. Who is responsible for keeping documentation of the qualifications requiredfor personnel on board?
The ship's master
268. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies if the ship is in a foreign port, forexample outside Europe?
A pharmacy authorised to do so or if no such pharmacy is available,the master and an approved seamen's

doctor
269. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shallgenerally speaking be
accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a collective wage agreement?
The NIS Act does not regulate this
270. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an WorkingEnvironment Committee

on board?
Minimum eight crew members.
271. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected ona ship with a crew of 13
members?
1 member
272. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in theAct chiefly relate?
The Act relating to hours of work and theSeamen's
273. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carriedonboard?
A. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays foremployees on ships.
274. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work onboard?

Both master and shipping company..
275. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship
operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information:
…………….
All of these.
276. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop,
implement and maintain a system which includes the following :……………..
a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and
protection of the environment.
277. Under ISM, the Company should establish .................to describe how the objectives
of the ISM code willbe achieved.
A safety and environmental policy
278. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and
Environmental Policy is …………….
Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based aswell as shore based.
279. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be ............... standards
required by the ismcode ?
Asubstrtute for
270. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set
above the standards of the ISM code, should be …………..
Encouraged and supported.
271. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's which forms an integral
part of the Safety Management System ?
Safety management objectives
272.Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the

company who ..................... the ship.
Has assumed responsibility for the operation of

273. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific shiprelated activities such as
manning, technical support or maintenance ?
Yes, it is allowed
274. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or
maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued ?
Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
275. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted……..
Remains the responsibility of the Company
286. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the
auditor must be satisfied that the company is in control of ……………
All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been subcontracted.
287. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation
of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution
prevention. How ?
By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities
for each functional area
288. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out his
functions ?
Adequate resources and shore based support
289. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should
include………….
Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of theoperation of each ship
290. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ? Appropriate knowledge and
experience associated with verification and
control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
291. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ?May be necessary
292. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety andEnvironmental Policy on
board ?
The Master's
293. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the
Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company ?
Through interviewing officers and crew
294. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental policy on board ?
The Master
295. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and
Environmental protection policy ?
A. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for
Pollution
296. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the SEP policy and how
could their perception of ownership be encouraged ?
Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to participate in the continuous
development of the objectives of the SEP
297. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and should
issue appropriate orders and instructions ina clear and simple manner. How is this to be done ?
By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples
298. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions)
regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually verify this on board ?
The Master
299. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and instructions)
regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master
300. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and reporting its
deficiencies to ………..
The shore based management
301. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should includeany deficiencies and
may include …………..
The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
302. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in
the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation he should …………
Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the official log book.
303. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report tothe Company ?
The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
304. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Managementsystem ?

The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains a clear statement
emphasizing the Master's authority
305. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies …………….
In case of oil spill clean-ups
306. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has
overriding responsibility and authority as required …………..
By the International Association of Classification

307. The Company must be sure that the Master is …………….
A safety and environmental protection licensed person.
308. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by …………..
Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with theSTCW convention.
309. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements
relating to safety and environmental protection by ……………...
Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.
310. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of
them by the Safety Management System .................... should be described.
Safety and environmental protection hazards
311. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their
duties safely. Support from the Company includes ……………
Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port.
312. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ..........with which the
Company should be familiar.

National and International requirements
313. The Company should have a system in place for firstly................. personnel,
especially if obtained through a manning agent.
Selecting
314. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult …………
Since there are no International or National standards.
(SOAL UKP USCG)

1. What is the function of the contiguous zone?
The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to prevent and punish infringements
of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitarylaws
2. Which of the UN member states below has UNCLOS III?
Indonesia
3. Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas?

The flag State is to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the high
seas, with the exception of specific cases, such as piracy
4. When did the third UN convention on the law of the sea conference (UNCLOSIII) take place?
Between 1973 and 1982
5. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Indonesian sea transportation and communication directorate
works in compliance with:
The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
6. What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea?

The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all maritime zones, since they
constitute the starting point for measuring thebreadth of each zone
7. When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy? When it is not
committed against another vessel and when it is not committed for 'private ends'
8. Which is ‘rock’ under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)? Rocks are the islands which
cannot sustain human habitation or economiclife of their own
9. What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?
It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should achieve, after,
however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant
circumstances and the proportionality test
10. Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zoneof another State?
When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is to give other State
access to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States
11. How many nautical miles out are considered "territorial water"?
12 nautical miles from the baseline
12. What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage'?

A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent' where it is not prejudicial to thepeace, good order or security
of the coastal State
13. What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf?
The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose
of exploring it and exploiting its naturalresources
14. Which is a 'rock'under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their own and according
to article 121 (3) have no Exclusive Economic Zone or continental shelf
15. When coastal States do enforce their criminal jurisdiction over foreign vessels in theirports?Port States
generally do not enforce their criminal jurisdiction over crimes that do not infringe their customs laws
or disrupt peace and public order
16. What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage'? A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent'
where it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of thecoastal State
17. What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf? The coastalState enjoy ipso
facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose of exploring it and
exploiting its natural resources
18. Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another State? a) When
the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', thecoastal State is to give other State access
to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States
For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?1 - 2 years
For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable? For all listed vessels.
For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable? For all vessels.
If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?Report to relevant authorities
What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?
Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew or other
persons employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship.
Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measure to ensure safety of life at sea,
security and the protection of the marine environment
(SOAL PETIKAN DESNI)
1. Which is the following principle in general insurance that not written in policy but must be obeyed by
the insured (Assured) ?

a. Principle of Insurable interest
b. Principle of Indemnity
c. Principle of utmost good faith
d. Principle of legality
2. Cover Not is a Temporary coverage of Insurance, which then by the insurer will be issued a policy. The
policy is
a. Underwriter agreements authorized by Notary
b. The Insurance agreement signed by the insurer only
c. The Insurance agreement signed by the assured only

d. Underwriter agreements signed by the assurer and the insurer
3. Broke is Person who serve as a trusted agent that has legal expertise related to the coverage of insured
from the prospective assured. The fee of services by broker is paid by :
a. Insurer of the premium received from the assured
b. Insurer after the slip is signed by the underwriter
c. Assured as an additional premium
d. The Assured should have been issued cover note
4. A cover note is a temporary certificate of insurance issued by the insurer before the issuance of a policy.
The information that would not usually appear on a cover note is :
a. Deductable
b. Conditions of coverage and promise of the insured (Warranty)
c. Sum insured
d. Name and address of the Assured (Assured)
5. Under the terms of the Marine Insureances Act 1960 the party prossesing Contingent Interest is :
a. Consignee which is a loss due to ship delay or damaged goods
b. Share holders in the shipping company on their ship
c. Interests owned by banks that provide debt with ship guarantees
d. Shipper in the form of goods rejected by the buyer due to damage or delay
6. In the case of responsibility of cargo where the carrier is responsible for carriage, the cargo owner shall
take action ......................................Except.
a. Made receipt for damaged goods
b. Ask the carrier for a joint survey
c. Make a note of protest if the carrier rejects the receipt is clean
d. Claims to the carrier of damage/ lost of goods
7. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing services is called....

a. Policy
b. Insurance
c. Assured
d. Premium
8. The assured (Insured) must have an insurable interest in policy when..

a. The name adventure begins
b. It’s elects to acquire interest after a loss
c. A loss occurs
d. The policy is effected
9. One of the basic principle of insurance that is not written in the policy but must be obeyed by the
insured (assured) is THE PRINCIPLE OF INDEMNITY. The purpose of the principle of indemnity is.?
a. The assured is not permitted to make a profit on the insurance
b. The insurer shall not be entitled to deduct “new for old” when he pays for new material to repair ship
c. The insurer shall not be entitled to take over the goods which have been given compensation
d. The Assured is entitled to make profit to the extent of the loss
10. Broker is Person who serve as a trusted agent that has legal expertise related to the coverage of insured
from the prospective assured.The fee of service by broker is paid by ?
a. Insurer after the ship is signed by the underwriter
b. Insurer of the premium received from the assured
c. The assured should have been issued cover note

d. Assured as an additional premium
11. In case any accident occurs, the cause in known as?

a. Risk
b. Damage
c. Marine peril
d. None of the above
12. In Marine Insurance Policy Insurable interest must exist at the time of...
a. At the time of claim
13. The goods which can be coverage by marine insurance are...except
d. Responsibility of the owner of the goods which has a destructive nature to a third party
14. Which principle suggests that insured (assured) should try to minimize the loss of his property
even if it is insured?
a. Principle of proximate cause
15. Peril on The Sea is a marine perils, that a ship may be damaged or destroyed because of...
a. Stranding, sinking because of heavy wave action, and high winds.
16. Which state exercise jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas ?
a. The flag states in to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas, with the exception
on specific cases, such as piracy
MANAGE OPERATION OF ELECTRICAL ANDELECTRONIC CONTROL EQUIPMENT
6. A 6-Volt dc relay is to be used with a 12-Volt power supply. The relay requires acurrent of 0.1 Amp.
What is the series resistance required.
60 ohm
7. In a PID controller it is possible to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I)
and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to a step input, if the
variables are well adjusted.
Figure 2.
8. In a PID controller it is possible to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I)
and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to a step change in input,
if the setting of the reset time is too small.
Figure 2.
1069
9. In a PID controller the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time (D) may
be adjusted. Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to a change in input, if the setting
of the proportional band is too wide.
Figure 1.
1069
10. In an automatic temperature control system, operating with a PID controller, whichof the following
settings or parameter adjustments may result in system oscillation?
Gain too high
11. In control systems it is often necessary to convert from one type of unit to another.Which is a common
signal level for an I/P converter?
4-20ma/3-15 PSI
12. In fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5 bar/4- 20ma for level
measurement. The transmitter is installed 30 centimetres from the bottom of the tank, and the tank is
5 meters high. What will the output from the transmitter be when the tank is empty?
4 ma.
1070
13. In process control some situations lead to a need for dynamic amplifying. What ismeant by dynamic
amplifying?
Amplitude of output signal dividedby amplitude of input signal
1070
14. In terms of an automated control system, what is meant by the expression ''SlaveController?
The secondary controller in a cascade control system
15. In terms of automated control systems, what is typical for a continuous controlsystem?
It is possible to predict the control mathematically
16. In the context of an automated control system, which controller must be tuned firstin a cascade control
system?
The secondary controller
17. In the context of an automated process control system, what is understood by theexpression Master
Controller?
The primary controller in a cascade control system
18. In which of the following automated control processes will the time constant be ofminor importance?
Level control
1071
19. Some automated control systems use a master controller and a slave controller.What is the meaning of
“remote mode” related to a slave controller?
The slave controller receives the set-point from the output signalof the master controller
20. Some process control systems may have several inputs and controlled variables. Inthis context what is
meant by split-range?
Several control-valves are connected to the same controller
21. Temperature sensors may be marked PT100. What does this mean?
100 ohm at 0° C
22. Temperature sensors of all types are normally mounted in a well, or pocket, when used in pipelines.
Why is this done?
Allow removal of the sensor also whenliquid is flowing in the pipe.
1072
23. Temperatures are often measured by using platinum resistance thermometers. The characteristics
shown are all calibration curves for such devices. Which of them is a calibration curve for a P T100
sensor?
Figure 1
24. The diagram shows a thyristor (SCR) with a Resistor and Capacitor (R and C). TheRC network shown,
performs which of the following applications?
Divert fast voltage spikes which maylead to uncontrolled switch on.
25. U-tube manometers are often used to measure differential pressure. Which of thelisted pressures are
U-tube manometers mostly used for?
Low differential pressures

26. What is the effect of the I (integration) function of a PID controller?
It will try to reduce the deviation between set-point and process value
1073
DPK
27. What principle of measurement are viscosity controllers usually based upon?
Measurement of differential pressure
28. When tuning a cascade control system, which of the following actions should bedone first?
Adjust the slave controller with the mastercontroller in manual mode
29. Which of the following detectors is preferred for detecting smoke from fire?
Ionization type
30. Which of the following is typical for a feed-forward control system?
Control of the process inlet side

31. Zener barriers are sometimes used to supply power to electronic equipment in hazardous areas. Which
statement is correct with regards to power supply for equipment supplied through Zener-barriers?
The 0-volts line must always be grounded.
32. A 3-phase cage rotor induction motor requires protection by a time delay overloadtrip. What is the
reason for this?
It will allow for inrush current or motor specific faults
33. A cable has a resistance of 100 milli-ohms. It supplies a 300A load over a distanceof 100 metres. What
is the voltage drop along it's length?
30 volts
1075
34. A ship's electrical system operates at 60Hz but when connected to shore supply it issupplied with 50Hz.
Which of the following would you expect?
Electric motors will run at reduced speed andwill tend to overheat.
1076
35. A transformer is rated at 22 kva, 440/220 Volts, 60 Hz, is used to step down the voltage to a lighting
system. The low tension voltage is to be kept constant at 220 Volts. What load impedance connected
to the low-tension side will cause thetransformer to be fully loaded?
2.2 Ohms
36. How can a lead-acid type battery be checked to confirm if it is fully charged or not?
Measure the relative density (specific gravity) of the electrolyte
37. In the circuit diagram shown the starter connects between which terminals?
5 and 6
1077
38. In the type of fluorescent lamp system shown in the illustration, the role of thestarter is to perform
which of the following?
To pass current through the lamp heaters, and then interrupt the lamp heaters, and then interrupt the
inductivestriking current.
1078
39. Low voltage ships tend to have insulated neutral systems. What is the reason forthis?
In the event of an earth fault vital equipmentwill not trip
40. The picture shows the component parts of a fluorescent light (items 10 to 14) abovea circuit diagram
(items 1 to 9). Between which terminals of the circuit should the ballast (or choke) be connected?
1 and 9
41. This circuit shows a transformer with two windings, N (1) = 2000 and N (2) = 1000turns, on a common
magnetic circuit. Assume that there are no energy losses in the transformer itself. Calculate the output
voltage V (2) when the input voltage is V
= 100 Volt.
V (2) = 50 V
1079
42. This figure shows a transformer, with two windings, N(1) = 2000 and N(2) = 1000 turns, on a common
magnetic circuit. Assume that there is no energy loss in the transformer itself. Calculate the current I(2)
when the current I(1) = 2 A.
I(2) = 4 A
1080
43. What kind of electrolyte is used for Nickel-iron batteries?
Solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and water
44. When starting three phase induction motors there is sometimes a need to use a star- delta starter. A
star-delta starter exhibits which of the following characteristics while connected in star.
Reduced current and increased speed
45. When starting three phase induction motors which of the following startingmethods will immediately
apply rated voltage to the machine?
Star Delta
46. Which cell voltage is required to trickle charge a lead acid battery?
2.15 V
1081
47. An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as conductance G (Siemens). Which
of the formulas A to D expresses the conductance for this circuit?
G = 1/R
1082
48. Diodes are widely used in rectification, or the conversion of alternating current to direct current. The
sinusoidal input voltage V(in) is applied to the circuit shown. Which of the output voltages is correct ?
Figure 1
49. In relation to exhaust gas measurement with a thermocouple, use of an amplifierwhich gives a ma-
signal out is preferred. Why is this done?
The output signal from a thermocouple is at mv level, and can not betransferred over any long distance
without loss of signal, giving a poor accuracy and poor noise immunity.
50. In what kind of measuring equipment might we find a Bourdon-tube?
In a pressure transmitter.
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51. It is important to be clear about the performance capability of measuring instruments. How is the
accuracy of an instrument expressed?
In % of full scale and to least significant digit
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52. Temperature sensors may be marked T 802. What does this mean?
802 ohm at 20° C
53. The circuit symbol is a driver for a solenoid (coil) of a solenoid valve S. What is thepurpose of the diode
IN 4002 connected in parallel to the solenoid S?
Allowing stored energy in solenoid to dissipate as freewheel current and therefore prevent damage to
transistorfrom inductive switching voltage.
54. The diagram shows a calibration curve for a pressure gauge. What is an alternativename for the slope
of the characteristic?
Sensitivity
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55. The image shows an arrangement of electronic components which is often used fora particular reason.
What is this type of ciruit usually called?
A zener barrier.
56. The instrument most widely used for testing of semiconductor diodes is
Multi –meter
57. The picture shows a liquid filled thermometer. Liquid filled thermometers and
manometers are often installed onboard ships. What is the main purpose for the
liquid filling of such pointer instruments?
C
Coom
mppee
nn
sastaintignfgorfo
chracnhgaesnigneasminbiaenm
t bient temperature
1081
58. The pressure inlet to a pressure gauge is varied from zero to full scale and back to zero again. The output
(indicating pressure) versus true pressure is shown in the diagram.The non - coincidence(mis - match)
of loading and unloading curve is due to internal friction in the instrument. What do we call this
phenomenon?
Threshold
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59. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar.and the output signal is 4-20 ma. What is theoutput signal when
the process value is 100 bar?
12 Ma
60. The wheat stone resistance bridge is often used for measuring resistances in, for example, Pt 100
temperature sensors or strain gauges. This figure shows such a bridge. Under what conditions will the
bridge be balanced? I.e. The current throughthe meter i(m) = 0.
R1 / R2 = R3 / R4
61. There are many applications in circuit theory where it is important to obtain the maximum possible
power that a given source can deliver. This figure consists of a practical voltage source V(g) with internal
resistance R(s). What value of resistanceR(L) will maximize the power transmission from the source to
R(L)?
R(L) = R(s)
62. Thermo-elements will typically have
Relatively wide range of temperaturemeasurement
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63. This is a parallel L-C circuit with a curve showing frequency- impedance characteristics. Which of the
formulae A to D gives the resonant frequency fo?
Fo = 1/2π. √1/LC
64. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure.
What are pressures measured relative to absolute zero called?
Vacuum pressure
65. Use Kirchoff's current law and Ohm's law to calculate the value of the current I forthis circuit.
22A
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66. What function is this circuit performing?
Differentiating
67. What is the advantage of a transmitter with a narrow measurement range?
Better linearity and increased accuracy
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68. When considering instrumentation systems , what is the meaning of the term
“Span” of a transducer.
The difference between maximumand minimum measurement thatgives a standard output signal
69. When considering instrumentation systems, what is meant by static amplifying?
Change in output signal divided bychange in input signal
70. When considering instrumentation systems, what is the meaning of the expression'dead-band'?
The controller will not react toa process change in this range
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71. When measuring level of liquids with a conductivity level indicator, measurementis performed by?:
Electrodes
72. When measuring viscosity with a restricted flow viscometer, the preferred sensingdevice is:
Capillary tube
73. When the cable length exceeds approx. 10 meters we normally have to, in case of a Pt 100, in some
way compensate for the cable resistance. Do we also have to do this if we choose to use a T802
temperature sensor?
No
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74. Which alternative is correct for measuring current through the load L?
Figure 3.
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75. Which device does this graphical symbol illustrate?
Pressure to current converter.
76. Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
Differentiator
77. Which of the following temperature sensors normally gives the highest measuringaccuracy?
Resistance sensor, Pt100
78. Which type of temperature sensor is used in this temperature measuring systemshown?
Thermocouple sensor
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79. In terms of instrumentation and measurement what is an I/P Transducer?
• A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressurepropertional to the current
80. Instrument must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by instrumentcalibration?
• Comparing input and output values against a documented standard
81. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature coefficient thermistor will
typically have
• Relatively non linear characteristic
82. Diodes are widely used in rectification, or the convertion of alternating current to direct current. The
sinusoidal input voltage V(in) is applied to the circuit shown. Which of the output voltage is correct ?
• Figure 1
79
PLAN AND SCHEDULE OPERATIONS
1. How does the maximum oil film pressure in a white metal journal bearing operatingunder full fluid film
conditions compare with the pressure of the lubricating oil supply system?
A. The pressure is greater than thepressure in the lubricating system and varies with the journal load.
B. The pressure is less than the pressure in thelubricating system and varies with the journal load.
C. The pressure is the same as the pressure in the lubricating system regardless of the journal load.
D. The pressure is greater than the pressure in the lubrication and is constant regardless of the journal
load..
2. The cold room temperature is almost at the cut out point in a vapour-compression refrigeration system.
What should the refrigerant state be just after the evaporator ifthe system is correctly set up?
A. Slightly superheated low pressure gas.
B. Wet vapour at high pressure.
C. Sub-cooled liquid at low pressure.
D. Cold liquid at high pressure.
808
3. What does the term 'stoichiometric mixture' mean when used in relation tocombustion of hydrocarbon
fuels?
A. An ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel and oxygen inthe mixture are consumed during
combustion.
B. A ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel in the mixture isconsumed during combustion.
C. A ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the oxygen in the air in themixture is consumed during
combustion.
D. An ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel in the mixture isconsumed during combustion
with a minimum of excess air.
4. What effect would turbulent fluid flow through a heat exchanger have on theefficiency of the heat
transfer?
A. Turbulent fluid flow generally increases heat transfer efficiency.
B. Turbulent fluid flow generally reduces heat transfer efficiency
C. Heat transfer efficiency is not affected by the type of fluid flow through theheat exchanger.
D. It cannot be determined since it is not possible to generate turbulent fluid flow through a heat
exchanger?
5. What should the expansion valve superheat setting be in order to get the bestpossible efficiency from
a refrigerator evaporator?
A. 5 - 10 degrees Celsius
B. 25 - 30 degrees Celsius
C. Minus 18 Celsius
D. 40 - 50degree Celsius
6. What would the results of a TAN test, carried out on lubricating oil samples from a diesel engine,
809
indicate?
A. A measure of the of organic and inorganic acids in the lubricating oil.
B. A measure of the remaining alkalinity in the lubricating oil.
C. A measure of the inorganic acids in the lubricating oil.
D. A measure of the organic acids in the lubricating oil.
810
7. Which ideal heat engine cycle is the vapour-compression refrigeration system basedon?
A. The reversed Carnot cycle.
B. The Rankine cycle.
C. The Dual cycle
D. The Otto cycle.
8. Which of the following terms is used to describe a thermodynamic process in whichno heat transfer
into or out of the system occurs?
A. Adiabatic.
B. Isochoric.
C. Polytropic.
D. Isothermal
9. A vessel is scheduled to enter a SECA during a forthcoming voyage? What additional considerations
must a Chief Engineer take into account when planningfor this voyage?
A. The availability of low sulphur fuel and the change over time required to ensure the system is clear
of normal fuel prior to entryinto the SECA.
B. That all garbage is fully disposed ofprior to entry into the SECA and suitable arrangements are made
for retention while in the SECA.
C. That there is sufficient room in the bilge holding tank to ensure no discharges of machinery space bilges
takes place while the vessel is in the SECA.
D. That the incinerator is shut down for the duration of the time the vessel is inthe SECA.
811
10. A vessel which normally operates with the engine room in UMS mode is unable to do so because of
defects to some of the critical alarm functions. What are the main considerations that the Chief
Engineer must take into account when planning alternative arrangements to cover the engine room
requirements until the defectsare cleared?
A. A work rota is established to ensure full coverage of engine room watchkeeping duties and adequate
rest periods for the engineering staff.
B. A work rota is established to ensure that the necessary repairs can be carried out as soon as possible.
C. A work rota is established to ensure that normal routine maintenance is carried out on time in
accordance with the planned maintenance schedule.
D. A work rota is established to ensure at least one person is in the engine room at all times while the
defects exist.
11. How will continuous low load operation influence the time between overhauls, tbo, for the cylinder
covers and associated valves of a 4-stroke diesel engine?
A. Reduce the time between overhauls due toincreased fouling.
B. No influence at all, the required overhauls areunaffected by operating load.
C. Increase the time between overhauls since theengine is not working as hard.
D. Increase the time between overhauls since fuel injectors work better at low load so combustion will be
improved and the maintenance will be reduced.
812
12. One of the Main Engine cooling pumps is down for maintenance. The rest of the cooling pumps are
operating near full capacity with minimum margins on themaximum temperature limit. What should
be the correct action to take with regard to UMS operation?
A. Operate the engine room on manual mode until the maintenance is completed and the cooling
pump is operational and switched to stand-b
y
mode.
B. Hope that the alarm function and automatic temperature regulation will function correctly and switch
to UMS-mode as normal
C. Arrange frequent checks of the condition during the night otherwise operatein normal UMS-mode
D. Arrange with a rating "on watch" in the engine room for the UMS period.
13. Some new maintenance routines are being planned and a risk assessment is necessary so that the
required procedures can be entered into the ship's Safety Management manual. Which of the following
should be the first step in this risk assessment process ?
A. Identifyhazards
the that may exist which may affect personnel involved with the
maintenance routines.
B. Identify who may be harmed or injured in carryingout the maintenance routines.
C. Identify the safety precautions that may be
necessary to prevent injury or harm to personnel carrying out the routines.
D. Identify how much it will cost to implement the necessary precautions toprevent injury to personnel.
813
14. The critical part of any bunkering operation may be considered to be when topping off the tanks at
which stage the risk of overflow and spillage of fuel oil is greatest. What is the correct safe procedure
to adopt to minimise this risk?
A. Reduce the bunker delivery flow rate and top offthe tanks one at a time.
B. Top off all of the tanks together to reduce the inflowrate into each tank.
C. Shut off each tank as it overflows into the fuel oil overflow tank. Shut off each tank as it overflows into
the fuel oil overflow tank.
D. Watch for oil coming up the sounding pipe and shut the tank valve justbefore it overflows.
15. Fluid is a substance that
A. Cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. Always expands until it fills any container
C. Has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
D. Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
E. Flows.
16. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
A. Pressure
B. Flow
C. Shape
D. Volume
E. Temperature.
814
17. Practical fluids
A. Are viscous
B. Possess surface tension
C. Are compressible
D. Possess all the above properties
E. Possess none of the above properties.
815
18. In a static fluid
A. Resistance to shear stress is small
B. Fluid pressure is zero
C. Linear deformation is small
D. Only normal stresses can exist
E. Viscosity is nil.
19. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
A. Incompressible
B. Inviscous
C. Viscous and incompressible
D. Inviscous and compressible
E. Inviscous and incompressible.
20. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
A. Newton's law of motion
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. Pascal' law
D. Continuity equation
E. Boundary layer theory.
816
21. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as
A. Fluid
B. Water
C. Gas
D. Perfect solid
E. Ideal fluid.
22. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
A. Volumetric strain
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion
E. Cohesion.
817
23. Liquids
A. Cannot be compressed
B. Occupy definite volume
C. Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. Are not viscous
E. None of the above.
24. Density of water is maximum at
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C
E. 20°C.
25. The value of mass density in kgsecvm4 for water at 0°C is
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 101.9
E. 91
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26. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Viscosity
D. Compressibility
E. Surface tension.
27. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity
E. Compressibility.
819
28. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
A. Compressibility
B. Surface tension
C. Cohesion
D. Adhesion
E. Viscosity.
29. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted toeach other is called
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Viscosity
D. Compressibility
E. Surface tension.
30. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"
A. At normal pressure of 760 mm
B. At 4°C temperature
C. At mean sea level
D. All the above
31. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal toA. 1000 N/m3
820
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 x 103 N/m3
D. 9.81 xlo6n/m3
E. 9.81 N/m3.
821
32. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, thenflow is said to be
A. Quasi static
B. Steady state
C. Laminar
D. Uniform
E. Static.
33. Which of the following is demensionless
A. Specific weight
B. Specific volume
C. Specific speed
D. Specific gravity
E. Specific viscosity.
34. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
A. It is incompressible
B. It has uniform viscosity
C. It has zero viscosity
D. It is frictionless
E. It is at rest.
822
35. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when thefluid is
A. Moving
B. Viscous
C. Viscous and static
D. Inviscous and moving
E. Viscous and moving.
823
36. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' atthis place is
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/m sec
D. 9.75 m/sec2
E. 9 m/sec .
37. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
E. Elasticity.
38. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More or less depending on size of glass tube
39. A perfect gas

824
A. Has constant viscosity
B. Has zero viscosity
C. Is in compressible
D. Is of theoretical interest
825
40. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
A. Remains same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Shows erratic behavior
41. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Shear stress
D. Bending stress
E. All of the above.
42. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Higher/lower depending on temperature
E. Unpredictable.
826
43. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
E. Unpredictable.
44. The bulk modulus of elasticity
A. Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
B. Increases with pressure
C. Is large when fluid is more compressible
D. Is independent of pressure and viscosity
E. Is directly proportional to flow.
827
45. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
A. Law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. Principle of buoyancy
D. All of the above
E. Continuity equation.
46. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure andtemperature in kg/cm
is equal to
A. 1000
B. 2100
C. 2700
D. 10,000
E. 21,000.
47. The increase of temperature results in
A. Increase in viscosity of gas
B. Increase in viscosity of liquid
C. Decrease in viscosity of gas
D. Decrease in viscosity of liquid
E. And above.
828
48. Surface tension has the units of
A. Newtons/m
B. Newtons/m
C. Newtons/m
D. Newtons
E. Newton m.
829
49. Surface tension
A. Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. Is also known as capillarity
C. Is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. Decreases with fall in temperature
E. Has no units.
50. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is
A. Linear
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Inverse type
51. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150
kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A. 400 kg/cm2
B. 4000 kg/cm2
C. 40 x 105 kg/cm2
D. 40 x 106 kg/cm2
830
52. The units of viscosity are
A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/metre
C. Newton-sec per metre2
D. Newton-sec per meter
831
53. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
A. Pressure
B. Distance
C. Level
D. Flow
E. Density.
54. Units of surface tension are
A. Energy/unit area
B. Distance
C. Both of the above
D. It has no units
55. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
832
56. Choose the correct relationship
A. Specific gravity = gravity x density
B. Dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
C. Gravity = specific gravity x density
D. Kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
E. Hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
57. Dimensions of surface tension are
A. Mll°T2
B. Mll°Tx
C. Mll r2
D. Mll2t2
E. Mll°t.
833
58. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
A. Higher surface tension
B. Lower surface tension
C. Surface tension is no criterion
D. High density and viscosity
E. Low density and viscosity.
59. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercurywill be following cm of
water
A. 51 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 52 cm
D. 52.2 cm
E. 51.7 cm.
60. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because
A. Its vapour pressure is low
B. It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. Its density is less
D. It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
E. It provides accurate readings.
834
61. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation atcorad/sec, full of liquid
of density p will be
A. Pco2/?2
B. Pco2/?2/2
C. 2pa2r2
D. Pa2r/2
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62. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
A. Surface tension
B. Adhesion
C. Cohesion
D. Viscosity
63. Choose the wrong statement
A. Fluids are capable of flowing
B. Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
C. When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
D. When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
E. Fluids have some degree of comprehensibility and offer little resistance toform.
64. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 20°C
E. All temperature.
65. If w is the specific weight of liquid and h the depth of any point from the surface,then pressure intensity
at that point will be
824
A. H
B. Wh
C. W/h
D. H/w
E. H/wh.
824
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of itsresistance to a shearing force
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
E. Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
67. The units of kinematic viscosity are
A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/metre
C. Newton-sec per metre
D. Newton-sec per metre
68. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
A. Specific viscosity
B. Viscosity index
C. Kinematic viscosity
D. Coefficient of viscosity
E. Coefficient of compressibility.
69. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

825
A. Dynamic viscosity/density
B. Dynamicviscosity x density
C. Density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
E. Same as dynamic viscosity.
826
70. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity
A. Pascal
B. Poise
C. Stoke
D. Faraday
71. A one dimensional flow is one which
A. Is uniform flow
B. Is steady uniform flow
C. Takes place in straight lines
D. Involves zero transverse component of flow
E. Takes place in one dimension.
72. Alcohol is used in manometers because
A. It has low vapour pressure
B. It is clearly visible
C. It has low surface tension
D. It can provide longer column due to low density
E. Is provides suitable meniscus.
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73. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
A. 25 kn/m2
B. 245 kn/m2
C. 2500 kn/m2
D. 2.5kn/m2
E. 12.5 kn/m2.
74. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A. Dissolved air
B. Dissolved salt
C. Suspended matter
D. All of the above
E. Heavy water.
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75. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
A. Specific weight
B. Specific mass
C. Specific gravity
D. Specific density
76. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to forceof
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Friction
D. Cohesion
E. Adhesion.
77. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without
touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
E. Unpredictable.
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78. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity
E. Compressibility.
830
79. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
A. Less
B. More
C. Equal
D. Less at low temperature and more at high temperature
E. There is no such criterion.
80. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid andglass, then the free
level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
A. Higher than the surface of liquid
B. The same as the surface of liquid
C. Lower than the surface of liquid
D. Unpredictable
81. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act
is known as
A. Meta center
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Center of gravity
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82. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 msurface being 0.5 m
below the water level will be
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
E. 4000 kg.
832
83. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight ofthe fluid displaced
by the body. This definition is according to
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes' principle
D. Bernoulli's theorem
E. Metacentric principle.
84. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. Upthrust
B. Buoyancy
C. Center of pressure
D. All the above are correct
E. None of above is correct.
85. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
A. The meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
B. The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the samevertical line
C. A righting couple should be formed
D. All the above are correct
E. None of the above is correct.
833
86. Poise is the unit of
A. Surface tension
B. Capillarity
C. Viscosity
D. Shear stress in fluids
E. Buoyancy.
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87. Metacentric height is given as the distance between
A. The center of gravity of the body and the meta center
B. The center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. The center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. Center of buoyancy and metacentre
88. The buoyancy depends on
A. Mass of liquid displaced
B. Viscosity of the liquid
C. Pressure of the liquid displaced
D. Depth of immersion
89. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body iscalled
A. Meta-center
D. Center of gravity
90. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it
835
volume is under mercury?
A. The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
B. The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just atmercury level
D. Metal piece will sink to the bottom
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91. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
A. The nature of the liquid and the solid
B. The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. Both of die above
D. Any one of the above
E. None of die above.
92. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallestpossible area due to the
A. Force of adhesion
B. Force of cohesion
C. Force of friction
D. Force of diffusion
E. None of die above.
93. Rain drops are spherical because of
A. Viscosity
B. Air resistance
C. Surface tension forces
D. Atmospheric pressure
94. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..

