Sample Paper (VIII Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

(For VIII Studying)
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in ANTHE-2018)

SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The element which is mainly electroplated on car 4. The force which is only attractive in nature is
parts, bath taps, bicycle's handlebars etc., to give (1) Gravitational force
shiny appearance is (2) Electrostatic force
(1) Zinc (2) Aluminium (3) Magnetic force
(3) Chromium (4) Copper (4) Both electrostatic and magnetic force
2. In the figure given below, an ideal pendulum oscillates 5. Read statement-1 and statement-2 and choose the
in vacuum between two extreme positions A and B. correct option.
If it goes from position A to position B and then Statement-1 : In some situations, friction facilitates
returns from position B to mean position C in 3 s, the motion and in some situations, it opposes the
then it will complete 3.5 oscillations in motion.
Statement-2 : Friction force always opposes the
relative motion between two surfaces in contact.
Choose the correct option.
A B (1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
C (3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
(1) 14 s (2) 4 s
(4) Neither statement-1 nor statement-2 is correct
(3) 1.14 s (4) 2 s
6. Which of the following is made up of a large number
3. Water is filled upto same height in two identical of ester units?
closed containers A and B. Container A has vacuum
(1) Teflon (2) PVC
over the water while container B has air over the
water. At the same depth of both the containers (3) Bakelite (4) Polyester
there is an opening on which identical balloons A 7. Consider the following :
and B are attached as shown in the figure given Fibre A - Rayon
below. Then Fibre B - Natural fibre which is a polymer of glucose
Fibre C - First fully synthetic fibre
Vacuum Air Identify A, B and C and choose the correct option.
Strongest Least Fibre known
fibre disastrous as artificial
fibre on silk
Balloon A Balloon B catching fire
Container-A Container-B
(1) A B C
(1) Balloon-A will bulge more than balloon-B
(2) B C A
(2) Balloon-B will bulge more than balloon-A
(3) C B A
(3) Both the balloons will bulge equally
(4) None of the balloons will bulge (4) C A B

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (VIII Studying)
8. In which of the following liquids phosphorus is Which of the following is the correct reason for the
generally stored ? increase in the yield of maize grown in
(1) Alcohol (2) Sugar solution June-September 2015?
(3) Water (4) Kerosene (1) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15 utilizes
all the nutrients present in the soil
9. Which of the following elements is non-ductile?
(1) Silver (2) Gold (2) Maize grown in June-September, 2014 leaves
most of the nutrients for the growth of maize in
(3) Carbon (4) Copper next year
10. Consider the following figure.
(3) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15
replenishes the soil with nitrogen for better growth
of maize
CuSO4 HCl CuSO4 NaOH
(4) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15 takes
Zn Zn Fe Al
Case-I Case-II Case-III Case-IV
the nutrients left by maize grown in
In which of the given cases a gas is released? June-September 2014 and transfers it to maize
grown in June-September 2015
(1) I and III (2) II and III
13. Regarding wildlife sanctuaries, which of the following
(3) I and II (4) II and IV
statements is/are incorrect?
11. A man took 375 ml of water in a beaker and
dissolved 2-3 teaspoons of sugar in it and also (I) They provide protection to wild animals.
added half a spoon of powder 'A' to this solution. He (II) Capturing of animals is permitted here.
kept the solution in a warm place. After 4-5 hours he
observed the smell of alcohol coming from that (III) They provide suitable living conditions to wild
solution. animals.

Here, powder 'A' added is of (IV) Here, animals live in artificial settings.
(1) Yeast (2) Lactobacillus (1) (II) and (IV) (2) (I) and (II)
(3) Paramecium (4) Amoeba (3) (IV) only (4) (II) and (III)
12. In the given bar graph, yields of different crops in 14. A farmer needs to spray 2,4-D in his crop field. This
successive years are shown. indicates that

160 (1) He wants to make his crop resistant to drought

140 (2) There are undesirable plants in his crop field
Crop yield (kg/acre)

120 (3) His crop requires more nitrogen

100 (4) His crop is suffering from bacterial and fungal
infections
80
Maize

15. Nucleolus is present in

Gram

60
Maize

Maize

(1) Cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells

40
(2) Nucleoid of prokaryotic cells
20
(3) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
[Jun-Sept [Oct-Mar [Jun-Sept [Jun-Sept
2014] 2014-15] 2015] 2016] (4) Nucleus of eukaryotic cells

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Sample Paper (VIII Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

2 22. If x and y are the number of possibilities that A can

3
16. The rational number lies between and is assume such that the unit digit of A and A3 are
7 3
same and the unit digit of A2 and A3 are same
2 4 respectively, then the value of x – y is (where A is
(1) (2)
5 7 a single digit number)
3 2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) (4)
7 3 (3) 3 (4) 5
17. The square root of sum of the digits in the square of 23. In the given figure, AC and BD are the diagonals of
121 is kite ABCD with AB = AD while AG and ME are the
(1) 4 (2) 3 diagonals of rectangle AEGM. If AD = DG and BG
(3) 6 (4) 9 is a line segment, then x – y equals
18. What percent is 285 of the number 475? A E

(1) 150% (2) 90%

O
(3) 60% (4) 50%
42° x y
19. A dice is thrown once. The probability of getting the B M D G
square of the number appearing on the dice to be a
multiple of 9, is
1 2
(1) (2)
3 3
1 1 C
(3) (4)
2 6 (1) 21° (2) 48°
20. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, (3) 42° (4) 68°
ADE  50 and ACE  BED  90. The value 24. The following frequency distribution table shows the
of EAC  ABC  2DAC is weekly wages of 600 workers of a factory.
A B
Class - Interval Frequency
(Weekly wages in `) (Number of Workers)

500 - 525 48
O
525 - 550 52
550 - 575 55
D C E
575 - 600 96
(1) 20° (2) 10°
600 - 625 88
(3) 30° (4) 40°
625 - 650 85
5.6( x  3)
21. If  24 , then the value of (2x + 1) is 650 - 675 46
0.7
(1) 0 (2) 1 675 - 700 98

(3) 2 (4) 3 700 - 725 32

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (VIII Studying)

Which class interval of weekly wages has the 25. If a, b, c and d are four odd perfect cube numbers,
maximum number of workers? then which of the following is always a factor of

(1) 575 - 600  3 a  3 b 2  3 c  3 d  ?

(1) 6
(2) 625 - 650
(2) 8
(3) 650 - 675
(3) 3
(4) 675 - 700 (4) 9

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

26. One morning, Sachin starts moving from point A and
reaches at point B. From point B he takes a right
turn and walks towards point C. At point C he stops
and observes that his shadow is lying behind him. (1) (2)
The position of point A with respect to point B is
(1) North (2) South-west
(3) North-east (4) South
(3) (4)
27. 'Jharkhand' is related to 'Ranchi' in the same way as
'Gujarat' is related to
(1) Ahmedabad 29. The next term in the following series is
(2) Gandhinagar 1, 2, 5, 16, 65, 326, ?
(3) Vadodara (1) 1956 (2) 1957
(4) Surat (3) 1955 (4) 1987
28. The next figure in the following pattern is 30. Rachit saw a word 'GROCERY' written on a
signboard in rear-view mirror of his car. The image
that Rachit saw in the mirror was
(1) (2)
?
(3) (4)

  

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Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

(For IX Studying)
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in ANTHE-2018)

SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Two stones, having masses in the ratio of 3 : 2, are 4. If the displacement of a particle is equal to zero,
dropped from the heights in the ratio of 4 : 9. The then its distance
ratio of magnitudes of their linear momenta just
before reaching the ground is (neglect air resistance) (1) Must be equal to zero
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 2 : 3 (2) Can't be equal to zero
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
(3) Can be negative
2. Two point masses M and 3M are placed at a
distance L apart. Another point mass m is placed in (4) May or may not be equal to zero
between on the line joining them so that the net
5. Velocity-time graph of a block of mass 100 g sliding
gravitational force acting on it due to masses M and
on a horizontal concrete floor under the action of a
3M is zero. The magnitude of gravitational force
constant force of 5 N is shown below. The
acting due to mass M on mass m will be
magnitude of frictional force acting on the block due
 
2
GMm 1  3 to the floor is
(1)
L2
3GMm 80
(2) 2

L 1 3 
Velocity(m/s)

60
 
2
GMm 1– 3
(3)
L2 40

(4)
GMm 1– 3  20
2
L
3. Two persons just manage to push a block from left
O
to right direction along a horizontal level road with 2 4 6 8 Time (s)
uniform velocity. When the same block is pushed
by three persons in same direction a constant (1) 4 N (2) 5 N
acceleration of 0.2 ms–2 is produced in the block. If
(3) 3 N (4) Zero
the five persons push the block in same direction
together, then the magnitude of acceleration of the 6. The boiling point of a liquid X is 20°C more than that
block will be [Assume that each person applies the of water. Boiling point of X is
force equal in magnitude]
(1) 353 K (2) 373 K
(1) 0.4 ms–2 (2) 0.6 ms–2
(3) 0.8 ms–2 (4) 1 ms–2 (3) 393 K (4) 120 K

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

7. The physical state of matter that consists of super 10. Pehal and Ishaan were making 100 g sugar solutions
energetic and super excited particles in the form of with concentration by mass 20% and 50%
ionised gases is respectively. Pehal added 20 g of sugar in her
solution whereas Ishaan evaporated 20 g of water
(1) Solid from his solution. Now, the two solutions were mixed
(2) Liquid to form a final solution. The concentration by mass
of final solution is
(3) Plasma
(1) 28% (2) 45%
(4) Gas
(3) 40% (4) 60%
8. Consider the following diagram.
11. Select the incorrect statement regarding that
10 mL 10 mL 10 mL
organelle of animal cell which has its own DNA and
ribosomes.

(1) The energy required for various chemical activities

needed for life is released by it in the form of
ATP molecules
A B C D
In beaker A, a solution is made by dissolving 2-3 (2) Its outer membrane is deeply folded while the
inner membrane is very porous
crystals of potassium permanganate in 100 mL of
water. 10 mL of this solution is added in another (3) Its deeply folded membrane creates a large
beaker 'B' and the volume is made 100 mL by adding surface area for ATP-generating chemical
water. Same process is repeated again by taking reactions
10 mL of solution from beaker B to C and
(4) It is able to make some of its own proteins
subsequently from beaker C to D. The solution with
the least concentration is 12. Hard matrix of a particular type of connective tissue
is composed of calcium and phosphorus
(1) A (2) B
compounds. The cells embedded in this matrix are
(3) C (4) D
(1) Fibroblasts
9. Consider the following box
(2) Osteocytes
Fog, Mist, Sponge, Clouds, Pumice
(3) Chondrocytes
Total number of aerosols is (4) Mast cells
(1) Two 13. Four sugar solutions A, B, C and D of different sugar
concentrations were taken to perform an experiment
(2) Three at constant temperature to show the phenomenon of
(3) Four osmosis. After few hours, the changes in the level of
solutions observed are depicted by the given
(4) Five diagrams.

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Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018
According to the observation, correct order of sugar
concentration of those solutions is
Semipermeable Semipermeable
B membrane B membrane C (1) A > C = B > D (2) A > D > B = C
D
(3) D > B = C > A (4) C = B > D > A
Level of solution D No change in the 14. The cells of which tissue differentiate to form different
dropped down level of solutions types of permanent tissue?

(1) Sclerenchyma tissue (2) Collenchyma tissue

(3) Parenchyma tissue (4) Meristematic tissue

Semipermeable Semipermeable
membrane membrane 15. Amongst them, who classify all living organisms into
C
A D five kingdoms?
D
(1) Ernst Haeckel (2) Robert Whittaker
Level of solution D Level of solution D
dropped down raised up (3) Carl Woese (4) Charles Darwin

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
16. If ab = bc = ab, then b + c always equals 19. If p and q are two distinct irrational numbers, then which
of the following is always an irrational number?
1 1 p
(1) (2) bc
bc 2 (1) (2) pq
q
(3) 1 (4) bc p 2q  qp
(3) (p + q)2 (4)
17. Which of the following is a factor of 2x4 + 1 + 3x2? pq
20. In the given figure, if r || s, p || q and u || t, then c
(1) 1 + 2x2 equals
(2) 4 + x2 p
q
(3) 2x2 – 1
c E b
(4) 3 + x2 r
I F
18. The graph of the equation 5x – 3y = 10 cuts the a
x-axis at the point H G s
⎛ 10 ⎞
(1) ⎜ 0,
⎝ 3 ⎟⎠
J N

(2) (–2, 0) M u
t
(3) (2, 0) (1) a – b (2) 2a + b
(4) (0, 0) (3) a + b (4) b – a

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

21. If 8a  64b  c  24 3 abc , where a, b, c  0, then 24. In the given figure, ABC  EDA. If X and Y are
which of the following can be true? points lying on AD and EG respectively such that
AX EY DX
(1) 2 3 a  4 3 b  3 c  0   1 . The value of is always
XC YG FY

(2) 2 3 a  4 3 b  3 c A

(3) a + b + c = 0

(4) a = b = c
X
22. In the given figure, if AB intersects CD at O, D
CB || AD || EF || GH, BH = AE and OH = OE, then
which of the following is not always correct? C
B F G
C B
Y
G H E
O (1) Greater than 1
E F (2) Equal to 1
A D (3) Less than 1
(1) BC = AD 3
(4) Equal to
(2) OC = OD 2
25. In the given ABC, E is a point on AD.
(3) GH = EF
If AEB, ADB and ACD are equal to 180° – k1,
(4) OB = OD 180° – k 2 and 180° – k 3 respectively, then
k1 : k2 : k3 equals
23. A tile is in the shape of a rhombus whose diagonals
are (x + 5) units and (x – 8) units. The number of
A
such tiles required to tile on the floor of area
(x2 + x – 20) sq. units is
 
2( x  6)
(1) E
( x  2)

x4 
(2)
x 2 B D C

2( x  4) (1) 1 : 2 : 3
(3)
( x  8) (2) 2 : 3 : 4
(3) 3 : 4 : 5
x 8
(4) (4) 1 : 3 : 5
x2
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Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

26. An insect moves in a field as shown in the following 28. The number which replaces '?' in the following pattern
diagram. If the insect starts moving towards east is
initially, then finally it is moving towards
M P
? 231

5
Finally moving
96 24
Initial point
(1) South-West (2) South-East K G

(3) North-West (4) North-East (1) 18 (2) 28

27. Which figure will replace '?' in the following figure
(3) 144 (4) 164
matrix?
29. A person threw a standard dice 3 times. He obtained
two distinct odd prime numbers in two throws and an
even number which is not a factor of 18 in the third
throw. The sum of all the numbers on the opposite
faces of numbers obtained in the three throws is

(1) 9 (2) 12

(3) 10 (4) 15

?
30. Mr. Smith has a bag A. Bag A has n numbers of
bag B. Each bag B has n numbers of bag C. Each
bag C has n numbers of one rupee coins in it. If one
bag B is removed from bag A, then the total number
of coins left in bag A is
(1) (2) (1) n(n – 1)(n + 1)

(2) n(n – 1)

(3) n2(n + 1)
(3) (4)
(4) n2(n – 1)

  

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (X Studying)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

(For X Studying)
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in ANTHE-2018)

SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The power of engine of a car of mass 1200 kg is 2 2
25 kW. The minimum time required to reach a velocity (1)  (90 – i ) (2)  i
1 1
of 90 km/h by the car after starting from rest is
(1) 15 s (2) 25 s (3) i (4) 90° – i
(3) 60 s (4) 12 s 4. Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
2. The effective resistance in between the points A
and B in the circuit given below is (1) When a body is immersed fully or partially into
a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is
14  A B 5
equal to weight of the fluid displaced by it
9  48  (2) A stone is tied with a light spring balance using
10  20  15  a light string. As this stone is slowly lowered
into the water, the reading of the spring balance
8 6 decreases till it touches the bottom of the
(1) 23  (2) 32  container as shown in the figure given below
(3) 12  (4) 45 
3. In the arrangement given below, there are two Spring balance
rectangular glass slabs placed side by side as
shown. A ray of light is incident from air onto the
surface of glass slab-1 having refractive index 1 at
an angle of incidence i. Thereafter, it moves through Water
glass slab-2 of refractive index 2 and after emerging Stone
from the glass slab-2, it reflects from a smooth
horizontal plane mirror. The angle  which reflected (3) Lactometer is used to measure the purity of a
ray makes with the mirror is sample of milk
i Air (4) The density of the object can be measured in
1 kgcm–3
Glass Slab-1
5. A concave lens is required to correct
2 (1) Myopia (2) Presbyopia
Glass Slab-2
(3) Hypermetropia (4) Cataract
Air
6. Four moles of a compound 'X' weigh 176 g.
Compound 'X' is

 (1) CO (2) CH4

Plane Mirror (3) CO2 (4) NaCl

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Sample Paper (X Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018
7. On the basis of given information, identify 'X'. 11. Select the correct option w.r.t. excretory parts that
Atomic Mass No. of No. of No. of Symbol
occur in pairs in human beings.
No. No. Electrons Protons Neutrons
(1) Ureter, urethra and urinary bladder
1 1 1 A B X
(2) Urinary bladder and urethra only
(1) H (2) Ne
(3) H+ (4) He2+ (3) Kidney and ureter

8. Addition of water to calcium oxide, is an example of (4) Urethra and kidney

both
(1) Combination and endothermic reaction 12. Match the following symptoms/conditions with their
associated endocrine glands labelled as A, B, C, D
(2) Combination and exothermic reaction
and E in the outline sketch of human being as given
(3) Decomposition and endothermic reaction below and select the correct option.
(4) Decomposition and exothermic reaction
9. Rajat and Ashima have got two different solutions A
A
and B respectively. The concentration of hydronium
ion is more in case of solution A. Solution B turns
pink in the presence of phenolphthalein while A turns B
the colour of pH paper orange. The pH of solutions
A and B can respectively be
(1) 7, 13 (2) 13, 14 C
(3) 2, 14 (4) 14, 13
D

10. 'X' and 'Y' are two metallic elements. 'Y' is more
E
reactive than 'X'. The reaction of 'Y' with iron oxide is
highly exothermic and is used to join railway tracks.
Y does not react with hot or cold water but reacts
with steam to form its oxide. 'X' reacts with sodium
(a) Increases heart rate.
hydroxide to produce a gas 'Z' which burns with pop
sound. 'X' is also a constituent of brass. Which of (b) Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat
the following statements are not correct for 'X', 'Y' and
metabolism.
'Z'?
(i) 'Y' is aluminium and 'X' is copper. (c) High blood sugar level.
(ii) Oxides of 'X' and 'Y' are amphoteric. (d) Faster breathing rate.
(iii) 'Y' forms a compound with formula YCl3 with
chlorine. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) 'X' is used for galvanisation. (1) C B D C
(v) 'Z' is oxygen. (2) A E B D
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (3) D C E A
(3) (i) & (iv) (4) (i) & (v) (4) A B D A

