TEST B.

PHYSICS

1. A tank is filled with water to a height of 2.0 meters. What is the pressure at the bottom of the tank?
A. 19.6 Pa
B. 39.2 Pa
C. 1.96 x 104 Pa
D. 3.92 x 104 Pa

2. The dimension L represents the length of an object. Which of the following dimensions can be represented by
L2?
I. Area of the land
II. Volume of the bottle
III. Surface area of the earth
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III

3. A 10-pound object is suspended by a string from an overhead support. A horizontal force of 5.8 pounds is
applied on the object. The measure of the angle which the string makes with the horizontal is ______
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°

4. Which of the following is true at the highest point of a projectile? (a = acceleration, v = velocity).
A. a = 0, v = 0
B. a = g, v = 0
C. a = g, v = horizontal component of initial velocity
D. a = 0, v = horizontal component of initial velocity

5. A book is pushed along a table by force F. The book moved with a constant speed. The figure above shows
the free-body diagram for the book, where FN is the normal force, W is the weight of the book, and f is the
frictional force. Which of the following is true about these forces?
A. F > f, FN = W
B. F < f, FN ≠ W
C. F = f, FN = W
D. f = 0, FN = W

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6. Kris wants to know the material used in the bracelet she purchased from an antique shop. The weight of the
bracelet when hanged from a scale is 3.16 N. When it is completely immersed in the water, the scale reads 2.86
N. Based on the table above, what material makes up the bracelet?
A. Platinum
B. Silver
C. Brass
D. Gold

7. A stone is thrown upward at the speed of 6.00 meters per second from the ground. A man who catches the
stone is located 1.00 meters above the ground. What is the speed of the stone as it reaches the catcher's hand?
(Use g = 10 m/s2)
A. 8.09 m/s
B. 7.50 m/s
C. 4.61 m/s
D. 4.00 m/s

8. A metallic bear weights 40 N in air and 30 N in water. What is its density?

A. 1 x 104 kg/m3
B. 2 x 104 kg/m3
C. 4 x 103 kg/m3
D. 5 x 103 kg/m3

9. The initial speed of a 15-gram bullet is 600 m/s. It penetrates 10 centimeters into a stationary target post
before it stops. What is the average force exerted on the bullet by the target post?
A. 9.0 x 103 N
B. 5.3 x 104 N
C. 2.4 x 105 N
D. 1.6 x 106 N

10. Which of the following is NOT true about work and energy?
A. When only the force of gravity does work, the total mechanical energy is conserved.
B. Work and energy are expressed in the same units.
C. Work done on an object changes its kinetic energy.
D. The total kinetic energy of a composite system does not change when no work is done.

11. What happens when a ball is thrown up in the air?

A. It loses PE and gains KE.
B. It gains PE and loses KE.
C. It loses both PE and KE.
D. It gains both PE and KE.

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12. Which of the following expressions is the dimension of pressure?
A. ML-1T-2
B. ML-1T-1
C. MLT-1
D. MLT-2

13. A plane is moving horizontally at the speed of 90.0 kilometers per hour and is located 4.50 kilometers above
the ground. During the flight, a bomb is dropped. What is the horizontal distance travelled by the bomb before it
reaches the ground? (Neglect the air friction effect; Use g = 10 m/s2)
A. 1.13 km
B. 1.08 km
C. 1 km
D. 0.750 km

14. The earth's gravity exerts no torque on a satellite orbiting the earth in an elliptical orbit. Which of the
following remains constant even when the distance between the earth and the satellite changes?
A. Angular momentum
B. Tangential velocity
C. Linear momentum
D. Angular velocity

15. A 50-N•m torque acts on a wheel with moment of inertia of 25 kg/m2. If the wheel starts from rest, what is
its angular acceleration?
A. 0.5 rad/s2
B. 1.0 rad/s2
C. 2.0 rad/s2
D. 2.5 rad/s2

16. If the atmospheric pressure is 1.014 x 105 Pa and the density of water is 1,000 kg/m3, what is the gauge
pressure under a 2-meter deep swimming pool?
A. 1.014 x 105 Pa
B. 2.028 x 105 Pa
C. 1.210 x 105 Pa
D. 2.014 x 105 Pa

17. In baseball, a bat hits a 0.10 kilogram ball moving with 5.5 m/s velocity. If the reverse velocity of the ball is
15 m/s, what is the magnitude of impulse of the ball?
A. 0.55 kg•m/s
B. 0.95 kg•m/s
C. 1.50 kg•m/s
D. 2.05 kg•m/s

