Question Booklet: Do Not Open This Question Booklet Until You Are Asked To Do So
Question Booklet: Do Not Open This Question Booklet Until You Are Asked To Do So
21872002
QUESTION BOOKLET
WRITTEN EXAMINATION B
Maximum Marks : 125
This booklet contains 100 questions in 20 pages
Time Allowed :- 2:00 Hours (120 Minutes)
Time Allowed :- 2:40 Hours (160 Minutes) (PH Candidates only)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates shall advise to check carefully the exam time allowed, Nos. of questions and maximum marks
mentioned on the top of Booklet and also check the nos. of questions and marks section wise mentioned on the top
of every section.
2. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Question Booklet does not
have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a New Question Booklet of the
same discipline/post and series.
3. Encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer
sheet.
4. The question paper for written examination shall be bilingual (English & Hindi) and the applicant will have the
option to undertake the examination in either of the language. In case of discrepancy of questions in Hindi and
English language, the English version shall prevail.
5. Use only Blue/Black ink ball point pen to write Name, Roll Number, Question Booklet No., signature and also to
fill up ovals in the OMR Answer Sheet. Do not use pencil.
6. This examination is of objective type. All questions are compulsory.
7. There are two parts in the Questions-Paper. Each part contains questions on the following subjects.
Group A : Specialised Topic (50 marks) - 25 Questions
Every correct answer will get two marks and for every wrong answer 1/2 marks will be deducted.
Group B : General Intelligence and Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General English & General Awareness
(75 marks) – 75 Questions
Every correct answer will get one mark and for every wrong answer 1/4 marks will be deducted.
8. Each Question comprises four options (answers). You will have to select the correct option (answer) which you want
to mark on the OMR Answer Sheet. Choose ONLY ONE APPROPRIATE RESPONSE for each objective type question.
9. OMR Answer sheet will be processed by electronic scanner. Any folding/stapling/putting stray remarks, not filling
the ovals completely, doing rough work, may invalidate the OMR answer sheet and the same will be the responsibility
of the candidate.
10. Rough Work is to be done in any blank space in the Question Booklet. No other papers will be allowed/provided.
11. Candidates are not allowed to carry any blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular
phones, pagers, Wrist Watch and electronic gadgets in any form etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found
using, or in possession of such unauthorized material or involved in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means or behaviours will be disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
12. Please carefully go through the instructions given above and in the admit card before filling of the OMR Answer
sheet.
13. The candidates are provided with carbon OMR Answer Sheet. They must submit the original copy to the invigilator
and take the candidate’s carbon copy with them. The candidates must submit the question booklet to the invigilator
at the end of examination. The candidates are not allowed to take question booklet from the examination hall.
14. Keep a note of your Roll No. and Registration No. for further reference since the Admit Cards will be collected back
from you.
1. viokn }kjk izc/a ku ---------- ij fu;a=.k dj jgk gSA 7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vkjs[k eNyh dh gìh dh
(A) ykxr rjg fn[krk gS\
(A) ju pkVZ
(B) vuqdwy oLrq,¡
(B) fgLVksxzke
(C) izfrdwy oLrq,¡
(C) dkj.k ,oa izHkko vkjs[k
(D) dhersa (D) iSjsVks pkVZ
2. Vªd ifjogu dh rqyuk esa] jsy ifjogu gS % 8. dkSu lk PDCA pØ (Msfeax ifg;k) dk fgLlk ugha gS\
(A) de yphyk ysfdu lLrk (A) djuk (B) tkap
(B) de yphyk vkSj vf/kd egaxk (C) vk;kstu (D) eatwj
(C) vf/kd yphyk ysfdu vf/kd egaxk 9. ---------- eky vkSj lkexzh ds HkaMkj.k vkSj lapkyu ds fy,
(D) vf/kd yphyk vkSj lLrk ,d fu;ksftr LFkku gS
(A) fMiks
3. PERT fo'ys"k.k esa xfrfof/k;ksa ds le; vuqeku vkSj
muds ?kfVr gksus dh laHkkouk dk vuqlj.k djrs gSa& (B) os;j gkml
(C) HkaMkj.k LFkku
(A) lkekU; forj.k oØ
(D) daVsuj
(B) Iokblu forj.k oØ
10. iSdsftax nks dk;Z djrh gSA ---------- vkSj ykWftfLVDlA
(C) B&forj.k oØ
(A) forj.k
(D) f}in forj.k oØ