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018 Sample Paper (X Studying)
13. Identify the odd one out from I, II and III separately 14. At higher altitudes, air becomes rarer and amount of
and select the correct option for those odd ones. oxygen per litre of air decreases.
Increase in all of the following would compensate this
I. Intestinal juice, Pancreatic juice, Saliva, Bile juice. decrease for performing normal biological functions of
II. Mucus, Pepsin, Trypsin, Lipase. our body, except
(1) The concentration of haemoglobin
III. Amino acid, Glycerol, Hydrochloric acid, Glucose. (2) The number of red blood cells
(1) Intestinal juice, Lipase, Glucose (3) The temperature of the body
(4) The rate of breathing
(2) Saliva, Trypsin, Amino acid 15. Which among the following organisms divide into many
daughter cells simultaneously by multiple fission?
(3) Bile juice, Pepsin, Amino acid
(1) Amoeba (2) Plasmodium
(4) Bile juice, Mucus, Hydrochloric acid (3) Hydra (4) Planaria

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
16. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 14, then ab + bc + ca is always 19. A cylindrical vessel open at the top has a base
greater than or equal to diameter 56 cm. If the total cost of painting the outer
(1) 0 (2) 14 curved surface of the vessel is ` 352 at the rate of
(3) –1 (4) –7 ` 0.2 per 100 cm2, then the height of the vessel is
17. In the given figure, if ABC is a triangle, D and E are (1) 15 m (2) 10 m
the points on BC such that ADC ~ AEB, then
(3) 6 m (4) 12 m
AD
is always equal to 20. Out of the given four quadrilaterals, in which of the
AE
A following, the diagonals always bisect each other at
right angles?
(1) Trapezium (2) Rhombus
(3) Rectangle (4) Kite
21. If the HCF and LCM of 48 and 56 are respectively
B D E C l
h and l, then the value of is
AB AC h
(1) (2)
CE AB (1) 40 (2) 42
AD CE (3) 36 (4) 44
(3) (4)
CE AD
22. The system of linear equations 5x + my = 10 and
1 1 1
18. The value of  … is 4x + ny = 8 have infinitely many solutions, where m
2 7 7  10 28  31 and n are positive integers. Then, the minimum
4  28 2  31 possible value of (m + n) is equal to
(1) (2)
3 3
(1) 9 (2) 5
28  4 31  2
(3) (4) (3) 6 (4) 10
3 3
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Sample Paper (X Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

23. The quadratic equation abx2 + acx + b(bx + c) = 0 25. The common difference of an arithmetic progression
has non-zero equal and rational roots. The values of
27
a and c respectively cannot be equal to (ab  0) in which a15  a6   , is (where an is the nth term
2
(1) 4 & 49 (2) 49 & 16
(3) 4 & 64 (4) 8 & 49 of the given AP)

⎡ tan30  sin60  cosec30 ⎤

4 3
24. The value of ⎢ is equal to (1) –2 (2)
⎣ sec 0  cot 60  cos30 ⎥⎦ 2
(1) 8 (2) 3 2 3
(3) (4) 3
(3) 4 (4) 16 2

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

26. If EXTRANEOUS  XEOENARTSU, then Taxpayer PAN Allotted
PERFECTION ? Status During FY
(1) EPITECFRNO (2) EPICTEFRNO 2013-14

(3) EPITCEFRNO (4) EIPTCEFRNO ASSOCIATION OF PERSONS 70,970

BODY OF INDIVIDUALS 4,306
27. Out of the following four options, three possess the
COMPANY 1,01,973
same property, while one is different from the others.
Choose the correct odd option. FIRM 2,43,789
GOVERNMENT 876
(1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
HUF 70,196
(2) Narendra Modi ARTIFICIAL JURIDICAL PERSON 1,444
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh LOCAL AUTHORITY 4,333
INDIVIDUAL 2,76,45,257
(4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
TRUST 46,308
28. The value of ‘a’ in the following pattern is TOTAL PAN ALLOTTED 2,81,89452

4 8 12 29. In which category of taxpayer status, the number of

PAN allotted is fourth highest during FY 2013-14?
2 16 39 a
(1) FIRM
10 15 20
(2) TRUST
(1) 71 (2) 16 (3) HUF
(3) 25 (4) 61 (4) ASSOCIATION OF PERSONS
Directions : (Q.29 to Q.30) 30. The difference between the number of PAN allotted to
BODY OF INDIVIDUALS and LOCAL AUTHORITY is
Read the given table and answer the following questions.
In this table data about the PAN allotment during FY (1) 69526 (2) 66637
2013-14 is given. (3) 27 (4) 2862
  
Space for Rough Work

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in

13
 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2018

(For VIII, IX & X Studying)

ANSWERS
Class VIII Studying Class IX Studying Class X Studying
1. (3) 1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (2) 3. (4)
4. (1) 4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (3) 5. (1) 5. (1)
6. (4) 6. (3) 6. (3)
7. (3) 7. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3) 8. (4) 8. (2)
9. (3) 9. (2) 9. (3)
10. (4) 10. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 11. (2) 11. (3)
12. (3) 12. (2) 12. (1)
13. (1) 13. (4) 13. (4)
14. (2) 14. (4) 14. (3)
15. (4) 15. (2) 15. (2)
16. (2) 16. (4) 16. (4)
17. (1) 17. (1) 17. (2)
18. (3) 18. (3) 18. (4)
19. (1) 19. (4) 19. (2)
20. (2) 20. (3) 20. (2)
21. (2) 21. (1) 21. (2)
22. (2) 22. (4) 22. (1)
23. (2) 23. (3) 23. (4)
24. (4) 24. (2) 24. (4)
25. (2) 25. (2) 25. (2)
26. (4) 26. (1) 26. (3)
27. (2) 27. (4) 27. (4)
28. (4) 28. (3) 28. (1)
29. (2) 29. (1) 29. (4)
30. (4) 30. (4) 30. (3)
 Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

Time : 2 Hours Sample Paper MM : 360

SECTION - A : SCIENCE Hkkx - A % foKku

1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and 1. pkj cYc] ftuesa ls çR;sd ij (100 W] 220 V) vafdr
connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs gS] dks 220 V dh oksYVrk&vkiwfrZ ls lekarj Øe esa tksMk+
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how x;k gS ,oa bUgsa çfrfnu ik¡p ?kaVs tyk;k tkrk gSA ;fn lHkh
many units of electrical energy will be saved every cYcksa ds LFkku ij LEDs] ftu ij (8 W] 220 V) vafdr
month (30 days)?
gS] yxk fn, tk,a rks çfr ekg (30 fnu) esa fdruh fo|qr
(1) 55.2 units ÅtkZ dh cpr gksxh?
(2) 60 units
(1) 55.2 ;wfuV (2) 60 ;wfuV
(3) 4.8 units
(3) 4.8 ;wfuV (4) 32 ;wfuV
(4) 32 units
2. In the circuit given below, the potential difference 2. uhps fn, x, ifjiFk es]a Hkqtk PQ ds fljksa ij foHkokarj
across the arm PQ will be gksxk
P Q
P Q 6
6
6
6
5
5
24 V
24 V
(1) 4.5 V (2) 12 V
(1) 4.5 V (2) 12 V (3) 24 V (4) 9 V
(3) 24 V (4) 9 V
3. ,d okLrfod oLrq dks 2f dh nwjh ij] igys ,d mÙky
3. A real object is kept at a distance of 2f, first in front ysla ds lEeq[k vkSj fÝQj ,d vory niZ.k ds lEeq[k j[kk
of a convex lens and then in front of a concave
mirror, each having focal length f. The ratio of
tkrk gS] ftuesa çR;sd dh ÝQksdl nwjh f gSA buds }kjk
magnifications produced by them will be mRiUu vkoèkZuksa dk vuqikr gksxk
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : –1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : –1

Space for Rough Work

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper

4. A rectangular glass slab having refractive index 3 , 4. fn;s x, fp=k ds vuqlkj ,d vk;rkdkj dk¡p dh flYyh
is silvered at one surface as shown in the figure. If dh ,d lrg dks jtfrr fd;k x;k gS vkS j bldk
the angle of refraction of the light ray at the interface viorZukad 3 gS] ;fn varjki`"B AB ij çdk'k fdj.k
AB is 30°, then the measure of angle x will be
dk viorZu dks.k 30° gks] rks dks.k x dk eki gksxh
Light ray
AIR A izdk'k fdj.k
ok;q A
x
30° x
30°
B
Silvered B
jtfrr
(1) 45° (2) 30°
(1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
5. The effective focal length of two lenses in contact with
each other, having focal lengths f1 and f2, is given by 5. ,d&nwljs ds laidZ esa j[ks f1 rFkk f2 ÝQksdl nwfj;ksa okys nks
ysla ksa dh çHkkoh ÝQksdl nwjh gksxh
(1) f1 + f2
(1) f1 + f2
f1  f2
(2) f f f1  f2
12
(2) f1f2
f1f2
(3) f  f f1f2
1 2 (3) f  f
1 2

f1
(4) f f1
2 (4) f
2

6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of

masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of 6. m rFkk 3m æO;eku okyh nks fHkÂ&fHk oLrqvksa ij leku
x
usV cy yxk;k tkrk gSA ;fn buds Roj.k ds ifjek.k Øe'k%
their acceleration respectively, then the ratio y will x
x vkSj y gks]a rks budk vuqikr y
gksxk
be

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

Space for Rough Work

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 Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
7. Match the following and choose the appropriate 7. fuEukafdr dk feyku djsa vkSj mi;qDr fodYi pquAas (çrhdksa
option. (Symbols have their usual meanings)
ds vFkZ ogh gSa tks lkekU;r% gksrs gS)a
Column (A) Column (B)
dkWye (A) dkWye (B)
a. v (i) Particle undergoing
uniform positive a. v (i) ,dleku èkukRed Roj.k
acceleration ls xqtj+ rh gqbZ oLrq

t
t
b. v (ii) Particle is at rest
b. v (ii) oLrq fojkekoLFkk esa gS

t
t
c. s (iii) Particle undergoing
c. s (iii) oLrq fu;r eanu ls xqtj+
constant retardation
jgh gS

t
t

d. v (iv) Particle moving with d. v (iv) oLrq ,dleku osx ls xfr

uniform velocity
dj jgh gS

t t
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 8. ,d yM+dk 20 eh- f=kT;k okys o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij nkSMr+ k gS
8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and vkSj iFk ds NBosa Hkkx rd nkSM+ dj #d tkrk gSA mlds
stops after covering one sixth of the track. The foLFkkiu dk ifjek.k gksxk
magnitude of his displacement will be
(1) 20 eh- (2) 20 eh-
(1) 20 m (2) 20 m
20 20
(3) 40 m (4) m (3) 40 eh- (4) eh-
3 3

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
9. A pistol of mass 2 kg fires a bullet of mass 50 g. 9. 2 fdxzk- æO;eku okyh ,d fiLrkSy 50 xzk- æO;eku okyh
1 1
The bullet strikes a stationary block of mass kg. ,d xksyh nkxrh gSA xksyh fdxzk- æO;eku okys ,d fLFkj
2 2
If the block, with the bullet embedded in it, moves CykWd ls Vdjkrh gSA ;fn xksyh dks lekfgr fd;s gq, ;g
with a velocity of 4 m/s, the recoil velocity of the
pistol will be (Ignore friction and air resistance)
CykWd] 4 eh-@ls- ds osx ls xfr djs] rks fiLrkSy dk çfr{ksi
osx D;k gksxk? (?k"kZ.k vkSj ok;q dk çfrjksèk ux.; eku ys)a
(1) –1.10 m/s (2) –0.5 m/s
(1) –1.10 eh-@ls- (2) –0.5 eh-@ls-
(3) –0.55 m/s (4) –1 m/s
(3) –0.55 eh-@ls- (4) –1 eh-@ls-
10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of 10. 40 fdxzk- æO;eku okyh ,d yM+dh 15 lhf<+;ks okyk ,d t+huk
80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her p<+rh gSA çR;sd lh<+h dh ÅapkbZ 20 lseh- gSA ;fn mlus t+huk
is [Take g = 10 m/s2] p<+us esa 80 W 'kfDr dk mi;ksx fd;k gks rks mlds }kjk fy;k
(1) Half a minute (2) 40 s x;k le; gksxk [g = 10 eh-@ls-2 yhft,]
(3) 45 s (4) 15 s (1) vkèkk feuV (2) 40 lsd.M
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross sectional (3) 45 lsd.M (4) 15 lsd.M
areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B 11. rkacs ds nks rkjksa dh vuqçLFk dkV ds {ks=kÝQy 1 : 2 ds
will be vuqikr esa gSa rFkk mudh yackbZ Øe'k% 2 : 1 ds vuqikr
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1 esa gSAa A vkSj B dh çfrjksèkdrkvksa dk vuqikr gksxk
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
12. If ratios of masses and velocities of two bodies are
12. ;fn nks fiaMksa ds æO;ekuksa ,oa osxksa ds vuqikr Øe'k% 2 : 3
2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively, then the ratio of
magnitude of their momenta is vkSj 4 : 5 gksa rks muds laoxs ksa ds ifjek.k dk vuqikr gS
(1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15
(1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5
13. tSlk fd fp=k esa fn[kk;k x;k gS] vkjaHk esa {kSfrt osx v ls
13. As shown in the figure, a 4 kg ball initially moving xfreku 4 fdxzk- dh ,d xsna ] nhokj ls Vdjkrh gS vkSj
with horizontal velocity v strikes the wall and
rebounds with 75% of its initial speed. It then viuh vkjafHkd pky dh 75% pky ls okil ykSVrh gSA
undergoes head on collision with the 6 kg ball and blds ckn og 6 fdxzk- dh xsna ls lhèks Vdjkrh gS vkSj
sticks to it. If both start moving with common speed mlls fpid tkrh gSA ;fn nksuksa xsna as 6 eh-@ls- dh mHk;fu"B
of 6 m/s, then the value of v is pky ls pyuk vkjaHk dj nsrh gS]a rks v dk eku gS
Wall
6 kg 6 fdxzk- nhokj
Smooth (At rest) 4 kg (fojke ij) 4 fdxzk-
v v
surface fpduh lrg

(1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 20 eh-@ls- (2) 15 eh-@ls-

(3) 60 m/s (4) 12 m/s (3) 60 eh-@ls- (4) 12 eh-@ls-

Space for Rough Work

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit. 14. mu jkf'k;ksa ds ;qXe dks pquas ftlds ek=kd leku gSAa
(1) Power and energy (1) 'kfDr ,oa ÅtkZ (2) fo|qrèkkjk ,oa foHkokarj
(2) Current and potential difference
(3) dk;Z ,oa ÅtkZ (4) vkoèkZu ,oa 'kfDr
(3) Work and energy
15. tc fdlh xsna dks ÅèoZr% Åij dh vksj ÝQsd a k tkrk gS rks
(4) Magnification and power
vf/dre Å¡pkbZ ij
15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the
highest point (1) Roj.k 'kwU; gksrk gS fdarq osx gksrk gS

(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero (2) Roj.k gksrk gS fdarq osx 'kwU; gksrk gS

(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero (3) Roj.k vkSj osx] nksuksa 'kwU; gksrs gSa
(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero (4) Roj.k vkSj osx] nksuksa gksrs gSa
(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero 16. ysM ukbVªsV ds rkih; vi?kVu ds nkSjku ,d jaxghu o
16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during xaèkghu xSl P mRiUu gksrh gSA P] ck;ksxlS ds eq[; vo;o
thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds ;kSfxd Q vkSj R cukrh gSA
the main component of biogas to form compounds Q
P, Q vkSj R Øe'k% gSa
and R. P, Q and R respectively are
(1) N2O, O2 vkSj H2O (2) CO2, O2 vkSj Cl2
(1) N2O, O2 and H2O (2) CO2, O2 and Cl2
(3) O2, CO2 and H2O (4) O2, CO2 and H2 (3) O2, CO2 vkSj H2O (4) O2, CO2 vkSj H2

17. The number of C – H bonds present in propanol is 17. çksius kWy esa mifLFkr C – H vkcaèkksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 7
(3) 10 (4) 7
18. igpkusa fd fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa vkSj
18. Identify which of the following statements is/are true
and choose the appropriate option. mi;qDr fodYi pquAas
(i) Unsaturated hydrocarbons generally burn with a (i) vlarI` r gkbMªkds kcZu lkekU;r% /q,¡ a okyh Tokyk ds lkFk
sooty flame. tyrs gSAa
(ii) The possible structural isomers for butane are
(ii) C;wVu
s ds rhu lajpukRed leko;o laHko gSAa
three.
(1) Both (i) & (ii) are correct (1) (i) vkSj (ii)] nksuksa lgh gSAa

(2) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect (2) (i) vkSj (ii)] nksuksa xyr gSAa

(3) Only (i) is correct (3) dsoy (i) lgh gSA

(4) Only (ii) is correct (4) dsoy (ii) lgh gSA
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode 19. czkbZu ds fo|qr vi?kVu ds nkSjku ½.kkxz (dSFkksM) ij buesa
during the electrolysis of brine? ls dkSu&lh xSl eqDr gksrh gS?
(1) Cl2 (2) O2 (1) Cl2 (2) O2
(3) H2 (4) NO2 (3) H2 (4) NO2

Space for Rough Work

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
20. On thermal decomposition of CaCO3, a gas ‘X’ is 20. CaCO3 ds rkih; vi?kVu ij] xSl ^X* çkIr gksrh gSA
obtained. The aqueous solution of X
^X* dk tyh; foy;u
(1) Turns red litmus blue
(1) yky fyV~el dks uhyk dj nsxk
(2) Does not change the colour of phenolphthalein
(3) Gives red colour with turmeric (2) ÝQhukWyÝFksfyu ds jax dks ifjo£rr ugha djrk
(4) Gives blue colour with methyl orange (3) gYnh ds lkFk yky jax nsxk
21. aMnO2 + bHCl  cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2 (4) esfFky vkWjtas ds lkFk uhyk jax nsxk
pC2H5OH + qO2  rCO2 + sH2O 21. aMnO2 + bHCl  cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations pC2H5OH + qO2  rCO2 + sH2O
respectively are
mijksDr jklk;fud lehdj.kksa es]a a, c, q vkSj r Øe'k% gSa
(1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(1) 2, 4, 2 vkSj 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 vkSj 2
(3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the (3) 4, 2, 2 vkSj 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 vkSj 2
same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is 22. fdrus eksy veksfu;k dk æO;eku] 3 eksy dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM
(1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol ds nzO;eku ds cjkcj gksxk?
(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol (1) 0.19 eksy (2) 2.58 eksy
23. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ have same number of
(3) 9.04 eksy (4) 7.76 eksy
electrons in their valence shells. The number of
electrons present in the second last shell of atom ‘A’ 23. nks rRoksa 'A' rFkk 'B' ds la;ksth dks'k esa bysDVªkuW ksa dh la[;k
is two times the number of electrons present in the leku gSA ijek.kq 'A' ds f}rh; vafre dks'k esa mifLFkr
second shell of atom ‘B’. A and B respectively are
bysDVªkuW ksa dh la[;k] ijek.kq 'B' ds f}rh; dks'k esa mifLFkr
(1) Aluminium and phosphorus
bysDVªkuW ksa dh la[;k dh nksxuq h gSA A vkSj B Øe'k% gSa
(2) Magnesium and calcium
(1) ,Y;wfefu;e ,oa ÝQkWLÝQksjl (2) eSXuhf'k;e ,oa dSfY'k;e
(3) Silicon and carbon
(4) Oxygen and sulphur (3) flfydu ,oa dkcZu (4) vkWDlhtu ,oa lYÝQj
24. Match the following and choose the correct option. 24. fuEukafdr dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquAas
Element Valency rRo la;kstdrk
a. C (i) 3 a. C (i) 3
b. B (ii) 4 b. B (ii) 4
c. K (iii) 2 c. K (iii) 2
d. Mg (iv) 1 d. Mg (iv) 1
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

