Activity 4 Multiple Choice
Activity 4 Multiple Choice
Activity 4 Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice.
3. Other information that the auditor may use as audit evidence least likely includes
a. Minutes of meetings.
b. Confirmations from third parties.
c. Information obtained by the auditor from such audit procedures as inquiry, observation, and
inspection.
d. Adjustments to the financial statements that are not reflected in formal journal entries.
4. Which statement is correct regarding the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence?
a. Sufficiency is the measure of the quality of audit evidence.
b. Appropriateness is the measure of the quantity of audit evidence; that is, its relevance and its
reliability in providing support for, or detecting misstatements in, the classes of transactions,
account balances, and disclosures and related assertions.
c. The quantity of audit evidence needed is affected by the risk of misstatement (the greater the
risk, the more audit evidence is likely to be required) and also by the quality of such audit
evidence (the higher the quality, the less may be required).
d. Merely obtaining more audit evidence may compensate for its poor quality.
8. The auditor uses assertions in assessing risks by considering the different types of potential
misstatements that may occur, and thereby designing audit procedures that are responsive to the
assessed risks. Assertions used by the auditor fall into the following categories:
I. Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period under audit.
II. Assertions about account balances at the period end.
III. Assertions about presentation and disclosure.
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. II only
9. Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period under audit least likely
include
a. Transactions and events that have been recorded have occurred and pertain to the entity.
b. All transactions and events that should have been recorded have been recorded.
c. Transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period.
d. All assets, liabilities and equity interests that should have been recorded have been recorded.
10. Assertion about account balances at period end which means assets, liabilities, and equity
interests are included in the financial statements at appropriate amounts is
a. Existence c. Completeness
b. Rights and obligations d. Valuation and allocation
11. Accuracy and valuation assertions about presentation and disclosure means
a. Disclosed events, transactions, and other matters have occurred and pertain to the entity.
b. All disclosures that should have been included in the financial statements have been included.
c. Financial information is appropriately presented and described, and disclosures are clearly
expressed.
d. Financial and other information are disclosed fairly and at appropriate amounts.
12. The auditor obtains audit evidence to draw reasonable conclusions on which to base the audit
opinion by performing audit procedures to:
a. Obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, to
assess the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement and assertion levels.
b. Test the operating effectiveness of controls in preventing, or detecting and correcting, material
misstatements at the assertion level.
c. Detect material misstatements at the assertion level.
d. All of the above.
16. Which of the following audit procedures is used extensively throughout the audit and often is
complementary to performing other audit procedures?
a. Inspection
b. Observation
c. Inquiry
d. Confirmation
18. Observation
a. Consists of looking at a process or procedure being performed by others.
b. Consists of seeking information of knowledgeable persons, both financial and non-financial,
throughout the entity or outside the entity.
c. Is the process of obtaining a representation of information or of an existing condition directly
from a third party.
d. Is the auditor’s independent execution of procedures or controls that were originally
performed as part of the entity’s internal control.
21. Which of the following is the best explanation of the difference, if any, between
auditobjectives
and audit procedures?
a. Audit procedures establish broad general goals, audit objectives specify the detailed work to
be performed.
b. Audit objectives are tailor-made for each assignment, audit procedures are generic in
application.
c. Audit objectives define specific desired accomplishments; audit procedures provide the means
of achieving audit objectives.
d. Audit procedures and audit objectives are essentially the same.
22. Walastik, Inc. has significant information that is transmitted, processed, maintained, and
accessed electronically. The auditor has concluded that it is not possible to reduce detection
risk to an acceptable level by performing only substantive tests for a number of financial
statement assertions. The auditor’s alternative strategy is to
a. Increase the acceptable audit risk.
b. Focus audit tests on other assertions for which substantive tests prove to be effective.
c. Require management to change its information system to provide appropriate evidence.
d. Perform tests of controls to gather evidential matter to use in assessing control risk related to
those assertions.
24. Which of the following procedures would provide the most reliable audit evidence?
a. Inquiries of the client’s internal audit staff held in private.
b. Inspection of prenumbered client purchase orders filed in the vouchers payable department.
c. Analytical procedures performed by the auditor on the entity’s trial balance.
d. Inspection of bank statements obtained directly form the client’s financial institution.
25. The most reliable form of documentary evidence are those documents that are
a. Prenumbered c. Easily duplicated
b. Internally generated d. Authorized by a responsible official