(B) LVksj dhfiax
4. buesa ls dkSu lk lkexzh vko”;drk ;kstuk (MRP) dk (C) lkexzh gSaMfyax
,d vkmViqV gS\
(D) foi.ku (ekdsZfVax)
(A) lkexzh ds fcy
11. Hkkjr esa daVsujhdj.k “kq: fd;k x;k gS
(B) fu;ksftr vkns”k vuqlwph
(A) 1960
(C) bUosaVªh fLFkfr Qkby (B) 1973
(D) eq[; mRiknu vuqlwph (C) 1990
(D) 2000
5. ,d xSaV pkVZ ………. dh lwpuk nsrk gSA
(A) inkFkZ gLru 12. ewy EOQ ekWMy esa] ;fn vkWMZj nsus dh ykxr nksxquh
gks tkrh gS] vkSj vU; lHkh ewY; fLFkj jgrs gSa] rks EOQ
(B) mRikn vuqlwph gksxk
(C) tu “kfDr dk lgh mi;ksx (A) yxHkx 41% dh o`f)
(D) mi;qZDr lHkh (B) 100% dh o`f)
(C) 200% dh o`f)
6. bldk mi;ksx izR;sd dk;Z dsUnz esa rRoksa dks lewfgr
djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS rkfd izR;sd dk;Z dsUnz esa (D) ;k rks o`f) ;k deh
lHkh dehZ leku le; dh leku eku ………… ds ckjs 13. Lkhek “kqYd ds Hkqxrku ls igys vk;kfrr eky Lohdkj
esa lfØ; gks ldsaA ;g dkSu lh rduhd gS\ djus ds fy, ljdkj }kjk ykblsl a izkIr 11 xksnkeksa dks
(A) eSfiax dgk tkrk gS %
(B) ¶ySfDlcy eSU;wQSDpfjax lsy (A) futh xksnke
(B) ca/kqvk xksnke
(C) “ksM~;wfyax
(C) ljdkjh xksnke
(D) ykbu cSysaflax
(D) lkoZtfud xksnke
5. A Gantt chart provides information about : 12. In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing
an order doubles, and all other values
(A) Material handling
remain constant, the EOQ will
(B) Production schedule (A) increase by about 41%
(C) Proper utilization of man power (B) increase by 100%
(D) All of the above (C) increase by 200%
(D) either increase or decrease
6. It is used to group elements into each work
station so that all the worker in each 13. 11 Warehouses licensed by the government
workstation are active about the same to accept imported goods before the payment
amount of time. What technique is it ? of custom duty are known as :
(A) Mapping (A) Private warehouses
(B) Flexible manufacturing cell (B) Bonded warehouses
14. dS”k vkWu fMyhojh i)fr dk mi;ksx lkekU;r% fdlds 20. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk chek vuqca/k {kfriwfrZ ds
fy, fd;k tkrk gS fl)kar ij vk/kkfjr ugha gS
(A) rRdky cktkj ds lkFk Fkksd dkxksZ ds (A) vfXu chek
(B) /kheh xfr ls pyus okyh “krsZa ds (B) leqnzh chek
(C) Mkd }kjk Hksts x, NksVs ysfdu ewY;oku lkeku ds (C) thou chek
(D) Hkqxrku larqyu dh leL;k okys ns”kksa dks fu;kZr ds (D) eksVj chek
15. ,d ifj;kstuk ds fofHké dk;ksZa esa izkFkfedrk;sa LFkkfir 21. LVkWd lR;kiu “khV ---------- ds ifj.kkeksa dks fjdkWMZ djus
djus vkSj cuk;s j[kus dh rduhd fuEufyf[kr dgykrh ds fy, cuk, j[kk tkrk gSA
gS & (A) HkkSfrd lR;kiu
(A) bosUV ¶yks f'kM~;fw yax (B) foŸkh; fu;a=.k
(B) Økafrd ¶yks f'kM~;fw yax (C) foŸkh; lR;kiu
(C) f'kM~;wfyax dh LysfVax rduhdh (D) xq.koŸkk lR;kiu
(D) 'kkWVZ baVjoy f'kM~;fw yax
22. ---------- lkexzh ykxr fu;a=.k dh ,d rduhd gS tks
16. ,d CPM uVodZ esa ?kVuk 'I' dk uohure lekiu le; ekylwph esa de fuos”k ds ifj.kkeLo:Ik de ogu ykxr
10 lIrkg; xfrfof/k i–j iwjk gksus esa 4 lIrkg dk le; dh vksj ys tkrh gS\
ysrh gSA bosaV 'J' ifj;kstuk lkssygosa lIrkg ds ckn 'kq: (A) ABC fo”ys’k.k
gksrh gSA xfrfof/k i–j dk dqy izokg (Total float) gksuk
(B) JIT bUosaVjh flLVe
pkfg,&
(C) VED fo”ys’k.k
(A) 6 lIrkg (B) 12 lIrkg
(D) ijisP;wvy bUosaVjh flLVe
(C) 10 lIrkg (D) 2 lIrkg
17. le; esa o`f) ds lkFk tks izR;{k ykxr dks de ugha 23. LFkku fu.kZ; dks izHkkfor djus okys dkjdksa esa “kkfey gS%a
djrk gS og le; tkuk tkrk gS& (A) fcØh iwokZuqeku@{kerk ;kstuk@lM+d igq¡p
(A) ØS'k le; (B) Je ykxr@Hkwfe miyC/krk@{kerk fu;kstu
14. Cash on delivery method is normally used 20. Which of the following insurance contract is
for not based on the principle of indemnity.
(A) bulk cargo with immediate market (A) Fire insurance
(B) slow moving terms. (B) Marine insurance
(C) small but valuable items sent by post. (C) Life insurance
(D) exports to countries with balance of (D) Motor insurance
payments problem
21. Stock verification sheets are maintained to
15. The technique for establishing and record the results of ………..
maintaining priorities among various jobs of (A) physical verification
a project is known as :
(B) financial control
(A) Event flow scheduling
(C) financial verification
(B) Critical flow scheduling
(D) quality verification
(C) Slating technique scheduling
(D) Short interval scheduling 22. ……………. is a technique of material cost
control which leads to low carrying cost as a
16. In a CPM Network latest finish time for event result of low investment in inventory?
'I' is 10 weeks; Activity i–j takes 4 weeks for (A) ABC Analysis
completion, event 'J' startes after 16 weeks.