25. Mass of 48.176 × 1023 molecules of CH4 will be 25. CH4 ds 48.176 × 1023 v.kqvksa dk æO;eku gksxk
(1) 68 g (2) 92 g (1) 68 xzk- (2) 92 xzk-
(3) 128 g (4) 188 g (3) 128 xzk- (4) 188 xzk-

Space for Rough Work

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
26. Dehydration of ethanol results in the formation of a 26. ,FkukWy ds futZyhdj.k ds ifj.kkeLo:i ty ds lkFk&lkFk
compound ‘X’ along with water. Hydrogenation of ‘X’
forms another compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively
,d ;kSfxd 'X' fufeZr gksrk gSA 'X' ds gkbMªkt s uhdj.k ls
are ,d vU; ;kSfxd 'Y' fufeZr gksrk gSA 'X' vkSj 'Y' Øe'k% gSa
(1) Ethanoic acid and methane (1) ,FkukWbd vEy ,oa ehFksu (2) ,Fkhu ,oa ,Fksu
(2) Ethene and ethane (3) ,FkukWy ,oa ,Fksu (4) ,Fksu ,oa ehFksu
(3) Ethanol and ethane 27. fuEu esa ls fdlesa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k lokZfèkd gS?
(4) Ethane and methane
(1) 48 xzke ghfy;e
27. Which of the following contains the maximum
number of atoms? (2) veksfu;k ds 3.011 × 1021 v.kq
(1) 48 g of helium (3) ehFksu ds 48 v.kq
(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia (4) 3 eksy vkWDlhtu
(3) 48 molecules of methane 28. fuEu esa ls fdl rRo&;qXe esa la;ksth bysDVªkuW ksa dh la[;k
(4) 3 mol of oxygen leku gS?
28. Which of the following pairs of elements have same
number of valence electrons? (1) lksfM;e ,oa eSXuhf'k;e (2) dkcZu ,oa ukbVªkt s u
(1) Sodium and magnesium (3) vkWDlhtu ,oa lYÝQj (4) iksVfS 'k;e ,oa dSfY'k;e
(2) Carbon and nitrogen 29. csfdax lksMk ds rkih; fo;kstu ij] yo.k 'X' çkIr gksrk gSA
(3) Oxygen and sulphur 'X' dk tyh; foy;u dh izoQ` fr gksxh?
(4) Potassium and calcium (1) vEyh; (2) {kkjh;
29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is
(3) mHk;èkehZ (4) mnklhu
obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be
(1) Acidic (2) Basic 30. ;kSfxd A, csfdax lksMk ls vfHkfØ;k djus ij jaxghu xSl
(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral C mRiUu djrk gSA bl xSl dks pwus ds ikuh ls xqtk+ jus
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces ij foy;u D curk gSA D ls xSl C dks iqu% xqtk+ jus ij]
a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime ,d vU; foy;u E curk gSA A dh çÑfr vkSj foy;u
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas E dk jax igpkfu,A
C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
the nature of A and the colour of the solution E. (1) vEyh;, uhyk (2) {kkjh;] yky
(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red (3) {kkjh;, ihyk (4) vEyh;] jaxghu
(3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless 31. gfjr yod esa mifLFkr gjs jax ds o.kZd fdl dk;Z esa
31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast lgk;d gksrs gS\ a
helps in
(1) e`nk ls iQkWLiQksjl dk vo'kks"k.k
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil
(2) Absorption of light energy (2) çdk'k ÅtkZ dk vo'kks"k.k
(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels (3) okrjaèkzkas ds ekè;e ls vfrfjDr ty dk fu"dklu
(4) Exchange of respiratory gases (4) 'olu xSlksa dk fofue;

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
32. In humans, the centre associated with hunger is 32. ekuo es]a Hkw[k ls lacfa èkr dsæa dgka mifLFkr gksrk gS?
present in the (1) vxz efLr"d esa (2) i'p efLr"d esa
(1) Fore brain (2) Hind brain (3) eè; efLr"d esa (4) es# jTtq esa
(3) Mid brain (4) Spinal cord
33. ekuoksa es]a ________ xSlksa ds fofue; ds fy, lrg çnku
33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where djrh@djrk@djrs gS@gSAa
exchange of gases can take place.
(1) raf=kdk dksf'kdk (2) jlkadqj
(1) Neuron (2) Villi
(3) o`Ddk.kq (4) dwfidk
(3) Nephron (4) Alveolus
34. dFku-1 : dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM ty esa v?kqyu'khy gksrh gSA
34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.
Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
dFku-2 : gheksXyksfcu esa vkWDlhtu ds çfr mPp ca/qrk
oxygen. gksrh gSA
(1) Both the statements are true (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(2) Both the statements are false (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false (3) dFku&1 lgh gS ,oa dFku&2 xyr gS
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true (4) dFku&1 xyr gS ,oa dFku&2 lgh gS
Lack of
35. Glucose
In cytoplasm
Pyruvate
oxygen
P + Energy 35. Xyd s ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
w kt dkfs'kdknzO; esa
ikb#osV
(in our muscle (6 − dkcZu v.k)q
(6-Carbon cells) (3-Carbon
molecule)
The accumulation of ‘P’ in humans leads to
molecule)
⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯
vkWDlhtu dh deh
→ P + ÅtkZ
(gekjh is'kh&dkfs'kdkvksa ea)s (3 − dkcZu v.kq)
(1) Dwarfism (2) Muscle cramps ekuo esa ^P* ds lap;u ls D;k gksrk gS?
(3) Diabetes (4) Hepatitis A (1) okeurk (ckSukiu) (2) isf'k;ksa esa ,sB
a u
36. Which of the following is not a part of excretory (3) eèkqeg
s (4) gSisVkbfVl A
system in human beings? 36. fuEu esa ls dkSu] ekuo esa mRltZu&ra=k dk Hkkx ugha gS?
(1) Kidney (2) Ureter
(1) o`Dd (2) ew=kokfguh
(3) Vas deferens (4) Urethra
(3) 'kqØokgd (4) ew=kekxZ
37. In which of the following test tubes digestion of
37. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ij[kufy;ksa esa çksVhu dk ikpu ugha gksxk?
protein would not take place?

isfIlu isfIlu fVªfIlu fVªfIlu

Pepsin Pepsin Trypsin Trypsin
+ + + +
+ + + +
HCl {kkj {kkj HCl
HCl Alkali Alkali HCl
+ + + +
+ + + +

Protein Protein Protein Protein

izksVhu izksVhu izksVhu izksVhu

P Q R S
P Q R S
(1) P and R (2) P and S (1) P vkSj R (2) P vkSj S
(3) Q and S (4) R and Q (3) Q vkSj S (4) R vkSj Q

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of 38. vkgkj uyh ds fdl Hkkx esa eaM (LVkpZ) dk ikpu vkjaHk
starch begins? gksrk gS?
(1) Stomach (1) vkek'k; (2) cM+h vkar
(2) Large intestine (3) ;d`r (4) eq[k xqfgdk

(3) Liver 39. var%lzkoh xzfa Fk ^A*] ,d ekuoh; mRlthZ vax ^B* ds 'kh"kZ
ij fLFkr gSA vax ^B* vkSj ^A* }kjk lzkfor gkWekZsu dh
(4) Buccal cavity igpku djsAa
39. The endocrine gland ‘A’ is located at the top of a
var%lkzoh xfza Fk 'A' }kjk
human excretory organ ‘B’. Identify the organ ‘B’ and vax 'B'
the hormone secreted by ‘A’ lzkfor gkWekuZs
(1) ew = kokfguh ,sM ªhusfyu
Hormone secreted
Organ 'B' (2)
by endocrine gland 'A' o`Dd Fkk;jkfWDlu
(1) Ureter Adrenaline (3) o`Dd ,sM ªhusfyu
(2) Kidneys Thyroxine (4) ew = kekxZ Fkk;jkfDlu
W
(3) Kidneys Adrenaline 'P' raf=kdksf'kdk
40. xzkgh
(4) Urethra Thyroxine
es# jTtq
'Q' raf=kdksf'kdk
'P' neuron
40. Receptor dk;Zdj

Spinal cord ^P* dh igpku djsAa

'Q' neuron
Effector (1) çsjd raf=kdksf'kdk
(2) çlkfjr raf=kdksf'kdk
Identify ‘P’.
(3) laons h raf=kdksf'kdk
(1) Motor neuron (2) Relay neuron
(4) varjkraf=kdk.kq
(3) Sensory neuron (4) Interneuron
41. ‘X’ vkSj ‘Y’ efLr"d esa fLFkr nks var%lzkoh xzfa Fk;ka gSAa ‘X’]
41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in
the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates gkekZus ‘Z’ dk lzko djrh gS tks euq";ksa esa o`f¼ dks fu;af=kr
growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are djrk gSA ‘X’ vkSj ‘Y’ gSa
(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland (1) X – gk;iksFksyes l ,oa Y– ih;w"k xzfa Fk
(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland (2) X – Fkk;jkWbM xzfa Fk ,oa Y– fifu;y xzfa Fk
(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland (3) X – ih;w"k xzfa Fk ,oa Y– fifu;y xzfa Fk
(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland (4) X – ih;w"k xzfa Fk ,oa Y– Fkk;jkWbM xzfa Fk
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to 42. xys esa mikfLFk;ksa ds oy; fdlfy, mifLFkr gksrs gS?a
(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air
(1) ok;q ls vfèkd vkWDlhtu vo'kksf"kr djus ds fy,
(2) Filter the inhaled air
(2) lkal }kjk vanj yh xbZ ok;q dks Nkuus ds fy,
(3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(4) Produce more energy (3) ok;q ekxZ dks ladfq pr gksus ls jksdus ds fy,
43. Trypsin (Trypsinogen) is secreted from (4) vfèkd ÅtkZ mRikfnr djus ds fy,
(1) Pancreas 43. fVªfIlu (fVªfIlukstu) fdlls lzkfor gksrk gS?
(2) Stomach (1) vXU;k'k; (2) vkek'k;
(3) Small intestine
(3) NksVh vk¡r (4) ;Ñr
(4) Liver
44. buesa ls dkSu] çdk'kla'ys"k.k dk çFke pj.k gS?
44. Which of the following is the first step of
photosynthesis? (1) ty ds v.kqvksa dk gkbMªkt
s u ,oa vkWDlhtu esa foHkDr
(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and gksuk
oxygen
(2) i.kZgfjr v.kqvksa }kjk çdk'k ÅtkZ dk vo'kks"k.k fd;k tkuk
(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
molecules (3) dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM dk vip;u dkckZgs kbMªVs esa gksuk
(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates (4) çdk'k ÅtkZ dk jklk;fud ÅtkZ esa :ikarj.k gksuk
(4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
45. uhps n'kkZbZ xbZ lajpuk fdlds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS?
45. The structure illustrated below is responsible for }kj&dksf'kdk
Guard cells

ja/hz ja/z
Stomatal pore
gfjr yod
Chloroplast

(i) xSlh; fofue; (ii) ok"iksRltZu

(i) Gaseous exchange (ii) Transpiration
(iii) Storage of food (iv) Transport of food (iii) Hkkstu dk HkaMkj.k (iv) Hkkstu dk ifjogu
(1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (1) dsoy (ii) vkSj (iv) (2) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv)
(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iv) (3) dsoy (i) vkSj (ii) (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iv)

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS Hkkx - B % xf.kr

46. If ,  and  are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial 46. ;fn ,  vkSj  ,d ?ku cgqin ax3 + cx + d, ds 'kwU;d
ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) +  +  is equal to gksa rks (1 + ) +  +  dk eku gksxk
2c 2d
(1) (2) 2c 2d
a a (1) (2)
a a
d c
(3) (4) d c
a a (3) (4)
a a
47. In the given figure, area of quadrilateral ABCD is
47. fn, x, fp=k es]a prqHkZt
q ABCD dk {ks=kÝQy gksxk
H 1 cm A 1 cm
E 1 lseh- A 1 lseh-
H E

1 cm 1 cm
1 lseh- 1 lseh-

D B
D B

1 cm 1 cm
1 lseh- 1 lseh-

O 1 cm 1 cm P
C O P
1 lseh- C 1 lseh-
1
(1) 2 cm2 (2) cm2 1
2 (1) 2 lseh-2 (2) lseh-2
2
1 1
(3) cm2 (4) cm2
4 8 1 1
(3) lseh-2 (4)
8
lseh-2
48. If y2 + 7y + 5p = 0, then the integral value of p for 4
which the given equation does not have real roots can 48. ;fn y2 + 7y + 5p = 0] rks] p dk og iw.kkZadh; eku
be
dkSu&lk gks ldrk gS ftlds fy, fn;s x;s lehdj.k ds
(1) 1 (2) 2 ewy okLrfod ugha gksxa ?s
(3) 3 (4) –1 (1) 1 (2) 2

a a
(3) 3 (4) –1
49. If (2 )  16 , then the value of a is
a a
49. ;fn (2 )  16 ] rks a dk eku gksxk
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 16 (3) 4 (4) 16

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper

AQ 1 AQ 1
50. In the given figure, PRCB is a square. If  50. fn, x, fp=k es]a PRCB ,d oxZ gSA ;fn  vkSj
AC 3 AC 3
and BC = 6 cm, then the length of AP is BC = 6 lseh-] rks AP dh yEckbZ gksxh
A A

Q Q
P R P R

B C B C
(1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm (1) 2 lseh- (2) 1 lseh-
(3) 4 cm (4) 3 cm
(3) 4 lseh- (4) 3 lseh-
51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum
of twice the number of vowels and three times the 51. vaxtsz h ds ,d 'kCn esa 9 v{kj gSAa 'kCn esa mifLFkr Lojksa
number of consonants present in the word is equal dh la[;k ds nksxuq s ,oa O;atuksa dh la[;k ds rhu xqus dk
to four more than four times the total number of ;ksx] vaxt sz h o.kZekyk esa mifLFkr Lojksa dh dqy la[;k ds
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the pkj xqus ls pkj vfèkd gSA 'kCn esa mifLFkr Lojksa vkSj O;atuksa
number of vowels and consonants present in the dh la[;kvksa dk xq.kuÝQy gksxk
word is
(1) 9 (2) 20
(1) 9 (2) 20
(3) 18 (4) 14
(3) 18 (4) 14
52. fn, x, fp=k es]a O o`Ùk dk dsæa gSA ;fn x + y = 180°]
52. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If
x + y = 180°, then the value of z is rks z dk eku gS

O O C
C x
x y
y
z
z A B
A B

(1) 120° (2) 30°

(1) 120° (2) 30°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
53. ,d csyu ds vkèkkj dh f=kT;k dk mldh ÅapkbZ ls vuqikr
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is 7 : 6 gSA ;fn csyu dk vk;ru 294 lseh-3 gks] rks mlds
294 cm3, then its base diameter is vkèkkj dk O;kl gksxk
(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm (1) 1 lseh- (2) 14 lseh-
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm (3) 7 lseh- (4) 12 lseh-

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural 54. ;fn nks çkÑr la [ ;kvks a ds egÙke lekiorZ d vkS j
numbers is 378000, then which of the following can
be their HCF?
y?kqÙke lekioR;Z dk xq.kuÝQy 378000 gS] rks fuEu esa ls
dkSu mudk egÙke lekiorZd gks ldrk gS?
(1) 66 (2) 130
(1) 66 (2) 130
(3) 34 (4) 20 (3) 34 (4) 20

55. In the given figure, the length of AD is 55. fn, x, fp=k es]a AD dh yEckbZ gS

A A

D 26 lseh- D
26 cm

8 cm 8 lseh-

C C
24 cm B 24 lseh- B

(1) 6 cm (2) 7 cm (1) 6 lseh- (2) 7 lseh-

(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm (3) 4 lseh- (4) 5 lseh-

56. 2 3 dks fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk O;Dr fd;k tk

56. 2  3 can be expressed as
ldrk gS?
1 1 1 1
(1) 2  (2) 3  (1) 2  (2) 3 
3 2 3 2

1 3 3 1 1 3 3 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2

57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself, 57. ;fn fdlh ?ku dh Hkqtk x] Lo;a dh 11 xquh gks tk, rks
then its volume increases by mldk vk;ru c<+ dj fdruk gks tk,xk?
(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3 (1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3
(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3 (3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3

58. If 5 is a root of the equation 2x2 – 6x – 5a = 0, then 58. ;fn lehdj.k 2x2 – 6x – 5a = 0 dk ,d ewy 5 gS rks
the value of a2 – 2a is a2 – 2a dk eku gksxk
(1) 24 (2) 12 (1) 24 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 8 (3) 14 (4) 8

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
59. In the given figure, AB = AC. If P, Q, T and H are 59. fn, x, fp=k es]a AB = AC- ;fn P, Q, T vkSj H Øe'k%
the midpoints of AB, AC, BR and CR respectively, AB, AC, BR vkSj CR ds eè;fcanq gks]a rks TH dk eku
then TH can be equal to fdlds cjkcj gks ldrk gS?
A A

60° 60°
P Q P Q
R R

T H T H
B C B C
AB AC AB AC
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 3 4 3
(3) AP (4) PC (3) AP (4) PC
3 2
60. If p(x) = ax + bx + cx + d is a polynomial and 60. ;fn p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d ,d cgqin gks vkSj
a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must a + b + c + d = 0 gks] rks fuEu esa ls dkSu p(x) dk
be a factor of p(x)? xq.ku[kaM gksxk?
(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1 (1) x + 1 (2) x – 1
2
(3) x – 1 (4) x (3) x2 – 1 (4) x
61. If PQRS is a rhombus, P Q and O is the point 61. ;fn PQRS ,d leprqHkZqt gS] P  Q gS vkSj O
of intersection of its diagonals, then which of the mlds fod.kksaZ dk çfrPNsnu fcanq gS rks fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu
following is always false? lnSo vlR; gksxk?
(1) PR  QS (2) PO = RO (1) PR  QS (2) PO = RO
PR PR
(3) PSO = RSO (4) QO = (3) PSO = RSO (4) QO =
2 2
62. In the given figure, QP || BC and PR || CD. If 62. fn, x, fp=k es a ] QP || BC vkS j PR || CD - ;fn
AQ = 3 cm, QB = 2 cm and RD = 5 cm, then the AQ = 3 lseh-] QB = 2 lseh-] vkSj RD = 5 lseh-] rks AR
length of AR is
dh yEckbZ gS
A A