837
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Surface tension
C. Force of adhesion
D. Force of cohesion
E. Viscosity.
838
95. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water isapproximately
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm.
96. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
A. P = Txr
B. P = T/r
C. P = T/2r
D. P = 2T/r
97. If the surface of liquid is convex, mean
A. Cohesion pressure is negligible
B. Cohesion pressure is decreased
C. Cohesion pressure is increased
D. There is no cohesion pressure
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98. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that itis not more than
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
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99. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided
A. At the inlet
B. At the outlet
C. At the summit
D. Ay nay point between inlet and outlet
100. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
A. Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. Zero
101. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between itsdifferent layers is called
A. Surface tension
B. Co-efficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity
D. Osmosis
E. Cohesion.
102. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeablemembrane is called
841
A. Viscosity
B. Osmosis
C. Surface tension
D. Cohesion
E. Diffusivity.
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103. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/meter
C. Newton-sec per meter
D. Newton-sec2 per meter
104. The continuity equation is connected with
A. Viscous/unviscous fluids
B. Compressibility of fluids
C. Conservation of mass
D. Steady/unsteady flow
E. Open channel/pipe flow.
105. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tensionwim increase in sizeof tube will
A. Increase
B. Remain unaffected
C. May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
D. Decrease
E. Unpredictable.
106. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
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A. Boyle's law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal's law
D. Newton's formula
E. Chezy's equation.
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107. Capillary action is due to the
A. Surface tension
B. Cohesion of the liquid
C. Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. All of the above
108. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
A. Shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
B. Shear stress and viscosity
C. Shear stress, velocity and viscosity
D. Pressure, velocity and viscosity
E. Shear stress, pressure and rate of angular distortion.
109. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
A. Linearly
B. First slowly and then steeply
C. First steeply and then gradually
D. Unpredictable
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110. Pressure of the order of 10"' torr can be measured by
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. Micro-manometer
D. Ionisastion gauge
E. Mcleod gauge.
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111. Operation of mcleod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on theprinciple of
A. Gas law
B. Boyle's law
C. Charle's law
D. Pascal's law
E. Mcleod's law.
112. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will becompletely submerged in
a fluid having specific gravity of
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
E. 1.25.
113. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
A. Decreases linearly with elevation
B. Remains constant
C. Varies in the same way as the density
D. Increases exponentially with elevation
E. Unpredictable.
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114. Mercury is often used in barometer because
A. It is the best liquid
B. The height of barometer will be less
C. Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
D. Both B and C
E. It moves easily.
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115. Barometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressure
D. Difference of pressure between two points
E. Rain level.
116. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep
sea
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Hot wire anemometer
D. Rotameter
E. Pilot tube.
117. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Hot wire anemometer
D. Rotameter
E. Pilot tube.
118. Piezometer is used to measure

A. Pressure in pipe, channels etc.
C. Very low pressures
E. Flow.
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119. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application ofBernoulli's theorem
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Nozzle
D. Pilot tube
120. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Density
D. Modulus of elasticity
E. Absolute temperature,
121. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unaffected
D. Unpredictable
122. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

838
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unaffected
D. Unpredictable
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123. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will
A. Sink to bottom
B. Float over fluid
C. Partly immersed
D. Be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
124. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following
A. Inertial force and gravity
B. Viscous force and inertial force
C. Viscous force and buoyancy force
D. Pressure force and inertial force
E. Pressure force and viscous force.
125. Manometer is used to measure
E. Velocity.
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126. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity
A. U-tube with water
B. Inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. Micro-manometer with water
E. Displacement type.
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127. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined byangle 9. Sensitivity
of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
A. Sin 9
B. Sin 9
C. Cas 9
D. Cos 9
E. Tan 9.
128. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
A. Pascal's law
B. Dalton's law of partial pressure
C. Newton's law of viscosity .
D. Avogadro's hypothesis
E. Second law of thermodynamic.
129. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
A. At e.g. Of body
B. At center of pressure
C. Vertically upwards
D. At metacentre
E. Vertically downwards.
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130. Center of pressure compared to e.g. Is
A. Above it
B. Below it.
C. At same point
D. Above or below depending on area of body
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131. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
A. Water surface
C. Center of gravity
D. Center of buoyancy
132. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendencyto uplift the sub-
merged body is called
A. Upthrust
B. Reaction
C. Buoyancy
D. Metacentre
E. Center of pressure.
133. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
A. On the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
B. On the surface at which gravitational force acis
C. At which all hydraulic forces meet
D. Similar to metacentre
E. Where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
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134. Buoyant force is
A. The resultant force acting on a floating body
B. The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
C. Equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
D. The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
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135. The horizontal component of buoyant force is
A. Negligible
B. Same as buoyant force
C. Zero
136. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A. Centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
B. Centre of the volume of floating body
C. Center of gravity of any submerged body
D. Centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
137. Center of buoyancy is the
A. Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. Center of pressure of displaced volume
C. E.g. Of floating 'body
D. Does not exist
138. A body floats in stable equilibrium
A. When its meatcentric height is zero
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B. When the metancentre is above e.g.
C. When its e.g. Is below it's center of buoyancy
D. Metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. For determining stability
139. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water.Its specific gravity
is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
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140. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by theintensity of pressure at
the centriod, if
A. The area is horizontal
B. The area is vertical
C. The area is inclined
D. All of the above
141. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge atwater surface. The
hydrostatic force on square surface is
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
E. 30,000 kg.
142. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 mhigh, when the
water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D. "2.5 m
E. 5.0 m.
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143. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. Gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm",the pressure at a
depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
E. 7 meters of water column.
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144. Metacentre is the point of intersection of
A. Vertical upward force through e.g. Of body and center line of body
B. Buoyant force and the center line of body
C. Mid point between e.g. And center of buoyancy
D. All of the above
A. The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equalto the normal force on the
vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal tothe weight of the volume of
the liquid above the area
D. The vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
E. Center of pressure acts at a greater depth than center of gravity.
146. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
A. Bottom surface of the body
B. E.g. Of the body
C. Metacentre
D. All points on the surface of the body
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A. Any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyantforce

B. (p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
C. The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
D. Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of thedisplaced liquid v

E. Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of the depth offlotation of hydrometer.
851
148. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in afluid will be lifted up
by a force equal to
A. The weight of the body
B. More than the weight of the body
C. Less than the weight of the body
D. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
E. Weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
149. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
A. E.g. Of body
D. Metacentre
E. Liquid surface.
150. Buoyant force is
A. Resultant force acting on a floating body
B. Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. Force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
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151. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
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152. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,at what velocity
should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
E. 250 m/sec.
153. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The modelscale is 1: 225. How
long should it take to empty the prototype ?
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
D. 4 (225)1/3 minutes
E. 4 x V225 minutes.
154. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to
attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 2.5
C. 1 :25
D. 1:V5"
E. 1 : 53/2
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155. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
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156. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
A. Below the center of gravity
B. Below the center of buoyancy
C. Above the center of buoyancy
D. Between e.g. And center of pressure
E. Above the center of gravity.
157. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
A. Meta centre should be above e.g.
B. Centre of buoyancy and e.g. Must lie on same vertical plane
C. A righting couple should be formed
D. All of the above
158. The two important forces for a floating body are
A. Buoyancy, gravity
B. Buoyancy, pressure
C. Buoyancy, inertial
D. Inertial, gravity
E. Gravity, pressure.
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A. The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displacedliquid

B. For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must liedirectly below the center of
buoyancy
C. If e.g. And center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie atneutral equilibrium for all
positions
D. For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. Of body must lie belowthe center of buoyancy
E. All floating bodies are stable.
857
160. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At metacentre
E. At center of pressure.
161. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surfacewill
A. Be horizontal
B. Make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. Make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. Any one of above is possible
162. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
A. Submerged body
B. Volume of the floating body
C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. Displaced volume of the fluid
163. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
858
A. Centre of gravity
B. Centre of pressure
C. Metacentre
D. Centre of buoyancy
E. In between e.g. And centre of pressure.
859
164. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body iscalled
A. Centre of gravity
B. Centre of pressure
C. Metacentre
D. Centre of buoyancy
E. Centroid.
165. Differential monometer is used to measure
E. Velocity in pipes
166. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. Gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1kg/cm". The pressure at
2.5 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 metres of water column
B. 3 metres of water column
C. 3.5 metres of water column
D. 4 m of water column
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167. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
A. Same
B. Higher
C. Lower
D. Lower/higher depending on weight of body
E. Unpredictable.
861
168. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
A. At the centre of gravity
B. Above the centre of gravity
C. Below be centre of gravity
D. Could be above or below e.g. Depend¬ing on density of body and liquid
E. Unpredictable.
169. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid
A. Only when the fluid is frictionless
B. Only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
C. When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. Irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
E. In case of an ideal fluid.
170. Select the correct statement
A. Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
B. Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressurea* sea level
C. Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
D. A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and standard atmosphericpressure

E. Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric pressure plus instrument reading.
171. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in
862
A. Vertical line
B. Horizontal line
C. Inclined line with flow downward
D. Inclined line with upward flow\
E. In any direction and in any location.
863
172. Total pressure on a l m x l m gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below thefree water surface
will be
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
D. 8000 kg
E. 16000 kg.
173. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in gases
B. Liquid discharge
C. Pressure in liquids
D. Gas velocities
E. Temperature.
174. Rotameter is a device used to measure
A. Absolute pressure
B. Velocity of fluid
C. Flow
D. Rotation
E. Velocity of air.
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175. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
A. Orifice plate
B. Venturi
C. Rotameter
D. Pitot tube
E. Nozzle
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176. True one-dimensional flow occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point topoint in the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each
plane
E. Velocity, depth, pressure etc. Change from point to point in the fluid flow.
177. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
A. Pascal law
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. Boundary layer theory
D. Continuity equation
E. Bernoulli's theorem.
178. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
A. Constant
B. Variable
C. Zero
D. Zero under limiting conditions
E. Never zero.
866
179. Non uniform flow occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same atsuccessive periods of time
C. The magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point topoint in the fluid
plane
E. Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. Change from point to point in the fluid flow.
867
180. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
A. Steady
B. Unsteady
C. Uniform
D. Laminar
E. Free vortex type.
181. Uniform flow occurs when
A. The flow is steady
B. The flow is streamline
C. Size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
D. Size and cross section change uniformly along length
E. Flow occurs at constant fate.
182. Gradually varied flow is
A. Steady uniform
B. Non-steady non-uniform
C. Non-steady uniform
D. Steady non-uniform
E. True one-dimensional.
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183. Steady flow occurs when
plane
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184. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
A. One dimensional flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Streamline flow.
185. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do notcross each other is
called
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Streamline flow.
186. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Streamline flow.
870
187. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction atevery point, for any
given instant, is known as
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Streamline flow.
871
188. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Streamline flow.
189. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
A. Steady
B. Unsteady
C. Laminar
D. Vortex
E. Rotational.
190. General energy equation holds for
A. Steady flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Non-uniform flow
872
191. A streamline is defined as the line
A. Parallel to central axis flow
B. Parallel to outer surface of pipe
C. Of equal yelocity in a flow
D. Along which the pressure drop is uniform
E. Which occurs in all flows.
873
192. Two dimensional flow occurs when
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamlinepat-terns are identical in each
plane
193. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6.What fraction of its
volume is under mercury ?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
194. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume underthe liquid. The specific
gravity of wood is
A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
874
195. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water isproportional to
A. Head of water (h)
B. H2
C. V/T
D. H2
E. H3/1.
875
196. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Non-zero and finite
E. Unpredictable.
197. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Non-zero finite
E. Unpredictable.
198. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solidbody is known
as
A. Wake
B. Drag
C. Lift
D. Boundary layer
E. Aerofoil section.
876
199. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
A. Unity
B. Greater than unity
C. Greater than 2
D. Greater than 4
E. Greater than 10.
877
200. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
A. Crest
B. Nappe
C. Sill
D. Weir top
E. Contracta.
201. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
A. Steady flow
B. Unsteady flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Uniform flow
E. Critical flow.
202. Uniform flow occurs when
B. The velocity of successive fluid paiticles, at any point, is the same atsuccessive periods of time
pleasure
878
203. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
A. Pressure
B. Flow
C. Velocity
D. Dsscharge
E. Viscosity.
879
204. Hydrometer is used to determine
A. Specific gravity of liquids
B. Specific gravity of solids
C. Specific gravity of gases
D. Relative humidity
E. Density.
205. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid flowing
in continuous sream
A. Keeps on increasing
B. Keeps on decreasing
C. Remains constant
D. May increase/decrease
E. Unpredictable.
206. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
A. Principle of conservation of mass holds
B. Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. Total energy is constant throughout
D. The energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
880
207. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
A. Is steady
B. Is one dimensional
C. Velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
D. All of the above
881
208. Mach number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and
wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
D. All of fhe above
209. Froude number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces,
and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
210. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of
A. Energy
B. Work
C. Mass
D. Length
E. Time.
882
211. Reynolds number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraftwings, nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and
wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. All of the above
883
212. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
A. Gravity, pressure and viscous
B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent
213. A large Roynold number is indication of
A. Smooth and streamline flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
E. Highly turbulent flow.
214. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 4000
C. More than 4000
D. Less than 4000
884
215. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differentialpressure between
these points must be more than
A. Frictional force
B. Viscosity
C. Surface friction
D. All of the above
885
216. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient iszero, the shear stress
will be
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. Negative value
E. Could be any value.
217. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of waterwill be equal to
A. 1 Pa
B. 91 Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
E. 98,100 Pa.
218. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites aresame
A. Friction loss and flow
B. Length and diameter
C. Flow and length
D. Friction factor and diameter
E. Velocity and diameter.
886
219. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 4000
C. More than 4000
D. Less than 4000
887
220. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
A. Mass
B. Momentum
C. Energy
D. Work
E. Force.
221. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is requiredto lift a weight of
1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
E. 10,000 kg.
222. Cavitation is caused by
A. High velocity
B. High pressure
C. Weak material
D. Low pressure
E. Low viscosity.
223. Cavitation will begin when
888
A. The pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to thesaturated vapour pressure of
the liquid
B. Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. Flow is increased
D. Pressure is increased
889
224. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
A. Comparing two identical equipments
B. Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
D. Hydraulic designs
E. Performing acceptance tests.
225. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, thefollowing in both
cases should also be equal
A. Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
B. Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation,sur-face tension, and elasticity
226. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
A. Kcal/kg m2 °C
B. Kcal-m/hr m2 °C
C. Kcal/hr m2 °C
D. Kcal-m/hr °C
E. Kcal-m/m2 °C.
227. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
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A. J/m2 sec
B. J/m °K sec
C. W/m °K
D. And above
E. And above.
891
228. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. May increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. Unpredictable.
229. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease intemperature

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
E. Unpredictable.
230. Heat transfer takes place as per -
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamic
C. Second law of the thermodynamics
D. Kirchoff's law Stefan's law.
231. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motionof the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
892
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction and convection
E. Convection and radiation.
893
232. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
233. Sensible heat is the heat required to
A. Change vapour into liquid
B. Change liquid into vapour
C. Increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
D. Convert water into steam and superheat it
E. Convert saturated steam into dry steam.
234. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unaffected
D. May increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation
894
235. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Scattering
895
236. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
237. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation
A. Blast furnace
B. Heating of building
C. Cooling of parts in furnace
D. Heat received by a person from fireplace
238. Heat is closely related with
A. Liquids
B. Energy
C. Temperature
D. Entropy
E. Enthalpy.
896
239. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on
A. Face area
B. Time
C. Thickness
D. Temperature difference
E. Thermal conductivity.
240. Metals are good conductors of heat because
A. Their atoms collide frequently
B. Their atoms-are relatively far apart
C. They contain free electrons
D. They have high density
897
241. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer
A. I.C. engine
B. Air preheaters
C. Heating of building in winter
D. All of the above
242. Total heat is the heat required to
A. Change vapour into liquid
B. Change liquid into vapour
C. Increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
D. Convert water into steam and superheat it
E. Convert saturated steam into dry steam.
243. Cork is a good insulator because it has
A. Free electrons
B. Atoms colliding frequency
C. Low density
D. Porous body
898
244. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
245. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order ofA. 0.1

B. 0.23
C. 0.42
D. 0.51
E. 0.64.
899
246. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by
A. Thermometer
B. Radiatiouv pyrometer
C. Thermistor
D. Thermocouple
E. Thermopile.
247. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order ofA. 0.002
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
E. 0.5.
248. The time constant of a thermocouple is
B. The time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
C. The time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
D. Determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
249. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature
900
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
250. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
A. Different heat contents
B. Different specific heat
C. Different atomic structure
D. Different temperatures
901
251. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problemsof
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. All the three combined
E. Conduction and comte_ction.
252. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by
A. Hr (time)
B. Sqm (area)
C. °C (temperature)
D. Cm (thickness)
E. Kcal (heat).
253. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is
A. Directly proportional to the surface area of the body
B. Directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of thebody

C. Dependent upon the material of the body
D. Inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
902
254. Which of the following has least value of conductivity
A. Glass
B. Water
C. Plastic
D. Rubber
E. Air.
903
255. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity
A. Steam
B. Solid ice
C. Melting ice
D. Water
E. Boiling water.
256. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because ofvariation in
A. Composition
B. Density
C. Porosity
D. Structure
257. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the
A. Quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re
maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
B. Quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm square, thickness
1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
C. Heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when atemperature difference of
unity is maintained between opposite faces
D. All of the above
904
258. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity
A. Aluminium
B. Steel
C. Brass
D. Copper
E. Lead.
905
259. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it isprevented by
A. High thickness of insulation
B. High vapour pressure
C. Less thermal conductivity insulator
D. A vapour seal
260. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection andradiation in
A. Electric heater
B. Steam condenser
C. Melting of ice
D. Refrigerator condenser coils
E. Boiler.
261. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange
A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t hightemperature source

B. Heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction,convection and radiation
E. Rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperaturedifference.
262. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having theirthermal conductivities as
atj - 2K2 will be
906
A. I
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 0.25
E. 4.0
907
263. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon
A. Its temperature
B. Nature of the body
C. Kind and extent of its surface
D. All of the above
264. Thermal diffusivity is
A. A dimensionless parameter
B. Function of temperature
C. Used as mathematical model
D. A physical property of the material
E. Useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
265. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .
A. Proportional of thermal conductivity
B. Inversely proportional to k
C. Proportional to (k)
D. Inversely proportional to k2
908
266. Unit of thermal diffusivity is
A. M2/hr
B. M2/hr°C
C. Kcal/m2 hr
D. Kcal/m.hr°C
E. Kcal/m2 hr°C.
267. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
A. Varies with temperature
B. Varies with the wave length of incident ray
C. Varies with both
D. Does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
E. There is no such criterion.
909
268. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on
A. Moisture
B. Density
C. Temperature
D. All of the above
269. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow maybe turbulent, a
laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film
takes place by
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Both convection and conduction
270. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube
A. Equivalent thickness of film
B. Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscocity
C. Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermaldiffusivity

D. Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermalconductivity
910
271. Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick face per unit time whentemperature difference
between opposite faces is unity,is called
A. Thermal resistance
B. Thermal coefficient
C. Temperature gradient
D. Thermal conductivity
E. Heat-transfer.
911
272. If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissivepower changes in
the ratio of
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 27
E. 81.
273. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when p = 0, x = 0and a = 1
A. P=l,x = 0,anda = 0
B. P = 0, T= l,anda = 0
C. X = 0, a + p = 1
D. A = 0,x + p= 1.
274. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along anormal to the
surface, is known as
A. Emissivity
B. Transmissivity
C. Reflectivity
D. Intensity of radiation
E. Absorptivity.
912
275. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Depends upon the shape of body
913
276. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
A. Varies with temperature
B. Varies with wavelength of the incident ray
C. Is equal to its emissivity
D. Does not vary with temperature and. Wavelength of the incident ray
277. Planck's law holds good for
A. Black bodies
B. Polished bodies
C. All coloured bodies
D. All of the above
278. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated
to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to
smaller one will be in the ratio of
A. 1 :1
B. 2: 1
C. 1 : 2
D. 4 : 1
E. 1 : 4.
914
279. A perfect black body is one which
A. Is black in colour
B. Reflects all heat
C. Transmits all heat radiations
D. Abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
E. Fully opaque.
915
280. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heattransfer is

A. Grashoff number
B. Nusselt number
C. Weber number
D. Prandtl number
E. Reynold number.
281. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heatexchanger is
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Depends on the area of heat exchanger
E. Depends on temperature conditions.
282. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference betweentemperatures of

A. Cold water inlet and outlet
B. Hot medium inlet and outlet
C. Hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
D. Hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
283. In counter flow heat exchangers
916
A. Both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where hot fluid enters) are intheir coldest state
B. Both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state
C. Both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
D. One fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
E. Any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.
917
284. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other. Forbest results
A. Better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
B. Inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
C. Both may be put in any order
D. Whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend onsteam temperature
E. Unpredictable.
285. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by
A. Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. A complete separation between hot and cold fluids
C. Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
D. Generation of heat again and again
E. Indirect transfer.
286. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for
A. One dimensional cases only
B. Two dimensional cases only
C. Three dimensional cases only
D. Regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
E. Irregular surfaces.
287. According of Kirchhoff's law,
918
A. Radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
B. Emissive power depends on temperature
C. Emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
D. Ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectlyblack body

E. Ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same andis equal to the emissive power
of a perfectly black body.
919
288. All radiations in a black body are
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Transmitted
D. Absorbed
E. Partly reflected and partly absorbed.
289. According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for allbodies is equal to the
emissive power of a
A. Grey body
B. Brilliant white polished body
C. Red hot body
D. Black body
290. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
920
291. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
A. Kcal/m2
B. Kcal/hr °C
C. Kcal/m2 hr °C
D. (4) kacl/m hr °C
E. Kcal/m3 hr °C.
921
292. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity
A. At all temperatures
B. At one particular temperature
C. When system is under thermal equi-librium
D. At critical temperature
E. For a polished body.
293. Joule sec is the unit of
A. Universal gas constant
B. Kinematic viscosity
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Planck's constant
294. The value of Prandtl number for air is aboutA. 0.1

B. 0.3
C. 0.7
D. 1.7
E. 10.5.
295. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by —
A. Wien's law
922
B. Planck's law
C. Stefan's law
D. Fourier's law
E. Kirchhoff's law.
923
296. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heattransfer will take place
mainly by
A. Convection
B. Free convection
C. Forced convection
D. Radiation
E. Radiation and convection.
297. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flowwill be
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. Depends on other factors
298. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in therange of
A. Shorter wavelength
B. Longer wavelength
C. Remains same at all wavelengths
D. Wavelength has nothing to do with it
924
299. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is
A. Same
B. Higher
C. More or less same
D. Very much lower
E. Very much higher.
925
300. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rateproportional to
A. Absolute temperature
B. Square of temperature
C. Fourth power of absolute temperature
D. Fourth power of temperature
E. Cube of absolute temperature.
301. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature
A. Thermal conductivity
B. Thermal diffusivity
C. Density
D. Dynamic viscosity
E. Kuiematic viscosity.
302. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
A. Watt/cm2 °K
B. Watt/cm4 °K
C. Watt2/cm °K4
D. Watt/cm2 °K4
E. Watt/cm2 °K2.
303. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of

926
A. Grashoff no. And Reynold no.
B. Grashoff no. And Prandtl no.
C. Prandtl no. And Reynold no.
D. Grashoff no., Prandtl no. And Reynold no.
927
304. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction and radiation combined
E. Convection and radiation combined.
305. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally
A. More than those for liquids
B. Less than those for liquids
C. More than those for solids
D. Dependent on the viscosity
E. Same as for the liquids.
306. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally
A. Less than those for gases
B. Jess than those for liquids
C. More than those for liquids and gases
D. More or less same as for liquids and gases
E. Zerci.
928
307. The emissive power of a body depends upon its
A. Temperature
B. Wave length
C. Physical nature
D. All of the above
308. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
A. Directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity
B. Inversely proportional to density of substance
C. Inversely proportional to specific heat
D. All of the above
929
309. The amount of radiation mainly depends on
A. Nature of body
B. Temperature of body
C. Type of surface of body
D. All of the above
310. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same andis equal to the
emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as
A. Krichoff's law
B. Stefan's law
C. Wien' law
D. Planck's law
E. Black body law.
311. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
proportional to
A. Absolute temperature
B. T2
C. T5
D. T
E. L/T.
930
312. According to Wien's law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy isproportion to
A. Absolute temperature (T)
B. I2
C. F
D. T
E. 1/r.
931
313. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when
A. P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. P=l,T = 0 anda = 0
C. P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. X = 0, a + p = 1
E. A = 0, x + p = 1.
Where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
314. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when
A. P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. P= l,T = 0anda = 0
C. P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. X = 0, a + p = 0
E. A = 0,x + p= 1.
Where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
315. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when
A. P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. P=l,x = 0anda = 0
C. P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. X - 0, a + p = 1
E. A=0,x + p= 1.
932
Where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
316. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by ablack body per
unit
A. Temperature
B. Thickness
C. Area
D. Time
E. Area and time.
933
317. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
A. Absorptive power
B. Emissive power
C. Absorptivity
D. Emissivity
318. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected back. If
the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
A. 0.45
B. 0.55
C. 0.40
D. 0.75
E. 0.60.
319. A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are
balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
A. 60 N
B. 80 N
C. 100 N
D. 120 N
934
320. If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then theangle between
the two forces is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 120°
935
321. A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm
respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point atwhich the rod will balance is
A. 109.5 mm from A
B. 119.5 mm from A
C. 125.5 mm from A
D. 132.5 mm from A
322. The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximumrespectively are
A. 0° and 90°
B. 180° and 90°
C. 90° and 180°
D. 180° and 0°
323. When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be
A. P
B. PV2
C. P/V2
D. 2P
324. The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant isperpendicular to P. Then,
A. P = R
B. Q = R
936
C. P = Q
D. None of the above is correct
937
325. Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities.
Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about itscentral axis ?
A. Disc with larger density
B. Disc with smaller density
C. Both discs will have same rotational inertia
D. None of the above
326. In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required fordetermining the forces in
all the members of the truss by graphic statics ?
A. Howe truss
B. King post truss
C. Fink truss
D. Warren truss
327. For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium
A. Only the closure of force polygon is sufficient
B. Only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
C. Both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
328. If a set of given forces are such that their free vectors build a closed polygon, then
A. The resultant force and resultant couple are always zero
938
B. The resultant force is zero but resultant couple is not zero
C. The resultant force is zero but resultant couple may not be zero
D. The resultant force and resultant couple both may not be zero
329. Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in
A. Trusses only
B. Beam only
C. Rigid frames only
D. Any type of structure
939
330. A cube on a smooth horizontal surface
A. Cannot be in stable equilibrium
B. Cannot be in neutral equilibrium
C. Cannot be in unstable equilibrium
D. Can be in any of these states
331. The following is in unstable equilibrium
A. A uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane
B. A uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
C. A solid cube resting on one edge
D. A satellite encircling the earth
332. A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the surface.Which of the faces
gives maximum stable block ?
A. 1 m x 2 m
B. 2 m x 3 m
C. 1 m x 3m
D. Equally stable on all faces
333. A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on thesurface. Which is
more stable ?
A. Pyramid
940
B. Prism
C. Both equally stable
334. Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of
A. Stable equilibrium
B. Unstable equilibrium
C. Neutral equilibrium
D. All of the above
941
335. A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force
A. Can raise the CG of the body but can not lower it
B. Tends to lower the CG of the body
C. Neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
D. None of above
336. Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium ?
A. A cube resting on one edge
B. A smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
C. A smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
337. The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a
A. Triangle
B. Open polygon
C. Closed polygon
D. Parallelogram
338. The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in theirplane is called
A. Vector diagram
B. Space diagram
942
C. Force diagram
D. Funicular diagram
339. If two forces are in equilibrium, then the forces must
I) be equal in magnitude Ii) be opposite in sense Iii) act along the same line The correct answer is
A. (i)and (ii)
B. (i)and (iii)
C. Only (i)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
943
340. The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based on
A. Method of joint
B. Method of section
C. Either method
D. None of the two methods
341. The bending moment in an arch is proportional to
A. Vertical ordinate of funicular polygon
B. Vertical ordinate of the arch
C. Intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
D. None of these
342. The member forces in a statically in determinate truss
A. Can be obtained by graphic statics
B. Cannot be obtained by graphic statics
C. May be obtained by graphic statics
D. Can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
343. An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents
A. Shear force
B. Resultant force
C. Bending moment
944
D. Equilibrium
344. The pole distance is measured in
A. Distance scale
B. Force scale
C. Mass scale
D. Time scale
945
345. The number of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through twospecified points in the
space diagram are
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity
346. A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through
A. One specified point
B. Two specified points
C. Three specified points
D. More than three specified points
347. If the given forces P,, P2, P3 and P4 are such that the force polygon does not close, then the system
will
A. Be in equilibrium
B. Always reduce to a resultant force
C. Always reduce to a couple
D. Both (c) and (a)
348. The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is
A. That polygon of forces must close
946
B. That resultant couple must be zero
C. Both A and B
349. The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linearvelocity 8 m/sec and
angular velocity 5 radian/sec is
A. 64 J
B. 400 J
C. 464 J
D. 89 J
947
350. A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2 revolutions/see. The angular momentum of the body
in kg-m2/sec is
A. 4
B. 6 7i
C. 8TC
D. 8
351. The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at 36 km/hour, is
A. 0.1 radian/sec
B. 1.0 radian/sec
C. 100 radian/sec
D. 1000 radian/sec
352. The torque produced by a force depends on
I) the magnitude of the forceIi) the direction of the force