(B) JIT Inventory System
Total float for Activity i–j is :
(C) VED Analysis
(A) 6 weeks (B) 12 weeks
(D) Perpetual Inventory System
(C) 10 weeks (D) 2 weeks
17. The time with which direct cost does not 23. Factors affecting the location decision
reduce with the increase in time is known include :
as: (A) Sales forecasts / capacity planning /
road access
(A) Crash time
(B) Labour costs / land availability /
(B) Normal time capacity planning
(C) Optimistic time (C) Sales forecasts / road access / land cost
(D) Standard time (D) Labour costs / land availability /
environmental restrictions
18. In construction planning, an artificial
activity which indicates that an activity 24. …………… means goods or commodities
following it, cannot be started unless the carried in a ship
preceding activity is complete is known as : (A) Hull
(A) Free float (B) Total float (B) Cargo
(C) Fright
(C) Dummy (D) Event
(D) Wares
19. An important feature of supply chain
management is its application of electronic 25. An increase in sales price :
commerce technology that allows companies (A) Does not affect the BEP
to share and operate systems for :
(B) Increases the BEP
(A) order processing, transportation
(C) Lowers the BEP
scheduling, and inventory management.
(D) May or May not affect the BEP
(B) cost effective flowing of raw materials
(C) future purchasing of computer systems
(D) future merger opportunities
26. Which one of the given responses would be 31. In the line of boys, Rahul is 12th from the
a meaningful order of the following words ? right and 4th from the left. How many boys
1. Plaster 2. Paintings should be added in the line, so that total of
28 boys will be in the line.
3. Foundation 4. Walls
(A) 12 (B) 14
5. Roof
(C) 20 (D) 13
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 32. Identify the diagram that represents the best
relationship between the classes given
below.
27. Which of the following words would appear Nurse, School, College
on the third number, if they are arranged as
per their order in the English dictionary ?
EMPHASIS, EMPROVE, EMPHATIC,
EMPLOYEE, EMPIRE
(A) EMPHASIS (B) EMPIRE
(C) EMPHATIC (D) EMPLOYEE
28. In this question, if the letters of the given 33. Read the following statements and answer
words may be used as many times as one the question.
wants to use, which one of the given four
(i) Donald can play hockey, but not tennis
words cannot be formed from the given
and cricket
words?
(ii) Jack can play cricket, but not football
ELEMENTARY (iii) Rockey can play tennis, but not hockey
(A) LAMENT (B) RENTAL (iv) Honey can play both cricket and hockey
(C) LUMEN (D) MEANLY (v) David can play football but not cricket
If a person can play two games, who would
29. Find the relation between the given
be like Honey ?
numbers, and choose the correct alternative
(A) Jack (B) Rocky
from the given options.
(C) David (D) None of these
19 16 27
34. Seven girls are sitting in a row, who are faces
23 16 31
towards the North. Pratima is on the right
9 ? 15 side of Mona. Nidhi is on the left side of the
(A) 12 (B) 16 Mona, but is on the right of Naina. Anu and
Natasha both are on the extreme ends.
(C) 10 (D) 14
Pratima is on the left of Anu. If Poonam is
30. Choose the correct alternative from the given between Nidhi and Mona. Which girl is
options that will complete the series. sitting on the middle ?
Question Figures : (A) Mona (B) Poonam
(C) Pratima (D) Nidhi
37. ç'u esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lEcaf/kr vkd`fr dks 42. Hkkjr ds lafo/kku dh 11oha vuqlwph esa fdrus fo"k; gSa\
pqfu,A (A) 22 (B) 24
iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ : (C) 29 (D) 32
?
43. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og lgh fodYi pqfu,] tks
vuqØe dks iwjk djsaA
OYZ, UCE, BFK, JHR, ….
mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ : (A) TIY (B) SCZ
(C) SIZ (D) RCZ
(C) vkjchvkbZ 25 1
(C) (D) None of these
(D) ukckMZ 25 1
39. ,d o`Ùkh; iFk nks ladsanzh o`Ùkh; oy;ksa als bl izdkj cuk 45. fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk"kk esa 'SINGER' dks 'QLVUHJ’
gS fd tc NksVs oy; dks cM+s oy; dh ifjf/k ij ?kqek;k fy[kk tkrk gS] rks 'TARGEN' dks mlh Hkk"kk esa dSls
tkrk gS] rks og iwjs rhu ifjØe.k djrk gSA ;fn ekxZ fy[kk tk,xk\
dk {ks=Qy] NksVs cy; ds {ks=Qy dk n xquk gS] rks n (A) NISRHJ
fdlds cjkcj gS\ (B) RATNHG
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) TDPRTJ
(C) 8 (D) 9 (D) UDWQHJ
40. ,d Bsdsnkj 12 fd-eh- yach ugj 350 fnuksa esa [kksnus 46. ;fn '×' dk vFkZ '–'; '–' dk vFkZ '÷'; '÷' dk vFkZ '+'
ds fy, 45 vknfe;ksa dks dke ij yxkrk gSA 200 fnuksa rFkk '+' dk vFkZ '×' gksrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa
ckn og ikrk gS fd ugj dk dsoy 4.5 fdeh- gh iwjk esa dkSu vlR; gS\
gks ik;k gSA dke dks le; ij iwjk djus ds fy, mls
vkSj fdrus vknfe;ksa dks dke ij yxkuk gksxk\ I. 16 ÷ 8 – 4 = 6 + 8 ÷ 2
vxj eSa mUgsa ik¡p ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks (B) III and IV
dksbZ Hkh flDdk ugha cprk gSA (C) I, II and IV
;fn eSa mUgsa Ng ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks dksbZ (D) II, III and IV
Hkh flDdk ugha cprk gSA
47. fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls fo”ke v{kjksa dks pqfu,A
vxj eSa mUgsa lkr ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks
,d flDdk cp tkrk gSA (A) chek
(B) Hkfo"; fuf/k
muds ikl de ls de fdrus flDds Fks \
(A) 190 (B) 50
(C) osru
(C) 120 (D) 90 (D) 'ks;j
37. Select the related figure from the given 42. How many items are there in the 11th
alternative. Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
Question Figures : (A) 22 (B) 24
?