Q R Q R
P P
B D D
B

C C
(1) 7 cm (2) 7.5 cm (1) 7 lseh- (2) 7.5 lseh-
(3) 6 cm (4) 6.5 cm
(3) 6 lseh- (4) 6.5 lseh-
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and 63. fn, x, lehdj.k fudk; 3x – 4y = 5 ,oa 5x $ by =
5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of
c ds vlaxr gksus ds fy, b vkSj c ds ekuksa dk ,d ;qXe
b and c can be
gks ldrk gS
20 25
(1) b   and c  20 25
3 3 (1) b   vkSj c 
3 3
(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20
(2) b = – 6.4 vkSj c = – 20
(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19
(3) b = 6.4 vkSj c = 19
20
(4) b   and c = –19
3 20
(4) b   vkSj c = –19
3
64. If three numbers are consecutive positive integers
and five times the square of the largest number is 64. ;fn rhu la[;k,¡ Øekxr èkukRed iw.kkZd
a gSa vkSj lcls cM+h
greater than two times the sum of the squares of
the other two numbers by 75, then the sum of the
la[;k ds oxZ dk ik¡p xquk] vU; nks la[;kvksa ds oxksaZ ds
smallest and the largest of these numbers is ;ksx ds nks xqus ls 75 vfèkd gS rks muesa ls lcls NksVh
vkSj lcls cM+h la[;k dk ;ksx gksxk
(1) 12 (2) 9
(1) 12 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 10
(3) 8 (4) 10
3 pq
65. If  1 and  1 , then 2p is equal to 3 pq
pq 8 1  1,
65. ;fn p  q vkSj rks 2p dk eku gksxk
8
13
(1) (2) 11 13
7 (1) (2) 11
7
(3) 10 (4) 7
(3) 10 (4) 7
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide
261 + 262 + 263 + 264? 66. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lh la[;k 261 + 262 + 263 + 264 dks
(1) 100 (2) 10
iw.kZr% foHkkftr djsxh?
(1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 27 (4) 17
(3) 27 (4) 17
67. The sum of all the zeroes of the polynomial
(y + 2)(y – 3)(y2 – 1) is 67. cgqin (y + 2)(y – 3)(y2 – 1) ds lHkh 'kwU;dksa dk ;ksx gksxk
(1) 0 (2) –1 (1) 0 (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) 6 (3) 1 (4) 6

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide, 68. 50 lseh- yach vkSj 30 lseh- pkSMh+ ,d vk;rkdkj Vadh esa
contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
9 lseh- dh ÅapkbZ rd ikuh Hkjk gSA 25 lseh- × 25 lseh-
dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed
in the tank so that its square face rests on the × 20 lseh- foek okyk ,d cDlk Vadh esa bl çdkj j[kk
bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that tkrk gS fd mldk oxkZdkj i`"B Vadh ds ry ij fLFkj gks
must be poured into the tank in order to just cover tkrk gSA cDls dks iwjh rjg ek=k Mqcksus ds fy, Vadh esa
the box is
ikuh dh fdruh ek=kk (yhVj es)a mM+y s h tkuh pkfg,?
(1) 0.4 (2) 16.5
(1) 0.4 (2) 16.5
(3) 12.5 (4) 4 (3) 12.5 (4) 4
69. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of area 69. fn, x, fp=k esa, ABCD ,d oxZ gS ftldk {ks=kÝQy
16 cm2. If O is the centre of the circle, then the 16 lseh-2 gSA ;fn O o`Ùk dk dsæa gks rks OP dh yEckbZ
length of OP is
gksxh
D C D C

O O

P P
A B A B
8 8
(1) 4 cm (2) cm (1) 4 lseh- (2) lseh-
11 11
(3) 2 cm (4) 3 cm (3) 2 lseh- (4) 3 lseh-
  QR
70. In the given figure, if PQ   RP and O is the 70.   QR
fn, x, fp=k es]a ;fn PQ   RP vkSj O o`Ùk dk
centre of the circle, then the value of x is dsæa gS] rks x dk eku gksxk
P P

O x O x
Q R Q R

(1) 30° (2) 60° (1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 15° (3) 45° (4) 15°

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

SECTION - C : MENTAL ABILITY Hkkx - C % ekufld ;ksX;rk

71. Choose the option from given alternatives that best 71. fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls og fodYi pqusa tks fjDr LFkku ds
fits the empty space.
fy, lokZfèkd mi;qDr gSA

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand 72. ,d ikVhZ esa 15 O;fDr gSaA çR;sd O;fDr 'ks"k O;fDr;ksa ls
with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes gkFk feykrk gSA dqy fdruh ckj gkFk feyk, tk,axs?
is
(1) 120 (2) 105
(1) 120 (2) 105
(3) 90 (4) 15
(3) 90 (4) 15
73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +
73. ;fn x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) vkSj x3 + y3 = (x
y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33)  (33 – 23) + y)(x2 + y2 + xy), rks (23 + 33)  (33 – 23)

95 35 95 35
(1) (2) (1) (2)
7 19 7 19

19 19
(3) (4) 125
(3)
35
(4) 125 35

74. Find the odd one out. 74. fo"ke fodYi pquAas
(1) (16, 30, 34) (2) (11, 40, 41) (1) (16, 30, 34) (2) (11, 40, 41)
(3) (20, 21, 29) (4) (11, 60, 61) (3) (20, 21, 29) (4) (11, 60, 61)

Space for Rough Work

17
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
75. 42 : 16 :: 32 : 9 :: 25 : ? 75. 42 : 16 :: 32 : 9 :: 25 : ?
(1) 42 (2) 32 (1) 42 (2) 32
(3) 52 (4) 25 (3) 52 (4) 25

76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from 76. ;fn fdlh fo|kFkhZ dk LFkku var ls 17oka vkSj vkjaHk ls 15oka
beginning, then how many students are there? gS] rks fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh dqy la[;k fdruh gS?
(1) 31 (2) 32 (1) 31 (2) 32
(3) 33 (4) 17 (3) 33 (4) 17
77. Which digit will be the next in the given sequence? 77. fn;s x;s vuqØe esa vxyk vad D;k gksxk?
3145955? 3145955?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 9
(3) 1 (4) 9
funZs'k (ç- 78) : fdlh Hkk"kk esa] '45' dks dwV:i esa 3, '35' dks
Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded
as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2. dwV:i esa 5, ^6* dks dwV:i (dksM) esa 2 fy[kk tkrk gSA
78. ‘34’ will be coded as 78. '34' dks dwV:i esa D;k fy[kk tk,xk?

(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 7 (4) 2
(3) 7 (4) 2
79. og fodYi pquas tks nwljs fodYiksa ls vyx gksA
79. Choose the alternative which is different from the
others. (1) vkbaLVhu (2) uhYl cksj
(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr (3) lh-oh- jeu (4) jkbV cznlZ
(3) CV Raman (4) Wright Brothers funZs'k (ç-80) % uhps n'kkZ, fp=k ds vuqlkj] ,d LED çn'kZ
Directions (Q.80) : Any number from 0-9 can be ds lkr [kaMksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq,] 0 ls 9 rd fdlh Hkh vad
displayed digitally using seven-segments on an LED
display as shown below.
dks fMftVy :i esa n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA
p
p
u q
u q v
v
t r
t r
s
s
80. [kjkc fo|qrkiwfrZ ds dkj.k] dksbZ nks [kaM dk;Z ugha dj jgs
80. Due to poor power supply, any two segments are not
working. Which of the following numbers can be gSaA buesa ls dkSu&lk vad lgh <ax ls n'kkZ;k tk ldrk
displayed properly? gS?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 6 (4) 4 (3) 6 (4) 4

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18
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
81. Choose the odd one out. 81. fo"ke fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Directions (Q.82) : The first and the second pair of funZs'k (ç- 82) % fp=kksa ds igys vkSj nwljs ;qXe ds chp ,d
figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find the lacaèk gSA fuEu fodYiksa esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi fjDr LFkku ds
missing one.
fy, mi;qDr gS\
+ + +
–

–
82. :: ? ?
# # 82.
#
::
#









(1) (2) (1) (2)
–

–
–

– –
–
–

(3) (4)  (3) (4) 




83. If ‘cellphones’ and ‘TV’ are represented by two small 83. ;fn ^eksckbZy ÝQksu* vkSj ^Vhoh* dks nks NksVs o`Ùkksa ls fu:fir
circles and ‘coloured’ is represented by a big circle, fd;k tk, vkSj ^jaxhu* dks cM+s o`Ùk ls fu:fir fd;k tk,
then which figure best represents the logical
relationship between the three entities?
rks dkSu&lk fp=k bu rhu oLrqvksa ds chp ds rkfdZd lacèa k
dks loZJ"s B <ax ls fu:fir djrk gS?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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19
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information funZs'k (ç- 84 vkSj ç- 85) % fuEukafdr tkudkjh è;kuiwod Z i<+as
carefully and answer the questions.
vkSj ç'uksa ds mÙkj nsAa
Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table. L
is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
,d ifjokj ds ik¡p lnL; Hkkstu dh est ij cSBs gSaA L, M dh
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L. ek¡ gSA M, N dh cgu gS; N, O dk iq=k gSA P, L dh ,dek=k
84. How is P related to M? iq=koèkw gSA
(1) Sister 84. P dk M ls D;k lacèa k gS?
(2) Daughter (1) cgu
(3) Sister-in-law (2) iq=kh
(4) Daughter-in-law (3) HkkHkh
85. O is M's _______ ? (4) iq=koèkw
(1) Brother (2) Sister 85. O, M dk@dh _______ gS?
(3) Father (4) Uncle (1) HkkbZ (2) cgu
86. Find the figure from the alternatives that completes
(3) firk (4) pkpk
the given series.
86. fodYiksa esa ls og fp=k [kkstsa tks nh xbZ Ük`a[kyk dks iw.kZ
djrk gSA
?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

87. How many minimum number of line segments are 87. uhps fn;k x;k fp=k cukus ds fy, U;wure fdrus js[kk&[kaMksa
required to make the figure given below? dh vko';drk gS?

(1) 13 (2) 12 (1) 13 (2) 12

(3) 11 (4) 10 (3) 11 (4) 10

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20
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
88. From the letters given below, which one, when turned 88. uhps fn, x, v{kjksa esa ls] fdls myVk djds niZ.k esa
upside down and then reflected in a mirror, will
represent the same letter?
çfrfcafcr djus ij] ogh v{kj fn[ksxk?
(1) L (2) B
(1) L (2) B
(3) C (4) N
(3) C (4) N
Directions (Q.89 & Q.90) : Study the following pie-chart
funZs'k (ç-89 vkSj ç-90) % ç'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEukafdr
to answer the questions. ikbZ&pkVZ dk vè;;u djsaA

Hindi fgUnh (260)

(260)

English
vaxt
sz h
(111) LiSfu'k
(111) Spanish
(449) (449)
e
enc foKku
Sci 0) 0)
(7
(7 Maths xf.kr
(210) (210)

Number of students specializing in a specific subject fo"k; fof'k"V esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k
89. By what percentage, the number of students 89. xf.kr esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k] foKku
specialising in Maths is more than that in Science? esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ls fdrus çfr'kr
(1) 200% (2) 300% vfèkd gS?
(3) 400% (4) 350% (1) 200% (2) 300%
90. The difference of the students specializing in Hindi (3) 400% (4) 350%
and Maths is
90. fgUnh vkSj xf.kr esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk varj
1 gS
(1) of Spanish
7 1
(1) LiSfu'k dk
7
2
(2)
3
of English 2
(2) vaxzsth dk 3
5 5
(3) of Science (3) foKku dk
7 7
(4) Less than that of Spanish but more than that of (4) LiSfu'k esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa ls de ysfdu
English vaxtsz h esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa ls vfèkd
  

Space for Rough Work

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in

21
 SAMPLE PAPER

NATIONAL

TALENT HUNT EXAM

2012
Science & Mathematics
Mental Ability & General Knowledge

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

Time : 2 Hours MM : 480

Part – I
Science & Mathematics

SECTION - A : SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given 3. Bio-gas is rich in
below. If all the four resistors are of the same length
(1) Methane (2) Propane
and same material, then the resistor having the
minimum cross-sectional area is (3) Ethane (4) Butane

A 4. _______ between the different layers of water in the

B ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants.
C (1) Tidal energy (2) Temperature difference
I (3) Waves (4) Depth
D
5. An AC generator can be converted into a DC
V generator by replacing
(1) A (2) B (1) Its armature with a coil
(3) C (4) D (2) Its concave magnets
2. A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is (3) Its slip rings with split rings
connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the
(4) Two brushes with four brushes
figure given below.
6. If an alternating current changes its direction after
V
1
every s, then its frequency is
120
P Q
A (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz
(3) 60 Hz (4) 70 Hz
7. In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance
V between points A and B is
If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of 1.5  1.5  1
cross-section halved, then the reading of the A
ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
3 3 2
(1) Increases, increases
(2) Increases, remains the same B
(3) Decreases, remains the same (1) 1.5 Ω (2) 3 Ω
(4) Remains the same, remains the same (3) 6 Ω (4) 2 Ω

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

8. The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in 12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to
a region. Which of the following is the correct be
relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields (1) 4 (2) 8
BA, BB and BC?
(3) 10 (4) 13
13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on
heating in air. When hydrogen gas is passed over
BA BB BC this black surface, it turns
(1) Brown (2) Green
(3) Red (4) White
(1) BA = BB < BC (2) BA = BB = BC
14. 3MnO2 + bAl ⎯→ 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat
(3) BA = BB > BC (4) BA < BB < BC
The values of a and b for the above reaction are
9. The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the
figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then (1) 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 4 respectively
resistivity of the material is (3) 2, 2 respectively (4) 4, 3 respectively
V (V) 15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode
30 is made up of
20 (1) Pure copper (2) Impure copper
10 (3) Graphite (4) Pure tin
16. Apart from sodium, which element among the
I (A)
5 10 15 following is kept immersed in kerosene oil?

(1) 10 Ωm (2) 2 Ωm (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc

(3) 4 Ωm (4) 5 Ωm (3) Potassium (4) Lead

10. Which of the following is correct? 17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are
present in one molecule of gypsum?
(1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge
(1) 10 (2) 2
(2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current
(3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge 1
(3) (4) 5
2
(4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge
11. Anode mud is formed during 18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore?

(1) Anodising (2) Electrolytic refining (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite

(3) Galvanization (4) Corrosion (3) Cinnabar (4) Magnetite

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

19. xPb(NO3)2 ⎯→ xPbO + yNO2 + zO2 25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the
The values of x, y and z respectively are (1) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2, 2, 4 (2) 2, 4, 1 (2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose
(3) 2, 4, 2 (4) 1, 2, 1 (3) Photolysis of water
20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range (4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
of the solution is
26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells
(1) 1 - 2 (2) 5 - 6
(1) Swell up due to endosmosis
(3) 8 - 9 (4) 7 - 8
(2) Shrink due to exosmosis
21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases
and nutrients due to the deposition of (3) Swell up due to exosmosis

(1) Lignin (2) Suberin (4) Shrink due to endosmosis

(3) Pectin (4) Oxalic acid 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in
food, is secreted by
22. A cell organelle ‘X’, responsible for synthesis of
proteins is produced by a structure ‘Y’, which is (1) Pancreas (2) Gastric glands
located inside another organelle ‘Z’. Identify X, Y (3) Small intestine (4) Salivary glands
and Z.
28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned
(1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria
by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent
(2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus
(1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure
(3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER
(2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure
(4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus
(3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure
23. Which of the following elements is necessary to
prevent goitre? (4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure

(1) Calcium (2) Iron 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the
(3) Iodine (4) Copper (1) Vagina (2) Uterus
24. Which of the following is incorrect? (3) Ovary (4) Fallopian tube
(1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood 30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys unable to maintain the balance and posture of his
body?
(3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder
(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla
(4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at
the same height (3) Cerebellum (4) Pons

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS
31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1?
6x3 + 5x2 + 4x – 1, then the value of k–1 + l–1 + m–1 is
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.001
1 5 (3) 0.0001 (4) 1
(1) (2)
4 6 38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is
4 (1) 15 (2) 20
(3) (4) 4
6 (3) 25 (4) 30
32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60%
39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is
subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net
45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is
profit made by them after offering the discount is
40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then
(1) 7.5% (2) 10% the weight of Mohan is
(3) 12% (4) 15% (1) 31 kg (2) 34 kg
33. If (1 + cotA – cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = 2x2, (3) 35 kg (4) 38 kg
then the possible value of x is
3
1 40. In an acute angled ΔABC, if sin(A + B – C) = ,
2
(1) 0 (2) then angle C is equal to
2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (1) 30° (2) 45°

34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side (3) 60° (4) 90°
1 41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the
BC such that BD  BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible
4
is by
(1) 11 : 16 (2) 7 : 9 (1) 9 (2) 18
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 13 : 16 (3) 45 (4) All of these
35. The number of different positive integers lying 42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the
between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product
equal to 2 is of the three numbers taken together is
(1) 16 (2) 24 (1) 2592 (2) 46656
(3) 36 (4) 64 (3) 31426 (4) 239904
36. For getting a ‘less than’ Ogive, we plot the graph of
43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of
(1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits them at least, how many numbers may be greater
(2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits than zero?
(3) Cumulative frequency with classmark (1) 0 (2) 1
(4) Cumulative frequency with range (3) n/2 (4) n – 1

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial 49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = – 3
f(x) = x 2 – 6x + 8, then the value of and f( –2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
a 1  b –1 a 1  b –1
 is (1) 4 (2) 7
a 1 b –1
(3) – 6 (4) – 3
3 5
(1) (2)
2 2 50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q
are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and
10
(3) 5 (4) DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of
3
quad BRDC and ar(Δ BAP)
45. Two ogives for a particular data, one ‘less than’ type
and other ‘more than’ type, intersect each other at (1) 1 : 5 (2) 4 : 2
a point P(a, b). The value of b is (3) 8 : 3 (4) 7 : 2
(1) Median of the data
2p
(2) Frequency of the data 51. If 0 < θ < 90°, sinθ + cosθ = p and q  ,
p2  1
(3) Half the frequency of the data
then q is equal to
(4) Half the median of the data
(1) sinθ – cosθ (2) cosθ + secθ
46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of
two numbers? (3) secθ + cosecθ (4) cosecθ – cosθ