Iii) the'point of application of the force relative to origin The correct answer is
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Both (i) and (iii)
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
948
353. The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is
A. Less than 1
B. Equal to 1
C. Between 1 and 2
D. Greater than 2
949
354. A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and rolldown the same inclined
plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
A. Sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
B. Sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
C. Cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
D. Both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy atbottom
355. Force polygon method is applicable for
A. Any copianar force system
B. A system of parallel forces only
C. Concurrent copianar force system
D. Non-concurrent copianar force system
356. A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre of mass has
a speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to stop the hoop is
A. 2 J
B. 4 J
C. 6 J
D. 8 J
357. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane withoutslipping. The acceleration
of center of mass of rolling cylinder is
A. (1/3) g sinb
950
B. (2/3) g cos 9
C. (2/3) g sin 0
D. G sin 9
Where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity and 0 is inclination of plane withhorizontal.
951
358. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0 with the horizontal. The
acceleration of sphere is
A. (1/3) g sin0
B. (2/5) g sin 0
C. (3/7) g sin 0
D. (5/7) g sin0
Where g is acceleration due to gravity
359. A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient of staticfriction between
plane and cylinder is
A. Less than (1/3) tan 0
B. Less than (2/3) tan 0
C. Less than (1/3) sin 6
D. Less than (2/3) sin 6
360. Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to
A. Force
B. Torque
C. Linear momentum
D. Impulse
361. If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 - 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. Is
952
A. 1 rad/sec2
B. 4 rad/sec2
C. 6 rad/sec2
D. 12 rad/sec2
362. A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of samemass and radius as the
disc and to have the same angular momentum is
A. N rpm
B. N/2 rpm
C. N/4 rpm
D. 2n rpm
953
363. A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6t2 - t3 where t is
expressed in seconds and x in meters. The maximum velocity during the motion is
A. 6 m/sec
B. 12 m/sec
C. 24 m/sec
D. 48 m/sec
364. A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m" is acted upon by a tangential force of 5N at 2 m from its
axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian persecond is
A. 1/2
B. 3/2 '
C. 2
D. 3
365. A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on ahorizontal surface
so that its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is
A. 50 J
B. 150 J
C. 200 J
D. 400 J
366. When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode andspace centrode
respectively are
954
A. Straight line and parabola
B. Straight line and circle
C. Circle and straight line
D. Circle and parabola
955
A. The body centrode rolls on the space centrode.
B. The space centrode rolls on the body centrode.
C. Both body and space centrodes may role on each other.
D. The body centrode never touches space centrode.
368. At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Varying
369. Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is
A. Constant
B. Zero
C. Maximum
D. Minimum
370. A system of copianar forces is in equilibrium when
A. Force polygon closes
B. Funicular polygon closes
956
C. Both force polygon" and funicular polygon close
D. All the forces are concurrent
371. A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with thehorizontal floor. Where will
be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping ?
I) 1.0 in from the wall Ii) 1.732 m from the wallIii) 1.0 m above the floor
Iv) 1.732 m above the floor The correct answer is
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
957
D. (ii) and (iv)
372. For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle ofprojection is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 0°
373. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of aprojectile are equal
to
A. 36°
B. 45°
C. 56°
D. 76°
374. The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with avelocity of 98 m/sec is
A. 98 m
B. 490 m
C. 980 m
D. 1960 m
375. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returnsto the ground in
958
A. 5 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 10 sec
D. 20 sec
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376. A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle ofprojection is a and the time
of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/5
Assume g = 10 m/sec2
377. If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then the
range of projectile on the inclined plane is
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Unpredictable
378. If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its
horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are
A. 0 and 5 m/sec
B. 5 m/sec and 0
C. 5 V3 m/sec and 0
D. 5 and 5V3 m/sec
379. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of aprojectile are equal
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to
A. 45°
B. Tan-1 (2)
C. Tan-' (4)
D. Tan"1 (1/4)
961
380. A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must the
stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection ?
A. 15°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 75°
381. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise aload of 6 kn. The
velocity ratio of the machine is
A. 30
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
382. Free body diagram is an
A. Isolated joint with only body forces acting on it
B. Isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
C. Isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
383. A system of copianar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to
A. One force only
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B. One couple only
C. One force and one couple only
384. In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always
A. Stable
B. Unstable
C. Neutral
963
385. If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the totalenergy E of the
particle is
A. Proportional to A
B. Proportional to A2
C. Proportional to 1/A2
D. Independent of A
386. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on
I) mass of suspended particle

II) Lenght of the pendulum
III) Acceleration due to gravityThe correct answer is ?
A. Only (i)
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
D. All are correct
387. A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz andamplitude 0.25 m.
Its maximum kinetic energy is
A. 4.5 J
B. 9.0 J
C. 12.0 J
D. 18.0 J
388. The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds to
A. Zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy
B. Zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
C. Maximum kinetic energy and maxi-mum potential energy
D. Minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy

901
389. It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the
frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V, then V must be proportional to
A. F
B. 1/f
C. 1/f2
D. F2
390. A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If itsamplitude is increased
to 2 A, the energy becomes
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
391. If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both
equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equalto
A. A
B. A/2
C. A/V2
D. AV2
392. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, ata displacement
equal to half its amplitude is given by
902
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
903
393. A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If thelength of pendulum is
doubled, the energy will be
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
394. Time period and length of a seconds pendulum respectively are
A. 1 sec and 99.4 cm
B. 1 sec and 92.7 cm
C. 2 sec and 99.4 cm
D. 2 sec and 92.7 cm
395. One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end is
attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity.The particle is pulled down vertically
through a distance x, held at rest and then released.The motion is
A. A simple harmonic motion
B. A rectilinear motion with constant speed
C. A damped oscillatory motion
396. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete
vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
904
A. 1.0 m/sec
B. 1.57 m/sec
C. 3.14 m/sec
D. 6.28 m/sec
905
397. The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through theearth (assumed
homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
A. Log r
B. R
C. R2
D. 1/r
Where r is the distance of'the particle from centre of the earth
398. Joule is the unit of
A. Power
B. Impulse
C. Work
D. Momentum
399. One Newton is equivalent to
A. 105 dyne
B. 106 dyne.
C. 107 dyne
D. 981 dyne
400. A quantity whose dimensions are M2L2 T3 could be the product of
A. Force and pressure

906
B. Mass and power
C. Energy and velocity
D. Force and velocity
401. The dimensions of Gravitational Universal constant 'G' are
A. M-'L2r2
B. M-'L3r2
C. M-2L3T2
D. M'L3T2
907
402. If y is force and x is velocity, then dimensions of = r are dx2
A. M'^T'
B. M'L-'T0
C. M'L-'T1
D. M2L'T3
403. One Joule is equivalent to
A. 9.81 Newton - metre
B. 1 Newton - metre
C. 1 kg wt - metre
D. 1 dyne – metre
404. The dimensions of centrifugal force are
A. M1 L2 T2
B. M'L'T1
C. M'L'T2
D. M'L-'T2
405. A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M"2L3 T3/2.What numerical factor
would be required to convert the quantity to SI units ?
A. 1
B. 100
908
C. 1/100
D. 1/10000
406. The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is
A. Cm4
B. Kg-cm2
C. Gm-cm2
D. Gm-cm3
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407. The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute system is
A. 1
B. G
C. 1/g
Where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity
408. In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively
A. Newton and watt
B. Dyne and erg
C. Newton and joule
D. Kg-wt and joule
409. The dimensions of power are.
A. M'L2T2
B. M'L'T3
C. M'L'r2
D. M'L-'T*
410. Impulse can be obtained from a
A. Force-displacement diagram
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B. Force-time diagram
C. Velocity-time diagram
D. Velocity-displacement diagram
411. One Newton is equivalent to
A. 1 kg-wt
B. 9.81 kg-wt
C. 981 dyne
D. 1/9.81 kg-wt
911
412. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A. Energy
B. Momentum
C. Torque
D. Impulse
413. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be inequilibrium if
A. Floor is smooth and wall is rough
B. Floor is rough and wall is rough
C. Both floor and wall are rough
D. Both floor and wall are smooth
414. The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hr will be
A. 0.1 Rad/sec
B. 1 Rad/sec
C. 10 rad/sec
D. 100 rad/sec
415. A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of l km/sec. Its kinetic energy isI) 5000 N.m
Ii) 5000 kg.m
Iii) 5000 J The correct answer is
A. Only (ii)
912
B. Both (i) and (iii)
C. Both (ii) and (iii)
913
416. A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5 seconds
another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones strike the ground
at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown should be (Assume g = 10
m/sec2)
A. 15 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
417. The condilion for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be
A. Less than 50%
B. More than 50%
C. More than 66.67%
D. Equal to 100%
418. A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of friction 'A . It is subjected to a force
Fj at one end and a gradually increasing force F2 is applied at the other end till the rope just starts slip-
ping. At this instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is
A. 1
B. E2*
C. E4*
D. E*72
914
419. A ladder of weight 'w' rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal ground, the
coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of inclination
of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight 'w' is to walk to the top of it safely, is tan'1 x, where x is
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 3
D. 4
915
420. If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than theangle of friction, then
I) a force is required to move the body upwards
II) a force is required to move the body downward
IV) The body will not be in equilibriumThe correct answer is ?
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. Both (i) and (iii)
421. Intrinisic equation of catenary is given by
A. S = C tan q>
B. S = C cos cp
C. S = C sin cp
D. S = C cot <p
Where C is some constant.
422. The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is
A. Circular
B. Parabolic
C. Catenary
D. Cubic parabola
423. Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is
A. Y = c cosh x/c
B. Y = c sinh x/c
C. Y = c tan x/c
D. Y = c sin"1 x/c
909
424. A cable loaded with 10 kn/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line 100
m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable respectively are
A. 1346.3 kn and 1500 kn
B. 1436.2 kn and 1250 kn
C. 1346.3 kn and 1250 kn
D. 1436.2 kn and 1500 kn
425. Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to
A. Horizontal thrust
B. Support reactions
C. Resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
D. Half the weight of the cable
426. A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. Thepoints of suspension
on the rope lie on a
A. Parabola
B. Catenary
C. Cycloid
D. Ellipse
427. The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supportedat two ends which
are at the same level, is at
A. Supports
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B. Quarter span
C. Mid span
428. Coefficient of friction depends on
A. Nature of surfaces only
B. Area of contact only
C. Both (b) and (d)
911
429. A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution
between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic energy
lost is
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/9
D. 8/9
430. In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kn is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kn moving through
15 m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are respectively
A. 50 and 75
B. 75 and 50
C. 75 and 75
D. 50 and 50
431. A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of restitution
with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the floor is
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.75 m
C. 1.0 m
D. 1.5 m
432. A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it rebounds to a height of 9 m after
912
striking the floor, the coefficient of restitution between ball and floor is
A. 1/4
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 4/3
913
433. Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively,
towards each other along the line of their centers. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This can
happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is
A. 2/3
B. 1/5
C. 3/5
D. 1/3
434. Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards each
other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction.The speeds of the objects are
A. 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec
B. 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
C. 3 m/sec and 3 m/sec
D. 4 m/sec and 6 m/sec
435. When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the body is givenby
A. G
B. Gsing
C. G cos 6
D. G tan 6
Where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity and 9 is the angle of inclination of surfacewith the horizontal.
436. A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body isprojected vertically
914
upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will
A. Never meet
B. Meet after 1 sec
C. Meet after 5 sec
D. Meet after 10 sec
915
437. A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of
mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass dropsvertically downward with initial velocity
of 100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins totravel at an angle to the horizontal of tan"1 x, where x is
A. 3/4
B. 4/5
C. 5/3
D. 3/5
438. A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the road
must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan"1 x, where x is (Assume g = 10
m/sec2)
A. 3/8
B. 1/2
C. 9/5
D. 5/8
439. A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an
explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in the
same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be
A. 20 m/sec
B. 30 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
916
440. If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds, then itsangular acceleration is
A. —rad/sec 10
B. —rad/sec 20
C. —rad/sec 30
917
441. Ductility of a material can be defined as
A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. Ability to recover its original form
C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. All of the above
442. Malleability of a material can be defined as
A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. Ability to recover its original form
C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. All of the above
443. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
A. By forming a bulge (l>) by shearing along oblique plane
B. In direction perpendicular to application of load
C. By crushing into thousands of pieces
D. None of the above.
444. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as
918
A. Creep
B. Hot tempering
C. Hot hardness
D. Fatigue
E. Superhardening.
445. Mild steel belongs to the following category
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Alloy steel
E. Special steel.
919
446. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain ratewill
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain constant
D. First increase and then decrease
E. First decrease and then increase.
447. Slow plastic defomiation of metals under a constant stress is known as
A. Creep
B. Fatigue
C. Endurance
D. Plastic deformation
E. Non-plastic deformation.
448. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, whentemperature falls from
0 to l00°C will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. First increase and then decrease
E. Show unpredictable behaviour.
920
449. The number of electrons in 1 cm3 of metal would be of the order ofA. 1010
B. TO16
C. 1022
D. 1040
E. 1052
921
450. Stress relaxation is- the phenomenon
A. In which parts are not loaded
B. In which stress remains constant on in-creasing load
C. In which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced
D. Stress reduces on increasing load
451. The elastic stress strain behaviour of rubber is
A. Linear
B. Non-linear
C. Plastic
D. No fixed relationship
E. Unpredictable behaviour.
452. Isotropic materials are those which have the same
A. Elastic properties in all directions
B. Stresses induced in all directions
C. Thermal properties in all directions
D. Electric and magnetic properties in all directions
E. Density throughout.
922
453. Recrystallization temperature is one
A. At which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled
B. At which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the olddeformed one when a strained metal
is heated
C. At which change of allotropic form takes place
D. At which crystals grow bigger in size
E. At which crystals are destroyed on heating.
923
454. Points of arrest for iron correspond to
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time
C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
D. There is nothing like points of arrest
455. Delta iron occurs at temperature of
A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. Between 910°C and 1400°C
456. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it
A. Has a fixed structure under all conditions
B. Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
C. Responds to heat treatment
D. Has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
924
457. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of
A. Below 10°K
B. Above 100°K
C. Around 0°C
D. Around 100°C
E. Above 1000°C.
458. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong
A. Austenite
B. Pearlite
C. Ferrite
D. Cementlte
E. Bainite.
925
459. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron
A. Alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
B. Alpha iron and beta iron
C. Body centred cubic a-iron and face centred cubic a-iron
D. Alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
460. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile
A. Face-centred cubic lattice
B. Body-centred cubic lattice
C. Hexagonal close-packed lattice
D. All of the above
461. Pure iron is the structure of
A. Ferrite
B. Pearlite
C. Anstenite
D. Ferrite and cementite
E. Ferrite and pearlite.
926
462. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagneticalpha iron is
A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1050°C
D. Below recrystallisation temperature
E. Above recrystallization temperature.
927
463. Gamma iron exits at following temperature
A. Room temperature
B. Near melting point
C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. Between 910°C and 1400°C
464. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of
A. Below 723°C
B. 770 - 910°C
C. 910-1440°C
D. 1400-1539°C
E. Above 1539°C.
465. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron atA. 770°C

B. 910°C
C. 1440°C
D. 1539°C
466. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change inthe properties is
known as
928
A. Molecular change
B. Physical change
C. Allotropic change
D. Solidus change
E. Atomic change.
929
467. The molecules in a solid move
A. In a random manner
B. In a haphazard way
C. In circular motion
D. Back and forth like tiny pendulums
E. Do not move.
468. The crystal structure of gamma iron is
A. Body centred cubic
B. Face centred cubic
C. Hexagonal close packed
D. Cubic structure
E. Orthorhombic crystal.
469. The crystal of alpha iron is
D. Cubic structure
930
470. The metallic structure of mild steel is
D. Cubic structure
471. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
A. The points where no further change oc-curs
B. Constant for all metals
C. The points where there is no further flow of metal
D. The points of discontinuity
E. The points where major changes take place.
931
472. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies fromA. 0.1 to 1.2%
B. 1.5 to 2.5%
C. 2.5 to 4%
D. 4 to 4.5%
E. 4.5 to 6.3%.
473. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies betweenA. 0.5 to 1%
B. 1 - 2%
C. 2.5 to 4.5%
D. 5 - 7%
E. 7-9%.
474. Pig iron is the name given to
A. Raw material for blast furnace
B. Product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
C. Iron containing huge quantities of carbon
D. Iron in molten form in the ladles
E. Iron scrap.
475. The unique property of cast iron is its high
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
932
C. Surface finish
D. Damping characteristics
E. Hardness.
476. Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following %age of carbonA. 0.2%

B. 0.8%
C. 1.3%
D. 2%
E. 6.3%.
933
477. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Spheroids
E. Nodular aggregates of graphite.
478. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Spheroids
479. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Spheroids
934
480. Wrought iron is
A. Hard
B. High in strength
C. Highly resistant to corrosion
D. Heat treated to change its properties
E. Least resistant to corrosion.
481. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it
A. Hard'
B. Soft
C. Ductile
D. Tough
E. Malleable.
935
482. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron
A. It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
B. It melts at 1535°C
C. It is very soft and ductile
D. It can be easily forge welded
E. It is made by adding suitable percent¬age of carbon to molten iron andsubjecting the product to
repeated hammering and rolling.
483. Iron is
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Ferroelectric
D. Dielectric
484. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding changein the properties
is known as
A. Allotropic change
B. Recrystallisation
C. Heat treatment
D. Precipitation
E. Austempering.
485. Chilled cast iron has

936
A. No graphite
B. A very high percentage of graphite
C. A low percentage of graphite
D. Graphite as its basic constituent of composition
E. None of the above is true.
937
486. Cast iron has
A. High tensile strength
B. Its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
C. High ductility
D. All of the above
487. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of
A. Free carbon
B. Graphite
C. Cementite
D. White carbon
E. Ferrite.
488. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in
A. Free form
B. Combined form
C. Nodular form
D. Flat form
E. Partly in free and partly in combined state.
938
489. An important property of high silicon (12 - 18%) cast iron is the high
A. Tenacity
B. Brittleness
C. Plasticity
D. Corrosion resistance
E. Hardness.
939
490. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is thehigh
A. Compressive strength
B. Ductility
C. Carbon content
D. Hardness
E. Surface finish.
491. Steel contains
A. 80% or more iron
B. 50% or more iron
C. Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
D. Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities
E. High quantities of sulphur.
492. Carbon steel is
A. Made by adding carbon in steel
B. Refined from cast iron
C. An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus andsulphur

D. Extensively used for making cutting tools
E. Extremely brittle.
493. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

940
A. Malleable iron
B. Nodular iron
C. Spheroidal iron
D. Grey iron
941
494. 'Killed steels' are those steels
A. Which are destroyed by burning
B. Which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
C. Which are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
D. In which carbon is completely burnt
E. Which have poor properties due to improper manufacturing.
495. Hardness of steel depends on
A. Amount of carbon it contains
B. The shape and distribution of the car-bides in iron
C. Method of fabrication
D. Contents of alloying elements
E. The quality of ore from which it is made.
496. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is
A. 0.025%
B. 0.06%
C. 0.1%
D. 0.25%
E. 0.8%.
942
497. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite isA. 0.025%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.25%
E. 1.7%.
498. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of
A. Chromium and nickel
B. Sulphur, phosphorus, lead
C. Vanadium, aluminium
D. Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
E. Zinc.
943
499. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important
A. Flywheel of steam engine
B. Cast iron pipes"
C. Cycle chains
D. Gas turbine blades
E. Piston I.C. engine.
500. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is
A. Carbon
B. Vanadium
C. Manganese
D. Cobalt
E. Copper.
501. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Tungsten
D. Vanadium
E. Ell of the above.
944
502. Railway rails are normally made of
A. Mild steel
B. Alloy steel
C. High carbon
D. Tungsten steel
E. Cast iron steel.
945
A. Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
B. Manganese in steel induces hardness
C. Nickel and chromium in steel help in raising the elastic limit and improvethe resilience and ductility
D. Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability
E. Sulphur, phosphorous and lead im¬prove machining properties of steel.
504. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
A. Providing corrosion resistance
B. Improving machining properties
C. Providing high strength at elevated temperatures
D. Raising the elastic limit
E. Improving the resilience and ductility.
505. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding
A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorous
B. Silicon, aluminium, titanium
C. Vanadium, aluminium
D. Chromium, nickel
E. Lubricants.
506. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbonA. 0.02%

946
B. 0.3%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.8%
E. 1.2%.
947
507. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are
A. Aluminium, copper etc.
B. Nickel, molybdenum etc.
C. Nickel, copper, etc.
D. All of the above
508. Basic constituents of Monel metal are
A. Nickel, copper
B. Nickel, molybdenum
C. Zinc, tin, lead
D. Nickel, lead and tin
509. German silver is an alloy of
A. Silver and some impurities
B. Refined silver
C. Nickel, copper and zinc
D. Nickel and copper
E. Silver and gold.
948
510. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion andenough strength. The
alloy used is
A. Silver metal
B. Duralumin
C. Hastelloy
D. Monel metal
E. Invar.
949
511. A cold chisel is made of
A. Mild steel
B. Cast iron
C. H.S.S.
D. High carbon
E. German silver.
512. An engineer's hammer is made of
A. Cast iron
B. Forged steel
C. Mild steel
D. High carbon steel
E. H.S.S.
513. Inconel is an alloy of
A. Nickel, chromium and iron
B. Nickel, copper
C. Nickel, chromium
D. Nickel, zinc
E. Nickel, lead.
950
514. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes
A. Ductile
B. Malleable
C. Homogeneous
D. Isotropic
E. Anisotropic.
515. Solder is an alloy consisting of
A. Tin, antimony, copper
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and lead
D. Lead and zinc
E. Lead and copper.
951
516. Cyaniding is the process of
A. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase itssurface hardness
D. Obtaining cyanide salts
E. Making corrosion resistant steel.
517. Induction hardening is the process of
A. Hardening surface of workpiece to ob-tain hard and wear resistant surface
B. Heating and cooling rapidly
C. Increasing hardness throughout
D. Inducing hardness by continuous process
E. Hardening core.
518. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tensiondue to overloading
is known as
A. Hysteresis
B. Creep
C. Visco elasticity
D. Boeschinger effect
E. Inelasticity.
952
519. Process of austempering results in
A. Formation of bainite structure
B. Carburised structure
C. Martenistic structure
D. Lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
E. Relieving of stresses throughout a component.
953
520. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation
A. 600 VPN
B. 1500 VPN
C. 1000 to 1100 VPN
D. 250 VPN
E. 2000 VPN.
521. Hardness of martensite is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
E. RC 32.
522. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with
A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Non-ferrous materials
D. Wrought iron
E. Stainless steel.
954
523. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
A. Hot working
B. Tempering
C. Normalising
D. Annealing
E. Special heat treatment.
524. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
E. RC 32.
955
525. Carbon in iron is an example of
A. Substitutional solution
B. Interstitial solid solution
C. Intermetallic compounds
D. All of the above
526. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of
A. Substitutional solid solution
B. Interstitial solid solution
C. Intermetallic compounds
D. All of the above
527. Which is false statement about annealingannealing is done to
A. Relieve stresses
B. Harden steel slightly
C. Improve machining characteristic
D. Soften material
E. Permit further cold working.
956
528. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for
A. Aluminium
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Lead
E. Silver.
529. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
E. RC 32.
957
530. Which is false statement about normalizing. Normalizing is done to
A. Refine grain structure
B. Reduce segregation in casting
C. Improve mechanical properties
D. Induce stresses-
E. Relieve internal stresses.
531. Vanadium in high speed steels
A. Promotes decarburisation
B. Provides high hot hardness
C. Forms very hard carbides and thus in-creases wear resistance
D. Promotes retention of austenite
E. Increases toughness.
532. Amorphous material is one
A. In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
B. In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in arandom pattern just as in a liquid
C. Which is not attacked by phosphorous
D. Which emits fumes on melting
533. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

958
A. Point defect
B. Line defect
C. Plane defect
D. Volumetric defect
E. Chemical defect.
959
534. An example of amorphous material is
A. Zinc
B. Lead
C. Silver
D. Glass
E. Brass.
535. Which is false statement about temperingtempering is done to
A. Improve machinability
B. Improve ductility
C. Improve toughness
D. Release stresses
E. Reduce hardness and brittleness.
536. Which is false statement about case hardening. Case hardening is done by
A. Electroplating
B. Cyaniding
C. Induction hardening
D. Nitriding
E. Flame hardening.
960
537. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides
A. Cobalt
B. Nickel
C. Vanadium
D. Iron
E. Carbon.
961
538. Chromium in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improvescorrosion and heat resistant
properties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
E. Makes steel hard.
539. Manganese in steel increases its
A. Tensile strength
B. Hardness
C. Ductility
D. Fluidity
E. Malleability.
540. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. Aluminium
D. Steel
E. Non-ferrous alloys.
962
541. Sulphur in steel
A. Acts as deoxidiser
B. Reduces the grain size
C. Decreases tensile strength and hardness
D. Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
E. Increases hardness.
963
542. Tungsten in steel
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation,improves corrosion and heat resistant
properties
E. Raises its melting point.
543. Tungsten in high speed steel provides
A. Hot hardness
B. Toughness
C. Wear resistance
D. Sharp cutting edge
E. Cold hardness.
544. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit
A. Shot peening
B. Nitriding of surface
C. Cold working
D. Surface decarburisation
E. Under-stressing.
545. Connecting rod is usually made of
964
A. Aluminium
B. Low carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. High carbon steel
E. Cast iron.
546. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant
A. Brass
B. Mild steel
C. Cast iron
D. Wrought iron
E. Copper.
965
547. Tensile strength of steel can be safely in-creased by
A. Adding carbon up to 2.8%
B. Adding carbon up to 6.3%
C. Adding carbon up to 0.83%
D. Adding small quantities of copper
E. Adding copper and carbon.
548. High carbon steel carries carbon %age cA. 0.1 to 0.3%
B. 0.3 to 0.6%
C 0.6 to 0.8% D 0.8 to 1.5% E 1.5 to 2.5%.
549. Cobalt in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cuttinability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces les tendency to carburisation, improvecorrosion and heat resistant
proper ties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property:
550. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel isA. 0.05%

B. 0.15%
C. 0.3%
D. 0.5%
E. 0.7%.
966
551. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
A. Austenite
B. Martensite
C. Pearlite
D. Cementite
967
552. Grey cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slowcooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron am is obtained by cooling rapidly. It i:almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machinec metal
D. Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in nodular or spheroida
form and is well dispersed throughoutthe material
E. None of the above is true.
553. Nodular iron has
A. High maehinability
B. Low melting point
C. High tensile strength
D. Good fluidity
554. Nickel in steel
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improvescorrosion and heat resistant
proper¬ties
968
555. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel
A. Copper
B. Chromium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon
969
556. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes
A. It easily machinable
B. It brittle
C. It hard
D. The casting unsound
E. Increases the fluidity.
557. Melting point of iron is
A. 1539°C
B. 1601°C
C. 1489°C
D. 1712°C
E. 1131°C.
558. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order ofA. 3- 5
B. 5-7
C. 7-10
D. 10-15
E. 15-22.
559. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore
A. Cast iron
970
B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable iron
E. White iron.
560. Cupola produces following material
A. Cast iron
B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable iron
E. White iron.
971
561. The machinability of steel is increased by
A. Silicon and sulphur
B. Phosphorous, lead and sulphur
C. Sulphur, graphite and aluminium
D. Phosphorous and aluminium
562. The following element can't impart high strength at elevated temperature
A. Manganese
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon
563. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.
A. Carbon
B. Sulphur
C. Silicon
D. Manganese
E. Phosphorous.
972
564. White cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. Itis almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machinedmetal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or
spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
973
565. Cold rolled steel sheets contain carbon of the following order
A. 0.1%
B. 0.2%
C. 0.4%
D. 0.6%
E. 0.8%.
566. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
A. Cold rolled steel
B. Hot rolled steel
C. Forged steel
D. Cast steel
E. Carbon-chrome steel.
567. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up toA. 0.05 to 0.20%
B. 0.20 to 0.45%
C. 0.45 to 0.55%
D. 0.55 to 1.0%
E. 1.0 to 1.2%.
568. Heavy duty leaf and coil spring* contain carbon of the following orderA. 0.2%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.0%
E. 1.5%.
569. Taps, dies and drills contain carbon
A. Below 0.5%
B. Below 1%
C. Above 1%
D. Above 2.2%
E. Nil.
942
570. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order ofA. 0.1 to 0.2%
B. 0.25 to 0.5%
C. 0.6 to 0.7%
D. 0.7 to 0.9%
E. To 1.2%.
571. Which is the false statement about wrought iron. It has
A. High resistance to rusting and corrosion
B. High ductility
C. Ability of hold protective coating
D. Easily weldable characteristics
E. Uniform strength in all directions.
572. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum
A. Along the lines of slag distribution
B. Perpendicular to lines of slag distribution
C. Uniform in all directions
D. Unpredictable
573. Balls for ball bearings are made of
943
A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Stainless steel
D. Carbon-chrome steel
E. High carbon steel.
944
574. Malleable cast iron
A. Contains l.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow coolingof molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It isalmost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machinedmetal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle.Graphite is in the nodular or
575. Preheating is essential in welding
A. Cast iron
B. High speed steel
C. All non-ferrous materials
D. All of the above
576. The hardness of steel primarily depends on
A. %age of carbon
B. %age of alloying elements
C. Heat treatment employed
D. Method of manufacture
E. Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron.
945
577. Steel made from phosphatic iron is
A. Brittle
B. Hard
C. Ductile
D. Tough
E. Malleable.
946
578. Ductile cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It isalmost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machinedmetal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or
579. Brass contains
A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70-75% copper and rest tin
E. 70% copper and 30% tin.
580. The crystal structure of brass is
A. F.C.C.
B. B.C.C.
C. H.C.P.
D. Orthorhombic crystalline structure
947
581. The composition of silver solder is
A. Silver, copper, zinc
B. Silver, tin, nickel
C. Silver, lead, zinc
D. Silver, copper, aluminium
E. Silver, lead, tin.
948
582. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than theothers?
A. Copper
B. Brass
C. Lead
D. Silver
E. Aluminium.
583. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows
A. B.C.C. crystalline structure
B. F.C.C. crystal structure
C. H.C.P. structure
D. A complex cubic structure
E. Orthorhombic crystalline structure.
584. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is
A. Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
B. Tin and lead
C. Tin, lead and silver
D. Tin and copper
E. Tin, copper and lead.
585. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the following ratio
949
A. 50 : 50
B. 30 : 70
C. 70 : 30
D. 40 : 60
E. 60 : 40.
950
586. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding
A. Chromium and nickel
B. Nickel and molybdenum
C. Aluminium and zinc
D. Tungsten and sulfur
587. Corrundum contains more than 95%
A. Steel
B. A1203
C. Si02
D. Mgo
E. German silver.
588. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel, aluminium and cobalt
in the following ratio
A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
E. 50 : 10 : 20 : 20.
951
589. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Brittle
952
590. Bell metal contains
E. 70-75% copper and rest zinc and tin.
591. Which of the following is used for bearing liner
A. Gun metal
B. Bronze
C. Bell metal
D. Babbit metal
E. Brass.
592. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is
A. Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
B. Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
C. Wrought iron,low carbon steel, grey cast iron
D. Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel
E. Grey cast iron, wrought iron, low carbon steel.
953
593. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements
A. Nickel, chromium and manganese
B. Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
C. Lead, tin, aluminium
D. Zinc, sulphur, and chromium
594. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio ofA. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 10 : 90
E. 90 : 10.
954
595. Bronze contains
E. 90% copper and 10% zinc.
596. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio ofA. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 20 : 80
E. 80 : 20.
597. Gun metal contains
E. 85-92% copper and rest zinc.
598. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of
A. Nickel, copper and iron