(C) 29 (D) 32
43. Choose the correct alternative from the given
options that will complete the series.
Answer Figures : OYZ, UCE, BFK, JHR, ….
(A) TIY (B) SCZ
(C) SIZ (D) RCZ
48. nks dFkuksa ds vkxs nks fu"d"kZ I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA 51. og o"kZ dkSu&lk ftlesa dhVuk”kdksa dk mRiknu] lHkh
vkidks dFkuksa dks lR; ekudj fopkj djuk gS pkgs os N% o"kksZa ds vkSlr mRiknu ds yxHkx cjkcj Fkk \
lkekU;r% Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUu izfrr gksrs gksaA vkidks (A) 2019 (B) 2018
fu.kZ; djuk gS fd fn, x, fu"d"kksZa esa ls dkSu&lk] ;fn (C) 2015 (D) 2020
dksbZ gks] fuf'pr :i ls fn, x, dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij
ykxq gksrk gSA viuk mÙkj fufnZ"V djsaA 52. o"kZ 2016 vkSj 2018 ds dhVuk”kdksa ds dqy mRiknu
dFku : ,oa o"kZ 2019 vkSj 2020 ds dqy mRiknu dk vuqikr
fdruk gS \
D < Q < S, Q G H
(A) 27 : 25 (B) 28 : 23
fu”d”kZ :
(C) 31 : 25 (D) 35 : 25
I. H D, II. H<Q
53. o"kZ 2018 rFkk 2020 ds moZjd dhVuk”kdksa dk dqy
(A) dsoy fu"d"kZ I ykxw gksrk gS
mRiknu] o"kZ 2017 rFkk 2019 ds dqy mRiknu dk
(B) dsoy fu"d"kZ II ykxw gksrk gS y% gS] rks y dk eku fdruk Fkk\
(C) fu"d"kZ I vkSj II esa ls dksbZ ykxw ugha gksrk gS 7
1
(A) 103 (B) 79
(D) fu"d"kZ I vkSj II nksuksa ykxw gksrs gSaA 9 17
50. :i] vkseohj dk HkkbZ gSA ehuk :i dh cgu gSA jke] (C) nothingness (D) outside
gsew dk HkkbZ gSA gsew] vkseohj dh iq=h gSA ';ke] ehuk 56. Out of the following options, choose the one
ds firk gSaA ';ke dk gsew ls D;k fj'rk gS \ which best opposes the meaning of the given
(A) firk (B) ukuk word: “collectible”
funsZ'k (51 – 53) : fuEu LraHk vkys[k esa ,d daiuh ds yxkrkj 57. ç'u esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lEcaf/kr la[;k dks
N% o"kksZa ds dhVuk”kd mRiknu dks (Vuksa es)a n'kkZ;k x;k gSA bl pqfu,A
vkys[k dk vè;;u djds iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A 143 : 221 : : 437 : _______
(A) 629 (B) 667
90
(C) 713 (D) 693
80
Production (in tonnes)
40 (A) QYTBV
30 (B) QXSBX
20 (C) QYTAV
10 (D) QYSAW
0
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020
48. Two statements are given followed by two 51. The year in which the production of
conclusions I and II. You have to consider pesticides is nearest to the average
the statements to be true even if they seem production of all the six years, is
to be at variance from commonly known (A) 2019 (B) 2018
facts. You are to decide which of the given
(C) 2015 (D) 2020
conclusions, if any, follow from the given
statements. Indicate your answer. 52. The ratio of the total production of pesticides
Statements : in the years 2016 and 2018 to the total
D < Q < S, Q G H production in the years 2019 and 2020 is
Conclusions : (A) 27 : 25 (B) 28 : 23
I. H D, II. H<Q (C) 31 : 25 (D) 35 : 25
(A) Only conclusion I follows. 53. The total production of pesticides in the
(B) Only conclusion II follows. years 2018 and 2020 is y% of the total
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. production in the years 2017 and 2019.
Then y is equal to
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.