(1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD
intersect at O such that perimeter of ΔAOB = 30 cm
(2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008
ar( AOB )
(3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252 and perimeter of ΔCOD = 15 cm, then
ar( COD )
(4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422
is
47. If cosθ + sinθ = 2 cos  , then cosθ – sinθ is equal (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
to
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 2 (2) 2 sin

53. If A  B  , then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to
(3) 2 tan  (4) 2 cot  2

48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles Δ1 and Δ2 (1) cosecA secA
with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively,
then the ratio of areas of Δ1 to Δ2 is (2) 2 + cosecA + secA

(1) 7 : 3 (2) 6 : 7 (3) 2 cosecA secA

(3) 6 : 49 (4) 36 : 7 (4) 2 + cosecA secA

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

sec   1 sec   1 1
54. The value of  is 58. If p   q , then for p > 0
sec   1 sec   1 p
(1) 2/cosecθ (2) cosecθ (1) q = 0
(3) 2cosecθ (4) sinθ (2) q ≥ 0
55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a (3) –2 < q < 2
percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the
(4) q ≤ –2
cost price of the watch is
59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs. 88
the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is
(3) Rs. 84 (4) Rs. 83 equal to
56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 4 AC2 (2) 5 AC2
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 6 AC2 (4) AC2
(3) 2 (4) 3 60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an
57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of equilateral triangle is
the following is also divisible by the same number?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 2
(1) 296 + 1 (2) 216 – 1
(3) 216 + 1 (4) 7 × 233 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 2: 3

Part – II
Mental Ability & General Knowledge
SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following
sequence?
(1) 100 (2) 50
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
(3) 25 (4) 75
(1) 18 (2) 26
62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when (3) 37 (4) 50
will Friday be?
64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as
(1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today (1) OMLI (2) OMPI
(3) Tomorrow (4) Day after tomorrow (3) OKLI (4) OMKI

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
65. If JAIPOR is coded as 019658, then PIAJRO is Directions (Q.70 & Q.71) :
coded as
(i) P + Q means P is the son of Q
(1) 690185
(ii) P – Q means P is the wife of Q
(2) 691805
(iii) P × Q means P is the brother of Q
(3) 691080
(iv) P ÷ Q means P is the mother of Q
(4) 691085
(v) P = Q means P is the sister of Q
66. In a certain code, "Beautiful I peacock saw" is given
by "ACDE", "girl beautiful nature" is given by "AFB", 70. What does A + C – B mean?
"worship saw peacock" is given by "GEC" and "Saw
I beautiful" is given by "EDA". Which of the following (1) B is the father of A
is the code for "Peacock I beautiful"? (2) B is the son of A
(1) AEG (2) GAE (3) B is the uncle of A
(3) GDA (4) CDA (4) B is the brother of A
67. A clock is showing 3:30 pm. If at that instant,
71. What does A = C + B mean?
the minute hand of the clock is pointing in the
North-East direction, then the hour hand is pointing (1) A is the aunt of B
towards
(2) A is the daughter of B
(1) North (2) West
(3) A is the niece of B
(3) North-West (4) South-West
(4) A is the sister of B
68. In a row of trees, a tree is the fifteenth from either
end of the row. How many trees are there in the 72. If A is 60 m South-West of B and C is 60 m
row? South-East of the B, then C is in which direction
w.r.t. A?
(1) 28 (2) 29
(1) East (2) West
(3) 30 (4) 31
69. How many squares does the following figure contain? (3) North-East (4) South

73. In the following number sequence, how many such

even numbers are there which are exactly divisible
by their immediate preceding number but not exactly
divisible by their immediate following number?

4782679365024681

(1) 17 (2) 19 (1) 0 (2) 2

(3) 21 (4) 27 (3) 3 (4) 1

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

Directions (Q.74 & Q.75) : Choose the correct mirror 76. Rajesh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 49.
image of the given figure from among the four given If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the last, what is
alternatives. Rajesh's rank from the start?

(1) 14th (2) 24th

(3) 26th (4) 27th

74. Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are

based on the diagram given below :

15
25
11

16 7 12
(1) (2) 9 2 13
5

21

(i) Rectangle represents males

(3) (4) (ii) Triangle represents engineers

(iii) Circle represents urban

(iv) Square represents doctors

77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is

75. not an urban resident?

(1) 16 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 13
78. Who among the following is an urban male doctor?
(1) (2) (1) 7 (2) 11

(3) 12 (4) 13
79. Who among the following is only a doctor but not a
male nor hails from urban area?

(3) (4) (1) 13 (2) 11

(3) 15 (4) 12

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
80. Find the missing number. 84. DTP : FWT : : STD : ?
(1) UWH (2) V WI
7
286 16 (3) UVE (4) UWF
85. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
'PRAKASHAN' each of which have as many letters
142 34 between them as in the English Alphabet?
? (1) None (2) One

(1) 68 (2) 70 (3) Two (4) Three

(3) 66 (4) 62 86. Find the odd one out.

(1) Mango (2) Banana
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : Insert the correct missing
number from the choices given below : (3) Apple (4) Carrot
81. 87. Complete the series.

3 4 5
?
6 7 8

7 8 9

39 52 ?
(1)
(1) 61 (2) 67
(3) 72 (4) 84

82. (2)
2 4 6

3 5 ?

8 24 54
(3)
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 12
83. Weaver : Cotton : : Tailor : ?
(1) Fibre (2) Thread (4)
(3) Clothes (4) Food

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper
Directions (Q.88 to Q.90) : Given below are three 93. The missing value in given arrangement is
positions of the same cube having numbers 1 to 6 written
on its six faces. Answer questions 88 to 90 after a
careful study of the three positions of the cube.
3 8 12
4
3 4 5 16 40
1 6

4 21 ?
4
1
6 (1) 50 (2) 52
(3) 42 (4) 36
88. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? 94. Find the missing number.
(1) 2 (2) 3 15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195
(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) 115 (2) 110

89. The bottom face in the first figure is numbered (3) 90 (4) 105

(1) 6 (2) 2 95. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed.

Shikha is to the left of Pinky. Manisha is to the right
(3) 5 (4) 1 of Pinky. Anu is between Pinky and Manisha. Who
would be second from right in the photograph?
90. The number on the face opposite to 1 is
(1) Manisha (2) Pinky
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Shikha (4) Anu
(3) 6 (4) 3
96. If in a certain language: white is called blue, blue is
91. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days, B and called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called
C can do it in 12 days and A and C can do it in 18 green, green is called black, black is called violet,
days. If A, B and C work together, then the work and violet is called orange. What would be the colour
would be finished in of human blood in that language?
(1) 6 days (2) 7 days (1) Red (2) Green

(3) 8 days (4) 4 days (3) Yellow (4) Blue

92. A clock is correctly set at 8 a.m. The clock gains 97. If 'p' stands for division, 'q' for multiplication, 'r' for
10 minutes in 24 hours. When the clock indicates addition and 's' for subtraction, then the value of
3 p.m. on the following day, the actual time is 18p6q3r2s15p3 is

(1) 2:50 p.m. (2) 3:10 p.m. (1) 15 (2) 11

(3) 2:48 p.m. (4) 2:40 p.m. (3) 8 (4) 6

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Directions (Q.98 to Q.99) : These questions follow a set
of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding
99.
of a piece of paper. Z shows the manner in which the
folder paper has been cut. These three figures are followed
X Y Z
by the four answer figures. Out of these four you have to
choose a figure which would most closely resemble the
unfolded form of Z. (1) (2)

98.
(3) (4)
X Y Z
100. Having reached the place of meeting 20 minutes
before 6:30 p.m., Prachi found herself 55 minutes
(1) (2) earlier than the scheduled time. What was the
scheduled time of meeting?
(1) 7:00 p.m. (2) 7:05 p.m.
(3) (4)
(3) 7:15 p.m. (4) 7:25 p.m.

SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 101 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

101. Where is the National Physical Laboratory located? 104. The Parliament of USA is known as
(1) Ahmedabad (2) Pune (1) Federal Assembly (2) Diet
(3) New Delhi (4) Lucknow (3) Knesset (4) Congress
102. Which canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the 105. Kourou city is well known for
Red Sea?
(1) Port facilities
(1) Erie Canal (2) Indira Gandhi Canal
(2) Racial problems
(3) Panama Canal (4) Suez Canal
(3) Satellite launching
103. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India?
(4) Volcanic eruptions
(1) Nadir Shah
106. Man passed from the food-gathering stage to the
(2) Aurangzeb food-producing stage in the
(3) Bahadurshah Zafar (1) Paleolithic age (2) Neolithic age
(4) Jehangir (3) Chalcolithic age (4) Mesolithic age

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper
107. "Satyameva Jayate" has been taken from 114. During the British era, which city was the capital of
India before Delhi?
(1) Mundak upanishad
(1) Patna (2) Lucknow
(2) Rig veda
(3) Calcutta (4) Bombay
(3) Katho upanishad 115. Bismillah Khan was a legendary _______ Maestro.
(4) Atharva veda (1) Sitar (2) Shehnai

108. The forest area known as 'silent valley' is in (3) Tabla (4) Bansuri
116. Our national anthem was first sung in the year
(1) Kerala (2) Uttarakhand
(1) 1911 (2) 1913
(3) Nagaland (4) Karnataka
(3) 1936 (4) 1935
109. Martyrs' day is celebrated on 117. The author of book "The Discovery of India" is
(1) 24 January (2) 26 January (1) B.R. Ambedkar (2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) 28 January (4) 30 January (3) J.L. Nehru (4) S.C. Bose

110. Angkor Wat temples are found in 118. Which Greek goddess of victory is depicted on the
Olympic medals?
(1) Nilgiri Hills (2) Belgium (1) Athena (2) Aphrodite
(3) Cambodia (4) Palestine (3) Nike (4) Hera
111. The outermost layer of the Sun is 119. The first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold
medal is
(1) Corona (2) Lithosphere
(1) Vijender Singh
(3) Medulla (4) Photosphere
(2) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
112. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema'?
(3) Abhinav Bindra
(1) Ramanand Sagar (2) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Khashaba Jadav
(3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) Prithviraj Kapoor
120. Who won the first Indian Grand prix Formula One
113. When is the Independence day of Pakistan
world championship?
celebrated?
(1) January 25 (2) August 14 (1) Jenson Button (2) Mark Webber

(3) August 15 (4) August 16 (3) Michael Schumacher (4) Sebestian Vettel



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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass 5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shown
2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below. below is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is
The net work done on the object in the first four
seconds is V
2

8m

9.6 V
S
(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V
4s (3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V
t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero 6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab
as shown below, then
(3) 32 J (4) 8 J

2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with a 75°

uniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is
3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity 60°
(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s
i
(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s

3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?

(1) VA (2) Js–1 sin75

(1) sin i 
3
(3) kW (4) Wh

4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in the (2) sin i  3 (sin75)

direction of motion of the train. He tosses a coin that
falls ahead of him. It means that the train is sin30
(3) sin i 
(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down 3

(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn (4) sin i  3 sin30

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does 11. Which of the following reactions involves both
3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is neutralisation and precipitation?
R (1) Ca(OH)2 + CO2  CaCO3 + H2O
(2) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
(3) BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl
6
(4) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI  PbI2 + 2KNO3

36 V 12. Baking powder is

(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and
(1) 4  (2) 10  lime
(3) 3  (4) 2  (2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime
8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave
mirror for an object placed between its principal (3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid
focus and centre of curvature. (4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible
(1) At centre of curvature acid
(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature 13. Which of the following substances cannot be used
(3) Between pole and focus to neutralise an acid extract?
(4) Behind the mirror (1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing (2) Baking powder solution
uniform motion is
(3) Dock leaf extract
v v
(4) Nettle leaf extract
14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs
(1) (2) in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17Cl 35 and
t t 37
17 Cl . The percentage abundances of these
v v isotopes are respectively
(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%
(3) (4) (3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%
t t 15. An element ‘E’ contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
10. In the given figure, value of I2 will be The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable
4 I2 compound, is
2
(1) E2+ (2) E+
I
4 (3) E– (4) E2–
16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of
8V carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present
in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A (1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A (3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one
molecule of sodium sulphate is 21. C6H12O6 
A
 Pyruvate  B
in presence of O

(3-carbon compound) 2

(1) 4
6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 or 38 ATP.
(2) 3
The reaction A and B occur in
(3) 4.81  1022
(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast
(4) 1.20  1022
(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria
18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly
(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast
two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and
Y is (4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm
(1) Acidic (2) Basic 22. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) Urine is produced in kidneys
19. Read the following statements carefully : (2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys
Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has (3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region
six single bonds in its one molecule. (4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control
Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than 23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the
that of ethane. body is
Now, mark the correct option. (1) Cerebrum
(1) Both the statements are correct (2) Cerebellum
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Medulla
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (4) Pons
(4) Only statement-2 is correct 24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is
20. Match the following : stored in
Functional Group Formula (1) Gall bladder
HO (2) Small intestine
i. Alcohol (a) C=O
(3) Liver
ii Aldehyde (b) C=O (4) Stomach
H 25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a
iii. Ketone (c) C=O
hot object. The message to remove her hand was
iv. Carboxylic acid (d) –OH given by the
(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d) (1) Vertebral column
(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d) (2) Spinal cord
(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a) (3) Brain
(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a) (4) Cranium

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in 29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts
the labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying
(1) Vacuole messages towards the cell body?

(2) Leucoplast A
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by B C
(1) Pituitary gland
D
(2) Adrenal gland (1) A (2) B
(3) Thyroid gland (3) C (4) D
(4) Pancreas 30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is
28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student transported in dissolved form.
added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present
in blood plasma.
(1) Sucrose
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Glucose
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Starch
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Fructose (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

31. If x – 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 – 2x + k, 34. In the given figure, if ABC  PQR , then the
then the value of k is
measure of ATP is
(1) 12 (2) 2
A P
(3) –12 (4) 8
32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 – 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to T
(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2
130° 140°
(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0
B Q C R
33. If ,  and  are the zeroes of the polynomial
2x3 + 3x2 – 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2 (1) 50°
+ 2 is (2) 40°
3 (3) 90°
(1) (2) 4
2
(4) 145°
(3) 2 (4) 1
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If 41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
AP = a units, then the length of PB is AOC + 2ABC is
P

45° O
A B
O C
A
B
a a (1) 360° (2) 180°
(1) units (2) units
2 4
(3) 90° (4) 270°
2a
(3) units (4) a units 42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation
3
kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is
36. If 3x + 3x – 1 = 36, then the value of x is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 9 (4) 4

1 43. If f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2

+ a3x3 + ... + a10x10, where
37. If p  q  , where p and q are positive a 0 , a 1 , .... a 10 are constants, then the sum of
p q
coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be
rational numbers, then q − p2 is expressed as
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real f (2)  f ( 2) f (2)  f ( 2)
(1) (2)
(3) Equal to –1 (4) Equal to 0 2 2
38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are f (1)  f ( 1) f (1)  f ( 1)
40 cm × 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its (3) (4)
2 2
height is
44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,
(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm original speed. The original speed of the train is
39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the (1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr
midpoints of AB and AC respectively and
PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is (3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm 45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions
(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm 88 cm × 28 cm is folded without overlapping to
make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the
40. Which of the following equations has two distinct cylinder is
real roots?
(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 – 2x + 4 = 0 (1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3

(3) 2x2 + 6x – 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 (3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

46. If (7  4 3)x  (7  4 3)x  14 , where x < 0, then 52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its
diagonals, then which of the following is always true?
1
x5  is equal to
x5 (1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR

1 (2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR

(1)  (2) –2
2 (3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR
1 (4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR
(3) (4) 2
2
53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5
47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its is
adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the
parallelogram are (1) One (2) Two

(1) 126°, 54°, 126°, 54° (3) Zero (4) Infinitely many

(2) 48°, 132°, 48°, 132° 54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by
1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased
(3) 62°, 118°, 62°, 118° by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is
(4) 58°, 122°, 58°, 122° reduced by 2 units and the height remains the
same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12
452 sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length
48. If 0.P 56  , where P is any integer between
990 (1) 5 units (2) 6 units
0 and 9, then the value of PP is
(3) 12 units (4) 8 units
(1) 16 (2) 64
55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A
(3) 27 (4) 256 rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m × 3.5 m × 1 m is
dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread
49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to evenly over the remaining part of the field. The
end. The surface area of the resulting figure is approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2 is

(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2 (1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm

50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB (3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm
= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is 56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 2x2 – x – 21 = 0 is

(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3 3 7
(1) (2)
51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to 2 2

(1) 12 (2) 24 5
(3) (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 0 2

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the 59. In the given figure, the value of p is
longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of
AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is B

A °
+ 60
A 2p
D
135°
O
C
76° 65°
B D C
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 14° (2) 12°
(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 16° (4) 18°
58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi- 60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides
perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a
always true?
(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s (1) Rectangle (2) Kite

(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s (3) Rhombus (4) Square

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 – 4' means 6, C

'18 ÷ 2' means 20, '16 × 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8, D E
then find the solution of the following questions. Place Place
A B
61. 9  18 – 2 × 4 + 3
(1) 6 (2) 5 G
H F
(3) 7 (4) 13
(1) Four (2) Eight
62. 2000 – 200  20 × 2 + 15
(3) Twelve (4) Six
(1) 203 (2) 78
64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one
(3) 1 (4) 0 fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then
63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in which of the following weighs the least?
which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided (1) M (2) R
you can cross any junction only once in each
journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points] (3) S (4) J

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

Directions for Q.65 & Q.66 : The first and second pair Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : In each of the following
of figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find questions, choose the figure which will represent the best
the missing one. relationship among the three classes.

(1) (2)
?
65.

(3) (4)

(1) (2) 67. School, Classroom, Blackboard

68. Tea, Coffee, Beverages
69. Complete the figure pattern given below.

(3) (4)
?