18. When heat is used to melt some ice in a water mixture, the internal energy of the water mixture increases.
Which thermodynamic law is applied in this situation?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
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 D. Third law of thermodynamics

19. A 0.750-kilogram calorimeter, with unknown specific heat, has an initial temperature of 25.0°C. Five
hundred grams of water at 55.0°C is poured into the calorimeter. If the temperature of the water and
calorimeter, upon reaching its thermal equilibrium, is 35.0°C, what is the specific heat of the calorimeter? (Use
cwater = 1.00 kcal/kg•C°)
A. 3.00 kcal/kg•C°
B. 1.33 kcal/kg•C°
C. 0.750 kcal/kg•C°
D. 0.333 kcal/kg•C°

20. A 418.6 N boy eats a protein bar with an energy content of 100 calories. What percent of this energy will be
used up if he climbs a 100-meter stairs?
A. 0.01%
B. 0.1%
C. 1.0 %
D. 100%

21. Heat conductors X and Y are placed in between the hot and the cold reservoirs as shown in the figure above.
Their thermal conductivities and their cross-sectional areas are listed in the table above. What is the relationship
between the thermal currents of the two conductors?

22. A crane, used in lifting heavy equipment in infrastructure projects, has an efficiency of 75.0%. If it is
supplied by an input heat 20.0 kcal, how high can to lift a 1.00x103 kilogram boulder? (Use g = 10 m/s2, J =
4.19 Joules/Calories)
A. 2.13 m
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 B. 4.27 m
C. 6.29 m
D. 8.53 m

23. Which of the following laws of thermodynamics can explain why a refrigerator cannot transfer heat from
cold to hot tanks without any external work applied to perform the process?
A. Zeroth law
B. First law
C. Second law
D. Third law

24. A 400 watts water heater contains 1.00 kilogram of water initially at 20.0°C. Assuming that the water heater
has 100% efficiency, how long will it take to increase the temperature of water ton 100°C? (cwater = 4,186
J/kg•C°)
A. 209 seconds
B. 419 seconds
C. 628 seconds
D. 837 seconds

25. A long coil of many turns made from high melting point alloy is used as the heating element of an electric
kettle. But a short length of wire is unsuitable to be used as the heating element of this appliance. What
conclusion can be made from these statements?
A. A short length of wire will melt when water is boiling.
B. A long wire has a high resistance and gives more heat
C. A short length of wire has a high resistance and gives too much heat.
D. A long wire will redistribute the heat evenly throughout the liquid

26. Two reservoirs of different temperatures are connected to a pipe. If the valve on the pipe is opened and heat
flows freely, the natural direction of the heat flow is from a high-temperature reservoir to a low-temperature
reservoir, regardless of the total energy content of each reservoir. This fact is stated in which law?
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of conservation of entropy
C. First law of thermodynamics
D. Second law of thermodynamics

27. When a material released thermal energy without changing its state, the density ordinarily _____.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. can not be predicted

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28. Metallic rods can be used as a thermometer by measuring their change in lengths (delta L) after thermal
expansion. Consider rods X and Y with the same initial temperature at 20.0°C. Their initial lengths and
coefficient of linear expansion are listed in the table shown above. If the said rods are both heated until they
reach a temperature of 50.0°C, which of the following equations correctly slows their change in lenghts?

29. Which of the following statements best differentiates spontaneous from stimulated emissions?
A. Spontaneous emission allows the photon ton travel in random direction, while in stimulated emission
the photon travels in an identical direction.
B. Spontaneous emission is difficult to achieve, while stimulated emission can be readily achieved.
C. Spontaneous emission is achieved in excited state, while stimulated emission is independent of
external forces.
D. Spontaneous emission arises in the presence of electromagnetic radiation, while stimulated emission

30. A concave lens and an object Q are positioned as shown above. What is the complete description of the
image formed using this lens?
A. Virtual image, upright, enlarged, between F1 and the lens
B. Virtual image, upright, reduced between F2 and the lens
C. Real image, inverted, reduced between F2 and the lens
D. Real image, upright, reduced between F2 and the lens

31. Which of the following will result if the number of lines in a diffraction grating of a given width is
increased?
A. The wavelengths that can be diffracted will be shorter.
B. The wavelengths that can be diffracted will be longer.
C. The spectrum produced will be narrower.
D. The spectrum produced will be broader.