1 7
(A) 103 (B) 79
49. Rekha drives 12 2 km towards the South- 9 17
East, she turns towards East, and drives 7 24 1
km. Again, she turns left, and drives 17 km. (C) 96 (D) 111
35 9
Finally, she turns 900 anticlockwise and
drives 19 km. How far is she from her 54. On what sum of money will the difference
starting point, if these two points are directly between the simple interest and the
connected by a road ? compound interest for 2 years at 6% per
(A) 5 km, South annum be equal to `18 ?
(B) 5 km, North (A) `4000 (B) `5000
(C) 7 km, North-East (C) `4300 (D) `5350
(D) 8 km, North-West 55. Out of the following options, choose the one
50. Roop is the brother of Omvir. Meena is the which best expresses the meaning of the
sister of Roop. Ram is the brother of Hemu. given word : “crux”
Hemu is the daughter of Omvir. Shyam is (A) gist (B) exteriority
the father of Meena. How is Shyam related (C) nothingness (D) outside
to Hemu?
56. Out of the following options, choose the one
(A) Father (B) Maternal Grandpa
which best opposes the meaning of the given
(C) Maternal Uncle (D) Grandpa word: “collectible”
Directions (51 – 53) : The following bar graph (A) replaceable (B) cherished
shows the production of pesticides (in tonnes) by (C) expensive (D) incalculable
a company, in six consecutive years. Study the
57. Select the related number from the given
graph and answer the questions.
alternative.
90 143 : 221 : : 437 : _______
80
Production (in tonnes)
59. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted 64. In the following options only one word is
in bold. From the given options select the correctly spelt, find the correctly spelt word
most appropriate answer that replaces the (A) martir (B) martry
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
(C) marytry (D) martyr
no replacement is required, select option (D).
“In the upcoming competitive exam your 65. From the following options, select the most
answer book will be answered using a suitable word to substitute the phrase or
computerized process.” sentence:
“any person or institution with authority to
(A) evaluated (B) extracted
judge, adjudicate on, or determine claims or
(C) filled (D) No improvement disputes”
60. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted (A) tribunal (B) congregation
in bold. From the given options select the (C) abdicator (D) lawyer
most appropriate answer that replaces the
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case 66. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive
no replacement is required, select option (D). Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested
below, select the one which best expresses
“Mr. Singhal’s son was able to commence
the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
the family business while Mr. Singhal was
recovering from Covid.” We are taught English here.
61. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate (C) A lady teaches us English here.
option. (D) You teach us English here.
A skeptic ____ every level of evidence or
opinion regarding the subject of their 67. ;fn a (a 8) a b c , b(b 8) a b c ,oa
skepticism. 1 1 1
c (c 8) a b c rks] dk
(A) questions (B) accepts a 8 b 8 c 8
(C) promotes (D) abhors eku gksxk ----
(A) 2 (B) 0
62. In the given sentence replace the highlighted
idiom by choosing an alternative that best (C) 1 (D) –1
expresses the meaning from the given
options:
68. eku yhft, nks vadksa dh ,d la[;k vius vadksa ds
“When it came to his personal safety, he had ;ksxQy dh K xquh gSA ;fn la[;k ds vadksa dks vkil
to put his foot down.” esa cnyus ls cuh la[;k vius vadksa ds ;ksxQy dh m
xquh gS] rks m dk eku D;k gS \
(A) took a firm stand
(B) stood up in anger (A) 11 K (B) 9 K
(C) sat down timidly (C) K 1 (D) 10 K
(D) started walking
69. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
63. In the given sentence replace the highlighted option :
idiom by choosing an alternative that best She prefers ___________ dinner as she is not
expresses the meaning from the given good at cooking.
options:
(A) my making (B) me making
“They claim to be the biggest company in the
world, which is stretching a point” (C) me to make (D) me make
(A) using their most valuable asset 70. xq# vaxn nso i'kq fpfdRlk vkSj i'kq foKku fo'ofo|ky;
(B) saying the same thing repeatedly iatkc ds fdl 'kgj esa fLFkr gS\
(C) belittling their weaker competitors (A) ifV;kyk (B) yqf/k;kuk
(D) making a claim which is not completely (C) ve`rlj (D) paMhx<+
true
59. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted 64. In the following options only one word is
in bold. From the given options select the correctly spelt, find the correctly spelt word
most appropriate answer that replaces the (A) martir (B) martry
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
(C) marytry (D) martyr
no replacement is required, select option (D).
“In the upcoming competitive exam your 65. From the following options, select the most
answer book will be answered using a suitable word to substitute the phrase or
computerized process.” sentence:
“any person or institution with authority to
(A) evaluated (B) extracted
judge, adjudicate on, or determine claims or
(C) filled (D) No improvement disputes”
60. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted (A) tribunal (B) congregation
in bold. From the given options select the (C) abdicator (D) lawyer
most appropriate answer that replaces the
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case 66. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive
no replacement is required, select option (D). Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested
below, select the one which best expresses
“Mr. Singhal’s son was able to commence
the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
the family business while Mr. Singhal was
recovering from Covid.” We are taught English here.
61. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate (C) A lady teaches us English here.
option. (D) You teach us English here.