(1) (2)

?
66. (3) (4)

Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 : At first, I interchanged the

1st and 7th letter in the word "NONSENSIBILITY" from the
beginning and then removed 2nd, 4th and the last letter to
form a new word, which might not be meaningful.
(1) (2) 70. Find the seventh letter from the last in the new word.
(1) N (2) E
(3) I (4) S
71. Which letter is fourth to the right of tenth letter from
the right end in the new word?
(3) (4) (1) E (2) N
(3) B (4) I

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

72. Out of all the given numbers as shown below choose 75. Choose the correct alternative which is different from
the odd one out. the others.
(1) Sofa (2) Table
576
(3) Furniture (4) Chair
25
1 76. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said,
81 “Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's
64
200 36 father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother
441 144 is Deepinder's
169 (1) Mother (2) Sister
16
(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother
100
77. Which of the following alternatives will come next in
the series?
ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?
(1) 441 (2) 25 (1) RAI (2) SAG
(3) RAG (4) RAJ
(3) 200 (4) 576
78. Choose the correct alternative that completes the
73. In this question, select an option figure that can be given pattern.
formed by involving all the figures (with any
orientation) given in the box marked (A).
?
(1) (2)

(A)
(3) (4)

(1) (2) 79. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-,

where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on.
Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does
the code SOAP denote?
(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18
(3) (4)
(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61
80. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
74. 3 : 4 : : 24 : 32 : : 10 : ?
(1) 12
(1) 14.5 (2) 12.5
(2) 11
1 2 (3) 10
(3) 13 (4) 13
3 3 (4) 9

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
Directions for Q.81 to Q.83 : Study the information given Maximum marks that can be obtained in 'Maths' and
below carefully and answer the questions that follow: 'English' are 150. Maximum marks in subjects- Science,
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is SST and Hindi are 120, 100 and 80 respectively.
2 km east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south
85. In how many subjects did Monica obtain 60% or
of P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and U is
above marks?
2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and R
while T is just in middle of W and S. (1) One (2) Two
81. Distance between T and V is (3) Three (4) Four
(1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km
86. What is the percentage of marks obtained by Tara
(3) 2 km (4) 5 km overall?
82. Distance between T and X is (1) 66.8 (2) 72
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 64.6 (4) 70
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
87. How many students obtained more than 60% marks
83. Distance between P and U is both in Maths as well as Science?
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) 2 km (4) 3 km
(3) One (4) Four
84. Find the missing number in the given matrix :
88. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by
6 2 3 Shikha in all the subjects?
45 9 5 (1) 470 (2) 558
110 10 ? (3) 485 (4) None of these
(1) 16 (2) 11 89. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.
(3) 21 (4) 19
Directions for Q.No. 85 to 88 : Marks obtained by seven
students in respective subjects are given below: (1) (2)
Subjects
Student
Maths Science SST English Hindi
Ramesh 68 100 88 100 60
Suresh 75 92 35 120 60
(3) (4)
Monica 92 78 56 82 52
Adarsh 120 82 42 130 72
90. Lion : Pride :: Ship : ?
Tara 90 78 90 80 50
Amrit 100 72 85 100 75 (1) Dock (2) Troop
Shikha 135 90 90 120 50 (3) Fleet (4) School

  
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

Time : 2 Hours MM : 480

Part – I
Science & Mathematics
(foKku ,oa xf.kr)
SECTION - A : SCIENCE [k.M - A % foKku
1. Choose the correct statement. 1. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,
(1) Electric current is a vector quantity (1) fo|qr /kjk ,d lfn'k jkf'k gS
(2) Movement of electrons is from high potential to (2) bysDVªkuW ksa dh xfr mPp foHko ls fuEu foHko dh vksj
low potential gksrh gS
(3) Resistivity of a conductor is independent of its
(3) pkyd dh izfrjks/drk bldh HkkSfrd foekvksa ls Lora=k gS
physical dimensions
(4) Net power of the circuit decreases when the (4) ifjiFk dh usV 'kfDr ?kVrh gS tc ;qfDr;k¡ lekUrj Øe esa
devices are connected in parallel la;ksftr gSa
2. “Hydel electricity” is obtained from 2. ¶gkbMsy fo|qr¸ fuEu esa ls fdlls izkIr gksrh gS\
(1) Fossil fuels (2) Dams (1) thok'e b±/u (2) ck¡/
(3) Wind mills (4) Biogas plants
(3) iou pDdh (4) tSoxSl l;a=k
3. According to Fleming's right hand rule, if the
fore-finger of the right hand points towards east, then 3. Ýysfeax osQ nk;sa gkFk osQ fu;e osQ vuqlkj ;fn nkfgus gkFk
the directions of induced current and motion of the dh rtZuh vaxy q h iwoZ dh vksj funsfZ 'kr gS] rc izfs jr /kjk
conductor cannot respectively be towards rFkk pkyd dh xfr dh fn'kk,sa Øe'k% fuEu esa ls fdl
(1) North, upwards
vksj ugha gks ldrh gS\ a
(2) Upwards, south (1) mÙkj] mQij dh vksj
(3) South, downwards (2) mQij dh vksj] nf{k.k
(4) Upwards, north (3) nf{k.k] uhps dh vksj
4. Which of the following is more eco-friendly than the
others? (4) mQij dh vksj] mÙkj
(1) Burning of petrol 4. fuEu esa ls dkSu vU; dh rqyuk esa vf/d ikfjfLFkfrd
(2) Burning of coal
vuqoQw y gS\
(3) Burning of charcoal (1) isVkª y
s dk ngu (2) dks;ys dk ngu
(4) Burning of cow dung (3) pkjdksy dk ngu (4) xkscj dk ngu
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
5. The equivalent resistance of the given circuit across A 5. A rFkk B osQ fljksa esa fn, x, ifjiFk dk rqY;kadh izfrjks/
and B, when each resistor is of resistance R, tc izR;sd izfrjks/d dk izfrjks/ R gS] gksxk
will be

A A

B B

4R 3R 4R 3R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 7 5 7
6R 2R
6R 2R (3) (4)
(3) (4) 5 5
5 5
6. 20  izfrjks/ osQ ,d rkj dks rkfur dj bldh yEckbZ
6. A wire of resistance 20  is stretched to thrice its dks frxquk fd;k tkrk gS rFkk fiQj bls leckgq f=kHkqt osQ
length and then it is bent in the form of an equilateral
triangle. The equivalent resistance across any two :i esa eksMk+ tkrk gSA fdUgha nks 'kh"kks± dk rqY;kadh izfrjks/
vertices is gS
(1) 20  (2) 30  (1) 20  (2) 30 
(3) 40  (4) 60 
(3) 40  (4) 60 
7. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d dFku pqEcdh; {ks=k js[kkvksa ds
7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
regarding magnetic field lines? lUnHkZ esa xyr gS\
(1) They can pass through vacuum (1) ;s fuokZr ls xqtj ldrh gSa
(2) They cannot intersect with each other (2) ;s ,d nwljs dks izfrPNsfnr ugha dj ldrh gSa
(3) They can penetrate a metal only when they enter (3) ;s ,d /krq dks Hksn ldrh gSa dsoy tc ;s bldh
normal to its surface lrg ds yEcor~ izo's k djrh gSa
(4) They always form closed loops (4) ;s lnSo cUn ywi fufeZr djrh gSa
8. Which of the following is different from the others? 8. fuEu esa ls dkSu vU; ls fHkUu gS\
(1) watt (2) kilowatt hour (1) okV (2) fdyksokV ?k.Vk
(3) erg (4) joule (3) vxZ (4) twy

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

9. The direction of the current induced in the square 9. uhps n'kkZ, oxkZdkj ywi esa izfs jr /kjk dh fn'kk gksxh
loop shown below will be

I v
I v

(1) nf{k.kkorZ
(1) Clockwise (2) okekorZ
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) igys nf{k.kkorZ fiQj okekorZ
(3) First clockwise, then anticlockwise
(4) igys okekorZ fiQj nf{k.kkorZ
(4) First anticlockwise, then clockwise
10. ,d /ukRed vkos'k Q dks uhps fp=k esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj nks
10. A positive charge Q is projected exactly between and
/kjkokgh rkjksa osQ ry esa rFkk eè; esa ;FkkFkZ :i ls iz{ksfir
in the plane of two current carrying wires, as shown
in the figure below. The deflection of the charge is fd;k tkrk gSA vkos'k dk fopyu gS

3A 5A 3A 5A
Q Q

(1) Towards right (2) Towards left (1) nk;ha vksj (2) ck;ha vksj
(3) Out of the plane (4) Into the plane (3) ry osQ ckgj (4) ry osQ vUnj
11. The formulae of slaked lime and quick lime 11. cq>s gq, pwus rFkk fcuk cq>s gq, pwus osQ lw=k Øe'k% gSa
respectively are
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO (2) CaO, Ca(OH)2
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO (2) CaO, Ca(OH)2
(3) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3
(3) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3
12. Which of the following is not a redox reaction? 12. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k ugh gS\
(1) ZnO + C Zn + CO (1) ZnO + C Zn + CO

(2) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (2) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(3) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O (3) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
(4) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl (4) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
13. Identify a, b, x and y for the following reactions : 13. fuEu vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy, a, b, x o y igpkfu, %
Reaction 1 : aNH3(g) + bO2(g)  cNO(g) + dH2O(g) vfHkfØ;k 1 : aNH3(g) + bO2(g)  cNO(g) + dH2O(g)
Reaction 2 : xFe2O3(s) + yCO(g)  pFe(s) + qCO2(g)
vfHkfØ;k 2 : xFe2O3(s) + yCO(g)  pFe(s) + qCO2(g)
(1) 4, 4, 2, 5 (2) 4, 5, 1, 3
(1) 4, 4, 2, 5 (2) 4, 5, 1, 3
(3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 4, 2, 3
(3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 4, 2, 3
14. Which of the following is a valid displacement
reaction? 14. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d oS/ foLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k gS\
(1) Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) (1) Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(2) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(2) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(3) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(4) 2Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq)  Ag2SO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) 2Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq)  Ag2SO4(aq) + Cu(s)
15. pH LosQy dh ijkl gS
15. pH scale ranges from
(1) 1 – 14 (2) 0 – 14
(1) 1 – 14 (2) 0 – 14
(3) 1 – 15 (4) 0 – 15
(3) 1 – 15 (4) 0 – 15
16. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) vk;fud ;kSfxd lkekU;r% ty esa foys;'khy rFkk osQjkslhu
(1) Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water ,oa isVkª y
s tSls foyk;d esa vfoys;'khy gksrs gSa
and insoluble in solvents like kerosene and
petrol (2) vk;fud ;kSfxd Bksl voLFkk esa viuh n`<+ lajpuk osQ
(2) Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in dkj.k fo|qr dk lapkyu ugha djrs gSa
solid state due to their rigid structure (3) vk;fud ;kSfxd osQoy viuh xfyr voLFkk esa fo|qr
(3) Ionic compounds conduct electricity only in their lapkfyr djrs gSa
molten state
(4) nks foijhr vkosf'kr vk;uksa osQ eè; fLFkj fo|qr vkd"kZ.k
(4) Heat is required to overcome the electrostatic cy dks vfHkHkwr djus osQ fy, mQ"ek dh vko';drk
forces of attraction between the oppositely
gksrh gS
charged ions
17. Dyksj&{kkj izØe esa
17. In the chlor-alkali process
(1) lksfM;e gkbMªkDW lkbM oSQFkksM osQ lehi mRiUu gksrh gS
(1) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the cathode
(2) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the anode (2) lksfM;e gkbMªkDW lkbM ,uksM osQ lehi mRiUu gksrh gS
(3) Sodium hydroxide is produced exactly between (3) lksfM;e gkbMªkDW lkbM ;FkkFkZ :i ls oSQFkksM rFkk ,uksM osQ
the cathode and anode eè; mRiUu gksrh gS
(4) Sodium hydroxide is not produced (4) lksfM;e gkbMªkDW lkbM mRiUu ugha gksrh gS
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
18. The formation of which ions is responsible for the 18. fdl vk;u dk fuekZ.k ,d inkFkZ osQ tyh; foy;u esa bldh
basic nature of a substance in its aqueous solution? {kkjh; izoQ` fr osQ fy, ftEesnkj gS\
(1) Hydrogen ions (2) Hydride ions (1) gkbMªkt
s u vk;u (2) gkbMªkbM vk;u
(3) Hydroxide ions (4) Peroxide ions (3) gkbMªkDW lkbM vk;u (4) ijkWDlkbM vk;u
19. Thermite process is an example of a
19. FkekZbV izØe mnkgj.k gS] ,d
(1) Combination reaction
(1) la;kstu vfHkfØ;k dk
(2) Displacement reaction
(2) foLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k dk
(3) Neutralisation reaction
(3) mnklhuhdj.k vfHkfØ;k dk
(4) Decomposition reaction
(4) vi?kVu vfHkfØ;k dk
20. For the given chemical reactions :
20. nh xbZ jklk;fud vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy, %
2Na(s) + S(s) Na2S(s)
2Na(s) + S(s) Na2S(s)
Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2(s)
Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2(s)
The correct statement is
lgh dFku gS
(1) Sulphur and chlorine are oxidising agents
(1) lYiQj ,oa Dyksjhu vkDlhdkjd gSa
(2) Sulphur is oxidising agent and chlorine is
reducing agent (2) lYiQj vkDlhdkjd gS rFkk Dyksjhu vipk;d gS
(3) Sulphur is reducing agent and chlorine is (3) lYiQj vipk;d gS rFkk Dyksjhu vkDlhdkjd gS
oxidising agent
(4) lYiQj ,oa Dyksjhu vipk;d gSa
(4) Sulphur and chlorine are reducing agent
21. If a cell X with CO2 concentration 60 units is kept 21. ;fn 60 bdkbZ CO2 lkUnzrk okyh X dksf'kdk dks A, B rFkk
adjacent to cells A, B and C with CO2 concentration C dksf'kdkvksa osQ lehi j[kk tkrk gS ftudh CO2 lkUnzrk
30, 80 and 60 units, respectively, then CO2 would Øe'k% 30, 80 rFkk 60 bdkbZ gS rks CO2 folfjr gksxh
diffuse from
(1) C ls B esa (2) X ls C esa
(1) C to B (2) X to C
(3) X ls A esa (4) A ls B esa
(3) X to A (4) A to B
22. Find the incorrect pair. 22. xyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft;s
(1) Sclerenchyma – provides strength (1) n`<k+ rs d μ lkeF;Z iznku djrk gS
(2) Aerenchyma – provides buoyancy (2) ok;wrd μ mRIykodrk iznku djrk gS
(3) Parenchyma – stores food (3) e`nrw d μ Hkkstu dk laxgz djrk gS
(4) Collenchyma – provides rigidity (4) LFkwydks.k mQrd μ n`<r+ k iznku djrk gS
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
23. In an experiment regarding photosynthesis, the 23. izdk'kla'ys"k.k ls lEcfU/r ,d iz;ksx esa CO2 rFkk H2O
oxygen of CO2 and H2O is labelled as 16O and 18O,
respectively. The oxygen evolved during
dh vkWDlhtu dks Øe'k% 16O o 18O ls vafdr fd;k tkrk
photosynthesis would be labelled as gSA izdk'kla'ys"k.k osQ le; mRiUu vkWDlhtu fdlls vafdr
18O
gksxh\
(1)
(1) 18O ls
(2) 16O

(2) 16O ls
(3) Either 16O or 18O

(3) 16O ;k 18O esa ls fdlh ,d ls

(4) Neither 16O nor 18O

(4) u rks 16O ls vkSj u gh 18O ls

24. Which part of the brain controls respiration?

(1) Cerebrum 24. efLr"d dk dkSulk Hkkx 'olu dks fu;af=kr djrk gS\
(2) Cerebellum (1) izefLr"d (2) vuqefLr"d
(3) Medulla (3) esMy
q k (4) gkbiksFksyes l
(4) Hypothalamus 25. os #f/j okfgfu;ka tks #f/j o mQrdksa osQ chp inkFkksZ osQ
25. The blood vessels which permit exchange of fofue; dh vuqefr nsrh gSa
materials between blood and tissues are
(1) osQoy osQf'kdk;sa
(1) Capillaries only
(2) osQf'kdk;sa o f'kjk;sa
(2) Capillaries and veins
(3) osQf'kdk;s]a f'kjk;sa o /efu;ka
(3) Capillaries, veins and arteries
(4) osQf'kdk;sa o /efu;ka
(4) Capillaries and arteries
26. 'kjhj esa gkWeksZuy larqyu dks ifjofrZr djosQ ______
26. ______ is a contraceptive which acts by changing xHkZfujksèkd dk;Z djrh gSA
the hormonal balance of the body.
(1) fujks/ (2) dkWij-T
(1) Condom (2) Copper-T
(3) V~;cw Ds Vkseh (4) vkWjy fiy
(3) Tubectomy (4) Oral pill

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 27. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(1) Liver stores bile (1) ;o`Qr fiÙk dks lafpr djrk gS
(2) Liver secretes bile (2) ;o`Qr fiÙk dks L=kfor djrk gS
(3) Gall bladder stores bile (3) fiÙkk'k; fiÙk dks lafpr djrk gS
(4) Bile does not contain digestive enzymes (4) fiÙk esa ikpd ,atkbe ugha gksrs gSa

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
28. The temperature regulation in plants is 28. ikniksa esa rki fu;eu
(1) Not required
(1) vko';d ugha gS
(2) Performed through transpiration
(2) ok"iksRltZu ds }kjk lEiUu fd;k tkrk gS
(3) Controlled by chloroplasts
(4) Operated through phloem (3) gfjryodksa }kjk fu;af=kr fd;k tkrk gS
29. Which of the following is not the function of Golgi (4) Ýyks;e ds }kjk lEiUu fd;k tkrk gS
apparatus?
29. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dk;Z xkWYth midj.k dk ugha gS\
(1) Storage and packaging of products synthesised
in ER (1) ER esa la'ysf"kr mRiknksa dk laxgz .k rFkk lao"s Vu
(2) Formation of lysosomes (2) ykblkslkseksa dk fuekZ.k
(3) Synthesis of complex sugars from simple
sugars (3) ljy 'kdZjkvksa ls tfVy 'kdZjkvksa dk la'ys"k.k
(4) Detoxification of drugs (4) nokvksa dk fujkfo"khdj.k
30. All of the following are components of a nephron 30. fuEu esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh usÚksu ds vo;o gS\
a
except
(1) gsUys dk ywi
(1) Loop of Henle
(2) Bowman's capsule (2) ckseu lEiqV
(3) Kupffer cell (3) dqIiQj dksf'kdk
(4) Distal convoluted tubule (4) nwjLFk dq.Mfyr ufydk

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS [k.M - B % xf.kr

31. Consider the following graph of y = f(x). If n is the 31. y = f(x) osQ fuEu xzkiQ ij fopkj dhft,A ;fn n, f(x) dh
degree of f(x), then the minimum possible value of n ?kkr gS] rc n dk laHko U;wure eku gS
is
Y
Y
y = f(x)
y = f(x)
X X
X X O
O