955
B. Nickel, copper and zinc
C. Copper, nickel and antimony
D. Iron, zinc and bismuth
E. Antimony, copper and zinc.
599. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is
A. Nichrome
B. Invar
C. Magnin
D. Elinvar
E. Peiminvar.
956
600. Monel metal contains
A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Malleable iron and zinc
601. The transistor is made of
A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Copper
D. Germanium
E. German silver.
602. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
A. Cast iron
B. Vitrified clay
C. Asbestos cement
D. Concrete
E. Mild steel.
957
603. Permalloy is a
A. Kind of stainless steel
B. None ferrous alloy
C. Polymer
D. Cutting tool material
E. Nickel and iron alloy having high permeability.
604. Phosphor bronze contains
A. 0.5% of phosphorous
B. 1% phosphorous
C. 2.5% phosphorous
D. 5% phosphorous
958
605. Free cutting steels
A. Are used where ease in machining is the criterion
B. Contain carbon in free form
C. Require least cutting force
D. Do not exist
E. Can be cut freely even under adverse conditions.
606. Delta metal is an alloy of
A. Copper, zinc and iron
B. Iron, nickel and copper
C. Iron, lead and tin
D. Iron, aluminium and magnesium
E. Copper, zinc and antimony.
607. Admiralty gun metal contains
B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
D. Iron scrap and zinc
959
608. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin
A. White metal
B. Solder admiralty
C. Fusible metal
D. Phosphor bronze
E. Gun metal.
609. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium
A. Modulus of elasticity is fairly low
B. Wear resistance is very good
C. Fatigue strength is not high
D. Creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
E. Corrosion resistance is good.
960
610. Addition of copper to aluminium results in
A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
D. Improving machinability
611. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in
612. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc.
Contains the following element as principal alloying element
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Zinc
E. Nickel.
961
613. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents
A. Delta metal
B. Monel metal
C. Constantan
D. Nichrome
E. Silicon bronze.
962
614. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in
615. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in
616. Constantant an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of
A. Copper and tin
B. Copper and zinc
C. Copper and iron
D. Copper and nickel
E. Copper and chromium.
963
617. White metal contains
B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
D. Silver and chromium
E. Malleable cast iron and silver.
618. German silver contains
A. 1% silver
B. 2.5% silver
C. 5% silver
D. 10% silver
E. 100% silver.
964
619. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials
A. Magnesium alloys
B. Titanium alloys
C. Chromium alloys
D. Magnetic steel alloys
620. Dow metal contains
A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
E. 90% magnesium and 10% tin.
621. Foundry crucible is made of
A. Mild steel
B. German silver
C. Lead
D. Cast iron
E. Graphite.
965
622. Age-hardening is related with
A. Stainless steel
B. Gun metal
C. German silver
D. Duralumin
E. Cast iron.
623. Aluminium bronze contains
B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
E. 10% aluminium and 90% tin.
966
624. Babbit metal is a
A. Lead base alloy
B. Tin base alloy
C. Copper base alloy
D. All of the above
E. A and C above.
625. The correct composition of Babbit metal is
A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
626. Durajomin contains
B. 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
E. 94% aluminium and 6% tin.
967
627. Neutral solution is one which has ph value
A. Greater than 7
B. Less than 7
C. Equal to 7
D. Ph value has nothing to do with neutral solution
628. Acidic solution is one which has ph value
A. Greater than 7
B. Less than 7
C. Equal to 7
D. Ph value has nothing to do with neutral solution
968
629. Basic solution is one which has ph value
A. Greater than 7
B. Equal to 7
C. Less than 7
D. Ph value has nothing to do with basic solution
630. Following elements have face-centred cubic structure
A. Gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
B. Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
C. A iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
D. All of the above
631. Recrystallisation temperature can belowered by
A. Purification of metal
B. Grain refinement
C. Working at lower temperature
D. All of the above
969
632. Pearlite is a combination of
A. Ferrite and cementite
B. Cementite and gamma iron
C. Ferrite and austenite
D. Ferrite and iron graphite
E. Pearlite and ferrite.
633. Austenite rs a combination of
A. Ferrite and cementite
B. Cementite and gamma iron
C. Ferrite and austenite
D. Ferrite and iron graphite
E. Pearlite and ferrite.
970
634. The heaviest I-section for same depth is
A. ISMB
B. ISLB
C. ISHB
D. ISWB
635. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
A. Net area and gross area
B. Gross area and net area
C. Net area in both cases
D. Gross area in both cases
636. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch ofrivets in tension will
be taken as
A. 120 mm
B. 160 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 300 mm
637. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearingon the base plate,
then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
A. Fully by direct bearing
971
B. Fully through fastenings
C. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
D. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
638. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
A. Only shear stresses
B. Only tensile stresses
C. Both ( and (
972
639. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loadedrivet will be the
one which
A. Is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group
B. Is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
C. Gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
D. Gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
Where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearingload due to moment in
any rivet.
640. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
A. Lap joint
B. Butt joint with single cover plate
C. Butt joint with double cover plates
641. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25mm diameter is
A. 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 0.1 mm
D. 2.5 mm
642. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are

973
A. Stronger
B. Weaker
C. Equally strong
D. Any of the above
974
643. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size ofrivet as per Unwin's
formula will be
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 27 mm
644. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of rivetedjoint can be avoided ?
A. Tension failure of the plate
B. Shear failure of the rivet
C. Shear failure of the plate
D. Crushing failure of the rivet
645. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
A. 1.5 d
B. 2.0 d
C. 2.5 d
D. 3.0 d
Where d is gross diameter of rivet
646. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, isA. 40%
B. 50%
975
C. 60%
D. 70%
A. Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.
B. Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.
C. Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas rivets are used aspermanent fastenings.
D. Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
976
648. Bolts are most suitable to carry
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Axial tension
D. Shear and bending
649. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
A. Gross diameter of bolt
B. Nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
C. Nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
D. Nominal diameter of bolt
650. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
A. Black bolt
B. Ordinary unfinished bolt
C. Turned and fitted bolt
D. High strength bolt
651. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
A. Minimum dimension
B. Average dimension
C. Maximum dimension

652. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
A. Two times the weld size
B. Four times the weld size
C. Six times the weld size
D. Weld size
960
653. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness isA. 1:1
B. 1 : V2
C. V2 : 1
D. 2: 1
654. A butt weld is specified by
A. Effective throat thickness
B. Plate thickness
C. Size of weld
D. Penetration thickness
655. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
656. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
A. Lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
B. Lesser of 200 mm and 161
C. Lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
D. Lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
961
Where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
657. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
A. It is uneconomical
B. It cannot carry the load safely
C. It is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
D. All of the above
962
658. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonrywall is
A. Zero
B. 10
C. 100
D. Infinity
659. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held inposition at both ends
and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
A. 0.67 L
B. 0.8 L
C. 0.1 L
D. 1.5 L
660. 27. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both endsbut not restrained
in direction is taken as
A. 1.8 L
B. 1.0 L
C. 1.1 L
D. 1.5 L
661. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead andsuperimposed load
is
A. 180
963
B. 200
C. 250
D. 350
662. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governedby wind or seismic
forces is
A. 150
B. 180
C. 250
D. 350
964
663. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfectionindex (n) is
A. 1.0
B. 1.4
C. 1.8
D. 2.0
664. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
A. Lacing
B. Battening
C. Tie plates
D. Perforated cover plates
665. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing barshould be
A. 40mm
B. 60mm
C. 80mm
D. 100mm
666. The use of tie plates in laced columns is
A. Prohibited
B. Not prohibited
C. Permitted at start and end of lacing system only

965
D. Permitted between two parts of the lacing
667. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
A. Bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
B. Shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
C. 2.5% of the column load
D. Both (a) and (c)
966
668. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be
between
A. 10° to 30°
B. 30° to 40°
C. 40° to 70°
D. 90°
669. Battening is preferable when the
I) column carries axial load only
A. Only (i)
B. Only (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
670. The effective length of a battened column is increased by
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
967
671. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections shouldbe more than
A. 3t
B. 4t
C. 6t
D. 8t
Where t = thickness of the batten plate
968
672. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceedA. 100
B. 120
C. 145
D. 180
673. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
A. Minimum weight
B. Minimum depth
C. Maximum weight
D. Minimum thickness of web
674. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
A. Vertical intermediate stiffener
B. Horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
C. Bearing stiffener
675. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
A. Shear buckling of web plate
B. Compression buckling of web plate
C. Yielding
D. All of the above

969
676. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and alsoexposed to weather,
is
A. 5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 10 mm
970
677. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
A. Increasing the web thickness
B. Providing suitable stiffeners
C. Increasing the length of the bearing plates
678. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should notexceed
A. 121
B. 161
C. 201
D. 251
Where t = thickness of thinnest flange plate
679. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth ofweb exceeds
A. 501
B. 851
C. 200 t
D. 2501
Where t is thickness of web
680. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
A. Transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
971
B. Prevent buckling of web
C. Decrease the effective depth of web
D. Prevent excessive deflection
681. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
A. Axial forces
B. Shear and axial forces
C. Shear and bending forces
D. Axial and bending forces
972
682. Gantry girders are designed to resist
A. Lateral loads
B. Longitudinal loads and vertical loads
C. Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
D. Lateral and longitudinal loads
683. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
A. D/4
B. D/3
C. D/2
D. 2d/3
Where d is the distance between flange angles
684. Bearing stiffeners are provided ati)The supports

Ii) the mid span
Iii) the point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is
A. Only (i)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
685. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
973
A. Horizontal shear only
B. Vertical load only
C. Both ( and (
686. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners isA. 1.33 d

B. 1.25 d
C. 1.5 d
D. 1.75 d
Where d is the distance between flange angles
974
687. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
A. L/3 to L/5
B. L/4to2l/5
C. L/3 to L/2
D. 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span
688. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
A. 650 mm
B. 810 mm
C. 1250 mm
D. 1680 mm
689. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less thanA. 26'/2°
B. 30°
C. 35°
D. 40°
690. To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of purlins shall be
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
975
691. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
A. Axial force in rafter
B. Shear force in rafter
C. Deflection of rafter
D. Bending moment in rafter
976
692. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure actingnormal to the wall and
roof surfaces is taken as
A. Zero
B. ±0.2p
C. ± 0.5 p
D. ±0.7p
E. Where p is basic wind pressure
693. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
A. Pa V
B. Pav2
C. P a (1/V)
D. Pav"2
694. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided toroof, is taken as
A. 0.65 kn/m2
B. 0.75 kn/m2
C. 1.35 kn/m2
D. 1.50 kn/m2
695. The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability istaken as
A. ± 0.2
977
B. ±0.5
C. ± 0.7
D. 0
978
696. The basic wind speed is specified at a height 'h' above mean ground level in anopen terrain. The value
of'h' is
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 25 m
D. 50 m
697. The risk coefficient k, depends on
A. Mean probable design life of structures
B. Basic wind speed
C. Both (a) and (b)
698. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
A. Degree of permeability of roof
B. Slope of roof
C. Both (a) and (d)
699. Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than
A. 10% of wall area
B. 20% of wall area

979
C. 30% of wall area
D. 50% of wall area
700. As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country hasbeen divided into
A. 4 zones
B. 5 zones
C. 6 zones
D. 7 zones
980
701. The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided are
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
702. Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is
A. 1.5 d
B. 2.0 d
C. 2.5 d
D. 3.0 d
Where d is diameter of rivets
703. The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumedas
A. 95.0 mpa on net area
B. 105.5 mpa on net area
C. 105.5 mpa on gross area
D. 150.0 mpa on gross area
704. Steel tanks are mainly designed for
A. Weight of tank
B. Wind pressure
981
C. Water pressure
D. Earthquake forces
705. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsionoccurs ?
A. Angle section
B. Channel section
C. Box type section
D. Any of the above
982
706. The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is
A. 1000 litre
B. 1650 litre
C. 1950 litre
D. 2450 litre
707. The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
A. Horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only
B. Horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads
C. Column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
D. Column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
708. The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be
A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 8 mm
709. Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
A. 6t
B. 101
983
C. 121
D. 161
Where t is thickness of thinner plate being connected
710. The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is
A. Less than d
B. Equal to d
C. More than d
D. Any of the above
Where d is the diameter of the cylindrical part
984
711. Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
A. Bottom chord area
B. Top chord area
C. Effective span of bridge
D. Heaviest axle load of engine
712. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a singletrack is 6 m, then
impact factor is taken as
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. Between 0.5 and 1.0
D. 1.0
713. If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge are notbraced, then the
bridge is called
A. Deck type
B. Through type
C. Half through type
D. Double deck type
714. The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at aheight of
A. 1.23 m above the rail level
985
B. 1.50 m above the rail level
C. 1.83 m above the rail level
D. 2.13 m above the rail level
986
715. The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
i) Lateral braces
ii) Chord members
iii) The correct answer is
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
716. The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
A. Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
B. Keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
C. Stiffen the structure laterally
D. Prevent the sidesway buckling of top chord
717. The sway bracing is designed to transfer
A. 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
B. 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
C. 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
D. 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
987
718. Study the following statements.
i) Top lateral bracing prevents the sidesway buckling of the chord.
ii) Sway bracing keeps the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section.
iii) Sway bracing transfers the load from top of end posts to bearings.Thecorrect answer is
A. Only (i)
988
719. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called
A. Sway bracing
B. Portal bracing
C. Top lateral bracing
D. Bottom lateral bracing
720. Compression force in two end posts The pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge isdesigned for
A. Bearing and shear
B. Bending and shear
C. Bearing and bending
D. Bearing, shear and bending
721. The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as
A. 0.5 D
B. 0.68 D
C. 0.88 D
D. 0.1 D
722. In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is takenas
A. 1.18
B. 1.414
C. 1.67
989
D. 1.81
723. In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
A. Rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth
B. All rectangular beams
C. Solid circular beams only
D. All square cross-section beams
990
724. The elastic strain for steel is about
A. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maxi-mum strain
B. 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maxi-mum strain
C. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 ofmaximum strain
D. 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 ofmaximum strain
725. The mechanism method and the statical method give
A. Lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure
B. Upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure
C. Lower bound on the strength of structure
D. Upper bound on the strength of structure
726. The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is
A. Linear
B. Parabolic
C. Constant moment for all curvatures
D. Constant curvature for all moments
727. Shape factor is a property which depends
A. Only on the ultimate stress of the material
B. Only on the yield stress of the material
C. Only on the geometry of the section
D. Both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material

991
728. The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies
A. Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
B. Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
C. Mechanism and plastic moment conditions
D. Equilibrium condition only
992
729. The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies
A. Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
B. Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
C. Mechanism and plastic moment conditions

D. Equilibrium condition only
730. Load factor is
A. Always equal to factor of safety
B. Always less than factor of safety
C. Always greater than factor of safety
D. Sometimes greater than factor of safety
731. The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus
A. Is equal to 1
B. Is always less than 1
C. Is always greater than 1
D. Can be less than 1
732. Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
A. Equal to load factor in determinate structures
B. More than the load factor in determinate structures
C. Less than the load factor in determinate structures

993
D. Unpredictable
733. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plasticanalysis ?
A. Equilibrium condition
B. Yield condition
C. Plastic moment condition
D. Mechanism condition
994
734. In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is
A. Displacement
B. Load
C. Slope
D. Moment
735. As per IS:800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii)Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
C. And (iii) are correct
D. Only (i) is correct
736. The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to thebase is:
A. 1.5
B. 1.7
C. 2.0
995
D. 2.34
737. In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as perIS:800 shall be
A. 0.55 Awfy
B. 0.65 Awfy
C. 0.75 Awfy
D. 0.85 Awfy
Where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of thesteel
996
738. The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and isnot accessible for
cleaning and repainting, should be:
A. 4.5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 10 mm
739. The moment of inertia of the pair of vertical stiffeners about the center line of theweb should not be
less than.
A. 1.5dv/C
B. 1.5d¥/C
C. 1.5d¥/C2
D. 1.5dy/C3
Where, 't' is the minimum required thick-ness of the web and 'C is the maximumpermitted clear distance
between vertical stiffener for thickness 't'.
740. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected toexternal loads, shall
be designed for a minimum shear force (kn/m) of
A. 75 t2/h
B. 125 t3/h2
C. 125 t2/h
D. 175 t2/h
Where, t = the web thickness in mm
H = the outstand of stiffener in mm
997
741. For a compression member with double angle section, which of the followingsection will give larger
value of minimum radius of gyration?
A. Equal angles back to back
B. Unqual legged angles with long legs back to back
C. Unequal legged angles with short legs back to back
D. Both (a) or (c)
998
742. Lug angles
A. Are used to reduce the length of connection.
B. Are unequal angles.
C. Increases shear lag.
D. All the above
743. For rivets in tension with counter-sunk heads, the tensile value shall be
A. Reduced by 25 %
B. Reduced by 33.3%
C. Increased by 25 %
D. Increased by 33.3 %
744. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as
A. Stringer beam
B. Lintel beam
C. Spandrel beam
D. Header beam
745. Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting astension members
should not be more than
A. 500 mm
B. 600 mm
999
C. 1000 mm
D. 300 mm
746. In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon
A. Shear in rivets
B. Compression in rivets
C. Tension in rivets
D. Strength of rivets in bearing
1000
747. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with ?
Increase in h/t ratio
Decrease in thickness
Increase in height
Where 'h' is height and t is thickness
981
DETECT AND IDENTIFY THE CAUSE OF MACHINERY MALFUNCTIONS ANDCORRECT FAULTS
1. A heat exchanger of the tube and shell type is used for cooling lubricating oil with seawater as the
secondary fluid. Which of the options would indicate that the tube stack was becoming fouled (scaled
or coked) rather than blocked?
A. A reduced temperature difference between the seawater inlet and outlet and also between the
lubricating oil inlet and outlet.
2. A plate type heat exchanger in a central cooling system has seawater leaking around the edges of some
of the titanium plates. After inspection and reassembly following the manufacturer's instructions the
problem still exists. What action, fromthe options given, should be taken to rectify the problem?
A. Fit new gaskets to the each of the plates.
3. After a couple of hours of operation the failure alarm sounds for a heavy fuel oil purifier which is
operating on a timed automatic sludge cycle. Upon investigation the purifier is found to be running
slowly and when opened up the casing and sludge outlet is heavily fouled with sludge in contact with
the bowl. From the options given what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The heavy fuel is unstable leading to excessive high viscosity sludgeformation.
4. During inspection and overhaul of a 2-stage reciprocating air compressor the main and bottom end
bearing shells are found to be heavily scored with parts of the overlay and bearing metal breaking away.
The crankshaft pins are found to have only very light surface scratches. Which of the given options is
the best action to betaken to remedy the problem?
A. Replace the bearing shells with new spares after cleaning out thecrankcase and refilling with clean
oil.
5. Part of the outer surface of a refrigeration compressor crankcase and the refrigerant return line near
the compressor ice up heavily during normal operation. Which of the options given is the most likely
cause of this problem?
A. The superheat control setting for the thermostatic expansion valve is set too low.
6. Shortly after starting up a fuel oil purifier oil is seen to be trickling out of the sludgeoutlet. Which of the
options given is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Damaged bowl seal.
7. The HP discharge valves of a 2 stage air compressor suffer from build up of carbon deposits even though
the correct maintenance is carried out on them. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Worn scraper and piston rings.
8. The pressure delivered by a gear type fuel oil transfer pump suddenly reduces from 5 bar to 4 bar
during transfer. From the options given, select the most likely causeof this occurrence.
A. Part of the pump relief/recirculation valve spring has broken offallowing the valve to open further.
9. Which of the following symptoms would indicate that the filter drier in a refrigeration circuit has
become blocked?
A. A large temperature drop across the drier.
10. A 2 term controller is used to control the fuel oil temperature for a thermal oil system used for heating
services. The control is very unstable with the measured value hunting constantly. Select the most
probable cause of this problem from the options given.
A. Integral action reset time is set too fast.
11. A mechanical-hydraulic speed control governor fitted to an auxiliary engine is giving erratic speed
control causing the engine to hunt wildly even when there is only a small load change. From the options
given which is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Compensation needle valve is open too much.
12. A refrigeration plant is short cycling even though there is plenty of refrigerant in the system and all of
the rooms are above temperature. From the options give selectthe one which is the most likely cause
of the problem?
A. Blocked filter drier causing the automatic low pressure cut out to operate.
13. components show that they are functioning correctly. Which of the
changes/modifications given in the options is most likely to correct this problem?
A. Fit a valve positioner to the system.

14. A two step controller (open/close) has failed and the only available spare controller is a P+I controller.
Select, from the options given, how the P+I controller could be set up to achieve approximate two step
control.
A. Set the proportional band to maximum width and the integral action to minimum (repeats per
minute).
15. A viscosity controller for the main diesel engine fuel oil supply is giving poor control resulting in the
viscosity of the fuel oil being too low at the engine. Which of the defects given in the options is likely to
be the cause of this problem?
A. Capillary tube in the viscometer is blocked giving high differentialpressure at the DP cell.
16. The auxiliary boiler for the supply of low pressure heating steam has an automatic combustion control
which operates on a two step control principle. The boiler fails to attempt to start up during a period
of normal operation even though the steam pressure has fallen below the set point. What is the most
likely cause of this fault?
A. The pressure switch for low steam pressure is faulty and fails to close.
17. The temperature control for a hot water system is very erratic with the temperature gradually rising
and then suddenly falling and vice versa even though system demand is fairly constant. Which of the
options given is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Control valve gland is over tightened.
18. The temperature control for the central cooling system low temperature circuit has failed and a new 3
term controller is to be fitted. Which of the given options would be the correct method of setting up
the controller?
A. Set the proportional action first.
19. The temperature of the feed water for an auxiliary boiler is automatically controlledby a pneumatically
actuated steam valve at the inlet to the pre-heater. It is noticed that during high demand the
temperature falls by an unacceptable amount and takesa long time to return to the set temperature
even though the steam supply pressure remains constant. Select from the options given the most likely
cause of this.
A. The controller proportional band is set too wide and the reset time is settoo long.
20. A low exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine is noticed duringroutine checks. Which of
the options given is the most likely cause of this?
A. Some of the nozzle holes of the fuel injection valve are blocked.
21. During inspection of the crank bearing for one of the units in the main engine, the bearing shell was
found as follows: Surface of the white metal was black and very hard. Patches of black incrustations
have worn grooves in the journal. What is the likely cause of this condition?
A. Water present in the lubricating oil during service.
22. During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The
turbocharger starts surging and smoke is seen coming out from the turbocharger inlet air filter. What
is the most probable cause?
A. Scavenge box fire
23. From the options given, select the one which is most likely to result in a highexhaust temperature in
one cylinder of a diesel engine.
A. Scavenge ports dirty.
24. Oil analysis results for a sample of diesel engine lubricating oil show a high level oftin. What could be
the possible cause?
A. Debris from damage to a white metal bearing.
25. One cylinder of a diesel engine has to be cut out to allow continued operation of the engine. Which of
the following options may be the cause of the problem?
A. Injection pump failure.
26. One cylinder of a diesel engine is operating with a high exhaust gas temperature. From the
options given, select the one most likely to cause thiscondition.
A. Fuel injection valve opening pressure is too low.
27. Over a period of a few hours of operation the main diesel engine speed graduallyfalls off. From the
options given what is the most likely cause of this fault?
A. Fouling of turbocharger intake filters.
28. Over a period of a few hours of operation the main diesel engine speed graduallyfalls off. From the
options given what is the most likely cause of this fault?
A. Fouling of turbocharger intake filters.
29. Select, from the options given, the one most likely to result in a sudden reduction inmain diesel engine
operating speed during normal operation.
A. Loss of signal to engine governor.
30. The exhaust temperature on one cylinder of a diesel engine is high; what is the mostlikely cause of this?
A. Leaking exhaust valves.
31. The fuel consumption for the main diesel engine has gradually increased over a period of a few
months. All system pressures and temperatures appear normal. From the options given, choose the
one which is the most likely cause of this.
A. Fouling of the hull
32. The pressure in the fresh water cooling system for a diesel engine is fluctuating while the engine is
running. When the engine is stopped the pressure is steady. What is the likely cause of this problem?
A. The engine has a cracked cylinder liner or cylinder cover.
33. The turbocharger on a diesel engine is surging and making occasional, loud "whoofing"noises. Which
one of the options given is the most probable cause of this?
A. Rapid changes in engine load due to rough sea conditions.
34. What is the likely cause of a decrease in the ph-value and an increase of thesulphate content of a diesel
engine's cooling water system?
A. Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling water system.
35. What would be the most probable cause if the exhaust gas from a diesel enginelooked a bit blue in
colour?
A. Engine burning too much lubricating oil.
36. Which of the following conditions could result in the exhaust from a diesel enginebeing dark coloured?
A. Some or all of the cylinders overloaded.
37. Which of the following options is the most likely cause of high exhaust gastemperatures in all cylinders
of a diesel engine?
A. Partial blockage in the exhaust gas system.
38. Which of the following options is the most likely to result in the maximum cylinderpressure for all
cylinders on a diesel engine to be lower than normal?
A. Poor quality fuel.
39. Which of the options given is likely to be the reason for a drop in the charge air manifold pressure of a
diesel engine operating with an exhaust gas turbocharger?
A. Exhaust gas boiler fouled.
40. Which of the options given is the most likely reason for a drop in pressure at thecharge air manifold of
a diesel engine?
A. Air filter to turbocharger fouled or obstructed.
41. A combustible gas indicator of the catalytic filament type is used to check the atmosphere in an
enclosed space onboard ship. When taking readings in a fuel tank which has been emptied for cleaning
the meter reading initially rises and then falls back to zero. What is the likely defect, if any, in the
instrument when this type of behaviour is displayed?
A. The filament is contaminated due to too high a concentration of hydrocarbons.
42. A portable oxygen analyser for use onboard ship is of the paramagnetic sensing element type. It is being
used to test the atmosphere of a space onboard ship but starts to give erratic readings. There is no
obvious indication as to why this is happening. Select from the options given the most likely cause of
this problem.
A. The sampling filter is partially blocked giving rise to wide pressurevariations in the sampling chamber.
43. A positive displacement type flow meter is defective and cannot be repaired. It is tobe replaced with a
new instrument which uses a Venturi type sensor. Which of the pneumatic relays given in the options
will be required in order for this type of instrument to function correctly?
A. Square root extractor relay.
44. A positive displacement, rotary type, volumetric flow meter reads low with an errorreading of 1% when
used to measure flow of heavy oil and 2.5% when used to measure the flow of diesel oil. From the
options given select the most likely cause of this difference in error?
A. The meter is worn internally.
45. A tachometer for a diesel engine is reading erratically. The tachometer is of the non-contact type using
magnetic proximity switches to generate the signal. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The proximity switch is loose on its mounting.
46. A U tube manometer is used to measure the pressure delivered by a ventilation fan. Following
replacement of the fan by a larger unit with a higher delivery rate and pressure the liquid is blown out
of the open end of the manometer. Which of the options given will allow the manometer to be used to
measure the delivery pressureof the larger fan?
A. Refill the manometer with liquid with a higher density.
47. Fluid flow is measured using a pneumatic differential pressure transmitter and is indicated on a direct
reading instrument. The indicator is reading zero even though fluid is flowing through the system. When
the flow rate changes the indicator initially registers a reading but then gradually returns to zero. From
the options given select the probable cause of this condition.
A. Diaphragm in the differential pressure transmitter is perforated.
48. The fuel consumption for the main engine is calculated using the readings from the supply and return
flow meters which are of the positive displacement type. When compared to the quantities calculated
from tank soundings and calibration tables and indicated on the contents gauges the consumption
appears consistently high. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?
A. The return flow meter is giving a low reading due to internal wear.
49. The fuel tank contents gauges onboard a vessel are of the air bubble and bell type. The gauges
are calibrated for a different fuel type to the actual fuel in the tanks. When correcting the actual
contents of the tanks from the gauge readings which of the parameters given in the options is the most
important?
A. Fuel density.
50. The instrument air system is suffering from excess water carry over to the instrument air lines. The air
intake to the compressor has very high humidity. Which of the actions given in the options will most
likely result in reducing this problem?
A. Reduce the superheat setting on the instrument air refrigeration/dryer unit.
51. The remote reading temperature gauge for the meat room is reading a higher temperature than the
local liquid in glass thermometer. When removed and tested the remote gauge is found to be reading
accurately. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?
A. The sensing bulb for the remote gauge is placed in a relative 'local hotspot' inside the meat room.
The torsion meter for the main propeller shaft is reading high. The torque is sensed using the angle of twist
principle with two clamp rings attached to the shaft at a fixed distance, with stationary proximity
switches for measuring the angle of twist and also shaft speed fixed to a rigid stool. What is the most
likely cause of the high reading?
A. Circumferential slip of the after clamp ring in the opposite direction to shaft rotation.
53. A high speed diesel engine has been subject to a major overspeed incident due to governor failure.
During checks for damage it is found that some of the bottom end bolts have slackened off slightly.
There appears to be no other damage to any of thebearings, the running gear or to the crankshaft.
From the options given select the action to be taken before bringing the engine back into service.
A. Renew all of the bottom end bolts.
54. A medium speed diesel engine which is supported on a steel chocking system has had repeated
problems with two of the chocks at the end of the engine on the port side becoming slack. This has led
to some fretting damage to the bedplate and tank top in that area. What action should be taken to
affect a cost effective permanent repair?
A. Replace the damaged chocks with resin based chocks of an appropriate size.
55. A medium speed diesel engine, operating on heavy oil has suffered repeated exhaust valve failure.
Upon inspection damage is noted on the underside of the valve resulting in some cases in holes passing
through the valve even though the seating face appears hardly damaged. Which of the given options is
the most likely cause of this type of damage?
A. High temperature corrosion due to high vanadium content in the fuel oil.
56. A test of the lubricating oil in an auxiliary diesel engine shows that the viscosity islow. What is the most
likely cause of this?
A. Contamination with distillate fuel oil.
57. During inspection of a medium speed diesel engine piston of the composite type it is found that the
steel crown is loose at its connection to the alloy skirt. Further inspection reveals damage to the
surfaces and evidence of metal particles where thetwo parts are connected. Select, from the options
given, the likely cause of this typeof damage.
A. Fretting due to loss of compression at the joint between the components.
58. During inspection of the crankshaft of a medium speed diesel engine cracks are discovered at one of
the main journal pins. The cracks originate from one of the oil holes and are progressing along the pin
at approximately 45 degrees to the axis. From the options given select the most likely failure mode that
would cause this.
A. Torsional fatigue due to excessive torsional vibration in the crankshaft.
59. During inspection of the cylinder cover from a medium speed diesel engine cylinder it is noted that
cracks have occurred between the two exhaust valve pockets and the fuel injector pocket. Select from
the given options the most probable cause of this type of failure.
A. Excessive thermal stress due to insufficient cooling of the cylinder cover.
60. During inspection of the main bearing shells and housings of a medium speed diesel engine it is found
that there is evidence of fretting at some of the bearing shell joint faces, the bearing housing joint faces
and also between the back of the bearings and the bearing pocket. From the options given which is the
most likely cause of these defects?
A. Insufficient tightening of the main bearing bolts.
61. Peak pressures and exhaust temperatures taken from a high speed diesel engine shown an
unacceptable variation between cylinders. Compression pressures for the cylinders are approximately
even. High pressure fuel is supplied to the fuel injection valves by an inline monobloc pump. From the
options given which is the most likely defect to cause this problem?
A. The inline monobloc fuel injection pump is incorrectly calibrated and metered.
62. Severe piston ring and liner wear are experienced in two cylinders of a medium speed diesel engine
shortly after a complete overhaul of all of the cylinders of the engine. The engine is fitted throughout
with chrome plated cylinder liners. Which of the given options is the most likely cause of the excessive
wear in the two cylinders?
A. Chrome plated piston rings have been mistakenly fitted to the two cylinders.
63. Two identical medium speed engines are connected through clutches and a reduction gearbox to a
single controllable pitch propeller. It is noted during normal operation that the load sharing between
the engines is uneven with one engine taking a greater proportion of the load as the total load increases
even though they are equally loaded at low load. Select from the options given the most likely cause of
this problem.
A. The governor droop settings are incorrectly set and are not matched.
64. Which of the given options for the value of differential pressure across a lubricating oil filter for a
medium speed diesel engine would indicate that the filter required cleaning?
A. Bar
65. A crosshead pin for a large bore 2-stroke diesel engine has to be refurbished following bearing failure.
The surface finish required is measured as a centre line average, CLA. Select, from the options given,
the standard of finish that should be achieved during the refurbishment.
A. 1 to 5 micrometres CLA
66. A draw card obtained from a cylinder of a large 2 stroke diesel engine shows that both cylinder
compression and maximum pressures are low. Cards from other cylinders indicate normal operation.
What is the likely cause of this problem?
A. Faulty cylinder component (piston rings, liner, etc.)
67. During a scavenge port inspection of a diesel engine the piston rings on all units were seen to display
the signs of the early stages of microseizue. What action should be taken to ensure that the progress
of the microseizure is stopped and the rings recover?
A. Increase cylinder oil feed to all units. Check the fuel quality andoperation of fuel oil purifiers and
filter.
68. During inspection of a cylinder liner for a large, slow speed diesel engine it is found to be worn in a
cloverleaf pattern. The greatest points of wear are found to be in way of the cylinder lubricator holes.
From the options given, what is the most likelycause of this type of wear pattern?
A. Cylinder lubricant has too high an alkalinity for the sulphur content ofthe fuel.
69. During inspection of a cylinder of a large slow speed diesel engine it is noted that there are hard
deposits around the upper part of the piston crown above the top ring groove and also some evidence
of scuffing on the liner wall. From the options given select the one which is the most likely cause of
this problem.
A. Cylinder oil with TBN to great for fuel grade is being used.
70. Occasionally the tie rods on a large slow speed diesel engine may fail in service. The mode of failure is
usually a complete fracture of the tie rod due to excessive fatigue stress. Select, from the options given,
the features of the surface of the fracture that would confirm a fatigue failure.
A. Part of the fracture surface would be uneven but smooth (burnished)with the remainder crystalline
with part 'cup and cone' shape.
71. One of the crossheads on a large, six cylinder, slow speed diesel engine has been severely damaged due
to bearing failure. The connecting rod for the cylinder concerned is to be removed from the engine and
the piston and damaged crosshead suspended in the engine so that it can be run on 5 cylinders. Which
of the methods given in the options should be used to suspend the piston and crosshead?
A. Raise the piston sufficiently high to allow the crosshead support pins/chains to be fitted and rest the
crosshead on them (with piston attached and positioned above the scavenge ports)
72. The piston rod of a large two stroke diesel engine has been damaged and is heavily scored in way of
the piston rod gland (stuffing box). It has been decided that it is economically viable to recondition the
rod at a shoreside facility. Select, from the options given, the most suitable repair method that should
be used?
A. Recondition the rod by surface grinding and build up using plasmaspraying with metal similar to the
original.
73. Worn piston rings are allowing a small amount of piston blow-by on a 2-stroke main diesel engine
cylinder, but due to the circumstances, it is not possible to stop and do a piston overhaul. What is the
correct, temporary action to take?
A. Increase cylinder oil feed rate slightly andmonitor the scavenge space drains.
74. A high pressure boiler is operating with all parameters normal except that the firingrate is high and the
superheater temperature is high. Which of the options given is the likely cause of this condition?
A. The generating and screen tubes are fouled.
75. A steam generating tube in a boiler is found to be badly sagged but not ruptured. Select, from the
options given, the most suitable action to be followed in order to operate the boiler.
A. Plug both ends of the tube and drill a hole in the body of the tube.
76. Fluctuation of high temperatures in a boiler furnace can lead to refractory lining failure in which the
surface of the firebrick breaks away in layers. What is the term used to describe this type of failure?
A. Spalling.
77. Inspection of the LP turbine rotor reveals some erosion damage to the blading on the final stage. Which
of the given options is most likely to be the cause of this condition?
A. Steam inlet to the turbine superheat temperature low.
78. Metal particles are found on the magnetic element of the main turbine lubricatingoil filter. Which of
the options is the most likely source of these particles?
A. Damaged reduction gearing.
79. Pitting corrosion is found around the steam drum water line of a high pressure steam boiler. From the
options given, select the one most likely to cause this condition.
A. Dissolved oxygen levels are too high.
80. The boiler water tests show a high and increasing level of chlorides in the boilerwater. What is the most
likely cause of this problem?
A. Sea water leakage from the condenser.
81. The seating surface of a superheaterhandhole door on a boiler has been damaged due to leakage of
superheated steam leaving a cut across the surface. Which repair method, from the options given,
would be the most effective?
A. Build up the cut with weld and re-machine the seat.
82. What effect would a blocked steam connection to a boiler water level gauge glasshave on the visible
water level in the glass?
A. The level in the glass would be higher than the actual level in the boiler
component in that the manufacturer's instructions ado not apply to the engine as fitted and present a
hazard. In which of the information/record sources given in the options, is it most important to record
the information relating to this anomaly?
A. ISM procedures in the ship's safety manual.
welding set?
A. Use a "go and return" system with the return cable connected directlyfrom the welding set to the
work piece if possible.
85. How should the spare oxygen and acetylene gas welding bottles be stored onboard the ship?
A. In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
the Classification Societymust carry out a periodic audit of the documentation for the approved planned
maintenance system and undertake a confirmatory survey of the items surveyed. What is the normal
frequency for this audit?
A. Annual.
A. Mark the items as not to be used and store them securely until theycan be tested by a competent
person.
88. Prior to removing the access doors to a pressure vessel for internal maintenance itshould be ensured
that all pressure has been relieved. As well as a zero indication on a pressure gauge which other
measure, from the options given should be takento confirm this prior to commencing the work?
A. Open the drain valve while pressure still shows on the gauge and to check itis clear. Outflow should
cease as the pressure gauge reaches zero.
A. …for any space with limited access or non-continuous ventilation or is suspected of having a
A. As it is only a routine maintenance and not a breakdown then postpone the task until full details of
the motor can be obtained.
91. When carrying out repair or maintenance tasks involving hot work a hot workpermit must be issued.
hot work…
A. ..should only cover specific hot work tasks and be valid for a specified time period.'
92. Suppose the crankcase oil system contains 14000 litres of oil and the capacity of theLubrication Oil
purifie is 2500 litresthour maximum, what throughput should be maintained?
A. 2300 - 2400 litres per hour
93. If the value wheel (5) is moving very freely, but you suspect that the value is neither opening
norclosing, what are you going to check first ?
A. Open gear box (4) and check if the sheer pin is broken
94. Suppose you are told to order a years supply of refrigerant Lub Oil and you estimate that consumption
will be 480 litres in that time. If there is already an open drum of 180 litres on board, what will you
order ?
A. 24 pails x 20 litres
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DPKP
95. Should be carried out on this type heat exchanger
A. Open inspection covers and check for leaks, clean tubes
96. A ship's propeller is 4882 mm in diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPMis 122. What is the
engine speed of this vessel ?
A. 16.7 knots
97. A ship's main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4 %. If the ship'sspeed that day was13.82
knots, what is the pitch of the propeller ?
A. 4040 mm
98. A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. If the sea speedis 12.8 knots,what is
the lip ?
A. 5.3%
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99. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessary to have PUMPREDUNDANCY. What does this
mean ?
A. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
100. What is the most important connection with the deck department for the chiefengineer ?
A. The ships speed and consumption
101. What is the most aspect of communication with the deck department ?
A. Executing of orders from the bridge
102. For which of the following items is it the sole obligation of the Chief Engineer to calculate in advance
for the next voyage and which may not be delegated to any other crew. ?
A. All of these.
103. The amount, condition and appearance of liquid collecting in bilges over time is asign of
A. Leakage or overflow.
104. If when in port there is an urgent need to pump bilge water from the vessel, whatwould you do?
A. Pump the bilges only if the discharge is fed to a shore tank or barge facility
105. An engine develops 2500 DIP and the BHP is 2000. What is the mechanicalefficiency?
A. 0.8 or 80%
106. If ventilation to cargo holds is inadequate, which of these dangerous outcomes isthe most common?
A. Oxygen starvation, toxic built-up, fermentation, gasing up
107. After fitting a new cylinder liner to a 2 stroke engine which of the following steps should be taken?
1. Increase the cylinder load. 2. Increase the cylinder oil flow. 3. Reduce the cylinder load.
A. 2 & 3
108. What three hazards are the most common in any enclosed space such as a cargotank?
A. Lack of oxygen, toxic atmosphere and explosive atmosphere.
109. A ship makes an observed speed of 17 knots. The engine speed is 17.5 knots. Whatis the propeller
slip ?
A. 2.85 %
110. When all preparations are complete to ensure that the main engine is in operational order prior to
departure what will be the final test to be carried out ?
A. Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick
111. All engine crankcase explosion investigations have show only one thing incommon, this
A. Oil vapour.
112. What is the primary cause of scavenge air space fires ?
A. Blow-by due to broken piston rings
113. The test to determine the discharge capacity of a boiler safety value is called
A. A safety adjustment test.
114. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks and to check water tightness after certainrepairs ?
A. A hydrostatic test
115. The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for
A. Chloride
116. The weakening of boiler steel as the result of inner crystalline cracking is known as
A. Corrosion.
117. Unequal distribution of combustion in a boiler furnace is known as
A. Flame impingement.
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118. What is the most practical way to control the humidity of the cooled air to theaccommodation as well
as efficiency control in tropical climates ?
A. Ensure galley, laundry room, drying room doors always closed
119. How is stern tube wear down measured ?
A. By a poker gauge, inserted on plug tio 5
120. Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes, how ?
A. Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water
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121. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given ?
A. On the distance the command rod “C” moves point "X"
122. On board your vessel the main engine consumes hourly 1375 litres HFO, the boiler 560 litres per hour
and the auxiliary diesel 166 litres per hour. At what throughput shall you feed the hfo purifier?
A. 2350 litres/hour
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123. During boiler surveys, what test is finally carried out to accredit the safety valvesand boiler mountings
?
A. Check safety value blow off at required over pressure
124. How is the Emergency Steering provision connected ?
A. By disconnect the telemotor from 'C" and re-connecting to theEmergency position