A skeptic ____ every level of evidence or
opinion regarding the subject of their 67. If a (a 8) a b c , b(b 8) a b c and
skepticism. c (c 8) a b c , then the value of
(A) questions (B) accepts 1 1 1
(C) promotes (D) abhors is
a 8 b 8 c 8
62. In the given sentence replace the highlighted (A) 2 (B) 0
idiom by choosing an alternative that best (C) 1 (D) –1
expresses the meaning from the given
options: 68. Let a two-digit number be K times the sum
“When it came to his personal safety, he had of its digits. If the number formed by
to put his foot down.” interchanging the digits is m times the sum
(A) took a firm stand of the digits, then the value of m is
(B) stood up in anger (A) 11 K (B) 9 K
(C) sat down timidly (C) K 1 (D) 10 K
(D) started walking
69. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
63. In the given sentence replace the highlighted option :
idiom by choosing an alternative that best She prefers ___________ dinner as she is not
expresses the meaning from the given good at cooking.
options:
“They claim to be the biggest company in the (A) my making (B) me making
world, which is stretching a point” (C) me to make (D) me make
(A) using their most valuable asset
70. The Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal
(B) saying the same thing repeatedly Sciences University is located in which city
(C) belittling their weaker competitors of Punjab ?
(D) making a claim which is not completely (A) Patiala (B) Ludhiana
true
(C) Amritsar (D) Chandigarh
71. ßfnoklksÞ dks ________ ds <ksfM;k vkSj ojyh tutkfr;ksa 77. ekuo xfrfof/k;ksa ls ifjofrZr i;kZoj.k dgykrk gS
}kjk euk;k tkrk gSA (A) uSlfxZd i;kZoj.k
(A) vaMeku vkSj fudksckj }hi lewg (B) ,UFkzksikstsfud i;kZoj.k
(B) nknjk vkSj uxj gosyh (C) 'kgjh i;kZoj.k
(C) iqnqpsjh (D) vk/kqfud i;kZoj.k
(D) y{k}hi
78. 5 lnL;ksa ds ,d ifjokj esa bl le; vkSlr vk;q 33
72. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og lgh fodYi pqfu,] tks o"kZ gSA lcls NksVk lnL; 9 o"kZ dk gSA lcls NksVs
vuqØe dks iwjk djsaA lnL; ds tUe ls rRdky iwoZ ifjokj dh vkSlr vk;q
6, 24, 60, ? , 210, 236 Fkh\
(A) 116 (B) 112 (A) 30 o"kZ (B) 26 o"kZ
(C) 120 (D) 153 (C) 24 o"kZ (D) 22 o"kZ
73. fn;k x;k gS 79. ,d o`Ùk dh f=T;k ,d oxZ dh Hkqtk gSA o`Ùk vkSj oxZ ds
13 12 02 {ks=Qyksa dk vuqikr gSA
(A) :1 (B) 2 :
23 32 12
(C) : 2 (D) : 3
33 62 32
…. 80. A ,oa B ,d dk;Z dks 30 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA B ,oa
….
C fey dj mls 20 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA A dk;Z
vkjaHk djrk gS 5 fnuksa rd dk;Z djrk gS rc B ml
6 n2 m2
3
dk;Z dks ys ysrk gS vkSj 15 fnuksa rd dk;Z djrk gSA
Rkks m + n dk eku D;k gksxk\ var esa C mls 18 fnuksa esa iwjk djrk gSA C vyx ls
(A) 32 (B) 36 dk;Z djrs gq, ml dk;Z dks vdsys fdrus fnuksa esa iwjk
(C) 35 (D) 37 dj ldrk gS\
(A) 20 fnu (B) 24 fnu
74. /ofu rjaxksa ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku
xyr gS\ (C) 30 fnu (D) 40 fnu
(A) Hkwdai ds eq[; >Vds 'kq: gksus ls igys mPp vko`fÙk 81. Hkkjr ds orZeku eq[; pquko vk;qDr dkSu gS\a
ds vYVªklkmaM mRiUu djrs gSa tks laHkor% thoksa dks (A) lq'khy panz (B) lquhy vjksM+k
lpsr djrk gSA
(C) vkse izdk'k jkor (D) lqdqekj lsu
(B) MkWfYQu] pexknM+ vkSj lhy rFkk lwalksa }kjk
vYVªklkmaM mRiUu fd;k tkrk gSA 82. 15 vizSy] 2021 dks jk"Vªh; LVkVZvi lykgdkj ifj"kn
(C) 20 KHz ls vf/kd /ofu rjaxksa dh vko`fÙk;ksa dks dh igyh cSBd dh v/;{krk fdlus dh \
vYVªklksfud /ofu rjax dgk tkrk gSA (A) izdk'k tkoM+sdj
(D) euq"; ds fy, /ofu dh JO; lhek yxHkx 20 gV~tZ (B) jfo 'kadj izlkn
ls 20000 gV~tZ rd gksrh gSA
(C) ih;w"k xks;y
75. ^usfVo eSfjt ,DV* fdl o"kZ ikfjr fd;k x;k Fkk\ (D) vfer 'kkg
(A) 1870 (B) 1872
83. vyksd us Ldwy ds igys lIrkg ds nkSjku ,d eSFk
(C) 1874 (D) 1876 Dyc ‘kq: fd;kA ,dek= lnL; ds :i esa] mUgksaus
76. eklisf'k;ksa dh Fkdku _______ ds lap;u ds dkj.k gksrh Ldwy ds vxys lIrkg ds nkSjku nks u, lnL;ksa dh
gSA HkrhZ djus dk fu.kZ; fy;kA izR;sd u, lnL;] lIrkg
(A) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM ds ckn ds lIrkg ds nkSjku tc og lnL; cu tkrk
gS] rks nks u, lnL;ksa dh HkrhZ djrk gSA ik¡p lIrkg
(B) dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
ds var esa Dyc ds fdrus lnL; gksaxs \
(C) fØ,fVu QkWLQsV
(A) 8 (B) 16
(D) ySfDVd vEy
(C) 24 (D) 32
71. 'Divaso' is celebrated by Dhodia and Varli 77. The environment modified by human
tribes of ________. activities is called
(A) Andaman & Nicobar islands (A) Natural environment
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (B) Anthropogenic environment
(C) Puducherry (C) Urban environment
(D) Lakshadweep (D) Modern environment
72. Choose the correct alternative from the given 78. In a family of 5 members, the average age at
options that will complete the series. present is 33 years. The youngest member is