Y
Y
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

1 1 1 1 1 1
32. If x   m and x 2   n , then x 3  is 32. ;fn x m rFkk x2  n, rc x3  cjkcj
x x3 x2 x x3 x2
equal to gS
(1) m3 – m2 + 3m + 4 – n (1) m3 – m2 + 3m + 4 – n
(2) m3 + m2 – 3m – 2 – n (2) m3 + m2 – 3m – 2 – n
(3) m3 + m2 – 3m + 6 + n
(3) m3 + m2 – 3m + 6 + n
(4) m3 – m2 + 3m + 12 – n
(4) m3 – m2 + 3m + 12 – n
33. ;fn sin  + cosec  = 2, 0° <   90°, rc
33. If sin  + cosec  = 2, 0° <   90°, then the value
sin2 + cot2 dk eku gS
of sin2 + cot2 is
(1) 3 (2) 0
(1) 3 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2
352  1
2 34. ;fn x ,d iw.kk±d gS rFkk Hkh ,d iw.kk±d gS] rc
35  1 x
34. If x is an integer and is also an integer, then x ugha gks ldrk gS
x
x cannot be (1) 8 (2) 12
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 17
(3) 16 (4) 17 35. m O;fDr;ksa dk ,d lewg vius ,d fe=k dks R #i;s ewY;
35. A group of m people plan to contribute equally to dk migkj nsus osQ fy, cjkcj va'knku nsus dh ;kstuk cukrk
pay for a friend’s gift that costs rupees R. If n gSA ;fn migkj osQ fy, n vfrfjDr O;fDr Hkh va'knku nsuk
additional people want to contribute for the gift, then pkgrs gS]a rc okafNr va'knku fdrus #i;s ?kV tk;sxk\
the required contribution will reduce by rupees
Rm Rn
Rm Rn (1) 2 (2)
(1) (2) m  mn m 2  mn
m 2  mn m 2  mn
Rm Rn
Rm Rn (3) (4)
2 2
(3) (4) m  mn m  mn
m 2  mn m 2  mn
36. If cot  and cosec  are the zeroes of the polynomial 36. ;fn cot  o cosec  cgqin ax2 + bx + c osQ 'kwU;d
ax2 + bx + c, then sin is equal to gS]a rc sin cjkcj gS
2c 2c
(1) a2  b2 (2) (1) a2  b2 (2)
a2  c 2 a2  c 2
2b 2ab 2b 2ab
(3) (4) (3) 2 2 (4)
2
a c 2 2
a b 2 a c a2  b2

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37. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect 37. ;fn ,d prqHkZt

q ABCD osQ fod.kZ ,d nwljs dks E ij bl
AE BE AE BE
each other at E such that  , then ABCD izdkj izfrPNsfnr djrs gSa fd  ] rc ABCD gksxk
EC ED EC ED
must be a (1) lekUrj prqHkqt
Z (2) irax
(1) Parallelogram (2) Kite (3) leyEc prqHkqt
Z (4) leprqHkqZt
(3) Trapezium (4) Rhombus 38. fdrus o"kks± esa ,d /u 5% okf"kZd ljy C;kt dh nj ls
38. In how many years will a sum of money double at nqxuq k gks tk;sxk\
5% per annum simple interest?
(1) 20 o"kZ (2) 25 o"kZ
(1) 20 years (2) 25 years
(3) 10 years (4) 15 years (3) 10 o"kZ (4) 15 o"kZ

⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞
39. If ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1  ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟....... ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟
39. ;fn ⎜ 1 2 ⎟ ⎜ 1 3 ⎟ ⎜ 1  4 ⎟ ⎜ 1 5 ⎟ ⎜ 1 19 ⎟ ⎜ 1 20 ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠⎝ 3 ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 19 ⎠ ⎝ 20 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠
x x
 , then the value of x is equal to  , rc x dk eku cjkcj gS
20 20
1 3
1 3 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 20 20
20 20
1
1 (3) 1 (4)
(3) 1 (4) 40
40
40. ,d d{kk ds 15 yM+dksa o ,d vè;kid dh vkSlr vk;q
40. The average age in a class of 15 boys and one
teacher is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is excluded, 15 o"kZ gSA ;fn vè;kid dh vk;q dks gVk fn;k tk;s] rks
the average age of class reduces by 1 year, then the d{kk dh vkSlr vk;q 1 o"kZ de gks tkrh gS] rc vè;kid
teacher's age is dh vk;q gS
(1) 28 years (2) 30 years (1) 28 o"kZ (2) 30 o"kZ
(3) 32 years (4) 34 years (3) 32 o"kZ (4) 34 o"kZ
41. Which of the following numbers is the least?
41. fuEu esa ls dkSulh la[;k U;wure gS\
3
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.81 3
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.81
4 4
(3) (0.6)2 (4) 0.0016 (3) (0.6)2 (4) 0.0016
42. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, the value of A B C
42. ,d pØh; prq H kZ q t ABCD es a ] sin  sin  cos
A B C D 2 2 2
sin  sin  cos  cos is D
2 2 2 2  cos dk eku gS
2
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

43. If p is a single digit number (0 - 9) such that 43. ;fn p

,d ,dy vadh; la[;k (0 - 9) bl izdkj gS fd
pn – p is always divisible by 5, where n is a natural
pn– p lnSo 5 ls foHkkT; gS] tgk¡ n ,d izko`Qr la[;k gS]
number, then how many values can p take?
rc p fdrus eku xzg.k dj ldrk gS\
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

44. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 13. If 44. nks vadh; la[;k osQ vadksa dk ;ksx 13 gSA ;fn bdkbZ osQ
the unit’s digit is divided by the ten’s digit, then vad dks ngkbZ osQ vad ls foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS] rc
quotient is 1 and remainder is 3. The two digit HkkxiQy 1 gS o 'ks"kiQy 3 gS] rc nks vadh; la[;k gS
number is
(1) 67 (2) 76
(1) 67 (2) 76
(3) 58 (4) 85
(3) 58 (4) 85 45. ,d yM+dh o"kZ 2010 esa 45,000 #- esa ,d LowQVh [kjhnrh
45. A girl bought a scooty for Rs. 45,000 in 2010. gSA LowQVh dk ewY; izfr o"kZ 10% dh nj ls fxjrk gS] fiQj
Though the price of the scooty depreciated by 10% Hkh og 2012 esa LowQVh oQks 40,000 #- esa csprh gS] mldks
p.a., she still managed to sell the scooty in 2012 for yxHkx gksrk gS
Rs. 40,000. Overall, she had an approximate
(1) 10% ykHk (2) 10% gkfu
(1) 10% profit (2) 10% loss
(3) 15% ykHk (4) 15% gkfu
(3) 15% profit (4) 15% loss
46. ABC esa B ij ledks.k gS] BD  AC. fuEu esa ls dkSulk
46. In ABC, right angled at B, BD  AC. Which of the
following is true? fodYi lR; gS\
(1) BD2 = AD  DC
(1) BD2 = AD  DC
(2) BD2 = AB  BC
(2) BD2 = AB  BC
(3) AD2 = BD  DC
(3) AD2 = BD  DC (4) AD2 = AB  BC
(4) AD2 = AB  BC 47. ;fn jkt dh vk; mlosQ fe=k dh vk; ls 60% de gS]
47. If Raj’s income is 60% less than his friend's income, rc mlosQ fe=k dh vk; jkt dh vk; ls fdruh vfèkd
then his friend’s income is more than Raj’s income by gS\

200 200
(1) % (2) 150% (1) % (2) 150%
3 3

100
100 (3) 200% (4) %
(3) 200% (4) % 3
3

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
48. In the given figure, if AB = x units, BC = z units and 48. fn, x;s fp=k es]a ;fn AB = x bdkbZ] BC = z bdkbZ rFkk
DE = y units, then the value of BE is
DE = y bdkbZ] rc BE dk eku gS

A
A

D
D

B E C
B E C

( x  y )z yz ( x  y )z yz
(1) units (2) units (1) (2)
x x x
bdkbZ
x
bdkbZ

( z  x )y ( x  y )z ( z  x )y ( x  y )z
(3) units (4) units (3) bdkbZ (4) bdkbZ
x 2x x 2x

49. If the difference between the simple interest and 49. ;fn ,d fuf'pr /u ij nks o"kZ osQ fy, 5% okf"kZd nj
compound interest compounded annually on a ls ifjdfyr ljy C;kt o pØo`f¼ C;kt osQ eè; vUrj
certain sum for two years at 5% rate of interest is
1 #- gS] rc èku gS
Rupee 1, then the sum is
(1) 350 (2) 300
(1) 350 (2) 300
(3) 400 (4) 275
(3) 400 (4) 275
50. lewg ckjEckjrk caVu esa vf/dre ckjEckjrk okyk oxZZ
50. In a grouped frequency distribution, the class with dgykrk gS
the maximum frequency is called
(1) ekè; oxZ
(1) Mean class
(2) ekfè;dk oxZ
(2) Median class
(3) cgqyd oxZ
(3) Modal class
(4) caVu oxZ
(4) Distribution class
51. (723)463 dk bdkbZ dk vad gS
51. The unit’s digit of (723)463 is
(1) 3 (2) 7
(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 1 (4) 9
(3) 1 (4) 9

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
52. In the given figure, OA and OB bisect POQ and 52. fn;s x;s fp=k es]a OA o OB Øe'k% POQ o QOR dks
1 1
QOR respectively. If CD  PR, PR = 12 cm, lef}Hkkftr djrs gSaA ;fn CD  PR, PR = 12 cm,
3 3
OC = 10 cm, OA = 12 cm and OP = OR, then the OC = 10 cm, OA = 12 cm o OP = OR, rc AB dk
value of AB is eku gS
O O

C D C D
P R P R

A B B
A
Q Q
(1) 2.4 cm (2) 4.8 cm (1) 2.4 cm (2) 4.8 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm (3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 53.      dk eku gS
53. The value of      is 35 57 79 23  25
35 57 79 23  25
22 21
22 21 (1) (2)
75 75
(1) (2)
75 75
4 11
(3) (4)
4 11 75 75
(3) (4)
75 75 54. ,d fuf'pr la[;k dks 342 ls Hkkftr djus ij] gesa 'ks"kiQy
49 izkIr gksrk gSA ;fn blh la[;k dks 18 ls Hkkftr djs]a
54. On dividing a certain number by 342, we get 49 as
remainder. If the same number is divided by 18, then rks 'ks"kiQy gksxk
the remainder will be (1) 13 (2) 11
(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 10
(3) 12 (4) 10 55. ;fn cgqin ax2 + bx + c (a  0) osQ 'kwU;d cjkcj gS]a rc
55. If the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c (a  0) fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lR; gksxk\
are equal, then which of the following must be true?
(1) a o c osQ fpÉ foijhr gSa
(1) a and c have opposite signs
(2) a and c have same sign (2) a o c osQ fpÉ leku gSa
(3) a and b have same sign (3) a o b osQ fpÉ leku gaS
(4) a and b have opposite signs (4) a o b osQ fpÉ foijhr gSa
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
56. In the given figure, PQR is right angled at Q and 56. fn;s x;s fp=k es]a PQR ledks.k f=kHkqt gS] Q ij ledks.k
the points S and T trisect the side QR.
gS rFkk S o T] Hkqtk QR dks f=kHkkftr djrs gSAa
P
P

R T S Q
R T S Q
Which one of the following relation is true?
fuEu esa ls dkSulk lac/
a lR; gS\
(1) PT2 = 2PR2 + 5PS2
(1) PT2 = 2PR2 + 5PS2
(2) 8PT2 = 3PR2 + 5PS2
(2) 8PT2 = 3PR2 + 5PS2
(3) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + 3PS2
(3) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + 3PS2
(4) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + PS2
(4) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + PS2
57. The number of zeroes at the end of the product
18  12  15  40  25  16  55  105 is
57. xq.ku 18  12  15  40  25  16  55  105 osQ vUr
esa 'kwU;ksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 5 (4) 6
58. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 + 465 is divisible by
58. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 + 465 fdlls foHkkT; gS\
(1) 3 (2) 5
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 11 (4) 17
(3) 11 (4) 17
59. When the natural numbers 1, 2, 3, …… 500 are
written, then the digit 3 appears x times. The value 59. tc izko`Qr la[;kvksa 1, 2, 3, …… 500 dks fy[kk tkrk gS]
of x is rc vad 3, x ckj vkrk gSA x dk eku gS
(1) 300 (2) 200 (1) 300 (2) 200
(3) 310 (4) 190 (3) 310 (4) 190
60. The circumcentre of a triangle is determined by the 60. ,d f=kHkqt dk ifjosQUnz fduosQ laxeu ls izkIr gksrk gS\
concurrence of
(1) 'kh"kZyEcksa
(1) Altitudes
(2) ekfè;dkvksa
(2) Medians
(3) Perpendicular-bisectors (3) yEc&v¼Zdksa
(4) Angle-bisectors (4) dks.k&v¼Zdksa
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

Part – II
Mental Ability & General Knowledge
(ekufld ;ksX;rk ,oa lkekU; Kku)
SECTION - A
MENTAL ABILITY (ekufld ;ksX;rk)
This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
bl [k.M esa ç'u la[;k 61 ls 100 rd 40 cgqfodYih; ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u esa 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) ,oa (4) gSaA ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi
lgh gSA
61. Choose the group of letters which is different from 61. o.kks± osQ ml lewg dk p;u dhft, tks nwljksa ls fHkUu gSA
the others.
(1) VAF (2) MRW
(1) VAF (2) MRW
(3) GKP (4) FKP
(3) GKP (4) FKP
62. ;fn ,d fuf'pr dwV esa FRUIT dks IOXFW fy[kk tkrk
62. If in a certain code FRUIT is written as IOXFW, then
MANGO will be written as
gS] rks MANGO dks fy[kk tk,xk
(1) PDQJR (2) PWQDR (1) PDQJR (2) PWQDR
(3) PWQGL (4) PXQDR
(3) PWQGL (4) PXQDR
63. Find the missing number. 63. yqIr la[;k Kkr dhft,A

30 65 25 30 65 25

28 79 36 28 79 36

32 ? 24 32 ? 24

(1) 28 (2) 23 (1) 28 (2) 23

(3) 43 (4) 48
(3) 43 (4) 48
Directions (Q.64 & Q.65) : funsZ'k (iz'u 64 ,oa iz'u 65) :
In each of the following questions, a square transparent fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz'uksa es]a ,d oxkZdkj ikjn'khZ dkxt dk izk:i
paper with a pattern is shown. If the paper is folded along
the dotted lines, which of the given alternatives would it
iznf'kZr gSA ;fn dkxt dks fcUnqfdr js[kkvksa osQ vuqfn'k eksMk+ tkrk
form? gS] rks ;g fn;k x;k dkSulk fodYi fufeZr djsxk\

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

64. Transparent paper 64. ikjn'khZ dkxt

F F

F F
(1) (2) (1) (2)

F F
(3) (4) (3) (4)

65. ikjn'khZ dkxt

65. Transparent paper

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
66. iQksVks esa ,d yM+dh dks bafxr djrs gq, nhfiUnj dgrk gS]
66. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said, ¶mldh ekrk dk HkkbZ esjh ekrk osQ firk] ftuosQ osQoy nks
“Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's cPps gS]a dk bdykSrk iq=k gSA¸ yM+dh dh ekrk nhfiUnj
father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother dh D;k yxrh gS\
is Deepinder's
(1) ekrk (2) cgu
(1) Mother (2) Sister
(3) ekSlh (4) nknh
(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

Directions (Q.67 to Q.69) : Study the information given funs Z ' k (iz ' u 67 ls iz ' u 69) : uhps nh x;h tkudkjh dk
below carefully and answer the questions that follow: è;kuiwoZd vè;;u dhft, rFkk fuEu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,%
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is 2 km P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W rFkk X ukS ?kj gSAa R, Q osQ 2 km iwoZ
east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south of gSA P, Q osQ 1 km mÙkj gS rFkk W, P osQ 2 km nf{k.k gSA V,
P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and W osQ 1 km if'pe gS tcfd S, V osQ 3 km iwoZ gS rFkk U, V
U is 2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and
osQ 2 km mÙkj gSA X, Q rFkk R osQ fcYoqQy eè; esa fLFkr gS
R while T is just in middle of W and S.
tcfd T, W rFkk S osQ fcYoqQy eè; esa fLFkr gSA
67. Distance between T and V is
67. T rFkk V osQ eè; nwjh gS
(1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km (1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km
(3) 2 km (4) 5 km (3) 2 km (4) 5 km
68. Distance between T and X is 68. T rFkk X osQ eè; nwjh gS
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
69. P rFkk U osQ eè; nwjh gS
69. Distance between P and U is
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km (3) 2 km (4) 3 km
(3) 2 km (4) 3 km 70. ,d fuf'pr dwV esa NATURE dks MASUQE osQ :i esa
70. In a certain code NATURE is coded as MASUQE. dwV fd;k tkrk gSA mlh dwV Hkk"kk esa FAMINE dks oSQls
How is FAMINE coded in that code language? dwV fd;k tk,xk\
(1) FBMJND (2) FZMHND (1) FBMJND (2) FZMHND
(3) GANIOE (4) EALIME (3) GANIOE (4) EALIME
71. How many parallelograms are there in the figure given 71. uhps fn, x;s fp=k esa fdrus lekUrj prqHkqt
Z gS\
a
below?

(1) 14 (2) 15
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18

(3) 16 (4) 18 72. ikap yM+oQs ,d nkSM+ esa fgLlk ysrs gSAa jkt] eksfgr ls igys
72. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before
nkSM+ [kRe dj ysrk gS ijUrq xkSjo ls ihNs jg tkrk gSA
Mohit but behind Gaurav. Ashish finished before vk'kh"k] lfpu ls iwoZ nkSM+ [kRe dj ysrk gS ijUrq eksfgr
Sachin but behind Mohit. Who won the race? ls ihNs jg tkrk gSA nkSM+ fdlus thrh\
(1) Raj (2) Gaurav (1) jkt (2) xkSjo
(3) Mohit (4) Ashish (3) eksfgr (4) vk'kh"k

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
73. Mohit said to Bipul, “That boy playing football is 73. eksfgr us fciqy ls dgk] ¶og yM+dk tks iqQVcky [ksy jgk
younger of two brothers of the daughter of my
father's wife”. How is the boy playing football related
gS] esjs firk dh iRuh oQh iq=kh osQ nks Hkkb;ksa esa NksVk gS¸A
to Mohit? iqQVcky [ksy jgs yM+oQs dk eksfgr ls D;k lac/ a gS\
(1) Nephew (2) Brother (1) Hkrhtk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Uncle (4) Father (3) pkpk (4) firk
74. Which of the following alternatives will come next in
the series? 74. Js.kh esa vkxs fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi gksxk\
ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ? ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?