32. A light travels in a medium with an index of refraction of 1.50. Which of the following statements is(are)
true about the light in the medium compared with that in the vacuum?
I. Its speed is lesser
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 II. Its frequency is higher
III. Its wavelength is the same.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only

33. The near point of an eye is 0.5 meters. What is the focal length of a contact lens that must be used for
normal vision?
A. +25 centimeters
B. -25 centimeters
C. -50 centimeters
D. +50 centimeters

34. What physical entity is quantized, is always conserved, and is brought about by transfer of electrons?
A. Electric charge
B. Electric current
C. Electric field
D. Electric potential

35. Two charges q1 and 12 are separated by a distance d in air. The force between them is 100µ. What will be
the forcce between 2q1 and 3q2 placed 2d apart?
A. 100 µ
B. 150 µ
C. 200 µ
D. 300 µ

36. Which of the following statements is NOT a property of electromagnetic waves?

A. It travels at the speed of light.
B. It carries both energy and momentum, which can be delivered to a surface.
C. The ratio of the electric field to the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave equals the speed of
light.
D. They are transverse waves because the electric and magnetic field are parallel to the direction of
propagation of the wave and to each other.

37. Based on the circuit diagram shown above, what are the values of the electric charge and the voltage
dropped on the 3.00-µF capacitor, respectively?
A. 12.0 µC, 8.00 V
B. 12.0 µC, 4.00 V
C. 24.0 µC, 8.00 V

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 D. 24.0 µC, 12.00 V

38. Given the circuit above, what is the equivalent resistance and current flowing through it?

39. An antenna is run by an LC circuit with inductance L = 4.00 mH and capacitance C = 6.40 µF. If the
electromagnetic wave produced by the said antenna propagates to the vacuum, what is the wavelength of the
electromagnetic wave?
A. 1.22 x 103 m
B. 7.64 x 103 m
B. 4.80 x 104 m
B. 3.02 x 105 m

40. Four resistors are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure above. What is the current through the
resistor Ry?
A. 0.3 A
B. 0.6 A
C. 0.9 A
D. 1.5 A

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41. Based on the Maxwell's wave-model predictions, which of the following experimental results correctly
prove the threshold frequency and stopping potential of an electron?
I. Photocurrent is determined by the light frequency.
II. There is no measurable time delay between the moment a light is turned on and the moment
photoelectrons are emitted.
III. Frequency determines the stopping potential of an electron, but not intensity.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

42. A typical person does not exhibit de Broglie wave behavior when walking through a doorway because
______.
A. the Planck's constant h has a minuscule value.
B. net energy is being conserved in all interactions, including walking.
C. Waves are reflected back to the person's surface and is negligible when walking
D. the wavelength λ is far longer when doing an activity, creating a smaller frequency and energy

43. According to de Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of a moving particle is _______.

A. directly proportional to its total energy
B. inversely proportional to its total energy
C. directly proportional to its momentum
D. inversely proportional to its momentum

44. When a large atom such as U235 splits into two smaller atoms, then the combines mass of the products
resulting from the splitting will be _______.
A. one-half of the original mass
B. the same as the original mass
C. one-half more than the original mass
D. two times more than the original

45. An electron is travelling at 1% the speed of light. What is its kinetic energy in joules? (Speed of light = 3 x
108 m/s)
A. 4.000 x 10-18 J
B. 4.098 x 10-18 J
C. 4.098 x 1010 J
D. 4.000 x 1018 J

46. Which of the following is an implication of the formula E = mc2?

A. Energy can be created from nothing.
B. Matter can be created from nothing.
C. Relatively large amounts of matter can be changed into relatively small amounts of energy.
D. Relatively large amounts of energy can be obtained from relatively small amounts of matter.

47. Which of the following statements regarding isotopes is NOT true?

A. Radioactive isotopes can be produced in the laboratory.
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 B. Radioactive isotopes decay by the emissions of particles from the nucleus.
C. All isotopes are radioactive.
D. There is a wide variety of decay rates for radioactive isotopes.

48. Which of the following statements is NOT true of protons and electrons?
A. Protons and electrons have equals masses.
B. All protons have the same charge.
C. Protons and electrons have charges equal in magnitude although opposite in sign.
D. The positive charge in an atomic nucleus is due to the protons it contains.

49. The radiation from a sample of Krypton-85 decreases to one-third of the original intensity Io in a period of
18 years. What would be the intensity after 18 more years?

50. In a U235 fission, represented by the equation above, Xe140 and Sr94 nuclei are produced and energy is
released. How many n is(are) given off in the process?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

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