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125. You will notice in this drawing that steam traps are fitted so only condensate can return. Then why is
there an atmospheric condenser fitted ?
A. To avoid steaming up if steam traps are frequently stuck or defective
126. The size of any electrical conductor should be such that in practice, the voltagedrop at full load will
not exceed a certain percentage. How much ?
A. 5 %
127. After bunkering when all the fuel oil tanks have been topped off, which of the listedprocedures should
be followed next ?
A. The tanks should be sounded tomake sure the levels D are not rising
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128. A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in4 hours, and
another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are used together, how long would it take to
empty it ?
A. 2 and 1/4 hours
129. Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler water for:
A. Alkalinity
130. Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil are a major source of airpollution?
A. Sulphur, carbon
131. What do you call the instrument used to measure the radial position of thecrankshaft ?
A. A Dial gauge
132. Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause……….
A. Corrosion.
133. Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of ……….
A. Output to BTU converted in energy.
134. The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two-stroke
ported direct propulsion marine engines is the…….
A. Sliding camshaft.
135. What method is employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximumheat transfer while
maintaining low overall weight ?
A. Feed water is preheated in a separately fired economizer
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136. Every ship above 400 tons gross shall be provided with tank(s) of adequate capacity
to receive oily residues or sludges such as those resulting from…………
A. Diesel oil leakages from purification, main and auxiliary engine fuelleakages.
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137. Concerning the designing and construction of Machinery Space Oily Residue Tanks(Sludge Tanks)
what requirements, besides capacity, need to be met ?
A. They must have cleaning facilities and arrangements to discharge toreception facilities
138. For ships which are not fitted with a sludge burning incinerator, the sludge tank
capacity shall be direct proportionally larger in relation to …….
A. He number of purifiers fitted on board times the maximum range of theship.
139. Permanently posted procedures and information is to be available in places where it can be easily
seen by the crew. This information should include which of these items ?
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A. I, V
B. III, V
C. I, IV
D. II, IV
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140. Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations inclusive
the titles. This information includes the names of the persons engaged in bunkering operations. Which
persons ?
A. The responsible person in charge, the duty engineer, the engineer incharge of bunkering and the
stand-by team on deck
141. Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations. This
information must include about the quantity of fuel bunkered per tank including ………
A. The specific gravity of the oil and the level at which bunker tanks are tobe closed.
142. Written information must be available each time bunkering operations are carriedout. This should
include information about reporting oil spills and provide contact details for which of these
organisations ?
A. I, III, IV, V, VIII, IX
B. II, Ill, IV, VI, VIII, IX
C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII, VI

D. III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX
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143. The use of a steam trap has a beneficial influence on the thermal balance of the
heat exchanger fitted before that trap. This is because ............ ?
A. All heat will be extracted from the steam before turning to water
144. What is the purpose of part number 2 ?

A. To prevent clean liquid mixing with the in-coming dirty liquid
145. Which pump is used at sea for condenser cooling in this fresh water generatoron practically
every ship ? Indicated as a SALT WATER PUMP, item 14.
A. The fresh water generator ejector pump

146. What factors influence the vacuum (vacuum %) inside the shell of a freshwater generator ?
A. The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector
147. What measure of power developed inside a cylinder is obtained by using theformula PMI x
cylinder section surface (cm2) x stroke (metre): 75 ?
A. Indicated horsepower
148. When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, example
+4. This means that……….
A. The crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.

Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion plant and
auxiliary machinery
1. How can the pressure be regulated during start up of a positive displacement pump such as a gear
pump?
A. Adjustment of the pressure relief valveto recirculate part of the flow.
B. By throttling the suction valve.
C. By throttling the discharge valve
D. Positive displacement pumps operate at constant pressure and cannot be regulated.
2. How is the prime mover load normally kept to a minimum when starting up an electric driven
reciprocating type air compressor?
A. By using an unloading device to keepthe compressor suction valves open until the machine is up to
speed.
B. By using an unloading device to keepthe compressor delivery valves open until the machine is up to
speed.
C. By keeping the second stage drain valveopen until the machine is up to speed.
D. By keeping the main discharge valve closed until the machine is up tospeed.
3. How long after starting a refrigeration compressor should the oil separator return valve be opened?
A. It should be opened once the oil separatorunit has warmed up.
B. It should be opened one minute after start up.
C. It should be opened before start up.
D. It should be opened only when the crankcaseoil level is low.
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4. What is the minimum furnace temperature that must be reached during startup before waste material
can be introduced into an incinerator?
A. 850 C
B. 1500 C
C. 2000 C
D. 2500 C
5. What should be the status of the suction and discharge valves when starting acentrifugal pump?
A. Suction valve open and discharge valve closed
B. Suction valve closed and discharge valve open
C. Both valves closed
D. Both valves open
6. When starting up an aerobic type sewage unit for the first time, or aftermanual cleaning, how should
the bacterial process be initiated?
A. By adding an activating agent tothe inflowing sewage.
B. By filling the unit with sewage and bubbling air through it for 48 hours prior to starting thedischarge
pump.
C. By shutting off the air flow.
D. By bypassing the grey water inflow and operating only with black water.
7. Which is the preferred method for starting an air conditioning refrigeration compressor which has been
shut down for a period of time?
A. Start with suction valve throttled in tominimise risk of drawing liquid refrigerant into the compressor.
983
B. Start with the discharge valve throttled into prevent excess condenser pressure.
C. Start with all system valves fully opened.
D. Start and stop repeatedly until suctionpressure and oil pressure are normal.
984
8. A compressed air supply system has two automatically controlled air compressors.When demand is high
both compressors are needed to meet the delivery requirements. What is the best method for
controlling the compressors to meet a varying, but intermittent demand?
A. Sequential start initiated by pressure switches set at different switching pressures.
B. Continuous running of both compressors and theuse of unloading devices.
C. Start and stop of the compressorscontrolled by timer switches.
D. One compressor running continuously with the other on standby.
9. A water heating system with automatic temperature control uses steam as the heating medium and
the temperature is controlled by a pneumatically operatedvalve? What would be an acceptable start
up procedure of the system from cold state?
A. Start the system up in manual mode and gradually increase thecontroller output signal until the
temperature reaches the required value before changing over to automatic control.
B. Start the system up in automatic mode with normal set point so that the required temperature is
achieved as quickly as possible.
C. Start the system up in automatic mode with normal set point but with thesteam supply to the control
valve manually throttled in.
D. Start with the control valve in manual and use the hand jack to gradually increase the temperature by
throttling the steam flow before changing to pneumatic control.
985
10. Most fuel oil separtors working on the centrifuge principle have an automatic startup and sludging
facility. Which of the following actions would you expect to occur first during the start up sequence?
A. Operating water supplied to bowl to close it
B. Sealing water supplied to bowl to prevent carryover.

C. Fuel oil supplied to bowl to fill it.
D. Operating water drained from bowl to open it.
11. Some fuel oil and lubricating oil separators have a facility to control the back pressure of the clean oil
outlet during start up and operation. What is the purposeof this control function?
A. To help to maintain the oil/water interface atthe correct position.
B. To control the amount of fuel passing through theseparator.
C. To assist in discharging the bowl contents duringthe sludge cycle.
D. To reduce the amount of sealing water required during operation.
12. Some vessels have a central hydraulic system consisting of a number of hydraulicpower packs for driving
cargo pumps, deck machinery, ship's cranes, etc. Which parameter is normally used to automatically
bring the power packs on and off line to match operational demand?
A. Percentage of available flow.
B. Percentage of maximum pressure being used.
C. Number of consumers running (pumps, etc.)
D. Temperature of hydraulic fluid.
986
13. The pressure control of a vessel's domestic water system, which includes a hydrophore tank pressurised
by air, is achieved by stop/start of the fresh water pumps using pressure switches. How should the
system be prepared for first use togive correct operation of the pressure control?
A. Fill the hydrophore tank to approximately 75%full with water and then pressurise with air up to the
pump cut out point.
B. Fill the hydrophore tank completely with water and then pressurise with air up to thepump cut out
point.
C. Pressurise the hydrophore tank with air to approximately 50% of the pump cut out pressure and then
allow the pump tofill the tank until it cuts out.
D. Fill the hydrophore tank up with freshwater allowing it to compress the airalready in the tank and then
adjust the pump cut out to match the pressure in the tank when it is almost full.
14. You have to choose one of the following instruments for measuring pressure in an air bottle in
measuring range 0 - 35 BAR. Which instrument would you install?
A. Bourdon Tube manometer
B. Bellow type manometer
C. U-type H2O manometer
D. U-type Hg manometer
15. Prior to bunkering operations it is necessary to check the quantity of fuel remainingonboard and that
there is sufficient room for the fuel that is to be loaded. What is the best method to use to establish
this?
A. Do a complete sounding of all fuel bunker tanks
B. Use the latest figures from the fuel record book.
C. Take a full set of readings from remote content gauges.
D. Sound the tanks which you think might still contain some fuel.
987
16. Telephones are being used to communicate between personnel onboard and ashore during a bunkering
operation. What instruction would you give to shippersonnel regarding action to take in the event of
failure of the telephone communication during the operation?
A. Stop the bunkering until alternative reliable communications are established
B. Call the electrician, and get him to repair the telephone while the bunkering operation continues.
C. Slow down the bunkering rate until alternativereliable communications are established.
D. Use a crewmember as a messenger between personnel involved inthe operation.
17. To avoid overbunkering and oil spill, it is very important that we closely monitor the progress of the
bunkering operation. What is the safest method touse to minimise the risk of overflow and spillage?
A. Continuously monitor remote guage readings andconfirm with regular sounding of the fuel tanks.
B. The remote gauge system will provide us with thenecessary information
C. Open all the bunker tank lids to manuallywatch them filling.
D. Use the predicted loading rate to calculatehow much oil is being received.
988
18. When bunkering through the port side of the bunker manifold what action shouldbe taken with the
valves on the starboard side of the manifold prior to bunkering operations commencing?
A. Blank flanges should be fitted to the closed starboard side manifold valves.
B. The blank flanges should be removed from the starboard side manifold valves to check for anyleakage
past the closed valves.
C. Just fit the blank flanges then it doesn’t matter if the
valves are closed or not.
D. Just check that the valves are closed.
19. When planning bunkering operations it is preferable to arrange for the new fuel to be bunkered into
empty or nearly empty tanks whenever possible. What is the mainreason for this?
A. To minimise the risk of incompatibilitybetween different fuels.
B. To make it easier to calculate the quantity offueltaken onboard.
C. To minimise the risk of microbial contaminationof the fuel.
D. So that the sulphur content of each fuel is known.
20. Why is it necessary to have an effective ballast water management plan which includes provision for
changing out ballast in open water rather than dischargingballast in coastal waters?
A. To avoid the introduction of non-indigenous species of marine life from one area to another.
B. To keep the ballast water fresh in the ballasttanks during long voyages.
C. To allow ballast tank inspections to be carriedout during ballast passage.
D. To ensure that ballast tanks are always pressed up during a ballast voyage to avoid free surface effects.
989
21. A vessel is scheduled to enter a SECA during a forthcoming voyage? What additional considerations
must a Chief Engineer take into account when planningfor this voyage?
A. The availability of low sulphur fuel and the change over time required to ensure the system isclear of
normal fuel prior to entry into the SECA.
B. That all garbage is fully disposed ofprior to entry into the SECA and suitable arrangements are made for
retention while in the SECA.
C. That there is sufficient room in the bilge holding tank to ensure no discharges of machinery space bilges
takes place while the vessel is inthe SECA.
D. That the incinerator is shut down for the duration of the time the vessel isin the SECA.
22. A vessel which normally operates with the engine room in UMS mode is unable to do so because of
defects to some of the critical alarm functions. What are the main considerations that the Chief
Engineer must take into account when planningalternative arrangements to cover the engine room
requirements until the defects are cleared?
A. A work rota is established to ensure full coverage of engine room watchkeeping duties and adequate
rest periods for the engineering staff.
B. A work rota is established to ensure that the necessary repairs can be carried out assoon as possible.
C. A work rota is established to ensure that normal routine maintenance is carried out on time in
accordance with the planned maintenance schedule.
D. A work rota is established to ensure at least one person is in the engineroom at all times while the
defects exist.
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23. How will continuous low load operation influence the time between overhauls,tbo, for the cylinder
covers and associated valves of a 4-stroke diesel engine?
A. Reduce the time between overhauls dueto increased fouling.
B. No influence at all, the required overhauls areunaffected by operating load.
C. Increase the time between overhauls since theengine is not working as hard.
D. Increase the time between overhauls since fuel injectors work better at low load so combustion will be
improved and the maintenance will be reduced.
24. One of the Main Engine cooling pumps is down for maintenance. The rest of thecooling pumps are
operating near full capacity with minimum margins on the maximum temperature limit. What should
be the correct action to take with regard to UMS operation?
A. Operate the engine room on manual mode untilthe maintenance is completed and the cooling pump
is operational and switched to stand-by mode.
B. Hope that the alarm function and automatic temperature regulation will function correctlyand switch
to UMS-mode as normal
C. Arrange frequent checks of the condition during the night otherwiseoperate in normal UMS-mode
D. Arrange with a rating "on watch" in the engine room for the UMS period.
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25. Some new maintenance routines are being planned and a risk assessment is necessary so that the
required procedures can be entered into the ship's Safety Management manual. Which of the following
should be the first step in this riskassessment process?
A. Identify the hazards that may exist which may affect personnel involved with the maintenance
routines.
B. Identify who may be harmed or injured in carryingout the maintenance routines.
C. Identify the safety precautions that may be
necessary to prevent injury or harm to personnel carrying out the routines.
D. Identify how much it will cost to implement the necessary precautionsto prevent injury to personnel.
26. The critical part of any bunkering operation may be considered to be when topping off the tanks at
which stage the risk of overflow and spillage of fuel oil isgreatest. What is the correct safe procedure to
adopt to minimise this risk?
A. Reduce the bunker delivery flow rate and top offthe tanks one at a time.
B. Top off all of the tanks together to reduce the inflowrate into each tank.
C. Shut off each tank as it overflows into the fuel oil overflow tank. Shut off each tank as it overflows into
the fuel oil overflow tank.
D. Watch for oil coming up the sounding pipe and shut the tank valvejust before it overflows.
27. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
A. Tow specific heat of liquid
B. high boiling point
C. high latent heat of vaporisation
D. higher critical temperature
E. low specific volume of vapour.
991
28. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
A. water at 0°C
B. ice at – 4°C
C. solid and dry ice
D. mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTPconditions
E. mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
29. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. reversed Camot cycle
D. reversed Rankine cycle
E. none of the above.
30. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
A. Ericsson
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Bell-coleman
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31. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
A. very little work input
B. maximum work input
C. nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
D. zero work input
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32. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
A. noisy operation
B. quiet operation
C. cooling below 0°C
D. very little power consumption
E. its input only in the form of heating.
33. The relative coefficient of performance is
A. actual COP/theoretical COP
B. theoretical COP/actual COP
C. actual COP x theoretical COP
D. 1-actual COP x theoretical COP
E. 1-actual COP/fheoretical COP.
34. Clapeyron equation is a relation between
A. temperature, pressure and enthalpy
B. specific volume and enthalpy
C. temperature and enthalpy
D. temperature, pressure, and specil volume
E. temperature, pressure, specific volur and’enthalpy.
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35. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at
A. saturation point of vapour
B. saturation point of liquid
C. sublimation temperature
D. triple point
E. critical point.
36. In vapour compression cycle, the conditii of refrigerant is saturated liquid
A. after passing through the condenser
B. before passing through the condensei
C. after passing through the expansion throttle valve
D. before entering the expansion valve
E. before entering the compressor.
995
37. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
B. before passing through the condenser
C. after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
38. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturatedliquid
C. after passing through the expansion or thiottle valve
39. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour
D. before [entering the expansion valve
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40. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
E. before entering the compressor..
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41. The boiling point of ammonia isA. -100°C

B. -50°C
C. - 33.3°C
D. 0°C
E. 33.3°C.
42. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding tomelting of 1000 kg of ice
A. in 1 hour
B. in 1 minute
C. in 24 hours
D. in 12 hours
E. in 10 hours.
43. One ton refrigeratiqn corresponds to
A. 50 kcal/min
B. 50 kcal/kr
C. 80 kcal/min
D. 80 kcal/hr
E. 1000 kcal/day.
44. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
A. 210 kJ/min
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B. 21 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 840 kJ/min
E. 105 kJ/min.
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45. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycie
A. Rankine
B. Carnot
C. Reversed Rankine
D. Brayton
E. Reversed Carnot.
46. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of theorder of

A. atmospheric pressure
B. slightly above atmospheric pressure
C. 2-4 bars
D. 5-6 bars
E. 7-10 bars.
47. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
A. evaporator
B. safety relief valve
C. dehumidifier
D. driers
E. expansion valve
1000
48. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to that actually
required for condensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,
A. will be higher
B. will be lower
C. will remain unaffected
D. may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
E. unpredictable.
1001
49. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
A. above which liquid will remain liquid
B. above which liquid becomes gas
C. above which liquid becomes vapour
D. above which liquid becomes solid
E. at which all the three phases exist together.
50. Critical temperature is’ the temperature above which
A. a gas will never liquefy
B. a gas will immediately liquefy
C. water will evaporate
D. water will never evaporate
51. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
A. high sensible heat
B. high total heat
C. high latent heat
D. low latent heat
E. low sensible heat
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52. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
A. 0.1 ton
B. 5 tons
C. 10 tons
D. 40 tons
E. 100 tons.
53. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
A. is less than 1
B. is more than 1
C. is equal to 1
D. depends upon the make
E. depends upon the weather conditions.
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54. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor
A. centrifugal
B. axial
C. miniature sealed unit
D. piston type reciprocating
55. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaparator
D. expansion valve.
E. heat transfer.
56. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
A. Co2
B. Freon-11
C. Freon-22
D. Air
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57. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the followingtype of expansion device
A. electrically operated throttling valve
B. manually operated valve
C. thermostatic valve
D. capillary tube
E. expansion valve.
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58. Air refrigeration operates on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricson cycle
E. Brayton cycle.
59. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
A. domestic refrigerators
B. commercial refrigerators
C. air conditioning
D. gas liquefaction
E. such a cycle does not exist.
60. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
A. liquid
B. sub-cooled liquid
C. saturated liquid
D. wet vapour
E. dry vapour.
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61. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
A. lower than atmospheric pressure
B. higher than atmospheric pressure
C. equal to atmospheric pressure
D. could be anything
1007
62. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature inevaporator and
condenser must be
A. small
B. high
C. euqal
D. anything
E. under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
63. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are
A. condenser tubes
B. evaporator tubes
C. refrigerant cooling tubes
D. capillary tubes
E. throttling device.
64. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
A. receiver
B. expansion valve
C. evaporator
D. condenser discharge
E. compressor discharge.
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65. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
A. near critical temperature of refrigerant
B. above critical temperature
C. at critica. temperature
D. much below critical temperature
E. could be anywhere.
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66. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controllingdevice, if quantity of
refrigerant for system is
A. less than 2 kg
B. more than or equal to 3.65 kg
C. more than 10 kg
D. there is no such consideration
E. pone of the above.
67. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
A. Freon-11
B. Freon-22
C. C02
D. S02
E. ammonia.
68. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
A. reduce compressor overheating
B. reduce compressor discharge temperature
C. increase cooling effect
D. ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion(throttling) valve
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69. The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually
A. always less than unity
B. always more than unity
C. equal to unity
D. any one of the above
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70. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more for small capacity and less for high capacity
E. less for small capacity and more for high capacity.
71. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
A. of cooling medium
B. of freezing zone
C. of evaporator
D. at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
E. condensing temperature of ice.
72. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
A. results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
B. increases heat transfer rate
C. is immaterial
D. can be avoided by proper design
E. decreases compressor power.
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73. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant andthe medium being
cooled should be
A. high, of the order of 25°
B. as low as possible (3 to 11°C)
C. zero
D. any value
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74. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor isused to

A collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
A. detect liquid in vapour
B. superheat the vapour
C. collect vapours
D. increase refrigeration effect.
75. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at leastA. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%.
76. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. depends on other factors
77. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator temperature
of- 23°C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cyclewill be
A. 0.2
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B. 1.2
C. 5
D. 6
E. 10.
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78. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant
A. high triiscibility with oil
B. low boiling point
C. good electrical conductor
D. large latent heat
E. non-inflammable.
79. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between
A. condenser and expansion valve
B. compressor and evaporator
C. expansion valve and evaporator
D. compressor and condenser
80. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other inammonia absorption
system
A. strong solution to weak solution
B. weak solution to strong solution
C. strong solution to ammonia vapour
D. ammonia vapour to weak solution
E. ammonia vapour to strong solution.
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81. Efficiency of a Cornot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed,what will be the value
of COP of reversed Carnot cycle
A. 1.25
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
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82. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
A. critical pressure of refrigerant
B. much below critical pressure
C. much above critical pressure
D. near critical pressure
E. there is no such restriction.
83. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator
temperature of – 23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
A. 0.2
B. 1.2
C. 5
D. 6
E. 10.
84. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and
condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Freon
D. Brine
E. Hydrocarbon refrigerant.
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85. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
A. compression
B. direct
C. indirect
D. absorption
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86. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condensertemperature constant, the
h.p. of compressor required will be
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. more/less depending on rating
E. unpredictable.
87. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve
E. all of the above.
88. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
A. condenser
B. evaporator
C. compressor
D. expansion valve
E. receiver.
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89. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
A. halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
B. sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
C. using reagents
D. smelling
E. sensing reduction in pressure.
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90. rick up the incorrect statement
A. lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile
B. lithium bromide plant can’t operate below 0°C
C. a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwantedwater vapour by condensing
D. concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to that
entering the generator
E. weak solution in liquid heat exchanger gives up heat to the strong solution.
91. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy-diagram represents
A. condensation of the refrigerant vapour
B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
C. compression of the refrigerant vapour
D. metering of the refrigerant liquid
92. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load andsame temperature
limits is of the order of
A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 9
C. 9 : 1
D. 1 : 3
E. 3 : 1
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93. Freon group of refrigerants are
A. inflammable
B. toxic
C. non-inflammable and toxic
D. non-toxic and inflammable
E. non-toxic and non-inflammable.
1011
94. Ammonia is
A. non-toxic
B. non-inflammable
C. toxic and non-inflammable
D. highly toxic and inflammable
95. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
A. suction of compressor
B. delivery of compressor
C. high pressure side close to receiver
D. low pressure side near receiver
E. anywhere in the cycle.
96. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
A. constant pressure lines
B. constant temperature lines
C. constant total heat lines
D. constant entropy lines
E. constant volume lines.
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97. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is representedby a horizontal line
because the process
A. involves no change in volume
B. takes place at constant temperature
C. takes place at constant entropy
D. takes place at constant enthalpy
E. takes place at constant pressure.
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98. One ton of the refrigeration is
A. the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
B. the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
C. the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°Cin 24 hours
D. the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
E. the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice in 1 hour time.
99. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle
A. increases COP
B. decreases COP
C. COP remains unaltered
D. other factors decide COP
E. unpredictable.
100. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressuredifference between
cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
A. bigger cabinet should be used
B. smaller cabinet should be used
C. perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
D. refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
E. refrigerant with high boiling point must be used.
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101. Choose the correct statement
A. A refrigerant should have low latent heat
B. If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with lowboiling point should be used
C. Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same
D. Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same
E. Refrigerant is inside the lubes in case of a direct-expansion chiller.
1015
102. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison todelivery side is
A. bigger
B. smaller
C. equal
D. smaller/bigger depending on capacity
E. unpredictable.
103. Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes
A. ineffective refrigeration
B. high power consumption
C. freezing automatic regulating valve
D. corrosion of whole system
E. breakdown of refrigerant.
104. The advantage of dry compression is that
A. it permits higher speeds to be used
B. it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
C. it results in high volumetirc and mechanical efficiency
D. all of the above

1016
A. Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
B. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
C. All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable onlyof intermittent operation
D. frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
E. refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat.
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106. Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
A. increases COP
B. decreases COF
C. COP remains unaltered
D. other factors decide COP
E. unperdictable.
107. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
A. high
B. low
C. optimum
D. any value
E. there is no such criterion.
108. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
A. heat of compression
B. work done by compressor
C. enthalpy increase in compressor
D. all of the above
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109. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping condenser
temperature constant, will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
E. unpredictable.
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110. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant
A. pressure lines
B. temperature lines
C. total heat lines
D. entropy lines
E. volume lines.
111. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
A. vapour compression
B. vapour absorption
C. carnot cycle
D. electrolux refrigerator
E. dual cycle.
112. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02 system) is to approximate
following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
A. 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
B. to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
C. to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
D. 5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration.
E. to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
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113. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
A. lowers evaporation temperature
B. increases power required per ton of refrigeration
C. lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
D. reduces weight displaced by piston
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114. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
A. condenser
B. evaporator
C. absorber
D. condenser and absorber
E. condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
115. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in asimilar plant is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. more or less depending on ambient conditions
E. unpredictable.
116. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,keeping the evaporator
temperature constant, will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
D. remain unaffected
E. unpredictable.
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117. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point
A. Freon-12
B. NH3
C. C02
D. Freon-22
E. S02.
1023
118. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plantis
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more/less depending on size of plant
E. unpredictable.
119. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditionerwill be

A. same
B. more
C. less
D. dependent on weather conditions
E. unpredictable.
120. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
A. ammonia vapour goes into solution
B. ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
C. lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
D. weak solution mixes with strong solution
E. lithium bromide is driven out of solution.
121. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared tochange in condenser
1024
temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
A. more
B. less
C. equally.
D. unpredictable
1025
122. Free air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
123. Standard air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
124. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
A. 0.5 kg
B. 1.0 kg
C. 1.3 kg
D. 2.2 kg
E. 3.2 kg.
1026
125. Adiabatic compression is one in which
A. temperature during compression remains constant
B. no heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during cornpression
C. temperature rise follows a linear relationship
D. work done is maximum
E. entropy decreases.
126. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /min refers to
A. standard air
B. free air
C. compressed air
D. compressed air at delivery pressure
E. air sucked.
1027
127. The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor is defined as the ratio of
A. isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
B. isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
C. power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
D. work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
E. isothermal work to ideal work.
128. The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
A. isothermally
B. adiabatically
C. isentropically
D. isochronically
E. as per law pV
129. Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
1028
130. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
A. atmospheric
B. slightly more than atmospheric
C. slightly less than atmospheric
D. pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly lessthan atmospheric
E. pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightlymore than atmospheric.
1029
131. Isothermal compression effeicency can be attained by running the compressor
A. at very high speed
B. at very slow speed
C. at average speed
D. at zero speed
E. isothermally.
132. The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. increases upto certain limit and then decreases.
133. Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can beapproached by using
A. multi-stage compression
B. cold water spray
C. both and above
D. fully insulating the cylinder
E. high stroke.
134. Compression efficiency is compared against

1030
A. ideal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
D. isentropic compression
E. isothermal compression.
1031
135. Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
A. radial flow
B. axial flow
C. centrifugal
D. combination of above
136. Inter cooling in compressors
A. cools the delivered air
B. results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
C. is the standard practice for big compressors
D. enables compression in two stages
E. prevents compressor jacket running very hot.
137. An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be representedby following
processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
1032
138. An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following
processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume,
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
1033
139. What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
A. 3 m3/mt .
B. 1.5 m3/mt
C. 18 m3/mt’
D. 6 m3/mt
E. 0.75 m3/mt.
140. The work done per unit mass of air in compression will’be least when n is equal to
A. 1
B. 1.2 ,
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. 1.5
141. Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not -practicable because
A. ityrequires very big cylinder
B. it does not increase pressure much
C. it is impossible in practice
D. compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
E. it requires cylinder to be placed in water.
1034
142. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as
A. mechanical efficiency
B. volumetric efficiency
C. isothermal efficiency
D. adiabatic efficiency
E. relative efficiency.
1035
143. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor iscalled
A. compression index
B. compression ratio
C. compressor efficiency
D. mean effective pressure
E. compressor effectiveness.
144. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be as large as possible
A. as small as possible
B. about 50% of swept volume
C. about 100% of swept volume
D. none of the above.
145. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
A. gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
B. absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
C. pressures at discharge and suction cor-responding to same temperature
D. stroke volume and clearance volume
146. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
A. to accommedate valves in the cylinder head

1036
B. to provide cushioning effect
C. to attain high volumetric efficiency
D. to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
E. to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang ofpiston with cylinder head.
1037
147. The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance volume
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. increases/decreases depending on com-pressor capacity
E. unpredictable
148. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isothermal efficiency
C. volumetric efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
E. adiabatic efficiency.
149. Volumetric efficiency is
A. the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B. the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
C. reciprocal of compression ratio
D. index of compressor performance
E. proportional to compression ratio.
1038
150. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order ofA. 20-30%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-70%
D. 70-90%
E. 90-100%.
151. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. in not dependent upon compression ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
1039
152. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. is not dependent upon compressin ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
153. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because
A. it allows maximum compression to be achieved
B. it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
C. it results in minimum work
D. it permits isothermal compression
154. Euler’s equation is applicable for
A. centrifugal compressor
B. axial compressor
C. pumps
D. all of the above
1040
155. Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for genrating a given amountof power
A. steam power plant
B. petrol engine
C. diesel engine’
D. solar plant
E. gas turbine plant.
1041
156. In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as compared to turbo-jet engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depening upon speed
157. Turbofan engine employs
A. one air stream
B. two or more air streams
C. no air stream
D. solid fuel firing
E. rocket principle for its operation.
158. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of
A. compressor pressure ratio
B. highest pressure to exhaust pressure
C. inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
D. pressures across the turbine
1042
A. gas turbine is a self-starting unit
B. gas turbine does not require huge quantity of water like steam plant
C. exhaust losses in gas turbine are high due to large mass flow rate
D. overall efficiency of gas turbine plant is lower than that of a reciprocatingengine

E. gas turbine can be easily started and stopped and thus is best suited forpeaking demands.
1043
160. The efficiency and work ratio of a gas turbine plant can be increased by
A. using mulit-stage compressor with mfercooler
B. adding heat exchanger
C. injecting water in/around combustion chamber
D. reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
161. Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor
A. from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
B. from outside atmosphere at 1°C
C. from coal yard side
D. from a side where cooling tower is located nearby
E. from any one of the above locations.
162. Mining industry usually employs following motive power
A. A.C. electric motor
B. compressed air
C. petrol engine
D. diesel engine
E. D.C. electric motor.
1044
163. Which is false statement about air receivers
A. These are used to dampen pulsations ,
B. These act as reservoir totake care of sudden demands
C. These increase compressor efficiency
D. These knock out some oil and moisture
E. These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors.
164. The efficiency of jet engine is
A. higher at ground
B. higher at high altitudes
C. same at all altitudes
D. higher at high speed
E. lower at low speed.
1045
165. An air receiver is to be placed outside. Should it be placed in
A. sun
B. shade
C. rain
D. enclosed room
E. anywhere.
166. Which is false statement about multistage compression .
A. Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
B. Volumetric efficiency is high
C. It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
D. The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
E. Outlet temperature is reduced.
167. In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by
A. employing intercooler
B. by constantly cooling the cylinder
C. by running compressor at very slow speed
D. by insulating the cylinder
1046
168. Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
169. Rotary compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
1047
170. The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
A. lowest
B. highest
C. anything.
D. atmospheric
171. After-cooler is used to
A. cool the air
B. decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
C. cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D. reduce volume
E. increase pressure.
172. To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
A. rise gradually towards the point of use
B. drop gradually towards the point of use
C. be laid vertically
D. be laid exactly horizontally
E. none of the above
1048
173. Separators in compressor installations are located
A. before intercooler
B. after intercooler
C. after receiver
D. between after-cooler and air receiver
E. before suction.
1049
174. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area ofideal indicator
diagram is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. more/less depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
175. An air compressor may be controlled by
A. throttle control clearance control
B. blow-off control
C. any one of the above
D. none of the above.
176. The compressor efficiecny is the
A. isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
B. isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
C. total output/air input
D. compression work/motor input
E. none Of the above.
177. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air linesshould be taken from
A. top side of main
1050
B. bottom side of main
C. left side of main
D. right side of main
E. any location.
178. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
A. radial component
B. axial component
C. tangential component
D. resultant component
1051
179. The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea level will be
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. dependent on other factors
180. A compressor at high altitude will draw
A. more power
B. less power
C. same power
D. more/less power depending on other factors
181. During peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
1052
182. A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
A. conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
B. conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure energy
C. centripetal action
D. generating pressure directly
E. combination of and .
183. For a compressor, least work will be done if the compression is
A. isentropic
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. somewhere in between isentropic and isothermal
1053
184. In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum
A. 2-stroke engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. 4-stroke diesef engine
D. multi-cylinder engine
E. gas turbine.
185. In jet engines the compression ratio
A. varies as square root of the speed
B. Varies linearly to the speed
C. varies as square of the speed
D. varies as cube of the speed
E. is constant irrespective of variation in speed.
186. The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having fixed efficiencies of compressor
and turine and fixed higher and lower temperature) withincrease in pressure ratio will
A. increase first at fast rate and then slow
B. increase first at slow rate and then fast
C. decrease continuously
D. first increase, reach maximum and then decrease
1054
187. The working fluid in ai turbine is
A. in two phases
B. in three phases
C. in a single phase
D. in the form of air and water mixture
E. gas and no air.
1055
188. In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered at the statedpressure reduced to
A. N.T.P. conditions
B. intake temperature and pressure conditions
C. 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
189. The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor is calculated on the basis of
A. volume of air inhaled at working conditions
B. volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
C. volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
190. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in
elevation
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
1056
191. For slow-speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve will be bestsuited
A. poppet valve
B. mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or semirotary type
C. disc or feather type
D. any of the above
1057
192. During base load operation, the best method of controlling compressor is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
193. More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the deliverypressure is more
than
A. 2 kg/cm2
B. 6 kg/cm2
C. 10 kg/cm2
D. 14.7 kg/cm2
194. The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is
A. lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
B. higher volumetric efficiency
C. decreased discharge temperature
D. moisture free air
1058
195. Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage compression
A. better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
B. more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
C. mechanical balance is better
D. air can be cooled perfectly in between
E. more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in work.
1059
196. As the value of index ‘«’ is decreased, the volumetric efficiency will
A. increase
B. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor clearance
197. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugalcompressor is called
A. slip factor
B. velocity factor
C. velocity coefficient
D. blade effectiveness
198. For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use
A. turbo-jet engine
B. ram-jet engine
C. propellers
D. rockets
E. hydraulic jet propulsion.
199. A simple turbo-jet engine is basically
A. a propeller system
1060
B. gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
C. chemical rocket regine
D. ram-jet enigne
200. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
A. inlet losses
B. impeller channel losses
C. diffuser losses
D. all of the above
1061
201. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in
atmospheric temperature
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
202. The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is
A. directly proportional to clearance volume
B. greatly affected by clearance volume
C. not affected by clearance volume
D. inversely proportional to clearance volume
203. Ram-jet engine
A. is self-operating at zero flight speed
B. is not self-operating at zero^flight speed
C. requires no air for its operation
D. produces a jet consisting of plasma
204. Reheating in gas turbine results in

1062
A. increase of work ratio
B. decrease of thermal efficiency
C. decrease of work ratio
D. both and above
E. both and above.
205. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of
A. net work output and work done by turbine
B. net work output and heat supplied
C. work done by turbine and heat supplied
D. work done by turbine and net work output
E. actual/heat drop and isentropic heat drop.
1063
206. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by
A. decreasing the compression work
B. increasing the compression work
C. increasing the turbine work
D. decreasing the turbine work
E. A and C above.
207. Maximum temprature in a gas turbine is of the order of COMPRESSORS, GASTURBINES AND JET
ENGINES
A. 2500°C
B. 2000°C
C. 1500°C
D. 1000°C
E. 700°C.
208. In the aircraft propellers
A. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
B. propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend on presence of air
D. all of the above
1064
209. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expading
A. gases
B. solids
C. liquid
D. plasma
E. highly heated atmospheric air.
1065
210. For actual single stage centrifugal compressor, the maximum pressure ratio is ofthe order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 4
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
211. Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparisonto single stage
compressor
A. less power requirement
B. better mechanical balance
C. less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
D. more effective lubrication
E. lower volumetric efficiency.
212. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as
A. pressure coefficient
B. work coefficient
C. polytropic reaction
D. slip factor
E. compressor efficiency.
1066
213. The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary compressor is
A. isentropic compression
B. isothermal compression
C. polytropic compression
1067
214. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, followingcompressor is best suited
A. centrifugal
B. reciprocating
C. axial
D. screw
E. turbo jet.
215. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index ofcompression in all stages
A. work done in first stage should be more
B. work done in subsequent stages should increase
C. work done in subsequent stages should decrease
D. work done in all stages should be equal
E. work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends onother factors.
216. For a two stage compressor* if index of compression for higher stage is greater than index of
compression for lower stage, then the optimum pressure as comparedto ideal case will
A. increase
B. decrease
D. other factors control it
E. unpredictable.
217. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
1068
A. increase velocity
B. make the flow stream-line
C. convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
D. convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
E. increase degree of reaction.
1069
218. The compression ratio in a jet engine varies proportional to
A. speed
B. speed
C. altitude
D. Vspeed
E. does not Vary.
219. The ratio of isentropic work to euler’s work is known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isentropic efficiency
C. Euler’s efficiency
D. pressure coefficient
E. pressure ratio.
220. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
A. isothermal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. isentropic compression
D. polytropic compression
1070
221. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
A. no flow of air
B. fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
C. reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
D. increased inclination of chord with air steam
E. does not occur.
1071
222. The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow comperssor isof the order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
223. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A. 6 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 16 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
E. 40 kg/cm2.
224. Surging is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
225. Pick up wrong statement.Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor dependson

1072
A. mass flow rate
B. pressure ratio
C. change in load
D. stagnation pressure at the outlet
1073
226. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increase in pressure inthe stage is called
A. pressure ratio
B. pressure coefficient
C. degree of reaction
D. slip factor
E. stage factor.
227. Axial flow compressor resembles
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. turbine
D. sliding vane compressor
228. Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor
A. larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
B. higher pressure ratio per stage
C. aerofoil blades are used
D. higher average velocities
229. Actual compression curve is

1074
A. same as isothermal
B. same as adiabatic
C. better than isothermal and adiabatic
D. in between isothermal and adiabatic
1075
230. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The airpressure will be
A. 1.03 kg/cm2
B. 1.06 kg/cm2
C. 1.0 kg/cm2
D. 0.53 kg/cm2
E. 0.5 kg/cm2.
231. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in mass flow rate
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first decreases and then increases
E. unpredictable.
232. Rotary compressors are suitable for
A. large discharge at high pressure
B. low discharge at high pressure
C. large discharge at low pressure
D. low discharge at low pressure
E. there is no such limitation.
233. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
1076
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume
1077
234. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
A. centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure overa considerable range of capacities
B. Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant delivery at variablepressures
C. centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than axialflow compressors
D. axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to centrifugal type
E. axial flow compressors apt to be longer as compared to centrifugal type.
236. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of
A. net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work doneby tur¬bine
B. actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
C. net work output and isentropic heat drop
D. isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and actual increase/ dropin temperature.
237. Gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
1078
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
1079
238. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of die above.
239. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gasturbine of same h.p.
is
A. low
B. high
C. same
D. low/high depending on make and type
E. unpredictable.
240. Open cycle gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
1080
241. The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by
A. lower heating value
B. higher heating value
C. heating value
D. higher calorific value
E. highest calorific value.
1081
242. Gas turbines for power generaion are normally used
A. to supply base load requirements
B. to supply peak load requirements
C. to enable start thermal power plant
D. in emergency
E. when other sources of power fail.
243. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on on odier considerations
E. unpredictable.
244. The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas turbin and I.C engines may be typically ofthe order of
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 1:2
E. 1 : 6.
1082
245. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is
A. same
B. more
C. less
E. unpredictably.
1083
246. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order ofA. 7 : 1

B. 15 : 1
C. 30 : 1
D. 40 : 1
E. 50: 1.
247. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
A. ,2:l
B. 4:1
C. 61: 1
D. 9 : 1
E. 12:1.
248. Pick up the correct statement
A. closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
B. gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
C. air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine is 100 : 1
D. ideal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant is more than carnot cycleefficiency
E. thrust in turbo-jet is produced by nozzle exit gases.
249. The hottest point in a gas turbine is
A. at the base
1084
B. at the tip
C. in the center
D. between ~ to i of the blade height
E. uniformly heated.
1085
250. The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger.
A. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is heated
B. compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
C. bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
D. exhaust gases drive the compressor
E. part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up with atmospheric air to utiliseexhaust heat.
251. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
A. equal to zero
B. in the direction of motion of blades
C. opposite to the direction of motion of blades
D. depending on the velocity
252. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A. reheating
B. inter cooling
C. adding a regenerator
D. all of the above
253. Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gasturbine is
1086
A. higher
B. lower
C. equal
D. can’t be compared
E. unpredictable.
1087
254. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
255. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperaturewith increase in
pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. first decreases and then increases
E. remains same.
256. Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
A. centrifugal type
B. reciprocating type
C. lobe type
D. axial flow type
1088
257. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine forthe optimum
pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.
1089
258. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is
maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency
would
A. remain same
B. decrease
C. increase
D. unpredictable
259. The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is
A. stainless steel
B. high alloy’ steel
C. duralumin
D. Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
E. titanium.
260. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because
A. it is inefficient
B. it is bulky
C. it requires cooling water for its operation
261. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is ofthe order of
1047
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 90%
E. 99%.
1047
262. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
A. more
B. less
C. same
E. unpredictable.
263. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on
A. pressure ratio alone
B. maximum cycle temperature alone
C. minimum cycle temperature alone
D. both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
264. Producer gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in amixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
1048
265. Water gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of caol, eke, anthractie coal or charcoal in a mixedair steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
1049
266. Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
A. control temperature
B. control output of turbine
C. control fire hazards
D. increase efficiency
E. it is never done.
267. A gas turbine used in air craft should have
A. high h.p. and low weight
B. low weight and small frontal area
C. small frontal area and high h.p.
D. high speed and high h.p.
268. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
A. increases thermal efficiency
B. allows high compression ratio
C. decreases heat loss is exhaust
D. allows operation at very high altitudes
E. permits high moisture content fuel to be used.
1050
269. The closed cycle in gas turbines
A. provides greater flexibility
B. provides lesser flexibility
C. in never used
D. is used when gas is to be burnt
1051
270. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of
A. compressor work and turbine work
B. output and input
C. actual total head tempeature drop to the isentrpic total head dropfrom total head inlet to static head
outlet
D. actual compressor work and theoretical comprssor work
271. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of isentropictemperature drop in a blade
row to the
A. adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
B. total temperature drop
C. total temperature drop in the stage
D. total adiabaitc temperature drop
E. difference of maximum and minimum temperature in the cycle.
272. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines
A. to increase the output
B. to increase the efficiency
C. to save fuel
D. to reduce the exit temperature
1052
273. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order ofA. 10: 1
B. 15: 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 60 : 1
E. 100 : 1.
1053
274. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process inturbine approaches
A. isothermal
B. isentropic
C. adiabatic
D. isochoric
E. isobaric.
A. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise on fuel
B. gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
C. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
D. all of the above
276. Intercooling in gas turbine results in
A. increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
B. increase in thermal efficiency but decrease in net output
C. increase in both thermal efficiency and net output
D. decrease in both thermal efficiency and net output
277. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of fluid,
1054
and suffix i and o stand for entry and exit conditions,then in a rotary machine whose degree of reaction
is unity
A. Vi=V0
B. Vt>V0
C. U,<V0
D. V,= U0
E. Vri=Vm.
1055
A. large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
B. axial flow compressors are more stable than centrifugal typecompressors but not as efficient
C. axial flow compressors have high capacity and efficiency
D. axial flow compressors have instability region of operation
E. centrifugal compressors are used mainly on low flow pressure ratio gasturbines.
279. The power available for take off and climb in case of turbojet engine as comparedto reciprocating
engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depending on ambient conditons
E. unpredictable.
A. large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
B. gas turbines have their blades similar to steam turbine
C. gas .turbine’s blade will appear as impulse section at the huband as a reaction section at tip
D. gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
E. all of the above are correct.
281. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt directly in the air is not possiblebecause of
1056
A. high pressure ratio
B. increasing gas temperature
C. high specific volume
D. high friction losses
E. paucity of 02.
1057
282. Choose the correct statement
A. gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
B. gas turbine is capable of rapid start up and loading
C. gas turbines have flat efficiency at part loads
D. gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of maintenance
E. gas turbines can be used to generate power only.
283. Ram compression in turbojet involves
A. reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of part of it intopressure energy

B. compression of inlet air
C. increasing speed of incoming air
D. lost work
E. leakage losses.
284. In gas turbines^ high thermal efficiency is obtained in
A. closed cycle
B. open cycle
C. both of the above
D. closed/open depending on other con-siderations
E. unpredictable.
285. In the cross compounding of the gas turbine plant

1058
A. h.p. compressor L connected to h.p. turbine and l.p. compressor ot l.p. tur-bine
B. h.p. compressor is connected to l.p. turbine and l.p. compressor iscon-nected to h.p. turbine
C. both the arrangements can be employed
D. all are connected in series
1059
286. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of
A. mass
B. energy
C. flow
D. linear momentum
E. angular momentum.
287. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in anatmosphere of
A. vacuum
B. atmospheric air
C. compressed air
D. oxygen alone
E. liquid hydrogen.
288. Which of the following fuels can be used in turbojet engines
A. liquid hydrogne
B. high speed diesel oil
C. kerosene
D. demethylated spirit
E. methyl alcohol
289. Turbo propeller has the^following additional feature over the turbojet
1060
A. propeller
B. diffuser
C. intercooler
D. turbine and combustion chamber
E. starting engine.
1061
290. Propulsive efficiency is defined as ratio of
A. thrust power and fuel energy
B. engine output and propulsive power
C. propulsive power and fuel input
D. thrust power and propulsive power
291. In jet engines, paraffin is usually used as the fuel because of its
A. high calorific value
B. ease of atomisation
C. low freezing point
D. A and C above
292. A rocket engine for the combustion of its fuel
A. carries its own oxygen
B. uses surrounding air
C. uses compressed atmospheric air
D. does not require oxygen
E. depends on electrical energy supplied by solar cells.
1062
293. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air craft velocity is equal tothe
A. jet velocity
B. twice the jet velocity
C. half the jet velocity
D. average of the jet velocity
E. no such co-relationship with jet velocity exists.
1063
294. Propulsion efficiency of the following order-is obtained in practice (ti)A. 34%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 72%
E. 85%.
295. The maximum propulsion efficiency of a turbojet is attained at around followingspeed –

A. 550 km/hr
B. 1050km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 2400km /hr
E. 4000 km/hr.
296. In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is used in order to
A. collect more air
B. convert kinetic energy of air into pres-sure energy
C. provide robust structure
D. beautify the shape
297. In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through the gas lurbine aredischarged into
A. atmosphere
1064
B. back to the compressor
C. discharge nozzle
D. vacuum
1065
298. The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. zero
E. dependent on power and speed.
A. pulsojet requires no ambient air for propulsion
B. ramjet-engine has no turbine
C. turbine drives compressor in a burbojet
D. bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely affecting, thepropulsive efficiency and
fuel economy
E. propeller is an indirect reaction device.
300. Thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
A. burning fuel after gas turbine
B. injecting water in the compressor
C. injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
D. all of the three above
1066
301. The blades of gas turbine are made of
A. mild steel
B. stainless steel
C. carbon steel
D. high alloy seel
E. high nicket alloy (neimonic).
1067
302. The following property is most important for material used for gas turbine blade
A. toughness
B. fatigue
C. creep
D. corrosion resistance
E. bulk modulus.
303. The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the following incompressor
A. ammonia and water vapour
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
304. The weight per horse power ratio for gas. turbine as compared to I.C. engine andsteam turbine is
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. uncomparable
E. unpredictable.
305. Fighter bombers use following type of engine

1068
A. turbo-jet
B. turbo-propeller
C. rocket
D. ram-jet ,
E. pulsojet.
1069
(English Language)
1. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?
A. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Manoverboard"
2. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?
A. Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwiseit is not important.
3. What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drillfor all persons on board the
ship?
A. The Muster List
4. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the twisting?
A. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a'Spreader'
5. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the otherside"?
A. Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder tothe opposite side of the ship.
6. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?

A. Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
7. What do you understand by: Bitter end?
A. Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured withinthe chain locker
8. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?
A. Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
9. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder?
A. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the accommodation
ladder and rig the pilot ladder rightnext to it
10. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?
A. Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug
11. What does the word "pirates" mean?
A. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
12. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?
A. Draught is D, in the figure
13. What is the meaning of "make fast"
A. To secure a rope
14. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch thelifeboat?
A. Lifeboat drill
15. What is the objective of the merchant navy?
A. To safely transport goods by sea
16. What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?
A. The crew mess
17. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?
A. Take over the steering of the ship.
18. Where is "AFT", in the figure?
A. Aft is A, in the figure
19. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?
A. The Bridge is A, in the figure
20. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

A. The Forecastle is B, in the figure

21. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?
A. The Port quarter is D, in the figure
22. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?
A. The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure
23. Read this text and answer the question: To whom should training inpersonal survival techniques be
given?
A. To all seafarers.
24. Select from the options given the statement that best describes the main duties of an engine room
rating who is part of an engine room watch?
A. Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should assist in efficient and
safe watchkeeping routines.
25. What action should be taken by the engine room rating if a piece of not functioning properly?
A. If machinery does not function properly the duty Engineer should be informed
immediately so that plans for further action can be made.
26. What has the cadet been ordered to do?
A. The Cadet has been ordered to paint the evaporator using a paint brush
27. What is a hydraulic hand pump usually used for?
A. A hydraulic hand pump is usually used to tighten G- nuts
28. What is the correct name of the equipment shown in the illustration?
A. Pedestal drill
29. What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration?
A. Turbocharger
A. Connecting rod
A. Piston rod
A. Camshaft
A. Piston
A. Crosshead
A. Crankshaft
A. Exhaust valve
A. Exhaust valve
A. Fuel injector
39. What is the correct name of the tool in the illustration?