6, 24, 60, ? , 210, 236 9 years old. The average age of the family
just before the birth of the youngest member
(A) 116 (B) 112
was
(C) 120 (D) 153
(A) 30 yrs (B) 26 yrs
73. Given : (C) 24 yrs (D) 22 yrs
3 2 2
1 1 0
79. The radius of a circle is a side of a square.
23 32 12 The ratio of the areas of the circle and the
square is
33 62 32
(A) :1 (B) 2 :
….
(C) : 2 (D) : 3
….
63 n 2 m 2 80. A and B together can do a piece of work in
30 days. B and C together can do it in 20
What is the value of m + n ?
days. A starts the work and works on it for 5
(A) 32 (B) 36 days, then B takes up and works for 15 days.
(C) 35 (D) 37 Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. The
number of days in which C alone can do the
74. Which of the following statements regarding
work when doing it separately is :-
soundwaves is incorrect ?
(A) 20 days (B) 24 days
(A) Earthquakes produce high frequency
ultrasound before the main shockwaves (C) 30 days (D) 40 days
begin which possibly alerts the animals.
81. Who is the current Chief Election
(B) Ultrasound is produced by dolphins, bats Commissioner of India ?
and porpoises.
(A) Sushil Chandra (B) Sunil Arora
(C) Frequencies of sound waves higher than
20 KHz are called ultrasonic sound (C) Om Prakash Rawat (D) Sukumar Sen
waves.
82. Who chaired the first meeting of the National
(D) The audible range of sound for human Startup Advisory Council on April 15, 2021
beings extends from about 20 Hz and
20000 Hz. (A) Prakash Javadekar
(B) Ravi Shankar Prasad
75. In which year was the 'Native Marriage Act'
(C) Piyush Goyal
passed ?
(D) Amit Shah
(A) 1870 (B) 1872
(C) 1874 (D) 1876 83. Alok started a Math Club during the first
week of school. As the only member, he
76. Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation decided to recruit two new members during
of - the following week of school. Each new
(A) Carbon monoxide member, during the week following the week
(B) Carbon dioxide when he or she became a member, recruits
two new members. How many members will
(C) Creatine phosphate
the club have at the end of five weeks ?
(D) Lactic acid
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
87. jke 300 fdåehå (km) dh ;k=k va”kr% jsy ,oa va”kr% (A) 20 (B) 25
dkj ls djrk gSA ml ;k=k esa mls 4 ?kaVs yxrs gSa] ;fn (C) 30 (D) 40
og 60 fdåehå jsy ls tk, vkSj “ks’k dkj lsA mlh ;k=k
esa mls 10 feuV vf/kd yxsaxs ;fn og 100 fdåehå 94. nks O;atdksa dk tksM+ ,oa varj Øe'k% 5x 2 x 4 ,oa
jsy ls vkSj “ks’k dkj ls tk,A rn~uqlkj jsy dh xfr x 2 9x 10 gSaA mu nks O;atuksa dk egÙke lekioÙkZd
fdruh gS \ (HCF) gksxk \
98. ,d leyac csyukdkj crZu] ikuh ls Hkjk gqvk gSA mlh 100. ,d fHkUu ds va'k esa ls 4 ?kVkus ij vkSj gj esa 1 tksM+us
ikuh dks j[kus ds fy,] ml cÙkZu ds cjkcj O;kl rFkk 1
ij og cu tkrh gSA ;fn mlh fHkUu ds va'k rFkk
špkbZ okys fdrus yac 'kadqvksa dh vko';drk gksxh \ 6
22 1
( ys)a gj esa Øe'k% 2 rFkk 1 tksM+ fn, tk,a] rks og cu
7 3
(A) 6 (B) 2 tkrh gSA rnuqlkj mlds va'k rFkk gj dk y?kqÙke
(C) 3 (D) 5 lekioR;Z fdruk gksxk \
(A) 14 (B) 350
99. ,d yEc o`Ùkh; csyu] ,d v/kZ xksyk vkSj ,d yac o`Ùkh;
(C) 5 (D) 70
'kadq ,d gh vk/kkj ij fLFkr gSa vkSj mudh špkbZ cjkcj
gSA muds vk;ru dk vuqikr gS
(A) 3 : 6 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 1 : 4
egRoiw.kZ funsZ”k
Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr funsZ'kksa dks lko/kkuhiwoZd i<+s %
1. Ikjh{kkFkhZ;ksa dks lykg nh tkrh gS fd os ijh{kk le;] iz”uksa dh la[;k vkSj vf/kdre vad tks cqdysV ds “kh’kZ ij vafdr
