PPLE - OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

UNIT -1

1. In professional ethics in engineering How many types of risks is there ?

a. 3 b.5 c.7 d. 4

2. The main costs must be weighed against Organizational goal is degrees of professional ethics in
engineering.
a. management b. organizational c. acceptability d. liability

3. duty ethics is the about explaining the morality.

a. obligations b. recognizing rights c. good moral d. duty ethics

4. which  knowledge required to assess the risk ?

a.  advisability  b.  low consequence c.  no estimation of risk d. testing and
safety

5. What is true about a professional

(A) The professional has to have autonomy
(B) He cannot be supervised by the client
(C) He should not subject to political control
(D) All of the above

6.The basic rule of professionalism is “not knowingly to do “.

(A) harm (B) work (C) competition (D) copying

7-What is the study about, as contrasted with legal, obligations is called ethics.
(A) behavior (B) moral (C) business (D) all of the above

8-Ethics is a conception of which conduct.

(A) bad (B) good (C) right (D) right and wrong

9-Following is(are) type(s) of ethics

(A) Internal (B) External (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

10- One should ensure one’s employment right to privacy, is a type of

(A) Internal ethics (B) External ethics (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

11. _______ is the set of standards and laws.

a. discipline b. support c. code d.  protecting

12. The problems with the law in engineering _________

a. inspiration and guidance b. minimal compliance c.  risk d.  ethics
13. Self Respect _________ is the concept refers to valuing on self.
a. self esteem b. self respect c. virtue d. accountability

14.  The view that right action consist in producing one’s own good ________
a. ethical relativism b. ethical egoism c. ethical pluralism d. normative ethics

15. _______deals with theories about ethics 

a. tacit ethics b. meta ethics  c. rights ethics d.  personal involvement

16. ________ is the analytical methods in Engineer’s responsibility for safety

a. analytical testing b. job related pressures c. voluntarism and control d. both b and c

17. ARPA stands for ______

a. advanced risk projects agency b. advanced research projects agency
c. advanced research projects assessment d. advanced research project analysis

18. The control is required to maintain their ________ and protect their self interest.
a. safety b. protecting c. privacy d. none of the above

19. The degree of complexity range of applications and sheer numbers continue to increase
____________ network the globe.
a. communication b. telecommunication c. satellite d. all  the above

20. The professional word meaning is based on the context.

a. ethics b. moral c. non moral d. professional

UNIT -II
1) Which one of the following element is not necessary for a contract ?
A) Competent parties B) Reasonable terms and conditions.
C) Free consent D) Lawful concentration .

2) An agreement becomes a contract if :

A) It is by free consent of the parties. B) Parties are competent.
C) It is enforceable by law. D)  None of the above .

3) In a standardized contract :
A) The individual has no choice but to accept and sign on the dotted line.
B) The individual must be protected in contract.
C) The agreement is without consideration.
D) None of the above.
4) The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is :
A) Offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration.
B) Agreement, consideration, offer,acceptance.
C) Offer , Consideration, acceptance, agreement.
D) Offer,acceptance, consideration, agreement.

5) Consider the following statements :

A) Every promise is an agreement.
B) Every agreement is a contract.
C) A contractor which cease to be enforceable by law becomes void .
D) A minor who is supplied necessaries is personally liable to pay for them.

6) Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) A and C only. B)  A and B only. C)  A,   B and C . D)  B,  C and D .

 7) Consider the following statements :

1. If an infant  obtains  property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he can be compelled to
restore it even though the infant has sold the Goods or converted them.

2. There is no estoppel against  minor.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

A)  1 only . B) 2 only . C) Both 1 and 2. D) Neither 1 nor 2.

8) A petient in a lunatic Asylum who is at intervals of sound mind :

A) May not contract. B) May contract.

C) May contact during those intervals when he is of sound mind.

D) May contract only after he becomes completely of sound mind .

9) A sells,  by auction to B a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the
horse  unsoundness. A does :

A)  Fraud B)  Misrepresentation C) No fraud D) Undue Influence

10) Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact, the agreement will be :
A) Enforceable B) Voidable C) Not void D) Void

11. A contract that amounts to nothing and has no legal effect is Void

12. A valid contract must contain at least four of the six elements of a
Contract is False

13. A contract that contains a promise by both parties is bilateral

14. A(n) bilateral occurs when one party to a contract does not do what he or she agreed to do.
15. If a valid offer is met with a valid acceptance, the result is genuine agreement

16. People sometimes enter into implied contracts without saying

a word.

17. The offeree’s refusal, or rejection of an offer ends that offer.

18. An offer must be definite, communicated to the offeree, and . seriously intended

19. When a bilateral mistake is made, false party may avoid the contract.

20. A deliberate deception to secure unfair or unlawful gain is fraud

UNIT –III
1. The mandate of an arbitrator shall:
a. be terminated by the death of any party by whom he was appointed.
b. be terminated by the death of the counter party.
c. not be terminated by the death of any party by whom he was appointed
d. None of the above.

2. “Arbitral Tribunal” means:

a. Only panel of arbitrators

b. A sole arbitrator or a panel of arbitrators
c. More than one arbitrator
d. Only a sole arbitrator

3. The purpose of Arbitration Act is to provide quick redressal, by private arbitration for.

a. family disputes
b. service disputes
c. commercial disputes
d. political disputes

4. As regards the determination of rules of procedure the arbitral tribunal shall not be bound
by:
a. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872).
b. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908)
c. A or B both
d. None of the above

5. If the award is made within a period of from the date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the
reference, the arbitral tribunal shall be entitled to receive such amount of additional fees as
the parties may agree:
a. six months
b. twelve months
c. three months
d. nine months

6. On what grounds the award may be challenged before the Court:

a. Invalidity of the arbitration agreement
b. Party applying was not given proper notice of the appointment of the arbitrator or of the
arbitral proceedings or was otherwise unable to present his case
c. Incapacity of a party
d. All the options are correct.

7. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, a party with notice to the other party may request,
from the receipt of the arbitral award, the arbitral tribunal to make an additional arbitral
award as to claims presented in the arbitral proceedings but omitted from the arbitral
award.
a. Within 30 days
b. Within 45 days
c. Within 60 days
d. Within 15 days

8. When an arbitral proceedings shall be terminated:

a. Final arbitral award
b. Interim award
c. Where the arbitral tribunal issue an order for the termination
d. Only A and C are correct.

9. The number of conciliators required in the conciliation:

a. Where there is more than one conciliator, they ought, as a general rule, to act jointly.
b. There shall be one conciliator unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three
conciliators.
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. None of the above

10. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 has NOT repealed the following Act:

a. The Arbitration Act, 1940 (10 of 1940)

b. The Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985
c. The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961 (45 of 1961)
d. The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937 (6 of 1937),

11. UNCITRAL, 1985. model law was used by the Indian Arbitration and conciliation Act 1996?
12. An arbitral award made under Part l of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be
considered as a domestic award
13. After the arbitral award is made, each party shall be delivered a signed copy of the award.
 14. An arbitral award shall be enforced in the same manner as if it were a decree of the
tribunal
15. Private arbitration is also described as Consensual arbitration.
16. The definition of ‘Arbitral Tribunal’ under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
means -------------------
17.The arbitral tribunal may arrange for administrative assistance with the
consent of the Parties
18.The arbitral tribunal may arrange for administrative assistance by a
suitable either institution or person.

19. The members of Statutory Arbitral Tribunals are appointed by State

20. Which article of the Constitution of India authorises the government to enter into an arbitration
agreement : Art.299