(1) RAI (2) SAG (1) RAI (2) SAG

(3) RAG (4) RAJ (3) RAG (4) RAJ

75. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below 75. dkxt osQ ,d VqdM+s dks iz'u fp=k esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj eksMk+
in the question figure. From the given alternatives, tkrk gS rFkk dkVk tkrk gSA fn, x;s fodYiksa esa ls fufnZ"V
indicate how it will appear when opened? dhft, dh bls [kksyus ij ;g oSQlk fn[kkbZ nsxk\

A B C A B C

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

76. Number of cubes in the given figure is 76. fn, x, fp=k esa ?kuksa dh la[;k gS

(1) 15 (2) 18 (1) 15 (2) 18

(3) 14 (4) 21 (3) 14 (4) 21

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
Direction (Q.77 & Q.78): In the following questions, funsZ'k (iz'u 77 ,oa iz'u 78): fuEu iz'uksa esa dkSulk fodYi fn;s
which alternative is the correct mirror image of the given
figure?
x;s iz'u fp=k dk lgh niZ.k izfrfcEc gS\

77.
77.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

78.
78.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

79. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks fn, x;s izk:i dks iw.kZ
79. Choose the correct alternative that completes the
given pattern. djrk gS

? ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

80. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-, 80. ,d nqdkunkj ,d dwV OLISPAH = ` 28/- iz;Dq r djrk
where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on. gS] tgk¡ O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- rFkk blh izdkj
Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does vkxsA bl dwV foU;kl dks è;ku esa j[krs gq,] SOAP dwV
the code SOAP denote? D;k ewY; fufnZ"V djrk gS\
(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18 (1) ` 120 (2) ` 18
(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61 (3) ` 16 (4) ` 61

81. Find the missing term. 81. yqIr in Kkr dhft,A

AM, DO, GQ, _____, MU AM, DO, GQ, _____, MU

(1) RQ (2) LP (1) RQ (2) LP

(3) JQ (4) JS (3) JQ (4) JS

82. In a certain language, DELHI is coded as FGNJK, 82. ,d fuf'pr Hkk"kk esa DELHI dks FGNJK ls dwV fd;k tkrk
how is BHOPAL coded in that language? gSA mlh Hkk"kk esa BHOPAL dks fdlls dwV fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) CJQTCF (2) CJQPCF (1) CJQTCF (2) CJQPCF
(3) DJQRCN (4) DIJQCN
(3) DJQRCN (4) DIJQCN
83. ,d Cykd osQ N% iQydksa ij uhps n'kkZ;s vuqlkj xqykch]
83. A block is painted pink, yellow, red, black, orange
and blue on its six faces as shown below. Which
ihyk] yky] dkyk] ukjaxh ,oa uhyk jax fd;k tkrk gSA yky
colour will be opposite to red? osQ lEeq[k dkSulk jax gksxk\

Pink Pink xqykch xqykch

Yellow

dkyk
Black

ukjaxh ihyk yky

Orange Red

(A) (B) (A) (B)

Blue Blue uhyk uhyk

Yellow

dkyk
Black

ihyk

Red Orange yky ukjaxh

(C) (D) (C) (D)

(1) Orange (2) Black (1) ukjaxh (2) dkyk

(3) Yellow (4) Pink (3) ihyk (4) xqykch
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84. In a row of girls if Sheetal, who is 10th from left and 84. yM+fd;ksa dh ,d drkj esa ;fn 'khry tks ck;sa ls 10 osa
Hina, who is 9th from right, exchange their seats,
then Sheetal becomes 15th from the left. How many LFkku ij gS rFkk fguk tks nk;sa ls 9 osa LFkku ij gS] vkil
girls are there in the row? esa viuh lhV cnyrh gS]a rks 'khry ck;sa ls 15 osa LFkku ij
(1) 16 (2) 19 gks tkrh gSA drkj esa fdruh yM+fd;k¡ gS\ a

(3) 23 (4) 25 (1) 16 (2) 19

85. Choose the correct alternative that completes the (3) 23 (4) 25
given pattern.
85. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks fn, x;s izk:i dks iw.kZ
djrk gS

(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4)
86. Choose the odd one out.

86. fo"ke fodYi dk p;u dhft,

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

Directions (Q.87 & Q.88) funsZ'k (iz'u 87 ,oa iz'u 88)

In each of the following questions, there is a relationship fuEu izR;sd iz'uksa es]a fpUg (: :) osQ ck;ha vksj fLFkr nks inksa (o.kZ
between the two terms (letter groups/numbers) on the left
of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the lewg@la[;k) osQ eè; ,d lac/ a gSA leku lac/ a (: :) fpUg osQ
two terms on the right of the sign (: :) of which one is nk;ha vksj fLFkr nks inksa osQ eè; gS ftuesa ls ,d in yqIr gSA
missing. Find the missing term from the given alternatives. fn, fodYiksa esa ls yqIr in Kkr djsAa
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
87. NAME : KXJB : : ? : PURE 87. NAME : KXJB : : ? : PURE
(1) MROB (2) SUXH (1) MROB (2) SUXH
(3) SXUH (4) MORB (3) SXUH (4) MORB
88. 3 : 25 : : 5 : ?
88. 3 : 25 : : 5 : ?
(1) 16 (2) 36
(1) 16 (2) 36
(3) 49 (4) 64
(3) 49 (4) 64
89. fuEu iz'u esa nks dFkuksa osQ ckn nks fu"d"kZ (i) rFkk (ii) fn,
89. In the following question, two statements are x, gSAa nksuksa dFkuksa dks lR; ekuus ij dkSulk fu"d"kZ rkfdZd
followed by two conclusions numbered (i) and (ii).
Assuming the two statements to be true, which of
:i ls vuqlj.k djrk gS\
the conclusions logically follow? dFku : lHkh f[kM+fd;k¡] njokts gSAa
Statements : All the windows are doors. dksbZ njoktk] nhokj ugha gSA
No door is a wall. fu"d"kZ : (i) oqQN f[kM+fd;k¡] nhokj gSAa
Conclusions : (i) Some windows are walls. (ii) dksbZ nhokj] f[kM+dh ugha gSA
(ii) No wall is a window.
(1) osQoy fu"d"kZ (i) vuqlj.k djrk gS
(1) Only conclusion (i) follows
(2) osQoy fu"d"kZ (ii) vuqlj.k djrk gS
(2) Only conclusion (ii) follows
(3) u rks fu"d"kZ (i) vkSj u gh (ii) vuqlj.k djrk gS
(3) Neither conclusion (i) nor (ii) follow
(4) nksuksa fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrs gSa
(4) Both conclusions follow
funsZ'k (iz'u 90 ls iz'u 92): fuEu fp=k dk vè;;u dhft,]
Directions (Q.90 to Q.92): Study the following diagram
rRi'pkr~ fn;s x;s iz'uksa osQ mÙkj nhft,A
and then answer the questions that follow.
Musicians
laxhrdkj

4 4
Dancers urZd
1 6 1
6 2 2

7 7 9
9
8 8
Actors vfHkusrk

90. Which number indicates Actors who are dancers as 90. dkSulh la[;k mu vfHkusrkvksa dks bafxr djrh gS tks urZd
well as musicians? rFkk laxhrdkj nksuksa gS\
a
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 9 (3) 6 (4) 9

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
91. Which number indicates Dancers who are musicians 91. dkSulh la[;k mu urZdksa dks bafxr djrh gS tks laxhrdkj
but not actors?
gSa ysfdu vfHkusrk ugha gS\
a
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 6
(3) 3 (4) 6
92. Which number indicates Musicians who are neither
dancers nor actors? 92. dkSulh la[;k mu laxhrdkjksa dks bafxr djrh gS tks u rks
urZd gSa vkSj u gh vfHkusrk gS\
a
(1) 1 (2) 4
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 9
(3) 7 (4) 9
93. Ram is ranked 5th from top and 24th from bottom in
his class, then the number of students in his class 93. jke dh jSda viuh d{kk esa mQij ls 5th rFkk uhps ls 24th
are
gS] rks mldh d{kk esa Nk=kksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 29 (2) 28
(1) 29 (2) 28
(3) 30 (4) 27
(3) 30 (4) 27
94. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row facing
you such that S is on the left of R and Q is on the 94. ik¡p O;fDr P, Q, R, S, T ,d drkj esa bl izdkj cSBs gSa
right of T. P is on the right of R and Q is on the left fd S, R osQ ckbaZ vksj gS rFkk Q, T osQ nkbZa vksj gSA P, R
of S. If T occupies the corner position, then who is osQ nkbZa vksj gS rFkk Q, S osQ ckbZa vksj gSA ;fn T dks dksus
sitting in the centre?
dk LFkku feyrk gS] rks eè; esa dkSu cSBk gS\
(1) P (2) Q
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
(3) R (4) S
Directions (Q.95 & Q.96): Six persons are sitting in a
circle. A is second to the right of C. B is sitting third to funsZ'k (iz'u 95 ,oa iz'u 96): N% O;fDr ,d o`Ùk esa cSBs gSAa
the left of E and D is sitting between E and A. Sixth A, C ls nk;sa ls f}rh; gSA B, E ls ck;sa ls r`rh; gS rFkk D, E
person is F.
o A ds eè; cSBk gSA NBk O;fDr F gSA
Based on the above given information answer these
questions. mijksDr tkudkjh ds vk/kj ij bu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
95. Who is facing C? 95. fdldk eq[k C dh vksj gS\
(1) F (2) E (1) F (2) E
(3) B (4) D (3) B (4) D
96. Who is sitting second to the left of B? 96. B ls ck;sa ls f}rh; fLFkfr ij dkSu cSBk gS\
(1) F (2) D (1) F (2) D
(3) C (4) A (3) C (4) A

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

97. If  means +, – means ,  means  and +means –, 97. ;fn  dk vFkZ +, – dk vFkZ ,  dk vFkZ  rFkk + dk
then 15 – 8  6  12 + 4 = vFkZ – gS] rks 15 – 8  6  12 + 4 =
(1) 28 (2) 20 (1) 28 (2) 20

(3) 24 (4) 1 8
(3) 24 (4) 1 8 7
7 98. fn;s x;s fp=k esa fdrus vk;r gS\
a
98. How many rectangles are there in the following
figure?

(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 17 (4) 18
(1) 15 (2) 16 99. fn;s x;s fp=k esa ________ f=kHkqt gSAa
(3) 17 (4) 18
99. The following figure has ________ triangles.

(1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 19 (4) 21
100. bl iz'u esa rhu dFkuksa osQ ckn rhu fu"d"kZ (i), (ii) rFkk
(1) 16 (2) 18
(iii) fn;s x;s gSAa fu"d"kks± dks if<+;s rFkk lkekU; Kkr rF;ksa
(3) 19 (4) 21 dh mis{kk dj ;g fu/kZfjr dhft;s fd dkSu lk fu"d"kZ fn;s
100. In this question, three statements are followed by x;s rhuksa dFkuksa dk rkfdZd <ax ls ikyu djrk gSA
three conclusions numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). Read
the conclusions and decide which follow logically dFku : dqN eksVlZ dkj gSAa
from the three given statements, disregarding dqN dkj ou gSAa
commonly known facts.
dqN ou o`{k gSAa
Statements : Some motors are cars.
fu"d"kZ : (i) dqN eksVlZ ou gSAa
Some cars are forests.
(ii) dqN dkj eksVlZ gSAa
Some forests are trees.
(iii) dqN o`{k eksVlZ gSAa
Conclusions : (i) Some motors are forests.
(1) osQoy (i) ikyu djrk gS
(ii) Some cars are motors.
(iii) Some trees are motors. (2) osQoy (ii) ikyu djrk gS

(1) Only (i) follows (2) Only (ii) follows (3) osQoy (iii) ikyu djrk gS

(3) Only (iii) follows (4) Both (i) and (ii) follow (4) (i) rFkk (ii) nksuksa ikyu djrs gSa

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

SECTION - B
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (lkekU; Kku)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 101 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
bl [k.M esa ç'u la[;k 101 ls 120 rd 20 cgqfodYih; ç'u gaAS çR;sd ç'u esa 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gS]a ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi
lgh gSA
101. In terms of area, which is the smallest state in India? 101. {ks=kiQy dh n`f"V ls Hkkjr dk lcls NksVk jkT; dkSulk gS\
(1) Goa (2) Sikkim (1) xksok (2) flfDde
(3) Nagaland (4) Tripura (3) ukxkySMa (4) f=kiqjk
102. Which luxury train travels through Maharashtra and 102. dkSu lh yXtjh jsyxkM+h egkjk"Vª ls pyrh gS rFkk bldh
includes Goa in its journey? ;k=kk esa xksok Hkh iM+rk gS\
(1) Palace on Wheels (1) iSyls vkWu OghYl
(2) Heritage on Wheels (2) gsjhVst vkWu OghYl
(3) The Deccan Odyssey (3) n MsDdu vksfMlh
(4) Golden Chariot (4) xksYMu pSfjvV
103. Charminar is at 103. pkjehukj dgk¡ ij fLFkr gS\
(1) Lucknow (2) Agra (1) y[kumQ (2) vkxjk
(3) Hyderabad (4) Patna (3) gSnjkckn (4) iVuk
104. Tulsidas flourished during the reign of 104. rqylhnkl dks fdlosQ 'kkludky esa izflf¼ feyh\
(1) Babar (2) Akbar (1) ckcj (2) vdcj
(3) Shahjahan (4) Humayun (3) 'kkgtgk¡ (4) gqek;w¡
105. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it", was 105. ¶Lojkt esjk tUefl¼ vf/dkj gS rFkk eSa bls ysdj jgwxa k¸]
proclaimed by ;g ?kks"k.kk fdlosQ }kjk dh x;h\
(1) M.G. Ranade (1) ,e- th- jkukMs
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (2) xksiky o`Q".k xks[kys
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (3) cky xaxk/j fryd
(4) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) ykyk yktir jk;
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
106. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of 106. Þosu lkax us fdlosQ 'kkludky esa Hkkjr dh ;k=kk dh\
(1) Chandragupta Maurya (1) pUnzxIq r ekS;Z
(2) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (2) pUnzxIq r foØekfnR;
(3) Samudragupta (3) leqnxz Iq r
(4) Harshavardhana
(4) g"kZo/Zu
107. Who elects the President of India?
107. Hkkjr osQ jk"Vªifr dk pquko dkSu djrk gS\
(1) An electoral college consisting of the elected
members of both houses of parliament (1) laln osQ nksuksa lnuksa osQ fuokZfpr lnL;ksa ls xfBr
fuokZpd e.My
(2) An electoral college consisting of the elected
members of Lok Sabha and the elected (2) yks d lHkk os Q fuokZ f pr lnL;ks a rFkk lHkh jkT;
members of all the state legislative assemblies foèkkulHkkvksa osQ fuokZfpr lnL;ksa ls xfBr fuokZpd
(3) The people of India e.My
(4) An electoral college consisting of the elected (3) Hkkjr dh turk
members of both the houses of parliament and (4) laln osQ nksuksa lnuksa osQ fuokZfpr lnL;ksa rFkk lHkh jkT;
the elected members of all the state legislative
assemblies
fo/kulHkkvksa osQ fuokZfpr lnL;ksa ls xfBr fuokZpd e.My
108. vkSjksjk cksfj,fyl gS
108. Aurora Borealis is
(1) A small island in the Atlantic Ocean (1) ,VykfUVd egklkxj esa ,d NksVk }hi
(2) A constellation of seven stars (2) lkr rkjksa dk e.My
(3) The name of a warm ocean current (3) xeZ egklkxjh /kjk dk uke
(4) A phenomenon of light display in the Northern (4) mÙkjh xksyk/Z esa izdk'k osQ izn'kZu dh ?kVuk
hemisphere
109. fuEu esa ls dkSulh unh foaè;kl rFkk lriqMk+ dh ioZrJsf.k;ksa
109. Which of the following river flows between Vindhyas osQ eè; cgrh gS\
and Satpura ranges?
(1) ueZnk (2) rkIrh
(1) Narmada (2) Tapti
(3) egkunh (4) xksnkojh
(3) Mahanadi (4) Godavari
110. fuEu esa ls fdldk tUefnu f'k{kd fnol osQ :i esa euk;k
110. The birthday of which of the following is observed as
Teacher's day? tkrk gS\
(1) Aurobindo Ghosh (1) vjfcUn ?kks"k
(2) Dr. Zakir Hussain (2) MkW- tkfdj gqluS
(3) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (3) MkW- ,l- jk/ko`Q".ku
(4) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (4) ekSykuk vcqy dyke vktkn
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

111. Palk strait separates 111. ikd tylfU/ i`Fkd djrh gS

(1) India and Pakistan (1) Hkkjr rFkk ikfdLrku dks
(2) India and Myanmar (2) Hkkjr rFkk E;kekj dks
(3) India and Sri Lanka (3) Hkkjr rFkk Jhyadk dks
(4) India and Nepal (4) Hkkjr rFkk usiky dks
112. Saina Nehwal is associated with 112. lk;uk usgoky fdlls lEcfU/r gS\
(1) Chess (2) Badminton (1) 'krjat (2) csMfeUVu
(3) Lawn Tennis (4) Football (3) ykWu Vsful (4) iqQVcky
113. The highest waterfall of the world is 113. fo'o dk lcls mQ¡pk tyizikr gS
(1) Niagara falls (2) Victoria falls (1) fu;kxzk tyizikr (2) foDVksfj;k tyizikr
(3) Angel falls (4) Tangala falls (3) ,afty tyizikr (4) Vaxkyk tyizikr
114. Indian National Congress was formed in the year 114. Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dkaxlsz dh LFkkiuk fdl o"kZ gqb\
Z
(1) 1880 (1) 1880
(2) 1885 (2) 1885
(3) 1931 (3) 1931
(4) 1911 (4) 1911
115. Khalsa was created by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699 115. [kkylk dh LFkkiuk 1699 esa xq: xksfcUn flag }kjk dgka ij
at dh x;h\
(1) Bangla Sahib (1) caXyk lkfgc
(2) Anandpur Sahib (2) vkuUniqj lkfgc
(3) Patna Sahib (3) iVuk lkfgc
(4) Paonta Sahib (4) isvksUVk lkfgc
116. Fathometer is used to measure 116. iSQnksehVj dk iz;ksx fdldks ekius esa fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) The intensity of earthquakes (1) HkwdEi dh rhozrk
(2) The amount of rainfall (2) o"kkZ dh ek=kk
(3) The depth of the ocean (3) egklkxj dh xgjkbZ
(4) The intensity of sound (4) èofu dh rhozrk
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

117. In India, the Yarlung Zangbo river is known as 117. Hkkjr esa ;kjyqxa tkaXcks unh dgykrh gS
(1) Ganga (2) Indus (1) xaxk (2) fla/q
(3) Brahmaputra (4) Mahanadi (3) czãiq=k (4) egkunh
118. Number of spokes in the wheel of the Indian flag is 118. Hkkjrh; >.Ms osQ pØ esa rhfy;ksa dh la[;k gksrh gS
(1) 25 (2) 22 (1) 25 (2) 22
(3) 20 (4) 24 (3) 20 (4) 24

119. The first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna 119. jktho xka/h [ksy jRu iqjLdkj izkIr djus okyk izFke O;fDr
Award was gS
(1) Kapil Dev (1) dfiy nso
(2) Limba Ram (2) fyEck jke
(3) Vishwanathan Anand (3) fo'oukFku vkuUn
(4) Leander Paes (4) fy,UMj isl
120. In banking terms, ATM stands for 120. cSfa dax 'kCnkoyh esa ATM ls rkRi;Z gS
(1) Any time money (1) ,uh Vkbe euh
(2) Automatic transfer of money (2) vkWVksefs Vd VªkUliQj vkWiQ euh
(3) All time money (3) vky Vkbe euh
(4) Automated teller machine (4) vkWVkseV s Ms Vsyj e'khu

  

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