A. Monkey wrench
40. What is the correct name of the tool shown in the illustration?
A. Water Pump Pliers
A. Flat file
A. Adjustable wrench
43. What should the cadet be aware of when using a needle gun?
A. The Cadet should be aware of the dangers associated with using aneedle gun
44. What should the Fitter be asked to do?
A. The Fitter should be asked to check the level of hydraulic oil in theheader tank
45. What will happen when the ship arrives in Rotterdam?
A. The ship will receive fuel and diesel oil bunkers

46. What will the cadet expect to find in the engine room store?
A. The Cadet will expect to find machinery spare parts in the engine roomstore
47. What will the cadet find in the maintenance manual?
A. The Cadet will find a lubricating chart in the maintenance manual
48. Why did the Second Engineer wish to make a monthly allotment?
A. The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he wasmarried
49. With reference to engine room operations, what does the term "Stand By"mean?
A. "Stand By" means that the engineers should be ready to respond to bridge
requirements.
50. Select the option which best describes the primary duty of a watch-keepingengineer?
A. The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to maintain constantsurveillance of the main engine
and auxiliary machinery
51. Under what circumstances may a watch-keeping engineer normallyundertake other, non-watchkeeping
duties?
A. When they have been properly relieved of their watchkeeping duties.
52. What action should machinery is operating at slightly high temperature buteverything else appears ok?
A. It should be brought to the attention of the Chief Engineer so thatremedial action can be decided upon.
53. What does the Chief Officer want the First Engineer to do?
A. The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to empty the starboard bilgein No. 5 hold
54. What does the term "Dead Ship" mean?
A. "Dead Ship" means that the machinery and boilers are inoperationaldue to lack of electrical power
55. What would the First Engineer require?
A. The First Engineer would require an inspection of the heating coils
56. When should the watch-keeping engineer inform the bridge that the main engine is ready for
manoeuvring?
A. Once the engine is properly prepared and tested and the engine room iscorrectly manned
57. Which of the options given is one of the main responsibilities of a watch-keeping engineer?
A. To inform the Chief Engineer of any situations that cannot becontrolled during the watch
58. Which of the options represents the best action to take when an item of machinery, which normally
operates in automatic mode, is operated in'manual' mode?
A. Monitor the operation of the machinery on a frequent basis.
59. Why did he study the contract in detail before signing it? Why did he studythe contract in detail before
signing it?
A. He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted toknow his duties
60. Why did the new Cadet want to go to the messroom?
A. The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to become acquaintedwith the officers
61. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understandby the following request from
the bridge, "How is the chain"?
A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable fromthe hawse pipe.
62. Ho should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poopthat "It is the tug's wire"??
A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast.
63. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel wasport side alongside a jetty?
A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure
64. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter"C". Which bridge instrument
would indicate this depth?
A. Echo Sounder
65. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the"Bridge"?
A. The Bridge is indicated by A, in the figure
66. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would used bythe "FORWARD SPRING" when
mooring the ship?
A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure
67. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?
A. Mid ships is indicated by B, in the figure

68. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" ofthe ship?
A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
69. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known asthe "STERN"?
A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure
70. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the sternof a vessel, when moored
port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows thedirection which would be used by a "STERN LINE"?
A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure
71. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?
A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure
72. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel?
A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure
73. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?
A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure
74. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?
A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
75. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?
A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow
76. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shownby the letter "A"? It is normally
raised by one deck above the main deck
A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
77. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of thevessel?
A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure
78. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word"DRAUGHT" of the ship?
A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure
79. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?
80. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: Whenshould training in personal
survival techniques be given?
A. Before being employed
81. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should begiven to prospective seafarers?
A. Approved training in survival techniques
82. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement
relating to the older ships, which are still in service?
A. The older ships must be in good condition.
83. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when thevessel is in the middle of the
ocean?
A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and reportanything sighted, or heard, to the Officer
of the Watch
84. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations toleave the berth and go to sea?
A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
85. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooringand unmooring?
A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires
86. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?
A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
87. What is a "Fairlead"?
A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wiresto stop them moving sideward’s
and reduces friction and chafing
88. What is a mooring line?
A. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
89. What is a ship's "Gangway"?
A. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and theshore
90. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was
moored?
A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just
leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
91. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes duringmooring and unmooring?
A. Winch
92. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor?
A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen
93. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?
A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
94. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship andshore?
A. Gangway
95. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's mainengines?
A. Bunkers
96. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship usedto make a tug fast?
A. Towing spring
97. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture?
A. Survival suit
98. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on thebridge?
A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging indegrees per minute
100. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"?
A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people
onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship
101. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"?
A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
102. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship?
A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured
103. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?
A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure
104. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to anorder?
A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to theperson who gave it before carrying
out the order.
105. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of thequestion "What is the
aspect of the other ship"?
A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction the othership is heading.
106. When should the lookout report another vessel?
A. As soon as it is sighted or heard.
A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure
108. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"?
A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into thelifeboats
109. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?
A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure

110. Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?
A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure
111. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?
A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure
112. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?
A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure
113. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?
A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure
114. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFTBREAST LINE"?
A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure
115. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous?
A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
116. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to livesat sea and the marine
environment?
A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.
117. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch?
A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic.

118. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term"LENGTH OVERALL"?
A. Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure
119. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended tobe used when the ship's
Officer is verbally talking to whom?
A. In circumstances described in all of the answers provided
120. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to asthe OOW. What does OOW
actually stand for?
A. Officer of the Watch
121. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?
A. Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure
122. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?
A. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure
123. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?
A. Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure
124. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" asapplied to a ship?
A. The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same extreme
dimensions.
125. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to helpovercome any misunderstanding
in communications?
A. The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP)booklet

126. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?
A. The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure
127. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request
from the bridge, "How is the chain"?
A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cablefrom the hawse pipe.
128. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poopthat "It is the tug's
wire"??
A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast.
129. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel wasport side alongside a jetty?
A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure
130. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge
instrument would indicate this depth?
A. Echo Sounde
131. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the"Bridge"?
A. The Bridge is indicated by A, in the figure
132. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probablybe used by the "FORWARD
SPRING" when mooring the ship?
A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure
133. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?

A. Midships is indicated by B, in the figure

134. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW"of the ship?
135. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known asthe "STERN"?
A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure
136. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when
moored port side alongside a jetty. Which lettershows the direction which would be used by a "STERN
LINE"?
A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure
137. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?
A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure
138. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel?
A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure
139. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?
A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure
140. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?
A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
141. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?
A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow
142. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shownby the letter "A"? It is
normally raised by one deck above the main deck
A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
143. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of thevessel?
A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure
144. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word"DRAUGHT" of the ship?
A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure
145. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?
146. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: Whenshould training in personal
survival techniques be given?
A. Before being employed
147. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective
seafarers?
A. Approved training in survival techniques
148. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is thefundamental requirement
relating to the older ships, which are still in service?
A. The older ships must be in good condition.
149. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when thevessel is in the middle of the
ocean?
A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to
the Officer of the Watch
150. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations toleave the berth and go to
sea?
A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
151. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooringand unmooring?
A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires
152. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?
A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
153. What is a "Fairlead"?
A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wiresto stop them moving sideward’s
and reduces friction and chafing
154. What is a mooring line?
A. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
155. What is a ship's "Gangway"?
A. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and theshore
156. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leavethe jetty to which it was
moored?
A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just
leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
157. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes duringmooring and unmooring?
A. Winch
158. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor?
A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen
159. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?
A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
160. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship andshore?
A. Gangway
161. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's mainengines?
A. Bunkers
162. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship usedto make a tug fast?
A. Towing spring
163. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture?
A. Survival suit
164. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on thebridge?
A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging indegrees per minute
165. What is the role of a tug in a port?
A. A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor
166. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"?
A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects ofgetting all the people onboard safely
off the ship, in the event ofabandoning ship
167. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"?
A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
168. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship?
A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured
169. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?
A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure
170. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding toan order?
A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to theperson who gave it before carrying
out the order.
171. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What is the
aspect of the other ship"?
A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction theother ship is heading.
172. When should the lookout report another vessel?
A. As soon as it is sighted or heard.
A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure
174. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"?
A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into thelifeboats
175. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?
A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure

176. Whichis the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?
A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure

177. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?
A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure
178. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?
A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure
179. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?
A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure
180. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFTBREAST LINE"?
A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure
181. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous?
A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
182. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the marine
environment?
A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.
183. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch?
A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic.

Question List and Student Answered
1. If the hot work is to be . at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottombe thoroughly cleaned
and all sediments removed
A. carried out – shall
2. It is still raining now outside. Therefore, the AB’s ............................ their rain coat.
A. are wearing
3. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply?
A. Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as part of the ship's
complement with designated safety or pollution duties
4. When navigating a vessel, you to maintain its exact position
D. Should never rely on a floating aid
5. Seaman A ............ Get persuaded by drug peddlers
Seaman B : OK. Don’t worry I won’t
B. Make sure you don’t
6. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
A. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of the degrees itis now
7. The Local Notice to Mariners is usually published .
B. Weekly
8. Man...........................I’ve booked the table but you give it to other costumers

Woman : I’m sorry, Sir. We’re going to fix it
B. This is really a nuisance

9. A lookout can leave his station .
A. Only when properly relieved
10. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand bythe following request from
the bridge, "How is the chain"?
A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from thehawse pipe
11. The distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargotank is called
C. Ullage
12. Whose overall duty is it, to ensure that the plan for entry into an enclosed orconfined space is followed?
A. The Responsible Officer
13. Seaman A ............................. I would stay away from drugs
Seaman B : Yes, I know. I’ll stay away from it
C. If I were you
14. What is the first step in any potentially hazardous work task on board
A. Risk assessment
15. Man : Do you think that free education for poor people will be an effectivepolicy?
Woman .................................... because this is what they really need
A. I think this will help them a lot
16. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather, putting the
engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring .
A. The bow in and the stern out
17. Chief Engineer : What do you think is the effective way to reduce tooblack smoke ?
Second Engineer ........................ clean the filter is one of the effective ways to
reduce it.
C. In my opinion
18. Able seaman : What do you think of the book?
Oiler ........................................... I really love it
A. It’s terrific
19. You should keep clear of .
A. any line under a strain
20. X: Why didn’t you answer my phone last night?
Y: Sorry, I......................... out to meet my lecturer, and I left my mobile phone at

home
C. Went
21. Which of the following describes the “Responsible Officer”?
A. A person appointed by the employer or to whom the Master of the ship has delegated responsibility,
empowered to take charge of a specific task
22. Seaman A : How was your trip to Nias?
Seaman B ........................................ with it. I want to go there again next year.
A. I’m very pleased
23. Someone .................... the door now. We are not in the living room
C. Is knocking
24. Your vessel loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice
buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you pump fuel oil from
midships to the ends ofthe vessel
B. Has been-could
25. For shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships bekept after their completion?
A. how long
26. The following is one of the writer’s suggestions in forcing people to usepublic Transportations.............
A. Make people buy transit passes as part of their property taxes
27. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a .

B. Measurement cargo
28. How can you best protect yourself against the most common injury, sprainsor cuts in hands, arms or
fingers?
B. By using gloves when practical, and being observant of the risk
29. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and theireffects, that a ship can
carry, is the .
B. Deadweight
30. What time does your cook get up for preparing breakfast ?
B. He always gets up at 5 am
MANAGE SAFE AND EFFECTIVE MAINTENANCE AND REPAIR PROCEDURES
component in that the manufacturer's instructions ado not apply tothe engine as fitted and present a
hazard. In which of the information/record sources given in the options, is it most important to record
the information relatingto this anomaly?
A. ISM procedures in the ship'ssafety manual.
B. Engine room log book.
C. Engine room planned maintenanceschedule.

D. Safety officers report.
welding set?
A. Use a "go and return" system with the return cable connected directlyfrom the welding set to the
work piece if possible.
B. Have a short length of cable permanently connected to the shipsstructure close to the welding set.
C. Weld a stud bolt close to the work piece and connect the return cable to this.
D. Move the welding set to the welding site.
3. How should the spare oxygen and acetylene gas welding bottles be stored onboardthe ship?
A. In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
B. In the workshop in the engine room as close as possible towelding equipment.

C. In a refrigerated room.
D. In the steering flat.
1101
the Classification Society must carry out a periodic audit of the documentation for the approved
planned maintenance system and undertake a confirmatory survey of the items surveyed. What is the
normal frequency for this audit?
A. Annual.
B. Bi-annual.
C. Every 4 years.
D. Every 5 years
A. Mark the items as not to be used and store them securely until theycan be tested by a competent
person.
B. Scrap the items immediately as they are unusable once they have not beentested for 5 years.
C. Have them inspected immediately by a competent person so that they canbe used for the task.
D. Return them to the lifting gear locker and make a note in the Register ofLifting Gear that they need to
be tested.
1102
6. Prior to removing the access doors to a pressure vessel for internal maintenance it should be ensured
that all pressure has been relieved. As well as a zero indication on a pressure gauge which other
measure, from the options given should be taken toconfirm this prior to commencing the work?
A. Open the drain valve while pressure still shows on the gauge and to check itis clear. Outflow should
cease as the pressure gauge reaches zero.
B. Back of the tensioning device for the relief valve to vent the pressure toatmosphere.
C. Open the drain valve when the gauge reads zero to check that there is nooutflow.
D. Open the drain valve and when the outflow stops slacken off the drain valve flange bolts and 'crack'
open the flange in case the drain is blocked.
A. …for any space with limited access or non-continuous ventilation or is suspected of having a
C. …only if the space has been used to carry any cargo or contains any
cargo related equipment.
D. …only if the space has a watertight door or watertight access opening.
A. As it is only a routine maintenance and not a breakdown then postpone the task until full details of
the motor can be obtained.
B. Try and lift it with the engine room crane as it is designed to lift theheaviest components in the engine.
C. Use the biggest chain blocks and strops available and carry out a trial lift.
D. Estimate the weight of the motor and select a chain block and strop witha safe working load of 1.5 times
the calculated load.
1103
9. When carrying out repair or maintenance tasks involving hot work a hot workpermit must be issued.
hot work…
A. ..should only cover specific hot work tasks and be valid for a specifiedtime period.'
B. ..can cover any additional hot work that arises during the completion of the task during the specified
time period.'
C. ..is valid for completion of the specific hot work tasks irrespective of thetime taken.'
D. ..should only cover specific hot work tasks, be valid for a specified timeperiod and be issued by the
person carrying out the work.'
10. According to regulations cranes and other lifting appliances onboard should, at regular intervals, be
examined by ship's personnel and the result recorded in Register of Ship's Lifting Appliances and Cargo
Handling Gear. How often should such examinations take place?
A. Annually.
B. Every 5 years.
C. Every 6 months.
D. Biannually.
11. At what calendar interval is a "Special Survey" required?
A. 5 years.
B. Annually.
C. At 20 years and every five years thereafter.
D. Every 2 1/2 years.
12. At what calendar interval must lifting appliances on board a vessel be suitablytested by a competent
person?
1104
A. 5 years.
B. Annually.
C. 2 years.
D. 2 1/2 years.
1105
DPKP
13. During the 5-yearly overhaul and operational test of a lifeboat on-load release gear,to what level should
the gear be load tested?
A. Times the total mass of the lifeboat when
loaded with its full complement of personsand equipment.

B. The equivalent to the total mass of the lifeboat when loaded with its full complement of persons and
equipment.
C. 1.25 times the total mass of the lifeboat
whenloaded with its full complement of persons and equipment.
D. 0.8 times the total mass of the lifeboat when loaded with its full complementof persons, equipment
and stores.
14. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment,which document must
be available to the
surveyor to demonstrate compliance withSOLAS?
A. A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Approved Service Provider on behalf
of the flag
B. A report giving the result of the
Performance Test, issued by the manufacturer in compliance with the FlagState Authority requirements.
C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the serial number of the equipment
installation.
D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved ServiceProvider in compliance with SOLAS
V/26-4.
15. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competentperson required under
SOLAS?
A. Annually.
B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment Survey.
C. When the battery is replaced.
D. When the data media is downloaded.

DPKP
16. When a Classification Society surveyor identifies corrosion, structural defects or damage to the hull of
a vessel, machinery and / or any piece of equipment which, based on the society's rules and in the
opinion of the surveyor affects the ship's class, which of the following is that surveyor likely to issue?
A. A Condition of Class.
B. A Notification of Deficiency.
C. A Notification of Detention.
D. A revised Class Notation.
17. Where would you find the document relating to the "Condition of FreeboardAssignment" onboard?
A. With the Loadline Certificate.
B. With the Structural Survey File.
C. With the Classification Records.
D. With the Safety Construction Certificate.
18. Where would you look for information on the ratings applied to a vessel's fireratings on her bulkheads,
based on SOLAS requirements?
A. The Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate.
B. The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate.
C. The Safety Management Certificate.
D. The MODU Safety Certificate.
19. Which Convention first placed on the shipowner an obligation to exercise due diligence to make a ship
seaworthy, requiring him "before and at the beginning of a voyage…to….make the ship
seaworthy…and…make the holds...and all other parts of the vessel in which goods are carried, fit and
safe for their reception, carriageand preservation"?
A. The Hague-Visby Rules.
B. The Antwerp Convention.
C. The Nassau Protocol.
D. The Paris Memorandum.
1106
20. Who will verify the computational results and actual ship data used by thecalculation program on a
vessel's stability computer?
A. The Classification Society.
B. The manufacturer.
C. The engineer attending the installation andinitial on-site testing.

D. The master.
21. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or “TheCompany” ?
A. The Bareboat Charterer
B. The Manager
C. Could be any of these
D. The Owner
22. What is mean by a "Safety Management system" ?
A. A documented shipboard system which lists each and every know shipboardhazard to safety, health
and environment.
B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training bydocumented training methods.
C. A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on boardship.
D. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board toimplement the company safety
and environment protection policy.
23. Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ?
A. A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement
B. Lack of comfort leading to health risks
C. A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
D. Not conforming with safe working practices which may ead to accidents
1107
24. What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ?
A. A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.
B. A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the
ship
C. A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master isdiminished
D. A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety ofship or personnel or to the
Environment
25. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other
things include ………….
A. Continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for

emergencies related to safety and environmental protection
B. Hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training ofits shipboard personnel
C. Conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke freepassages on board
D. Holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered intothe water every week
26. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
provide for …………
A. Supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date
B. Safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
C. Shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the requiredqualifications
D. Safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas
1108
27. Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
establish …………..
A. Sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for joint departmental use and
consultation in case of emergency
B. A cooperative and informative atmosphere on board
C. Safeguards against all identified risks
D. A dictatorial regime on board
28. The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that applicable codes,
guidelines and standards recommended by …………..are taken into account.
A. Classification Societies
B. Maritime industry organisations
C. The IMO, and Flag-State administrations
D. All of these.
29. The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place ………………..
A. That that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.
B. Compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.
C. That all Marpol requirements are complied with.
D. That Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.
30. All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into
account in ship operation through …………………..
A. Videos and books

1109
B. Training by qualified instructors
C. Regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel
D. Written procedures and work instructions
1110
31. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship
operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information:
…………….
A. All of these.
B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations andprocedures for internal audits
and management review.
C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between andamongst shore and shipboard
personnel.
D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with theprovisions of the Code.
32. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop,
implement and maintain a system which includes the following :……………..
A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters of Instruction (Fleet
Letters) to the ship.
B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited 2) contact
addresses of Flag State authorities.
C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe
operations and protection of the environment.
D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief engineers 3) office staff
Home telephone numbers.
33. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions)
regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually verify this on board ?
A. The Designated Person
B. The Master
C. The Master and Officers
D. The Chief Engineer
1111
34. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and instructions)
regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
A. By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned asinput controller
B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their ownSafety Work Book
C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities of crew members
D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master
35. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and reporting its
deficiencies to ………..
A. The shore based management
B. The classification society
C. The Flag state authorities
D. The Port state control of the next port of call
36. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should includeany deficiencies and
may include …………..
A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by theCompany.
B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who areto be promoted
C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving theSMS.
D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
37. When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety
and pollution prevention as primary objective, the focus is on …………
A. Prevention.
1111
B. Finance.
C. Economy.
D. Response to accident
1111
38. Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollutionprevention as a primary
objective and should include amongst other things
…………..
A. Methods to tower the lifeboats.
B. Efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
C. Measures to mitigate identified risks.
D. Accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
39. Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations it is
expected that the Company has identified risks associated with ………..
A. The carriage of liquid oil cargoes in bulk
B. Drugs and alcohol misuse
C. The shipping industry’s cost structure
D. The particular type of vessel and its trade.
40. Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks tothe safety of the ship
and pollution of the environment ?
A. Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering
B. Cargo shifting, collision, explosion
C. Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing
D. Fire, flooding, grounding
41. The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to
……….. Emergencyshipboard operations.

1112
A. Potential
B. Assumed
C. Occuring
D. Theoretical
1113
42. A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for use onboard the
particular type ship being operated including the duties and responsibilities of the crewmembers and
…………..
A. The methods of rescue available.
B. Shipboard communication methods available.
C. The ways of combating a worst case scenario.
D. The methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.
43. Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established
maintenance requirements inclusive …………
A. Of a computerised planned maintenance system.
B. Of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.
C. Of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and verification of their
implementation by the appropriate personnel.
D. Of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and enginedepartments up to date.
44. Under the SMS as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine
inspections of ……………
A. All crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew cabins.
B. The accommodation.
C. All machinery and ships equipment in use.
D. Machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.
45. Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-
conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are “Non- Conformities" ?
1114
A. Damage
B. Any one these
C. Deficiencies
D. Defects, malfunctioning
1115
46. The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective
actions involves solutions which …………..
A. Punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other actionafterwards.
B. Investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved.
C. May reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity.
D. Guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.
47. The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment andtechnical systems
of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations. Once identified ……………
A. These items are checked at least once a week by the Master.
B. Tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability.
C. A rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment
D. It must be ensured that each and every component of these systems andequipment is carried as spare
on board.
48. The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems associated with alternatives
should be part of the Company's maintenance plan. Example of tests are …………..
A. Operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs.
B. Emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors)
C. Any or all of the other options
D. Pre-arrival and pre-departure tests
1116
49. The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents
which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that:1) ……..
2) ……… 3) ……
A. 1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviewsthe documents 3) the Master
implements the contents of documents.
B. 1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to be reviewed by the Master
3) Documents are to be kept safe.
C. 1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents areauthorised by the Classification
Society 3) Documents are authorised by P & I Club.
D. 1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed and approved by authorised
personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removedprompt.
50. The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the
………….
A. Ship Management Manual
B. Safety Management Manual
C. Ship Maintenance Manual
D. Shipboard Instruction Manual
51. The Company should carry out...................... To verify whether safety and pollution
prevention activities comply with the Shipboard Management System ?
A. Inspections by third party consultants
B. Drydock Inspections
C. External safety audits
D. Internal safety audits
1117
52. SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by ………….
A. Analysis and investigation of accidents, results obtained dueimplementation of SMS.

B. Changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions.
C. Any of these
D. Recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdatedSMS in the light of new rules/
regulations brought in force.
53. Personnel carrying out audits should be ..................the areas being audited.
A. Very conversant
B. Familiarised with
C. Independent of
D. Experts in
54. A Should be issued for every Company complying with the requirements
of the ismcode by the Administration, or by the Organisationrecognised by theAdministration .

A. Safety Management Certificate
B. International Shipmanagement Certificate
C. Document of Compliance
D. Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate
55. When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in
accordance with the approved SMS, a ......................... Should be issued to the ship by the
Administration or organisationrecognised by it.

1118
A. Safety Management Certificate
B. Certificate of Responsibility
C. Document of Compliance
D. Credibility Certificate
1119
56. What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code ?
A. The international code for transporting of cargoes safety on board ships asregulated by Marpol Annex
III
B. An international management code for the safe operation of ships andfor pollution prevention as
adopted by the IMO
C. The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices
D. The International Ship Management Association's code For navigationalsafety
57. Under ISM, which methods can the master use to implement the Company's Safetyand Environmental
policy?
A. Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules
B. At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and theworkload on the ship, as well as
weather conditions
C. As defined and documented by the Company
D. He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and theshipboard safety committee
1120
(Use of leadership and managerial)
1. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:
A. All information regarding the onboard training is given to theship manager
2. Master of every ship must provide:
A. A link between the shipboard training officer and the companytraining officer ashore
3. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:
A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan
4. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMOfall into which of the three main
categories:
A. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability andcompensation
5. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel,one must be:
A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
6. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?

A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphereamong the crew
7. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in theaccomodation areas?
A. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in aclean, safe and hygienic condition
8. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
A. Procured before departure from a port
9. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the companyby:
A. The fastest means available
10. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving thevessel's interest full and proper attention
he should:
A. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to thecompany
11. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per presentregulation, the USCG requires:
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
12. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
A. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered

13. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintainedinorder to:
A. Control the ship's budget
14. Representative of the port authorities should always receive thebest possible treatment:
A. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and withoutcomplications
15. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephonenumbers can be found in:
A. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
16. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normallyis:
A. Master
17. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including CrewPassports and CDC on board a vessel?
A. Master's cabin
18. Which of the following will be reported to a company on theemergency phone?
A. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
19. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?
A. A great leader is only great in certain situations.

20. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?
A. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
21. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviorism?
A. Antecedents-behavior-consequences
22. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the idealleader:
A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
23. A transactional leader is one who:
A. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things theleader wants
24. What is a transformational leader?
A. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offeringthem a vision of a better future.
25. What is post-heroic leadership theory?
A. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis onleaders and more attention should be
placed on followers.
26. What is the social construction of leadership?
A. What counts as good leadership is a construction of theperceptions of the followers.

27. Which of the following statements concerning the rational andemotional aspects of leadership is false?
A. Leadership includes actions and influences based only onreason and logic
28. To many, the word management suggests
A. Efficiency
29. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with
A. Chan
30. This is a conventional distinction made between managers andleaders.
A. Managers maintain while leaders develop
31. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managersis false?
A. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the rightthings
32. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?
A. Leadership and management have some unique functions withan area of overlap
33. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?
A. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts

34. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterizedas all of the following except
A. Cooperative
35. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of theirleadership experiences,
A. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broadergoals than their own self-interest
36. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leadersencouraged participation and shared
power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly thought of as participative management?
A. Interactive leadership
37. Women leaders’ interactive leadership style developed
A. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
38. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female executives from
advancing to corporateleadership?
A. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
39. According to female executives. Which of the following factorsleast prevents women from advancing
to corporate leadership?
A. Women not being in the pipeline long enough

40. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporateleadership roles to which of the following?
A. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
41. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more women
leaders is that womenthemselves have change It is evident in all except:
A. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizationsof leadership
42. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women toimportant leadership positions is
evidence of the fact that
A. Culture has changed
43. Which of the following statements concerning the reflectioncomponent of the AOR model is false?
A. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection inleadership development
44. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which learners seek
relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions?
A. Single-loop learning
45. Confronting one’s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you andworking on personal blind spots are
aspects of the process of
A. Double-loop learning
46. Mastering can be thought of as learning how to learn.
A. Double-loop learning
47. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out byvirtue of their
A. Interpersonal skills
48. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insightsthrough close association with an
experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an individual is often called a
A. Mentor
49. The process by which an older and more experienced person helpsto socialize and encourage younger
organizational colleagues is called
A. Consulting
50. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship?
A. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtleraspects of organizational ethics
51. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often interpersonal,
that threatens toderail an otherwise valued manager?
A. Mentoring
52. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to

.
A. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial thecorrection
53. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crewmembers has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the
fine. Which action should the Master take?
A. Pay the seaman's fine.
54. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first
report you make should beto the .
A. Immigration Service
55. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancieshave occurred in your unlicensed
crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
A. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
56. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior to
sailing. The Master should .
A. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there isan American Consul
57. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articleswhen .
A. The vessel is overloaded
58. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed thatthe vessel is being sold to foreign
interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these
circumstances, the crew .
A. Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation tooriginal port of engagement
59. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits tobe used following a serious marine
incident?
A. The marine employer
60. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changeswill be made by
A. The Master on the Shipping Articles
61. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or
Marine Inspection Office assoon as possible?
A. The Master of the vessel
62. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from Articles, he should
be issued a .
A. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to theCommandant

63. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous DischargeBook. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the CoastGuar
64. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is thatof the
A. Master of the vessel
65. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a

U.S. port after foreign articles have been signed, and the shipproceeds foreign?
A. The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to theCertified Crew List.
66. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat"involved in a marine casualty causing injury
that requires professional medical treatment must
A. All of the above
67. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?
A. All of the above
68. Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keeptheir Coast Guard License aboard .
A. Only when carrying passengers for hire

69. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on boar It should be
kept in a conspicuous location
.
A. On or near the bridge
70. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to.Under most circumstances, this is
best done by .
A. Taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to theminimum to hold that position
71. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, andtonnage is the
A. Certificate of Documentation
72. The official identification of a vessel is found in the .

A. Certificate of Documentation
73. The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to:
A. Demand variations
74. Cross docking results in cost savings associated with
A. Ordering goods
75. Which one is not a requirement of effective supply chainmanagement?
A. Low cost
76. The term "3PL" is most closely associated with

A. Outsourcing
77. The letters RFID are most closely associated with
A. Tracking items
78. Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventorycosts?
A. Bullwhip effect
79. Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chainmanagement?
A. The need to improve internal operations
80. Which of the following statements concerning manufacturing andservice organizations is generally true?
A. In many service organizations customers themselves are inputsto the transformation processes.
81. Operations typically differ in terms of volume of output, variety ofoutput, variation in demand or the
degree of ‘visibility’ (ie, customer contact) that they give to customers of the delivery process. Please
match the following element with the most appropriate of the above dimensions. Low unit costs are
most closely matched to:-
A. Volume
82. Which of the following is an implication of low variety?
A. Low unit cost

83. In a service organization faced with variable demand theOperations Manager can help smooth demand
by:
A. Scheduling work shifts to vary workforce needs according todemand
84. When developing the operations strategy one of the most importantconsiderations is that it:
A. Supports the overall competitive strategy of the company
85. A order qualifying characteristic could be described as :
A. A factor which significantly contributes to winning business
86. Expansion by acquisition of suppliers and customers, illustrateswhich of the following strategies
A. Vertical integration strategy
87. Process design or redesign is most important when
A. Competitive priorities have changed
88. Service shops are characterized as which of the following?
A. Some customer contact, a degree of customization and somestaff discretion
89. A big advantage of a process layout is
A. Its flexibility
90. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass production to continuous
production
A. Products become more standardized
91. Which one of the following reactive alternatives would typicallybe best to implement a chase strategy
for a manufacturing firm?
A. Increase overtime to satisfy peaks in demand
92. Buffer inventory is required as :
A. Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply anddemand
93. At a strategic level, the essential role of inventory is to support :
A. Quality, dependability, flexibility, cost and speed
94. Where demand is uncertain, a key purchasing objective will be :
A. Fast delivery
95. In lean systems, if a defective product if found, which of thefollowing is generally NOT done?
A. The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation
96. Which of the following illustrates an activity that does not addvalue?
A. Accumulating parts in front of the next work Centre

97. Job design does not involve which one of the followingconsiderations :
A. Ignoring where the job is located
98. Within a typical behavioral model of job design, which of the following would be considered as
representing core job characteristics?
A. Task identity / task significance / autonomy
99. When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishesto utilize in his/her job is characteristics
by :
A. Autonomy
100. Which of the following is NOT considered effective in achievingand maintaining service quality?
A. Increasing supervision of service providers
101. A quality variable
A. May be measured on a continuous scale
102. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of improved quality?
A. Improved image
103. A ‘moment of truth’ is NOT
A. When the customer is forming an opinion about the efficiencyof the service
104. Proactive quality management includes the concept of
A. Highlighting problems to help solve them
105. Zero defects in manufacturing
A. Is the goal of TQM
106. Which of the following represent reasons for globalisingoperations?
A. All of the above
107. Which of the following is not a key activity of an operationsmanager?
A. Managing cash flows
108. Which of the following is not true regarding the differencesbetween goods and services?
A. Patents do not protect services
109. Service organizations generally
A. Locate in close proximity to the customer
110. The following terms - interchangeability of parts, division oflabour, highly repetitive tasks - best focus
on .
A. Cost and efficiency
111. Which of the following is generally related to service operations?
A. Need for flexible capacity

112. Which function typically employs more people than any otherfunctional area?
A. Marketing
113. The of a firm defines its reason for existence.
A. Strategic mission
114. The describes where the organization is headed and what itintends to be.
A. Strategy development
115. A company’s mission statement
A. Describes in specific terms what the company expects toaccomplish
116. Which of the following statements is false?
A. There are two possible operations objectives (cost and speed).
117. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
A. Master
USE OF LEADERSHIP AND MANAGERIAL
1. In the decision-making process, a manager should
A. Developed as many alternatives as possible
2. The doctrine of captain of the ship is exhibited in
A. Operating rooms
3. Quantitative approaches for decision-making are most oftenassociated with

A. Complex decisions with controlled environments
4. Which of the following best describes management?
A. The process of coordinating resources to achieve certainresults
5. Which of the following is Not a major managementdimension ?

A. Being a public spokesperson for the organization
6. All of the following describes planning Except :
A. A process perform by senior managers only
7. The examination of characteristics relating to leadership, suchas enthusiasm, verbal skills, creativity,
critical thinking ability, and self-confidence, is referred to as a :
A. Traits approach
8. The two dimensions of leaderships which emerged from theLeader Behavior Description Questionnaire
were ‘consideration’ and ‘
a. Commanding
b. Initiating structure
c. Deliberate
d. Energizing
9. One of the more difficult tasks for a manager when he or sheis coordinating activities is :
A. Securing cooperation
10. An efficient manager will:
A. Not be attuned to the grapevine
11. The contemporary management theories discussed in the texthave which of the following in
common ?
A. The presence of predictable events in the organization
12. The leadership style is an expression of the leader’strust in the abilities of his
subordinates
A. Delegative
13. What is the most important factor in the master's ability tomake good decisions in an emergency
?
A. Feedback from the crew
14. Which of the following is not considered to be an effectivecommunicative competency for

discussion leaders ?
A. Effective group leaders express individual-centeredconcern
15. What is referent power in leadership ?
A. Power that is based on attraction or identification withanother person
16. What is the ISM code ?
A. The ISM code is an International standard for safemanagement and operation of ship and for pollution
prevention
17. Which of the following has been identified as a source ofpower in leadership ?
A. All of the above
18. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles ?
A. Lack of leadership
19. Which of the following assumption is characteristic ofcontingency approaches to leadership ?