gS mls lko/kkuhiwoZd tkap dj ysa rFkk blds vykok izR;sd vuqHkkx ds “kh’kZ ij vafdr iz”uksa dh la[;k ,oa vad dh Hkh
tkap dj ysaA
2. ijh{kk izkjaHk gksus ds rqjar ckn vki bl iz”ui= dh tk¡p vo”; dj ysa fd blesa fcuk dksbZ Nik] QVk ;k NwVk gqvk i`’B
vFkok iz”u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gS rks bls mlh fo’k;@in ds iz”ui= Js.kh ls cny ysaA
3. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV esa lgh LFkku ij iz”ui= Js.kh A, B, C ;k D ;Fkk LFkku ij Li’V :i ls vafdr djsaA
4. fyf[kr ijh{kk dk iz'ui= f}Hkk"kh ¼fgUnh@vaxzsth½ esa gS vkSj vkosnd ds ikl nks Hkk"kk esa ls fdlh ,d esa ijh{kk nsus dk
fodYi gksxkA n~foHkkf’kd ¼fgUnh@vaxzsth½ esa fdlh Hkh izdkj dk Hkze gksus dh fLFkfr esa vaxzsth Hkk’kk gh ekU; gksxhA
5. dsoy uhyk@dkyh L;kgh ds ckWy IokbaV isu dk iz;ksx vks,evkj mÙkj “khV ij cDls Hkjus vkSj vksoYl dks Hkjus ds fy,
djsaA isafly dk mi;ksx ugha djsaA
6. ;g ijh{kk oLrqfu"B izdkj dh gSA lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gSaA
7. iz”u i= esa nks Hkkx gSaA izR;sd Hkkx esa fuEufyf[kr fo’k;ksa ij iz”u gSa %
xzqi , % Lis”kykbTM VWfid (50 vad) – 25 iz”u
izR;sd iz”u nks vad dk gSA izR;s d lgh mÙkj ds fy, 2 vad feysaxsA tcfd xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1@2 vad dVkSrh dh
tk;sxhA
xzqi ch % tujy baVsfytsal ,aM jhtfuax] DokafVVsfVo ,IVhV~;wM] tujy bafXy”k ,aM tujy vos;jusl (75 vad) – 75 iz”u
izR;sd iz”u ,d vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, 1 vad feysaxsA tcfd xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1@4 vad dVkSrh dh
tk;sxhA
8. izR;sd iz”u ds fy, pkj mÙkj fn, x;s gSaA buesa ls dsoy ,d lgh mÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki vks,evkj mÙkj “khV ij
vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA
9. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV iqfLrdk dh bysDVªkWfud e”khu }kjk tk¡p dh tk,sxhA ;fn vki bls eksM+ nsrs gSa@ LVsiy dj nsrs
gSa@ bl ij fdlh izdkj dk fu”kku yxk nsrs gSa@ blds vksoYl dks iwjh rjg ugha Hkjrsa gSa vFkok bl ij jQ odZ dj
nsrs gSa] rks bl vks,evkj mÙkj “khV dks vekU; ?kksf’kr dj fn;k tk,xk ftldh ftEesokjh mEehnokj dh gkssxhA
10. jQ dk;Z ds fy, iz”ui= ds [kkyh LFkku dk iz;ksx djsaA blds fy, vU; dkxt dh vuqefr ugha gS vkSj u gh iznku
fd;k tk,xkA
11. lknk dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] ykWx Vscy] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj] lsy Qksu] istj] ?kM+h ;k fdlh vU; izdkj ds bysDVªkWfud
midj.kksa dks ijh{kk d{k esa ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA dksbZ vH;FkhZ bu fuf"k) oLrqvksa dk bLrseky djrs ik, tk,xk
;k ftuds ikl ls ;s phtsa cjken gksaxh] vFkok tks udy djus ;k izfr:i.k ;k vU; vuqfpr O;ogkjksa esa fyIr ik,a tk,axs]
os v;ksX; dj fn, tk,axs rFkk mu ij n.MkRed dkjZokbZ Hkh dh tk ldrh gSA
12. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV] izos”k i= esa fn;s x;s funsZ”kksa ds lkFk Åij fn;s x;s funsZ”kksa dks vPNh rjg i<+us ds ckn gh vks,evkj
mÙkj “khV dks Hkjsa@fy[ksaA
13. Ikjh{kkFkhZ;ksa dks dkcZu vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= iznku fd;k tk;sxkA mUgsa ewy izfr ifjos{kd dks tek djuh gksxh vkSj Ikjh{kkFkhZ
dh dkcZu dkWih vius lkFk ys tk;saxsA Ikjh{kkFkhZ dks ijh{kk ds var esa fujh{kd dks iz'u iqfLrdk tek djuh gksxhA vH;fFkZ;ksa
dks ijh{kk gkWy ls iz”u iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
14. d`i;k vius jksy uaacj ,oa jftLVª”s ku uacj dks Hkfo’; ds fy, uksV dj ysa] D;ksafd vkidk izo”s k i= vkils okil ys fy;k
tk,xkA
Note : English version of the instruction is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.