A. Group situations vary with different situations, requiringdifferent leadership styles
Use of leadership and managerial
1. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
a. Procured before departure from a port
b. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port
c. Procured on arrival at the next port
d. Requested on email
2. All of the following describes planning except
a. deciding in advance what is to be done in the future
b. a road map for managers
c. a process perform by senior managers only
d. a continuous process
3. An efficient manager will
a. be persistent in eliminating the grapevine
b. acknowledge the presence of the grapevine
c. fire those who exchange news through the grapevine
d. not be attuned to the grapevine

4. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the companyby:
a. The fastest means available
b. The Telex to have a record
c. The email to save cost
d. The Sat-C
5. In the decision-making process, a manager should
a. develop an alternative course of action
b. develop as many alternatives as possible
c. ensure that all employees contribute alternatives
d. limit the number of choices
6. It is the Master’s responsibility to ensure that:
a. concerned personnel carry out the on-board trading progammeeffectively
b. All information egarding the onboard training is given to the shipmanager
c. All personnel participate in the training at the same time
d. safety equipment is not used during the training

7. One of the more difficult tasks for a manager when he or she iscoordinating activities is
a. securing cooperation
b. identifying the activities
c. utilizing automation
d. planning the coordination effort
8. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
a. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only theitems required
b. Consult the ISSA catalogue to ascertain what stores areavailable for ordering
c. Consult the ISSA catalogue and order whatever is available butnot on board
d. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered
9. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorderto:
a. Control the ship’s budget
b. Order the required stores
c. Report to the office
d. Show to the port authorities

10. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorderto:
a. Control the ship's budget
b. Order the required stores
c. Report to the office
d. Show to the port authorities
11. Quantitative approaches for decision-making are most oftenassociated with
a. programmed decision making
b. complex decisions with controlled environments
c. decisions made by team leaders
d. decisions made by first line supervisors
12. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the bestpossible treatment:
a. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and withoutcomplications
b. Because you always have some faults in arrival/departuredocuments
c. Because the ship's trading certificate are not normally in order
d. Because you have undeclared dutiable items in excess ofpermitted on board

13. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text havewhich of the following in
common?
a. freedom of employees to act
b. the presence of predictable events in the organization
c. recognition of the complexity of the environment
d. realization that organizations will eventually fail
14. The doctrine of captain of the ship is exhibited in
a. navy hospitals
b. nursing homes
c. operating rooms
d. sports medicine
15. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours’ telephonenumbers can be found in:
a. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
b. Vessel health, safety and environment manual
c. Vessel operation manual
d. Radio log book

16. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normallyis:
a. Master
b. Chief Engineer
c. Chief Officer
d. Chief Steward.
17. The two dimensions of leadership which emerged from the Leader Behavior Description
Questionnaire were ‘consideration’ and
‘ ’
a. Energizing
b. Initiating structure
c. Deliberate
d. Commanding
18. The leadership style is an expression of the leader’s trust in the abilities of his
subordinates
a. Participative
b. Delegative
c. Authoritarian
d. All of the above

19. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel,one must be:
a. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
b. Strict and authoritative while giving orders
c. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members
d. Give authority to others
20. Vertical coordination is comparable to horizontal coordinationbecause
a. both involve departments and persons on the sameorganizational level
b. both involve departments at varying levels of the organization
c. both involve other departments
d. neither requires communication efforts
21. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including CrewPassports and CDC on board a
vessel?
a. Ship's Office
b. Master's cabin
c. On the bridge
d. Telly clerk room

22. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of theship’s crew?
a. The level of emergency-preparedness
b. The safety awareness of the senior officers
c. The shipboard training provided
d. The quality of emergency drills
23. Which of the following best describes management?
a. the process of coordinating people to achieve the organization’spurpose
b. the process of coordinating resources to achieve certain results
c. getting things done through and with technical resources
24. Which of the following best describes negligence?
a. doing what a reasonable person would not do
b. not doing what a reasonable person would have done
c. the commission of an act
d. doing what a reasonable person would not do, and not doingwhat you should do
25. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes toemergency plans and procedures?
a. The design and layout of the ship
b. The ISM Code
c. MARPOL
d. The safety requirements of the USCG
26. Which of the following is not a major management dimension?
a. being a good boss
b. being a competent subordinate
c. being a public spokesperson for the organization
d. maintaining satisfactory relationships with others
27. Which of the following will be reported to a company on theemergency phone?
a. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
b. All arrival and departure time from port
c. All cases concerning cargo shortages
d. All near misses

28. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
a. Master
b. 3rd Officer
c. Chief Engineer
d. Chief Officer
29. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?
a. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphereamong the crew
b. It will prevent accidents from happening
c. It encourages crew to extend their contract
d. Crew comes to know each other’s problems
30. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in theaccomodation areas?
a. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in aclean, safe and hygienic condition
b. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board
c. It is a requirement as per flag state
d. To check for alcohol in cabins

13. Membuatrencanapengendaliankeadaandaruratdankerusakansert apenanganansituasidarurat.

(Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations )
1332
1. *As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be
considered as an efficient one?
All the listed answers
To equip them with better communication
systems
To train the fire brigade
To establish inner rules to perform work of a
special risk
2. *The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be…

Evaluation of the situation, rescue
and life-saving, confinement of fire,
extinction, then feed back on the
emergency
Extinction, confinement of fire, feed
back on the emergency, rescue and
life-saving, then evaluation of the
situation
Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-
saving
Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving,
extinction
1333
3. *Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in theTraining Manual ?

A. How to recover survival craft and
rescue boats including stowage and
securing
B. How to use navigational equipmentfor survival crafts

C. How to use surface to air visualsignals to be used by survivors
D. How to use escape routes and other escape methods
4. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision ofsurvival craft corresponds
to the SOLAS regulation?
A. A deck officer or certificated person
shall be placed in charge of each
survival craft to be used
B. Every motorised survival craft shall have a certificated engineer assigned

C. There shall be at least 5 trained persons on board, mustering andassisting untrained persons
D. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have adeck officer capable of operating
the equipment assigned
1334
5. *You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making impossible the launching
of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and liferafts are equally distributed on each side of
the vessel. What should be the total number of persons that can be accommodated in the remaining
survival craft stowed on the port side ?(*) N is the total number of persons that vessel is permitted to
carry.
A. At least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity:
100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N)
(*)
B. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity:100 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N)(*)

C. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity:
50 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
D. At least 100 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
6. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
A. As instructed by the helicopter pilot
B. With the wind astern so that the effect of the wind is reduced as muchas possible
C. Directly into the wind
D. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area
7. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue purposes. What do you think
the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopteris?
A. 200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons.
B. 500 nm and capacity for evacuatingmore than 25 persons.

C. 150 nm and capacity for evacuatingmore than 12 persons.
1335
D. 100 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 10 persons.
1336
8. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded,what is the next
action to be taken by the
Chief Officer on duty?
A. Use the intercom to inform crew
and passengers of the reason for the
alarm
B. Call the nearest coastal radio station
C. Send distress signals to call for help
D. Use the VHF-radio telephone to askships in the vicinity to stand by
9. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarmsignal be sounded?
A. Until all crew members and passengers have
reported to their respective muster stations
B. 3 times
C. 3 minutes
D. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order"abandon ship" is given
10. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies ofthese) be written?
A. In the Flag State official language with
copies in English or French
B. In the Flag State official language
C. In the English language
D. In a national language where company headoffice is located
1337
11. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander?
A. Yes, you must attend to a course
held by certified personnel, and
provide evidence of having
maintained the required standards of
competence every five years.
B. No, the only thing you need is one hour instruction from a deck officer.
C. No
D. Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course center.
12. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching controls. Which
one of the following requirements has to be included?
A. Give relevant instructions and
warnings
B. Give an overview of location of alllifesaving appliances

C. Give information on survival craftcapacity
D. Give information on survival craftspeed and seaworthiness
13. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that fire. Which are the
factors we should take into account?
A. Opacity, amount and colour
B. Amount and opacity only
C. There is no possible interpretation of a fireaccording to the smoke

D. Colour only
1338
14. The muster list must be prepared:
A. At any moment before the ship proceeds to
sea
B. At least 2 hours before the ship proceeds tosea

C. At least 1 hour before the ship proceeds tosea
D. At least 2 hours after the ship has proceeded to sea
15. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which ofthe following duties
shall be included according to present regulations?
A. Manning of fire parties assigned to
deal with fires.
B. Preparation of immersion suits forpassengers.

C. Special duties assigned with respectto the use of pyrotechnics
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsionsystem.
16. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew.Which of the given
duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list?
A. Preparation and launching of
survival crafts
B. Clearing escape routes
C. Type of fires that can beencountered on board

D. Preparation and starting ofemergency generator
1339
17. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and
illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects have to be explained in detail in the
manual according to
present regulations?
A. Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits
B. Donning of fire protection clothing
C. Starting of Main Engine
D. Handling of stowaways
18. The Training Manual shall contain instructions and information on the life-savingappliances and the
best method of survival. The training manual shall contain detailed explanations of crew duties in
relation to emergency situations. Which ofthe following tasks or duties shall be included in the manual
according to present regulations?
A. The use of the ship's line throwingapparatus.
B. The use of navigational equipment for
survival crafts.
C. The use of surface to air visual signals to beused by survivors.

D. The use of escape routes and other escapemethodes.
19. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting?
A. Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are
available, the strength of the fire, the ships
mobility, what is burning and communication
B. Where the fire break out, how many fire teams areavailable, what is burning, distance to the fire station
C. Distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade, what is burning,possibility to get water
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D. Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade
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20. What is a contingency plan for ships?
A. Plan for safety preparedness
B. Plan for next voyage
C. Loading plan for general cargo
D. Plan for maintenance and repair
21. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies?
A. That people are well trained
B. That people know where to find designatedequipment

C. That people know where to muster
D. That people listen to orders given
22. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out?
A. The ship's management team must
organise the fire teams and then the
teams have to rescue missing
personnel
B. The ship's management team mustfight the fire and then call the fire teams
C. The ship's management team must
call the nearest fire brigade and police station
D. The ship's management team and the crew must evacuate the ship
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23. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
A. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep
the fire zone to the leeward of the
ship
B. Keep the stem up against the wind ifpossible

C. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the oxygen supply
D. Continue on course and speed
24. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action be a decision that
will directly solve the problem?
A. Not necessary, he shall use all available
resources. He should resist the temptation to step
in and do it all by himself
B. Yes, take full controll. Do not delegate to otherofficers, to avoid mistake.

C. No, he should observ the situation, and let the other senior officers solve thesituation.
D. Yes, with his experience, it is most likely that he has the best solution.
25. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as beingassigned to crewmembers
in relation to passengers?
A. Assembling passengers at muster
station
B. Ensuring that every passenger is provided with an immersion suit or athermal protective aid
C. Ensuring that extra food and water istaken to the survival craft
D. Clearing the escape routes
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26. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as beingassigned to members of the
crew ?
A. Preparation and launching of the
survival craft
B. Preparation of manoeuvres intendedto ease launching of the survival craft

C. Preparation of immersion suits forthe ship's passengers
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsionsystem
27. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
A. Action to be taken by crew and
passengers
B. The specific duties assigned to passengers that are in charge of agroup of others
C. The abandon ship signal consistingof two long blasts
D. The muster list has been prepared and approved by the administrationbefore the ship proceeds to sea
28. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient intervention in an
emergency
A. All the listed answers
B. The installation of protective measures
C. Planning of the emergency
D. Training of the crew
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29. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements
corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations?
A. Muster and embarkation stations shall be
readily accessible from accommondation
and work areas.
B. Davit-launched survival craft muster and embarkation stations shall be arranged toenable stretchers to
be placed in survival craft.
C. Muster and embarkation stations are to be
arranged separately to improve working conditions.
D. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station.
30. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:
A. In a secure and sheltered position and
protected from damage by fire or explosion.
B. Wherever space is available.
C. On the starboard side of the ship.
D. In a state of readiness so that two crewmembers can prepare for embarkation andlaunching in less
than 15 minutes.
31. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and life-rafts corresponds to
present SOLAS regulations?
A. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to
launching appliances.
B. Life-rafts shall be stowed close to the sternof the vessel

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C. Life-rafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stowed midships secured to means for
transfer to either side.
D. Davit-launched life-rafts shall be stowed onstarboard side of the ship.
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32. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of peoplefrom outsides parties
are asking questions. What shall you tell them?
A. Do not reply to any questions from
outside parties, except the Solicitor
appointed by your company.
B. You shall only tell them the truthand nothing but the truth.
C. Do not tell anybody anything, except representatives from the main newspapers, radio and TV.
Remember, the people have the right to know.
D. To make sure that all parties are informed about the facts, show them theextracts of the log-book.
33. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual:
A. Whenever regulations change
B. At least once every 6 months
C. At least once every 12 months
D. At least once every 18 months
34. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency?
A. To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival
B. To slow down the heart rate to conserve energy
C. To slow down the thought processes to ensure a thorough assessment of thethreat

D. To immobilize the individual until he has decided upon the best course ofaction
35. Debriefing of an emergency drill:
A. Expands the experience of all personnel
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B. Is most effective when held at a safety meeting
C. Focuses attention on the debriefer's feedback
D. Encourages crewmembers to focus on their duties
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36. For which emergency resource is it difficult to plan the best use?
A. Passengers
B. Crew
C. Company personnel
D. Emergency equipment
37. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers?
A. Enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness
B. Enthusiasm, confidence, hospitality
C. Dependability
D. Keeping up with safety knowledge
38. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or remember safety
information. As an officer, how can you best compensate for thisfact?
A. In an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what's happening, what's being
done, and what they should do.
B. Prior to departure, provide passengers with a good safety video.
C. Ensure that printed safety information onboard is of the highest quality.
D. Post large, graphic safety signs conspicuously throughout the ship.
39. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are:
A. Clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan

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B. To be used when crewmembers feel especially stressed in emergencies
C. Clear, concise summaries of all action items in the emergency plan
D. Detailed descriptions of action items most easily forgotten in emergencies
40. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?
A. Lack of leadership
B. No lifeboat drills for passengers
C. Inadequate fire-fighting training
D. Inadequate fire-fighting provisions
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41. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in
an emergency?
Feedback from the crew
Input from company personnel
Planning of emergency procedures
Following safety regulations
42. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew?
The level of emergency-preparedness
The safety awareness of the senior officers
The shipboard training provided
The quality of emergency drills
43. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and
procedures?
The design and layout of the ship
The ISM Code
MARPOL
The safety requirements of the USCG
44. Which statement about stress is correct?

Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress.
An example of stress is a shipboard fire.
Stress is an unusual reaction to a threatening situation.
Stress interferes with an individual's ability to respond to a threat.
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CONTROL TRIM, STABILITY AND STRESS
1986. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of aship, what will
quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
Doubling the roll period
1987. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?
By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travelpast the ship
1988. What does heaving result in?
Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
1989. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
1990. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
The number of repeated stress cycles
1991. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculatingrolling forces?
24 - 30 degrees
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1992. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
When the wave encounter period approaches the natural rollperiod of the ship
1993. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
1994. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
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1995. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
Because pitching varies with ship‘s length
1996. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMOstability criteria cannot
be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
The grain surfaces in some or all of thecargo spaces must be secured
1997. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what arethe major concerns
of the changes in stability?
Reduction of metacentric height (GM) andloss of freeboard forward
1998. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballasttank amidships of
a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and callinClassification Society
1999. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 a nd carrying cargo of density
1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding?
Any cargo hold
2000. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density
1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthenedto withstand flooding?
The foremost cargo hold
2001. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of thefollowing parts of
the vessel?
Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships
2002. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse framebeam knees are
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slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stressand is potentially serious
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2003. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a highdensity cargo.
What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with high density
2004. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in alarge metacentric
height (GM)?
Have a fast roll period and possiblysuffer racking stresses
2005. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargohold which can also
be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted with additional securing devices
2006. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
The minimum bow height must be maintained
2007. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulkcarrier indicate?
That shear forces have been exceeded
2008. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers areconsidered critical?

Upper and lower connection of main side frames
2009. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
2011. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe environmental and safety
hazards which require significant preventative measures topreclude escape of such cargo, usually of
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double-hull construction, with a variety of tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
A. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
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2012. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks containing cargoes or
cargo residues which might react with each other in a hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods
of segregation in chemical tanker stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be
acceptable to
have:
An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargoor cargo residues.
2013. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and besupplied
stability information booklet, which must to the master of a
chemical tanker, shall include:
Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating other conditions of loading and
a summary of the ship'ssurvival capabilities, together with sufficient information to enable
the master to load and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner.
2014. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is
defined as:
One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
2015. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations,the IBC Code states that for
a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker: There is no applicable filling restriction.
2016. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOLand IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for vegetable oils to be
carried in Double hull tankers.
2017. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and
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requirements of a ―pressure tank‖ must be: Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
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2018. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type1 chemical tanker
as per the IBC Code is:
1250 cubic metres.
2019. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type2 chemical tanker
as per the IBC Code is:
The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on atype 2 chemical tanker as per
the IBC Code is:
3000 cubic metres
2020. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell plating and the
outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartmenton a type II chemical tanker is:
Not less than 760 mm.
2021. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavyitem of deck cargo alongside
the jetty. You should immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of
vessel.
2022. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:
The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
2023. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Uponcompletion of loading, the final level of
the water would be at: The top of the summer load line mark.
2024. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
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A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers).
2025. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensuredthat:
There are minimum free surface moments in tanks.
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2026. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vesselwhen it is carrying timber deck
cargoes is:
The International Tonnage
2027. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angleof Heel formula at?
Larger angles of heel.
2028. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General CargoVessel can be denoted by the
formula:
KM = KG x Sin angle of heel.
2029. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positivestability can be maintained by:
Completely filling the ship's double bottom tanks and continuously monitoringthe loading operation.
2030. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargotank designed for transporting
LPG at atmospheric pressure?
Carbon-Manganese steel.
2031. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be
maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is:
0.4 Length
2032. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draftamidships for crude tankers in ballast
condition is:
2.0 + 0.02L
1215
2033. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall
comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimumGM (metacentric height) in port of:
Not less than 0.15 m
1216
2034. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oiltanker are:
Increased free surface effect and reduced transverse metacentric height.
2035. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
The draught for which the structural strength of the ship has beendesigned
2036. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?
They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea forces
2037. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?
Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position ofcontrols for opening and
closing of watertight compartments.
2038. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduceunsymmetrical flooding in damaged
condition?
Cross flooding arrangement
2039. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing wit hstability of passenger ships?
The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
2040. What is the result of a large metacentric height?
The ship will roll violently.
2041. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to makepassenger ships able to
withstand critical damage?
Maintain sufficient intact stability
1217
2042. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in
damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding
but before equalization?
15 degrees
1218
2043. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?
The Master
2044. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel is a principal
design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the optimum cargo space shape?
A square space as would be found in a midships lower deck.
2045. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventionalreefer vessels are usually
designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in adverse weather conditions, especially
from forward of the beam, the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given
options?
This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which mayresult in structural damage.
2046. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air
via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only electrical power to integral
containers. Select the main reason for this change in design to the vessels and containers from the
options given.
The 'porthole' system design was extremely complex and constructioncosts were high.
2047. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween decks
approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5 metres deep.
Modern designs usually incorporate more decks each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the
main reasonfor this fundamental design change?
There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets.
2048. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?
By the cubic foot capacity.
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2049. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deckhead
rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at when
carrying out the stability calculations for a vessel with such a stow?
At the deckhead of the lockers.
2050. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement. "Reefer vessels,
loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM due to the fact that…
…they are designed with fine linesand the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the holds."
2051. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the transhipment
at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits. Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A
has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the
vessels, if any, would be best suited to this type of operation?
Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give morecontrol of the operation at sea or at anchor.
2052. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over othership types regarding
seaworthiness?
They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
2053. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what else must be
taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo unit?
Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
2054. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carr iers?
A very large windage area
1220
2055. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?
When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
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2056. Why are pure roro car carriers considered as being high risk designvessels where their stability is
concerned.
Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballastoperations are not handled correctly
2057. Why is it important in a roro vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
To prevent high sheer forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading/ discharge
operations
2058. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?
The vessel will roll violently?
2059. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?
It is unchanged
2060. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastledeck and main deck in way of
pillars inside forecastle?
Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
2061. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves.
2062. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normaloperation corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in allloading condition.
2063. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength?
The master.
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2064. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore
concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?
The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) andhave a fast roll period
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2065. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried onbulk carriers of 150m or
more in length?
The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the enteredloaded weight distribution
2066. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
At the after end of each cargo hold
2067. Which of the following describes the term couple?
Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along thecenterline of the vessel
83. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as
Swaying
2068. Which motion of the vessel does a ship‘s officer most easily control through transverse stability
stowage?
Rolling
2069. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
GZ
2070. In the diagram on the right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
Metacentric Radius
87. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition?
G is at the same height as M
88. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as

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Angle of Loll
2071. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of
Buoyancy
2072. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draftof the vessel is
known as the vessel‘s
Block coefficient
1225
91. Morrish‘s Formula is used to determine.
Height of the Center of Buoyancy
2081. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about thelongitudinal axis?
The measure of a ship‘s resistance to heaving.
93. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will .
Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
2082. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet?
19.5 feet
2083. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?
It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as theocean wave period.
96. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight areconsidered to be concentrated is the.
Center of gravity
2087. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel‘scenter of gravity will
Move upward
98. One long ton is equivalent to .
2240 pounds
2092. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is thevalue of the righting arm?
0.7 feet
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100. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel remain fixed, you
would expect
G to remain fixed and B to move.
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2097. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on avessel?
KM –GM
2098. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from:
The center of gravity to the metacenter
2099. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination?
The righting moment
2100. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1inch is known as the
Tons per inch immersion
2101. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on avessel‘s stability?
The weight acts upon the vessel at it‘s actual height above the keel
106. Which of the following is a characteristic of a"stiff shipT
A large GM
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Mengelola pengoperasian bahan bakar, minyak lumasdan tolak bara (ballast) (Manage fuel,lubricationand
ballastoperations)
1065
4. Mengelola pengoperasian bahan bakar, minyak lumas dan tolak bara (ballast) (Manage
fuel,lubricationand ballastoperations)
1. Prior to bunkering operations it is necessary to check the quantity of fuel remaining onboard and that
there is sufficient room for the fuel that is to be loaded. What is the best method to use to establish
this?
A. Do a complete sounding of all fuel bunker tanks
B. Use the latest figures from the fuel record book.
C. Take a full set of readings from remote content gauges.
D. Sound the tanks which you think might still contain some fuel.
2. Telephones are being used to communicate between personnel onboard and ashore during a bunkering
operation. What instruction would you give to ship personnel regarding action to take in the event of
failure of the telephone communication during the operation?
A. Stop the bunkering until alternative reliablecommunications are established
B. Call the electrician, and get him to repair the telephonewhile the bunkering operation continues.
C. Slow down the bunkering rate until alternative reliablecommunications are established.
D. Use a crewmember as a messenger between personnel involved in theoperation.
3. To avoid overbunkering and oil spill, it is very important that we closely monitor the progress of the
bunkering operation. What is the safest method to use to minimise the risk of overflow and spillage?
A. Continuously monitor remote guage readings and confirmwith regular sounding of the fuel tanks.
B. The remote gauge system will provide us with thenecessary information
C. Open all the bunker tank lids to manually watch themfilling.
D. Use the predicted loading rate to calculate how much oil is being received.
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4. When bunkering through the port side of the bunker manifold what action shouldbe taken with the
valves on the starboard side of the manifold prior to bunkering operations commencing?
A. Blank flanges should be fitted to the closed starboard side manifold valves.
B. The blank flanges should be removed from the starboard side manifold valves to check for any leakage
past the closed valves.
C. Just fit the blank flanges then it doesn’t matter if the valves are closed or not.
D. Just check that the valves are closed.
5. When planning bunkering operations it is preferable to arrange for the new fuel to be bunkered into
empty or nearly empty tanks whenever possible. What is the main reason for this?
A. To minimise the risk of incompatibility betweendifferent fuels.
B. To make it easier to calculate the quantity offueltaken onboard.
C. To minimise the risk of microbial contamination ofthe fuel.
D. So that the sulphur content of each fuel is known.
6. Why is it necessary to have an effective ballast water management plan which includes provision for
changing out ballast in open water rather than discharging ballast in coastal waters?
A. To avoid the introduction of non-indigenous speciesof marine life from one area to another.
B. To keep the ballast water fresh in the ballast tanksduring long voyages.
C. To allow ballast tank inspections to be carried outduring ballast passage.
D. To ensure that ballast tanks are always pressed upduring a ballast voyage to avoid free surface
effects.
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7. You are in charge of a night bunkering operation. The delivery rate from the supplier is high and you
are filling six tanks simultaneously. You lose track of the progress of the operation and feel that you are
losing control of the situation. What action should you take?
A. Stop bunkering, and establish facts, before bunkeringis resumed
B. Prepare yourself and the crew for an overflow.
C. Request a reduction in the delivery rate to try and gain some time.
D. Open more tanks to slow down the filling rate of individual tanks.
8. What are items 'W' ?
A. Ballast water tanks
B. Cargo hold bilge wells
C. Side water tanks
D. Hold deep wells

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9. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ?
A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine roomB. Because they are inaccessible when cargo
is loaded
C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges
10. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage orcargo operations ?
A. There is no covering B. By perforated plating

C. By sack cloth
D. By steel plates bolted on
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11. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Roombulkhead ?
A. Auto-closing valvesB. Bilge gate valves

C. Non-return screw down valves
D. Manifold valves
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12. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and BallastPump ?
A. 140 m3/hour x 30 metres
B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres
D. 410 m3/hour x 20 metres
13. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh WaterHydrophore Pump ?
1071
A. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres

C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
1072
14. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pumpC. A gear pump

D. A worm wheel pump
15. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by
…………….
A. An air seal line from the compressed airline.B. A water seal line to the packing gland.
C. A special packing in the stuffing box.
D. The vacuum in the pump suction.
16. What is this component called ?
A. A Two way valve
B. A Dynamic valve
C. A Triple flushing valveD. A lion return value
17. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ?
1073
A. Neither direction
B. From 13 to AC. From A to B

D. Either direction
1074
18. What are items "V" ?
A. Vacuum suction boxes
B. Straight bilge gate valves
C. Vacuum flap valves
D. Non-return screw down valves
19. When are the high sea chests used ?
1075
A. When the ship is in shallow water
B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea
C. When the ship is in polluted waters
D. When the ship is in ballast condition
1076
20. What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?
A. Perforated plate fitters
B. Mesh wire filters
C. All flush filters
D. Backflow filters
21. What is item '5" ?
1077
A. The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value
B. The sea suction value of the pump
C. A shut-off value
D. A mesh type strainer
22. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose ?
A. Suction valves to pump the wells
B. Suction boxes to retain priming water
C. Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping
D. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system
1078
23. If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of thefollowing actions
would you take ?
A. All of these.
B. Prime the pump with sea water
C. Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed
D. Check that strainer cover of
24. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according toMarpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment
B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by thespeed of the ship in knots
at the same instant
1079
C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered duringthe time of discharge by the
ship
D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600
25. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?
A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions arerequired

B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditionsand in view of traffic special
prevention is required
C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged atanytime
D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no overboard
1080
discharged of any oily mixture is allowed
26. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?
A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils
B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centretank
C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washingsor other oily mixtures
27. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast asdefined by Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon thesurface of the water or
emulsion beneath the water surface.
C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces onadjoining shorelines, nor
emulsion in the sea.
D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day willnot produce visible traces
of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
28. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?
A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines bythe clean ballast pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for whichcargo pumps cannot be
used
C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump D. The ballast water
introduced in a tank which is completely separated from
cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast
1081
29. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil
B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C
C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliarymachinery
D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery orboilers
30. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?
A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse andrefined products
B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
D. Any grade of crude oil
31. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers,which tanks may
be Included ?
A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks
B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
C. Segregated ballast tanks only
D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
32. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdamsallowed to be included in
the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ?
A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured

1082
B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballastwater system
C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board
D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15ppm level is exceeded is to
be fitted
1083
33. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating with COW is to change
its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions will apply ?
A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey isrequired prior switching
trades. Manual for both procedures required.
B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crudeoil tra
D. The COW system needs to be blanked
34. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified toimmobilise the ship, what
are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
B. The requirements for SBT do not apply
C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
35. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are therequirements for
SBT, CBT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirement for SET does not apply
B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply
C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
1084
36. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballastshall be that it is e
quipped with…….
A. A crude oil washing system.
B. Two separate slop tanks.
C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL.
D. An oil content meter.
1085
37. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the
tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in
ports. What document is to be endorsed ?
The oil record book

The bill of lading
The charter party
The ship's IOPP certificate
38. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations
concerning processing and treatment of sewage ?
Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being
It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must
be installed on board
Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is
on board
The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries
have adapted them and have stingent regulations
1086

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Manage Trouble-Shooting, Restoration Of Electrical And Electronic Control Equipment To Operating Condition

2. A High Breaking Capacity fuse found in a Main High Voltage Switchboard

3. High Voltage systems rely on the installed protective equipment being

7. When there is a need to interupt current flow in a high voltage

9. Which of the following is the minimum acceptable value of

o The demand and the feedback signal

15. Ordinary thyristors (SCR) must often be protected against reverse

o Install a 100 ohm resistor in series with the coil

17. The diode shown performs which function?

o Return inductive current to supply at switch off

18. This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch

19. What should be the healthy continuity resistance of a 220V, 2.2kw,10A

o The coil will overheat

21. "Protective discrimination" means the progresssave grading of sizes or

o Line fuses and over current relays

o Open circuit winding between W and U

o U-E, V-E, W-E, U-V,V-W, W-U

o Between 0.1 and 1.0 ohm

o No faults on the system but a failed lamp

o Temperature, humidity and surface contamination

o With + to Anode a reading of about 0.6V andwith probes reversed a reading

32. A diode may be tested by which method?

o Use a Digital Multi-Meter set to check forwardvoltage and reverse current

33. Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in a hazardous area?

36. The circuit diagrams illustrate four different methods of wiring

37. The circuit shows a full-wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic

39. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic

o Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)

41. The typical current gain for a common emitter transistor is

46. This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which type of

49. When considering instrumentation systems, what is a typical symptom

o Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is notgiving 100% output

50. Which electronic component or system is this graphical symbol illustrating:

51. Which of the 4 alternatives shows a NPN bipolar transistor?

o The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.

o Every three months. Details of test withsignatures of Master and witness

o Turned at intervals of not more than 30 monthsand renewed every 5 years

o All the mentioned alternatives.

8. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:

o Length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm

o All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant

o Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the

o In the SOLAS convention and its annex

17. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?

o Instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances

o All the items mentioned

o Every three months.

o Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment

o Once every month.

23. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?

o Once every month

o Once every month

28. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?

o Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.

o The appointed lifeboat commander.

o "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."

o To transit with maximum safe speed

o Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance.